National Insurance Company Limited Assistant Examination-2015 Online Examination Held on April 26, 2016
Part I Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In these questions, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true
(b) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
(c) if both conclusions are true
(d) if only conclusion II is true
(e) if either conclusion I or II is true
1. Statements Some jars are bowls.
Some spoons are jars.
Conclusions I. No bowl is a spoon.
II. Some jars are definitely not bowls.
2. Statements Some paints are brushes.
No brush is a canvas.
Conclusions I. No paint is canvas.
II. All brushes are paints.
3. Statements All roots are flowers.
No root is a thorn.
Conclusions I. No thorn is a flower.
II. All flowers are thorns.
4. Statements All watches are clocks.
Some watches are towers.
Conclusions I. At least some clocks are towers.
II. Some towers are definitely not clocks.
5. Statements All buses are trucks.
All cars are buses.
Conclusions I. All cars are trucks.
II. All buses are cars.
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions :
R # T U 3 D $ J @ B E © W 1 A F % P 2 4 Q I N 6 M ⋆ Z 5
6. If all the numbers in the given arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be ninth from t he right end?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) B
(d) P
(e) None of these
7. Which of the following will be the sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?
(a) J
(b) Q
(c) N
(d) D
(e) None of these
8. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the thirteenth to the left of Q in the given arrangement?
(a) W
(b) @
(c) U
(d) ⋆
(e) None of these
9. How many such vowels are there in the given arrangement,, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) B @ 9
(b) P % 4
(c) N I M
(d) 3 T $
(e) A 1 %
11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OVERSEE each of which has as m any letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) None
(e) More than three
Directions (Q. Nos. 12-16) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true
(b) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
(c) if both conclusions are true
(d) if only conclusion II is true
(e) if either conclusion I or II is true
12. Statement S ≤ T = E ≤ P = N≤ G
Conclusions I. G > S II. G = S
13. Statement B > R ≥ R A = N < D ≤ S
Conclusions I. B > N II. S ≥A
14. Statement T ≥ I < G ≤ E = R < S
Conclusions I. R > T II. S > I
15. Statements U > B ≥ M ≤ G; L < Y ≤ M
Conclusions I. U > L II. G ≤ L
16. Statement P < R ≤ A ≤ I > S ≥ E
Conclusions I. P < I II. E ≤ A
Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table with equal distances between each other, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. D sits third to the right of E. A sits second to the right of D. H sits to the immediate left of C. F sits second to the left of H. G is an immediate neighbour of E.
17. Which of the following is true with respect to B as per the given arrangement?
(a) All the given statements are true.
(b) Only one person sits between B and A.
(c) Only two people sit between B and G.
(d) Only three people sit between B and H.
(e) F sits third to the left of B.
18. Who amongst the following represents the immediate neighbours of D?
(a) H, F
(b) B, G
(c) B, F
(d) F, G
(e) C, F
19. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) DE
(b) CF
(c) FG
(d) HD
(e) AC
20. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in anti-clockwise direction, starting from A, the positions of how many (excluding A), would remain unchanged?
(a) Four
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) None
(e) Two
21. Who amongst the following sits third to the left of C?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) B
(d) G
(e) F
22. Among five people J, K, L, M and N (each running at a different speed), who ran at the third fastest speed?
M run faster than L, but slower than K. J ran slower than only one person. L did not run at the slowest speed.
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) M
(c) N
(d) L
(e) K
23. T is married to N. R is the sister of N. P is the father of R. J is married to P. How is T related to J?
(a) Brother
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Son-in-law
(d) Son
(e) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-28) Study the information and answer the given questions.
‘sudden change is visible’ is written as ‘bo st tz rk’
‘visible change in approach’ is written as ‘xu tz yi bo’
‘change is good also’ is written as ‘cd rk bo en’
‘want good approach now’ written as ‘pm qs yi cd’
(All the codes are two-letter codes only)
24. What is the code for ‘sudden’ in the given code language?
(a) bo
(b) rk
(c) st
(d) xu
(e) lz
25. Which of the following may represents code for ‘visible in general’ in the given code language?
(a) lz yi jr
(b) qs tz xu
(c) cd xu pm
(d) xu bo tz
(e) xu ws tz
26. Which of the following represents the code for ‘approach is’ in the given code language?
(a) xu yi
(b) pm yi
(c) rk tz
(d) rk yi
(e) pm tz
27. What does the code ‘qs’ stand for in the given code language?
(a) is
(b) good
(c) Either ‘now’ or ‘want’
(d) Either ‘want’ or ‘good’
(e) approach
28. What is the code for ‘good’ in the given code language?
(a) en
(b) cd
(c) pm
(d) rk
(e) yi
Directions (Q. Nos. 29-33) Study the following information and answer the given questions :
Eight people (A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H) live on eight different floors of a building not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 8.
A lives on one of the floors above D. Only four people live between A and D. E lives immediately above D’s floor. H lives on an odd numbered floor below E. Only three people live between H and G. C lives immediately below B’s floor.
29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) GB
(b) EH
(c) DC
(d) FG
(e) BE
30. Which of the following statements is true, as per the given arrangement?
(a) Only three people live below C’s floor.
(b) B lives on the floor numbered 7
(c) None of the given statements is true.
(d) Only two people live between E and F.
(e) H lives on the floor numbered 3.
31. D lives on which of the following floor numbers?
(a) Floor number 8
(b) Floor number 6
(c) Floor number 7
(d) Floor number 1
(e) Floor number 3
32. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 2?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) D
(d) C
(e) G
33. Who amongst the following lives immediately above E’s floor?
(a) G
(b) D
(c) A
(d) F
(e) C
Directions (Q. Nos. 34-35) Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
Point C is 12 m to the West of point D. Point F is 8 m to the North of point D. Point Y is 5 m to the East of point F. Point Y is 14 m to the North of point N. Point N is 5 m to the East of point S.
34. Towards which direction is point C with respect to point N?
(a) South-West
(b) South
(c) North-West
(d) South-East
(e) North-East
35. Which of the following points is/are exactly 6 m away from point S?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) Y
(d) F
(e) C and F
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) The following questions are based on five words given below :
URN DEN MAT FOR SKI
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful words.)
36. If the positions of the first and the second alphabet in each word is interchanged, which of the following will from a meaningful English word?
(a) SKI and MAT
(b) URN
(c) DEN
(d) FOR
(e) URN and MAT
37. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right end?
(a) SKI
(b) FOR
(c) DEN
(d) MAT
(e) URN
38. If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will an alphabet appear twice?
(a) Three
(b) None
(c) More than three
(d) One
(e) Two
39. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the first letter of the word which is second from the right and first letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) None
(d) Two
(e) Five
40. If the second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words will be formed in which two or more vowels appear (same or different vowels)?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) None
Part II English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) In each of the following questions, a sentence with four words is bold type is given. One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. That word is your answer. If all the words given bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of sentence, mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.
41. The guessed took undue advantage of our hospitality and refused to leave.
(a) guessed
(b) undue
(c) advantage
(d) hospitality
(e) All correct
42. As days passed by, the health of the old man gradually weakened.
(a) passed
(b) health
(c) gradually
(d) weakened
(e) All correct
43. On seeing the ripe fruit kept in the bowl he could not resist the urge take a byte out of it.
(a) bowl
(b) resist
(c) urge
(d) byte
(e) All correct
44. He vondered how the lizard had managed to survive behind the wall for so many years.
(a) vondered
(b) lizard
(c) managed
(d) survive
(e) All correct
45. It was a crowded flight and one of its passengers was a beautiful lay who had bordered with a lot of luggage.
(a) crowded
(b) flight
(c) passengers
(d) bordered
(e) All correct
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.
(A) It was always breaking its string, sitting down on the tops of houses, getting stuck in trees and refusing to rise higher than a yard from the ground.
(B) As a result, they were obliged to fly day and night for a living and were never able to give any time to their children or to bring them up properly.
(C) Perhaps, they were very poor people, just made of newspaper and little bits of common string knotted together.
(D) I have often sat and thought about this behaviour of the kite and wondered who its father and mother.
(E) It was the most tiresome kite in the world.
46. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) D
47. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
48. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) D
49. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
50. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) D
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-60) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
King Harish loved his people and look after the affairs of the kingdom well. One day he and his Minister Chandan took a stroll through the market. People were buying and selling and there were no beggars to be seen anywhere. The King was delighted to see the prosperity of his kingdom. He turned to Chandan and said, “I want to check firsthand how content my people are. Summon people from all walks of life to court.” The next day, the King arrived at court and said, “As you King I want to know if all of you are happy. Do you have enough for your needs?” The citizens looked at each other, thought and one-by-one came forward to say that their kitchens have enough food, their trade was going well, their wells were overflowing and the King and kept them safe.
The King was pleased at this but Chandan had frown and he whispered something to the King. The King was astonished but seeing Chandan was serious he turned to the court and made an announcement, “I am delighted you are all happy.
Tomorrow I want all the happy people to gather at the gate of the royal garden. You have to enter the garden from the main gate, walk across and meet me by the gate at the rear of the garden. Each of you will be given a sack and you can pick whatever your heart desires.” The crowd was excited as no one was usually allowed access to the King’s garden which was said to be filled with all kinds of beautiful and strange plants.
The next day, everyone gathered at the gate of the palace garden well before time. At the appointed time, the guards opened the gates and handed out sacks. Citizens began roaming around the garden and filled their sacks with the juicy apples, pomegranates, grapes and mangoes hanging from trees. But as they walked further into the garden they saw trees laden with gold and silver fruits.
They began madly filling their sacks with these precious fruits. Everyone forgot that they had enough for their needs at home and the fruits they had picked earlier were thrown on the ground-forgotten and left to rot. Then with their sacks filled to the top the citizens made their way to the rear gate but they found a rushing stream blocking their path. The current was strong and as there were no boats, the only way to cross was to swim across.
But how could they swim with laden sacks. All stood by the stream except one young men who simply abandoned his sack and swam across. Angry and unhappy the others refused to cross. The King was sad and said, “Yesterday all of you said you were happy but today you are distressed. “Turning to the young man who was smiling he asked, “Tell me why are you not sad?” “Sir, I picked some tasty fruits for my precious daughter but when I saw no other way across. I did not think twice about leaving these behind I am happy you let us wander around in your garden.”
51. Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word ‘Serious’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Minor
(b) Unimportant
(c) Joking
(d) Acute
(e) Slight
52. What was Chandan’s reaction to the people’s claim that they were happy?
(a) He suspected it wasn’t true and wanted to prove it to everyone.
(b) He was thrilled and urged the King to reward the people.
(c) He was jealous of their happiness and poisoned the King’s mind against them.
(d) He knew they were lying and had them punished severely.
(e) Other than those given as options
53. Choose the word is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Well’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Much
(b) Healthy
(c) Glowing
(d) Fine
(e) Thriving
54. Why were people happy to hear they could spend a day in the palace garden?
(a) They were keen to spend the day with the King.
(b) They were starving and would get the chance to get exquisite fruits.
(c) It was an opportunity to rest and spend time with each other.
(d) They were curious to see the garden.
(e) Not clearly mentioned in the passage
55. Which of the following can be said about the young man?
(A) He cared for his daughter.
(B) He was happy with his lot in life.
(C) He insulted and made a fool of the King.
(a) A and B
(b) Only A
(c) Only B
(d) B and C
(e) All of these
56. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(a) The King distrusted his subjects as they were dishonest.
(b) Chandan was more powerful and wiser than the King.
(c) The kingdom was prosperous because the King banished poor people.
(d) The King trusted Chandan and took his counsel.
(e) None of the given statements is true in the context of the passage.
57. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Serious’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Intensely
(b) Incredibly
(c) Wildly
(d) Slowly
(e) Laughingly
58. Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word ‘Strange’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Remarkable
(b) Unseen
(c) Exceptional
(d) Artificial
(e) Familiar
59. Why did people throw away the bags of fresh fruit they had picked?
(a) They realized that the King had tricked them.
(b) They found that these were too heavy to take across the river.
(c) They realized that the King may be angry if he saw how greedy they were.
(d) They discovered that the fruit looked good but was rotten on the inside.
(e) They were tempted by something more valuable.
60. Which of the following can be the lesson of the story?
(a) Intelligence is the greatest virtue.
(b) True happiness comes from within not from possessions.
(c) Think before you speak your mind, others may get into trouble.
(d) Be ambitious and aim for the best things in life.
(e) Nothing is given for free, everything has a cost.
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Which of the following five words should fill the blanks in the sentences to make them grammatically and meaningfully correct?
61. We don’t want to make your journey …………. by making you sit next to someone with whom you are not comfortable.
(a) successful
(b) unpleasant
(c) favourite
(d) worthy
(e) tired
62. All the children were …………… as the school had announced an unexpected holiday.
(a) lone
(b) ecstatic
(c) joy
(d) danced
(e) requesting
63. Since Momo’s hunger could not be satisfied, he ………… to eat, everything around.
(a) begins
(b) started
(c) commence
(d) want
(e) make
64. The boy felt ………….. after long day’s work.
(a) tire
(b) ached
(c) exhausted
(d) sleeping
(e) home
65. One day, ……….. serving dinner, the old man whose hands and legs shivered, split food on the table.
(a) since
(b) bow
(c) while
(d) then
(e) for
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
66. A fox watched a/ wild board was sharpened / his tusks on the /trunk of a huge tree.
(a) A fox watched a
(b) wild board was sharpened
(c) his tusks on the
(d) trunk of a huge tree
(e) No error
67. A fisherman had / been fishing for/ a long time but / without luckily.
(a) A fisherman had
(b) been fishing for
(c) a long time but
(d) without luckily
(e) No error
68. The lazy grasshopper laughed / at the little aunt / as she was / busy gathering food.
(a) The lazy grasshopper laughed
(b) at the little aunt
(c) as she was
(d) busy gathering food
(e) No error
69. In the olden days, the camel / was considered / the much handsome animals/ in the jungle.
(a) In the olden days, the camel
(b) was considered
(c) the much handsome animals
(d) in the jungle
(e) No error
70. The Oak tree always / thought that it was / much stronger than / any other trees in the garden.
(a) The Oak tree always
(b) thought that it was
(c) much stronger than
(d) any other trees in the garden
(e) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-80) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each number, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.
One the Wind and the Sun were quarrelling (71) a petty issue. Both of them (72) to be stronger (73) the other. At last they agreed to have a trial of strength.
“Here comes a traveler. Let us see who can strip him of his cloak,” said the Sun. The Wind agreed and (74) to take the first turn. He blew in the hardest possible way. As a (75), the traveler wrapped his cloak even more (76) around him. Then came the Sun, at first he shone very (77) so, the traveller loosened his cloak from his neck. But then h e went on shining brighter and brighter. The traveler started (78) hot. Soon he took off his cloak and put it in his bag. The Wind had to (79) his (80).
71.
(a) over
(b) in
(c) above
(d) off
(e) across
72.
(a) said
(b) claimed
(c) desire
(d) privileged
(e) state
73.
(a) then
(b) more
(c) than
(d) by
(e) them
74.
(a) picking
(b) select
(c) chose
(d) resolve
(e) wiling
75.
(a) effect
(b) circumstance
(c) conclusion
(d) result
(e) return
76.
(a) staff
(b) deeply
(c) dim
(d) heavy
(e) softer
77.
(a) lighter
(b) mildly
(c) dim
(d) heavy
(e) softer
78.
(a) experiencing
(b) loving
(c) enjoyed
(d) senses
(e) feeling
79.
(a) accept
(b) ask
(c) give
(d) conquer
(e) secure
80.
(a) give
(b) belief
(c) defeat
(d) launch
(e) include
Part III General Awareness
81. The alphabet ‘C’ in the abbreviation CRR stands for
(a) Cash
(b) Currency
(c) Credit
(d) Commercial
(e) Capital
82. The Minister for ‘Food Processing Industries’ in the Union Cabinet, is
(a) Thawar Chand Gehlot
(b) Harsimrat Kaur
(c) Anant Geete
(d) Radha Mohan Singh
(e) Dr. Harsh Vardhan
83. Which of the following Indian universities has a unique tradition of having the incumbent Prime Minister as its Chancellor?
(a) Vishwa Bharati University
(b) Kuruskhetra University
(c) Banaras Hindu University
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru University
(e) Baba Saheb Ambedkar University
84. Who amongst the following holds the majority stake in the share capital of the recently opened ‘Bharatiya Mahila Bank’?
(a) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(b) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(c) Government of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
(e) General Insurance Corporation of India
85. The Brabourne Stadium, which is India’s first permanent sporting venue, is situated in
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Bengaluru
(e) Chennai
86. A representative of the insurance company licensed by the State who solicits, negotiates or effects contact of insurance and provides services to the policyholder for the insurer, is known as
(a) Insurance Trade
(b) Insurance Agent
(c) Insurance Broker
(d) Stock Broker
(e) Insurance Executive
87. Approximately of all anaemia cases worldwide are found to be caused due to
(a) iron deficiency
(b) potassium deficiency
(c) calcium deficiency
(d) iodine deficiency
(e) sodium deficiency
88. The International Worker’s Day (also known as Labour Day) is observed every year on
(a) April 1
(b) May 1
(c) May 31
(d) May 10
(e) April 10
89. ‘Lee Kuan Yew’ who recently died at the age of 91 years, was the founder and first Premier of
(a) Japan
(b) Hong Kong
(c) South Korea
(d) Singapore
(e) Australia
90. The PMJDY, launched by the government of India, is a massive
(a) tribal welfare programme
(b) financial literacy programme
(c) infrastructure development programme
(d) financial inclusion programme
(e) social security programme
91. The largest producer of cotton in the world, is
(a) Malaysia
(b) Mexico
(c) India
(d) Canada
(e) China
92. Who amongst the following has recently been named as the head of the task force set-up by the government of India to define poverty and prepare a roadmap to alleviate it?
(a) Dr. Bimal Jalan
(b) Sindhushree Khullar
(c) Arvind Panagariya
(d) VK Saraswat
(e) Bibek Debroy
93. ‘The Sun’ is a daily tabloid newspaper published in
(a) the USA and Canada
(b) the USA
(c) Russia
(d) Europe
(e) the UK and Ireland
94. An application for obtaining an insurance cover or for obtaining quotations of the premium chargeable, is known as the
(a) Proposal
(b) Brochure
(c) Catalogue
(d) Pamphlet
(e) Prospectus
95. ‘Dublin’ is the national capital of the
(a) Republic of Israel
(b) Republic of Iran
(c) Republic of Iraq
(d) Republic of Ireland
(e) Republic of Iceland
96. ‘Playing It My Way’ is an autobiography of
(a) Yuvraj Singh
(b) Saurav Ganguly
(c) Sunil Gavaskar
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
(e) Kapil Dev
97. Singapore’s Central Bank and Financial Regulatory Authority, is known as
(a) Monetary Authority of Singapore
(b) Reserve Bank of Singapore
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) State Bank of Singapore
(e) Federal Reserve of Singapore
98. The Chutak hydroelectric plant is a run-of-the-river power project on the Suru river (a tributary of Indus) in
(a) Kathua district (Jammu & Kashmir)
(b) Leh district (Jammu & Kashmir)
(c) Baramulla district (Jammu & Kashmir)
(d) Doda district (Jammu & Kashmir)
(e) Kargil district (Jammu & Kashmir)
99. A life insurance policy wherein the policyholder receives a fixed amount at specific intervals throughout the duration of the policy, is known as
(a) Whole Life Plan
(b) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
(c) Money-back Policy
(d) Fixed Term Plan
(e) Double Cover Plan
100. The ‘Bandipur National Park’ established in 1974 as a tiger reserve under ‘Project Tiger’ is located in the Indian State of
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Telangana
(e) Andhra Pradesh
101. According to the recent data compiled by the World Steel Association (WSA), India is ranked as
(a) third largest producer of steel in the world
(b) fourth largest producer of steel in the world
(c) fifth largest producer of steel in the world
(d) largest producer of steel in the world
(e) second largest producer of steel in the world
102. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is an autonomous apex
(a) consultative body
(b) statutory body
(c) advisory body
(d) cooperative body
(e) corporate body
103. Who amongst the following is the first Indian women badminton player to achieve world number one ranking?
(a) Meena Shah
(b) Jwala Gutta
(c) Saiina Nehwal
(d) Sania Mirza
(e) Aditi Mutatkar
104. At the 62nd National Film Awards, the award for the Best Feature Film has been given to the film
(a) Chotushkone
(b) Queen
(c) Mary Kom
(d) Court
(e) Haider
105. The minimum lock-in period under the recently re-launched ‘Kisan Vikas Patra’ scheme, is
(a) one year and six months
(b) one year
(c) two years and six months
(d) two years
(e) two years and three months
106. ‘Aviva India’ is an Indian life insurance company. It is a joint venture between Aviva plc. a British insurance company, and the Indian conglomerate?
(a) Bajaj Group
(b) Dabur Group
(c) Kotak Mahindra Group
(d) Tata Group
(e) Bharati Group
107. ‘Steve Smith’ is associated with the game of
(a) Cricket
(b) hockey
(c) football
(d) tennis
(e) wrestling
108. ‘Itanagar’ is the capital of the Indian State of
(a) Assam
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Tripura
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
(e) Manipur
109. ‘Kedarnath Main’ and ‘Kedarnath Dome’ are two mountains in the Gangotri Group of Peaks in the Indian State of
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Meghalaya
(e) Jammu & Kashmir
110. Which of the following organizations has recently been selected for the Gandhi Peace Prize 2014?
(a) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
(b) Indian Space Research Organization
(c) Satish Dhawan Space Centre
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology
111. The person, corporation or trust named in the insurance policy as the recipient of insurance proceeds upon the death of the life insured, is known as
(a) Key man
(b) Franchisee
(c) Insured
(d) Nominee
(e) Beneficiary
112. Who amongst the following has recently been conferred the ‘Stockholm Water Prize 2015’ for his innovative water restoration efforts and extraordinary courage to empower communities in Indian villages?
(a) Akhilesh Yadav
(b) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(c) Naseeruddin Shah
(d) Rajendra Singh
(e) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
113. The ‘World Food Programme’ is the food assistance branch of the United Nations and is the world’s largest humanitarian organization addressing hunger and food security. It is headquartered in
(a) Paris (France)
(b) Vienna (Austria)
(c) New York (USA)
(d) Geneva (Switzerland)
(e) Rome (Italy)
114. Which of the following institutes, presided over by the Union Minister of Agriculture, is an autonomous body responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
(c) Indian Institute of Agriculture Research and Education
(d) Institute of Agricultural Research in India
(e) Indian Council of Agricultural Research and Education
115. With the government notifying changes in the Public Provident Scheme (PPF), investors can now deposit up to
(a) Rs 1.5 lakh annually
(b) Rs 1.00 lakh monthly
(c) Rs 1.5 lakh quarterly
(d) Rs 1.00 lakh quarterly
(e) Rs 1.00 lakh annually
116. An account can be opened under the recently launched ‘Sukanya Samridhi Y Yojana’ at any time from the birth of a girl child till she attains the age of
(a) fifteen years
(b) eighteen years
(c) twenty-one years
(d) thirteen years
(e) ten years
117. An unstamped document issued in advance by an insurance company pending the issue of the policy, which is normally required if the policy cannot, for some reason or other, be issued straight away, is known as a
(a) Commercial Invoice
(b) Covering Letter
(c) Draft Policy
(d) Cover Note
(e) Pro Term Policy
118. The official currency of Philippines, is
(a) Philippine Ringgit
(b) Philippine Shekel
(c) Philippine Peso
(d) Philippine Won
(e) Philippine Riyal
119. The ‘NPS’ launched by the government of India with effect from January 1, 2004 is a defined-contribution
(a) Mutual Fund System
(b) Accident Insurance Scheme
(c) Pension System
(d) Life Insurance System
(e) Fixed Deposit Scheme
120. Who amongst the following was the Brand Ambassador for the 2015 ICC World Cup tournament?
(a) Shane Warne (Australia)
(b) Brian Lara (West Indies)
(c) Sachin Tendulkar (India)
(d) Steve Waugh (Australia)
(e) Betty Wilson (Australia)
Part IV Numerical Aptitude
121. In 2004, the total monthly salary of A and B together was Rs 18000. In 2005, monthly salary of A and B increased by 14% and 20% respectively from previous year. After the given increment, A’s salary became 76% of B’s salary. What was A’s salary in 2004 (i.e. before the mentioned increment of 2005)?
(a) Rs 7500
(b) Rs 8000
(c) Rs 6500
(d) Rs 8500
(e) Rs 6000
Directions (Q. Nos. 122-126) Refer to the table and answer the given questions :
122. If the number of projects handled by company A increased by 25% from 2008 to 2009 and the number of projects handled by company E decreased by 35% from 2008 to 2009, then what was the total number of projects handled by companies A and E together in 2009?
(a) 377
(b) 381
(c) 393
(d) 363
(e) 369
123. Number of projects handled by company E increased by what percent from 2004 to 2006?
(a) 65%
(b) 55%
(c) 57.5%
(d) 52.5%
(e) 60%
124. All the given companies handled only two types of projects during all the given years-Governmental and Non-governmental. If the respective ratio between total number of Governmental projects and Non-governmental projects handled by all the given companies together in 2007 is 13 : 8, then total how many Governmental projects were handled by all the given companies together in 2007?
(a) 533
(b) 494
(c) 585
(d) 547
(e) 559
125. What is the difference between average number of projects handled by company B in 2004 and 2005 together and average number projects handled by company D in 2007 and 2008 together?
(a) 52
(b) 43
(c) 54
(d) 48
(e) 44
126. Out of the total number of projects handled by company C during all the given years together, 61% were Governmental projects and the remaining were Non-governmental projects. What is the total number of Non-governmental projects handled by company C during all the given y ears together?
(a) 321
(b) 373
(c) 351
(d) 339
(e) 343
Directions (Q. Nos. 127-131) What will come in place of question marks in the given numbers series?
127. 6 11 31 121 601 ?
(a) 3620
(b) 3000
(c) 3606
(d) 3601
(e) 3005
128. 8 16 64 384 ? 30720
(a) 2064
(b) 2160
(c) 2564
(d) 3102
(e) 3072
129. 101 103 109 121 141 ?
(a) 154
(b) 198
(c) 166
(d) 171
(e) 180
130. 2 14 38 86 ? 374
(a) 182
(b) 176
(c) 216
(d) 194
(e) 252
131. 10 28 63 132 252 ?
(a) 458
(b) 356
(c) 480
(d) 440
(e) 340
132. An interest of Rs 8384 is received when a certain sum is invested for 4 years in Scheme A which offers simple interest at 8% per annum. When the same sum of money is invested for 6 years in scheme B which also offers simple interest at a certain rate, the amount received is Rs 39562, what is the rate of interest offered by scheme B?
(a) 8.5%
(b) 7.25%
(c) 7.5%
(d) 8.25%
(e) 9.5%
133. A vessel was containing 80 L of pure milk. 16 L of pure milk was taken out and replaced with equal amount of water. 16 L of newly formed mixture of water and milk was taken out and then 24 L of water was added to the mixture. What is the respective ratio between the quantity of milk and water in the final mixture?
(a) 34 : 23
(b) 34 : 21
(c) 28 : 23
(d) 32 : 21
(e) 32 : 23
134. Pihu’s monthly income is Rs 39500. She spends 9/20 her monthly income on household expenditures and 24% of the monthly income on her children’s school fees. If 40% of the remaining monthly income she donates to NGO, what is the amount left with her in a month? (If there is no other expenditure)
(a) Rs 7167
(b) Rs 7594
(c) Rs 7862
(d) Rs 7347
(e) Rs 7025
135. A group of workers could complete a piece of work in 84 days. If there were 6 more workers, it would have taken 12 days less to finish the same piece of work. What was the actual strength of workers?
(a) 42
(b) 36
(c) 48
(d) 32
(e) 40
136. A retailer bought 30 kg of rice at a discount of 20% on the market price. Besides, he was given 8 kg of rice free of cost, by the wholesaler for purchasing a bulk quantity. If the retailer sold the entire quantity of rice at the marked price to his customers, then what was his profit percent?
(a) 
(b)
(c) 
(d) 
(e) 
137. X is greater than Y by 12 and the respective ratio between X and Y is 3 : 2. What is the sum of third number Z and X, if Z is 5/15 of Y?
(a) 45
(b) 40.25
(c) 44
(d) 43.5
(e) 48.5
138. Out of Rs 8000, Gopal invested a certain sum in scheme A and the remaining sum in scheme B for two years. Both the schemes offer compound interest (compounded annually). The rates of interest of scheme A and B are 10% per annum and 20% per annum respectively. If the total amount accrued by him after two years from both the schemes together was rs 10600, then what was the amount invested in scheme B?
(a) Rs 4000
(b) Rs 4800
(c) Rs 5200
(d) Rs 3600
(e) Rs 4400
139. The respective ratio of Avinash’s present age and Shashi’s present age is 9 : 5. Avinash is 54 years old at present. How many years ago the respective ratio of their ages was 7 : 3?
(a) 12 yr
(b) 6 yr
(c) 9 yr
(d) 15 yr
(e) 18 yr
140. A car travels from city A to city B at an average speed of 60 km/h and reaches city B on time. If the car reduces its speed to 50 km/h, it takes 16 min more to reach city B. What is the distance between city A and city B?
(a) 80 km
(b) 85 km
(c) 82 km
(d) 84 km
(e) 86 km
141. The diameter of a circle is equal to the diagonal of a square whose area is 784 m12. What is the area of the circle?
(a) 1186 m2
(b) 1232 m2
(c) 1272 m2
(d) 1324 m2
(e) 1264 m2
142. The price of 8 books and 24 registers is Rs 1760. If the price of one book is Rs 124 more than the price of one register, what is the total price of 4 books and 2 registers?
(a) Rs 512
(b) Rs 674
(c) Rs 756
(d) Rs 640
(e) Rs 544
143. What should be added to each of the numbers 13, 17 and 22 so that the resulting numbers are in continued proportion?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 7
(e) 9
Directions (Q. Nos. 144-158) What will come in place of questions marks in the given questions.
144. 
(a) 1.75
(b) 1.5
(c) 0.115
(d) 0.85
(e) 0.95
145. 292 – 435 + ? = 1652 ×5
(a) 27
(b) 23
(c) 19
(d) 29
(e) 17
146. 10(1024.8 + 24.6 – 4.2) =?2 + 48
(a) 105
(b) 120
(c) 110
(d) 130
(e) 102
147. 
(a) 153
(b) 182
(c) 221
(d) 187
(e) 204
148. (0.6 + 0.4 + 10) (0.8 – 0.4 + 10) = ?
(a) 143.8
(b) 114.8
(c) 114.4
(d) 114
(e) 134.4
149. 
(a) 2.99
(b) 4.9
(c) 2.79
(d) 2.3
(e) 3.12
150. (42.25 ÷5 + 16.2 ÷ 0.2) × ? = 1906
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 10
(e) 14
151. (0.8)5 × (0.8)1.5 ÷ (0.8)0.5 = (0.2)3.5 × 2?
(a) 8
(b) 6.5
(c) 7
(d) 7.5
(e) 8.5
152. 6242.52 – 242.2 – ? = 5974.12
(a) 36.2
(b) 24.2
(c) 26.2
(d) 14.2
(e) 16.2
153. 
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 7
154. 
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 8
155. 34 × 80 + ?2 = 7500 – 4251
(a) 27
(b) 17
(c) 21
(d) 33
(e) 23
156. 
(a) 7
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 13
(e) 15
157. 
(a) 80
(b) 42
(c) 32
(d) 60
(e) 62
158. 
(a) 4356
(b) 2916
(c) 3136
(d) 3844
(e) 4096
159. A and B started a business together and the respective ratio between the investments of A and B was 5 : 9. After four months from the start of business, C joined and the respective ratio between the investments of B and C was 3 : 7. If the annual profit earned by them was Rs 7084, then what is C’s share of profit?
(a) Rs 3542
(b) Rs 3742
(c) Rs 3112
(d) Rs 3600
(e) Rs 3412
160. The length and breadth of a rectangular lawn are 36 m and 20 m respectively. It has two roads, each 3 m wide and one parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. What is the cost of gravelling the two roads at the rate of Rs 3?
(a) Rs 471
(b) Rs 499
(c) Rs 459
(d) Rs 501
(e) Rs 477
Part V Computer Knowledge
161. Which one of the following would not be considered as a form of secondary storage?
(a) Floppy disk
(b) Optical disk
(c) RAM
(d) Flash drive
(e) Hard disk
162. The processor is an example of computer
(a) software
(b) output unit
(c) storage
(d) program
(e) hardware
163. A hexadecimal number is a number to the base
(a) 2
(b) 20
(c) 16
(d) 4
(e) 8
164. Java, in computer programming, is a
(a) compiler
(b) hardware device driver
(c) low-level language
(d) high-level language
(e) programming mid-level language
165. Which of the following is not a binary number?
(a) 01010
(b) 11111
(c) 31121
(d) 00000
(e) 110110
166. What does the acronym WAN stand for?
(a) Widest Area Network
(b) Wild Area Network
(c) Wide Area Networking
(d) Wide Area Network
(e) Wider Area Network
167. FTP is an acronym for
(a) File Transaction Protocol
(b) File Truncation Protocol
(c) File Translation Protocol
(d) File Transfer Protocol
(e) File Transmission Protocol
168. Connections to the internet using a phone line and a modem are called …………. connections.
(a) Digital
(b) Dial-up
(c) Broadband
(d) Dish
(e) Both (b) and (c)
169. Documents converted to …………. can be published to the web.
(a) a doc file
(b) HTTP
(c) machine language
(d) HTML
(e) None of these
170. What is the extension of Microsoft Word document?
(a) txt
(b) doc
(c) ppt
(d) xls
(e) psd
171. Outlooks Express is a (n)
(a) protocol
(b) search Engine
(c) browser
(d) network
(e) e-main client
172. Printers and screens in computer system are common form of
(a) processing device
(b) computation units
(c) input units
(d) storage units
(e) output units
173. LSI in chip technology stands for
(a) Large-Scale Internet
(b) Low-Scale Integration
(c) Low-Scale Internet
(d) Local-Scale Integration
(e) Large-Scale Integration
174. ‘Ctrl + N’ in MS Word is used to
(a) save document
(b) start paragraph
(c) open new document
(d) close document
(e) open as saved document
175. Connections to other documents or to other locations within a website, is known as
(a) Hyper connects
(b) Plug-ins
(c) Hyperlinks
(d) Filters
(e) Bots
176. Checking whether a program functions correctly and then correcting errors, it is known as
(a) Error-proofing a program
(b) Default error-checking
(c) De-erroring
(d) Debugging
(e) Decoding
177. Single-word reference to viruses, worms etc, is
(a) harmware
(b) virus
(c) phish
(d) malware
(e) killer war
178. Converting the computer language of 1s and 0s to characters, the can be understood, is known as
(a) Selecting
(b) Creating clip-art
(c) Decoding
(d) Generating
(e) Highlighting
179. Storage that returns its data after the power is turned off, is referred to as
(a) Sequential storage
(b) Direct storage
(c) Non-destructive storage
(d) Non-volatile storage
(e) Volatile storage
180. A ‘compiler’ in computing means
(a) a programmer
(b) a person who compiles source program
(c) keypunch operator
(d) a gaming software
(e) a program which translates source program into object program
181. What is ‘Windows Vista’?
(a) Processor
(b) Output device
(c) Storage device
(d) Input device
(e) Operating system
182. Which of the following is not an operating system used in computer?
(a) Windows 95
(b) Window 2000
(c) MS-DOS
(d) Windows 3.1
(e) Windows 98
183. ‘DTP’ is a computer abbreviation usually means
(a) Digital Transmission Protocol
(b) Desk Top Publishing
(c) Document Type Processing
(d) Document Transfer Processing
(e) Data Type Programming
184. Which of the following is equivalent roughly to 1 billion bytes?
(a) One Kilobyte
(b) One Terabyte
(c) One Gigabyte
(d) One Megabyte
(e) One Megabyte
185. The ALU and Control Unit, jointly is known as
(a) RAM
(b) CPU
(c) PC
(d) EPROM
(e) ROM
186. The ……… port resembles a standard phone jack.
(a) fire wire
(b) modem
(c) peripheral
(d) serial
(e) None of these
187. The ALU performs ……….. operations.
(a) arithmetic
(b) ASCII
(c) algorithm-based
(d) logarithm-based
(e) None of these
188. A group of related records in a database, is called a(n)
(a) Object
(b) Memo
(c) Table
(d) Record
(e) None of these
189. What is the generation of computers which are built with microprocessors?
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) First
(d) Second
(e) Prior to first
190. The digital telecommunication term ISDN is an abbreviation for
(a) Internet Services Data Network
(b) International Services Digital Network
(c) Integrated Services Digital Network
(d) Interactive Standard Dynamic Networks
(e) Integrated Standard Digital Networks
191. How to specify cell range from A10 A 25 in MS Excel?
(a) (A10-A25)
(b) (A10 to A25)
(c) (A10.A25)
(d) (A10-A25)
(e) (A10 A25)
192. It you change Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP, then it is known as
(a) Update
(b) Patch
(c) Pull down
(d) Push up
(e) Upgrade
193. ALU and Control Unit of most of the computers are combined and are embedded on a single
(a) Monochip
(b) Control unit
(c) Microprocessor
(d) ALU
(e) Microfilm
194. QWERTY is used with reference to
(a) printer
(b) monitor
(c) keyboard
(d) mouse
(e) joystick
195. Microsoft Word is an example of
(a) a processing device
(b) an operating system
(c) application software
(d) system software
(e) an input device
196. File type in computing can be represented by
(a) file identifier
(b) file text
(c) file name
(d) file object
(e) file extension
197. Which is a function key?
(a) Esc
(b) F12
(c) Ins
(d) Delete
(e) Ctrl
198. A …………. computer is also referred to as a laptop computer.
(a) mini
(b) notebook
(c) PDA
(d) desktop
(e) tablet
199. …………… is the unauthorized copying and distribution of software.
(a) Cracking
(b) Plagiarism
(c) Software piracy
(d) Software literacy
(e) Hacking
200. Which of the following devices sends and receives data over telephone lines to and from computes?
(a) Expansion slot
(b) Modem
(c) Speaker
(d) Printer
(e) Sound card
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: