Madhy Pradesh Professional Examination Board Jail Prahari/Van Rakshak Recruitment Exam Held July 28, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key
Madhy Pradesh Professional Examination Board Jail Prahari/Van Rakshak
Recruitment Exam Held July 28, 2017
Part A General English
1. Out of the given four sentences, choose the one which is grammatically correct.
(a) I have drop the vase and it broke into pieces.
(b) I dropped the vase and it broke into pieces.
(c) I dropped the vase and it have broke into pieces.
(d) I drops the vase and it has broke into pieces.
Answer: (b)
2. Out of the given four sentences, choose the one which is grammatically correct.
(a) He has been living in New York for 1993.
(b) He has been living in New York since 1993.
(c) He have been living in New York since 1993.
(d) He have been living in New York from 1993.
Answer: (b)
3. Out of the given four words only one is spelt correctly. Find the word that is correctly spelt.
(a) Siege
(b) Saperate
(c) Sugestable
(d) Siimiliar
Answer: (a)
4. Out of the given four words only one is not spelt correctly. Find the word that is not correctly spelt.
(a) Scissors
(b) Sandwich
(c) Survive
(d) Success
Answer: (b)
5. Fill in the blank with the correct article.
………discovery of anaesthesia transformed medical surgery.
(a) An
(b) The
(c) No article required
(d) A
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) In each of these questions fill in the blank with the correct preposition.
6. A Major-General is ………… a Brigadier in the British army.
(a) above
(b) from
(c) off
(d) into
Answer: (a)
7. My mother bought many loaves ………. bread from the bakery.
(a) from
(b) on
(c) by
(d) of
Answer: (d)
8. John Herschel was ……….. urbane, kindly and generous man.
(a) No article required
(b) the
(c) an
(d) a
Answer: (c)
9. Out of the given four options, choose the correct conjunction to fill in the blank given in the sentence.
The doctors are doing all that they can, ……… she is still not breathing properly.
(a) but
(b) and
(c) or
(d) else
Answer: (a)
10. Out of the given four options choose one to join the two sentences given below to make a meaningful sentence. Rini is slim. She wants to go on a diet.
(a) Because
(b) Yet
(c) Therefor
(d) Since
Answer: (b)
11. Out of the given option choose the most appropriate one is fill in the blank Computers …………. perform millions of calculations every second.
(a) can
(b) ought to have
(c) could have
(d) dare
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 12-13) Find the word which can be replaced for the given sentence.
12. A building for lodging of soldiers.
(a) Hive
(b) Barracks
(c) Aquarium
(d) Auditorium
Answer: (b)
13. A life history of a person written by somebody else other than the person himself.
(a) Autobiography
(b) Biography
(c) Fable
(d) Metaphor
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 14-15) In the given sentence there might be an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no error, mark your answer as (d) i.e., ‘No error’.
14. None of us are (a)/going to the marriage party.(b)/aren’t we?(c) No error (d)
Answer: (c)
15. The Pacific Ocean (a) / is deeper than (b)/ Arctic Ocean. (c) No error (d)
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-17) A sentence with an underlined idiomatic expression is given. What is the meaning of the idiomatic expression ‘in the sentence given below?
16. It goes without saying that you will improve your skills with practice.
(a) It should be considered impossible
(b) It should be generally understood or accepted
(c) None of the above
(d) It is beyond common understanding
Answer: (b)
17. For most people a visit to the dentist is the result of a choice between the devil and the deep blue sea, if you go you suffer, and if you don’t go you suffer.
(a) having only two very pleasant choices
(b) having nightmares
(c) None of the above
(d) having only two very unpleasant choices
Answer: (d)
18. A sentence with an underlined word is given below. Find the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
The company deceived customers by selling old computers as new ones.
(a) cheated
(b) justified
(c) pleased
(d) benefitted
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-20) A sentence with an underlined word is given below. Find the word which is opposite to the highlighted word from the given options.
19. They enlarged the house by adding an East wing.
(a) decorated
(b) strengthened
(c) increased
(d) reduced
Answer: (d)
20. One by one the old buildings in the city have been demolished and replaced with modern tower blocks.
(a) ruined
(b) constructed
(c) destructed
(d) razed
Answer: (b)
Part B General Science
21. Glucose is oxidized to ethyl alcohol in
(a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) fermentation
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
22. The process by which chemical change takes place in a substance when electric current is passed through it is called
(a) Electroplating
(b) Electrodes
(c) Electrolysis
(d) Thermionic conduction
Answer: (c)
23. Lichen represents
(a) symbiotic association of an alga and a fungus
(b) parasitic association of an alga and a fungus
(c) mycorhizial association
(d) commensalism
Answer: (a)
24. If a given force is applied on a smaller area of contact the pressure exerted by it
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) does not change
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
25. The phenomenon of the change in the path of the light as it passes from one optical medium to another is called
(a) Refraction of light
(b) Dispersion of light
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Reflection of the light
Answer: (a)
26. Site of protein synthesis is the
(a) ribosomes
(b) nucleosomes
(c) lysosomes
(d) dictyosoms
Answer: (a)
27. The loudness of a sound depends upon its
(a) frequency
(b) pitch
(c) amplitude
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
28. Which combination of chromosome is capable to determine the sex of a child?
(a) YX
(b) YY
(c) XY
(d) XX
Answer: (c)
29. Lubrication of moving surfaces
(a) increases friction
(b) removes friction
(c) has no effect on friction
(d) reduces friction
Answer: (d)
30. High boiling point of water is due to
(a) its high specific heat
(b) high dielectric constant
(c) hydrogen bonding
(d) low dissociation constant
Answer: (c)
31. CO2 and O2 balance in atmosphere is due to
(a) leaf anatomy
(b) photosynthesis
(c) photorespiration
(d) respiration
Answer: (b)
32. The number of unpaired electrons in carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer: (c)
33. ‘Controller of cell’ is a
(a) nucleus
(b) genes
(c) vacuoles
(d) mitochondria
Answer: (a)
34. A monochromatic beam of light passes from a denser medium into a rarer medium. As a result
(a) its wavelength decreases
(b) its frequency decreases
(c) its velocity increases
(d) its velocity decreases
Answer: (c)
35. Which of the following is not a natural polymer?
(a) Starch
(b) Glyptal
(c) Glycogen
(d) Cellulose
Answer: (b)
36. Which of the following is the most essential for an electric circuit to work?
(a) A switch board
(b) A switch
(c) None of these
(d) An electric current
Answer: (d)
37. The heat energy emitted by Sun reaches the Earth through
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
38. In which of the following processes light is absorbed?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Sublimation
(c) Rusting
(d) Burning
Answer: (a)
39. The gas released in Bhopal tragedy was
(a) CoCl2
(b) MIC
(c) phosgene
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
40. Glauber’s salt is
(a) Na2S2O3 ∙ 4H2O
(b) Na2S2O3 ∙ 5H2O
(c) Na2CO3 ∙ 3H2O
(d) Na2SO4 ∙ 10H2O
Answer: (d)
Part C General Knowledge
41. As per the Census 2011, the population of Madhya Pradesh is almost
(a) 7.7 crore
(b) 7.3 crore
(c) 7.5 crore
(d) 7.1 crore
Answer: (b)
42. On which of the following dates did Jayant Mallayya present the annual State budget of the financial year 2017-18 in the Legislative Assembly?
(a) February 28
(b) March 3
(c) March 1
(d) March 2
Answer: (c)
43. Ahmed Sher Khan is associated with the game of
(a) Hockey
(b) Shooting
(c) Archery
(d) Football
Answer: (a)
44. Parsili is situated in the district of
(a) Sidhi
(b) Indore
(c) Bhopal
(d) Mandsaur
Answer: (a)
45. In which year was the Narmada Valley Development Authority established?
(a) 1988
(b) 1987
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
Answer: (c)
46. In which year was the Madhya Pradesh State Forest Development Corporation established?
(a) 1973
(b) 1975
(c) 1979
(d) 1977
Answer: (b)
47. In which village is the Fair of Nagaji held?
(a) Bhamavad
(b) Ghoghara
(c) Sanwara
(d) Porsa
Answer: (d)
48. Where was the second capital of Chandragupta II?
(a) Vidisha
(b) Ujjayini
(c) Sanchi
(d) Maheshwar
Answer: (b)
49. Who has been recently appointed as the Chief Secretary of Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Neeru Chadha
(b) Sahithi Pingali
(c) Basant Pratap Singh
(d) Raja Girinder Chari
Answer: (c)
50. Which of the following Mahal/Temple is located in Gwalior?
(a) Jahangir Mahal
(b) Sahastrabahu Temple
(c) Rani Roopmati Mahal
(d) Madan Mohan Palace
Answer: (b)
51. Which of the following rivers originate from the same plateau?
(a) Narmada and Sone
(b) Narmada and Betwa
(c) Shipra and Narmada
(d) Shipra and Sone
Answer: (a)
52. Which of the following cities was earlier called Narmadapuram?
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Hoshangabad
(c) Bhopal
(d) Gwalior
Answer: (b)
53. Which of the following stadiums is not in Indore?
(a) Nehru stadium
(b) Holkar stadium
(c) Abhay Khel Prashal
(d) Thakur Ranmat Singh stadium
Answer: (d)
54. Which of the following States doesn’t border Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: (a)
55. Which department does the Madhya Pradesh Water and Land Management Institute come under?
(a) Home Department
(b) Panchayat and Rural Development Department
(c) Department of Mineral Resources
(d) Public Works Department
Answer: (b)
56. Who was the first Speaker of Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly?
(a) Kashi Prasad Pandey
(b) Ishwardas Rohani
(c) Pt. Kunjilal Dubey
(d) Dr. Sitasharan Sharma
Answer: (c)
57. Who was the first Governor of Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Kailash Joshi
(b) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(c) Sarala Greval
(d) Ravi Shankar Shukla
Answer: (b)
58. Who was the first Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court?
(a) Rohan Sachdeva
(b) Dayashankar Naag
(c) M. Hidayatullah
(d) HS Kamath
Answer: (c)
59. Which poet is known for the poem ‘Rasik Priya’?
(a) Padmakar
(b) Bhushan
(c) Ghananand
(d) Keshavdas
Answer: (d)
60. The Kaytha sites related with Chalcolithic culture is in the district of
(a) Indore
(b) Bhopal
(c) Ujjain
(d) Guna
Answer: (c)
Part D General Hindi
Answer: (b)
Answer: (c)
Answer: (b)
Answer: (a)
Answer: (d)
Answer: (a)
Answer: (b)
Answer: (a)
Answer: (b)
Answer: (d)
Answer: (a)
Answer: (d)
Answer: (a)
Answer: (c)
Answer: (a)
Answer: (d)
Answer: (d)
Answer: (c)
Answer: (c)
Answer: (c)
Part E General Maths
81. Find the wrong term in the given number series.
3, 5, 11, 29, 87, 245
(a) 87
(b) 11
(c) 29
(d) 245
Answer: (a)
82. Find the least number which must be subtracted from 18265 to make it a perfect square.
(a) 45
(b) 38
(c) 40
(d) 30
Answer: (c)
83. A cistern is normally filled in 8 hours, but takes another 2 hours longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. If the cistern is full, the leak will empty it in
(a) 20 h
(b) 16 h
(c) 40 h
(d) 25 h
Answer: (c)
84. The successive discount of 15%, 20% and 25% on an article is equivalent to the single discount of
(a) 60%
(b) 47%
(c) 40%
(d) 49%
Answer: (d)
85. The roots of the quadratic equation y2 + 3y + 2 = 0 are
(a) −2, −1
(b) 2, 1
(c) −4, 1
(d) 4, 1
Answer: (a)
86. If the side of an equilateral triangle is 28 cm, find its perimeter.
(a) 81 cm
(b) 82 cm
(c) 84 cm
(d) 83 cm
Answer: (c)
87. An isosceles right-angle triangle has an area 800 cm2. What is the length of its hypotenuse?
(a) 65 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 40√2 cm
(d) 30√2 cm
Answer: (c)
88. A, B and C undertake to do a work for Rs 707. A and B together do 5/7 of the work and rest is done by C alone. How much wages should C get?
(a) Rs 200
(b) Rs 102
(c) Rs 202
(d) Rs 150
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 89-90) What should come in place of the question marks in the following question/question series?
89. 9932 + 882 + 314 − ? = 7171 + 630
(a) 3227
(b) 3327
(c) 3723
(d) 3273
Answer: (b)
90. 350, 372, 396, ? 450
(a) 442
(b) 418
(c) 422
(d) 426
Answer: (c)
91. If a number is greater than 5 but less than 9 greater than 7 but less than 11, the number is
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5
Answer: (a)
92. The simple interest on an amount at the rate of 5% per annum for 2 years and 3 years are respectively Rs 100 and Rs 150. Find principal amount.
(a) Rs 5000
(b) Rs 8000
(c) Rs 1200
(d) Rs 1000
Answer: (d)
93. If the mean of five observations x, x + 2,x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8 is 11, then the mean of the last three observations is
(a) 13
(b) 17
(c) 15
(d) 11
Answer: (a)
94. The lengths of two trains are 154 m and 246 m and they are running towards each other. The speeds of these trains are 52 km per hour and 28 km per hour, respectively. How much time will they take to cross each other?
(a) 14 sec
(b) 12 sec
(c) 18 sec
(d) 10 sec
Answer: (c)
95. Divide 94 into two parts in such a way that fifth part of the first and eight part of the second are in the ratio of 3: 4 is
(a) 20, 44
(b) 30, 64
(c) 35, 69
(d) 34, 60
Answer: (b)
96. Two trains running in the same direction at the speed of 40 km per hour and 22 km per hour completely pass one another in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, the length of the second train is
(a) 125 m
(b) Can’t be determined
(c) 175 m
(d) 150 m
Answer: (c)
97. The population of a town is 8000. If the males increase by 6% and the females by 10%, the population will be 8600. The number of females in the town are
(a) 2500
(b) 4000
(c) 3000
(d) 3500
Answer: (c)
98. At present, the sum of the ages of A, B and C is 150 years, whereas 10 years ago, the ratio of their age was 5 : 4 : 3 respectively. Find the ratio of their ages 10 years hence.
Madhya Pradesh Professional Examination Board Paryavekshak (Mahila)/Aanganwadi Karyakarta Recuritment Examination Held on March 25, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key
Madhya Pradesh Professional Examination Board
Paryavekshak (Mahila)/Aanganwadi Karyakarta Recuritment Examination Held On March 25, 2017
Part I Nutrition and Health
1. To promote acquisition of bone mass and density fracture risks due to osteoporosis at later ages can be reduce with adequate
(a) iron and vitamin-C
(b) iron and folic acid
(c) calcium and exercise
(d) sodium an chloride
Answer: (c)
2. More than the minerals it is the vitamin especially those of water soluble B group which show a greater loss during
(a) cooking
(b) eating
(c) touching
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
3. Public distribution system in an Indian
(a) food management system
(b) food production system
(c) food security system
(d) food expenditure system
Answer: (c)
4. Deficiency of fats in the diet could lead to
(a) deficiency of Linoleic acid
(b) deficiency of arachiodonic acid
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
5. What is the defined as the intake of nutrient derived from diet which keeps nearly all people in good health?
(a) Caloric dens diet
(b) Protein rich diet
(c) Recommended dietary allowances
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
6. Which of the following requires intrinsic factor for absorption?
(a) Vitamin-C
(b) Vitamin-E
(c) Vitamin-B12
(d) Folic acid
Answer: (c)
7. Patients suffering from ulcer should avoid
(a) smoking
(b) alcohol
(c) coffee
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
8. In addition to megaloblastic anemia, inadequate folate intake is associated with?
(a) Poor pregnancy outcomes
(b) Good pregnancy outcomes
(c) Healthy outcomes
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
9. Adolescents gain 30% of their adult weight and more than 20% of their adult height between
(a) 10 to 19 years
(b) 10 to 12 years
(c) 9 to 12 years
(d) 10 to 15 years
Answer: (a)
10. A BMI of < 18.5 (k/m2) for women indicates
(a) over nutrition
(b) under nutrition
(c) balance nutrition
(d) All of these
Answer: (b)
11. The major nutritional deficiency leading to goiter and cretinism is
(a) iron deficiency
(b) fluoride deficiency
(c) iodine deficiency
(d) sodium deficiency
Answer: (c)
12. Chronic infection of Hepatitis C leads to
(a) chronic liver infection
(b) leukemia
(c) inflammation on pancreas
(d) heart disease
Answer: (a)
13. Hepatitis B vaccine was include in universal Immunisation programme from year
(a) 2002-03
(b) 2000-01
(c) 2011-13
(d) 2014-15
Answer: (*)
14. Some carotenoids like lycopene is a scavenger of singlet-oxygen, offering powerful
(a) antioxidant activity
(b) harmful activity
(c) oxidant activity
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
15. Main cause of blindness as per National Programme for Control of Blindness, is
(a) cataract
(b) beri beri
(c) vitamin-B12 deficiency
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
16. The main objective of National tuberculosis programme is
(a) to establish surveillance system
(b) to ensure proper TB diagnosis and case managegment
(c) to reduce acceleration of reduction of TB transmission
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
17. Which of the following will cure the megaloblastic anemia of vitamin-B12 deficiency
(a) folic acid
(b) vitamin B6
(c) iron
(d) thiamin
Answer: (a)
18. Oils are rich source of
(a) PUFA
(b) saturated fat
(c) non-essential fatty acids
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
19. Which of these following diseases spread through respiratory route?
(a) Influenza
(b) Measles
(c) Mumps
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
20. All of the following can increase the dietary vitamin-D requirement except
(a) lipid rich diet
(b) religious practices of wearing burkha
(c) use of sunscreen
(d) occupation
Answer: (a)
21. Pregnant women must avoid
(a) alcohol
(b) caffeine
(c) artificial colours
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
22. Which of the following is not a contagious disease?
(a) Hysteria
(b) Measles
(c) Influenza
(d) Typhoid
Answer: (a)
23. Calcium, phosphate and magnesium are important minerals found within
(a) skin
(b) bones
(c) nails
(d) hair
Answer: (b)
24. During pregnancy as a result of accelerated tissue synthesis, increased active tissue mass, and increased cardiovascular and respiratory work there is an increase in
(a) basal metabolism
(b) height
(c) specific dynamic action
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
25. SAM stands for
(a) Severe Atopic Malnutrition
(b) Severe Acute Malnutrition
(c) Severe Albumin Manifestation
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
26. Malaria is a disease which affect
(a) heart
(b) kidneys
(c) spleen
(d) lungs
Answer: (c)
27. What are the symptoms of whooping cough?
(a) Increased appetite
(b) Constipation
(c) Coughing, sneezing and runny nose
(d) Weight gain
Answer: (c)
28. Population most at risk for iron deficiency are
(a) infants and children
(b) women of childbearing age
(c) pregnant women
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
29. Energy requirements during pregnancy increase as additional energy is
(a) growth of foetus and placenta
(b) growth of maternal tissues
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
30. Goitre is associated with
(a) thyroid gland
(b) thymus
(c) pituitary
(d) parathyroid
Answer: (a)
31. Poor diet and unhygienic environmental sanitation are major cause of
(a) diabetes
(b) dyslipedemia
(c) malaria
(d) obesity
Answer: (c)
32. Which vaccine is recommended as per National Immunisation Schedule to pregnant mother?
(a) BCG
(b) Rotavirus vaccine
(c) Tetanus toxoid
(d) Measles vaccine
Answer: (c)
33. A wholesome nutritious diet complete in all the Macro and Micro nutrients and the food groups is known as
(a) Balanced diet
(b) Unbalanced diet
(c) Incomplete diet
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
34. Which of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Filariasis
(b) Dengue fever
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
Answer: (c)
35. Which of the following is caused by bacterial infection?
(a) Tetanus
(b) Rabies
(c) Malaria
(d) Cancer
Answer: (a)
36. Dietary factors which decreases iron absorption
(a) Increased intestinal mobility
(b) Presence of phytate and oxalates
(c) Hypochlorhydria
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
37. The five food group system can be used by health professionals for
(a) too for nutritional assessment and screening
(b) tool for nutritional counseling
(c) explaining therapeutic diets to a patient
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
38. The minimum suggested does of iodine supplementation is ……. per day to prevent the occurrence of iodine deficiency disorder
(a) 100-150 micrograms
(b) 190-210 micrograms
(c) 350-375 micrograms
(d) 400-435 micrograms
Answer: (a)
39. Bi-annual de-worming scheme, which is component of weekly iron and folic acid supplementation scheme provide following dose of Albendazole?
(a) 400 mg
(b) 800 mg
(c) 100 mg
(d) 750 mg
Answer: (a)
40. Which of the following nutrients provide more energy?
(a) Proteins
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Fats
(d) Minerals
Answer: (c)
41. Minimum age required to give Immunisation of MMR is
(a) 12 months-18 months
(b) immediately after birth
(c) 3 months-5 months
(d) 6 weeks to 8 weeks
Answer: (a)
42. Excess simple carbohydrates in the diet could lead
(a) obesity
(b) anemia
(c) water imbalance
(d) electrolyte imbalance
Answer: (a)
43. Megaloblastic anaemia is due to deficiency of
(a) folic acid
(b) nicotinic acid
(c) pantothenic acid
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
44. RDA for calcium as per ICMR 2010 for a pregnant women is
(a) 1200 mg per day
(b) 1600 mg per day
(c) 1400 mg per day
(d) 1800 mg per day
Answer: (a)
45. Treatment protocol for protein malnutrition begin with
(a) Immunisation to enhance ability to fight infection
(b) Weight bearing exercise
(c) Replenishment of fluids followed by gradual increase in high quality protein and calories
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
46. World health organization TB statistics for India for 2015 is
(a) 2.2 million cases of TB
(b) 2.8 million cases of TB
(c) 3.1 million cases of TB
(d) 1.1 million cases of TB
Answer: (a)
47. Take home ration scheme for pregnant and lactating mother under ICDS food supplement scheme provides
(a) 600 kcal
(b) 350 kcal
(c) 900 kcal
(d) 750 kcal
Answer: (a)
48. Accumulation of water in the interstitial space is known as
(a) Oedema
(b) Dermatitis
(c) Inflammation
(d) Ulcers
Answer: (d)
49. Meningitis is caused by
(a) salmonella
(b) fungi
(c) virus menin
(d) meningococus
Answer: (d)
50. It is also known as the ‘Sunshine Vitamin’
(a) vitamin-A
(b) vitamin-D
(c) vitamin-K
(d) vitamin-E
Answer: (b)
51. Complication of obesity include all the following except
(a) Coronary artery disease
(b) Arthritis
(c) Obstructive sleep apnea
(d) Type 1 Diabetes
Answer: (d)
52. Which of the following biochemical measures of nutritional status is most likely to detect a state of over nutrition?
(a) Serum albumin
(b) Nitrogen balance
(c) Serum LDL
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
53. Low birth weight is associated not only with higher infant mortality but also
(a) long-term health consequences
(b) reduced immunity
(c) nutrient deficiency
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
54. Moon face is a symptom of
(a) VAD
(b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Marasmus
(d) PEM
Answer: (b)
55. A healthy child doubles his birth weight by the age of
(a) 6 months
(b) 12 months
(c) 18 months
(d) 24 months
Answer: (a)
Part II General Knowledge and Logical Ability
56. Under which of the following schemes was the pilot-project ‘Poorna Shakti Kendra’ launched?
(a) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakaram
(b) Integrated Child Development Services
(c) Integrated Child Protection Scheme
(d) National Mission of Empowerment of Women
Answer: (d)
57. What is the full form of TRIFED?
(a) Tribal Cumulative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited
(b) Tribal Corporation for Marketing and Development Federation
(c) Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited
(d) Tribal Collective Marketing Development Federation of India Limited
Answer: (c)
58. Consider the following types of compounds present in the living systems :
1. Hormones
2. Enzymes
3. Lipids
Out of the above three, the classes of compounds that perform key functional roles in living systems are
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
59. Selling price of 9 objects is equal to the cost price of 12 objects. Find the profit or loss percentage.
(a)
(b)
(c) 32% profit
(d) 29% loss
Answer: (a)
60. GMS system is
(a) Global Synchronisation Module
(b) General System Mobile
(c) Global System for Mobile Communication
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
61. To move cursor from one page to another page
(a) Ctrl + PgUP
(b) Ctrl + PgDn
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
62. When was the Declaration on Survival, Protection and Development of Children adopted by the United Nations?
(a) 1989
(b) 1990
(c) 1991
(d) 1992
Answer: (b)
63. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased b y 350%, the resultant fraction is 5/12. What was the original fraction?
(a) 5/9
(b) 5/8
(c) 7/12
(d) 11/12
Answer: (b)
64. Which answer figure will complete the pattern of the question figure?
Answer: (b)
65. In which year was the National Commission for Women Act passed?
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993
Answer: (a)
66. The database language that allows you to access or maintain data in a database
(a) DCL
(b) DDL
(c) DML
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
67. Pepsin is an example of
(a) enzyme
(b) vitamin
(c) hormone
(d) lipid
Answer: (a)
68. The difference between compound and simple interest on a certain sum of 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 56. Find the sum.
(a) Rs. 26000
(b) Rs. 35000
(c) Rs. 12000
(d) Rs. 19000
Answer: (b)
69. Along with which of the following schemes was the Swachhta Guidelines for Public Health Facilities also launched?
(a) Kayakalp
(b) Swachh Swasth Sarvatra
(c) Swachh Bacche Swasth Bharat
(d) Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan
Answer: (a)
70. If . ‘ne’ is called ‘.com’, ‘.com’ is called ‘.org’ and ‘.org’ is called ‘.n’, then what is the name of the website of ‘ flipkart’?
(a) flipkart.com
(b) flipkart.net
(c) flipkart.in
(d) flipkart.org
Answer: (d)
71. How much amount does the beneficiaries of the Rashtriya Swasthya Beema Yojana need to pay as registration fee for a year?
(a) Rs. 20
(b) Rs. 30
(c) Rs. 40
(d) Rs. 50
Answer: (b)
72. To copy cell contents using drag and drop, press the
(a) End key
(b) Shift key
(c) Esc key
(d) None of th ese
Answer: (d)
73. The cause of Exophthalmic goitre is
(a) Hyperthyroidism
(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Hyperparathyoidism
(d) Hypoparathyroidism
Answer: (a)
74. According to the Commission of Sati (Prevention)Act, 1987, which of the following women can be called ‘Sati’?
(a) A woman being burnt alive along with the body of her relative voluntarily
(b) A widow being burnt alive along with the body of her deceased husband forcibly
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of th e above
Answer: (c)
75. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure if a mirror is placed on the line MN?
Answer: (d)
76. In which financial year was the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana renamed as the National Rural Livelihoods Mission?
(a) 2008-09
(b) 2009-10
(c) 2010-11
(d) 2011-12
Answer: (c)
77. Paneth cells are found in
(a) Peyer’s patches
(b) crypts of Lieberkuhn
(c) islets of langerhans
(d) Burnner’s glands
Answer: (b)
78. After a girl attains the age of 18 years, what percentage of balance can be withdrawn from her Sukanya Samriddhi Account?
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50
Answer: (d)
79. Raghav starts from a point A and walks 6 km towards North, then turns left and walks 8 km. Then he turns left and walks 12 km up to the point D. Now, how far is he fro his starting point?
(a) 8 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 6 km
(d) 2 km
Answer: (b)
80. Cholesterol is a type of
1. Chlorophyll
2. derivative of chloroform
3. Is a fatty alcohol found in animal fats
4. Causes high blood pressure
The correct answers are
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Answer: (c)
81. Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.
_aa_ba_bb_ab_aab
(a) aaabb
(b) babab
(c) bbaab
(d) bbbaa
Answer: (c)
82. Which of the following options is correct about the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
(a) The total number of members of the Internal Complaints Committee is at least 5.
(b) The total number of members of the Local Complaints Committee is 6.
(c) ‘Workplace’ would not include sports-complex.
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
83. If I walk at 3 km/h, I miss a train by 2 minutes. If however, I walk at 4 km/h, then I reach the station 2 minutes before the arrival of the train. How far do I walk to reach the station?
(a) 3/4 km
(b) 4/5 km
(c) 5/4 km
(d) 1 km
Answer: (b)
84. Which of the following acts is not included in the definition of domestic violence under the Prevention of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(a) Insulting her for not having a child
(b) Harming her relatives to coerce her to pay for dowry
(c) Repeated threats to physical pain
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
85. Which of the following is not true regarding the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
(a) it is not applicable in Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) It lay the rules for constituting the Internal Complaints Committee.
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
86. How can you create a uniform appearance by adding a b ackground image to all slides?
(a) Create a template
(b) Use the autocorrect wizard
(c) Edit the slide master
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
87. Which of the following option is true about the Prevention of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(a) Both mental and physical harm is included in this Act.
(b) It extends to whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir.
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
88. You want to ping the loopback address of your local host (with IPv-6). What will you type?
(a) ping 127.0.0.1
(b) pig ::1
(c) ping 0.0.0.0
(d) trace 0. ::1
Answer: (b)
89. Which of the following diagram represents the relation among Friend, Guide and Philosopher?
Answer: (c)
90. Which one of the following options is not true?
(a) The Hindu succession At, 1956 provides daughters the right to ask for sustenance from a joint Hindu family.
(b) The Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005 gave daughters the right to inheritance with her male siblings.
(c) The Supreme Court in 2015 ruled that daughters whose fathers died before. September 9, 2005 won’t however be applicable for the Amendment.
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
91. The ratio between the boys and girls in a class is 6 : 5 respectively. If 8 more boys join the class and two girls leave the class then the respective ratio becomes 11 : 7. What is the number of boys in the class now?
(a) 28
(b) 38
(c) 44
(d) 36
Answer: (c)
92. 20 men work 6 hours a day for 7 days to complete a work. How many hours, should 10 men work to complete the same work in 12 days?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer: (d)
93. Find out missing number from the figures given below.
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer: (d)
94. What should be the population of a Rurban cluster in desert, hilly or tribal areas?
(a) 5000 – 10000
(b) 5000 – 15000
(c) 10000 – 20000
(d) 10000 – 25000
Answer: (b)
95. Pointing to a lady in a marriage function, Anita said. ‘She is the sister of the father of my mother’s son. How is that lady related to Anita?
(a) Sister
(b) Aunt
(c) Niece
(d) Mother
Answer: (b)
96. The sugar units present in DNA and RNA are
1. Glucose 2. Ribose
3. Fructose 4. Deoxyribose
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (d)
97. What is the size of MAC address?
(a) 16 bits
(b) 32 bits
(c) 48 bits
(d) 64 bits
Answer: (c)
98. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark in the following question?
175 × + 28 + 275 × 27.98 = ?
(a) 11800
(b) 12595
(c) 12800
(d) 11600
Answer: (b)
99. When was the Self-employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS) introduced?
(a) 2007
(b) 2008
(c) 2009
(d) 2010
Answer: (a)
100. How many Tribal Research Institutes have been set-up in India?
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer: (d)
101. Which of the following is prohibited under the Right to Education Act?
(a) Physical punishment?
(b) Screening procedures for children
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
102. Human placenta is
(a) haemochorial
(b) syndesmochroial
(c) yolk sac
(d) haemoendothelial
Answer: (a)
103. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark in the following question?
? = (2.5)2 × 15.003 + 25.78
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 130
(d) 145
Answer: (b)
104. In a village, the average age of n people is 42 years. But after verification it was found that the age of a person had been considered 20 years less than the actual age, so the new average age after the correction increased by 1. The value of n is
(a) 21
(b) 20
(c) 22
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
105. Which of the following statements is/are true about the Indecent
Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986?
(a) It extends to whole of India.
(b) Representation on any ancient monument cannot come under this law.
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
106. Since which year did the Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat Sashaktikaran Abhiyan start its implementation in full swing?
(a) 2011
(b) 2012
(c) 2013
(d) 2014
Answer: (c)
107. How many straight lines are there in the figure given below?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer: (b)
108. Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the question given below.
The ratio between the number students study9ing in institute E and that of studying in institute D is
(a) 2 : 7
(b) 2 : 5
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 7 : 9
Answer: (c)
109. Which of the following is a sex linked disease?
(a) Myopia
(b) Malaria
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Night blindness
Answer: (c)
110. In the question given below, there are few statement followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem tobe at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically flow(s) from the given statements.
Statements
All birds are peacocks.
Al peacocks are farmers.
Conclusions
I. Some farmers are birds.
II. Some peacocks are birds.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow
Answer: (d)
Part III Managerial Trait
111. A leader must be an expert in
(a) human relations
(b) technical skills
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
112. Which type of planning is a b lue print of development over a longer period of time?
(a) Centralised planning
(b) Decentralised planning
(c) Annual planning
(d) Perspective planning
Answer: (d)
113. In selecting local leaders, the choice on the
(a) leaders
(b) group
(c) government
(d) extension workers
Answer: (b)
114. Flip book is an example of
(a) flash cards
(b) slogans
(c) chart
(d) posters
Answer: (a)
115. India’s 14 major banks were nationalized during
(a) Second Five Year Plan
(b) Fourth Five Year Plan
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Eighth Five Year Plan
Answer: (b)
116. What can be the opposite of aggressive group?
(a) Passive group
(b) Large group
(c) Voluntary group
(d) Involuntary group
Answer: (a)
117. What is observed in a professional leader to see his interest for a group?
(a) Field work
(b) Training
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
118. Which five Year Plan is also called Mahalanobis Plan?
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Third Five Year Plan
(d) Fourth Five Year Plan
Answer: (b)
119. Achievement theory is concerned with
(a) affiliation
(b) power
(c) achievement
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
120. Which Five Year Plan was based on Harrod Domer Model?
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Third Five Year Plan
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan
(d) Seventh Five Year Plan
Answer: (a)
121. When the information flows in a form of branches it is known as
(a) Bar chart
(b) Tree chart
(c) Graph chart
(d) Pie chart
Answer: (b)
122. Non projected teaching aid include
(a) Chalk board
(b) Pictures
(c) Flash card
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
123. In leadership there is a face-to-face contact between?
(a) Leaders and followers
(b) Government and leaders
(c) Village people and scientists
(d) Extension workers and scientists
Answer: (a)
124. Rural people tend to resist
(a) leaders
(b) government
(c) change
(d) attitude
Answer: (c)
125. The period of Plan Holiday in India was
(a) 1966-69
(b) 1996-99
(c) 1960-90
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
126. When people in a cluster range from 3-50 it is a
(a) crowd
(b) group
(c) mass
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
127. In which social group, the contact is personal?
(a) Secondary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Primary
(d) All of these
Answer: (c)
128. Which of the following period is known as plan history?
(a) 1969-74
(b) 1966-69
(c) 1965-68
(d) 1961-66
Answer: (b)
129. Life cycle theory of leadership was developed by
(a) House and Mitchel
(b) P. Herzby and K. Blenhad
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
130. Neighbourhood comes in which type of social group?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
131. Main classification of Group is/are
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
132. Movie projector is an example of
(a) Oral aid
(b) Written aid
(c) Projected aid
(d) Non project aid
Answer: (c)
133. Abstract pictures should not be used in poster because it
(a) is boring
(b) is confusing
(c) takes time to make
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
134. ‘Series’ is a component of what?
(a) Flow chart
(b) Pie chart
(c) Strip tease chart
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
135. Which social group is according to choice?
(a) Primary
(b) Out group
(c) Voluntary group
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
136. Which Five Year Plan focused on rapid industrialization?
(a) Second Five Year Plan
(b) Fourth Five Year Plan
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Eighth Five Year Plan
Answer: (a)
137. Formal social group are based on
(a) laws
(b) rules
(c) regulations
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
138. Name the only women Chief Election Commissioner of India.
(a) Rama Devi
(b) Leela Seth
(c) Faatema Bivi
(d) Anna Chandy
Answer: (a)
139. Local leaders play the role of
(a) teachers
(b) guide
(c) trainers
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
140. Caption and Action is required in a
(a) poster
(b) radio
(c) film
(d) television
Answer: (a)
141. The Governor of the State is appointed by the President on the advice of
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer: (a)
142. Sense belonging is a factor of which social group?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Law group
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
143. India’s first five IITs were started during
(a) Fist Five Year Plan
(b) Third Five Year Plan
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan
(d) Seventh Five Year Plan
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 144-149) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Communication plays an important role in the development of a nation. It is an integral part of development. Societies cannot change and develop without communication, as it is a process of social interaction through which people are influenced by ideas, attitudes, knowledge and behaviour of each other.
Communication has attained a great importance in the developmental programs. It is through the process of communication that people are made aware of the nature and objectives of the programs. The useful developmental messages are conveyed to the target groups through various communication approaches. This helps masses in acquiring new knowledge required for coping with fast changing society. It helps people in adoption of innovations for the improvement of their practices, methods and quality of life. Development as an objective is planned transformation of society from one stage of life and living to well-defined and known goal. It is a process in which man is the objective as well as the tool of development. All objectives of transformation are to make man live as a human being, with better clothing, food, shelter, health and education. This cannot be achieved without man’s involvement.
144. Society cannot change and develop without
(a) communication
(b) development
(c) research
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
145. Communication is a process of social interaction through which people are
(a) influenced by ideas
(b) attitudes
(c) knowledge
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
146. The useful developmental messages are conveyed to the target groups through various
(a) communication skill
(b) communication approach
(c) communication media
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
147. Communication helps people in adoption of
(a) skills
(b) methods
(c) innovation
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
148. Who is the objective in the process of communication?
(a) Man
(b) Animals
(c) Aliens
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
149. Communication cannot be achieves through people’s
(a) participation
(b) help
(c) money
(d) idea
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 150-155) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Communication is an essential part of human life. People perceive things in a different way because of ethnic background differences, attitudes and beliefs, etc. These differences may affect our ability to communicate with our counterpart. Therefore, it is necessary to keep our mind open so that we can reduce the risk of communication breakdown.
Men and women are different as everyone knows that. However, their differences are not just physiological and anatomical. Recent researches have concluded that there are remarkable differences between the two genders in the way their brains process information, language, emotion, cognition etc.
Scientists have discovered the differences in the way men and women carry out mental functions like judging speed, estimating time, spatial visualization and positioning, mental calculation. Men and women are strikingly different not only in these tasks but also in the way their brains process language.
This could account for the reason why there are overwhelmingly more male mathematicians, pilots, mechanical engineers, race car drivers and space scientists than females. On the other hand, there are areas in which women outperform men. Women are naturally endowed with better communication and verbal abilities. They are also effective than men in some of the tasks like emotional empathy, establishing human relations, carrying out preplanned tasks and creative expressions.
150. People perceive things in a different way because of
(a) Ethnic background differences
(b) Attitudes
(c) Beliefs
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
151. What should be done to reduce the risk of communication breakdown?
(a) Keep our mind open
(b) Keep our books open
(c) Keep our house open
(d) Keep our bags open
Answer: (a)
152. There are remarkable differences between the two genders in the way of their
(a) language
(b) emotion
(c) cognition
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
153. Who have discovered that there is a difference between male and female?
(a) People
(b) Teachers
(c) Scientists
(d) Government
Answer: (c)
154. Women are naturally endowed with better communication and
(a) verbal ability
(b) cooking ability
(c) dancing ability
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
155. Women are effective than men in the task of
(a) establishing human relations
(b) carrying out pre-planned tasks
(c) creative expressions
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Part IV Infant’s Early Care & Education
156. Genetic Disease is related to
(a) hemophilia
(b) hypertension
(c) fibrosis
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
157. AIDS is related to
(a) bacteria
(b) disease
(c) genetic disease
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
158. Gifted children have IQ
(a) 120 IQ
(b) 125 IQ
(c) 130 IQ
(d) 140 IQ
Answer: (a)
159. Full form of WHO is
(a) World Health Organization
(b) Wide Health Organization
(c) Whole Health Organization
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
160. What is the Kinder Garden Teaching material?
(a) Gift
(b) Mother Day
(c) Song
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
161. What is the characteristic of creativity?
(a) Process
(b) Goal directed
(c) Create
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
162. Hyperactivity and Disorder of attention of characteristics of which special children?
(a) Learning Disabled
(b) Backward Child
(c) Gifted Child
(d) Delinquents
Answer: (a)
163. Who gave Insight Theory?
(a) Kohler
(b) Lewin
(c) Hurlock
(d) Skinner
Answer: (a)
164. Important factor for blood clotting in new born baby is
(a) vitamin-A
(b) protein
(c) vitamin-K
(d) energy
Answer: (c)
165. What is the means of language development?
(a) Imitation
(b) Play
(c) Listening stories
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
166. Child having abnormal qualities are called
(a) Exceptional children
(b) Abnormal children
(c) Normal children
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
167. ………….. is the modification of behaviour through experience and training.
(a) Learning
(b) Cognition
(c) Creativity
(d) Mental
Answer: (a)
168. What is the effecting of socialization?
(a) Behaviour of parents
(b) Insecure
(c) Discipline
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
169. Development is effected by
(a) Parents
(b) Society
(c) Heredity
(d) Heredity and Environment
Answer: (d)
170. Germinal period I s related to
(a) Period of ovum
(b) Period of embryo
(c) Period of foetus
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
171. What is the effect of Heredity?
(a) Physical qualities
(b) Social status
(c) Character
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
172. Control of under weight children is aim of which scheme?
(a) Janani Suraksha Yojana
(b) Gramin Health Yojana
(c) Bal Shakti Yojana
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
173. Psycho Drama used for Treatment of
(a) Delinquency
(b) Abnormal children
(c) Problem children
(d) Mentally retarded children
Answer: (a)
174. What is the basic concept of child development?
(a) Characteristics of development
(b) Difference between growth and development
(c) Principles of development
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
175. Colostrum is related to
(a) Mother milk
(b) Tin milk
(c) Artificial milk
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
176. By whom study of cognitive development started?
(a) Jean Piaget
(b) Freud
(c) Kohlbery
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
177. When did Pulse Polio Programme started?
(a) October 2, 1999
(b) November, 10, 1980
(c) January 3, 1998
(d) April 10, 1997
Answer: (*)
178. Among these which are leg skills?
(a) Running
(b) Climbing
(c) Jumping
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
179. Which is the factor affecting process of learning?
(a) Motivation
(b) Reward
(c) Praise
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
180. When Janani Suraksha Yojna started?
(a) 2011
(b) 2012
(c) 2014
(d) 2016
Answer: (*)
181. Which is the special technique for blind children education?
(a) Sign language
(b) Braile Lipi
(c) Touch method
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
182. Problem child is
(a) who steals
(b) who is lier
(c) who disobey parents
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
183. Who is the founder of pre-school education?
(a) Mother Teresa
(b) MC Millian Sister
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Bandura
Answer: (b)
184. What is the meaning of Neonate?
(a) New
(b) Child
(c) Beautiful
(d) Face
Answer: (a)
185. Age of neonate is
(a) 10 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 35 days
(d) 45 days
Answer: (b)
186. Age of neonate is
(a) 10 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 35 days
(d) 45 days
Answer: (b)
187. Personality related to
(a) physical
(b) motor
(c) persona
(d) emotion
Answer: (c)
188. Where is Chetna Centre School for special education is situated?
(a) Delhi
(b) Bhopal
(c) Lucknow
(d) Mumbai
Answer: (c)
189. During pregnancy Placenta development take place in which week?
(a) 6th Week
(b) 8th Week
(c) 10 Week
(d) 12 Week
Answer: (a)
190. Craft education be given to
(a) common child
(b) backward child
(c) retard child
(d) gifted child self-feeding
Answer: (b)
191. Self-feeding, self-dressing are skills of
(a) leg skills
(b) hand skills
(c) other skills
(d) All of these
Answer: (b)
192. Early childhood child learn through
(a) imitation
(b) insight
(c) conditioning
(d) motives
Answer: (a)
193. What is the scope of child development?
(a) Study of theories of child development
(b) Study of various aspects of child development
(c) Study of factor influencing child development
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
194. Retarded child learn
(a) slow
(b) quickly
(c) logical
(d) All of these
Answer: (b)
195. What I s the period of infancy?
(a) Birth – 2 weeks
(b) Birth – 6 weeks
(c) Birth – 5 weeks
(d) Birth – 8 weeks
Answer: (a)
196. What is the characteristic of development?
(a) Directional
(b) Progressive series of change
(c) Orderly
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
197. Is DWCRA programme at national level for special children and women care?
(a) Right
(b) Wrong
(c) Partially right
(d) Partially wrong
Answer: (a)
198. Approximate bones of neonate
(a) 206
(b) 270
(c) 350
(d) 205
Answer: (b)
199. Gross movement and fine motor skills related to
