Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) IInd Shift
Tier-I Examination Held on 20 October, 2013
Part-I
General Intelligence
Directions-(Q. 1-7) Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives-
1. Squint : Vision : : Stammering : ?
(A) Mouth
(B) Hearing
(C) Speech
(D) Tongue
2. Racket : Tennis :: ?
(A) Ball : Football
(B) Glove : Cricket
(C) Board : Chess
(D) Bat : Cricket
3. Hand : Glove : : Head : ?
(A) Hair
(B) Hat
(C) Neck
(D) Hair-pin
4. TCEJBO : OBJECT : : TCEJORP : ?
(A) ROPJECT
(B) JCCTROP
(C) PROJECT
(D) ROJOECT
5. FLRX : DJPV : : EKQW : ?
(A) BHMT
(B) CIOU
(C) AGMS
(D) WQKE
6. 4 : 17 : : 7 : ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 50
(D) 51
7. 45 : 9 : : 94 : ?
(A) 17
(B) 14
(C) 13
(D) 10
Direction-(Q. 8-11) Find the odd words/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
8.
(A) Prince : Princess
(B) Vamp : Vampire
(C) Hero : Heroine
(D) King : Queen
9.
(A) Carrot
(B) Potato
(C) Beetroot
(D) Radish
10.
(A) UROL
(B) QNKH
(C) YVSP
(D) USPM
11.
(A) 106 – 36
(B) 76 – 46
(C) 86 – 56
(D) 120 – 90
12. Find out the set among the four sets which is like the given set-
(11 – 18 – 25)
(A) (4 – 12 – 16)
(B) (19 – 26 – 33)
(C) (18 – 28 – 33)
(D) (9 – 14 – 24)
13. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
(1) Ploughing (2) Weeding
(3) Sowing (4) Harvesting
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4
(C) 2, 3, 1, 4
(D) 1, 2, 4, 3
14. Arrange the following words according to t he English Dictionary-
(1) Voyage (2) Voice
(3) Vocation (4) Volume
(A) 3, 2, 4, 1
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 2, 4, 3, 1
15. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
A_b a b_a b_a b b
(A) b a a
(B) a a a
(C) b b b
(D) b b a
Directions-(Q. 16-18) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
16. 4, 7, 13, 22, 34, ?
(A) 47
(B) 52
(C) 49
(D) 45
17. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ?
(A) NSD
(B) JPE
(C) TOE
(D) OTK
18. 135, 226, 353, ?, 739
(A) 522
(B) 622
(C) 632
(D) 722
19. If day before yesterday was Sunday, what day will fall on day after tomorrow?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Tuesday
20. Prakash jumps higher than Pinakin, but not as much as Ketan jumps. Rohan jumps lower than Pranav but not less than Ketan. Who jumps lowest?
(A) Pinakin
(B) Ketan
(C) Rohan
(D) Pranav
21. Leela and her grandmother differ in their ages by 60 years. After 10 years, if the sum of their ages is 100 years, what are their present ages?
(A) 20, 80
(B) 10, 70
(C) 15, 75
(D) 25, 85
22. Sarika is 19th from either end of a row of girls. How many girls are there in that row?
(A) 38
(B) 39
(C) 37
(D) 19
23. Mohan is husband of Sona. Sona is aunt of Shilpa. Ankit is brother of Sona. How is Ankit related to Mohan?
(A) Uncle
(B) Brother
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother-in-law
24. If A = 1, AIR = 28, then RIB = ?
(A) 28
(B) 29
(C) 35
(D) 26
25. In the following series of English alphabets, how many ‘a b c’ occur in such a way that ‘b’ is in the middle and both ‘a’ and ‘c’ are on any one side-
q b c a j l c b I d a e c h k a m b c n o
a b c p k d c r b c h a q g a b c f e b c t u
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
26. If ‘PSYCHOLOGY’ is coded as ‘9834215173’; and ‘SOCIOLOGY’ is coded as ‘812015173’; then ‘PHILOSOPHY’ can be coded as-
(A) 9205182923
(B) 9206181923
(C) 9205181923
(D) 9105282913
27. If ‘ETHICS’ can be written as ‘SECTIH’; then how can ‘AFECTION’ be written-
(A) NAOFETIC
(B) NAOFICTE
(C) NAOFIETC
(D) NAOFITCE
28. Some letters are given below in the first line and numbers are given below them in the second time. Numbers are the codes for the alphabets and vice-vera. Choose the correct number-code for the given set of alphabets-
A F E H I K O M U R
9 3 8 4 0 5 1 6 2 7
M A E I O U
(A) 6 9 8 1 0 2
(B) 6 9 8 0 1 2
(C) 6 9 8 2 1 0
(D) 6 9 8 2 0 1
29. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the word-
ONSLAUGHT
(A) HOUSE
(B) GHOST
(C) ENOUGH
(D) STRONG
30. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word-
TRANSLATION
(A) TRANSIT
(B) TRANSMIT
(C) NATION
(D) RATION
Directions-(Q. 31 an 32) Select the missing number from the given responses.
31.
7 56 8
9 63 7
12 ? 5
(A) 17
(B) 25
(C) 60
(D) 119
32.
4 5 8
3 ? 2
4 10 4
48 200 64
(A) 185
(B) 40
(C) 20
(D) 4
Directions-(Q. 33 and 34) Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.
33. 2 × 7 × 5 = 527, 1 × 4 × 9 = 914, 6 × 3 × 8 = ?
(A) 683
(B) 863
(C) 638
(D) 836
34. If 624 = 9
and 3732 = 20, then
4523 = ?
(A) 26
(B) 16
(C) 23
(D) 21
35. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘*’ signs and to balance the given equation-
6 * 5 * 8 * 4 * 32
(A) + + + =
(B) ÷ + × +
(C) × + ÷ =
(D) − + × ×
36. If ‘+’ means division, ‘−’ means multiplication, ‘×’ means subtraction and ‘÷’ means addition then,
(280 + 10 × 20) – 8 ÷ 6 = ?
(A) 58
(B) 70
(C) 112
(D) 392
37. Seema started early in the morning on the road towards the Sun. After some time she turned to her left. Again after some time she turned to her right. After moving come distance she again turned to her right and began to move. At this time, in what direction was she moving?
(A) North-West
(B) North-East
(C) East
(D) South
38. ‘A’ walks 10 m towards East and then 10 m to his right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m, respectively. How far is he now from his starting point?
(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 20 m
Directions-(Q. 39 and 40) Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
39. Statements : All trams are prams, No pram can carry passengers.
Conclusions: I. No tram can carry passengers.
(II) Some trams cannot carry passengers.
(A) Only conclusions I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both the conclusions I and II follows
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
40. Statements : This world is neither good nor bad. Each individual manufactures world for
Conclusions : I. Some people find this world quite good.
(II) Some people find this world quite bad.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
41. Five girls E, F, G, H and I are standing in a row. H is on the right of G. I is on the left of G, but is on the right of F. H is on the left of E. Who is standing on the extreme right?
(A) F
(B) G
(C) H
(D) E
42. There are 120 students in a class. 25% of the students play volleyball. 40% of the remaining students play cricket. 50% of the remaining students play football. How many students in the class do not play any game?
(A) 29
(B) 30
(C) 27
(D) 32
43. Select the related figure from the given alternatives.
44. Find the odd figure from the given alternatives.
45. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
46. Find the missing number from the given responses-
(A) 7
(B) 192
(C) 193
(D) 98
47. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below:
Potato, Vegetables and Eatables
48. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
49. A piece of paper is folded and cut/punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
50. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only
43. Find the wrong number in the given series from the given alternatives-
445, 221, 109, 46, 25
(A) 25
(B) 46
(C) 221
(D) 109
44. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs 1,000 more than D, what is B’s share?
(A) Rs 500
(B) Rs 1,500
(C) Rs 2,000
(D) Rs 2,500
45. If P stand for +, Q for ×, B for ÷ G for −, then find the value of the following equation.
19 G 9 P 15 B 5 Q 2 = ?
(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 32
(D) 40
46. In a peculiar mathematical operation, before any operation is started, the numbers are changed as under-
1 to 4 changed to 1
5 to 9 changed to 2
Zero remains zero.
Applying the above condition, find the answer of the following equation-
769 + 2085 + 6083 – 8306 = ?
(A) 1163
(B) 1009
(C) 4033
(D) 2825
47. Usha ranks 21st in a class of 37 students. What is the her rank from the last?
(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 19
48. The sum of two numbers is 21 and their product is 90. Then sum of their squares will be?
(A) 441
(B) 728
(C) 261
(D) 860
49. In the following series of numbers, how many 0’s are followed by 9 and preceded by 5?
1 0 9 1 1 5 0 9 2 0 1 2 3 2 8 1 3 9 3
5 0 9 4 8 1 4 7 1 6 7 5 5 0 9 6 1 5
(A) 7
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 4
50. LOVE is coded as 1357, and HATE is coded as 2467. What do the figures 6417 stand for?
(A) HEAT
(B) LEAD
(C) TALE
(D) LATE
Part-II
English Language
Directions-(Q. 51 to 55) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval () corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B), (C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer-Sheet.
51. I want to get (A)/ a M.A. degree (B)/ (C)/ from a reputed university located in India. No error (D)
52. Not only she makes (A)/ home-made cakes (B)/ she also sells them. (C)/ No error (D)
53. Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia played (A)/ a flute at the Music Conference (B)/ in a small town. (C)/ No error (D)
54. They are (A)/ ignorant of (B)/ what is happening here. (C)/ No error (D)
55. My mother made (A)/ the servant to (B)/ complete the work. (C)/ No error (D)
Directions-(Q. 56 to 60) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (●) in the Answer-Sheet.
56. The doctors and the nurses worked hard to …….. the dying man.
(A) bring up
(B) bring out
(C) bring back
(D) bring round
57. They tried to bribe the peon but he …….. them.
(A) has been too clever for
(B) was too clever for
(C) was being clever for
(D) was clever for
58. She asked me ……….. .
(A) what was the time
(B) what is the time
(C) what was time
(D) what the time was
59. A legislation was passed to punish brokers who …………. their client’s funds.
(A) devastate
(B) devour
(C) embezzle
(D) defalcate
60. He fell down a flight of stairs and broke ………. rib.
(A) a
(B) the
(C) his
(D) up
Directions-(Q. 61 and 62) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
61. Stratagem
(A) Stratum
(B) Ruby
(C) Trick
(D) Strait
62. Forsake
(A) Abandon
(B) Forego
(C) Disintegrate
(D) Separate
Directions-(Q. 63 and 64) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
63. Dreary
(A) Solitary
(B) Driblle
(C) Unusual
(D) Interesting
64. Keen
(A) Impassioned
(B) Indifferent
(C) Clever
(D) Immobile
Directions-(Q. 65 and 66) Four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
65.
(A) privelege
(B) privilege
(C) priviledge
(D) privalege
66.
(A) hipopotamus
(B) hippopotamus
(C) hippopatemus
(D) hippopotomous
Directions-(Q. 67 to 69) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
67. We could sit here and talk till the cows come home.
(A) for a very long time
(B) for a very short span of time
(C) if the cows come home quickly
(D) if the cows come home slowly
68. They earn so little that it is very difficult for them to keep the wolf from the door.
(A) have less money to avoid hunger and need
(B) have enough money to avoid hunger and need
(C) to hide the wolf behind the door
(D) to display the wolf before the door
69. Arvind finally got through with his doctoral thesis.
(A) finally cleared his last examination
(B) left the thesis half way through
(C) finally finished his thesis after hard toil
(D) was awarded his doctoral degree
Directions-(Q. 70 to 72) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
70. A place of shelter for ships.
(A) Helipad
(B) Port
(C) Harbour
(D) Barrack
71. A shopkeeper who sells fresh and green vegetables.
(A) Butcher
(B) Shopkeeper
(C) Vendor
(D) Greengrocer
72. That which cannot be consumed by fire.
(A) Inflammable
(B) Inexhaustible
(C) Incombustible
(D) Invicible
Directions-(Q. 73 and 74) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
73. Historians feel there is an earnest need for the review of history books every five years and a revision of the same every ten years.
(A) indispensable
(B) urgent
(C) imperative
(D) No improvement
74. When describing the accident, he was in tears.
(A) In describing
(B) When he was describing
(C) As describing
(D) No improvement
Directions-(Q. 75 to 79) A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
75. Differential Calculus is being learnt by the girl.
(A) The girl is learning Differential Calculus
(B) The girl learns Differential Calculus
(C) The girl was learning Differential Calculus
(D) The girl has learnt Differential Calculus
76. He arranged the furniture in the house according to the decorator’s plans.
(A) The furniture was being arranged in the house according to the decorator’s plans
(B) The furniture had been arranged in the house according to the decorator’s plans
(C) The furniture have been arranged in the house according to the decorator’s plans
(D) The furniture was arranged in the house according to the decorator’s plans
77. To make the batter add one tablespoonful of baking powder to the cake mixture.
(A) Let one tablespoonful of baking powder be added to the cake mixture to make the batter
(B) Let only one tablespoonful of baking powder be added to the cake mixture to make the batter
(C) One tablespoonful of baking powder may be added to the cake mixture to make the batter
(D) One tablespoonful of baking powder could be added to the cake mixture to make the batter
78. By whom is John looked after?
(A) Who looks after John?
(B) John looks after whom?
(C) Whom looks after John?
(D) Who is looking after John?
79. The horse jumped over the fence.
(A) The fence might be jumped over by the horse
(B) The fence was jumped over by the horse
(C) The fence by the horse was jumped over
(D) The fence was jumped by the horse
Directions-(Q. 80 to 84) A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
80. The mother urged the child to come on the footpath.
(A) The mother said to the child. “Come on the footpath.”
(B) The mother said, “Come, child come. Come on the footpath.”
(C) The mother said, “Please come on the footpath, child.”
(D) The mother said to the child, “You should come on the footpath.”
81. Sushma said, “We shall celebrate the festival of Janmashtami tomorrow.”
(A) Sushma said that we should celebrate the festival of Janmashtami the next day
(B) Sushma said that we shall celebrate the festival of Janmashtami the next day
(C) Sushma said that they should celebrate the festival of Janmashtami the next day
(D) Sushma said that they would celebrate the festival of Janmashtami the next day
82. “I’m so tiny that I can’t reach your branches,” said the little boy to the tree.
(A) The little boy said that the tree was so tiny that he couldn’t reach its branches
(B) The little boy said that he was so tiny that he couldn’t reach its branches
(C) The little boy told to the tree that he was so tiny that he couldn’t reach its branches
(D) The little boy told the tree that he was so tiny that he couldn’t reach its branches
83. I’m sorry I cannot stay,” said the swallow. “I’m waited for in Egypt.”
(A) The swallow told that he is sorry he cannot stay and added that he is waited for in Egypt
(B) The swallow said he was sorry he couldn’t stay and added that someone was waiting for him in Egypt
(C) The swallow regretted he couldn’t stay as he was waited for in Egypt
(D) The swallow regretted that he was waited for in Egypt and couldn’t stay
84. The notice reads, “Trespassers will be prosecuted.”
(A) The notice read that trespassers will be prosecuted
(B) The notice read that trespassers would be prosecuted
(C) The notice reads that trespassers would be prosecuted
(D) The notice reads that trespassers will be prosecuted
Directions-(Q. 85 to 90) The 1st and the last sentence of the passage/parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage/sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the passage/sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (●) in the Answer Sheet.
85. (1) Self help means doing our own work ourselves.
(P) They prefer to have things done for them.
(Q) The most successful man is he who depends the least on others.
(R) There are men in our society who don’t exert themselves.
(S) Such people are rarely successful.
(6) He has a strength of mind and determination to succeed on his own.
(A) RPSQ
(B) PQRS
(C) QPSR
(D) QSRP
86. (1) At the time when the city of Venice in Italy was rich and famous, one of her chief citizens was a merchant named Antonio.
(P) He had many friends, among them a young Venetian nobleman called Bassanio.
(Q) But Antonio loved him and gave him money whenever he needed it.
(R) Although he came from a noble family, Bassanio was poor and spent more money than he could afford.
(S) He was well known for his kindness.
(6) For the merchant of Venice was a rich man, who owned many ships which traded with foreign countries.
(A) PQRS
(B) SQRP
(C) SPRQ
(D) PRSQ
87. (1) Drug addiction has now become one of the major problems of our society.
(P) There should be joint effort of family, government and social organizations for prevention and cure this curse.
(Q) The possibilities of these young men and women are nipped in the bud.
(R) In such an alarming situation, we cannot remain idle onlookers.
(S) Many youngsters are becoming victims of this deadly curse.
(6) We should take the pledge-“Let us unite for a drug-free world”.
(A) SQRP
(B) PQRS
(C) PSQR
(D) RQPS
88. (1) ‘Tsunami’ which means harbour wave’
(P) usually an ocean
(Q) of a large volume of a body of water
(R) is a series of water waves
(S) caused by the displacement
(6) though it can occur in large lakes.
(A) RQPS
(B) RSQP
(C) SRQP
(D) PSQR
89. (1) Dante was of moderate height
(P) clad always in such sober dress
(Q) with a slow and gentle pace
(R) was accustomed to walk somewhat bowed
(S) and after maturity
(6) as befitted his ripe years.
(A) SRQP
(B) RQSP
(C) PSRQ
(D) QSRP
90. (1) Queen Elizabeth had the mind
(P) and nurtured her country
(Q) through careful leadership
(R) of a political genius
(S) and by choosing capable men
(6) to assist her.
(A) RQSP
(B) RPQS
(C) PSRQ
(D) SPRQ
Directions-(Q. 91 to 95) In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.
The sun had set but there was still some light in the sky. Martin …91… on his elbow and looked …92… through the leaves. In the waters of the lake, close to the shore, he saw a …93… of alligators floating quietly. One of the creatures, …94… huge one, was lying on a high …95… of sand, a few yards from the water.
91.
(A) crossed
(B) leaned
(C) lay
(D) sat
92.
(A) down
(B) at
(C) for
(D) into
93.
(A) family
(B) volume
(C) number
(D) semblance
94.
(A) a
(B) one
(C) single
(D) an
95.
(A) peak
(B) pit
(C) pile
(D) bank
Directions-(Q. 96 to 100) You have a brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate oval () in the Answer-Sheet.
I could not help thinking, as I looked at the works of Shakespeare on the shelf, that it would have been impossible, completely and entirely, for any woman to have written the plays of Shakespeare in the age of Shakespeare. Let me imagine, since facts are so hard to come by, what would have happened had Shakespeare had a wonderfully gifted sister, called Judith, let us say. Shakespeare himself went, very probably-his mother was an heiress-to the grammar school, where he may have learnt Latin – Ovid, Virgil and Horace – and the elements of grammar and logic. He was, it is well known, a wild boy who poached rabbits, perhaps shot a deer, and had, rather sooner than he should have done, to marry a woman in the neighbourhood, who bore him a child rather quicker than was right. That escapade sent him to seek his fortune in London. He had, it seemed, a taste for the theatre; he began by holding horses at the stage door.
96. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Shakespeare’s mother was poor
(B) Shakespeare learnt Roman
(C) Shakespeare did not have a sister
(D) Judith was Shakespeare’s wife
97. ‘Come by’ means-
(A) maintain
(B) manage to get
(C) invent
(D) search
98. The passage is about-
(A) Shakespeare’s sister
(B) Shakespeare’s theatre
(C) Shakespeare’s writing
(D) Shakespeare’s life
99. Shakespeare’s marriage reveals that he was-
(A) impulsive
(B) talented
(C) wise
(D) stealthy
100. Shakespeare’s sister was-
(A) wise
(B) imaginary
(C) famous
(D) ordinary
Part-III
Quantitative Aptitude
101. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a building of height h units, from the top of a monument of height H units are complementary. If the distance between the building and the monument is ‘a’ units, then it is always rule that-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
102. If 
then the value of θ in circular measure will be-
(A) π/4
(B) π/12
(C) π/3
(D) π/6
103. If 
then the value of tan 47° is-
(A) 
(B) y/x
(C) x/y
(D) 
104. The value of 
is equal to-
(A) 1
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/2
(D) 2
105. If sec θ – cos θ = 3/2 (θ is a positive acute angle), then sec θ is equal to-
(A) −1/2
(B) 0
(C) 1/2
(D) 2
106. The base of a pyramid of volume 48√3 cc is an equilateral triangle. If the height of the pyramid is 4 cm, then each side of the equilateral triangle at the base is-
(A) 3 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 12 cm
107. In a triangle ABC, AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm and ∠ABC = 90°. The triangle is first rotated around the side AB and then around the side BC. The volume of the first cone, thus formed, is x% more than second cone. Then x is equal to-
(A) 25
(B) 
(C) 20
(D) 
108. The base of a right-angled triangle is 5 units and hypotenuse is 13 units. Then the area is-
(A) 15 sq. units
(B) 30 sq. units
(C) 12 sq. units
(D) 60 sq. units
109. A wall 9 m long, 6 m high and 20 cm thick is to be constructed using bricks of dimension 30 cm × 15 cm × 10 cm. How many bricks will be required?
(A) 2800
(B) 3600
(C) 3200
(D) 2400
110. The diameter of a sphere is 6 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 0.1 cm. Find the length of the wire-
(A) 24 cm
(B) 28 cm
(C) 36 cm
(D) 42 cm
111. The greatest number of solid cubes with 0.2 metre edges that can be packed in a box whose inside dimensions are 1 m by 1 m by 2 m are-
(A) 10
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 250
112. The length of a wire is 66 m. Then the number of circles of circumference 1.32 cm that can be made from this wire is-
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 1000
(D) 5000
113. Suppose O is the incentre of ∆ABC and the circle touches the sides BC, CA and AB at the points P, Q, R respectively. If ∠A = 60°, then the magnitude of ∠QPR is-
(A) 60°
(B) 90°
(C) 120°
(D) 100°
114. In an isosceles triangle ABC, AB = AC; a circle drawn with AB as diameter intersects BC at D. If BD = 3 cm, then the length of CD is-
(A) 1.5 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 6 cm
115. A vertical stick, 12 cm long, casts a shadow 8 cm long on the ground. At the same time a tower casts a shadow 40 cm long on the ground. Determine the height of the tower-
(A) 40 cm
(B) 80 cm
(C) 60 cm
(D) 50 cm
116. If O is the circumcentre of a right-angled triangle ABC, right-angled at B, the position of point O is-
(A) Mid-point of CA
(B) Within triangle ABC
(C) Outside the triangle ABC
(D) Lies on BC
117. If in a triangle PQR, PQ = 3 cm, QR = 5 cm and PR = 4 cm, then the angles of the triangle in descending order of magnitude are-
(A) ∠P > ∠Q > ∠R
(B) ∠Q > ∠P > ∠R
(C) ∠P > ∠R > ∠Q
(D) ∠Q > ∠R > ∠P
118. The graphs of x + y = 4 and 3x + 3y = 6-
(A) Intercept at the point (2, 2)
(B) Intersect at the point (1, 3)
(C) Intersect at the point (3, 1)
(D) Do not intersect
119. If yz : zx : xy = 1 : 2 : 3 (x, y, z ≠ 0), then 
is-
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/2
(D) 4
120. If 
then the value of 
is-
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 34
121. If 
then the value of x2 + 2x + 3 is-
(A) 3
(B) 0
(C) 4
(D) 1
122. If a + b + c = 4, then a3 + b3 + c3 – 12c2 + 48c – 64 is equal to-
(A) 3abc
(B) 3abc – 12ab
(C) 3abc + 12ab
(D) abc + 12ab
123. 8 men can finish a piece of work in 40 days. If 2 more men join with them, then the work will be completed in-
(A) 30 days
(B) 32 days
(C) 36 days
(D) 25 days
124. The driver of a car driving @ 36 kmph locates a bus 40 m ahead of him. After 20 seconds the bus is 60 m behind. The speed of the bus is-
(A) 36 kmph
(B) 20 m/sec
(C) 72 m/sec
(D) 18 kmph
125. A producer of tea blends two varieties of tea from two tea gardens, one costing Rs 240 per kg and the other Rs 300 per kg, in the ratio 5 : 3. If he sells the blended variety at Rs 315 per kg then his gain per cent is-
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 
(D) 
126. A and B entered into a partnership with capitals in the ratio 4 : 5. After 3 months A withdrew 1/4 of his capital and B withdrew 1/5 of his capital of his capital. The gain at the end of 10 months was Rs 760. A’s share in this profit is-
(A) Rs 330
(B) Rs 360
(C) Rs 450
(D) Rs 540
127. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 15% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price and the printed price is-
(A) 16 : 21
(B) 18 : 21
(C) 17 : 23
(D) 18 : 23
128. The selling price of an article is Rs 39. If its cost price is numerically equal to its profit per cent, then its cost price (in Rs) is-
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 37
129. A man sold two tables for Rs 720 each. One he gained 20% and on the other be lost 20%. Find his total loss for gain in this transaction-
(A) No gain no loss
(B) Loss of Rs 60
(C) Gain of Rs 60
(D) Loss of Rs 50
130. The difference between simple and compound interest @ 10% per annum of a sum of Rs 1,000 after 4 years is-
(A) Rs 31
(B) Rs 32.10
(C) Rs 40.40
(D) Rs 64.10
131. The average of 15 numbers is 7. If the average of the first 8 numbers is 6.5 and the average of the last 8 numbers is 8.5, then the middle number is-
(A) 10
(B) 23
(C) 13
(D) 15
132. If 
find 
–
(A) 13.625
(B) 13.6
(C) 12.5
(D) 2.375
133. The sum of three numbers is 121. The ratio of the second to the 3rd is 9 : 6 and the first to the 3rd is 1 : 4. The second number is-
(A) 60
(B) 62
(C) 64
(D) 66
134. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 75. What is their H.C.F.?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 15
135. A’s salary is 30% higher than B’s salary, The per cent that B’s salary is less than A’s salary is-
(A) 30%
(B) 
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
136. 1 minute 48 seconds in the percentage of 1 hour is represented by –
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
137. 
simplifies to-
(A) √5 + √6
(B) 2√5 + √6
(C) √5 – √6
(D) 2√5 – 3√6
138. H. C.F. of 1/2, 3/4, 5/6, 7/8, 9/10 is-
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/10
(C) 9/120
(D) 1/120
139. The sum of three numbers is 132. If the first number is twice the second and the third number is one-third of the first, then the second number is-
(A) 60
(B) 48
(C) 36
(D) 32
140. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is-
(A) 900
(B) 1600
(C) 2500
(D) 3600
141. 24 is divided into two parts such that 7 times the first part added to 5 times the second part makes 146. The first part is-
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 15
(D) 17
142. A number when divided by 5, 9, 13 leaves remainders 2, 6 and 10 respectively. The least such number is-
(A) 572
(B) 592
(C) 602
(D) 582
143. The base of a prism is an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm. If the volume of the prism is 1080 cc, then the total surface area of the prism in sq. cm in-
(A) 72√3
(B) 360√3
(C) 432√3
(D) 1080
144. If 
then 
is equal to-
(A) 
(B) x
(C) 
(D) 
145. In the sequence 4, 13, 38, … the 4th term is-
(A) 58
(B) 96
(C) 111
(D) 123
146. If x2 + a2 = y2 + b2 = ax + by = 1, then the numerical value of a2 + b2 is-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Directions-(Q. 147 and 148) The histogram below shows the marks of 50 students in an examination. Examine the diagram and answer.
147. How many students obtained less than 40?
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 5
148. If the minimum marks for getting scholarship is 80, how many students will get it?
(A) 13
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 11
Directions-(Q. 149 and 150) The following pie-chart shows the result of an examination of 360 students. Study the chart and answer.
149. The number of students who passed in second division is more than that in third division by-
(A) 54
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 64
150. The percentage of students who failed is-
(A) 5
(B) 20
(C) 10
(D) 15
For Visually Handicapped Candidates only
147. If the height is doubled and the base is decreased by 20%, then the ratio of old area of the triangle and new area of the triangle is-
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 3 : 10
(C) 4 : 5
(D) 5 : 8
148. If tan 2θ tan 4θ = 1, then the value of tan 3θ is-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) √3
(D) 1/√3
149. If 
then the value of 
is
(A) ac/b
(B) a2/bc
(C) c/ab
(D) bc/a
150. A certain sum amounts to Rs 5,182 in 2 years and Rs 5,832 in 3 years. If the simple interest is calculated annually, then the principal is-
(A) Rs 2,000
(B) Rs 5,000
(C) Rs 3,882
(D) Rs 4,000
Part-IV
General Awareness
151. An index number measuring the average price of consumer goods and services purchased by households is-
(A) Consumer price index
(B) Human development index
(C) Cost of living index
(D) Wholesale price index
152. Oligopoly consists of-
(A) Two sellers
(B) Three sellers
(C) Single seller
(D) Few sellers
153. National Income in India is estimated by the-
(A) product method
(B) income method
(C) expenditure method
(D) product and income methods
154. The fixed cost in the short-run for a producing firm will be-
(A) always declining
(B) always constant and fixed
(C) always increasing
(D) always fluctuating
155. Machine tool is an example of ……. goods.
(A) consumer
(B) capital
(C) free
(D) intermediary
156. Gandhara art was the combination of-
(A) Indian and greek styles of sculptures
(B) Indian and Persian styles of sculptures
(C) Indian and Chinese styles of sculptures
(D) None of these
157. Mohammed Gawan was a famous Wazir and Vakil in the kingdom of-
(A) Bahmani
(B) Gujarat
(C) Kashmir
(D) Mysore
158. The first Governor of the Portuguese in India was-
(A) Vasco-da-Gama
(B) Bartholomew Diaz
(C) Albuquerque
(D) De Almeida
159. Which one of the following reformative measures was not introduced by William Bentinck?
(A) Abolition of Sati
(B) Removal of disabilities due to change of religion
(C) Abolition of slavery
(D) Suppression of thugs
160. Which work of Thomas Paine inspired the colonial people to fight against Britain during the American War of Independence?
(A) What is the Third Estate
(B) Common Sense
(C) The Spirit of the Laws
(D) Social Contract
161. Fascism believes in-
(A) One party system
(B) Bi-party system
(C) Fragmented multi-party system
(D) Dominant multi-party system
162. Which of the following commissions is not a constitutional body?
(A) Staff Selection Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
163. Under the advisory jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives its opinion on a question of law or fact of great public importance referred to it by-
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The President
(C) The Union Law Minister
(D) Any High Court
164. How much time is given to Rajya Sabha to pass a Money Bill?
(A) 12 days
(B) 13 days
(C) 14 days
(D) 15 days
165. The electoral college to elect the President composes-
(A) All members of both the Houses of Parliament
(B) All elected members of both the Houses of Parliament
(C) All members of Parliament and all members of Legislative Assemblies and Councils
(D) Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies
166. Which one of the tree species does not belong to deciduous vegetation?
(A) Teak
(B) Sal
(C) Sandalwood
(D) Deodar
167. The predominant soil in the Coastal plains and North Indian plains is-
(A) Black
(B) Red
(C) Alluvial
(D) Arid
168. Rocks having large quantity of underground water and permitting ready flow of water are called-
(A) Aquicludes
(B) Aquifers
(C) Porous
(D) Permeable
169. Which one of the following is not a grassland?
(A) Selvas
(B) Steppes
(C) Downs
(D) Veld
170. Duncan Passage separates-
(A) North and Middle Andamans
(B) Middle and South Andamans
(C) South Andamans and Little Andamans
(D) Little Andamans and Car Nicobar Islands
171. In biology, water soluble substances are referred to as-
(A) hydrophobic
(B) hydrophilic
(C) hydrokinetic
(D) hydrodynamic
172. Amoeba acquires its food through the process of-
(A) Exocytosis
(B) Endocytosis
(C) Plasmolysis
(D) Exocytosis and endocytosis
173. Female Anopheles mosquito is the vector of-
(A) Filariasis
(B) Dengue fever
(C) Yellow fever
(D) Malaria
174. The animal association seen in a sucker fish attached to a shark is-
(A) Mutualism
(B) Commensalism
(C) Parasitism
(D) Neutralism
175. Which among the following is symbiotic Nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
(A) Xanthomonas
(B) Pseudomonas
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Azotobacter
176. Match correctly the crops listed in List-I with the diseases affecting them given in List-II-
List-I (Crops) List—II(Diseases)
(a) Paddy 1. Downy mildew
(b) Wheat 2. Blast
(c) Mustard 3. Red not
(d) Sugarcane 4. Rust
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
177. A plant with green leaves viewed in red light will appear-
(A) Black
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Violet
178. A body moving in a circular path with constant speed has-
(A) constant retardation
(B) constant acceleration
(C) variable acceleration
(D) radially outward acceleration
179. Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from-
(A) a rarer medium to a denser medium
(B) a denser medium to a rarer medium
(C) a rarer medium to a denser medium with angle of incidence greater than critical angle
(D) a denser medium to a rarer medium with angle of incidence greater than critical angle
180. MCB, which cuts off the electricity supply in case of short-circuiting works on the-
(A) chemical effect of current
(B) heating effect of current
(C) magnetic effect of current
(D) electroplating effect of current
181. An operating system is a/an-
(A) Application software
(B) System software
(C) Utility software
(D) Accounting software
182. In DOS, the DIR Command is used to-
(A) delete files
(B) display list of files and subdirectories
(C) copy files
(D) display contents of a file
183. ………….. is the amount of work that the system is able to do per unit time.
(A) Output
(B) Transfer rate
(C) Throughput
(D) Turnaround
184. An example of a covalent molecule is-
(A) Carbon tetrachloride
(B) Potassium chloride
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Lead chloride
185. The element common to all acids is-
(A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Sulphur
186. In medicine bottles containing tablets or capsules, a small pouch of silica gel is kept to-
(A) kill bacteria
(B) absorb moisture
(C) absorb gases
(D) keep the bottle warm
187. Aluminium oxide is a/an-
(A) acid oxide
(B) basic oxide
(C) neutral oxide
(D) amphoteric oxide
188. Which one of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(A) Desert
(B) Mountain
(C) Ocean
(D) Forest
189. Which of the following is a biodegradable pollutant?
(A) Dye effluent
(B) Bleaching effluent
(C) Sewage
(D) Heavy metals
190. The concentration of pollutants in atmosphere are generally expressed in-
(A) parts per million
(B) parts per billion
(C) kilogram per square metre
(D) parts per trillion
191. Which country won the Confederations Cup, 2013?
(A) Spain
(B) Brazil
(C) Italy
(D) Uruguay
192. Who is the Chief Justice of India?
(A) Justice Altamas Kabir
(B) Justice P. Sathasivam
(C) Justice Markandey Singh
(D) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
193. Which one of the following days does not synchronize with the birth anniversary of any eminent Indian?
(A) National Science Day
(B) Teacher’s Day
(C) Children’s Day
(D) Gandhi Jayanti
194. Which one of the following novels was not written by Charles Dickens?
(A) Hard Times
(B) Pride and Prejudice
(C) Oliver Twist
(D) Pickwick Papers
195. Which country has given asylum to Julian Assange, Wiki Leaks founder?
(A) Cuba
(B) Ecuador
(C) Russia
(D) None of these
196. What is the currency of South Africa?
(A) Real
(B) Rial
(C) Dirham
(D) Rand
197. Match the two lists containing the name of poets and the language in which they wrote Ramayana-
Poets
(a) Kamban
(b) Krittivasa
(c) Madhava Kandali
(d) Tulsi Das
Language in which Ramayana was written
(1) Bengali (2) Hindi
(3) Tamil (4) Assamese
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
198. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries?
(A) Algeria
(B) Brazil
(C) Ecuador
(D) Libya
199. The two events in which India won gold medals in the Asian Athletic Championships, 2013 are-
(A) Women’s 400 m and Women’s Discuss Throw
(B) Women’s Long Jump and Men’s Discuss Throw
(C) Women’s Shot Put and Women’s 4 × 400 m Relay
(D) Women’s 4 × 400 m Relay and Men’s Discuss Throw
200. For which one of the following films directed by Shyam Benegal was the story written jointly by him and Dr. Verghese Kurien?
(A) Ankur
(B) Mandi
(C) Manthan
(D) Zubeidaa
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