Medical PG Microbiology

Medical PG Microbiology

1. All are Glycoproteins except

(A) Immunoglobulins

(B) Albumin

(C) hCG

(D) Complements

Answer: (B)

2. DNA is detected by

(A) Southern blot

(B) Northern blot

(C) Western blot

(D) Easter blot

Answer: (A)

3. In Respiratory and GIT infection, which is the most affected immunoglobulin

(A) IgA

(B) IgG

(C) IgM

(D) IgD

Answer: (A)

4. The commonest Primary immunodeficiency is

(A) Common variable immunodeficiency

(B) Isolated IgA immunodeficiency

(C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

(D) AIDS

Answer: (B)

5. The reactions between antibody and soluble antigen is demonstrated by

(A) Agglutination

(B) Precipitation

(C) Complement fixation test

(D) Hemagglutination test

Answer: (B)

6. C-reactive protein is

(A) An antibody produced as a result of pneumococcal infection

(B) Derived from pneumoconiosis

(C) Detected by precipitation reaction

(D) Increased in pneumococcal infection

Answer: (D)

7. Bacteria which does not  strictly follow Koch’s postulate is

(A) Mycobacteria tuberculosis

(B) Mycobacterium avium intercellulare

(C) Mycobacterium leprae

(D) Bacillus anthracis

Answer: (C)

8. All the following are true about Nosocomial infections except

(A) May manifest within 48 hours of admission

(B) May develop after discharge of patient from the hospital

(C) Denote a new condition which is unrelated to the patient’s primary conditions

(D) May already present at the time of admission

Answer: (D)

9. All the following are true of Tuberculosis except

(A) For sputum to be positive, bacilli should be > 10⁴/ml

(B) Niacin test differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovis

(C) Pathogenicity to rabbits differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovis

(D) Culture techniques have low sensitivity

Answer: (D)

10. All the following are true regarding Vibrio cholerae except

(A) Transported in acidic medium

(B) Gram-negative

(C) Aerobic organism

(D) Ferments glucose

Answer: (A)

11. All the following are true about Chlamydia except

(A) Gram-positive

(B) Causes trachoma

(C) Causative organism of psittacosis

(D) Are also called basophilic viruses

Answer: (A)

12. All the following are general properties of Viruses except

(A) May contain both DNA and RNA

(B) Form extracellular infectious particles

(C) Heat labile

(D) Not affected by antibiotics

Answer: (A)

13. Which of the following is true about Rotavirus

(A) Commonly affects children

(B) Double-stranded DNA

(C) Can be grown easily on cell culture

(D) Egg shell appearance under electron microscope

Answer: (A)

14. Most common agent responsible for Bronchiolitis is

(A) RSV

(B) Adenovirus

(C) Herpes virus

(D) Influenza virus

Answer: (A)

15. A Discharging sinus is seen in

(A) Sporotrichosis

(B) Cryptococcosis

(C) Histoplasmosis

(D) Mycetoma

Answer: (D)

16. Which of the following is nottrue of Actinomycosis

(A) Demonstration of filaments

(B) Caused by actinomyces israelii

(C) Organism cannot be cultured

(D) Sulphur granules in pus

Answer: (C)

17. All of the following disease may be acquired by ingestion except

(A) Teniasis

(B) Guinea worm

(C) Toxopolasmosis

(D) Leishmaniasis

Answer: (D)

18. Which of the following Parasites does not pass through the human lung

(A) Ancylostoma

(B) Ascaris lumbricoides

(C) Trichuris trichura

(D) Stronglyloides

Answer: (C)

19. All are inhabitants of Liver except

(A) F. hepatica

(B) F. buski

(C) Clonorchis sinensis

(D) Opisthorchis felincus

Answer: (B)

20. Dark ground microscopy is used to see

(A) Refractile organisms

(B) Flagella

(C) Capsule

(D) Fimbriae

Answer: (B)

21. A single immunoglobulin molecule contains

(A) 1 light chain, 1 heavy chain

(B) 2 heavy chains, 1 light

(C) 2 light chains, 2 heavy chains

(D) 2 light chains, 1 heavy chain

Answer: (C)

22. Which one of the following is False

(A) Theobald-Smith phenomenon is a type I hypersensitivity reaction

(B) Serum sickness is a type II hyper sensitivity reaction

(C) Allograft rejection is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

(D) Transfusion reaction is a type II hypersensitivity reaction

Answer: (B)

23. The best site to obtain a swab in asymptomatic gonorrhea is

(A) Endocervix

(B) Urethra

(C) Lateral vaginal wall

(D) Posterior fornix

Answer: (A)

24. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of which Gram-negative organism

(A) Clostridium welchi

(B) Clostridium tetani

(C) Bacillus cereus

(D) Proteus mirabilis

Answer: (D)

25. Gram-positive organism that produces swarming growth on culture medium is

(A) Proteus mirabilis

(B) Salmonella typhi

(C) Clostridium tetani

(D) Clostridium welchii

Answer: (C)

26. Which of the following produces enterotoxin

(A) Sh. dysenteriae

(B) Sh. sonnei

(C) Sh. flexneri

(D) Sh. boydi

Answer: (A)

27. Which antigen blocks the agglutination of salmonella by O antiserum

(A) H

(B) Fimbriae

(C) Vi

(D) O

Answer: (C)

28. One of the following infections is caused by anaerobic gram-positive cocci

(A) Puerperal infection

(B) Food poisoning

(C) Endocarditis

(D) Septicemia

Answer: (A)

29. Chlamydia causes all the following diseases except

(A) Non-gonococcal urethritis

(B) Pneumonia

(C) Trachoma

(D) Parotitis

Answer: (D)

30. All of the following viral genes associated with HIV infection code for structural proteins except

(A) gag gene

(B) env gene

(C) pol gene

(D) tat gene

Answer: (D)

31. Which of the following is a marker of HIV infection in blood

(A) DNA polymerase

(B) RNA polymerase

(C) Reverse transcriptase

(D) DNA isomers

Answer: (C)

32. All the following are true about HIV infection except

(A) Caused by an enveloped RNA virus

(B) Rate of killing is directly proportional to T₄ molecules on cell surface

(C) Increased release of acid labile interferon

(D) Decreased delayed hypersensitivity activity reaction

Answer: (C)

33. All the following viruses cause pneumonia except

(A) Cytomegalovirus

(B) Mumps

(C) Measles

(D) Retrovirus

Answer: (B)

34. EB virus belongs to which group

(A) Retrovirus

(B) Herpes virus

(C) RNA virus

(D) Pox virus

Answer: (B)

35. All of the following are true about the papovavirus except

(A) They are non-enveloped icosahedral viruses

(B) Produce papilloma and warts in humans

(C) RNA virus

(D) SV-40 is oncogenic

Answer: (C)

36. Which of the following is False about mycetoma

(A) Can affect lower and upper extremities

(B) Caused by actinomycetes and filamentous fungi

(C) Diagnosis is by examination of pus

(D) Uncommon in India

Answer: (D)

37. Which is False regarding Cryptococcus neoformans

(A) Grows at 5℃ and 37℃

(B) It has 4 serotypes

(C) Urease negative

(D) Causes superficial skin infection

Answer: (C)

38. Cryptococcus is least likely to cause infection of

(A) Skin

(B) Bone

(C)  Brain

(D) Kidney

Answer: (D)

39. Which one of the following is associated with infection of the CNS

(A) Toxoplasma

(B) Cryptococcus

(C) Treponema

(D) Treponema

Answer: (D)

40. Which if the following diseases is transmitted by egg ingestion

(A) Teniasis

(B) Trichinosis

(C) Hydatidosis

(D) Strongyloidosis

Answer: (C)

41. All the following are TRUE about Brugia malayi except

(A) The intermediate hosts in the India are Mansoni

(B) The tail tip is free from nuclei

(C) Nuclei are blurred, so counting is difficult

(D) Adult worm is found in the lymphatic system

Answer: (B)

42. Differentiation of N.gonorrhea and N. meningitides can be done by

(A) Glucose fermentation

(B) V . P. Reaction

(C) Maltose fermentation

(D) Indole test

Answer: (C)

43. The medium used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is

(A) Sabouraud’s medium

(B) L J medium

(C) Pick’s medium

(D) NIH medium

Answer: (B)

44. Rapid examination of Tubercle bacilli is possible with

(A) Ziel-Nelson stain

(B) Kin young stain

(C) Auramine-Rhodamine stain

(D) Giemsa stain

Answer: (C)

45. The commonest focus of Scrofuloderma is

(A) Lung

(B) Lymph node

(C) Larynx

(D) Skin

Answer: (B)

46. For experiment work, Lepra bacilli are best cultured in

(A) Armadillos

(B) Mouse foot pad

(C) Guinea pigs

(D) Rabbit testes

Answer: (B)

47. Which of the following is a true statement regarding Enterobacteriaceae

(A) Motility is by polar flagellum

(B) Glucose is fermented by all members of the family

(C) All members are oxidase positive

(D) Nitrate reduction negative

Answer: (B)

48. Which of the following is true about Enteropathogenic E coli

(A) Causes diarrhea in infants

(B) Acts by invasion of intestinal epithelial cells

(C) Adults are mostly affected

(D) Affects immunocompromised host

Answer: (A)

49. Which of the following is true regarding Salmonella infection

(A) Urine culture is +ve in 1st week

(B) Stool culture is +ve in 1st week

(C) Blood culture is +ve in 3-7 days

(D) Widal test is +ve in 1st week

Answer: (C)

50. Varicella are classified under

(A) Enterovirus

(B) Retrovirus

(C) Poxvirus

(D) Herpesvirus

Answer: (D)

51. Negri bodies are found in

(A) Hypothalamus

(B) Hippocampus

(C) Midbrain

(D) Medulla

Answer: (B)

52. When compared to the Western blot technique, ELISA test is

(A) More sensitive, less specific

(B) More sensitive, more specific

(C) Less sensitive, less specific

(D) Less sensitive, more specific

Answer: ()A

53. Which of the following is true about malaria

(A) Size of RBC is enlarged in Vivax infection

(B) Size of RBC is enlarged in Falciparum infection

(C) Schuffner’s dots are seen in Malariae infection

(D) Relapse is seen in Falciparum infection

Answer: (A)

54. Which of the following is true about P.falciparum

(A) James dots are seen

(B) Accole forms are seen

(C) Relapses are frequent

(D) Longest incubation period

Answer: (B)

55. Which of the following is true regarding the Trophozoite of E.histolytica

(A) Has eccentric karyosomes

(B) Presence of bacteria inside

(C) Has four nuclei

(D) Shows erythrophagocytosis

Answer: (D)

56. Which of the following is true about mature cysts of E. histolytica

(A) Endoplasm and ectoplasm are clearly defined

(B) Eight chromatid bodies

(C) Shows chromatid bodies and glycogen mass

(D) Nuclear structure retains characteristics of trophozoite

Answer: (D)

57. Which one of the following does not pass through the lungs

(A) Hookworm

(B) Ascaris

(C) Strongyloides

(D) Enterobius vermicularis

Answer: (D)

58. The causative organism in Madura Mycosis Mycetoma is

(A) Nocardia

(B) Dimorphic fungus

(C) Aspergillus

(D) Dermatophytes

Answer: (A)

59. Helper cells belong to

(A) T cells

(B) Macrophages

(C) B cells

(D) Monocytes

Answer: (A)

60. The type of receptors present on T cells are

(A) IgG

(B) IgD

(C) CD₄

(D) Prostaglandins

Answer: (C)

61. What enhances multiplication of T cells in culture

(A) Phytohemagglutinin

(B) Chemotactic factor

(C) Leukotrienes

(D) Prostaglandins

Answer: (A)

62. Which of the following is an example of type IV hypersensitivity

(A) Granulomatous reaction

(B) Schwartzman reaction

(C) Schwartzman reaction

(D) Serum sickness

Answer: (A)

63. Which precipitates at 50℃-60℃ but disappears on heating

(A) Heavy chain

(B) Light chain

(C) Both

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

64. Prozone phenomenon is due to

(A) Excess antigen

(B) Excess antibody

(C) Hyperimmune reaction

(D) Disproportionate antigen-antibody levels

Answer: (B)

65. A substance, when added to a culture causes inhibition of multiplication but on removal causes enhanced growth. This substance is called

(A) Bacteriostatic

(B) Bactericidal

(C) Sterilization

(D) Bacteriophage

Answer: (A)

66. Bence Jones proteins are best described as

(A) μ chains

(B) γ chains

(C) Kappa & Lambda chains

(D) Fibrin split products

Answer: (C)

67. Interleukin II is secreted by

(A) B lymphocytes

(B) T lymphocytes

(C) Neutrophils

(D) Macrophages

Answer: (B)

68. All of the following are glycoproteins except :

(A) Blood antigen

(B) Albumin

(C) Immunoglobin

(D) HCG

Answer: (B)

69. Which of the following statements concerning immunoglobulins is wrong :

(A) IgM does not cross placenta

(B) IgE is ↑ed in parasitic infection

(C) IgM increased in primary response

(D) Fetal infection is characterized by increase in IgG

Answer: (D)

70. Which of the following is an example of Type IV hypersensititvity :

(A) Arthrus reaction

(B) Serum sickness

(C) Schwartzmann reaction

(D) Granulomatous reaction

Answer: (D)

71. Diagnosis of ABO incompatability can b e made from all of the following except :

(A) Sweat

(B) Saliva

(C) Semen

(D) C.S.F

Answer: (D)

72. Out of the following the true statement regarding sterilization is :

(A) Dry heat is the best method of sterilization of liquid paraffin

(B) All glass syringes are best sterilized by boiling at 100℃

(C) Bacterial vaccines are best sterilized by ethylene oxide

(D) Pasteurization of milk of flash method is done by heating at 63℃ for 30 minutes

Answer: (A)

73. True statement about Antistreptolysin ‘O’ titre is :

(A) In normal people the titre is < 200

(B) In acute glomerulonephritis the titre is low

(C) ASO titre > 200 indicate rheumatic fever

(D) Streptozyme test is an active haemagglutination test

Answer: (B)

74. True statement regarding diptheria is

(A) It can be diagnosed by demonstration of antibodies by ELISA

(B) Immunization prevents carriers state

(C) Treatment of contacts is not indicated

(D) Iron has critical value in the production of toxin

Answer: (D)

75. All of the following statements about cholera are true except :

(A) O & H antigens measure carrier state

(B) Culture medium is TCBS Agar

(C) Produces indole and reduces nitrate

(D) Synthesize neuraminidase

Answer: (A)

76. All of the following statements are true for Eltor cholera except :

(A) Infection is mild and asymptomatic

(B) They are resistant to polymyxin-B unit disc

(C) Chronic carriers are common

(D) Secondary attacks rate is high in families

Answer: (D)

77. Shigella are be divided into sub group on the basis of ability to ferment :

(A) Lactose

(B) Maltose

(C) Fructose

(D) Mennitol

Answer: (D)

78. Which bacteria acts by inhibiting protein synthesis :

(A) Pseudomonas

(B) Staphylococus

(C) Steptococcus

(D) Klebscella

Answer: (A)

79. All of the following statements about Botulism are true except :

(A) Botulism is caused by endotoxin

(B) Honey ingestion causes infant botulism

(C) Constipation is seen

(D) Detection of antitoxin in the serum can aid in diagnosis

Answer: (A)

80. Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by

(A) Entrovirus 70

(B) Adenovirus

(C) Poliovirus

(D) Hepadina virus

Answer: (A)

81. True statement about rabies is :

(A) Rabies infection causes life long immunity

(B) Rabies vaccine is always live attenuated

(C) Rabies has various strains

(D) Rabies is best diagnosed by immuneflorescence study

Answer: (D)

82. Most common agent causing tuberculosis in AIDS patient in tropical countries is :

(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(B) Mycobacterium intracellulare

(C) Mycobacterium parvum

(D) Mycobacterium atypical

Answer: (A)

83. Epidemiological marker of Hepatitis B is

(A) HBs Ag

(B) HBe Ag

(C) Core antigen

(D) Core antibody

Answer: (D)

84. Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction can aid in diagnosis of all of the following viral infections except :

(A) Adenovirus

(B) Astrovirus

(C) Rotavirus

(D) Poliovirus

Answer: (A)

85. All of the following are dimorphic fungi except :

(A) Sporotricum

(B) Blastomycetes

(C) Histoplasma

(D) Cryptococcus

Answer: (D)

86. Most common presenting symptom of thread worm infection amongst the following is :

(A) Abdominal pain

(B) Rectal prolapse

(C) Urticaria

(D) vaginitis

Answer: (A)

87. All of the following statements about toxoplasmosis are true except :

(A) Oocyst in freshly passed cat’s faeces is not infective

(B) May spread by organ transplantation

(C) Maternal infection acquired after 6 months has high risk of transmission

(D) Arthalgia, sore throat and abdominal pain are the most common manifestations

Answer: (D)

88. Plasmodium falciparum infection of man is characterized by :

(A) The erythrocytes are increased insize

(B) All stages erythrocytic schizogony are seen in peripheral blood

(C) Multiple infection of erythrocytes are seen

(D) Each erythrocytic cycle lasts 72 hours

Answer: (B)

89. Haptane is :

(A) Same as epitope

(B) Small molecular weight protein

(C) Requires carrier for specific antibody production

(D) Simple haptens are precipitate

Answer: (C)

90. All of the following forces are involved in Antigen antibody reaction except :

(A) Vander Waal’s forces

(B) Electrostatic bond

(C) Hydrogen bond

(D) Covalent bond

Answer: (D)

91. Examples of type hypersensitivity is :

(A) Lepromin test

(B) Tuberculin

(C) Casoni’s test

(D) Arthrus reaction

Answer: (C)

92. Most common cause of chronic granulomatous disease in children is :

(A) Myeloperoxidase deficiency

(B) Defective phagocytosis

(C) Defective H₂O₂production

(D) Job’s disease

Answer: (C)

93. Most common agents responsible for human bite infections are :

(A) Gram-ve bacilli

(B) Gram +ve bacilli

(C) Spirochaete

(D) Anaerobic streptococci

Answer: (D)

94. True statements about Pneumococcus are all except :

(A) Pneumolysin a thiolactivated toxin, exerts a variety of effects on ciliary & PMN’s

(B) Autolysin may contribute to the pathogenesis of pneumococcal disease by lysing the bacteria

(C) Anticapsular antibodies are seotype specific

(D) The virulence of pneumococci is dependent only on the production of the capsular polysaccharide

Answer: (D)

95. True about corynebacterium diptheria are all except :

(A) Iron is required for toxin production

(B) Toxin production is responsible of local reaction

(C) Nonsporing, noncapsular & non motile

(D) Toxin production is by lysogenic conversion

Answer: (B)

96. All of the following are true about bacillus anthrax except :

(A) Plasmid is responsible for toxin production

(B) Cutaneous anthrax generally resolve spontaneously

(C) Capsular polypeptide aids virulence by inhibiting phagocytosis

(D) Toxin is a complex of two fractions

Answer: (D)

97. Bacterial genome has been completely recognized for which one of the following agents

(A) H. pylori

(B) Yersenia enterocolitis

(C) Campylobacter jejuni

(D) Streptococcus pnumonae

Answer: (A)

98. All of the following are true about helicobacter pylori except :

(A) About 50% of world population affected

(B) 85% of population is affected in some developing countries

(C) All children’s in developing countries have immunity by five years of age

(D) Infection is common in low socioeconomic status

Answer: (C)

99. True about helicobacter pylori is :

(A) Culture and gram staining of biopsy is the gold standard investigation

(B) Controlled urea breath is negative with massive infection

(C) Anti urease antibody are produce only by invasive strains

(D) Urease activity provides protective environment to the bacilli

Answer: (D)

100. True about helicobacter pyelori are all except :

(A) Urea breath test is diagnostic

(B) Gram negative, flagellate bacilli

(C) Risk factor for development of denocarcinoma of stomach

(D) It provides life long immunity

Answer: (D)

101. Which of the following is an obligate parasite :

(A) Mycoplasma

(B) Chlamydia trachomatis

(C) Gram-Ve bacilli

(D) Gram+ve cocci

Answer: (B)

102. Plaque formation in virus is done for :

(A) Isolation and typing of viruses

(B) Cloning separation of specific viruses

(C) Determining infectivity of virus

(D) Accessing multiplication of virus

Answer: (C)

103. All of the following are true about Herpes group virus except :

(A) Ether sensitive

(B) May cause malignancy

(C) HSV II involves below diaphragm

(D) Burkitt’s lymphoma-involves-Tcells

Answer: (D)

104. Which virus become reactivate and involves the eye :

(A) Herpes-zoster

(B) CMV

(C) E.B. virus

(D) Entero-70

Answer: (A)

105. Viral enterotoxin is detected as a possible mechanism of pathogenesis in :

(A) Adeno virus

(B) Rota virus

(C) Calcivirus

(D) Astrovirus

Answer: (A)

106. Best vaccine for rota virus infection is :

(A) Asymptomatic neonatal vaccine

(B) DNA vaccine

(C) Genetic reassortment

(D) Capsular component vaccine

Answer: (C)

107. AIDS involves :

(A) T-helper cells

(B) T-suppressor cells

(C) T-cytotoxic

(D) B. cells

Answer: (A)

108. Sputum examination is not useful in diagnosis of :

(A) Trichuriasis trichura

(B) Ank. duodenale

(C) Paragomniasis

(D) Strongyloids

Answer: (A)

109. TRUE about Cryptococcus neoformis is all except :

(A) Anticapsular antigen is detected in C.S.F

(B) Common in immunocompromised patient

(C) Anticapsular antibody prevents recurrence

(D) Strongly positive mucicarmine stain of the organism in tissue is diagnostic

Answer: (C)

110. Prokaryotes are characterized by :

(A) Absence of nuclear membrane

(B) Presence of microvilli on its surface

(C) Presence of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

111. Which of the following immunoglobulins can croses placenta :

(A) IgA

(B) IgM

(C) IgG

(D) IgD

Answer: (C)

112. Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation :

(A) Allograft

(B) Autograft

(C) Xenograft

(D) Isograft

Answer: (D)

113. True statement regarding non-coagulase staphylococci is :

(A) They are non-pathogenic

(B) They commonly infect indwelling prosthesis

(C) They may cause scarlet fever

(D) They are separated by gram staining

Answer: (B)

114. True statement regarding Pneumococcus is :

(A) Virulence is due to polysaccharide capsule

(B) Capsule is protein in nature

(C) Antibodies against capsule are not protective

(D) Resistance to antibodies has not yet been reported

Answer: (A)

115. True statement about diptheria toxin in :

(A) Toxin is phage mediated

(B) Toxin is required for local infection

(C) Endotoxaemia causes systemic manifestation

(D) Toxin Acts by inhibiting synthesis of capsule

Answer: (A)

116. Most common organism responsible for gas gangrene is :

(A) Clostridium-perfringens

(B) Clostridium-difficile

(C) Clostridium tetani

(D) Clostridium speticum

Answer: (A)

117. Most common organism responsible for pseudo membranous colitis is :

(A) Clostridium difficile

(B) Clostridium botulism

(C) Clostridium bifermentans

(D) Clostridium histolyticum

Answer: (A)

118. Which of the following statement is true about vibriocholarae :

(A) There is no natural reservoir

(B) Transported in alkaline peptone water medium

(C) Halophilic

(D) Oxidase negative

Answer: (B)

119. True statement about Widal test in typhoid is :

(A) O-antigen titre remains positive for several months & reaction to it is rapid

(B) H-antigen titre remains positive for several months & reaction to it is rapid

(C) Both remain positive for several months & reaction to both is rapid

(D) None

Answer: (B)

120. True statement about widal test in typhoid is :

(A) Widal test is confirmative in endemic areas

(B) Antibiotic treatment doesnot alter widal test results

(C) Previous infection alters widal test

(D) Widal test does not alter with prior vaccination

Answer: (C)

121. Shigella can be differenciated from E.Coli by all of the following features except :

(A) Shigella does not produce gas from glucose

(B) Shigella does not ferment lactose

(C) Shigella does not ferment mannitol

(D) Shegella has no flagella non motile

Answer: (C)

122. Which of the following statement regarding shigella dysentriae type I is true :

(A) It can lead to haemolytic uramic syndrome

(B) It produces an invasive enterotoxin

(C) It is an facultative aerobes

(D) It is MR negative

Answer: (A)

123. All of the following bacteria test “Urease positive” except :

(A) E.Coli

(B) Proteus

(C) Kleibsella

(D) Staphylococcus

Answer: (A)

124. True statement about Influenza-A is :

(A) It has a double stranded segmented RNA

(B) Pandemic are caused by antigenic drift

(C) Nucleocapsid antibody is not specific

(D) Hemaglutinin and Neuraminidase is strain specific

Answer: (D)

125. Herpes-Zoster is caused by :

(A) Herpes-simplex type I

(B) Herpes-simplex type II

(C) Epstein-barr virus

(D) Varicella

Answer: (D)

126. Cryptococcus-neoformans is a :

(A) Protozoa

(B) Fungus

(C) Parasite

(D) Mycoplasma

Answer: (B)

127. Commonest parasite of CNS in India is :

(A) Schistomiasis

(B)  Cysticercosis

(C) Trichenella-spiralis

(D) Hydatid cyst

Answer: (B)

128. Commonest helmithic infection in AIDS is :

(A) Trichuris trichura

(B) Strongyloides stercoralis

(C) Enterobius vermicularis

(D) Nector-americana

Answer: (B)

129. The most common cause of mycetoma in India:

(A) Nocardia braziliensis

(B) Actinomadura madurae

(C) Piedra

(D) Tinea cruris

Answer: (B)

130. Negri bodies are characteristic of viral infection by:

(A) Rabies

(B) Toxoplasmosis

(C) Polio

(D) Herpes simplex infection

Answer: (A)

131. True about exotoxin is:

(A) Heat stable

(B) Produced both by Gram ‘+’ ve & Gram ‘-’ ve organism

(C) No enzymatic action

(D) Produced by Gram ‘+’ ve organism only

Answer: (B)

132. Cerebral malaria is caused by plasmodium:

(A) Falciparum

(B) Ovale

(C) Malaria

(D) Vivax

Answer: (A)

133. Tinea cruris is caused by:

(A) Epidermophyton

(B)  Trichophyton

(C) Microsporum

(D) Candida

Answer: (A)

134. Rheumatoid factor is used to:

(A) Screen Rh arthritis cases

(B) Assess severity of disease

(C) Monitor of therapy of RA

(D) Sort out the resistant cases

Answer: (B)

135. A patient of immunocompromised due to transplantation is suffering from pyrexia and neutropenia. Most likely cause is:

(A ) HSV

(B) CMV

(C) Gram ‘-’ ve organism

(D) Gram ‘+’ ve organism

Answer: (B)

136. Fungi without sexual cycle are classified as:

(A) Fungi imperfecti

(B) Phycomyces

(C) Ascomycetes

(D) Basidiomycetes

Answer: (A)

137. Segmented double stranded RNA virus is seen in:

(A) Reovirus

(B) Myxovirus

(C) Rabies

(D) Parvo virus

Answer: (A)

138. Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody?

(A) Polysaccharide

(B) Protein

(C) Antigens

(D) Repeated infections

Answer: (A)

139. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by:

(A) L-braziliensis

(B) L.tropica

(C) L-donovani

(D) L orientalis

Answer: (A)

140. Which toxin of streptococcus causes hemolysis?

(A) Streptolysin O

(B)  Streptolysin S

(C) Streptokinase

(D) Streptodornase

Answer: (B)

141. Amoebae not found in human intestine:

(A) E.histolytica

(B) E.coli

(C) E.nana

(D) E.gingivalis

Answer: (D)

142. Once a virus is present in a cell it does not allow other viral infection is known as:

(A) Viral interference

(B) Viral inhibition

(C) Haemadsorption

(D) Cytopathic effect

Answer: (A)

143. Recently infected hepatitis B is detected by:

(A) HBs Ag

(B) Anti HBs Ag

(C) Anti HBc Ag

(D) Anti Hbe Ag

Answer: (C)

144. IgG is normal or slightly reduced in A/E

(A) Wiskott aldrich syndrome

(B) Selective IgA deficiency

(C) Di George syndrome

(D) Common variable deficiency

Answer: (D)

145. Tachy-zoites are seen in:

(A) Toxoplasma

(B) Toxocara

(C) Pulm eosinophilia

(D) Ascaris

Answer: (A)

146.In plasmodium falciparum following are seen in blood except:

(A) Schizonts

(B) Mature trophozoite

(C) Mature gametocytes

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

147. About interferon true is :

(A) It is a synthetic antiviral agent

(B) Inhibits viral replication in cells

(C) Is specific for a particular virus

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

148. Dark ground microscopy is used for:

(A) TPI

(B) FTA – ABS

(C) Kahn’s test

(D) VDRL

Answer: (A)

149. Electron microscopy is used for following except :

(A) To differentiate T and blymphocytes

(B) IgG deposits in kidne

(C) TPI

(D) Flagella

Answer: (C)

150. Following is true of T. pallidum, except :

(A) Can be maintained in rabbit testis

(B) Motile by peritrichate flagella

(C) To visualize, dark ground microscopy is used

(D) TPI test is very useful

Answer: (B)

151. HBV all true, except:

(A) It is a DNA virus

(B) Spreads by blood transfusions

(C) HBs Ag marker of infection

(D) Least chance of chronicity

Answer: (D)

152. CSF in meningococcal meningitis shows:

(A) Gm ‘+’ Diplococci, in pus cells

(B) Gm ‘-’ Diplococci in pus cells

(C) Gm ‘-’’ bacilli

(D) Gram ‘+’ bacilli

Answer: (B)

153. Corynebacterium diphtheria can be grown within 6-8 hours on:

(A) Potassium tellurite media with iron

(B) MaConkey’s agar

(C) Dorset egg medium

(D)  Loeffler’s serum slope

Answer: (D)

154. Pathogenicity of staphylococci is because of :

(A) Lecithinase

(B) M-protein

(C) Coagulase

(D) Hyaluronidase

Answer: (C)

155. True about tuberculin test are all except:

(A) Recent conversion in adult is an indication for ATT

(B) INH prophylazis is started if the test is positive

(C) No risk in negative

(D) May be false negative in immunocompromised patients

Answer: (C)

156. Mycobacterium leprae can be grown on :

(A) Culture media

(B) Foot pad of mouse

(C) Liver of guinea pig

(D) Kidney of rabbit

Answer: (B)

157. Sterilization of culture media containing serum is by :

(A) Autoclaving

(B) Micropore filter

(C) Gamma radiation

(D) Centrifugation

Answer: (B)

158. Maternal viraemia most commonly spreading to fetus :

(A) CMV

(B) Rubella

(C) HIV

(D) Herpes

Answer: (B)

159. Next to HBV, virus implicated in hepatocellular Ca is:

(A) HCV

(B) Herpes

(C) HAV

(D) HEV

Answer: (A)

160. Lepra bacilli can be grown in:

(A) Armadillo foot pad

(B) L-J medium

(C) SDA Agar

(D) Rabbit’s kidney

Answer: (A)

161. The difference between gram +ve and gram –ve organism is the G –ve org. contains:

(A) Teichoic acid

(B) Muramic acid

(C) N-acetyl neuraminic acid

(D) Aromatic amino acids

Answer: (A)

162. In TB, immunity is provided by:

(A) CD 4+

(B) CD 8+

(C) IgG

(D)  IgM

Answer: (A)

163. EBV does not cause:

(A) Nasopharyngeal Ca

(B) Inverted papilloma

(C) Burkitt’s lymphoma

(D) Infectious mononucleosis

Answer: (B)

164. Negative staining demonstrates, while +ve staining doesn’t demonstrate certain organism because of:

(A) LPS Capsule

(B) Polysaccharide capsule

(C) Carbohydrate capsule

(D) Fat capsule

Answer: (B)

165. Kerion is caused by:

(A) Candida

(B) Streptococcus

(C) Dermatophytes

(D) Herpes

Answer: (C)

166. Hormones are best assessed by:

(A) Flurocytometry

(B) Electrophoresis

(C) ELISA

(D) RIA

Answer: (D)

167. True about cholera vibrios is :

(A) Can tolerate wide range of alkaline pH

(B) Non motile bacilli

(C) Cann’t be grown in media

(D) NaCl stimulates growth

Answer: (A)

168. Staphyloccocal pathogenicity is indicated by:

(A) Coagulase positivity

(B) Hemolysis

(C) Lipoteichoic acid

(D) Endotoxin

Answer: (A)

169. Following transmit drug resistance except :

(A) RTF

(B) Plasmids

(C) Hfr

(D) Chromosome

Answer: (C)

170. Crytococcus has predilection for:

(A) Lungs

(B) Meninges

(C) Liver

(D)  GIT

Answer: (B)

171. Neurocysticercosis, following are true except:

(A) Not acquired by eating contamined vegetables

(B) Caused by regurgitation of larva

(C) Acquired by orofaecal route

(D) Acquired by eating pork

Answer: (A)

172. Lipid envelope is found in which virus?

(A) Reo

(B) Herpes

(C) Picorna

(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

173. Rheumatoid factor is :

(A) IgM Ab against Fc fragment of IgG

(B) IgG Ab against Fc fragment of IgG

(C) IgM Ab against Fc fragment of IgM

(D) IgM Ab against Fc fragment of IgM

Answer: (A)

174. Best fixative for cytological studies :

(A) 95% ethanol

(B)  Rectified spirit

(C) Methanol

(D) Ethylene oxide

Answer: (A)

175. Which is not a heterophile agglutination test?

(A) Well-Felix test

(B) Widal test

(C) Paul-Bunnel test

(D) Streptoccus MG

Answer: (B)

176. Swarming growth is seen with :

(A) Clostridium welchii

(B) Proteus

(C) T. pallidum

(D) B. coli

Answer: (B)

177. The most sensitive test for H. pylori is :

(A) Breath test

(B) Rapid urease test

(C) Culture of biopsy

(D) Microscopy of biopsy

Answer: (B)

178. E. coli gives pink colour with :

(A) Chocolate agar

(B) L J medium

(C) MacConkey’s medium

(D) Saline broth

Answer: (C)

179. Neill-Mooser reaction is used to diagnose :

(A) Rickettsiae

(B) Chlamydiae

(C) Mycoplasma

(D) Herpes

Answer: (A)

180. Creutzfeld jakob disease is caused by :

(A) Prion

(B) JC virus

(C) Genetic factors

(D) Nutritional deficiency

Answer: (A)

181. Following grows in the cell free medium except :

(A) Rickettsia

(B) M. leprae

(C) Bartonella

(D) Syphilis

Answer: (A)

182. Sporicidal disinfectant is following except :

(A) Glutaralydehyde

(B) Formaldehyde

(C) Ethylene oxide

(D) Benzalkonium chloride

Answer: (D)

183. The best diagnostic test for recent hepatitis B is :

(A) HBsAg

(B) IgM anti HBc Ag

(C) Anti HBe

(D) Anti HBs

Answer: (B)

184. The HPV type leading to malignancy is

(A) 16, 18, 31

(B) 6, 11

(C) 16, 20, 32

(D) 6, 16, 22

Answer: (A)

185. BCYE medium is used to culture :

(A) Mycoplasma

(B) T. pallidium

(C) H. pylori

(D) Legionella

Answer: (D)

186. Eucalyptus camaldulensis is associated with the transmission of :

(A) Blastomyces dematitidis

(B) Histoplasma

(C) Cryptococcus

(D) Coccidiodes immitis

Answer: (C)

187. Diene’s method is used for :

(A) Mycoplasma

(B) Chlamydiae

(C) Plague

(D) Liphtheria

Answer: (A)

188. Cysticercosis is caused by larva of :

(A) Taenia solium

(B) T. saginata

(C) Echinococcus

(D) Ascaris

Answer: (A)

189. Fungi has possess a capsule is :

(A) Candida

(B) Aspergillus

(C) Cryptococcus

(D) Mucor

Answer: (C)

190. Cell wall deficient organisms are :

(A) Chlamydia

(B) Mycoplasma

(C) Streptococcus

(D) Anaerobes

Answer: (B)

191. Hepatitis C virus is:

(A) Hepadna virus

(B) Picorna virus

(C) Retro virus

(D) Flavivirus

Answer: (D)

192. All are sporonticidal except :

(A) Lysol

(B) Glutaraldehyde

(C) Ethylene dioxide

(D) Formaldehyde

Answer: (A)

193. Stage of falciparum not seen in PBS is:

(A) Schizont

(B) Gametocyte

(C) Ring form

(D) Double ring

Answer: (A)

194. Streptococcal GN is best diagnosed by :

(A) ASO titre

(B) Anti DNAse

(C) Anti hyaluronidase

(D) Culture

Answer: (B)

195. Test used in diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is :

(A) VDRL

(B) Rose waaler test

(C) Widal

(D) Passive hemagglutination

Answer: (B)

196. Viable but not cultivable state is seen in which of the following organism :

(A) M. Leprae

(B) M. Tuberculosis

(C) V. Cholerae

(D) Staph. aureus

Answer: (A)

197. Type-I hypersensitivity includes A/E :

(A) Auto-immune hemolytic anemia

(B) Anaphylaxis

(C) Ext. Asthma

(D) Hay Fever

Answer: (A)

198. Infection with colitis is caused by :

(A) Enterobius vermicularis

(B) Trichuris trichura

(C) Strongyloides

(D) Clonorchis

Answer: (C)

199. MC. cause of liver abscess :

(A) Streptococcus

(B) Staph aureus

(C) E. Coli

(D) Staph pyogenes

Answer: (C)

200. In Japanese Encephalitis pigs acts as :

(A) Amplifier

(B) Definitive host

(C) Intermediate host

(D) Any of the above

Answer: (A)

201. IL-1 is produced by :

(A) Macrophage

(B) Helper T lymphocytes

(C) B cells

(D) Cytotoxic T-cells

Answer: (A)

202. In India most common cause of T. B. in HIV :

(A) Myco. Tuberculosis

(B) Myco. Avium intracellulare

(C) M. bovis

(D) M. scrofulaceum

Answer: (A)

203. Cryptococcal meningitis is common is :

(A) Renal transplant recipient

(B) Agammaglobulinemia

(C) Neutropenia

(D) IgA deficiency

Answer: (A)

204. Eosinophilic meningocencephalitis is caused by :

(A) Gnathostoma spiralis

(B) Naegleria

(C) Toxocara canis

(D) Angiostrongylus cantonensis

Answer: (D)

205. Segmented virus :

(A) Influenza

(B) Polio

(C) HTLV-III

(D) Adeno virus

Answer: (A)

206. Maximum urease +ve is produced by :

(A) H. Pylori

(B) P. Mirabilis

(C) K. rhinomatis

(D) Ureaplasma

Answer: (B)

207. After Splenectomy, most common infection :

(A) Pneumococcal

(B) E. coli

(C) Klebsiella

(D) Streptococcus

Answer: (A)

208. Naeglers reaction :

(A) Cl. Tetani

(B) Cl. Botulinum

(C) Cl. Perfringenes

(D) Cl. Septicum

Answer: (C)

209. True about Mycosis fungoides :

(A) Cutaneous – T. cell lymphoma

(B) Cutaneous – B cell lymphoma

(C) A type of ALL

(D) A type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Answer: (B)

210. True of malaria diagnosis :

(A) Thick smear to identify parasite

(B) ABER reveals positivity by 100

(C) All have same Incubation

(D) Fluorescein Ab within 1 week

Answer: (A)

211. PML is caused by

(A) CMV

(B) Papova virus

(C) HIV

(D) Polio virus

Answer: (B)

212. Max. Hepatitis C virus transmission to foetus in pregnancy depends on :

(A) Duration of illness

(B) Time of infection

(C) Route to delivery

(D) High level of HCV RNA

Answer: (D)

213. True about H-pylori :

(A) Seen in 85 to 90% cases of gastric ulcer

(B) Seen in 20 to 25% cases of duodenal ulcer

(C) Transmitted from man to man, feco-orally & by orogastric route

(D) Common in adults of developing countries

Answer: (C)

214. Not easily culturable but well viable & used in epidemiology are/is:

(A) Staph

(B) Mycobacterium TB

(C) E. Coli

(D) Salmonella

Answer: (B)

215. True about HIV :

(A) Not transmitted through semen

(B) More chances of transmission during LSCS than normal labour

(C) More infectious than hepatitis B

(D) Male to female transmission > female to male

Answer: (D)

216. Treatment of partner is required in all infections except :

(A) Candida

(B) Herpes

(C) Trichomonas

(D) Gardnerella

Answer: (D)

217. Lyme disease caused by :

(A) Leptospira

(B) Borrelia

(C) Treponema

(D) Bordetella

Answer: (B)

218. Which of the following are AFB positive with 5% sulphuric acid?

(A) M. avium

(B) M. leprae

(C) M. tuberculosis

(D) Nocardia

Answer: (B)

219. True about Salmonella typhi infection in intestine is/are :

(A) Affects peyer’s patches

(B) Common in mesenteric border

(C) Erythrophagocytosis is characteristic

(D) Strictures are common

Answer: (A)

220. Which of the following crosses placenta?

(A) IgG

(B) IgA

(C) IgM

(D) IgD

Answer: (A)

221. Exacerbation of lesions in patients of borderline leprosy is seen in :

(A) ENL (erythema nodosum leprosum)

(B) Lepra reaction type 1

(C) Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

(D) Resolving leprosy

Answer: (A)

222. True about mantoux is :

(A) False negative in fulminant diseases

(B) If once done, next time it is always positive

(C) Results are given in terms of positive & negative

(D) Indurations given in terms of length & breadth

Answer: (A)

223. Which of the following organisms is implicated in the causation of botryomycosis?

(A) Staphylococcus aureus

(B) Staphylococcus albus

(C) Pseudomonas aureginosa

(D) Streptococcus pneumonia

Answer: (A)

224. Staphylococcus in stool occurs in :

(A) Staphylococcal food poisoning

(B) Ischiorectal abscess

(C) Toxic shock syndrome

(D) May be a normal finding

Answer: (A)

225. The causative organism can be isolated in which among the following conditions :

(A) Serum in toxic shock syndrome

(B) Meningococcal rash

(C) Rheumatic valvulitis

(D) CSF in tetanus

Answer: (B)

226. Zoonotic diseases are all except :

(A) Typhoid

(B) Anthrax

(C) Rabies

(D) Brucella

Answer: (A)

227. The secretory component of immunoglobulin molecule is :

(A) Formed by epithelial cell of lining mucosa

(B) Formed by plasma cell

(C) Formed by epithelial cell and plasma cell

(D) Secreted by bone marrow

Answer: (A)

228. Perforins are produced by :

(A) Cytotoxic T cells

(B) Suppressor T cells

(C) Memory helper T cells

(D) Plasma cells

Answer: (A)

229. True regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis is :

(A) Produces visible colonies in 1 weeks time on Lowenstein-Jenson media

(B) Decolorized by 20% sulfuric acid

(C) Facultative aerobe

(D) Niacin positive

Answer: (D)

230. Cryptococcus can be readily demonstrated by :

(A) Albert’stain

(B) Indian’s ink stain

(C) Giema’s stain

(D) Gram’s stain

Answer: (B)

231. Apart from B cells, and T cells, there is a 3rd distinct type of lymphocyte. This is:

(A) MHC cell

(B) NK cell

(C) Macrophage

(D) Neutrophil

Answer: (B)

232. Nocardia is differentiated from Actinomyces by:

(A) Gram stain

(B) ZN stain

(C) Nacardia causes mycetoma, Actinomyces does not

(D) Nacardia is facultative anerobe

Answer: (B)

233. IgE is secreted by :

(A) Mast cell

(B) Basophils

(C) Eosinophils

(D) Plasma cells

Answer: (D)

234. Micro-organism used as weapon in biological terrorism :

(A) Small pox V

(B) Rabies V

(C) Ebda V

(D) Influenza CV

Answer: (A)

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