Medical PG Surgery
1. Immediate management of a patient with Multiple fracture and Fluid loss includes the infusion of
(A) Blood
(B) Dextran
(C) Normal Saline
(D) Ringer lactate
2. Which of the following is the best parameter to assess fluid intake in a poly-trauma patient
(A) Urine output
(B) BP
(C) Pulse
(D) Pulse oximetry
3. Cleft palate is best repaired at
(A) Soon after birth
(B) At 1 month
(C) At 6-8 months
(D) Between 1-1.5 years
4. The commonest site of Branchial cysts is
(A) Upper 1/3rd of the SCM
(B) Lower 1/3rht of the SCM
(C) Upper 2/3rd of the SCM
(D) Lower 2/3rd of the SCM
5. Which of the following cutaneous malignancies do not metastasize through the lymphatics
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma
(B) Basal cell carcinoma
(C) Melanoma
(D) Kaposi’s sarcoma
6. Lymph node metastasis is least commonly seen with
(A) Papillary Ca Thyroid
(B) Medullary Ca Thyroid
(C) Follicular Ca Thyroid
(D) Anaplastic Ca Thyroid
7. One of the following will always present with Bilious vomiting
(A) Pyloric stenosis
(B) Esophageal atresia
(C) Atresia of the 3rd part of the duodenum
(D) Malrotation of the gut
8. A neonate with a scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress has
(A) Congenital pyloric stenosis
(B) Diaphragmatic hernia
(C) Volvulus
(D) Wilm’s tumor
9. Meckel’s diverticulum is a derivative of
(A) Allantoic diverticulum
(B) Vitellointestinal duct
(C) Ventral mesogastrium
(D) Ductus arteriosus
10. Acute mesenteric lymphadenitis is caused by
(A) E. coli
(B) α-hemolytic streptococci
(C) Hemophilus
(D) Yersinia
11. The commonest site of obstruction in Gall stone ileus is
(A) Proximal ileum
(B) Distal ileum
(C) Ileocecal junction
(D) Transverse colon
12. Resection of 90% of the ileum and jejunum causes all the following except
(A) Hypogastrinemia
(B) Steatorrhea
(C) Anemia
(D) Extracellular volume depletion
13. The most unlikely clinical feature of Hepatocellular carcinoma is
(A) Hepatomegaly
(B) Raised α-fetoprotein levels
(C) Raised alkaline phosphate
(D) Jaundice
14. α-Fetoprotein increase in all the following except
(A) Hepatocellular carcinoma
(B) Seminoma of the testes
(C) GI neoplasms
(D) Embryonal cell carcinoma
15. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is due to tumor of the
(A) α cells
(B) β cells
(C) PP cells
(D) PP cells
16. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by all of the following except
(A) Post bulbar ulcer
(B) Recurrent duodenal ulce
(C) Severe diarrhea
(D) Massive HCL in response to histamine injection
17. Pancreatic pseudocyst most commonly occurs after
(A) Trauma
(B) Pancreatitis
(C) Pancreatic surgery
(D) Pancreatic malignancy
18. Painless gross hematuria occurs in
(A) Renal cell carcinoma
(B) Polycystic kidney
(C) Stricture of urethra
(D) Wilm’s tumor
19. A 75-year-old frail elderly man underwent TURP. The biopsy revealed adenocarcinoma. What is the next line of management
(A) Radiotherapy
(B) Surgery followed by Hormonal replacement therapy
(C) Conservative treatment
(D) Surgery followed by radiotherapy
20. Trousseau’s sign is seen in all the following except
(A) Ca Lung
(B) Ca Stomach
(C) Ca Pancreas
(D) Liposarcoma
21. All of the following produce Osteoblastic secondaries except
(A) Ca Prostate
(B) Carcinoid tumors
(C) Ca Breast
(D) Multiple myeloma
22. Bleeding from the umbilicus in an adult female during menstruation is suggestive of
(A) Bleeding diathesis
(B) Vicarious menstruation
(C) Persistent urachus
(D) Purpura
23. Commonest site of a rodent ulcer is
(A) Limbs
(B) Face
(C) Abdomen
(D) Trunk
24. In hand injuries the first structure to be repaired is
(A) Bone
(B) Skin
(C) Tendon
(D) Verve
25. FNAC is useful in all the following types of thyroid carcinoma except
(A) Papillary
(B) Follicular
(C) Anaplastic
(D) Medullary
26. Serum calcitonin is a marker for
(A) Anaplastic carcinoma
(B) Papillary carcinoma
(C) Medullary carcinoma
(D) Follicular carcinoma
27. Thyroid carcinoma with pulstile vascular skeletal metastasis is
(A) Papillary
(B) Follicular
(C) Medullary
(D) Anaplastic
28. ‘Hurthle cells’ are seen in
(A) Agranulomatous Thyroiditis
(B) Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
(C) Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
(D) Thyroglossal cyst
29. Paget’s disease of the nipple is treated by
(A) Radiotherapy
(B) Radical mastectomy
(C) Biopsy and simple mastectomy
(D) Chemotherapy
30. The commonest pre-malignant condition of oral cancer is
(A) Leukoplakia
(B) Aphthous ulcer
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Erythro-leukoplakia
31.Which of the following is TURE and Zeker’s diverticulum
(A) It is asymptomatic
(B) Occurs in the mid-esophagus
(C) Treatment is simple excision
(D) It occurs in children
32. The best prognosis in carcinoma stomach is with
(A) Superficial spreading type
(B) Ulcerative type
(C) Linitis plastica type
(D) Polypoidal fungating type
33. Distended abdomen in intestinal obstruction is mainly due to
(A) Diffusion of gas from blood
(B) Fermentation of residual food
(C) Bacterial action
(D) Swallowed air
34. The following are important in maintenance of normal fecal continence except
(A) Anorectal angulation
(B) Rectal innervation
(C) Internal sphincter
(D) Haustral valve
35. Kehr sign seen in splenic injury is
(A) Pain over left shoulder
(B) Pain over right shoulder
(C) Pain over renal angle
(D) Pain over pera-umbilical region
36. ‘Carcot’s triad’s is
(A) Fever, pain, vomiting
(B) Fever, stone, jaundice
(C) Fever, pain, jaundice
(D) Gall stone, vomiting-jaundice
37. Which of the following is the preferred treatment modality for annual pancreas
(A) Whipple’s operation
(B) Duodeno-jejunostomy
(C) Gastro-jejunostomy
(D) Jejuno-cystostomy
38. Which of the following is true about renal trauma
(A) Urgent IVP is indicated
(B) Exploration of the kidney to be done in all cases
(C) Lumbar approach to kidney is preferred
(D) Renal artery aneurysm is common
39. A symptom of medullary sponge kidney disease is
(A) Nocturia
(B) Anemia
(C) Azotemia
(D) UTI
40. Most common content in ‘Hernia on glissade’ is
(A) Omentum
(B) Urinary bladder
(C) Caecum
(D) Sigmoid colon
41. Secondaries of all the following cause osterolytic lesions except
(A) Prostate
(B) Kidney
(C) Bronchus
(D) Thyroid
42. The most common site of enlargement of the lymph nodes in Hodgkin’s lymphoma is
(A) Mediastinal
(B) Axillary
(C) Cervical
(D) Abdominal
43. Extradural hematoma indicates rupture of
(A) Maxillary artery
(B) Middle meningeal artery
(C) Internal carotid artery
(D) Ophthalmic artery
44. In skull fracture, the condition in which an operation is not done immediately is
(A) Depressed fracture
(B) Compound fracture
(C) CSF leak
(D) CSF leak
45. Best treatment modality for Warthin’s tumor is
(A) Superficial parotidectomy
(B) Radical parotidectomy
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) Curettage
46. Which malignancy of parotid gland spreads through the neural sheath
(A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(B) Adenocarcinoma
(C) Pleomorphic adenoma with malignant change
(D) Sarcoma
47. The most common presentation of endemic goiter is
(A) Hypothyroid
(B) Diffuse goiter
(C) Hyperthyroid
(D) Solitary nodule
48. Which type of thyroid carcinoma has the best prognosis
(A) Papillary Ca
(B) Anaplastic Ca
(C) Follicular Ca
(D) Medullary Ca
49. Most probable malignancy that develops in a case of long-standing goiter is
(A) Follicular Ca
(B) Anaplastic Ca
(C) Papillary Ca
(D) Medullary Ca
50. All the following are true of DeQuervan’s Thyroiditis except
(A) Pain
(B) Increased ESR
(C) Increased radioactive iodine uptake
(D) Fever
51. The treatment of choice in Duct papilloma of the breast is
(A) Simple mastectomy
(B) Microdochectomy
(C) Local wide excision
(D) Chemotherapy
52. Mondor’s disease is
(A) Thrombophlebitis of the Superficial veins of Breast
(B) Carcinoma of the breast
(C) Premalignant condition of the breast
(D) Filariasis of the breast
53. Which histological variant of breast carcinoma is multicentric and bilateral
(A) Ductal Ca
(B) Lobular Ca
(C) Mucoid Ca
(D) Colloid Ca
54. Multiple painfull ulcers on tongue are seen in all except
(A) Aphthous ulcers
(B) Tuberculous ulcers
(C) Herpes ulcers
(D) Carcinomatous ulcers
55. Which neo-adjuvant chemotherapy is used in Esophageal carcinoma
(A) Cisplatin
(B) Cyclophosphamide
(C) Doxorubicin
(D) Methotrexate
56. Best substitute of esophagus after esophagectomy is
(A) Stomach
(B) Jejunum
(C) Left colon
(D) Right colon
57. All the following are true about Meckel’s diverticulum except
(A) Bleeding
(B) Intussusception
(C) Arises at the mesenteric border
(D) Located 60 cm from the cecal valve
58. The most common cause of small intestinal obstruction is
(A) Intussuception
(B) Iatrogenic adhesions
(C) Trauma
(D) Carcinoma
59. Commonest tumor of the small intestine is
(A) Leiomyoma
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Adenocarcinoma
(D) Hemangioma
60. Meconium ileus can be caused by
(A) Fibrocystic disease of the pancreas
(B) Liver aplasia
(C) Cirrhosis of the liver
(D) Malnutrition
61. All of the following are removed in Whipple’s operation except
(A) Duodenum
(B) Head of pancreas
(C) Portal vein
(D) Common bile duct
62. Lithogenic bile has the following properties
(A) ↑ Bile and Cholesterol ratio
(B) ↓ Bile and cholesterol ratio
(C) Equal bile and cholesterol ratio
(D) ↓ Cholesterol only
63. Stone formation in Gall bladder is enhanced by all except
(A) Clofibrate therapy
(B) Ilial resection
(C) Cholestyramine therapy
(D) Vagal stimulation
64. Which of the following does not predispose to Cholangiocarcinoma
(A) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Clonorchis sinensis
(C) Choledochal cyst
(D) Chronic pancreatitis
65. Charcot’s triad includes all of the following except
(A) Pain
(B) Fever
(C) Jaundice
(D) Vomiting
66. Triad of Renal colic, Swelling in loin which disappears after passing urine is called
(A) Kocher’s triad
(B) Saint’s triad
(C) Dietel’s crisis
(D) Charcot’s triad
67. Splenectomy is most useful in
(A) Sickle cell anemia
(B) Thallassemia
(C) Hereditary spherocytosis
(D) Acquired auto ammonia hemolytic anemia
68. An absolute contraindication for IVP is
(A) Allergy to the drug
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Blood urea > 200 mg
(D) Renal tumor
69. True about Acute Epididymitis is
(A) Associated with urinary infection
(B) Paintless
(C) Scrotum size is reduced
(D) Clinically does not mimic torsion of testes
70. Which type of haemangioma resolves spontaneously :
(A) Port wine stain
(B) Strawberry angioma
(C) Cavernous angioma
(D) Plexiform angioma
71. True statement for axial flap is :
(A) Carries its own vessels within it
(B) Kept in limb
(C) Transverse flap
(D) Carries its own nerve in it
72. All of the following statements about malignant melanoma are true except :
(A) Prognosis is better in female than in male
(B) Acral lentiginous melanoma carrier a good prognosis
(C) Stage IIA shows satellite deposits
(D) Most common type is superficial spreading melanoma
73. Carcinoma of buccal mucosa commonly drain to the following lymph node sites
(A) Sub mental
(B) Sub mandibular
(C) Supraclavicular
(D) Cervical
74. Treatment of pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is
(A) Superfacial parodictomy
(B) Radical removal
(C) Deep lobe removal
(D) Total removal
75. Lymphnode metastasis is common feature with the following variant of soft tissue sarcoma :
(A) Fibrosarcoma
(B) Angiosarcoma
(C) Liposarcoma
(D) Neurofibrosarcoma
76. MEN-II is seen with the following type of thyroid carcinoma :
(A) Papillary
(B) Medullary
(C) anaplastic
(D) Follicular
77. Screening method for medullary carcinoma thyroid is :
(A) Serum calcitonin
(B) S. calcium
(C) S. alkaline phosphate
(D) S. acid phosphatase
78. All of the following are required for visualization of gall bladder in an oral cholecystogram except :
(A) Motor mechanism of gall bladder
(B) Patency of cystic duct
(C) Ability to absorb water
(D) Functioning hepatocytes
79. Most common site of gall stone impactation is
(A) Duedenojejunal junction
(B) Proximal to ileocaecal junction
(C) Distal to ileocaecal junction
(D) Colon
80. The treatment of choice for silent stones in Gall bladder is
(A) Observation
(B) Chenodeoxy cholic acid
(C) Cholecytectomy
(D) Lithotripsy
81. All of the following are known predesposing factors for cholangiocarcinoma except :
(A) CBD stones
(B) Clonorchis sinensis
(C) Ulcerative colitis
(D) Primary sclerosing cholangitis
82. All of the following statements about Pseudopancreatic cysts are true except :
(A) Percutaneous aspiration is treatment of choice
(B) Cystojejunostomy is treatment of choice
(C) Serum amylase levels are increased
(D) Presents as an epigastric mass
83. True statements about congeniatal megacolon include all of the following except :
(A) Dilatation & hyper trophy of pelvic colon
(B) Loud borborygmi
(C) Symptoms appear with in 3 days following birth
(D) Large stool
84. All of the following are features of exstrophy of the bladder except :
(A) Epispadias
(B) Cloacal membrane is present
(C) Posterior b ladder wall protrudes through the defects
(D) Umblical and inguinal hernia
85. Best indication for ‘Testicular biopsy in a male is
(A) Polysperamia
(B) Oligopermia
(C) Necrospermia
(D) Azoospermia
86. All of the following statements regarding bronchial cysts are true except :
(A) Seen in mediastinum
(B) 50-70% occur in lung
(C) Are Commonly infected
(D) Multilocular
87. Orthobaric oxygen is used in :
(A) CO poisoning
(B) Ventilation failure
(C) Anerobic infection
(D) Gangrene
88. Most common cancer in India :
(A) CA cervix
(B) CA breast
(C) CA lung
(D) CA oral cavity
89. Clinical features of fracture of Zygomatic bone include all of the following except :
(A) Diplopia
(B) Trismus
(C) Bleeding
(D) C.S.F. rhinorrhea
90. β2 microglobulin is a marker for prognosis in
(A) SLE
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) AIDS
(D) AIDS
91. Increased acetyl cholinesterase enzyme is seen in :
(A) Neural tube defects
(B) Diaphrgmatic hernia
(C) Cardiac difect
(D) Oesophgeal atresia
92. Spontaneous regression is seen in :
(A) Portwine haemangioma
(B) Strawberry haemangioma
(C) Cavernous haemangioma
(D) Arterial angioma
93. Following tumour may regress spontaneously except
(A) Retinoblastoma
(B) Malignant melanoma
(C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Choricoarcinoma
94. Treatment of choice of warthiin’s tumour is :
(A) Superficial paroidectomy
(B) Excision
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) Chemotherapy
95. Cleft palate is ideally repaired at :
(A) 5 month of age
(B) 1 year of age
(C) Before going to school
(D) 6-8 years of age
96. Hyoid bone is closely associated with :
(A) Bronchiogenic cyst
(B) Cystic hygroma
(C) Thyroglossal cyst/fistula
(D) Branchial cyst
97. In hand injury firs structure to be repaired should be :
(A) Skin
(B) Nerve
(C) Muscle
(D) Bone
98. All may be seen in deep burns except :
(A) Hyperthermia
(B) Increase vascular permeability
(C) Fluidloss by evoperation
(D) Vasodilatation
99. Following drug lowers intracranial pressure except
(A) Mannitol infusion
(B) Furesemide
(C) Corticosteroids
(D) None
100. Bony metastasis is common with all of the following except :
(A) CA breast
(B) CA lung
(C) CA testis
(D) CA prostate
101. In soft tissue sarcoma the prognosis depends best upon :
(A) Site of tumour
(B) Site of tumour
(C) Size of tumour
(D) Lymphadenopathy
102. In breast carcinoma metastasis, prognosis depends best upon :
(A) Extrogen receptor status
(B) Axillary lymphnode status
(C) Size of tumour
(D) Site of tumour
103. The risk factor for increased incidence relapse in stage I, carcinoma breast includes all except :
(A) -ve estrogen / progesterone receptor status
(B) High ‘s’ phase
(C) Aneuploidy
(D) Decreased Her-2/neu oncogene
104. Best prognosis amongst the following histoligical variants of breast carcinoma is seen with :
(A) Intraductal
(B) Colloid
(C) Lobular
(D) Ductal
105. Treatment of choice in duct papilloma of breast is :
(A) Simple mastectomy
(B) Microdochectomy
(C) Local wide excision
(D) Chemotherapy
106. Gyancomastia may be seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Klinefelter syndrome
(B) Cirrhosis of liver
(C) Cryptorchidism
(D) Sexcordtumour of sertoli cells
107. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in :
(A) Achlasia acardia
(B) Barret’s oesophagus
(C) Plummer Vinson syndrome
(D) Chronic smoking
108. Short bowel syndrome is characterized by all of the following except :
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Weight loss
(C) Steatorrhoea
(D) Hypogastrinemia
109. A patient was operated for colonic carcinoma and later a solitary nodule was found in the liver Treatment of choice is :
(A) Surgery
(B) Radiation
(C) Chemotherapy
(D) Conservative treatment
110. All are ture about pseudopancreatic cyst of pancreas except :
(A) Common after acute pancreatitis
(B) Presents as an abdominal mass
(C) Serum amylase is increased
(D) Most common site is in head of pancreas
111. Meconium ileus is associated with :
(A) Fibrocystic disease of pancreas
(B) Liver aplasia
(C) Cirrhosis of liver
(D) Malnutrition
112. Commonest cause of surgical obstructive jaundice is :
(A) CBD stone
(B) Sclerosing cholongitis
(C) Carcinoma of liver
(D) Chromic cholecystitis
113. Medical treatment for gall bladder stone is amenable for :
(A) Stones less than 15 mm in size
(B) Radioopaque stone
(C) Calcium bilirubinate oxalate stone
(D) Nonfunctioning stones associated with gall bladder
114. Commonest presentation of primary biliary cirrhosis
(A) Prurtitis
(B) Pain
(C) Pain
(D) Fever
115. Gall bladder stone formation in influenced by A/E
(A) Clofibrate therapy
(B) Clofibrate therapy
(C) Primary biliary cirrhosis
(D) Hypercholesterolemia
116. Features of hypospaedias are all except :
(A) Chordae
(B) Hooded prepuce
(C) No-treatment required with glandular veriety
(D) Cryptorchidism
117. Ureter is diagnosed during operation by :
(A) Venous plexus
(B) High arterial supply
(C) Peristaltic movements
(D) Circumferance
118. Varicocele is common on left testis because :
(A) Left testicular vein drains into IVC which has high pressure
(B) Left testicular vein drains into leftrenal vein which has high pressure
(C) Left lestis is lower situated
(D) Compression of testicular vein by rectum
119. Commonest site of peptic ulcer is :
(A) Ist part of Duodenum
(B) IInd part duodenum
(C) Distal 1/3 of stomach
(D) Pylorus of the stomach
120. Common sites for cushing ulcers include all of the following except :
(A) Esophagus
(B) Stomach
(C) Ist part of duodenum
(D) Distal duodenum
121. Metabolic changes associated with excessive vomiting includes the following:
(A) Metabolic acidosis
(B) Hyperchloremia
(C) Hypokalemia
(D) Decreases bicarbonates
122. Dumping syndrome is due to :
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Presence of hypertonic content in small intestine
(C) Vagotomy
(D) Reduced gastric capacity
123. Most common site for impaction of gell stones in gall stone lieus is :
(A) Ist part of duodenum
(B) IInd part of duodenum
(C) Terminal ileum
(D) Colon
124. Pyoderma-gangrenosum is most commonly associated with :
(A) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Crohns disease
(C) Amoebic colitis
(D) Ischemic colitis
125. Colvesical fistula most commonly arises from :
(A) Crohn’s disease
(B) Ulcerative colitis
(C) Carcinoma colon
(D) Abdomino-perineal resection
126. Anchovy sauce pus is a feature of :
(A) Amoebic liver abscess
(B) Lung abscess
(C) Splenic abscess
(D) Splenic abscess
127. Most common cause of pseudopancreatic cyst in children is:
(A) Chloledochal cyst
(B) Annular pancreas
(C) Drug induced pancreatitis
(D) Traumatic pancreatitis
128. Which of the following causes least irritation of the peritoneal cavity :
(A) Bile
(B) Blood
(C) Gastric enzyme
(D) Pancreatic enzyme
129. Most common type of Intussusception is :
(A) Ilio-colic
(B) Ilio-ileal
(C) Colo-colic
(D) None of these
130. 1 year After cholecystectomy, a patient presented with 2.5 cm size stone in CBD, Treatment of choice is :
(A) Choledocholithotomy with T-tube drainage ment
(B) Supraduodenal choledochotomy with exploration
(C) Trans duodenal choledochojejunostony with spincturoplasty
(D) Endoscopic sphincterotomy with stone extraction
131. Spigelian hernia is seen in :
(A) Lumbar triangle
(B) Subumblical region
(C) Paraumblical region
(D) Supraumblical region
132. A 9 year boy presented with abdominal pain and recurrent UTI, IVP reveales duplication of left ureter. The most likely site of ectopic opening would be :
(A) Prostatic urethra
(B) Ejaculatory duct
(C) Seminal vesicle
(D) Vas-deference
133. A 6 week neonate presented with undescended testes on the right side and normal testes on left side. The treatment of choice would be :
(A) Orchipexy at 2 years
(B) Immediately
(C) 5 year age before going to school
(D) Puberty
134. Treatment of extragonadal germ cell tumour is :
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Radiotherapy
(C) Surgery
(D) Immunotherapy
135. A 60 year diabetic & hypertensive male with second grade prostatism admitted for prostatectomy developed myocardial infarction. Treatment now would be :
(A) Finasteride
(B) Radiotherapy
(C) Surgery
(D) Immunotherapy
136. A 55 year old diabetic patient presented with impotence with history of failure to get erection after papaverine intracavernous injection. Colour Doppler shows no. abnormality of arteries but shows mold venous run-off, Treatment of choice here would be :
(A) Intracavernous injection of papaverine
(B) Penile prosthetic implants
(C) Vacuum constriction device
(D) Psychotherapy
137. A 25 year old married male presents with infertility. He had undergone retroperitoneal lymphnode dissection at age of 15 years for embryonal carcinoma of right testis. Semen analysis shows-quantity-0.5 ml, no. sperm, no fructose. Biopsy of testis shows normal spermato genesis. best treatment here would be :
(A) Artificial insemination of donor
(B) Penile-prosthesis
(C) Microtestcular aspiration and intracyto plasmic injection
(D) None of the above
138. Which of the following carcinomas is familial :
(A) Breast
(B) Prostate
(C) Cervix
(D) Vaginal
139. Commonest cause of pulmonary embolism is
(A) Thrombosis of leg veins
(B) Thrombosis of prostatic veins
(C) IVC thrombosis
(D) Thrombosis of internal pudendal artery
140. CABG is done for all of the following indications except :
(A) To reduces symptoms
(B) To prevent further catastrophics
(C) To prolong life
(D) To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease
141. Commonest presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is
(A) Painless enlargement of lymphnode
(B) Pruritis
(C) Fever
(D) Leuocytosis
142. A 50 year old man presented with 3 moth history of right sided cervical lymphnode enlargements. The best investigation to establish the diagnosis in this case would be :
(A) FNAC
(B) X-ray
(C) Tuberaulin test
(D) Lymph-node biopsy
143. Ainhum is seen in :
(A) base of great toe
(B) Base of fingers tips
(C) Base of toe
(D) Ankle
144. Renal collar which surrounds the aorta has its two limbs split by :
(A) Left renal vein
(B) Left renal artery
(C) Isthumus of horsechoe kidney
(D) All of the above
145. A lady presented with VVF due to prolong labour one year back, on examination ectopic opening is found on the interuretic bar close to the opening of right ureter. Treatment of choice is :
(A) Transvaginal repair of VVF
(B) Transvesical VVF repair
(C) Transperitoneal trans fistula repair with reimplantation of right ureter
(D) All the above
146. Commonest cancer in burn scar is:
(A) Sq. cell Ca
(B) Fibrosarcoma
(C) Adeno Ca
(D) Adeno-squamous Ca
147. In hepatocellular carcinoma, factor important is :
(A) Alcoholic hepatitis
(B) Schistomiasis
(C) Cirrhosis
(D) Fasciolepsis buski infestation
148. Precancerous condition of Ca stomach is:
(A) Peptic ulcer
(B) Chronic gastric atrophy
(C) Achalasia cardia
(D) Curling’s ulcer
149. Definitive treatment of sigmoid volvulus is:
(A) Surgical correction
(B) Colectomy
(C) Enema
(D) Endoscopic correction
150. Most common malignancy affecting spleen is:
(A) Angiosarcoma
(B) Hamartoma
(C) Secondaries
(D) Lymphoma
151. What is more appropriate for diagnosis of CBD stones :
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) ERCP
(C) OCG
(D) IV cholangiography
152. Most common tumor of urinary bladder is:
(A) Sq. cell carcinoma
(B) Adeno carcinoma
(C) Transitional carcinoma
(D) Str. squamous carcinoma
153. Deep vein thrombosis is best diagnosed by:
(A) Plethysmography
(B) Duplex ultrasound
(C) Radionuclide scan
(D) CT scan
154. Anal carcinoma is most commonly carcinoma of type
(A) Adeno carcinoma
(B) Epidermoid
(C) Mixed
(D) None of the above
155. Most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction:
(A) Adhesions
(B) Carcinoma
(C) Int. hernia
(D) Lymphoma
156. Treatment of annular pancreas is:
(A) Excision of head of pancreas
(B) Duodeno Jejunostomy
(C) Excision of tail of pancreas
(D) Any of the above
157. Bilateral pulseless disease in upper limbs in caused by
(A) Aortoarteritis
(B) Coarctation of aorta
(C) Fibromuscular dysplsia
(D) Buerger’s disease
158. Most favorable prognosis after radiotherapy is in:
(A) Melanoma
(B) Teratoma
(C) Seminoma
(D) Desmoid
159. In severe injury, first to be maintained is:
(A) Hypotension
(B) Dehydration
(C) Airway
(D) Cardiac status
160. After splenectomy, most common infection is:
(A) Pneumococcus
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Esch. coli
(D) Pneumocystis carinii
161. Duplication of GIT most commonly involves:
(A) Esophagus
(B) Stomach
(C) Duodenum
(D) IIeum
162. A patient comes with single thyroid nodule initial investigation of choice is:
(A) FNAC
(B) Thyroid function test
(C) Radio nuclide scan
(D) MRI
163. Absence of myenteric ganglion is seen in:
(A) Crohn’s disease
(B) Ulcerative colitis
(C) Hirschsprung’s disease
(D) Intussuception
164. Blood stained discharge from nipple is indicative of
(A) Intra alveolar papilloma
(B) Duct ectasia
(C) Paget’s disease
(D) Lobular Ca
165. For prophylaxis of deep vein thrombosis used is:
(A) Warfarin
(B) Heparin
(C) Pneumatic shock garment
(D) Graded stoking
166. Cervical lymph node involvement in papillary ca thyroid, best treatment is:
(A) Radio active iodine
(B) Chemotherapy
(C) Radical neck dissection
(D) Steroid
167. In dysphagia lusoria true is:
(A) Esophagela web
(B) Aberrant vessels
(C) Oesophageal stricture
(D) Oesophageal carcinoma
168. In retrosternal goiter, most common presenting feature is:
(A) Dysphagia
(B) Stridor
(C) Dyspnoea
(D) Sup. vena caval syndrome
169. Commonest artery for cannulation is:
(A) Radial
(B) Ulnar
(C) Brachial
(D) Cubital
170. Dermoid arises from:
(A) Pluripotent cell
(B) Totipotent cell
(C) Ectoderm
(D) Mesoderm
171. Investigation of choice in upper GI bleeding is:
(A) Ba swallow
(B) X-ray
(C) Endoscopy
(D) Ultrasound
172. Antenatal double bubble appearance on ultrasound is due to:
(A) Diaphragmatic hernia
(B) Duodenal atresia
(C) Volvulus
(D) Intussusception
173. Earliest feature of sudden increase in ICT in infant is
(A) Boggy swelling of fontanelle
(B) Papilloedema
(C) Paralysis
(D) Seizures
174. In pyloric stenosis, true is:
(A) Hypochloremic hyponatermic metabolic alkalosis with acidic urine
(B) Hypochloremic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
(C) Hypochloremic hyponatremic metabolic acidosis
(D) Hyperchloremic hyponatremic metabolic acidosis
175. Most common neoplasm of adrenal medulla is:
(A) Pheochromocytoma
(B) Neurofibroma
(C) Neuroblastoma
(D) Adenocarcinoma
176. All are true about cancrum oris except:
(A) Associated with malnutrition and vitamin deficiency
(B) Follows chronic infection
(C) Involves jaw
(D) Treatment is excision and skin grafting with tubed pedicle graft
177. Regarding pectus excavatum all are true except:
(A) Gross CVS dysfunction
(B) Decrease in lung capacity
(C) Cosmetic deformity
(D) Depression in chest
178. What is intussuscepiens :
(A) The entire complex of intussuception
(B) The entering layer
(C) The outer layer
(D) The process of reducing the intussusception
179. Which is not used in carcinoma prostate
(A) Estrogen
(B) Progesterone
(C) Cyproterone acetate
(D) Flutamide
180. True about mesenteric cysts is:
(A) Enterogenous cyst is commonest type
(B) Recurrence is common after enucleation
(C) Mensentric cyst are usually multiple
(D) Encleation is the treatment of choice of chylolymphatic cyst
181. Cystoscopic findings in TB bladder are all except
(A) Cobblestone mucosa
(B) Thimble bladder
(C) Golf hole ureter
(D) Whitish efflux form the ureteric holes
182. Rx of congen, pyloric stenosis:
(A) Pyloromyotomy
(B) Gastroileostomy
(C) Gastrojejunostomy
(D) Vagotomy
183. Whipples triad is seen in:
(A) Islet cell tumour
(B) Ca head pancreas
(C) Argentaffinoma
(D) Cholangicarcinoma
184. Hypersplenism is seen in
(A) Pancytopenia
(B) Thrombocytopenia
(C) Leukopenia
(D) Polycythemia
185. Pseudolymphoma is seen in:
(A) Sjogren’s syndrome
(B) SLE
(C) Mixed connective tissue disease
(D) Behcet’s syndrome
185. Pseudolymphoma is seen in:
(A) Sjogren’s syndrome
(B) SLE
(C) Mixed connective tissue disease
(D) Behcet’s syndrome
186. Paget’s disease of breast following are true except:
(A) Treated by simple mastectomy
(B) Represents underlying malignancy
(C) Presents as eczema
(D) Cytology diagnostic
187. DVT, investigation of choice is:
(A) Doppler
(B) Plethysmography
(C) Venography
(D) X-ray
188. Renal transplantation is most commonly done in:
(A) Chr. glomerulonephritis
(B) Bilateral staghorn calculus
(C) Horse shoe kidney
(D) Oxalosis
189. In pneumoperitoneum following are seen except:
(A) Hypertension
(B) Bradycardia
(C) Tachycardia
(D) Hypercapnia
190. In normal pressure hydrocephalus seen are all except:
(A) Convulsion
(B) Ataxia
(C) Dementia
(D) Incontinence
191. In gastrectomy following occurs except:
(A) Calcium deficiency
(B) Steatorrhoea
(C) Fe. deficiency
(D) Fluid loss
192. Lymphovenous anastomosis is done for:
(A) Filarial lymphoedema
(B) Lymphoid cyst
(C) Cystic hygroma
(D) Malignant lymphoedema
193. Radial nerve palsy causes:
(A) Claw hand
(B) Wrist drop
(C) Policeman’s tip deformity
(D) Carpal tunnel syndrome
194. Shock is clinically best assessed by:
(A) Urine output
(B) CVP
(C) BP
(D) Hydration
195. Opsomyoclonus is seen in:
(A) Neuroblastoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Medulloblastoma
(D) Wilms tumour
196. In arterial injury following should be done except:
(A) Thrombectomy
(B) End-end anastomosis
(C) Ligation
(D) Venous graft
197. Commonest site of ischemic colitis
(A) Splenic flexure
(B) Transverse colon
(C) Hepatic flexure
(D) Ileocaecal junction
198. Ulcerative colitis progressing to malignancy is characterized by following except:
(A) Risk increases with the time
(B) Prognosis worsens
(C) Prognosis depends on period
(D) Forms pseudopolyps
199. Mallory weiss syndrome in partial thickness rupture occurs at:
(A) Gastric cardia
(B) Oesophatus mucosa
(C) Gastro oesophageal junction
(D) Gastroduodenal junction
200. IVC filter is used in following except:
(A) Massive emboli
(B) Negligible size of emboli
(C) Repeated emboli
(D) None
201. In pulmonary embolism, fibrinolytic therapy is responsible for
(A) Risk of haemorrhage
(B) Prognosis good
(C) Massive emboli
(D) All of the above
202. True about marjolins ulcer is:
(A) Ulcer over scar
(B) Rapid growth
(C) Rodent ulcer
(D) Painful
203. Cork screw oesophagus is seen in:
(A) Diffuse oesophageal spasm
(B) Achalasia cardia
(C) Ca. oesophagus
(D) Pulsion diverticulum
204. Valvoplasty done in following except:
(A) Coarctation of aorta
(B) PS
(C) MS
(D) AS
205. In AIDS, lymphadenopathy is most often due to:
(A) TB
(B) Lymphoma
(C) None specific enlargement of lymph node
(D) Kaposi’s sacroma
206. Esthesio neuroblastoma arises from
(A) Olfactory N
(B) Maxillary N
(C) Ophtalmic N
(D) Nasociliary N
207. Inverted “3” sign seen in:
(A) Ampullary Ca
(B) Insulinoma
(C) Ca. head pancreas
(D) Ca stomach
208. Ca oesophagus is characterized by following except :
(A) Adenocarcinoma
(B) Middle 1/3 affected
(C) Dysphagia is characteristic
(D) Pernicious anemia often present
209. Correct about diverticulosis is :
(A) Arise from diverticula of colon
(B) Common in ileum
(C) Protrusion of mucosa through muscular layers at point of blood vessel
(D) All of the above
210. Diagnostic procedure for basal cell ca :
(A) WEDGE biopsy
(B) Shave
(C) Incisional biopsy
(D) Punch biopsy
211. Most haemorrhagic tumor is :
(A) Leiomyosarcoma stomach
(B) Ca stomach
(C) Adeno Ca GB
(D) Ca pancreas
212. In pancoast tumor, following is seen except:
(A) Horner’s syndrome
(B) Rib erosion
(C) Haemoptysis
(D) Pain in shoulder and arm
213. Treatment of ruptured pneumo-peritoneum, as a result off colonscopy in a young patient is :
(A) Temporary colostomy
(B) Closure + lavage
(C) Permanent colostomy
(D) Symptomatic
214. Opsomyoclonus is encountered as C/F of :
(A) Meningioma
(B) Neuroblastoma
(C) Neurofirbomatosis
(D) Excision
215. In pigmented basal cell carcinoma, treatment of choice is :
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Radiotherapy
(C) Cryosurgery
(D) Cryosurgery
216. True about TIPSS :
(A) It is type of portocaval shunt
(B) It is intrahepatic shunt
(C) Performed by passing endoscopes
(D) Most suitable for patient going for liver transplant
217. Liver transplant is not possible for :
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Small intestine
(D) Cornea
218. Gold standard for reflux esophagitis is :
(A) Manometry
(B) Barium swallow
(C) 24 hours pH study
(D) X-ray abdomen
219. Metastasis in thyroid gland come most commonly from carcinoma of :
(A) Testis
(B) Prostate
(C) Breast
(D) Lungs
220. Most common presentation of intracranial aneurysm is :
(A) Coarctation of aorta
(B) Systemic hypertension
(C) Hypotension
(D) Intracranial haemorrhage
221. About Ectopia vesicae, following is true except :
(A) CA bladder may occur
(B) Ventral curvature of penis
(C) Incontinence of urine
(D) Visible uretero – vesical efflux
222. Diagnosis of Hydatid disease is by :
(A) Biopsy
(B) X-ray
(C) Casoni test
(D) Serum examination
223. True about duplication of intestine is :
(A) Spherical type is MC
(B) Tubular type is attached longitudinally with bowel
(C) Spherical cyst communicates with lumen
(D) All of the above
224. Fluid levels are not visible in :
(A) Meconeum ileus
(B) Intussusception
(C) Colon pouch
(D) Duodenal obstruction
225. Following are premalignant except :
(A) Tubulo villous adenoma
(B) Hyperplastic polyp
(C) Familial adenomatosis
(D) Villous adenoma
226. Following are premalignant except :
(A) Tubulo villous adenoma
(B) Hyperplastic polyp
(C) Familial adenomatosis
(D) Villous adenoma
227. During sclerotherapy (by endoscopy), following are complications except :
(A) Hepatic encephalopathy
(B) Perforation
(C) Stenosis
(D) Fibrosis
228. In children MC type of polyp is :
(A) Juvenile poly
(B) Solitary polyp
(C) Familial polyposis
(D) Multiple adenomatous polyp
229. In ulcerative colitis, Ca arises from :
(A) Pseudopolyps
(B) Dysplastic sites
(C) Familial polyposis
(D) Multiple adenomatous polyp
230. Extradural haematoma is associated with what % of severe trauma:
(A) 36%
(B) 10%
(C) 77%
(D) 96%
231. Absence of fructose in semen indicates :
(A) Obstruction of seminal vesicles
(B) Obstruction at prostatic urethra
(C) Vas deferens obstruction
(D) Testicular failure
232. True about femoral hernia is:
(A) Occurs exclusively in females
(B) Pregnancy is common cause
(C) Doesn’t strangulate
(D) In male associated with cryptorchidism
233. Muscle not cut in posterolateral thoracotomy is:
(A) Serratus anterior
(B) Lattisimus dorsi
(C) Rhomboidus major
(D) Pectoralis major
234. Schatazki’s ring is:
(A) Mucosal ring at sq-columnar in
(B) Muscular ring
(C) Dysphagia is the symptom
(D) Inflammatory structure
235. What % of testicular Ca is associated with cryp torchidism:
(A) 10%
(B) 30%
(C) 70%
(D) 90%
236. Meningomyelocele patient after being operated developed hydrocephalus due to:
(A) Arnold chairi malformation
(B) Injury to absorptive surface
(C) Central canal injury
(D) Arachnoidal block
237. Hernia through foramen of bochdalek true is:
(A) Congenital hernia
(B) In asymptomatic
(C) Seen executive in males
(D) Least common
238. Left Ioin nephrectomy, Str. not cut is:
(A) Trapezius
(B) Seratus inf. post
(C) Lat. dorsi
(D) Internal oblique
239. True about colonic organisms is :
(A) Distal ileum 10³ – 10⁵ org
(B) Colon 10¹⁰ – 10¹¹ org
(C) First org in new born is coliforms and streptococcus
(D) Chyme in jejunum contains many bacteria
240. Peaud’ orange is due to:
(A) Skin involvement
(B) Contraction of ligaments
(C) Lymphatic permeation
(D) Bacterial infection
241. Ac. arterial ischemia, all are seen except:
(A) Pallor
(B) Rubor
(C) Pain
(D) Paraesthesia
242. Nicoladoni branham sign is :
(A) Compression cause bradycardia
(B) Compression cause tachycardia
(C) Hypotension
(D) Systolic filling
243. In Genitourinary TB, True is:
(A) Sterile pyurias consistent finding
(B) AFB in early morning sample is always positive
(C) MC site is pelvis
(D) Commonest cause of pyelonephritis
244. Investigation of choice hirschsprug’s disease is:
(A) Rectal manometry
(B) Rectal examination
(C) Rectal biopsy
(D) Ba enema
245. Major causes of distention in intestinal obstruction:
(A) Papillary Ca
(B) Islet cell tumour
(C) Pheochromocytoma
(D) Glucagonoma
246. Major causes of distention in intestinal obstruction:
(A) Gas produced by coliform organism
(B) Swallowed air
(C) Diffuse from arterial surface
(D) Not known
247. Prolonged Post-op ileus is best treated by:
(A) Long tube insertion
(B) Calcium pentothenate
(C) Laporotomy and exploration
(D) Peristaltic stimulants
248. Fiberoptic endoscopy is contraindicated in:
(A) Children
(B) Aneurysm of arch of aorta
(C) Cervical spondylosis
(D) Hemoptysis
249. AV fistula causes:
(A) ↓Diastolic pressure
(B) ↑enous return
(C) ↓Venous congestion
(D) ↑Systolic filling
250. In testicular ca, investigation not done is:
(A) Aortography
(B) CT
(C) Biopsy
(D) Serum AFP
251. Circumcission is included in management of Ca penis at:
(A) Glans
(B) Prepuce
(C) Glandulo prepucial
(D) Shaft of penis
252. The treatment of metastatic testicular carcinoma is :
(A) Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin
(B) Vinblastine, Etoposide, Cisplatin
(C) Doxorubicin, 5-FU mercaptopurine
(D) Methotrexate, 5-FU, Vincristine
253. Deficiency of the abdominal muscle is associated with :
(A) Eagle-Barrette syndrome
(B) Christopher syndrome
(C) Megacystitis
(D) Megaureter
254. The resting uretric pressure in mm :
(A) 5-7
(B) 15 -30
(C) 7-10
(D) 0-5
255. Which among the following is a feature of fracture of zygoma :
(A) Diplopia
(B) Epistaxis
(C) Bell’s palsy
(D) Frey’s syndrome
256. The commonest type of trachea-esophageal fistula is :
(A) Proximal end blind; distal end communicating with trachea
(B) istal end; blind proximal and communicating with trachea
(C) Both ends blind
(D) Both ends open
257. Which is not a feature of Dupuytren’s contracture:
(A) Recurrent trauma
(B) Genetic predilection
(C) Bilateral lesions rare
(D) Seen equally in males and females
258. Split skin graft can be applied over :
(A) Muscle
(B) Bone
(C) Cartilage
(D) Eyelid
259. True about sliding esophageal hernia in all cases :
(A) Esophagus always short
(B) Cardia goes through hiatus
(C) Cardia and fundus goes through hiatus
(D) Peritoneal sac goes with paraesophageal hernia
260. Burns with vesiculation, destruction of the epidermis and upper dermis is :
(A) 1st degree
(B) 2nd degree
(C) 3rd degree
(D) 4th degree
261. The most malignant form of malignant melanoma is :
(A) Nodular
(B) Hutchinson’s melanotic freckle
(C) Lentigomaligna
(D) Superficial spreading
262. Uinlateral cleft lip is associated with :
(A) Posterior displacement of alar cartilage
(B) Columella elongated
(C) Always cleft palate
(D) Defective sucking
263. Esophageal carcinoma is not predisposed by :
(A) Achalasia
(B) Scleroderma
(C) Corrosive intake
(D) Barret’s esophagus
264. Meconium peritonitis occurs :
(A) Just before birth
(B) Just after birth
(C) Before and after birth
(D) Due to birth trauma
265. Not true about malignancy arising from Ulcerative colitis is :
(A) Takes atleast 10 years to develop
(B) Left sided is more common
(C) Associated with dysplasia of the rest of the colon
(D) Younger age of onset is associated with increased chance of carcinoma
266. Blood loss during major surgery is best estimated by :
(A) Visual assessment
(B) Suction bottles
(C) Transesophageal USG Doppler
(D) Cardiac output by thermodilution
267. A foreign body completely obstructing the right main bronchus causes :
(A) Decreased ventilation perfusion ratio (VRF)
(B) Increased ventilation in left lung
(C) Perfusion doubles in right lung
(D) Increased VF ratio in right lung
268. Least common site of lung abscess is :
(A) Left upper lobe
(B) Left lower lobe
(C) Right upper lobe
(D) Right low lobe
269. True regarding epispadias is :
(A) Always associated with dystrophy of bladder
(B) Penile torsion
(C) Common congenital anomaly
(D) None of these
270. Which is not a feature of pancreatic ascites :
(A) Low protein
(B) Somatostatin is the drug of choice
(C) Communication with pancreatic duct in 80%
(D) Raised amylase levels
271. Which is most malignant :
(A) Villous adenoma
(B) Tubulovillous adenoma
(C) Tubular adenoma
(D) Familial polyposis
272. In prostatic metastasis, the site most commonly involved is :
(A) Obturator nodes
(B) Perivesical nodes
(C) Pre-sacral nodes
(D) Paraaortic nodes
273. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma of parotid arises from :
(A) Secretory cells
(B) Excretory cells
(C) Myoepithelial cells
(D) Myofibril
274. Erythma chronicum migrans is seen in :
(A) Lyme’s disease
(B) Glucagonoma
(C) Gastrinoma
(D) Phaeochromocytoma
275. Which among the following is not pre-malignant :
(A) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Peutz-jeghers syndrome
(C) Villous adenoma
(D) Familial adenomatoses polyopsis
276. In extensive small bowel resection, all are seen except :
(A) Gastric hyposecretion
(B) Decreased protein absorption
(C) Decreased protein absorption
(D) Oxalate stone increased
277. The treatment of gall stone ileus is :
(A) Cholecystectomy alone
(B) Removal of obstruction
(C) Cholecystectomy, closure of fistula and removal of stone by enterotomy
(D) Cholecystectomy with closure of fistula
278. Fecal soiling in children is most commonly due to :
(A) Hirschsprung’s disease
(B) Chronic constipation
(C) Rectal atresia
(D) None of the above
279. Tear-drop bladder is seen in :
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Hunner’s ulcer
(C) Perivescial hemorrhage with rupture
(D) Perivescial hemorrhage without rupture
280. True about melanoma of the anal canal is :
(A) Presents usually as anal bleeding
(B) AP resection gives better result than local excision
(C) Local recurrence at the same site after resection
(D) Radiosensitive
281. The CNS tumor present with calcification :
(A) Oligodendroglioma
(B) Astrocytoma
(C) Medulloblastoma
(D) Phaeochromocytoma
282. The ideal treatment for hemothorax of blood loss greater than 500 ml/hour:
(A) Wait and watch
(B) Needle aspiration
(C) Intercostal tube
(D) Open thoracotomy with ligation of vessel
283. Which among the following does not lead to pigment gallstones:
(A) TPN
(B) Clonorchis sinensis
(C) Hemolytic anemia
(D) Intercostal tube
284. All are indicators of malingnancy in mammography except :
(A) Nodular calcification
(B) Speckled margin
(C) Attenuated architecture
(D) Irregular mass
285. Seminoma correspond to :
(A) Choriocarcinoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Granulosa tumor
(D) Leutal cyst
286. Placental alkaline phosphatase is marker of:
(A) Theca cell tumour
(B) Teratoma
(C) Choriocarcinoma
(D) Seminoma
287. In hypospadias all are seen except:
(A) Hooded penis
(B) Dorsal chordee
(C) Spatulated glans
(D) Meatal stenosis
288. Epulis arises from:
(A) Epulis arises from:
(B) Root of teeth
(C) Gingiva
(D) Pulp
289. All predisposes to oral cancer except :
(A) Erythroplakia
(B) Leukoplakia
(C) Submucosal fibrosis
(D) Lichen planus
290. About mallory weiss syndrome true is
(A) Gastrointestinal reflux
(B) Obestiy
(C) Tumour at gastroesophageal junction
(D) Seen in alcoholics
291. Not included in charcot’s triad is:
(A) Fever with chills
(B) Pain abdomen
(C) Shock
(D) Jaundice
292. In non hemolytic jaundice, urobillinogen is seen in:
(A) Obstructive jaundice
(B) Hepatic fibrosis
(C) Fatty liver
(D) Infective hepatitis
293. Specific marker for prostatic cancer is
(A) Alkaline phosphatase
(B) Prostate specific antigen
(C) Acid phosphatase
(D) CA 125
294. Which is true about intestinal tuberculosis:
(A) Common site is appendix
(B) Causes intestinal perforation
(C) Commonly associated with pulmonary TB
(D) Caused by mycobacterium TB
295. Curling ulcer is seen in :
(A) Burns
(B) Head injury
(C) Trauma
(D) Surgical operations
296. Late deaths in burns is due to :
(A) Sepsis
(B) Hypovolemia
(C) Contractures
(D) Neurogenic shock
297. All are recongnised tumour markers except :
(A) Beta HCG
(B) Beta 2 microglobulin
(C) Alpha fetoprotein
(D) Acid phosphatase
298. Connective tissue disorder which is associated with gastroesophageal reflux is :
(A) SLE
(B) Sceleroderma
(C) Behcet’s syndrome
(D) Dermatomyositis
299. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma arises form:
(A) Myothelium
(B) Epithelium
(C) Acinus
(D) Mucin secreting and epidermal cells
300. Tt. for pleomorphic adenoma is:
(A) Total parotidectomy
(B) Superficial parotidectomy
(C) Enucleation
(D) Conservative managment
301. True about papillary carcinoma thyroid is:
(A) Comprises 10-15% of all thyroid cancers
(B) Cells have intranuclear vacuolation
(C) Amyloid deposition seen
(D) Encapsulated
302. All are true associations of ulcerative colitis except :
(A) Ertythema nodosum
(B) Circinate balanitis
(C) Scelrosing cholangitis
(D) Aphtohous stomatitis
303. All are seen in hemobilia except :
(A) Shock
(B) Colicky pain
(C) Melena
(D) Jaundice
304. All are true about cystic hygroma except :
(A) Aspiration is diagnostic
(B) 50% present at birth
(C) Presents as posterior cervical swelling
(D) Sequstration of lymphatic tissue
305. Most common artery involved in perforation of duodenal ulcer is :
(A) Gastroduodenal artery
(B) Gastroepiploic artery
(C) Rt gastric artery
(D) Pancreaticoduodenal A
306. True about appendicular rupture is A/E:
(A) Common in extremes of age
(B) Common in people with Fecolith obstruction
(C) Early antibiotics prevent rupture
(D) Appendicectomy is done always in presence of rupture
307. MC abdominal organ injured in blunt trauma abdomen is:
(A) Spleen
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Stomach
308. Spastic ileus is seen in :
(A) Porphyria
(B) Retroperitoneal abscess
(C) Hypokalemia
(D) MI
309. Recurrent pain abdomen with intestinal obstruction and mass passes per rectum goes in favour of :
(A) Internal herniation
(B) Stricutre
(C) Strangulated hernia
(D) Intussusception
310. Pyloric stenosis with severe vomiting presents as:
(A) Hypokalemia hypochloremia with alkaline urine
(B) Hyperkalemia hypochloremia with alkaline urine
(C) Hypokalemia hypochloremia with acidic urine
(D) Hyperkalemia hypochloremia with acidic urine
311. Gleasons’ classification is applied for:
(A) Prostate carcinoma
(B) Lung carcinoma
(C) Ewing’s sarcoma
(D) CA rectum
312. Pancost tumour is seen with cancer of:
(A) Apical lobe of lung
(B) Lingual lobe
(C) Thyroid
(D) Pyriform fossa
313. 4 cm breast tumour with 2 ipsilateral involved lymphonodes come under:
(A) T₃ N₁
(B) T₃ N₂
(C) T₂ N₁
(D) T₄ N₁
314. Spigelian hernia :
(A) Lateral to rectus abdominis
(B) Obturator internus
(C) Lies above int. oblique
(D) Common in men
315. Pt with recurrent diarrhea, pseudopolyp, lead pipe appearance on Ba enema has :
(A) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Crohn’s disease
(C) Irritable bowel syndrome
(D) Short bowel syndrome
316. True about Berry-aneurysm is following except :
(A) Associated with familial syndrome
(B) Most common site of rupture is apex which causes SAH
(C) Wall contains smooth muscle fibroblasts
(D) 90% occurs at ant. part of circulation at branching point
317. Risk factor for carcinoma stomach are all except :
(A) Blood group A
(B) Post gastrectomy
(C) Old peptic ulcer
(D) Atrophic gastritis
318. Head & neck involvement in burns in infant is :
(A) 9%
(B) 18%
(C) 27%
(D) 32%
319. Gold standard test in insulinoma :
(A) CT scan
(B) Ultrasound
(C) MRI
(D) Arteriography
320. Dysphagia lusoria is due to :
(A) Oesophageal webs
(B) Abnormalities of Arch of Aorta
(C) Aortic aneurysm
(D) Enlarged left atrium
321. Commonest complication of pancreatic pseudocyst :
(A) Rupture
(B) Infection
(C) Pressure on viscera
(D) Hemorrhage
322. Mucinous ascites is seen in :
(A) Stomach Ca
(B) TB
(C) Nephrotic syndrome
(D) Cirrhosis
323. In achalasia cardia, true is :
(A) Pressure at distal end ↑ with no peristalsis
(B) Low pr. at LES with no periotalins
(C) Pressure > 50 mm Hg with peristalsis
(D) None
324. Recurrent obstruction, mass per rectum and diarrhea in child :
(A) Intussusception
(B) Rectal prolapse
(C) Internal hernia
(D) Haemorrhoids
325. 4 cm breast nodule with ipsilatral mobile LN in axilla staging :
(A) T₂N₁M₀
(B) T₂N2M₀
(C) T₁N₁M₀
(D) T₁N₁M₀
326. Patterson Brown Kelly syndrome is characterized by all except :
(A) Lower oesophageal web
(B) Iron deficiency andema
(C) Common in adult female
(D) premalignant
327. Gleason’s staging is done in :
(A) Ca prostate
(B) Ca Pancreas
(C) CA kidney
(D) Ca Cx
328. 5 H. indole acetic acid in urine is seen in :
(A) Carcinoid
(B) Pheochromocytoma
(C) Hirschsprung’s disease
(D) Wilm’s tumor
329. Dissection of which artery is seen in pregnancy :
(A) Carotid artery
(B) Aorta
(C) Coronary A
(D) Femoral artery
330. Peripheral arterial occlusion (sudden onset) is characterized all expect :
(A) Paresthesia
(B) Rubor
(C) Pallor
(D) Pain
331. Most diagnostic of pulmonary emboli is :
(A) Segmental perfusion defects corresponding to abnormal chest X-ray
(B) Multiple segmental perfusion defect with normal chest X-ray and ventilation scan
(C) Normal chest X-ray
(D) Tenting of diaphragm
332. A patient presents with dysphagia of 4 weeks duration. Now he is able to swallow liquid food only. Which of the following is the one investigation to be done :
(A) Barium studies are the best in this case
(B) Upper GI endoscopy is to be done
(C) Upper GI endoscopy is to be done
(D) Esophageal manometry
333. Which of the following is the most common site for the carcinoma of pancreas :
(A) Head
(B) Ampulla
(C) Body
(D) Tail
334. Neuroblastomas – good prognostic factor is :
(A) N-myc amplification
(B) RAS oncogene
(C) Hyperdiploidy
(D) Translocations
335. All are elaborated by small cell carcinoma lung, except :
(A) ADH
(B) ACTH
(C) 5-HT
(D) Noradrenaline
336. Mucinous peritoneal fluid is found in “
(A) Carcinoma stomach
(B) Leimyosarcoma
(C) Teratoma ovary
(D) Mucocele of appendix
337. Post splenectomy sepsis is common in :
(A) ITP
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Hereditary spherocytosis
(D) Trauma
338. Treatment of choice in mixed tumor of parotid gland :
(A) Superficial parotidectomy
(B) Total parotidectomy
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) Chemotherapy
339. Mismatched blood transfusion in anaesthesia presents as :
(A) Hyperthermia & hypertension
(B) Hypotension & bleeding from site of wound
(C) Bradycardia & hypotension
(D) Tachyacardia and hypertension
340. True about acute pancreatitis a/e :
(A) Gallstones & alcohol are common causes
(B) Sr. amylase levels increase after 72 hr. of attack
(C) Can cause secondary pleural effusion
(D) Can present with shock
341. Artery to bleed in duodenal ulcer h’ge :
(A) Spleenic 
(B) Gastroduodenal
(C) Left gastric
(D) Sup. mesenteric
342. Treatment of chronic cholecystitis :
(A) Cholecystectomy
(B) Choledochocystectomy
(C) Feculant
(D) Conservative
343. True about mesenteric venous thrombosis :
(A) Peritoneal signs are always present
(B) Invariably involves long length of bowel
(C) I.V. Heparin is the treatment of choice
(D) Surgery can lead to short-bowel syndrome
344. True about enterocutaneous fistula :
(A) High output fistula drains 500 ml/day
(B) Malignancy is most common cause
(C) Fluid & electrolyte loss can occur
(D) No skin damage
345. True regarding cancer colon :
(A) Obstructive features are more common with right colon
(B) 40% cases at presentation show liver metastasis
(C) Resection possible in 25% cases
(D) More common in AIDS patients
346. True about stomach carcinoma :
(A) Weightloss is commonest feature
(B) Secondaries are most commonly seen in peritoneum & omentum
(C) Lymphatic & hematogenous spread are rare
(D) Radioresistant
347. Predisposition for carcinoma ethmoid sinus is by :
(A) Wood dust
(B) Thorotrast
(C) Vinyl chloride
(D) Nitrosamines
348. True about burns :
(A) Hyperglycemia is seen in early burns
(B) Child with burns should have damp dressing
(C) Chemical powder burns should be kept dry
(D) 3rd degree burns are painfull
349. Investigation of choice for blunt trauma abdomen in unstable patient :
(A) X-ray abdomen
(B) USG
(C) Diagnostic Peritoneal lavage
(D) MRI
350. Which of the following is used in the treatment of thyroid malignancy :
(A) 131I
(B) 125I
(C) 99Tc
(D) 32p
351. True about left sided colon carcinoma :
(A) Anemia
(B) Obstruction
(C) Melena
(D) Feculant
352. True about pseudocyst of pancreas :
(A) Is a true cyst
(B) Common with penetrating trauma abdomen
(C) Treated with cystogastrostomy if size > 2 cm
(D) Contains a wall of firbrous granulation tissue
353. Which is true regarding Trendelenburg operations :
(A) Stripping of the superficial varicose vein
(B) Flush ligation of the superficial varicose vein
(C) Ligation of the perforators
(D) Ligation of small tributaries at the distal end of Superficial varicose vein
354. A 30 year old female comes with hypovolumic shock after blunt trauma of the abdomen. An emergency USG of abdomen shows splenic tear. Which of the following is to be done :
(A) CECT of the abdomen
(B) Diagnostic lavage of peritoneal cavity before proceeding
(C) Monitor the patient to assess for progression
(D) Immediate surgery
355. Sphincter saving surgery for rectal malignancy is not done in :
(A) Age over 50 years
(B) Lymph node involvement
(C) Infiltration of lamina propria
(D) More than 4 cm from anal verge
356. Breast carcinoma is seen in women who :
(A) Consume fatty food
(B) Have early menopause
(C) Smoke
(D) Have nultiple sex-parterns
357. Migratory thrombophlebitis is seen most commonly with :
(A) Pancreatic ca
(B) Testicular ca
(C) Gastric ca
(D) Breast ca
358. Abdomino-perineal resection is done in colorectal Ca on the basis of :
(A) Age of patient
(B) Distance from anal-verge
(C) Fixity of tomor
(D) Hepatic metastasis
359. True of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease I and II respectively :
(A) Chromosomes 16 and 5
(B) 16 and 4
(C) 11 and 5
(D) 11 and 4
360. CA-125 is associated with :
(A) Colon ca
(B) Breast ca
(C) Ovarian ca
(D) Bronchogenic ca
361. In the management of thyroglossal cyst :
(A) Central portion of hyoid excised
(B) Sternothyroid muscle dissected
(C) Isthmusectomy e subtotal thyroidectomy
(D) Strap muscle of neck
362. Posterior urethral valve is diagnosed by :
(A) MCU
(B) Cystograph
(C) Retrograde cystography
(D) Nephrogram
363. True about gall stones :
(A) More common in female
(B) Gall stones, hiatus hernia, CBD stones form Saints triad
(C) Limely bile precipitated
(D) Lithotripsy always done
364. A patient having multiple Gall stones and CBD shows 8 mm dilation and 4 stones in CBD, the best treatment modalities are :
(A) Cholecystectomy with choledecholithotomy done at same setting at same setting
(B) ESWL
(C) Cholecystectomy and wait for ERCP
(D) Sphicterotomy and then cholecystectomy
365. Suprasellar calcification with polyuria seen in :
(A) Langerhan cell histocytosis
(B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Pinealoma
(D) Craniopharyngioma
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