IBPS CWE-VI Bank Clerk Main Online Examination 2017
Held On January 1, 2017
1. MMID is a seven-digit number issued by banks for transfer of money. What does ‘I’ in MMID stands for?
(a) Input
(b) Internet
(c) Identifier
(d) Ink
(e) Immediate
2. Which of the following is an electronic transfer system that operates in hourly batches?
(a) NEFT
(b) RTGS
(c) Paytm
(d) MICR
(e) UPI
3. In which of the following payments banks, the stakes are wholly owned by government of India?
(a) Paytm
(b) NSDL
(c) Bandhan Bank
(d) IPPB
(e) FINI pay tech
4. Rabobank is a multinational banking and financial services company. It is headquartered in
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Sweden
(d) Switzerland
(e) Netherlands
5. EFTPOS is an electronic payment system involving electronic fund transfers based on the use of payment cards, such as debit or credit cards, at payment terminals located points of sale. What does ‘P’ stands for in EFTPOS?
(a) Payment
(b) Partial
(c) Panel
(d) Point
(e) Public
6. Irom Chanu Sharmila is a political right activist and recently launched People’s Resurgence Justice Alliance in which o the following States?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
(e) Arunachal Pradesh
7. As per the draft guidelines for ‘on tap’ licensing of Universal Banks, released by RBI, maximum limit for foreign investment in India is
(a) 49%
(b) 71%
(c) 57%
(d) 74%
(e) 100%
8. The Global Citizen Fest was recently hosted in which of the following cities?
(a) Delhi
(b) Jaipur
(c) Mumbai
(d) Bengaluru
(e) Gurugram
9. India has signed a deal of Rs. 5000 crore to buy M777 Howitzer artilleries from which of the following countries?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Russia
(d) The USA
(e) France
10. The rate at which RBI lends to the commercial banks, is called
(a) Base rate
(b) Repo Rate
(c) Reverse Repo Rate
(d) SLR
(e) CRR
11. NFS is the largest network of shared Automatic Teller Machines (ATMs) in India and is run by which of the following organization?
(a) Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited
(b) National Stock Exchange
(c) National Securities Depository Limited
(d) National Payments Corporation of India
(e) Reserve Bank of India
12. Who was the UAE-based Indian teenager that had recently won the International Peace Price Award 2016?
(a) Meghna Pant
(b) Vaidehi Reddy
(c) Abhisekh Saharia
(d) Chhavi Kohli
(e) Kehkashan Basu
13. Which of the following is theme for the United Nations’s International Day of persons with Disabilities?
(a) Sustainable Development : The Promise of Technology
(b) Break Barriers, Open Door : For an Inclusive Society and Development for All
(c) Achieving 17 Goals for the Future we want
(d) Inclusion Matters : Access and Empowerment for People of All Abilities
(e) Together for a Better World for All : Including Persons with Disabilities in Development
14. The RBI original share capital was divided into shares of 100 each fully paid, which were initially owned entirely by which of the following entities?
(a) Government of India
(b) British Government
(c) East India Company
(d) Public Shareholders
(e) Private Shareholders
15. The International Criminal Court is an intergovernmental organization and international tribunal that is headquartered in which of the following countries?
(a) Netherlands
(b) Sweden
(c) Switzerland
(d) Denmark
(e) Germany
16. Local Area Banks were set-up by the government of India with jurisdiction over two or three contiguous
(a) localities
(b) cities
(c) states
(d) districts
(e) municipalities
17. India’s first banking robot Lakshmi to be launched by City Union Bank in which of the following cities?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Hyderabad
(e) Delhi
18. Which of the following is not included in market risk?
(a) Interest rate risk
(b) Equity risk
(c) Currency risk
(d) Commodity risk
(e) Specific risk
19. The author of the trilogy ‘The Immortals of Meluha’ is
(a) Kavita Kane
(b) Amish Tripathi
(c) Amitav Ghosh
(d) Vikram Seth
(e) Gregory Roberts
20. The Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary is located in the Indian State of
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Karnataka
(d) Manipur
(e) Kerala
21. The Heart of Asia summit to discuss regional issues, particularly encouraging security, political and economical cooperation among Afghanistan and its neighbours was held in which of the following cities?
(a) Istanbul
(b) Kabul
(c) Amritsar
(d) Delhi
(e) Hyderabad
22. The saving bank account, which does not operate for more than 24 months, then the accounts is known as
(a) inactive account
(b) dormant account
(c) inaccessible account
(d) demat account
(e) inoperative account
23. Who was awarded the best actor award at the Asia Pacific Screen Awards 2016?
(a) Irrfan Khan
(b) Manor Bajpayee
(c) Nawazuddin Siddique
(d) Ahmed Al-Rokh
(e) David Puttnam
24. Which of the following is a web-based solution to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature?
(a) SEBI
(b) NEFT
(c) Paytm
(d) NPCI
(e) NACH
25. What is the maximum period up to which NBFCs can accept deposit from the date of receipt of such deposit?
(a) 12 months
(b) 24 months
(c) 48 months
(d) 84 months
(e) 96 months
26. Recently, RBI relaxed norms for 2-factor authentication for payments up to which of the following?
(a) Rs. 2000
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 1000
(d) Rs. 4000
(e) Rs. 10000
27. M. Balamurali Krishna, recently passed away at the age of 82, was a well known
(a) Director
(b) Carnatic singer
(c) Cardiologist
(d) Playwright
(e) Politician
28. Gobind Sagar Dam is a man-made reservoir situated in Bilaspur district. It is situated in
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Himachal Pradesh
(e) Jammu and Kashmir
29. Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of which of the following?
(a) Treasury bills
(b) Certificate of deposit
(c) Bills of exchange
(d) Promissory note
(e) Bank note
30. Asia’s first 207-km long cycling highway is inaugurated in the Indian State of
(a) Kerala
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
(e) Haryana
31. Joint training Exercise ‘Hand-in-Hand’ is held between India and
(a) Russia
(b) USA
(c) China
(d) Japan
(e) France
32. The world’s first Bollywood theme park has recently been opened in
(a) Mumbai
(b) New York
(c) Dubai
(d) Hong Kong
(e) Paris
33. If a person provides proof of having applied for an officially valid document, then the validity of the account is extended for how many months?
(a) Six
(b) Three
(c) Eight
(d) Twelve
(e) Four
34. Loans of very small amounts given to low income groups or poor households, is called
(a) Micro credit
(b) Cash credit
(c) Simple overdraft
(d) Rural credit
(e) No frills loan
35. Which of the following companies has recently started a service to deliver cash to doorsteps through micro ATMs powered by the bank?
(a) Flipkart
(b) Snapdeal
(c) Amazon
(d) Uber
(e) Big Basket
36. Which of the following microfinance institution is a Universal Bank?
(a) SKS Microfinance Private Limited
(b) Disha Microfinance Private Limited
(c) Arohan Financial Services Private Limited
(d) Bandhan Financial Services Private Limited
(e) Annupurna Private Limited
37. The small finance Banks also known as Payments Bank are mandated to open how much percent of their branches in rural unbanked areas?
(a) 28%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 32%
(e) 44%
38. Which of the following is the Executive Director of the RBI Working Group on Fin Tech and Digital Banking?
(a) AK Pandey
(b) PG Apte
(c) B. Mahapatra
(d) Sudarshan Sen
(e) DK Mohanty
39. Which of the following is the only Central Record Keeping Agency appointed by the government of India?
(a) CIBIL
(b) SEBI
(c) NABARD
(d) Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL)
(e) National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL)
40. The National Financial Switch, which facilitates routing of ATM transactions, is developed by which of the following organizations?
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) NPCI
(d) IDRBT
(e) SIDBI
Part II Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-44) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
In certain code language
‘work for earning money’ is coded as ‘Go3 None X Xor4 Farnin7’
‘like six years passed’ is coded as ‘Ti3 Qasse6 Zear5 Mik4’
‘hence good amount received’ is coded as ‘Seceive8 lenc5 Hoo4 Bmoun6’
41. What is the code for last earning was money?
(a) Xa3 Mas4 None5 Farnin7
(b) None5 Xa3 Mas4 Darnin7
(c) None5 Mas4 Farnin7 Xa3
(d) Mas4 one5 Farnin7 Xa3
(e) None of these
42. If ‘money makes man perfect’ is coded as ‘Nake5 Qerfec7 Na3 None5’, then what is the code for good people always perfect?
(a) Qeopl6 Hoo4 Blway6
(b) Hoo4 Qerfec7 Blway6 Qeopl6
(c) Qeople6 Hoo4 Qerfec7 Blway6
(d) Qerfec7 Blway6 Qeopl5 Hoo5
(e) None of the above
43. What is the code of the ‘hence always wrong hance’?
(a) Blway6 lance5 Xron5 lenc5
(b) Lanc5 Xron5 Blway5 Lenc5
(c) Lanc5 Xron5 Blway5 Lenc5
(d) Blway6 Lenc5 Lanc5 Xron5
(e) Lanc6 Xron6 Blway5 Lenc5
44. ‘Framing’ is coded as
(a) Garmin7
(b) Gramin8
(c) Garing8
(d) Earin7
(e) Earnin8
Directions (Q. Nos. 45-50) Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are five u nits i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Each unit has a different height. Also each unit contains books and boxes. Unit 2 is above Unit 1 and Unit 3 is above Unit 2 and so on. Every unit belongs to different country i.e., Beijing, Paris, London, Sydney and Zurich. The total h eight of all five u nits is equal to 252″ ft.
- Total height of unit is equal to the total height of books plus total height of books plus total height of boxes in each unit.
- Height of books is not equal to the height of boxes, unless specified.
The books belongs to London is an even unit. The total height of Unit 1 is 75ft. Sydney is not a Unit 1. The total height of unit, which belongs to Sydney, is 55 ft. There is only one gap between London and Paris. The height of books and height of boxes in Unit 3 are equal. The height of books in Unit 2 is not less than 30 ft. The books Unit 4 are four m ore than books, which i s in Unit 3.
The total height of London is not 37ft. The total height of unit, which contains 37 ft is not taking the place, which is immediately above a unit, which contains 20 ft more than the unit, which belongs to Sydney. The height of boxes in Unit 2 is 23 ft. Unit belongs to Zurich does not contain the equal height of books and boxes. The total height of Unit 2 is an odd number and h eight is more than 50 ft and less than 55ft. Unit 1 contains 23ft height of boxes more than Unit 4 contains height of boxes and Unit 5 contains 7 ft. height of books less than Unit 1 contains.
45. What is the total height in Unit 3?
(a) 37 ft
(b) 32 ft
(c) 53 ft
(d) 75 ft
(e) 80 ft
46. Unit 3 belongs to which country?
(a) Paris
(b) Zurich
(c) Sydney
(d) Beijing
(e) London
47. If ‘Sydney’ is related to 37 ft in the same way as Beijing is related to 53 ft, which of the following is ‘Paris’ related to, following the same pattern?
(a) 53 ft
(b) 37 ft
(c) 75 ft
(d) 32 ft
(e) 30 ft
48. Four of the following five are a like in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Sydney
(b) 32 ft
(c) 75 ft
(d) Paris
(e) 37 ft
49. What is the height of box in Unit 4?
(a) 23 ft
(b) 17 ft
(c) 27 ft
(d) 40 ft
(e) 20 ft
50. Which unit contains 30 ft book?
(a) Unit 2
(b) Unit 3
(c) Unit 1
(d) Unit 5
(e) Unit 6
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Two buses A and B starts their journey from same depot but not necessary in the same order. Bus A starts moving 6 km towards North direction to point P, which is in the 8 km of East from dept and then take a right turn and move 18 km to reach Point R, then take a left turn and move 12 km to reach Point S. Point P, Q and R lies in same line.
Distance between P and Q is one third of the distance between Q and R. Bus B starts to move towards West 2 km more than Point P, Q and R from depot and reach Point W, then take a right turn and walk 18 km to reach Point U. U, V and W lies in the same lines as distance of V and W is double of the distance between U and V. From Point U Bus B take a right turn and reach Point X. Point T lies between U and X in exact midway.
51. What is the total distance between U and S?
(a) 29 km
(b) 32 km
(c) 36 km
(d) 30 km
(e) 28 km
52. In which direction is Point T with respect to Point W?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) North-West
(d) North-East
(e) South-West
53. A boy want to go to depot and starts walking towards South from Point W. After reaching point V he suddenly realize that he is going to wrong direction. So What is the shortest route from Point V to bus depot?
(a) Back to Point W then go to depot from there.
(b) From Point V he should go to East direction 14 km then move toward. South and reach depot.
(c) From Point V going towards North to reach Point U from there, he should reach Point S, then Point R, then Point P, then depot.
(d) Both A and B are shortest route
(e) Back to Point V, he should go to West direction 14km then move towards North and Reach depot.
54. What is the distance between T and X?
(a) 14 km
(b) 12 km
(c) 16 km
(d) 18 km
(e) 6 km
55. Bus A is moving in which direction currently?
(a) West
(b) North-East
(c) South
(d) North
(e) East
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In each of these questions, two statements marked as I and II are provided. These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes or be the effects of independent causes. Read both the statements and
(a) if statement I is cause and statement II is effect
(b) if statement II is cause and statement I is effect
(c) if statement I and II both are independent causes
(d) if statement I and II both are the effect of independent causes.
(e) if both statements are effect of simple cause.
56. Statement I. It is the bounden duty of each member of the civil society to contain the air pollution by contributing their best in this endeavour to safeguard the health of their countrymen.
Statement II. The alarming air pollution in our country is causing asthma cases to constantly multiply.
57. Statement I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months.
Statement II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few months.
58. Statement I. There has been an increase in the underground water level column at all places in Delhi due to the last year’s monsoon rains.
Statement II. Many train shad to be cancelled last year due to water-logging on the railway tracks.
59. Statement I. The prices of sugar had risen very sharply in Indian markets last year.
Statement II. The government imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreements with other countries last year.
60. Statement I. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by the unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
Statement II. The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-64) Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them was born in a different year-1971, 1975, 1979, 1980, 1981, 1984, 1985 and 1990, not necessarily in the same order.
M is sitting second to the right of K. L is sitting third to the right of J. Only the one born in 1984 is sitting exactly between J and K.
N, who is the eldest is not an immediate neighbour of J and M. Q is older than only M. Q is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of N. J is younger than L. K was born before O.
61. Who is the second eldest in the group?
(a) J
(b) L
(c) K
(d) P
(e) O
62. Who is sitting third to the right of O?
(a) The one born in 1979
(b) The one born in 1980
(c) The one born in 1985
(d) The one born in 1984
(e) The one born in 1981
63. In which year was Q born
(a) 1979
(b) 1975
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
(e) 1981
64. Which of the following statements is true regarding K?
(a) K is sitting fourth to the right of Q.
(b) The one who was born in 1975 is sitting to the immediate left of K.
(c) K is younger than Q
(d) There are three people sitting between N and K
(e) K sits to the immediate right of J
65. Who is younger to L?
(a) K
(b) M
(c) N
(d) P
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Eight persons I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Three of them are facing outward while five are facing towards the centre.
M is third to the right of K. N is sitting third to the left of M. Three persons are sitting between N and J. O is sitting third to the right of N, who is not facing the centre. L is sitting third to the right of I, who is not facing the centre.
66. Who sits between N and I?
(a) J
(b) K
(c) M
(d) O
(e) None of these
67. Who among the following sits second to the right of J?
(a) L
(b) K
(c) M
(d) N
(e) O
68. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to P?
(a) P sits opposite to that of O.
(b) P sits fourth to the right of O.
(c) P sits fourth to the left of O.
(d) None of the given statements is true with respect to P.
(e) All the given statements are true
69. Which of the following represents the group, of those facing away from the centre?
(a) IKN
(b) KNL
(c) IJK
(d) LMN
(e) JKL
70. What is the position of K with respect to P?
(a) K sits third to the right of P
(b) K is second to the left of P
(c) K is third to the left of P
(d) K is in front of P.
(e) None of the given statements is true
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-73) Each of the question below consists of a questions and three statements numbered I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read all the tree statements and
Given answer
(a) if the statements II and III are sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(b) if all the statement taken together are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) if the statement I and II is sufficient to answer the question, but statement III is not sufficient to answer the question
(d) if all the statements are sufficient enough to answer the question
(e) if statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
71. Which of the following represents ‘come’ in a code language?
I. ‘pit na ja od’ means ‘you may come here’ in that language.
II. ‘ja ta ter’ means ‘come and go’ in that cod language.
III. ‘od na pit ter’ means ‘you may go home’ in that code language.
72. How many sons does D has?
I. B and F are brothers of A.
II. C is the sister of A and F.
III. C and E are daughters of D.
73. Who amongst P, Q, R, S and T is in the middle while standing in a line?
I. Q is to the right of T. II. S is between P and T.
III. Q is between T and R.
Directions (Q. Nos. 74-75) In each of the questions below is given a statement followed by courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or an administrative decision to be taken for improvement follow up or further action in regard to the problem policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide, which of two given courses of action logically follow(s).
Given answer
(a) if only I follows (b) if only II follows
(c) if either I or II follows (d) if neither I nor II follows
(e) if both I and II follow
74. Statement The officer Incharge of a company had a lunch that some money was missing from the almirah.
Course of Action
I. They should get it recounted with the staff and check it with the balance sheet.
II. He should inform the police.
75. Statement Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of India directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at international rates from January this year.
Course of Action
I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.
II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercials banks.
76. Read the following information to answer the given question.
A tea manufacturing brand V, introduces a new ready to mix packaging of tea. But it had to withdraw its product from the market in a short span soon after the product was launched, it faced heavy losses.
Which of the following cannot be a reason for the withdrawal of new product from the market?
(a) The tea was available only in a single flavour.
(b) Media preservatives said that the tea has contained preservatives more than the permissible limit.
(c) The ready to mix tea was only in large packaging.
(d) The prices of the tea were unusually higher than other such items of regular use.
(e) The introductory scheme of free gift voucher with the tea was withdrawn from the market within 15 days f launch of the product.
Directions (Q. Nos. 77-80) Read the given passage carefully answer the given questions.
There are seven persons in family namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G. All of them related with each other in on
77. If the total age of B and D is 75 years, then what is the age of B?
(a) 40 yr
(b) 37 yr
(c) 6 yr
(d) 10 yr
(e) 15 yr
78. How is D related to A?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Mother
(c) Grandmother
(d) Father
(e) Cannot e determined
79. Who among the following person is 35 years old?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) D
(d) F
(e) C
80. What may be possible age of C?
(a) 52 yr
(b) 39 yr
(c) 37 yr
(d) 29 yr
(e) 2 yr
Part III Computer Awareness
81. The scrambling of code is known as
(a) Encryption
(b) Firewalling
(c) Scrambling
(d) Deception
(e) Permuting
82. What is the full form of VoIP?
(a) Voice of Internet Power
(b) Voice over Internet Protocol
(c) Voice on Internet Protocol
(d) Voice on Optimized internet Protocol
(e) Very Official Internet Protocol
83. Why do you log-off from your computer hen going out from your office?
(a) Someone might steal your file, passwords etc.
(b) In order to save electricity
(c) logging off is essential to increase performance.
(d) logging off is mandatory you before go out
(e) logging off is a good exercise to perform regularly.
84. Which of the following is not responsible for the performance of the computer?
(a) number of keys in the keyboard.
(b) name of the video/graphics word.
(c) memory in the video/graphics word.
(d) the lock speed of the processor.
(e) number of cores available in the processor
85. Which of the following is used to access a file from the computer store?
(a) Insert
(b) Retrieve
(c) File
(d) Print
(e) Find
86. Hard drive is used to store
(a) volatile data
(b) non-volatile data
(c) permanent data
(d) temporary data
(e) intermediate data
87. Which of the following is the combination of numbers, alphabets along with username used to get access to user account?
(a) Password
(b) Username
(c) Title name
(d) Host-Id
(e) Screen name
88. Which of the following is the type of software that has self-replicating software that causes damage to files and system?
(a) Viruses
(b) Trojan horses
(c) Bots
(d) Worms
(e) Backdoors
89. ………….. is used for very large files or where a fast response time is not critical. The files to be transmitted are gathered over a period and then send together as a batch.
(a) Batch processing
(b) Online processing
(c) File processing
(d) Data processing
(e) Text processing
90. Which of the following system is a function of dedicated PCs?
(a) Meant for a single user
(b) Meant for the single task
(c) Deal with single software
(d) Deal with only editing
(e) Deal for music purpose
91. What can possibly be the drawback of e-mails?
(a) e-mails requires being physically delivered to the user.
(b) e-mails infects computer.
(c) e-mails are very expensive to transmit.
(d) e-mails are slow to load.
(e) people don’t check e-mails regularly.
92. Which of the following is a valid e-mail address?
(a) name.website@info@ed
93. Which of the following character set supports Japanese and Chinese fonts?
(a) EBCDIC
(b) ASCII
(c) BC
(d) ECBI
(e) Unicode
94. What is the full form of RTF?
(a) Richer Text-Formatting
(b) Rich Text Format
(c) Right Text Fishing
(d) Right Text Font
(e) Rich Text Font
95. Which of the following is the text alignment available in word processing software that adjusts the left margin while keeping the right margin in any way?
(a) Justify
(b) Left justify
(c) Right justify
(d) Centre
(e) Orientation
96. Which of the following is false about the clock of the system?
(a) It is the property of the toolbar.
(b) The system can periodically refresh the time by synchronizing with a time source.
(c) System time is the current date and time of day.
(d) The system keeps time so that your applications have ready access to accurate time.
(e) The system bases system time on Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
97. Which of the following are properties of USB?
(a) Platform independent
(b) Platform dependent
(c) Source dependent
(d) Software dependent
(e) Software independent
98. An act of sending e-mails or creating webpages that are designed to collect an individual’s online bank, credit card, or other login information?
(a) Phishing
(b) Spam
(c) Hacking
(d) Cracking
(e) Malware
99. Which of the following is the organized collection of large amount of interrelated data stored in a meaningfully way used for manipulation and updating?
(a) Database
(b) File
(c) Folder
(d) Data-mining
(e) Data source
100. Which among the following cycle consists of an input, processing, output and storage as its constituents?
(a) Processing
(b) Output
(c) Input
(d) Storage
(e) Data
101. The part of a computer that coordinates all its functions, is called its
(a) ROM program
(b) System board
(c) Arithmetic logic unit
(d) Control unit
(e) None of these
102. Oracle is a
(a) RDBMS
(b) hardware
(c) system software
(d) high level language
(e) None of these
103. Which of the following computer languages is a mathematically oriented language used for scientific problems?
(a) Fortran
(b) Cobol
(c) Lisp
(d) Prolog
(e) Android
104. Coded entries, which are used to gain access to a computer system, are called
(a) Entry codes
(b) Passwords
(c) Security commands
(d) Codewords
(e) None of these
105. Communication between a computer and keyboard involves ………. transmission.
(a) Automatic
(b) Half-duplex
(c) Full-duplex
(d) Simplex
(e) None of these
106. In which of the following level of OSI model, data encryption is done?
(a) Application layer
(b) Session layer
(c) Transport layer
(d) Network layer
(e) Data link layer
107. ………… controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.
(a) The operating system
(b) The motherboard
(c) The platform
(d) Application software
(e) Hardware
108. Which of the following is not a property of fibre optic cabling?
(a) Transmits at faster speeds than copper cabling
(b) Easier to capture a signal from than copper cabling
(c) Very resistant to interference
(d) Carries signals as light waves
(e) less attenuation
109. DEL command is used to
(a) delete files
(b) delete directory
(c) delete lables
(d) delete contents of file
(e) Both (a) and (b)
110. ………… are software which used to do particular task.
(a) Operating system
(b) Program
(c) Data software
(d) Data
(e) Application software
111. …………. is the process of dividing the disk into task and sectors.
(a) Alloting
(b) Crashing
(c) Formatting
(d) Tracking
(e) Decrypting
112. What type of software creates a smaller files that is faster to transfer over the internet?
(a) Compression
(b) Fragmentation
(c) Encapsulation
(d) Unzipped
(e) Abstraction
113. A process known as……………. is used by large retailers to study trends.
(a) data mining
(b) data election
(c) POS
(d) data conversion
(e) data inversion
114. The ability to recover and read deleted damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law enforcement specially, is called
(a) robotics
(b) simulation
(c) computer
(d) animation
(e) encapsulation
115. ………… is data that has been organized and presented in a meaningful fashion.
(a) A process
(b) Software
(c) Storage
(d) Information
(e) Data
116. The components that process data are located in which of the following?
(a) Input devices
(b) Output devices
(c) System unit
(d) Storage component
(e) Expansion board
117. The CPU and memory are located in which of the following devices?
(a) Motherboard
(b) Expansion board
(c) Storage device
(d) Output device
(e) System unit
118. …………… is the revolving around the use of nano structures to build devices on an extremely small scale.
(a) Nano-technology
(b) Micro-technology
(c) Computer forensics
(d) Artificial Intelligence
(e) Very small scale technology
119. The steps and tasks need to process data, such as response to questions or clicking n icon, are called
(a) instructions
(b) the operating system
(c) application software
(d) the system unit
(e) the hardware unit.
120. Which of the meal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer?
(a) System unit
(b) CPU
(c) mainframe
(d) platform
(e) microprocessor
IV English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) Each sentence below has two/three blanks. There are five pair/group of words below each sentence. Each pair/group is indicated as 9a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Choose the pair/group of words which can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same order so as to complete the sentence meaningfully.
121. Activities in the country have long protested its …………. society that essentially………… women from travelling, marrying or attending college without permission from a male relative, who is called their
(a) benevolent, forbid; steward
(b) pre-adamite; prevent; custodian
(c) pre-eminent; restrict; protector
(d) venerable; condemns; manciple
(e) patriarchial; prohibits; guardian
122. Individual tax rates in the country are substantially ………. compared to tax rates in the US and Western Europe but slightly ……… than those in most emerging markets.
(a) slow; more
(b) decreasing; increased
(c) lesser; much
(d) lower; higher
(e) stricter; lower
123. The regular body is likely to ……. stricter trading norms, create special liquidity window on the budget day to combat potential market………..
(a) implement; versatile
(b) let; flexibility
(c) remove; steady
(d) ignore; dynamic
(e) impose; volatility
124. Sales of consumer packaged goods companies are ……….. to record their slowest growth in two years as customers cutback their expenditure even on …………. items and groceries.
(a) expected; essential
(b) willing; regularly
(c) estimate; necessary
(d) approximate; daily
(e) required; urgent
125. The bad loan ratios are ……. to be uglier in the fourth quarter given the ……….. loan growth.
(a) moves; frail
(b) likely; weaker
(c) tend; skewed
(d) intend; meagre
(e) going; swiftly
Directions (Q. Nos. 126-133) Read the passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Though global multinationals account for only 2% the world’s jobs, they own or orchestrate the supply chains that account for over 50% of world trade, they make up 40% of the value of the West’s stockmarkets; and they own most of the world’ intellectual property. Although the idea of being at the top of the food chain makes these companies sound all-conquering, rickety and overextended are often more fitting adjectives.
Companies became obsessed with internationalizing their customer’s production, capital and management. In 2016, multinationals’ cross-border investment fell by 10-15% the share of trade accounted for by cross-border supply chains has stagnated since 2007 and the proportion of sales that Western firms make outside their home region has shrunk.
They are in retreat. To understand why this is, consider the three parties that made the boom possible. Investors, the ‘headquarters countries’ in which global firms are domiciles, and the ‘host countries’ that received multinational investment. Each though that multinational firms would provide superior financial or economic performance.
Investors saw a huge potential for economies of scale. As China, India and the Soviet Union opened up. and as Europe liberalized itself into single market, firms could sell this same product to more people. Moreover, they saw ‘geographical arbitrage’ i.e., from the rich world they could get management, capital, brands and technology and from the emerging world they could get cheap workers and raw materials as well as lighter rules on pollution.
These advantages led investors to think global firms would grow faster and make higher profits. That was true for a while, not today. The profits of the top 700-odd multinational firms have dropped by 25% over the past five years, according to FTSE, an index firm. The weakness of many currencies against the dollar is part of the story; the slump in commodity prices, and thus the profits of oils firms, mining firms and the like is a factor too. Another 10% of deterioration is due to the collapse of banks. Individual bosses will often blame one-off factors, currency moves, the economic collapse of Venezuela currency swaps and the like can be thought of, a depression in Europe, a crackdown on graft in China, and so on.
But the deeper explanation is that both the advantages of scales and those of arbitrage have worn away. As a result, firms with a domestic focus are winning market share by 2%. In Brazil, two local banks, have trounced global lenders what about the ‘headquarters countries’? In the 1990s and 2000s, they wanted their national champions to go global in order to become bigger and brainier.
The mood changed after the financial crisis. Multinational firms started to be seen as agents of inequality. They created jobs abroad, but not at home. As a result, the tapestry of rules designed to help business globally is fraying. Takeovers of western firm now often come with string attached by governments to safeguard local jobs and plants. There are gathering clouds in host countries as well. China has been turning the screws on foreign firms in a push for ‘Indigenous innovation’.
Bosses say that more products have to be sources locally and intellectual property often ends up handed over to local partners. Strategic industries, including the internet, are out of bounds to foreign investment. Many fear that China’s approach will be mimicked around the developing world, forcing multinational firms to invest more locally and create more jobs a mirror image of the pressure placed on them at home.
126. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
A. Multinationals wanted their champions to go global in 1990s and 2000s.
B. Financial measures to address the situation in Venezuela.
C. Breaking of large corporate entities.
(a) Only C
(b) Only B
(c) Only A
(d) A and B
(e) All of these
127. Which of the following can be said about the multinationals in the context of the passage?
A.Investors in multinational firms may stop investing.
B. There is resistance to multinational firms in their own domestic markets.
C. Multinationals are struggling.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) All of these
(e) A and C
128. Which of the following phrases from the passage can be replaced by ‘trouble’ in the context of the passage?
A. Out of bounds. B. Economies of scale
C. Gathering clouds D. In retreat
(a) Only A
(b) All of these
(c) B and D
(d) A and B
(e) Only C
129. Which of the following is responsible for and is best explanations(s) for the current health of global firms?
A. Economic trouble in some countries.
B. Advantages of labour that were available earlier have diminished.
C. Failure of banks.
(a) Only C
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) A and C
(e) All of these
130. Which of the following is/are reason(s) for the author’s mention of various countries in the passage?
A. To illustrate the changing climate for global businesses.
B. To elucidate the similarities in response multinational businesses.
C. To negate the popular assumption that developed overtaken developing economies have overtaken developed ones.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) B and C
(e) A and B
131. Which of the following words is the opposite the word ‘Lighter’ as used in the passage?
(a) Tighter
(b) Stricter
(c) Insignificant
(d) Robust
(e) Familiar
132. Which of the following cannot be said about ‘geographical arbitrage’?
(a) It has facilitated the spread of cross-border trade.
(b) It caused stagnation of trade in the 1990s.
(c) Its effects have worn off.
(d) Western firms could increase profits.
(e) All the given options can be said.
133. Which of the following do(es) the passage centrally address?
A rosperity of multinational firms
B. Governments’ increasingly protecting the interest of local firms.
C. Concern for global trade and industry.
(a) A and C
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) A and B
(e) All of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 134-138) in each question sentence is given with three words/group of words in bold type. One or more of them may have a certain error. Below the sentence is given three combinations of words/group of words i.e., A, B and C. You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among A, B and C given below each sentence to replace the incorrect words/and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. One, two all three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any and mark the correct option which denotes your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
134. In 2015, two years after hurricane Sandy hit his city, the mayor announced to set-up a $ 3 billion restoration fund, partly was intended to pay for sea walls that would help city from storms ahead.
A. was setting up-which-any storms in the future
B. setting up of that storms
C. creation of part of which future storms
(a) Only A
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) Only C
(e) No correction required
135. Since ancient times, medics have relied on their sense of smell to help them work out what is wrong with their patients-fruity odours on the breath, for example, let them monitor the condition of diabetics, while odours assist in the diagnosis of respiratory-tract infections.
A. relying-to work out anything-diagnosing
B. were reliant-work out whether anything-how to diagnose
C. had to rely-in working out anything-any diagnosis
(a) Only A
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) Only C
(e) No correction required
136. Thailand’s performing dismally is not drastically out of step with countries of similar incomes, not strange given its unusually generous spending on
A. dismal performance-bit it is-expenditure on
B. having a dismal performance-being-budget
C. dismally performing-is not-amount spent on
(a) Only C
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) Only A
(e) No correction required
137. There is a government survey, about 12.6 million Japanese aged 60 or older now option working, up from 8.7 million in 2000 and two-thirds of Japan’s over-65s want to stay gainfully employed.
A. In-have an option-and gain employment
B. As revealed by-are option-gains from employment
C. According to-opt to keep-gainfully employed
(a) Only B
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) Only C
(e) No correction required
138. The hope is that the torrents of data which generate will contain some crucial nuggets that let neuroscientists get more understanding how exactly the brain does all it does.
A. these schemes-closer to-what it does
B. which will able to function
C. that these studies-a better-work
(a) Only A
(b) All of the above
(c) A and B
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) None of the above
Directions (Q. Nos. 139-143) In these questions, there are four/five sentences A, B, C, D and/or E. Three or Four of these sentences contribute to one main idea when these sentences are formed into a paragraph. One sentence does not contribute to that main idea. That sentence is your answer.
139. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the given passage?
A. The cost of production for luxury goods is not usually a prime concern and capital investment is generally modest, except for watches.
B. Some of the normal rules do not apply to luxury-goods makers, even though in many ways they are similar to other consumer-good companies.
C. To view the world through the lens of luxury is to see it subtly offered.
D. A really prestigious item can b e a ‘Veblen good’, named after an American economist born in themed-19th century who noticed that demand for some good actually rises as they get more expensive because they confer yet more status.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) Only C
(e) A and C
140. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the given passage?
A. These present drivers of its economy, however, are under threat from technology.
B. Africa is a hopeful continent with an exuberance driven by minerals, hydrocarbon and commodities.
C. Without the ability to create knowledge through hands on learning the quality of education, in the country is unlikely to improve.
D. The long-view trajectory of electric vehicles in Africa suggests a future where electrons will power more cars than carbon compounds.
(a) Only A
(b) Only C
(c) Only B
(d) B and C
(e) All those given as options contribute
141. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the given passage?
A. There is a growing body of research which revealed that the number of vigilance equipment security agencies purchased has decreased over the years.
B. Many parents fret that their offsprings will die unless ceaselessly watched.
C. In 1893, philosopher John Locke warned that children should not be given too much ‘unwholesome fruit’ to eat.
D. By most objective measures, modern parents are far more conscientious than previous generations.
E. Four centuries later, misguided ideas about child-rearing are rife.
(a) Only A
(b) Only C
(c) Only B
(d) B and C
(e) All those given as options contribute
142. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the passage?
A. Research suggests that pear packets working indoors were slowed by air pollution even at levels well below current air-quality standards.
B. For anyone who as has tried jogging through smog, the physically sapping impacts of air pollution should come as no surprise.
C. On days with more air pollution, workers spend more time on breaks and complete fewer cells.
D. But pollution doesn’t just slow down runners, it hampers workers too.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) B and C
(e) All those given as options contribute
143. Which of the following does not contribute to the main idea of the passage?
A. Under this model, consumers are paying to access someone else’s goods or services for a particular period of time and at cheaper value.
B. The sharing economy has been widely hailed as a major growth sector by sources.
C. Millennial today are willing to pay more for fresh and healthy food.
D. Third model has disrupted nature industries, such as hotels and automotives, by providing consumers with convenient and cost efficient access to resources without the financial, emotional, or social burdens of ownership.
E. The sharing economy isn’t really a “sharing” economy at all. It’s an access economy.
(a) B and C
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) All those given as option contribute
(e) Only A
Directions (Q. Nos. 144-150) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Intended to give its workers more rest, this year, the Taiwanese government has brought about some labour amendments, such as the ‘one fixed day off, one flexibly day off’. It has steadily garnered raked reactions in the media.
News of businesses moving to enact measures to meet the new regulations has emerged, including price hikes and reduced business hours. Reports, such as popular food chains upping their prices have coloured media. On the other hand, Taiwan’s two major convenience stores denied reports that stores would be closing cover the weekend in response to the regulations.
The latest circumstances only presented examples of how the new holiday policy would hinder Taiwanese business’ operations, pose price hikes and create a more difficult environment for Taiwanese nationals to go about their daily lives in an already wage-stagnant economy.
Increased cost are inevitable. But should it be looked upon with disdain and diversion? Let us look at the issue from a different perspective. Foreigners and tourists have commented that the 24-hour convenience stores and high quality of services have left a positive impression about the country. That should be a point of pride for Taiwan, but on the other hand, the new holiday policy also provides an opportunity to spur change as Taiwan’s laudable conveniences also come along with their own set of burdens.
Many of the everyday conveniences were built upon the hard work and long hours of employees who provided quality and tireless service to the masses. It is understandable that all kinds of enterprises avoid uncertainty as it does not bode well for business operations. The new policy provides uncertainty in spades.
But the status quo that businesses have long upheld has not worked for Taiwan in the past decade. No longer have the long working hours either transferred into benefits for the working people or helped propel Taiwan’s GDP back to the figures during its ‘industrial miracle’ era. Taiwan’s working environment and policies protecting both enterprises and workers have long needed and overhaul.
While initial reports indicate that the new holiday policy has led to rise in basic commodity prices. It should become an opportunity for business to gripe about. Hey should not increase prices but fail to increase staff costs and adjust inferior budget planning, ultimately failing to increase employment. This i s the easy way to face the new policy and for enterprises to stay afloat in tough times.
It should not, however, continue at the expense of the everyday workers and the economy at large. Increasing employment and providing adequate overtime pay to keep working hours in check are factors in the government’s labour revision efforts last y ear, which they hope could improve existing working conditions. It’s still too early to say whether President and his party’s holiday policy would improve working conditions.
Taiwan’s businesses should look out for its employees’ well-being instead of their costs, while the government must similarly look out for businesses and the people at large to ensure effective policy progress. There’s no doubt that the Taiwan’s working environment is in need of change, and the new holiday policy provides a platform for that. However, whether it would bring about a good or bad change ultimately is left up to how the key players- businesses, the government and the people-respond.
144. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning of the word ‘Gripe’ as used in the passage?
(a) Greedy
(b) Placate
(c) Complain
(d) Rejoice
(e) Satisfied
145. Which of the following statements is/are the central idea(s) of the passage?
A. Taiwan’s businesses are suffering due to low exports.
B. Taiwan’s government would not be able to remain in power for long.
C. Taiwan is currently facing an economic boom.
D. Taiwan’s new labour policy has its own set of pros and cons.
(a) A and C
(b) Only D
(c) C and D
(d) Only B
(e) All of these
146. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning of the world Disdain as used in the passage?
(a) Thoughtlessness
(b) Admiration
(c) Proportionately
(d) Disinterest
(e) Scorn
147. According to the passage, what is/are reason(s) the labour amendments were made?
A. Many people were emigrating due to longer working hours and stagnant wages in China.
B. In the recent years, the export volume of Taiwan was showing a downward trend.
C. Commodity prices were missing beyond acceptable limits.
(a) A and B
(b) Only C
(c) B and C
(d) Only B
(e) None of these
148. What does the author suggest regarding the new policy of Taiwan?
(a) It should be implemented judiciously and must not be taken unique advantage of.
(b) Such a change had become imperative over that few years.
(c) It has caused uncertainty in businesses on a temporary basis.
(d) The announcement of the new holiday policy has brought about mixed responses.
(e) None of the above
149. Which of the following will be a consequence of the new holiday policy in Taiwan, as inferred from the passage?
(a) The motivational levels of Taiwanese will improve therefore enhancing their productivity
(b) Commodity prices across the world will reduce.
(c) Taiwan’s transport infrastructure will suffer.
(d) Employment opportunities in Taiwan will cease.
(e) Wage stagnation will cease to exist in the long-run.
150. Which of the following is/are not true with respect to the passage?
A. The existing policy of long working hours had been boosting Taiwan’s GDP consistently over the years.
B. Most businesses in Taiwan will prosper, thanks to the new policy on increased working hours.
C. The new holiday policy has boosted Taiwan’s GDP this year.
(a) Only A
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) Only C
(e) All are not true
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-155) In these questions, there are two/three statements which can be combined into a single statement in a number of different ways without changing their meaning. Below these two sentences are given three probable starters A, B and C of such combined sentence. One, two, three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any and mark the option which denotes your answer. If none of the three starters is suitable, mark ‘None’ as your answer.
151. After years of slow growth and overspending, in part to prop up a state pension scheme, the Central government nearly ran out of cash late last year. The government has called in the IMF, which may now broke a resolution to the crisis.
A. On account of years … .
B. Through the crisis … .
C. A resolution to … .
(a) Only A
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) A and C
(e) None
152. A professor of economics examined the cost structure of the tournament. He found that the cost of building of the necessary stadiums, transport and accommodations were not properly taken into account.
A. Although the costs of … . B. On examining … .
C. When he … .
(a) Only B
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) B and C
(e) Other than those given as options
153. Working lives are so lengthy and so fast-changing the simply cramming more schooling in at the start is not enough. People must also be acquire new skills throughout their careers.
A. Not Only … . B. With working lives … .
C. Simple cramming. …
(a) Only A
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) B and C
(e) None of these
154. Openness delivers benefits. Migrants improve not just their own lives but the economies of host countries. European migrants who arrived in Britain since 2000 are contributors to the exchequer, adding more than 120 billion ($34 billion) to the public finances between 2001 and 2011.
A. However openness … .
B. Since 2000 … .
C. Though migrants … .
(a) Only A
(b) All of these
(c) B and C
(d) A and B
(e) None of these
155. Most electricity is transmitted today as alternating current (AC), which works well over short and medium distances. But transmission over long distances requires very high voltages, which can tricky for AC systems and ultra-high-voltage direct- current (UHV) connectors are better suited to such spans.
A. While most electricity … .
B. Despite AC systems are better … .
C. Alternating current … .
(a) A and C
(b) A and B
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 156-160) Read each of the following four sentences A, B, C and D to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. Choose the sentence with no grammatical error in it. Choose the sentences with no grammatical error in it. Choose the sentence with no grammatical error as the correct answer. If all the given sentences are grammatically correct, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
156. John wonamaker, founder of the stores that bear his name. once confessed, I learnt 30 year ago that it is foolish to scold.
A. Whether rich or poor, American or Indian, we all have the same emotions deep with us.
B. This research indicate that we can no longer avoid significant warning during this century.
C. Every modern society depends on the trust in the skills and ethics of a variety of institutions such as schools and colleges, hospitals and markets.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
157. Many of us have learnt not to make a public display of our emotions, particularly when they are negative.
A. Though Indians have been increasingly taking up corner office in the international companies, Rahul is the first one Indian to lead one of the top four accounting firms globally.
B. Democracy was suspended not because it has become an obstacle to political ambitions trotted out as the nation’s solution.
C. A virtual takeover of a bankrupt civil society be a coterie or individuals whom cornered tremendous power by being able to represent the state.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
158. Indian has decided to away with the practice of put each imported consignment through lab checks and switch to the international norm of random and risk based inspections.
A P Sumit singh, along with Devesh Pandy, and DSP Hasan, headed separate terms that include cops from six police stations and investigators from the district police crime cell.
B. Out emissions standards are one-tenth that of global averages and far more stringent than even Europe.
C. The university has received about 500 applicants for the course; out of them 50 will be shortlisted for the programme.
(a) B
(b) A
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
159. RBI lifted the ban upon imports of gold coins and medallions by banks and trading houses.
A. President Pranab Mukherjee inaugurated Indian International Trade fair 2016 in Pragati Maidan in New Delhi.
B. Three Indian, Two women and one man were among the shortlisted 100 applicants whom were chosen for one-way trip to mars under one mission.
C. Fasting not only detoxifies the system but also gives a person training in endurance, a spirit of acceptance and self-control.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
160. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has notified that rescheduling of payment period of education loans by banks due to unemployment of borrower will not be treated as restricted accounts for computing NPAs.
A. China has started the operations of the longest East-West high speed railways.
B. Former Serbian professional tennis player Ana Ivanovic announced her retirement from tennis at the age of 29 years.
C. The Union Ministry of Sports has suspended the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) on December 30, 2016.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Part V Quantitative Aptitude
161. Raj while going by bus from home to airport (without any halt) takes 20 minutes less than time taken when the bus halts for some time. The average speed is 8 km/h more than the average speed of the bus when it halts. If the distance from home to airport is 60km, what is the speed of the bus when it is traveled?
(a) 24
(b) 46
(c) 20
(d) e
(e) 42
162. Every month, Mr. Duggabati spends 24% of his monthly income in paying rent and 30% on shopping of groceries, Out of the remaining, he invests in fixed deposit and the lottery in the respective ratio of 9 : 7 respectively. If in a year he deposited a total of Rs. 124200 in fixed deposit, how much did he pay as rent in a year?
(a) Rs. 124000
(b) Rs. 110400
(c) Rs. 117600
(d) Rs. 124560
(e) Rs. 115200
163. A boat can travel upstream 13 km and downstream 28 km taking 5 hours each time. The velocity of the current of the current is
(a) 0.5 km/h
(b) 1 km/h
(c) 1.5 km/h
(d) 2 km/h
(e) 2.5 km/h
Directions (Q. Nos. 164-168) Read the graph carefully and answer the given questions.
The data given below are regarding percentage of fiction books sold by five book stores in the months of June and December in the year 2002. All the book stores sold either fiction or non-fictions.
Note Total number of books sold = Fiction + Non-fiction
164. Number of fiction books sold by store B in December was 200 more than that sold by the same store in June. If the total number of books sold by the store in both the given months together was 2000, how many books (fiction + non-fiction), did the store sell in December?
(a) 2000
(b) 1600
(c) 1200
(d) 1800
(e) 1500
165. Total number of books sold by store C in June was 1500 and that in December was 2000. What is the total number of non-fiction books sold by the store in both the given months together?
(a) 1200
(b) 1720
(c) 1800
(d) 1600
(e) 1900
166. Number of fiction books sold by store D in both the given months are equal. Total number of books sold by the same store in December was what percentage more than that in June?
(a) 16%
(b) 18%
(c) 10%
(d) 12.5%
(e) 8%
167. Total number of books sold by E in June was 1800 which was 25% less than that sold by the same store in December. What is the total number of fiction books sold by the same store together?
(a) 1442
(b) 1620
(c) 1572
(d) 1640
(e) 1548
168. Total number of books sold by store A in December are 60 more than that sold by the same store in June. If the number of fiction books sold b y store A in both the given months were equal, what is the total number of books sold by store in June?
(a) 840
(b) 800
(c) 660
(d) 900
(e) 720
Directions (Q. Nos. 169-173) Refer to the pie charts and answer the given questions.
The following data are regarding number of students (boys + girls) studying in standard Xth of various schools (A, B, C, D and E in the year 2010)
169. What is the difference between the total number of students (boys + girls) in school A and B together and the total number of students (boy + girls) in schools D and E together?
(a) 640
(b) 600
(c) 620
(d) 680
(e) 660
170. Number of girls studying in school C, are what percent of total number of stu dents (boys + girls) studying in the same school?
(a) 48
(b) 
(c) 50
(d) 
(e) 
171. What is the average number of boys studying in school A and B?
(a) 280
(b) 288
(c) 272
(d) 248
(e) 278
172. Number of girls studying in school E are approximately what percent more than the number of boys studying in the same school?
(a) 45%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 40%
(e) 35%
173. What is the respective ratio between the number of boys and the number of girls studying in school D?
(a) 12 : 7
(b) 16 : 9
(c) 16 : 7
(d) 18 : 7
(e) 14 : 9
Directions (Q. Nos. 174-178) Studying the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
The following data are regarding total number of male and female employees (MBSs and non-MBSs, working in three organizations A, B and C)
In organization A 30% of the total numbers of employees are females, of which 10% are MBA’s.
In organization B 40% of the total numbers of employees are females, of which 25% are MBAs. 10% of the total male employees in organization B are MBAs. Number of female MBA employees in organization B are 126 more than that of female MBA employees in organization A. The total number of female employees in organization B are equal to that in organization A.
In organization C total number of female employees are twice of that in organization B. 20% of the total number of male employees and 20% of the number of female employees are MBAs. Number of male employees who are MBAs are 672 more than that of female employees who are not MBAs.
174. The respective ratio between the number of male MBA employees, who are science graduates, in organization B and C is 1 : 3. Total number of male MBA employees who are science graduates in both the organization together is 262. What is the number of male MBA employees who are science graduates in organization B?
(a) 87
(b) 104
(c) 64
(d) 92
(e) Other than those given as options
175. In organization A, if 20% of the total male employees are MBAs, then what is the difference between total number of employees who are non-MBA in organization A and B?
(a) 420
(b) 560
(c) 540
(d) 640
(e) Other than those given as options
176. What is the average number of female employees working in organizations A, B and C?
(a) 1160
(b) 1225
(c) 1260
(d) 1080
(e) 1120
177. What percent of the total number of organizations in company C, are males?
(a) 60%
(b) 70%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
(e) 58%
178. Total number of employees in organization C, are what percent more than tht in organization A?
(a) 20%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 75%
(e) 80%
Directions (Q. Nos. 179-183) Study the table and answer the given questions.
Note (I) Few data are missing (indicated by-). You need to calculate the value based on given data, if required, to answer a given question.
(II) Sum total of ratings obtained = Number of raters × Average rating obtained
179. For movie C, the respective ratio of sum total of ratings from city X and that from city Y is 16 : 21. What is the average rating obtained for move C from city Y?
(a) 73.5
(b) 72.5
(c) 75.5
(d) 75
(e) 74
180. For movie D, the sum total of ratings obtained from city X and that from city Y are equal. The respective ratio of number of raters in city Y and city Z is 4 : 5. Number of raters in city X is what percent more than number of raters in city Z?
(a) 30%
(b) 15%
(c) 25%
(d) 20%
(e) Other than those given as options
181. For movie B, average rating obtained from city Y is 10% less than that obtained from city X. Sum total of ratings obtained from city Y is what percent more than that obtained from city X?
(a) 35%
(b) 32%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
(e) Other than those given as options
182. For move E, the average rating given by male raters in cities X and Y are equal and that by female raters in the two cities are equal. If the respective ratio of male and female in city X is 5 : 3 and that in city Y is 2 : 1, what i s the average rating given by male raters of city X?
(a) 28
(b) 36
(c) 32
(d) 30
(e) Other than those given as options
183. Combining city X and city Y, the average rating obtained for movie A is 58. Number of raters in city Y is what percent more than the number of rates in city X?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) Other than those given as options
184. 18 women complete a project in 24 days and 24 men complete the same project in 15 days. 16 women worked for 3 days and then they left. 20 men work for next 2 days and then they are joined by 16 women. In how many days will they complete the remaining work?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) Other than those given as options
185. The cost price of article B is 20% more than that of article A. Articles A and B were marked up by 50% and 25% respectively. Article A was sold at a discount of 4% and article B was sold at a discount of ‘0.5%. If the selling price of article A was Rs. 30 more than the selling price of article B, what was the cost price of article A?
(a) Rs. 600
(b) Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 500
(d) Rs. 540
(e) Rs. 400
186. Ram’s age after 17 years will be 6 years less than twice his present age. The respective ratio between Vivian’s present age and Amit’s present age is 21 : 19. If Amit’s age 31 years hence will be same as three times Ram’s present age, what will be Vivian’s age 4 years hence?
(a) 44 yr
(b) 45yr
(c) 46yr
(d) 48 yr
(e) Other than those given as options
187. Jar has ‘X’ litre of mixture of apple juice and water in the respective ratio of 5 : 1 and jar B has ‘X’ litre of mixture of mango juice and water in the respective ratio of 21 : 30. 30 litre mixture was taken from jar A and jar B each and mixed in jar C. If 12 litre mixture was taken out from jar C, what was the final quantity of water in jar C?
(a) 15 L
(b) 6 L
(c) 4 L
(d) 9 L
(e) 12 L
Directions (Q. Nos. 188-192) What approximate value will come in place of question marks in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
188. 67% of 369.87 ÷ 15.01 = 221 ÷ ?
(a) 7
(b) 18
(c) 13
(d) 21
(e) 10
189. ?% of (6274 ÷ 6.14) = 646.51 – 21.58
(a) 60
(b) 45
(c) 39
(d) 65
(e) 74
190. 56 * ? ÷ 3 = 576.73 * 2.02
(a) 328
(b) 295
(c) 412
(d) 381
(e) 235
191. 
(a) 745
(b) 910
(c) 980
(d) 790
(e) 722
192. ?2 * 124.03 – 19.07 * 5.98 = 131
(a) 17
(b) 21
(c) 16
(d) 11
(e) 9
Directions (Q. Nos. 193-197) Each question below has a question and two/three statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Choose appropriate option in each case.
193. There are certain number of cards in a bag which are numbered serially (1, 2, 3, 4 and so on). How many cards are there in the bag?
I. If two cards are drawn at random, one after another, without replacement, the probability that both the cards are even numbered is 7/31.
II. The respective ratio between number of odd numbered cards and number of even numbered cards in the bag is 16 : 15.
(a) Only statement I is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Only statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Either statement I or II is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Both statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
(e) None of the statements is sufficient to answer the question.
194. What is the rate of interest per annum?
I. The amount becomes Rs. 9331.20 in 2 years at compound interest.
II. The difference between CI and SI at the same rate of interest in 2 years is Rs. 51.20
III. The amount invested is Rs. 8000.
(a) Only statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Only statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Only statement II and either statement I or III is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Only statement III and either statement I or II is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Any two of the three statements is sufficient to answer the question.
195. Find the number of days in which Q and do a job if P can do the same job in 8 days.
I. Q is 60% more efficient than P.
II. P and Q together can do the job in
III. P is less efficient than Q.
(a) Only statement I is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Only statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Either statement I or II is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Any of the statements is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Only statements I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
196. A and B are two positive integers. What is the sum of the cubes of A and B?
I. The sum of A and B is 14.
II. The sum of the squares of A and B is 106.
III. The value of A is 4 less than the value of B.
(a) Only statements I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Only statement I and II re sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Only statement II and either statement I or statement III is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Only statement III and either statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Any two of the three statements is sufficient to answer the question.
197. There are two positive numbers. What is the smallest number?
I. The LCM of two numbers is 24 times of their HCF.
II. The sum of HCF and LCM of two numbers is 400.
III. The bigger number is 126.
(a) Only statements I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Only statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Only statement II and either statement I or statement III is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Only statement III and either statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Any two of the three statements is sufficient to answer the question.
198. Circle C1 is inscribed inside a square, which in turn in inscribed inside circle C2. The sum of circumference of both the circles is 88(1 + σ2) cm. What is the perimeter of the square?
(a) 120 cm
(b) 102 cm
(c) 116 cm
(d) 112 cm
(e) Other than those given as options
199. Sum of money was invested for ‘T’ years in Scheme A offering simple interest. The amount received after ‘T’ years was twice the sum of money invested in the scheme. What will be amount received for scheme A, when a sum of Rs. 5450 is invested for ‘2T’ years?
(a) Rs. 16290
(b) Rs. 15500
(c) Rs. 15050
(d) Rs. 16350
(e) Rs. 16500
200. A, B and C started a business with investments in the respective ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. At the end of 6 months from the start of the business, A, B and C invested additional amounts, after which their final investments were in the respective ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. If the ratio between B’s and C’s share in annual profit was 8 : 9 and the difference between A’s and B’s share in annual profit was Rs. 200, what was the amount that A invested initially?
(a) Rs. 400
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 600
(d) Rs. 200
(e) Other than those given as options
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