IBPS Clerk Pre (Phase I) Online Examination Held on December 4, 2017
Part I English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
When Hurricane Harvey loomed off the coast of my home State of Texas, it seemed to fill the entire Gulf of Mexico.
When it roared on land, it pummeled the towns Rockport and Port Aranas, whose tawny beaches I’ve walked with my kids, pointing out the indigo sails of Portuguese man O’war jellyfish. Harvey’s eye took direct aim at the University of Texas’ Marine Science Institute, flattening not just the facility itself, but priceless samples awaiting analysis. After Harvey left Port Aransas, it spun back into the Gulf of Mexico over record sea temperatures as great as 4° above normal. Thermodynamic laws require that warmer air holds more water vapour. The heat armed the storm with a mighty arsenal of water vapour. Then Harvey returned to land, dumping a catastrophic amount of rain on Houston. My Facebook feed filled with pleas for rescue from the rising waters. Friend’s houses flooded – houses that had always been on dry land before A chemical plant blew up twice Toxic chemicals oozed from Superfund sites. Dozens died in the deluge, mostly by drowning. And all the while, alongside the heartbreak and horror, I kept thinking about a strange harbinger : jellyfish. Play Video Diaphanous in form yet menacing in sting, jellyfish have a powerful capacity to capture our imagination. They undulate in a primal rhythm, blinking open and closed like eyes that can peer into the soul of the sea. And what they are seeing are changes produced by us here on land. Because we burn fossil fuels, which release greenhouse gasses, not just the atmosphere, but ocean waters are warming. At the same time, our ship traffic transports animals to new places, and sometimes these exotics find home-like conditions where in the past those conditions would have been unsuitable. That’s what happened in the eastern Mediterranean, where a jellyfish from the tropical Indian Ocean has found warm, homey waters and now forms huge aggregations called blooms that stretch for tens of miles every summer. The fierce stings of these animals chase beach-goers out of the water. Their gooey bodies clog machinery at power plants, halting operations.
Rampant coastal development provides new habitat for a jellyfish stage called polyp that looks like a sea anemone. When it finds a hard surface like a dock or a jetty to grow on, a single polyp can proliferate into a dozen or even more medusa. And fields of polyps grow on those hard structures. That’s likely what happened off the coast of Italy, where gas platforms are thought to be the home for a new invasion of jellyfish.
In the twentieth century in the Adriatic sea, moon jellies, pinkish with their characteristic four-leafed clover on top, were a rarity. Now they are ubiquitous. And as we wash pollution into our waters, we create low-oxygen environments. Some jellyfish, with their flow metabolic rate due to their a-cellular jelly insides, can survive more easily there than fish, with their oxygen guzzling muscled tissues. That is part of what happened in the Yellow sea, where pollution is unchecked. It is the birthplace of a maroon jellyfish that reaches a weight of 500 pounds. Blooms of the creature were a once-a-generation event before 2000 the kind of thing fishermen mentioned to their sons. But jellyzillas swept from China in the Tsushima Current, have plagued Japan’s coast almost every year of the 21st century. In 2009, a fishing boat caught so many that their weight capsized the vessel. (Fortunately, the crew members were rescued.) And our lack of oversight of the fishing industry, which has removed more than 90% of the large fish from the seas, has depleted the predators of jellyfish as well as their competitors. Jellyfish are eaten by some fish, and jellyfish eat the same small zooplankton that fish do. The ecological vacuum left by unrestrained fishing can allow jellyfish to expand their influence in marine ecosystems. That’s what happened off the coast of Namibia, once one of the world.
1. How is jellyfish able to survive in polluted water more than the other fishes?
(1) Jellyfish has oxygen guzzling muzzled tissues.
(2) Due to low metabolic rate.
(3) Jellyfish eat small zooplankton to survive.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
(e) All are correct
2. How Hurricane Harvey can be termed as devastating with reference to the passage?
(a) Many peopled died by drowning.
(b) Hurricane blew up the Chemical plants.
(c) Toxic chemicals got exuded from superfund sites.
(d) Hurricane flooded many houses.
(e) All of the above
3. What is the author’s main idea regarding the passage?
(a) How to ameliorate ecological imbalance.
(b) The author gave his opinion regarding jellyfish that what they know humans don’t.
(c) Water pollution creating a low oxygen environment affecting aquatic life.
(d) Hurricane Harvey destroyed many lives
(e) Endangered condition of Jellyfish
4. Which of the following statements is/are true in context of the given passage?
(a) Maroon jellyfish is found in Yellow sea where pollution is unchecked.
(b) Hurricane Harvey with strong winds battered the entire Gulf of Mexico.
(c) Jellyzillas sweeping from China have afflicted Japan’s coast.
(d) Jellyfish survive more than other fishes in low oxygen environment
(e) All of the above
5. Which of the following statements regarding jellyfish is/are related to the country Namibia?
(a) The attenuation in the number of jellyfish is due to the low oxygen environment.
(b) The predators of jellyfish are depleting because of uncontrolled fishing.
(c) Jellyfish can proliferate their population in the situation of ecological imbalance.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) All of the given options
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-11) In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with one blank. Bellow each sentence four words are given out of which two can fit the sentence. Five options are given with various combinations of these words. You have to choose the combination with the correct set of words which can fit in the given sentence.
6. Would you like to have …….. coffee?
(A) Much (B) More
(C) some (d) many
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) A-C
7. The Dysart Unified School District says they are investigating threats made …….. the district and Dysart High School.
(A) towards (B) against
(C) for (D) after
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) A-C
8. I was going ……… to say hello when I realized that I couldn’t remember his name.
(A) beyond (B) over
(C) through (D) across
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) B-D
9. In 1997 the sales tax was lowered to 4%, then in 2001 it was abolished ………
(A) together (B) laterally
(C) completely (D) altogether
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) B-D
10. Children ….. their parents’ authority far more nowadays than they did in the past.
(A) dispute (B) question
(C) confront (D) challenge
(a) A-B
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) B-D
11. The United Nations was ………. its authority to restore peace in the area.
(A) Used (B) Blow
(C) Exercised (D) Refused
(a) A-C
(b) A-D
(c) B-C
(d) C-D
(e) B-D
Directions (Q. Nos. 12-20) In each of the question given below a/an idiom/phrase is given in bold which is then followed by five options which then tries to decipher its meaning as used in the sentence. Choose the option which gives the meaning of the phrase most appropriately in context of the given sentence.
12. She comes across really well on television.
(a) discover
(b) express
(c) behave
(d) offers
(e) provide
13. The deal was completely open and above board.
(a) mislead
(b) profitable
(c) dupe
(d) respect
(e) honest
14. The most businessmen, the central questions will turn on
(a) matter
(b) consider
(c) attack
(d) concern
(e) unsettle
15. They sought a controlling interest rather than a takeover.
(a) spend
(b) partnership
(c) endorse
(d) approve
(e) buyout
16. I think he was just putting on an act to get sympathy.
(a) tolerate
(b) assume
(c) perform
(d) deceive
(e) effect
17. I can put up with the house being messy, but I hate it if it’s not clean.
(a) ignore
(b) forget
(c) delay
(d) remain
(e) bear
18. He gave in to my suggestion after I had shown him the plans.
(a) leave
(b) defeated
(c) defy
(d) agree
(e) resign
19. The cut in on a station wagon, forcing the driver to brake.
(a) interrupt
(b) stop
(c) collide
(d) too close
(e) carve
20. Most patients find that the numbness from the injection wears off after about an hour.
(a) calm
(b) inflate
(c) deepen
(d) fade
(e) emerge
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) In each of the question given below a sentence is given which is then divided into five parts out of which last part is correct. There is an error in three part of the sentence and only one part is correct. You have to choose the part as y our answer.
21. After he had read / the first two chapters / to the novel, / he had felt like/ reading the book in one sitting.
(a) After he had read
(b) the first two chapters
(c) to the novel
(d) he had felt like
(e) All are incorrect
22. Since most of the urban people/ have been lived / at polluted areas/ they suffers from severe / diseases caused by pollution.
(a) Since most of the urban people
(b) have been lived
(c) at polluted areas
(d) they suffers from severe
(e) All are incorrect
23. Broadly speaking of a / layman language disability / could be / classified in two groups/ namely mental and physical.
(a) Broadly speaking of a
(b) layman language disability
(c) could be
(d) classified in two groups
(e) All are incorrect
24. Although there are some / similarities at the disqualification / of both the candidate/ the differences among them / are considerably pronounced.
(a) Although there are some
(b) similarities at the disqualification
(c) of both the candidate
(d) the differences among them
(e) All are incorrect
25. When the group of teenagers/ visits the entertainment centre/ little did they knows/ that its outing/ would lead them to a hospital.
(a) When the group of teenagers
(b) visits the entertainment centre
(c) little did they knows
(d) that its outing
(e) All are incorrect
26. If the present guidelines,/ the bank are required/ to obtaining a photograph/ from any persons/ who wishes to open an account.
(a) If the present guidelines
(b) the bank are required
(c) to obtaining a photograph
(d) from any persons
(e) All are incorrect
27. Although the clock struck twelve, / we hear the big bang of! the fire crackers and saw/ all the guests scream,/ shouting and wishing each other with joy.
(a) Although the clock struck twelve,
(b) we hear the big bang of
(c) the fire crackers and saw
(d) all the guests scream,
(e) All are incorrect
28. The Rupali wanted/ to gets/ the clear picture about/ the incident so she spoke/ to the victism.
(a) The Rupali wanted
(b) to gets
(c) the clear picture about
(d) the incident so she spoke
(e) All are incorrect
29. The centre has accepted/ the report of the Judicial Commission/ that indicted a former Chief Minister/ and six of his ministerial colleagues for corruption,/ favouritism, nepotism and administrative impropriety.
(a) The centre has accepted
(b) the report of the Judicial Commission
(c) that indicted a former Chief Minister
(d) and six of his ministerial colleagues for corruption
(e) All are incorrect
30. Before invested,/ you should look at the/ overall business dynamics for the company/ along with its efficient management and/ good corporate governance.
(a) Before invested
(b) you should look at the
(c) overall business dynamics for the company
(d) along with its efficient management and
(e) All are incorrect
Part II Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are eight persons namely S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z lives on eight different floors from one to eight. Ground floor is number one and one above that is number two and so on till the topmost floor is number eight.
X lives on odd number floor but does not live on 3rd floor. Z lives immediate below X. More than two person lives between Z and Y. There are six person lives between S and Y. V lives immediate above W, but live below T. U does not live above X. W does not live immediate above Y.
31. Who lives on floor number five?
(a) U
(b) S
(c) Z
(d) T
(e) None of these
32. How many persons live between W and X?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Two
(e) None of these
33. Who lives immediately above V?
(a) Z
(b) T
(c) Y
(d) W
(e) None of these
34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Y
(b) V
(c) T
(d) X
(e) W
35. Who lives on 2nd floor?
(a) X
(b) S
(c) U
(d) Z
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-38) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statement disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true
(b) if only conclusion II is true
(c) if both conclusion I and II are true
(d) if either conclusion I or II is true
(e) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
36. Statements Some dares are dream. All dreams are real. No real is fake.
Conclusions I. Some dreams are fake.
II. All dream is not fake.
37. Statements No rain is game. Some games are chain. No chain is lane.
Conclusions I. Some chains are not rain.
II. Some games are lane.
38. Statements Some movies are tickets. No ticket is popcorn. Some popcorn in burger.
Conclusions I. Some movies are burger.
II. Some burgers are not movies.
Directions (Q. Nos. 39-43) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line (but not necessarily in the same order). Some of them are facing South while some are facing North.
Q sits at one of t he extreme ends of the line. C sits third to the left of Q. B, is not an immediate neighbour of Q. P sits third to the right of C. A faces North. D sits to the immediate right of P. D does not sits at any of the extreme end of the line. Only one person sits between R and B. P sits second to the left of R. S sits second to the right of D. Both the immediate neighbour of P faces the same direction to each other. Both the immediate neighbour fo C faces the opposite direction to each other. S faces the same direction as D and A faces the same direction as R.
None Facing the same direction means if one is facing North then the other also faces North and vice versa. Facing opposite direction means if one if acing North then the other faces South and vice versa.
39. How many persons sits between D and A?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) None of these
40. Who among the following pair sits at extreme ends?
(a) S, Q
(b) D, Q
(c) Q, R
(d) S, R
(e) None of these
41. Who sits third to the left of D?
(a) R
(b) B
(c) Q
(d) C
(e) None of these
42. Who sits to the immediate right of B?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) R
(d) S
(e) None of these
43. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) S
(d) B
(e) D
Directions (Q. Nos. 44-46) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusion based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows
(b) if only conclusion II follows
(c) if both conclusion follow
(d) if either conclusion I or II follows
(e) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
44. Statements Z > W > V = K < L < I
Conclusions I. W > K II. I > K
45. Statements Q > B, K < E < B, J ≥ E, R < Q
Conclusions I. Q > K II. Q = E
46. Statements E = F < G < H; G ≥ I
Conclusion I. H > I II. E > I
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-51) Study the following alphabetical sequence and answer the questions based on it.
ABBCDEFEIBCAFECBBACAOBNUVW
47. How many Cs are there in the alphabetical series which are immediately preceded by a vowel and immediate followed by consonant?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) None of these
48. If all the vowels are dropped from the series, then which alphabet will be eighth from the left end?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) N
(d) F
(e) None of these
49. How many vowels are there in the alphabetical series which are immediately preceded by a consonant?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) More than five
(e) None
50. If the position of the 1st and the 14th alphabets, the 2nd and the 15th alphabets and so on up to the 13th and the 26th alphabets, are interchanged, Then which alphabets will be 7th to the right of 10th alphabets from the right end?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) N
(d) B
(e) None of these
51. How many total vowels in the alphabetical series?
(a) Five
(b) Ten
(c) Three
(d) Nine
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 52-56) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are eight notes of different denominations ie., Rs 1, Rs 5, Rs 20, Rs 50, Rs 100, Rs 200, Rs 500, Rs 2000 which are arranged in a circular arrangement facing towards the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Rs 50 note is arranged second to the right of Rs 200 note. Odd denominations note will not be immediate neighbour of Rs 200 and Rs 50 note. There will be less than Rs 100 denomination note to the immediate left and immediate right of Rs 100 note except Rs 1 note. Rs 100 note is second to the left of Rs 5 note. Rs 2000 note is second to the left of Rs 100 note.
52. Which rupee not will be arranged to the immediate left of Rs 50 note?
(a) Rs 100
(b) Rs 2000
(c) Rs 500
(d) Rs 5
(e) None of these
53. Which rupee note will be arranged to the third to the right of Rs 5 note?
(a) Rs 2000
(b) Rs 100
(c) Rs 200
(d) Rs 20
(e) None of these
54. What will be the sum of note which is immediate left of Rs 50 note and immediate right of Rs 500 note?
(a) Rs 2100
(b) Rs 550
(c) Rs 700
(d) Rs 2200
(e) None of these
55. Which denomination note are between Rs 1 and Rs 100 note, when counted clockwise from Rs 1 note?
(a) Rs 5 and Rs 20
(b) Rs 50 and Rs 100
(c) Rs 200 and Rs 2000
(d) Rs 1 and Rs 500
(e) None of these
56. Which rupee note will be arranged to the third to the right of Rs 2000 note?
(a) Rs 2000
(b) Rs 100
(c) Rs 200
(d) Rs 300
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 57-61) These questions are based on the following five numbers.
834 427 563 649 975
57. If all the digits of numbers are arranged in ascending order within the number, then which of the following is lowest number?
(a) 975
(b) 649
(c) 834
(d) 563
(e) 427
58. If 1st digit of highest number is divided by 2nd digit of 2nd highest number, then what will be the resultant?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
59. If 2 is subtracted from the every even digit and 1 is subtracted from every odd digit number of each number, which number among them will be lowest number?
(a) 834
(b) 427
(c) 563
(d) 649
(e) 975
60. What is addition of 3rd digit of highest number and 2nd digit of lowest number?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) None of these
61. If 1st digit of 2nd highest number is divided by 1st digit of lowest number, then what will be the resultant?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) None of these
62. If 1 is subtracted from each even number and 2 is subtracted to each odd number in the number 5827936, then how many digits will appear twice in the new number thus formed?
(a) Only 7
(b) Only 5 and 7
(c) 1, 5 and 7
(d) 4, 5 and 9
(e) None of these
63. How many letter will be remain at the same position in the word ‘SURFACE’ when they are arranged in the alphabetical order from left to right?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two
(e) None of these
64. There are rive person i.e. P, Q, R, S and T. If Q is taller than R and S but smaller than T. S is smaller than T, who is not the tallest, then who is the tallest person among all?
(a) T
(b) Q
(c) S
(d) P
(e) None of these
65. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SENATOR’ which have as many letters between them in the word as in alphabetical series?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
66. The ratio of speed of boat in downstream and speed of stream is 9 : 1, if speed of current is 3 km/h, then find distance travelled upstream in 5 hours.
(a) 105 km
(b) 110 km
(c) 120 km
(d) 90 km
(e) 95 km
67. The sum of 4 consecutive even numbers are greater than three consecutive odd numbers by 81. If sum of least odd and even number is 59, then find the sum of largest odd and even numbers.
(a) 69
(b) 71
(c) 73
(d) 67
(e) None of these
68. Two different amounts are invested in two schemes. In scheme A, amount X is invested at 8% per annum and in scheme B amount (X + 1400) is invested at 12% per annum. After 2 years difference between both interests is 880, then find value of X?
(a) 7200
(b) 5500
(c) 6800
(d) 7300
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 69-73) Read the table and answer the given questions.
69. What is the ratio of total number of books sold from store D on Sunday, Monday and Tuesday together to that sold from store E on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday together?
(a) 13 :11
(b) 11 : 15
(c) 11 : 13
(d) 13 : 15
(e) 11 : 17
70. Number of books sold on Friday from stores C and D increased by 15% and 20% respectively as compared to that sold on previous day. What number of books the stores C & D sold on Friday?
(a) 162
(b) 158
(c) 150
(d) 160
(e) 168
71. Total numbers of books sold from store B on Tuesday and Wednesday together are what percent more or less than total books sold from stores C & D together on Monday?
(a) 27 3/13%
(b) 27 3/11%
(c) 25 2/11%
(d) 24 3/11%
(e) None of these
72. What is the average number of books sold from stores B on Sunday, C on Tuesday and E on Thursday?
(a) 82
(b) 80
(c) 88
(d) 75
(e) 85
73. Find the difference in total number of books sold from stores C and E together on Tuesday and From store B on Monday and Thursday together?
(a) 61
(b) 65
(c) 59
(d) 60
(e) 63
Directions (Q. Nos. 74-78) What should come in place of the question marks in following number series?
74. 255 230 250 235 245 ?
(a) 245
(b) 240
(c) 225
(d) 260
(e) 265
75. 5 3.5 5 ? 21.5 56.75
(a) 7.5
(b) 8.5
(c) 9.5
(d) 10.5
(e) 9
76. 8 4 4 8 32 ?
(a) 512
(b) 128
(c) 248
(d) 256
(e) 232
77. 129 128 124 115 ? 74
(a) 99
(b) 98
(c) 101
(d) 97
(e) 103
78. 0.5 1.5 5 18 76 ?
(a) 380
(b) 385
(c) 390
(d) 375
(e) 395
79. The average age of A and B, 2 years ago was 26. If age of A, 5 years hence is 40 years, and B is 5 year younger to C, then find difference between age of A and C?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 12
(e) None of these
80. The average of X, Y, Z is 24, Z is 24, X : Y = 2 : 3, X + Y = 60, then find X-Z = ?
(a) 16
(b) 14
(c) 8
(d) 10
(e) 12
81. The cost price of two articles is same, trade man got profit of 40% on first article, selling price of second article is 25% less than first article, then find overall profit percent?
(a) 23%
(b) 12 1/2%
(c) 25%
(d) 22 1/2%
(e) None of these
82. The length of rectangle is 80% of diagonal of square of area 1225, then find area of rectangle, if its perimeter is 94√2.
(a) 1016
(b) 500
(c) 1604
(d) 1064
(e) 625
83. The annual salary of Arun is Rs 7.68 lakh. In a month if he spends Rs 12000 on his children, 1/3th of rest on food and Rs 8000 in mutual funds from his monthly salary, then find the monthly saving he is left with.
(a) Rs 40000
(b) Rs 45000
(c) Rs 50000
(d) Rs 36000
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 84-98) What should come in place of question marks in the following equations?
84. 40% of (20/4 × ?) = 48
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 32
(e) 22
85. (0.25 + 1.5) (3.5 + 1.5) = ?
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 24
(e) 20.5
86. 40 × 64 ÷ 80 = ?2 + 7
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 4
(e) 2
87. 25% of 16 × (15 – ?)3 = 256
(a) 15
(b) 13
(c) 9
(d) 11
(e) 7
88. 90 = 15% of 1000 × 3% of (100/?)
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
(e) 3
89. ? + 72 = (7 × 4) + (43 × 5)
(a) 192
(b) 194
(c) 196
(d) 198
(e) 200
90. 
(a) 2/3
(b) 2/9
(c) 4/9
(d) 9/4
(e) 7/9
91. 40% of (102 ÷ 17) × ? = 23 × 6
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 25
(d) 30
(e) 15
92. ? – 23 = (72 – 12) + (102 – 17)
(a) 132
(b) 126
(c) 124
(d) 128
(e) 130
93. 400% of ? = (13 × 15) – (891 ÷ 9)
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 22
(d) 28
(e) 18
94. 82 × 82 = 2? × 26 × 24
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 0
(e) 4
95. 20% of (22 × 32) – 2 = ?
(a) 2.5
(b) 5.2
(c) 5.4
(d) 5.6
(e) 6.2
96. 20% of 1/5 of 2250 = 50 + ?
(a) 55
(b) 90
(c) 50
(d) 40
(e) 45
97. 986 – 432 + 116 = ? + (13)2
(a) 501
(b) 505
(c) 401
(d) 451
(e) None of these
98. 14.2% of 11000 + 15.6% of ? = 3590
(a) 12000
(b) 13000
(c) 14560
(d) 12250
(e) 13500
99. A can do a work in 24 days, B is 20% more efficient than A, if C can do the work in 10 more days than B, find days taken by A and C together to complete the work.
(a) 20/3 days
(b) 44/3 days
(c) 40/3 days
(d) 6 days
(e) None of these
100. The ratio of milk to water is 5 : 4. If two litres of water is added, ratio becomes 10 : 9, then find new amount of water in the mixture.
(a) 14 L
(b) 16 L
(c) 18 L
(d) 20 L
(e) 22 L
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