SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 10 November, 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 10 November, 2013
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 10 November, 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2)

1st Shift Tier-I Examination Held on 10 November, 2013


General Intelligence

Directions-(Q. 1-7) Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

1. BADC : XWZY : : QPSR : ?





Answer: (B)

2. 64 : 81 : : 8 : ?

(A)  9

(B)  6

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

3. 175 : 13 : : 108 : ?

(A)  8

(B)  9

(C)  6

(D)  7

Answer: (B)

4. Flower : Petal : : Book : ?

(A)  Author

(B)  Library

(C)  Page

(D)  Contents

Answer: (C)

5. Doctor : Hospital : : ?

(A)  Water : Reservoir

(B)  Farmer : Village

(C)  Plumber : Wrench

(D)  Chef : Kitchen

Answer: (D)

6. Patient : Hospital : : Car : ?

(A)  Garage

(B)  Office

(C)  Hanger

(D)  House

Answer: (A)






Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 8-11) Find the odd words/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.


(A)  Simplicity

(B)  Vanity

(C)  Humility

(D)  Modesty

Answer: (B)






Answer: (D)


(A)  19-61

(B)  24-76

(C)  12-39

(D)  16-52

Answer: (C)


(A)  Industry : Chairman-cum-Managing Director

(B)  Newspaper : Reporter

(C)  University : Vice-Chancellor

(D)  College : Principal

Answer: (B)

12. Find out the set among the four sets which is like the given set.

Given set is (63, 54, 45)

(A)  (28, 17, 8)

(B)  (36, 45, 33)

(C)  (29, 20, 11)

(D)  (30, 21, 11)

Answer: (C)

13. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

(1) Rain                (2) Sunlight

(3) Vapour            (4) Cloud

(A)  3, 2, 4, 1

(B)  2, 3, 4, 1

(C)  4, 1, 2, 3

(D)  2, 3, 1, 4

Answer: (C)

14. Arrange the following words as per order in the English dictionary-

(1) Activity          (2) Attention

(3) Arise               (4) Absent

(A)  2, 3, 4, 1

(B)  3, 2, 1, 4

(C)  4, 1, 3, 2

(D)  4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (C)

15. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?


(A)  baab

(B)  bbaa

(C)  abab

(D)  aabb

Answer: (A)

16. In the following letter series, how many P Q S occur in such a way, Q is in the middle and P and S are on any one side?



(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 17-19) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

17. 10, 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?

(A)  87

(B)  88

(C)  85

(D)  86

Answer: (B)

18. 0, 6, 20, 42, ?

(A)  72

(B)  76

(C)  82

(D)  81

Answer: (A)

19. ZIP, WIP, TIP, ?

(A)  QIP

(B)  SIP

(C)  PIP

(D)  RIP

Answer: (A)

20. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are brothers, ‘B’ is the daughter of ‘A’. ‘A’ is the wife of ‘Y’. What is the relation of ‘B’ to ‘X’?

(A)  Sister-in-law

(B)  Niece

(C)  Daughter

(D)  Sister

Answer: (B)

21. If W = 23, STRONG = 93, then WEAK = ?

(A)  40

(B)  41

(C)  38

(D)  44

Answer: (A)

22. If INTERNET is written as 1425423 and DISTANCE is written as 61738492, then what will CENTRE be written as?

(A)  852431

(B)  291534

(C)  124576

(D)  924352

Answer: (D)

23. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, when will Thursday be?

(A)  Day after tomorrow

(B)  Two days after tomorrow

(C)  Today

(D)  Tomorrow

Answer: (A)

24. Mohan is older than Prabir. Suresh is younger than Prabir. Mihir is plder than Suresh, but younger than Prabir. Who among the four is the youngest?

(A)  Mohan

(B)  Suresh

(C)  Prabir

(D)  Mihir

Answer: (B)

25. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of his son is-

(A)  20 years

(B)  18 years

(C)  14 years

(D)  22 years

Answer: (D)

26. If the seventh person from the front in a queue is the tenth person from behind, how many are there in the queue?

(A)  14

(B)  10

(C)  17

(D)  16

Answer: (D)

27. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.






Answer: (A)

28. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT, then DIRECTION will be coded as-





Answer: (C)

29. Some capital letters are given below in the first and number are assigned to each of them in the second line. The numbers are the codes for the letters and vice-versa.

M              O         E          A         S          J           T          Z

3               5          7          6          2          9          4          0

Choose the correct number code for the given set of letters.


(A)  9 7 0 5 3 4

(B)  9 7 0 4 3 2

(C)  9 7 0 4 3 5

(D)  9 7 0 3 4 5

Answer: (B)

30. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the word.






Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 31 and 32) Select the missing number from the given responses.


15   11      20

2     3        1         

5     6        7

35   39      ?

(A)  27

(B)  24

(C)  30

(D)  35

Answer: (A)


3     15      5

5     35      7

9     ?        5

(A)  45

(B)  25

(C)  42

(D)  35

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 33 and 34) Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.

33. If 882 = 20

and           996 = 26,

then          729 = ?

(A)  20

(B)  21

(C)  24

(D)  30

Answer: (A)

34. If 8 – 3 + 4 = 348, 9 – 6 + 8 = 689, then 5 – 9 + 6 = ?

(A)  596

(B)  956

(C)  659

(D)  965

Answer: (D)

35. Medha moves towards South-East for 7 km, then moves towards West for 14 km. Then she moves towards North-West for 7 km and finally moves a distance of 4 m East and stands there. How far is the starting point from where she stands now?

(A)  7 km

(B)  10 km

(C)  3 km

(D)  4 km

Answer: (B)

36. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘∗’ signs and to balance the given equation.

8 ∗ 6 ∗ 7 ∗ 3 ∗ 18

(A)  − + + =

(B)  + − ÷ =

(C)  + − + =

(D)  + + − =

Answer: (D)

37. If ‘÷’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘÷’, then

20 × 60 ÷ 40 – 20 + 10 = ?

(A)  60

(B)  80

(C)  0

(D)  40

Answer: (C)

38. A man starts walking from his college, walks 10 km towards North, then he t urns to his lefts and walks 10 km. From there he takes a right turn and walks 10 km. In which direction is he facing now?

(A)  East

(B)  West

(C)  South

(D)  North

Answer: (D)

39. Which of the conclusion can be drawn from the given statement?


Many creative persons become artists.

(A)  A high level of creativity is needed to become an artist

(B)  Some artists are creative persons

(C)  A creative person will certainly become an artist

(D)  It is not  possible to become an artist without creativity

Answer: (B)

40. Manisha is sitting in between Kamini and Suvarna. Smita is right to Suvarna. Kamini is left to Manisha, Select the correct seating order.

(A)  Kamini, Manisha, Smita, Suvarna

(B)  Kamini, Manisha, Suvarna, Smita

(C)  Kamini, Suvarna, Smita, Manisha

(D)  Manisha, Suvarna, Smita, Kamini

Answer: (B)

41. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer.


(1) Teachers are role models of the students.

(2) Teachers are responsible for developing scientific attitude in their students.


(I) Students do not have scientific attitude.

(II) By and large teachers can influence scientific attitude of the students.

(A)  Both conclusions I and II follow

(B)  Neither conclusions I nor II follows

(C)  Only conclusions I follows

(D)  Only conclusion II follows

Answer: (D)

42. The population of a city doubles every 6 years. If in 2005, the population is 10,562, by which year will the population increase to 42,248?

(A)  2017

(B)  2029

(C)  2011

(D)  2023

Answer: (A)

43. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones t hat will complete the series.

Answer: (A)

44. Select the related figure from the given alternatives.

Answer: (A)

45. Select the figure which is different from the rest three.

Answer: (A)

46. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below-

Sparrow, Bird, Cat

Answer: (C)

47. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Answer: (B)

48. Select the missing number from the given responses.

(A)  28

(B)  30

(C)  24

(D)  26

Answer: (D)

49. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the questions figure is hidden/embedded.

Answer: (D)

50. A piece of paper is folded and cut/punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (B)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

43. In a row of trees, one tree is the fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the row?

(A)  10

(B)  9

(C)  11

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

44. If ‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10, and a + b + c = 130, then (b + c) – a = ?

(A)  38

(B)  44

(C)  34

(D)  42

Answer: (C)

45. How many 7’s are there in the following number series which are preceded by an even number but not followed by any odd number?

4 3 7 5 2 3 7 2 1 3 6 7 5 4

2 7 4 2 7 1 2 2 7 6 5 7 2

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

46. In a board exam, 40% students fail in Maths 30% in Science and 15% in both. Find the passing percentage.

(A)  35%

(B)  50%

(C)  45%

(D)  65%

Answer: (C)

47. Find the wrong number in the given number series.

852, 213, 53, 13, 3

(A)  53

(B)  213

(C)  852

(D)  13

Answer: (C)

48. If rain is called water, water is called air, air is called cloud, cloud is called sky, sky is called sea, sea is called road, where do the aeroplanes fly?

(A)  Sea

(B)  Cloud

(C)  Water

(D)  Road

Answer: (A)

49. If ‘P’ denotes ‘+’, Q denotes ‘−’, ‘R’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘S’ denotes ‘×’, then what is the value of the following equation?

18 S 36 R 12 Q 6 P 7 = ?

(A)  648

(B)  25

(C)  115

(D)  55

Answer: (D)

50. A, B, C, D and E share some mangoes among themselves so that A gates one less than B, C gets 4 more than D, E gets 3 more than B,, and D gets as many as B. Who gets the least number of mangoes?

(A)  D

(B)  E

(C)  A

(D)  B

Answer: (C)


English Language

Directions-(Q. 51-55) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval (●) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

51. I had asked him (A)/ how he could go out (B)/if it started raining. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

52. Eighty-five thousand rupees (A)/ is a large sum of money (B)/ to earn in a month. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

53. His voice shook with emotion, (A)/ and it was so funny to hear him, (B)/ that all we longed to laugh and to cry. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

54. It being a rainy day (A)/ I will decide to skip work (B)/ and stay at home. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

55. Another baffling change (A)/ that I noticed in him nowdays (B)/ is that he avoids speaking to me. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 56-60) Sentences are given with blanks to be filed in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (●) in the Answer Sheet.

56. The …… of puppies is fond of milk.

(A)  group

(B)  litre

(C)  gang

(D)  litter

Answer: (D)

57. He ……………. his father.

(A)  takes off

(B)  takes out

(C)  takes back

(D)  takes after

Answer: (D)

58. Guard ………… spelling mistakes.

(A)  above

(B)  at

(C)  against

(D)  after

Answer: (C)

59. Make hay while the sum ……… .

(A)  was shining

(B)  has been shining

(C)  shines

(D)  is shining

Answer: (C)

60. The Prime Minister insisted …….. fuel prices in the Cabinet meeting.

(A)  in raising

(B)  at raising

(C)  to raise

(D)  on raising

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 61 and 62) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

61. Evade-

(A)  Pretend

(B)  Avoid

(C)  Vacate

(D)  Cheat

Answer: (B)

62. Impetuous-

(A)  Hasty           

(B)  Disturbing

(C)  Impious

(D)  Impressive

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 63 and 64) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

63. Felicity-

(A)  Mimicry

(B)  Infidelity

(C)  Innocence

(D)  Sorrow

Answer: (D)

64. Indomitable-

(A)  Arrogant

(B)  Cowardly

(C)  Adamant

(D)  Certain

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 65 and 66) Four words are given in the each questions, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.


(A)  Detireorate

(B)  Detiorrate

(C)  Deteriarate

(D)  Deteriorate

Answer: (D)


(A)  Acquiantance

(B)  Acquaintance

(C)  Acquaintence

(D)  Acquintance

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 67-69) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

67. He is in the habit of picking holes in

(A)  causing trouble to

(B)  asking questions about

(C)  delving deep into

(D)  finding fault with

Answer: (D)

68. The member took exception to the secretary’s remark about the current political situation in the State.

(A)  objected to

(B)  granted

(C)  accepted readily

(D)  laughed at

Answer: (A)

69. The die is cast and nothing can be done now.

(A)  The effect has worn out

(B)  The decision has been taken

(C)  The game has been played

(D)  There has been a failure

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 70-72) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

70. One who lives/survives on others/other lives-

(A)  Parasite

(B)  Refugee

(C)  Expatriate

(D)  Pesticide

Answer: (A)

71. One who possesses many talents-

(A)  Dexterous

(B)  Attractive

(C)  Versatile

(D)  Unique

Answer: (C)

72. Detailed plan of journey-

(A)  Schedule

(B)  Itinerary

(C)  Travelogue

(D)  Travel-kit

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 73 and 74) A part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

73. The Sat on the tree to protect herself from the rain.

(A)  sat before

(B)  sat under

(C)  sat upon

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

74. He argued endlessly with him on the subject.

(A)  argued all the time

(B)  argued continuously

(C)  argued on and on

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 75-79) A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sent3ence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

75. Her manners pleased us very much.

(A)  We pleased her very much with manners

(B)  We were very much pleased with her manners

(C)  We were very much pleased on her manners

(D)  We are very much pleased with her manners

Answer: (B)

76. They proposed to hold a meeting.

(A)  A meeting should be proposed to be held

(B)  It was proposed to hold a meeting

(C)  A meeting had to be proposed to be held by them

(D)  It was proposed by them to hold a meeting

Answer: (D)

77. I shall post these letters tomorrow.

(A)  These letters are to be posted tomorrow

(B)  These letters have to be posted tomorrow

(C)  These letters would be posted tomorrow

(D)  These letters will be posted tomorrow

Answer: (D)

78. A massive search operation has been launched to nab the suspects.

(A)  The police launched  a massive search operation to nab the suspects

(B)  The police had been launched a massive search operation to nab the suspects

(C)  The police had launched a massive search operation to nab the suspects

(D)  The police have launched a massive search operation to nab the suspects

Answer: (D)

79. The driver was blowing the horn.

(A)  The horn has been blown by the driver

(B)  The horn is being blown by the driver

(C)  The horn was blown by the driver

(D)  The horn was being blown by the driver

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 80-84) A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same in Indirect/Direct and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

80. I told her, “It was raining last night when you left.”

(A)  I told her that it has been raining the night before when she left

(B)  I told her that it had been raining last night when she had left

(C)  I told her that it had been raining the previous night when she had left

(D)  I told her that it was raining last night when she left

Answer: (C)

81. She said, “I shall try to bring you the books tomorrow.”

(A)  She said that she would try to bring me the books tomorrow

(B)  She said that she should try to bring me the books tomorrow

(C)  She said that she should try to bring me the books the next day

(D)  She said that she would try to bring me the books the next day

Answer: (D)

82. He said, “Alas ! The little puppy is run over by the car.”

(A)  He exclaimed sadly that the little puppy had been run over by the care

(B)  He exclaimed sadly that the little puppy is run over by the car

(C)  He exclaimed, alas, the little puppy was run over by the car

(D)  He exclaimed sadly that the little puppy was run over by the car

Answer: (D)

83. He said, “He took tea in the morning.”

(A)  He said the he took tea in the morning

(B)  He said that he would take tea in the morning

(C)  He said that he did take tea in the morning

(D)  He said that he had taken tea in the morning

Answer: (D)

84. He requested the boss to let him go on with his project.

(A)  He said to the boss, “Let me go on with my project please.”

(B)  He told the boss, “Go on with my project please.”

(C)  He said to the boss, “You better let me go on with my project.

(D)  He told the boss, “Please go on with my project.”

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 85-90) The Ist and the last sentences of the passage/parts of the sentence are numbered 1 to 6. The rest of the passage/sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the passage/sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (•) in the Answer Sheet.

85. (1) Most men spend most of their lives looking after and waiting upon machines.

(P) They must be fed well and kept at right temperatures.

(Q) They might burst with rage and blow up causing ruin.

(R) If they do not get their meals they refuse to work.

(S) Machines are very stern masters.

(6) So, men need to wait upon machines attentively.





Answer: (C)

86. (1) Sappho was one of the greatest and earliest of women poets.

(P) Whatever we know about her poetry today is from the quotations found in the works of others.

(Q) She lived on the island of Lesbos in the late 600’s BC.

(R) Most of Sappho’s works-about 10 books of verse have been destroyed.

(S) Only one of the her poems has survived in its complete form.

(6) Without doubt, she was one of the best lyric poets of Ancient Greece.





Answer: (B)

87. (1) I realize that peace and

(P) security are rightful aims,

(Q) violent adventure is probably

(R) and that my own desire for

(S) merely an adaptation to the

(6) age in which I live.





Answer: (A)

88. (1) Books have been present since the time the first scripts were formed-about 5000 years ago..

(P) The books of that time looked different from the ones available today.

(Q) Then an important invention, letter press printing, also known as ‘black art’ changed the world.

(R) Later, the  books came in the form of rollers, or texts were stapled together and covered with a wooden book cover.

(S) Initially, people bound the small clay tablets together with leather bands.

(6) There was no longer the need to write text by hand; instead copies of text could be made with the help of a printing press.





Answer: (D)

89. (1) The harnessing of our rivers

(P) is a great national problem

(Q) the waters of which

(R) which must be considered

(S) now mostly run to waste

(6) and dealt with on national lines.





Answer: (D)

90. (1) Many people drive

(P) hopelessly jammed

(Q) their own cars to work

(R) the roads would become

(S) but if everyone did this

(6) especially during rush-hours.





Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 91-95) In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.

     Meeting old school friends can be a strange experience. Some have changed so much that you can …(91)… recognize them : they speak with a different …(92)… are interested in different things, and all you can do is make …(93)… talk and hope they’ll go soon. Others, though you might have been out of …(94)… with them for years, are just the same as they always were; it’s …(95)… if you saw them yesterday.


(A)  hardly

(B)  easily

(C)  nearly

(D)  almost

Answer: (A)


(A)  way

(B)  tongue

(C)  language

(D)  accent

Answer: (D)


(A)  silly

(B)  gossip

(C)  small

(D)  little

Answer: (A)


(A)  sound

(B)  feel

(C)  sight

(D)  touch

Answer: (C)


(A)  so

(B)  as

(C)  just

(D)  like

Answer: (B)

Directions- (Q. 96-100) You have a brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate oval (•) in the Answer Sheet.

     Earth is the only planet so far known with the suitable environment for sustaining life. Land, water, air, plants and animals are the major components of the global environment. Population, food and energy are the three fundamental problems facing mankind. Unemployment, inflation, crowding, dwindling resources and pollution are all due to the factors like increasing population, high standard of living, deforestation, etc.

     Man has been tampering with the Ecosphere for a very long time and is forced to recognize that environmental resources are scarce. Environmental  problems are really social problems. They begin with people as cause and end with people as victims. Unplanned  use of resources has resulted in the depletion of fossils, fuels, pollution of air and water, deforestation which has resulted in ecological imbalance and draining away of national wealth through heavy expenditure on oil and power generation.

96. We face three fundamental problems that are-

(A)  population, inflation and food

(B)  population, food and energy

(C)  inflation, deforestation and unemployment

(D)  population, deforestation and energy

Answer: (B)

97. Increase population causes-

(A)  dwindling resources

(B)  unemployment, inflation, crowding, dwindling resources and pollution

(C)  unemployment and crowding

(D)  inflation and pollution

Answer: (B)

98. National wealth is drained away by spending heavily on-

(A)  water and power generation

(B)  oil and power generation

(C)  power generation

(D)  fuels

Answer: (B)

99. The three major components of the global environment are-

(A)  land, water and air

(B)  plants, animals and mankind

(C)  food energy and population

(D)  high standard of living, crowding and inflation

Answer: (A)

100. Depletion of fossils and fuels, pollution of air and water and deforestation will never occur in case of-

(A)  unplanned use of resources

(B)  over use of resources

(C)  improper use of resources

(D)  planned use of resources

Answer: (D)


Quantitative Aptitude

101. If a number is increased by 25% and the resulting number is decreased by 25%, then the percentage increase or decrease finally is-

(A)  increased by  

(B)  increased by 6%

(C)  no change

(D)  decreased by  

Answer: (D)

102. A reduction of 20% in the price of rice enables a customer to purchase 12.5 kg more for Rs 800. The original price of rice per kg is-

(A)  Rs 12

(B)  Rs 15

(C)  Rs 14

(D)  Rs 16

Answer: (D)

103. In two alloys A an B, the ratio of zinc to tin is 5 : 2 and 3 : 4 respectively. 7 kg of the alloy A and 21 kg of the alloy B are mixed together to form a new alloy. What will be the ratio of zinc and tin in the new alloy?

(A)  2 : 3

(B)  1 : 1

(C)  2 : 1

(D)  1 : 2

Answer: (B)

104. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 6 : 5, then C : A is-

(A)  8 : 9

(B)  9 : 8

(C)  10 : 9

(D)  9 : 10

Answer: (C)

105. If a, b are rational and 

 then the values of a, b are respectively.

(A)  2, 1

(B)  2, 3

(C)  1, 2

(D)  1, 3

Answer: (C)

106. The ratio of boys and girls in a college is 5 : 3. If 50 boys leave the college and 50 girls join the college, the ratio becomes 9 : 7. The number of boys in the college is-

(A)  500

(B)  600

(C)  300

(D)  400

Answer: (A)

107. When n is divided by 6, the remainder is 4, When 2n is divided by 6, the remainder is-

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  0

Answer: (C)

108. The value of  is-

(A)  3/20

(B)  7/20

(C)  1/10

(D)  3/5

Answer: (A)

109. Let  Then we have-

(A)  a = 18

(B)  a = 9

(C)  a < 18 but a ≠ 9

(D)  a > 18

Answer: (C)

110. The smallest among the numbers 2250, 3150, 5100 and 4200 is-

(A)  3150

(B)  2250

(C)  4200

(D)  5100

Answer: (D)

111. The greatest of the following numbers 0.16, √16, (0.16)2, 0.04 is-

(A)  0.04

(B)  (0.16)2

(C)  0.16

(D)  √0.16

Answer: (D)

112. If  part of a journey takes 10 minutes, then to complete 3/5th of that journey, it will take-

(A)  48 minute

(B)  36 minute

(C)  40 minute

(D)  45 minute

Answer: (A)

113. Two trains 180 metre and 120 metre in length are running towards each other on parallel tracks, one at the rate 65 km/hr and another at 55 km/hr. In how many seconds will they clear of each other from the moment they meet?

(A)  12

(B)  15

(C)  6

(D)  9

Answer: (D)

114. Three men can complete a piece of work in 6 days. Two days after they started the work, 3 more men joined them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?

(A)  3 days

(B)  4 days

(C)  1 day

(D)  2 days

Answer: (D)

115. If  then  equals-

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

116. If  then the value of a3 + b3 is-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  −1

Answer: (C)

117. If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca, then  is equal to-

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

118. If the graphs of the equations x + y = 0 and 5y + 7x = 24 intersect at (m, n), then the value of m + n is-

(A)  0

(B)  −1

(C)  2

(D)  1

Answer: (A)

119. The average age of a class of 35 students is 15 years. If the teacher’s age is also included the average age increases by one year. Furthermore, if the average age of the teacher’s family having a wife and a son is 40 years and the son’s age is 80% less than his mother’s age, then the age of the teacher’s wife is-

(A)  47.5 years

(B)  55.5 years

(C)  57.5 years

(D)  50 years

Answer: (C)

120.  If the amount is the sum after 3 years at compound interest compounded annually, then the rate to interest per annum is-



(C)  25%

(D)  50%

Answer: (D)

121. A shopkeeper sells an article at 15% gain. Had he sold it for Rs 18 more, the would have gained 18%. The cost price (in Rs) of the article is-

(A)  600

(B)  350

(C)  540

(D)  318

Answer: (A)

122. A cloth merchant on selling 33 metre of cloth obtains a profit equal to the selling price of 11 metre of cloth. The profit is-

(A)  50%

(B)  11%

(C)  40%

(D)  22%

Answer: (A)

123. A single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 20%, 10% and 5% is-

(A)  31.6%

(B)  36.1%

(C)  35%

(D)  35.6%

Answer: (A)

124. A, B and C started a business with their investments in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4. After 6 months A increased his capital by 50% and B invested twice the amount as before, while C withdrew 1/4th of his own investment. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year was-

(A)  6 : 9 : 17

(B)  5 : 14 : 16

(C)  10 : 5 : 9

(D)  5 : 12 : 14

Answer: (D)

125. P and Q are centres of two circles with radii 9 cm and 2 cm respectively, where PQ = 17 cm. R is the centre of another circle of radius x cm, which touches each of the above two circles externally. If ∠PRQ = 90°, then the value of x is-

(A)  7 cm

(B)  8 cm

(C)  4 cm

(D)  6 cm

Answer: (D)

126. The area of a rhombus is 216 cm2 and the length of its one diagonal is 24 cm. The perimeter (in cm) of the rhombus is-

(A)  120

(B)  100

(C)  52

(D)  60

Answer: (D)

127. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 544 cm and each of the equal sides in 5/6 times the base. What is the area (in cm2) off the triangle?

(A)  31872

(B)  13872

(C)  38172

(D)  18372

Answer: (B)

128. A metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and then recast into small cones each of radius 3.5 cm and height 3 cm. The number of cones thus formed is-

(A)  112

(B)  126

(C)  140

(D)  132

Answer: (B)

129. If the ratio of the diameters of two right circular cones of equal height be 3 : 4, then the ratio of their volumes will be-

(A)  16 : 9

(B)  27 : 64

(C)  3 : 4

(D)  9 : 16

Answer: (D)

130. A right pyramid stands on a square base of diagonal 10√2 cm. If the height of the pyramid is 12 cm, the area (in cm2) of its slant surface is-

(A)  360

(B)  260

(C)  520

(D)  420

Answer: (B)

131. If x = 5 – √21, then the value of  is-





Answer: (D)

132. In ∆ ABC, the internal bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB meet at I and ∠BAC = 50°. The measure of ∠BIC is-

(A)  125°

(B)  130°

(C)  105°

(D)  115°

Answer: (D)

133. BL and CM are medians of ∆ABC right-angled at A and BC = 5 cm. If  then the length of CM is-

(A)  10√2 cm

(B)  4√5 cm

(C)  2√5 cm

(D)  5√2 cm

Answer: (C)

134. In ∆ABC, D and E are the points of sides AB and BC respectively such that DE || AC and AD : DB = 3 : 2. The ratio of area of trapezium ACED to that of ∆BED is-

(A)  4 : 21

(B)  21 : 4

(C)  4 : 15

(D)  15 : 4

Answer: (B)

135. A quadrilateral ABCD circumscribes a circle and AB = 6 cm, CD = 5 cm and AD = 7 cm. The length of side BC is-

(A)  3 cm

(B)  6 cm

(C)  4 cm

(D)  5 cm

Answer: (C)

136. From a tower 125 metre high , the angles of depression of two objects, which are in horizontal line through the base of the tower, are 45° and 30° and they are on the same side of the tower. The distance (in metre) between the objects is-

(A)  125/(√3 – 1)

(B)  125(√3 + 1)

(C)  125√3

(D)  125(√3 – 1)

Answer: (D)

137. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 150°, the number of sides of the polygon is-

(A)  10

(B)  15

(C)  8

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

138. If the altitude of a right prism is 10 cm and its base is an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm, then its total surface area (in cm2) is-

(A)  360

(B)  72(5 + √3)

(C)  (5 + 3√3)

(D)  36√3

Answer: (B)

139. The value of the tan 10° tan 15° tan 75° tan 80° is-

(A)  −1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

140. The minimum value of 4 tan2 θ + 9 cot2 θ is equal to-

(A)  12

(B)  13

(C)  0

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

141. If sin 7x = cos 11x, then the value of tan 9x + cot 9x is-

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

142. If tan2 α = 1 + 2 tan2 β(α, β are positive acute angles), then √2 cos α – cos β is equal to-

(A)  1

(B)  −1

(C)  0

(D)  √2

Answer: (C)

143. Two pipes X and Y can fill a cistern in 24 minute and 32 minute respectively. If both the pipes are opened together, then after how much time (in minutes) should Y be closed so that the tank is full in 18 minute?

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  10

(D)  8

Answer: (D)

144. The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio 7 : 4. A path 4 m wide running all round outside has an area of 416 m2. The breadth (in m) of the field is-

(A)  15

(B)  16

(C)  28

(D)  14

Answer: (B)

145. If a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b3 + c3 is equal to-

(A)  2 abc

(B)  3 abc

(C)  a +  b + c

(D)  abc

Answer: (B)

146. Two numbers 11284 and 7655, when divided by a certain number of three digits, leaves the same remainder. The sum of digits of such a three-digit number is-

(A)  10

(B)  11

(C)  8

(D)  9

Answer: (B)

Directions-Study the table and answer questions no. 147 and 148.

147. Average height (in cm) of the girls whose heights are 155 cm and above in about-

(A)  160.4

(B)  162.6

(C)  158.7

(D)  159.8

Answer: (D)

148. The number of girls whose height is above 150 cm is-

(A)  86

(B)  97

(C)  22

(D)  29

Answer: (C)

Directions-Student’s strength of a college in Arts, Science and Commerce from 2004-05 to 2007-08 sessions are shown in the following bar graph. Study the graph and answer questions no. 149 and 150.

149. The increase in Science students in 2007-08 over 2006-07 was-

(A)  16.7%

(B)  18.2%

(C)  10.1%

(D)  11.1%

Answer: (D)

150. The ratio of average number of students in Arts to the average number of students in Commerce is-

(A)  7 : 4

(B)  48 : 35

(C)  12 : 5

(D)  10 : 7

Answer: (C)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

147. If  then the value of x72 + x60 + x48 + x36 is-

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  0

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

148. If ax = b, by = c, cz = a, then the value of xyz = ?

(A)  abc

(B)  1/abc

(C)  0

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

149. Let a = ∛2 + ∛3 + 1, then the value of  is-

(A)  163

(B)  164

(C)  165

(D)  162

Answer: (D)

150. If  and  then the value of x3 + y3 is-

(A)  a3

(B)  b3

(C)  a

(D)  b

Answer: (B)


General Awareness

151. Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution?

(A)  Part IV

(B)  Part I

(C)  The Preamble

(D)  Part III

Answer: (C)

152. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the-

(A)  Finance Minister

(B)  Lok Sabha

(C)  Prime Minister

(D)  President

Answer: (D)

153. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State Governments to organize Village Panchayats?

(A)  Article 40

(B)  Article 51

(C)  Article 32

(D)  Article 37

Answer: (A)

154. The Attorney General of India has the right of audience in-

(A)  any Sessions Court

(B)  any Court of Law within India

(C)  the Supreme Court

(D)  any High Court

Answer: (B)

155. The capital of the ancient Chola kingdom was-

(A)  Thanjavur

(B)  Madurai

(C)  Uraiyur

(D)  Kaveripoompattinam

Answer: (C)

156. Arrange the dynasties of Delhi Sultnate given below in chronological order-

(1) Khilji            (2) Tughlaq

(3) Sayyad         (4) Slave

(A)  1, 2, 3, 4

(B)  4, 1, 2, 3

(C)  4, 1, 3, 2

(D)  1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: (B)

157. Production of a commodity mostly through the natural process is an activity of-

(A)  Tertiary Sector

(B)  Technology Sector

(C)  Primary Sector

(D)  Secondary Sector

Answer: (C)

158. The law of Demand is based on-

(A)  Supplier’s preference

(B)  Consumer’s preference

(C)  Manufacturer’s preference

(D)  Seller’s preference

Answer: (B)

159. Which one of the following is not a method for computing GNP?

(A)  Savings Approach

(B)  Value Added Approach

(C)  Income Approach

(D)  Expenditure Approach

Answer: (A)

160. A part of National Debt known as External Debt is the amount-

(A)  borrowed by its government from abroad

(B)  lent by its government to foreign government

(C)  borrowed by its citizens from abroad

(D)  lent by its citizens to foreign governments

Answer: (A)

161. The non-expenditure costs which arise when the producing firm itself owns and supplies certain factors of production are-

(A)  Implicit costs

(B)  Replacement costs

(C)  Explicit costs

(D)  Original costs

Answer: (A)

162. Who said “Rama Rajya through Grama Rajya”?

(A)  Jayaprakash Narayan

(B)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi

(D)  Vinoba Bhave

Answer: (C)

163. Which of the biomes is called the ‘Bread Basket’ of the world?

(A)  Mediterranean

(B)  Tropical Savanna

(C)  Mid-latitude grasslands

(D)  Taiga

Answer: (C)

164. Asia and North America are separated by-

(A)  Bering Strait

(B)  Cook Strait

(C)  Bass Strait

(D)  Strait of Dover

Answer: (A)

165. Phototropic movement is controlled by-

(A)  Cytokinin

(B)  Ethylene

(C)  Auxin

(D)  Gibberellin

Answer: (C)

166. Lactogenic hormone is secreted by-

(A)  Ovary

(B)  Pituitary

(C)  Mammary glands

(D)  Placenta

Answer: (B)

167. An organism, which can monitor air pollution is-

(A)  Algae

(B)  Fungi

(C)  Bacteria

(D)  Lichen

Answer: (D)

168. In the human body, which of the following organs is responsible for water balance?

(A)  Kidneys

(B)  Lungs

(C)  Heart

(D)  Liver

Answer: (A)

169. Chlorophyll containing autotrophic thallophytes is called as-

(A)  Fungi

(B)  Bryophytes

(C)  Algae

(D)  Lichens

Answer: (C)

170. Which was the earliest settlement of the Dutch in India?

(A)  Surat

(B)  Ahmedabad

(C)  Masulipatnam

(D)  Pulicat

Answer: (C)

171. During British rule, who was instrumental for the introduction of the Ryotwari system in the then Madras Presidency?

(A)  Thomas Munro

(B)  John Lawrence

(C)  Macartney

(D)  Elphinstone

Answer: (A)

172. Who amongst the following was not associated with the Unification of Italy?

(A)  Mussolini

(B)  Mazzini

(C)  Cavour

(D)  Garibaldi

Answer: (A)

173. The Greater Himalayas is otherwise called as-

(A)  Assam Himalayas

(B)  Siwaliks

(C)  Himadirs

(D)  Sahyadri

Answer: (C)

174. The cup-shaped mouth of the volcano is-

(A)  Crater

(B)  Cinder cone

(C)  Focus

(D)  Epicentre

Answer: (A)

175. The cool temperate grasslands of South America are known as-

(A)  Veld

(B)  Savannah

(C)  Pampas

(D)  Prairies

Answer: (C)

176. A computer programming language often used by children is-





Answer: (C)

177. A portable, personal computer small enough to fit on your lap is called is-

(A)  Mainframe computer

(B)  Workstation

(C)  Note-book computer

(D)  PDA

Answer: (C)

178. Assembler is a program that translates the program from-

(A)  machine to low-level

(B)  low-level to high-level

(C)  high-level to assembly

(D)  assembly to machine

Answer: (D)

179. ‘Table sugar’ is which type of sugar?

(A)  Glucose

(B)  Sucrose

(C)  Fructose

(D)  Galactose

Answer: (B)

180. An alloy used in making heating elements for electric heating device is-

(A)  Nichorme

(B)  German Silver

(C)  Solder

(D)  Alloy Steel

Answer: (A)

181. The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte depends on-

(A)  atmospheric pressure

(B)  method of dissolution

(C)  dilution

(D)  impurities

Answer: (C)

182. Chlorophyll contains-

(A)  Cobalt

(B)  Zinc

(C)  Iron

(D)  Magnesium

Answer: (D)

183. The gas causing acid rain in an industrial area is-

(A)  Sulphur dioxide

(B)  Methane

(C)  Carbon dioxide

(D)  Carbon monoxide

Answer: (A)

  1. Match correctly the insect vectors in List-I with the diseases transmitted by them given in List-II-


(a) Anopheles (female)

(b) Culex

(c) Sand fly

(d) Tse-tse fly


(1) Kala-azar

(2) Sleeping sickness

(3) Filariasis

(4) Malaria

(A)  (a)-3; (b)-2; (c)-1; (d)-4

(B)  (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-1; (d)-2

(C)  (a)-1; (b)-4; (c)-2; (d)-3

(D)  (a)-2; (b)-1; (c)-4; (d)-3

Answer: (B)

185. A white and smooth surface is-

(A)  good absorber and bad reflector of heat

(B)  bad absorber and bad reflector of heat

(C)  good absorber and good reflector of heat

(D)  bad absorber and good reflector of heat

Answer: (D)

186. When a body is immersed in a liquid, the forces acting on it are-

(A)  Upthrust

(B)  Weight

(C)  Mass

(D)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (D)

187. When two semiconductor of p and n-type are brought in contact, they form p-n junction which acts like a/an-

(A)  Rectifier

(B)  Amplifier

(C)  Conductor

(D)  Oscillator

Answer: (D)

188. The mass of body measured by a physical balance in a lift at rest is found to be m. If the lift is going up with an acceleration a, its mass will be measured as-

(A)  m

(B)  zero



Answer: (A)

189. Among the following political leaders of South India, who has not acted in any film?

(A)  N. T. Rama Rao

(B)  M. G. Ramachandran

(C)  C. N. Annadurai

(D)  Jayalalitha

Answer: (C)

190. Which one of the following days is not observed on a fixed date every year?

(A)  International Friendship Day

(B)  World Habitat Day

(C)  World Environment Day

(D)  International Women’s Day

Answer: (D)

191. Which one of the following novels was a source of inspiration for the freedom fighters in India?

(A)  Rangbhoomi

(B)  Padmarag

(C)  Pariksha Guru

(D)  Anandmath

Answer: (D)

192. Which prestigious award was given in 2013 to Aparajita Datta for her outstanding contribution for the conservation of hornbills?

(A)  Whitley Award

(B)  Rajiv Gandhi Ecology Award

(C)  Magsaysay Award

(D)  Right Livelihoood Award

Answer: (A)

193. Which presently serving State Chief Minister has been in office continuously for the longest period?

(A)  Bhupinder Singh Hooda

(B)  Manik Sarkar

(C)  Sheila Diskhit

(D)  Narendra Modi

Answer: (B)

194. Which one of the following monuments is the first inhabited World Heritage Monument?

(A)  Jaisalmer Fort

(B)  Amber Fort

(C)  Agra Fort

(D)  Red Fort

Answer: (A)

195. The famous three P’s of environmental awareness are-

(A)  Population, Politics, Price

(B)  Population, Poverty, Pollution

(C)  People, Poverty, Politics

(D)  Power, Production, Pollution

Answer: (B)

196. The stagnant water at the bottom of a lake is called-

(A)  Metalimnion

(B)  Hypolimnion

(C)  Epilimnion

(D)  Mesolimnion

Answer: (A)

197. Shri Jyotiraditya Madhavarao Scindia is the Minister of State with independent charge of the Ministry of-

(A)  Power

(B)  Information and Broadcasting

(C)  Tourism

(D)  Chemical and Fertilizers

Answer: (A)

198. Who won the Wimbledon Men’s Singles in 2013?

(A)  Juan Martin Del Potro

(B)  Fernando Verdasco

(C)  Andy Murray

(D)  Novak Djokovic

Answer: (C)

199. Who won the Silver Medal for the Women’s 400 metre race in the Asian Athletic Championships 2013?

(A)  Tintu Luka

(B)  Mayookha Johny

(C)  Zhao Yanmin

(D)  M.R. Poovamma

Answer: (D)

200. Where is Taksim Square, which witnessed in 2013 prolonged massive protests against the redevelopment of Gezi Park?

(A)  Istanbul

(B)  Teheran

(C)  Ankona

(D)  Cairo

Answer: (A)

Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates:

View Full List ...