Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2)
Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 9 November, 2014
Paper-I General Intelligence
Directions-(Q. 1 to 5) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
1. CE, GI, KM, OQ, ?
(A) TW
(B) TV
(C) SU
(D) RT
2. R, O, L, I, F, ?
(A) C
(B) A
(C) E
(D) I
3. 3, 15, 4, 16, 5, 17, 6, ?, 7.
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 15
(D) 18
4. 68, 81, 96, ?, 132.
(A) 105
(B) 110
(C) 113
(D) 130
5. 121, 253, 374, 495, ?.
(A) 565
(B) 523
(C) 5116
(D) 5102
6. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
_cb_ca_bacb_ca_bac_d
(A) b a d d d b
(B) b b b d d d
(C) a d d d d b
(D) a d d b b b
7. Mani is double the age of Prabhu. Ramona is half the age of Prabbu. If Mani is sixty, find out the age of Ramona-
(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 24
8. A family consisted of a man, his wife, his three sons, their wives and three children in each son’s family. How many members are there in the family?
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 15
(D) 17
9. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word-
INFLATIONARY
(A) FLAIR
(B) FAULTY
(C) NATIONAL
(D) RATION
10. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how is PEARL coded as?
(A) 29530
(B) 24153
(C) 25413
(D) 25430
11. If the word PRINCIPAL is written as LAPICNIRP, how ADOLESCENCE can be written in that code?
(A) ECNCESELODA
(B) ECNECSLEODA
(C) ECNSCEELODA
(D) ECNECSELODA
12. Let, J = 1, K = 2, L = 5, M = 7, N = 11, O = 13, P = 17.
Find the letter to be inserted in the box in the relation given-
(N × □ + M) ÷ K = 31
(A) L
(B) P
(C) J
(D) O
13. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation-
2 × 3 × 4 = 432, 5 × 6 × 7 = 765
7 × 8 × 9 = 987, 2 × 5 × 7 = ?
(A) 572
(B) 752
(C) 725
(D) 257
14. The overall rainfall in certain region of India decreases year after Find out from the data the trend in decrease-
(A) 6 mm
(B) 7 mm
(C) 5 mm
(D) 8 mm
Directions-(Q. 15 and 16) Select the missing number from the given responses.
15. 
(A) 444
(B) 515
(C) 343
(D) 373
16. 
(A) 9
(B) 40
(C) 7
(D) 36
17. Raju was to go to the planetarium. So, he walked 1.5 km towards east from the place and then turned to right and walked 2.5 km and then turned towards east walked 1 km and turned to south and walked 4 km and reached the place by walking 2.5 km towards west. What distance is he from the starting point?
(A) 6.5 km
(B) 9.5 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 9 km
18. A cyclist rides 40 km to the east, turns north and rides 20 km, again turns left and rides 20 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 28.28 km
(B) 10 km
(C) 20 km
(D) 30 km
Directions-(Q. 19 and 20) Three statements are given followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the three statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
19. Statements :
(1) Rabindranath Tagore wrote many poems
(2) Every poet has aesthetic knowledge.
(3) Aesthetic is a part of axiological study.
Conclusions:
(I) Rabindranath Tagore did different axiological study.
(II) He followed the base of logic and ethics.
(A) Only conclusion I
(B) Both conclusions I and II
(C) Only conclusion II
(D) None of these
20. Statements :
(1) All clerks are superintendents.
(2) All superintendents are managers.
(3) All managers are supervisors.
Conclusions:
(I) All supervisors are clerks.
(II) Some clerks are supervisors.
(III) Some managers are clerks.
(IV) All superintendents are clerks.
(A) Only conclusions I
(B) Only conclusion II
(C) Only conclusion III
(D) Only conclusion IV
Directions-(Q. 21 to 29) Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
21. Maharashtra : India :: Texas : ?
(A) Canada
(B) Mexico
(C) Brazil
(D) USA
22. Qualm : Nausea :: Burn : ?
(A) Fresh
(B) Sear
(C) Sensible
(D) Wet
23. Heart : Cardiologist :: Kidney : ?
(A) Endocrinologist
(B) Orthodontist
(C) Nephrologist
(D) Neurologist
24. DEF : EFD :: FGH : ?
(A) FHG
(B) HGF
(C) HFG
(D) GHF
25. AZB : CYD :: EXF : ?
(A) GWH
(B) FGV
(C) TMR
(D) QSV
26. HGUOR : HTOOMS :: ? : REDNET
(A) TOUGH
(B) THOUGH
(C) HUGOT
(D) HGUOT
27. 7 : 24 :: ?
(A) 30 : 100
(B) 23 : 72
(C) 19 : 58
(D) 11 : 43
28. 12 : 140 :: 156 : ?
(A) 1820
(B) 1500
(C) 1250
(D) 1121
29. 64 : 4 :: ? : 9
(A) 18
(B) 729
(C) 81
(D) 144
Directions-(Q. 30 to 37) Find the odd word/number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
30.
(A) Poland
(B) Korea
(C) Spain
(D) Greece
31.
(A) Polaris
(B) Nike
(C) Crux
(D) Phoenix
32.
(A) Chameleon
(B) Crocodile
(C) Alligator
(D) Locust
33.
(A) B C D G
(B) G I J L
(C) P R S U
(D) U W X Z
34.
(A) M K H B D
(B) G F K H C
(C) B D F A T
(D) X V R P I
35.
(A) D C E B
(B) P N Q S T
(C) V K H G M
(D) W P Z L H
36.
(A) 1625
(B) 3649
(C) 6481
(D) 5025
37.
(A) 512
(B) 625
(C) 1296
(D) 2401
38. Find the wrong number in the series-
30, 27, 36, 45, 72
(A) 30
(B) 27
(C) 36
(D) 72
Directions-(Q. 39 to 41) Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
39. (1) Reading (2) Listening
(3) Writing (4) Speaking
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3
(B) 2, 4, 3, 1
(C) 2, 4, 1, 3
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
40. (1) Adulthood (2) Infancy
(3) Childhood (4) Adolescence
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 2, 4, 3, 1
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
41. (1) Curd (2) Milk
(3) Butter milk (4) Cow
(5) Ghee (6) Butter
(A) 2, 5, 6, 4, 1, 3
(B) 4, 6, 2, 1, 3, 5
(C) 4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5
(D) 2, 6, 4, 5, 3, 1
42. How many rectangles are there in the question figure?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
43. Among the four answer figures, which figure can be formed from the cutpieces given below in the question figure?
Directions-(Q. 44 and 45) Which one of the following diagrams represents the correct relation-ship among?
44. Lion, Fox and Carnivorous
45. Manager, Labour Union and Worker
46. Which answer figure will complete the question figure?
47. Which of the answer figures is embedded in the question figure?
48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column e.g., A can be represented by 01, 20, 42 etc. and H can be represented by 65, 57, 98 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given in the question.
‘FAITH’
(A) 24, 31, 10, 59, 57
(B) 12, 20, 40, 68, 65
(C) 31, 34, 23, 76, 79
(D) 43, 42, 41, 78, 89
For Visually Handicapped Candidates only
Directions-(Q. 42 to 45) Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
42. Earthworm : Mud :: Crab : ?
(A) Sea
(B) Water
(C) Sand
(D) Bank
43. Peacock : India :: Bear : ?
(A) Australia
(B) America
(C) Russia
(D) England
44. UTS : EDC :: WVU : ?
(A) XWV
(B) WYZ
(C) SJM
(D) RPO
45. 3 : 11 :: 5 : ?
(A) 18
(B) 27
(C) 15
(D) 31
Directions-(Q. 46 and 47) Find the odd word/number/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
46.
(A) Potassium
(B) Gallium
(C) Germanium
(D) Zirconium
47.
(A) Tomato
(B) Cucumber
(C) Gourd
(D) Potato
48. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series-
FDBZ, GECA, MKIG, PNLJ, ?
(A) WVTR
(B) WUSQ
(C) WUSR
(D) JHFD
Directions-(Q. 49 and 50) Find the which one is different from the rest of the following.
49. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100, 111.
(A) 25
(B) 111
(C) 36
(D) 100
50. 2, 2, 4, 12, 48, 192, 1440.
(A) 48
(B) 192
(C) 12
(D) 1440
Part-II
English Language
Directions-In Question No. 1 to 5 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
1. Veteran
(A) Activist
(B) Enthusiast
(C) Novice
(D) Master
2. Superfluous
(A) Essential
(B) Excess
(C) Unwanted
(D) Necessary
3. Equilibrium
(A) Work out
(B) Disturb
(C) Imbalance
(D) Unevenness
4. Immortal
(A) Eternal
(B) Permanent
(C) Deathly
(D) Temporary
5. Focus
(A) Disappear
(B) Disperse
(C) Link
(D) Layer
Directions-In question Nos. 6 to 10 out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
6. Vivacious
(A) Imaginary
(B) Lively
(C) Perceptible
(D) Languid
7. Sporadic
(A) Timely
(B) Scattered
(C) Frequent
(D) Irrelevant
8. Persevere
(A) Fickle
(B) Persist
(C) Constant
(D) Polite
9. Petition
(A) Rotation
(B) Administration
(C) Appeal
(D) Vocation
10. Proposition
(A) Intimation
(B) Protestation
(C) Proposal
(D) Invitation
Directions-In Questions Nos. 11 to 15, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
11. In his salad days he was quite a dandy.
(A) childhood
(B) adolescence
(C) school days
(D) old age
12. He is cool about working at night.
(A) ready to work
(B) not ready to work
(C) excited about working
(D) grudgingly working
13. You cannot throw dust into my eyes.
(A) terrify me
(B) cheat me
(C) hurt me
(D) abuse me
14. He spoke well though it was his maiden speech.
(A) long speech
(B) first speech
(C) brief speech
(D) emotional speech
15. The students were all ears, when the speaker started talking about the changes in the exam.
(A) smiling
(B) silent
(C) restless
(D) attentive
Directions-In Question Nos. 16 to 20, apart of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
16. One cannot be indifferent to one’s health, can’t one
(A) can’t be ?
(B) can one ?
(C) isn’t it ?
(D) No improvement
17. The mother with her children were
(A) was
(B) will
(C) have
(D) No improvement
18. Sohan is pleased at the news yesterday.
(A) has been pleased
(B) had been pleased
(C) was pleased
(D) No improvement
19. She did not like the movie, nor I did.
(A) nor did I.
(B) nor I like it.
(C) nor did I like it.
(D) No improvement
20. Old habits die hardly
(A) hard
(B) too hard
(C) much hardly
(D) No improvement
Directions-In Question Nos. 21 to 25, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
21. An allowance made to a wife by her husband, when they are legally separated.
(A) Alimony
(B) Parsimony
(C) Matrimony
(D) Honorarium
22. Wild imagination.
(A) Whim
(B) Fantasy
(C) Fancy
(D) Memory
23. A poem of fourteen lines.
(A) Ballad
(B) Psalm
(C) Sonnet
(D) Carol
24. Incapable of error.
(A) Erroneous
(B) Incorrigible
(C) Unbeatable
(D) Infallible
25. One who believes everything he or she hears.
(A) Credulous
(B) Credible
(C) Creditable
(D) Credential
Directions-In Question to Nos. 26 to 30, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
26.
(A) Laibertarian
(B) Libertarian
(C) Liebertarian
(D) Liberterian
27.
(A) Emphetic
(B) Emphattic
(C) Emphatick
(D) Emphatic
28.
(A) Mountainer
(B) Mountaineer
(C) Mounteener
(D) Mountineer
29.
(A) Happened
(B) Happenned
(C) Hapened
(D) Hapenned
30.
(A) Sentimantalist
(B) Sentimentelist
(C) Sentimentalist
(D) Santimentalist
Directions – In Question Nos. 31 to 40, in the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.
Delhi …(31)… the capital of India. People from all parts of the country and the world …(32)… to Delhi. There …(33)… many historical buildings. People …(34)… the Rajghat, Shantivan and Vijayghat. We visited Delhi last year …(35)… our cousins. There …(36)… many other historical cities. Agra …(37)… one of them. We …(38)… visit Agra and Jaipur next time. The Red Fort of Delhi and the Hawa Mahal of Jaipur were …(39)… famous for their Mughal …(40)… Rajasthani architecture respectively.
31.
(A) was
(B) are
(C) is
(D) were
32.
(A) came
(B) comes
(C) come
(D) coming
33.
(A) has
(B) were
(C) is
(D) are
34.
(A) visit
(B) visited
(C) visiting
(D) visits
35.
(A) for
(B) on
(C) of
(D) with
36.
(A) is
(B) are
(C) were
(D) was
37.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) is
(D) were
38.
(A) will
(B) would
(C) could
(D) can
39.
(A) much
(B) very
(C) too
(D) more
40.
(A) either
(B) because
(C) or
(D) and
Directions-In Question Nos. 41 to 45, some parts of sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the circle [●] corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.
41. A interesting book (A)/’A Tale of two cities’ (B)/ was written by Alexander Dumas. (C)/ No error (D)
42. In India (A)/ there are (B)/ many poors. (C)/ No error (D)
43. I worked (A)/ as medical representative (B)/ for eight months. (C)/ No error (D)
44. Shakespe are has written (A)/ many plays (B)/ as well as some poetries. (C)/ No error (D)
45. Neither of the girls (A)/ were willing to (B)/ (C)/ accept the proposal. No error (D)
Directions – In Question Nos. 46 to 50, sentences given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle [●] in the Answer Sheet.
46. There is no …….. evidence to support your assertion.
(A) facile
(B) fictitious
(C) facetious
(D) factual
47. Throw a stone ……….. the fierce dog.
(A) at
(B) upon
(C) on
(D) above
48. Is not learning superior ……… wealth?
(A) than
(B) from
(C) by
(D) to
49. A group of agitators …….. the mob to break down the Vice-Chancellor’s door.
(A) wished
(B) excited
(C) threatened
(D) incited
50. Turn the lights ……….. before you go to bed.
(A) on
(B) off
(C) out
(D) down
Part-III
Quantitative Aptitude
1. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs 8,000. The average salary of 7 technicians is Rs 12,000 and the average salary of the rest is Rs 6,000. The total number of workers in the workshop is-
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23
2. 3 years ago the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years. A baby having been born, the average age of the family is the same today. The present age of the baby is-
(A) 1 year
(B) 
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years
3. A total profit of Rs 3,600 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C such that A : B = 5 : 4 and B : C = 8 : 9. The share of C in the profit is-
(A) Rs 1,200
(B) Rs 1,500
(C) Rs 1,650
(D) Rs 1,700
4. A man sold his watch at a loss of 5%. Had the sold it for Rs 56.25 more he would have gained 10%. What is the cost price of the watch (in Rs)?
(A) 370
(B) 365
(C) 375
(D) 390
5. 1% of 1% of 25% of 1000 is-
(A) .025
(B) .0025
(C) .25
(D) .000025
6. The population of a village increases by 5% annually. If its present population is 4410, then its population 2 years ago was-
(A) 4, 500
(B) 4,000
(C) 3,800
(D) 3,500
7. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 
will be covered by A in-
(A) 15 minutes
(B) 20 minutes
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 1 hour
8. A sum of Rs 210 was taken as a loan. This is to be paid back in two equal installments. If the rate of interest be 10% compounded annually, then the value of each installment is-
(A) Rs 127
(B) Rs 121
(C) Rs 210
(D) Rs 225
9. The area of a square park is 25 sq. km. The time taken to complete a round of the field once, at a speed of 3 km/hr is-
(A) 4 hours 60 minutes
(B) 4 hours 50 minutes
(C) 6 hours 40 minutes
(D) 5 hours 40 minutes
10. The external fencing of a circular path around a circular plot of land is 33 m more than its interior fencing. The width of the path around the plot is-
(A) 5.52 m
(B) 5.25 m
(C) 2.55 m
(D) 2.25 m
11. A horse takes 
to compete a round around a circular field. If the speed of the horse was 66 m/sec, then the radius of the field is- [ Given π = 22/7]
(A) 25.62 m
(B) 26.52 m
(C) 25.26 m
(D) 26.25 m
12. A flask in the shape of a right circular cone of height 24 cm is filled with water. The water is poured in a right circular cylindrical flask whose radius is 1/3rd of the radius of the base of the circular cone. Then the height of the water in the cylindrical flask is-
(A) 32 cm
(B) 24 cm
(C) 48 cm
(D) 72 cm
13. If the three medians of a triangle are same, then the triangle is-
(A) equilateral
(B) isosceles
(C) right-angled
(D) obtuse-angled
14. If 
then the value of 
is –
(A) 4/3
(B) 3/2
(C) 5/2
(D) 5/3
15. Which one of the following is true?
(A) √5 + √3 > √6 + √2
(B) √5 + √3 < √6 + √2
(C) √5 + √3 = √6 + √2
(D) (√5 + √3) (√6 + √2) = 1
16. If 
and x + y + z ≠ 0, then each ratio is-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
17. If 
then value of x4 – 2x2y2 + y4 is-
(A) 24
(B) 4
(C) 16
(D) 8
18. If x = 3 + 2√2, then 
is equal to-
(A) 216
(B) 192
(C) 198
(D) 204
19. The perimeters of two similar triangles ∆ABC and ∆PQR are 36 cm and 24 cm respectively. If PQ = 10 cm, the AB is-
(A) 15 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 14 cm
(D) 26 cm
20. If the sides of a right-angled triangle are three consecutive integers, then the length of the smallest side is-
(A) 3 units
(B) 2 units
(C) 4 units
(D) 5 units
21. Two circles intersect each other at the points A and B. A straight line parallel to AB intersects the circle at C, D E and F. If CD = 4.5 cm, then the measure of EF is-
(A) 1.50 cm
(B) 2.25 cm
(C) 4.50 cm
(D) 9.00 cm
22. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 1440°. The number of sides of the polygon is-
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 12
23. In ∆ABC, D and E are two points on the sides AB and AC respectively so that DE || BC and 
Then 
is equal to-
(A) 5/9
(B) 21/25
(C) 
(D) 
24. The value of 
is-
(A) −1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2
25. If θ is a positive acute angle and 4cos2 θ – 4 cos θ + 1 = 0, then the value of tan (θ – 15°) is equal to-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) √3
(D) 1/√3
26. If (r cos θ – √3)2 + (r sin θ – 1)2 = 0, then the value of 
is equal to-
(A) 4/5
(B) 5/4
(C) √3/4
(D) √5/4
27. A vertical pole and a vertical tower are standing on the same level ground. Height of the pole is 10 metres. From the top of the pole the angle of elevation of the top of the tower and angle of depression of the foot of the tower are 60° and 30° The height of the tower is-
(A) 20 m
(B) 30 m
(C) 40 m
(D) 50 m
28. Ram left 1/3 of his property to his widow and 3/5 of the remainder to his daughter. He gave the rest to his son who received Rs 6,400. How much was h is original property worth?
(A) Rs 16,000
(B) Rs 32,000
(C) Rs 24,000
(D) Rs 1,600
29. The first term of an Arithmetic Progression is 22 and the last term is –11. If the sum is 66, the number of terms in the sequence are-
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 8
30. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 44 and 264 respectively. If the first number is divided by 2, the quotient is 44. The other number is-
(A) 147
(B) 528
(C) 132
(D) 264
31. A teacher wants to arrange his students in an equal number of rows and columns. If there are 1369 students, the number of students in the last row are-
(A) 37
(B) 33
(C) 63
(D) 47
32. If 
then the value of 
(A) 3/7
(B) 
(C) 1
(D) 2
33. A and B working separately can do a piece of work in 9 and 15 days respectively. If they work for a day alternately, with A beginning, then the work will be completed in-
(A) 10 days
(B) 11 days
(C) 9 days
(D) 12 days
34. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 min. and 45 min. Respectively. Another pipe C can empty the tank in 30 min. First A and B are opened. After 7 minutes, C is also opened. The tank is filled up in-
(A) 39 min.
(B) 46 min.
(C) 40 min.
(D) 45 min.
35. If the sum of the dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped is 24 cm an the length of the diagonal is 15 cm, then the total surface area of it is-
(A) 420 cm2
(B) 275 cm2
(C) 351 cm2
(D) 378 cm2
36. Area of a regular hexagon with side ’a’ is-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
37. The marked price of a saree is Rs 200. After allowing a discount of 20% on the marked price, the shopkeeper makes a profit of Rs 16. Find the gain per cent-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 11%
(D) 8%
38. The marked price of an item is twice the cost price. For a gain of 15%, the discount should be-
(A) 7.5%
(B) 20.5%
(C) 32.5%
(D) 42.5%
39. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 12 : 23. The small number is-
(A) 27
(B) 33
(C) 49
(D) 55
40. If x : y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is-
(A) 22 : 29
(B) 26 : 61
(C) 29 : 22
(D) 61 : 26
41. The length of the shadow of a vertical tower on level ground increase by 10 metres when the altitude of the sun changes from 45° to 30°. Then the height of the tower is-
(A) 5(√3 + 1) metres
(B) 5(√3 – 1) metres
(C) 5√3 metres
(D) 5/√3 metres
Directions-(Q. 42-45) Sales of Books (in thousands numbers) from Six Branches – B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of a Publishing Company in 2000 and 2001. Study the graph and answer the questions.
42. Total sale of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is-
(A) 250
(B) 310
(C) 435
(D) 560
43. Find the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch B4 for both years-
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 3 : 5
(C) 4 : 5
(D) 7 : 9
44. Percentage of the average sale of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 and the average sale of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000-
(A) 87.5
(B) 75
(C) 77.5
(D) 82.5
45. Find the percentage increase in the sales of books of branch B3 in the year 2001 than the branch B2-
(A) 69.2
(B) 50.8
(C) 40.9
(D) 65.7
Directions- (Q. 46-50) The diagram shows the age-distribution of the patients admitted to a hospital on a particular day. Study the diagram and answer the questions.
46. Number of patients of age between 55 years to 60 years, who got admitted to the hospital on that day is-
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 24
(D) 8
47. Total number of patients of age more than 55 years, who got admitted to the hospital is-
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 10
48. Number of patients of age more than 40 years and less than 55 years, who got admitted to the hospital on that day is-
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 15
(D) 12
49. Percentage of patients of age less than 45 years, who got admitted to the hospital on that day is approximately equal to-
(A) 14%
(B) 20%
(C) 37%
(D) 62%
50. About 11% of the patients who got admitted to the hospital on that particular day were of age-
(A) either between 35 years and 40 years or between 55 years and 60 years
(B) between 60 years and 65 years
(C) between 35 years and 40 years
(D) between 35 years and 40 years and between 55 years ad 60 years
For Visual Handicapped Candidates Only
42. If the simple interest and compound interest at the same rate of certain amount for 2 years are Rs 400 and Rs 420 respectively, then the rate of interest is-
(A) 12%
(B) 8%
(C) 10%
(D) 11%
43. Three friends divided Rs 624 among themselves in the ratio1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4 ; the share of third friend is-
(A) Rs 288
(B) Rs 192
(C) Rs 148
(D) Rs 144
44. In the expression xy2, the values of x and y are each decreased by 25%. The value of the expression is decreased by-
(A) 37/64 of its value
(B) 1/2 of its value
(C) 27/64 of its value
(D) 3/4 of its value
45. Rs 64,000 will amount to Rs 68,921 at 5% per annum and interest payable half yearly in-
(A) 
(B) 2 years
(C) 
(D) 
46. What is the value on an angle included between x-axis and y-axis in radian?
(A) π/6
(B) π/3
(C) π/4
(D) π/2
47. The value of 
is equal to-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
48. The value of (1,000,001)2 – (999.999)2 is=
(A) 2.000,000
(B) 4,000,000
(C) 6,000,000
(D) 8,000,000
49. The sum of the square of three consecutive natural numbers is 194. The sum of the numbers is-
(A) 24
(B) 27
(C) 21
(D) 30
50. A vessel is in the form of an inverted cone. Its height is 11 cm and radius of its top, which is open, is 2.5 cm. It is filled with water upto the rim. When lead shots, each of which is a sphere of radius 0.25 cm are dropped into the vessel, 2/5 of the water flows out. The number of lead shots dropped into the vessel is-
(A) 880
(B) 440
(C) 220
(D) 110
Part-IV
General Awareness
1. The original founder of the Manuscripts and Editor of Kautilya’s Arthashastra was-
(A) Srikanta Shastri
(B) Srinivasa Iyangar
(C) R. Shamashastri
(D) William Jones
2. Which of the following is the largest Biosphere Reserves of India?
(A) Nilgiri
(B) Nandadevi
(C) Sundarbans
(D) Gulf of Mannar
3. ISRO’s Master Control Facility is in-
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Odisha
(C) Gujarat
(D) Karnataka
4. India is the largest producer and exporter of-
(A) Cotton
(B) Copper
(C) Tea
(D) Mica
5. The soils which are rich in Calcium are known as-
(A) Pedocals
(B) Pedalfers
(C) Podsols
(D) Laterites
6. Cultivable land is defined as-
(A) land actually under crops
(B) cultivable waste land + fallow land
(C) old fallow lands + current fallow lands
(D) total fallow lands + net sown area
7. From which part of Opium plant we get morphine?
(A) Leaves
(B) Stem
(C) Bark
(D) Fruit coat
8. Which of the following is a Biological method of soil conservation?
(A) Contour farming
(B) Contour terracing
(C) Gully control
(D) Basin listing
9. Glucose is a type of-
(A) Pentose sugar
(B) Hexose sugar
(C) Tetrose sugar
(D) Diose sugar
10. Number of mitochondria in bacterial cell is-
(A) one
(B) two
(C) many
(D) zero
11. In cactus, the spines are the modified-
(A) stem
(B) stipules
(C) leaves
(D) buds
12. The smallest known prokaryotic organism is-
(A) Microcystic
(B) Mycoplasma
(C) Bacteria
(D) Chlorella
13. Rainbow is formed due to-
(A) refraction and dispersion
(B) scattering and refraction
(C) diffraction and refraction
(D) refraction and reflection
14. Golden view of sea shell is due to-
(A) Diffraction
(B) Dispersion
(C) Polarization
(D) Reflection
15. An object covers distance which is directly proportional to the square of the time. Its acceleration is-
(A) increasing
(B) decreasing
(C) zero
(D) constant
16. If the horizontal range of a projectile is four times its maximum height, the angle of projection is-
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) sin−1 (1/4)
(D) tan−1 (1/4)
17. Which place is called as ‘Silicon Valley’ of India?
(A) Delhi
(B) Pune
(C) Bengaluru
(D) Hyderabad
18. Telnet stands for-
(A) Telephone Network
(B) Television Network
(C) Teletype Network
(D) Telefax Network
19. Which of the following metals has least melting point?
(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Mercury
(D) Copper
20. The gas produced is marshy places due to decomposition of vegetation is-
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Methane
21. The boiling point of water decreases at higher altitudes is due to-
(A) low temperature
(B) low atmospheric pressure
(C) high temperature
(D) high atmospheric pressure
22. The chemical name of ‘Hypo’ commonly used in photography is-
(A) Sodium thiosulphate
(B) Silver nitrate
(C) Sodium nitrate
(D) Silver iodide
23. With what bio-region is the term ‘Steppe’ associated?
(A) Grasslands
(B) Tropical forests
(C) Savanna
(D) Coniferous forests
24. About how much of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest?
(A) 2 per cent
(B) 7 per cent
(C) 10 per cent
(D) 15 per cent
25. According to your text, what can “be thought of as the genetic library that keeps life going on Earth”?
(A) A bio-engineering lab
(B) Human genes
(C) The human genome project
(D) Biodiversity
26. The world’s growing appetite for what food product is a leading cause of tropical deforestation?
(A) Pork
(B) Sugar
(C) Lamb
(D) Beef
27. ‘Life Divine’ is a book written by-
(A) M. K. Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Shri Aurobindo
28. The Oscar Award was won 36 times by-
(A) Charlie Chaplin
(B) Alfred Hitchcock
(C) Walt Disney
(D) Akiro Kurosawa
29. ‘Meghdoot’ was written by-
(A) Humayun Kabir
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Banabhatta
(D) Kalidasa
30. Who among the following is a famous English writer?
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Mahadevi Verma
(C) Ashapurna Devi
(D) Mulk Raj Anand
31. The President of World Bank is-
(A) Jim Yong Kim
(B) Christine Lagarde
(C) Prema Cariappa
(D) Vijay L. Kelkar
32. Tulsidas wrote Ramcharitmanas in the reign of-
(A) Babar
(B) Akbar
(C) Aurangzeb
(D) Jahangir
33. Grammy Award is given in the field of-
(A) Acting
(B) Music
(C) Singing
(D) Boxing
34. The first woman to get the Bharat Ratna Award is-
(A) Mother Teresa
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Lata Mangeshkar
(D) Sarojini Naidu
35. Karl Marx wrote-
(A) Asian Drama
(B) Emma
(C) Das Kapital
(D) Good Earth
36. The religious text of the Jews is named is-
(A) The Analectus
(B) Torah
(C) Tripitaka
(D) Zend-Avesta
37. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Most workers will work for less than their reservation wage.
(B) The reservation wage is the maximum amount any firm will pay for a worker.
(C) Economic rent is the different between the market wage and the reservation wage.
(D) Economic rent is the amount one must pay to enter a desirable labour market.
38. Other things being equal, a decrease in quantity demanded of a commodity can be caused by-
(A) a rise in the price of the commodity
(B) a rise in the income of the consumer
(C) a fall in the price of the commodity
(D) a fall in the income of the consumer
39. Which of the following is not an economic problem?
(A) Deciding between paid work and leisure.
(B) Deciding between expenditure on one good and the other.
(C) Deciding between alternative methods of personal saving.
(D) Deciding between different ways of spending leisure time.
40. Which of the following occurs when labour productivity rises?
(A) The equilibrium nominal wage falls
(B) The equilibrium quantity of labour falls
(C) Competitive firms will be induced to use more capital
(D) The labour demand curve shifts to the right
41. Which of the following are consumer semidurable goods?
(A) Cars and television sets
(B) Milk and milk products
(C) Foodgrains and other food products
(D) Electrical appliance like fans and electric irons
42. In the provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there?
(A) 296
(B) 313
(C) 318
(D) 316
43. It was decided to observe Mahatma Gandhi’s birthday October 2 as the International Nonviolence Day at-
(A) International Indology Conference
(B) Satyagraha Centenary Conference
(C) Congress Foundation Day Celebration
(D) None of these
44. Who admits a new State to the Union of India?
(A) President
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Parliament
45. In which year were the States re-organized on a linguistic basis?
(A) 1951
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
46. Who has got the power to create All India Services?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) The Parliament
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Prime Minister
47. Which one of the following is the most lasting contribution of the Rastrakutas?
(A) Kailasha Temple
(B) Pampa, Ponna, Ranna, the three writers of Kannada Poetry and Kailasha Temple
(C) Patronage of Jainism
(D) Conquests
48. Ravikirti, a jain, who composed the Aihole Prashasti, was patronized by-
(A) Pulakeshi I
(B) Harsha
(C) Pulakeshi II
(D) Kharavela
49. The ‘Mein Kampf’ was written by-
(A) Hitler
(B) Mussolini
(C) Bismarck
(D) Mazzini
50. When did the reign of Delhi Sultanate came to an end?
(A) 1498 A.D.
(B) 1526 A.D.
(C) 1565 A.D.
(D) 1600 A.D.
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: