SBI Central Recruitment & Promotion Department PO Examination 2015
Directions (Qs. 1 to 6): Study the given information and answer the questions. When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line or words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers).
Input : 14 36 methodology 21 of research 59 crucial 98 very 62 is
Step I : 98 14 36 methodology 21 of research 59 crucial very is 62
Step II : 98 very 14 36 methodology 21 of 59 crucial is research 62
Step III : 59 98 very 14 methodology 21 of crucial is research 62 36
Step IV : 59 98 very of 14 21 crucial is methodology research 62 36
Step V : 21 59 98 very of crucial is methodology research 62 36 14
Step VI : 21 59 98 very of is crucial methodology research 62 36 14
Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input : 65 work in 23 to be 13 89 managed 48 97 load 34 healthy 55 style
1. Which element is exactly between ‘style’ and ‘be’ in second last step of the given arrangement?
(a) work
(b) healthy
(c) 23
(d) load
(e) be
2. What is the position of 48 from the right end in the third step?
(a) sixth
(b) seventh
(c) fifth
(d) eighth
(e) ninth
3. Which of the following is fifth step of the arrangement based on the given input?
(a) 46 65 97 to managed in 23 be 13 load healthy style work 89 55 34
(b) 46 work 65 style 97 in 23 be 13 load healthy 89 managed 55 to 34
(c) 46 65 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 89 55 34
(d) 34 46 55 65 89 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to
(e) 89 55 34 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 46 65 97
4. In which step are the elements ‘be 13 healthy in’ found in the same order ?
(a) third
(b) sixth
(c) fourth
(d) the given order of elements is not found in any step
(e) fifth
5. How many steps will be required to complete the given arrangement based on the given input ?
(a) eight
(b) ten
(c) seven
(d) nine
(e) six
6. Which element is eighth to left of the element which is twelfth from the left end of the third last step?
(a) 97
(b) 23
(c) work
(d) style
(e) to
Directions (Qs. 7-11) : Each question below consists of a question and two statements I & II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
7. All are the five friends F, G, H, I and J, sitting in a straight line facing north?
I. F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between F and H. J sits to immediate left of H. G and J are immediate neighbours of each other.
II. J faces north and sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between J and I. H sits seconds to the right of I, H sits to immediate left of G.
(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.
8. All are the five friends A, B, C, D and E who are sitting around the circular table facing the centre.
I. D sits to immediate right of E. E faces the centre. C sits second to the left of the D. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.
II. B sits to immediate right of C. A sits to immediate left of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of B. E faces the centre. D is not an immediate neighbour of C.
(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.
9. Is C the mother of B?
I. P is the father of A and B. R has only one brother P. C is sister-in-law of R. R is unmarried. F is the mother of R. F has only two children.
II. H has only two children P and R. P is the father of A. B is the only brother of A. R is unmarried. H is the father-in-law of C.
(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.
10. Five movies P, Q, R, S and T are scheduled to be screened from Monday to Friday of the same week. Which move will be screened on Friday?
I. Movie P will be screened on Tuesday. Only two movies will be screened between movies R and S. R will be screened before S.
II. Movie Q will be screened on Wednesday. Only one movie will be screened between movies Q and R. S will be screened immediately before movie T.
(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.
11. How far is point R from point P?
I. A person starts from Point P, walks 15 metres to the south, takes right turn and walks 4 meteres. he then takes left turn and walks 7 metres. He takes left turn again, walks for 4 m and reaches point Q. If the person takes left turn and walks 7 m, he will reach point R.
II. A person starts from Point P, walks 14 m towards the east, takes a left turn and walks 3 m. He then takes a left turn again and walks for 14 m to reach point N. If he takes a right turn from point N and walks 5 m, he will be 27 m away from point R.
(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.
Directions (Qs. 12-17) : Study the information carefully and answer these questions.
Eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T sitting around a circular table are at equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people are facing the centre while some face outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the centre).
Note: Facing the same direction means if one faces the centre then the other also faces the centre and vice versa. Facing opposite direction means if one person faces center then the other faces outside and vice versa.
S sits second to the right of P. P faces the centre. T sits second to the left of S. T is an immediate neighbour of both O and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. M sits second to the left of R. T sits second to the left of N. M sits second to the left of O. T faces the same direction as Q. N sits third to the right of M.
12. Who sits exactly between S and T, when counted from the left of S?
(a) M
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) O
(e) N
13. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Two
(e) Four
14. Who sits second to the right of N?
(a) R
(b) P
(c) T
(d) S
(e) O
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) Q
(d) O
(e) M
16. Which of the following is true regarding T as per the given sitting arrangements ?
(a) T faces the centre
(b) Only two people sit between N & T
(c) Only three people sit between T and P
(d) S sits second to the left of T
(e) Only one persons sits between T and R
17. What is M’s position with respect to T?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Fifth to the right
(c) Third to the right
(d) Third to the left
(e) Fourth to the right
Directions (Qs. 18-23) : In each questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements :
Some prices are costs.
Some costs are amounts.
All amounts are expenses.
Conclusion I :
At least some amounts are prices.
Conclusion II :
All amounts being prices is a possibility.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
19. Statements :
All invitations are rejections.
Some invitations are celebrations.
No rejection is an attraction.
Conclusion I :
Some celebrations are rejections.
Conclusion II :
All celebrations are rejections.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
20. Statements :
All grades are scales.
All scales are categories.
Conclusion I :
All grades are categories.
Conclusion II :
All categories are scales.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
21. Statements :
Some metals are papers.
All papers are alloys.
No alloy is a wood.
Conclusion I :
All woods being metals is a possibility
Conclusion II :
All metals being woods is a possibility.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
22. Statements :
Some metals are papers.
All papers are alloys.
No alloys is a wood.
Conclusion I :
No paper is a wood.
Conclusion II :
At least some metals are alloys.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
23. Statements :
Some prices are costs.
Some costs are amounts.
All amounts are expenses.
Conclusion I :
No expense is a cost.
Conclusion II:
At least some expenses are prices.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
24. A statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II given below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for improvements, follow-up or further action in regard to the problems, policy etc. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows from the given statements.
Statement: There have been structural shifts from agriculture to industry in country Z. While industries contribute to 67% of the country’s GDP, it is leading to steady and undesirable decline in the participation of labour force in agriculture.
I.The government should curtail number of industries growing up in the country in order to promote the agriculture.
II. Incentives for working in agriculture should be made competitive with that of other sectors.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
Directions (Qs. 25-27) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Each of the six people U, V, W, X, Y and Z stayed for a different number of day in India. X stayed for less number of days than only V, Y stayed for more number of days then only two people. U did not stay less than Y. W did not stay for the minimum number of days. The one who stayed for the second lowest number of days stayed for eight days. U stayed for 17 days in India.
25. The one who stayed for the maximum number of days stayed for 15 more days than W. Which of the following is possibly the number of days for which it stayed in India?
(a) 5
(b) 32
(c) 23
(d) 20
(e) 17
26. Which of the following is true with respect to Z as per the given information?
(a) The possible number of days for which Z stayed in India is 14 days
(b) Z stayed for the minimum number of days
(c) None of the given options is true
(d) Only two peoples stayed for more number of days than Z.
(e) Z definitely stayed for more number days than Y.
27. Which of the following may be the possible number of days for which Y stayed in India?
(a) 11
(b) 8
(c) 19
(d) 5
(e) 22
Directions (Qs. 28-32) : Study the given information carefully and answer these questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons in row-I, J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing north and in row-II P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all are facing south (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also likes different flowers namely Gazania, Plumeria, Tulip, Orchids, Lily, Rose, Daffodil, Daisy, Peony and Dahlia (but not necessarily in the same order).
N sits exactly in the center of the row and faces the one who likes orchids. Only one person sits between N and the one who likes Lily. S faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes Lily. Only one person sits between P and the one who likes Orchids. P is not an immediate neighbour of S. P faces on e of the immediate neighbour of L. M is neither an immediate neighbour of L nor faces S. Q is not an immediate neighbour of S and faces the one who likes Plumeria. M does not face R. M faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes rose. Only one person sits between the one who likes Rose and the one who likes Gazania. The one who likes Peony and the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only two people sit between the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only two people sit between the one who likes Daisy and the one who likes Daffodila. J does not like Daffodil. The one who likes Dahlia sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Peony.
28. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Peony ?
(a) The one who likes Rose
(b) The one who likes Lily
(c) The one who likes Gazania
(d) K
(e) T
29. Which of the following flowers does S like?
(a) Lily
(b) Gazania
(c) Rose
(d) Orchids
(e) Daffodila
30. Which of the following is definitely true as per the given arrangement?
(a) L faces R
(b) Q is an immediate neighbour of P
(c) The one who likes Daisy is an immediate neighbour of P
(d) Q likes Daffodila
(e) The one who likes Dahlia faces N
31. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting at the extreme end of the two rows?
(a) P, J
(b) Q, L
(c) R, K
(d) S, K
(e) S, L
32. Who amongst the following likes Tulip?
(a) N
(b) P
(c) S
(d) Q
(e) J
33. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
As per a recent survey 85% of the work force today is either actively looking for a job or open to talking to recruiters and relevant opportunities; the ones who are satisfied with their job.
Which of the following many be a reason for the above mentioned results of the survey.
(a) As there is the wide array of opportunity today and head hunters are always seeking for professionals, people are not willing. to let go off an opportunity to do something new and challenging
(b) As per a recent survey more than 40% people today are dissatisfied with their jobs as there is the wide gap between what they study in the class room as compared to the actual work they do
(c) Some people in the country take education loan for completing higher education and are expected to repay the loans themselves after they start working
(d) As employees today are of different age group and back-grounds it becomes difficult for the HR department to organize employment engagement activities to improve the job satisfaction of employees
(e) Only a few people study for high specialized courses in the country and they are always in demand as there is high scale gap in many organizations.
Directions (Qs. 34 & 35) : Each of the questions consists of a statement followed by two Reasons I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements numbered I and II weakens or strengthens the statement and mark the appropriate answer.
34. Statement :
The world should move towards using bio-fuels in the future as these are more environment friendly as compared to regular fossil-fuels.
Reasons:
I. While bio-fuels are cleaner to burn, the process to produce the fuel, including the necessary machinery leads to very-high carbon emission.
II. As bio-fuels are manufactured from materials such as crop waste, manure and other by-products, these, unlike fossil-fuels, are easily renewable.
(a) Reason I weakens the information while reason II is a natural statement.
(b) Both reasons I and II weaken the given statement.
(c) Reason I strengthens the information while reason II weakens the statement.
(d) Reason I weakens the information while reason II strengthens the statement.
(e) Both reasons I and II strengthen the given statements.
35. Statement :
Always remain in an air conditioned environment for better health and well-being.
Reasons :
I. Filters in the air-conditioners lower exposure to allergy creating pollen and other outdoor allergies.
II. Spending too much time in an air-conditioned environment result in gradual intolerance of body towards natural temperatures.
(a) Reason I weakens the information while reason II is a natural statement.
(b) Both reasons I and II weaken the information
(c) Reason I strengthens the information while reason II weakens the statement.
(d) Reason I weakens the information while reason II strengthens the statement.
(e) Both reasons I and II strengthen the information.
Directions (Qs. 36 to 41) : In each of these questions a statement is followed by two conclusions I and II. Select the correct option.
36. Statements :
B ≤ A = N > K ≥ S
Conclusion I :
A > S
Conclusion II :
B ≤ K
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II are true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
37. Statement :
B ≤ A = N > K ≥ S
Conclusion I :
B ≤ N
Conclusion II :
S < N
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II are true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
38. Statement :
K ≥ L = M ≥ N = O ≤ P
Conclusion I
K ≤ N
Conclusion II :
L = O
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II are true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
39. Statement :
K ≥ L = M ≥ N = O ≤ P
Conclusion I :
K < P
Conclusion II :
M ≥ O
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II are true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
40. Statement :
X < Y ≤ Z = W, K ≥ J > Z
Conclusion I:
Z < K
Conclusion II :
Y ≤ W
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II are true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
41. Statement :
X < Y ≤ Z = W, K ≥ J > Z
Conclusion I:
X ≥ J
Conclusion II:
K > Y
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II are true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true
Directions (Qs. 42 to 44) : Study the following information and answer the given questions.
A and Y are brothers of K. Y is the son of P and S. P is the daughter of X. M is the father-in-law of S. Q is the son of X.
42. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q.
(a) Uncle
(b) Nephew
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) Brother-in-law
(e) Son-in-law
43. How is Y related to M?
(a) Nephew
(b) Father
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Grandson
(e) Brother
44. How is K related to Q?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Niece
(c) Daughter
(d) Nephew
(e) Son-in-law
45. Read the given information carefully and answer the given question.
Five fisherman from Country X were sentenced to imprisonment by the High Court of Country Y on charges of smuggling narcotics from Country X to Country Y.
Which of the following supports the legal action taken by country Y?
(i) Country X had given details of a new fisherman that had no record of involvement in drug-related activities.
(ii) The naval authorities of both the countries X and Y have found traces of narcotics in the fish boxes that were shipped from Country X to Country Y by these fisherman.
(iii) All the fish boxes that are shipped between countries undergo a strict process of checking.
(iv) It was found that two of the five fisherman who were sentenced to death penalty were earlier imprisoned for the same reason a few years back.
(a) Both (ii) and (iii)
(b) Both (ii) and (v)
(c) Only (v)
(d) None of the given statements
(e) Only (ii)
Directions (Qs. 46-50) : Read the given information and answer the given questions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on separate floors of an 8-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the top most floor is numbered 8.
C lives on floor No. 3. Only one person lives between C and F. Only one person lives between C and G.
E lives immediately above B.
H lives immediately above F. H lives on any of the floors below D.
Only one person lives between D and A. D lives above A.
46. Who lives on the floor immediately below D?
(a) Other than those given as options
(b) H
(c) A
(d) G
(e) C
47. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
(a) Only one person lives between E and G
(b) A lives on an even numbered floor
(c) A lives immediately below C
(d) F lives on floor No. 5
(e) A lives immediately above H.
48. How many people live between the floors on which D and C live?
(a) One
(b) More than three
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) No more
49. Who amongst the following lives between B and G?
(a) No one
(b) C
(c) E
(d) H
(e) D
50. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5?
(a) A
(b) G
(c) F
(d) D
(e) H
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) : In these questions, a sentence has two blanks, each blank indicates that something has been confined. Choose the word that best fits in the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. _______ Dinasours are believed to be the ancestors of modern birds, The discovery of soft issue in Dinasour fossils containing proteins found only in birds is very _______.
(a) Though – Unfortunate
(b) Recently – Common
(c) Since – Exciting
(d) Perhaps – Remarkable
(e) Moreover – Welcome
2. The van Allon belts which are _____ between 13000to 60000 KM above the earth’s surface were discovered in 1958 and contain electrons which play ______ with electronic systems on satellites.
(a) Somewhere – damages
(b) Located – Havoc
(c) Position – Mayhem
(d) Situated – Part
(e) Vicinity – Confusion
3. Rice farmers use ________ methods of farming and old equipments making the cost of price ______ twice as much as it is in other countries.
(a) Obsolete – Economical
(b) Modern – Expensive
(c) Future – Virtuality
(d) Antiquated – Almost
(e) Sustainable – Approximate
4. Some experts believe that the best ______ to reduce the number of accidents caused by drivers using their mobile phones to create an app/_______ communications when the vehicle is in motion and unblocking them when the vehicle reaches its destination.
(a) Tactic – Block
(b) Strategy – Disabling
(c) Part – Facilitating
(d) Decision – Expediting
(e) Method – Further
5. Services provided by money transfer companies are _______ for people who don’t have bank accounts or who are working far from home and are helpful to _______ trade and disperse wealth.
(a) Fundamental – Compute
(b) Prerequisite – Invigorating
(c) Vitally – Strengthen
(d) Essentially – Bolster
(e) Inherent – Foster
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) : Rearrange the given six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
(A) She follows in the footsteps of other renowned female politicians like Chile’s Michelle Bachelet and Germany’s Angela Merkel.
(B) Women are also rising to the forefront in other parts of the Government.
(C) And this leadership can be seen in the growing number of women who are becoming political leaders and the most recent being Dilma Rousseff who look over as Brazil’s first women President.
(D) It is defined as the ability to influence or lead through persuasion or attraction by co-opting people rather than coercing them.
(E) The leadership of women in politics, business and society is becoming evident across the globe.
(F) These trends represent the growing needs for ‘soft power’ in today’s world.
6. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E
7. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) F
(d) D
(e) E
8. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) B
(d) A
(e) F
9. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) B
(d) F
(e) C
10. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) B
(d) F
(e) E
Directions (Qs. 11-20) : Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The evolution of Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)trend has been as profound as it has been rapid. It represents the more visible sign that the boundaries between personal life and work life are blurring. The 9 am – 5 pm model of working solely from office has become archaic and increasingly people are working extended hours from a range of locations. At the very heart of this evolution is the ability to access enterprise networks from anywhere and anytime. The concept of cloud computing serves effectively to extend the office out of office. The much heralded benefit of BYOD is greater productivity. However, recent research has suggested that this is the greatest myth of BYOD and the reality is that BYOD in practice poses new challenges that may outweigh the benefits. A worldwide survey commissioned by Fortinet chose to look at attitudes towards BYOD and security from the users point of view instead of the IT managers. Specifically the survey was conducted in 15 territories on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties because they represent the first generation to enter the workplace with an expectation of own device use. Moreover, they also represent tomorrow’s influencer and decision makers. The survey findings reveal that for financial organizations, the decision to embrace BYOD is extremely dangerous. Larger organizations will have mature IT strategies and policies in place. But what about smaller financial business? They might not have such well-developed strategies to protect confidential data.
Crucially, within younger employee group, 55% of the people share on expectation that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes. With this expectation comes the very real risk that employees may consider contravening company policy banning the use of own devices. The threats posed by this level of subversion cannot be overstated. The survey casts doubt on the idea of BYOD leading to greater productivity by revealing the real reason people want to use their own devices. Only 26% of people in this age group cite efficiency as the reason they want to use their own devices, while 63% admit that the main reason is so they have access to their favourite applications. But with personal applications so close to hand, the risks to the business must surely include distraction and time wasting. To support this assumption 46% of people polled acknowledged time wasting as the greatest threat to the organization, while 42% citing greater exposure to theft or loss of confidential data. Clearly, from a user perspective there is great deal of contradiction surrounding BYOD and there exists an undercurrent of selfishness where users expect to use their own devices, but mostly for personal interest. They recognize the risks to the organization but are adamant that those risks are worth taking.
11. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons did Fortinet conduct the survey on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties?
(A) As this group represents the future decision makers
(B) As this group represents the first generation who entered the workforce with a better understanding of sophisticated gadgets.
(C) As this group represents the first generation to enter the workplace expecting that they can use their own devices for work purpose
(a) All (A), (B) & (C)
(b) Only (C)
(c) Both (A) & (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) Only (B)
12. Which of the following is not true about BYOD?
(a) BYOD enables employees to access enterprise network from anywhere and anytime
(b) Due to evolution of BYOD trend the 9 am – 5 pm model of working solely from office has become outdated
(c) Recent research has confirmed that BYOD boosts organizational productivity
(d) The concept of cloud computing facilitates the BYOD trend
(e) All the given facts are true
13. According to the passage, why would the decision to embrace BYOD prove dangerous to smaller financial businesses?
(a) Their employees have poor knowledge about their devices which in turn pose a threat to the confidential data of the organization
(b) Their employees are more vulnerable to misplacement of devices
(c) They may lack mature IT strategies and policies required to protect confidential data
(d) They cannot afford to deal with damage liability issues of employee-owned devices
(e) Their employees have a tendency to change jobs frequently
14. According to the passage, the expectation of younger employees that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace, entails which of the following risks ?
(A) Younger employees may deliberately transfer confidential data of their companies to rivals if they are not allowed to use their own devices for work purpose.
(B) Younger employees may strongly fell like leaving the company if it prevents usage of own device and join some other company that does not have such stringent policies.
(C) Younger employees may consider flouting company policy prohibiting usage of their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes.
(a) Only (C)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Both (A) & (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)
15. According to the findings of the survey conducted by Fortinet, why do majority of employees prefer using their own devices for work purpose ?
(a) As they often find t hat the devices provided by the company lack quality
(b) As they have access to their favourite applications while working
(c) As majority of them believe that output doubles when they use their own devices for work purpose
(d) As handling data from their own devices reinforces their sense of responsibility
(e) As it helps them create a brand of their own
16. What is/are the author’s main objective(s) in writing the passage ?
(A) To break the myth that BYOD promotes employee efficiency and organizational productivity
(B) To suggest ways to control subversion across levels of corporate chain of command
(C) To throw light upon the fact that employees even after knowing the risks involved, prefer to use their own devices for work purpose mostly for personal benefits
(a) Both (A) & (C)
(b) All (A), (B) & (C)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A)
(e) Only (B)
Directions (Qs. 17 & 18) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
17. Heralded
(a) Suspected
(b) Publicised
(c) Dragged
(d) Objective
(e) Benefit
18. Outweigh
(a) Control
(b) Venture
(c) Perish
(d) Determine
(e) Surpass
Direction (Qs. 19 & 20) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
19. Embrace
(a) Contradict
(b) Disobey
(c) Curtail
(d) Reject
(e) Obscure
20. Subversion
(a) Compliance
(b) Sanity
(c) Popularity
(d) Destabilization
(e) Clarity
Directions (Qs. 21 to 25) : Which of the phrase given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is given as it is given and no correction is required, mark ‘No correction’ required i.e. (e) as the answer.
21. Getting tax refunds is a problematic not only for the common man but also senior officials.
(a) are problems
(b) is a problem
(c) are a problem
(d) is problem
(e) No correction required
22. The World Bank represents a particularly difficult case of organization cultural changes.
(a) represent
(b) representing
(c) representation
(d) have representing
(e) No correction required
23. Big companies are hiking stipends for summer internships by 40%, sending out a strong signal that they expects the economy to new up.
(a) them expecting
(b) they expect
(c) these expectation
(d) expect these
(e) No correction required
24. Declining crude prices have raise hopes of interest of rate cuts.
(a) have rise
(b) have rising
(c) have raised
(d) has risen
(e) No correction required
25. India continue to be on the top of the global consumer confidence this year as well.
(a) continue to being
(b) continuing to be
(c) continuing too be
(d) continues to be
(e) No correction required
Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistakes/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ i.e. (e) as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
26. After the cash-strapped corporation/ expressed its inability to provide funds / for various developmental works, the office-bearers of the civic body started / lobbying at special financial and from state governments.
(a) After the cash-strapped corporation
(b) expressed its inability to provide funds
(c) for various developmental works, the office-bearers of the civic body started
(d) lobbying at special financial and from state governments
(e) No error
27. Three things are / essential for a start-up to succeed, / a product that is in demand, / a good team and as well as a minimum expenditure.
(a) Three things are
(b) essential for a start-up to succeed,
(c) a product that is in demand,
(d) a good team and as well as a minimum expenditure.
(e) No error
28. We all have at / some point in our lives / wondered if we are actually / being too nice to someone.
(a) We all have at
(b) some point in our lives
(c) wondered if we are actually
(d) being too nice to someone
(e) No error
29. Anticipating a foggy winter, / the railway authorities have / decided to / cancel thirty trains.
(a) Anticipating a foggy winter,
(b) the railway authorities have
(c) decided to
(d) cancel thirty trains.
(e) No error
30. New businesses today / are increasing focusing on / introducing various perks and motivation programmes / to help retain employees.
(a) New businesses today
(b) are increasing focusing on
(c) introducing various perks and motivation programmes
(d) to help retain employees.
(e) No error
Directions (Qs. 31 to 40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
In our day and age, technology is omnipresent and integral part of our lives. However, although the main purpose of technology is to make our lives easier, the reactions on opinions and technology are very diverse. This year, various sessions at the Women’s Forum covered the influence of new technologies in our daily life. It is worthwhile analyzing two contrasting perspectives in depth, to understand how broad this debate is.
On the one hand, technology and digital media can be a great help to reach out to other people and spread your message to a very large platform. The session “How to be a digital influencer” was analyzing exactly this question, and introduced various platforms and strategies on how to use the digital world to your advantage. Social media removes all distances : Geographic, social and hierarchical. You can reach, at any time, and communicate in real time. Thus, a permanent link for communication has been created.
Today, everyone has the ability to transmit knowledge and thus credibility of the creator of knowledge is more important than even before. Technology has taken the universal communication method of storytelling and transformed it, in a way that now more stories can reach more people through social media platforms than ever before. People should find their digital media voice, tell sharable stories and drive engagement. Also, it is very important to be authentic and truly about the message you are trying to convey through the digital media.
Another session, the very same day, analyzed how exactly the opposite is true and how new technologies the opposite is true and how new technologies actually cause stress and suffering, because of a concept referred to as “infobesity”. During this session, it was argued that due to the acceleration of our lives led by the acceleration of our lives led by the acceleration of technology, we have changed the way we consume and generate information. People are trying to live ten lives at once and a lot of stress and anxiety occurs from that. Thus, we are suffering from digital bulimia, meaning that we take in a lot of information at once, without really processing it for ourselves, and in turn create a lot of new information. We are at the same time creators and victims of information overload. Thus, it is obvious that technological advancement has failed in its mission of making everybody’s life easier, as many people are reacting negatively to it.
31. According to the passage, which of the following is not true about the characteristics of ‘infobesity’?
(a) The pace of our lives have increased significantly due to technology
(b) With the help of technology, people try to do multiple things at the same time, leading to stress.
(c) Technology makes our lives sedentary and leads to health problems
(d) Due to technology, each individual is bombarded with excess information
(e) All the options are rue according to the passage
32. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word given as bold as used in the passage?
DIVERSE
(a) similar
(b) separate
(c) interwoven
(d) simultaneous
(e) together
33. Which of the following can be said about the invention of the car?
(A) More than being a boon, this invention has become an inconvenience tous.
(B) It has invoked in us the desire to travel to places that we would not have otherwise gone to.
(C) It has enabled us to have more time for ourselves.
(a) Only A and C
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and B
(d) All A, B and C
(e) Only B
34. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?
(a) The Paradox of Technological Advance
(b) The Different Types of Technology Available
(c) Technology Propagation – The Road to Nowhere
(d) Technology and Gainful Insight
(e) Technological Progress Across the Continents
35. According to the author, which of the following can be said about reaching to people through the medium of technology?
(A) Today’s digital age has made it essential for an individual to send a message that is genuine in nature.
(B) The ability to impact many people through a message is solely dependent on the number of times the same message goes out, regardless of its authenticity.
(C) Technology has made it easier to reach out to masses of people at the same time.
(a) Only C
(b) All A, B and C
(c) Only A and C
(d) Only A and B
(e) Only B
36. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
(A) It is in our own interest that we keep check on the amount of digital information that we generate.
(B) The promise on which technology was designed was that it should make our lives simpler
(C) It is best that we learn to survive without any technological intervention in our lives.
(a) Only A and B
(b) All A, B and C
(c) Only B and C
(d) Only A
(e) Only B
37. According to the passage, which of the following is author’s opinion/ statement about technology?
(a) Beware! Technology can only bring doom if allowed to proliferate.
(b) Take responsibility for how you let technology impact your life
(c) Go head and invest in the latest technology, it is worth it.
(d) What the future of technology holds for us is unknown, wait and watch
(e) Other than those given as options.
38. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
ENGAGEMENT
(a) Appointment
(b) Involvement
(c) Meeting
(d) Rendezvous
(e) Date
39. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
DESIGNED
(a) Calculated
(b) Deliberated
(c) Attracted
(d) Created
(e) Patterned
40. Which of the following is the most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?
SPREAD
(a) Collect
(b) Take
(c) Restrict
(d) Join
(e) Multiply
Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.
Changing an organization’s culture is one of the most difficult leadership challenges. That’s because an organization’s culture ….(41)…. interlocking set of goals, roles, processes, values communications practices, attitudes and assumptions. These elements …..(42)…. together as a mutually reinforcing system and combine to prevent any ….(43)… to change it. That is why single-fix challenges, such as the introduction of teams. Of lean, or agile, or scrum or knowledge management or some new process, may ….(44)…to make progress for a while, but …(45)… the interlocking elements of the organizational culture …(46)…. over and the change is inexorably drawn …(47)… into the existing organizational culture.
Changing a culture is large scale undertaking and eventually all of the organizational focus for changing minds will need to be put in play. However, the ….(48)… in which they are deployed has a critical …(49)… on the …(50)… of success.
41.
(a) less
(b) embraces
(c) comprises
(d) makes
(e) composes
42.
(a) amalgamate
(b) conjoin
(c) fill
(d) stands
(e) attach
43.
(a) attempt
(b) energy
(c) ways
(d) power
(e) tries
44.
(a) look
(b) appear
(c) perform
(d) suspect
(e) seek
45.
(a) especially
(b) presently
(c) likely
(d) eventually
(e) lately
46.
(a) bounce
(b) throw
(c) seize
(d) jump
(e) take
47.
(a) forth
(b) ahead
(c) gain
(d) set
(e) back
48.
(a) order
(b) succession
(c) idea
(d) step
(e) label
49.
(a) affect
(b) impact
(c) control
(d) jolt
(e) shake
50.
(a) change
(b) odd
(c) risk
(d) likelihood
(e) option
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Qs. 1 to 6): In each of these questions a number series is given. After the series a number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e). You have to complete the series starting with the given number following the sequence of original series and answer these questions.
1. 48 24 36 90 315 5
20 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (d)?
(a) 131.25
(b) 133.75
(c) 136
(d) 140
(e) 142.25
2. 2 11 52 183 430 555
4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (b)?
(a) 92
(b) 98
(c) 82
(d) 88
(e) 96
3. 7 9 21 67 273 1371
6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (b)?
(a) 19
(b) 22
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) 17
4. 9 8 12 27 92 435
7 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (c)?
(a) 19
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 15
(e) 16
5. 8 9 21 68 279 1404
5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (d)?
(a) 106
(b) 169
(c) 156
(d) 184
(e) 174
6. 4 7 19 73 381 2161
8 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (c)?
(a) 106
(b) 169
(c) 156
(d) 184
(e) 174
Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) : Study the following table to answer these questions.
Details of manpower deployed at different levels by a company in different departments
7. Total number of female employees (manager and officers) in Procurement Department is by what percent more than their male counterpart? (rounded off to the nearest integers)
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 14
(e) 13
8. What is the difference between total number of male officers in Advertising and Public Relations Departments and the total number of female managers in these two departments.
(a) 240
(b) 180
(c) 150
(d) 200
(e) 220
9. What is the respective ratio between total number of female managers from Operations and Finance Departments and the total numbers of male officers from these two departments?
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 3: 4
(e) 2 : 3
10. Total number of male officers in Advertising and Sales Department is what percent of the total number of officers in these two department?
(a) 52
(b) 54
(c) 56
(d) 58
(e) 65
11. Total number of female managers in Finance Department is what percent of the total number of male employees in Sales Department.
(a) 39.4
(b) 36.25
(c) 41.25
(d) 41.75
(e) 44.5
12. What is the ratio between total number of managers in Public Relations, Finance and Sales, and Operation Departments and the total number of officers in Advertising. Sales and Procurement Departments respectively.
(a) 7 : 8
(b) 11 : 13
(c) 6 : 7
(d) 13 : 15
(e) 13 : 16
Directions (Qs. 13 to 17) : Each of these questions consist of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.
13. What is the speed of the train? (in kmph)
(I) The car takes 2 hours more than the train to cover a distance of 264 km.
(II) The train moves 22 kmph faster than the car.
(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.
(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
14. How many students are there in the class?
(I) The average weight of the class is 52 kg.
(II) If two students weighing 44 kg and 52 kg leave the class and are replaced by two students weighing 64 kg and 56 kg, the average weight of the class increases by 1.2 kg.
(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.
(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
15. Cedric mixed two types of rice for selling the mixtures in his shop. What is the quantity (in kg) of first type of rice in the mixture?
(I) The price of the first type of rice is Rs. 36 per kg. Cedric earned a profit of 20% by selling the mixture @ Rs. 57.60 per kg.
(II) The price of the second type of rice is Rs. 50 per kg. The difference between the quantity of first type of price and second type of price in the mixture is 3 kg.
(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.
(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
16. What was the percentages of discount given on the marked price of the table?
(I) 15% profit was earned by selling the table for Rs. 14490. If there were not discount, percent profit would have been 20%.
(II) Cost price of table is Rs. 12600.
(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.
(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
17. What is area of the circle? (in sq. cm.)
(I) The diameter of the circle is 90 cm less than its circumference.
(II) The radius of the circle is equal to the length of a rectangle whose perimeter is 77 cm.
(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data in both the statements I & II together the necessary to answer the question.
(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Directions (Qs. 18-20) : Study the following information and answer the given questions.
A bag contains four blue shirts, five red shirts and six yellow shirts.
18. Three shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that exactly one of them is blue?
(a) 36/91
(b) 40/91
(c) 44/91
(d) 48/91
(e) 31/91
19. One shirt is drawn randomly. What is the probability that is either red or yellow?
(a) 4/15
(b) 7/15
(c) 11/15
(d) 8/15
(e) 13/15
20. Two shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that both of them are blue?
(a) 3/35
(b) 1/35
(c) 2/35
(d) 5/35
(e) 6/35
Directions (Qs. 21-25) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
As a part of renovation of an office flooring, painting and carpeting of a hall is to be undertaken. The hall has length 16 metres, breadth 12 m and height 5 m. Cost of flooring is Rs. 750 per m2 and cost of carpeting is Rs. 850 per m2.
21. What will be the cost of carpeting the hall leaving aside the area of 1.8 m ×5 m for the wooden cabinet?
(a) Rs. 164200
(b) Rs. 162660
(c) Rs. 160905
(d) Rs. 162200
(e) Rs. 166645
22. What will be the total cost of flooring the hall and painting the ceiling?
(a) Rs. 560000
(b) Rs. 576000
(c) Rs. 524000
(d) Rs. 580000
(e) Rs. 564000
23. What will be the cost of painting the four wall of the hall if it has a door of 1.6 m ×5 m and a window of 0.8 m × 1.5 m?
(a) Rs. 190900
(b) Rs. 208000
(c) Rs. 196800
(d) Rs. 198600
(e) Rs. 206100
24. What will be the cost of flooring the hall if the contractor offered 12% discount on the total cost?
(a) Rs. 380160
(b) Rs. 336440
(c) Rs. 328240
(d) Rs. 342320
(e) Rs. 360350
25. While painting the hall it was noticed that one wall on length side having no door or window required plastering which will cost Rs. 320 per m2. What will be the cost of plastering and painting that particular wall?
(a) Rs. 85600
(b) Rs. 84400
(c) Rs. 82800
(d) Rs. 86400
(e) Rs. 85200
Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions :
26. In which city is the difference between the cost of one kg of apple and cost of one kg of guava second lowest?
(a) Jalandhar
(b) Delhi
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Hoshiarpur
(e) Ropar
27. Cost of one kg. of guava in Jalandhar is approximately what percent of the cost of two kgs. of grapes in Chandigarh?
(a) 66
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 34
(e) 58
28. What total amount will Ram pay to the shopkeeper for purchasing 3 kgs. of apples and 2 kgs. of guavas in Delhi?
(a) Rs. 530
(b) Rs. 450
(c) Rs. 570
(d) Rs. 620
(e) Rs. 490
29. Ravinder had to purchase 45 kgs. of grapes from Hoshiarpur. Shopkeeper gave him discount of 4% per kg. What amount did he pay to the shopkeeper after the discount?
(a) Rs. 8,208
(b) Rs. 8,104
(c) Rs. 8,340
(d) Rs. 8,550
(e) Rs. 8,410
30. What is the respective ratio between the cost of one kg. of apples from Ropar and the cost of one kg. of grapes from Chandigarh?
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 22 : 32
(d) 42 : 92
(e) 92 : 42
Directions (Qs. 31 to 35) : Study the following radar graph carefully and answer these questions :
31. What was the difference between the number of students in university-1 in the year 2010 and the number of students in university-2 in the year 2012?
(a) Zero
(b) 5,000
(c) 15,000
(d) 10,000
(e) 1,000
32. What is the sum of number of students in university-1 in the year 2007 and the number of students in university-2 in the year 2011 together?
(a) 50000
(b) 55000
(c) 45000
(d) 57000
(e) 40000
33. If 25% of the students in university-2 in the year 2010 were females, what was the number of male students in the university-2 in the same year ?
(a) 11250
(b) 12350
(c) 12500
(d) 11500
(e) 11750
34. What was the percent increase in the number of students in university-1 in the year 2011 as compared to the previous year?
(a) 135
(b) 15
(c) 115
(d) 25
(e) 35
35. In which year was the difference between the number of students in university-1 and the number of students in university-2 highest?
(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2011
(e) 2012
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
36. What is the total number of players participating in hockey from all the five schools together?
(a) 324
(b) 288
(c) 342
(d) 284
(e) 248
37. What is the respective ratio between number of players participating in basketball from school-1 and the number of players participating in Kho-Kho from school-3?
(a) 5 : 7
(b) 7 : 9
(c) 7 : 8
(d) 9 : 7
(e) 5 : 8
38. In which school is the number of players participating in hockey and basket ball together second highest?
(a) School-1
(b) School-2
(c) School-3
(d) School-4
(e) School-5
39. Number of players participating in Kho-Kho from School-4 is what percent of number of players participating in hockey from School-2?
(a) 42
(b) 48
(c) 36
(d) 40
(e) 60
40. 25% of the number of the players participating in hockey from School-5 are females. What is the number of the hockey players who are males in School-5?
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 30
(d) 21
(e) 27
Directions (Qs. 41 to 45) : Study the following bar-graph carefully and answer these questions
41. What is Gita’s average earnings over all the days together?
(a) Rs. 285
(b) Rs. 290
(c) Rs. 320
(d) Rs. 310
(e) Rs. 315
42. What is the total amount earned by Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday and Thursday together?
(a) Rs. 1,040
(b) Rs. 1,020
(c) Rs. 980
(d) Rs. 940
(e) Rs. 860
43. Gita donated her earnings of Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveen’s total earnings on Wednesday after Gita’s donation?
(a) Rs. 520
(b) Rs. 550
(c) Rs. 540
(d) Rs. 560
(e) Rs. 620
44. What is the difference between Rahul’s earnings on Monday and Gita’s earnings on Tuesday?
(a) Rs. 40
(b) Rs. 20
(c) Rs. 50
(d) Rs. 30
(e) Rs. 10
45. What is the respective ratio between Naveen’s earnings on Monday, Wednesday and Thursday ?
(a) 7 : 3 : 5
(b) 8 : 6 : 5
(c) 8 : 7 : 4
(d) 9 : 5 : 4
(e) 9 : 3 : 4
Directions (Qs. 46 to 50) : Study the following pie-chart and answer these questions.
46. What is the difference between the total number of employees in Teaching and Medical profession together and the number of employees in Management profession?
(a) 6770
(b) 7700
(c) 6700
(d) 7770
(e) 7670
47. In Management profession three-fourth of the number of employees are female. What is the number of male employees in Management profession?
(a) 1239
(b) 1143
(c) 1156
(d) 1289
(e) 1139
48. 25% of employees from Film Production profession went on a strike. What is the number of employees from Film Production who have not participated in the strike?
(a) 3271
(b) 3819
(c) 3948
(d) 1273
(e) 1246
49. What is the total number of employees in Engineering profession and Industries together?
(a) 5698
(b) 5884
(c) 5687
(d) 5896
(e) 5487
50. In Teaching profession if three-fifths of the teachers are not permanent, what is the number of permanent teachers in the Teaching profession?
(a) 1608
(b) 1640
(c) 1764
(d) 1704
(e) 1686
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