GATE Exam 2020 Civil Engineering (CE-1) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2020

CE1: Civil Engineering

GA-General Aptitude

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each.

1. It is a common criticism that most o the academicians live in their ______, so, they are not aware of the real life challenges.

(A)  homes

(B)  ivory towers

(C)  glass palaces

(D)  big flats

Answer: (B)

2. His hunger for reading is insatiable. He reads indiscriminately. He is most certainly a/an _____ reader.

(A)  all-round

(B)  precocious

(C)  voracious

(D)  wise

Answer: (C)

3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Fuse : Fusion :: Use : ______

(A)  Usage

(B)  User

(C)  Uses

(D)  Usion

Answer: (A)

4. If, 0, 1, 2, …….. 7, 8, 9 are coded as O, P, Q, …., V, W, X, then 45 will be coded as _______.

(A)  TS

(B)  ST

(C)  SS

(D)  SU

Answer: (B)

5. The sum of two positive numbers is 100. After subtracting 5 from each number, t he product of the resulting numbers is 0. One of the original numbers is ______.

(A)  80

(B)  85

(C)  90

(D)  95

Answer: (D)

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each.

6. The American psychologist Howard Gardner expounds that human intelligence can be subcategorized into multiple kinds, in such a way that individuals differ with respect to their relative competence in each kind. Based on this theory, modern educationists insist on prescribing multi-dimensional curriculum and evaluation parameters that enable development and assessment of multiple intelligences.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given text?

(A)  Howard Gardner insists that the teaching curriculum and evaluation needs to be multidimensional.

(B)  Howard Gardner wants to develop and assess the theory of multiple intelligences.

(C)  Modern educationists want to develop and assess the theory of multiple intelligences.

(D)  Modern educationists insist that the teaching curriculum and evaluation needs to be multi-dimensional.

Answer: (D)

7. Five friends P, Q, R, S and T went camping. At night, they had to sleep in a row inside the tent. P, Q and T refused to sleep next to R since he snored loudly. P and S wanted to avoid Q as he usually hugged people in sleep.

Assuming everyone was satisfied with the sleeping arrangements, what is the order in which they slept?

(A)  RSPTQ

(B)  SPRTQ

(C)  QRSPT

(D)  QTSPR

Answer: (A)

8. Insert seven numbers between 2 and 34, such that resulting sequence including 2 and 34 is an arithmetic progression. The um of these inserted seven numbers is ______.

(A)  120

(B)  124

(C)  126

(D)  130

Answer: (C)

9. The unit’s place in 26591749110016 is ______.

(A)  1

(B)  3

(C)  6

(D)  9

Answer: (A)

10. The total expenditure of a family, on different activities in a month, is shown in the pie-chart. The extra money spent on education as compared to transport (in percent) is _____.

(A)  5

(B)  33.3

(C)  50

(D)  100

Answer: (C)

CE1: Civil Engineering

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each.

1. In the following partial differential equation, θ is a function of t and z, and D and K are functions of θ

The above equation is

(A)  a second order linear equation

(B)  a second degree linear equation

(C)  a second order non-linear equation

(D)  a second degree non-linear equation

Answer: (C)

2. The value of  is

(A)  0

(B)  1/4

(C)  1/2

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

3. The true value of ln(2) is 0.69. If the value of ln(2) is obtained by linear interpolation between ln(1) and ln(6), the percentage of absolute error (round of to the nearest integer), is

(A)  35

(B)  48

(C)  69

(D)  84

Answer: (B)

4. The area of an ellipse represented by an equation  is

(A)  πab/4

(B)  πab/2

(C)  πab

(D)  4πab/3

Answer: (C)

5. Consider the planar truss shown in the figure (not drawn to the scale)

Neglecting self-weight of the members, the number of zero-force members in the truss under the action of the load P, is

(A)  6

(B)  7

(C)  8

(D)  9

Answer: (C)

6. A reinforcing steel bar, partially embedded in concrete, is subjected to a tensile force P. The figure that appropriately represents the distribution of the magnitude of bond stress (represented as hatched region), along the embedded length of the bar, is

Answer: (C)

7. In a two-dimensional stress analysis, the state of stress at a point P is

The necessary and sufficient condition for existence of the state of pure shear at the point P, is

(A)   

(B)  τxy = 0

(C)  σxx + σyy = 0

(D)   

Answer: (C)

8. During the process of hydration of cement, due to increase in Dicalcium Silicate (C2S) content in cement clinker, the heat of hydration

(A)  increases

(B)  decreases

(C)  initially decreases and then increases

(D)  does not change

Answer: (B)

9. The Los Angeles test for stone aggregates is used to examine

(A)  abrasion resistance

(B)  crushing strength

(C)  soundness

(D)  specific gravity

Answer: (A)

10. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A)  A clay deposit with a liquidity index greater than unity is in a state of plastic consistency.

(B)  The cohesion of normally consolidated clay is zero when triaxial test is conducted under consolidated undrained condition.

(C)  The ultimate bearing capacity of a strip foundation supported on the surface of sandy soil increases in direct proportion to the width of footing.

(D)  In case of a point load, Boussinesq’s equations predicts higher value of vertical stress at a point directly beneath the load as compared to Westergaard’s equation.

Answer: (A)

11. In a soil investigation work at a site, Standard Penetration Test (SPT) was conducted at every 1.5 m interval up to 30 m depth. At 3 m depth, the observed number of hammer blows for three successive 150 mm penetrations were 8, 6 and 9 respectively. The SPT N-value at 3 m depth, is

(A)  23

(B)  17

(C)  15

(D)  14

Answer: (C)

12. Velocity of flow is proportional to the first power of hydraulic gradient in Darcy’s law. This law is applicable to

(A)  laminar flow in porous media

(B)  transitional flow in porous media

(C)  turbulent flow in porous media

(D)  laminar as well as turbulent flow in porous media

Answer: (A)

13. A body floating in a liquid is in a stable state of equilibrium if its

(A)  metacentre lies above its centre of gravity

(B)  metacentre lies below its centre of gravity

(C)  metacentre coincides with its centre of gravity

(D)  centre of gravity is below its centre of bouyancy

Answer: (A)

14. Uniform flow with velocity U makes an angle θ with the y-axis, as shown in the figure

The velocity potential (ϕ), is

(A)  ±U(x sin θ + y cos θ)

(B)  ±U(y sin θ − x cos θ)

(C)  ±U(x sin θ − y cos θ)

(D)  ±U(y sin θ + x cos θ)

Answer: (A)

15. The data an agricultural field for a specific month are given below:

Pan Evaporation = 100 mm

Effective Rainfall = 20 mm (after deducting losses due to runoff and deep percolation)

Crop Coefficient = 0.4

Irrigation Efficiency = 0.5

The amount of irrigation water (in mm) to be applied to the field in that month, is

(A)  0

(B)  20

(C)  40

(D)  80

Answer: (C)

16. During chlorination process, aqueous (aq) chlorine reacts rapidly with water to form Cl, HOCl, and H+ as shown below

Cl2 (aq) + H2O ⇌ HOCl + Cl + H+

The most active disinfectant in the chlorination process from amongst the following, is

(A)  H+

(B)  HOCl

(C)  Cl

(D)  H2O

Answer: (B)

17. An amount of 35.67 mg HCl is added to distilled water and the total solution volume is made to one litre. The atomic weights of H and Cl are 1 and 35.5, respectively. Neglecting the dissociation of water, the pH of the solution, is

(A)  3.50

(B)  3.01

(C)  2.50

(D)  2.01

Answer: (B)

18. The probability that a 50 year flood may NOT occur at all during 25 years life of a project (round of to two decimal places), is ______.

Answer: (0.59 to 0.61)

19. A planar elastic structure is subjected to uniformly distributed load, as shown in the figure (not drawn to the scale)

Neglecting self-weight, the maximum bending moment generated in the structure (in kN.m round off to the nearest integer), is _________.

Answer: (95 to 97)

20. In an urban area, a median is provided to separate the opposing streams of traffic. As per IRC:86-1983, the desirable minimum width (in m, expressed as integer) of the median, is _______.

Answer: (5 to 5)

21. A road in a hilly terrain is to be laid at a gradient of 4.5%. A horizontal curve of radius 100 mm is laid at a location on this road. Gradient needs to be eased due to combination of curved horizontal and vertical profiles of the road. As per IRC, the compensated gradient (in %, round off to one decimal place), is _______.

Answer: (4.0 to 4.0)

22. In a drained triaxial compression test, a sample of sand fails at deviator stress of 150 kPa under confining pressure of 50 kPa. The angle of internal friction (in degree, round of to the nearest integer) of the sample, is _______.

Answer: (36 to 38)

23. A fully submerged infinite sandy slope has an inclination of 30° with the horizontal. The saturated unit weight and effective angle of internal friction of sand are 18 kN/m3 and 38°, respectively. The unit weight of water is 10 kN/m3. Assume that seepage is parallel to the slope. Against shear failure of the slope. the factor of safety (round off to two decimal places) is _______.

Answer: (0.59 to 0.61)

24. A 4 m wide rectangular channel carries 6 m3/s of water. The Manning’s ‘n’ of the open channel is 0.02. Considering g = 9.81 m/s2, the critical velocity of flow (in m/s, round off to two decimal places) in the channel, is _________.

Answer: (2.35 to 2.55)

25. A river has a flow of 1000 million litres per day (MLD), BOD5 of 5 mg/litre and Dissolved Oxygen (DO) level of 8 mg/litre before receiving the wastewater discharge at a location. For the existing environmental conditions, the saturation DO level is 10 mg/litre in the river. Wastewater discharge of 100 MLD with the BOD5 of 200 mg/litre and DO level of 2 mg/litre falls at that location. Assuming complete mixing of wastewater and river water, the immediate DO deficit (in mg/litre round off to two decimal places), is ________.

Answer: (2.45 to 2.65)

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each.

26. For the Ordinary Differential Equation  with initial conditions x(0) = 0 and  the solution is

(A)  −5e2t + 6e3t

(B)  5e2t + 6e3t

(C)  −10e2t + 10e3t

(D)  10e2t + 10e3t

Answer: (C)

27. A continuous function f(x) is defined. If the third derivative at xi is to be computed by using the fourth order central finite-divided-difference scheme (with step length = h), the correct formula is

Answer: (A)

28. Distributed load(s) of 50 kN/m may occupy any position(s) (either continuously or in patches) in the girder PQRST as shown in the figure (not drawn to the scale)

The maximum negative (hogging) bending moment (in kN.m) that occurs at point R is

(A)  22.50

(B)  56.25

(C)  93.75

(D)  150.00

Answer: (B)

29. A rigid weightless platform PQRS shown in the figure (not drawn to the scale) can slide freely in the vertical direction. The platform is held in position by the weightless member OJ and four weightless, frictionless rollers. Points O and J are pin connections. A block of 90 kN rests on the platform as shown in the figure

The magnitude of horizontal component of the reaction (in kN) at pin O, is

(A)  90

(B)  120

(C)  150

(D)  180

Answer: (B)

30. A cantilever beam PQ of uniform flexural rigidity (EI) is subjected to a concentrated moment M at R as shown in the figure

The deflection at the free end Q is

(A)  ML2/6EI

(B)  ML2/4EI

(C)  3ML2/8EI

(D)  3ML2/4EI

Answer: (C)

31. A dowel bar is placed at a contraction joint. When contraction occurs, the concrete slab cracks at predetermined location(s). Identify the arrangement, which shows the correct placement of dowel bar and the place of occurrence of the contraction crack(s).

Answer: (B)

32. The relationship between traffic flow rate (q) and density (D) is shown in the figure

The shock wave condition is depicted by

(A)  flow with respect to point 1 (q1 = qmax)

(B)  flow changing from point 2 to point 6 (q2 > q6)

(C)  flow changing from point 3 to point 7 (q3 > q7)

(D)  flow with respect to point 4 and point 5 (q4 = q5)

Answer: (MTA)

33. The appropriate design length of a clearway is calculated on the basis of ‘Normal Take-off’ condition. Which one of the following options correctly depicts the length of t he clearway? (Note : None of the options are drawn to scale)

Answer: (C)

34. The total stress paths corresponding to different loading conditions, for a soil specimen under the isotropically consolidated stress state (O), are shown below

The correct match between the stress paths and the listed loading conditions, is

(A)  OP – I, OQ – II, OR – IV, OS – III

(B)  OP – IV, OQ – III, OR – I, OS – II

(C)  OP – III, OQ – II, OR – I, OS – IV

(D)  OP – I, OQ – III, OR – II, OS – IV

Answer: (B)

35. The soil profile at a suite up to a depth of 10 m is shown in the figure (not drawn to the scale). The soil is preloaded with a uniform surcharge (q) of 70 kN/m2 at the ground level. The water table is at a depth of 3 m below ground level. The soil unit weight of the respective layers is shown in the figure. Consider unit weight of water as 9.81 kN/m3 and assume that the surcharge (q) is applied instantaneously.

Immediately after preloading, the effective stresses (in kPa) a points P and Q, respectively, are

(A)  124 and 204

(B)  36 and 90

(C)  36 and 126

(D)  54 and 95

Answer: (D)

36. Water flows at the rate of 12 m3/s in a 6 m wide rectangular channel. A hydraulic jump is formed in the channel at a point where the upstream depth is 30 cm (just before the jump). Considering acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2 and density of water as 1000 kg/m3, the energy loss in the jump is

(A)  114.2 kW

(B)  114.2 MW

(C)  141.2 h.p.

(D)  141.2 J/s

Answer: (A)

37. A water supply scheme transports 10 MLD (Million Litres per Day) water through a 450 mm diameter pipeline for a distance of 2.5 km. A chlorine dose of 3.50 mg/litre is applied at the starting point of the pipeline to attain a certain level disinfection at the downstream end. It is decided to increase the flow rate from 10 MLD 13 MLD in the pipeline. Assume exponent for concentration, n = 0.86. With this increased flow, in order to attain the same level of disinfection, the chlorine dose (in mg/litre) to be applied at the starting point should be

(A)  3.95

(B)  4.40

(C)  4.75

(D)  5.55

Answer: (C)

38. An open traverse PQRST is surveyed using theodolite and the consecutive coordinates obtained are given in the table

If the independent coordinates (Northing, Easting) of station P are (400 m, 200 m), the independent coordinates (in m) of station T, are

(A)  194.7, 370.1

(B)  205.3, 429.9

(C)  394.7, 170.1

(D)  405.3, 229.9

Answer: (C)

39. If C represents a line segment between (0, 0, 0) and (1,1, 1) in Cartesian coordinate system, the value (expressed as integer) of the line integral ∫c[(y + z)dx + (x + z)dy + (x + y)dz] is _______.

Answer: (3 to 3)

40. Consider the system of equations 

The value of x3 (round off to the nearest integer), is ______.

Answer: (3 to 3)

41. A rigid, uniform, weightless, horizontal bar is connected to three vertical members P, Q and R as shown in the figure (not drawn to the scale). All three members have identical axial stiffness of 10 kN/mm. The lower ends of bars P and R rest on a rigid horizontal surface. When NO load is applied, a gap of 2 mm exists between the lower end of the bar Q and the rigid horizontal surface. When a vertical load W is placed on the horizontal bar in the downward direction, the bar still remains horizontal and gets displaced by 5 mm in the vertically downward direction.

The magnitude of the load W (in kN, round off to the nearest integer), is ________.

Answer: (129 to 131)

42. The flange and web plates of the doubly symmetric built-up section are connected by continuous 10 mm thick fillet welds as shown in the figure (not drawn to the scale). The moment of inertial of the section about its principal axis X-X is 7.73 × 106 mm4. The permissible shear stress in the fillet welds is 100 N/mm2. The design shear strength of the section is governed by the capacity of the fillet welds.

The maximum shear force (in kN, round off to one decimal place) that can be carried by the section, is_______.

Answer: (393.5 to 399.1)

43. The singly reinforced concrete beam section shown in the figure ( not drawn to the scale) is made of M25 grade concrete and Fe500 grade reinforcing steel. The total cross-sectional area of the tension steel is 942 mm2.

As per Limit State Design of IS 456:2000, the design moment capacity (in kN.m, round of to two decimal places) of the beam section, is ________.

Answer: (158.00 to 158.80)

44. A simply supported prismatic concrete beam of rectangular cross-section, having a span of 8 m, is prestressed with an effective prestressing force of 600 kN. The eccentricity of the prestressing tendon is zeo at supports and varies linearly to a value of e at the mid-span. In order to balance an external concentrated load of 12 kN applied at the mid-span, the required value of e (in mm, round off to the nearest integer) of the tendon, is _______.

Answer: (39 to 41)

45. Traffic volume count has been collected on a 2-lane road section which needs upgradation due to severe traffic flow condition. Maximum service flow rate per lane is observed as 1280 veh/h at level of service ‘C’. The Peak Hour Factor is reported as 0.78125. Historical traffic volume count provides Annual Average Daily Traffic as 12270 veh/day. Directional spilt of the traffic flow is observed to be 60:40. Assuming that traffic stream consists of ‘All Cars’ and all drivers are ‘Regular Commuters’, the number of extra lane(s) (round off to the next higher integer) to be provided, is _______.

Answer: (MTA)

46. A vertical retaining wall of 5 m height has to support soil having unit weight of 18 kN/m3, effective cohesion of 12 kN/m2, and effective friction angle of 30°. As per Rankine’s earth pressure theory and assuming that a tension crack has occurred, the lateral active thrust on the wall per meter length (in kN/m, round off to two decimal places), is_______.

Answer: (21.00 to 23.00)

47. Water flows in the upward direction in a tank through 2.5 m thick sand layer as shown in the figure. The void ratio and specific gravity of sand are 0.58 and 2.7, respectively. The sand is fully saturated. Unit weight of water is 10 kN/m3.

The effective stress (in kPa, round off to two decimal places) at point A, located I am above the base of tank, is _______.

Answer: (8.70 to 9.30)

48. A 10 m thick clay layer is resting over a 3 m thick sand layer and is submerged. A fill of 2 m thick sand with unit weight of 20 kN/m3 is placed above the clay layer to accelerate the rate of consolidation of the clay layer. Coefficient of consolidation of clay is 9 × 102 m2/year and coefficient of volume compressibility of clay is 2.2 × 104 m2/kN. Assume Taylor’s relation between time factor and average degree of consolidation.

The settlement (in mm, round off to two decimal places) of the clay layer, 10 years after the construction of the fill, is ______.

Answer: (18.40 to 19.50)

49. Three reservoirs P, Q and R are interconnected by pipes as shown in the figure (not drawn to the scale). Piezometric head at the junction S of the pipes is 100 m. Assume acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2 and density of water as 1000 kg/m3. The length of the pipe from junction S to the inlet of reservoir R is 180 m.

Considering head loss only due to friction (with friction factor of 0.03 for all the pipes), the height of water level in the lowermost reservoir R (in m, round off to one decimal place) with respect to the datum, is ________.

Answer: (97.2 to 97.8)

50. In a homogenous unconfined aquifer of area 3.00 km2, the water table was at an elevation of 102.00 m. After a natural recharge of volume of 0.90 million cubic meter (Mm3), the water table rose to 103.20 m. After this recharge, ground water pumping took place and the water table dropped down to 101.20 m. The volume of ground water pumped after the natural recharge, expressed (in Mm3 and round of to two decimal places), is ________.

Answer: (1.40 to 1.60)

51. A circular water tank of 2 m diameter has circular orifice of diameter 0.1 m at the bottom. Water enters the tank steadily at a flow rate of 20 litre/s and escapes through the orifice. The coefficient of discharge of the orifice is 0.8. Consider the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2 and neglect frictional losses. The height of the water level (in m, round off to two decimal places) in the tank at the steady state, is ________.

Answer: (0.50 to 0.54)

52. Surface overflow Rate (SOR) of a primary settling tank (discrete settling) is 20000 litre/m2 per day. Kinematic viscosity of water in the tank is 1.01 × 102 cm2/s. Specific gravity of the settling particles is 2.64. Acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. The minimum diameter (in μm, round off to one decimal place) of the particles that will be removed with 80% efficiency in the tank, is ______.

Answer: (14.0 to 15.0)

53. A gaseous chemical has a concentration of 41.6 μmol/m3 in air at 1 atm pressure and temperature 293 K. The universal gas constant R is 82.05 × 106 (m3 atm)/(mol K). Assuming that ideal gas law is valid, the concentration of the gaseous chemical (in ppm, round off to one decimal place), is _______.

Answer: (0.9 to 1.1)

54. A steam with a flow rate of 5 m3/s is having an ultimate BOD of 0 mg/litre. A wastewater discharge of 0.20 m3/s having BOD5 of 500 mg/litre joins the stream at a location and instantaneously gets mixed up completely. The cross-sectional area of the stream is 40 m2 which remains constant. BOD exertion rate constant is 0.3 per day (logarithm base to e). The BOD (in mg/litre, round off to two decimal places) remaining at 3 km downstream from the mixing location, is _______.

Answer: (49.00 to 50.00)

55. The lengths and bearings of a traverse PQRS are:

The length of line segment SP (in m, round off to two decimal places), is _________.

Answer: (44.00 to 45.00)

GATE Exam 2020 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2020

BT-Biotechnology

GA-General Aptitude

Q1-Q5 carry one mark each.

1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was conferred _____Mary Kom, a six-time world champion in boxing, recently in a ceremony _____ the Rashtrapati Bhawan (the President’s official residence) in New Delhi.

(A)  with, at

(B)  on, in

(C)  on, at

(D)  to, at

Answer: (C)

2. Despite a string of a poor performances, the changes of K. L. Rahul’s selection in the team are ______.

(A)  slim

(B)  bright

(C)  obvious

(D)  uncertain

Answer: (B)

3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Cover : Uncover :: Associate : _______

(A)  Unassociate

(B)  Inassociate

(C)  Missassociate

(D)  Dissociate

Answer: (D)

4. Hig by floods, he kharif (summer sown) crops in various parts of the county have been affected. Officials believe that the loss in production of the kharif crops can be recovered in the output of the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country can achieve its food-grain production target of 291 million tons in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June). They are hopeful that good rains in July-August will help the soil retain moisture for a longer period, helping winter sown crops such as wheat and pulses during the November-February period.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A)  Officials declared that the food-grain production target will be met due to good rains.

(B)  Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November-February period.

(C)  Officials feel that the food-grain production target cannot be met due to floods.

(D)  Officials hope that the food-grain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce.

Answer: (D)

5. The difference between the sum of the first 2n natural numbers and the sum of the first n odd natural numbers is ______.

(A)  n2 – n

(B)  n2 + n

(C)  2n2 – n

(D)  2n2 + n

Answer: (B)

Q6-Q10 carry two marks each.

6. Repo rate is the at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

(A)  Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(B)  Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

(C)  Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(D)  Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

Answer: (D)

7. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a circular table.

(I) S is seated opposite to W.

(II) U is seated at the second place to the right of R.

(III) T is seated at the third place to the left of R.

(IV) V is a neighbor of S.

Which of the following must be true?

(A)  P is a neighbor of R.

(B)  Q is a neighbor of R.

(C)  P is not seated opposite to Q.

(D)  R is the left neighbor of S.

Answer: (C)

8. The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car Q started from Agra to Delhi along the same road 1 hour after the car P started. The two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car Q started. Both cars were travelling at constant speed. The speed of car P was 10 km/hr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other?

(A)  66.6

(B)  75.2

(C)  88.2

(D)  116.5

Answer: (B)

9. For a matrix M = [mij], i. j= 1, 2, 3, 4, the diagonal elements are all zero and mij = −mij. The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix is_______.

(A)  0

(B)  6

(C)  12

(D)  16

Answer: (B)

10. The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. If the two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013-2018 is ______.

(A)  15 : 17

(B)  16 : 17

(C)  17 : 15

(D)  17 : 16

Answer: (B)

BT: Biotechnology

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each.

1. Protein P becomes functional upon phosphorylation of a serine residue. Replacing this serine with _____ will result in a phophomimic mutant of P.

(A)  alanine

(B)  aspartic acid

(C)  phenylalanine

(D)  lysine

Answer: (B)

2. Ras protein is a

(A)  trimeric GTPase involved in relaying signal from cell surface to nucleus.

(B)  monomeric GTPase involved in relaying signal from cell surface to nucleus.

(C)  trimeric GTPase involved in regulation of cytoskeleton.

(D)  monomeric GTPase involved in regulation of cytoskeleton.

Answer: (B OR D)

3. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

[P] Viruses can play a role in causing human cancer

[Q] A tumor suppressor gene can be turned off without any change in its DNA sequence

[R] Alteration in miRNA expression levels contributes to the development of cancer

(A)  P and Q only

(B)  Q and R only

(C)  P and R only

(D)  P, Q and R

Answer: (D)

4. Which class of antibody is first made by developing B cells inside bone marrow?

(A)  IgG

(B)  IgE

(C)  IgA

(D)  IgM

Answer: (D)

5. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] regarding mammalian cells.

Assertion [a]: Cells use Ca2+, and not Na+, for cell-to-cell signaling

Reason [r]: In the cytosol, concentration of Na+ is lower than that of Ca2+

(A)  Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].

(B)  Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].

(C)  Both [a] and [r] are false.

(D)  [a] is true but [r] is false.

Answer: (D)

6. Vincristine and vinblastine, two commercially important secondary metabolites from Catharanthus roseus, are examples of

(A)  alkaloids.

(B)  flavonoids.

(C)  terpenoids.

(D)  steroids.

Answer: (A)

7. DNA synthesized from and RNA template is called

(A)  recombinant DNA.

(B)  transcript.

(C)  T-DNA.

(D)  complementary DNA.

Answer: (D)

8. Two monomeric His-tagged proteins of identical molecular weight are present in a solution.pIs of these two proteins are 5.6 and 6.8. Which one of the following techniques can be used to separate them?

(A)  Denaturing polyacrylaminde gel electrophoresis

(B)  Size-exclusion chromatography

(C)  Ion-exchange chromatography

(D)  Nickel affinity chromatography

Answer: (C)

9. During a positive-negative selection process, transformed animal cells expressing ________ are killed in presence of ganciclovir in the medium.

(A)  pyruvate kinase

(B)  viral thymidine kinase

(C)  viral serine/threonine kinase

(D)  viral tyrosine kinase

Answer: (B)

10. A vector derived from which one of the following viruses is used to high-frequency genomic integration of a transgene in animal cells?

(A)  Adenovirus

(B)  Adeno-associated virus

(C)  Lentivirus

(D)  Herpes simplex virus

Answer: (C)

11. Which one of the following statements about Agrobacterium Ti plasmid is CORRECT?

(A)  Vir genes are located within the T-DNA segment

(B)  Phytohormone biosynthesis genes are located outside the T-DNA segment

(C)  Opine catabolism genes are located within the T-DNA segment

(D)  Opine biosynthesis genes are located within the T-DNA segment

Answer: (D)

12. Which of the following types of molecules act as biological catalysts?

[P] Protein

[Q] RNA

[R] Phospholipid

(A)  P and Q only

(B)  P and R only

(C)  Q and R only

(D)  P, Q and R

Answer: (A)

13. Which one of the following media components is used to maintain pH in mammalian cell culture?

(A)  CaCl2

(B)  MgSO4

(C)  NaCl

(D)  NaHCO3

Answer: (D)

14. Which of the following are energy transducing membranes?

[P] Plasma membrane of bacteria

[Q] Inner membrane of chloroplasts

[R] Inner membrane of mitochondria

(A)  P and Q only

(B)  P and R only

(C)  Q and R only

(D)  P, Q and R

Answer: (B)

15. Amino acid sequences of cytochrome c and ribulose 5-phosphate epimerase from 40 organsims were chosen and phylogenetic trees were obtained for each of these two protein families.

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: The two trees will not be identical

Reason [r]: The nature and frequency of mutations in the two families are different

(A)  Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].

(B)  Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].

(C)  Both [a] and [r] are false.

(D)  [a] is false but [r] is true.

Answer: (A)

16. A microorganism isolated from a salt-rich (salt concentration~2 M) lake was found to posses diglycerol tetraethers, with polyisoprenoid alcohol side chains, as the major lipid component of its cell membrane. The isolated organism is

(A)  a planctomycete.

(B)  a cyanobacteria.

(C)  a unicellular amoeba.

(D)  an archaea.

Answer: (D)

17. A function f is as follows:

The function f is continuous function when c is equal to ______ (answer is an integer).

Answer: (15 to 15)

18. Given that Z= X2 + Y2, the value of and Y = 0  is _______(answer is an integer).

Answer: (2 to 2)

19. The elemental composition of dry biomass of a yeast species is CH6O0.4N0.2S0.0024P0.017, The contribution of carbon to the dry biomass is _________% (round off to 2 decimal places).

[Given: atomic weights of H, C, N, O P and S are 1, 12, 14, 16, 31 and 32, respectively]

Answer: (51.01 to 52.99)

20. Solvents A and B are completely immiscible. Solute S is soluble in both these solvents. 100 g of S was added to a container which has 2 kg each of A and B. The solute is 1.5 times more soluble in solvent A than in solvent B. The mixture was agitated thoroughly and allowed to reach equilibrium. Assuming that the solute has completely dissolved, the amount of solute in solvent A phase is ______g.

Answer: (60 to 60)

21. The number of molecules of a nucleotide of molecular weight 300 g/mol present in 10 picomoles is ______ × 102 (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (5.99 to 6.05)

22. To facilitate mass transfer from a gas to a liquid phase, a gas bubble of radius r is introduced into the liquid. The gas bubble then breaks into 8 bubbles of equal radius. Upon this change, the ratio of the interfacial surface area to the gas phase volume for the system changes form 3/r to 3n/r. The value of n is ________.

Answer: (2 to 2)

23. The largest eigenvalue of the matrix  is _______.

Answer: (3 to 3)

24. A normal random variable has mean equal to 0, and standard deviation equal to 3. The probability that on a random draw the value of this random variable is greater than 0 is _________ (round off 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.49 to 0.51)

25. A variable Y is a function of t. Given that Y (t = 0) = 1 and Y(t = 1) = 2,  in the interval t = [0, 1] can be approximated as ______.

Answer: (1 to 1)

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each.

26. A block of ice at 0°C is supplied heat at a constant rate to convert ice to superheated steam. Which one of the following trajectories correctly represents the trend of the temperature of the system with time? Assume that the specific heat of H2O is not a function of temperature.

Answer: (A)

27. The DNA sequence shown below is to be amplified by PCR:

Which one of the following pair of primers can be used for this amplification?

Answer: (B)

28. Which of the following statements about immune response are CORRECT?

[P] T cells are activated by antigen-presenting cells

[Q] Foreign peptides are not presented to helper T cells by Class II MHC proteins

[R] Dendritic cells are referred to as professional antigen-presenting cells

(A)  P and R only

(B)  P and Q only

(C)  Q and R only

(D)  P, Q and R

Answer: (A)

29. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about eukaryotic cells cycle?

[P] CDKs can phosphorylate proteins in the absence of cyclins

[Q] CDKs can be inactivated by phosphorylation

[R] Degradation of cyclins is required for cell cycle progression

[S] CDKs are not involved in chromosome condensation

(A)  P and R only

(B)  P and S only

(C)  P, Q and R only

(D)  Q and R only

Answer: (D)

30. W, X and Y are the intermediates in a biochemical pathway as shown below:

Mutants auxotrophic for Z are found in four different complementation groups, namely Z1, Z2, Z3 and Z4. The growth of these mutants on media supplemented with W, X, Y, or Z is shown below (Yes: growth observed; No: growth not observed):

What is the order of the four complementation groups in terms of the step they block?

Answer: (B)

31. In tomato plant, red (R) is dominant over yellow (r) for fruit color and purple (P) is dominant over green (p) for stem color. Fruit color and stem color assort independently. The number of progeny plants of different fruit/stem colors obtained from a mating are as follows:

Red fruit, purple stem – 145

Red fruit, green stem – 184

Yellow fruit, purple stem – 66

Yellow fruit, green stem – 47

What are the genotypes of the parent plants in this mating?

(A)  RrPp × Rrpp

(B)  RrPp × RrPp

(C)  RRPP × rrpp

(D)  RrPP × Rrpp

Answer: (A)

32. Some of the cytokinins used in plant tissue culture media are given blow:

[P] BAP

[Q] Zeatin

[R] Kinetin

[S] 2iP

Which of these are synthetic analogs?

(A)  P and Q only

(B)  Q and S only

(C)  R and S only

(D)  P and R only

Answer: (D)

33. Carl Woese used the gene sequence of which one of the following for phylogenetic taxonomy of prokaryotes?

(A)  A ribosomal RNA of large ribosomal subunit

(B)  A ribosomal RNA of small ribosomal subunit

(C)  A ribosomal protein of large ribosomal subunit

(D)  A ribosomal protein of small ribosomal subunit

Answer: (B)

34. A list of pathogens (Group I) and a list of anti-microbial agents (Group II) used to treat their infections are given below. Match the pathogens with the corresponding anti-microbial agents.

(A)  P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-5

(B)  P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Answer: (C)

35. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: Dam metylase protects E. coli DNA from phage endonucleases

Reason [r]: E. coli dam methylase methylates the adenosine residue in the sequence “GATC”

(A)  Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B)  Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C)  Both [a] and [r] are false

(D)  [a] is false but [r] is true

Answer: (D)

36. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: Embryonic stem cells are suitable for developing knockout mice

Reason [r]: Homologous recombination is more frequent in embryonic stem cells than that in somatic cells

(A)  Both [a] and [r] are false

(B)  Both [a] and [r] are true, and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(C)  Both [a] and [r] are true, but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D)  [a] is true, but [r] is false

Answer: (B)

37. The schematic of a plasmid with a gap in one of the strands is shown below:

Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are required to fill the gap and generate a covalently closed circular plasmid?

[P] DNA ligase

[Q] Alkaline phosphatase

[R] DNA polymerase

[S] Polynucleotide kinase

(A)  P only

(B)  P, R and S only

(C)  P and R only

(D)  P, Q and R only

Answer: (B)

38. Match sub-cellular organelles listed in Group I with their features listed in Group II:

(A)  P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(B)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D)  P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer: (C)

39. Which of the following strategies are used by cells for metabolic regulation?

[P] Phosphorylation-dephosphorylation

[Q] Allostery

[R] Feedback inhibition

(A)  P and Q only

(B)  P and R only

(C)  Q and R only

(D)  P, Q and R

Answer: (D)

40. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: A zygote and its immediate descendant cells are unspecialized and are called totipotent

Reason [r]: Totipotent cells retain the capacity to differentiate into only a few cell types

(A)  Both [a] and [r] are false

(B)  Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C)  Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(D)  [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (D)

41. Which of the following statements about gene therapy are CORRECT?

[P] Affected individuals, but not their progeny, can be cured through germline gene therapy

[Q] Affected individuals, as well as their progeny, can be cured through germline gene therapy

[R] Affected individuals, but not their progeny, can be cured through somatic gene therapy

[S] Affected individuals, as well as their progeny, can be cured through somatic gene therapy

(A)  P and R only

(B)  P and S only

(C)  Q and R only

(D)  Q and S only

Answer: (C)

42. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: A genetically engineered rice that produces beta-carotene in the rice grain is called Golden rice

Reason [r]: Enabling biosynthesis of provitamin A in the rice endosperm gives a characteristic yellow/orange color

(A)  Both [a] and [r] are false

(B)  Both [a] and [r] and true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C)  Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(D)  [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (C)

43. The sequence of a 1 Mb long DNA is random. This DNA has all four bases occurring in equal proportion. The number of nucleotides, on average, between two successive EcoRI recognition site GAATTC is______.

Answer: (4096 to 4096)

44. E. Coli was grown in 15N medium for several generations. Cells were then transferred to 14N medium, allowed to grow for 4 generations and DNA was isolated immediately. The proportion of total DNA with intermediate density is ________ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.11 to 0.14)

45. A batch reactor is inoculated with 1 g/L biomass. Under these conditions, cells exhibit a lag phase of 30 min. If the specific growth rate in the log phase is 0.00417 min1, the time taken for the biomass to increase to 8 g/L is _______ min (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (526.01 to 529.99)

46. The system of linear equations

cx + y = 5

3x + 3y = 6

has no solution when c is equal to _______.

Answer: (1 to 1)

47. The amino acid sequence of a peptide is Phe-Leu-Ile-Met-Ser-Leu. The number of codons that encode the amino acids present in this peptide is given below:

Phe: 2 codons

Leu: 6 codons

Ile: 3 codons

Met: 1 codon

Ser: 4 codons

The number of unique DNA sequences that can encode this peptide is________.

Answer: (864 to 864)

48. Assume that a cell culture was started with five human fibroblast cells. Two cells did not divide even once whereas the other three cells completed three rounds of cell division. At this stage, the total number of kinetochores in all the cells put together is _______.

Answer: (1196 to 1196)

49. Growth of an organism on glucose in a chemostat is characterized by Monod model with specific growth rate = 0.45 h1 and Ks = 0.5 g/L. Biomass from the substrate is generated as YXS = 0.4 g/g. The chemostat volume is 0.9 L and media is fed at 1 L/h and contains 20 g/L of glucose. At steady state, the concentration of biomass in t he chemostat is _______ g/L.

Answer: (0 to 0)

50. A function f is given as: f(X) = 4X – X2

The function f is maximized when X is equal to _______.

Answer: (2 to 2)

51. An infinite series S is given as:

S = 1 + 2/3 + 3/9 + 4/27 + 5/81 + ….. (to infinity)

The value of S is ________ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (2.20 to 2.30)

52. Protein A and protein B form a covalent complex. Gel filtration chromatography of this complex showed a peak corresponding to 200 kDa. SDS-PAGE analysis of this complex, with and without beta-mercaptoethanol, showed a single band corresponding to molecular weight 50 and 25 kDa, respectively. Given that the molecular weight of protein A is 25 kDa, the molecular weight of protein B is ______ kDa.

Answer: (25 to 25)

53. The concentrations of ATP, ADP and inorganic phosphate in a cell are 2.59, 0.73 and 2.72 mM, respectively. Under these conditions, free energy change for the synthesis of ATP at 37°C is _____ kJ/mol (round off to 2 decimal places).

Given: free energy change for ATP hydrolysis under standard condition is −30.5 kJ/mol and R = 8.315 kJ/mol.K

Answer: (48.50 to 49.50 OR 18521.20 to 18521.30)

54. An algorithm was designed to find globins in protein sequence databases. A database which as 78 globin sequences was searched using this algorithm. The algorithm retrieved 72 sequences of which only 65 were globins. The sensitivity of this algorithm is ________% (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (83.30 to 83.40)

55. The mitochondrial electron transfer chain oxidizes NADH with oxygen being the terminal electron acceptor. The redox potentials for the two half-reactions are given below:

The free energy change associated with the transfer of electrons from NADH to O2 is ______ kJ/mol (round off to 2 decimal places).

Given: F = 96500 C/mol.

Answer: (-219.30 to -219.20)

GATE Exam 2020 Biomedical Engineering (BM) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2020

BM: Biomedical Engineering

GA-General Aptitude

Q1-Q5 carry one mark each.

1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was conferred _____Mary Kom, a six-time world champion in boxing, recently in a ceremony _____ the Rashtrapati Bhawan (the President’s official residence) in New Delhi.

(A)  with, at

(B)  on, in

(C)  on, at

(D)  to, at

Answer: (C)

2. Despite a string of a poor performances, the changes of K. L. Rahul’s selection in the team are ______.

(A)  slim

(B)  bright

(C)  obvious

(D)  uncertain

Answer: (B)

3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Cover : Uncover :: Associate : _______

(A)  Unassociate

(B)  Inassociate

(C)  Missassociate

(D)  Dissociate

Answer: (D)

4. Hig by floods, he kharif (summer sown) crops in various parts of the county have been affected. Officials believe that the loss in production of the kharif crops can be recovered in the output of the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country can achieve its food-grain production target of 291 million tons in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June). They are hopeful that good rains in July-August will help the soil retain moisture for a longer period, helping winter sown crops such as wheat and pulses during the November-February period.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A)  Officials declared that the food-grain production target will be met due to good rains.

(B)  Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November-February period.

(C)  Officials feel that the food-grain production target cannot be met due to floods.

(D)  Officials hope that the food-grain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce.

Answer: (D)

5. The difference between the sum of the first 2n natural numbers and the sum of the first n odd natural numbers is ______.

(A)  n2 – n

(B)  n2 + n

(C)  2n2 – n

(D)  2n2 + n

Answer: (B)

Q6-Q10 carry two marks each.

6. Repo rate is the at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

(A)  Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(B)  Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

(C)  Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(D)  Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

Answer: (D)

7. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a circular table.

(I) S is seated opposite to W.

(II) U is seated at the second place to the right of R.

(III) T is seated at the third place to the left of R.

(IV) V is a neighbor of S.

Which of the following must be true?

(A)  P is a neighbor of R.

(B)  Q is a neighbor of R.

(C)  P is not seated opposite to Q.

(D)  R is the left neighbor of S.

Answer: (C)

8. The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car Q started from Agra to Delhi along the same road 1 hour after the car P started. The two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car Q started. Both cars were travelling at constant speed. The speed of car P was 10 km/hr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other?

(A)  66.6

(B)  75.2

(C)  88.2

(D)  116.5

Answer: (B)

9. For a matrix M = [mij], i. j= 1, 2, 3, 4, the diagonal elements are all zero and mij = −mij. The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix is_______.

(A)  0

(B)  6

(C)  12

(D)  16

Answer: (B)

10. The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. If the two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013-2018 is ______.

(A)  15 : 17

(B)  16 : 17

(C)  17 : 15

(D)  17 : 16

Answer: (B)

BM: Biomedical Engineering

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each.

1. m1 and m2 are the roots of the characteristic equation of a linear second order physical system. Match the nature of the roots with the natural response of the system.

(A)  P-L, Q-M, R-K

(B)  P-M, Q-L, R-K

(C)  P-L, Q-K, R-M

(D)  P-M, Q-K, R-L

Answer: (C)

2. A person is sitting in a chair with feet on the ground. While rising up on his feet, the kinematic motion NOT occurring is

(A)  Hip extension

(B)  Plantar flexion

(C)  Hip flexion

(D)  Knee extension

Answer: (C)

3. The equipment that measures elasticity of blood vessel in vivo is

(A)  Rheometer

(B)  Dimension anlayser

(C)  Thermomechanical analyser

(D)  Dynamic mechanical analyser

Answer: (B)

4. Biomaterials with shape memory effects are NOT used in

(A)  Intracranial aneurysm clips

(B)  Arterial blood vessel closure devices

(C)  Orthopedic total joint replacements

(D)  Orthodontic dental arch wires

Answer: (C)

5. The MRI scanner parameter of long TRep or short TEcho will generate a ________contrast image

(A)  Proton Density-weighted

(B)  T2-weighted

(C)  T1-weighted

(D)  T2*-weighted

Answer: (MTA)

6. In diagnostic X-ray imaging, the following is NOT a part of primary EM radiation interaction in soft tissue.

(A)  Photoelectric effect

(B)  Characteristic radiation production

(C)  Compton scattering

(D)  Pair-production

Answer: (B OR D)

7. A 5 MHz ultrasound pulse is used to image a tumor at a depth of 2 cm in a soft tissue. It takes time t for the reflected echo from the tumor to come back to the receiver. Instead, if a 2.5 MHz wave is used, how long will it take for the echo from the same tumor to arrive at the receiver?

(A)  t/2

(B)  t

(C)  2t

(D)  4t

Answer: (B)

8. X(s) is the Laplace transform of a signal x(t).

The Laplace transform of  assuming x(0) = 0, is

(A)  sX(s)

(B)  X(s)/s

(C)  DX(s)/ds

(D) 

Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following are odd functions?

P: Sin(t)

Q: Cos(t)

R: Sin(t) + Cos(t)

(A)  Q and S

(B)  P and Q

(C)  P and S

(D)  R and Q

Answer: (C)

10. State-space model of a system is given as:

The conditions for the system to be controllable are

(A)  a = 0, b ≠ 0

(B)  a ≠, b = 0

(C)  a ≠ = 0, b ≠ 0

(D)  a = 0, b = 0

Answer: (C)

11. In microprocessor systems with memory mapped I/O, which of the following is true?

(A)  Only I/O devices with internal memory can be interfaced.

(B)  I/O devices can be accessed using IN and OUT instructions

(C)  Each I/O device can be addressed as a memory location

(D)  Arithmetic and logic operations cannot be directly performed with the I/O data

Answer: (C)

12. The number of electrodes used in recording standard 12-lead Electrocardiogram (ECG)

(A)  13

(B)  12

(C)  11

(D)  10

Answer: (D)

13. Which of the following is NOT a part of knee joint?

(A)  Patella

(B)  Tibia

(C)  Femur

(D)  Fibula

Answer: (D)

14. During a routine stethoscopic examination at the left midclavicular-5th intercostals space, murmurs were noted between first and second heart sound. The possible abnormality among the following could be

(A)  Aortic stenosis

(B)  Mitral regurgitation

(C)  Mitral stenosis

(D)  Aortic regurgitation

Answer: (B)

15. The thin filament of a muscle fiber is comprised of

(A)  Troponin, Tropomyosin, Actin

(B)  Troponin, Tropomyosin, Titin

(C)  Tropomyosin, Titin, Actin

(D)  Actin, Mysoin, Troponin

Answer: (A)

16. The value of the integral evaluated over the contour C : |z| = 3/2 is ________

Answer: (-1.1 to -0.9)

17. The eigenvalues of a 3 × 3 non-singular matrix P are 1, 2 and 3. The trace of matrix P1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is _______

Answer: (1.82 to 1.84)

18. The following recursion relation, when started from a finite positive non-zero value, converges to ______

Answer: (1 to 1)

19. In a nuclear imaging system, Sodium Iodide (NaI) crystals are used to detect gamma rays of 120 keV. The percentage (%) of gamma-rays that will pass through 1 cm of NaI crystal, assuming the Half-Value-Layer (HVL) of NaI as 0.2 cm, is ________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (3.0 to 3.2)

20. The distal end of an endoscope is placed at a distance of 1 mm from the gastrointestinal wall. The refractive indices of the fiber core and cladding are 1.5 and 1.45, respectively.

The maximum field of view for the endoscope is _______ degrees (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (44 to 46)

21. Two inductors with the details given below are wound separately on two identical ring type ferromagnetic cores.

The ratio L2/L1 is ______.

Answer: (4 to 4)

22. Two days X and Y having concentrations in the ratio 0.25 in identical cuvettes were subjected to absorption measurements in a spectrophotometer. The estimated ratio of their absorbance is 0.5. The ratio of their molar extinction coefficients is ______.

Answer: (2 to 2)

23. Hydrolysis of one ATP molecule provides an energy of _______ kilo calories (correct up to one decimal place).

Answer: (7.25 to 7.35)

24. An 830 nm laser Doppler flow meter probe is oriented at an angle of 60° to the flow axis. If the average flow velocity is 3 cm/s, the magnitude of Doppler shift frequency (kHz) is ________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (35.8 to 36.4)

25. A 100 mA single current pulse from a pulse generator is used for artificial pacing of heart at the right ventricle. If the delivered energy does not exceed the fibrillation threshold of 300 μJ, the safe duration of the pulse that could be applied to the tissue mass having an impedance of 500 Ω is ________ μ

Answer: (60 to 60)

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each.

26. The resting potential of a mammalian nerve cell is −80 mV. A certain drug administered to the body changes the intracellular K+ concentration from 150 mmol/L to 55 mmol/L. The nearest value of cell membrane potential after the drug administration, assuming that the external equilibrium of K+ does not get changed during the event, is

(Gas constant = 8.315 J/mol/K, core temperature = 37°C and Faraday constant = 96500 C/mol)

(A)  −117 mV

(B)  −18.71 mV

(C)  −53.32 mV

(D)  −141.30 mV

Answer: (C)

27. The arrangement of four resistors of equal value in the diaphragm of a physiological pressure measurement catheter is shown below. The applied pressure is observed to cause an increase in length of resistors R2, R4 and an increase in cross sectional area in R1 and R3. The operation results in an equal change in the values of all four resistors. Which among the configuration given below should be used to connect the resistors to form a Wheatstone bridge so that bridge output voltage is proportional to the change in resistance of individual resistors?

(A)  I only

(B)  II only

(C)  Neither I nor II

(D)  Both I and II

Answer: (A)

28. For the given input voltage, Vin = 10 sin (2πt) to the functional circuit shown below, the output signal will be

Answer: (D)

29. During a non-invasive measurement of blood pressure, mean arterial pressure was observed to be 100 mm Hg. If systolic pressure is 150 mm Hg, the diastolic pressure would be

(A)  110 mm Hg

(B)  75 mm Hg

(C)  70 mm Hg

(D)  50 mm Hg

Answer: (B)

30. Two loads are connected to AC supply mains as depicted in the figure. One load draws 10 kW whereas the other load of 10 kVA is operated at 0.6 pf lagging. To achieve an overall power factor of 0.9544 lagging, the nearest kVAr rating of the capacitor bank needed to be connected across the supply mains is equal to

(A)  3

(B)  5

(C)  7

(D)  9

Answer: (A)

31. The nearest value of power dissipated in the 3Ω resistance in the circuit is

(A)  3 W

(B)  25/3 W

(C)  12 W

(D)  25/12 W

Answer: (A)

32. A second order low pass filter is being constructed by cascading two first order low pass filters with the following transfer functions

where ω1 and ω2 are the respective 3dB cut off frequencies.

The undamped natural frequency ωc of the resulting second order low pass filter is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

33. Match the bridge type with the application given below:

(A)  P-L, Q-K, R-N, S-M

(B)  P-N, Q-K, R-L, S-M

(C)  P-N, Q-L, R-M, S-K

(D)  P-L, Q-M, R-N, S-K

Answer: (A)

34. For a non-unity feedback system with  the magnitude of steady-state error to a unit step-input is

(A)  0.50

(B)  0.45

(C)  0.25

(D)  0.20

Answer: (D)

35. Match the Boolean expression with its minimal realization

(A)  P-K, Q-L, R-N, S-M

(B)  P-L, Q-K, R-N, S-M

(C)  P-L, Q-N, R-M, S-K

(D)  P-M, Q-K, R-L, S-N

Answer: (B)

36. The glomerulus filtration process of kidney is modeled as a flat membrane with pores of radius 1 nm and length of pore 60 nm. The viscosity of the fluid is 0.002 Pa s. The aggregate area of the pores makeup 5% of total surface area of the membrane. The average pressure on the blood side of the membrane is 8000 Pa and on the ultrafiltrate side is 6200 Pa. The total available area of membrane is 1.5 m2. The nearest value of resulting filtration rate in cm3/min is

(A)  0.14

(B)  1.40

(C)  8.43

(D)  84.37

Answer: (C)

37. During resting state, the voltage outside the cell membrane compared to that inside the membrane is _______. Under such conditions, the intracellular and extracellular regions have _______ and ________ concentrations, respectively.

(A)  Moe positive, more Potassium [K+], more Sodium [Na+]

(B)  More negative, more Potassium [K+], more Sodium [Na+]

(C)  More negative, more Sodium [Na+], more Potassium [K+]

(D)  More positive, more Sodium [Na+], more Potassium [K+]

Answer: (A)

38. The tensile strength of a degradable suture used for a surgical procedure in the human body is observed to decrease exponentially from its original strength by 40% and 50% after 10 days and 20 days, respectively. The closest approximation of the time taken for the tensile strength to decay to 20% of its original value would be

(A)  35 days

(B)  45 days

(C)  60 days

(D)  70 days

Answer: (D)

39. A 60 kg person is standing on one foot on force plate. The ground reaction force is found to act 40 mm anterior to the ankle joint. The mass center of a foot is 60 mm from the Trochanter Knee Ankle (TKA) line. If the weight of the foot is 0.8 kg, the closest value of magnitude of moment acting on the ankle joint is

(A)  23 Nm

(B)  48 Nm

(C)  235 Nm

(D)  466 Nm

Answer: (A)

40. The temperature of bone cement is increased from 37°C to 87°C during the femoral hip arthroplasty. The cement thickness is noted to be 20 mm. The stress developed due to exothermic reaction of bone cement during the polymerization process and shrinkage of the bone cement, respectively, are

Assume that

(i) bone, cement, and implant are modeled as a set of concentric cylinders

(ii) no direct adhesion takes place between bone and cement

(iii) temperature is uniform

Coefficient of thermal expansion of bone cement = 90 × 106/°C

Young’s modulus of bone cement = 3.5 GPa

(A)  15.75 MPa, 90 μm

(B)  15.75 MPa, 110 μm

(C)  6.85 MPa, 110 μm

(D)  6.85 MPa, 90 μm

Answer: (A)

41. A patient is initially imaged in a 1 Tesla MRI scanner and induced voltage is found to be equal to V1. The expression for the magnitude of the received voltage in RF coil is given below.

|V| = 2πγ0VSM0 (Sin α) βr

VS : MR slice volume, M0: Magnitude of resultant magnetic vector at equilibrium,

γ0 : Larmor frequency, α: tip angle, βr : Magnetic field sensitivity of receive coil.

When the patient is shifted to a 3 Tesla MRI scanner that uses the same RF coil and the slice thickness is halved, the magnitude of the induced voltage was found to be equal to V2. The ratio V2/V1 is

(A)  1.5

(B)  3.0

(C)  4.5

(D)  6.0

Answer: (C)

42. A 3 MHz ultrasound transducer transmits a 3-cycle long pulse into a soft tissue at normal incidence to fat and liver interface. The axial resolution (mm) and the amplitude reflection coefficient at fat-liver interface, respectively, are

Use Ctissue = 1500 m/s, Cfat = 1450 m/s, Cliver = 1570 m/s, ρflat = 920 kg/m3, ρliver = 1060 kg/m3

(A)  0.5, 0.22

(B)  0.75, 0.22

(C)  0.5, 0.11

(D)  0.75, 0.11

Answer: (D)

43. The forward biased current of a silicon (SI) diode is being calculated from the exponential model of the V-I characteristics. If the diode current ID = 1 mA at a voltage drop VD = 0.7 V, the nearest value of ID when VD = 0.8 V is

Assume thermal voltage VT = 25.3 mV for Si diode

(A)  0.133 mA

(B)  2 mA

(C)  52 mA

(D)  90 mA

Answer: (C)

44. A continuous random variable x has a probability density function given by f(x) = e−α|x| (−∞ < x < ∞)

where α is a real constant. The variance of x is _______ (correct up to one decimal place).

Answer: (0.5 to 0.5)

45. The magnitude of the gradient of the function f(x, y) = x2 + y2 at the point (1, 1) is ________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (2.8 to 2.9)

46. The value of following double integral is ________ (correct up to three decimal places).

R­ xy dxdy

where R is the first quadrant of the circle with center at the origin and radius of one unit.

Answer: (0.125 to 0.125)

47. A gynaeocologist recorded the blood pressure (BP) of patients as shown in the Table below. Using Regression processes, the diastolic BP of a 38 year old patient (mm Hg) is  ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (86.5 to 87.7)

48. A person in standing position first flexes the hip by 50° from the initial Trochanter knee ankle (TKA) line and then flexes knee by 20°. The distance of ankle joint from the initial TKA line is _____ (rounded off to nearest integer).

(i) the distance between hip joint and knee joint is 400 mm

(ii) the distance between knee joint and ankle joint is 300 mm.

Answer: (456 to 457)

49. A chest radiograph of 36 cm × 48 cm is digitized. If we want to preserve details in the image to a spatial resolution of 6 cycles/mm, the approximate image data size in MB for an 8 bit quantization is _______ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (23.70 to 23.75)

50. An X-ray radiography scenario is shown in the figure. If the number of incident photons (Ni) is equal to 2 × 106 at 50 keV, the number of photons (Nd) that exit the tissue is ______ × 106 (rounded off to two decimal places).

(use linear attenuation coefficient for soft tissue and blood at 50 keV as 0.4 cm1 and 0.2 cm1, respectively)

Answer: (0.5 to 0.6)

51. The wavelength of an electron accelerated to a potential of 1V is ________ nm (rounded off to two decimal places).

Mass of electron = 9.11 × 1031 kg

Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 × 1034 Js

Charge of electron = 1.6 × 1019 C

Answer: (1.20 to 1.25)

52. In a permanent magnetic moving coil (PMMC) instrument having following specifications, the angular deflection of the pointer for a coil current of 100 μA will be _______ degrees (rounded off to one decimal place).

Magnetic flux density = 1.5 Tesla

Torsional spring constant = 2 × 106 Nm/deg

Cross sectional area of the coil = 2.5 cm2

Number of turns of the coil = 500

Answer: (9.0 to 9.6)

53. Arterial blood extracted from a healthy adult showed an oxygen partial pressure value of 40 mm Hg. The total oxygen content in the arterial blood measured in %V/V is ________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Given : Solubility of oxygen in blood = 0.003 ml/mm Hg/dL

Hemoglobin oxygen saturation = 95%

Oxygen carrying capacity of Hb = 1.34 ml/g

Arterial blood hemoglobin concentration = 15 g/dL

Answer: (19.2 to 19.4)

54. In the process of measure blood flow from an artery using C-clamp magnetic flow probe, the voltage recorded across diametrically opposite sites of the artery is 3.75 nV. The blood flow rate through the artery is _____ cm3/s (rounded off to two decimal places).

The inner diameter of the C-clamp = 0.5 cm,

The magnetic flux density = 1.5 × 105 Wb/m2.

Answer: (0.95 to 0.99)

55. A cell is injected with a current i(t) = u(t) to produce a change in the intracellular membrane voltage v(t). The cell-membrane is modeled as a linear system with impulse response h(t) = Aet/τ u(t). The cell membrane voltage output at 5 ms is _______ mV.

Use A = −34 V/s; τ = 3 ms.

Answer: (-84 to -81)

GATE Exam 2020 Architecture and Planning (AR) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2020

AR-Architecture and Planning

GA-General Aptitude

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each.

1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was conferred _____Mary Kom, a six-time world champion in boxing, recently in a ceremony _____ the Rashtrapati Bhawan (the President’s official residence) in New Delhi.

(A)  with, at

(B)  on, in

(C)  on, at

(D)  to, at

Answer: (C)

2. Despite a string of a poor performances, the changes of K. L. Rahul’s selection in the team are ______.

(A)  slim

(B)  bright

(C)  obvious

(D)  uncertain

Answer: (B)

3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Cover : Uncover :: Associate : _______

(A)  Unassociate

(B)  Inassociate

(C)  Missassociate

(D)  Dissociate

Answer: (D)

4. Hig by floods, he kharif (summer sown) crops in various parts of the county have been affected. Officials believe that the loss in production of the kharif crops can be recovered in the output of the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country can achieve its food-grain production target of 291 million tons in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June). They are hopeful that good rains in July-August will help the soil retain moisture for a longer period, helping winter sown crops such as wheat and pulses during the November-February period.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A)  Officials declared that the food-grain production target will be met due to good rains.

(B)  Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November-February period.

(C)  Officials feel that the food-grain production target cannot be met due to floods.

(D)  Officials hope that the food-grain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce.

Answer: (D)

5. The difference between the sum of the first 2n natural numbers and the sum of the first n odd natural numbers is ______.

(A)  n2 – n

(B)  n2 + n

(C)  2n2 – n

(D)  2n2 + n

Answer: (B)

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each.

6. Repo rate is the at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

(A)  Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(B)  Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

(C)  Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(D)  Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

Answer: (D)

7. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a circular table.

(I) S is seated opposite to W.

(II) U is seated at the second place to the right of R.

(III) T is seated at the third place to the left of R.

(IV) V is a neighbor of S.

Which of the following must be true?

(A)  P is a neighbor of R.

(B)  Q is a neighbor of R.

(C)  P is not seated opposite to Q.

(D)  R is the left neighbor of S.

Answer: (C)

8. The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car Q started from Agra to Delhi along the same road 1 hour after the car P started. The two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car Q started. Both cars were travelling at constant speed. The speed of car P was 10 km/hr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other?

(A)  66.6

(B)  75.2

(C)  88.2

(D)  116.5

Answer: (B)

9. For a matrix M = [mij], i. j= 1, 2, 3, 4, the diagonal elements are all zero and mij = −mij. The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix is_______.

(A)  0

(B)  6

(C)  12

(D)  16

Answer: (B)

10. The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. If the two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013-2018 is ______.

(A)  15 : 17

(B)  16 : 17

(C)  17 : 15

(D)  17 : 16

Answer: (B)

AR: Architecture and Planning

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each

1. In the architectural style of ancient North Indian Temples, the term ‘Adhisthana’ refers to

(A)  Pinnacle

(B)  Base Platform

(C)  Vestibule

(D)  Transept

Answer: (B)

2. Who among the following architects has NOT won the Pritzker Architecture Prize till 2019>

(A)  Arata Isozaki

(B)  I. M. Pei

(C)  B. V. Doshi

(D)  Moshe Safdie

Answer: (A OR D)

3. The stone used in the construction of Kailasa temple at Ellora is

(A)  Limestone

(B)  Marble

(C)  Sandstone

(D)  Basalt

Answer: (D)

4. Four vertical lines having same thickness appear to be of the same height in perspective as shown in the figure. Which line actually has the maximum height?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

5. As per URDPFI Guidelines 2015, Government of India, choose the correct hierarchy of plans higher to lower order.

(A)  Perspective plan, Development plan, Regional plan, Zonal plan

(B)  Perspective plan, Regional plan, Development  plan, Zonal plan

(C)  Regional plan, Perspective plan, Development plan, Zonal plan

(D)  Zonal plan, Development plan, Regional plan, Perspective plan

Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following shapes can be used as an interlocking paver block without adding any other shape?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

7. In India, the Constitution (Seventy Fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, delegates powers to institutions forming the third tier of government, which are

(A)  Municipal Corporation, Municipality and Nagar Panchayat

(B)  Development Authority, Municipal Corporation and Municipality

(C)  Improvement Trust, Nagar Panchayat and Panchayat

(D)  Development Authority, Improvement Trust and Panchayat

Answer: (A)

8. As on 2018, ‘Right to Property’ in India is a

(A)  Fundamental Right

(B)  Secondary Right

(C)  Constitutional Right

(D)  Tertiary Right

Answer: (C)

9. ‘Tendon’ is primarily used

(A)  as a compression member

(B)  to pre-stress concrete

(C)  as roof sheathing

(D)  to prepare a tender document

Answer: (B)

10. Emergency preparedness for risk reduction does NOT include

(A)  rescue

(B)  relief distribution

(C)  rehabilitation

(D)  revision of code

Answer: (D)

11. If Beam : Column :: Transom : X,

which of the following options can replace ‘X’ ?

(A)  Balustrade

(B)  Sill

(C)  Mullion

(D)  Ceiling

Answer: (C)

12. The correct chronological order of the given architectural movements is

(A)  Romanesque; Roman; Baroque; Gothic; Renaissance

(B)  Romanesque; Roman; Renaissance; Gothic; Baroque

(C)  Roman; Romanesque; Gothic; Renaissance; Baroque

(D)  Roman; Romanesque; Gothic; Baroque; Renaissance

Answer: (C)

13. The decay of sound in a large room is indicated in the following figure. The spike within the dashed zone denotes

(A)  Flutter echo

(B)  Perfect sound diffusion

(C)  Echo

(D)  Early reflection

Answer: (C)

14. For the same thickness of material layers, relative position of insulation in the wall sections 1 and 2 shown below will have an impact on

(A)  Thermal Time Constant

(B)  Thermal Conductivity

(C)  Thermal Resistivity

(D)  Thermal Transmittance

Answer: (A)

15. The solar altitude angle on April 16 at 7 : 00 AM in Kochi is 16°. The same solar altitude angle will occur at the same time in the same year at the same location on

(A)  July 21

(B)  August 27

(C)  September 23

(D)  October 21

Answer: (B)

16. In a perspective drawing, the picture Plane is in between the Object and the Observer. If the Observer comes closer straight towards the Picture Plane, without changing the distance between Object and Picture Plane, the perspective image will be

(A)  Bigger than the previous image

(B)  Smaller than the previous image

(C)  Will remain the same as previous image

(D)  Will become the mirror  image of the previous

Answer: (B)

17. Shyam-Rai temple of Bishnupur in West Bengal, is an example of

(A)  Nava-ratna terracotta temple

(B)  Stone carved Nagara type temple

(C)  Pancha-ratna type terracotta temple

(D)  Stone carved Dravidian type temple

Answer: (C)

18. Which one of the following is NOT a land use zone?

(A)  Industrial Zone

(B)  Agriculture Zone

(C)  Heritage Zone

(D)  Commercial Zone

Answer: (C)

19. ‘Formulation of GIS based master plan’ is a sub-scheme of

(A)  Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation

(B)  Smart Cities Mission

(C)  Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission

(D)  Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission

Answer: (A)

20. One hectare is equal to

(A)  4000 m2

(B)  4048 m2

(C)  4840 m2

(D)  10000 m2

Answer: (D)

21. One of the sites added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2019 is

(A)  Walled City, Ahmedabad

(B)  Walled City, Jaipur

(C)  Chandigarh

(D)  Fatehpur Sikri

Answer: (B)

22. In the given contour map, the angle at ‘A’ (in degrees, rounded off to two decimal places) is ________

Answer: (18.2 to 18.5)

23. A 1.2 m high window is located on a south facing wall. The solar azimuth angle is equal to the wall azimuth angle and the solar altitude angle is 60°. The minimum depth (in metres, rounded off to two decimal places) of overhand required to completely shade the window is_______

(Assume that the overhang is located at the lintel level of the window)

Answer: (0.68 to 0.70)

24. In the given figure, the area of the shaded portion is_________

Answer: (8 to 8)

25. Average density of a highway is 25 vehicles per km. Average volume of the vehicles on the highway is 520 vehicles per hour. The mean speed (in km/hour, rounded off to one decimal place) is _________

Answer: (20.8 to 20.8)

Q26 – Q55 Carry two marks each.

26. Match the terminologies of Munsell colour wheel in Group I with their corresponding descriptions in Group II

(A)  P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(B)  P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C)  P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(D)  P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Answer: (B)

27. Match the plant forms in Group I with the botanical names in Group II, as per ‘A Handbook of Landscape’, CPWD 2013, Government of India

(A)  P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(C)  P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Answer: (C)

28. Match the images of gardens in Group I with their names in Group II

(A)  P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(D)  P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-5

Answer: (B)

29. Match the Architects in Group I with their projects in Group II

(A)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B)  P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(C)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

Answer: (A)

30. Match the graphical representations in Group I with corresponding elements in Group II

(A)  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(D)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

Answer: (D)

31. Based on the psychrometric chart given below, match the vector in Group I with the respective process in Group II

(A)  P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(B)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(C)  P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

Answer: (A)

32. Match the software tools in Group I with their primary applications in Group II

(A)  P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(C)  P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

(D)  P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

Answer: (A)

33. Match the structural form in Group I with their corresponding illustration in Group II

(A)  P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(B)  P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(C)  P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D)  P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

Answer: (A)

34. Match the books in Group I with the corresponding authors in Group II

(A)  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(C)  P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(D)  P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

Answer: (B)

35. Match the name of tactile paving in Group I with their patterns in Group II

(A)  P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(B)  P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(C)  P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-4

Answer: (C)

36. Match the name of architects in Group I with the buildings designed by them in Group II

(A)  P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B)  P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

(C)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(D)  P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

Answer: (B)

37. Match the terms in Group I with the parameters in Group II

(A)  P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(B)  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(D)  P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

Answer: (A)

38. Match the structural system in Group I with their potential causes of failure in Group II

(A)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B)  P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-2

(C)  P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D)  P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Answer: (A)

39. Match the brick masonry bond type in Group I with the corresponding illustration in Group II

(A)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(C)  P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

(D)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Answer: (D)

40. Mach the characteristics in Group I with the type of settlements in Group Ii as given in URDPFI Guidelines 2015, Government of India

(A)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(B)  P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4

(C)  P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4

(D)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

41. A population of 2500 persons requires a minimum area of 3000 m2 for primary schools. For the population in four different sectors given in the table below, the Sector having maximum shortage of school area per person is_______

Answer: (3 to 3)

42. Number of married couples in a household along with number of rooms (for a household) are given in the table. Assuming each married couple needs one separate room, the total number of additional rooms required for them is ________

Answer: (5214 to 5214)

43. In a residential complex , the central play area is to be converted as a detention pond for storm water management. For a 24 hour rainfall event of 100 mm, 100% storm water of central play area and 70% storm water run-off from rest of the complex is to be held at detention pond. Area distribution in the residential complex is given in the table.

Answer: (760 to 760)

44. In the plot shown below, ‘S1’ and ‘S2’ are two non-directional point sources, having a sound intensity level of 95 dB and 60 dB, respectively, at a distance of 1 m from each point source. Considering free field conditions, the effective sound intensity level at the receiver location ‘R’ (in dB, rounded off to two decimal places) is _________

Answer: (75.00 to 79.00)

45. A room measures 5m × 10m × 3m (L×B×H). Consider the following conditions,

Total solar radiation incident on the root surface = 800 W/m2

Outdoor air temperature = 40°C

Outside film coefficient of the root surface = 18 W/m2

The outdoor mean radiant temperature is equal to outdoor air temperature

The minimum reduction required in solar absorptance of the roof (rounded off to two decimal places) to achieve a 20° reduction in sol-air temperature is _______

Answer: (0.43 to 0.47)

46. The activity duration, early start, early finish, late start and late finish of the three activities ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’ are shown in the following figure. The independent float of activity ‘Q’ is ________

Answer: (1 to 1)

47. A square based regular pyramid has all sides equal to 10 units. Its height (in the same units, rounded off to two decimal places) is ________

Answer: (7.00 to 7.10)

48. A parking area measuring 52m ×67 m is approached through a driveway as shown in the given illustration. The parking is designed at an angle of 30° with the parking by of 2.5m × 5m.

The number of cars that can be parked in the designated parking area considering no car overshoots the length of the parking area is _______

Answer: (9 to 10)

49. Plan and section of an isolated foundation is given below. The volume of concrete up to Ground Level (GL) (in m3, rounded off to two decimal places) is ______

Answer: (3.10 to 3.40)

50. Top floor of a 25 story building is using a flush valve system with a minimum fixture pressure of 1.0 kg/cm2. If static pressure increases by 0.3 kg/cm2 per metre length and friction loss is zero, then height of bottom of the water tank from the top fixture (in metres, rounded off to two decimal places) is ________

Answer: (3.30 to 3.40)

51. In a single phase alternate current circuit, an electric lamp is rated 100 watts. If 220 volts is impressed on it and the power factor is 0.85, the energy (in watt hour, rounded off to one decimal place) delivered in an hour is ______

Answer: (100 to 100)

52. A simply supported RCC beam of cross section 0.4 m ×6 m covers a span of 8 m. It is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 30 kN/m. If the unit weight of concrete is 24 kN/m3, the tensile stress (in N/mm2, rounded off to two decimal places) at the bottom of the beam at mid-span is_______

Answer: (11.80 to 12.00)

53. A basement wall resists lateral pressure exerted by soil and water. The soil pressure amounts to 4.5 kN/m2 for every metre of depth below Ground Level (GL). The subsoil water level is 1.0 m below GL and hydrostatic pressure of water is 9.8 kN/m2 for every metre of depth below GL. The total lateral pressure (in kN/m2, rounded off to one decimal place) exerted on the wall 2 m below GL is _______

Answer: (14.3 to 18.8)

54. Assuming that the population growth trend given in the table will continue, the population (in persons) for the year 2031 will be_________

Answer: (484315 to 484316)

55. A developer would like to select a residential plot of 3000 m2 for group housing in a city. Different options with varying development controls are given. In every group housing plot, 15% of the Floor Area Ratio (FAR) over and above the maximum permissible FAR has to be utilized for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) units. The maximum built-up area (in m2) available from the options given below is_________

Answer: (10350 to 10350)

GATE Exam 2020 Agricultural Engineering (AG) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2020

AG : Agricultural Engineering

General Aptitude

Q 1 – Q5 Carry one mark each.

1. The untimely loss of life is a cause of serious global concern as thousands of people get killed ______ accidents every year while many other die ______ diseases like cardio vascular disease, cancer, etc.

(A)    in, of

(B)    from, of

(C)    during, from

(D)    from, from

Answer: (A)

2. He was not only accused of theft ______ of conspiracy.

(A)    rather

(B)    but also

(C)    but even

(D)    rather than

Answer: (B)

3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Explicit : Implicit : : Express: _______

(A)    Impress

(B)    Repress

(C)    Compress

(D)    Suppress

Answer: (B)

4. The Canadian constitution requires that equal importance be given to English and French. Last year, Air Canada lost a lawsuit, and had to pay a six-figure fine to a French-speaking couple after they filed complaints about formal in-flight announcements is English lasting 15 seconds, as opposed to informal 5 second messages in French.

The French-speaking couple were  upset at ______.

(A)    the in-flight announcements being made in English.

(B)    the English announcements being clearer than the French ones.

(C)    the English announcements being longer than the French ones.

(D)    equal importance being given to English and French.

Answer: (C)

5. A superadditive function f (∙) satisfies the following property

f(x1 + x2) ≥ f(x1) + f(x2)

Which of the following functions is a superadditive function for x > 1?

(A)    ex

(B)    √x

(C)    1/x

(D)    ex

Answer: (A)

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each.

6. The global financial crisis in 2008 is considered to be the most serious world-wide financial crisis, which started with the sub-prime lending crisis in USA in 2007. The sub-prime lending crisis led to the banking crisis in 2008 with the collapse of Lehman Brothers may have difficulties in repaying loans, and it arises because of excess liquidity following the East Asian crisis.

Which one of the following sequences shows the correct precedence as per the given passage?

(A)    East Asian crisis → subprime lending crisis → banking crisis global financial crisis.

(B)    Subprime lending crisis → global financial crisis → banking crisis → East Asian crisis.

(C)    Banking crisis → subprime lending crisis → global financial crisis → East Asian crisis.

(D)    Global financial crisis → East Asian crisis → Banking crisis → subprime lending crisis.

Answer: (A)

7. It is quarter past three in your watch. The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand is ________.

(A)    0°

(B)    7.5°

(C)    15°

(D)    22.5°

Answer: (B)

8. A circle with centre O is shown in the figure. A rectangle PQRS of maximum possible area is inscribed in the circle. If the radius of the circle is a, then the area of the shaded portion is ______.

(A)    πa2 – a2

(B)    πa2 – √2a2

(C)    πa2 – 2a2

(D)    πa2 – 3a2

Answer: (C)

9. a, b, c are real numbers. The quadratic equation ax2 – bx + c = 0 has equal roots, which is β, then

(A)    β = b/a

(B)    β2 = ac

(C)    β3 = bc/(2a2)

(D)    b2 ≠ 4ac

Answer: (C)

10. The following figure shows the data of students enrolled in 5 years (2014 to 2018) for two schools P and Q. During this period, the ratio of the average number of the students enrolled in school P to the average of the difference of the number of students enrolled in schools P and Q is ______ .

(A)    8 : 23

(B)    23 : 8

(C)    23 : 31

(D)    31 : 23

Answer: (B)

AG: Agricultural Engineering

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each.

1. The function f(x) = x4 – 4x3 + 6x2 – 4x + 1 has a

(A)  Maxima at x = 0

(B)  Minima at x = 0

(C)  Maxima at x = 1

(D)  Minima at x = 1

Answer: (D)

2. A linear system of equations has n unknowns. The ranks of the coefficient matrix and the augmented matrix of the linear system of equations are r1 and r2, respectively. The condition for the equations to be consist with a unique solution is

(A)  r1 ≠ r2 < n

(B)  r1 = r2 = n

(C)  r1 = r2 < n

(D)  r1 ≠ r2 > n

Answer: (B)

3. General solution to the ordinary differential equation,  is

(A)  C1ex + C2e2x + C3e3x

(B)  C1ex + C2e2x + C3e3x

(C)  C1ex + C2e2x + C3e3x

(D)  C1ex + C2e2x + C3e3x

Answer: (D)

4. In a tractor steering system, the angle made by the kingpin axis projected on the longitudinal plane of the tractor with the vertical axis is known as

(A)  Kingpin inclination

(B)  Caster angle

(C)  Camber angle

(D)  Steering angle

Answer: (B)

5. A tractor operated 9-row precision planter has 16 cells on the metering plates. The speed ratio of the metering plates to the ground rive wheel is 1:2 and the rolling diameter of the ground drive wheel is 40 cm. Assuming no skid, the plant to plant spacing in rows in mm is

(A)  39

(B)  50

(C)  157

(D)  314

Answer: (C)

6. A self-propelled wheel does not have

(A)  Wheel torque

(B)  Tractive power

(C)  Rolling resistance

(D)  Drawbar pull

Answer: (D)

7. Match the following items between Column I and Column II with the most appropriate combinations:

(A)  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(C)  P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Answer: (C)

8. From the performance evaluation of drippers, the discharge exponent value and the coefficient of variation were obtained as 0.5 and 0.04, respectively. The drippers are categorized as

(A)  Pressure compensating drippers of excellent quality

(B)  Turbulent flow-tortuous path orifice type drippers of good quality

(C)  Turbulent flow-tortuous path orifice type drippers of marginal quality

(D)  Laminar flow drippers of excellent quality

Answer: (B)

9. In a basin, rainfall is recorded by five automatic weather stations A, B, C, D and E with respective average annual rainfall of 1020, 810, 675, 940 and 780 mm. In a particular year, the station A was non-operational and the remaining stations B, C, D and E recorded annual rainfall of 890, 725, 980 and 850 mm, respectively. The estimated rainfall at the station A in that particular year in mm is

(A)  758

(B)  878

(C)  1038

(D)  1098

Answer: (D)

10. A field crop is irrigated when the available soil water reduces to 60%. The moisture content at field capacity and wilting point are 32% and 12%, respectively. The bulk density of the soil is 1.5 g cm3. The field water application efficiency is 75% and the crop root zone depth is 50 cm. The gross depth of irrigation required to bring soil moisture content to field capacity in cm is

(A)  6

(B)  8

(C)  9

(D)  12

Answer: (B)

11. A cold storage takes 5 hours to bring down the temperature of 100 metric tons of potato from 35°C to 8° The specific heat capacity of potato is 3.1 kJ kg1 °C1. The coefficient of performance (COP) and the latent heat of vapourisation of the refrigerant (R-22) at an evaporation temperature of −10°C are 3.66 and 230 kJ kg1, respectively. Neglecting respiration heat load of potato, and assuming no power loss, the values of refrigerant flow rate and the power input to the compressor are

(A)  121.3 kg min1 and 127.1 kW

(B)  124.7 kg min1 and 121.3 kW

(C)  127.1 kg min1 and 121.3 kW

(D)  124.7 kg min1 and 127.1 kW

Answer: (A)

12. Hydrothermal treatment of paddy makes

(A)  Shelling more difficult

(B)  Polishing of parboiled rice easier

(C)  Higher retention of vitamins and minerals

(D)  Kernel soft, resulting in faster cooking

Answer: (C)

13. Both particle formation and drying process are carried out by

(A)  Flash dryer

(B)  Fluidized bed dryer

(C)  Pneumatic conveyor dryer

(D)  Spray dryer

Answer: (D)

14. If one of the two Eigenvalues of a matrix  is 4.236, then the other Eigenvalu (round off to 3 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (-0.237 to -0.235)

15. 

Answer: (2 to 2)

16. At the maximum power output of a solar panel, the voltage and current are 18 V and 5.56 V, respectively. If the open circuit voltage and short circuit current of the same solar panel are 21.6 V and 6.11 A, respectively, the fill factor of the panel (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (0.75 to 0.77)

17. The sound pressure level on the operator’s seat of a tractor is 80 dB. If the reference sound pressure is 2 × 105 N m2, the root mean square (RMS) sound pressure in N m2 (round off to 2 decimal places) is_______.

Answer: (0.19 to 0.21)

18. A towed pneumatic wheel with an unloaded radius of 330 mm covers a distance of 9.9 m in 5 revolutions without any skid. Assuming the rolling radius to be same as the static loaded radius of the wheel, the deflection of the wheel in mm (round off to 1 decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (14.7 to 15.1)

19. The grain to straw ratio of 500 kg feed material is 3.2. The blown grain loss, separation loss and cleaning efficiency of thresher are 0.05%, 0.5% and 99.1%, respectively. Considering 100% threshing efficiency, grain recovery at the main grain outlet in kg (round off to 2 decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (298.30 to 298.40)

20. A tubewell has a discharge of 40 m3 h1 and operates daily for 20 h during irrigation season. The irrigation interval is 20 days and depth of irrigation is 8 cm. The command area of tubewell in ha is______.

Answer: (20 to 20)

21. The drainage coefficient of a watershed of 720 ha area is 1.2 cm. The design discharge of the drain in m3s1 is _______.

Answer: (1 to 1)

22. The following data were used for a watershed experiencing soil erosion problem: Rainfall Erosivity Index = 280 MJ mm ha1 h1 year1, Soil Erodibility Index = 0.38 ton ha h MJ1 mm1, Slope length = 200 m, Average slope of the land = 8%, Slope steepness factor = 0.85, Cropping management factor = 0.35, and Conservation practice factor = 0.60

If the slope length is reduced to half, percentage reduction in soil loss (round off to 2 decimal places) is _______.

Answer: (29.10 to 29.50)

23. Fresh tomato juice containing 6% (w/w) total solids enters in a single effect evaporator at a feed rate of 500 kg h1 to concentrate up to 36% (w/w) solids. In this process, the rate of water removal in kg h1 (round off to 1 decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (416.0 to 418.0)

24. Heat gain is occurring through a composite cold storage wall, made of brick and polyurethane foam insulation (thickness and thermal conductivity values are given below). If the exposed surfaces of brick and insulation are at 45°C and 10°C, respectively, the temperature at the interface of brick and insulation in °C (round off to 1 decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (41.4 to 41.6)

25. A milk processing plant pasteurize a batch of 12500 L whole milk to inactivate the pathogen Coxiella burnetii, (decimal reduction time of 14 seconds at 72°C) prior to packing in 500 milliliter pouches. The initial count of the noted organism is 10 per millimeter. For this batch pasteurization process at 72°C, resulting in no survivor in any of the packages, the process F-value in seconds is ______.

Answer: (126 to 126)

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each.

26. A particle moves along the curve   where t is the time. The velocity component of the particle in the direction  at time t = 2 is

(A)  122/√14

(B)  122

(C)  168/√14

(D)  168

Answer: (c)

27. Let a function f(t) = 4 cos 2t + 6 e8t. The Laplace transform of the given function f(t),  is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (*)

28. In an irrigation channel of uniform section, water passes through a 90° triangular weir measuring 36 m head over the crest. After traveling certain distance in the same channel, water passes through 1.0 m long rectangular weir. There is no loss of water in between two weirs. Using Francis’ formula, the head over the crest of rectangular weir in cm is

(A)  22.1

(B)  18.4

(C)  15.0

(D)  11.8

Answer: (C)

29. Two ends of a differential mercury manometer are connected at two points on a pipe carrying oil. The manometer shows difference in mercury level of 20 cm. The specific gravity of oil of mercury are 0.8 and 13.6, respectively. The density of water is 1000 kg m3 at 4 °C and acceleration due to gravity (g) is 9.814 m s2. At the same two points in pipe, the difference of pressure in Nm2 is

(A)  25.11

(B)  251.14

(C)  25113.60

(D)  251136.00

Answer: (C)

30. Math the following items between Column I and Column II with the most appropriate combinations:

(A)  P-4, Q-5, R-6, S-3, T-1, U-2

(B)  P-5, Q-4, R-6, S-3, T-2, U-1

(C)  P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-6, T-2, U-1

(D)  P-4, Q-5, R-6, S-3, T-2, U-1

Answer: (D)

31. A retaining wall of 5 m height retains cohesionless dry soil having density 1.9 Mg m−3 and angle of internal friction of 28°. The surface of the backfill soil is horizontal. The active and passive earth pressures per meter length of the wall in kN are ________ and _________, respectively. [Take g = 9.81 ms−2]

(A)  84.11, 645.38

(B)  645.38, 84.11

(C)  142.12, 381.63

(D)  381.63, 142.12

Answer: (A)

32. A 40 cm diameter tubewell is constructed in a 10 m thick confined aquifer having hydraulic conductivity of 25 m day1. The peizometric surface is observed to be 40 m high from the impervious stratum at the radius of influence of 500 m. The drawdown in the tubewell is 30 m. If the thickness of aquifer is doubled and diameter of tubewell is reduced to half, keeping all other parameters and conditions same, the change in discharge from the well is [Take π = 3.14]

(A)  Increased by 83.72%

(B)  Decreased by 83.72%

(C)  Increased by 82.28%

(D)  Decreased by 82.28%

Answer: (A)

33. Choose the correct combination of process (Column I) performed by corresponding machine component(s) (Column II)

(A)  P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(B)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(D)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Answer: (B)

34. Saturated steam at 121°C is used to sterilize pineapple juice by direct steam injection. The initial temperature of the juice is 80°C and after sterilization, the blend of diluted juice exits the sterilizer at 95° The enthalpy values of steam and condensate water are given in Table below. Specific heat capacity of the juice is 3.9 kJ kg1 °C1. Assuming no energy loss to the surroundings in the process of sterilization, the ratio of juice sterilized to steam utilized is

(A)  34.79

(B)  37.94

(C)  39.47

(D)  43.97

Answer: (C)

35. Hot refined oil at 120°C enters a concentric tube-in-tube heat exchanger (HE) at the rate of 20 kg min1. The oil is cooled by water entering at a temperature of 30°C from the other end of the HE at the rate of 50 kg min1. Specific heat capacities of oil and water are 1.9 and 4.2 kJ kg1 °C1, respectively. The effectiveness of the HE may be taken as 0.7. Assuming no heat loss to the surrounding under steady-state condition, the exit temperature of water for the HE in °C is

(A)  39.9

(B)  41.4

(C)  57.7

(D)  63.0

Answer: (B)

36. Taking six intervals, each of π/12 and using Simpson’s one-third rule, the value of the definite integral  (round off to 3 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (1.186 to 1.189)

37. Two playing cards are drawn at random, but in succession from a pack of red cards (26 in number) without replacement. The probability of drawing a king first, followed by drawing a queen is P × 103. The value of P (round off to 3 decimal places) is________.

Answer: (6.100 to 6.200)

38. A hydraulic sprayer when operating at a speed of 10 km h1 and working pressure of 420 kPa covers a width of 4.5 m. The power requirement and efficiency of the pump are 0.75 kW and 70%, respectively. Out of total pump discharge, 10% is bypassed for agitation purpose. The working pressure is increased to 500 kPa. Assuming no change in the width of coverage, the application rate of the sprayer in L ha1 (round of to 1 decimal place) is _______.

Answer: (981.5 to 982.5)

39. A tractor PTO operated rotary disc mower has 4 rotating discs and the width of cut of each disc is 60 cm without any overlap. The specific power losses to air stubble and gear-train friction is 2.5 kW per meter of cutting width. The specific cutting energy requirement is 2.0 kJ m2. If the machine is operated at a forward speed of 6 km h1, the PTO power requirement in kW (round off to 2 decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (13.90 to 14.10)

40. A water pumping system is driven by a horizontal axis multi-bladed wind turbine at a power coefficient (Cp) of 0.4. The total pumping head and discharge are 20 m and 15 L s1, respectively. The mean wind velocity is 8 ms1 and the pump efficiency is 70%. The density of air and water are 1.2 and 1000 kg m3, respectively. If the transmission efficiency from wind turbine to the pump is 90%, the required diameter of the wind turbine in m (round of to 2 decimal places) is __________.

Answer: (6.92 to 6.98)

41. A two-wheel drive tractor with a total weight of 25 kN has a wheelbase of 2.2 m and its centre of gravity lies 0.7 m ahead of the centre of rear axle. A steady horizontal pull is applied at a drawbar hitch height of 0.5 m on a concrete surface such that the weight on front axle becomes 20% of static weight of the tractor. The coefficient of net traction (round off to 2 decimal places) is _______.

Answer: (0.64 to 0.66)

42. The cooling system of a tractor fitted with diesel engine rejects 0.58 kW of heat per kW of brake power. It requires 0.16 L s1 of water per kW of heat rejection from the engine to maintain a temperature drop of 6°C of water as it moves from the top of radiator to its bottom. If the engine develops 45 kW brake power, the required water flow rate in the radiator in Ls1 (round off to 2 decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (4.16 to 4.18)

43. A V-belt drive transmits 10 kW power at a belt velocity of 8 ms1. The angle of contact on the smaller pulley is 170° and groove angle of the pulley is 38°. The coefficient of friction between the pulley and the belt is 0.28 and the maximum permissible stress of the belt is limited to 4 MPa. Neglecting centrifugal effect of the belt, the minimum cross-sectional area of the V-belt in mm2 (round of to 1 decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (337.0 to 340.0)

44. A chaff cutter is operated by an electric motor running at 1140 rpm. The speed reduction from motor to the main shaft of the cutting units is 4:1. The feed rollers of 10 cm diameter each are driven by the main shaft through a suitable gear drive with a speed reduction o 15 : 1. If the chaff cutter has to knives, the theoretical length of cut chaff in mm (round of to 2 decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (10.40 to 10.60)

45. A tractor drawn right-hand offset disk harrow experiences longitudinal and side soil reactions in the front gang as 3.0 kN and 2.5 kN, respectively as compared to 3.5 kN and 4.0 kN in the rear gang. The longitudinal distance of centers of front and rear gangs are located at 2.5 m and 4.0 m, respectively behind the tractor hitch point. The required amount of offset of the disk harrow in m (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (1.45 to 1.55)

46. A diesel engine when operates with biodiesel blend B20 (20% biodiesel and 80% diesel by volume) develops a brake power of 10 kW with a brake specific fuel consumption of 0.26 kg kW1 h1. If the density of biodiesel is 880 kg m3 and that of diesel is 850 kg m3, the amount of biodiesel required to run the engine for 3 hours in L (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (1.80 to 1.84)

47. Area enclosed by different contours of a pond is given in the following Table. Using trapezoidal formula, the total estimated capacity of pond in m3 is _________.

Answer: (4860 to 4860)

48. At a speed of 1800 rpm, a centrifugal pump discharges 50 Ls1 at its best point of efficiency for a total head of 25 m. The specific speed of the pump in rpm (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (35.90 to 36.10)

49. The Curve Number (CN) of a watershed of 40 ha area under given hydrologic soil group, land use and management practices, and Antecedent Moisture Condition (AMC)-II is 80. The initial abstraction is 20% of maximum retention. For the rainfall event of 40 mm, the direct runoff in mm (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (8.10 to 8.30)

50. The underside beam of a railway bridge, marked as permanent Bench Mark (BM) with Reduced Level (RL) of 85.168 m, is taken as reference for leveling operation. The Back Sight (BS) on the staff held vertically inverted to the BM is 3.645 m. For the Sight (FS) of 1.523 m at a point in the construction site, the RL or elevation in m is _______

Answer: (80 to 80)

51. Air-water vapour mixture at 30°C DBT and 40% RH is heated to 65°C DBT and 30°C WBT and is used as drying medium under the constant rate period drying of spinach leaves. Specific heat capacities of dry air and pure water vapour are 1.005 and 1.88 kJ kg1 °C1, respectively. Using the properties given in Table below, the value of absolute humidity in kg water vapour per kg dry air (round off to 3 decimal places) for the dryer exit air at DBT of 45°C is ________.

Answer: (0.017 to 0.020)

52. Tray type paddy separator is employed to separate paddy from a binary mixture of paddy and brown rice at a feed rate of 1200 kg h1. Mass fractions of paddy in feed, separated paddy and brown rice steams are 0.2, 0.75 and 0.02, respectively. The amount of paddy in separated paddy steam in kg h1 (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (221.00 to 223.00)

53. A cylindrical silo with 3.0 diameter and height to diameter ratio of 5 : 1 is filled with 60 metric ton wheat grains having bulk density of 725 kg m3. The coefficient of friction between grain and silo wall is 0.42 and the ratio of lateral pressure to vertical pressure is 0.5. The vertical pressure at the bottom of silo in kPa (round off to 2 decimal places) is _________. [use 1 kgf = 9.81 N]

Answer: (23.50 to 25.50)

54. A bucket elevator for lifting parboiled paddy (bulk density = 840 kg m3) is operated at a linear speed of 2 ms1. The width of the bucket is 25.4 cm and its cross section is making a subtending angle of 75° at the centre of a circle having 12.7 cm radius. the space between two adjacent buckets on the elevator belt is 40 cm. If the buckets are filled to 80% of their volumetric capacity, the lifting capacity of elevator in kg min1 (round off to 2 decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (538.00 to 542.00)

55. A contact plate freezer extracts thermal energy from a 24 mm thick slab of boneless meat containing 85% (w/w) water. Initially the slab is at the freezing point of meat, that is 272.5 K and corresponding latent heat of freezing is 335 kJ kg−1 The plate temperature of the freezer is assumed steady at 247.5 K. Bulk density of the slab is 750 kg m−3. The thermal conductivity value for frozen meat is 1.5 W m−1 K−1. The minimum duration required for complete freezing of the slab in seconds is __________.

Answer: (409 to 411)

GATE Exam 2020 Aerospace Engineering (AE) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2020

AE : Aerospace Engineering

General Aptitude

Q 1 – Q5 Carry one mark each.

1. The untimely loss of life is a cause of serious global concern as thousands of people get killed ______ accidents every year while many other die ______ diseases like cardio vascular disease, cancer, etc.

(A)    in, of

(B)    from, of

(C)    during, from

(D)    from, from

Answer: (A)

2. He was not only accused of theft ______ of conspiracy.

(A)    rather

(B)    but also

(C)    but even

(D)    rather than

Answer: (B)

3. Select the word that fits the analogy:

Explicit : Implicit : : Express: _______

(A)    Impress

(B)    Repress

(C)    Compress

(D)    Suppress

Answer: (B)

4. The Canadian constitution requires that equal importance be given to English and French. Last year, Air Canada lost a lawsuit, and had to pay a six-figure fine to a French-speaking couple after they filed complaints about formal in-flight announcements is English lasting 15 seconds, as opposed to informal 5 second messages in French.

The French-speaking couple were  upset at ______.

(A)    the in-flight announcements being made in English.

(B)    the English announcements being clearer than the French ones.

(C)    the English announcements being longer than the French ones.

(D)    equal importance being given to English and French.

Answer: (C)

5. A superadditive function f (∙) satisfies the following property

f(x1 + x2) ≥ f(x1) + f(x2)

Which of the following functions is a superadditive function for x > 1?

(A)    ex

(B)    √x

(C)    1/x

(D)    ex

Answer: (A)

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each.

6. The global financial crisis in 2008 is considered to be the most serious world-wide financial crisis, which started with the sub-prime lending crisis in USA in 2007. The sub-prime lending crisis led to the banking crisis in 2008 with the collapse of Lehman Brothers may have difficulties in repaying loans, and it arises because of excess liquidity following the East Asian crisis.

Which one of the following sequences shows the correct precedence as per the given passage?

(A)    East Asian crisis → subprime lending crisis → banking crisis global financial crisis.

(B)    Subprime lending crisis → global financial crisis → banking crisis → East Asian crisis.

(C)    Banking crisis → subprime lending crisis → global financial crisis → East Asian crisis.

(D)    Global financial crisis → East Asian crisis → Banking crisis → subprime lending crisis.

Answer: (A)

7. It is quarter past three in your watch. The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand is ________.

(A)    0°

(B)    7.5°

(C)    15°

(D)    22.5°

Answer: (B)

8. A circle with centre O is shown in the figure. A rectangle PQRS of maximum possible area is inscribed in the circle. If the radius of the circle is a, then the area of the shaded portion is ______.

(A)    πa2 – a2

(B)    πa2 – √2a2

(C)    πa2 – 2a2

(D)    πa2 – 3a2

Answer: (C)

9. a, b, c are real numbers. The quadratic equation ax2 – bx + c = 0 has equal roots, which is β, then

(A)    β = b/a

(B)    β2 = ac

(C)    β3 = bc/(2a2)

(D)    b2 ≠ 4ac

Answer: (C)

10. The following figure shows the data of students enrolled in 5 years (2014 to 2018) for two schools P and Q. During this period, the ratio of the average number of the students enrolled in school P to the average of the difference of the number of students enrolled in schools P and Q is ______ .

(A)    8 : 23

(B)    23 : 8

(C)    23 : 31

(D)    31 : 23

Answer: (B)

AE : Aerospace Engineering

Q1 – Q25 Carry one mark each.

1. for f(x) = |x|, with df/dx denoting the derivative, the mean value theorem is not applicable because

(A)    f(x) is not continuous at x = 0

(B)    f(x) = 0 at x = 0

(C)    df/dx is not defined at x = 0

(D)    df/dx = 0 at x = 0

Answer: (C)

2. For the function  and σ and μ are constants, the maximum occurs at

(A)    x = σ

(B)    x = σ√2π

(C)    x = 2σ2

(D)    x = μ

Answer: (D)

3. y = Aemx + Bemx, where A, B and m are constants, is a solution of

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

4. Which of the following statements is true about the effect of increase in temperature on dynamic viscosity of water and air, at room temperature?

(A)    It increases for both water and air.

(B)    It increases for water and decreases for air.

(C)    It decreases for water and increases for air.

(D)    It decreases for both water and air.

Answer: (C)

5. Given access to the complete geometry, surface pressure and shear stress distribution over a body placed in a uniform flow, one can estimate

(A)    the moment coefficient, and the force on the body.

(B)    the force coefficient, and the force on the body.

(C)    the moment coefficient, and the moment on the body.

(D)    the force and the moment on the body.

Answer: (D)

6. A pair of infinitely long, counter-rotating line vortices of the same circulation strength Γ are situated a distance h apart in a fluid, as shown in the figure. The vortices will

(A)    rotate counter-clockwise about the midpoint with the tangential velocity at the line vortex equal to 

(B)    rotate counter-clockwise about the midpoint with the tangential velocity at the line vortex equal to

(C)    translate along +y direction with velocity at the line vortex equal to

(D)    translate along +y direction with velocity at the line vortex equal to

Answer: (C)

7. The streamlines of a steady two dimensional flow through a channel of height 0.2 m are plotted in the figure, where Ψ is the stream function in m2/s. The volumetric flow rate per unit depth is

(A)    1.0 m2/s

(B)    2.0 m2/s

(C)    0.5 m2/s

(D)    0.1 m2/s

Answer: (B)

8. Which of the following options can result in an increase in the Mach number of a supersonic flow in a duct?

(A)    Increasing the length of the duct

(B)    Adding heat to the flow

(C)    Removing heat from the flow

(D)    Inserting a convergent-divergent section with the same cross-sectional area at its inlet and exit planes

Answer: (C)

9. Which one of the following conditions needs to be satisfied for ϕ = Ax4 + By4 + Cxy3 to be considered as an Airy’s stress function?

(A)    A – B = 0

(B)    A + B = 0

(C)    A – C = 0

(D)    A + C = 0

Answer: (B)

10. Consider the plane strain filed given by εxx = Ay2 + x, εyy = Ax2 + y, γxy = B x y + y . The relation between A and B needed for this strain field to satisfy the compatibility condition is

(A)    B = A

(B)    B = 2A

(C)    B = 3A

(D)    B = 4A

Answer: (D)

11. For hyperbolic trajectory of a satellite of mass m having velocity V at a distance r from the center of earth (G: gravitational constant, M: mass of earth), which one of the following relations is true?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

12. For conventional airplanes, which one of the following is true regarding roll control derivative  and yaw control derivative  where δr is rudder deflection?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)

Answer: (A)

13. The ratio of exit stagnation pressure to inlet stagnation pressure across the rotating impeller of a centrifugal compressor, operating with a closed exit, is

(A)    0

(B)    1

(C)    > 1

(D)    0.5

Answer: (C)

14. Which one of the following is a hypergolic propellant combination used in rocket engines?

(A)    Liquid hydrogen – liquid oxygen

(B)    Unsymmetrical dimethyl hydrazine – nitrogen tetroxide

(C)    Rocket fuel RP-1 – liquid oxygen

(D)    Liquid hydrogen – liquid fluorine

Answer: (B)

15. In aircraft engine thermodynamic cycle analysis, perfectly expanded flow in the nozzle means that the static pressure in the flow at the nozzle exit is equal to

(A)    the stagnation pressure at the engine inlet.

(B)    the stagnation pressure at the nozzle exit.

(C)    the ambient pressure at the nozzle exit.

(D)    the static pressure at the nozzle inlet.

Answer: (C)

16. Three long and slender aluminum bars of identical length are subjected to an axial tensile force. These bars have circular, triangular and rectangular cross sections. with same cross sectional area. If they yield at F­circle, Ftriangle and Frectangle, respectively, which one of the following is true?

(A)    Fcircle > Ftriangle  > Frectangle

(B)    Fcircle < Ftriangle  < Frectangle

(C)    Ftriangle > Fcircle  > Frectangle

(D)    Fcircle = Ftriangle  = Frectangle

Answer: (D)

17. The positive high angle-of-attack condition is obtained in a steady pull-out maneuver at the largest permissible angle-of-attack of the wing. Under this condition, at which of the following regions of the wing does the maximum tension occur?

(A)    I

(B)    II

(C)    III

(D)    IV

Answer: (C)

18. The natural frequency of the first mode of rectangular cross section contilever aluminum beam is ω rad/s. If the material and cross-section remain the same, but the length of the beam is doubled, the first mode frequency will become

(A) 

(B)    4ω rad/s

(C) 

(D)    16ω rad/s

Answer: (A)

19. Given  the sum of squares of eigenvalues of A is

(A)    tan2θ

(B)    1

(C)    sin2θ

(D)    cos2θ

Answer: (B)

20. Burnout velocity of a space vehicle in a circular orbit at an angle 5 degrees above the local horizon around earth is 13.5 km/s. Tangential velocity of the space vehicle in the orbit is ________ km/s (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (13.42 to 13.47)

21. Velocity of an airplane in the body fixed axes is given as [100 – 10 20]m/s. The sideslip angle is ______ degrees (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (-5.62 to -5.57)

22. The similarity solution for the diffusion equation,  is u(x, t) = u(η), where similarity variable,   _______ (round off to one decimal places).

Answer: (1.9 to 2.1)

23. Air enters the rotor of an axial compressor stage with no pre-whirl (Cθ = 0) and exits the rotor with whirl velocity, Cθ = 150 m/s. The velocity of rotor vanes, U is 200 m/s. Assuming Cp = 1005 J/(kg K), the stagnation temperature rise across the rotor is _______ K (round off to one decimal places).

Answer: (29.8 to 30.0)

24. A thin walled beam of constant thickness shown in the figure is subjected to a torque of 3.2 kNm. If the shear modulus is 25 GPa, the angle of twist per unit length is _____rad/m ((round off to three decimal places).

Answer: (0.009 to 0.011)

25. An airplane of mass 5000 kg is flying at a constant speed of 360 km/h at the bottom of a vertical circle with a radius of 400 m, as shown in the figure. Assuming that the acceleration due to gravity is 9.7 m/s2, the load factor experienced at the center of gravity of the airplane is _______(round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (3.50 to 3.60)

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each.

26. The equation  where c is a constant, represents a family of

(A)    exponential curves

(B)    parabolas

(C)    circles

(D)    hyperbolas

Answer: (C)

27. A wedge shaped airfoil is placed in a supersonic flow as shown in the figure (not to scale). The corners of the wedge are at x = XA, x = X­B, x = XC, respectively.

Which one of the following represents the correct static pressure profiles along y = YI and y = YII ?

Answer: (D)

28. The value of Poisson’s ratio at which the shear modulus of an isotropic material is equal to the bulk modulus is

(A)    1/2

(B)    1/4

(C)    1/6

(D)    1/8

Answer: (D)

29. A load P is applied to the free end of a stepped cantilever beam as shown in the figure. The Young’s modulus of the material is E, and the moments of inertia of the two sections of length 2 m and 2 m are I and 3I, respectively. Ignoring transverse shear and stress concentration effects, the deflection at the point where the load is applied at the free end of the cantilever is

(A)    23/243EI

(B)    I/3EI

(C)    43/3EI

(D)    23/3EI

Answer: (C)

30. The three dimensional strain-stress relation for an isotropic material, written in a general matrix form, is

A, B and C are compliances which depend on the elastic properties of the material. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

31. For three different airplanes A, B and C, the yawing moment coefficient (Cn) was measured in a wind-tunnel for three settings of sideslip angle β and tabulated as

Which one of the following statements is true regarding directional static stability of the airplanes A, B and C?

(A)    All three airplanes A, B and C are stable.

(B)    Only airplane C is stable, while both A and B are unstable.

(C)    Airplane C is unstable, A and B are stable with A being more stable than B.

(D)    Airplane C is unstable, A and B are both stable with A less stable than B.

Answer: (C)

32. A closed curve is expressed in parametric form as x = a cos θ and y = b sin θ, where a = 7 m and b = 5 m. Approximating π = 22/7, which of the following is the area enclosed by the curve?

(A)    110 m2

(B)    74 m2

(C)    35 m2

(D)    144 m2

Answer: (A)

33. An axial compressor is designed to operate at a rotor speed of 15000 rpm and an inlet stagnation temperature of 300 K. During compressor testing, the inlet stagnation temperature of the compressor measured was 280 K. What should be the rotor speed for the compressor to develop the same performance characteristics during this test as in the design condition?

(A)    14000 rpm

(B)    14491 rpm

(C)    15526 rpm

(D)    16071 rpm

Answer: (B)

34. For the state of stress shown in the figure, which one of the following represents the correct free body diagram showing the maximum shear stress and the associated normal stresses?

Answer: (B)

35. In the equation AX = B,  where A is an orthogonal matrix, the sum of the  unknowns, x + y +z = ______ (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (0.9 to 1.1)

36. If  is evaluated numerically using trapezoidal rule with four intervals, the difference between the numerically evaluated value and the analytical value of the integral is equal to ________ (round off to three decimal places).

Answer: (0.010 to 0.012)

37. The table shows the lift characteristics of an airfoil at low speeds. The maximum lift coefficient occurs at 16 degrees.

Using Prandtl-Glauert rule, the lift coefficient for the airfoil at the angle of attack of 6 degrees free stream Mach number of 0.6 is _______(round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.92 to 0.94)

38. A low speed uniform flow U­0 is incident on an airfoil of chord c. In the figure, the velocity profile some distance downstream of the airfoil is idealized as shown for section B. The static pressure at sections A and B is the same. The drag coefficient of the airfoil is ______(round off to three decimal places).

Answer: (0.009 to 0.011)

39. An oblique shock is inclined at an angle of 35 degrees to the upstream flow of velocity 517.56 m/s. The deflection of the flow due to this shock is 5.75 degrees and the temperature downstream is 182.46 K. Assume the gas constant R = 287 J/(Kg K), specific heat ratio γ = 1.4, and specific heat at constant pressure Cp = 1005 J/(Kg K). Using conservation relations, the Mach number of the upstream flow can be obtained as ______(round off to ne decimal place).

Answer: (1.9 to 2.1)

40. The thickness of a laminar boundary layer (δ) over a flat plate is,  where x is measured from the leading edge along the length of the plate. The velocity profile within the boundary layer is idealized as varying linearly with y. For freestream velocity of 3 m/s and kinematic viscosity of 1.5 × 105 m2/s, the displacement thickness at 0.5 m fro the leading edge is _______ mm (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (4.00 to 4.20)

41. A wing of 15 m span with elliptic lift distribution is generating a lift of 80 kN at a speed of 90 m/s. The density of surrounding air is 1.2 kg/m3 . the induced angle of attack at this condition is ______ degrees (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (1.29 to 1.38)

42. A solid circular shaft, made of ductile material with yield stress σY = 280 MPa, is subjected to a torque of 10 kNm. Using the Tresca failure theory, the smallest radius of the shaft to avoid failure is _______ cm (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (3.55 to 3.58)

43. The ratio of tangential velocities of a planet at the perihelion and the aphelion from the sun is 1.0339. Assuming that the planet’s orbit around the sun is planar and elliptic, the value of eccentricity of the orbit is _________(round off to three decimal places).

Answer: (0.016 to 0.018)

44. The eigenvalues for phugoid mode of a general aviation airplane at a stable cruise flight condition at low angle of attack are λ1, 2 = −02 ± 0.25. If the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2, the equilibrium speed of the airplane is ________m/s (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (55.20 to 55.33)

45. For a general aviation airplane with tail efficiency η = 0.95, horizontal tail volume ratio V = 0.453, downwash angle slope dε/dα = 0.35, wing lift curve slope horizontal tail lift curve slope  shift in neutral point location as a percentage of mean aerodynamic chord is ______(round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (25.60 to 25.70)

46. A single engine, propeller driven, general aviation airplane is flying in cruise at sea-level condition (density of air at sea-level is 1.225 kg/m3) with speed to cover maximum range. For drag coefficient CD = 0.025 + 0.049 CL2 and wing loading W/S = 9844 N/m2, the speed of the airplane is ______m/s (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (149.0 to 151.0)

47. The design flight Mach number of an ideal ramjet engine is 2.8. The stagnation temperature of air at the exit of the combustor is 2400 K. Assuming the specific heat ratio of 1.4 and gas constant of 287 J/(kg K), the velocity of air at the exit of the engine is _______ m/s (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (1712.0 to 1719.0)

48. The operating conditions of an aircraft engine combustor are as follows.

The rat of total enthalpy of air entering the combustor = 28.94 MJ/s

The rate of total enthalpy of air leaving the combustor = 115.42 MJ/s.

Mass flow rate of air = 32 kg/s.

Air to fuel mass ratio = 15.6.

Lower heating value of the fuel = 46 MJ/kg.

The efficiency of the combustor is _______% (round off to two decimal places.)

Answer: (91 to 93)

49. The figure shows the T-S diagram for an axial turbine stage.

Assuming specific heat ratio of 1.33 for the hot gas, the isentropic efficiency of the turbine stage is ______% (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (87 to 89)

50. A rocket engine has a sea level specific impulse of 210 s and a nozzle throat area of 0.005 m2. While testing at sea level conditions, the characteristic velocity and pressure for the thrust chamber are 1900 m/s and 50 bar, respectively. Assume the acceleration due to gravity to be 9.8 m/s2. The thrust produced by the rocket engine is _______kN (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (27.0 to 27.2)

51. A critically damped single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system used in a door closing mechanism becomes overdamped due to softening of the spring with extended use. If the new damping ratio (ξnew) for overdamped condition is 1.2, the ratio of the original spring stiffness to the new spring stiffness (korg/knew), assuming that the other parameters remain unchanged, is _______(round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (1.43 to 1.45)

52. The two masses of the two degree of freedom system shown in the figure are given initial displacement of 2 cm (x1) and 1.24 cm (x2). The system starts to vibrate in the first mode. The first mode shape of this system is ϕ1 = [1  a]T, where a = _______(round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.61 to 0.63)

53. As shown in the figure, a beam of length 1 m is rigidly supported at one end and simply supported at the other. Under the action of a uniformly distributed load of 10 N/m, the magnitude of the normal reaction force at the simply supported end is _______N (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (3.74 to 3.76)

54. An airplane of mass 4000 kg and wing reference area 25 m2 flying at sea level has a maximum lift coefficient of 1.65. Assume density of air as 1.225 kg/m3 and acceleration due to gravity as 9.8 m/s2. Using a factor of safety of 1.25 to account for additional unsteady lift during a sudden pull-up, the speed at which the airplane reaches a load factor of 3.2 is _________m/s (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (62.95 to 63.08)

55. A Pitot tube mounted on the wing tip of an airplane flying at an altitude of 3 k measures a pressure of 0.72 bar, and the outside air temperature is 268.66 K. Take the sea level condition as, pressure = 1.01 bar, temperature = 288.16 K, and density = 1.225 kg/m3. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2 and the gas constant is 287 J/(kg K). Assuming standard atmosphere, the equivalent airspeed for this airplane is _____m/s (round off to two decimal place).

Answer: (57.10 to 60.00)

GATE Exam 2019 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper With Answer Key

General Aptitude Set-4

Q.1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. Once the team of analysts identify the problem, we _____ in a better position to comment on the issue.

Which one of the following choices CANNOT fill the given blank?

(A) will be

(B) were to be

(C) are going to be

(D) might be

Answer: (B)

2. A final examination is the _______ of a series of evaluations that a student has to go through.

(A) culmination

(B) consultation

(C) desperation

(D) insinuation

Answer: (A)

3. If IMHO = JNIP; IDK = JEL; and SO = TP, then IDC = _____. .

(A) JDE

(B) JED

(C) JDC

(D) JCD

Answer: (B)

4. The product of three integers X, Y and Z is 192. Z is equal to 4 and P is equal to the average of X and Y. What is the minimum possible value of P?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9.5

Answer: (Marks to All)

5. Are there enough seats here? There are _______people here than I expected.

(A) many

(B) most

(C) least

(D) more

Answer: (D)

 Q.6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Fiscal deficit was 4% of the GDP in 2015 and that increased to 5% in 2016. If the GDP increased by 10% from 2015 to 2016, the percentage increase in the actual fiscal deficit is______.

 (A) 37.50

(B) 35.70

(C) 25.00

(D) 10.00

Answer: (A)

7. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 6 hours and 9 hours respectively, while a third pipe R can empty the tank in 12 hours. Initially, P and R are open for 4 hours. Then P is closed and Q is opened. After 6 more hours R is closed. The total time taken to fill the tank (in hours) is_____.

(A) 13.50

(B) 14.5

(C) 15.50

(D) 16.50

Answer: (B)

8. While teaching a creative writing class in India, I was surprised at receiving stories from the students that were all set in distant places: in the American West with cowboys and in Manhattan penthouses with clinking ice cubes. This was, till an eminent Caribbean writer gave the writers in the once-colonised countries the confidence to see the shabby lives around them as worthy of being “told”.

The writer of this passage is surprised by the creative writing assignments of his students, because ______        .

(A) Some of the students had written stories set in foreign places

(B) None of the students had written stories set in India

(C) None of the students had written about ice cubes and cowboys

(D) Some of the students had written about ice cubes and cowboys

Answer: (B)

9. Mola is a digital platform for taxis in a city. It offers three types of rides – Pool, Mini and Prime. The Table below presents the number of rides for the past four months. The platform earns one US dollar per ride. What is the percentage share of revenue contributed by Prime to the total revenues of Mola, for the entire duration?

(A) 16.24

(B) 23.97

(C) 25.8

(D) 38.74

Answer: (B)

10. X is an online media provider. By offering unlimited and exclusive online content at attractive prices for a loyalty membership, X is almost forcing its customers towards its loyalty membership. If its loyalty membership continues to grow at its current rate, within the next eight years more households will be watching X than cable television.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the above paragraph?

(A) Most households that subscribe to X’s loyalty membership discontinue watching cable television

(B) Non-members prefer to watch cable television

(C) Cable television operators don’t subscribe to X’s loyalty membership

(D) The X is cancelling accounts of non-members

Answer: (A)

GATE Exam 2019 Engineering Sciences (XE) Question Paper With Answer Key

General Aptitude Set-4

Q.1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. Once the team of analysts identify the problem, we _____ in a better position to comment on the issue.

Which one of the following choices CANNOT fill the given blank?

(A) will be

(B) were to be

(C) are going to be

(D) might be

Answer: (B)

2. A final examination is the _______ of a series of evaluations that a student has to go through.

(A) culmination

(B) consultation

(C) desperation

(D) insinuation

Answer: (A)

3. If IMHO = JNIP; IDK = JEL; and SO = TP, then IDC = _____. .

(A) JDE

(B) JED

(C) JDC

(D) JCD

Answer: (B)

4. The product of three integers X, Y and Z is 192. Z is equal to 4 and P is equal to the average of X and Y. What is the minimum possible value of P?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9.5

Answer: (Marks to All)

5. Are there enough seats here? There are _______people here than I expected.

(A) many

(B) most

(C) least

(D) more

Answer: (D)

 Q.6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Fiscal deficit was 4% of the GDP in 2015 and that increased to 5% in 2016. If the GDP increased by 10% from 2015 to 2016, the percentage increase in the actual fiscal deficit is______.

 (A) 37.50

(B) 35.70

(C) 25.00

(D) 10.00

Answer: (A)

7. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 6 hours and 9 hours respectively, while a third pipe R can empty the tank in 12 hours. Initially, P and R are open for 4 hours. Then P is closed and Q is opened. After 6 more hours R is closed. The total time taken to fill the tank (in hours) is_____.

(A) 13.50

(B) 14.5

(C) 15.50

(D) 16.50

Answer: (B)

8. While teaching a creative writing class in India, I was surprised at receiving stories from the students that were all set in distant places: in the American West with cowboys and in Manhattan penthouses with clinking ice cubes. This was, till an eminent Caribbean writer gave the writers in the once-colonised countries the confidence to see the shabby lives around them as worthy of being “told”.

The writer of this passage is surprised by the creative writing assignments of his students, because ______        .

(A) Some of the students had written stories set in foreign places

(B) None of the students had written stories set in India

(C) None of the students had written about ice cubes and cowboys

(D) Some of the students had written about ice cubes and cowboys

Answer: (B)

9. Mola is a digital platform for taxis in a city. It offers three types of rides – Pool, Mini and Prime. The Table below presents the number of rides for the past four months. The platform earns one US dollar per ride. What is the percentage share of revenue contributed by Prime to the total revenues of Mola, for the entire duration?

(A) 16.24

(B) 23.97

(C) 25.8

(D) 38.74

Answer: (B)

10. X is an online media provider. By offering unlimited and exclusive online content at attractive prices for a loyalty membership, X is almost forcing its customers towards its loyalty membership. If its loyalty membership continues to grow at its current rate, within the next eight years more households will be watching X than cable television.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the above paragraph?

(A) Most households that subscribe to X’s loyalty membership discontinue watching cable television

(B) Non-members prefer to watch cable television

(C) Cable television operators don’t subscribe to X’s loyalty membership

(D) The X is cancelling accounts of non-members

Answer: (A)

Engineering Sciences

Engineering Mathematics XE-A

XE-A: Q. 1 – Q. 7 carry one mark each & Q. 8 – Q. 11 carry two marks each.

1. Let 𝑋 be the Poisson random variable with parameter 𝜆 = 1. Then, the probability

(2 ≤ 𝑋 ≤ 4) equals

(A) 19/24e

(B) 17/24e

(C) 13/24e

(D) 11/24e

Answer: (B)

2. For the series  which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) The series converges at 𝑥 = −3

(B) The series converges at 𝑥 = −1

(C) The series converges at 𝑥 = 0

(D) The series converges at 𝑥 = 1

Answer: (D)

3. Let  is the complex conjugate of 𝑧. Then, it is differentiable on

(A) |𝑧| > 1

(B) |𝑧| < 1

(C) |𝑧| = 1

(D) the entire complex plane ℂ

Answer: (C)

4. If the transformation (𝑥, 𝑡) = 𝑒𝑥𝑣(𝑥, 𝑡) reduces the partial differential equation  then f(x) equals

(A) −𝑒𝑥

(B) 𝑒𝑥

(C) −2𝑒𝑥        

(D) 2𝑒𝑥

Answer: (A)

5. The value of 𝛼 for which the system of equations

𝑥 − 𝑦 − 3𝑧 = 3

2𝑥 +   = 0

−2𝑦 − 7  = 𝛼

has a solution is ______.

Answer: (6 to 6)

6. The value of the line integral  where 𝛾 is the circle 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 = 1 oriented counter clockwise, is ______.

Answer: (3 to 3)

7. Let 𝑦1(𝑥) and 𝑦2(𝑥) be two linearly independent solutions of the differential equation  is ______.

Answer: (0 to 0)

8. If  is the matrix where 𝒗1, 𝒗2 and 𝒗3 are linearly independent eigenvectors of the matrix 𝑄, then the sum of the absolute values of all the elements of the matrix 𝑃−1𝑄𝑃 is

(A) 6

(B) 10

(C) 14

(D) 22

Answer: (B)

9. If (𝑥) = 𝑎𝑥3 + 𝑏𝑥2 + 𝑐𝑥 + 𝑑 is the polynomial obtained by Lagrange interpolation satisfying 𝑃(0) = −8, 𝑃(1) = −7, 𝑃(2) = −6 and 𝑃(4) = 20, then the value of 𝑎 − 𝑏 + 𝑐 is

(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 7

Answer: (D)

10. The number of critical points of the function (𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥3 + 3𝑥𝑦2 − 15𝑥 − 12𝑦 at which there is neither maximum nor minimum is_____.

Answer: (2 to 2)

11. Let and 𝛾 is the circle |𝑧| = 2 oriented counter clockwise. Then, the value of 𝐼 rounded off to one decimal place is _______.

Answer: (6.0 to 6.2)

XE : B Fluid Mechanics

XE -B: Q. 1 – Q. 9 carry one mark each

1. For stable equilibrium of a floating body, which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Centre of gravity must be located below the centre of buoyancy.

(B) Centre of buoyancy must be located below the centre of gravity.

(C) Metacentre must be located below the centre of gravity.

(D) Centre of gravity must be located below the metacentre.

Answer: (D)

2. If 𝑢 and 𝑣 are the velocity components in the x- and y-directions respectively, the z-component of vorticity 𝜔𝑧 at a point in a flow field is

Answer: (B)

3. In which one of the following devices the difference between static and total pressure is used to determine the flow velocity?

(A) Piezometer

(B) Pitot static tube

(C) Orificemeter

(D) Venturimeter

Answer: (B)

4. A golf ball is dimpled to make the flow turbulent and consequently to reduce the drag. Turbulent flow reduces the drag on the golf ball because

(A) skin friction coefficient is lower in a turbulent flow.

(B) skin friction coefficient is higher in a turbulent flow.

(C) turbulent flow has a lower tendency to separate.

(D) turbulent flow has a higher tendency to separate.

Answer: (C)

5. For a steady laminar incompressible boundary layer flow over a sharp-edged flat plate at zero incidence,

(A) the edge of the boundary layer is a streamline.

(B) the edge of the boundary layer is a pathline.

(C) the skin friction coefficient decreases as the distance from the leading edge increases.

(D) the skin friction coefficient remains constant all along the plate.

Answer: (C)

6. The power input 𝑃 to a centrifugal pump is a function of the volume flow rate 𝑄, impeller diameter 𝐷, rotational speed Ω, fluid density 𝜌, dynamic viscosity 𝜇, and surface roughness 𝜖. To carry out a dimensional analysis using Buckingham’s 𝜋 theorem, which one of the following sets can be taken as the set of repeating variables?

(A) 𝑄, Ω, 𝐷

(B) 𝑄, 𝜖, 𝐷

(C) 𝜖, 𝐷, 𝜌

(D) 𝐷, 𝜌, Ω

Answer: (D)

7. Consider the two-dimensional laminar flow of water (𝜇 = 0.001 N.s/m2) between two infinitely long parallel plates 0.1 m apart as shown in the figure below. The velocity profile at any location is given by (𝑦) = 100(0.1𝑦 − 𝑦2) m/s where y is in m. The magnitude of shear stress (in N/m2, rounded off to 2 decimal places) acting on the bottom plate is ______

Answer: (0.01 to 0.01)

8. The maximum velocity in a fully developed laminar incompressible flow through a circular pipe of constant cross-sectional area is 6 m/s. The average velocity (in m/s) of the flow is ______

Answer: (3 to 3)

9. The theoretical discharge for the flow through an orificemeter is 40 m3/s. If the measured discharge in an experiment is 32 m3/s, then the discharge coefficient (rounded off to one decimal place) is _______

Answer: (0.8 to 0.8)

 XE – B: Q. 10 – Q. 22 carry two marks each.

10. Consider the flow between two infinitely long parallel plates of large width separated by a distance 2H. The upper plate is moving with a constant velocity U while the lower plate is stationary. The volumetric flow rate per unit width of the plate is

(A) 0.25 𝑈𝐻

(B) 0.5 𝑈𝐻

(C) 𝑈𝐻

(D) 2 𝑈𝐻

Answer: (C)

11. The velocity field in Cartesian coordinates in a two-dimensional steady incompressible flow of a fluid with density 𝜌 is 𝐕 = 𝑥𝐢 − 𝑦𝐣. Assuming no body and line forces, the magnitude of pressure gradient ∇𝑝 at point (1,1) is

(A) √2 𝜌

(B) 𝜌   

(C) 𝜌/√2

(D) 𝜌/2

Answer: (A)

12. A two-dimensio nal velocity field in Cartesian coordinates is defined by 𝐕 = 𝑦𝐢 − 𝑥𝐣. This flow is

(A) compressible and rotational

(B) compressible and irrotational

(C) incompressible and rotational

(D) incompressible and irrotational

Answer: (C)

13. Assertion [a]: The streamlines in a free vortex flow are concentric circles.

Reasoning [r]: There exists only radial component for the velocity field in a free vortex flow.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) [a] is true but [r] is false

(D) [a] is false but [r] is true

Answer: (C)

14. The velocity components in Cartesian coordinates in a two-dimensional incompressible flow are = 𝑒𝑦 cos(𝑥) and  𝑣 = 𝑒𝑦 sin(𝑥).  The magnitude of  total acceleration at the point (−1,1) is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 𝑒

(D) 𝑒2

Answer: (D)

15. For steady laminar flow at zero incidence over a flat plate, the component of velocity parallel to the plate in the boundary layer is given by 𝑢(𝑦) = 𝑎 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐𝑦2, where 𝑦 is the distance measured normal to the flat plate. If 𝜇 is the coefficient of dynamic viscosity, 𝑈 is the velocity parallel to the wall at the edge of the boundary layer and 𝛿 is the boundary layer thickness, the wall shear stress is given by

(A) 𝜇𝑈/𝛿

(B) 2𝜇𝑈/𝛿

(C) 2(𝑈/𝛿)2

(D) 3𝜇𝑈/𝛿

Answer: (B)

16. A fluid with constant density of 1 kg/m3 flows past a semi-cylindrical structure with a freestream velocity of 2 m/s as shown in the figure below. The difference in static pressure between points P and Q is 10 N/m2. If the gravitational acceleration g is 10 m/s2 and the flow is assumed to be potential, what is the radius r (in m) of the semi-cylindrical structure?

(A) 1

(B) 0.8

(C) 0.6

(D) 0.4

Answer: (D)

17. The mercury manometer shown in the figure below is connected to a water pipe at one end while the other end is open to the atmosphere. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3, the specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the gravitational acceleration g is 10 m/s2. The gauge pressure 𝑝 (in kN/m2, rounded off to 2 decimal places) in the water pipe is______

Answer: (33.25 to 33.75)

18. Water (𝜌 = 1000 kg/m3, 𝜇 = 0.001 N.s/m2) flows through a smooth circular pipe of radius 0.05 m. If the flow Reynolds number is 1000, then the pressure drop (in N/m2, rounded off to 2 decimal places) over a length of 5 m will be ________

Answer: (0.15 to 0.17)

19. A uniform flow with a velocity of 2 m/s in the x-direction approaches a line source placed on the x-axis at a distance of 0.1 m from the origin. If the origin is the stagnation point in the resulting flow, the strength of the source (in m2/s, rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ______

Answer: (1.25 to 1.27 OR 0.20 to 0.20)

20. In a steady incompressible flow of a fluid past a smooth stationary sphere, the drag force 𝐹 depends on the flow velocity 𝑈, diameter 𝐷, and the dynamic viscosity 𝜇 and density 𝜌 of the fluid. Experiments are conducted on the same sphere at the same flow velocity using two different fluids. The density of the second fluid is two times that of the first fluid. The dynamic viscosity of the second fluid is 𝑛 times that of the first fluid. If the non-dimensional force 𝐹/(𝜌𝑈2𝐷2) remains the same in both the experiments, the value of 𝑛 is_______

Answer: (2 to 2)

 

21. An incompressible fluid flows past a flat plate as shown in the figure below with a uniform inlet velocity profile 𝑢 = 𝑈 and a parabolic  exit  velocity  profile  𝑢 = 𝑈(2𝜂 − 𝜂2),  where 𝑢 is the component of velocity parallel to the wall, 𝑦 is the normal distance from the plate and 𝜂 = 𝑦/𝛿. If the volume flow rate across the top surface of the control volume (CV) is 𝑄 = 𝑝𝑈𝛿 per unit width (perpendicular to the x-y plane) of the plate, the value of 𝑝 (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _______

Answer: (0.32 to 0.34)

22. A jet engine is to be tested on a thrust stand as shown in the figure below. The conditions prevailing in a typical test are as follows: Axial intake air velocity = 100 m/s; axial exhaust gas velocity = 250 m/s; intake cross-sectional area = 1 m2; intake static pressure = −22 kPa (gauge); exhaust static  pressure  =  0  kPa  (gauge);  mass  flow  rate  through   the  engine = 100 kg/s. The anchoring force  (in kN) in axial direction on the thrust stand is_______

Answer: (37 to 37)

XE  C : Materials Science

XE (C): Q. 1 – Q. 9 carry one mark each & Q. 10 – Q. 22 carry two marks each.

1. On decreasing the objective aperture size in an optical microscope

(A) the spherical aberration increases

(B) the depth of field increases

(C) the diffraction-limited resolution increases

(D) the astigmatism increases

Answer: (B)

2. Pilling-Bedworth ratios for oxides of some metals are given in the table.

Based on the criterion of Pilling-Bedworth ratio alone, which one of the following metals will be most protected from high temperature oxidation?

(A) Li 

(B) Ce

(C) Ta 

(D) W

Answer: (B)

3. In NaCl, the substitution of a Na+ ion by a Ca2+ ion would most probably lead to

(A) the formation of a Na+ vacancy

(B) the creation of a Cl interstitial

(C) the formation of a Cl vacancy

(D) the formation of a Na+ and Cl vacancy pair

Answer: (A)

4. Which one of the following is time-independent?

(A) Elastic def            ormation         

(B) Anelastic deformation

(C) Viscoelast ic deformation

(D) Creep deformation

Answer: (A)

5. Copper is diffused into aluminium at 400 °C for 100 hours to obtain a certain concentration at a given depth. In another experiment conducted at 500°C, to achieve the same concentration of copper at the same depth, the time required in hours is

(Given: Diffusion coefficients of copper in aluminium at 400 °C and 500 °C are 5 × 10 14 m2 s1 and 6 × 1013 m2 s1, respectively)

(A) 7.33

(B) 8.33

(C) 9.33

(D) 10.33

Answer: (B)

6. If carbon (C) in iron (Fe) is 6 percent by weight, then its atomic percent is approximately

(Given: atomic weight C = 12, Fe = 56)

(A) 13

(B) 23

(C) 30

(D) 50

Answer: (B)

7. GaAs has advantage over silicon when used in intergrated circuits at low power because it has

(A) larger band gap

(B) more than one element

(C) higher electron mobility

(D) higher hole mobility

Answer: (C)

8. Glass transition temperature of a polymer can be determined by

(A) Thermo-gravimetric analysis

(B) Raman spectroscopy

(C) NMR spectroscopy

(D) Differential scanning calorimetry

Answer: (D)

9. The maximum wavelength of radiation to which Germanium (Ge) is opaque will be

(Given: energy gap of Ge = 0.67 eV, Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 1034 J s, velocity of light c = 3×108 m s1 and 1 eV = 1.6×1019 J )

(A) 0.8 µm

(B) 1.8 µm

(C) 2.8 µm

(D) 4.8 µm

Answer: (B)

10. An alternating copolymer has number-averaged molecular weight of 105 g mol1 anddegree of polymerization of 2210. If one of the repeat units is ethylene, the other one is

(Given: atomic weight of H = 1, C = 12, F = 19 and Cl = 35.5)

(A) −CH2−CH(CH3)−

(B) −CH2−CHCl−

(C) −CF2−CF2

(D) −CH2−CH(C6H5)−

Answer: (B)

11. Match the sintering processes in column I with the most suitable products in column II.

(A) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(B) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-4

(C) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

(D) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

Answer: (B)

12. Which one of the following conditions will NOT favour the separation of impurities in zone refining process?

(A) Increase in the gap between solidus and liquidus lines

(B) Increase in the solubility of impurities in solid as compared to that in liquid phase

(C) Agitation of melt

(D) Low cooling rate of melt

Answer: (B)

13. A monochromatic X-ray beam of wavelength 0.154 nm is incident on a cubic crystal having lattice parameter a = 0.245 nm. The diffraction angle (2θ) for the first order reflection from a set of planes represented by the schematic plane below is _____degrees. (round off to 1 decimal place)

Answer: (100.0 to 102.0)

14. Nickel corrodes at 298 K in a solution of 0.06 M nickel chloride having pH 4. Assuming complete dissociation of nickel chloride, the partial pressure of hydrogen required to stop the corrosion of nickel is ______ atm. (round off to the nearest integer)

(Given: Standard reduction potential of nickel =  ̶  0.25 V, Faraday’s constant = 96500 C mol−1, Universal gas constant = 8.314 J K−1mol−1)

Answer: (45 to 52)

15. The potential energy, U(r), of a pair of atoms spaced at a distance r in a solid is given by 

The equilibrium distance between the atom pair is ______nm.

(round off to 2 decimal places)

(Given: Constants A = 6×10−20 J nm3, B = 2.1×10−22 J nm7)

Answer: (0.28 to 0.32)

16. Tensile true stress – true strain curve for plastic region of an alloy is given by

𝜎 (MPa) = 600 𝜀𝑛.

When true strain is 0.05, the true stress is 350 MPa. For the same alloy, when engineering strain is 0.12 then the engineering stress is______ MPa. (round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (360 to 364)

17. Box-S has 2 white and 4 black balls and box-T has 5 white and 3 black balls. A ball is drawn at random, from the box-S and put in box-T. Subsequently, the probability of drawing a white ball from box-T is ________. (round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (0.58 to 0.61)

18. The zero point energy of an electron in a box of 0.2 nm width is _____ eV.

(round off to 1 decimal place)

(Given: Planck’s constant = 6.63×10−34 J s, electron mass = 9.11×10−31 kg and 1 eV = 1.6×10−19 J )

Answer: (9.2 to 9.6)

19. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated across a 300 kV potential in an electron microscope is _______ ×10−12 m. Ignore relativistic effects.

(round off to 2 decimal places)

(Given: Planck’s constant = 6.63×10−34 J s, electron rest mass = 9.11×10−31 kg, electron charge = 1.6×10−19 C)

Answer: (2.10 to 2.35)

20. A stress of 17 MPa is applied to a polymer serving as a fastener in a complex assembly. At constant strain the stress drops to 16.6 MPa after 100 hours. The stress on the polymer must remain above 14.5 MPa in order for the assembly to function properly. The expected life of the assembly is ______ hours. (round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (666 to 670)

21. A piezoelectric material has a Young’s modulus of 72 GPa. The stress required to changethe polarization from 640 to 645 C m m−3 is _____ MPa. (round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (560 to 565)

22. An iron bar magnet having coercivity of 7000 A m−1 is to be demagnetized. The bar is introduced fully inside a 0.25 m long solenoid having 150 turns of wire. The electric current required to generate the necessary magnetic field is ________ A.

(round off to 1 decimal place)

Answer: (11.0 to 12.5)

XE – D : Solid Mechanics

XE -D: Q. 1 – Q. 9 carry one mark each

1. For a pinned-pinned slender column of length L, with uniform circular cross section, and with second moment of cross sectional area I, the critical buckling load is Pcr. For a similar column, made of same material, having length 2L and second moment of cross sectional area 4I, the critical buckling load is

(A) 4Pcr

(B) 2Pcr

(C) Pcr

(D) 0.5Pcr

Answer: (C)

2. Two rods P and Q of uniform circular cross section are made of same material and are subjected to identical uniaxial tensile load. The length of rod P is twice the length of rod Q and the diameter of rod P is also twice the diameter of rod Q. The ratio of elastic strain energy stored in rod P to that stored in rod Q is

(A) 4:1

(B) 2:1

(C) 1:1

(D) 1:2

Answer: (D)

3. The frame comprises members ABC, CD, and BEDF. This frame is fixed at A, and the connections between the three members are pins. Load P is applied at F. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) ABC and CD are two-force members

(B) CD is the only two-force member

(C) BEDF and CD are two-force members

(D) ABC is the only two-force member

Answer: (B)

4. When two spheres moving in a horizontal plane collide obliquely, which one of the following statements is ALWAYS TRUE?

(A) Energy of the two-sphere system is conserved

(B) Linear momentum of the two-sphere system is conserved along the normal to the plane of impact

(C) Linear momentum of each individual sphere is conserved along the normal to the plane of impact

(D) Linear momentum of each individual sphere is NOT conserved along the horizontal tangent to the plane of impact

Answer: (B)

5. In a bending moment diagram of a simply supported beam, discontinuity in the bending moment occurs

(A) at the point of application of a couple

(B) at the point of application of a concentrated force

(C) at a point where the cross section of the beam changes abruptly

(D) at a point where shear force is zero

Answer: (A)

6. For a solid circular shaft fixed at one end and a torque applied at the other end, which one of the following is TRUE?

(A) Every cross section of the shaft is subjected to the same internal torque

(B) The internal torque gradually increases from one end of the shaft to the other end

(C) Every cross section of the shaft is subjected to the same bending moment

(D) No cross section of the shaft rotates relative to another cross section

Answer: (A)

7. Flexural stress occurs in a straight beam when

(A) it is subjected to pure torsion

(B) it is subjected to axial loads

(C) it is subjected to transverse loads

(D) it is subjected to combined axial and torsional loads

Answer: (C)

8. The bending moment at a point in a beam changes its sign. Which one of the following is ALWAYS TRUE?

(A) The slope of the beam changes its sign at that point

(B) The deflection of the beam changes its sign at that point

(C) The shear force of the beam changes its sign at that point

(D) The curvature of the beam changes its sign at that point

Answer: (D)

9. The state of stress at a point in a body under plane stress condition is given as 𝜎 = 5 MPa, 𝜎𝑦 =  ̶ 1 MPa and 𝜏𝑥𝑦  = 4 MPa. If one of the principal stresses at that point is 7 MPa, thenthe other non-zero principal stress (in MPa) is _______         

Answer: (-3.0 to -3.0)

 XE -D: Q. 10 – Q. 22 carry two marks each.

10. A massless rod of length L having a concentrated mass m attached at its mid-point is held at rest between the smooth ground and the smooth wall when it makes an acute angle 𝜃0 with the ground as shown. The rod is then released. The acceleration due to gravity is 𝑔. At an instant when the angle between the rod and ground is θ, the velocity of the mass m is

Answer: (B)

11. A cantilever beam of constant cross section is subjected to a positive moment M and a positive axial force F as shown. The normal stress due to the axial force F is 200 MPa and the maximum compressive stress due to the moment M is 100 MPa. If the point A is located on the top surface and the point B is located on the centroidal axis of the beam, the stress elements at these points are (with stresses shown in MPa)

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

12. The block of mass m = 10 kg is held in place along the incline by the force F applied via a pulley arrangement as shown. The coefficient of static friction between the block and incline is 0.65. The range of  F  (in  N)  for  which  the  block  will  remain  at  rest  is  (use acceleration due to gravity 𝑔 = 10 m/s2)

(A) 6.3 to 106.30       

(B) 0 to 106.30           

(C) 0 to 53.15 

(D) 53.15 to 106.30

Answer: (C)

13. The frame shown comprises members  ABC,  BE,  BF,  and  DEF.  It  is  pin  supported  at A and D. Members BE and BF are pin connected to ABC and DEF. The vertical load P is applied at C. The force in the member BF is

 (A) compressive P

(B) tensile P

(C) compressive 2P

(D) tensile 2P

Answer: (D)

14. A simply supported beam is subjected to a concentrated force P = 48000 N at the mid-span as shown. The flexural rigidity of the beam is EI = 11 × 106 N-m2. The curvature of the beam between points Q  and  R  is  given  as κ  = (𝑃𝑥⁄2𝐸𝐼).  The  magnitude  of deflection (in mm) of the beam at 𝑥 = 0.5 m is

(A) 0.5

(B) 1.0

(C) 1.5

(D) 2.0

Answer: (A)

15. The shear force (V) diagram for a cantilever beam under certain loads applied at points B and C is shown. The magnitude of applied force at B (FB), and the magnitude of applied force at C (FC), are

(A) FB = 500 N           FC = 300 N     

(B) FB = 200 N            FC = 300 N

(C) FB = 300 N            FC = 200 N     

(D) FB = 300 N           FC = 500 N

Answer: (A)

16. A bar of length 1 m, having a uniform area of cross section 1000 mm2, is fixed at one end and subjected to a uniaxial tensile load of 200 kN at the other end. Along with the tensile load, the rod also experiences a uniform temperature rise ΔT = 100 °C. The material of the rod has a Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa and coefficient of thermal expansion α = 1×10 ̶ 5/ °C. The elongation of the rod (in mm) is  ______

Answer: (2.0 to 2.0)

17. A solid rod, with uniform circular cross section, of length 1000 mm and diameter 100 mm is subjected to a uniaxial tensile load. As a result, the increase in length of the rod is observed to be 1 mm while the reduction in diameter of the rod is observed to be 0.03 mm. If the Young’s modulus of the material of the rod is 260 GPa, the shear modulus (in GPa) of the material of the rod is _______

Answer: (100 to 100)

18. A spherical pressure vessel has inner diameter of 4 m and wall thickness of 10 mm. It is made of a steel having tensile yield strength of 200 MPa. Neglecting radial stress and using the maximum shear stress theory, the maximum value of gauge pressure (in MPa) that the wall of the pressure vessel can withstand is _____ (rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (1.90 to 21.0)

19. Two solid shafts P and Q made of same material transmit equal torque. Shaft P has a uniform circular cross section of area A and shaft Q has a uniform circular cross section of area 4A. If the maximum torsional shear stress developed in shaft P is 160 MPa, the maximum torsional shear stress developed (in MPa) in shaft Q is _______

Answer: (19.0 to 21.0)

20. The slotted arm AB rotates in the horizontal plane about point A at a constant angular speed 𝜔 = 10 rad/sec. The particle P is released from rest, in the frictionless slot, at a distance of 2 m from end A. The magnitude of the velocity of the particle (in m/s) just before it hits end B is ______ (rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (52.00 to 54.00)

21. The uniform pendulum rod, having mass 10 kg and length 𝐿 = 5 m, is attached to a viscous damper having damping coefficient c. Use acceleration due to gravity 𝑔 = 10 m/s2. The least value of c (in N-s/m) such that small motions of the pendulum rod decay without oscillations is ______

Answer: (102.0 to 106.0)

22. A beam having a constant solid rectangular cross section is subjected to pure bending. The longitudinal strain at a point A on the cross section is 3.0 × 10−5. If the Young’s modulus of the material of the beam is 200 GPa, the maximum tensile stress (in MPa) is ______

Answer: (10.0 to 10.0)

 

XE-E 

XE-E: Q. 1 – Q. 9 carry one mark each & Q. 10 – Q. 22 carry two marks each. Notations used:

cp: Specific heat at constant pressure; cv: Specific heat at constant volume; h: Specific enthalpy; s: Specific entropy; v: Specific volume; P: Pressure; V: Volume; T: Temperature; R: Gas constant; Ru : Universal Gas constant

1. One kg of an ideal gas (molecular weight = X) occupies a certain volume V at temperature T and pressure 𝑃1. Four kgs of another ideal gas (molecular weight = 2X) is added to the first gas keeping the volume V and temperature T same as before. The final pressure is

(A) 2 𝑃1

(B) 3 𝑃1

(C) 4 𝑃1

(D) 5 𝑃1

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following is an intensive thermodynamic property?

(A) Enthalpy

(B) Internal energy

(C) Entropy

(D) Pressure

Answer: (D)

3. A thermodynamic process for a substance is represented as a constant pressure process on a P-V diagram, and a constant temperature process on a T-V diagram. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) The substance is an ideal gas.

(B) The substance is a van der Waals gas.

(C) The substance undergoes a phase change.

(D) Such a process is not possible.

Answer: (C)

4. Addition of a reheat process to a simple Rankine cycle will always

(A) increase both efficiency and work output of the cycle.

(B) increase efficiency but not necessarily work output of the cycle.

(C) increase work output but not necessarily efficiency of the cycle.

(D) decrease both efficiency and work output of the cycle.

Answer: (C)

5. A Carnot cycle implemented using an ideal gas in a piston-cylinder system will have

(A) work transfer in two parts of the cycle and heat transfer in the other two parts of the cycle.

(B) work transfer in all four parts of the cycle and heat transfer in two parts of the cycle.

(C) work transfer in two parts of the cycle and heat transfer in all four parts of the cycle.

(D) work transfer in all four parts of the cycle and heat transfer in all four parts of the cycle.

Answer: (B)

6. The “degrees of freedom” for a pure substance at its triple point is

(A) 3

(B) 2

(C)  1

(D) 0

Answer: (D)

7. The differential of the Gibbs function (g) for a simple compressible system can be represented as 𝑑𝑔 = 𝑣 𝑑𝑃 − 𝑠 𝑑𝑇. Using the appropriate Maxwell relation derived from the above equation, the quantity,  for an ideal gas is

 (A) R/T

(B) R/P

(C) P/R

(D) T/R

Answer: (B)

8. A Carnot engine receives 2000 kJ heat from a source at 1200 K and rejects 500 kJ heat to sink. The sink temperature (K) is ______.

Answer: (300 to 300)

9. A closed vessel contains a pure substance with 0.1 m3 of saturated liquid and 0.9 m3 of saturated vapor. The specific volume of the liquid and vapor phases are 0.000843 m3/kg and 0.02671 m3/kg respectively. The percentage of vapor in the mixture on mass basis (rounded off to two decimal places) is _____.

Answer: (22.00 to 22.30)

10. A gas obeys the van der Waals equation of state  where a and b are van der Waals constants. The compressibility factor  in the limit of high specific volume (𝑏 ≪ 𝑣) is


Answer: (A)

11. Consider the thermodynamic relation,  For a certain gas, if the isobaric thermal expansion coefficient,  (where T is the temperature measured in K),  then the value of  is,

 (A) 0

(B) 1

(C)  2

(D)  𝑣/T

Answer: (A)

12. A piston-cylinder system has an initial volume of 0.1 m3 and contains an ideal gas ( 𝑣 = 0.74 kJ/kg.K, 𝑅 = 0.288 kJ/kg.K) at 1.5 bar and 298 K. The piston is moved to compress the gas until the pressure and temperature reach 10 bar and 423 K respectively. During this process, 20 kJ of work is done on the gas. The magnitude of heat transfer (kJ) during this process is

(A) 134.8

(B) 36.2

(C) 8.2

(D) 3.8

Answer: (D)

13. A reversible cyclic device absorbs 400 kJ/s heat from a reservoir maintained at 265 K and rejects heat to another reservoir at 298 K. The magnitude of the rate of work done (kW) by the device is

(A) 849.81

(B) 449.81

(C) 355.70

(D) 49.81

Answer: (D)

14. In a reversible process, an ideal gas (cp = 1.04 kJ/kg.K, R = 0.297 kJ/kg.K) at 293 K, is compressed in a cylinder from 100 kPa to 500 kPa. During this compression process, the relation between pressure and volume is expressed as, 𝑃𝑣1.3 = constant.

In the following options, mark the closest value for the entropy change per kilogram (J/kg.K).

(A) −91

(B) 91

(C) −864

(D) 864

Answer: (A)

15. The sublimation pressure of water vapor at 233 K is 13 Pa. Assume the water vapor to behave as an ideal gas (R = 0.46 kJ/kg.K), and the latent heat of sublimation is 2840 kJ/kg. The sublimation pressure of water vapor at 213 K, (rounded off to 2 decimal places), is _______ Pa.

Answer: (1.05 to 1.15)

16. In a heating and humidification process, dry air (d.a) with relative humidity of 10% at ambient temperature of 10°C, is mixed with superheated steam at temperature ‘T’. The resultant mixture is at 25°C with relative humidity of 50%. The total pressure before and after the process remains the same at 102 kPa. The saturated pressure of water vapor (v) at 10°C and 25°C are 1.2281 kPa, and 3.1698 kPa, respectively. The specific humidity in grams of water vapour per kg of dry air, can be calculated using where 𝑝𝑣 and 𝑝𝑑.𝑎 are the partial pressures of water vapour and dry air respectively. The quantity of steam in grams (rounded off to 2 decimal places) added per kg of dry air is _______

Answer: (8.50 to 9.50)

17. In a vapor compression system, a refrigerant leaves the evaporator and enters the compressor in saturated vapor condition at 0°C. The specific enthalpies of the saturated liquid and the saturated vapor at 0°C are 50 kJ/kg and 250 kJ/kg, respectively. The refrigerant leaves the compressor with a specific enthalpy of 300 kJ/kg. From the exit of the condenser, the refrigerant is throttled to the evaporator pressure. If the coefficient of performance (COP) of the refrigerator is 2.8 then the dryness fraction of the refrigerant entering the evaporator is_________.

Answer: (0.3 to 0.3)

18. Hot air, assumed as an ideal gas (cp = 1000 J/kg.K, γ = 1.4) enters a gas turbine at 10 bar, 1000 K and leaves at a pressure of 5 bar. Subsequently it expands in a nozzle to a pressure of 1 bar. Assume both these processes to be reversible and adiabatic. If the inlet velocity of the air to the nozzle is negligible, the final velocity (m/s, rounded off to 1 decimal place) of air at the exit of the nozzle is _______.

Answer: (770.0 to 785.0)

19. 

The “T-s diagram” for a thermodynamic process is shown in the figure. The heat transferred (kJ/kg) during the reversible process 1-3 is ______ .

Answer: (255 to 255)

20. In a simple Rankine cycle, superheated steam enters the turbine at 100 bar, 500°C (h = 3375.1 kJ/kg, s = 6.5995 kJ/kg.K) at a rate of 1000 kg/s. It expands isentropically in the turbine to the condenser pressure. The temperature in the condenser is 30°C (hf = 125.74 kJ/kg, sf = 0.4368 kJ/kg.K, hg = 2555.6 kJ/kg, sg = 8.4520 kJ/kg.K). Saturated water from the condenser is pumped back to the boiler. Neglecting the pump work, the efficiency (in percentage, rounded off to 1 decimal) of the cycle is ________.

Answer: (41.0 to 43.5)

21. A rigid, adiabatic container has two parts (A) and (B) separated by a piston. Initially, part (A) is filled with 1 kg of an ideal gas (cv = 750 J/kg.K, R = 500 J/kg.K) at 1 bar, 600 K. The part (B) is filled with 1 kg of the same ideal gas at 2 bar, 400 K. The piston is now removed. In the final state, the pressure (bar, rounded off to two decimal places) will be ________ .

Answer: (1.25 to 1.25)

22. In a steady flow process, superheated steam at 70 bar and 450°C, is throttled to 30 bar in an insulated valve, at a rate of 2 kg/s. The changes in the kinetic energy and potential energy during the process are assumed to be zero. The rate of entropy generation (kJ/s.K rounded off to three decimal places) during the throttling process is _____.

The thermodynamic property data for superheated steam at 70 bar and 450°C:

h = 3288.3 kJ/kg, s = 6.6353 kJ/kg.K

The thermodynamic property data for superheated steam at 30 bar are given in the following table.

Answer: (0.700 to 0.750)

XE-F: Polymer Science and Engineering

XE-A: Q. 1 – Q. 7 carry one mark each & Q. 8 – Q. 11 carry two marks each. XE (B to H): Q. 1 – Q. 9 carry one mark each & Q. 10 – Q. 22 carry two marks each.

1. The functionality of allyl alcohol (CH2=CH-CH2OH) for condensation reaction with terephthalic acid is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following polymers can be synthesized by ring opening polymerization?

(A) Poly(vinyl alcohol)

(B) Nylon 66

(C) Poly(ethylene terephthalate)        

(D) Poly(ε-caprolactone)

Answer: (D)

3. The weather resistant polymer among the following is

(A) natural rubber

(B) styrene butadiene rubber

(C) nitrile rubber

(D) silicone rubber

Answer: (D)

4. If a combination of sodium and naphthalene is used to initiate polymerization of styrene, then the most likely mechanism of polymerization is

(A) free radical

(B) cationic

(C) anionic

(D) olefin metathesis

Answer: (C)

5. Hypalon is the trade name for

(A) chlorosulfonated polyethylene

(B) chlorinated polyethylene

(C) ultra high molecular weight polyethylene

(D) cross-linked polyethylene

Answer: (A)

6. The copolymer(s) among high density polyethylene (HDPE), low density polyethylene (LDPE) and linear low density polyethylene (LLDPE) is/are

(A) LDPE only

(B) LLDPE only

(C) LDPE and LLDPE

(D) HDPE and LDPE

Answer: (B)

7. The polymer which lacks the ability to exhibit tacticity among the following is

(A) polypropylene

(B) polystyrene

(C) polyisobutylene

(D) poly(methyl methacrylate)

Answer: (C)

8. The correct order of glass transition temperature (Tg) for the polymers listed below is

(PC = polyca polycarbonate; PET = poly(ethylene terephthalate); PE = polyethylene; PP = polypropylene)

(A) PC > PE    T > PP > PE

(B) PC > PET > PE > PP

(C) PET > P    C > PE > PP

(D) PET > PC > PP > PE

Answer: (A)

9. Polystyrene coffee cup can be most economically manufactured by

(A) thermoforming

(B) injection molding

(C) compression molding

(D) blow molding

Answer: (A)

10. Match the following rubber additives to their function:

(A)  P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(B)  P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(C)  P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(D)  P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Answer: (B)

11. Match the following polymers with their characteristic infrared (IR) stretching frequency:

(A)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C)  P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(D)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Answer: (D)

12. Match the following products to the most suitable polymer for their manufacture:

(A)  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(C)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Answer: (B)

13. The order of limiting oxygen index for the following polymers is (polypropylene = PP; PTFE=polytetrafluoroethylene; PVC=poly(vinyl chloride)

(A) PP < PTFE < Nylon 6 < PVC

(B) PP < PVC < Nylon 6 < PTFE

(C) PP < Nylon 6 < PVC < PTFE

(D) PP < Nylon 6 < PTFE < PVC

Answer: (C)

14. Match the following plastic additives to their function:

(A)  P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C)  P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

15. Match the material classification in Column A with the appropriate one in Column B: (PS=polystyrene, PPO=polyphenylene oxide, PDMS=poly(dimethyl siloxane), PP=polypropylene, PE=polyethylene, PP-g-MA= maleic anhydride grafted PP)

(A)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(B)  P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(C)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: (A)

16. A linear amorphous polymer has a Tg of +10 °C. At 28 °C, it has a melt viscosity of 4 × 108 poise. The viscosity of the polymer at its Tg is _____ × 1013 poise (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (1.2 to 1.4)

17. A polypropylene (PP) bar with a 10 mm × 10 mm square section is 225 mm long. The modulus of PP bar is 861 MN m2. It is pinned at both ends and an axial compressive load of 140 N is applied. The strain due to the applied load experienced by the PP bar is ______% (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.15 to 0.17)

18. In a unidirectional carbon fibre/vinyl ester composite, the ratio of the moduli of the carbon fibre to that of vinyl ester is 35 and the fibres take up 50% of the cross-section. The percentage of applied force taken up by the fibres is ______% (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (97.0 to 97.5)

19. A 3 mm thick layer of softened poly(methyl methacrylate) at 190 °C is sandwiched between two flat parallel plates. A shear stress of 100 kPa is applied to the softened polymer. Assuming the softened polymer as a Newtonian fluid with an apparent viscosity of 3.9 × 104 Pa s, the relative sliding velocity between the two plates is _____ mm s1 (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (7.6 to 7.8)

20. For AIBN initiated polymerization of styrene, if both the monomer and initiator concentration are doubled, then the rate of polymerization increases by a factor of ______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (2.80 to 2.84)

21. If 49 moles of hexamethylene diamine is reacted with 50 moles of adipic acid to prepare Nylon 66, then the number average molecular weight,  of the resulting polymer at 99.5% conversion (ignoring contribution from end groups) is _____ g mol1 (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (7497.72 to 7517.72)

22. A single screw extruder is to be used to manufacture a nylon rod of 0.5 cm diameter at a production rate of 2.5 cm s1. The density of solid nylon and nylon melt are 1.140 g cm-3 and 0.790 g cm3, respectively. The melt flow rate through the die is____ cm3 s1 (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.69 to 0.73)

XE-G: Food Technology

Q. 1 – Q. 9 carry one mark each & Q. 10 – Q. 22 carry two marks each.

1. Colloidal stability of milk casein is because of the highly hydrated carbohydrate residues in______.

 (A) αs1 casein

(B) αs2 casein

(C) β casein

(D) κ casein

Answer: (D)

2. Rice bran is stabilized prior to oil extraction to protect it from the activity of ______.

(A) Polyphenol oxidase

(B) Peroxidase

(C) Lipase

(D) Lipoxygenase

Answer: (C)

3. Sticking of powder to wall of the chamber during spray drying of fruit juice is due to _____.

(A) Low glass transition temperature of the compounds in juice

(B) High glass transition temperature of the compounds in juice

(C) Improper processing parameters of spray dryer

(D) Presence of gums in feed material

Answer: (A)

4. Thearubigins and theaflavins in black tea are formed by the oxidation and dimerization of ______.

 (A) Quercetin

(B) Catechins

(C) Gallic acid

(D) Kaempferol

Answer: (B)

5. Ratio of Schmidt number to Lewis number is ______.

(A) Prandtl number

(B) Reynolds number

(C) Nusselt number

(D) Sherwood number

Answer: (A)

6. ‘Red dog’ is one of the byproducts during milling of .

(A) Corn

(B) Rice

(C) Ragi

(D) Wheat

Answer: (D)

7. An ice cream mix of 870 g L1 has been used to prepare ice cream which yielded a finished product of 490 g L−1. The per cent over run is _______(round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (77.4 to 77.6)

8. Impeller in a fruit juice mixing tank is rotating at 200 rpm with a Reynolds number >104. Density of juice is 1045 kg m3. If diameter of the impeller is doubled and other conditions remained constant, the power requirement of mixing will increase by a factor of ______.

Answer: (32 to 32)

9. Paddy consisting of 20% husk has been milled to remove 6% bran during polishing. Assuming no other losses, yield (per cent) of polished rice from the paddy is _____ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (74.8 to 75.6)

10. Match the following laws in Column I with corresponding phenomenon in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Answer: (A)

11. Match the mold in Column I with its asexual/sexual spore shown in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2           

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Answer: (A)

12. Match the foods given in Column I with their specific usage given in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Answer: (A)

13. Match the bioactive compounds in Column I with their botanical source given in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3           

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

 

Answer: (B)

14. Match the following microbial species in Column I with related disease caused by them as listed in Column II.

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2           

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

15. Buffalo milk having density of 1030 kg m3 is homogenized with a pressure of 30 MPa. Given, acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m s2 and assuming no pressure loss, the velocity (m s1) of the milk flowing through the homogenizer valve will be _____ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (240.00 to 242.00)

16. Potato slices have been dehydrated from an initial solid content of 12% to a final solid content of 94%. If the peeling and other losses are to the tune of 10%, final yield (per cent) of the dried chips per ton of fresh potato taken is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (11.45 to 11.55)

17. A mixed fruit beverage with 12 °Brix having specific heat of 4298 J kg1 K1 is being heated from 30 °C to 95 °C for pasteurization at a flow rate of 1000 L h1 in a tubular heat exchanger. Steam at 100 °C is used as heating medium which is converted into condensate at 100 °C. If the density of beverage is 1075 kg m−3 and the latent heat of steam at the given temperature is 2257 kJ kg1, the mass  flow rate  of steam (kg min1) is ______(round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (2.16 to 2.25)

18. Fruit juice was cooled in a tubular heat exchanger from 50 °C to 7 °C using water at 2 °C, which gets heated to 5 °C. Assume, Pr = 0.72, Re = 20000 and thermal conductivity = 0.6W m-1 °C1 and no viscous effect. If pipe diameter was 10 cm, the convective heat transfer coefficient (W m-2 °C1) is _____ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (339.1 to 342.9)

19. Room air is at 40 °C with 60% relative humidity. Saturated vapour pressure of water at 40 °C is 7.375 kPa. Volume of humid air (m3 per kg of dry air) is ______ (round off to 3 decimal places).

Answer: (0.924 to 0.930)

20. A shallow-bed horizontal belt type solvent extractor is operating on 0.3 mm thick soybean flakes with 0.5 m bed depth and a forward speed of 0.8 m min1 with miscella flux rate of 0.25 m min1. If porosity of the flakes is 60%, the distance between washing nozzle and miscella collecting receptacle (cm) is _____ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (95.0 to 100.0)

21. An extruded snack food is packed in a barrier film having water vapour transmission rate of 0.02 mL m2 day1. Pack surface area is 0.0012 m2 per gram of dry food solids, EMC of the food is 6% (d.b.), initial moisture content is 2% (d.b.), critical moisture content is 5% (d.b.) and slope of moisture sorption isotherm is 3.4% (d.b.) per unit water activity (aw). Sealed pack is stored at 30 °C. Assume that the vapor pressure of pure water at 30 °C is 31.7 torr. Time required for the food to reach the critical moisture content (days) is______ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (58.1 to 62.9)

22. Freezing of 100 mm spherical meat ball with 60% moisture at 35 °C is being done in an air blast freezer maintained at −45 °C. Given, latent heat of fusion for water is 333.2 kJ kg1, thermal conductivity of meat is 1.5 W m1 °C1, convective heat transfer coefficient is 40 W m-2 °C1, density of frozen meat is 980 kg m-3 and initial freezing temperature of meat ball is −10 °C. Using Plank’s equation, freezing time (h) is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (1.06 to 1.09)

XE-H: Atmospheric and Oceanic Sciences

XE-A: Q. 1 – Q. 7 carry one mark each & Q. 8 – Q. 11 carry two marks each. XE (B to H): Q. 1 – Q. 9 carry one mark each & Q. 10 – Q. 22 carry two marks each. XL-P:     Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each & Q. 6 – Q. 15 carry two marks each XL (Q to U):Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each & Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.

1. In the equatorial belt, the Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) propagates

(A) northward

(B) southward

(C) eastward  

(D) westward

Answer: (C)

2. Potential temperature increases with height in an atmosphere, Upon adiabatic vertical displacement, a parcel of dry air is

(A) stable

(B) absolutely unstable

(C) neutral

(D) conditionally unstable

Answer: (A)

3. Oxygen minimum zones in the ocean are formed in the layers where

(A) Photosynthesis is dominant

(B) Sunlight is maximum

(C) Decomposition of organic matter is dominant

(D) Iron availability is maximum

Answer: (C)

4. Water level in an estuary rises and falls in response to tidal forces. Assume that the only tidal period in an estuary is 12 hours. The speed of the ebb current in that estuary would be maximum

(A) At high tide

(B) At low tide

(C) About 3 hours after high tide

(D) About 6 hours after low tide

Answer: (C)

5. The most abundant ions in seawater are

(A) Sodium and chloride ions

(B) Magnesium and chloride ions

(C) Calcium and chloride ions

(D) Magnesium and sulphide ions

Answer: (A)

6. Which among the following statements is true with respect to the axis of the Indian monsoon trough

(A) Relative vorticity is cyclonic at 850 hPa

(B) Relative vorticity is anticyclonic at 850 hPa

(C) It shifts to the south during break monsoon

(D) It moves to the head Bay of Bengal when a monsoon depression is present over the Indian subcontinent

Answer: (A)

7. A student considered the following possibilities regarding trade wind inversion:

(P) Zonal component of wind is westerly

(Q) Zonal component of wind is easterly

(R) Meridional component of wind is poleward

(S) Meridional component of wind is equatorward

The only combination of correct statements is

(A) P,S

(B) Q,S

(C) Q,R

(D) P,R

Answer: (B)

8. Which of the following statements about thermal wind is NOT correct:

(A) Flow is in geostrophic balance

(B) Horizontal temperature gradient is non-zero

(C) Wind speed varies with height

(D) Flow is quasi-geostrophic

Answer: (D)

9. A numerical weather forecasting model follows sigma (σ) coordinate system in the vertical. ions A and B, the surface pressure is 1000 hPa and 500 hPa respectively. The values to pressure at A and B (in that order) for σ = 0.5 are:

 (A) 2000 hPa, 1000 hPa

(B) 500 hPa, 250 hPa

(C) 999.5 hPa, 499.5 hPa

(D) 500 hPa, 0 hPa

Answer: (B)

10. At a given temperature and pressure, equilibrium vapor pressure over the surface of a rain droplet compared to that over a flat surface of pure water is

(A) Always less

(B) Always more

(C) Always equal

(D) Can be less, equal to or more depending on the size and chemical composition of the cloud condensation nuclei, and droplet radius

Answer: (D)

11. Velocity field in a geophysical flow is given by u = -5x, v = 4y, w = 0 where u, v, w are zonal, meridional and vertical components of velocity, and x and y refer to eastward and northward distance. Which among the following statements is NOT true for the flow at 45oN:

(A) Flow is incompressible

(B) Relative vorticity is zero

(C) Potential vorticity is positive

(D) Flow is compressible

Answer: (A)

12. The distance between Mars and Earth is 0.52 times the distance between Sun and Earth. If the solar constant on Earth is 1370 W m−2, then the solar constant on Mars is _____ W m2. (Round off to one decimal place.)

Answer: (592.8 to 593.2)

13. Ideal gas equation for dry air is expressed as p = ρd Rd T, where p is pressure, ρd is density, T is temperature and Rd is gas constant. If CO2 concentration in Earth’s atmosphere quadruples due to fossil fuel burning, then the new gas constant is _______J kg−1 K−1. (Round off to two decimal places.)

Take the universal gas constant (R*) = 8.314 J K−1 mole−1, molecular weight of CO2 = 44, and present value of Rd = 287 J kg−1 K−1, present concentration of CO2 = 500 mg kg−1.

Answer: (286.40 to 287.30)

14. On a calm evening under a clear sky, the lowest 20 m of the atmosphere is continuously losing energy at a rate of 10 W m−2 due to radiative cooling. Sensible and latent heat flux exchange with the ground is zero. If air temperature and dew point depression at 6 p.m. are 25oC and 8oC, respectively, the probability of fog formation at midnight is ____%. (Round off to the nearest integer.)

Take Cp = 1005 J kg−1 K−1, density of air = 1.15 kg m−3

Answer: (99 to 100)

15. The dynamical core of a general circulation model uses 256 spherical harmonic waves to cover the globe in east-west direction. If two grids of the model exactly resolve the shortest of those waves, then the grid spacing at the equator is _____km. (Round off to one decimal place.)

Take radius of the earth (RE) = 6400 km.

Answer: (78.4 to 78.6)

16. It rains 10 cm in a day over an ocean with a mixed layer depth of 5 m and initial salinity 30 g kg−1. The rain water uniformly mixes with the existing mixed layer water. The finalsalinity after the rain is _____ g kg−1. (Round off to one decimal place.)

Answer: (29.3 to 29.5)

17. A moist air parcel is lifted adiabatically to 800 hPa level. Initial temperature and pressure of the parcel are 300 K and 1010 hPa, and the partial pressure of water vapor is 10 hPa. The partial pressure of the water vapor at the new location is _____ hPa. (Round off to one decimal place.)

Take saturation vapor pressure of water at temperature T as

𝑒s(𝑇) = 𝐴𝑒𝐵/T

where A = 2.53 × 109 hPa, B = 5420 K, gas constant (R) = 287 J kg−1 K−1, and Cp = 1005 J kg−1 K−1.

Answer: (7.8 to 8.1)

18. In steady state, global mean precipitation P is equal to global mean evaporation E from the surface of the earth. If P is 2.8 mm day-1, then global mean surface latent heat flux is ____ W m−2. (Round off to the nearest integer).

Take latent heat of evaporation of water as 2.5 × 106 J kg−1.

Answer: (75 to 85)

19. A column of seawater from surface to 1000 m depth is initially at rest at the equator. The column is moved to 30oN with no change in column depth. In the absence of friction, the vertical component of relative vorticity of the water in the column at 30oN is _______ ×10−5 s−1. (Round off to one decimal place.)

Answer: (-7.6 to -7.0)

20. Consider two north-south (i.e. meridional) sections A and B in the ocean, separated by 100 km; section B is to the east of section A (as shown in figure below). The steady northward wind stress at A and B are 0.1 N/m2 and 0.2 N/m2, respectively; zonal wind stress is zero everywhere. Density of seawater is 1000 kg m−3. At 30°N, the vertical velocity at the base of the Ekman layer is _______ meters per day. (Round off to one decimal place.)

Answer: (1.1 to 1.3)

21. A tsunami is a long gravity wave, i.e. its wavelength is much larger than the depth of the ocean. A tsunami moves from point A to point B (see figure below); water depth at A is 2000 m, and water depth at B is 500 m. Assume no frictional losses. By energy conservation, Cg <E> is constant, where Cg is group speed and <E> is the total (potential plus kinetic) energy density of the wave field. If the amplitude of the tsunami at point A is 1 m, its amplitude at B is ________m. (Round off to two decimal places.)

Answer: (1.30 to 1.50)

22. At mid-latitudes, long Rossby waves obey the dispersion relation σ = −βk / L2, where σ is frequency, k is zonal wavenumber, β is rate of change of Coriolis parameter with northward distance (units m−1 s−1), and L is Rossby radius. If L = 100 km, the speed of the long Rossby wave at 45oN is ________ m s−1. (Round off to two decimal places.)

Take radius of the earth as 6400 km.

Answer: (0.13 to 0.19)

GATE Exam 2019 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) Question Paper With Answer Key

General Aptitude Set-4

Q.1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. Once the team of analysts identify the problem, we _____ in a better position to comment on the issue.

Which one of the following choices CANNOT fill the given blank?

(A) will be

(B) were to be

(C) are going to be

(D) might be

Answer: (B)

2. A final examination is the _______ of a series of evaluations that a student has to go through.

(A) culmination

(B) consultation

(C) desperation

(D) insinuation

Answer: (A)

3. If IMHO = JNIP; IDK = JEL; and SO = TP, then IDC = _____. .

(A) JDE

(B) JED

(C) JDC

(D) JCD

Answer: (B)

4. The product of three integers X, Y and Z is 192. Z is equal to 4 and P is equal to the average of X and Y. What is the minimum possible value of P?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9.5

Answer: (Marks to All)

5. Are there enough seats here? There are _______people here than I expected.

(A) many

(B) most

(C) least

(D) more

Answer: (D)

 Q.6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Fiscal deficit was 4% of the GDP in 2015 and that increased to 5% in 2016. If the GDP increased by 10% from 2015 to 2016, the percentage increase in the actual fiscal deficit is______.

 (A) 37.50

(B) 35.70

(C) 25.00

(D) 10.00

Answer: (A)

7. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 6 hours and 9 hours respectively, while a third pipe R can empty the tank in 12 hours. Initially, P and R are open for 4 hours. Then P is closed and Q is opened. After 6 more hours R is closed. The total time taken to fill the tank (in hours) is_____.

(A) 13.50

(B) 14.5

(C) 15.50

(D) 16.50

Answer: (B)

8. While teaching a creative writing class in India, I was surprised at receiving stories from the students that were all set in distant places: in the American West with cowboys and in Manhattan penthouses with clinking ice cubes. This was, till an eminent Caribbean writer gave the writers in the once-colonised countries the confidence to see the shabby lives around them as worthy of being “told”.

The writer of this passage is surprised by the creative writing assignments of his students, because ______        .

(A) Some of the students had written stories set in foreign places

(B) None of the students had written stories set in India

(C) None of the students had written about ice cubes and cowboys

(D) Some of the students had written about ice cubes and cowboys

Answer: (B)

9. Mola is a digital platform for taxis in a city. It offers three types of rides – Pool, Mini and Prime. The Table below presents the number of rides for the past four months. The platform earns one US dollar per ride. What is the percentage share of revenue contributed by Prime to the total revenues of Mola, for the entire duration?

(A) 16.24

(B) 23.97

(C) 25.8

(D) 38.74

Answer: (B)

10. X is an online media provider. By offering unlimited and exclusive online content at attractive prices for a loyalty membership, X is almost forcing its customers towards its loyalty membership. If its loyalty membership continues to grow at its current rate, within the next eight years more households will be watching X than cable television.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the above paragraph?

(A) Most households that subscribe to X’s loyalty membership discontinue watching cable television

(B) Non-members prefer to watch cable television

(C) Cable television operators don’t subscribe to X’s loyalty membership

(D) The X is cancelling accounts of non-members

Answer: (A)

Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

 Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. The value of  is

(A) – 1/2

(B) 0

(C) 1/2

(D) 1

Answer: (C)

2. For 𝑥 in [0, 𝜋], the maximum value of (sin 𝑥 + cos 𝑥) is

(A) 1/√2

(B) 1   

 (C) √2

(D) 2

Answer: (C)

3. The eigenvalues of the matrix  are

(A) −1, 1, 3

(B) −3, 2, −2

(C) 3, 2, −1

(D) 3, 2, 1

Answer: (A)

4. Acrylic fibre is made from at least 85% by weight of

(A) Acrylic acid

(B) Acrylonitrile

(C) Acrylamide

(D) Methyl methacrylate

Answer: (B)

5. The pair of natural fibres, belonging to the category of seed fibre, is

(A) Cotton and Sisal

(B) Kenaf and Kapok

(C) Cotton and Kenaf

(D) Cotton and Kapok

Answer: (D)

6. The term ‘half-lap’ is associated with

(A) Card

(B) Drawframe           

(C) Comber

(D) Roving frame

Answer: (C)

7. In a modern card, the highest angular velocity (rpm) is found in

(A) Feed roller

(B) Taker-in

(C) Cylinder

(D) Doffer

Answer: (B)

8. For multifilament yarns, optimum add-on (%) of size is in the range

(A) 0-0.5

(B) 4-8

(C) 20-25

(D) 30-35

Answer: (B)

9. The movements of guide bars in warp knitting are

(A) Swinging and shaking

(B) Shaking and shogging

(C) Shogging and twisting

(D) Swinging and shogging

Answer: (D)

10. Among the following options, the thickest Classimat fault is

(A) B3

(B) D1

(C) G

(D) H2

Answer: (A)

11. Work factor of a perfectly elastic yarn is

(A) 0

(B) 0.5

(C) 1

(D) 2

Answer: (B)

12. Barium Activity Number (BAN) of a cotton fabric was found to be 150. The fabric must have undergone

(A) Desizing only

(B) Desizing and scouring only

(C) Desizing and bleaching only

(D) Desizing, scouring and mercerization

Answer: (D)

13. The gum present in the raw mulberry silk fibre is

(A) Sericin

(B) Fibroin

(C) Keratin

(D) Casein

Answer: (A)

14. The value of 𝑘 for which the matrix  does not have an inverse is______.

Answer: ()

[/bg_collapse6 to 6]

15. If a continuous random variable has the following probability density function  then the value of 𝑘 is ______.

Answer: (4 to 4)

16. A blend of nylon 6 and polyester fibres when dissolved in formic acid at room temperature leaves a bone dry residue of 40% by weight. The weight fraction of polyester in the blend (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is _______.

Answer: (0.4 to 0.4)

17. Molecular weight of the repeat unit of poly (ethylene terephthalate) is _______.

Answer: (192.0 to 192.5)

18. Six carded slivers of 4 ktex each are drawn to produce a sliver of 5 ktex. The draft required (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (4.7 to 4.9)

19. The ratio of yarn tensile modulus to fibre tensile modulus, where the surface fibres are inclined at a twist angle of 25°, (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ______.

Answer: (0.81 to 0.83)

20. If the linear density (tex) of a yarn is doubled, then percentage increase in tightness factorof single jersey knitted fabric (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is ______.

Answer: (40.0 to 43.0)

21. A square plain jammed fabric has yarns with circular cross-section. If the yarn diameter is0.02 cm, then number of ends per cm (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is _______.

Answer: (24.0 to 34.0)

22. If the moisture content of a fibre is 10%, its moisture regain (%) (rounded off to 2 decimalplaces) is _______.

Answer: (11.00 to 11.20)

23. The 2.5% span length and uniformity ratio of a particular variety of cotton fibre are 30 mm and 45%, respectively. The 50% span length (mm) of the fibre (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is ______.

Answer: (13.0 to 14.0)

24. A wool fabric is to be dyed with an acid dye to a shade of 4% on the weight of fabric (owf).The material to liquor ratio is 1:40 and the exhaustion is 100%. The concentration (gpl) of the dye in the initial dye bath is ________.

Answer: (1 to 1)

25. A cellulosic fabric has been treated with boric acid to impart flame retardancy. The wet expression is 100%. The molecular weight of boric acid is 62 and the atomic mass of boron is 11. Assume that no chemical reaction takes place between boric acid and the fibre. If 2.2 % boron has been added on the weight of fabric (owf), then the add-on of boric acid on fabric (% owf) (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is __________.

Answer: (12.2 to 12.6)

Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. One of the points which lies on the solution curve of the following differential equation

2𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥2  + 𝑦2) 𝑑𝑦 = 0

with the initial condition 𝑦(1) = 1 is

(A) (−1, 1)

(B) (0, 0)

(C) (0, 1)

(D) (2, 1)

Answer: (A)

27. Let 𝑋 be a binomial random variable with mean 1 and variance 3/4. The probability that 𝑋 takes the value 3 is

(A) 3/64          

(B) 3/16

(C)  27/64

(D) ¾

Answer: (A)

28. Match the process steps in  viscose  fibre  manufacture  listed  in  Group  I  with  the corresponding chemicals given in Group II. The correct option is

 (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Answer: (B)

29. The correct combination of techniques to determine the crystallinity in fibres is

(A) TGA and DSC

(B) Birefringence and DSC

(C) X-ray diffraction and Density measurement

(D) Birefringence and X-ray diffraction

Answer: (C)

30. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]

[a]: Kevlar fibre has high strength and high modulus.

[r] : It has high orientation and low crystallinity.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) Both [a] and [r] are false

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (D)

31. An opening roller in blowroom with 100 cm length, 38 cm diameter and 2 teeth per cm2 is rotating at an angular velocity of 400 rpm to deliver fibre tufts at a production rate of 500 kg/h. The intensity of opening (fibre mass in mg per tooth) of the opening roller approximately is

(A) 0.44

(B) 0.87

(C) 1.74

(D) 2.74

Answer: (B)

32. A drawframe with a 3 over 3 drafting arrangement, having an eccentric bottom middle roller of 28 mm diameter, is used to produce a sliver. The back zone and front zone drafts are 1.7 and 3.5, respectively. The sliver is further given a draft of 200 to produce a yarn. The wavelength (m) of the periodic fault in the yarn approximately is

(A) 17.6

(B) 29.9

(C) 61.6

(D) 104.7

Answer: (C)

33. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]

[a] : The short term mass irregularity of rotor yarn is less than that of ring yarn.

[r] : Rotor yarn has belt or wrapper fibres, but ring yarn does not.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) Both [a] and [r] are false

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (B)

34. Match the looms listed in Group I with the corresponding components given in Group II. The correct option is

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Answer: (C)

35. The punch density of a needle-punched nonwoven fabric is 50 punches/cm2. If the stroke frequency of needle bed is doubled and the fabric delivery speed is halved, then the punch density (punches/cm2) would be

(A) 25 

(B) 50 

(C) 100           

(D) 200

Answer: (D)

36. In air-jet weaving, the correct combination of parameters, on which drag force on weft yarn depends, is

(P) Weave pattern

(Q) Density of air

(R) Weft yarn diameter           

(S) Picks per cm

(A) P and Q

(B) Q and R

(C) R and S

(D) P and S

Answer: (B)

37. The correct combination of reasons, which leads to decrease in tear strength of a woven fabric, is

(P) Increase in yarn to yarn friction

(Q) Decrease in yarn to yarn friction

(R) Increase in fabric sett

(S) Decrease in fabric sett

(A) P and R

(B) P and S

(C) Q and R

(D) Q and S

Answer: (A)

38. Match the instruments listed in Group I with the corresponding operating principles given in Group II. The correct option is

(A)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(B)  P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(C)  P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(D)  P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Answer: (D)

39. The set containing oxidative bleaching agents only is

(P) Sodium hydrosulphite

(Q) Thiourea dioxide

(R) Sodium hypochlorite

(S) Hydrogen peroxide           

(A) P and Q

(B) Q and R

(C) R and S

(D) P and S

Answer: (C)

40. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]

[a] : Synthetic thickeners used in pigment printing are neutralized before printing.

[r] : Without neutralization, the viscosity required for printing would not be achieved.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) Both [a] and [r] are false               

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (A)

 

41. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]

[a] : The equilibrium dye uptake by a fibre decreases with increasing dyeing temperature.

[r] : Dyeing is an endothermic process.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) Both [a] and [r] are false

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (D)

42. The value of the integral  obtained using Simpson’s 1/3 rule (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is_________.

Answer: (0.24 to 0.28)

43. Let  The value of λ for which the vector is ______.

Answer: (3 to 3)

44. In melt spinning, the diameter of monofilament at the spinneret exit is 0.3 mm and at thetake-up point is 0.15 mm. Assuming that there is no change in density of filament, the spin- draw ratio is ________.

Answer: (4 to4)

45. The experimentally determined density of a fibre is 1.31 g/cc. If the density of the void free fibre is 1.35 g/cc, then the void volume fraction (%) of the fibre sample (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (2.60 to 3.00)

46. The spindle speed of a ring frame, producing a yarn of 25 tex, is 25000 rpm and the rate of delivery is 25 m/min. The twist multiplier (m−1∙ tex0.5) of the yarn is _______.

Answer: (5000 to 5000)

47. If the value of twist retraction of a yarn is 0.2, then the value of twist contraction (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (1.24 to 1.26)

48. A yarn is passing through an additive type tensioner. The mass of dead weight on disc is 50 g and the coefficient of friction between yarn and disc is 0.3. If the input tension is 50 gf, then the output tension (gf) is __________.

Answer: (79 to 81)

49. In a shuttle loom, if the loom speed (picks per minute) is increased by 20%, then the percentage increase in picking power required per meter of fabric is _______.

Answer: (41 to 45)

50. A sample of 150 cotton fibres is tested for maturity. The number of normal and thin-walled fibres are 105 and 30, respectively. The rest are dead fibres. The maturity ratio is _______.

Answer: (1 to 1)

51. In a vibroscope, the fundamental resonant frequency of fibre X is twice that of fibre Y. Keeping the test length and tensioning weight the same, if the linear density of fibre Y is 10 denier, then the linear density (denier) of fibre X (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is______.

Answer: (2.5 to 2.5)

52. The 95% confidence limits of mean yarn tenacity (cN/tex) based on 100 test samples is  30 ± 1.5. The number of test samples required to obtain 95% confidence limits of 30 ± 0.5 is ________.

Answer: (900 to 900)

53. A 180 denier polyester multifilament yarn, a 60 Ne cotton yarn and a 50 Nm (metric count) polyester/wool yarn are twisted together. The resultant linear density (tex) of the 3-ply yarn, neglecting twist contraction, (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is______.

Answer: (49.50 to 50.00)

54. A polyester fabric is dyed with a disperse dye till equilibrium is reached. If the concentration of the dye in the spent dyebath is 0.05 gpl and the partition coefficient is 1000 ml/g, then amount of dye in the fibre (g/100 g) is ________.

Answer: (5 to 5)

55. A wet polyester fabric has areal density of 160 g/m2. The initial temperature of the wet fabric is 20°C. After it is completely dried on a cylinder dryer, its areal density drops to 100 g/m2.

Consider,

•Specific heat of polyester as 2.0 J/g °C

•Specific heat of water as 4.2 J/g °C

•Latent heat of evaporation of water as 2260 kJ/kg

Assuming that there is no heat loss, the energy (kJ) required to dry 1 m2 of the fabric (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _______.

Answer: (170.00 to 173.00)

GATE Exam 2019 Stastics (ST) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Statistics

Q.1 – Q.25 carry one mark each.

1. is equal to

(A) e/3

(B) 5/6

(C) 3/4

(D) π/4

Answer: (D)

2. Let  The line integral where C is the triangle with vertices (0,0,0), (5,0,0) and (5,5,0) traversed in that order is

(A) -25

(B) 25

(C) 50

(D) 5

Answer: (B)

3. Let {1,2,3,4} represent the outcomes of a random experiment, and 𝑃({1}) = 𝑃({2}) = 𝑃({3}) = 𝑃({4}) = 1/4. Suppose that 𝐴1 = {1,2}, 𝐴2 = {2,3}, 𝐴3 = {3,4}, and 𝐴4 = {1,2,3}. Then which of the following statements is true?

(A) 𝐴1 and 𝐴2 are not independent.

(B) 𝐴3 and 𝐴4 are independent.

(C) 𝐴1 and 𝐴4 are not independent.

(D) 𝐴2 and 𝐴4 are independent.

Answer: (C)

4. A fair die is rolled two times independently. Given that the outcome on the first roll is 1, the expected value of the sum of the two outcomes is

(A) 4

(B) 4.5

(C) 3

(D) 5.5

Answer: (B)

5. The dimension of the vector space of 7 × 7 real symmetric matrices with trace zero and the sum of the off-diagonal elements zero is

(A) 47

(B) 28

(C) 27

(D) 26

Answer: (D)

6. Let 𝐴 be a 6 × 6 complex matrix with 𝐴3 ≠ 𝟎 and 𝐴4 = 𝟎. Then the number of Jordan blocks of 𝐴 is

(A) 1 or 6

(B) 2 or 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

Answer: (B)

7. Let 𝑋1, … , 𝑋𝑛 be a random sample from uniform distribution defined over (0, 𝜃), where 𝜃 > 0 and 𝑛 ≥ 2. Let 𝑋(1) = min{𝑋1, … , 𝑋𝑛} and 𝑋(𝑛) = max{𝑋1, … , 𝑋𝑛}. Then the covariance between 𝑋(𝑛) and 𝑋(1)/ 𝑋(𝑛) is

(A) 0

(B) 𝑛(𝑛 + 1)𝜃

(C) 𝑛 𝜃

(D) 𝑛2(𝑛 + 1)𝜃

Answer: (A)

 8. Let 𝑋1, … , 𝑋𝑛 be a random sample drawn from a population with probability density function 𝑓(𝑥; 𝜃) = 𝜃𝑥𝜃−1, 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1, 𝜃 > 0. Then the maximum likelihood estimator of 𝜃 is

Answer: (A)

9. Let 𝑌𝑖 = 𝛽0 + 𝛽1𝑥1𝑖 + 𝛽2𝑥2𝑖 + 𝜖𝑖, for 𝑖 = 1, … ,10, where 𝑥1𝑖′s and 𝑥2𝑖′s are fixed covariates, and 𝜖𝑖′s are uncorrelated random variables with mean 0 and unknown variance 𝜎2. Here 𝛽0, 𝛽1 and 𝛽2 are unknown parameters. Further, define  is the unbiased least squares estimator of (𝛽0, 𝛽1, 𝛽2). Then an unbiased estimator of 𝜎2 is

Answer: (B)

10. For 𝑖 = 1,2,3, let 𝑌𝑖 = 𝛼 + 𝛽𝑥𝑖 + 𝜖𝑖, where 𝑥𝑖′s are fixed covariates, and 𝜖𝑖′s are independent and identically distributed standard normal random variables. Here, 𝛼 and 𝛽 are unknown parameters. Given the following observations,

the best linear unbiased estimate of 𝛼 + 𝛽 is equal to

(A) 1.5

(B) 1

(C) 1.8

(D) 2.1

Answer: (A)

11. Consider a discrete time Markov chain on the state space {1,2,3} with one-step transition probability matrix Which of the following statements is true?

(A) States 1, 3 are recurrent and state 2 is transient.

(B) State 3 is recurrent and states 1, 2 are transient.

(C) States 1, 2, 3 are recurrent.

(D) States 1, 2 are recurrent and state 3 is transient.

Answer: (B)

12. The minimal polynomial of the matrix  is

(A) (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 − 2)

(B) (𝑥 − 1)2(𝑥 − 2)

(C) (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 − 2)2

(D) (𝑥 − 1)2(𝑥 − 2)2

Answer: (B)

13. Let (𝑋1, 𝑋2, 𝑋3) be a trivariate normal random vector with mean vector (−3, 1,4) and variance-covariance matrix  Which of the following statements are true?

 (i) 𝑋2 and 𝑋3 are independent.

(ii) 𝑋1 + 𝑋3 and 𝑋2 are independent.

(iii) (𝑋2 , 𝑋3) and 𝑋1 are independent.

(iv) 1/2 (𝑋2 + 𝑋3) and 𝑋1 are independent.2

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i) and (iv)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

14. A 23 factorial experiment with factors 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 is arranged in two blocks of four plots each as follows: (Below (1) denotes the treatment in which 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 are at the lower level, ac denotes the treatment in which 𝐴 and 𝐶 are at the higher level and 𝐵 is at the lower level and so on.)

The treatment contrast that is confounded with the blocks is

(A) 𝐵𝐶

(B) 𝐴𝐶

(C) 𝐴𝐵

(D) 𝐴𝐵𝐶

Answer: (D)

15. Consider a fixed effects two-way analysis of variance model 𝑌𝑖𝑗𝑘 = 𝜇 + 𝛼𝑖 + 𝛽𝑗 + 𝛾𝑖𝑗 + 𝜖𝑖𝑗𝑘, where 𝑖 = 1, … , 𝑎; 𝑗 = 1, … , 𝑏 ; 𝑘 = 1, … , 𝑟, and 𝜖𝑖𝑗𝑘′s are independent and identically distributed normal random variables with zero mean and constant variance. Then the degrees of freedom available to estimate the error variance is zero when

(A) 𝑎 = 1

(B) 𝑏 = 1

(C) 𝑟 = 1

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (C)

16. For 𝑘 = 1,2, … ,10, let the probability density function of the random variable 𝑋𝑘 be

Then  is equal to …….

Answer: (385 to 385)

17. The probability density function of the random vector (𝑋, 𝑌) is given by

Then the value of 𝑐 is equal to………

Answer: (2 to 2)

18. Let { 𝑋𝑛}𝑛≥1 be a sequence of independent and identically distributed normal random variables with mean 4 and variance 1. Then  is equal to ……

Answer: (0 to 0)

19. Let (𝑋1, 𝑋2) be a random vector following bivariate normal distribution with mean vector (0, 0), Variance(𝑋1) = Variance(𝑋2) = 1 and correlation coefficient 𝜌, where |𝜌| < 1. Then 𝑃(𝑋1 + 𝑋2 > 0) is equal to …………

Answer: (0.5 to 0.5)

20. Let 𝑋1, … , 𝑋𝑛 be a random sample from normal distribution with mean 𝜇 and variance 1. Let ϕ be the cumulative distribution function of the standard normal distribution. Given ϕ(1.96) = 0.975, the minimum sample size required such that the length of the 95% confidence interval for 𝜇 does NOT exceed 2 is …………..

Answer: (4 to 4)

21. Let 𝑋 be a random variable with probability density function 𝑓(𝑥; 𝜃) = 𝜃𝑒𝜃𝑥, where 𝑥 ≥ 0 and 𝜃 > 0. To test 𝐻0: 𝜃 = 1 against 𝐻1: 𝜃 > 1, the following test is used:

Reject 𝐻0 if and only if 𝑋 > log𝑒20.

Then the size of the test is ……….

Answer: (0.05 to 0.05)

22. Let {𝑋𝑛}𝑛≥0 be a discrete time Markov chain on the state space {1,2,3} with one-step transition probability matrix

and initial distribution 𝑃(𝑋0  = 1) = 0.5, 𝑃(𝑋0  = 2) = 0.2, 𝑃(𝑋0  = 3) =  0.3 . Then 𝑃(𝑋1 = 2, 𝑋2 = 3, 𝑋3 = 1) (rounded off to three decimal places) is equal to …..

Answer: (0.018 to 0.020)

23. Let 𝑓 be a continuous and positive real valued function on [0, 1]. Then  is equal to …..

Answer: (0 to 0)

24. A random sample of size 100 is classified into 10 class intervals covering all the data points. To test whether the data comes from a normal population with unknown mean and unknown variance, the chi-squared goodness of fit test is used. The degrees of freedom of the test statistic is equal to ………

Answer: (7 to 7)

25. For 𝑖 = 1,2,3,4, let 𝑌𝑖 = 𝛼 + 𝛽𝑥𝑖 + 𝜖𝑖 where 𝑥𝑖′s are fixed covariates and 𝜖𝑖′s are uncorrelated random variables with mean 0 and variance 3. Here, 𝛼 and 𝛽 are unknown parameters. Given the following observations,

the variance of the least squares estimator of 𝛽 is equal to …….

Answer: (0.1 to 0.1)

 Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Let  Then, for |𝑥| < 1, the series  converges to

Answer: (C)

27. Let {𝑋𝑘}𝑘≥1 be a sequence of independent and identically distributed Bernoulli random variables with success probability 𝑝 ∈ (0,1). Then, as 𝑛 → ∞,

                   

converges almost surely to

(A) p

(B) 1/1 – p

(C) 1 – p/p

(D) 1

Answer: (A)

28. Let 𝑋 and 𝑌 be two independent random variables with 𝜒2m and 𝜒2n distributions, respectively, where 𝑚 and 𝑛 are positive integers. Then which of the following statements is true?

(A) For 𝑚 < 𝑛, 𝑃(𝑋 > 𝑎) ≥ 𝑃(𝑌 > 𝑎) for all 𝑎 ∈ ℝ.

(B) For 𝑚 > 𝑛, 𝑃(𝑋 > 𝑎) ≥ 𝑃(𝑌 > 𝑎) for all 𝑎 ∈ ℝ.

(C) For 𝑚 < 𝑛, 𝑃(𝑋 > 𝑎) = 𝑃(𝑌 > 𝑎) for all 𝑎 ∈ ℝ.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (B)

29. The matrix  is diagonalizable when (𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) equals

(A) (0,0,1)

(B) (1,1,0)           

 (C) (√2, √2, 2)   

 (D) (√2, √2, √2)

Answer: (C)

30. Suppose that 𝑃1 and 𝑃2 are two populations with equal prior probabilities having bivariate normal distributions with mean vectors (2, 3) and (1, 1), respectively. The variance- covariance matrix of both the distributions is the identity matrix. Let 𝑧1 = (2.5, 2) and 𝑧2 = (2, 1.5) be two new observations. According to Fisher’s linear discriminant rule,

(A) 𝑧1 is assigned to 𝑃1, and 𝑧2 is assigned to 𝑃2.

(B) 𝑧1 is assigned to 𝑃2, and 𝑧2 is assigned to 𝑃1.

(C) 𝑧1 is assigned to 𝑃1, and 𝑧2 is assigned to 𝑃1.

(D) 𝑧1 is assigned to 𝑃2, and 𝑧2 is assigned to 𝑃2.

Answer: (A)

31. Let 𝑋1, … , 𝑋𝑛 be a random sample from a population having probability density function  Then the method of moments estimator of 𝜃 is

Answer: (A)

32. Let 𝑋 be a normal random variable having mean 𝜃 and variance 1, where 1 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 10. Then 𝑋 is

(A) sufficient but not complete.

(B) the maximum likelihood estimator of 𝜃.

(C) the uniformly minimum variance unbiased estimator of 𝜃.

(D) complete and ancillary.

Answer: (C)

33. Let {𝑋𝑛}𝑛≥1 be a sequence of independent and identically distributed random variables with mean 𝜃 and variance 𝜃, where 𝜃 > 0. Then  is a consistent estimator of

(A) 1/1+θ

(B) 1+ θ/θ

(C) 1/θ

(D) θ/1+θ

Answer: (A)

34. Let 𝑋1, … , 𝑋10 be a random sample from a population with probability density function

                 

Then the maximum likelihood estimator of 𝜃

(A) does not exist.

(B) is not unique.

(C) is the sample mean.

(D) is the smallest observation.

Answer: (B)

35. Consider the model 𝑌𝑖 = 𝛽 + 𝜖𝑖, where 𝜖𝑖′s are independent normal random variables with zero mean and known variance 𝜎i2 > 0, for 𝑖 = 1, … , 𝑛. Then the best linear unbiased estimator of the unknown parameter 𝛽 is

Answer: (A)

36. Let (𝑋, 𝑌) be a bivariate random vector with probability density function

Then the regression of 𝑌 on 𝑋 is given by

(A) 𝑋 + 1

(B) 𝑋/2

(C) 𝑌/2

(D) 𝑌 + 1

Answer: (A)

37. Consider a discrete time Markov chain on the state space {1, 2} with one-step transition probability matrix

38. Let (𝑋1, 𝑋2) be a random vector with variance-covariance matrix The two principal components are

(A) 𝑋1 and 𝑋2

(B) −𝑋1 and 𝑋2

(C) 𝑋1 and −𝑋2

(D) 𝑋1 + 𝑋2 and 𝑋2

Answer: (A)

39. Consider the objects {1,2,3,4} with the distance matrix

Applying the single-linkage hierarchical procedure twice, the two clusters that result are

(A) {2,3} and {1,4}

(B) {1,2,3} and {4}

(C) {1,3,4} and {2}

(D) {2,3,4} and {1}

Answer: (B)

40. The maximum likelihood estimates of the mean vector and the variance-covariance matrix of a bivariate normal distribution based on the realization  of a random sample of size 3, are given by

41. Consider a fixed effects one-way analysis of variance model 𝑌𝑖𝑗 = 𝜇 + 𝜏𝑖 + 𝜖𝑖𝑗, for 𝑖 = 1, … , 𝑎, 𝑗 = 1, … , 𝑟, and 𝜖𝑖𝑗′s are independent and identically distributed normal random variables with mean zero and variance 𝜎2. Here, 𝑟 and 𝑎 are positive integers.

Let  is the least squares estimator for

(A) μ + τi/2

(B) τi

(C) μ + τi

(D) μ

Answer: (C)

42. Let 𝐴 be a 𝑛 × 𝑛 positive semi-definite matrix with eigenvalues 𝜆1 ≥ ⋯ ≥ 𝜆𝑛, and with 𝛼 as the maximum diagonal entry. We can find a vector 𝑥 such that 𝑥𝑡𝑥 = 1, where 𝑡 denotes the transpose, and

(A) 𝑥𝑡𝐴 𝑥 > 𝜆1

(B) 𝑥𝑡𝐴𝑥 < 𝜆𝑛

(C) 𝜆𝑛 ≤ 𝑥𝑡𝐴 𝑥 ≤ 𝜆1

(D) 𝑥𝑡𝐴 𝑥 > 𝑛 𝛼

Answer: (C)

43. Let 𝑋 be a random variable with uniform distribution on the interval (−1,1) and 𝑌 = (𝑋 + 1)2. Then the probability density function 𝑓(𝑦) of 𝑌, over the interval (0,4), is

(A) 3√𝑦/16

(B) 1/4 √𝑦

(C) 1/6 √𝑦

(D) 1/√𝑦

Answer: (B)

44. Let 𝑆 be the solid whose base is the region in the 𝑥𝑦-plane bounded by the curves 𝑦 = 𝑥2 and 𝑦 = 8 − 𝑥2, and whose cross-sections perpendicular to the 𝑥-axis are squares. Then the volume of 𝑆 (rounded off to two decimal places) is ………….

Answer: (136.51 to 135.55)

45. Consider the trinomial distribution with the probability mass function   𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤ 7.

Then 𝐸(𝑌|𝑋 = 3) is equal to ……

Answer: (2 to 2)

46. Let 𝑌𝑖 = 𝛼 + 𝛽𝑥𝑖 + 𝜖𝑖, where 𝑖 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 𝑥𝑖′s are fixed covariates and 𝜖𝑖′s are independent and identically distributed standard normal random variables. Here, 𝛼 and 𝛽 are unknown parameters. Let Φ be the cumulative distribution function of the standard normal distribution and Φ(1.96) = 0.975. Given the following observations,

the length (rounded off to two decimal places) of the shortest 95% confidence interval for 𝛽 based on its least squares estimator is equal to ……….

Answer: (0.91 to 0.93)

47. Consider a discrete time Markov chain on the state space {1,2,3} with one-step transition probability matrix Then the period of the Markov chain is …………

Answer: (1 to 1)

48. Suppose customers arrive at an ATM facility according to a Poisson process with rate 5 customers per hour. The probability (rounded off to two decimal places) that no customer arrives at the ATM facility from 1:00 pm to 1:18 pm is ……….

Answer: (0.21 to 0.23)

49. Let 𝑋 be a random variable with characteristic function 𝜙𝑋(⋅) such that 𝜙𝑋(2 𝜋) = 1. Let ℤ denote the set of integers. Then 𝑃(𝑋 ∈ ℤ) is equal to ……..

Answer: (1 to 1)

50. Let 𝑋1 be a random sample of size 1 from uniform distribution over (𝜃, 𝜃2), where 𝜃 > 1. To test 𝐻0: 𝜃 = 2 against 𝐻1: 𝜃 = 3, reject 𝐻0 if and only if 𝑋1 > 3.5 . Let 𝛼 and 𝛽 be the size and the power, respectively, of this test. Then 𝛼 + 𝛽 (rounded off to two decimal places) is equal to ………

Answer: (1.15 to 1.18)

51. Let 𝑌𝑖 = 𝛽0 + 𝛽1𝑥𝑖 + 𝜖𝑖, 𝑖 = 1, … , 𝑛, where 𝑥𝑖′s are fixed covariates, and 𝜖𝑖′s are uncorrelated random variables with mean zero and constant variance. Suppose that are the least squares estimators of the unknown parameters respectively. If  then the correlation between  is equal to ……..

Answer: (0 to 0)

52. Let 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = (3𝑥2 + 4) cos 𝑥. Then  is equal to ……

Answer: (2 to 2)

53. The maximum value of (𝑥 − 1)2 + (𝑦 − 2)2 subject to the constraint 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 ≤ 45 is equal to……

Answer: (80 to 80)

54. Let 𝑋1, ……… , 𝑋10 be independent and identically distributed normal random variables with mean 0 and variance 2. Then  is equal to ………..

Answer: (0.1 to 0.1)

55. Let 𝐼 be the 4 × 4 identity matrix and 𝑣 = (1, 2, 3, 4)𝑡, where 𝑡 denotes the transpose. Then the determinant of 𝐼 + 𝑣𝑣𝑡 is equal to ………..

Answer: (31 to 31)

GATE Exam 2019 Production and Industrial Engineering (PI) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Production and Industrial Engineering

Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. For any real, square and non-singular matrix B , the det B1 is

(A) zero

(B) (det B)1

(C) −(det B)

(D) det B

Answer: (B)

2. For a complex number  z = 1 – 4i with

 (A) 0

(B) 1/√2

(C) 1

(D)√2

Answer: (D)

3. The vector that is normal to the surface 2xz2 − 3xy – 4x = 7 at the point (1, –1, 2) is

(A) 2i – 3j + 8k

(B) 2i + 3j + 4k

(C) 7i + 3j + 8k

(D) 7i – 5j + 8k

Answer: (C)

4. If roots of the auxiliary equation of  are real and equal, the general solution of the differential equation is

(A) y = c1e−ax/2 + c2eax/2

(B) y = (c1 + c2x)−ax/2

(C) y = (c1 + c2 lnx)e−ax/2

(D) y = (c1 cos x + c2 sin x)e−ax/2

Answer: (B)

5. The solution of  is

(A) ln(ab)

 (B) ln(a / b)

 (C) ln(a) + ln(b)

 (D) ln(a) ln(b)

Answer: (D)

6. Match the crystal structure in Column A with the corresponding packing fractions in Column B of the table

(A)   1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-Q

(B)   1-R, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q

(C)   1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-P

(D)   1-P, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q

Answer: (C)

7. The link lengths of a planar four bar mechanism  are  AB  =  100  mm,  BC  =  25 mm, CD = 75 mm and DA = 90 mm. For achieving the full rotation of both the input (crank) as well as the output (follower) links, the link that needs to be fixed is

(A) AB

(B) BC

(C) CD

(D) DA

Answer: (B)

8. The process used for producing continuous insulation coating on an electrical wire is

(A) Extrusion

(B) Injection molding

(C) Blow molding

(D) Deep drawing

Answer: (A)

9. The correct statement pertaining to the friction welding process is

(A) Heat affected zone is not formed

(B) Flashes are not produced

(C) Dissimilar materials cannot be joined

(D) Melting of the base material(s) is not involved

Answer: (D)

10. The end product obtained using spinning process is shown in the figure. The initial blank thickness is 2.5 mm. The blank diameter (in mm) is

(A) 75

(B) 105

(C) 150

(D) 210

Answer: (D)

11. For a classical (Wilson) model of determining economic order quantity (EOQ), the carrying and ordering costs are Cr and Co, respectively. For an annual demand D, the minimum yearly total inventory cost is

Answer: (C)

12. A company has purchased an asset by investing Rs.30,000. The useful life of the asset is 5 years and it has no salvage value at the end of its useful life. The depreciation cost (in Rs.) for the 2nd year using sum-of-years-digit (SYD) method is

(A) 10,000

(B) 8,000

(C) 6,000

(D) 4,000

Answer: (B)

13. In a NC milling operation, the tool path is generated using absolute programing for the trajectory shown in the figure

The corresponding block of the NC program is

(A) G02 X 120.0 Y 60.0 R 60.0;

(B) G02 X 60.0 Y 120.0 R 60.0;

(C) G03 X 60.0 Y 120.0 R 60.0;

(D) G03 X 120.0 Y 60.0 R 60.0;

Answer: (A)

14. The SQC chart based on Binomial distribution is

(A) p chart

(B) c chart

(D) R chart

Answer: (A)

15.The capacity of a passenger airline is expressed in terms of

(A) available seats

(B) available miles

(C) available sectors

(D) available seat miles

Answer: (D)

16. REL chart is used in

(A) Quality management

(B) Inventory management

(C) Facility management

(D) Human resource management

Answer: (C)

17. A metallic rod of diameter d0 is subjected to the tensile test. The engineering stress and the true stress at fracture are 800 MPa and 900 MPa, respectively. The ratio of the rod diameter at fracture df to the initial diameter d0  is _______ (round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (0.93 to 0.95)

18. A heat pump is to supply heat at the rate of 10 kW to a building to be maintained at 22°C. The outside temperature is 2 ˚C. The minimum power (in kW) required to run the heat pump is ______(round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (0.67 to 0.69)

19. One kilogram of air is compressed at constant temperature of 150°C until its volume is halved. Considering gas constant R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K for air, magnitude of heat rejected (in kJ) in the compression process is ________ (round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (84.00 to 84.30)

20. For the abrasive jet machining process, the ratio of abrasive volume to carrier gas volume is 0.25. Further, the ratio of abrasive density to carrier gas density is 25. The mass ratio of abrasive to the mixture of abrasive and carrier gas is_______ (round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (0.85 to 0.90)

21. In a typical turning tool life test, the following data are generated for tools A and B:

Assuming the same tool life exponent for the tools, the value of constant in the Taylor’s tool life equation  (with cutting speed in  m/min and tool  life in min) is (round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (445.00 to 455.00)

22. The average proportion non-conforming of 20 samples each of size 100 items is 0.12. The upper control limit for the relevant chart is ______(round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (0.21 to 0.23)

23. For a process which is in a state of statistical control (within±3σ ), estimated process standard deviation (σ) is 3 mm. The specification limits for the corresponding product  are 100 ± 7 mm. The capability ratio Cr is ______ (round off to 3 decimal places)

Answer: (1.200 to 1.400)

24. In a work study experiment, normal  time was  recorded as  140  s  with  a rating of 100%. Considering 2% allowance, the standard time (in s) is ________ (round off to 1 decimal place)

Answer: (141.0 to 145.0)

25. A warehouse has 1 loading dock and 3 persons for loading operations. The arrival rate of trucks follows Poisson distribution with a mean of 4 trucks/hour. The average loading time (by three persons together) per truck is exponentially distributed with a mean of 10 minutes. The charge of the trucks per hour and loading charges per person per hour are Rs.20 and Rs.6, respectively. The total cost (in Rs./hour) is ______

Answer: (57 to 59)

Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. If the Laplace transform of  , the Laplace transform of t cosh t is

Answer: (A)

27. General solution of the Cauchy-Euler equation is

(A) y = c1x2 +c2 x4

(B) y = c1x2 +c2x4

(C) y = (c1+c2 ln x) x4

(D) y = c1x4 +c2 x4 ln x

Answer: (C)

28. A uniform cantilever beam ABC of length L is subjected to a point load P at point B and a concentrated moment M at point C (as shown in figure). Let E be the Young’s modulus of the beam material and I be the area moment of inertia of the beam’s cross-section. Assuming the validity of the Euler-Bernoulli  theory  of  slender  beams,  the  downward  deflection at point C is

Answer: (D)

29. Three Carnot engines 𝔼1, 𝔼2, 𝔼3 operate as shown in the figure (T1 > T2 > T3).

The efficiency of the engine 𝔼3 in terms of the efficiencies η1 and η2 of the engines 𝔼1 and  𝔼2 respectively, is

(A) η1+ η2

(B) η1 + η2 – η1η2

(C) 1 – η1 – η2

(D) 1 – η1η2

Answer: (B)

30. True centrifugal casting process in horizontal configuration is to be used for casting a metallic cylinder with outside diameter 0.275 m and inside diameter 0.250 m. If G-factor (ratio of centrifugal force experienced by the rotating cast metal to its weight) is 65 and acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2, the minimum rotational speed (in rpm) required is closest to

(A) 325

(B) 650

(C) 975

(D) 1300

Answer: (B)

31. In a sine bar, let h denote height of slip gauge and l be the distance between the rollers. The relationship between error in angular measurement ( dθ) and errors in the slip gauge combination ( dh ) and in the spacing of the rollers ( dl ) is

Answer: (C)

32. A 100 mm long cylindrical workpiece of diameter 50 mm is reduced to 25 mm diameter using extrusion process.  The  flow  curve  for  the  metal  has  strength   coefficient  as    K = 750 MPa and the strain hardening co-efficient is 0.15. Assuming no friction and no redundant work, the required ram pressure (in MPa) is closest to

(A) 164

(B) 364

(C) 428

(D) 950

Answer: (D)

33. An LPP is defined as

Minimize z = 15x1 + 12x2

subject to,

                x1 + 2x2 ≤ 3

                2x1 – 4x2 ≤ 5

                x1, x2 ≥ 0

The objective function of the dual of this LPP is

(A) Maximize w = y1 + y2

(B) Maximize w = y1 + 2y2

(C) Maximize w = 2y1 + 4y2

(D) Maximize w = 3y1 + 5y2

Answer: (D)

34. A 20 mm HSS drill with a point angle of 118° is used for drilling a through hole on a metallic plate of thickness 100 mm with a cutting speed of 333.33 mm/s and feed of 0.22 mm/rev. Assuming that the  drill  is  touching  the  surface  of  the  plate  at  the   start,   the  drilling time (in s) is closest to

(A) 85

(B) 90

(C) 96

(D) 100

Answer: (B)

35. An acceptance sampling plan is selected with sample size n = 80, acceptance number c = 2 for a lot size of 10,000 units. The probability of accepting the lot is based on Poisson distribution. Assuming rectification inspection, if incoming lot quality p is  0.03  and  mean (λ) is 2.4, the average outgoing quality (AOQ) is closest to

(A) 0.0011

(B) 0.0087

(C) 0.0170

(D) 0.0338

Answer: (C)

36. The mean time to repair (MTTR) for a repairable system is 30 minutes. When maintenance time changes from 20 minutes to 40 minutes, the net increase in maintainability is closest to

(A) 0.15

(B) 0.25

(C) 0.45

(D) 0.60

Answer: (B)

37. A company  invests  Rs.50  thousand  in  assets.  The  initial investment   is Rs.30 thousand with two subsequent investments of Rs.10 thousand each at the end of 1st year and 2nd year. The useful life of the assets is 10 years with no salvage value at the end. If the interest rate is 10% and the minimum attractive rate of return (MARR) is 12%, the annual capital recovery and return (CRR) in thousands of Rs. is

(A) 8.38

(B) 7.06

(C) 5.74

(D) 3.10

Answer: (A)

38. The man-hours required ( Tn ) to manufacture the nth unit in a plant is given by Tn = T1nb, where b = − 0.322 at the 80% learning rate. If the manufacturing time for the first unit ( T1 ) is 80 man-hours, the total time (in man-hours) required to manufacture the first 4 units, at 80% learning rate, is

(A) 322.11

(B) 251.35

(C) 103.76

(D) 51.19

Answer: (B)

39. A firm, with a production target of 50,000 units/year, has the following data for the selection of a new location for its plant

The most economical location for the firm is

(A)P

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) S

Answer: (A)

40. Considering included angle θ of the thread to be 60° using the Best-Wire method, the difference between the effective diameter (E ) and the dimension under the wire (T )  for M10 × 1.0 mm is closest to

(A) 0.289

(B) 0.578

(C) 0.867

(D) 0.982

Answer: (A)

41. If z is a complex variable with i = √−i, the length of the minor axis of an ellipse defined by |z – (1 + i) | + |z – (9 + i)| = 0 is _____

Answer: (5.9 to 6.1)

42. The numerical value of the definite integral  using trapezoidal rule with function evaluations at points x = 0, 0.5 and 1 is ______ (round off to 3 decimal places)

Answer: (0.640 to 0.650)

43. A thin walled cylindrical pressure vessel with an inside diameter of 300 mm and wall thickness of 3 mm is subjected to an internal gauge pressure of 1.5 MPa. The maximum shear stress (in MPa) at a point located on the inner surface of the pressure vessel is ______

Answer: (37 to 40)

44. A cam is designed to achieve a simple harmonic motion of a flat-faced follower. Starting from the rest, the follower rises to the maximum height of 50 mm at 180˚ of cam rotation as shown in the figure.

If the cam rotates at a uniform angular speed of 100 rpm, the speed of the follower (in mm/s) at the     instance when the cam  rotates 45° from  the initial position is _______

Answer: (180 to 190)

45. An open tank of 2 m × 2 m × 2 m is filled with layers of two fluids. Depth of each layer is one meter. The top layer is that of an oil of specific gravity 0.8. The bottom layer is of water. Consider the density of water ρw = 1000 kg/m  and acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2.

Neglecting the effect of atmospheric pressure, the force (in N) exerted by the fluids on one of the side walls of the tank is ______

Answer: (33000 to 34000)

46. During a storm, the wind speed is 90 km/hr. In a high-rise building, there is a window of size 1.2 m × 1.8 m facing the storm on an upper floor. Neglecting the ground effects on wind speed and considering the density of air ρair = 1.2 kg/m  , the force (in N) acting on the window due to the storm is______

Answer: (800 to 820 OR 1600 to 1640)

47. The heat transfer efficiency in arc welding of a plate using a current of 250 A at 20 V is 90%. The heat required to melt the material is 10 J/mm3. If the cross-sectional area of the weld joint is 30 mm2 and the travel speed is 5 mm/s, the melting efficiency (in %) is ____ (round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (32.00 to 34.00)

48. A sand casting process has a mold constant of 2 s/mm2 and solidification exponent of 2. If  the  solidification  time  is  to  be  doubled  for  a  given  unit  volume   of material, the corresponding reduction in the cast surface area (in %) is ______

Answer: (28 to 31)

49. During a turning operation of a specific work material having shear strength of 220 MPa under orthogonal cutting condition, the process parameters are

Given chip thickness ratio as 0.5, friction angle as 49.2˚ and shear angle as 25.4˚, the feed force (in N) is_______

Answer: (450 to 470)

50. A CO2 laser in continuous mode is used for drilling a plate. The process parameters and their values are

The drilled depth (in mm) after 2 seconds is _____

Answer: (6 to 6)

51. A process which is in a state of statistical control (within ±3σ) has an estimate of standard deviation (σ)2 mm. The specification limits for the corresponding product are 120 ± 8 mm. When process mean shifts from 118 mm to 122 mm with no change in process standard deviation, the difference in process capability index Cpk is ______

Answer: (0 to 0)

52. A monitoring system has seven components. The reliability of each component is shown in the figure. The system reliability is _____ (round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (0.16 to 0.18)

53. A PERT project network consists of 5 activities A to E. The time estimates of these activities follow Beta-distribution. The predecessor–successor (P-S) relationships between the nodes and time estimates of activities are given in table.

The variance (in days) of the critical path is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (4.00 to 4.40)

54. The sales data of a product for 5 years are

Assume the forecast for the year 2014 as 260 units. Using an exponential smoothing method with smoothing constant α = 0.5, the sales forecast (units) for the year 2019, is ______

Answer: (276 to 278)

55. The layout for an AGV system is shown in figure. The loading time is 0.5 minutes and the unloading time is also 0.5 minutes. All distances are in meters.

Considering a vehicle velocity of 50 m/min, availability of 0.95 and traffic factor of 0.9, the number of vehicles required to satisfy a demand of 50 delivery/hour is ______

Answer: (4 to 5)

GATE Exam 2019 Physics (PH) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Physics

Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. The relative magnetic permeability of a type-I superconductor is

(A) 0

(B) −1

(C) 2𝜋

(D) 1/4π

Answer: (A)

2. Considering baryon number and lepton number conservation laws, which of the following processes is/are allowed?

(i)   𝑝 → 𝜋0  + 𝑒‑  + 𝜈𝑒

(ii) 𝑒+  + 𝜈𝑒  → 𝜇+  + 𝜈𝜇

(A) both (i) and (ii)                          

(B) only (i)                                          

(C) only (ii)                                         

(D) neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer: (C)

                  

3. For the following circuit, what is the magnitude of Vout if Vin = 1.5 V?

 (A) 0.015 V

(B) 0.15 V

(C)15 V

(D)150 V

Answer: (C)

4. For the differential equation  where 𝑛 is a constant, the product of its two independent solutions is

(A) 1/x

(B) x

(C) xn

(D)1/xn+1

Answer: (B)

5. Consider a one-dimensional gas of 𝑁 non-interacting particles of mass 𝑚 with the Hamiltonian for a single particle given by,

The high temperature specific heat in units of 𝑅 = 𝑁𝑘𝐵 (𝑘𝐵 is the Boltzmann constant) is

(A) 1

(B) 1.5

(C) 2

(D) 2.5

Answer: (A)

6. An electric field  is applied to a Hydrogen atom in 𝑛 = 2 excited state. Ignoring spin, the 𝑛 = 2 state is fourfold degenerate, which in the |𝑙, 𝑚⟩ basis are given by |0,0〉, |1,1⟩, |1,0⟩ and |1, −1⟩. If 𝐻′ is the interaction Hamiltonian corresponding to the applied electric field, which of the following matrix elements is nonzero?

(A) ⟨0,0|𝐻′|0,0⟩

(B) ⟨0,0|𝐻′|1,1⟩

(C) ⟨0,0|𝐻′|1,0⟩

(D) ⟨0,0|𝐻′|1, −1⟩

Answer: (C)

7. A large number 𝑁 of ideal bosons, each of mass m, are trapped in a three-dimensional potential  The bosonic system is kept at temperature 𝑇 which is much lower than the Bose-Einstein condensation temperature 𝑇𝑐. The chemical potential (𝜇) satisfies

Answer: (A)

8. During a rotation, vectors along the axis of rotation remain unchanged. For the rotation  matrix the unit vector along the axis of rotation is

Answer: (B)

9. For a spin denote its spin up and spin down states, respectively. If  are composite states of two such particles, which of the following statements is true for their total spin S ?

Answer: (D)

10. Consider a transformation from one set of generalized coordinate and momentum (𝑞, 𝑝) to another set (𝑄, 𝑃) denoted by,

𝑄 = 𝑝𝑞𝑠;                𝑃  = 𝑞𝑟

where 𝑠 and 𝑟 are constants. The transformation is canonical if

(A) 𝑠 = 0 and 𝑟 = 1

(B) 𝑠 = 2 and 𝑟 = −1

(C) 𝑠 = 0 and 𝑟 = −1

(D) 𝑠 = 2 and 𝑟 = 1

Answer: (B)

11. In order to estimate the specific heat of phonons, the appropriate method to apply would be

(A) Einstein model for acoustic phonons and Debye model for optical phonons

(B) Einstein model for optical phonons and Debye model for acoustic phonons

(C) Einstein model for both optical and acoustic phonons

(D) Debye model for both optical and acoustic phonons

Answer: (B)

12. The pole of the function f(z) = cot z at z = 0 is

(A) a removable singularity

(B) an essential singularity

(C) a simple pole

(D) a second order pole

Answer: (C)

13. A massive particle X in free space decays spontaneously into two photons. Which of the following statements is true for X?

(A) X is charged

(B) Spin of X must be greater than or equal to 2

(C) X is a boson

(D) X must be a baryon

Answer: (C)

14. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by  The wave is

(A) linearly polarized at an angle tan−1 (4/3) from the x-axis

(B) linearly polarized at an angle tan−1 (3/4) from the x-axis

(C) elliptically polarized in clockwise direction when seen travelling towards the observer

(D) elliptically polarized in counter-clockwise direction when seen travelling towards the observer

Answer: (D)

15. The nuclear spin and parity of  in its ground state is

(A) 0+

(B) 0

(C) 1+

(D) 1

Answer: (A)

16. An infinitely long thin cylindrical shell has its axis coinciding with the z-axis. It carries a surface charge density 𝜎0cos𝜙, where 𝜙 is the polar angle and 𝜎0 is a constant. The magnitude of the electric field inside the cylinder is

(A) 0

(B) 𝜎0/2𝜖0

(C)  𝜎0/3𝜖0

(D)  𝜎0/4𝜖0

Answer: (B)

17. Consider a three-dimensional crystal of 𝑁 inert gas atoms. The total energy is given by  where 𝑝 = 12.13,  𝑞  = 14.45,  and  𝑅   is  the  nearest neighbour distance between two atoms. The two constants, 𝜖 and 𝑅,  have the dimensions of energy and length, respectively. The equilibrium separation between two nearest neighbour atoms in units of 𝜎 (rounded off to two decimal places) is ______

Answer: (1.07 to 1.11)

18. The energy-wavevector (𝐸-𝑘) dispersion relation for a particle in two dimensions is 𝐸 = 𝐶𝑘, where 𝐶 is a constant. If its density of states 𝐷(𝐸) is proportional to 𝐸𝑝 then the value of 𝑝 is________

Answer: (1 to 1)

19. A circular loop made of a thin wire has radius 2 cm and resistance 2 Ω. It is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of magnitude Tesla. At time 𝑡 = 0 the field  starts  decaying  as  The  total  charge  that  passes through a cross section of the wire during the decay is Q. The value of Q in 𝜇𝐶 (rounded off to two decimal places) is _______

Answer: (6.26 to 6.30)

20. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by

The wave is reflected from the 𝑧 = 0 surface. If the pressure exerted on the surface is 𝛼𝜖0𝐸20, the value of 𝛼 (rounded off to one decimal place) is ______

Answer: (0.8 to 0.8)

21. The Hamiltonian for a quantum harmonic oscillator of mass 𝑚 in three dimensions is

where 𝜔 is the angular frequency. The expectation value of r2 in the first excited state of the oscillator in units of h/mω (rounded off to one decimal place) is_______

Answer: (2.5 to 2.5)

22. The Hamiltonian for a particle of mass m is  where 𝑞 and 𝑝 are the generalized coordinate and momentum, respectively, 𝑡 is time and 𝑘 is a constant. For the initial condition, 𝑞 = 0 and 𝑝 = 0 at 𝑡 = 0, 𝑞(𝑡) ∝ 𝑡α. The  value of α is_______

Answer: (3 to 3)

23. At temperature T Kelvin (K), the value of the Fermi function at an energy 0.5 eV above the Fermi energy is 0.01. Then T, to the nearest integer, is ________

(𝑘B = 8.62 × 10−5 eV/K)

Answer: (1260 to 1266)

24. Let  represent two possible states of a two-level quantum system. The state obtained by the incoherent superposition of |𝜓1〉 and |𝜓2〉 is given by a density matrix that is  defined  as  𝜌 ≡ 𝑐1|𝜓1〉〈𝜓1| + 𝑐2|𝜓2〉〈𝜓2|. If 𝑐1 = 0.4 and 𝑐2 = 0.6, the matrix element 𝜌22  (rounded off to one decimal place) is _________                   

Answer: (0.6 to 0.6)

25. A conventional type-I superconductor has a critical temperature of 4.7 K at zero magnetic field and a critical magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at 0 K. The critical field in Tesla at 2 K (rounded off to three decimal places) is ______

Answer: (0.244 to 0.248)

 Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Consider the following Boolean expression:

It can be represented by a single three-input logic gate. Identify the gate.

(A) AND              

(B) OR

(C) XOR

(D) NAND

Answer: (D)

27. The value of the integral  where 𝑘 > 0 and 𝑎 > 0, is

Answer: (A)

28. The wave function 𝜓(𝑥) of a particle is as shown below

Here 𝐾 is a constant, and 𝑎 > 𝑑. The position uncertainty 〈Δ𝑥〉 of the particle is

Answer: (B)

29. A solid cylinder of radius 𝑅 has total charge 𝑄 distributed uniformly over its volume. It is rotating about its axis with angular speed 𝜔. The magnitude of the total magnetic moment of the cylinder is

Answer: (C)

30. Consider the motion of a particle along the x-axis in a potential 𝑉(𝑥) = 𝐹|𝑥|. Its ground state energy 𝐸0 is estimated using the uncertainty principle. Then 𝐸0 is proportional to

(A) F1/3

(B) F1/2

(C) F2/5

(D) F2/3

Answer: (D)

31. A 3-bit analog-to-digital converter is designed to digitize analog signals ranging from 0 V to 10 V. For this converter, the binary output corresponding to an input of 6 V is

(A) 011

(B) 101

(C) 100

(D) 010

Answer: (C)

32. The Hamiltonian operator for a two-level quantum system is  If the state of  the system at t = 0 is given by at a later time 𝑡 is

Answer: (C)

33. A particle of mass m moves in a lattice along the x-axis in a periodic potential 𝑉(𝑥) = 𝑉(𝑥 + 𝑑) with periodicity d. The corresponding Brillouin zone extends from −𝑘0 to 𝑘0 with these two k-points being equivalent. If a weak force F in the x-direction is applied to the particle, it starts a periodic motion with time period T. Using the equation of motion  for a particle moving in a band, where pcrystal is the crystal momentum of the particle, the period T is found to be (h is the Planck constant)

Answer: (D)

34. Consider a potential barrier 𝑉(𝑥) of the form:

where 𝑉0 is a constant. For particles of energy 𝐸 < 𝑉0 incident on this barrier from the left, which of the following schematic diagrams best represents the probability density |𝜓 (𝑥)|2 as a function of 𝑥.

Answer: (A)

35. The spin-orbit interaction term of an electron moving in a central field is written as  where r is  the radial  distance of  the electron  from the origin. If an electron moves inside a uniformly charged sphere, then

(A) 𝑓(𝑟) = constant

(B) 𝑓(𝑟) ∝ 𝑟−1

(C) 𝑓(𝑟) ∝ 𝑟−2

(D) 𝑓(𝑟) ∝ 𝑟−3

Answer: (A)

36. For the following circuit, the correct logic values for the entries X2 and Y2 in the truth table are

(A) 1 and 0

(B) 0 and 0

(C) 0 and 1

(D) 1 and 1

Answer: (A)

37. In a set of 𝑁 successive polarizers, the 𝑚th polarizer makes an angle (𝑚𝜋/2N) with the vertical. A vertically polarized light beam of intensity 𝐼0 is incident on two such sets with 𝑁 = 𝑁1 and 𝑁 = 𝑁2, where 𝑁2 > 𝑁1. Let the intensity of light beams coming out be 𝐼(𝑁1) and 𝐼(𝑁2) , respectively. Which of the following statements is correct about the two outgoing beams?

(A) 𝐼(𝑁2) > 𝐼(𝑁1) ; the polarization in each case is vertical

(B) 𝐼(𝑁2) < 𝐼(𝑁1) ; the polarization in each case is vertical

(C) 𝐼(𝑁2) > 𝐼(𝑁1) ; the polarization in each case is horizontal

(D) 𝐼(𝑁2) < 𝐼(𝑁1) ; the polarization in each case is horizontal

Answer: (C)

38. A ball bouncing off a rigid floor is described by the potential energy function

V(x) = mgx for x > 0

= ∞ for x ≤ 0

Which of the following schematic diagrams best represents the phase space plot of the ball?     

Answer: (B)

39. An infinitely long wire parallel to the x-axis is kept at 𝑧 = 𝑑 and carries a current I in the positive x direction above a superconductor filling the region 𝑧 ≤ 0 (see figure). The magnetic field  inside the  superconductor  is  zero  so  that  the  field  just  outside  the superconductor is parallel to its surface. The magnetic field due to this configuration at a point (𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 > 0) is

Answer: (B)

40. The vector potential inside a long solenoid, with n turns per unit length and carrying current 𝐼, written  in cylindrical coordinates  If the term where α≠ 0, β ≠ 0, is added to  the magnetic field remains the same if

(A) 𝛼 = 𝛽

(B) 𝛼 = −𝛽

(C) 𝛼 = 2𝛽

(D) 𝛼 = 𝛽/2

Answer: (D)

41. Low energy collision (s-wave scattering) of pion (π+) with deuteron (d) results in the production of two protons (𝜋+ + 𝑑 → 𝑝 + 𝑝). The relative orbital angular momentum (in units of ℏ) of the resulting two-proton system for this reaction is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

Answer: (B)

42. Consider the Hamiltonian  where 𝛼 and 𝛽 are parameters with appropriate dimensions, and 𝑞 and 𝑝 are the generalized coordinate and momentum, respectively. The corresponding Lagrangian 𝐿(𝑞, 𝑞̇) is

Answer: (A)

43. For a given load resistance RL = 4.7 ohm, the power transfer efficiencies  of a dc voltage source and a dc current source with internal resistances R1 and R2, respectively, are equal. The product R1R2 in units of ohm2 (rounded off to one decimal place) is _______

Answer: (22.0 to 22.2)

44. The ground state electronic configuration of the rare-earth ion (Nd3+) is [Pd] 4f35s25p6. Assuming LS coupling,  the  Land𝑒́  𝑔-factor  of  this  ion  is   8/11 .  The  effective magnetic moment in units of Bohr magneton 𝜇B (rounded off to two decimal places) is__________

Answer: (3.61 to 3.63)

45. A projectile of mass 1 kg is launched at an angle of 30° from the horizontal direction at 𝑡 = 0 and takes time 𝑇 before hitting the ground.  If its initial speed is 10 ms−1  , the value of the action integral for the entire flight in the units of kg m2s−1 (rounded off to one decimal place) is________

[Take 𝑔 = 10 ms−2]

Answer: (33.2 to 33.4)

46. Let 𝜃 be a variable in the range − 𝜋 ≤ 𝜃 < 𝜋. Now consider a function

𝜓(𝜃) = 1   for − 𝜋/2 ≤ 𝜃  < 𝜋/2

         = 0   otherwise.

If its Fourier-series is written as  then the value of|𝐶3|2  (rounded off to three decimal places) is  ____

Answer: (0.010 to 0.013)

47. Two spaceships A and B, each of the same rest length 𝐿, are moving in the same direction with speeds 4𝑐/5 and 3𝑐/5, respectively, where 𝑐 is the speed of light. As measured by B, the time taken by A to completely overtake B [see figure below] in units of 𝐿/𝑐 (to the nearest integer) is _________

Answer: (5 to 5)

48. A radioactive element X has a half-life of 30 hours. It decays via alpha, beta and gamma emissions with the branching ratio for beta decay being 0.75. The partial half-life for beta decay in unit of hours is_______

Answer: (40 to 40)

  

49. In a thermally insulated container, 0.01 kg of ice at 273 K is mixed with 0.1 kg of water at  300 K. Neglecting the specific heat of the container, the change in the entropy of the system in J/K on attaining thermal equilibrium (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________

(Specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg-K and the latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg).

Answer: (1.02 to 1.04)

50. Consider a system of three charges as shown in the figure below:

For 𝑟 = 10 m; 𝜃 = 60 degrees; 𝑞 = 10−6 Coulomb, and 𝑑 = 10−3 m, the electric dipole potential in volts (rounded off to three decimal places) at a point (𝑟, 𝜃) is ________ 

Answer: (0.044 to 0.046)

51. Consider two systems A and B each having two distinguishable particles. In both the systems, each particle can exist in states with energies 0, 1, 2 and 3 units with equal probability. The total energy of the combined system is 5 units. Assuming that the system A has energy 3 units and the system B has energy 2 units, the entropy of the combined system is 𝑘B ln 𝜆. The value of 𝜆 is _________

Answer: (12 to 12)

52. Electrons with spin in the 𝑧-direction  are passed through a Stern-Gerlach (SG) set up with the magnetic field at 𝜃 = 60o from  . The fraction of electrons that will emerge with their spin parallel to the magnetic field in the SG set up (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________

Answer: (0.75 to 0.75)

53. The Hamiltonian of a system is  with 𝜀 ≪ 1. The fourth order contribution to the ground state energy of 𝐻 is 𝛾𝜀4. The value of 𝛾 (rounded off to three decimal places) is _________

Answer: (0.125 to 0.125)

54. Two events, one on the earth and the other one on the Sun, occur simultaneously in the earth’s frame. The time difference between the two events as seen by an observer in a spaceship moving with velocity 0.5c in the earth’s frame along the line joining the earth to the Sun is Δ𝑡, where c is the speed of light. Given that light travels from the Sun to the earth in 8.3 minutes in the earth’s frame, the value of |Δ𝑡| in minutes (rounded off to two decimal places) is__________

(Take the earth’s frame to be inertial and neglect the relative motion between the earth and the sun)

Answer: (4.77 to 4.81)

55. In a certain two-dimensional lattice, the energy dispersion of the electrons is

where  denotes the wave vector, 𝑎 is the lattice constant and 𝑡 is a constant in units of eV. In this lattice the effective mass tensor 𝑚𝑖𝑗 of electrons calculated at the center of the  Brillouin  zone has  the form The value of 𝛼 (rounded off to three decimal places) is _________

Answer: (0.333 to 0.333)

GATE Exam 2019 Petroleum Engineering (PE) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Petroleum Engineering

Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. Let 𝑟 and 𝜃 be the modulus and argument of the complex number 𝑧 = 1 + 𝑖, respectively. Then (𝑟, 𝜃) equals

(A) (√2, 𝜋/4)

(B) (2, 𝜋/2)

(C) (2, 𝜋/3)

(D) (√2, 𝜋)

Answer: (A)

2. Let 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 be the two eigenvalues of the matrix  Then, 𝜆1 + 𝜆2 and 𝜆1𝜆2, are respectively

(A) 1 and 1

(B) 1 and −1

(C) −1 and 1

(D) −1 and −1

Answer: (A)

3. The Laplace transform of the function 𝑓(𝑡) = 𝑒−𝑡 is given by

Answer: (C)

4. The relative decline rate of oil is given by  where q is the oil production rate, a (> 0) is the decline rate and b is a constant. The equation gives harmonic decline curve when b is

(A) 1.5

(B) 1

(C) 0.5

(D) 0

Answer: (B)

5. Which one of the following provides a vertical stab for the flow lines and annulus access lines from multiple wells in offshore subsea completion?

(A) Moon pool deck

(B) Spider beams

(C) Telescopic joints

(D) Manifold

Answer: (D)

6. In a faulted reservoir, the principle of superposition for the pressure drop using diffusivity equation is applicable. This is due to

(A) high Reynolds number flow in the well.

(B) constant permeability.

(C) pressure dependent viscosity.

(D) linearity of the diffusivity equation.

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following parameters is measured using routine core analysis (RCA)?

(A) Porosity

(B) Relative permeability

(C) Capillary pressure

(D) Wettability

Answer: (A)

8. Match the following:

(A) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I

(B) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II

(C) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I

(D) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II

Answer: (D)

9. Which one of the following rocks and reservoir fluids are arranged in the decreasing order of their electrical resistivity? Assume that rocks have equal porosity and are filled with brine.

(A) Shale > Brine > Sandstone > Limestone > Gas

(B) Gas > Shale > Sandstone > Limestone > Brine

(C) Gas > Limestone > Sandstone > Shale > Brine

(D) Shale > Brine > Limestone > Sandstone > Gas

Answer: (C)

10. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events for hydrocarbon generation in the subsurface?

(A) Catagenesis → Metagenesis → Diagenesis

(B) Catagenesis → Diagenesis → Metagenesis

(C) Diagenesis → Catagenesis → Metagenesis

(D) Diagenesis → Metagenesis → Catagenesis

Answer: (C)

11. Match the following:

(A) P-II, Q-I, R-III             

(B) P-I, Q-III, R-II              

(C) P-III, Q-II, R-I              

(D) P-III, Q-I, R-II

Answer: (D)

 12 Match the following for drill pipe failure :

(A) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II

(B) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III

(C) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV

(D) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

Answer: (B)

13. Which one of the following flow regimes is more favorable for gas lift operation?

(A) Bubbly flow

(B) Annular flow

(C) Churn flow

(D) Stratified flow

Answer: (A)

14. H2S gas is

(A) acidic.

(B) non-corrosive.

(C) lighter than air.

(D) non-flammable.

Answer: (A)

15. Which one of the following offshore platforms DOES NOT use buoyant columns or pontoons?

(A) Tension leg platforms

(B) Jack up platforms

(C) Spar platforms

(D) Semi-submersible platforms

Answer: (B)

16. In which one of the following offshore platforms, the condition of the sea floor is a vital consideration?

(A) Drill ship platforms

(B) Tension leg platforms

(C) Concrete gravity platforms

(D) Floating, production, storage and offloading (FPSO) platforms

Answer: (C)

17. The ‘Klinkenberg effect’ is related to

(A) viscous fingering during water flooding in oil reservoirs.

(B) hysteresis effect in relative permeability during drainage and imbibition process.

(C) oil viscosity dependence on temperature.

(D) slippage of gas phase at the sand grain surface.

Answer: (D)

18. Favourable conditions for formation of gas hydrates are

(A) high temperature and high pressure.             

(B) high temperature and low pressure.

(C) low temperature and high pressure.

(D) low temperature and low pressure.

Answer: (C)

19. Match the following quantities with their dimensions:

(A) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I

(B) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III

(C) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II

(D) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV

Answer: (A)

20. The plot of dissolved gas oil ratio (RS), defined as the “ratio of STP volume of gas dissolved in the oil at pressure P, to the volume of the oil at STP” is given below.

For the same oil, the plot of produced gas oil ratio (RP) defined as the “ratio of STP volume of the gas liberated from the oil at pressure P, to the volume of the oil at STP” is

Answer: (B)

21. Which one of the following denotes a regular four-spot flood pattern?

∆ represents injection well

O represents production well

(A)

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

22. The value of  is____(round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.49 to 0.51)

23. Let  If AX = Y, then a + b equals ______.

Answer: (2 to 2)

24. Let  where i, j and k are cartesian unit vectors. If  is perpendicular to v, then a equals _________.

Answer: (2 to 2)

25. If the neutron log porosity (ϕN) is 0.09 and density log porosity (ϕD) is 0.24 in the cross-over region, then the average porosity of the gas bearing region is ____ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.17 to 0.20)

 Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. The general solution of the differential equation  is (here C1 and C21 are arbitrary constants)

(A) y = C1ex + C2e−x

(B) y = C1xex + C2xe2x

(C) y = C1ex + C2xe−x

(D) y = C1ex + C2xex

Answer: (D)

27. Consider the following system of linear equations (where 𝑝 and 𝑞 are constants)

x1 + x2 + x3 = 1

x1 – x2 + 2x3 = p

3x1 – x2 + 5x3 = q

This system has at least one solution for any p and q satisfying  

(A) 2𝑝 −                𝑞 + 1 = 0.

(B) 2𝑞 + 𝑝 + 1 = 0.

(C) 2𝑝 +                𝑞 − 1 = 0.

(D) 2𝑞 + 𝑝 − 1 = 0.

Answer: (A)

28. Three reservoirs P, Q and R have identical geometry and rock properties. The plot of the height of the transition zone (h) above the free water level (FWL) against the water saturation (Sw) is given in the figure. Assume 𝜎 cos 𝜃 for all the three fluid combinations remains the same. Which one of the following is the correct match of the reservoir fluids with the reservoir (𝜎 is the interfacial tension between the respective fluid phases and 𝜃 is the contact angle).

(A) P: low density oil – water, Q: gas – water, R: high density oil – water

(B) P: gas – water , Q: low density oil – water, R: high density oil – water

(C) P: high density oil – water, Q: low density oil – water, R: gas – water

(D) P: gas – water, Q: high density oil – water, R: low density oil – water

Answer: (C)

29. The fractional flow (fw) versus water saturation (Sw) curve for an imbibition process (neglecting the capillary forces) in a given core for three different inclinations is shown in the figure.

Which one of the following is the correct representation of the fractional flow curves?

(A) P: Down-dip,              Q: No-dip,           R: Up-dip

(B) P: Down-dip,               Q: Up-dip,           R: No-dip

(C) P: No-dip,                     Q: Down-dip,     R: Up-dip

(D) P:Up-dip,                     Q: No-dip,           R: Down-dip

Answer: (A)

30. Match the following:

 (A) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III

(B) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II

(C) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III

(D) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I

Answer: (C)

31. Match the following:

(A) P-I, Q-IV, R-III, S-II

(B) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III

(C) P- IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II

(D) P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III

Answer: (C)

32. An exploratory well encountered three reservoir formations S1 (perfectly cemented), S2 (poorly cemented) and S3 (fractured). The Formation Factor (F) is governed by the equation 𝐹 = 𝑎𝜙𝑚, where ‘𝜙’ is the porosity and ‘m’ is the cementation factor. The constant ‘a’, linked to tortuosity is assumed to be 1 for all the formations. The log-log plot between Formation Factor (F) and porosity (𝜙) is shown.

Which one of the following represents the correct match of the formations with their respective plots?

(A) S1-P, S2-Q, S3-R

(B) S1-R, S2-P, S3-Q

(C) S1-P, S2-R, S3-Q

(D) S1-R, S2-Q, S3-P

Answer: (D)

33. Typical parameters obtained in the pyrolysis experiment of the source rock materials are shown in the Figure. Which one of the following is NOT true about pyrolysis in source rock analysis?

(A) Peak S1 represents volatilization of existing hydrocarbons.

(B) Peak S2 represents breakdown of kerogen and generation of hydrocarbons.

(C) Peak S3 represents Tmax, the temperature at which most hydrocarbons are generated.

(D) S1/(S1+S2) represents the production index.

Answer: (C)

34. A single well encounters multiple clean sands of exactly the same thickness, porosity and permeability. Rw is the formation fluid resistivity and Rmf is the mud filtrate resistivity.

Which one of the following match the relation between Rw and Rmf to that of Self  Potential (SP) log deflection?

(A) P-I, Q-III, R-II

(B) P-III, Q-I, R-II

(C) P-II, Q-I, R-III

(D) P-I, Q-II, R-III

Answer: (B)

35. Which one of the following options is NOT a part of the mudlogs prepared by the drill-site geologist?

(A) Rate of Penetration (ROP)

(B) Chromatograph showing presence of C1 to C5 concentration

(C) Lithology from drill cutting and its interpretation

(D) Reservoir unit delineation based on volume of shale (Vsh)

Answer: (D)

36. Match the following:

(A) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III

(B) P-IV, Q-II, R-III, S-I

(C) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV

(D) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

Answer: (A)

37. A box contains 2 red and 3 black balls. Three balls are randomly chosen from the box and are placed in a bag. Then the probability that there are 1 red and 2 black balls in the bag, is _______.

Answer: (0.59 to 0.61)

38. The values of a function 𝑓(𝑥) over the interval [0,4] are given in the table below:

Then, according to the trapezoidal rule, the value of the integral  is  _______(round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (1.32 to 1.34)

39. Oil is produced at a constant rate from a well in a bounded reservoir. The variation of the bottom-hole pressure with time is shown in the given Table. The magnitude of the slope of the pressure vs time curve that you would use to find the drainage area is ____ psi/day    (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (29.0 to 31.0)

40. In a core flood experiment of immiscible and incompressible displacement  of oil  (𝜇𝑜 =  1 cP) with water (𝜇𝑤 = 1 cP), only axial flow is observed. The relative permeability of water is given by 𝑘𝑟𝑤 = 𝑆2w , where 𝑆 is water saturation. The relative permeability of oil is given by 𝑘𝑟𝑜 = (1 − 𝑆𝑤)2. The gravity and capillary pressure are neglected. From the fractional flow and water saturation relationship, the saturation of water at the flood front is______ % (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (69.0 to 72.0)

41. In an oil well, the pressure at the gas oil contact (GOC) at a depth of 2000 m is 205 bar (gauge), as shown in the figure.

The static oil pressure gradient is 0.08 bar/m in the pay zone. If a constant hydrostatic pressure gradient of 0.1 bar/m prevails throughout the subsurface, then the thickness of the oil column is _____ m (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (240.0 to 260.0)

42. Oil is produced  at  a  constant rate of10 m3/day from a reservoir for 500 days. The producing gas oil ratio (GOR) is constant at  for the first 100 days. Then, the producing  gas  oil  ratio  increases  linearly  and  on  the  500th   day  the  measured  GOR is   The  cumulative  produced  gas  oil  ratio  after  500  days  of  production  is______ (round off to 1 decimal place). Assume that all volumes are measured at

Answer: (25.5 to 26.5)

43. A pressure build-up test was conducted in a well after 1000 days of producing oil at a constant rate of 0.01 reservoir-m3/s. The two shut-in bottom-hole pressure readings taken at 0.5 day and 1 day after shut-in are 150 × 105 Pa and 151 × 105 Pa, respectively. These pressure points correspond to the linear region of the Horner’s plot. The reservoir thickness is 100 m and oil viscosity is 0.001 Pa.s. The permeability of the reservoir is ______ mD (round off to 1 decimal place). [1 mD = 10−15 m2].

Answer: (52.0 to 58.0)

44. In an oil reservoir, the residual oil saturation in the volume flooded with polymer solution is 20%. The initial water saturation is 20%. The volumetric sweep efficiency is 50%. The maximum possible recovery factor for the reservoir is _______ % (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (36.0 to 39.0)

45. An electrical submersible pump (ESP) delivers well fluid with 100% watercut. In the ESP, the impeller diameter is 0.1 m and speed is 3600 rpm. The total head developed by the ESP is 300 m (water column height). If the stage efficiency of the ESP is 60%, then the minimum number of stages required is ______ (round off to nearest integer). [g = 9.81 m/s2]

Answer: (27 to 29)

46. In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 100°C and leaves at 50°C. Cold fluidenters at 30°C and leaves at 40°C. If heat losses are ignored, then the logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) is _______°C (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (35.0 to 38.0)

47. A model porous block of cross sectional area (A) and length (L) is made up of N independent capillaries of equal radii (r) and length (L). The porosity of the block is 10%, and the permeability for a laminar, incompressible and steady state flow is 0.02 mD. If the flow is only through the capillaries, then the value of r is _______ x 10−6 cm (round off to 1 decimal place). [1 mD = 10−15 m2 ].

Answer: (3.0 to 5.0)

48. A model porous medium of 5 cylindrical capillaries of radii varying from 60 to 100 micrometers (refer Table) is subjected to Mercury Injection Capillary Pressure (MICP) treatment. The capillaries are being filled in an increasing order of their entry pressure. The magnitude of  ,where 𝜎 is the interfacial tension and 𝜃 is the contact angle. The minimum applied mercury pressure to achieve 50% mercury saturation in the sample is _______ × 103 dyne/cm2 (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (80.0 to 83.0)

49. The sonic log parameters from an exploratory well in a reservoir are as follows: Measured P-wave transit time (∆𝑡𝑙𝑜𝑔) = 85 µs/ft

True resistivity (Rt) = 10 ohm-m Matrix transit time (∆𝑡𝑚𝑎) = 45 µs/ft

Fluid transit time (∆𝑡𝑓𝑙) = 205 µs/ft

Formation water resistivity at reservoir temperature (Rw) = 0.1 ohm-m

The hydrocarbon saturation (in percentage) in the reservoir is ______(round off to 1 decimal place).

[Hint: Wyllie time average equation is ∆𝑡𝑙𝑜𝑔 = (1 − 𝜑)∆𝑡𝑚𝑎 + 𝜑∆𝑡𝑓𝑙 and formation water resistivity has the correlation  , where Sw is water saturation, 𝜑 is porosity]

Answer: (59.0 to 61.0)

50. A vertical well of 8000 ft is producing below bubble point pressure. Oil and water each is produced at the rate of 500 bbl/day. The indicated bottom hole pressure is 3000 psi. If the same gas to liquid ratio (GLR) is maintained, using the given figure, the new bottom hole pressure at 5000 ft is ______psi.

Answer: (1600 to 1900)

51. In a drilling rig, the crown block and the traveling block have three and two sheaves, respectively. A single wireline connects the hoisting drum to the deadline anchor as shown in the figure. Neglect the weight of the pulleys and the wireline, and friction between the sheaves and wireline. The ratio of the deadline load to static crown load is ______(round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.16 to 0.18)

52. Cement weighing 100 kg is mixed with 50 liters of water. The specific gravity of cement is 3.14 and the density of water is 1000 kg/m3. Neglecting volume changes, the resulting density of the slurry is __________ kg/m3 (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (1820.0 to 1880.0)

53. In an active water drive during a certain period, the rate of production and reservoir pressure remain constant. The water influx into the reservoir from the aquifer is 6000 bbl/day. The surface oil and water production rates are 3000 STB/day and 1500 STB/day, respectively. The current production gas to oil ratio is 825 SCF/STB, and the formation volume factors at the current pressure for oil, water and gas are 1.375 bbl/STB, 1.04 bbl/STB and 0.007 bbl/STB, respectively. The solution gas to oil ratio at the current pressure is _______SCF/STB (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (739.0 to 815.0)

54. In a water flooding experiment, the pressure gradients in the displacing and displaced phases are 400 psi/ft and 350 psi/ft, respectively. Assume that the displacement front is stable in the absence of capillary and gravity forces. Consider that only water flows upstream and only oil flows downstream of the displacement front. Then the mobility ratio for this immiscible displacement process is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.85 to 0.90)

55. In a pressure draw-down testing, the well bore flowing pressure (𝑃𝑤𝑓) is given by

The following data is given in the oil field units,

Initial reservoir pressure (𝑃𝑖) = 5000 psia

Pressure after 1 hr of production (P1hr) = 4000 psia

Oil flow rate (q) = 500 STB/day

Porosity (∅) = 0.25

Viscosity of oil (𝜇) = 2 cP

Formation volume factor of oil (B) = 1.2 bbl/STB

Formation thickness (h) = 20 ft

Total compressibility (𝑐) = 30 × 10−6 psi-1

Well bore radius (𝑟𝑤) = 0.3 ft

The slope of 𝑃𝑤𝑓 versus log t is −100 psi/cycle. Then, the skin factor (S) for this well is ________ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (5.0 to 7.0)

GATE Exam 2019 Metallurgical Engineering (MT) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Metallurgical Engineering

Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. One of the eigenvalues for the following matrix is _______.

(A) a – 4

(B) −a – 4

(C) 4

(D) −4

Answer: (A)

2. The curl of vector fields shown below is not zero for _______.

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

3. The smallest period of function  is ________.

(A) 2π

(B) k/n

(C) 2πk/n

(D) 2πn/k

Answer: (C)

4. The directional derivative of ϕ = x2 + y along the unit vector  at (1, 1) is ______.

(A) 3

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 0

Answer: (B)

5. Liquid steel is kept in a graphite crucible for sufficiently long time such that equilibrium is established. Activity of carbon (with respect to graphite as the standard state) in the liquid is_______.

(A) 0.0

(B) 0.5

(C) 1.0

(D) 2.0

Answer: (C)

6. The variation of standard free energies for two oxides AO and BO with temperature are shown below.

The correct statement with reference to the above figure is       .

(A) AO is a gas

(B) BO is a gas

(C) A will reduce BO above temperature T1

(D) B will reduce AO below temperature T1

Answer: (B)

7. Terminal rise velocity of a spherical shaped solid in a liquid obeys the following functional relationship:

U = f (d,W , μ, ρ)

Where, U is the terminal rise velocity, d is the diameter of the solid, W is the apparent weight of the solid, µ is the viscosity of liquid and ρ is the density of liquid.

According to Buckingham Π theorem, the number of independent dimensionless variables needed to describe the phenomenon is _______.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 5

Answer: (B)

8. Consider electrodeposition of copper on a copper electrode from an aqueous solution containing 0.5 × 10−3 mol.cm−3 CuSO4.

Given: Faraday constant, F = 96500 Coulomb per gram equivalent.

Assume transport of reactant is rate limiting, and mass transfer coefficient is 10−4 cm. 𝑠−1. The limiting current density (in mA. cm−2) is __________.

(A) 4.83               

(B) 9.65

(C) 19.30

(D) 38.60

Answer: (B)

9. The correct sequence of steelmaking operations is ______.

[BOF: Basic Oxygen Furnace; LF: Ladle Furnace; VD: Vacuum Degassing; CC: Continuous Casting].

(A)  BOF → LF → VD → CC

(B)  CC  → BOF → LF→ VD

(C)  VD  → CC→ BOF → LF

(D) LF → BOF → VD → CC

Answer: (A)

10. The common ore of titanium is ________.

(A) Bauxite

(B) Chalcopyrite

(C) Cassiterite

(D) Ilmenite

Answer: (D)

11. Coarse suspended particles are to be separated from a flowing gas in a dust catcher. All factors remaining same, maximum gas-solid separation is expected from the dust catcher_______shown below.

Answer: (A)

12. The Boudouard (or, carbon gasification) reaction is ______.

Answer: (C)

13. The fastest diffusing element in iron at 1100°C is ______.

(A) Ni

(B) Co

(C) Cr

(D) C

Answer: (D)

14. Hydrogen bonds are stronger than _____.

(A) Ionic bonds

(B) Metallic bonds

(C) van der Waals bonds

(D) Covalent bonds

Answer: (C)

15. The carbide that is primarily responsible for intergranular corrosion in austenitic stainless steel is ___________ .

(A) Cr23C6

(B) Fe3C

(C) SiC

(D) Mn3C

Answer: (A)

16. During low strain rate (≤ 0.1 per second) deformation of a metal at room temperature, the one that deforms by twinning mode is _______.

(A) Fe

(B) Mg

(C) Al

(D) Ni

Answer: (B)

17. In a tensile creep test of a metal, Nabarro-Herring mechanism is favored over Coble mechanism for ________.

(A) larger grain size and lower temperature

(B) smaller grain size and higher temperature

(C) larger grain size and higher temperature

(D) smaller grain size and lower temperature

Answer: (C)

18. Beach marks are commonly observed on the fractured surfaces of metals after a .

(A) Creep test

(B) Fatigue test

(C) Impact test

(D) Compression test

Answer: (B)

19. The length of internal cracks in two samples of the same glass is measured to be c1 = 0.5 mm and c2 = 2 mm. The ratio (𝜎12) of the fracture strength of the two samples

(A) 0.5

(B) 1.0

(C)  2.0

(D) 4.0

Answer: (C)

20. Two blocks of the same metal are to be welded. The configuration that will undergo the least distortion after welding is __________.

Answer: (D)

21. The most suitable non-destructive testing method for detecting small internal flaws in a dense bulk aterial is ________.

(A) Dye penetrant method

(B) Ultrasonic inspection

(C) Eddy current testing

(D) Magnetic particle inspection

Answer: (B)

22. Alligotoring is a detect commonly observed in _______.

(A) Extrusion

(B) Deep drawing

(C) Sheet metal forming

(D) Rolling

Answer: (D)

23. The standard deviation (rounded off to one decimal place) of the following set of five numbers is _______.

6, 8, 8, 9, 9

Answer: (1.0 to 1.4)

24. A FCC crystal with a lattice parameter of 0.3615 nm is used to measure the wavelength of monochromatic X-rays. The Bragg angle (θ) for the reflection from (111) planes is 21.68°. The wavelength of X-rays (in nm, rounded off to three decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (0.153  to 1.55)

25. A plate of width 100 cm and thickness 5 cm is rolled to a thickness of 3 𝑐𝑚. If the entry velocity is 10 cm. s−1, the exit velocity of the plate (in cm. s−1, rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.

Assume no change in the width of the plate.

Answer: (16.0 to 17.4)

Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Match the reactors / refining sites in Column I with the corresponding refining processes in Column II.

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

Answer: (A)

27. Match the injection metallurgy techniques in Column I with the corresponding objectives in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Answer: (D)

28. The table (see options below) providing correct information about crystal structure, co- ordination number and packing fraction is_______.

[Note: FCC: Face centered cubic; BCC: Body centered cubic; DC: Diamond cubic.

CN: Coordination number; PF: Packing fraction]

Answer: (A)

29. Match the phase transformation in Column I with the corresponding reaction in Column II.

[Note: α, β, γ are solid phases; L, L1, L2 are liquid phases.]

(A)  P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(B)  P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(C)  P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(D)  P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Answer: (A)

30. In a typical scanning electron microscope (SEM) image, information about topography and atomic contrast are obtained from _________.

(A) secondary electron and auger electron, respectively.

(B) primary electron and secondary electron, respectively.

(C) secondary electron and back-scatter electron, respectively.

(D) back-scatter electron and auger electron, respectively.

Answer: (C)

31. Match the ceramics in Column I with corresponding application in Column II.

(A)  P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B)  P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(C)  P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D)  P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Answer: (D)

32. An aluminium single crystal is loaded in tension along  axis. Among the following slip systems, the one that will be activated first is______.

Answer: (A)

33. The correct Mohr’s circle construction for the stress state given below is ______.

Answer: (B)

34. Match the automobile components in Column I with the corresponding manufacturing processes in Column II.

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

Answer: (B)

35. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 300 K is _______.

C(graphite) + 2H2­(g) → CH4(g)

Given: At 300 K, ∆H° = −74,900 J.mol−1; ∆S° = −80 J.mol−1;

R = 8.314 J.mol−1

(A) 5.6 × 106

(B) 3.6 × 107

(C) 4.0 × 108

(D) 7.3 × 108

Answer: (D)

36. A 50 cm long rod is placed against a vertical wall such that the bottom of the rod is 30 cm away from the wall. If the bottom of the rod is pulled horizontally away from the wall at 4 𝑐𝑚. 𝑠−1, the top of the rod starts sliding down the wall with an instantaneous velocity (in 𝑐𝑚. 𝑠−1, rounded off to two decimal places) of magnitude __________.

Answer: (2.90 to 3.10)

37. The probability of solving a problem by Student A is (1/3), and the probability of solving the same problem by Student B is (2/5). The probability (rounded off to two decimal places) that at least one of the students solves the problem is _________.

Answer: (0.59 to 0.61)

38. Numerical value of work done (rounded off to the nearest integer) by a position- dependent force  along the path,  from (0,0) to (2,2) in the xy plane is _______.

https://entranceindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/12/38-3-1.png

Answer: (17 to 19)

39. The estimated value of the cube root of 37 (rounded off to two decimal places) obtained from the Newton-Raphson method after two iterations (x2) is _________. [Start with an initial guess value of x0 = 1].

Answer: (8.50 to 9.00)

40. The partial pressure of zinc (in torr, rounded off to two decimal places) in equilibrium with liquid lead containing 0.03 mole % zinc at 900 K is _______.

Given: Vapour pressure of pure zinc (pZn° ) at 900 K is 0.027 atm. Henry’s law coefficient (γZn° ) for zinc at infinite dilute solution in lead on Raoultian scale is 8.55.

1 torr = 1.316 × 10−3 atm.

Answer: (0.04 to 0.06)

41. Steady state radial heat conduction through a hollow, infinitely long zirconia cylinder is governed by the following ordinary differential equation:

Where, T is the temperature and r is the radial distance. The inner surface of the hollow cylinder is maintained at 1473 K and the outer surface at 973 K. The rate of heat loss per unit length through the outer surface of the hollow cylinder (in W. m−1, rounded off to the nearest integer) is _______.

Given: Inner radius of cylinder = 0.05 m; outer radius of cylinder = 0.07 m and thermal conductivity of zirconia (k) = 2 W. m−1. K−1.

Answer: (18660 to 18690)

42. A 50 mm (diameter) sphere of solid nickel is oxidized in a gas mixture containing 60% argon and 40% oxygen by volume. The rate of oxidation of nickel is controlled by the rate of transport of oxygen through the concentration boundary layer. The rate of oxidation (in moles of   nickel   per   minute   (mol/min),   rounded   off   to   two   decimal   places)   is _______.

Given: Total pressure = 1atm.; Temperature = 1173 K; Concentration of oxygen at the surface of the solid = 0; Boundary layer mass transfer coefficient = 0.03 𝑚. 𝑠−1; Universal gas constant, R = 8.205 × 10−5 m3. atm. K−1. mol−1 . Assume ideal gas behavior.

Answer: (0.11 to 0.13)

43. Equilibrium concentration of dissolved nitrogen (in wt.%, rounded off to three decimal places) in pure liquid iron, exposed to atmospheric air at 1873 K, is _______.

Given: Sieverts’ law constant as a function of temperature (T; in Kelvin) is  where K[N ] has the dimension of atm−(1/2).

Assume [hN ] =[wt.% N] , where [hN ] is the activity of nitrogen with respect to 1 wt.% Henrian standard state.

Answer: (0.039 to 0.042)

44. Pressure drop in the granular zone of a blast furnace is 300 mm of water per meter of the bed height. The bed permeability is 0.8 m4. N−1. s−1. The volumetric flow rate of gas per unit area through  the  bed  [in  (m3. s−1). m−2,  rounded  off  to  the  nearest  integer] is ______.

Assume Darcy’s law is applicable and g = 9.8 m. s−2. Density of water = 1000 kg. m−3.

Answer: (2347 to 2357)

45. A blast furnace charged with hematite containing 90 wt.% Fe2O3 produces liquid iron with 3.6 wt.% carbon. Coke containing 90 wt.% carbon is charged at a rate of 500 kg per Metric ton of liquid iron produced. The blast furnace top gas contains (by volume), 22% CO, 18% CO2, and balance nitrogen. The volume of the blast furnace top gas [in m3 (NTP), rounded off to the nearest integer] is .

Given: Assume ideal gas behavior, and molar volume of the gas at NTP is 22.4 liter.

Answer: (1927 to 1937)

46. 100 Metric tons of copper concentrate containing 21 wt.% Cu is to be processed in 6 months with 25 working days per month and 8 working hours per day. The concentrate is leached by sulphuric acid and lectrolyzed in 10 cells arranged in series. The minimum current rating (Ampere  per  month  per  cell,  rounded  off  to   the   nearest   integer)   is ______.

Given: Faraday constant = 96500 coulomb per gram equivalent.

 Atomic weight of copper is 63.

Answer: (1485 to 1495)

47. Cold working of iron leads to increase in dislocation density from 1010 to 1015 m−2. The associated stored energy (in MJ. m−3, rounded off to one decimal place) is ______.

Given: Shear modulus of iron = 82 GPa, Burger’s vector, 

a0 = 0.2856 nm.

Answer: (0.4 to 5.1)

48. The critical radius (in nm, rounded off to one decimal place) of nickel nucleus during solidification at 1673 K is _________.

Given: Enthalpy of fusion of nickel = 2.65 × 109 J. m−3;

Liquid-solid interfacial energy = 0.5 J. m−2, and

Equilibrium melting temperature of nickel = 1728 K.

Answer: (11.0 to 12.5)

49. A material, made up of alternating layers of metals A and B, is loaded as shown below. If the volume % of B is 25%, the elastic modulus (in GPa, rounded off to one decimal place) of the material is ________.

Given: Elastic moduli of A and B are 200 GPa and 100 GPa, respectively.

Answer: (155.0 to 165.0)

50. The S-N curve for a steel is shown below. If the stress ratio, (𝜎min/𝜎max) = −0.8, the maximum stress (in MPa, rounded off to the nearest integer) that the steel can withstand for infinite fatigue life is ______.

Answer: (330 to 335)

51. True stress – true strain behavior of a metal is given by the flow curve equation σ = 1750ε0.37 , where σ is in MPa. The true stress at necking (in MPa, rounded off to the nearest integer) is ______.

Answer: (1160 to 1260)

52. In sand-mold casting of a metal, it takes 180 seconds for complete solidification of a 27 cm3 cube-shaped casting. All other parameters remaining constant, the total solidification time (in seconds, rounded off to one decimal place) for a cylinder-shaped [radius = 1 cm and height = 6 cm] casting of the same metal, is _______.

Answer: (130.0 to 134.0)

53. If the solid-solid interfacial energy (γSS) is 0.87 𝐽. m−2 and solid-liquid interfacial energy (γSL) is 0.5 J. m−2, the dihedral angle (ϕ, in degree, rounded off to one decimal place) during sintering is _______.

Answer: (58.0 to 60.2)

54. The maximum possible reduction (in 𝑚𝑚, rounded off to one decimal place) of a 100 mm thick slab during rolling is ________.

Answer: (3.6 to 4.2)

Given: The coefficient of friction between roll and the slab is 0.2, and the roll diameter is 200 mm.

55. An arc welding is performed at 400 Amperes, 20 V at a traverse speed of 5 mm. s−1. If the heat transfer efficiency is 0.6, the energy input per unit length (in J.mm−1, rounded off to the nearest integer) during the process is ________.

Answer: (955 to 965)

GATE Exam 2019 Mining Engineering (MN) Question Paper With Answer Key

General Aptitude Set-2

Q.1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. John Thomas, an writer, passed away in 2018.

(A) imminent

(B) prominent

(C) eminent

(D) dominant

Answer: (C)

2. _________I permitted him to leave, I wouldn’t have had any problem with him being absent, _________I?

(A) Had, wouldn’t

(B) Have, would

(C) Had,                would

(D) Have, wouldn’t

Answer: (C)

3. A work her staer noticed that the hour hand on the factory clock had moved by 225 degrees during y at the factory. For how long did she stay in the factory?

(A) 3.7   5 hours

(B) 4 hours and 15 mins

(C) 8.5   hours

(D) 7.5 hours

Answer: (D)

4. The sum and product of two integers are 26 and 165 respectively. The difference between these two integers is _______.

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

Answer: (C)

5. The minister avoided any mention of the issue of women’s reservation in the private sector. He was accused of_______the issue.

(A) collaring

(B) skirting

(C) tying

(D) belting

Answer: (B)

Q.6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Under a certain legal system, prisoners are allowed to make one statement. If their statement turns out to be true then they are hanged. If the statement turns out to be false then they are shot. One prisoner made a statement and the judge had no option but to set him free. Which one of the following could be that statement?

(A) I did not commit the crime

(B) I committed the crime

(C) I will be shot

(D) You committed the crime

Answer: (C)

7. A person divided an amount of Rs. 100,000 into two parts and invested in two different schemes. In one he got 10% profit and in the other he got 12%. If the profit percentages are interchanged with these investments he would have got Rs.120 less. Find the ratio between his investments in the two schemes.

(A) 9 : 16

(B) 11 : 14

(C) 37 : 63

(D) 47 : 53

Answer: (D)

8. Congo was named by Europeans. Congo’s dictator Mobuto later changed the name of the country and the river to Zaire with the objective of Africanising names of persons and spaces. However, the name Zaire was a Portuguese alteration of Nzadi o Nzere, a local African term meaning ‘River that swallows Rivers’. Zaire was the Portuguese name for the Congo river in the 16th and 17th centuries.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph above?

(A) Mobuto was not entirely successful in Africanising the name of his country

(B) The term Nzadi o Nzere was of Portuguese origin

(C) Mobuto’s desire to Africanise names was prevented by the Portuguese

(D) As a dictator Mobuto ordered the Portuguese to alter the name of the river to Zaire

Answer: (A)

9. A firm hires employees at five different skill levels P, Q, R, S, T. The shares of employment at these skill levels of total employment in 2010 is given in the pie chart as shown. There were a total of 600 employees in 2010 and the total employment increased by 15% from 2010 to 2016. The total employment at skill levels P, Q and R remained unchanged during this period. If the employment at skill level S increased by 40% from 2010 to 2016, how many employees were there at skill level T in 2016?

(A) 30

(B) 35

(C) 60

(D) 72

Answer: (C)

10. M and N had four children P, Q, R and S. Of them, only P and R were married. They had children X and Y respectively. If Y is a legitimate child of W, which one of the following statements is necessarily FALSE?

(A) M is the grandmother of Y

(B) R is the father of Y

(C) W is the wife of R

(D) W is the wife of P

Answer: (D)

Mining Engineering

Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. Shear strength of rock joint is NOT dependent on

(A) applied normal stress

(B) applied shear stress

(C) friction angle of the joint plane

(D) cohesion of the joint plane

Answer: (B)

2. If f (x) is a polynomial function that passes through origin, and g(x) = f‘(x) , then

Answer: (C)

3. A flat longwall panel is mined out at an area having subsidence factor a. The measured maximum subsidence on the surface is S for a mining height of m. The subsidence is subcritical if

(A) S = am

(B) S = m/a

(C) S = am

(D) S = am

Answer: (D)

4. The PV diagram of four explosives is given below. The preferred explosive for adequate fragmentation in hard and brittle rock is

(A) Explosive A

(B) Explosive B

(C) Explosive C

(D) Explosive D

Answer: (A)

5. As per classification of mineral resources “reserve” means

(A) Identified resources

(B) Identified and techno-economically viable resources

(C) Hypothetical resources

(D) Inferred resources

Answer: (B)

6. If the sample statistic  is an unbiased estimator of the parameter μ, then

Answer: (A)

7. The vector sum of all the external forces acting on a rigid body is expressed as ∑F and the vector sum of moments of the external forces about a point is given as ∑M. The rigid body is in equilibrium if

(A) ∑F − ∑M = 0

(B) ∑F + ∑M = 0

(C) ∑F = 0 and ∑M = 0

(D) ∑F ≠ 0 and ∑M ≠ 0

Answer: (C)

8. For a regionalized variable Z (x) , at a lag distance h, the empirical semi-variogram γ (h) is given by

Answer: (B)

9. The coefficient of variation of a dataset is defined as

Answer: (D)

10. In project planning, the activity durations are calculated by PERT and CPM techniques assuming

(A) PERT: probabilistic, CPM: deterministic

(B) PERT: probabilistic, CPM: probabilistic

(C) PERT: deterministic, CPM: probabilistic

(D) PERT: deterministic, CPM: deterministic

Answer: (A)

11. Respirable dust in an underground coal mine contains 4.5% free silica. As per the CMR 2017, the maximum allowable respirable dust concentration, in mg/m3, in the mine air is

(A) 1.5

(B) 2.0

(C) 2.5

(D) 3.0

Answer: (B)

12. The purpose of rotating a whirling hygrometer in hygrometric survey is to

(A) wet the cotton wick with water thoroughly

(B) maintain constant temperature of water in the container

(C) create steady state evaporation of moisture from the wet bulb surface

(D) prevent the heat produced by the cap lamp of the observer from affecting the readings

Answer: (C)

13. Stone dust barriers in underground coal mines are used to arrest

(A) black damp explosions

(B) air blast

(C) firedamp explosions

(D) coal dust explosions

Answer: (D)

14. The correct sequence of attachments between the winding rope and the cage in a drum winding system is

(A) Triangular plate → Rope capel → Bull chain → Detaching hook → Cage chain

(B) Rope capel → Bull chain → Triangular plate → Detaching hook → Cage chain

(C) Detaching hook → Rope capel → Bull chain → Cage chain → Triangular plate

(D) Rope capel → Detaching hook → Bull chain → Triangular plate → Cage chain

Answer: (D)

15. The functions of automatic contrivances in a winding system are to prevent

(A) over-speeding and over-winding

(B) slow banking and load balancing

(C) over loading and load balancing

(D) over-speeding and load balancing

Answer: (A)

16. A low-grade deep-seated ore body dipping at 70° has a strike length of 2 km, and width of 100 m. The ore body and wall rocks are weak and fractured. The preferred method of mining is

(A) shrinkage stoping

(B) cut-and-fill stoping

(C) block caving

(D) room and pillar stoping

Answer: (C)

17. If the figures A and B represent contour plots in a terrain, then the correct statement is

(A) Fig. A shows ridge and Fig. B shows valley

(B) Fig. A shows anticline and Fig. B shows syncline

(C) Fig. A shows syncline and Fig. B shows anticline

(D) Fig. A shows valley and Fig. B shows ridge.

Answer: (A)

18. The availability of water in the root zone for plant use is maximum in the case of

(A) sand

(B) loam

(C) clay

(D) gravel

Answer: (B)

19. If the time to failure of a machine component is exponentially distributed, the reliability of the same at Mean Time To Failure (MTTF), (rounded off to three decimal places), is_________.

Answer: (0.350 to 0.375)

20. The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 25 MPa and -5 MPa respectively. The maximum shear stress, in MPa at that point is________.

Answer: (15 to 15)

21. For a function f (x) , f (1) = 5 and f’(1) = −5 . Ignoring all higher order terms in Taylor series, the value of the function at x = 1.01 (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (4.94 to 4.96)

22. Proximate analysis of a coal sample gives 2.46% moisture, 25.73% volatile matter, and 42.89% ash. The volatile matter of the coal sample, in percentage, on dry ash free (daf) basis (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (46.00 to 48.00)

23. A coarse sand aquifer has porosity 20% and hydraulic conductivity 3.5 × 10−3 m/s. If the hydraulic gradient is 0.00423 (m/m), then the average linear velocity of the groundwater in mm/s, (rounded off to three decimal places) is _______.

Answer: (0.070 to 0.080)

24. In a slake durability test, mass of the drum with samples before the test and mass of the drum with oven-dried samples after the test are 1.52 kg and 1.48 kg respectively. If the mass of the drum is 1.05 kg, slake durability index in percentage (rounded off to two decimal places) is _______.

Answer: (91.00 to 92.00)

25. The ionic concentration of a mine water sample with pH close to 7.0 is given below. The alkalinity of the water expressed as equivalent CaCO3, in mg/l, (rounded off to two decimal places) is _____.

Answer: (131.10 to 131.20)

.

Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. From an elevated point A, when a stone is thrown vertically, it attains an upward velocity of v at a height of h from the point A. While falling, its downward velocity becomes 2v at a distance h below the point A. The maximum height attained by the stone from point A is

(A) 5h/3

(B) 4h/3

(C) 6h/7

(D) 2h

Answer: (A)

27. Water is pumped through a steel pipe of diameter 200 mm at a flow rate of 30 l/s. If the dynamic viscosity of water is 10−3 Pa.s, the Reynolds number of the flow is

(A) 2.83 × 103

(B) 2.83 × 104

(C) 1.91 × 105

(D) 1.91 × 106

Answer: (C)

28. Matrix  is orthogonal. The value of α, β and γ respectively are

Answer: (D)

29. Match the following based on the equipment usage in a comminution circuit:

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer: (C)

30. Match the following for coal mining operation:

(A) P-C-1, Q-D-3, R-A-2, S-B-4

(B) P-C-1, Q-A-3, R-B-4, S-D-2

(C) P-C-1, Q-A-4, R-B-3, S-D-2

(D) P-B-3, Q-C-2, R-A-1, S-D-4

Answer: (B)

31. In the context of mine planning, match the following:

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(C) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Answer: (C)

32. The figures shown represent the analysis of gas samples collected from a sealed off area in a coal mine over a period of time. The best representation of the progressive change of gaseous environment inside the sealed-off area is

(A) Figure P

(B) Figure Q

(C) Figure R

(D) Figure S

Answer: (A)

33. The net annual cash flows for two small scale mining projects A and B are given below. The correct decision assuming 10% discount rate as per NPV criterion is

(A) Project A is accepted but project B is rejected

(B) Projects A and B both are rejected

(C) Project A is rejected but project B is accepted

(D) Projects A and B are both accepted but project A is better than project B

Answer: (D)

34. Match the following features with the mining methods:

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: (C)

35. If area S, in the x-y plane, is bounded by a triangle with vertices (0, 0), (10, 1) and (1, 1), the value of 

Answer: (6 to 6)

36. A double ended ranging drum shearer operates in a longwall retreating panel. The following data are provided:

Face length         : 200 m  Average cutting speed  : 1.5 m/min

Web depth         : 0.6 m   Average flitting speed   : 4.0 m/min

Cutting height   : 2.5 m   Number of shifts/day    3

Density of coal  : 1.4 tonne/m3

Method of cutting is unidirectional and each shift requires a non-operational time of 2.0 hours.  The production per day in tonne (rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (2450.1 to 2550.5)

37. In the linear programming problem,

Maximize Z = 48X1  + 36X2

Subject to:

The value of Z is ______.

Answer: (408 to 408)

38. A shovel operates 300 days in a year, 2 shifts in a day, and 4 hours in a shift to achieve the target production of 30 Million tonne per annum. The following parameters relate to the loading operations:

Bucket capacity of shovel             : 15 m3

Shovel cycle time                             : 44 s

Bucket fill factor                               : 0.85

Bulk density of the muck              : 3.00 tonne/m3

The minimum number of shovels required to achieve the production is _________.

Answer: (4 to 4)

39. A set of tubs is pulled by a 15 tonne diesel locomotive at a gradient of 1 in 100 with an acceleration of 0.05 m/s2. The coefficient of adhesion between the wheel and the track is 0.2 and the frictional resistance coefficient is 0.01. The maximum mass, in tonne, the locomotive can pull (rounded off to one decimal place) is _______.

Answer: (102.5 to 107.5)

40. The characteristic curves of two mine fans installed in series in a fan drift are P = 2000 – 6Q − 0.2Q2 and P = 3000 – 8Q − 0.2Q2 where P is pressure in Pa and Q is quantity in m3/s. If the mine quantity is 70 m3/s, the mine resistance, in Ns2m−8, (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (0.40 to 0.45)

41. Three equipment A, B, and C located side by side and operating simultaneously produce a sound power level of 77.5 dB. The sound power levels of A and B are 68 dB and 70 dB respectively. The sound power level of C (rounded off to one decimal place) in dB, is _______.

Answer: (75.5 to 76.5)

42. The main surface fan of a mine as shown in the figure, has characteristic curve approximated by P = 1700 – 10Q, where P is pressure in Pa and Q is quantity in m3/s. A booster fan is installed in section A such that there is no air flow in section B. The operating pressure of the main surface fan, in Pa, (rounded off to two decimal places) is _______.

Answer: (858.25 to 865.25)

43. Two points A and B are located 150 m apart in the East-West orientation on the bank of a river as shown in the figure. Considering a station C on the north bank the bearings of AC and BC are observed to be 42° and 335° respectively. The width of the river, in m, (rounded off to two decimal places) is________.

Answer: (108.00 to 111.00)

44. If x = 31/3 + 31/3 , the value of 3x3 − 9x −10 is _________.

Answer: (0 to 0)

45. A pump delivers 3000 liter of water in 2.0 minutes through a pipe of length 1000 m laid on a gradient of 1 in 10. The combined efficiency of pump and motor is 70%. If friction and shock losses are negligible, the input power to the motor in kW (rounded off to one decimal place) is _________.

Answer: (33.0 to 37.0)

46. A sand water slurry of specific gravity 1.45 contains sand of grain density 2.6 g/cc. The weight percent of sand in the slurry (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (50.00 to 52.00)

47. For a mining company the unit transportation cost from a mine to a washery, and supply and demand are shown below:

The total cost of transportation using the Vogel’s approximation method is _______.

Answer: (37200 to 37200)

48. In a bord and pillar panel, 6 square pillars are developed as shown in the figure below. The depth of the seam is 300 m and the average unit weight of overburden rock is 25 kN/m3. If the pillar strength is 15 MPa, the safety factor of the shaded pillar zone (round off to two decimal places) is _______.

Answer: (1.38 to 1.40)

49. Water enters a sump having the shape of an inverted frustum at a rate of 500 m3/h. The sump is initially filled up to 2.0 m height. The time taken in days to fill the remaining part of the sump (rounded off to one decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (7.1 to 7.5)

50. The uniaxial stress-strain behavior of a rock sample is shown in the figure. The elastic modulus E is 20,000 MPa. If εp is the plastic strain, the value of the damage parameter D (rounded off to two decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (0.72 to 0.77)

51. The insitu stress field around a circular tunnel is shown in the figure. Points A and B are located at the boundary of the tunnel. If the tangential stress at Point A is 3 times of that at Point B, the value of insitu stress ratio, k is ________.

Answer: (2 to 2)

52. Data related to explosive and blasthole are given below. Assuming 1 kcal to be 4.2 kJ, the power of explosive in GW in the blasthole (round off to one decimal place) is ________.

Diameter of the borehole            : 200 mm

Charge length                                    : 8 m

Density of ANFO                              : 0.8 g/cc

Heat of explosion                            : 912 cal/g

VOD                                                       : 4500 m/s

Initiation                                              : Bottom

Answer: (430.0 to 437.0)

53. A rock block of mass 100 kg is to be lifted by a horizontal force P as shown in the figure below. Smooth rollers are placed between the wedges. The coefficient of static friction between wedge A and surface C and between wedge B and surface D is 0.3. Ignoring the weight of the wedges and the friction between the roller and the wedges, the minimum force P in kg required to lift the block (round off to one decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (50.0 to 51.0)

54. A joint plane dipping at 30° intersects the slope edge and the crest as shown in the figure below. The unit weight of rock is 25 kN/m3, and cohesion and friction angle of the joint surface are 40 kPa and 25°respectively. The safety factor of the shaded block (round off to two decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (2.12 to 2.22)

55. The random variable X has probability density function as given by

The value E(X2) (rounded off to one decimal place) is __________.

Answer: (0.5 to 0.7)

GATE Exam 2019 Mechanical Engineering (ME-2) Question Paper With Answer Key

General Aptitude Set-4

Q.1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. Once the team of analysts identify the problem, we _____ in a better position to comment on the issue.

Which one of the following choices CANNOT fill the given blank?

(A) will be

(B) were to be

(C) are going to be

(D) might be

Answer: (B)

2. A final examination is the _______ of a series of evaluations that a student has to go through.

(A) culmination

(B) consultation

(C) desperation

(D) insinuation

Answer: (A)

3. If IMHO = JNIP; IDK = JEL; and SO = TP, then IDC = _____. .

(A) JDE

(B) JED

(C) JDC

(D) JCD

Answer: (B)

4. The product of three integers X, Y and Z is 192. Z is equal to 4 and P is equal to the average of X and Y. What is the minimum possible value of P?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9.5

Answer: (Marks to All)

5. Are there enough seats here? There are _______people here than I expected.

(A) many

(B) most

(C) least

(D) more

Answer: (D)

 Q.6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Fiscal deficit was 4% of the GDP in 2015 and that increased to 5% in 2016. If the GDP increased by 10% from 2015 to 2016, the percentage increase in the actual fiscal deficit is______.

 (A) 37.50

(B) 35.70

(C) 25.00

(D) 10.00

Answer: (A)

7. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 6 hours and 9 hours respectively, while a third pipe R can empty the tank in 12 hours. Initially, P and R are open for 4 hours. Then P is closed and Q is opened. After 6 more hours R is closed. The total time taken to fill the tank (in hours) is_____.

(A) 13.50

(B) 14.5

(C) 15.50

(D) 16.50

Answer: (B)

8. While teaching a creative writing class in India, I was surprised at receiving stories from the students that were all set in distant places: in the American West with cowboys and in Manhattan penthouses with clinking ice cubes. This was, till an eminent Caribbean writer gave the writers in the once-colonised countries the confidence to see the shabby lives around them as worthy of being “told”.

The writer of this passage is surprised by the creative writing assignments of his students, because ______        .

(A) Some of the students had written stories set in foreign places

(B) None of the students had written stories set in India

(C) None of the students had written about ice cubes and cowboys

(D) Some of the students had written about ice cubes and cowboys

Answer: (B)

9. Mola is a digital platform for taxis in a city. It offers three types of rides – Pool, Mini and Prime. The Table below presents the number of rides for the past four months. The platform earns one US dollar per ride. What is the percentage share of revenue contributed by Prime to the total revenues of Mola, for the entire duration?

(A) 16.24

(B) 23.97

(C) 25.8

(D) 38.74

Answer: (B)

10. X is an online media provider. By offering unlimited and exclusive online content at attractive prices for a loyalty membership, X is almost forcing its customers towards its loyalty membership. If its loyalty membership continues to grow at its current rate, within the next eight years more households will be watching X than cable television.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the above paragraph?

(A) Most households that subscribe to X’s loyalty membership discontinue watching cable television

(B) Non-members prefer to watch cable television

(C) Cable television operators don’t subscribe to X’s loyalty membership

(D) The X is cancelling accounts of non-members

Answer: (A)

Mechanical Engineering

1. In matrix equation [A] {X} = {R},

One of the eigenvalues of matrix [A] is

(A) 4

(B) 8

(C) 15

(D) 16

Answer: (D)

2. The directional derivative of the function f (x, y) = x2 + y2 along a line directed from (0,0) to (1,1), evaluated at the point x = 1, y = 1 is

(A) √2

(B) 2      

(C) 2√2 

(D) 4√2

Answer: (C)

3. The differential equation  is valid in the domain 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 with y(0) = 2.25. The solution of the differential equation is

(A)y = e−4x + 5

(B) y = e−4x + 1.25

(C) y = e4x + 5

(D) y = e4x + 1.25

Answer: (B)

4. An analytic function f(z) of complex variable z = x + iy may be written as f(z) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y). Then, u(x, y) and v(x, y) must satisfy

Answer: (B)

5. A rigid triangular body, PQR, with sides of equal length of 1 unit moves on a flat plane. At the instant shown, edge QR is parallel to the x-axis, and the body moves such that velocities of points P and R are VP and VR , in the x and y directions, respectively. The magnitude of the angular velocity of the body is

(A) 2VR 

(B) 2VP 

(C) VR/√3            

(D) VP/√3

Answer: (A)

6. Consider a linear elastic rectangular thin sheet of metal, subjected to uniform uniaxial tensile stress of 100 MPa along the length direction. Assume plane stress conditions in the plane normal to the thickness. The Young’s modulus E = 200 MPa and Poisson’s ratio ν = 0.3 are given. The principal strains in the plane of the sheet are

(A) (0.35, −0.15)               

(B) (0.5, 0.0)

(C) (0.5, −0.15)

(D) (0.5, −0.5)

Answer: (C)

7. A spur gear has pitch circle diameter D and number of teeth T. The circular pitch of the gear is

(A) πD/T

(B) T/D

(C) D/T

(D) 2πD/T

Answer: (A)

8. Endurance limit of a beam subjected to pure bending decreases with

(A) decrease in the surface roughness and decrease in the size of the beam

(B) increase in the surface roughness and decrease in the size of the beam

(C) increase in the surface roughness and increase in the size of the beam

(D) decrease in the surface roughness and increase in the size of the beam

Answer: (C)

9. A two-dimensional incompressible frictionless flow field is given by  If ρ is the density of the fluid, the expression for pressure gradient vector at any point in the flow field is given as

Answer: (B)

10. Sphere 1 with a diameter of 0.1 m is completely enclosed by another sphere 2 of diameter 0.4 m. The view factor F12 is

(A) 0.0625

(B) 0.25

(C) 0.5

(D) 1.0

Answer: (D)

11. One-dimensional steady state heat conduction takes place  through  a  solid whose cross-sectional area varies linearly in the direction of heat transfer. Assume there is no heat generation in the solid and the thermal  conductivity  of  the  material  is  constant  and independent of temperature. The temperature distribution in the solid is

(A) Linear

(B) Quadratic

(C) Logarithmic

(D) Exponential

Answer: (C)

12. For a simple compressible system, v, s, p and T are specific volume, specific entropy, pressure and temperature, respectively. As per Maxwell’s relations,  is equal to

Answer: (D)

13. Which one of the following modifications of the simple ideal Rankine cycle increases the thermal efficiency and reduces the moisture content of the steam at the turbine outlet?

(A) Increasing the boiler pressure.

(B) Decreasing the boiler pressure.

(C) Increasing the turbine inlet temperature.

(D) Decreasing the condenser pressure.

Answer: (C)

14. Hardenability of steel is a measure of

(A) the ability to harden when it is cold worked

(B) the maximum hardness that can be obtained when it is austenitized and then quenched

(C) the depth to which required hardening is obtained when it is austenitized and then quenched

(D) the ability to retain its hardness when it is heated to elevated temperatures

Answer: (C)

15. The fluidity of molten metal of cast alloys (without any addition of fluxes) increases with increase in

(A) viscosity

(B) surface tension

(C) freezing range

(D) degree of superheat

Answer: (D)

16. The cold forming process in which a hardened tool is pressed against a workpiece (when there is relative motion between the tool and the workpiece) to produce a roughened surface with a regular pattern is

(A) Roll forming

(B) Strip rolling

(C) Knurling

(D) Chamfering

Answer: (C)

17. The most common limit gage used of inspecting the hole diameter is

(A) Snap gage

(B) Ring gage

(C) Plug gage

(D) Master gage

Answer: (C)

18. The transformation matrix for mirroring a point in x – y plane about the line y = x is given by

Answer: (C)

19. If x is the mean of data 3, x, 2 and 4, then the mode is_______.

Answer: (3 to 3)

20. The figure shows an idealized plane truss. If a horizontal force of 300 N is applied at point A, then the magnitude of the force produced in member CD is _______ N.

Answer: (0 to 0)

21. The state of stress at a point in a component is represented by a Mohr’s circle of radius 100 MPa centered at 200 MPa on the normal stress axis. On a plane passing through the same point, the normal stress is 260 MPa. The magnitude of the shear stress on the same plane at the same point is _______ MPa.

Answer: (79 to 81)

22. A wire of circular cross-section of diameter 1.0 mm is bent into a circular arc of radius 1.0 m by application of pure bending moments at its ends. The Young’s modulus of the material of the wire is 100 GPa. The maximum tensile stress developed in the wire is ________ MPa.

Answer: (49 to 51)

23. Water enters a circular pipe of length L = 5.0 m and diameter D = 0.20 m with Reynolds number ReD = 500. The velocity profile at the inlet of the pipe is uniform while it is parabolic at the exit. The Reynolds number at the exit of the pipe is _________.

Answer: (500 to 500)

24. A thin vertical flat plate of height L, and infinite width perpendicular to the plane of the figure, is losing heat to the surroundings by natural convection. The temperatures of the plate and the surroundings, and the properties of the surrounding fluid, are constant. The relationship between the average Nusselt and Rayleigh numbers is given as Nu = K Ra1/4 , where K is a constant. The length scales for Nusselt and Rayleigh numbers are the height of the plate. The height of the plate is increased to 16L keeping all other factors constant.

If the average heat transfer coefficient for the first plate is h1 and that for the second plate is h2, the value of the ratio h1/h2 is______.

Answer: (2 to 2)

25. In an electrical discharge machining process, the breakdown voltage across inter electrode gap (IEG) is 200 V and the capacitance of the RC circuit is 50 µF. The energy (in J) released per spark across the IEG is _________

Answer: (1 to 1)

 Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Given a vector  and as the unit normal vector to the surface of the hemisphere (x2 + y2 + z2 = 1; z ≥ 0), the value of integral  evaluated on the curved surface of the hemisphere S is

(A) –π/2

(B) π/3

(C) π/2

(D) π

Answer: (C)

27. A differential equation is given as

The solution of the differential equation in terms of arbitrary constants C1 and C2 is

Answer: (A)

28. The derivative of f(x) = cos(x) can be estimated using the approximation

The percentage error is calculated as

The percentage error in the derivative of f(x) at x = π/6 radian, choosing h = 0.1 radian, is

(A)< 0.1 %

(B) > 0.1 % and < 1 %

(C) > 1 % and < 5 %

(D)> 5 %

Answer: (B)

29. A ball of mass 3 kg moving with a velocity of 4 m/s undergoes a perfectly-elastic direct-central impact with a stationary ball of mass m. After the impact is over, the kinetic energy of the 3 kg ball is 6 J. The possible value(s) of m is/are

(A) 1 kg only

(B) 6 kg only

(C) 1 kg, 6 kg

(D) 1 kg, 9 kg

Answer: (D)

30. Consider two concentric circular cylinders of different materials M and N in contact with each other at r = b, as shown below. The interface at r = b is frictionless. The composite cylinder system is subjected to internal pressure 𝑃. Let  denote the radial and tangential displacement and stress components, respectively, in material M. Similarly, denote the radial and tangential displacement and stress components, respectively, in material N. The boundary conditions that need to be satisfied at the frictionless interface between the two cylinders are:

Answer: (A)

31. A prismatic, straight, elastic, cantilever beam is subjected to a linearly distributed transverse load as shown below. If the beam length is L, Young’s modulus E, and area moment of inertia I, the magnitude of the maximum deflection is

Answer: (B)

32. A slender uniform rigid bar of mass 𝑚 is hinged at O and supported by two springs, with stiffnesses 3𝑘 and 𝑘, and a damper with damping coefficient 𝑐, as shown in the figure. For the system to be critically damped, the ratio 𝑐/√𝑘𝑚 should be

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C)  2√7

(D) 4√7

Answer: (D)

33. The figure shows a heat engine (HE) working between two reservoirs. The amount of heat (Q2) rejected by the heat engine is drawn by a heat pump (HP). The heat pump receives the entire work output (W) of the heat engine. If temperatures, T1 > T3 >T2 , then the relation between the efficiency (η) of the heat engine and the coefficient of performance (COP) of the heat pump is

(A) COP = η

(B) COP = 1 + η

(C) COP = η−1

(D) COP = η−1 – 1

Answer: (C)

34. The binary phase diagram of metals P and Q is shown in the figure. An alloy X containing 60% P and 40% Q (by weight) is cooled from liquid to solid state. The fractions of solid and liquid (in weight percent) at 1250°C, respectively, will be

(A) 77.8% and 22.2%

(B) 22.2% and 77.8%

(C) 68.0% and 32.0%

(D) 32.0% and 68.0%

Answer: (B)

35. The activities of a project, their duration and the precedence relationships are given in the table. For example, in a precedence relationship “X < Y, Z” means that X is predecessor of activities Y and Z. The time to complete the activities along the critical path is ______ weeks.

(A) 17

(B) 21

(C) 23

(D) 25

Answer: (C)

36. The crank of a slider-crank mechanism rotates counter-clockwise (CCW) with a constant angular velocity ω, as shown. Assume the length of the crank to be r.

Using exact analysis, the acceleration of the slider in the y-direction, at the instant shown, where the crank is parallel to x-axis, is given by

(A) − ω2r

(B) 2ω2r

(C) ω2r

(D) −2ω2r

Answer: (C)

37. A horizontal cantilever beam of circular cross-section, length 1.0 m and flexural rigidity EI = 200 N ∙ m2 is subjected to an applied moment MA = 1.0 N ∙ m at the free end as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the vertical deflection of the free end is ______ mm (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (2.4 to 2.6)

38. Two masses A and B having mass ma and mb, respectively, lying in the plane of the figure shown, are rigidly attached to a shaft which revolves about an axis through O perpendicular to the plane of the figure. The radii of rotation of the masses ma and mb are ra and rb, respectively. The angle between lines OA and OB is 90°. If ma = 10 kg, mb = 20 kg, ______ ra = 200 mm and rb = 400 mm, then the balance mass to be placed at a radius of 200 mm is _______ kg (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (41.00 to 42.00)

39. A four bar mechanism is shown in the figure. The link numbers are mentioned near the links. Input link 2 is rotating anticlockwise with a constant angular speed ω2 . Length of different links are:

O2O = O2A = L,

AB = O4B = √2L.

The magnitude of the  angular speed  of  the output link 4 is ω4 at the instant  when link  2makes an angle of 90° with O2O4   as shown. The ratio ω42 is_________(round  off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.78 to 0.80)

40. The probability that a part manufactured by a company will be defective is 0.05. If 15 such parts are selected randomly and inspected, then the probability that at least two parts will be defective is _________ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.16 to 0.18)

41. A uniform disc with radius 𝑟 and a mass of m kg is mounted centrally on a horizontal axle of negligible mass and length of 1.5r. The disc spins counter-clockwise about the axle with angular speed ω, when viewed from the right-hand side bearing, Q. The axle precesses about a vertical axis at ωp = ω ⁄ 10 in the clockwise direction when viewed from above. Let RP and RQ (positive upwards) be the resultant reaction forces due to the mass and the gyroscopic effect, at bearings P and Q, respectively. Assuming ω2 r = 300 m/s2 and g = 10 m/s2, the ratio of the larger to the smaller bearing reaction force (considering appropriate signs) is _______

Answer: (-3 to -3)

42. A short shoe external drum brake is shown in the figure. The diameter of the brake drum is 500 mm. The dimensions a = 1000 mm, b = 500 mm and c = 200 mm. The coefficient of friction between the drum and the shoe is 0.35. The force applied on the lever F = 100 N as shown in the figure. The drum is rotating anti-clockwise. The braking torque on the drum is _______ N ∙ m (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (19.00 to 21.00)

43. Water flows through two different pipes A and B of the same circular cross-section but at different flow rates. The length of pipe A is 1.0 m and that of pipe B is 2.0 m. The flow in both the pipes is laminar and fully developed. If the frictional head loss across the length of the pipes is same, the ratio of volume flow rates QB /QA is _______(round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.48 to 0.52)

44. The aerodynamic drag on a sports car depends on its shape. The car has a drag coefficient of 0.1 with the windows and the roof closed. With the windows and the roof open, the drag coefficient becomes 0.8. The car travels at 44 km/h with the windows and roof closed. For the same amount of power needed to overcome the aerodynamic drag, the speed of the car with the windows and roof open (round off to two decimal places), is ______ km/h (The density of air and the frontal area may be assumed to be constant).

Answer: (21.90 to 22.20)

45. Three sets of parallel plates LM, NR and PQ are given in figures 1, 2 and 3. The view factor FU is defined as the fraction of radiation leaving plate I that is intercepted by plate J. Assume that the values of FLM and FNR are 0.8 and 0.4, respectively. The value of FPQ (round off to one decimal place is _______.

Answer: (0.6 to 0.6)

46. Hot and cold fluids enter a parallel flow double tube heat exchanger at 100°C and 15°C, respectively. The heat capacity rates of hot  and  cold  fluids  are  Ch  =  2000  W/K  and Cc = 1200 W/K, respectively. If the outlet temperature of the cold fluid is 45 °C, the log mean temperature difference (LMTD) of the heat exchanger is______K (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (57.00 to 58.00)

47. Water flowing at the rate of 1 kg/s through a system is heated using an electric heater such that the specific enthalpy of the water increases by 2.50 kJ/kg and the specific entropy increases by 0.007 kJ/kg∙K. The power input to the electric heater is 2.50 kW. There is no other work or heat interaction between the system and the surroundings. Assuming an ambient temperature of 300 K, the irreversibility rate of the system is ______ kW (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (2.05 to 2.15)

48. An idealized centrifugal pump (blade outer radius of 50 mm) consumes 2 kW power while running at 3000 rpm. The entry of the liquid into the pump is axial and exit from the pump is radial with respect to impeller. If the losses are neglected, then the mass flow rate of the liquid through the pump is______ kg/s (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (8.00 to 8.20)

49. An air standard Otto cycle has thermal efficiency of 0.5 and the mean effective pressure of the cycle is 1000 kPa. For air, assume specific heat ratio γ = 1.4 and specific gas constant R = 0.287 kJ/kg∙K. If the pressure and temperature at the beginning of the compression stroke are 100 kPa and 300 K, respectively, then the specific net work output of the cycle is ______ kJ/kg (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (705.00 to 715.00)

50. The figure shows a pouring arrangement for casting of a metal block. Frictional losses are negligible. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. The time (in s, round off to two decimal places) to fill up the mold cavity (of size 40 cm × 30 cm × 15 cm) is _________

Answer: (28.80 to 29.00)

   

51. A gas tungsten arc welding operation is performed using a current of 250 A and an arc voltage of 20 V at a welding speed of 5 mm/s. Assuming that the arc efficiency is 70%, the net heat input per unit length of the weld will be ________ kJ/mm (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (0.7 to 0.7)

52. The thickness of a sheet is reduced by rolling (without any change in width) using 600 mm diameter rolls. Neglect elastic deflection of the rolls and assume that the coefficient of friction at the roll-workpiece interface is 0.05. The sheet enters the rotating rolls unaided. If the initial sheet thickness is 2 mm, the minimum possible final thickness that can be produced by this process in a single pass is ____ mm (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (1.24 to 1.26)

53. A through hole is drilled in an aluminum alloy plate of 15 mm thickness with a drill bit of diameter 10 mm, at a feed of 0.25 mm/rev and a spindle speed of 1200 rpm. If the specific energy required for cutting this material is 0.7 N∙m/mm3, the power required for drilling is______ W (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (274.00 to 276.00)

54. In an orthogonal machining with a single point cutting tool of rake angle 10°, the uncut chip thickness and the chip thickness are 0.125 mm and 0.22 mm, respectively. Using Merchant’s first solution for the condition of minimum cutting force, the coefficient of friction at the chip-tool interface is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.72 to 0.76)

55. The annual demand of valves per year in a company is 10,000 units. The current order quantity is 400 valves per order. The holding cost is Rs. 24 per valve per year and the ordering cost is Rs. 400 per order. If the current order quantity is changed to Economic Order Quantity, then the saving in the total cost of inventory per year will be Rs. _______(round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (941.00 to 946.00)

GATE Exam 2019 Mechanical Engineering (ME-1) Question Paper With Answer Key

General Aptitude Set-2

Q.1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. John Thomas, an writer, passed away in 2018.

(A) imminent

(B) prominent

(C) eminent

(D) dominant

Answer: (C)

2. _________I permitted him to leave, I wouldn’t have had any problem with him being absent, _________I?

(A) Had, wouldn’t

(B) Have, would

(C) Had,                would

(D) Have, wouldn’t

Answer: (C)

3. A work her staer noticed that the hour hand on the factory clock had moved by 225 degrees during y at the factory. For how long did she stay in the factory?

(A) 3.7   5 hours

(B) 4 hours and 15 mins

(C) 8.5   hours

(D) 7.5 hours

Answer: (D)

4. The sum and product of two integers are 26 and 165 respectively. The difference between these two integers is _______.

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

Answer: (C)

5. The minister avoided any mention of the issue of women’s reservation in the private sector. He was accused of_______the issue.

(A) collaring

(B) skirting

(C) tying

(D) belting

Answer: (B)

Q.6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Under a certain legal system, prisoners are allowed to make one statement. If their statement turns out to be true then they are hanged. If the statement turns out to be false then they are shot. One prisoner made a statement and the judge had no option but to set him free. Which one of the following could be that statement?

(A) I did not commit the crime

(B) I committed the crime

(C) I will be shot

(D) You committed the crime

Answer: (C)

7. A person divided an amount of Rs. 100,000 into two parts and invested in two different schemes. In one he got 10% profit and in the other he got 12%. If the profit percentages are interchanged with these investments he would have got Rs.120 less. Find the ratio between his investments in the two schemes.

(A) 9 : 16

(B) 11 : 14

(C) 37 : 63

(D) 47 : 53

Answer: (D)

8. Congo was named by Europeans. Congo’s dictator Mobuto later changed the name of the country and the river to Zaire with the objective of Africanising names of persons and spaces. However, the name Zaire was a Portuguese alteration of Nzadi o Nzere, a local African term meaning ‘River that swallows Rivers’. Zaire was the Portuguese name for the Congo river in the 16th and 17th centuries.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph above?

(A) Mobuto was not entirely successful in Africanising the name of his country

(B) The term Nzadi o Nzere was of Portuguese origin

(C) Mobuto’s desire to Africanise names was prevented by the Portuguese

(D) As a dictator Mobuto ordered the Portuguese to alter the name of the river to Zaire

Answer: (A)

9. A firm hires employees at five different skill levels P, Q, R, S, T. The shares of employment at these skill levels of total employment in 2010 is given in the pie chart as shown. There were a total of 600 employees in 2010 and the total employment increased by 15% from 2010 to 2016. The total employment at skill levels P, Q and R remained unchanged during this period. If the employment at skill level S increased by 40% from 2010 to 2016, how many employees were there at skill level T in 2016?

(A) 30

(B) 35

(C) 60

(D) 72

Answer: (C)

10. M and N had four children P, Q, R and S. Of them, only P and R were married. They had children X and Y respectively. If Y is a legitimate child of W, which one of the following statements is necessarily FALSE?

(A) M is the grandmother of Y

(B) R is the father of Y

(C) W is the wife of R

(D) W is the wife of P

Answer: (D)

Mechanical Engineering

Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. Consider the matrix

The number of distinct eigenvalues of P is           

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

Answer: (B)

2. A parabola x = y2 with 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 is shown in the figure. The volume of the solid of rotation  obtained by rotating the shaded area by 360° around the x-axis is

(A) π/4

(B) π/2

(C) π

(D) 2π

Answer: (B)

3. For the equation  if y(0) = 3/7, then the value of y(1) is

4. The lengths of a large stock of titanium rods follow a normal distribution with a mean (𝜇) of 440 mm and a standard deviation (σ) of 1 mm. What is the percentage of rods whose lengths lie between 438 mm and 441 mm?

(A) 81.85%

(B) 68.4%

(C) 99.75%

(D) 86.64%

Answer: (A)

5. A flat-faced follower is driven using a circular eccentric cam rotating at a constant angular velocity 𝜔. At time 𝑡 = 0, the vertical position of the follower is y(0) = 0, and the system is in the configuration shown below.

The vertical position of the follower face, 𝑦(𝑡) is given by

(A) 𝑒 sin 𝜔𝑡

(B) 𝑒(1 +  cos 2𝜔𝑡)

(C)  𝑒(1 −  cos 𝜔𝑡)

(D) 𝑒 sin 2𝜔𝑡

Answer: (C)

6. The natural frequencies corresponding to the spring-mass systems I and II are 𝜔𝐼 and 𝜔𝐼𝐼, respectively. The ratio 𝜔𝐼/𝜔𝐼𝐼 is

(A) 1/4

(B) 1/2

(C) 2

(D) 4

Answer: (B)

7. A spur gear with 20° full depth teeth is transmitting 20 kW at 200 rad/s. The pitch circle diameter of the gear is 100 mm. The magnitude of the force applied on the gear in the radial direction is

(A) 0.36 kN

(B) 0.73 kN

(C) 1.39 kN

(D) 2.78 kN

Answer: (B)

8. During a non-flow thermodynamic process (1-2) executed by a  perfect  gas, the  heat interaction is equal to the work interaction (Q1-2 = W1-2) when the process is

(A) Isentropic

(B) Polytropic

(C) Isothermal

(D) Adiabatic

Answer: (C)

9. For a hydrodynamically and thermally fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe  of constant cross-section, the Nusselt number at constant wall heat flux ( Nuq ) and that at constant wall temperature ( NuT ) are related as

(A) Nuq > NuT

(B) Nuq < NuT

(C) Nuq = NuT

(D) Nuq = (NuT)2

Answer: (A)

10. As per common design practice, the three types of hydraulic turbines, in descending order of flow rate, are

(A) Kaplan, Francis, Pelton

(B) Pelton, Francis, Kaplan

(C) Francis, Kaplan, Pelton

(D) Pelton, Kaplan, Francis

Answer: (A)

11. A slender rod of length L, diameter d ( L > > d ) and thermal conductivity k1 is joined with another rod of identical dimensions, but of thermal conductivity k2 , to form a composite cylindrical rod of length 2L . The heat transfer in radial direction and contact resistance are negligible. The effective thermal conductivity of the composite rod is

Answer: (D)

12. Consider an ideal vapor compression refrigeration cycle. If the throttling process is replaced by an isentropic expansion process, keeping all the other processes unchanged, which one of the following statements is true for the modified cycle?

(A) Coefficient of performance is higher than that of the original cycle.

(B) Coefficient of performance is lower than that of the original cycle.

(C) Coefficient of performance is the same as that of the original cycle.

(D) Refrigerating effect is lower than that of the original cycle.

Answer: (A)

13. In a casting process, a vertical channel through which molten metal flows downward from pouring basin to runner for reaching the mold cavity is called

(A) blister

(B) sprue

(C) riser

(D) pin hole

Answer: (B)

14. Which one of the following welding methods provides the highest heat flux (W/mm2)?

(A) Oxy-acetylene gas welding

(B) Tungsten inert gas welding

(C) Plasma are welding

(D) Laser  beam welding

Answer: (D)

15. The length, width and thickness of a steel sample  are  400  mm,  40  mm  and 20 mm, respectively. Its thickness needs to be uniformly reduced by 2 mm in a single pass by using horizontal slab milling. The milling cutter (diameter: 100 mm, width: 50 mm) has 20 teeth and rotates at 1200 rpm. The feed per tooth is 0.05 mm. The feed direction is along the length of the sample. If the over-travel distance is the same as approach distance, the approach distance, the approach distance and time taken to complete the required machining task re

(A) 14 mm, 18.4 s

(B) 21 mm, 28.9 s

(C) 21 mm, 39.4 s

(D) 14 mm, 21.4 s

Answer: (D)

16. The position vector  of point P (20, 10) is rotated anti-clockwise in X-Y plane by an angle θ = 30° such that point P occupies position Q, as shown in the figure. The coordinates (x, y) of Q are

 (A) (13.40, 22.32)

(B) (22.32, 8.26)

(C) (12.32, 18.66)

(D) (18.66, 12.32)

Answer: (C)

17. The table presents the demand of a product. By simple three-months moving average method, the demand-forecast of the product for the month of September is

(A) 490

(B) 510

(C) 530

(D) 536.67

Answer: (B)

18. Evaluation of  using a 2-equal-segment trapezoidal rule gives a value of _______

Answer: (63 to 63)

19. A block of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal floor. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. The coefficient of static friction between the floor and the block is 0.2. A horizontal force of 10 N is applied on the block as shown in the figure. The magnitude of force of friction (in N) on the block is_____

Answer: (10 to 10)

20. A cylindrical rod of diameter 10 mm and length 1.0 m is fixed at one end. The other end is twisted by an angle of 10° by applying a torque. If the maximum shear strain in the rod is p × 10−3, then p is equal to _______ (round off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.80 to 0.90)

21. A solid cube of side 1 m is kept at a room temperature of 32°C. The coefficient of linear thermal expansion of the cube material is 1 × 105/°C and the bulk modulus is 200 GPa. If the cube is constrained all around and heated uniformly to 42°C, then the magnitude of volumetric (mean) stress (in MPa) induced due to heating is_______

Answer: (59.5 to 60.5)

22. During a high cycle fatigue test, a metallic specimen is subjected to cyclic loading with a mean stress of +140 MPa, and a minimum stress of −70 MPa. The R-ratio (minimum stress to maximum stress) for this cyclic loading is_______ (round off to one decimal place)

Answer: (-0.2 to -0.2)

23. Water flows through a pipe with a velocity given by  is the unit vector in the y direction, t (> 0) is in seconds, and x and y are in meters. The magnitude of total acceleration at the point (x, y) = (1, 1) at t = 2 s is _______ m/s2.

Answer: (3 to 3)

24. Air of mass 1 kg, initially at 300 K and 10 bar, is allowed to expand isothermally till it reaches a pressure of 1 bar. Assuming air as an ideal gas with gas constant of 0.287 kJ/kg.K, the change in entropy of air (in kJ/kg.K, round off to two decimal places) is______

Answer: (0.64 to 0.68)

25. Consider the stress-strain curve for an ideal elastic-plastic strain hardening metal as shown in the figure. The metal was loaded in uniaxial tension starting from O. Upon loading, the stress-strain curve passes through initial yield point at P, and then strain hardens to point Q, where the loading was stopped. From point Q, the specimen was unloaded to point R, where the stress is zero. If the same specimen is reloaded in tension from point R, the value of stress at which the material yields again is _________ MPa.

Answer: (210 to 210)

Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. The set of equations

𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 1

𝑎𝑥 – 𝑎𝑦 + 3𝑧 =  5

5𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 𝑎𝑧 = 6

has infinite solutions, if a =         

(A) −3

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) −4

Answer: (C)

27. A harmonic function is analytic if it satisfies the Laplace equation. If 𝑢(𝑥, 𝑦) = 2𝑥2 − 2𝑦2 + 4𝑥𝑦 is a harmonic function, then its conjugate harmonic function 𝑣(𝑥, 𝑦) is

(A) 4𝑥𝑦 − 2𝑥2 + 2𝑦2 + constant

(B) 4𝑦2 − 4𝑥𝑦 + constant

(C) 2𝑥2 − 2𝑦2 + 𝑥𝑦 + constant

(D) −4𝑥𝑦 + 2𝑦2 − 2𝑥2 + constant

Answer: (A)

28. The variable x takes a value between 0 and 10 with uniform probability distribution. The variable y takes a value between 0 and 20 with uniform probability distribution. The probability of the sum of variables (x + y) being greater than 20 is

(A) 0

(B) 0.25

(C) 0.33

(D) 0.50

Answer: (B)

29. A car having weight W is moving in the direction as shown in the figure. The center of gravity (CG) of the car is located at height h from the ground, midway between the front and rear wheels. The distance between the front and rear wheels is l. The acceleration of the car is a, and acceleration due to gravity is g. The reactions on the front wheels (Rf) and rear wheels (Rr) are given by

Answer: (C)

30. In a four bar planar mechanism shown in the  figure,  AB  =  5  cm,  AD  =  4  cm  and DC = 2 cm. In the configuration shown, both AB and DC are perpendicular to AD. The bar AB rotates with an angular velocity of 10 rad/s. The magnitude of angular velocity (in rad/s) of bar DC at this instant is

(A) 0

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 25

Answer: (D)

31. The rotor of a turbojet engine of an aircraft has a mass 180 kg and polar moment of inertia 10 kg∙m2 about the rotor axis. The rotor rotates at a constant speed of 1100 rad/s in the clockwise direction when viewed from the front of the aircraft. The aircraft while flying at a speed of 800 km per hour takes a turn with a radius of 1.5 km to the left. The gyroscopic moment exerted by the rotor on the aircraft structure and the direction of motion of the nose when the aircraft turns, are

(A) 1629.6 N∙m and the nose goes up

(B) 1629.6 N∙m and the nose goes down

(C) 162.9 N∙m and the nose goes up

(D) 162.9 N∙m and the nose goes down

Answer: (B)

32. The wall of a constant diameter pipe of length 1 m is heated uniformly with flux 𝑞” by wrapping a heater coil around it. The flow at the inlet to the pipe is hydrodynamically fully developed. The fluid is incompressible and the flow is assumed to be laminar and steady all through the pipe. The bulk temperature of the fluid is equal to 0 ºC at the inlet and 50 ºC at the exit. The wall temperatures are measured at three locations, P, Q and R, as shown in the figure. The flow thermally develops after some distance from the inlet. The following measurements are made:

Among the locations P, Q and R, the flow is thermally developed at

(A) P, Q and R

(B) P and Q only

(C) Q and R only

(D) R only

Answer: (C)

33. A gas is heated in a duct as it flows over a resistance heater. Consider a 101 kW electric heating system. The gas enters the heating section of the duct at 100 kPa and 27°C with a volume flow rate of 15 m3/s. If heat is lost from the gas in the duct to the surroundings at a rate of 51 kW, the exit temperature of the gas is

(Assume constant pressure, ideal gas, negligible change in kinetic and potential energies and constant specific heat; Cp = 1 kJ/kg∙K; R = 0.5 kJ/kg∙K.)

(A) 32°C

(B) 37°C

(C) 53°C

(D) 76°C

Answer: (A)

34. A plane-strain compression (forging) of a block is shown in the figure. The strain in the z-direction zero. The yield strength (Sy) in uniaxial tension/compression of the material of the block is 300 MPa it follows the Tresca (maximum shear stress) criterion. Assume that the entire block    has   started    yielding.  At a point  where σx = 40 MPa (compressive) and τxx = 0, the stress component, σy is

 (A) 340 MPa (compressive)

(B) 340 MPa (tensile)

(C) 260 MPa (compressive)

(D) 260 MPa (tensile)

Answer: (A)

35. In orthogonal turning of a cylindrical tube of wall thickness 5 mm, the axial and the tangential cutting forces were measured as 1259 N and 1601 N, respectively. The measured chip thickness after machining was found to be 0.3 mm. The rake angle was 10° and the axial feed was 100 mm/min. The rotational speed of the spindle was 1000 rpm. Assuming the material to be perfectly plastic and Merchant’s first solution, the shear strength of the material is closest to

(A) 722 MPa

(B) 920 MPa

(C) 200 MPa

(D) 875 MPa

Answer: (A)

36. A circular shaft having diameter  is manufactured by turning process. A 50 µm thick coating of TiN is deposited on the shaft. Allowed variation in TiN film thickness is ± 5 µm. The minimum hole diameter (in mm) to just provide clearance fit is

(A) 65.01

(B) 65.12

(C) 64.95

(D) 65.10

Answer: (B)

37. Match the following sand mold casting defects with their respective causes.

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

38. A truss is composed of members AB, BC, CD, AD and BD, as shown in the figure. A vertical load of 10 kN is applied at point D. The magnitude of force (in kN) in the member BC is______

Answer: (4.98 to 5.02)

39. Consider an elastic straight beam of length 𝐿 = 10 𝜋 m, with square cross-section of side a = 5 mm, and Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa. This straight beam was bent in such a way that the two ends meet, to form a circle of mean radius R. Assuming that Euler-Bernoulli beam theory is applicable to this bending problem, the maximum tensile bending stress in the bent beam is ______MPa.

Answer: (99 to 101)

40. Consider a prismatic straight beam of length 𝐿 = 𝜋 m, pinned at the two ends as shown in the figure. The beam has a square cross-section of side p = 6 mm. The Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa, and the coefficient of thermal expansion 𝛼 = 3 × 10−6 K−1. The minimum temperature rise required to cause Euler buckling of the beam is ______ K.

Answer: (1 to 1)

41. In a UTM experiment, a sample of length 100 mm, was loaded in tension until failure. The failure load was 40 kN. The displacement, measured using the cross-head motion, at failure, was 15 mm. The compliance of the UTM is constant and is given by 5 × 10−8 m/N. The strain at failure in the sample is ______ %.

Answer: (12 to 14)

42. At a critical  point  in  a  component,  the  state  of  stress  is  given  as  σxx  = 100 MPa , σyy  = 220 MPa  σxy = σyx  = 80 MPa and all  other stress  components  are zero. The yield strength of the material is 468 MPa. The factor of safety on the basis of maximum shear stress theory is_____(round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (1.7 to 1.9)

43. A uniform thin disk of mass 1 kg and radius 0.1 m is kept on a surface as shown in the figure. A spring of stiffness 𝑘1 = 400 N/m is connected to the disk center A and another spring of stiffness 𝑘2 = 100 N/m is connected at point B just above point A on the circumference of the disk. Initially, both the springs are unstretched. Assume pure rolling of the disk. For small disturbance from  the  equilibrium,  the  natural   frequency  of  vibration  of  the   system is ______ rad/s (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (23.0 to 24.0)

44. A single block brake with a short shoe and torque capacity of 250 N∙m is shown. The cylindrical brake drum rotates anticlockwise at 100 rpm and the coefficient of friction is 0.25. The value of a, in mm (round off to one decimal place), such that the maximum actuating force 𝑃 is 2000 N, is ______.

Answer: (212.0 to 213.0)

45. Two immiscible, incompressible, viscous fluids having same densities but different viscosities are contained between two infinite horizontal parallel plates, 2 m apart as shown below. The bottom plate is fixed and the upper plate moves to the right with a constant velocity of 3 m/s. With the assumptions of Newtonian fluid, steady, and fully developed laminar flow with zero pressure gradient in all directions, the momentum equations simplify to

                                                   

If the dynamic viscosity of the lower fluid, 𝜇2, is twice that of the upper fluid, 𝜇1, then the velocity at the interface (round off to two decimal places) is ______m/s.

Answer: (0.98 to 1.02)

46. A cube of side 100 mm is placed at the bottom of an empty container on one of its faces. The density of the material of the cube is 800 kg/m3. Liquid of density 1000 kg/m3 is now poured into the container. The minimum height to which the liquid needs to be poured into the container for the cube to just lift up is _________mm.

Answer: (80 to 80)

47. Three slabs are joined together as shown in the figure. There is no thermal contact resistance at the interfaces. The center slab experiences a non-uniform internal heat generation with an average value equal to 10000 Wm−3, while the left and right slabs have no internal heat generation. All slabs have thickness equal to 1 m and thermal conductivity of each slab is equal to 5 Wm−1K−1. The two extreme faces are exposed to fluid with heat transfer coefficient 100 Wm−2 K−1 and bulk temperature 30°C as shown. The heat transfer in the slabs is assumed to be one dimensional and steady, and all properties are constant. If the left extreme face temperature T1 is  measured  to   be  100 °C,  the  right   extreme  face   temperature   T2 is ________°C.

Answer: (60 to 60)

48. If one mole of H2 gas occupies a rigid container with a capacity of 1000 litres and the temperature is raised from 27°C to 37°C, the change in pressure of the contained gas (round off to two  decimal  places),  assuming  ideal  gas behaviour,  is _______ Pa. (R=8.314 J/mol∙K)

Answer: (82.14 to 84.14)

49. A steam power cycle with regeneration as shown below on the T-s diagram employs a single open feedwater heater for efficiency improvement. The fluids mix with each other in an open feedwater heater. The turbine is isentropic and the input (bleed) to the feedwater heater from the turbine is at state 2 as shown in the figure. Process 3-4 occurs in the condenser. The pump work is negligible. The input to the boiler is at state 5. The following information is available from the steam tables:

The mass flow rate of steam bled from the turbine as a percentage of the total mass flow rate at the inlet to the turbine at state 1 is_______ 

Answer: (19 tp 21)

  

50. A gas turbine with air as the working fluid has an isentropic efficiency of 0.70 when operating at a pressure ratio of 3. Now, the pressure ratio of the turbine is increased to 5, while maintaining the same inlet conditions. Assume air as a perfect gas with specific heat ratio γ = 1.4 . If the specific work output remains the same for both the cases, the isentropic efficiency of the turbine at the pressure ratio of 5 is ________ (round off to two decimal places)

                                 

Answer: (0.50 to 0.52)

51. The value of the following definite integral is _______ (round off to three decimal places)

Answer: (2.090 to 2.104)

52. In ASA system, the side cutting and end cutting edge angles of a sharp turning tool are 45° and 10°, respectively. The feed during cylindrical turning is 0.1 mm/rev. The center line average surface roughness (in µm, round off to one decimal place) of the generated surface is ___________

Answer: (3.5 to 3.9)

  

53. Taylor’s tool life equation is given by VTn = C , where V is in m/min and T is in min. In a turning operation, two tools X and Y are used. For tool X, n = 0.3 and C = 60 and for tool Y, n = 0.6 and C = 90. Both  the  tools  will  have  the  same  tool  life  for  the  cutting speed (in m/min, round off to one decimal place) of _______

Answer: (38.0 to 42.0)

54. Five jobs (J1, J2, J3, J4 and J5) need to be processed in a factory. Each job can be assigned to any of the five different machines (M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5). The time durations taken (in minutes) by the machines for each of the jobs, are given in the table. However, each job is assigned to a specific machine in such a way that the total processing time is minimum. The total processing time is ______ minutes.

Answer: (146 to 146)

55. A project consists of six activities. The immediate predecessor of each activity and the estimated duration is also provided in the table below:

If all activities other than S take the estimated amount of time, the maximum duration (in weeks) of the activity S without delaying the completion of the project is_____.

Answer: (6 to 6)

  

GATE Exam 2019 Mathematics (MA) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS

Q.1 – Q.25 carry one mark each.

1. For a balanced transportation problem with three sources and three destinations where costs, availabilities and demands are all finite and positive, which one of the following statements is FALSE?

(A) The transportation problem does not have unbounded solution

(B) The number of non-basic variables of the transportation problem is 4

(C) The dual variables of the transportation problem are unrestricted in sign

(D) The transportation problem has at most 5 basic feasible solutions

Answer: (D)

2. Let f : [a, b]→ ℝ (the set of all real numbers) be any function which is twice differentiable in (a, b) with only one root a in (a, b). Let f’(x) and f’’(x) denote the first and second order derivatives of f(x) with respect to x If a is a simple root and is computed by the Newton-Raphson method, then method converges if

Answer: (A)

3. Let f : ℂ → ℂ (the set of all complex numbers) be defined by

f(x + iy) =x3 + 3xy2 + i(y3 + 3x23y), i = √−i

Let f’(z) denote the derivative of f with respect to z.

Then which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) f’(1+ i) exists and |f’(1+i)| = 3√5

(B) f is analytic at the origin

(C) f is not differentiable at i

(D)f is differentiable at 1

Answer: (D)

4. The partial differential equation

is

(A)parabolic in the region x2 + y2 > 2

(B) hyperbolic in the region x2 + y2 > 2

(C) elliptic in the region 0 < x2 + y2 < 2

(D) hyperbolic in the region x < x2 + y2 < 2

Answer: (D)

5. If

then which one of the following statements is TRUE?

Answer: (C)

6. Let Γ = {(x, y, z) ∈ ℝ : −1 < x < 1, −1 < y < 1, −1 < z < 1} and ϕ : Γ →ℝ be a function whose all second order partial derivatives exist and are continuous. If ϕ satisfies the Laplace equation ∇2ϕ= 0 for all (x, y, z) ∈Γ, then which one of the following statements is TRUE in Γ?

(ℝ is the set of all real numbers, and ℝ3 = {(x, y, z) : x, y, z ∈ ℝ})

Answer: (C)

7. Let X = {(x1, x2 ….) : x1 ∈ ℝ and only finitely many xi’s are non-zero} and d : X ×X → ℝ be a metric on X defined by

(ℝ is the set of all real number and ℕ is the set of all natural numbers)

Consider the following statements:

P : (X, d) is a complete metric space.

Q : The set {x ∈ d(0, x) ≤ 1} is compact, where 0 is the zero element of X.

Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?

(A) Both P and Q

(B) P only

(C) Q only

(D) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (D)

8. Consider the following statements:

(I) The set ℚ × ℤ is uncountable.

(II) The set {f : f is the function from ℕ to {0, 1}} is uncountable.

(III) The set {√p : p is a prime number} is uncountable.

(IV) For any infinite set, there exists a bijection from the set of one of its proper subsets.

(ℚ is the set of all rational numbers, ℤ is the set of all integers and ℕ is the set of all natural numbers)

Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) I and IV only

(B) II and IV only

(C) II and III only

(D) I, II and IV only

Answer: (B)

9. Let f : ℝ2 → ℝ be defined by

f(x, y ) = x6 – 2x2 – x4y + 2y2.

(ℝ is the set of all real number and ℝ2 = {(x, y) : x, y ∈ ℝ})

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) f has a local maximum at origin

(B) f has a local minimum at origin

(C) f has saddle point at origin

(D) The origin is not a critical point of f

Answer: (C)

10. Let be any sequence of real numbers such that  If the radius of convergence of  then which one of the following statements is necessarily TRUE?

Answer: (A)

11. Let T1 be the co-countable topology on ℝ(the set of real numbers) and T2 be the co-finite topology on ℝ.

Consider the following statements:

(I) In (ℝ, T1), the sequence  converges to 0.

(II) In (ℝ, T2) the sequence  converges to 0.

(III) In (ℝ, T1), there is no sequence of rational numbers which converges to √3.

(IV) In (ℝ, T2), there is no sequence of rational numbers which converges to √3.

Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(C) III and IV only

(D I and IV only

Answer: (B)

12. Let X and Y be normed linear spaces, and let T : X → Y be any bijective linear map with closed graph. Then which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) The graph of T is equal to X × Y

(B) T−1 is continuous

(C) The graph of T−1 is closed

(D)  T is continuous

Answer: (C)

13. Let g : ℝ2 → ℝ2 be a function defined by g(x, y) = (ex cosy, ex siny) and (a, b) = g(1, π/3).

(ℝ is the set of all real numbers and ℝ2= ({(x, y): x, y ∈ ℝ})

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) g is injective

(B) If h is the continuous inverse of g, defined in some neighbourhood of (a, b) ∈ ℝ2, such that h(a, b)= (1, π/3), then the Jacobian of h at (a, b) is e2

(C) If h is the continuous inverse of g, defined in some neighbourhood of (a, b) ∈ ℝ2, such that h(a, b) = (1, π/3), then the Jacobian of h at (a, b) is e−2

(D) g is sujective

Answer: (C)

14. Let

(the set of all natural numbers).

Answer: (0 to 0)

15. If the differential equation

         

is solved using the Euler’s method with step-size h = 0.1, then y(1.2) is equal to______(round off to 2 places of decimal)

Answer: (2.40 to 2.50)

16. Let f be any polynomial function of degrees at most 2 over ℝ (the set of all real numbers). If the constants a and b are such that

             

then 4a + 3b is equal to _______(round off to 2 places of decimal).

Answer: (-7.5 to -7.5)

17. Let L denote the value of the line integral ∮C (3x- 4x2y)dx + (4xy2 + 2y)dy, where C, a circle of radius 2 with centre at origin of the xy-place, is traversed once in the anti-clockwise direction. Then L/π is equal to ______.

 

Answer: (31.90 to 32.10)

18. The temperature T : ℝ3\{(0, 0, 0)} → ℝ at any point P(x, y, z) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance of P from the origin. If the value of the temperature T at the point R(0, 0, 1) is √3, then the rate of change of T at the point Q(1, 1, 2) in the direction of  is equal to ______(round off to 2 places of decimal).

(ℝ is the set of all real numbers, ℝ3 = {(x, y, z) : x, y, z ∈ ℝ} and ℝ3\{(0, 0, 0)} denotes ℝ3 excluding the origin)

Answer: (0.21 to 0.23)

19. Let f be a continuous function defined on [0, 2] such that f(x) ≥ 0 for all x ∈ [0, 2]. If the area bounded by y = f(x), x = 0, y = 0 and x = b is  , where b ∈ (0, 2], then f(1) is equal to _____(round off to 1 place of decimal).

Answer: (0.5 to 0.5)

20. If the characteristic polynomial and minimal polynomial of a square matrix A are (λ – 1) (λ + 1)4 (λ −2)5 and (λ – 1) (λ + 1) (λ – 2), respectively, then the rank of the matrix A + I is ____, where I is the identity matrix of appropriate order.

 

Answer: (6 to 6)

21. Let ω be a primitive complex cube root of unity and i = √−1. Then the degree of the field extension ℚ(i, √3, ω) over ℚ (the field of rational numbers) is ______.

 

Answer: (4 to 4)

22. Let

          

Then the greatest integer has less than or equal to |α| is ______.

 

Answer: (2 to 2)

23. Consider the system:

3x1 + x2 + 2x3 – x4=0

x1 + x2 + x3 – 2x4 = 3,

x1, x2, x3, x4 ≥ 0.

If x1 = 1, x2 = b, x3 = 0, x4 = c is a basic feasible solution of the above system (where a, b and c are real constants), then a + b + c is equal to ______.

Answer: (7 to 7)

24. Let f : ℂ → ℂ be a function defined by f(z) = z6 – 5z4 + 10. Then the number of zeros of f in {z ∈ ℂ : |z| < 2} is _____.

(ℂ is the set of all complex numbers)

 

Answer: (4 to 4)

25. Let

           

be a normed linear space with the norm

         

Let g : ℓ2 → ℂ be the bounded linear functional defined by

             

Then (sup{|g(x)| : ||x||2 ≤ 1})2 is equal to ______ (round off to 3 places of decimal).

(ℂ is the set of all complex numbers).

Answer: (0.125 to 0.125)

Q.26 – Q.55 Carry two marks each.

26. For the linear programming problem (LPP):

Maximize Z = 2x1 + 4x2

subject to – x1 + 2x2 ≤ 4,

                       3x1 + βx2 ≤ 6,

                       x1, x2 ≥ 0, β ∈ ℝ,

(ℝ is the set of all real numbers)

consider the following statements:

(I) The LPP always has a finite optimal value for any β ≥ 0.

(II) The dual of the LPP may be infeasible for some β ≥ 0.

(III) If for some β, the point (1, 2) is feasible to the dual of the LPP, then Z ≤ 16, for any feasible solution (x1, x2) of the LPP.

(IV) If for some β, x1 and x2 are the basic variables in the optimal table of the LPP with x1 = ½, then the optimal value of dual of the LPP is 10.

Then which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) I and III only

(B) I, III and IV only

(C) III and IV only

(D) II and IV only

Answer: (B)

27. Let f : ℝ2 → ℝ2 be defined by

           

Consider the following statements:

(I) The partial derivatives ∂f/∂x, ∂f/∂y exist at (0, 0) but are unbounded in any neighbourhood of (0, 0).

(II) f is continuous but not differentiable at (0, 0).

(III) f is not continuous at (0, 0).

(IV) f is differentiable at (0, 0).

(ℝ is the set of all real numbers and ℝ2 = {(x, y): x, y ∈ ℝ})

Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?

(A)  I and II only

(B) I and IV only

(C) IV only

(D) III only

Answer: (B)

28. Let  be an infinite matrix cover ℂ (the set of all complex numbers) such that (i) for each i ∈ ℕ (the set of all natural numbers), the ith row( ki, 1, ki, 2…..) of K is in ℓ and (ii) for every  is summable for all i ∈ ℕ, and (y1, y2 …) ∈ ℓ1, where 

Let the set of all rows of K be denoted by E. Consider the following statements:

P: E is bounded set in ℓ

Q: E is dense set in ℓ.

Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?

(A) Both P and Q

(B) P only

(C) Q only

(D) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (B)

29. Consider the following heat conduction problem for a finite rod

with the boundary conditions u(0, t) = −t2, u(π, t) = −πet – t2, t > 0 and the initial condition u(x, 0) = sin x –  sin3 x – x, 0 ≤ x ≤ π. If v(x, t) = u(x, t) + xet+ t2, then which one of the following is CORRECT?

Answer: (A)

30. Let f : ℂ → ℂ be non-zero and analytic at all points in ℤ.

If F(z) = π f(z) cot(πz) for z ∈ℂ\ℤ, then the residue of F at n ∈ ℤ is ______.

(ℂ is the set of all complex numbers, ℤ is the set of all integers and ℂ\ℤ denotes the set of all complex numbers excluding integers)

(A) π f(n)

(B) f(n)

(C) f(n)/π

(D) (df/dz)z = N

Answer: (B)

31. Let the general integral of the partial differential equation

be given by F(u v) = 0, where F: ℝ2 → ℝ is the continuously differentiable function.

(ℝ is the set of all real numbers and ℝ2 = {(x, y): x, y ∈ ℝ})

Then which one of the following is TRUE?

(A) u = x2 + y2 + z, v = xz + y

(B) u = x2 + y2 – z, v = xz – y

(C) u = x2 – y2 + z, v = yz + x

(D) u = x2 + y2 – z, v = yz – x

Answer: (A)

32. Consider the following statements:

(I) If ℚ denotes the additive group of rational numbers and f: ℚ → ℚ is a non-trivial homomorphism, then f is an isomorphism.

(II) Any quotient group of a cyclic group is cyclic.

(III) If every subgroup of a group G is a normal subgroup, then G is abelian.

(IV) Every group of order 33 is cyclic.

Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) II and IV only

(B) II and III only

(C) I, II and IV only

(D) I, III and IV only               

Answer: (C)

33. A solution of the Dirichlet problem

2u(r, θ) = 0, 0<r<1, −π≤θ≤π

u(1, θ) =|θ|, −π≤θ≤π,

is given by

Answer: (C)

34. Consider the subspace Y = {(x, x) : x ∈ ℂ} of the normed linear space (ℂ2, || ||).

If ϕ is a bounded linear functional on Y, defined by ϕ(x, x) = x, then which one of the following sets is equal to

{Ψ(1, 0): Ψ is a norm preserving extension of ϕ to(ℂ2, || ||)}.

(ℂ is the set of all complex numbers, ℂ2 = {(x, y) : x, y ∈ ℂ} and ||(x1, x2)|| = sup{|x1|, |x2|})

(A) {1}

(B) [1/2, 3/2]

(C) [1, ∞)

(D)[0, 1]

Answer: (D)

35. Consider the following statements:

(I) The ring ℤ[√−1] is a unique factorization domain.

(II) The ring ℤ[√−5] is a principal ideal domain.

(III) In the polynomial ring ℤ2[x], the ideal generated by x3 + x + 1 is a maximal ideal.

(IV) In the polynomial ring ℤ3[x], the ideal generated by x6 + 1 is a prime ideal.

(ℤ denotes the set of all integers, ℤn denotes the set of all integers modulo, n, for any positive integer n)

Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) I, II and III only

(B) I and III only

(C) I, II and IV only

(D) II and III only

Answer: (B)

36. Let M be a 3 × 3 real symmetric matrix with eigenvalues 0, 2 and a with the respective eigenvectors u = (4, b, c)T, v =(−1, 2, 0)T and w = (1, 1, 1)T.

Consider the following statements.

(I) a + b – c = 10.

(II) The vector x = (0, 3/2, ½)T satisfies Mx = v + w.

(III) For any d ∈ span{u, v, w}, Mx= d has a solution.

(IV) The trace of the matrix M2 + 2M is 8.

(yT denotes the transpose of the vector y)

Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) I, II and III only

(B) I and II only

(C) II and IV only

(D) III and IV only

Answer: (B)

37. Consider the region

 

in the complex plane. The transformation x + iy → ex+iy maps the region Ω onto the region S ⊂ ℂ (the set of all complex numbers). Then the area of the region S is equal to

(A) π/3(e4 − e−2)

(B) π/4(e4 + e−2)

(C) 2π/3(e4 − e−2)

(D) π/6(e4 − e−2)

Answer: (A)

38. Consider the sequence  of functions, where  is the derivative of gn(x) with respect to x.

(ℝ is the set of all real numbers, ℕ is the set of all natural numbers.)

Answer: (D)

39. Consider the boundary value problem (BVP)

with the boundary conditions y(0) = 0, y(π) = k (k is a non-zero real number).

Then which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) For α = 1, the BVP has infinitely many solutions

(B) For α =1, the BVP has a unique solution

(C) For α = −1, k < 0, the BVP has a solution y(x) such that y(x) > 0 for all x ∈ (0, π)

(D)For α = −1, k = 0, the BVP has a solution y(x) such that y(x) > 0 for all x ∈(0, π

Answer: (D)

40. Consider the ordered square I02, the set [0, 1] × [0, 1] with the dictionary order topology. Let the general element of I02 be denoted by x × y, where x, y ∈[0, 1]. Then the closure of the subset  is

(A) S ⋃ ((a, b] ×{0}) ⋃([a, b) × {1})

(B) S ⋃ ([a, b] ×{0}) ⋃((a, ]) × {1})

(C) S ⋃ ((a, b) ×{0}) ⋃((a, b) × {1})

(D) S ⋃ ((a, b] ×{0})

Answer: (A)

41. Let P2 be the vector space of all polynomials of degree at most 2 over ℝ (the set of real numbers). Let a linear transformation T : P2 → P2 be defined by

T(a + bx + cx2) = (a + b) + (b – c)x + (a + c)x2.

Consider the following statements:

(I) The null space of T is {α(−1 + x +x2) : α ∈ ℝ}.

(II) The range space of T is spanned by the set {1 + x2, 1 + x}.

(III) T(T(1 + x) = 1 + x2.

(IV) If M is the matrix representation of T with respect of the standard basis {1, x, x2} of P2 then the trace of the matrix M is 3.

Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) I and II only

(B) I, III and IV only

(C) I, II and IV only

(D) II and IV only

Answer: (C)

42. Let T1 and T2 be two topologies defined on ℕ (The set of all natural numbers), where T1 is the topology generated byB = {{2n – 1, 2n} : n ∈ ℕ} and T2 is the discrete topology on ℕ.

Consider the statements:

(I) In (ℕ, T1), every infinite subset has a limit point.

(II) The function f : (ℕ, T1) → (ℕ, T2) define by

                                                   

is a continuous function.

Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?

(A) Both I and II

(B) I only

(C) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Answer: (A)

43. Let 1 ≤ p < q < ∞. Consider the following statements:

(I) ℓp ⊂ ℓq

(II) Lp[0, 1] ⊂ Lq[0,1],

(ℝ is the set of all real numbers

Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?

(A) Both I and II

(B) I only

(C) II only

(D)  Neither I nor II

Answer: (B)

44. Consider the differential equation

                           

If Y(s) is the Laplace transform of y(t), then the value of Y(1) s _____(round off to 2 places of decimal).

(Here, t he inverse trigonometric functions assume principal values only)

 

Answer: (0.76 to 0.83)

45. Let R be the region in the xy-place bounded by the curves y = x2, y = 4x2, xy = 1 and xy = 5.

Then the value of integral  is equal to _______

 

Answer: (12 to 12)

46. Let V be the vector space of all 3 × 3 matrices with complex entries over the real field. If

                   

then the dimension of W1 + W2 is equal to _____.

 

Answer: (17 to 17)

47. The number of elements of order 15 in the additive group ℤ60 × ℤ50 is ______

(ℤn denotes the group of integers modulo n, under the operation of addition modulo n, for any positive integer n)

Answer: (48 to 48)

48. Consider the following cost matrix of assigning four jobs to f our persons:

Then the minimum cost of the assignment problem subject to the constraint that job J4 is assigned to person P2, is _____.

Answer: (27 to 27)

49. Let y : [−1, 1] → ℝ with y(1) = 1 satisfy the Legendre differential equation

         

Then the value of  is equal to _______(round off to 2 places of decimal).

Answer: (0.25 to 0.30)

50. Let ℤ125 be the ring of integers modulo 125 under the operations of addition modulo 125 and multiplication modulo 125. If m is the number of maximal ideals of ℤ125 and n is the number of non-units of ℤ125, then m + n is equal to ______.

Answer: (26 to 26)

51. The maximum value of the error term of the composite Trapezoidal rule when it is used to evaluate the definite integral

                 

with  12 sub-intervals of equal length, is equal to ______ (round off to 3 places of decimal).

Answer: (0.022 to 0.028)

52. By the Simplex method, the optimal table of the linear programming problem:

             

where α, β, γ are real, constants, is

Then the value of α + β + γ is ______

Answer: (14.0 to 16.0 OR 17.0 to 18.5)

53. Consider the inner product space P2 of all polynomials of degree at most 2 over the field of real numbers with the inner product 

Let {f0, f1, f2) be an orthogonal set in P2, where f0 = 1, f1 = t +c1, f2 = t2 + c2f1 +c3 and c1, c2, c3 are real constants. Then the value of 2c1 + c2+ 3c3 is equal to _____.

Answer: (-3 to -3)

54. Consider the system of linear differential equations

         

with the initial conditions x1(0) = 0, x2(0) = 1.

The loge(x2(2) – x1(2)) is equal to

 

Answer: (1.95 to 2.05)

55. Consider the differential equation

             

The sum of the roots of the indicial equation of the Frobenius series solution for the above differential equation in a neighbourhood of x = 0 is equal to ____.

Answer: (10 to 10)

GATE Exam 2019 Instrumentation Engineering (IN) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Instrumentation Engineering

Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. are three orthogonal vectors. Given that  the vector is parallel to

Answer: (C)

2. The vector function  where u(x, y) is a scalar function. Then  is

(A) -1

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D) ∞

Answer: (B)

3. A box has 8 red balls and 8 green balls. Two balls are drawn randomly in succession from the box without replacement. The probability that the first ball drawn is red and the second ball drawn is green is

(A) 4/15

(B) 7/16

(C) 1/2

(D) 8/15

Answer: (A)

4. In the Figures (a) and (b) shown below, the transformers are identical and ideal, except that the transformer in Figure (b) is centre-tapped. Assuming ideal diodes, the ratio of the root- mean-square (RMS) voltage across the resistor 𝑅 in Figure (a) to that in Figure (b) is

 (A) √2:1

(B) 2:1

(C) 2√2:1

(D) 4:1

Answer: (B)

5. The y(t) of a system is related to its input x(t) as

where, x(t) = 0 and y(t) = 0 for t ≤ 0. The transfer function of the system is

Answer: (C)

6. The input 𝑥[𝑛] and output 𝑦[𝑛] of a discrete-time system are related as y[n] = αy[n − 1] + x[n]. The condition on 𝛼 for which the system is Bounded-Input Bounded-Output (BIBO) stable is

(A) |α| < 1

(B) |α| = 1

(C) |α| > 1

(D) |α| < 3/2

Answer: (A)

7. In a cascade control system, the closed loop transfer function of the inner loop may be assumed to have a single time-constant τ1 . Similarly, the closed loop transfer function of the outer loop may be assumed to have a single time-constant 𝜏2. The desired relationship between τ1 and τ2 in a well-designed control system is

(A) τ1 is much less than τ2

(B) τ1 is equal to τ2

(C) τ1 is much greater than τ2

(D) τ1 is independent of τ2

Answer: (A)

8. The loop-gain function L(s) of a control system with unity feedback is given to be  where k > 0 . If the gain cross-over frequency of the loop-gain function is less than its phase cross-over frequency, the closed-loop system is

(A) unstable

(B) marginally stable

(C) conditionally stable

(D) stable

Answer: (D)

9. If each of the values of inductance, capacitance and resistance of a series LCR circuit are doubled, the Q-factor of the circuit would

(A) reduce by a factor √2

(B) reduce by a factor √2

(C) increase by a factor √2

(D) increase by a factor √2

Answer: (B)

10. In the circuit shown below, the input voltage Vin is positive. The current (I) – voltage (V) characteristics of the diode can be assumed to be I = I0eV/VT under the forward bias condition, where VT is the thermal voltage and I0 is the reverse saturation current. Assuming an ideal op-amp, the output voltage Vout of the circuit is proportional to

Answer: (C)

11. The correct biasing conditions for typical operation of light emitting diodes, photodiodes, Zener diodes are, respectively

(A) forward bias, reverse bias, reverse bias

(B) reverse bias, reverse bias, forward bias

(C) forward bias, forward bias, reverse bias

(D) reverse bias, forward bias, reverse bias

Answer: (A)

12. The circuit shown in the figure below uses ideal positive edge-triggered synchronous J-K flip flops with outputs X and Y. If the initial state of the output is X=0 and Y=0 just before the arrival of the first clock pulse, the state of the output just before the arrival of the second clock pulse is

(A) X=0, Y=0

(B) X=0, Y=1

(C) X=1, Y=0

(D) X=1, Y=1

Answer: (D)

13. Thermocouples measure temperature based on

(A) Photoelectric effect

(B) Seebeck effect

(C) Hall effect

(D) Thermal expansion

Answer: (B)

14. Four strain gauges in a Wheatstone bridge configuration are connected to an instrumentation amplifier as shown in the figure. From the choices given below, the preferred value for the common mode rejection ratio (CMRR) of the amplifier, in dB, would be

(A) -20

(B) 0

(C) 3

(D) 100

Answer: (D)

15. In a single-mode optical fiber, the zero-dispersion wavelength refers to the wavelength at which the

(A) material dispersion is zero.

(B) waveguide dispersion is zero.

(C) sum of material dispersion and waveguide dispersion is zero.

(D) material dispersion and waveguide dispersion are simultaneously zero.

Answer: (C)

16. A 3 × 3 matrix has eigenvalues 1, 2 and 5. The determinant of the matrix is ________.

Answer: (10 to 10)

17. In the circuit shown below, maximum power is transferred to the load resistance RL , when RL = _________Ω.

Answer: (5 to 5)

18. Consider a circuit comprising only resistors with constant resistance and ideal independent DC voltage sources. If all the resistances are scaled down by a factor 10, and all source voltages are scaled up by a factor 10, the power dissipated in the circuit scales up by a factor of ________.

Answer: (1000 to 1000)

19. In the circuit shown below, initially the switch S1 is open, the capacitor C1 has a charge of 6 coulomb, and the capacitor C2 has 0 coulomb. After S1 is closed, the charge on C2 in steady state is ________coulomb.

Answer: (4 to 4)

20. An 8-bit weighted resistor digital-to-analog converter (DAC) has the smallest resistance of 500 Ω. The largest resistance has a value ________k Ω.

Answer: (64 to 64)

21. The total number of Boolean functions with distinct truth-tables that can be defined over 3 Boolean variables is_________.

Answer: (256 to 256)

22. The figure below shows the 𝑖𝑡ℎ full-adder block of a binary adder circuit. Ci is the input carry and Ci+1 is the output carry of the circuit. Assume that each logic gate has a delay of 2 nanosecond, with no additional time delay due to the interconnecting wires. If the inputs Ai , Bi are available and stable throughout the carry propagation, the maximum time taken for an input Ci to produce a steady-state output Ci+1 is _____ nanosecond.

Answer: (4 to 4)

23. The resistance of a resistor is measured using a voltmeter and an ammeter. The voltage measurements have a mean value of 1V and standard deviation of 0.12 V while current measurements have a mean value of 1 mA with standard deviation of 0.05 mA. Assuming that the errors in voltage and current measurements are independent, the standard deviation of the calculated resistance value is___________Ω.

Answer: (130 to 130)

24. A pitot-static tube is used to estimate the velocity of an incompressible fluid of density 1 kg/m3. If the pressure difference measured by the tube is 200 N/m2, the velocity of the fluid, assuming the pitot-tube coefficient to be 1.0, is _______m/s.

Answer: (20 to 20)

25. A signal cos(2π fmt) modulates a carrier cos(2π fct) using the double-sideband-with-carrier (DSBWC) scheme to yield a modulated signal cos(2 πfct) + 0.3cos(2π fmt) cos(2π fct) . The modulation index is _________. (Answer should be rounded off to one decimal place)

Answer: (0.3 to 0.3)

Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. The curve y = f(x) is such that the tangent to the curve at every point (𝑥, 𝑦) has a 𝑌-axis intercept 𝑐, given by C = −Y. Then, f (x) is proportional to

(A) x1

(B) x2

(C) x3

(D) x4

Answer: (B)

27. The function 𝑝(𝑥) is given by 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝐴/𝑥𝜇 where 𝐴 and 𝜇 are constants with 𝜇 > 1 and 1 ≤ x < ∞ and 𝑝(𝑥) = 0 for −∞ < 𝑥 < 1. For 𝑝(𝑥) to be a probability density function, the value of 𝐴 should be equal to

(A) 𝜇− 1               

(B) 𝜇 + 1

(C) 1/(𝜇 − 1)

(D) 1/(𝜇 + 1)

Answer: (A)

28. The dynamics of the state  of a system is governed by the differential equation

Given that the initial state is  the steady state value of  is

29. A complex function f(z) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y) and its complex conjugate f*(z) = u (x, y) – iv(x, y) are both analytic in the entire complex plane, where z = x + i y and i = √−1. The function f is then given by

(A) 𝑓(𝑧)  = 𝑥 + 𝑖 𝑦

(B) 𝑓(𝑧) = 𝑥2 − 𝑦2 + 𝑖 2𝑥𝑦

(C) 𝑓(𝑧) = constant

(D) 𝑓(𝑧) = 𝑥2 + 𝑦2

Answer: (D)

30. In a control system with unity gain feedback, the plant has the transfer function P(s)= 3/s . Assuming that a controller of the form C(s) = K/ (s + p) is used, where 𝐾 is a positive constant, the value of p for which the root-locus of the closed-loop system passes through the points −3 ±j3√3 where j=√−1 , is

(A) 3

(B) 3√3

(C) 6

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

31. The forward path transfer function L(s) of the control system shown in Figure (a) has the asymptotic Bode plot shown in Figure (b). If the disturbance d (t) is given by d(t) = 0.1sin(ωt) where ω = 5 rad s , the steady-state amplitude of the output y(t) is

(A) 1.00 × 10−3

(B) 2.50 × 10−3

(C) 5.00 × 10−3

(D) 10.00 × 10−3

Answer: (A)

32. In the control system shown in the figure below, a reference signal r(t) = t2 is applied at time 𝑡 = 0. The control system employs a PID controller C(s) = KP + KI/s + KDs and the plant has a transfer function P(s) = 3/s. If KP = 10, K­I = 1 and KD = 2, the steady state value of e is

(A) 0

(B) 2/3

(C) 1

(D) ∞

Answer: (B)

33. A voltage amplifier is constructed using enhancement mode MOSFETs labeled M1, M2, M3 and M4 in the figure below. M1, M2 and M4 are n-channel MOSFETs and M3 is a p-channel MOSFET. All MOSFETs operate in saturation mode and channel length modulation can be ignored. The low frequency, small signal input and output voltages are 𝑣𝑖𝑛 and 𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑡respectively and the dc power supply voltage is VDD . All n-channel MOSFETs have identical transconductance 𝑔𝑚𝑛 while the p-channel MOSFET has transconductance 𝑔𝑚𝑝. The expressions for the low frequency small signal voltage gain 𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑡/𝑣𝑖𝑛 is

(A) − gmn/gmp

(B) –gmn(gmn + gmp)−1

(C) +gmn/gmp

(D) gmn(gmn + gmp)−1

Answer: (C)

34. In the circuit shown below, assume that the comparators are ideal and all components have zero propagation delay. In one period of the input signal 𝑉𝑖𝑛 = 6 sin(𝜔𝑡), the fraction of the time for which the output OUT is in logic state HIGH is

(A) 1/12

(B) 1/2

(C) 2/3

(D) 5/6

Answer: (D)

35. 𝑋 = 𝑋1𝑋0 and 𝑌 = 𝑌1𝑌0 are 2-bit binary numbers. The Boolean function 𝑆 that satisfies the condition “If 𝑋 > 𝑌, then 𝑆 = 1”, in its minimized form, is

Answer: (B)

36. In the circuit below, the light dependent resistor (LDR) receives light from the LED. The LDR has resistances of 5 kΩ and 500Ω under dark and illuminated conditions, respectively. The LED is OFF at time 𝑡 < 0. At time t = 0 s, the switch S1 is closed for 1 ms and then kept open thereafter. Assuming zero propagation delay in the devices, the LED

(A) turns ON when S1 is closed and remains ON after S1 is opened

(B) turns ON when S1 is closed and turns OFF after S1 is opened

(C) turns ON when S1 is closed and toggles periodically from ON to OFF after S1 is opened

(D) remains OFF when S1 is closed and continues to remain OFF after S1 is opened

Answer: (A)

37. A differential capacitive sensor with a distance between the extreme plates 100 mm is shown in figure below. The difference voltage ∆𝑉 = 𝑉1 − 𝑉2, where 𝑉1 and 𝑉2 are the rms values, for a downward displacement of 10 mm of the intermediate plate from the central position, in volts, is

(A) 0.9

(B) 1.0

(C) 1.1

(D) 2

Answer: (D)

38. A piezoelectric transducer with sensitivity of 30 mV/kPa is intended to be used in the range of 0 kPa to 100 kPa. The readout circuit has a peak noise amplitude of 0.3 mV and measured signals over the full pressure range are encoded with 10 bits. The smallest pressure that produces a non-zero output, in units of Pa, is approximately

(A) 10

(B) 100

(C) 240

(D) 300

Answer: (B)

39. A 100 W light source emits uniformly in all directions. A photodetector having a circular active area whose diameter is 2 cm is placed 1 m away from the source, normal to the incident light. If the responsivity of the photodetector is 0.4 A/W, the photo-current generated in the detector, in units of mA, is

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 100

(D) 400

Answer: (A)

40. A resistance-meter has five measurement range-settings between 200Ω and 2 MΩ in multiples of 10. The meter measures resistance of a device by measuring a full-range voltage of 2 V across the device by passing an appropriate constant current for each range-setting. If a device having a resistance value in the range 8 kΩ to 12 kΩ and a maximum power rating of 100 µW is to be measured safely with this meter, the choice for range-setting on the meter for best resolution in measurement, in kΩ, is

(A) 2

(B) 20

(C) 200

(D) 2000

Answer: (C)

41. A pulsed laser emits rectangular pulses of width 1 nanosecond at a repetition rate of 1 kHz. If the average power output is 1 mW, the average power over a single pulse duration, in watts, is

(A) 1

(B) 10

(C) 100

(D) 1000

Answer: (D)

42. Four identical resistive strain gauges with gauge factor of 2.0 are used in a Wheatstone bridge as shown in the figure below. Only one of the strain gauges RSENSE changes its resistance due to strain. If the output voltage VOUT is measured to be 1 mV, the magnitude of strain, in units of microstrain, is

(A) 1

(B) 10

(C) 100

(D) 1000

Answer: (D)

43. The frequency response of a digital filter 𝐻(𝜔) has the following characteristics

Passband: 0.95 ≤ |H(ω)| ≤ 1.05 for 0 ≤ ω ≤ 0.3π and

Stopband: 0 ≤ |H(ω)| ≤ 0.005 for 0.4π ≤ ω ≤ π.

where ω is the normalized angular frequency in rad/sample. If the analog upper cut off frequency for the passband of the above digital filter is to be 1.2 kHz, then the samplingfrequency should be _______kHz.

Answer: (8.0 to 8.0)

44. In the circuit shown below, a step input voltage of magnitude 5 V is applied at node A at time t = 0. If the capacitor has no charge for t ≤ 0 , the voltage at node P at 𝑡 = 6μs is _______ V. (Answer should be rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (1.87 to 1.91)

45. In the circuit shown below, the angular frequency 𝜔 at which the current is in phase with the voltage is _______ rad/s.

Answer: (20000 to 20000)

46. The transfer function relating the input x(t) to the output y(t) of a system is given by G(s) = 1/ (s + 3) . A unit-step input is applied  to  the system  at  time t = 0 . Assuming that 𝑦(0) = 3, the value of 𝑦(𝑡) at time 𝑡  = 1  is _________ (Answer should be rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (0.46 to 0.48)

47. The output of a continuous-time system 𝑦(𝑡) is related to its input 𝑥(𝑡) as  If the Fourier transforms of 𝑥(𝑡) and 𝑦(𝑡) are 𝑋(𝜔) and 𝑌(𝜔) respectively, and |𝑋(0)|2 = 4, the value of |𝑌(0)|2 is ________.

Answer: (9 to 9)

48. A discrete-time signal  is down-sampled to the signal xd[n] such that xd[n] = x[4n]. The fundamental period of the down-sampled signal xd[n] is____________.

Answer: (6 to 6)

49. In a control system with unity gain feedback, the transfer function of the loop-gain function is L(s) = 9e−0.1s/s. The phase margin of the loop-gain function L(s) is _________ degree.

Answer: (37 to 39)

50. In the circuit shown below, all transistors are n-channel enhancement mode MOSFETs. They are identical and are biased to operate in saturation mode. Ignoring channel length modulation, the output voltage Vout is _________ V.

Answer: (4 to 4)

51. In the circuit shown below, all OPAMPS are ideal. The current 𝐼 = 0 A when the resistance R = __________kΩ.

Answer: (9.0 to 9.1)

52. The parallel resistance-capacitance bridge shown below has a standard capacitance value of C1=0.1µF and a resistance value of R3=10 kΩ. The bridge is balanced at a supply frequency of 100 Hz for R1=375 kΩ, R3=10 kΩ and R4=14.7 kΩ. The value of the dissipation factor 𝐷 = 1/(𝜔𝑅𝑝𝐶𝑝) of the parallel combination of 𝐶𝑝 and 𝑅𝑝 is_______.(Answer should be rounded off to THREE decimal places).

Answer: (0.035 to 0.045)

53. In a microprocessor with a 16 bit address bus, the most significant address lines A15 to A12 are used to select a 4096 word memory unit, while lines A0 to A11 are used to address a particular word in the memory unit. If the 3 least significant lines of the address bus A0 to A2 are short-circuited to ground, the addressable number of words in the memory unit is________.

Answer: (512 to 512)

54. A signal x(t) has a bandwidth 2𝐵 about a carrier frequency of fc = 2 GHz as shown in Figure (a) below. In order to demodulate this signal, it is first mixed (multiplied) with a local oscillator of frequency fLO = 1.5 GHz, and then passed through an ideal low-pass filter (LPF) with a cut-off frequency of 2.8 GHz. The output of the LPF is sent to a digitizer ADC with a sampling rate of 1.6 GHz as shown in Figure (b) below. The maximum value of B so that the signal x(t) can be reconstructed from its samples according to the Nyquist sampling theorem is _______ MHz.

Answer: (300 to 300)

55. Consider a Michelson interferometer as shown in the figure below. When the wavelength of the laser light source is switched from 400 nanometer to 500 nanometer, it is observed that the intensity measured at the output port P goes from a minimum to a maximum. This observation is possible when the smallest path difference between the two arms of the interferometer is ______ nanometer.

Answer: (500 to 500 OR 1000 to 1000)

GATE Exam 2019 Geology and Geophysics (GG) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Geology & Geography

PART A: COMPULSORY SECTION FOR ALL CANDIDATES

Q.1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. On the present-day global plate tectonic map, the Reunion hotspot is located in the ______.

(a) Indian Plate

(B) Australian Plate

(C) African Plate

(D) Antarctic Plate

Answer: (C)

2. Which one of the following statements about the planetary motion of the Solar system is INCORRECT?

(A) The orbital-radius of planets sweep out equal areas in equal intervals of time.

(B) The orbital speed of planets is constant throughout their respective orbits.

(C) Planets revolve in anticlockwise direction relative to a point above the plane of planetary motion.

(D) At least one focus of the elliptical orbit of each planet lies at the same point.

Answer: (B)

3. Choose the CORRECT combination for the following two statements

Statement-I: The correct order of magnetic chrons from the oldest to the youngest is Gilbert-Gauss-Matuyama-and Bruhnes.

Statement -II: Magnetic chrons Gilbert and Matuyama are reverse whereas Gauss and Bruhnes are normal.

(A) Both statements I and II are correct.

(B) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

Answer: (A)

4. Body waves ______.

(A) can travel through vacuum

(B) have cylindrical wavefronts

(C) are mechanical waves

(D) are known as ground roll

Answer: (C)

5. The acceleration due to gravity (g) begins to fall sharply towards the centre of the Earth from the discontinuity.

(A) Conrad

(B) Mohorovicic

(C) Gutenberg

(D) Lehmann

Answer: (C)

6. Which one of the following lists ONLY kinematic parameters?

(A) Force, translation, rotation.

(B) Translation, rotation, distortion.

(C) Stress, distortion, translation.

(D) Force, stress, strain.

Answer: (B)

7. The plunge of the normal to the axial planes of vertical and upright folds is ______.

(A) 0°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 90°

Answer: (A)

8. Which one of the following rocks is associated with metamorphic thermal aureoles?

(A) Chlorite schist

(B) Amphibolite

(C) Hornfels

(D) Glaucophane schist

Answer: (C)

9. Which one of the following clay minerals contain potassium (K)?

(A) Illite

(B) Kaolinite

(C) Montmorillonite

(D) Vermiculite

Answer: (A)

10. Which one of the following sequences of minerals CORRECTLY list an increasing rate of dissolution during chemical weathering?

(A) Olivine-Quartz-Pyroxene-Orthoclase

(B) Quartz-Orthoclase-Pyroxene-Olivine

(C) Olivine-Pyroxene-Orthoclase-Quartz

(D) Quartz-Olivine-Orthoclase-Pyroxene

Answer: (B)

11. Which one of the following combination of reservoir and cap rock respectively, is suitable for oil accumulation?

(A) Limestone-Sandstone

(B) Dolomite-Evaporite

(C) Sandstone-Conglomerate

(D) Shale-Limestone

Answer: (B)

12. Bituminous coal is found in_________ .

(A) Neyveli

(B) Panandhro

(C) Singareni

(D) Vastan

Answer: (C)

13. Extinction of Trilobites is associated with which one of the following geological time boundaries?

(A) Ordovician-Silurian

(B) Permian-Triassic

(C) Triassic-Jurassic

(D) Cretaceous-Palaeogene

Answer: (B)

14. Transmissivity of an aquifer is the product of______ .

(A) saturated thickness and storitivity

(B) hydraulic conductivity and storitivity

(C) saturated thickness and hydraulic conductivity

(D) saturated thickness and hydraulic head

Answer: (C)

15. Which one of the following is only a correction and not a reduction in the computation of gravity anomalies with respect to a datum?

(A) Free air

(B) Bouguer

(C) Terrain

(D) Isostatic

Answer: (C)

16. The difference in the mobility of ions in the electrolyte and electrons in metallic conductors in the sub-surface due to applied external electric field gives rise to______ .

(A) electrode polarization

(B) membrane polarization

(C) electro-kinetic potential

(D) electro-chemical potential

Answer: (A)

17. A high frequency acoustic wave propagating in a gas saturated sandstone formation exhibits an increase in .

(A) frequency

(B) velocity

(C) wavelength

(D) wave number

Answer: (C)

18. Which one of the following logging methods uses a radioactive source in the sonde?

(A) Natural Gamma ray

(B) Gamma-Gamma

(C) Natural Gamma ray spectroscopy

(D) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)

Answer: (B)

19. Isodynamic contours of the geomagnetic field represent lines of equal___________.

(A) inclination

(B) declination

(C) total field intensity

(D) magnetic potential

Answer: (C)

20. A Very Low Frequency (VLF) electromagnetic survey is conducted for the delineation of 2-D conducting mineralization located at 50 m depth from the surface with different geological formations as the overburden layer. For which of the following geological overburden layers given below, will the VLF method fail to yield response?

(A) Granite

(B) Snow

(C) Dry sand

(D) Saline water saturated sand

Answer: (D)

21. Assuming Airy isostatic compensation, the depth to the Moho from a point located 2 km above the mean sea level is ________ km. (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (40.3 to 40.6)

(The depth of compensation T for the crust at mean sea level is 30 km, the density of crust and upper mantle are 2.67 gm/cc and 3.30 gm/cc, respectively).

22. On Survey of India Toposheet number 

+ the distance between two points is 18 cm. The actual ground distance between these two points is ________km.

Answer: (9 to 9)

23. For a dam site investigation, drilling was carried out up to a depth of 20 m. The total length of recovered core pieces, each over 100 mm, _____add up to 16 m. The Rock Quality. Designation (RQD) of the foundation rock mass is ______%.

Answer: (80 to 80)

24. Given that  of a sample whose  (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (2055.1 to 2055.5)

25. The shear wave velocity in an igneous rock with a density of 2.7 gm/cc and rigidity

modulus of 24.3 GPa is _________ km/s. (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (2.9 to 3.1)

 PART B (SECTION 1): FOR GEOLOGY CANDIDATES ONLY

Q.26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Stream power is the product of specific weight of water with .

(A) hydraulic radius and Manning roughness coefficient

(B) wetted perimeter and slope

(C) slope and discharge

(D) discharge and Manning roughness coefficient

Answer: (C)

27. Match the landforms given in Group I to the causative process in Group II

(A) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

(B) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

(C) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(D) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

Answer: (D)

28. In a thrust fault exhibiting ramp and flat geometry which one of the following pairs defines a Flat?

(A) I

(B) II
(C) III    

(D) IV

Answer: (D)

29. In the given diagram, which one of the combinations CORRECTLY lists structures typically developed at I, II, III, IV?

(A) I-pressure ridge, II-thrust, III-horst, IV-pull-apart basin

(B) I- pull-apart basin, II-thrust, III-horst, IV-pressure ridge

(C) I-pressure ridge, II-pull-apart basin, III-thrust, IV-horst

(D) I- pull-apart basin, II- pressure ridge, III-horst, IV-thrust

Answer: (C)

30. The best developed lineation and foliation traces in a L-S tectonite will be observed on a plane .

(A) parallel to the lineation and foliation

(B) perpendicular to the lineation and foliation

(C) perpendicular to the foliation but parallel to the lineation

(D) perpendicular to the lineation but parallel to the foliation

Answer: (C)

31. Match the type of twinning (Group I) with the mineral (Group II) that best exhibits it

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Answer: (A)

32. On inserting a first order red interference filter in SE-NW direction, the interference figure of quartz shows

(A) blue in NE, SW quadrants and yellow in NW, SE quadrants.

(B) yellow in NE, SW quadrants and blue in NW, SE quadrants.

(C) blue in NE, NW quadrants and yellow in SW, SE quadrants.

(D) yellow in NE, NW quadrants and blue in SW, SE quadrants.

Answer: (A OR B)

33. Choose the CORRECT combination for the following two statements.

Statement I: Four elements that make up about 90% of the bulk Earth are Fe, O, Si and Mg (in decreasing order of wt % abundance).

Statement II: The four most abundant elements in the Earth’s crust (in decreasing order of wt % abundance) are O, Si, Al and Fe.

(A) Both Statements I and II are correct.

(B) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Answer: (A)

34. Choose the CORRECT combination for the following four statements.

Statement I: Anhydrous partial melting of peridotites produces basaltic magma. Statement II: Hydrous melting of peridotites produces andesitic magma.

Statement III: Congruent melting of minerals produces liquids of compositions identical to the minerals.

Statement IV: Incongruent melting of minerals produces liquids of different compositions and new solids.

(A) All the four statements I to IV are correct.

(B) Statements I, II and III are correct but statement IV is incorrect.

(C) Statements I and II are correct but statements III and IV are incorrect.

(D) All the four statements I to IV are incorrect.

Answer: (A)

35. The value of salinity, in terms of wt.% NaCl equivalent, of an aqueous saline bi-phase liquid-vapour fluid inclusions is determined by measurement of ________during microthermometry.

(A) last ice-melting temperature

(B) dissolution temperature of halite

(C) eutectic temperature

(D) homogenization temperature

Answer: (A)

36. Which of the following case (s) represent (s) textural inversion in sandstone? Case I: Rounded grains in clayey matrix.

Case II: Rounded, but poorly sorted grains.

(A) Only case I.

(B) Only case II.

(C) Both cases I and II.

(D) Neither case I nor case II.

Answer: (C)

37. Which of the following set of statements regarding the overall nature of marine shelf succession is CORRECT?

Statement I: Transgressive systems tract deposit is deepening upward

Statement II: Highstand systems tract deposit is deepening upward

Statement III: Falling stage systems tract deposit is deepening upward

Statement IV: Lowstand systems tract deposit is overall shallowing upward

 (A) I and II

(B) II and III

(C) III and IV

(D) I and IV

Answer: (D)

38. Which of the following set of statements is CORRECT?

Statement I: A well sorted sandstone bed showing current ripple, planar laminae, convolute and prod marks.

Statement II: A poorly sorted sandstone bed showing wave ripples, dish structure, pillar e and groove casts.

Statement III: A well sorted sandstone bed showing desiccation cracks, current crescent aminae and convolute laminae.

Statement IV: A poorly sorted sandstone bed showing current ripple, planar laminae, skip marks and load casts.

(A) I, II and III

(B) II,III and IV

(C) I, III and IV

(D) I, II and IV

Answer: (D)

39. In metamafites, which one of the following mineral assemblages is stable under green schist facies conditions?

(A) Albite + Chlorite + Actinolite + Epidote

(B) Andesine + Biotite + Hornblende

(C) Oligoclase + Biotite + Hornblende

(D) Oligoclase + Epidote + Biotite + Hornblende

Answer: (A)

40. Match the type of metamorphism listed in Group I with their products in Group II.

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Answer: (A)

41. Glaucophane schist forms in _______.

(A) subduction zones

(B) pull-apart basins

(C) continental rifts

(D) mid-oceanic ridges

Answer: (A)

42. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about bivalve habitat?

(A) Gryphaea is a burrowing variety.

(B) Pholas is a free lying form.

(C) Lucina is a boring variety.

(D) Mytilus is a bysally attached form.

Answer: (D)

43. Match foraminifera in Group I with its wall structure in Group II

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer: (D)

44. Which one of the following stratigraphic units represents the CORRECT order of younging?

(A) Trichinopally Group – Uttatur Group – Ariyalur Group – Niniyur Group

(B) Kopili Formation – Sylhet Formation – Barail Formation – Boka Bil Formation

(C) Chinji Formation – Nagri Formation – Dhok Pathan Formation – Tatrot Formation

(D) Barakar Formation – Talchir Formation – Barren Measures – Raniganj Formation

Answer: (C)

45. Match the Formation names in Group I with their dominant lithology in Group II

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Answer: (C)

46. Match the economic deposits in Group I with their occurrence in stratigraphic units in Group II

 (A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

47. Match the basin type in Group I with Indian example provided in Group II

 (A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

Answer: (B)

48. Choose the CORRECT set of statements.

Statement I: The hydrocarbon source rock in Cambay basin is of Jurassic age.

Statement II: Borholla field is in Assam basin.

Statement IV: Porosity of a reservoir rock increases with increase in sorting.

(A) I, II and III

(B) II, III and IV

(C) I and IV

(D) I and III only

Answer: (Marks to All)

49. The figure given below represents a scatter plot of Digital Numbers (DN) of Band 4 and Band 5 of a satellite imagery. The fields of Class A and Class B are indicated by the rectangular boxes along with their class means (open circles). Class assignment for the point P by Minimum Distance to Mean (MDM) and Nearest Neighbour (NN) algorithms are_______.

(A) Class A by MDM and class B by NN

(B) Class A by NN and class B by MDM

(C) Class A by both MDM and NN

(D) Class B by both MDM and NN

Answer: (A)

50. Hydrogeological setup of a hypothetical alluvial area (where contact X-Y between two sands is vertical) is given in the schematic section. Hydraulic heads are indicated as h1, h2 and hydraulic conductivities as K1 and K2. The hydraulic head at the contact (X-Y) is _____ m. (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (39.00 to 39.80)

51. The normalized longitudinal profile of a river is given below. The Concavity Index of the river is_______%.

Answer: (64 to 64)

52. For producing 1 kg of gold from an ore having an assay of 2 ppm Au, ______× 103 kg of ore needs to be processed.

Answer: (500 to 500)

53. A cylindrical core of granite with a radius of 25 mm was subjected to point load test. The load was applied parallel to the diameter of the core and the failure load was 20 kN. The uncorrected point load strength index is _________Mpa.

Answer: (8 to 8)

54. A hypothetical garnet peridotite composed of 60% olivine, 25% orthopyroxene, 10% clinopyroxene and 5% garnet undergoes 10% batch melting described by 

where F is degree of melting and D is bulk partition coefficient. The ratio of Ce in the melt to the original rock will be ________. (round off to 2 decimal places).

(The KD values of Ce for olivine, orthopyroxene, clinopyroxene and garnet are 0.001, 0.003, 0.10 and 0.02, respectively)

Answer: (8.90 to 9.10)

55. 87Rb decays to 87Sr with a decay constant λ = 1.42 × 10-11 per year. If at the time of formation, a system contains 8× 104 atoms of 87Rb and 103 atoms of 87Sr, the number of 87Sr atoms in this system at the end of 4 half-lives will be _______×103. Assume close system evolution for parent-daughter pair.

Answer: (75.97 to 76.03)

 PART B (SECTION 2): FOR GEOPHYSICS CANDIDATES ONLY

Q.56 – Q. 85 carry two marks each.

56. The Young’s modulus ‘E’ is related to the Lame’s parameter ‘’ for a Poisson solid as______.

(A) E = 2.5λ

(B) E = 1.5 λ

(C) E = λ

(D) E = 0.5 λ

Answer: (A)

57. Which one of the following seismic phases is the earliest arrival in the P shadow zone?

(A) PKiKP

(B) PPP

(C) Pdiff

(D) PKIKP

Answer: (C)

58. A reversed refraction survey was done over a two layered medium with the interface between them dipping at an angle of 15°. The velocities in the upper and lower medium are V1 and V2 respectively, with V2 > V1. If the critical angle is 45°, then, which one of the following is CORRECT? (Vu and Vd are updip and downdip velocities).

(A) V1 = Vd = Vu

(B) Vu > Vd > V1

(C) V1 > Vd < Vu

(D) Vu < Vd > V1

Answer: (B)

59. In a migrated seismic time section .

(A) both synclines and anticlines appear tighter

(B) both synclines and anticlines appear broader

(C) synclines appear tighter and anticlines appear broader

(D) synclines appear broader and anticlines appear tighter

Answer: (D)

60. Which one of the following is CORRECT for the density porosity (D) and neutron porosity (N) estimated for a finely interbedded organic-rich, shaly sandstone formation relative to those for a shale-free sandstone formation at shallow depths?

(A) ϕN decreases and ϕD increases.

(B) ϕN increases and ϕD decreases.

(C) Both ϕN and ϕD decrease.

(D) Both ϕN and ϕD increase.

Answer: (D)

61. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) logging? (ϕNMR – NMR derived total porosity, ϕD – Density porosity)

(A)The relaxation time (T2) decreases with decrease in pore size.

(B)The ϕNMR is greater than ϕD in a water saturated sandstone formation.

(C)The NMR logs provide lithology independent measurement of total porosity.

(D)The ϕNMR is less than ϕD in a gas saturated shaly sandstone formation.

Answer: (B)

 62. A 3-D seismic tomography experiment was carried out with an inter-station spacing of ‘X’ km. The subsurface velocity perturbations in three dimensional blocks were estimated with block size of ‘2X’km and ‘0.5X’km in case 1 and case 2, respectively. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) The spatial resolution is poor and variance is small for case 1.

(B) The spatial resolution is good and variance is small for case 2.

(C) The spatial resolution is good and variance is large for case 1.

(D) The spatial resolution is poor and variance is large for case 2.

Answer: (A)

63. A shallow focus, Great earthquake with seismic moment of 2.5 × 1040 dyne-cm is recorded at an epicentral distance of 50°. The body wave magnitude (mb), surface wave magnitude (Ms) and moment magnitude (Mw) were estimated. Which one of the following is CORRECT?

(A) mb > Ms > Mw

(B) mb = Ms = Mw

(C) mb < Ms < Mw

(D) mb < Ms > Mw

Answer: (C)

64. A pair of current electrodes C1 (+I) and C2 (-I) is placed 50m apart (shown in the figure below) over a homogeneous structure of resistivity 100 Ωm and 1 Ampere current flows through the subsurface. Which one of the following is CORRECT for the potential (Vp) and horizontal component of electric field (Ex) at a point P located exactly below the midpoint between C1 and C2 at a depth of 10 m?

(A) Vp = 0 and Ex = 0

(B) Vp = 0 and Ex ≠ 0

(C) Vp ≠ 0 and Ex = 0

(D) Vp ≠ 0 and Ex ≠ 0

Answer: (B)

65. A massive sulphide body in the subsurface is partially above the water table. According to the pH variation hypothesis for the origin of Self Potential, which one of the following statements is CORRECT for such a body?

(A) Acidic above and basic below the water table.

(B) Basic above and acidic below the water table.

(C) Acidic above and below the water table.

(D) Basic above and below the water table.

Answer: (A)

66. The phase difference between the input and output signals for a ‘Compensator device’ used in electromagnetic prospecting to nullify the effect of primary field at the receiver coil is ______.

(A) 0°

(B) 45°

(C) 90°

(D) 180°

Answer: (D)

67. In an electromagnetic scale modeling experiment in the lab, the relation between the field and lab geometrical scaling factor (n) with the field and lab resistivity (ρf & ρm) as well as frequencies (ff & fm) will be _______.

(subscripts f and m refer to field and lab systems and n >> 1)

Answer: (A)

68. If G(ω) is the Fourier transform of g(t), then the Fourier transform of g(t + ln 2) will be

 (A) e−2jωG(ω)

(B) e2jωG(ω)

(C) 2ejωG(ω)

(D) 2e−jω(ω)

Answer: (Marks to All)

69. The primary objective of ‘Regularization’ in geophysical inversion is to .

(A) improve the resolution

(B) reduce the non-uniqueness

(C) enhance the condition number

(D) stabilize the inversion process

Answer: (D)

70. P is a point on the Earth’s surface defined by radius (r), colatitude (θ), and longitude (ϕ) in spherical coordinate system. The three components of the magnetic induction ‘B’ at P in Cartesian coordinate system are Bx, By and Bz (x-North, y-East and z-downward). For the relation B = −∇V (V is the magnetic potential), the Bx, By, and Bz can be expressed in spherical coordinate system as________.

Answer: (C)

   .

71. In gravity anomalies, the ‘Indirect effect’ mainly arises from .

(A) the sources outside the area of investigation

(B) improper instrument drift

(C) effect of mass lying between the geoid and ellipsoid

(D) short-wavelength uncompensated masses in the subsurface

Answer: (C)

72. For defining the axial geocentric magnetic dipole of the Earth’s magnetic field using the spherical harmonic expression for magnetic potential, the three non-zero Gauss coefficients for n = 1 are _________.

Answer: (B)

73.  The flexural rigidity (D) of the oceanic lithosphere (assuming no secondary thermal perturbations)_________.

(A) increases with both age and plate cooling

(B) decreases with age and increases with plate cooling

(C) increases with age and decreases with plate thickness

(D) decreases with both age and plate thickness

Answer: (A)

74. If ΔJ and Δσ are the uniform magnetization and density contrasts respectively, of a point source, the relation between the vertical components of the gravity(gz) and magnetic (Tz) anomalies can be expressed (neglecting long-wavelength component) as_______.

(G is Gravitational constant)

Answer: (C)

75. Which one of the following statements about the gravity anomalies on land is CORRECT?

(A) Free-air and Bouguer anomalies are always positively correlated with elevation

(B) Isostatic anomalies are not useful to understand the crustal heterogeneities

(C) Vertical derivatives are used to enhance the gravity effects of deep-seated bodies

(D) X-horizontal gradient (∂g/∂x) map enhances / sharpens anomalies of bodies trending N-S (X-East, Y-North, Z-downward).

Answer: (D)

76. An aeromagnetic survey is conducted over an area with outcropping magnetic sources. The aircraft is flying at a height of 250 m with a speed of 200 km/hour. In order to fully define the magnetic anomalies along the flight path, the largest sampling rate of measurement by a Proton Precession Magnetometer will be _______ seconds. (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (2 to 2)

77. In an abandoned mine-site, three hollow spherical cavities are located below the surface centered at depths of 50, 100 and 150 metres. Assuming that residual gravity is low due to each one of these cavities are small (~ 0.05 mGal), do not interfere and can be detected by the gravimeter, the most ideal (largest) grid spacing for carrying out the gravity surveys in order to correctly delineate these cavities is ______ metres. (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (38 to 39)

78. A split-spread reflection survey is carried out along a profile in the direction of the dipping interface. The difference in arrival times of the reflected waves from the interface at two geophones with an offset distance of 1000 m from the shot-point on both sides is 20 msec. If the velocity of the layer above the dipping interface is 3000 m/s, then the dip of the bed is ______ degrees. (round off to 1 decimal place).

(Assumption 2d >> X, where ‘d’ is depth below the shot-point normal to the interface and X is the source-geophone spacing)

Answer: (1.6 to 1.8)

79. The bulk resistivity of a carbonate formation having 10% porosity which is 75% saturated with hydrocarbons is 500 Ωm. The bulk resistivity of the formation when the porosity is doubled and 100% saturated with water is ohm-metres. (round off to 1 decimal place).

(Assume the tortuosity, cementation factor and saturation exponent to be 1, 2 and 2, respectively).

Answer: (7.7 to 7.9)

80. In a seismogram of a shallow focus (h = 5 km) earthquake, the difference between the arrival times of the S and P phases is 1.34 s. Assuming the average P wave velocity of the crust to be 6.0 km/s and the Poisson’s ratio to be 0.27, the epicentral distance is _______ kilometres. (round off to 1 decimal place)

Answer: (8.8 to 9.2)

81. A Two-electrode array is placed over a vertical contact (2-D) as shown in the given figure (strike of contact is perpendicular to the plane of paper). If 1 Amp current flows through the subsurface, then the potential at the potential electrode P1 will bbe ______ milliVolts. (round off to the nearest integer).

(Consider structures with resistivity ρ1 and ρ2 to be laterally extending to infinity on both sides of the contact and also in the downward direction, C2 and P2 are grounded at infinity) ( Use π = 3.14)

Answer: (880 to 890)

82. In an electrical resistivity imaging survey, Axial Dipole-dipole array is placed over an inhomogeneous structure. The centers of current and potential dipoles are separated by a distance of 100 m. The length of each dipole is 10 m. If 5 Amp current flows through the subsurface and 50 mV potential difference is measured across the potential dipole then apparent resistivity will be ______ ohm-metres. (round off to the nearest integer) (Use π = 3.14)

Answer: (305 to 315)

83. In an electromagnetic land survey, the resultant field (primary and secondary) at any point P makes an angle of 60º from the vertical. A 30 mV signal is observed in the receiver coil placed in a horizontal position at point P. The magnitude of the signal in the receiver coil when the plane of the receiver coil is perpendicular to the resultant field is_________ milliVolts.

Answer: (60 to 60)

84. A vibroseis source sweeps acoustic signal in the frequency range 10 Hz – 100 Hz. The maximum sampling interval to correctly recover the recorded signal will be________ milliseconds.

Answer: (5 to 5)

85. The abundance of 234U in secular equilibrium with its parent 238U will be ______ ×10−3 %.

(Given Half-life (T1/2) of 238U and 234U are 4.467×109 y and 2.44×105 y, respectively, and abundance of 238U is 99.28%)(round off to 2 decimal places)

Answer: (5.40 to 5.44)

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