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Air Force Common Admission Test
(AFCAT)-2 2017
1. Which city is the capital of Uzbekistan?
(A) Tashkent
(B) Astana
(C) Dushanbe
(D) Ankara
2. WHO (World Health Organization) headquarters is located in which city?
(A) Ankara (Turkey)
(B) Geneva (Switzerland)
(C) Paris (France)
(D) New York (USA)
3. Mohiniyattam dance belongs to which of the following states?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Odisha
4. Thomas cup is associated with which game?
(A) Cricket
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Tennis
5. PV Sindhu won against which player in Indian Open 2017?
(A) Carolina Marin
(B) Ratchanok Intanon
(C) Shiho Tanaka
(D) Koharu Yonemoto
6. Who is appointed as Chief of Air Force?
(A) BS Dhanoa
(B) Arup Raha
(C) Bipin Rawat
(D) Ajit Doval
7. Shamas ud-din Iltutmish came from which dynasty?
(A) Slave dynasty
(B) Mughal
(C) Lodi
(D) Khilji
8. Which is the most abundant element in the universe?
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Carbon
(D) Oxygen
9. Which of the following person is not a Bharat Ratna Awardee?
(A) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri
10. Where is the prarie grassland located?
(A) Australia
(B) Europe
(C) North America
(D) Asia
11. Atlas mountain is in which continent?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) Europe
(D) Australia
12. Where was the first conference of Indian National Congress was held?
(A) Lucknow
(B) Bombay
(C) Pune
(D) Calcutta
13. From where Gandhiji started satyagraha?
(A) Camparan
(B) Kheda
(C) Ahemdabad
(D) Bardoli
14. International Date line passes through?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Mid-Pacific Ocean
(C) Mediterranean Sea
(D) Indian Ocean
15. Satpura Range extends towards?
(A) Chhotanagpur Plateau
(B) Vindhyachal Parvat
(C) Nilgiri
(D) Kardamom
16. Who was the Defence Minister of India during the 1962 Indo-China war?
(A) Baldev Singh
(B) Kailash Nath Katju
(C) VK Krishna Menon
(D) Jagjivan Ram
17. Juan Manuel Santos won Nobel Prize in which field?
(A) Literature
(B) Economics
(C) Physics
(D) Peace
18. Which state has won the Vijay Hazare Trophy 2016-17?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
19. On which river, Baglihar dam is built?
(A) Ravi
(B) Satluj
(C) Chenab
(D) Narmada
20. “The old man and the sea” book is written by which Nobel Prize winner?
(A) Saul Bellow
(B) VS Naipaul
(C) Gounter Grass
(D) Ernest Hemingway
21. Which are the main gases present in Sun?
(A) Hydrogen and Helium
(B) Hydrogen and Argon
(C) Argon and Helium
(D) Hydrogen and Carbon Dioxide
22. Surface temperature of Sun is about?
(A) 5000 degree celsius
(B) 5505 degree celsius
(C) 6000 degree celsius
(D) 6500 degree celsius
23. Which of the radioactive material is largely associated with bone cancer?
(A) Radium-226
(B) Thorium-232
(C) Stronium-90
(D) Iodine
24. Acid rain contains
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Nitric acid
(C) Both A and B
(D) Sulphuric acid, nitric acid and hydrochloric acid
25. Earth summit was held in:
(A) Stockholm in 1972
(B) Rio de Jeneiro in 1992
(C) Paris in 1992
(D) New York in 1972
26. Four bells ring together. If the bells ring at intervals of 2, 5, 8 and 10 seconds respectively, after what interval of time will they ring together again?
(A) 40 sec.
(B) 20 sec.
(C) 15 sec.
(D) 10 sec.
27. The value of (0.98)3 + (0.02)3 + 3(0.98) (0.02) – 1 is
(A) 1.98
(B) 1.09
(C) 1
(D) 0
28. Simplify the following:
(A) 18
(B) 22
(C) 20
(D) 24
29. A can complete a work in 12 days, whereas A and B together can complete the same work in 9 days. How many days will it take B to complete the work?
(A) 24 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 36 days
(D) 18 days
30. 4 men or 7 women can do a work in 90 days. How many days will 8 men and 7 women together take to complete the same work?
(A) 10 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 25 days
(D) 30 days
31. Two taps A and B can fill a cistern in 30 minute and 45 minute respectively. There is third exhaust tap C at the bottom of the tank. If all the taps are opened at the same time the cistern will be full in 45 minute. In what time can exhaust tap C empty the cistern when full?
(A) 30 min
(B) 15 min
(C) 18 min
(D) 20 min
32. Two trains are moving in the same direction at the rate of 80 km/hr and 50 km/hr. The faster train crosses a man in the slower train in 27 seconds. What is the length of faster train?
(A) 225 m
(B) 180 m
(C) 200 m
(D) 215 m
33. If a m an walks at a speed of 5 km/hr from his house to the railway station, he misses the train by 5 minute. However, if he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, he reaches the railway station 6 minute before the scheduled departure time to the train. The distance between his house and the railway station is equal to:
(A) 5 km
(B) 5.5 km
(C) 6 km
(D) 6.5 km
34. A boat covers a distance from A to B down stream and B to A upstream in 4 hours. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/hr and the speed of boat in still water is 4 km/hr, then the distance between A and B is:
(A) 8 km
(B) 9 km
(C) 4 km
(D) 6 km
35. 45% of a number is less than 19.8 from this number. The number is:
(A) 16
(B) 13
(C) 36
(D) 20
36. In a library 40% books are of English, 80% of the rest books are of Hindi and remaining 300 books are of other languages. The number of books in the library is:
(A) 2200
(B) 1800
(C) 2500
(D) 2800
37. Mohan sold two calculators for Rs 990 each. On one calculator he gained 10% and on the other he lost 10%, find his gain or loss in the transaction:
(A) 5% gain
(B) 5% loss
(C) 1% loss
(D) 1% gain
38. One third of a commodity is sold at 15% gain, one fourth is sold at 20% gain and the rest is sold at 24% gain. If the total gain is Rs 62, then cost price is:
(A) Rs 220
(B) Rs 310
(C) Rs 301
(D) Rs 202
39. If x : y = 9 : 11, then the value of 
is:
(A) 45 : 55
(B) 18 : 22
(C) 37 : 41
(D) 39 : 41
40. In a mixture of 60 litre, the ratio of ethanol to ether is 4 : 1. How much ether must be added to be mixture to make the ratio 2 : 1?
(A) 10 l
(B) 12 l
(C) 18 l
(D) 24 l
41. At certain rate of simple interest Rs 2400 becomes Rs 3264 in 4 years. If the rate of interest is increased by 1%, then the amount in the period will be:
(A) Rs 3360
(B) Rs 3400
(C) Rs 3280
(D) Rs 3600
42. Ramesh had Rs 10000 with him. He lent some rupees to P for 2 years at 15% per annum simple interest. The remaining rupees were given to Q for the same time period at 18% per annum simple interest. He found that the interest from P was Rs 360 more than that of Q. How many rupees were given to Q?
(A) Rs 2000
(B) Rs 3000
(C) Rs 4000
(D) Rs 5000
43. The mean of 13 observations is 14. If the mean of first 7 observations is 12 and that of the last 7 observations is 16, then the value of the 7th observation is:
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 14
(D) 15
44. The average of runs of a batsman in 11 innings is 
He scores 129 runs in 12th innings. Now his average is increased by 9 runs. What is the value of 
(A) 82
(B) 45
(C) 21
(D) 48
45. A starts a business with Rs 3500 and after 5 months B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B’s contribution in the capital?
(A) Rs 8000
(B) Rs 8500
(C) Rs 9000
(D) Rs 7500
46. A is older than B by 5 years. Seven years hence, thrice A’s age shall be equal to four times that of B. The present age of A is:
(A) 13 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 9 years
(D) 7 years
47. The ratio of present ages of Mahesh and Dinesh is 7 : 8. If 4 years ago the ratio of their ages be 5 : 6, then present age of Dinesh is:
(A) 10 years
(B) 12 years
(C) 14 years
(D) 16 years
48. A vessel contains mixture of liquids A and B in the ratio 3 : 2. When 20 litre of the mixture is taken out and replaced by 20 litre of liquid B, the ratio changes to 1 : 4. The quantity of liquid A initially present in the vessel was:
(A) 18 l
(B) 28 l
(C) 30 l
(D) 32 l
49. Sudhir gets 3 marks for each correct answer and losses 2 marks for each wrong answer. If he answers 30 questions and gets 40 marks, then number of correct answers is:
(A) 25
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 14
50. Find odd one out:
25, 38, 55, 61, 85, 98
(A) 25
(B) 85
(C) 61
(D) 38
Directions (Q. Nos. 51 to 55): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:
51. Obstinate
(A) Firm
(B) Steadfast
(C) Amenable
(D) Tenacious
52. Profane
(A) Impious
(B) Secular
(C) Blasphemous
(D) Holy
53. Audacious
(A) Adventurous
(B) Cowardly
(C) Defiant
(D) Impudent
54. Intrepid
(A) Timid
(B) Dauntless
(C) Resolute
(D) Plucky
55. Repudiate
(A) Abandon
(B) Abjure
(C) Accept
(D) Discard
Directions (Q. Nos. 56 to 60): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word:
56. Haggle
(A) Despise
(B) Scorn
(C) Manifest
(D) Dispute
57. Unsociable
(A) Solitary
(B) Gracious
(C) Elegant
(D) Urbane
58. Deceitful
(A) Sublime
(B) Inert
(C) Crafty
(D) Torpid
59. Morose
(A) Blithe
(B) Glum
(C) Gay
(D) Genial
60. Repugnant
(A) Coercive
(B) Harsh
(C) Tyrannical
(D) Abhorrent
Directions (Q. Nos. 61 to 65): Choose the correctly spelt word.
61.
(A) Satalite
(B) Setalite
(C) Setallite
(D) Satellite
62.
(A) Embarasment
(B) Emberasment
(C) Embarrassment
(D) Embarrasment
63.
(A) Equanemity
(B) Equanimity
(C) Equanimety
(D) Equenimity
64.
(A) Lackadaisical
(B) Leckadaisical
(C) Lackdaisical
(D) Lackadiasical
65.
(A) Oubiquitous
(B) Obiquitous
(C) Ubiquitois
(D) Ubiquitous
Directions (Q. Nos. 66 to 70): Which word or words explain the meaning of the following idioms:
66. To meet one’s waterloo
(A) A sure success
(B) A big struggle
(C) A decisive defeat or failure
(D) A great chance
67. Sitting on the fence
(A) Watch carefully
(B) Sitting carelessly
(C) Sitting carefully
(D) Avoid making a decision
68. Gift of gab
(A) Ability to win at gambles
(B) Ability to speak with eloquence and fluency
(C) Ability to win gossips
(D) Ability to gabble
69. From hand to mouth
(A) Eating too much
(B) Biting nails
(C) Eating without spoon
(D) Satisfying only bare needs
70. Carry the day
(A) Win
(B) Lose
(C) Waste time
(D) Utilize time
Directions (Q. Nos. 71 to 75): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Men have never succeeded in keeping free from ware in the past. Nor are they likely to do so in the future as they are organized in separate nations states, each able to plunge the world into war whenever the governor or the dictator, who happens to control the government, believes, however, wrongly, that he can obtain an advantage for himself and his country by so doing. Only some form of world government which control all the world’s armed forces and against which no single nation or group of nations could wage war since they would not have the wherewithal to do so, can finally save the world from war.
Secondly, science, by accelerating man’s speed of movement, has made the world into a single whole. Hence, any war, which broke out anywhere, will destroy the whole of civilization and not merely some part of it. That is why the new powers, conferred upon man by science, increasingly demand a world government if they are not to result in man’s destruction.
71. According to the passage, one of the main achievements of science is
(A) the invention of fast-moving vehicles
(B) the exploitation of natural resources of the world
(C) integration of mankind into a single unit
(D) international control over nation states
72. According to the writer, was occur because
(A) some governments are run by thoughtless dictators
(B) large nations want to dominate small nations
(C) armed forces provoke them
(D) the interest of difference nation states clash very ofen
73. The writer pleads strongly for the elimination of ware because it would
(A) destroy precious resources that can be used for social development.
(B) lead to death and injuries on a large-scale
(C) benefit the ruler or the dictator
(D) destroy the whole civilization
74. The need for a world government is all the more urge in modern time because
(A) all nations are sick and tired of wars
(B) scientific development has made national boundaries redundant
(C) nation states are equipped with deadly weapons to destroy one another
(D) civilization has advanced so much that internationalism has replaced the concept of nationalism
75. In order to have a world without ware the writer wants to
(A) eliminate clash of interest between nation states
(B) rule out the possibility of a country being ruled by a dictator
(C) strengthen democracy
(D) deprive the nation states of direct control over their defence services
Directions (Q. Nos. 76 to 80): In each of the following questions, four words have been given, ,out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
76.
(A) Asia
(B) Canada
(C) Europe
(D) Africa
77.
(A) Sun
(B) Moon
(C) Mars
(D) Universe
78.
(A) Ocean
(B) Water fall
(C) Pond
(D) River
79.
(A) Metre
(B) Swiss
(C) Litre
(D) Yard
80.
(A) Violine
(B) Sitar
(C) Flute
(D) Piano
Directions (Q. Nos. 81 to 85): Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some inter linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.
81. Which of the following diagram correctly represents the relationship amongst
Tiger, Elephant, Animal ?
82. Which of the following diagram represents the relationship among Citizens, Educated and People?
83. Which figure best represent the relation among Man, Vegetables and Cow?
84. Which diagram best represents the relationship among classes given below?
Government servants, Lecturers, Doctors
85. Which of the following figure represents the relationship among Brinjal, Meat, Vegetables?
Directions (Q. Nos. 86 to 90): Each of the following one/two statements are followed by two conclusions. Assuming that the given statements are true you have to decide which conclusion follows strictly from the given statements. Select your answer from the alternatives.
86. Statement: The increasing population of our nation will lead to depletion of many essential resources.
Conclusions:
(I) Population of our nation can be controlled.
(II) The nation will not be able to provide a decent living to its citizens.
(A) Neither I nor II follows
(B) Only conclusion I follows
(C) Only conclusion II follows
(D) Either I or II follows
87. Statements:
(I) Some books are mobile.
(II) Some calculators are mobiles.
Conclusions:
(I) Some mobiles are calculators.
(II) Some mobiles are books.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
88. Statements:
(I) No flower is a pot.
(II) No pot is a garden.
Conclusions:
(I) No flower is a garden.
(II) All gardens are pots.
(A) Only conclusions I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
89. Statements:
(I) Some phones are watches.
(II) All watches are guns.
Conclusions:
(I) All guns are watches.
(II) Some guns are phones.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows
90. Statements:
(I) All furnitures are pens.
(II) All pens are pencils.
Conclusions:
(I) Some furnitures are pencils.
(II) All pencils are furnnitures.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I or II follows
91. Which answer figure will complete the question figure?
92. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Directions (Q. Nos. 93 to 95): In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
93. Hen : Egg : : Tree : ?
(A) Bark
(B) Seed
(C) Leaves
(D) Fruit
94. Window : Pane : : Book : ?
(A) Novel
(B) Glass
(C) Cover
(D) Page
95. Nail Cutter : Nail : : Guillotine : ?
(A) Blade
(B) Head
(C) Razor
(D) Knife
Directions (Q. Nos. 96 to 99): In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
96. 14, 28, 20, 4, 32, 64, ?
(A) 52
(B) 56
(C) 128
(D) 48
97. 9, 17, 31, 57, ?, 205
(A) 102
(B) 104
(C) 107
(D) 109
98. 2, 7, 17, 32, 52, 77, ?
(A) 107
(B) 91
(C) 101
(D) 92
99. 30, 24, 19, 15, 12, ?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 11
100. In this diagram, a total number of 100 players play different games.
How many players play Football and Hockey but not Cricket?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 15
(D) 5
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