IDBI Bank

IDBI Bank Executive Exam-2018 Held on 28-4-2018

Reasoning

Directions- (Q. 1 to 6) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

    Ten people A, B, C, D, E, V, W, X, Y and Z appeared for the same exam in one of the  years, viz., 1998, 2003, 2006, 2011 and 2018. In each year these people appeared in either March or September, with only one person having an exam in a month of the respective year.

     C and the exam in September 2003. Only one person had an exam between C and Y. As many people had exams after Y as before V. Only three people had exams between X and D. X had his exam in one of the year before D. X did not have his exam in March. More than three people had exams between D and W. W and Y did not have exams in the same year. Only three people had exams between W and B. A had his exam in one of the year before E but in one of the year after Z.

1. How many people had exams between C and E?

(A)  Six

(B)  None

(C)  Four

(D)  Five

(E)  Three

Show Answer

2. When did A have his exam?

(A)  March

(B)  Sept

(C)  Immediately before D

(D)  Immediately by after W

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

3. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(A)  E had the exam before X

(B)  C and A had exams in the same year

(C)  Y had the exam in 2006

(D)  Z had the exam before all others

(E)  C had the exam in one of t he months between A and X

Show Answer

4. How many people had exams after B?

(A)  Six

(B)  Two

(C)  Four

(D)  One

(E)  Three

Show Answer

5. Which of the following combinations is correct based on the given information?

(A)  V-September

(B)  X-2003

(C)  W-2006

(D)  E-March

(E)  D-2018

Show Answer

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(A)  GAEF

(B)  TSWX

(C)  WQUV

(D)  PJNO

(E)  RLPQ

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 7 to 10) Read the given information to answer the given questions.

            P and B are the only children of G, B is married to K, the only daughter of H and V. S is the only son of B. J is the grandfather of S. J has only one son. P is unmarried.

7. How is S related to G?

(A)  Grandson

(B)  Son

(C)  Nephew

(D)  Brother

(E)  Uncle

Show Answer

8. How is P related to J?

(A)  Brother

(B)  Son

(C)  Grand Daughter

(D)  Niece

(E)  Nephew

Show Answer

9. If X is the brother-in-law of B, how is X related to H?

(A)  Father-in-law

(B)  Son

(C)  Cousin

(D)  Nephew

(E)  Uncle

Show Answer

10. The positions of how many alphabets will remain the same if each of the alphabets in the word INDULGES is rearranged in alphabetical order from left to right?

(A)  Two

(B)  None

(C)  Four

(D)  One

(E)  Three

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 11 to 13) Study the information carefully and answer the questions:

    L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular area at equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some people face the centre while some face outside (i.e., in a direction opposite to the centre).

• O faces the centre. S sits third to the right of O. Only one person sits between S and L (either from left or right).

• P sits second to the left of L.

• R sits second to the right of N. N is not an immediate neighbour of S.

• Q sits to the immediate left of M. M and L face the same direction (i.e., M faces centre then L also faces the centre and vice-versa.)

• Immediate neighbours of Q face opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbour faces the centre then the other faces outside and vice-versa.)

• Immediate neighbours of O face opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbor faces the centre then the other face outside and vice-versa.)

• Immediate neighbours of S faces the same direction as S. (i.e., If S faces outside then both the immediate neighbours of S also faces outside and vice-versa.)

11. What is M’s position with respect to L?

(A)  Second to the right

(B)  Third to the left

(C)  Fourth to the right

(D)  Second to the left

(E)  Third to the right

Show Answer

12. Who amongst the following are immediate neighbours of O?

(A)  R, M

(B)  M, Q

(C)  P, M

(D)  L, Q

(E)  L, N

Show Answer

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, based on the given seating arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(A)  P

(B)  M

(C)  S

(D)  R

(E)  Q

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 14 to 16) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong argument and weak argument in so far as they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly relate to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question and answered as-

(A) Argument I weakens the statement while argument II strengthen the statement

(B) Argument I strengthen the statement while statement II weakens the statement

(C) Argument I and argument II both are strong statements

(D) Argument I and argument II both are weak statements

(E) Both arguments are neutral

14. Statement : Should be public sector undertakings be allowed to adopt hire-and-fire policy.

Arguments:

(I) Yes, as this will help the public sector undertakings to get rid of non-performing employees and will also help to reward the performing employees.

(II) No, the management may not be able to implement the policy in an unbiased manner and the employees will suffer due to the high-handedness of the management.

Show Answer

15. Statement : Should one close relative of a retiring government employee be given a job in government in India?

Arguments :

(I) Yes, where else will the relative get a job like this ?

(II) No, it will close doors of government service to competent and needy youth.

Show Answer

16. Statement : Should be term of the elected members of parliament be reduced to two years in India?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, even otherwise the election are generally held every alternate year in India.

(II) No, every round of Parliament election needs huge amount of money and it’s a national waste.

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 17 to 20) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

In a certain code

   ‘here is tunnel she stop’ is written as ‘isa kin ha ti la’,

   ‘he goes through tunnel’ is written as ‘nit ti pi sit’,

   ‘she goes here often’ is written as sit la tin isa’ and

    ‘tunnel is far through here’ is written as ‘ha nit la ti fa’

17. Which of the following is the code for ‘tunnel’?

(A)  nit

(B)  ti

(C)  la

(D)  na

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

18. What does code ‘sit’ stand for?

(A)  goes

(B)  through

(C)  he

(D)  cannot be determined

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

19. ‘he is often’ can be coded as-

(A)  sa pi la

(B)  fa tin ha

(C)  pi ha tin

(D)  kin tip sit

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

20. Which of the following is the code for ‘stop’?

(A)  sit la fa kin

(B)  la fa pi tin

(C)  ha kin sit nit

(D)  Cannot be determined

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 21 to 25) Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

  Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit on a line and all of them face towards north direction but not necessarily in same order. All of them lives at different floors of a eight storeyed building viz. 1^st, 2^nd, 3^rd, 4^th, 5^th, 6^th, 7^th and 8^th but not necessarily in same order.

  The one who lives on 3^rd floor sits second to right of one who lives on 2^nd floor. C lives on 5^th floor. A sits fourth to left of the one who lives on 8^th floor sit on the extreme end of the line. B sits third to let of F. There is only one person who sits between the G, who lives on 1^st floor and the person who lives on 8^th floor. There are two persons sit between G and the one who lives on 7^th floor. H sits immediate left of one who lives on 7^th floor. There are two persons sit between H and F, who lives on 6^th floor.

21. B lives on which of the following floor?

(A)  6th

(B)  2nd

(C)  7th

(D)  5th

(E)  3rd

Show Answer

22. How many persons sit between G and B?

(A)  Two

(B)  One

(C)  Three

(D)  Four

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

23. D lives on which of the following floor?

(A)  2nd

(B)  3rd

(C)  4th

(D)  8th

(E)  7th

Show Answer

24. Who among the following sits immediate right of the person on who lives on 7^th floor?

(A)  No one

(B)  F

(C)  D

(D)  B

(E)  A

Show Answer

25. Who among following sits third to right of A?

(A)  H 

(B)  C

(C)  F

(D)  G

(E)  E

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 26 to 29) Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

(A) If data in statement I is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question

(B) Data in statement II is sufficient to answer the question while statement I is not sufficient to answer the question

(C) Both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

(D) Both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question

(E) Data in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

26. How is ‘also written in a code language’?

(I) ‘he also show data’ is written as ‘sx fa mn ca’ and ‘now many person also’ is written as ‘zb ct s ya’ in that code language.

(II) ‘she visit the also’ is written as ‘sx lm nc ty’ and ‘she visit the always’ is written as ‘lm kc ty nc’ in that code language.

Show Answer

27. Point Q is in which direction with respect to Point P?

(I) Point P is in east of Point L. Point L is in north of Point M. Point M is in west of Point N. Point N is in south of Point O Point O is in west of Point Q.

(II) Point L is in west of Point P and north of Point M. Point M is in east of Point N which is south of Point O. Point is in east of Point O and north of Point L.

Show Answer

28. Six persons viz., A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting on a circular table for lunch, who among them sits immediate left of F (If all the persons are facing towards the centre?

(I) A sits third to right of F. one person sits between A and C. E sits third to left of C.

(II) Only one person sits between E and D. F sits second to right of D. A sits third to left of F.

Show Answer

29. Sharvan’s birthday is in which of the following month in a year?

(I) Sharvan’s mother correctly remembers that Sharvans’ birthday will come after September but not in the month which has 30 days.

(II) Sharvan’s father correctly remember that Sharvan’s birthday will not come in first and last month of the year.

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 30 to 34) A company decided to appoint Content Manager (CM) to give a new impetus to its business. Following are the criteria laid down by the company.

The candidate must have-

(i) A Graduate degree from a recognized university with at least 65% marks.

(ii) Qualified in at least 5 written examinations of Bank PO.

(iii) Obtained at least 60% marks in the written test (total marks = 200) conducting by the company.

(iv) Obtained at least 40% marks out of 75 marks in the interview for the above post conducted by the company

(v) a working knowledge of computers.

(vi) Completed 30 year of age as on 14^th January, 2018

who fulfills all these criteria except

(1) (i) above, but is a graduate, is to be referred to the Director of the company.

(2) (ii) above, is to be referred to the Assistant Vice President of the company.

   Based on the above criteria and the information given in each of the following cases, you have to take decision. You are not assume anything. In case you find that the given data is insufficient to make a decision, given ‘data inadequate’ as your answer. The cases are being given to you as on 14-01-2018.

30. Surbhi Gaurav, was born on 12^th January, 1987 has done her Graduation with 67% marks. It was the fifth interview for him when she appeared before the interview board constituted for Union Bank of India. She has a working knowledge of computers. She got 121 marks and 38 marks in the written examination and interview respectively, conducted by the company.

(A)  If the candidate is to be selected as CM

(B)  If the candidate is not to be selected as CM

(C)  If the case is to be referred to the Director of the company

(D)  If the case is to be referred to the Assistant Vice President of the company

(E)  If the data are inadequate to take any decision

Show Answer

31. Vineet Pehal has a working knowledge of computers. He got 125 marks and 32 marks in the written examination and interview examination and interview respectively, conducted by the company. When he appeared before the interview board for PO for Bank of India, it was his sixth interview for Bank PO. He performed a good dance on 10^th January, 2018 on the eve of the birthday of his sister, who is 8 year younger than him.

(A)  If the candidate is to be selected as CM

(B)  If the candidate is not be selected as CM

(C)  If the case is to be referred to the Director of the company

(D)  If the case is to be referred to the Assistant Vice President of the company

(E)  If the data are inadequate to take any decision

Show Answer

32. Malik Anand a talented working computer engineer, is 31 year of age. He has already qualified six exams for Bank Pos. He is a Graduate with 65% marks. He got 60% marks in the interview and 40% marks in the written test conducted by the company for CM.

(A)  If the candidate is to be selected as CM

(B)  If the candidate is not to be selected as CM

(C)  If the case is to be referred to the Director of the company

(D)  If the case is to be referred to the Assistant Vice President of the Company

(E)  If the data are inadequate to take any decision

Show Answer

33. Shobha Vijay has a working knowledge of computers. She is a Graduate with 65% marks. She has qualified five written examinations of Bank PO. She has obtained 40% marks and 60% marks in interview and written examinations respectively, conducted by the company for CM. For the last three years her age has been more than 18.

(A)  If the candidate is to be selected as CM

(B)  If the candidate is not to be selected as CM

(C)  If the case is to be referred to the Director of the company

(D)  If the case is to be referred to the Assistant Vice President of the company

(E)  If the data are inadequate to take any decision

Show Answer

34. Alankrita Mangal is Graduate with 65% marks. She has obtained 30 marks in the interview and 123 marks in the written examination conducted by the company, for CM. She is 32 years old and possesses working knowledge of computers. She has given more than five interview of Bank PO exam.

(A)  If the candidate is to be selected as CM

(B)  If the candidate is not to be selected as CM

(C)  If the case is to be referred to the Director of the Company

(D)  If the case is to be referred to the Assistant Vice President of the company

(E)  If the data is inadequate to take any decision 

Show Answer

35. How many such pairs of letter are there in the world SYSTEMATIC each of which has as many letters between them in the world as in the English alphabet?

(A)  None

(B)  One

(C)  Two

(D)  Three

(E)  More than three

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 36 to 40) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

36. Statements : Some villages are towns. Some towns are huts. All huts are rivers. Some rivers are tents.

Conclusions :

(I) Some tents are towns.

(II) Some rivers are towns.

(III) Some huts are villages.

(A)  I, II, III follows

(B)  Only II follows

(C)  Only I and II follows

(D)  Only II and III follows

(E)  Only I and II follows

Show Answer

37. Statements : All hotels are buses. Some buses are cars. All cars are trams. Some trams are clouds.

Conclusions :

(I) Some trams are buses.

(II) Some trams are hotels.

(III) Some clouds are cars.

(A)  I, II, III follows

(B)  Only I follows

(C)  Only II follows

(D)  Only I and III follows

(E)  Only I and II follows

Show Answer

38. Statements : All flowers are books. All books are carpets. Some carpets are keys. Some keys are locks.

Conclusions :

(I) Some keys are books.

(II) Some keys are flowers.

(III) Some locks are books.

(A)  I, II, III follows

(B)  Only I follows

(C)  Only II follows

(D)  Only I and III follow

(E)  Neither of the three follows

Show Answer

39. Statements : All boxes are cups. All chairs are cups. All cups are mirrors. All tables are mirrors.

Conclusions:

(I) Some tables are chairs.

(II) Some mirrors are boxes.

(III) Some mirrors are chairs.

(A)  I, II, III follows

(B)  Only I follows

(C)  Only I and III follows

(D)  Only II and III follows

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

40. Statements : Some pins are needles. All needles are ropes. Some ropes are buckets. All buckets are trees.

Conclusions :

(I) Some buckets are pins.

(II) Some ropes are pins.

(III) No bucket is pin.

(A)  Either I or III and conclusion II follow

(B)  All I, II, III follow

(C)  None of these

(D)  Only I follows

(E)  Only III follows

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 41 to 45) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

R 4 3% M @ K E F 5 A # J N 1 8 U © D B P 6 1 W 7 δ Q * Z

41. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be fourth to the left of ninth from the left end?

(A)  K

(B)  E

(C)  M

(D)  3

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

42. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be seventh to the right of eighteenth from the right end?

(A)  J

(B)  #

(C)  U

(D)  N

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

43. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?

(A)  None

(B)  One

(C)  Two

(D)  Three

(E)  More than three

Show Answer

44. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(A)  J A 1

(B)  3 R %

(C)  8 © 1

(D)  # N A

(E)  δ W Q

Show Answer

45. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a symbol?

(A)  None

(B)  One

(C)  Two

(D)  Three

(E)  More than three

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 46 to 50) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

  A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : cup for hot 34 69 72 tea 27

Step I : 27 cup for hot 34 69 72 tea

Step II : 27 tea cup for hot 34 69 72

Step III : 27 tea 34 cup for hot 69 72

Step IV : 27 tea 34 hot cup for 69 72

Step V : 27 tea 34 hot 69 cup for 72

Step VI : 27 tea 34 hot 69 for cup 72

Step VII : 27 tea 34 hot 69 for 72 cup

And step VII is the last step of the above arrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following question, the appropriate step for the given input.

46. Input : Kind 12 96 heart water 59 42 yes.

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(A)  Three

(B)  Four

(C)  Five

(D)  Six

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

47. Input : jungle 43 mode 25 basket 39 target 19

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

(A)  VII

(B)  VIIII

(C)  IX

(D)  VI

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

48. Step III of an input is : 12 world 31 ask cart ball 87 75

Which of the following will definitely be the input?

(A)  31 ask cart ball 87 75 world 12

(B)  31 ask cart ball 87 75 12  world

(C)  31 ask 12 world cart ball 87 75

(D)  Cannot be determined

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

49. Step II of an input is : 24 years 56 43 last part 64 over

How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(A)  Five

(B)  Six

(C)  Seven

(D)  Four

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

50. Step III of an input : 32 station 46 81 73 march go for is-

(A)  32 station 46 march 73 go for 81

(B)  32 station 46 march 73 81 go for

(C)  32 station 46 march 73 go 81 for

(D)  There will be no such step

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

IDBI Executive Examination-2016 Held on 8-1-2017

Reasoning and Analytical Ability

 

Directions (Q. 1 to 5) – Study the given information carefully to answer the given question-

       In a certain code language :

       ‘updated contacts early morning’ is coded as ‘tp bt cr uk’

       ‘contacts added after creation’ is codes as ‘rj uk mb ra’

       ‘early creation require expertise’ is coded as ‘mb vs de tp’

        ‘require updated information now’ is coded as ‘de at gw bt’

        (All the codes are two letter codes only)

1. What is the code for ‘contacts’ in the given code language?

(A)  ra

(B)  uk

(C)  rj

(D)  tp

(E)  Other than those given as options

Show Answer

2. Which of the following may represent the code for ‘morning require freshness’ in the given code language?

(A)  uk zq bt

(B)  zi uk de

(C)  mb cr zq

(D)  de mb zq

(E)  zq de cr

Show Answer

3. If ‘after early symptoms’ is coded as ‘by rj tp’ in the given code language, then ‘by ra vs’ will represent the code for ………..

(A)  symptoms creation added

(B)  added symptoms creation

(C)  require added creation

(D)  expertise added now

(E)  now require symptoms

Show Answer

4. What is the code for ‘information’ in the given code language?

(A)  bt

(B)  either ‘ra’ or ‘bt’

(C)  uk

(D)  either ‘at’ or ‘gw’

(E)  de

Show Answer

5. Which of the following represents the code for ‘updated creation’ in the given code language?

(A)  bt vs

(B)  mb bt

(C)  rj tp

(D)  vs rj

(E)  tp nb

Show Answer

6. In a certain code language, CHARITY is coded as BIDRXSH and FACTORY is coded as DBGTXQN. How will HISTORY be coded in the same code language?

(A)  UKJTWPM

(B)  TJNQTIX

(C)  TJITZSP

(D)  TJITXQN

(E)  RHGTXQN

Show Answer

7. The given question consists of two statements numbered I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes of a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statement and decide which of the following answer choices depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statement I : Many plants and animals species have become extinct and ecological balance is disturbed over a passage of time.

Statement II : Deforestation is being done at a larger scale for expansion of town and cities and growth of infrastructure.

(A)  Both statements I and II are independent causes.

(B)  Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

(C)  Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

(D)  Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

(E)  Both statements I and II are effects of independent casues.

Show Answer

Directions (Q. 8 to 12) – Study the given information carefully to answer the given question-

     Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C, D and E are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row-2 P, Q, R, S and T are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the seated in a row faces another member of the other row. Each one of them also likes different perfumes Davidoff, Cheque, Brut, Gucci, Hollister, Titan, Police, Valentino, Yardley and Ferrari, but not necessarily in the same order.

      S sits at one of the extreme ends of the row. A faces an immediate neighbor of S. Only one person sits between A and the one who likes Brut. T sits third to the right of P. P faces the one who likes Davidoff. C is an immediate neighbor of A. C faces Q. The one who sits second to the right of Q likes Yardley. Only two people sit between the one who likes Yardley and the one who likes Valentino. B sits to the immediate right of E. D faces one of the immediate neighbours of the one who likes Gucci. The one who likes Police is an immediate neighbour of T. The one who likes Ferrari sits second to the right of the one who likes Hollister. P does not like Cheque.

8. As per the given arrangement, which of the given statements is true ?

(A)  T is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Brut.

(B)  None of the given statements is true.

(C)  Only one person sits between A and the one who faces T.

(D)  B faces the one who likes Titan.

(E)  A sits second to the right of E.

Show Answer

9. As per the given arrangement, A is related to D in the same way as T is related to Q. Following the same pattern, to which is S related?

(A)  The one who likes Cheque

(B)  P

(C)  R

(D)  The one who faces A

(E)  The one who likes Yardley

Show Answer

10. Who amongst the following faces E?

(A)  Q

(B)  R

(C)  S

(D)  T

(E)  Other than those given as options

Show Answer

11. Who sits exactly between Q and the one who faces D?

(A)  R

(B)  S

(C)  T

(D)  The one who likes Police

(E)  The one who likes Titan

Show Answer

12. Who is second to the left of C?

(A)  The one who faces Q

(B)  B

(C)  A

(D)  The one who likes Ferrari

(E)  The one who likes Hollister

Show Answer

13. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the seventh, the eighth and the tenth letter of the word RAIN FOREST (when counted from left to right) using each letter only once, which of the following will be the second letter of the word so formed from the right end ? If no such word can be formed give X as your answer. If more than such word can be formed give Z as your answer.

(A)  Z

(B)  X

(C)  A

(D)  T

(E)  R

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 14 to 18) In this question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusion. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer and answered as-

(A) Only conclusion I follows

(B) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

(C) Only conclusion II follows

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(E) Either conclusion I or II follows

14. Statement : J < O ≤ O I > N = E ≥ D

Conclusion : I. J < E

II. I > D

Show Answer

15. Statement : O ≤ K > N = L > A;

K ≤ C < R; L < Q

Conclusion : I. N > O

II. A > Q

Show Answer

16. Statement : C > U ≤ W = Z; U > O

Conclusion : I. C > O

II. Z > O

Show Answer

17. Statement : O ≤ K > N = L > A;

Conclusion : I. O < C

II. O = C

Show Answer

18. Statement : W < Y ≤ I < B ≤ F

Conclusion : I. W = F

II. W < F

Show Answer

Directions (Q. 19 to 23) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question-

      Seven movies A, B, C, D, E, F an G are released on seven different months of a year viz., January, February, April, July, September, November and December but not necessarily in the same order. Each movie also represented a different country namely-Spain, India, China, Malaysia, Germany, Peru and Nepal, but not necessarily in the same order.

     (Note : No other movie was released any other month of the given year.)

      D was released in one of the months before April. Only three movie were released between D and the one which represented China. B was released immediately after F. Both B and F were released in a month which has 30 days. Only two movies were released between B the one which represented Peru. Only one movie was released between A and the one which represented Germany. A was released on one of the months before the one which represented Germany. B did not represent Germany. Only three movies were released between the one which represented Spain and the one which represented Germany. As many movies were released between the one which represented Spain and D as between the one which represented G and Malaysia. Only two movies were released between G and the one which represented India. C did not represent India.

19. Which of the following combinations as definitely true as per the given arrangement?

(A)  B-September

(B)  A-Peru

(C)  E-Spain

(D)  July-Nepal

(E)  January-C

Show Answer

20. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(A)  None of the given options is true

(B)  Only two movies were released between E and F

(C)  Movie D represented China

(D)  Movie G was released in January

(E)  Three movies were released after the one which represented Germany

Show Answer

21. Which of the following movies represented Nepal?

(A)  A

(B)  G

(C)  F

(D)  C

(E)  D

Show Answer

22. How many movies were released after the movie E?

(A)  Two

(B)  One

(C)  Four

(D)  Three

(E)  None

Show Answer

23. Malaysia is related to F and India is related to C in a certain way based on the given arrangement. To which of the following is Peru related, following the same pattern ?

(A)  The movie which represented Germany

(B)  The one which released in December

(C)  B

(D)  D

(E)  G

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 24 to 28) The given question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below I t. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark the appropriate option and answered as-

(A) Only statement I is sufficient while statement II is not sufficient.

(B) Only statement II is sufficient while statement I is not sufficient

(C) Both statement I and II are necessary to answer the question.

(D) Either statement I alone is sufficient or statement II alone is sufficient.

(E) Neither statement I nor II are together sufficient to answer the question

24. Is T the son of K?

Statement I : K is the father of M. M is the sister of T. D is the son of T. F is the mother of D.

Statement II : U is only son of L. L is the father of F. F is married to T Z is the daughter of T. Y is the grandfather of Z.

Show Answer

25. Point D is in which direction with respect to Point C?

Statement I : Point C is 14 m to the north of point B. Point B is 19 m to the west of point A. point A is 23 m to the south of point E. Point E is exactly between point Q and D, such that points Q, E and D form a straight line of 36 m.

Statement II : Point D is 10 m to the east of point H. Point Q is 28 m to the west of point H. Point H is 9 m to the east of point E. Point E is 15 m to the north of point T. Point T is 19 m to the east of point C.

Show Answer

26. Six different classes viz., A, B, C, D, E and F were conducted on six different days of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Saturday but not necessarily in the same order. One which day was class D conducted?

Statement I : Only three classes were conducted between E and A. E was conducted after A. C was conducted immediately before E. D was conducted immediate before F but not on Tuesday.

Statement II : Class B was conducted on one of the days before Wednesday. Only three classes were conducted between B and C. Only one class was conducted between D and C.

Show Answer

27. Five people-P, Q, R, S and T are standing in a straight line facing the north but not necessarily in the same order. Who stands to the immediate right of P?

Statement I : Q stands at an extreme end of the line. Only two people stand between Q and S. R stands at one of the positions to the right of S. P is an immediate neighbour of R.

Statement II : S stands second from the left end of the line. Q stands at extreme right end of the line. R is an immediate neighbour of P.

Show Answer

28. Five Friends – A, B, C, D and E live on five different floors of a building (but not necessarily in the same order.) The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered five. On which floor does D live?

Statement I : A lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor numbered one. Only one person lives between A and B. As many people live above B as below C. D lives on even numbered floor.

Statement II : C lives on odd numbered floor but not on floor numbered three. Only one person lives between C and A. B lives on an odd numbered floor above A D lives on one of the floors below A.

Show Answer

29. The questions consists of a statement followed b y two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action/s logically follows from the given statement.

Statement : The country P is amongst the list of top ten most dirty countries of the word with unhygienic living conditions.

Course of Action I : The government of country P should start special programs to create awareness amongst people about keeping their surroundings clean.

Course of Action II : People who take part in cleanliness drives should be given recognition to motivate them and others.

(A)  Either I or II follows

(B)  Only I follows

(C)  Both I and II follows

(D)  Only II follows

(E)  Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer

30. If the word WORKPLACE first all the vowels are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then all the constants are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, and then each letter is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series, which of the following is the fifth letter from the left?

(A)  Q

(B)  M

(C)  L

(D)  F

(E)  P

Show Answer

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not the group?

(A)  KJIL

(B)  MLKN

(C)  DBCE

(D)  YXWZ

(E)  TSRU

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 32 to 36) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

   Eight persons, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, with equal distance between each other. Each one of them bought a different viz., laptop, phone, camera, refrigerator, printer, speakers, T. V., AC.

• E sits second to the left of the one who bought a T.V. Only two persons sit between E and H.

• The one who bought a phone sits to the immediate right of G. G is neither an immediate neighbour of H nor E. G do not buy a TV. Neither A nor the one who bought a phone is an immediate neighbour of E.

• Only three people sit between A and the one who bought a camera. A did not buy a phone.

• The one who bought a printer sits third to the right of the one who bought a laptop. Only three people sit between the one who bought a laptop and an AC.

• C is an immediate neighbour of the one who bought an AC.

• B sits second to the left of F. B did not buy a refrigerator.

32. Which of the following products did C buy?

(A)  Phone

(B)  Laptop

(C)  Printer

(D)  Speakers

(E)  Camera

Show Answer

33. Which of the following, statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(A)  Both A and B are immediate neighbours of H

(B)  A bought a laptop

(C)  The one who bought a refrigerator is an immediate neighbour of B

(D)  None of the given statements is true

(E)  C sits to immediate right of G

Show Answer

34. Who among the following bought a refrigerator?

(A)  F

(B)  D

(C)  H

(D)  A

(E)  E

Show Answer

35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?

(A)  A-AC

(B)  E-Laptop

(C)  D-Refrigerator

(D)  H-Printer

(E)  C-Camera

Show Answer

36. Who sits exactly between E and the one who bought a TV, when counted from the right of E?

(A)  D

(B)  G

(C)  F

(D)  The one who bought an AC

(E)  The one who bought speakers

Show Answer

37. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

These says most of the diseases are waterborne. If we consume only bottled mineral water, it can  bring down most of our health issues’-Dr. Patnaik.

Which of the following statements weakens the statement of Dr. Patnaik?

(1) These days even bottled water is mishandled and reportedly contains a good amount of contaminants.

(2) Around 92% of the people consuming regular/tap water ends up suffering from food poisoning.

(3) Bottled mineral water has lesser impurities than regular/tap water.

(4) Using unclear cutlery and eating with dirty hands can cause diseases despite having healthy food and water.

(A)  Both 1 and 4

(B)  Both 2 and 3

(C)  Only 1

(D)  Only 1, 3 and 4

(E)  All those given as options

Show Answer

38. Read the following information and answer the question given. Flyzest Airlines was operating from Terminal D in City Nlora ever since it started its operations six years ago. However, recently the airlines was shifted to terminal G.

Which of the following statements can be reason for shifting Flyzest Airlines from Terminal D to Terminal G?

(A)  Terminal G was recently constructed in City Nlora to accommodate the new airlines which are supposed to  begin operations next month.

(B)  Many employees of Flyzest Airlines live in the nearby areas of Terminal G of City Nlora.

(C)  Two airlines were reportedly making continuous losses of Terminal D of City Nlora as the passengers preferred Flyzest Airlines over them.

(D)  Airport authorities have renovated some areas of Terminal D of city Nlora in the last month.

(E)  Flyzest Airlines found it very hard to manage its operations from Terminal D in the past one year due to increased number of passengers.

Show Answer

39. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BECOMING each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(A)  One

(B)  More than three

(C)  Three

(D)  None

(E)  Two

Show Answer

40. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows. Although number of literates in Village A is the maximum this year, the highest increase in literacy level was in Village B, with 10% rise this year thus bringing the number of literates to 4200.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given fact?

(A)  Per cent increase in literacy level in village A was definitely more than 10%.

(B)  If 4200 individuals are made literate in village B, it will have more number of literates than village A.

(C)  The number of literates in village A this year is definitely more than 42000.

(D)  4200 individuals in village B are still illiterate.

(E)  Total number of literates in village A and village B together is definitely 88,200?

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 41 to 45) In this question three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows and answered as-

(A) Only conclusion I follows

(B) Only conclusion II follows

(C) Both conclusion I and II follows

(D) Neither I nor II follows

(E) Either conclusion I or II follows

41. Statement : All users are benefits. No benefit is a profit. Some profits are gains.

Conclusion :

I. All gains being benefits is a possibility.

II. No profit is a user.

Show Answer

42. Statement : Some interviews are talks. All talks are meetings. All conferences are meetings.

Conclusion :

I. Atleast some meetings are interviews.

II. All conferences being interviews is a possibility.

Show Answer

43. Statement : No card is tag. All tags are labels. All labels are marks.

Conclusion :

I. Some marks are cards.

II. No mark is a card.

Show Answer

44. Statement : Some interviews are talks. All talks are meetings. All conferences are meetings.

Conclusions :

I. No conference is a talk.

II. Some talks are conferences.

Show Answer

45. Statement : All users are benefits. No benefit is a profit. Some profits are gains.

Conclusion :

I. All gains can never be users.

II. All benefits being gain is a possibility

Show Answer

Directions- (Q. 46 to 50) Study the given information and answer the given question.

    When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

   (All the numbers are two-digit numbers)

Input : react 21 east 92 11 basket 68 untidy heart 85

Step I : basket react 21 east 92 68 untidy heart 85 11

Step II : east basket react 92 68 untidy heart 85 11 21

Step III : heart east basket react 92 untidy 85 11 21 68

Step IV : react heart east basket 92 untidy 11 21 68 85

Step V : untidy react heart east basket 11 21 68 85 92

    Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of arrangement is obtained.

    As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input : weight 56 fasten 71 beast 97 49 mould 12 stronger

46. Which step number is the following output?

mould fasten beast weight 71 97 stronger 12 49 56.

(A)  III

(B)  IV

(C)  II

(D)  I

(E)  There is no such step

Show Answer

47. What is the position of ‘mould’ from the left of ‘12’ in step IV?

(A)  Seventh

(B)  Third

(C)  Fourth

(D)  Fifth

(E)  Second

Show Answer

48. Which of the following represent the third and the seventh elements from the left of the first step?

(A)  71, mould

(B)  56, 49

(C)  56, 97

(D)  fasten, 97

(E)  Fasten, 49

Show Answer

49. How many elements are there between ‘stronger’ and ‘56’ in the last step?

(A)  Two

(B)  Four

(C)  Three

(D)  Five

(E)  More than five

Show Answer

50. Which of the following is fifth element to the right of ‘fasten’ in step II?

(A)  97

(B)  71

(C)  mould

(D)  stronger

(E)  56

Show Answer

IDBI Executives Officers Examination Held on 11-7-2015

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions – (Q. 1 to 10) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Give answer-

(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C) The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(D) The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the questions.

(E) The data in both statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

1. What is the area of the circle ?

I. Perimeter of the circle is 88 cms.

II. Diameter of the circle is 28 cms.

Show Answer

2. What is the rate of interest ?

I. Simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 25,000 in two years is less than the compound interest for the same period by Rs. 250.

II. Simple interest accrued in 10 years is equal to the principal.

Show Answer

3. What is the number of trees planted in the field in rows and columns ?

I. Number of columns is more than the number of rows by 4.

II. Number of trees in each column is an even number.

Show Answer

4. What is the speed of the current ?

I. A man can swim a distance of 9 kms. in  downstream.

II. While coming back upstream it takes him 3 hrs to cover the same distance.

Show Answer

5. What is the minimum passing percentage in a rest ?

I. Raman scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than Raman.

II. Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks.

Show Answer

6. What is the value of x² + y + z = ?

I. 4x + 3y + 5z = 60 and 2x = y, 2y = z

II. 3x + 3y + 2z = 34 and 2x + 5y + 6z = 72.

Show Answer

7. Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap?

I. Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and average weight of Raju and Pratap is 72 kg. Also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg.

II. Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. All of them have different weight.

Show Answer

8. What will be the total marks of Subodh in physics ?

I. The average marks of Subodh in History, Geography and Chemistry are 75.

II. His average marks in History, Geography and Physics are 78.

Show Answer

9. What is the population of the city A ?

I. The ratio of the population of males and females in city A is 27 : 23 and the difference between their population is 100000.

II. The population of city A is 80% of that of city B. The difference of population of city A and city B is 312500.

Show Answer

10. How many students did participate in elocution ?

I. The students who participate in dancing were 150% more than th at who participated in elocution.

II. 150 students participated in dancing.

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 11 to 15) Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

11. Expenditure of company B in 2009 and 2010 are Rs 12 lakhs and Rs 14.5 lakhs respectively. What was the total income of company B in 2009 and 2010 together (in lakh rupees) ?

(A)  39.75

(B)  37.95

(C)  38.75

(D)  38.55

(E)  None of the above

Show Answer

12. Ratio of expenditures of company A and B in 2012 was 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their incomes in 2012 ?

(A)  21 : 26

(B)  13 : 14

(C)  14 : 13

(D)  26 : 21

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

13. Total expenditure of company A in all the years together was 82.5 lakhs. What was the total income of the company A in all the years together ?

(A)  1.23 crores

(B)  98.75 crores

(C)  99.85 crores

(D)  Cannot be determined

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

14. If the expenditure of company A and B in 2013 were equal and the total incomes of t he two companies was Rs 5.7 lakhs. What was the total expenditure of the two companies in 2013 ?

(A)  4 lakhs

(B)  2 lakhs

(C)  4.2 lakhs

(D)  Cannot be determined

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

15. If the income of company B in 2010 and 2011 were in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively. What was the respective ratio of expenditures of that company in these two years ?

(A)  20 : 29

(B)  9 : 10

(C)  29 : 45

(D)  10 : 29

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 16 to 20) Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the given questions.

16. Number of girls enrolled in dancing activity are what per cent of total number of students enrolled in the school ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(A)  12.35

(B)  14.12

(C)  11.67

(D)  10.08

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

17. How many boys are enrolled in Singing and Craft together ?

(A)  505

(B)  610

(C)  485

(D)  420

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

18. What is the respective ratio of number of girls enrolled in swimming to the number of boys enrolled in swimming ?

(A)  47 : 49

(B)  23 : 29

(C)  29 : 23

(D)  49 : 47

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

19. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Swimming and Drawing together ?

(A)  480

(B)  525

(C)  505

(D)  495

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

20. What is the appropriate percentage of boys in the school ?

(A)  34

(B)  56

(C)  28

(D)  50

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 21 to 30) In each question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark an appropriate answer-

21. I. 6x² + 5x + 1 = 0

II. 15y² + 8y + 1 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

22. I. x² + 5x + 6 = 0

II. 4y² + 24y + 35 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

23. I. 2x² + 5x + 3 = 0

II. y² + 9y + 14 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

24. I. 88x² – 19x + 1 = 0

II. 132y² – 23y + 1 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

25. I. 6x² – 7x + 2 = 0

II. 20y² – 31y + 12 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

26. I. 6x² + 23x + 20 = 0

II. 6y² + 31y + 35 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

27. I. x² = 81

II. y² – 18y + 81 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

28. I. 4x² + 20x + 21 = 0

II. 2y² + 17y + 35 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

29. I. x² – 14x + 48 = 0

II. y² + 6 = 5y

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

30. I. 38x² – 3x – 11 = 0

II. 28y² + 32y + 9 = 0

(A)  x < y

(B)  x > y

(C)  x ≥ y

(D)  x ≤ y

(E)  relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer

31. Two men P and Q star a journey from same place at a speed of 3 km/hr and  If they move in the same direction then what is the distance between them after 4 hours ?

(A)  3 km

(B) 

(C)  2 km

(D) 

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 32 to 35) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions ?

32. 14 × 627 ÷ √1089 = (?)³ + 141

(A)  5√5

(B)  (125)³

(C)  25

(D)  5

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

33. 

(A)  2

(B)  8

(C)  512

(D)  324

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

34. (√7 + 11)² = (?)^1/3 + 2√847 + 122

(A)  36 + 44√7

(B)  6

(C)  216

(D)  36

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

35. 

(A)  6320

(B)  6400

(C)  6350

(D)  6430

(E)  7800

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 36 to 40) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series ?

36. 28 39  63  102   158  ?

(A)  232

(B)  242

(C)  233

(D)  244

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

37. 7  16   141   190   919   ?

(A)  1029

(B)  1017

(C)  1020

(D)  1030

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

38. 12  17   32    57   92   ?

(A)  198

(B)  195

(C)  137

(D)  205

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

39. 19 25    45   87   159   ?

(A)  254

(B)  279

(C)  284

(D)  269

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

40. 83 124    206    370   698   ?

(A)  1344

(B)  1324

(C)  1364

(D)  1334

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 41 to 47) Study the table carefully and answer the given question-

41. What is the difference between the number of academic books published by publishing house M and P ?

(A)  450

(B)  640

(C)  540

(D)  504

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

42. How many books are given to each distributor by publisher Q if each publisher gets equal number of books ?

(A)  1806

(B)  1068

(C)  1608

(D)  1308

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

43. What is the average number of non-academic books published by publishers R and S ?

(A)  18750

(B)  18850

(C)  19950

(D)  18950

(E)  19990

Show Answer

44. If the total number of books published by publishers P, Q and R is increased by 30% and the total number of books published by remaining publishers be decreased by 20%, what will be the new average of books published by all the publishers ?

(A)  33418

(B)  33318

(C)  32518

(D)  33618

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

45. What is the total number of books distributed by publishers O and Q ?

(A)  26702

(B)  27324

(C)  55026

(D)  54026

(E)  None of these

Show Answer

46. Meena Kumari goes to a shop and buys a saree, costing Rs 5,225, including sales tax of 12%. The shopkeeper gives her a discount, so that the price is decreased by an amount equivalent to sales tax. The price is decreased by (nearest value)-

(A)  Rs 615

(B)  Rs 650

(C)  Rs 560

(D)  Rs 580

(E)  Rs 680

Show Answer

47. Phanse invests an amount of Rs 24,200 at the rate of 4 p.c.p.a. for 6 years to obtain a simple interest later he invests the principal amount as well as the amount obtained as simple interest for another 4 years at the same rate of interest. What amount of simple interest will be obtained at the end of the last 4 years ?

(A)  Rs 4,800

(B)  Rs 4,850.32

(C)  Rs 4,801.28

(D)  Rs 4,700

(E)  Rs 4,870.32

Show Answer

Directions – (Q. 48 and 49) These questions are based on the following information :

    There are three different cable channels namely ahead, luck and bang. In a survey, it was found that 41% of viewers, respond to bang, 35% to luck and 60% to ahead. 27% of viewers respond to exactly two channels and 3% to none.

48. What percentage of the viewers responded to all three ?

(A)  40

(B)  6

(C)  9

(D)  12

(E)  11

Show Answer

49. Assuming 16% respond to ahead and bang and 14% respond to bang and luck. What is the percentage of viewers who watch only luck ?

(A)  10

(B)  8

(C)  12

(D)  18

(E)  14

Show Answer

50. A milkman mixes 20 L of water with 80 L of milk. After selling one-fourth of this mixture, he adds water to replenish the quantity that he has sold. What is the current proportion of water to milk ?

(A)  2 : 3

(B)  1 : 2

(C)  1 : 3

(D)  2 : 1

(E)  3 : 4

Show Answer

IDBI Executive Examination – 2016-17

Held On 8-1-2017

General Awareness

 

1. The ‘Durabnd Cup’ is associated with the game of –

(A) Baseball

(B) Football

(C) Basketball

(D) Tennis

(E) Badminton

Show Answer

2. ‘Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)’ which manufacturers variety of heavy equipment, such as earth moving, transport and mining equipment is an Indian Public Sector Undertaking headquartered in-

(A) Dhanbad, Jharkhand

(B) Chennai, Tamil Nadu

(C) Hyderabad, Telangana

(D) Pimpi, Maharashtra

(E) Bengalurur, Karnataka

Show Answer

3. The ‘National Museum of Natural History’ (NMNH) a museum focusing on nature, which in April 2016 was destroyed in a massive fire with its entire collection, is located in-

(A) Bengaluru

(B) Ahmedabad

(C) New Delhi

(D) Hyderabad

(E) Mumbai

Show Answer

4. The ‘GDR’ represents ownership of an underlying number of shares of a foreign company and is used to invest in companies from developing markets by investors in developed markets. The alphabet ‘G’ in the abbreviation ‘GDR’ stands for-

(A) Global

(B) Group

(C) Guaranteed

(D) General

(E) Genuine

Show Answer

5. The official currency of the ‘Kingdom of Denmark’ is known as-

(A) Dansih Krona

(B) Danish Korana

(C) Danish Kuna

(D) Danish Krone

(E) Danish Kroon

Show Answer

6. Coach Bishweshwar Nandi is associated with the sport of –

(A) Football

(B) Badminton

(C) Cricket

(D) Hockey

(E) Gymnastics

Show Answer

7. ‘Harika Dronavalli’ is associated with the game of-

(A) Chess

(B) Tennis

(C) Cricket

(D) Boxing

(E) Athletics

Show Answer

8. ‘Frank-Walter Steinmeier’ has been recently (February 2017) elected as the new President of

(A) France

(B) Switzerland

(C) Scotland

(D) Germany

(E) Belgium

Show Answer

9. The ‘UN International Day of Non-Violence’ is observed every year on-

(A) 24th October

(B) 22nd October

(C) 2nd October

(D) 16th October

(E) 25th October

Show Answer

10. The Central Committee on Economic Affairs has recently (February 2017) approved a Rs 5723.72 crore 900 MW hydro power project to be set up in Sankhuwasabha district of-

(A) Bhutan

(B) Nepal

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) Myanmar

(E) Bangladesh

Show Answer

11. The Government of India had earlier demonetized high-value currency notes in-

(A) January 1976

(B) November 1976

(C) August 1977

(D) January 1978

(E) January 1977

Show Answer

12. According to the recent report by ‘New World Wealth Report’ the richest city in India is-

(A) Mumbai

(B) Bengaluru

(C) Delhi

(D) Kolkata

(E) Hyderabad

Show Answer

13. The ‘Keibul Lamjao National Park’ is a national park situated in the Indian State of-

(A) Meghalaya

(B) Sikkim

(C) Manipur

(D) Nagaland

(E) Mizoram

Show Answer

14. A currency note which is wholly or partly washed, shrunk, altered or indecipherable is known as a-

(A) Forged banknote

(B) Soiled banknote

(C) Obliterated banknote

(D) Mutilated banknote

(E) Imperfect banknote

Show Answer

15. The ‘Pushkar Lake’ is situated in the Indian State of-

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Haryana

(D) Punjab

(E) Gujarat

Show Answer

16. The recently announced ‘Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana (VPBY)’ 2017 offers 8 per cent per annum guaranteed rate of return for a period of –

(A) 13 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 12 years

(E) 10 years

Show Answer

17. The Reserve Bank of India has introduced a facility of exchange of specified bank notes (SBNs) to give an opportunity to Indian citizens and non-resident Indian (NRI) citizens who were abroad during November 8, 2016 to December 30, 2016. The facility is ‘NOT’ available to Indian citizens resident in-

(A) Singapore

(B) Bangladesh

(C) China

(D) Mauritius

(E) Sri Lanka

Show Answer

18. The ‘Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport’ is situated in the Indian City of-

(A) Indore, Madhya Pradesh

(B) Raipur, Chhattisgarh

(C) Vadodara, Gujarat

(D) Ranchi, Jharkhand

(E) Nagpur, Maharashtra

Show Answer

19. Which of the following has established in 1928 as the first printing press for bank notes in India ?

(A) Indian Security Press (ISP), Nasik

(B) Currency Notes Press (CNP), Nasik

(C) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Notes Mudran Private Limited (BRBNMPL), Mysore

(D) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Notes Mudran Private Limited (BRBNMPL), Salboni

(E) Bank Notes Press (BNP), Dewas

Show Answer

20. The Indian Life Insurance Company ‘Aviva India’ is a joint venture between Aviva pic, a British insurance company and the Indian conglomerate –

(A) Tata Group

(B) L and T Group

(C) Dabur Group

(D) TVS Group

(E) HDFC Group

Show Answer

21. The ‘Salal Hydroelectric Power Station’ is situated on river Chenab in the Indian State of-

(A) Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Uttarakhand

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Himachal Pradesh

(E) Punjab

Show Answer

22. According to the “Specified Bank Notes (Cessation of liabilities) Ordinance 2016” the specified bank notes have ceased to be the liabilities of the Reserve Bank of India with effect from-

(A) March 21, 2016

(B) November 8, 2016

(C) December 30, 2016

(D) November 9, 2016

(E) December 31, 2016

Show Answer

23. The ‘Atal Pension Yojana (APS) is a scheme focused on workers in the-

(A) Financial Sector

(B) Industrial Sector

(C) Mutual Fund Industry

(D) Corporate Sector

(E) Unorganized Sector

Show Answer

24. Indian multinational steel making company ‘Tata Steel Limited’ is headquartered in-

(A) Mumbai, Maharashtra

(B) Kolkata, West Bengal

(C) Bhubaneshwar, Odisha

(D) Ranchi, Jharkhand

(E) Jamshedpur, Jharkhand

Show Answer

25. The ‘National Bal Swachhta Mission’ is a part of the nationwide sanitation initiative of Swachh Bharat Mission’. It has been initiated by-

(A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(B) Ministry of Urban Development

(C) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(D) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

(E) Ministry of Women and Child Development

Show Answer

26. Which of the following books is authored by bestselling author Chetan Bhagat ?

(A) A Suitable Bay

(B) A Unsuitable Bay

(C) Two Lines

(D) The Girl of My Dreams

(E) One Indian Girl

Show Answer

27. The number of times a unit money exchanges hands during a unit period of time of known as-

(A) Velocity of circulation of money

(B) Face of circulation of money

(C) Transactions velocity of money

(D) Income velocity of money

(E) Momentum of circulation of

Show Answer

28. ‘Eugene Carmen’ who recently died at the age of 82 years was a former-

(A) US Spacecraft Commander of Apollo 17

(B) American World War-II Veteran

(C) American Advocate for Human Rights

(D) American Football Player and Politician

(E) New Zealand long Distance Runner

Show Answer

29. A third-party administrator (TPA) is an organization associated with the claim settlement process in the –

(A) Exchange markets

(B) Insurance industry

(C) Commodity market

(D) Mutual fund industry

(E) Other than those given as options

Show Answer

30. According to the Reserve Bank of India’s guidelines to banks, customers can change up to 20 pieces of soiled currency note over the counter, free of charge upto a maximum value of-

(A) Rs 28,000

(B) Rs 5,000

(C) Rs 25,000

(D) Rs 15,000

(E) Rs 18,000

Show Answer

31. India and Bangladesh have recently (February 2017) signed a MoU for the sustainable development of ‘Sylhet City’ with financial aid from India. The metropolitan city is an ancient and historically vibrant city and had been a part of the former Indian province of-

(A) West Bengal

(B) Manipur

(C) Tripura

(D) Assam

(E) Meghalaya

Show Answer

32. The ‘Currency Chests’ are store-houses where bank notes and rupee coins are clocked on behalf of-

(A) State Bank of India

(B) Public Sector Banks

(C) Commercial Banks

(D) Scheduled Banks

(E) Reserve Bank of India

Show Answer

33. According to the findings of the Socio Economic and Caste Census 2011 (SECC) the percentage of rural households in which the main earning family member makes less than Rs 5,000 per month (or Rs 60,000 annually) was found to be around-

(A) 65 per cent

(B) 75 per cent

(C) Other than those given as options

(D) 60 per cent

(E) 85 per cent

Show Answer

34. The UNESCO World Heritage Site ‘The Mahabodhi Vihar’ is situated in the Indian State of-

(A) Odisha

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Bihar

(E) Chhattisgarh

Show Answer

35. Shri Sunder Lal Patwa has recently (January 2017) been posthumously awarded with the Padma Vibhushan for his contribution in the field of-

(A) Public Affairs

(B) Spiritualism

(C) Art music

(D) Science

(E) Engineering

Show Answer

36. The Reserve Bank of India has adopted ‘star’ series numbering system for replacement of the-

(A) Defectively printed banknotes

(B) Altered and shrunk banknotes

(C) Washed and mutilated banknotes

(D) Dirty and soiled banknotes

(E) Fake and forged banknotes

Show Answer

37. The Section 2 of ‘The Coinage Act, 2011’ clarifies that the term ‘Coin’ does ‘not’ include-

(A) Postal order or ‘p-money’ isued by any bank or post office

(B) Postal order or ‘p-money’ issued by any bank or post office

(C) Commemorative coin issued by Reserve Bank of India

(D) Coins made of any other material stamped by Government

(E) Coins made of any metal

Show Answer

38. Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi recently (February 2017) unveiled a mammoth 112 feet Lord Shiva bust of ‘Adiyogi’ Lord Shiva in the city of-

(A) Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh

(B) None of those given as options

(C) Chennai, Tamil Nadu

(D) Calicut (Kozhikode), Kerala

(E) Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu

Show Answer

39. The United Nations Organization has declared the year 2017 as the International year for –

(A) Soils

(B) Family Farming

(C) Sustainable Tourism for Development

(D) Pulses

(E) Light-based Technologies

Show Answer

40. According to recent report of ‘Stockholm International Peace Research Institute’ (SIPRI), during the period 2012 to 2016 the largest importer of weapons in the world is-

(A) China

(B) UAE

(C) Pakistan

(D) Saudi Arabia

(E) India

Show Answer

41. The Indian Coins are minted at the four Indian Government Mints, which of the following is ‘not’ one of them ?

(A) India Government Mint, Nasik (Maharashtra)

(B) India Government Mint, Hyderabad (Telangana)

(C) India Government Mint, Noida (Uttar Pradesh)

(D) India Government Mint, Kolkata (West Bengal)

(E) India Government Mint, Mumbai (Maharashtra)

Show Answer

42. The ‘Brabourne Cricket Stadium’ is situated in the Indian State of –

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Telangana

(D) Karnataka

(E) West Bengal

Show Answer

43. The Reserve Bank of India has been vested with the sole rights to issue banknotes in India by virtue of Section 22 of-

(A) The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

(B) The Banking Regulation Act, 1949

(C) The Coinage Act, 2011

(D) The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

(E) The Banking Companies Act, 1949

Show Answer

44. India recently successfully launched 104 satellites through Indian Space Research Organization’s Polar Satellite launch vehicle-

(A) ‘PSLV-37’

(B) ‘PSLV-C 34’

(C) ‘PSLV-C 33’

(D) ‘PSLV-C 35’

(E) ‘PSLV-C 36’

Show Answer

45. The public sector non-life insurance company ‘The Oriental Insurance Company Limited’s is headquartered in-

(A) Kolkata

(B) Bengaluru

(C) Mumbai

(D) Chennai

(E) New Delhi

Show Answer

46. ‘Damascus’ is the capital and one of the most populous cities of-

(A) Republic of Turkey

(B) Republic of Yemen

(C) Islamic Republic of Syria

(D) System Arab Republic

(E) Sultanate of Oman

Show Answer

47. In terms of the current provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 there cannot be banknotes in denominations higher than-

(A) Rs 8,000

(B) Rs 10,000

(C) Rs 7,500

(D) Rs 2,000

(E) Rs 5,000

Show Answer

48. According to a recent report of the global telecom body ‘GSM Association’ and Boston Consulting Group by 2020 the size of the ‘Digital Payments Industry’ in India is expected to be-

(A) USD 650 billion

(B) USD 750 billion

(C) USD 500 billion

(D) USD 850 billion

(E) USD 900 billion

Show Answer

49. ‘The Hitavada’ is the largest selling broadsheet English daily newspaper of Central India. It was founded in 1911 by Social Reformer-

(A) Baba Amte

(B) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(D) Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(E) Nanaji Deshmukh

Show Answer

50. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has recently (January 2017) approved reducing the government’s stake in the five PSU general insurance corporation from 100% to-

(A) 49%

(B) 75%

(C) 85%

(D) 65%

(E) 51%

Show Answer