Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination
(Second Shift) Tier-I Held on 28 October, 2012
Part-I
General Intelligence
Directions-(Q. 1-6) select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
1. NMKH : HIKN : : UTRO : ?
(A) OPQR
(B) ORTU
(C) OPRU
(D) ORPQ
2. ACEG : KMOQ : : CEGI : ?
(A) HILN
(B) FHJM
(C) QSUV
(D) IKMO
3. 5 : 124 : : 8 : ?
(A) 65
(B) 64
(C) 512
(D) 511
4. 164 : 143 : : 211 : ?
(A) 180
(B) 190
(C) 194
(D) 188
5. Never : Seldom : : Always : ?
(A) Often
(B) Everytime
(C) Occasional
(D) Usual
6. Ape : Man : : Cat : ?
(A) Mouse
(B) Pet-animal
(C) Monkey
(D) Tiger
Directions-(Q. 7-10) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
7.
(A) Teacher
(B) Drill Master
(C) Student
(D) Registrar
8.
(A) DZ
(B) AR
(C) JT
(D) SK
9.
(A) JIG
(B) FEB
(C) TSP
(D) NMJ
10.
(A) Oliver Twist
(B) Macbeth
(C) Othello
(D) King Lear
11. 13, 16, 19, 22, 24, 28.
(A) 24
(B) 28
(C) 19
(D) 13
12. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36.
(A) 25
(B) 36
(C) 23
(D) 9
13. (1) Ream (2) Riot
(3) Ruin (4) Route
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 1, 4
14. (1) Appear (2) Appraise
(3) Approval (4) Opposite
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 1, 4, 3, 2
(D) 1, 4, 2, 3
15. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
cb_eb_e_edc_
(A) dafd
(B) bbcd
(C) cbec
(D) dceb
Directions-(Q. 16-18) A series is given, with one term/number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
16. 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, ?, 123, 199
(A) 84
(B) 102
(C) 76
(D) 70
17. ABNO, CDPQ, EFRS, ?
(A) GHTU
(B) KLYZ
(C) IJVW
(D) TUVW
18. 121, 112, ?, 97, 91, 86
(A) 99
(B) 104
(C) 102
(D) 108
19. If my mother’s maternal uncle is my wife’s grandfather, in what way is he related to my grandmother?
(A) Husband
(B) No direct relation
(C) Brother
(D) Cousin
20. Five books are placed on a table. E is on A and C is under B. A is above B and D is under C. Which book is lying at the bottom?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) A
(D) B
21. A man is standing facing the sun during sunset. Where will his shadow fall?
(A) To his left
(B) To his right
(C) To his front
(D) To his back
Directions-(Q. 22 and 23) In each question from the given alternatives words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
22. MUSICAL
(A) LASIUM
(B) CLAIM
(C) SLIM
(D) CALCIUM
23. DAUGHTER
(A) AUGHT
(B) TRUTH
(C) GATHER
(D) DEARTH
24. If BRAKE is written as EUDNH, how can BRIDGE be written in that code?
(A) EUDHLD
(B) EULGJH
(C) EUIGH
(D) EUJNQ
25. If A = 1 and CAP = 20, what is HEN = ?
(A) 28
(B) 29
(C) 26
(D) 27
26. If ‘MEMORY’ is written as ‘848729’ in a certain code, then hos is ‘ROME’ written in that code?
(A) 4287
(B) 2487
(C) 2874
(D) 2784
Directions-(Q. 27 to 29) Select the missing number from the given responses.
27.
22 32 42
2 2 2
20 ? 34
(A) 28
(B) 30
(C) 23
(D) 22
28.
3 5 7 105
4 6 8 192
9 2 3 ?
(A) 297
(B) 87
(C) 54
(D) 14
29.
3 5 9
8 6 2
6 ? 6
4 10 3
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
30. A statement is given below, followed by four inferences. Select the appropriate inference.
Statements:
(1) All students are graduates.
(2) Some students are swimmers.
(3) All swimmers are drivers.
Inferences :
(A) Some graduates are swimmers
(B) All swimmers are graduates
(C) All graduates are swimmers
(D) All students are drivers
31. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation based on a certain system.
6 + 4 + 5 = 465; 7 + 3 + 4 = 374; 9 + 5 + 2 = ?
(A) 592
(B) 295
(C) 925
(D) 952
32.
If 0 1 2 3 = 9
1 2 3 4 =15
2 3 4 5 = 23
3 4 5 6 = ?
(A) 37
(B) 36
(C) 26
(D) 33
33. If H stands for +, Q stands for −, A stands for × and T stands for ÷, then
14 A 10 H 42 T 2 Q 8 = ?
(A) 153
(B) 251
(C) 158
(D) 216
34. A man started from his house and travelled 10 km towards East. He then turned left and travelled 5 km and then again turned left and cycled 10 km. How far is he from his home now?
(A) 15 km
(B) 20 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 10 km
35. A man starts from a point and cycles one km North. He then turns right and cycles 3 km and again turns right and cycles 5 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point?
(A) 4 km North
(B) 5 km North East
(C) 4 km East
(D) 5 km South East
36. Select the correct statement from the given responses.
Statement:
Environment air pollution is a product of modernization due to-
(I) lot of vehicles emitting smoke.
(II) draining of chemical waste into rivers.
(III) drying of animal wastes and fishes on roads.
(IV) drying of animal wastes and fishes on roads.
(A) III is correct
(B) IV is correct
(C) I is correct
(D) II is correct
37. A statement is given with four inferences. Select the correct inference.
Statement :
Spelling errors are common among children with learning abilities.
Inferences:
(I) Auditory reinforcement should be provided to them.
(II) Specialized individualized attention should be given.
(III) Repeat and tell the child to spell the word again and again.
(IV) Tell a sequences and improve speech sound
(A) Either II or III is correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) Only I is correct
(D) III and IV are correct
38. Which number appears on the face opposite to 5?
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 2
39. Find the figure that represents the group-
40. The diagram represents Players, Teachers and Singers. Study the diagram and fund out how many Singer’s are also Players.
(A) 21
(B) 9
(C) 17
(D) 4
41. Find out the number of all those people who can speak English and Telugu.
(A) 62
(B) 22
(C) 34
(D) 4
42. Which number appears on the face opposite to 4?
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 1
Directions-(Q. 43 and 44) Which answer figure will complete the pattern of the question figure?
43. 
44. 
Directions-(Q. 45 and 46) In each question from the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden embedded.
45. 
46. 
47. If a mirror is placed on the line XY, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figure?
48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
49. A sheet of paper when folded, punched and opened will appear as in the question figure. Choose from the answer figures which punched hole pattern gives the question figure.
50. Find out from the given alternatives a suitable figure that would complete the figure matrix.
For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only
Directions-(Q. 38 and 39) Each question a series is given, with one term/number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
38. ABD, EFH, IJL, ?
(A) OPQ
(B) SPQ
(C) UPQ
(D) OPR
39. 109, 74, 46, 25, 11, ?
(A) 11
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 36
40. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
(1) Stem (2) Leaf
(3) Flower (4) Branch
(5) Fruit
(A) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(D) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
41. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary-
(1) succeed (2) shuffle
(3) subtle (4) subway
(A) 2, 3, 4, 1
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2
(D) 2, 4, 3, 1
Directions-(Q. 42 to 44) Find the odd number/number pair/word from the given alternatives.
42. 6, 11, 16, 17, 21, 26
(A) 21
(B) 26
(C) 17
(D) 16
43.
(A) 59-48
(B) 33-27
(C) 68-85
(D) 121-134
44.
(A) Butter
(B) Curd
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk
45. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation based on a certain system.
2 + 3 + 6 + 7 = 9, 12 + 13 + 16 + 17 = 99, 102 + 103 + 106 + 107 = ?
(A) 999
(B) 9999
(C) 109
(D) 1009
Directions-(Q. 46 to 50) Select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.
46. Writer : Book : : ? : Song.
(A) Singer
(B) Sound engineer
(C) Musician
(D) Composer
47. 14 : 9 : : 26 : ?
(A) 31
(B) 15
(C) 12
(D) 13
48. DOG : z : : CAT : ?
(A) x
(B) y
(C) v
(D) w
49. KLMN : PONM : : HIJK : ?
(A) UVWX
(B) SRQP
(C) DEFG
(D) OPQR
50. Smile : Laugh : : ? : Shout
(A) Scream
(B) Hoot
(C) Talk
(D) Whisper
Part-II
English Language
Directions-In questions no. 51 to 56, each sentence has been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.
51. I doubt (A)/ that this is (B)/ acceptable to all. (C)/ No error (D)
52. I have (A)/ a lot of problems, (B)/ haven’t I ? (C)/ No error (D)
53. We are (A)/ hearing songs (B)/ from the tap-recorder. (C)/ No error (D)
54. A holy man accepts (A)/ with all the humility in the world (B)/ whatever God has provided him. (C)/ No error (D)
55. The teacher asked him (A)/ which English novel (B)/ did he like the most. (C)/ No error (D)
56. Students must (A)/ give the ear to (B)/ what the teacher tells them. (C)/ No error (D)
Directions- In questions no. 57 to 61, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four options given with each of them.
57. In your younger years, our minds are ……….. and soft.
(A) amenable
(B) impressionable
(C) flexible
(D) pliable
58. She doesn’t ………. her money.
(A) care over
(B) careful of
(C) care for
(D) take care of
59. All clothes were soaked ……. water.
(A) in
(B) on
(C) with
(D) under
60. You stand a good chance ………. the match.
(A) for winning
(B) in winning
(C) of winning
(D) to win
61. All shell ……….. broken loose after the bomb blast.
(A) has
(B) are
(C) have
(D) is
Directions-In questions no. 62 to 64, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given words and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
62. Gape
(A) Struggle
(B) Exclaim
(C) Stare
(D) Hide
63. Elude
(A) Tell
(B) Create
(C) Avoid
(D) Refer
64. Innocuous
(A) Harmless
(B) Faultless
(C) Malicious
(D) Offensive
Directions-In questions no. 65 to 67, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark in the Answer Sheet.
65. Repellent
(A) Repulsive
(B) Abhorrent
(C) Attractive
(D) Offensive
66. Gorgeous
(A) Shabby
(B) Ordinary
(C) Untidy
(D) Beautiful
67. Surfeit
(A) Fullness
(B) Deficiency
(C) Redundancy
(D) Excess
Directions-In questions no. 68 to 72, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
68. Hid did me a good turn by recommending for the post of Principal.
(A) Returned my kindness
(B) Changed my future
(C) Did an act of kindness
(D) Became suddenly good
69. If he is lazy, why don’t you turn him off.
(A) Dismiss
(B) Warn
(C) Scold
(D) Punish
70. Having walked twenty miles, I am feeling quite done up.
(A) Energetic
(B) Relaxed
(C) Fresh
(D) Exhausted
71. The sum and substance of our Principal’s speech was that students should learn discipline.
(A) Outline
(B) Theme
(C) Conclusion
(D) Gist
72. He is an honest man, he will take the bull by the horns and handle the management.
(A) Face the problem boldly
(B) Run away seeing the bull
(C) Fight the bull holding its horns
(D) Face the problem becoming nervous
Directions-In questions no. 73 to 79, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
73. Do you appraise any difficulty in your neighbourhood after the recent theft?
(A) Apprise
(B) Approach
(C) Apprehend
(D) No improvement
74. The driver drove slowly so as not to over-turn his load.
(A) In order that not to overturn his load
(B) That he may not overturn his load
(C) Not to overturn his load
(D) No improvement
75. A bird in a hand is worth two in the bush.
(A) Hands
(B) Hand
(C) The hand
(D) No improvement
76. He nobly acquitted himself in the battle.
(A) Acquitted himself nobly
(B) Nobly acquitted in the battle
(C) Acquitted nobly in the battle
(D) No improvement
77. While at Mumbai I stayed in a hotel and mush of my time was spent in interviewing people.
(A) Spent much of my time
(B) I had spent much of my time
(C) Much of my time had been spent
(D) No improvement
78. None as brave deserve the fair.
(A) Though
(B) But
(C) If
(D) No improvement
79. Where had you been playing since we last played together?
(A) Are your playing
(B) Have you been playing
(C) Would you play
(D) No improvement
Directions-In questions no. 80 to 83 out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
80. One who possesses many talents.
(A) Dexterous
(B) Versatile
(C) Gifted
(D) Exceptional
81. One who derives pleasure from inflicting pain on others.
(A) Recluse
(B) Hedonist
(C) Sadist
(D) Maniac
82. A person who rides horses in races as an occupation.
(A) Equestrain
(B) Horseman
(C) Horse-racer
(D) Jockey
83. A widely accepted rule of conduct or general truth briefly expressed.
(A) Maxim
(B) Tenet
(C) Syllogism
(D) Doctrine
Directions-In questions no. 84 and 85, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt from the given options.
84.
(A) Heirerchy
(B) Hierarchy
(C) Heirarchy
(D) Hairarchy
85.
(A) Carboretor
(B) Carburettor
(C) Carborator
(D) Carrburator
Directions-In questions 86 to 100, you have following two brief passages with 10 questions in Passage 1 and 5 questions in Passage II. Read the passage carefully and fill up the blanks with suitable words out of the four alternatives gives.
Passage-I
(Questions No. 86-95)
Books are the chief carriers of civilization; because of them ideas …(86)… and spread. How important books are, you can judge from the …(87)… that very hot countries have …(88)… civilization. There are many …(89)… for this, but one of the most important is that white ants in the tropics eat …(90)… all the books. Where there are no books, there are no …(91)… and no literature. The ideas and knowledge of one …(92)… are not handed …(93)… to the next, and it is much more …(94)… for the race to progress and …(95)… civilized.
86.
(A) improve
(B) fall
(C) live
(D) extend
87.
(A) thought
(B) fact
(C) reason
(D) feeling
88.
(A) the little
(B) less
(C) little
(D) a little
89.
(A) accounts
(B) consequences
(C) effects
(D) reasons
90.
(A) in
(B) out
(C) into
(D) up
91.
(A) memories
(B) traces
(C) records
(D) ideas
92.
(A) generation
(B) nation
(C) culture
(D) race
93.
(A) out
(B) on
(C) in
(D) off
94.
(A) practicable
(B) desirable
(C) easy
(D) difficult
95.
(A) grow
(B) become
(C) go
(D) stay
Passage II
(Questions No. 96-100)
The gorilla is something of a paradox …(96)… the African scene. One thinks one knows him very well. He has been …(97)… and imprisoned in zoos. His bones have been …(98)… in museums everywhere and he has always exerted a strong …(99)… upon scientists. He is an obvious …(100)… with our past.
96.
(A) from
(B) at
(C) in
(D) to
97.
(A) captured
(B) killed
(C) attacked
(D) untreated
98.
(A) set up
(B) kept
(C) mounted
(D) installed
99.
(A) attraction
(B) influence
(C) effect
(D) fascination
100.
(A) link
(B) monster
(C) attachment
(D) connection
Part-III
Quantitative Aptitude
101. 3 cubes whose edges are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively are melted to form a single cube. The surface area of the new cube will be-
(A) 215 sq. cm
(B) 216 sq. cm
(C) 115 sq. cm
(D) 150 sq. cm
102. There is a rebate of 15% if electric bills are paid in time. A man got a rebate of Rs 54 by paying the bill in time. His electric bill was-
(A) Rs 360
(B) Rs 380
(C) Rs 300
(D) Rs 350
103. After successive discounts of 20%, 10% and 10%, a washing machine was sold for Rs 6,480. Then the original marked price of the washing machine was-
(A) Rs 10,800
(B) Rs 12,000
(C) Rs 8,960
(D) Rs 10,000
104. A dealer allows his customers a discount of 25% and still gains 25%. If the cost price of the article is Rs 720, then the marked price is-
(A) Rs 1,200
(B) Rs 1,100
(C) Rs 1,400
(D) Rs 1,300
105. If ab, bc, x and c2 are in proportion, then find x, if none of these is equal to zero.
(A) ac
(B) a2c2
(C) a2c
(D) c2a
106. A watermelon is cut into two pieces in the ratio of 3 : 5 by weight. The bigger of the two is further cut in the ratio of 5 : 7 by weight. Find the ratio of each of the three pieces.
(A) 15 : 25 : 26
(B) 5 : 7 : 9
(C) 3 : 5 : 7
(D) 36 : 25 : 35
107. Divide Rs 450 among A, B and C such that A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 6 : 5. Share of C is-
(A) Rs 150
(B) Rs 120
(C) Rs 90
(D) Rs 100
108. The LCM of two given numbers is 6 times the GCD of the numbers. If the smaller of the two numbers is 6, then the other number is-
(A) 15
(B) 18
(C) 9
(D) 12
109. The population of a city has been increasing at the rate of 10% every year. If the present population is 4840000, what was it 2 years ago?
(A) 4100000
(B) 4200000
(C) 3600000
(D) 4000000
110. (0.98)333333333 + (0.02)3 + 0.98 ×06 – 1 is-
(A) 1.09
(B) 1.98
(C) 0
(D) 1
111. A monkey wanted to climb on the smooth vertical pole of height 35 metres. In the first one minute, he climbs up 5 metres, in the next one minute, he slips down by 2 metres. Further, he repeated the same process till he has reached onto the top of the pole. How many times it has to go upward to reach the apex of the pole?
(A) 11
(B) 27
(C) 35
(D) 12
112. If a cistern generally takes 20 minutes to be filled by a pipe but due to a leak, it takes 10 extra minutes to be filled, then find the time in w hich the leak can empty the full cistern.
(A) 50 minutes
(B) 60 minutes
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 40 minutes
113. The wheel of a bus 0.75 m in radius, makes 84 revolutions in half minute. Then the speed of the bus in km per hour is-
(A) 23.76
(B) 33.26
(C) 17.82
(D) 47.52
114. In a vocational course in a college, 15% seats increase annually. If there were 800 students in 2012, how many seats will be there in 2014?
(A) 1058
(B) 1178
(C) 920
(D) 1040
115. If I walks at 4 km/hr, I miss the bus by 10 minutes. If I walk at 5 km/hr, I am 5 minutes early. How far do I walk to reach the bus stand?
(A) 4 km
(B) 6 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 5 km
116. Two trains 180 metres and 220 metres long are running in opposite directions at a speed of 40 km/hr and 50 km/hr respectively. They cross each other in-
(A) 17 seconds
(B) 20 seconds
(C) 16 seconds
(D) 18 seconds
117. The simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs 100. The corresponding compound interest is-
(A) Rs 105
(B) Rs 85
(C) Rs 100
(D) Rs 95
118. A man deposits Rs 5,600 in a bank at 15/4% simple interest. After 6 months he withdraws Rs 2400 together with interest and after 6 months, he withdraws the remaining money. The total amount, he gets as interest, is-
(A) Rs 150
(B) Rs 180
(C) Rs 100
(D) Rs 125
119. The diameters of the internal and external surfaces of a hollow spherical shell are 5 cm and 10 cm respectively. If it is melted and recast into a solid cylinder of length 8/3 cm, then the diameter of the cylinder is-
(A) 14 cm
(B) 16 cm
(C) 7 cm
(D) 10 cm
120. The average of runs of a cricket player in 15 matches is 33. If the average of the first 10 matches is 45, then the average of the last 5 matches is-
(A) 15
(B) 23
(C) 9
(D) 13.5
121. The average of ten numbers is 30. If 5 is added to every number, the new average is-
(A) 30
(B) 30.5
(C) 35
(D) 53
122. Average age of 38 students is 14 years. If the age of the teacher is included, the average becomes 14 years and 4 months. Then teacher’s age is-
(A) 25 years
(B) 29 years
(C) 23 years
(D) 27 years
123. I bought a picture for Rs 225, spent Rs 15 to decorate it and sold it for Rs 300. My profit percentage is-
(A) 
(B) 25
(C) 52
(D) 50
124. Sharma sold his bike to Mr. Kelkar at a loss of 20%. Mr. Kelkar spends Rs 2,000 on its repair and sells it for Rs 22,000, thus making a profit of 10%. Then the cost price of the bike for Mr. Sharma is-
(A) Rs 22,500
(B) Rs 15,000
(C) Rs 18,500
(D) Rs 25,000
125. A dishonest dealer claims that he sells his goods at the cost price but uses a false weight of 920 gm instead of 1 kg. Find his gain per cent.
(A) 9%
(B) 8.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.7%
126. 75% of a number when added to 75 is equal to the number. The number is-
(A) 225
(B) 300
(C) 150
(D) 200
127. If a = (√3 + √2)−3 and b = (√3 − √2)−3, then the value of (a + 1)−1 + (b + 1)−1 is-
(A) 48√2
(B) 50√3
(C) 1
(D) 5
128. If 5a + 3b : 4a + 7b = 3 : 4, then a : b is equal to-
(A) 9 : 8
(B) 7 : 11
(C) 8 : 9
(D) 11 : 9
129. The value of k for which the expression 9x2 – kx + 16 be a perfect square is-
(A) ±12
(B) ±24
(C) ±2
(D) ±6
130. The solution(s) of 
is/are-
(A) +8
(B) −6
(C) ±2
(D) ±4
131. The water contained by a hemispherical cup having diameter 13.5 cm is poured into an empty right circular cylindrical glass of diameter 9 cm. Then the depth of the water in the glass is-
(A) 8 cm
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
132. The area of the base of a cuboidal box is 21 sq. cm and the area of one of the faces is 30 sq. cm. The numerical value of each of the dimensions of this box is an integer greater than 1. Then the volume of the cuboidal box, in cu. cm, is-
(A) 210
(B) 630
(C) 105
(D) 120
133. A chord of a circle of radius 14 cm makes a right angle at the centre. The area of the minor segment of the circle is (take π = 22/7)
(A) 154 cm2
(B) 252 cm2
(C) 56 cm2
(D) 98 cm2
134. Eliminating t from the equations, x = cos t, y = 2 sin t cos t, we get-
(A) y2 = 2x2 + 4x4
(B) y2 = 2x2 – 4x4
(C) y2 = 4x2 + 4x4
(D) y2 = 4x2 – 4x4
135. If tan4 θ + tan2 θ = 1, then value of cos4 θ + cos2 θ is equal to-
(A) 3
(B) 10
(C) 1
(D) 2
136. The value of sin(45° + θ) – cos(45° − θ) is equal to-
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 2 cos θ
(D) 2 sin θ
137. In a ∆ ABC, 
is a median. Which is the correct relation?
(A) AB + AC > 2AD
(B) AB + AC < 2AD
(C) AB + AC = 2AD
(D) None of these
138. If ∆ ABC and ∆ DEF one similar such that 2AB = DE, BC = 8 cm, then EF is-
(A) 4 cm
(B) 8 cm
(C) 16 cm
(D) 12 cm
139. From an external point, a tangent to a circle is drawn. If length of this tangent be 8 cm and radius of the circle is 6 cm, the distance of the external point from the centre of the circle is-
(A) 12/√3 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 8√3 cm
(D) 6√3 cm
140. A chord of length 16 cm is drawn in a circle of radius 10 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre of the circle is-
(A) 9 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 8 cm
Directions-(Q. 141-145) Study the following frequency polygon showing the family size (i.e. the number of numbers in a family) alongwith the corresponding frequency (i.e. number of the families) and answers these questions.
141. There are 10 families having the family size; the family size is-
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 6
142. The family size possessed by maximum number of families is-
(A) 3
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 5
143. The number of families having size ‘4’ or less is-
(A) 50
(B) 40
(C) 35
(D) 45
144. The percentage of families having size ‘5’ is-
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 15
145. The difference between the number of families having size ‘3’ and size ‘6’ is-
(A) 15
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 10
Directions-(Q. 146-150) Study the following histogram showing frequency distribution of marks of a group of students and answer these questions.
146. The percentage of students obtaining marks above 60 is-
(A) 
(B) 40
(C) 30
(D) 
147. The maximum number of students secured marks between-
(A) 40 and 60
(B) 80 and 100
(C) 20 and 40
(D) 60 and 80
148. The proportion of students getting marks in the range 60 to 80 is-
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/5
(C) 2/3
(D) 1/10
149. Exactly 100 students have secured their marks above-
(A) 60
(B) 80
(C) 40
(D) 20
150. The total number of students is-
(A) 150
(B) 180
(C) 100
(D) 120
For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only
141. A florist bought 240 roses at Rs 9 per dozen. If he sells all of them at Rs 1 each, his profit percentage is-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
142. Equilateral triangles are drawn on one of the sides and one of the diagonals of a square as the box. The ratio of the areas of the two triangles is-
(A) √3 : 4
(B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : √2
(D) 1 : 2
143. If 13 sin θ – 12 = 0 and θ is an acute angle, then the value of 
is-
(A) 1306/159
(B) 1036/195
(C) 1063/195
(D) 1036/159
144. One angle of a triangle is 108°, the angle included between the internal bisectors of the two acute angles of the triangle is-
(A) 144°
(B) 54°
(C) 72°
(D) 136°
145. The value of 
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 1.20
(D) 
146. If (3x – 2y) : (x + 3y) = 5 : 6, then the value of x : y is-
(A) 17/13
(B) 5/13
(C) 3/13
(D) 27/13
147. If 
then the value of 
is-
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 8/3
148. Three persons X, Y, Z start a partnership business investing Rs 8,000, Rs 6,000 and Rs 4,000. They agree that the profit will be distributed in the ratio of their capitals. If the profit be Rs 15,453, then the share of X is-
(A) Rs 7,475
(B) Rs 3,964
(C) Rs 5,854
(D) Rs 6,868
149. 16 children take 12 days to complete a work which can be completed by 6 adults in 16 days. 16 adults started working and after 3 days, 10 adults left and 4 children joined them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
(A) 12 days
(B) 15 days
(C) 6 days
(D) 9 days
150. A fisherman can row 2 km against the stream in 20 minutes and return in 15 minutes. Then the speed of the current is-
(A) 3 km/hr
(B) 4 km/hr
(C) 1 km/hr
(D) 2 km/hr
Part-IV
General Awareness
151. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is only for the citizens of India?
(A) Right to life and liberty
(B) Freedom of religion
(C) Right to equality
(D) Freedom of expression
152. The origin of Indian music could be traced back to which of the following Vedic Samhits?
(A) Sama Veda
(B) Yajur Veda
(C) Rig Veda
(D) Atharva Veda
153. Which one of the following was the most famous center of learning during the Mauryan period?
(A) Ujjain
(B) Vallabhi
(C) Nalanda
(D) Taxila
154. Kharvela, the Kalinga ruler patronized-
(A) Hinduism (Viashnavism)
(B) Shaivism
(C) Buddhism
(D) Janinism
155. Which of the following is not a reform measure adopted by Akbar?
(A) Dag
(B) Manasbdari System
(C) Iqta system
(D) Zabti
156. The first Anglo-Maratha War came to an end by the treaty of
(A) Surat
(B) Bassein
(C) Salbai
(D) Purandar
157. The name of India’s Permanent Research Station situated in the Antarctica is-
(A) Dakshin Bharat
(B) Dakshin Nivas
(C) Dakshin Chitra
(D) Maitri
158. The biggest copper producing country in Africa is-
(A) Kenya
(B) Tanzania
(C) Union of South Africa
(D) Zambia
159. Which one of the following is not possible under short-run?
(A) Increasing the working time
(B) Technology upgradation
(C) Hiring additional workers
(D) Procuring more raw materials
160. Value added tax was first introduced in-
(A) Germany
(B) Spain
(C) France
(D) Russia
161. “Supply creates its own demand” is the-
(A) Law of Market
(B) Law of Demand and Supply
(C) Law of Demand
(D) Law of Supply
162. Demand pull inflation is a situation of-
(A) Excess demand
(B) Parity between demand and supply
(C) Excess supply
(D) None of the above
163. Gandhi is known as-
(A) Philosophical anarchist
(B) Radical anarchist
(C) Marxist
(D) Fabianist
164. Indian Federalism is close to-
(A) Nigeria
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) USA
165. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which Part of the Indian Constitution?
(A) IV
(B) V
(C) II
(D) III
166. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides special status to Jammu and Kashmir?
(A) 371
(B) 390
(C) 370
(D) 369
167. Which type of writs are not specifically provided in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo warranto
(C) Injunction
(D) Prohibition
168. Which of the following algae is being used in space research?
(A) Hydrodictyon
(B) Cladophora
(C) Chlamydomonas
(D) Chlorella
169. Which one of the following is not a green house gas?
(A) Ethane
(B) Water vapour
(C) Chlorofluorocarbon
(D) Carbon dioxide
170. Which who basic forces are able to provide an attractive force between two neutrons?
(A) Gravitational and electrostatic
(B) Some other forces
(C) Gravitational and nuclear
(D) Electrostatic and nuclear
171. Which of the following phenomenon cannot take place in sound waves?
(A) Diffraction
(B) Polarization
(C) Reflection
(D) Interference
172. Identify the sequential-access media-
(A) Magnetic tape
(B) Digital video disk
(C) Floppy disk
(D) Optical disk
173. Which one of the following is more suitable for objective type examination?
(A) Optical Mark Reading and Recognition
(B) Optical Text Recognition
(C) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(D) Optical Character Recognition
174. The _____ service allows as group of Internet users to exchange their views on some common topic.
(A) Nicnet
(B) Milnet
(C) Telnet
(D) Usenet
175. In graphite, layers are held together by-
(A) van der Waals forces
(B) metallic bond
(C) ionic bond
(D) covalent bond
176. Which of the following places is the destination of iron-ore (slurry) carried from Kudremukh through pipeline?
(A) Koyali
(B) Jagdishpur
(C) Mangalore
(D) Udaipur
177. Which of the following geomorphical pairs is not correct?
(A) Cirque-Glacier
(B) Tombolo-Wave
(C) Delta-River
(D) Sinkholes-Wind
178. Sideite is an ore of-
(A) Copper
(B) Tin
(C) Aluminium
(D) Iron
179. Common cold is caused by-
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) Unicellular algae
180. Stilt roots are present in-
(A) Banyan
(B) Maize
(C) Mango
(D) China rose
181. Vitamin D is essential for-
(A) prevention of osteoarthritis
(B) absorption of magnesium from diet
(C) absorption of calcium from diet
(D) making strong and healthy bones
182. Which pair of structures are usually found in both plant and animal cells?
(A) Cell wall and nucleus
(B) Nucleus and chloroplast
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum and cell membrane
(D) Cell membrane and cell wall
183. Which of the following are homologous organs?
(A) Wings of insects and birds
(B) Tail of fish and cat
(C) Skin of crocodile and feather of birds
(D) Forelimb of horse and man
184. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers received “NISHAN-E-PAKISTAN”, the highest civilian award in Pakistan?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(D) Indira Gandhi
185. Mohammed Azharuddin, former Indian Cricket Team Captain represents ______ constituency of Uttar Pradesh in the Lok Sabha.
(A) Mirzapur
(B) Moradabad
(C) Meerut
(D) Mathura
186. Which country won the Gold in Sultan Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament in 2012?
(A) New Zealand
(B) South Korea
(C) Argentina
(D) India
187. Where is Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Pune
(C) Patiala
(D) Gwalior
188. The only leader who got the Bharat Ratna award while holding the office of the Union Home Minister is-
(A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(B) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Govind Ballabh Pant
189. Mullaperiyar Dam is a disputed issue between-
(A) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala and Karnataka
190. Margaret Alva is the Governor of-
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Gujarat
(D) Sikkim
191. The Union Territory of Puducherry does not have a common border with-
(A) Karnataka
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Kerala
192. Fullerene, a newly discovered crystalline carbon allotrope, contains-
(A) 100 C atoms
(B) 80 C atoms
(C) 60 C atoms
(D) 40 C atoms
193. The metal which is protected by a layer of its own oxide is-
(A) Gold
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Silver
194. Filaria is caused by-
(A) Wuchereria bancrofti
(B) Plasmodium vivax
(C) Ascaris lubricoides
(D) Entamoeba histolytica
195. The maximum moisture content of the composting mixture for vermicomposting is-
(A) 40%
(B) 65%
(C) 30%
(D) 35%
196. The process of ozonation in water treatment is known as-
(A) Ionization
(B) Sedimentation
(C) Precipitation
(D) Disinfection
197. Permissible concentration of residual chlorine in drinking water in mg/L is-
(A) 1.0
(B) 5.0
(C) 0.2
(D) 0.05
198. Lead poisoning in vertebrates is not characterized by-
(A) Anaemia
(B) Methemoglobinemia
(C) Neurological defects
(D) Kidney dysfunction
199. Who is the Chief of the Indian Army?
(A) Gen. J. J. Singh
(B) Gen. Dalbir Singh
(C) Gen. V. K. Singh
(D) Gen. Bikram Singh
200. India is not a member of-
(A) G-20
(B) G-8
(C) SAARC
(D) U.N.
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