Medical PG Medicine
1. Increased ‘anion gap’ is not seen in
(A) Salicylate poisoning
(B) Renal tubular acidosis
(C) Lactic acidosis
(D) Ethylene glycol poisoning
2.All the following are features of Anorexia Nervosa except
(A) Predominantly seen in females
(B) There is Loss of weight at the time of presentation
(C) Amenorrhea is rare
(D) Avoidance of high calorie foods
3. All the following are used in the treatment of Pneumocystis carinii except
(A) Pentamidine
(B) Dapsone
(C) Cotrimoxazole
(D) Fluoroqinolones
4. The drug of choice in Herpes Simplex Encephalitis is
(A) Acyclovir
(B) Zidovudine
(C) Amantadine
(D) Vidarabine
5. All the following are features of Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia except
(A) Eosinophilia > 3000/mmᶟ
(B) Microfilaria in blood
(C) Paroxysmal cough and wheezing
(D) Bilateral chest mottling and increased broncho-vascular markings
6. osteoporosis is seen in all the following except
(A) Thyrotoxicosis
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Hypoparathyroidism
(D) Steroid therapy
7. Osteoporosis is seen in
(A) Thyrotoxicosis
(B) Cushing’s disease
(C) Menopause
(D) All of the above
8. The most common manifestation of osteoporosis is
(A) Compression fracture of the spine
(B) Asymptomatic, detected incidentally by low serum Calcium
(C) Bowing of legs
(D) Bowing of legs
9. Which part of the spine is most commonly affected in Rheumatoid arthritis
(A) Cervical
(B) Lumbar
(C) Thoracic
(D) Sacral
10. ll the following are true about Rheumatoid arthritis except
(A) Positive for Anti-IgG antibody
(B) Juxta-articular osteoporosis
(C) Morning stiffness
(D) C Reactive protein indicates better progonosis
11. Which of the following is true regarding Rheumatoid arthritis
(A) Typically involves small and large joints symmetrically but spares cervical spine
(B) Causes pleural effusion with low sugar
(C) Pulmonary nodules are absent
(D) Enthesopathy prominent
12. Gold slats can be used in
(A) Ankylosing spondylitis
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Osteoarthritis
(D) Behcet’s syndrome
13. All the following are features of Behcet’s syndrome except
(A) Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
(B) Multi-system involvement
(C) Seen only in the tropics
(D) Common in youngsters
14. All the following are features of Marfan’s syndrome except
(A) Arachnodactyly
(B) Joint hypermobility
(C) High palate
(D) Flat foot-pes planus
15. In Thyrotoxicosis, β-blockers do not control
(A) Anxiety
(B) Tremors
(C) Tachycardia
(D) Oxygen consumption
16. SIADH secretion is seen in all except
(A) Lung abscess
(B) Interstitial Nephritis
(C) Vinka alkaloids
(D) Bronchial adenoma
17. Henoch Schonlein purpura is characterized by all except
(A) Thrombocytopenia
(B) Glomerulonephritis
(C) Arthralgia
(D) Abdominal pain
18. All the following are true about multiple myeloma except
(A) Osteolytic bone disease
(B) t(8-14) translocation
(C) Light chain proliferation
(D) Bence-Jones proteins in urine
19. In the JVP, ‘a’ waves are absent in
(A) Atrial fibrillation
(B) Mitral stenosis
(C) Tricuspid atresia
(D) Sick sinus syndrome
20. Angina pectoris and Syncope are most likely to be associated with
(A) Mitral stenosis
(B) Aortic stenosis
(C) Mitral regurgitation
(D) Tricuspid stenosis
21. Acute Aortic regurgitation is seen in all the following except
(A) Marfan’s syndrome
(B) Acute myocardial infarction
(C) Bacterial endocarditis
(D) Ankylosing spondylitis
22. Decreased maximum mid-expiratory flow rate indicates obstruction in
(A) Small airways
(B) Trachea
(C) Large airways
(D) Trachea & Bronchi both
23. All the following are true about Chronic Obstructive lung disease except
(A) Decreased FeV1
(B) Decreased MEFR
(C) Increased RV
(D) Decreased diffusion capacity
24. Normal portal venous pressure is
(A) 3-5 cm saline
(B) 5-10 cm saline
(C) 10-15 cm saline
(D) 15-20 cm saline
25. Hepatitis B infectivity is indicated by
(A) Anti-HBsAg
(B) HBsAg + HBeAg
(C) Anti-HBsAg + Anti-HBc
(D) Anti-HBeAg + Anti-HbsAg
26. All the following are causes of Acute Pancreatitis except
(A) Gall stones
(B) Alcohol
(C) Hemochromatosis
(D) Hypercalcemia
27. The most common site of Berry aneurysm is
(A) Junction of anterior communicating artery with anterior cerebral artery
(B) Junction of posterior communicating artery with internal carotid artery
(C) Bifurcation of middle cerebral artery
(D) Vertebral artery
28. A common site for intracranial hemorrhage is
(A) Putamen
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Mid-brain
(D) Pons
29. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of the area of distribution of the
(A) Anterior cerebral artery
(B) Middle cerebral artery
(C) Posterior cerebral artery
(D) Anterior communicating artery
30. All the following are features Pseudotumor cerebri except
(A) Increased intracranial tension
(B) Convulsions
(C) Papilledema
(D) Normal CT scan
31. The characteristic feature of a frontal lobe tumor is
(A) Abnormal gait
(B) Aphasia
(C) Distractibility
(D) Antisocial behavior
32. Neuronophagia is seen in
(A) Amoebic encephalitis
(B) Poliomyelitis
(C) Tuberculous meningoencephalitis
(D) Cerebral malaria
33. All the following are true of Craniopharyngioma except
(A) Derived from Rathke’s pouch
(B) Contains epithelial cells
(C) Present in sella or infra-sellar location
(D) Causes visual disturbances
34. Thymoma is associated with all except
(A) Pure Red-cell aplasia
(B) Aplastic anemia
(C) Hypergammaglobulinemia
(D) Myasthenia gravis
35. Thymoma is associated with
(A) Myasthenia gravis
(B) Scleroderma
(C) Oesophageal atrasia
(D) Hyper-gammaglobulinemia
36. All the following are examples of diseases causing Aplastic anemia except
(A) PNH
(B) Hepatitis
(C) Pregnancy
(D) Cold hemoglobinuria
37. All the following are seen in Multiple myeloma except
(A) Visual Disturbance
(B) Bleeding tendency
(C) Proteinuria
(D) Dystrophic calcification
38. All of the following cause Microcytic Hypochromic anemia except
(A) Lead poisoning
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Iron deficiency anemial
(D) Fanconi’s anemia
39. Treatment of choice in hairy cell leukemia is
(A) Steroids except
(B) Cladribine
(C) Splenectomy
(D) Pentostatin
40. Electric alternans is seen in
(A) Cardiac tamponade
(B) Restrictive candiomyopathy
(C) Constructive pericarditis
(D) Right Ventricular MI(RVMI)
41. Continuous murmur is seen in all the following except
(A) Aortic sinus of valsalva rupture normal
(B) Coarctation of Aorta
(C) AV malformations
(D) Peripheral pulmonary stenosis
42. Agent of first choice in an cute attack of Prinzmetal’s angina is
(A) Diltiazem
(B) Nitrates
(C) Propranolol
(D) Verapamil
43. Following are used in treatment of digitalis toxity except
(A) Potassium
(B) Lignocaine
(C) Fab particles
(D) Hemodialysis
44. Aspirin-sensitive asthma is associated with
(A) Obesity
(B) Urticaria
(C) Nasal polyp
(D) Extrinsic asthma
45. All the following are true about bronchopulmonary aspergillosis except
(A) Central bronchiectasis
(B) Pleural effusion
(C) Asthma
(D) Eosinophilia
46. Addison’s disease is characterized by all except
(A) Hyperglycemia
(B) Hypotension
(C) Hyperkalemia
(D) Hyponatremia
47. The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is
(A) Pituitary adenoma
(B) Adrenal adenoma
(C) Ectopic ACTH
(D) Iatrogenic steroids
48. Excess Aldosterone is associated with all the following except
(A) Hypokalemia
(B) Hyperkalemia
(C) Sodium retention
(D) Hypertension
49. A common cause of Primary hyperparathyroidism is
(A) Multiple parathyroid adenomas
(B) Solitary parathyroid adenoma
(C) Adrenal hyperplasia
(D) Ectopic PTH production
50. Tufting of the terminal phalanges is seen in
(A) Hypoparathyroidism
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Hyperthyroidism
(D) Hypothyroidism
51. The diagnosis of a patient presenting with familial Polyostosis, Precocious puberty and Pigmentation is
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) McAlbright syndrome
(C) Klinefelter syndrome
(D) SLE
52. The diagnosis of a patient presenting with Seizures. Mental retardation and Sebaceous adenoma is
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Tuberous sclerosis
(C) Toxoplasmosis
(D) Down syndrome
53. The following are rheumatoid disease modifying drugs except
(A) Chloroquine
(B) Gold
(C) Penicillamine
(D) BAL
54. All the following are features of Scleroderma except
(A) Dysphagia
(B) Raynaud’s phenomenon
(C) Skin contracture
(D) Calcification in all the long bones
55. Which is not true of hypocalcaemia
(A) Can occur in hypoparathyroidism
(B) Latent tetany is seen
(C) Prolonged QT interval
(D) Inverse relation with Mg⁺⁺ levels
56. Hypercalcemia is not seen in
(A) Lithium therapy
(B) Chronic renal failure
(C) Multiple myeloma
(D) Vitamin deficiency
57. QT interval is shortened in
(A) Hypocalcaemia
(B) Hypokalemia
(C) Hypercalcemia
(D) Hyperkalemia
58. The CSF findings in TB meningitis are all the following except
(A) Raised protein
(B) Low sugar
(C) Low chloride
(D) High RBC count
59. Tunor associated with Polycythemia Vera is
(A) Sarcoma
(B) Pituitary adenoma
(C) Cerebellar Hemangioblastoma
(D) None of the above
60. True about CSF finding in pyogenic meningitis is
(A) CSF contains no organisms
(B) ↓ Chloride, ↓Glucose
(C) ↑ Glucose, ↑ protein
(D) ↑ Chloride, ↓glucose
61. The drug of choice in Cryptococcal Meningitis is
(A) Pentostatin
(B) Amphotericin B
(C) Clotrimazole
(D) Zidovudine
62. The commonest cause of Intracerebral Bleed is
(A) Thrmobocytopenia
(B) Diabetes
(C) Hypertension
(D) Berry aneurysm
63. Fasciculations are seen in
(A) Motor neuron disease
(B) Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
(C) Polymyositis
(D) None of the above
64. The differential diagnosis of Botulism includes all the following except
(A) Myasthenia Gravis
(B) Guillain Barre’s syndrome
(C) Poliomyelitis
(D) Clostridial myonecrosis
65. Vitamin B6 deficiency is associated with all of the following except
(A) Penicillamine
(B) INH
(C) Cyclosporin
(D) Cycloserine
66. Which drug is not effective against H. pylori
(A) Colloidal Bismuth
(B) Metronidazole
(C) Amoxicillin
(D) Erythromycin
67. Intestinal hypomotility is seen in the following except
(A) Diabetes
(B) Parkinsonism
(C) Amyloidosis
(D) All of the above
68. The most common route of spread in hepatitis E is
(A) Blood transfusion
(B) Feco-oral
(C) Intercourse
(D) IV injection
69. The most common site for amebiasis is
(A) Sigmoid colon
(B) Transverse colon
(C) Caecum
(D) Hepatic flexure
70. Cause of acute loss of vision in a patient of alcoholic pancreatitis is
(A) Purtscher’s retinopathy
(B) Sudden alcohol withdrawal
(C) Acute congestive glaucoma
(D) CRAO
71. Widened anionic gap is not seen in
(A) Acute renal failure
(B) Diarrhea
(C) Lactic acidosis
(D) Diabetic ketoacidosis
72. Lactic acidosis is not seen in
(A) Methanol poisoning
(B) Respiratory failure
(C) Circulatory failure
(D) Tolbutamide
73. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in all expect
(A) Thiazide diuretic therapy
(B) Prolonged vomiting
(C) Uretero-sigmoidostomy
(D) Cushing’s disease
74. Thromobocytopenia is not seen in
(A) H.S. purpura
(B) DIC
(C) Leukemia
(D) Metastasis
75. Platelet transfusion is not indicated in
(A) Dilutional Thrombocytopenia
(B) Immunogenic Thrombocytopenia
(C) Aplastic Anemia
(D) DIC
76. Bacterial endocarditis is rarely seen in
(A) VSD
(B) PDA
(C) MVP
(D) Ostium secundum ASD
77. Which the following is not seen in a chronic case of Sickle cell anemia
(A) Hepatomegaly
(B) Pulmonary hypertension
(C) Cardiomegaly
(D) Splenomegaly
78. All are seen is Hemolytic anemia except
(A) Hemosiderinuria
(B) Reticulocytosis
(C) Spherocytosis
(D) Increased haptoglobin
79. Giant ‘a’ waves in JVP occur in all expect
(A) Junctional rhythm
(B) Pulmonary hypertension
(C) Tricuspid regurgitation
(D) Complete heart block
80. Differential cyanosis is seen in:
(A) ASD
(B) VSD
(C) PDA
(D) All of the above
81. All the following are radiological features of Chronic Cor pulmonale expect
(A) Kerley B lines
(B) Prominent lower lobe vessels
(C) Pleural effusion
(D) Cardiomegaly
82. All of the following are true about Temporal Arteritis expect
(A) Polymyalgia Rheumatica
(B) Anemia
(C) Low ESR
(D) Sudden blindness
83. Kawasaki disease is associated with all of the following features expect
(A) Erythema
(B) Posterior cervical Lymphadenopathy
(C) Thrombocytopenia
(D) Conjunctivitis
84. Which of the following is not seen in ARDS
(A) Pulmonary edema
(B) Hpoxemia
(C) Stiff lung
(D) Hypercapnia
85. The commonest cause of non-gonococcal urethritis is
(A) Chalmydia
(B) Ureaplasma urealyticum
(C) E. coli
(D) Proteus
86. Which of the following statements is true of Rabies
(A) Fluorescent antibody is the test of choice
(B) HDCV is a live attenuated vaccine
(C) Vaccine is given deep IM in the buttock
(D) Local wound care is of no use
87. False-negative tuberculin test is seen in all except
(A) After 4-6 weeks of measles attack
(B) Immunodeficiency state
(C) Miliary tuberculosis
(D) Atypical mycobacterial infection
88. All the following may be used in the prophylaxis of Meningococcal infection except
(A) Penicillin
(B) Sulphonamides
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Rifampicin
89. All the following are features of Wilson’s disease except
(A) Increased copper content in liver
(B) Mental changes
(C) Features of chronic active hepatitis
(D) None of these
90. Which drug is essential in Sheehan’s syndrome
(A) Estrogen
(B) Cortisone
(C) Thyroxin
(D) Growth hormone
91. All the following are features of Guillian-Barre syndrome except
(A) Predominant motor involvement
(B) Residual disability
(C) Absence of pleocytosis in CSF
(D) Sparing of bladder function
92. Which drug is not used in SIADH
(A) Fludrocortisone
(B) Demeclocycline
(C) Desmopressin
(D) Hypertonic saline
93. All the following are features of cerebellar disease except
(A) Intention tremors
(B) Past pointing
(C) Hypertonia
(D) Ataxia
94. Which of the following is not seen in Parkinsonism
(A) Preserved postural reflexes
(B) Hypokinesia
(C) Rigidity
(D) Static tremors
95. Drug of choice in phenothhiazine-induced Dystonia is
(A) Diphenhydramine
(B) Metoclopramide
(C) Trifluperamide
(D) Benzotropine
96. Osteoporosis is caused by all except
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Old age
(C) Hypo-parathyroidism
(D) Steroid therapy
97. All the following are features of Pseudotumor Cerebri except
(A) Normal-sized ventricles on CT scan
(B) Increased protein in CSF
(C) Papilledema
(D) Absence of focal neurological deficit
98. Normal pressure Hydrocephalus is characterized by all except
(A) Aphasia
(B) Dementia
(C) Ataxia
(D) Urinary incontinence
99. Granulomatous hepatitis may be seen with
(A) Carbamazepine
(B) Allopurinol
(C) Phenylbutazone
(D) All of the above
100. Pancreatic cholera is characterized by all except
(A) Hypochlorhydria
(B) Hypokalemia
(C) Hypokalemia
(D) Hypocalcemia
101. All of the following statements are true about Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency disease
(A) Storage occurs in liver and kidney
(B) Hyperuricemia
(C) Gluconeogenesis is increased
(D) None of the above
102. All of the following statements are true about Hemolytic uramic syndrome except :
(A) Uraemia
(B) Hypofibhrinogenemia
(C) Thrombocytopenia
(D) Positive coomb’s test
103. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia may be seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Systemic lupus erythematous
(B) α-Methyl dopa therapy
(C) Non hodgkin’s lymphoma
(D) Mycoplasma pneumonia
104. Megaloblastic anemia may be aused by all of the following except :
(A) Phenytoin
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Pyrimethamine
(D) Amoxycilline
105. All of the following statements about digitalis are true except :
(A) Excretion is mainly renal
(B) Oral absorption is good
(C) Actively metabolized in liver
(D) Lipid soluble
106. All of the following may precipitate digitalis toxicity except :
(A) Hypocalcemia
(B) Hypokalemia
(C) Hypomagnecemia
(D) Hypothyroidism
107. Treatment of digoxin over dose includes administration of all of the following except :
(A) Potassium
(B) Lignocaine
(C) Phenyton
(D) Hemodialysis
108. Co-arctation of aorta may be associated with all of the following except :
(A) Bicuspid aortic value
(B) Tuner syndrome
(C) Renal artery stenosis
(D) PDA
109. Mitral stenosis is associated with
(A) Right ventricular hyper trophy
(B) Left ventricular hypertrophy
(C) Left axis deviation
(D) QRS complex
110. Most common type of hepatitis responsible for epidemics in India is :
(A) Hepatitis A
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Hepatitis C
(D) Hepatitis E
111. Commonest cause of Budd Chiary syndrome is
(A) Commonest cause of Budd Chiary syndrome is
(B) Hepatocellular carcinoma
(C) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
(D) Renal cell carcinoma
112. Adult polycystic kidney is inherited as :
(A) Autosomal-co-dominant
(B) Autosomal dominant
(C) Autosomal recessive
(D) X-linked dominant
113. Most common cause of amoebic lung abscess is
(A) Aspiration
(B) Direct spread from liver
(C) Hematogenous spread from liver
(D) Hematogenous spread from gut
114. All of the following may be associated with thymoma except :
(A) Myasthenia-gravis
(B) Pure red cell aplasia
(C) Superior mediastinal compression syndrome
(D) Hypergammaglobulinemia
115. Indication of systemic steroid in rheumatoid arthritis is :
(A) Mononeuritis multiplex
(B) Carpul tunnel syndrome
(C) Presence of deformities
(D) Articular cartilage involvement
116. Least common site to be involved in osteoarthritis amongst the following is :
(A) Hip joint
(B) Knee joint
(C) Carpometacarpal joint of thumb
(D) Metacarpophalangeal joint
117. Low does of aspirin therapy is essentially advised for all of the following conditions except :
(A) SLE
(B) Post myocardinal infarction
(C) Pre ecclampsia
(D) None
118. B/L hilar lymphadenopathy, along with non caseating granulomas is a characteristic features of :
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Scleroderma
(C) SLE
(D) Stein-leventhal syndrome
119. Increased amylase may be seen in all of the following except :
(A) Pancreatic pseudocyst
(B) Appendicitis
(C) Perforated peptic ulcer
(D) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
120. Most common cause of mediastinitis is :
(A) Tracheal rupture
(B) Esophageal rupture
(C) Drugs
(D) Idiopathic
121. Features not seen in Cushing’s Syndrome is
(A) Hypoglycemia
(B) Hypertension
(C) Frank psychosis
(D) Hypokalemia
122. Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is
(A) Solitary adenoma
(B) Chief cell hyperplasia
(C) Multiple adenoma
(D) Werner’s syndrome
123. Hypercalcemia is not a feature of one of the following conditions :
(A) Primary hyperparathyroidism
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Tumourlysis syndrome
(D) Sarcoidosis
124. All of the following are known to cause hyperprolactenemia except :
(A) Methyldopa
(B) Phenothiazines
(C) Bromocriptine
(D) Metoclopramide
125. Hyponatremia may be seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Mucoviscidosis
(B) SIADH
(C) Diabetes insipidus
(D) Adrenal hyperplasia
126. Parkinsonism is characterized by all of the following characteristic features except :
(A) Rigidity
(B) Akinesia
(C) Tremors at rest
(D) Past pointing
127. Clinical features of normal pressure hydrocephalus include all of the following except :
(A) Dementia
(B) Aphasia
(C) Gait disturbance
(D) Urinary incontinence
128. All of the following tumors are malignant except :
(A) Glioma
(B) Astrocytoma
(C) Hemangioblastoma
(D) Ependymoma
129. Spinal segment in knee jerk include all of the following except
(A) L₁
(B) L₂
(C) L3
(D) L₄
130. Following hormonal levels are increased in small cell carcinoma of lung except :
(A) ACTH
(B) Growth hormone
(C) ANF
(D) AVP
131. Best test for Small intestine malabsorption of carbohydrates is :
(A) Lund meal test
(B) Shilling test
(C) D-Xylose test
(D) Follacin test
132. Obesity is associated with all of the following except :
(A) Osteoarthritis
(B) Hypertensions
(C) Gall stones
(D) Pancreatitis
133. An X-linked recessive disease is characterized by the following inheritance :
(A) Vertical transmission
(B) 50% female carriers if male is affected and female is normal
(C) 50% male affected if female is carrier and male is normal
(D) 50% male carriers if female is affected and male is normal
134. Tuberculous pleural effusion is characterized by all of the following features except effusion :
(A) Harmorrhagic effusion
(B) Pleural fluid LDH more than 60% that of serum LDH
(C) Protein in apirated fluid is increased
(D) ↑Mesothelial cells
135. Kala-azar is not responding to primary treatment. The treatment should now consist of :
(A) Double dose of antimony
(B) Amphotericin-B
(C) Ketoconazole
(D) Splenectomy
136. Maximum ESR is seen in :
(A) CHF
(B) Polycythemia vera
(C) Multiple meyloma
(D) Sickle cell anemia
137. Macrocytic anemia may be seen with all of the following conditions except :
(A) Liver disease
(B) Copper deficiency
(C) Thiamine deficiency
(D) Orotic aciduria
138. Features of hereditary spherocytosis include all of the following except :
(A) ↑ Osmotic fragility
(B) ↑ MCHC
(C) ↑ MCV
(D) Decrease surface area per unit volume
139. Primaquine may cause hemolysis in :
(A) G-6-PD deficiency
(B) NADP-deficiency
(C) Methemoglobin reductase deficiency
(D) Crabb’s disease
140. Splenectomy is most useful in :
(A) Thrombocytopenia
(B) Hereditary spherocytosis
(C) H.S. purpura
(D) Sickle cell anemia
141. While handling a febrile neutropenic patient all are essential except :
(A) Repeated hand washing of hospital person
(B) White cell infusion
(C) Prophylactic antibiotic
(D) Colony stimulating factor for macrophages
142. Severity of mitral stenosis is assessed by :
(A) Loud opening snap
(B) Length of murmur
(C) Loud S₁
(D) Splitting S₂
143. Drug of choice in PSVT is :
(A) Amaidarone
(B) Lingnocaine
(C) Quinidine
(D) Adenosine
144. Nosocomial pneumonia is most commonly caused by:
(A) Gram –ve bacilli
(B) Gram +ve bacilli
(C) Gram –ve cocci
(D) Mycoplasma
145. Complications of bronchiectasis include all except :
(A) Amyloidosis
(B) Lung abscess
(C) Cerebral abscess
(D) Bronchiogenic carcinoma
146. Bronchial adenoma commonly present as :
(A) Recurrent hemoptysis
(B) Cough
(C) Dysponea
(D) Chest pain
147. Bronchial hyperplasia may be caused by all except :
(A) Smoking
(B) Theophylline
(C) Prematurity
(D) Allergy
148. Weight loss may be seen in all of the following except :
(A) Uremia
(B) Pheochromacytoma
(C) Adrenal insufficiency
(D) Insulinoma
149. Osteoporosis may be seen in all except :
(A) Hyperparathridism
(B) Hypoparathyridism
(C) Thyrotoxicosis
(D) Heparin administration
150. Osteoporosis may be seen in all except :
(A) Hypoparathyroidism
(B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(C) Hypogonadism
(D) Hypophophatasia
151. All of the following are features of primary hyperaldosteronism except :
(A) Pedal oedema
(B) Polyurea
(C) Hypokalemia
(D) Hypertension
152. Commonest cause of cerebrovascular accident is :
(A) Arterial thrombosis
(B) Venous thrombosis
(C) Embolism
(D) Tumour
153. Commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is :
(A) Rupture of circle of wills aneurysm
(B) Rupture or vertebral artery aneurysm
(C) Rupture of venecomitants of corpus striatum
(D) Rupture of dural sinusis
154. Most common nerve involved in intracranial aneurysm is :
(A) Trochlear
(B) VII
(C) VIII
(D) Occulomotor
155. True about C.S.F. finding in pyogenic meningitis is :
(A) Protein ↑, sugar ↓
(B) Protein ↓, sugar ↑
(C) Chloride↑, protein
(D) ↓Protein, ↓sugar
156. All of the following may cause metaststic tumour causing spinal cord compressions except :
(A) Lung carcinoma
(B) Breast carcinoma
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Meningioma
157. Features of SLE include all of the following except :
(A) Recurrent abortion
(B) Sterility
(C) Coomb’s positive hemolytic anemia
(D) Psychosis
158. Lupus anticoagulants may cause all of the following except :
(A) Recurrent abortion
(B) False +ve VDRL results
(C) Increase prothrombin time
(D) Arterial thrombosis
159. Indications of steroids in SLE are all except :
(A) Myocarditis
(B) Endocarditis
(C) Thrombocytopenia
(D) Neuropsychiatric symptoms
160. Bilateral parotid gland enlargement is seen in all of the following except :
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) SLE
(C) Chronic pancreatitis
(D) Sjogern’s syndrome
161. All are seen in osteogenesis imperfect except :
(A) Posterior dislocation of hip
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Blue sclera
(D) Ligament laxity
162. Antibodies for the following conditions may be transmitted from mother to fetus except :
(A) Rh-incompatibility
(B) Isoimmune thrombocytopenia
(C) Toxic erythesma
(D) My-gravis
163. Ranson’s criteria for prognosis in acute pancreatitis include all except
(A) WBC > 16,000 cells/cumm
(B) Age over 55 years
(C) AST > 250 U/100 ml
(D) S.amylase > 350 I.U.
164. Most common trisomy among following is :
(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) 13
(D) 5
165. Commonest lesion in middle mediastinum is :
(A) Lipoma
(B) Aneurysm
(C) Congenital cyst
(D) Germ cell tumour
166. Metabolic complication in CRF include all of the following except :
(A) Hyperkalemia
(B) Hypophosphatemia
(C) Hypocalcemia
(D) Hypokalemia
167. Treatment of Neurocysticercosis includes all of the following except :
(A) Prazequentil
(B) Albendazole
(C) Niclosamide
(D) Flubendazole
168. All of the following statements stand true for telengiectasia of colon except :
(A) May be seen in person less than 40 years of age
(B) May be seen in person more than 60 years of age
(C) Common site is caecum
(D) 50% involve rectum
169. Shigella associated hemolytic uramic syndrome is associated with all of the following except :
(A) Hyperkalemia
(B) Thrombocytopenia
(C) Neurological symptom
(D) Renal microthrombi
170. LVH is commonly seen with :
(A) Pure mitral stenosis
(B) ASD with fossa-ovalis
(C) Aortic incompetance
(D) Carcinoid syndrome
171. True statement about cardiac myxoma is :
(A) Commonest sit is left atrium
(B) Rarely recurs after excision
(C) Distant metastasis are seen
(D) More common in females
172. In gram negative septicemia, early findings setting before shock of florid is :
(A) ↑Cardiac out put, ↑Total peripheral resistance
(B) ↑Cardiac out put, ↓ Total peripheral resistance
(C) ↓Cardiac out put, ↑ Total peripheral resistance
(D) ↓Cardiac out put, ↓ Total peripheral resistance
173. Hepatic-encephalopathy may be precipitated by all of the following except :
(A) Anemia
(B) Barbiturates
(C) Hyper kalemia
(D) Hypothyroidism
174. Budd-chiari syndrome is most commonly due to :
(A) Hepatic vein obstruction
(B) Acute portal hypertension
(C) Congential portal hypertension
(D) IVC-obstruction
175. Maximum increase in α-fetoprotein increased is seen with :
(A) Hepato-cellular-carcinoma
(B) Benign-mature teratoma
(C) Chorio-carcinoma
(D) Teratoma
176. Which of the following statements is not true regarding α-fetoprotein :
(A) High levels are seen in fibrolamellar hepatic carcinoma
(B) Pre-operative high level indicates worse prognosis
(C) High level are seen in stomach carcinoma
(D) Levels may be increased in Hepatitis
177. pylori is known to cause all of the following except :
(A) Gastric ulcer
(B) Duodenal ulcer
(C) Gastric lymphoma
(D) Fundal gastritis
178. Diagnostic tests for H. Pylori include all of the following except :
(A) Urea-breath test
(B) Rapid urease test
(C) Gastric biopsy & Warthin-starry stain
(D) SAFA test
179. Epidemiological studies of H. pylori are done by using :
(A) Urea-breath test
(B) Serological markers
(C) Culture
(D) Gastric-biopsy urease test
180. Acute infection with HBV is characterized by :
(A) HBs Ag
(B) Anti HBs Ag
(C) IgM anti HBc Ag and HBs Ag
(D) Anti HBc Ag
181. Most important investigation for diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison-syndrome is
(A) Ca⁺⁺ infusion test
(B) Secretin injection test
(C) ACTH stimulation test
(D) Steroid assay
182. Most common CNS manifestation of Whipple’s disease is :
(A) Cerebellar ataxia
(B) Supranuclear ophthalmoplegia
(C) Seizure
(D) Dementia
183. Megaloblastic anemia in blind loop syndrome is due to :
(A) Vitamin B₁₂ malabsorption
(B) Bacterial overgrowth
(C) Frequent diarrhoea
(D) Decrease iron intake
184. Ankylosing spondylitis in associated with :
(A) HLA-B27
(B) HLA-B-8
(C) HLA-DW4/DR4
(D) HLA-DR3
185. Increased alkaline phosphate in seen in :
(A) Multiple myeloma
(B) Primary hyperparathyroidism
(C) Chronic renal failure
(D) Osteoporosis
186. All of the following conditions are premalignant except
(A) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Crohn’s disease
(C) Brochiectasis
(D) Paget disease of bone
187. Most common tumor of the anterior mediastinum tumour is :
(A) Thymoma
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Neurogenic tumour
(D) Vascular cyst
188. RNA fragments are sequenced by :
(A) Eastern-blot
(B) Western blot
(C) Northern blot
(D) Southern-blot
189. Most common group of diseases following Mendelian inheritance are :
(A) Autosomal dominant
(B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked dominant
(D) X-linked recessive
190. Smoking predisposes to all of the following cancers except :
(A) Carcinoma larynx
(B) Carcinoma bladder
(C) Carcinoma stomach
(D) Lymphoma
191. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency is associated with :
(A) Centriaciner emphysema
(B) Panaciner-emphysema
(C) Irregular emphysema
(D) Paraseptal-emphysema
192. Most unlikely cause of acute tubular necrosis amongst the following is :
(A) Severe-bacterial-infection
(B) Massive burn
(C) Severe cursh injury in the foot
(D) Rupture of aortic aneurysm
193. Sweat chloride levels are increased in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Ectodermal dysplasia
(B) G-6PD-deficiency
(C) Heriditary nephrogenic-diabetes incipidus
(D) Obesity
194. UMN lesion is characterized by :
(A) Weakness & spasticity
(B) Fasciculations
(C) Rigidity
(D) Localized muscle atrophy
195. “Prosopagnosia” is characterized by :
(A) Inability to read
(B) Inability to identify faces
(C) Inability to write
(D) Inability to speak
196. Most common cause of sub arachroid haemorrhage is :
(A) Hypertension
(B) A.V. malformation
(C) Berry aneurysm
(D) Trauma
197. A nondiabetic, non hypertensive adult male develops sudden severe headache with altered sensorium, likely diagnosis is :
(A) Brain tumour
(B) Subarachnoid haemorrhage
(C) Encephalitis
(D) Meningitis
198. Painless burn in hand is a characteristic feature of :
(A) Syringomgelia
(B) Thalamic syndrome
(C) Cord compression
(D) Systemic-lupus-erthromatosis
199. Triad of normal-pressure hydrocephalus includes :
(A) Tremor, aphasia dementia
(B) Ataxia, aphasia, gait disorder
(C) Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, dementia
(D) Gait disorder, urinary inconitinence, lower cranial nerve palsy
200. All of the following are known predisposing factors for Alzheimer’s disease except :
(A) Down-syndrome
(B) Low education level
(C) Smoking
(D) Female sex
201. Alzheimer’s Disease is associated with :
(A) Delerium
(B) Delerium
(C) Dementia
(D) Depresssion
202. Gene for myotonic dystrophy is coded on chromosome number :
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 24
203. Fatal familial insomnia is associated with :
(A) Prion disease
(B) Degenerative disease
(C) Neoplastic disease
(D) Vascular disease
204. All are true about peripheral-neuropathy except :
(A) Glove and stocking anaesthesia
(B) Proximal muscle weakness
(C) Nerve-conduction deficit
(D) Decreased reflexes
205. All are true about subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord except :
(A) Due to deficiency of vitamin B12
(B) Posterior column involvement
(C) Corticospinal involvement
(D) Absent deep tendon reflexes
206. Oxygen content of the arterial blood is reduced in all except:
(A) Methemoglobinemia
(B) Fallot’s tetralogy
(C) Carbon monoxide poisoning
(D) Fibrosing alveolitis
207. Following are ECG features of hyperkalemia except:
(A) High T wave
(B) Depressed ST segment
(C) Prolonged PR interval
(D) Prolonged QT interval
208. Macroglossia is seen in following except:
(A) Amyloidosis
(B) Acromegaly
(C) Hyperthyroidism
(D) Down’s syndrome
209. In idiopathic polymyositis, following are seen except:
(A) Ocular muscles commonly involved
(B) Pharyngeal muscles involved
(C) Cutaneous manifestations
(D) Proximal limb muscles invariably involved
210. In chronic dialysis, most common CNS manifestation is:
(A) Sensory loss
(B) Paralysis
(C) Dementia
(D) Depression
211. PAN most commonly involves:
(A) Large vessels
(B) Medium and small sized vessels
(C) Arterioles
(D) Venules
212. In complication of falciparum malaria, which drug is not given
(A) Phenobarbitone
(B) Dexamethasone
(C) Quinine
(D) Blood transfusion
213. Right hemithorax with right side shift of mediastinum is due to:
(A) Collapse of lung
(B) Right side hemothorax
(C) Hydrothorax
(D) Bronchiectasis
214. Spontaneous hypoglycemia is caused by:
(A) Glucagonoma
(B) Chr. pancreatitis
(C) Cushing’s syndrome
(D) Hepatocellular carcinoma
215. Which does not cause malabsorption in India :
(A) Tropical sprue
(B) Amoebiasis
(C) Giardiasis
(D) Intestinal TB
216. Addison’s disease is characterized by following except:
(A) Hyperkalemia
(B) Hypotension
(C) Hyponatremia
(D) Hypocalcemia
217. Most common cause of LVH is:
(A) MS
(B) AR
(C) Hypertension
(D) Mitral valve prolapse
218. Hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is due to :
(A) Preformed antibodies
(B) Antigen antibody complex
(C) T-cell sensitization
(D) All of the above
219. In case of renal transplant, most common infection within one month is :
(A) Pneumococcus
(B) Gram-ve organism
(C) Pneumocystis carinii
(D) Cryptococcus
220. Muscular weakness due to deficiency of magnesium is enhanced by presence of:
(A) Hyperkalemia
(B) Metabolic alkalosis
(C) Metabolic acidosis
(D) Hypernatremia
221. In metabolic encephalopathy, feature is:
(A) Tonic clonic seizures
(B) Chorea
(C) Asterixis
(D) Paraplegia
222. Antibiotic associated diarrhea is most commonly caused by:
(A) E.coli
(B) Clostridium difficile
(C) Proteus
(D) Faecal streptococci
223. Metabolic alkalosis seen in following except:
(A) Methanol poisoning
(B) Cushing’s disease
(C) Vomiting
(D) Diuretic therapy
224. In hepatic cirrhosis, which of the following is increased:
(A) Alpha 1 globulin
(B) Alpha 2 globulin
(C) Gamma globulin
(D) All of the above
225. Following are features of acute GN except :
(A) Polyuria
(B) Haematuria
(C) Red cell cast
(D) Oliguia
226. Hypochromic microcytosis is seen in following except:
(A) Lead poisoning
(B) Sideroblastic anemia
(C) Iron deficiency anemia
(D) Aplastic anemia
227. Intake of exogenous steroid causes
(A) Addison’s disease
(B) Cushing’s syndrome
(C) Pheochromocytoma
(D) Conn’s syndrome
228. The following are features of primary hyperaldosteronism except :
(A) Polyuria
(B) Hypertension
(C) Hypokalemia
(D) Hyperkalemia
229. Familial periodic paralysis is caused by:
(A) Hyponatremia
(B) Hypertension
(C) Hyperchloremia
(D) Hyperkalemia
230. Most common cause of LMN facial palsy is :
(A) Disseminated sclerosis
(B) Bell’s palsy
(C) DM
(D) Leprosy
231. Carey comb murmur is seen in:
(A) Severe mitral stenosis
(B) Acute rheumatic carditis
(C) Pure aortic regurgitation
(D) Severe pulmonary HT
232. Shrinking lung is seen in:
(A) Diffuse fibrosis
(B) Scleroderma
(C) SLE
(D) Rheumatoid arthritis
233. Pleural aspiration with raised LDH and amylase seen in:
(A) Pulm. infarction
(B) COPD
(C) Pulm. malignancy
(D) None
234. In MI following are used except :
(A) Fibrinolytics
(B) Plasminogen activator inhibitor
(C) Anti thrombin
(D) Platelet inhibitor
235. True about Polycythemia rubra vera is all except :
(A) Bleeding
(B) Thrombosis
(C) ↓ ed ESR
(D) Infection
236. Wilson disease all are true except :
(A) ↑ ceruloplasmin
(B) ↑ ceruloplasmin
(C) ↑ Cu in cornea
(D) Absence of sensory loss
237. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria is due to deficiency of:
(A) Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthetase
(B) ALA synthetase
(C) Ferrochelatase
(D) CP oxidase
238. In multiple myeloma following are seen except :
(A) Anion gap raised
(B) Lytic bone lesion
(C) Polyarticular pains
(D) M spike present with polyarticulopathy
239. True about criggler Najjar type II syndrome is:
(A) Diglucuronide deficiency
(B) Recessive trait
(C) Kernicterus is seen
(D) Phenobarb not useful
240. Tache noires is seen in:
(A) Emphysema
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Boutoneuse fever
(D) Bronchial asthma
241. Following are seen in mucopolysaccharidoses:
(A) Hair on-end appearance
(B) Beaked vertebrae
(C) Avascular necrosis of femoral head
(D) Osteosclerotic lesions
242. In mycoplasma pneumonia, following are seen except:
(A) Diffuse infiltration of lungs
(B) Cannot be cultured routinely
(C) Best treatment by cefotaxime
(D) Serology is useful in diagnosis
243. In addison’s disease, most diagnostic test is:
(A) Serum, N⁺, k⁺, renin
(B) S. Na⁺, K⁺, saline supression
(C) Serum creatinine urea ratio
(D) ACTH stimulation test
244. ↑ Ca+ 2 in Ca lung is seen in Ca:
(A) Adeno
(B) Squamous
(C) Squamous
(D) Large cell
245. Diarrhoea is seen in
(A) Insulinoma
(B) Glucagonoma
(C) Vipoma
(D) All
246. Adson’s test is positive in:
(A) Cervical rib
(B) Cervical fracture
(C) Cervical dislocation
(D) Cervical spondylosis
247. Serum creatinine kinase is elevated in A/E
(A) Becker’s myopathy
(B) Acute myoglobinic myopanthies
(C) Acute polymyositis
(D) Central core myopathy
248. In carcinoid syndrome, the part of heart mostly affected is
(A) Outflow tract of RV
(B) Inflow tract of RV
(C) Inflow tract of LV
(D) Outflow tract in LV
249. In steel Richardson syndrome following are seen except:
(A) Convulsions
(B) Ataxia
(C) Progressive supranuclear palsy
(D) Dementia
250. Site of lesion in endocarditis of RHD is
(A) Along the line of closure of valves
(B) Both sides of valves
(C) Valve cusps
(D) Free margin of valves
251. Free margin of valves
(A) Myeloma
(B) TB spine
(C) CRF
(D) Ankylosing spondylitis
252. Uveoparotitis is seen in :
(A) SLE
(B) Sjogren’s syndrome
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis
(D) Sarcoidosis
253. Most useful investigation in diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis :
(A) Ketonemia
(B) pH of blood
(C) Urinary sugar
(D) Urine ketone
254. Absent ankle jerk and extensor plantar response is found in :
(A) Friedreich’s ataxia
(B) Tabes dorsalis
(C) SACD
(D) Vit B deficiency
255. Pt. with DM. Hypertension, having CHF, the most appropriate drug is :
(A) ACE inhibitors
(B) Digitalis
(C) β blockers
(D) Diuretics
256. Pulsus alternans occurs in :
(A) Constrictive pericarditis
(B) Viral mycarditis
(C) Hypokalemia
(D) MI
257. Causative agent of infectious Mononucleosis :
(A) EB virus
(B) Rubella virus
(C) Adenovirus
(D) Herpes virus
258. pH is 7.2; PCO2 12; PO2 55 most likely cause is:
(A) Metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis
(B) Metabolic alkalosis
(C) Respiratory acidosis
(D) Respiratory alkalosis
259. Not seen in pre capillary pulm. hypertension :
(A) ↑ pressure in pulm circulation
(B) ↑ capillary pressure
(C) Rt-vent. hypertrophy
(D) ↑Pulm. wedge pressure
260. ECG in young healthy person with 80 beats/min will not show:
(A) RP interval between 120 – 200 msec
(B) QRS interval less than 100 msec
(C) Interval between 2 QRS is 750 msec
(D) T. wave represents repolarization
261. Poor prognostic factor in Acute Myocardial infarction :
(A) VPC’s in first 24 hours
(B) Hypotension at diagnosis
(C) Chest pain
(D) Hypertension
262. Stimulation of proximal cut end of vagus causes:
(A) Apnea
(B) ↓ HR
(C) ± BP
(D) ↓ BP
263. Serum amylase level is raised in A/E:
(A) Blocked salivary duct
(B) Ruptured ectopic
(C) Appendicitis
(D) Pancreatitis
264. Osmotic fragility is seen in :
(A) Sickle cell anemia
(B) B Thalassemia
(C) Hereditary spherocytosis
(D) Iron deficiency anemia
265. First line of treatment in severe ascites :
(A) Bed rest and slat restriction
(B) Heavy peracentesis
(C) Shunt
(D) Large dose of diuretics
266. True about pulsus paradoxus is :
(A) Arm – tongue circulation time is increased
(B) ↑Stroke volume
(C) Seen in constrictive pericarditis
(D) ↑ HR
267. Muscle biopsy in PAN shows:
(A) Necrotising arteritis
(B) Atrophy
(C) Granulomatous lesions
(D) Ring lesions
268. During valsalva maneuver, impaired heart rate changes seen in:
(A) Horner’s syndrome
(B) Autonomic insufficiency
(C) Vestibular dysfunction
(D) Cephalic ischemia
269. Alpha chain disease is detected by:
(A) M component in serum
(B) Jejunal biopsy
(C) Light chain in lumen if jejunum
(D) All of the above
270. Cancer caused by chronic parasitic infection :
(A) Cholangiocarcinoma
(B) Hepatic cell Ca
(C) Ca GB
(D) Ca pancreas
272. Thickening of pulmonary memb. is seen in :
(A) Asthma
(B) Emphysema
(C) Bronchitis
(D) Skeletal defect
272. Dilutional hyponatremia is seen in :
(A) Addison’s disease
(B) DI
(C) Diuretic therapy
(D) None
273. At the end of ventricular diastole:
(A) Atrial volume is more
(B) Coronary flow is maximum
(C) Flow in aorta drops
(D) All of the above
274. Most dangerous dehydration is :
(A) Hyponatremic
(B) Hypernatremic
(C) Isonatremic
(D) Non-diarrhoeal cause
275. Traid of normal pressure hydocephalus is :
(A) Ataxia, dementia, urinary incontinence
(B) Ataxia, aphasia, Ur. Incontinence
(C) Ataxia, Dementia, Asphasia
(D) Ataxia, alexia, Aphasia
276. Myoclonic seizure typically seen in:
(A) SSPE
(B) Cereberllar lesion
(C) Pontine lesion
(D) Thalamic lesion
277. Alzheimers disease, true is all except :
(A) Anterograde amnesia
(B) Dysdiadochokinesia
(C) Receptive aphasia
(D) Recogniation of familiar faces is absent
278. The characteristic and common presentation of diabetic neuropathy is :
(A) Amyotrophy
(B) Mononeuropathy
(C) Symmetrical sensory neuropathy
(D) Autonomic neuropathy
279. Diabetes control is best monitored by :
(A) Serum glucose
(B) Post prandial blood glucose
(C) HbA1AC
(D) HbA2AC
280. Double apical impulse is seen in :
(A) MR
(B) AR
(C) AS
(D) MS
281. Hand foot syndrome is due to:
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Haemochromatosis
(D) Acromegaly
282. Most common cause of stroke in young women in India among OCP users :
(A) Cortical vein thrombosis
(B) Moyamoya disease
(C) Atherosclerosis
(D) HT
283. Spinomuscular atrophy is seen in lesion of :
(A) Ant, horn
(B) Peripheral nerve
(C) NMJ
(D) Any of the above
284. hemophilia with rheumatoid arthritis, analgesic of choice :
(A) Ibuprofen
(B) Aspirin
(C) Phenylbutazone
(D) None
285. In hyperparathyroidism all are seen except :
(A) Osteopetrosis
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Cysts
(D) Brown tumor
286. Cutaneous marker of HIV is :
(A) Seborrhoea
(B) Vesicular rash
(C) Oral candidiasis
(D) Photosensitivity
287. In SLE, characteristic kidney lesion is:
(A) Mesangial proliferation
(B) Tubular fibrin deposits
(C) Wire loops
(D) IgG deposits
288. Hypotonia, tremor and ataxia are seen in lesion of:
(A) Basal ganglia
(B) Medullary pyramid
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Pons
289. Botulinum toxin is used in:
(A) Focal dystonia
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Cerebellare ataxia
(D) Hypotonia
290. Opso myoclonus is seen in:
(A) Neuroblastoma
(B) Nephrobalstoma
(C) Retino blastoma
(D) Melanoma
291. Best Rx for CML is:
(A) Autologous BMT
(B) Allogenic BMT
(C) Alpha interferon
(D) Hydroxyurea
292. Lysis of cells cause A/E:
(A) Hyperuricemia
(B) Hypercalcemia
(C) Hyper phosphatemia
(D) Hyperkalemia
293. Giant cell (Hecht’s) pneumonia is due to:
(A) CMV
(B) Measles
(C) Malaria
(D) P. carinii
294. Pneumocystis carini pneumonia is diagnosed by:
(A) Interstitial penumonia
(B) Eosinophils in septa
(C) Alveolar type I cell damaged with eosinophils
(D) All of the above
295. Rheumatoid arthritis pericarditis is:
(A) Serous
(B) Fibrinous
(C) Serofibrinous
(D) Adhesive
296. During ventricular pressure pulses square root wave is seen in:
(A) ASD
(B) MVPS
(C) Dilated cardiomyopathy
(D) Constrictive pericarditis
297. Characteristic feature of koraskoff psychosis is:
(A) Disorientation
(B) Delirium
(C) Coarse tremor
(D) Amnesia
298. Sub cortical dementia true is:
(A) Loss of tactile localization
(B) Loss of memory
(C) Total paralysis
(D) Gait distrubances
299. Treatable cause of MR is :
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Mucopolysaccharidosis
(C) Turner’s syndrome
(D) Down’s syndrome
300. In CCF there is:
(A) Oliguria
(B) Polyuria
(C) Olijuria during day and polyuria during night
(D) Anuria
301. A lesion in the paracentral lobule causes :
(A) Contralateral foot weakness
(B) Seizures only
(C) Migraine
(D) Cognitive loss
302. AV fistula true is except :
(A) Tachycardia
(B) High stroke volume
(C) Increased CO
(D) None
303. Bad prognosis in multiple myeloma is indicated by :
(A) WBC > 20000
(B) Azotemia
(C) Hypocalcemia
(D) Low or normal M component production
304. Not seen in constrictive pericarditis is :
(A) Acute pulmonary edema
(B) Ascites
(C) Tapping apex
(D) Pericardial knock
305. Treatment of choice for intracranial ALL is :
(A) Intrathecal methotrexate
(B) Vincristine and prednisolone
(C) Intrathecal vincristine
(D) Prednisolone
306. Which is not a feature of cerebral malaria :
(A) Perivascular demyelination
(B) Durck granuloma
(C) Prolifereated glial cells arranged radially
(D) Lesion is not related to parasite
307. A person who has drunk the anti –freeze of his car is likely to have :
(A) Metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap
(B) Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
(C) Metabolic alkalosis
(D) Respiratory alkalosis
308. Wallenberg’s syndrome does not involve :
(A) IX
(B) X
(C) XI
(D) XII
309. True about interstitial fibrosis :
(A) FVC ↓
(B) FEV1/FVC normal or ↑
(C) FRC normal
(D) FEV1/FVC ↓
310. Which among the following does not cause exaggerated jaw jerk :
(A) Multiple sclerosis
(B) Motor neurone disease
(C) Pseudobulbar palsy
(D) Syringomyelia
311. A medial temporal lesion produces :
(A) Visual amnesia only
(B) Auditory amnesia
(C) Apraxia
(D) Anterograde learning problems
312. The characteristic finding in diabetic nephropathy is :
(A) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
(B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis
(C) Armani-Ebstein reaction
(D) Fibrin caps
313. Converging point of both pathways in coagulation is at:
(A) Factor VIII
(B) Stuart factor X
(C) Factor IX
(D) Factor VII
314. Athletic syndrome is characterized by :
(A) Increased amplitude of QRS
(B) Tachycardia
(C) Decreased QT interval
(D) U-waves
315. Opsoclonus is :
(A) Arrythmic conjugate eye movements
(B) Conjugate chaotic movements
(C) Conjugate, chaotic, continuous movements
(D) Chaotic, disconjugate movements
316. Digoxin toxicity is precipitated by :
(A) Atenolol
(B) Quinidine
(C) Pulsus paradoxus
(D) Cyanosis
317. A patient has hyperphosphatemia with short metacarpals and associated cataract. The diagnosis is :
(A) Pseudohypoparathyroidism
(B) Hypophosphatasia
(C) Hyperparathyroidism
(D) Osteomalacia
318. The chance that a health worker gets HIV from an accidental needle prick is :
(A) 1%
(B) 10%
(C) 95%
(D) 100%
319. A common finding in osteomalacia is
(A) Low serum phosphate
(B) Normal level of 1.25 di-hydroxy vit D3
(C) Low serum calcium
(D) Increased hydroxyl proline in urine
320. Decreased glucose level in pleural effusion is found in
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) SLE
(C) Pneumococcal infection
(D) P. carinii infection
321. Pressure difference of 5 mm Hg between the two upper limbs occurs in which congenital heart disease :
(A) TOF
(B) TGA
(C) HOCM
(D) Supra-valvular aortic stenosis
322. Shrinking lung is a feature of :
(A) SLE
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Scleroderma
(D) Sarcoidosis
323. A patient had the following blood biochemical values. Calcium 6; uric acid 13; phosphorus 12; creatinin 6. Which could be the possible diagnosis :
(A) Krait bite
(B) Uric acid nephropathy
(C) Hypercalcemic nephropathy
(D) Rickets
324. Torsade de points is cause by :
(A) Hypermagnesemia
(B) Metabolic acidosis
(C) Hypomagnesemia
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
325. Which is seen in nephritic syndrome
(A) Low serum calcium
(B) Raised AT-III
(C) Low lipid
(D) Platelet activation
327. Loud S1 in mitral stenosis is seen in
(A) Prolonged flow through mitral valve
(B) 1st degree heart block
(C) Calcification of the valve
(D) Immobilization of the valve
328. Not seen to tumor-lysis syndrome is :
(A) Hyperkalemia
(B) Hypercalcemia
(C) Hyponatremia
(D) Hypocalcemia
328. Which is seen in opioid poisoning :
(A) Hyperventilation
(B) Raised BP
(C) Slow shallow respiration
(D) Dyspnea
329. Drug of choice for myasthenia gravis :
(A) Gallamine
(B) Succinylocholine
(C) D tubocurare
(D) Pyridostigmine
330. Primary increase in CO2 in body is seen in:
(A) Respiratory acidosis
(B) Respiratory alkalosis
(C) Metabolic acidosis
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
331. All are true about aspirin poisoning except :
(A) Acidosis
(B) Hypothermia
(C) Dehydration
(D) Oliguria
332. Seen in Behcet’s syndrome is :
(A) Pyoderma gangrenosum
(B) Thrombophlebitis
(C) Renal manifestations
(D) Painless ulcers
333. Characteristic feature of SLE is :
(A) Uveitis
(B) Joint deformity
(C) Polyserositis
(D) Cavitating lesion in lung
334. All are complications of tubercular meningitis except :
(A) Hydrocephalus
(B) Infarction
(C) Obliterative endarteritis
(D) Sinovenous thrombosis
335. True about lyme disease is :
(A) Arthritis is an early manifestation
(B) Conduction block is not seen
(C) Mood disorder is chronic neurological manifestation
(D) Causative organism is Borrelia reccurentis
336. All are true for transplanted kidney except :
(A) Humoral antibody responsible for rejection
(B) CMI, responsible for rejection
(C) Donor’s antibody on transfusion can causes rejection
(D) HLA identity similarity is seen in 1: 100 people
337. Hypercalcemia in ECG is diagnosed by :
(A) Increased QT interval
(B) Decreased QT interval
(C) Increased PR interval
(D) Tall T waves
338. Which doesn’t cause hemolysis in G 6 PD deficiency :
(A) Oestrogen
(B) Salicylates
(C) Primaquine
(D) Nitrofurantoin
339. In Botulinism all are seen except :
(A) Diplopia
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Dysphagia
(D) Abd. pain
340. Punch drunk state is associated with:
(A) Alcoholism
(B) Chorea
(C) Parkinsonism
(D) All
341. Earliest manifestation of hepatitis B is:
(A) HBe Ag
(B) HBs Ab IgM
(C) HBc IgM
(D) HBe AbIgM
342. Urinary 3 hydroxy 4 methyl VMA is seen with:
(A) Neuroblastoma
(B) Pheochromocytoma
(C) Ganglioneuroma
(D) Carcinoid
343. KF ring deposition is seen in:
(A) Conjunctiva
(B) Corneal epithelium
(C) Descement membrane
(D) Iris
344. Single gene autosomal recessive disease is :
(A) Wilson’s ds
(B) Tuberous sclerosis
(C) Hutington’s ds
(D) Schizophrenia
345. Feature of microscopic polyangitis is :
(A) IgG deposits in kidney
(B) Bronchospasm
(C) Renal involvement in 90% cases
(D) All of the above
346. All are HIV associated malignancies except :
(A) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(B) Lung carcinoma
(C) NHLO
(D) Anogenital CA
347. All are true about pseudopancreatic cyst except :
(A) Not lined by epithelium
(B) Resolves spontaneously
(C) Raised amylase level not persistent
(D) CT and ultrasound helps in diagnosis
348. Worst prognostic indicator of acute pancreatitis is :
(A) Hypercalcemia
(B) Hypocalcemia
(C) Raised amylase level
(D) Glycosuria
349. Ca 125 is specific marker of :
(A) Choriocarcinoma
(B) Teratoma
(C) Epithelial cell carcinoma of ovary
(D) Seminoma
350. Brain tumour is associated with A/E :
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Von hippel indauds
(C) Neurofibromatosis
(D) Sturge weber syndrome
351. Eosinophiluria is seen in :
(A) Wegener’s granulomatosis
(B) Interstitial nephritis
(C) PAN
(D) HUS
352. In tubular necrosis, ratio of urine plasma creatinine is:
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 20-30
(D) 30-40
353. Prerenal and renal azotemia is differentiated on the basis of:
(A) Creatinine clearance
(B) Serum creatinine level
(C) Sodium fraction excretion
(D) Urine bicarbonate level
354. CNS tumor seen in vol hippel landau syndrome is:
(A) Meningioma
(B) Cerebellar hemangiblastoma
(C) CNS lymphoma
(D) Glioma
355. All are true in chronic constrictive pericarditis except :
(A) Kussamauls sign is present in all types
(B) Ascites is not in proportion to edema
(C) Commonest cause is idiopathic
(D) Right ventricular and diastolic pressure is raised
356. Rapid x descent in unlikely in:
(A) Constrictive pericarditis
(B) Cardiac temponade
(C) RV infarction
(D) Restrictive CMP
357. MC cause of death in adults with PDA is
(A) CCF
(B) Infective endocarditis
(C) Rupture
(D) Embolism
358. Most characteristic GN in HIV is:
(A) FSGN
(B) MPGN
(C) MCD
(D) RPGN
359. Cavitating lesion in lung is seen in:
(A) PAN
(B) SLE
(C) Wegeners granulomatosis
(D) Sjorgren’s syndrome
360. Primary extraglandular sjogren’s syndrome is seen in A/E:
(A) Rheumtoid Arthritis
(B) Raynaud’s Phenomena
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Splenomegally
361. All are seen in SIRS except :
(A) Leukopenia
(B) Hypoxia
(C) Hyperthermia
(D) Tachycardia
362. True about sarcoidosis is :
(A) Kveim tet is not helpful in diagnosis
(B) May be associated with positive RA factor
(C) Pleural effusion
(D) Common is 50 years male
363. Seen in chroni inflammatory anemia is
(A) Serum iron ↓ S. ferritin ↑ and transferrin ↓
(B) Serum iron ↓ S. ferritin ↑ and transferrin ↑
(C) Serum iron ↓ S. ferritin ↓ and transferrin ↑
(D) Serum iron ↑ S. ferritin ↓ and transferrin ↓
364. Hypocalcemic hyperphosphatemia is seen in A/E:
(A) Malabsorption
(B) Pseudohypoparathyroidism
(C) CRF
(D) Hypoparathyroidism
365. Nephrocalcinosis is a feature of A/E:
(A) Primary hyperparathyroidism
(B) Medullary sponge kidney
(C) Vitamin D intoxication
(D) Pseudo hypoparathyroidism
366. In Accelerated HTN what is metabolic defect :
(A) Normal non-ionic metabolic acidosis
(B) Ionic gap met acidosis
(C) Hypomagnesemia
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
367. Amylase increased in pleural fluid is seen in following except :
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) Esophageal perforation
(C) Malignancy
(D) Gall stone pancreatitis
368. Dengue hemorrhagic fever :
(A) Most common in previously affected patients
(B) DHF-2 most common cause
(C) Immunosuppresed
(D) Incubation period 7-14 days
369. Acanthosis nigricans is caused by which drug :
(A) Amphotericin – B
(B) Ketoconazole
(C) Nicotinic acid
(D) Nalidixil acid
370. DOC in esophageal candidiasis in HIV :
(A) Fluconazole
(B) Miconazole
(C) Amphotericin -B
(D) Grisefulvin
371. Gyanecomastia is seen in following except :
(A) Digitalis
(B) Seminoma
(C) Cryptorchidism
(D) Puberty
372. Incongential erythropoitic porphyria, enzyme-defect is :
(A) Uro synthase
(B) Ferro ketolase
(C) ALA synthetase
(D) PROTO oxidase
373. True about Gardner’s syndrome is except :
(A) CNS tumor
(B) Osteoma
(C) Dermoid tumour
(D) Colonic polyps
374. 100% recurrence of disease in Down’s syndrome :
(A) Translocation of 15 + 21 chromosome
(B) Mosaic pattern
(C) Trisomy –(21, 21 translocation)
(D) Non Dysjunction
375. All following secreted by Bronchogenic Ca except :
(A) Nor adrenaline
(B) PTH
(C) ACTH
(D) ADH
376. Typical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade :
(A) Absent ‘Y’ descent
(B) Prominent ‘a’ wave
(C) Absent ‘a’ wave
(D) Prominent ‘Y’ wave
377. About cushing syndrome, true is :
(A) Low dose dexamethasone suppress cortisone secretion
(B) CA of adrenal is more common than adenoma
(C) Pituitary adenoma size > 2 cm (usually)
(D) ↑ACTH secretion is the commonest cause
378. Photosensitivity is maximum in :
(A) Prophyria cutanea tarda
(B) Congenital Erythropoietic pupura
(C) Erythrogenic porphyria
(D) Hereditary coproporphyria
379. Enzyme defect in congenital erythropoietic porphyria :
(A) Uroporphyrinogen III synthetase
(B) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
(C) ALA synthetase
(D) Ferroketolase
380. All of the following causes of death is coarctation of aorta except :
(A) Infective endocarditis
(B) CCF
(C) Intracranial hemorrhage
(D) Anterior MI
381. Which is true about carotid stenosis
(A) Ipsilateral hemiplegia by embolism of MCA
(B) Bruit indicates severity of stenosis
(C) Common in ECA
(D) Aspirin reduces risk of TIA
382. Hypercalciuria is seen in :
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Vit D intoxication
(C) Sarcoidosis
(D) All
383. True about H. Pylori is all except :
(A) It splits urea & produces ammonia to survive
(B) Produces Gastric Ca
(C) Gram –ve curved rods
(D) Cag-A gene is not associated with risk – of duodenal ulcer
384. Penicillamine is commonly used in the management of following heavy metal poisoning except :
(A) Arsenic
(B) Copper
(C) Lead
(D) Mercury
385. Stress ulcers seen in burns are :
(A) Curling’s ulcer
(B) Cushing’s ulcer
(C) Meleney’s ulcer
(D) Rodent ulcer
386. Iso osmolar urine is seen in :
(A) ATN
(B) Severe dehydration
(C) Diabetes insipidus
(D) PCKD
387. ST depression & T wave inversion in V1 to V6 and aVL lead indicate :
(A) Anterolateral wall AMI
(B) Posterior wall AMI
(C) Inferior wall AMI
(D) Lateral AMI
388. Decreased osmotic fragility is seen in :
(A) Hereditary spherocytosis
(B) Sickle cells ds.
(C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
(D) Thalassemia
389. True about log does response curve of Vmax showing norepinephrine & propranolol is known that propranolol is a competitive antagonist of norepinephrine :
(A) Curve paralles to each others action
(B) Curve not parallel to each other
(C) Cure shifted to right
(D) Increased Vmax
390. Recurrent gross hematuria is seen in :
(A) Alport’s syndrome
(B) IgA nephropathy
(C) Focal seg. GN
(D) DM
391. Orthostatic proteinuria :
(A) Seen in recumbent position
(B) Is benign
(C) Future risk of nephritic synd.
(D) > 300 mg/day
392. Proved association of celiac sprue is with :
(A) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(B) Scleroderma
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Pemphigoid
393. True about complications of massive blood transfusion is/are a/e :
(A) Hyperkalemia
(B) Alkalosis
(C) Acidosis
(D) Hypercalcemia
394. Steps in meiosis about sister chromatid separation are :
(A) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase
(B) Prophase → Telophase → Anaphase → Metaphase
(C) Telephase → Anaphase → Prophase → Metaphase
(D) Anaphase → Prophase → Metaphase → Telophase
395. Causes of large kidney in CRF are a/e :
(A) DM
(B) Amyloidosis
(C) Benign nephrosclerosis
(D) Diffuse GN
396. Trophic ulcers are seen in a/e :
(A) Polio
(B) Syringomyelia
(C) Leprosy
(D) TB. Meningitis
397. Chromosomes involved in adult polycystic kidney disease (APKD) :
(A) 6 & 11
(B) 4 & 16
(C) 4 & 16
(D) 4 & 12
398. Clubbing is seen in :
(A) Suppurative pneumonia
(B) L – R shunt
(C) ABPA (Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis)
(D) Hepatorenal syndrome
399. Confirmatory investigation for acromegaly is :
(A) Insulin induced hypoglycemia test
(B) GH assay
(C) ACTH infusion test
(D) IGF levels
400. Mutation leading to sickle cell anemia :
(A) Crossover mutation
(B) Frameshift
(C) Deletion
(D) Point mutation
401. True about oxygen concentrators :
(A) Extraction of O₂ from water
(B) Requires electrical power
(C) O₂ from halolite
(D) Supplies 100 O₂
402. Extrahepatic manifestation of Hepatitis-B are :
(A) Aplastic anemia
(B) Cryoglobulinemia
(C) Peptic ulcer
(D) Gallstones
403. A patient in ICU has normal pulmonary pressure; low systemic peripheral resistance, low cardiac index; arterial Po2 = 93; diagnostic possibilities are :
(A) Cardiogenic shock
(B) Septic shock
(C) Hypovolemic shock
(D) Cardiac tamponade
404. True about HIV in pregnancy :
(A) Perinatal transmission common
(B) LSCS increases chances of transmission significantly
(C) Zidovudine does not decreased risk if given to baby born to HIV positive mother
(D) Less than 5% chance of transmission
405. ‘C’ wave in JVP corresponds to :
(A) Atrial systole
(B) Ventricular systole
(C) Atrial diastole
(D) Ventricular diastole
406. True of the following :
(A) Interstitial nephritis is associated with salt losing nephropathy
(B) Idiopathic hypercalciuria is most common cuase of hypercalcemia
(C) Vitamin-D resistant rickets is a X-linked recessive disease
(D) Calcitonin deficiency causes hyperphosphatemia
407. Which of the following HL is specific to rheumatoid arthritis :
(A) HLADR₁
(B) HLADR₂
(C) HLADR₃
(D) HLADR₄
408. True about hemoglobin degradation is/are:
(A) Heme degradation is followed by biliverdin formation
(B) Hemoglobin breaks into heme and protein
(C) Heme is broken down into iron & porphyrin
(D) Heme is broken into bilirubin directly
409. Blood for acid base gas (ABG) analysis in a bottle containing excess heparin can cause decreased value of :
(A) pCO₂
(B) HCO₂
(C) pH
(D) pO₂
410. Rheumatic heart disease can be diagnosed on the basis of :
(A) Aschoff bodies
(B) Vegetations along the lines of closure of valves
(C) Endocardial involvement only
(D) Follows skin and throat infection
411. Bronchial asthma can be diagnosed by :
(A) Wheeze
(B) Dyspnea
(C) Normal FEV₁
(D) Reversible obstruction
412. Difference between upper and lower limb blood pressures is usually :
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 30 mm
413. Metabolic alkalosis is associated with :
(A) Fanconi’s anemia
(B) Acetazolamide
(C) Spironoloactone
(D) Hypocalcemia
414. Bartter’s syndrome is associated with :
(A) Hyperkalemia
(B) Decreased rennin level in plasma
(C) Hypertension
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
415. Best assay for deficiency of von Willebrand factor is :
(A) Bleeding time
(B) APTT
(C) BT + APPTT
(D) BT + APTT + vWF-ristocetin factor assay
416. Increased serum calcium is seen in all except :
(A) Myxedema
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Sarcoidosis
(D) Primary hyperparathyroidism
417. Myasthenia gravis associated with :
(A) Decreased acetyl choline at nerve endings
(B) Decreased myosin
(C) Absent troponin C
(D) Decreased myoneural junction transmission
418. The amino acid associated with atherosclerosis is :
(A) Arginine
(B) Homocysteine
(C) Cysteine
(D) Tryptophan
419. In spectroscopy, nucleotides absorb at 260 nm. This absorbence is due to:
(A) Purines and pyrimidines
(B) Deoxribose
(C) Histone
(D) Phosphate
420. Purpuric rashes are seen :
(A) Dengue
(B) Borrelia
(C) Secondary syphilis
(D) Measles
421. Causes of sterile pyuria without UTI include :
(A) Cortical abscess
(B) Pyelonephritis
(C) Gonococcal infection
(D) Analgesic nephropathy
422. HbA2 increased in:
(A) Alfa-thalassemia
(B) Iron deficiency anemia
(C) Beta-thalassemia
(D) Sickle cell trait
423. Non-irritant gas producing systemic toxicity is:
(A) Ammonia
(B) Hydrogen chloride
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Chlorine
424. Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is:
(A) Candida
(B) Pneumocystis
(C) Aspergillus
(D) S. Aureus
425. Raised calcium and phosphorus are seen in :
(A) CRF
(B) Vitamin D intoxication
(C) Hyperparathyroidism
(D) Pseudohypoparathyroidism
426. Universal finding in asthma is :
(A) Hypoxia
(B) Hypercarbia
(C) Hypoxemia
(D) Respiratory acidosis
427. An obese NIDDM patient present with FBS=180 mg% and PP2BS=260 mg% Management include :
(A) Glibenclamide
(B) Diet therapy-exercise
(C) Diet therapy-exercise+metformin
(D) Insulin
428. Herpes simplex encephalitis diagnosed by :
(A) MRI
(B) Biopsy
(C) Corneal scrapping and culture
(D) CSF PCR of HSV DNA
429. Wide-split second heart sound :
(A) ASD
(B) LBBB
(C) PDA
(D) MR
430. A female taking alcohol is more prone to develop toxicity and cirrhosis compare with male when same amount of alcohol taken due to :
(A) ↓ed alcohol dehydrogenase in stomach
(B) ↑ed absorption
(C) Congenital
(D) Genetic factors
431. False positive ELISA for HIV :
(A) Multiple mycloma
(B) Lepromatous leprosy
(C) SLE
(D) None
432. Impaired oral GTT indicated by :
(A) Fasting plasma sugar ≥ 126 mg/dl
(B) Random blood sugar > 200 mg/dl
(C) Fasting blood sugar < 90 mg/dl
(D) 2 hrs. after glucose load 140-200 mg/dl and fasting blood sugar < 126 mg/dl
433. PO2 level is ↓ in :
(A) Anaemia
(B) Co poisoning
(C) Methaemoglobinemia
(D) Hypoventilation
434. Celiae sprue diagnosed by :
(A) Intestinal biopsy
(B) Unequivocal response to gluten restriction
(C) Finding or organism
(D) Improvement on dapsome treatment
435. In cardiae shock :
(A) SBP < 90 mm of Hg
(B) DBP < 80 mm of Hg
(C) Urine output < 20 ml/hr
(D) Cardiae index < 3.5
436. Localized regional cerebral atrophy is seen in :
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Frontotemporal dementia
(C) PML
(D) C.J. disease
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