OPSC

Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) Preliminary Examination-2015 Held on November 8, 2015

General Studies Paper-I

 

1. With reference to the monuments built by the Mughals, which one the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a)   Buland Darwaza – Akbar

(b)   Itimud-ud-Daula’s tomb – Jahangir

(c)   Fatehabad Mosque – Babar

(d)   Agra Fort – Shahjahan

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2. Who was the first native ruler of India to accept Subsidiary Alliance?

(a)   Nawab of Oudh

(b)   Gaikward of Baroda

(c)   Scindia of Gwalior

(d)   Nizam of Hyderabad

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3. Which Act did change the designation of Governor General of Bengal to Governor General of India?

(a)   Regulating Act of 1773

(b)   Charter Act of 1833

(c)   Government of India Act of 1858

(d)   Government of India Act of 1935

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4. When did Ranjit Singh sign a treaty of perpetual friendship British at Amritsar?

(a)   1799

(b)   1805

(c)   1806

(d)   1809

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5. Who is associated with introduction of local self government in India?

(a)   Lord Dalhousie

(b)   Lord Lytton

(c)   Lord Ripon

(d)   Lord Curzon

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6. Which place did Kunwar Singh, a leader during the Revolt of 1857, belong to?

(a)   Uttar Pradesh

(b)   Madhya Pradesh

(c)   Rajasthan

(d)   Bihar

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7. Consider the following events that occurred during India’s freedom struggle :

(1) Chauri-Chaura Violence

(2) Morley Minto Reforms

(3) Dandi March

(4) Mont-Ford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their occurrence?

(a)   1, 3, 2, 4

(b)   2, 4, 1, 3

(c)   1, 4, 2, 3

(d)   2, 3, 1, 4

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8. Where did Netaji Subhash Bose hoist the Indian Flag?

(a)   Imphal

(b)   Port Blair

(c)   Kohima

(d)   Delhi

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9. Khajjiar lake is located in

(a)   Tamil Nadu

(b)   Himachal Pradesh

(c)   Odisha

(d)   Jammu & Kashmir

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10. Minicoy and Suheli Islands are separated by

(a)   Six Degree Channel

(b)   Seven Degree Channel

(c)   Eight Degree Channel

(d)   Nine Degree Channel

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11. Which of the following is a plant hormone?

(a)   Melatonin

(b)   Gastrin

(c)   Cytokinin

(d)   Cholecystokinin

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12. The roots of a plant always grow downwards while shoots usually grows upwards and away from the Earth. It is known as

(a)   Hydrotropism

(b)   Geotropism

(c)   Chemotropism

(d)   All of the above

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13. Type II diabetes is characterized by

(a)   hyperglycemia

(b)   polyuria

(c)   Both of the above

(d)   None of the above

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14. Artificial kidney helps

(a)   remove nitrogenous waste products from block

(b)   reabsorbs useful substances from tubules to blood

(c)   secretes wasteful substances from blood to tubules

(d)   All of the above

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15. Coal should be used judiciously because it causes

(a)   air pollution

(b)   acid rain

(c)   global warming

(d)   All of these

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16. Which of the following should be avoided in biological marriage?

(a)   A⁺ boy and A⁻ girl

(b)   A⁺ boy and A⁺ girl

(c)   O⁺ boys and O⁺ girl

(d)   AB⁺ boy and AB⁺ girls

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17. Which instrument is used for measuring the altitude, direction/ and velocity of clouds?

(a)   Pyrgeometer

(b)   Nephoscope

(c)   Nephulumeter

(d)   Venturimeter

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18. Which of the following instruments is used for measuring very high temperature?

(a)   Photometer

(b)   Pyrgeometer

(c)   Solarimeter

(d)   Pyrometer

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19. Low pressure turning to cyclone is resulted if the temperature of water at the sea level rises above

(a)   26.5℃

(b)   20.5℃

(c)   15.5℃

(d)   10.5℃

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20. Insulin is secreted from which gland or organ of human body?

(a)   Kidney

(b)   Liver

(c)   Pancreas

(d)   Small Intestine

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21. Where was the first facial recognition ATM unveiled on May 30, 2015?

(a)   USA

(b)   China

(c)   Japan

(d)   India

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22. What has the UN declared the year 2015 as?

(a)   International Year of Forests

(b)   International Year of Soils

(c)   International Year of Relieving the Hunger

(d)   International Year of Food

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23. Which country did top the medals tally at the 15th World Championship in Athletics held in August, 2015?

(a)   Russia

(b)   China

(c)   USA

(d)   Kenya

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24. Which country’s First Woman President was sworn into office in February, 2015?

(a)   Greece

(b)   Croatia

(c)   Zambia

(d)   Thailand

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25. Where have the remains of a highly advanced water management system of Indus Valley Civilization been discovered?

(a)   Kalibangan

(b)   Lothal

(c)   Ropar

(d)   Dholavira

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26. Consider the following statements regarding Hatigumpha inscription :

(1) It is found in Khandagiri.

(2) It was discovered in 1820.

(3) It is written in Pali language.

(4) The inscription was deciphered by Jame Princep.

Which statement(s) is/are correct?

(a)   1, 2 and 4

(b)   1 and 3

(c)   2 and 4

(d)   All are correct

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27. Who was the Court Physician of Kaniska?

(a)   Charaka

(b)   Susruta

(c)   Palakapya

(d)   Bhagabatta

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28. Which great Indian astronomer did give the theory that all things fell on the Earth by law of nature as it was Earth’s nature to attract and keep things?

(a)   Aryabhatta

(b)   Varahamihira

(c)   Brahmagupta

(d)   Chandrasekhara

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29. Which of the following books was not written by Harshavardhana?

(a)   Ratnavali

(b)   Nagananda

(c)   Kadambari

(d)   Priyadarsika

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30. Who did introduce the system of land measurement in India?

(a)   Alauddin Khilji

(b)   Sikander Lodi

(c)   Sher Shah Suri

(d)   Akbar

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31. Who has been appointed as the First Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog?

(a)   Dr. VK Saraswat

(b)   Kaushik Basu

(c)   Arvind Panagariya

(d)   KV Kamath

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32. Where was India’s indigenously built anti-tank missile ‘Nag’ test fired in July, 2015?

(a)   Pokhran

(b)   Chandipur

(c)   Jaisalmer

(d)   Wheeler Island

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33. To which NGO is Nobel Laureate Kailash Satyarthi associated with?

(a)   Bachpan Bachao Andolan

(b)   Beti Bachao Abhiyan

(c)   Jungle Surkasha Andolan

(d)   Gana Siksha Abhiyan

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34. Which are the fields of the two MOUs signed between India and Egypt for bilateral cooperation on August 24, 2015?

(a)   Education and Culture

(b)   Air Connectivity and Tourism

(c)   Technology and training and Research

(d)   Tourism and Scientific and Technical Cooperation

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35. Who is the recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for 2015?

(a)   Saina Nehwal

(b)   Sania Mirza

(c)   Sachin Tendulkar

(d)   Abhishek Verma

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36. Why was the 50th anniversary of Indo-Pak War of 1965 observed on August 28,2015?

(a)   The day marks the beginning of the war

(b)   The way marks the victory of India

(c)   The day marks the Tashkent Declaration

(d)   The day marks the first tank battle by Indian soldiers

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37. What has Om Prakash Rawat been appointed as?

(a)   Information Commissioner of India

(b)   Election Commissioner of India

(c)   Vigilance Commissioner of India

(d)   Knowledge Commissioner of India

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38. What is the name of the Indian Coast Guard Ship that has been gifted to Sri Lanka?

(a)   Virat

(b)   Vikrant

(c)   Varaha

(d)   Vijay

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39. To which of the following, ‘Start-up India, Stand-up India’ campaign associated with?

(a)   Sports

(b)   Scientific research

(c)   Empowerment of women

(d)   Entrepreneurship

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40. Who is the Japanese scientist to have won the Nobel Prize in Medicine for 2015?

(a)   Kosmas Prassides

(b)   Taakaki Kajita

(c)   Satoshi Omura

(d)   Tu Youyou

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41. ‘KBR National Park’ is located at

(a)   Hyderabad

(b)   Nainital

(c)   Darjeeling

(d)   Sunderban

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42. Where from the Narmada river originates?

(a)   North-Easter part of Satpura Range

(b)   Eastern Central part of Satpura Range

(c)   Southern slopes of Satpura Range

(d)   None of the above

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43. The Sutlej river is tributary of the

(a)   Indus River

(b)   Beas

(c)   Jhelum

(d)   Chenab

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44. The length of Gangotri glacier is

(a)   90 km

(b)   60 km

(c)   30 km

(d)   10 km

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45. Which one of the following regions is famous as Sahyadris?

(a)   Himalayan region

(b)   Plain region

(c)   Easter ghat region

(d)   Western ghat region

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46. Eastern most point of East-West corridor is

(a)   Imphal

(b)   Agartala

(c)   Silchar

(d)   Kohima

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47. ‘Indira Point’ is near to

(a)   Car Nicobar

(b)   Little Nicobar

(c)   Great Nicobar

(d)   Kamorta

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48. In our country, second largest area is occupied by

(a)   alluvial soil

(b)   red soil

(c)   black soil

(d)   laterite soil

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49. Which one of the following States possesses the largest forest area?

(a)   Arunachal Pradesh

(b)   Chhattisgarh

(c)   Maharashtra

(d)   Madhya Pradesh

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50. Largest producer of manganese in India is

(a)   Odisha

(b)   Jharkhand

(c)   Maharashtra

(d)   Karnataka

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51. The biochemical oxygen demand in water is enhanced by

(a)   increase in load of organic matter

(b)   increase in dissolved nitrogen

(c)   increase in heavy metal content

(d)   dense population of phytoplankton

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52. Green plant commonly

(a)   releases CO₂ in day time and O₂ in night

(b)   releases O₂ in day time and CO₂ in night time

(c)   releases both O₂ and CO₂ in day as well as night

(d)   releases both O₂ and CO₂ in day and only O₂ in night

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53. Fuse is the most important safety device used for protecting the circuits due to

(a)   short circuiting

(b)   over load

(c)   Both (a) and (b)

(d)   leakage of the current

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54. Which is not a hardware of a computer?

(a)   CPU

(b)   Monitor

(c)   Mouse

(d)   Microsoft Windows

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55. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit

(a)   reduces substantially

(b)   does not change

(c)   increases heavily

(d)   vary continuously

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56. Which is not the function of CPU?

(a)   Storage

(b)   Processing

(c)   Displaying

(d)   Communication

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57. Myopia, also known as near-sightedness, can be corrected by use of

(a)   convex lens

(b)   concave lens

(c)   plane lens

(d)   magnifying lens

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58. Microsoft Excel of used for

(a)   writing letter

(b)   multimedia presentation

(c)   spread sheet

(d)   All of the above

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59. Non-conventional source of energy is

(a)   fossil fuel

(b)   nuclear energy

(c)   biomass energy

(d)   All of these

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60. Which of the following constitute a food chain?

(a)   Grass, Pulses, Mango

(b)   Grass, Goat, Human

(c)   Grass, Goat, Cow

(d)   Grass, Fish, Goat

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61. The first (and current) President of the New Development Bank, headquartered at Shanghai, China and formed by countries of the BRIC block is nominated by India. Who among the following is the current incumbent?

(a)   KV Kamath

(b)   Arun Maira

(c)   Arun Shourie

(d)   Nachiket Mor

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62. Halophytes are the types of plants that prefer to grow on

(a)   dry soil

(b)   sandy soil

(c)   saline soil

(d)   water logged soil

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63. Thick vegetation of mangroves is present in

(a)   Western Ghats

(b)   Sunderban

(c)   Gir forest

(d)   Himalayas

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64. Broad leaved deciduous forests are typical of

(a)   Monsoon region

(b)   Mediterranean region

(c)   Temperate region

(d)   Alpine region

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65. Which of the following is mutually beneficially to the organisms in an association?

(a)   Parasitism

(b)   Antagonism

(c)   Neutralism

(d)   Symbiosis

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66. A thick and fleshy stem covered with a thick cuticle stores water in

(a)   Hydrilla

(b)   Opuntia

(c)   Tecoma

(d)   Magnolia

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67. The largest amount of freshwater of our planet is present in

(a)   lakes and rivers

(b)   ground water

(c)   pond and wells

(d)   polar ice and glaciers

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68. A habitat of long severe winters and few months of summer constituting the only growing season for plants are the characteristics of

(a)   Savannah ecosystem

(b)   Tundra ecosystem

(c)   Coniferous ecosystem

(d)   Taiga ecosystem

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69. The pyramid that always remains erect in a stable ecosystem with homeostasis is

(a)   pyramid of biomass

(b)   pyramid of number

(c)   pyramid of energy

(d)   pyramid of population

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70. The role of bacteria in an ecosystem is to

(a)   recycle nutrients

(b)   immobilize nutrients

(c)   fix carbon for secondary production

(d)   supply organic carbon

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71. Name the economist who related ‘poverty’ with the concept of ‘entitlement’.

(a)   Amartya Sen

(b)   C. Rangarajan

(c)   Elinor Ostorm

(d)   Partha Dasgupta

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72. Economic growth is said to be inclusive when

(a)   it generates more foreign exchange from exports

(b)   it creates economics opportunities along with ensuring equal access to it

(c)   it causes the largest segment of the people to remain outside the mainstream economy

(d)   it earns the highest share of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) from service sector

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73. Which one of the following can be considered as a step towards achieving ‘financial inclusion’ in India?

(a)   Privatization of all the nationalized commercial banks.

(b)   Opening of branches of all commercial banks in mega cities.

(c)   Discontinuation of the practice of opening accounts by commercial banks with zero balance.

(d)   Adoption of villages by bank branches.

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74. A great demographic divide in India occurred in the year

(a)   1901

(b)   1911

(c)   1921

(d)   1931

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75. Which one of the following is the correct definition off Dependency Ratio?

(a)   Ratio of non-working population to working population.

(b)   Ratio of ageing population to total population

(c)   Ratio of female population to male population.

(d)   Ratio of non-working population to total population.

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76. Which one of the following was launched in India in 2014 with the aim of covering children againses seven vaccine preventable disease which include diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis B?

(a)   Mission Indradhanush

(b)   National Health Mission

(c)   Swacch Bharat Mission

(d)   Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission

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77. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA) aims to provide useful and relevant education to all children in the age group

(a)   5-10 years

(b)   4-10 years

(c)   4-14 years

(d)   6-14 years

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78. The MRTP Act of 1969 has been

(a)   replaced by Competition Act of 2002

(b)   merged in Industrial Policy Act of 1978

(c)   replaced by Trade Unions (Amendment) Act, 2001

(d)   merged in Industrial Policy Act of 1991

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79. If interest payments are subtracted from gross fiscal deficit, the remainder will be

(a)   revenue deficit

(b)   gross primary deficit

(c)   capital deficit

(d)   budgetary deficit

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80. The act of simultaneously buying in one market and selling in another market is called

(a)   Speculating

(b)   Spotting

(c)   Forwarding

(d)   Arbitrage

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81. Writs can be issued for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights by

(a)   District Courts

(b)   High Courts only

(c)   Supreme Court only

(d)   Both Supreme Court as well as the High Courts

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82. Which one of the following was the First State to establish the institution of the Lokayukta in India?

(a)   Bihar

(b)   Maharashtra

(c)   Rajasthan

(d)   Odisha

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83. Which one of the following was the first committee to demand constitutional recognition for Panchayats?

(a)   Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(b)   Ashok Mehta Committee

(c)   Santhanam Committee

(d)   GVK Rao Committee

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84. In India, ‘Collegium System’ was first introduced in relation to

(a)   Executive

(b)   Legislature

(c)   Judiciary

(d)   Union-State Relations

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85. Central Vigilance Commission was set-up on the recommendations of

(a)   First Administrative Reforms Commission

(b)   Gorwala Committee Report

(c)   Kriplani Committee Report

(d)   Santhanam Committee Report

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86. Which constitutional amendment provided for the setting up of Administrative Tribunals in India?

(a)   24th Amendment

(b)   42nd Amendment

(c)   44th Amendment

(d)   59th Amendment

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87. Which of the following committee voiced concern about ‘Criminalization of Politics and Politicization of Criminals?

(a)   Tarakunde Committee

(b)   Sachar Committee

(c)   Vohra Committee

(d)   Indrajeet Gupta Committee

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88. Under whose auspices, the concept ‘sustainable development’ was coined?

(a)   UN Conference on the Human Environment

(b)   UN World Commission on Environment and Development

(c)   UN General Assembly Special Session on the Environment

(d)   UN Conference on Sustainable Development

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89. What is the goal of sustainable development?

(a)   To ensure quality of life to present and future generations

(b)   To meet the day-to-day consumption needs of the people

(c)   To shift rural population to urban areas

(d)   To increase the pace of industrialization

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90. Per capita consumption expenditure as a measure of poverty in India was used for the first time only

(a)   Jagdish Bhagwati and Arvind Panagariya

(b)   Amartya Sen and Jean Dreze

(c)   TN Srinivasan and Suresh Tendulkar

(d)   VM Dandekar and N. Rath

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91. What is the total surface area of Lakshadweep?

(a)   32 sq km

(b)   35 sq km

(c)   39 sq km

(d)   30 sq km

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92. Karaganda coal basin belongs to

(a)   Russia

(b)   Kazakhastan

(c)   Ukraine

(d)   Mongolia

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93. The provision of providing identity cards to voters has been made in the

(a)   Constitution of India

(b)   Representation of the People Act, 1958

(c)   Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 1975

(d)   Criminal and Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 1969

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94. Who among the following describes the Indian economy as ‘Bullock-cart Capitalism?

(a)   Rajni Kothari

(b)   Atul Kohli

(c)   Lloyd and Sussane Rudolph

(d)   Granville Austin

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95. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(a)   The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.

(b)   The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further.

(c)   The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to Rajya Sabha or reconsideration.

(d)   The President may call a joint sitting.

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96. Rajya Sabha is dissolved after every

(a)   2 years

(b)   6 years

(c)   5 years

(d)   It is not subjected to dissolution

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97. A money bill can be introduced only in

(a)   Rajya Sabha

(b)   Lok Sabha

(c)   Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

(d)   None of the above

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98. Panchayati Raj is included in

(a)   Union List

(b)   State List

(c)   Concurrent List

(d)   None of these

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99. Who among the following has the power to issue ordinances under Article-129?

(a)   Chief Justice of India

(b)   The President of India

(c)   Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(d)   Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

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100. The doctrine of basic structure of the Indian Constitution was pronounced by the Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases?

(a)   Minerva Mills Limited vs Union of India

(b)   Kesavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala

(c)   SR Bommai vs Union of India

(d)   None of the above

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Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) Preliminary Examination-2015 Held on November 8, 2015

General Studies Paper-II

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-2) The criteria for selecting a Marketing Officer for a company are given below.

The candidate

(1) Must be a graduate with at least 55% of marks.

(2) Must have secured at least 50% in the written examination.

(3) Must not be less than 25% years and more than 30 years as on August 1, 2015

(4) Should have work experience of at least 3 years as an officer.

However, if a candidate

(5) Fulfils all other criteria except at (3) above the belongs to SC and has a diploma in marketing, his/her case is to be referred to the General Manager, HR.

(6) Fulfils all other criteria except at (3) and (4) above, but has worked as a Marketing Manager at least for 1 year, his/her case is to be referred to the Director, HR.

Given below are the profiles of candidates in the Q. Nos. 1-2. Based on the criteria given above and without assuming any additional information, you have to take a decision in each case and mark your answer by choosing the appropriate alternative.

1. Amit was born on August 20, 1988 and is now a graduate with 58% of marks and has secured 62% in the written test. He has been working as an Officer for the last four years. What decision would be taken for Amit?

(a)   He would not be appointed.

(b)   He would be selected for appointment.

(c)   His case is to be referred to the General Manger, HR.

(d)   His case is to be referred to the Director, HR.

Show Answer

2. Neeta is a graduate woman candidate with a diploma in marketing. She has secured 57% and 55% in graduation and in the written test, respectively. She was born on July 21, 1991. She has been working in a company as a Marketing Manager for the last two years. What decision is to be taken for Neeta?

(a)   She would be selected for appointment.

(b)   She would not be appointed.

(c)   Her case is to be referred to the General Manager, HR.

(d)   Her case is to be referred to the Director, HR.

Show Answer

3. An angry mob is approaching the ashram of a pretentious and dishonest religious leader and there is fear that the ashram inmates would be thrashed. As the District Magistrate you would :

(a)   use police force to disperse the crowd

(b)   arrest the religious leader to satisfy the mob

(c)   inform the Home Minister of the State and act as per his order as there may be a  political angle to the demonstration

(d)   maintain your secular orientation and not interfere until a formal complaint has been lodged.

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4. You are a Tehsildar. Some people have told you about a person in your office who takes your name to indulge in corrupt practices. You are shocked because you believed in his honesty. He has shown his commitment to work by completing the work in time, even if it comes to working late after office hours. You now want to verify the truth of what people say. You would

(a)   call him to your office and ask him if what people tell about him is true and then warn him

(b)   change his nature of work and minimize your interactions with him

(c)   stay back in the office beyond office hours to catch him when he accepts bribe

(d)   take the help of a trustworthy person to offer him bribe and check if people’s opinion is true

Show Answer

Directions (Q. Nos. 5-7) Read the information given below.

In a university, the student must satisfy the following conditions for being awarded Bachelor’s Degree :

(1) The student should have a minimum attendance of 65% in all the semesters.

(2) He/she should have a minimum of 55% aggregate marks in each semester and his/her overall aggregate of all the 6 semesters should be 65% or more.

(3) If his/her aggregate in any semester is less than 55%, but the average of any two consecutive semesters is more than 55%, the Principal can condone it and he/she will pass.

(4) He/she must have submitted the project report and secured not less than 60% in the project.

(5) If the attendance is short by 15% or less due to medical reasons, it can be condoned by the Principal.

(6) If the student has scored less than 65% in overall aggregate, the Director can condone it  provided that he/she is not held back for attendance and  has secured more than 75% in project and the students will pass.

5. Sambhav has scored the following aggregate percentage of marks in 6 semesters :

1st semester            64%

2nd semester           59%

3rd semester           66%

4th semester           58%

5th semester           54%

6th semester           71%

Overall aggregate

He fell sick during 4th semester and had only 55% attendance. He has scored 78% in the project. What decision will be taken for Sambhav?

(a)   He will not be awarded the degree.

(b)   He will be awarded the degree without any condoning.

(c)   He will be awarded the degree after the Principal condones the shortage of percentage of attendance.

(d)   He will awarded the degree only after both the Principal and the Director condone the violations.

Show Answer

6. Neet has scored the following aggregate percentage of marks 6 semesters :

1st semester            57%

2nd semester           58%

3rd semester           61%

4th semester           57%

5th semester           60%

6th semester           61%

Overall aggregate    59%

What decision will be taken for Neeta?

(a)   She will not  be awarded the degree.

(b)   If her project mark is not less than 60%, she will pass after the Director condones shortage of overall aggregate percentage provided that she is not held back for shortage of attendance.

(c)   The Principal can condone the shortage of marks only if Neeta has more than 60% in the project.

(d)   She will be awarded the degree and any form of condoning would  not be necessary.

Show Answer

7. Sabnam has 58% attendance and has scored the following aggregate marks in different semesters :

1st semester            63%

2nd semester           58%

3rd semester           61%

4th semester           53%

5th semester           65%

6th semester           66%

Overall aggregate    61%

What decision will be taken for Sabnam?

(a)   She will not be awarded the degree as none of the authorities can condone the violations

(b)   She will be awarded the degree after the Principal condones the shortage of marks only if Sabnam has 60% or more in the project and produces a medical certificate for her sickness.

(c)   If her project mark is not less than 60% and she can produce a medical certificate for her sickness, she will be awarded the degree after the Director and the Principal condone the violations.

(d)   She will be awarded the degree and any form of condoning would not be necessary.

Show Answer

8. You are the District Administrator. A woman meets you and complains of domestic violence in her in-laws family. Her lodging of an FIR in the local police station was not accepted because of some kind of political pressure. Which would be the best course of action for your?

(a)   Call her in-laws and warn them not to indulge in any violence with the woman as it is punishable under law and work for an amicable settlement between both parties.

(b)   Suspend the police officer and take her to the nearby government hospital for a medical examination.

(c)   Ask the  police officer of her local police station to register her complaint and get her medically examined in a government hospital.

(d)   Ask her to bring a report from the government hospital as a proof of physical injuries caused by domestic violence so that a complaint can be registered.

Show Answer

9. Four boys, A, B, C and D and four girls E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing each other. No two boys or no two girls are sitting side-by-side. A is to the immediate right of E, who is facing G. F is between D and B. If D is facing C, who is sitting to the immediate right of G?

(a)   H

(b)   B

(c)   F

(d)   C

Show Answer

10. In an examination, a student gets 3 marks for every correct answer and loses 0.5 marks for every wrong answer. If there are 100 questions and the student attempts all and secures 188 marks, the number of questions the student was wrongly answered is

(a)   32

(b)   22

(c)   26

(d)   42

Show Answer

11. Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered as I, II and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the given statements and choose your answer from the options given.

Statements

(1) Some dogs are animals.

(2) Some animals are cats.

(3) Some goats are animals.

Conclusions

(I) Some dogs are cats.     (II) Some cats are not animals.

(III) No cat is a dog.

(a)   Only conclusion I follows

(b)   Only conclusion II follows

(c)   Either conclusion I or III follows

(d)   Either conclusion I or II follows

Show Answer

12. How many rectangles are there in the following figure (count all the possible rectangles)

(a)   7

(b)   12

(c)   16

(d)   18

Show Answer

13. In the three intersecting circles given below, the numbers in different sections indicate the number of persons speaking different languages. How many persons speak only two languages?

(a)   13

(b)   7

(c)   11

(d)   23

Show Answer

14. Given below are the two positions of a die numbered 1 to 6 on different faces. Which number is on the face opposite to the face containing ‘1’?

(a)   2

(b)   6

(c)   5

(d)   3

Show Answer

15. Four word-pairs are given below out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Which is different from the rest/

(a)   Purse : Money

(b)   School : Classroom

(c)   Hour : Minute

(d)   Word : Letter

Show Answer

16. Which of the Venn diagrams best indicates the relationships among the following three items :

Show Answer

17. Study the diagram given below. What is the sum of numbers which belong to two figures only?

(a)   5

(b)   9

(c)   12

(d)   13

Show Answer

18. The statements given below specify the relationship between different elements. Study the relationship, decide which of the conclusions is true and choose your answer from the alternatives.

Statements

(1) P > Q ≥ R = S   (2) X ≤ Y = Q < T

Conclusions

(I) Y < P ≤ Y          (II) T > S

(a)   Only conclusion I is true.

(b)   Only conclusion II is true.

(c)   Both conclusions are true.

(d)   Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Show Answer

19. The numbers in the following figures follow a pattern. Find the number which will replace the question mark?

(a)   69

(b)   68

(c)   72

(d)   88

Show Answer

20. A four-member State-board of experts is to be selected from among the following eight persons :

(i) Female lawyer

(ii) Male educationist

(iii) Male social worker

(iv) Female legislator

(v) Female doctor

(vi) Male businessman

(vii) Female writer

(viii) Male journalist

The selection is to be made with the following conditions :

(1) The writer and the educationist cannot be selected together.

(2) If the social worker is selected, the businessman will also be selected.

(3) The lawyer and the doctor cannot be selected together.

(4) If there is the journalists in the team, there must also be the doctor.

If there would be at least two women in the team, the team would consist of

(a)   (vii), (iii), (v),, (ii)

(b)   (i), (iv), (v), (viii)

(c)   (iv), (viii), (v), (vii)

(d)   (viii), (v), (iii), (vi)

Show Answer

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) The following ten questions are based on two passages. Read each passage and answer the questions that follow.

Passage-1

Usha, a friendly 40 years old with an enormous smile, can pinpoint the exact day her community stopped being one of the untouchable castes ; untouchability being abolished by law in 1950. Still, manually cleaning the dry toilets by them continued well into the 21st century, and still they were not accepted by the society as clean human beings.

It was 2003, and Usha was on her way to work when Bindeshwar Pathak stopped her. She recall being amased that a ‘nicely dressed’ man would even speak with someone like her : a manual cleaner of dry toilets. As such it was her job to clean human waste, by hand, from homes that lacked flushing toilets in her town in Rajasthan.

Dr. Pathak asked her why she covered her face with her shawl and why she seemed, ashamed to talk to him. At the time, Usha had no idea she was speaking to the man whose mission it was to end manual cleaning and who would eventually changer her life.

Pathak founded an organization called Sulabh in 1970 to wipe out manual cleaning by replacing unplumbed toilets with affordable flushing ones, and by giving cleaners training for other jobs.

“Shopkeepers would drop the rice to me-they wouldn’t touch me,” Usha remembers, losing her smile for a moment. “ And they made me put my money down,, away from them. They threw water over it before taking it.”

Today, she earns a living selling homemade pickles and embroidered cloths. Manual scavenging was banned in India in 1993, by a law that forbids the constructions of dry toilets and requires existing ones to destroyed. But in India, such laws tend to be implemented slowly.

There are probably several hundred thousand manual cleaners still working. A recent survey found there were over 1000 in Delhi alone. It is high time we use flushing toilets and bring an end to the undignified practice of manual cleaning.

21. The passage is about

(a)   Sulabh

(b)   Usha

(c)   Human dignity

(d)   untouchability

Show Answer

22. The goal of Sulabh, an organization founded by Dr. Pathak, is to

(a)   eradicate poverty in India

(b)   end manual cleaning

(c)   train people for other jobs

(d)   help women to earn a living

Show Answer

23. Although manual cleaning was officially banned in India in 1993,

(a)   nothing has been done to implement this ban

(b)   the ban has not been fully implemented

(c)   manual cleaners do not get any compensation

(d)   manual cleaners cannot go to school

Show Answer

24. Usha says that shopkeepers …………. when she worked as a scavenger.

(a)   were nice to her

(b)   would given her free rice

(c)   would not touch her

(d)   give her money

Show Answer

25. According to some estimates, the number of manual scavengers still working in India is

(a)   over 10000

(b)   at least 1000

(c)   under 100000

(d)   not known

Show Answer

Passage-2

Today, millions of people want to learn and improve their English, but it difficult to find the best method. Also, the question arises, if it is better to study English in Britain or America or to study the language in your own country.

The advantages of studying English in Britain or America seem obvious. Firstly, you will  be able to listen to the language all the time in those countries from native speakers. You will be surrounded completely by the language wherever you go.

Another advantage is that you have to speak the language wherever you need to communicate your thoughts and ideas, to express your feelings, ,and to seek and given information. In India, on the other hand, it is always possible to use your mother tongue to fulfil all your communication purposes. As a result, your learning and  using of English happens only in the English class in school, and so learning the language becomes slower.

However, there are also advantages of staying at home and learning English. You don’t have to make big changes to your life. As well as this, it is also a lot cheaper than going to Britain or America, but it is never possible to achieve the same results as living and learning English in the UK or the USA. If you have good English teachers in India, you can learn the language in a more concentrated way than being in Britain or America.

So, if you have enough time and money, the best choice is to spend some time in the UK or the USA to learn English like a native speaker. But this is simply not possibly for most people, so learning the language here in India is a good option as learning opportunities are plenty, most educated people use the language for different purposes, and there are a large number of excellent speakers of the language.

The most important thing to do in this situation is to maximize your opportunities listen to good English programmes on TV, speak only English in class and try to use English whenever possible outside the class.

26. The text is about

(a)   how most people learn English

(b)   the best way to learn English in India

(c)   learning English in England and America

(d)   the options available to learn English better

Show Answer

27. One of the advantages of going to the UK or the USA to learn English is that

(a)   no Indians speak their language in those countries

(b)   the language schools there are better

(c)   you will have to speak English and not your language most of the time

(d)   there are many native speakers there

Show Answer

28. One of the advantages of learning. English in India is

(a)   your life can continue more or less the same as you learn the language

(b)   the teachers are not very good in Britain or America

(c)   you have to work too hard in Britain or America

(d)   you can achieve the same results as living and learning English in the UK or the USA

Show Answer

29. People who don’t have a lot of time and money should

(a)   learn English with native speakers

(b)   try and speak English like  native speakers

(c)   be surrounded completely by the language wherever they go

(d)   use English as much as they can in listening and speaking

Show Answer

30. The opportunities for learning English in India can

(a)   be very less

(b)   be availed in school classes very well

(c)   be availed through different sources

(d)   be availed through coaching classes

Show Answer

31. All boys in a class are asked to stand in a circle. They are all evenly spaced and the 11th boy is diametrically opposite to the 24th boy. How many boys are there in the class?

(a)   30

(b)   28

(c)   26

(d)   24

Show Answer

32. A teacher has a few pens to be distribute in different packets. If 2 or 3 or 4 pens are put in each packet, the teacher is left with one pen. However, if 7 pens are put in each packet, the teacher is left with 3 pens. What is the minimum number of pens the teacher has for distribution?

(a)   97

(b)   122

(c)   52

(d)   73

Show Answer

33. Seven persons are standing in a line. A is to the left of G. There are two persons between B and C. C is to the right of F and left of A. G is between D and A. Who is exactly in the middle?

(a)   C

(b)   A

(c)   E

(d)   F

Show Answer

34. 12 men can complete 12 times of a work in 12 days by working 12 hours a day. How many hours a day would 8 men have to work to complete 8 times of the same work in 8 days?

(a)   4 h

(b)   8 h

(c)   12 h

(d)   18 h

Show Answer

35. B is married to D, sister of E. A is the father of C, who is the son of E. F is the sister of C. How is F related to B?

(a)   Sister-in-law

(b)   Nephew

(c)   Niece

(d)   Sister

Show Answer

36. The numbers in each group are related in a certain way. Choose the correct number from among the alternatives that will replace the question mark.

[5(13) 12] [24(26) 10] [8 (?) 6]

(a)   9

(b)   10

(c)   12

(d)   14

Show Answer

37. Sneha’s school bus picks her up from her house. Then it takes one left turn and two right turns to reach her school. If the school bus is facing South-East when it reaches the school, which direction was the bus facing at Sneha’s home?

(a)   North-East

(b)   South-West

(c)   North-West

(d)   North

Show Answer

38. The first two figures on the left of the sign ‘: :’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds good for the second pair of figures to the right of the sing ‘: :’ one of which is missing. Find the missing one from among the alternatives.

Show Answer

39. The clock shows the time 12 noon when the hour and minute hands are one above the other. After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again lying one above the other.

(a)   70

(b)   62

(c)   65

(d)   67

Show Answer

40. If you write the numbers from ‘1’ to ‘100’, how many times you have to write the digit ‘1’?

(a)   20

(b)   11

(c)   21

(d)   12

Show Answer

41. If the arithmetic mean of three numbers is equal to 5 and their standard deviation is zero, the numbers are

(a)   4, 5, 6

(b)   3, 5, 7

(c)   5, 5, 5

(d)   1, 5, 9

Show Answer

42. A student reaches his school 5 minutes late if his speed from his house to the school is 5 km/h. If he walks 6 km/h, then he reaches school 5 minutes early. The distance of the school from his house is

(a)   4 km

(b)   5 km

(c)   6 km

(d)   3 km

Show Answer

43. A can complete a piece of work in 8 days. B can complete the same work in 12 days. Both A and B started the work and after 2 days A left the work. In how many days the work will be completed?

(a)   7 days

(b)   8 days

(c)   9 days

(d)   10 days

Show Answer

Directions (Q. Nos. 44-48) The following line graph gives the ratio of the amounts of imports by a company to the amount of exports from that company over the period from1995to 2001.

44. If the imports in 1998 was Rs 250 crore and the total exports in the years 1998 and 1999 together was Rs 500 crore, then the imports in 1999 was

(a)   Rs 250 crore

(b)   Rs 300 crore

(c)   Rs 357 crore

(d)   Rs 420 crore

Show Answer

45. The imports were minimum proportionate to the exports of the company in the year?

(a)   1995

(b)   1996

(c)   1997

(d)   2000

Show Answer

46. What was the percentage increase in imports from 1997 to 1998?

(a)   72%

(b)   56%

(c)   28%

(d)   Data inadequate

Show Answer

47. If the imports of the company in 1996 was Rs 272 crore, the exports from the company in 1996 was

(a)   Rs 370 crore

(b)   Rs 320 crore

(c)   Rs 280 crore

(d)   Rs 275 crore

Show Answer

48. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports?

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   4

Show Answer

Directions (Q. Nos. 49-50) A school has four Sections – A, B, C, D of Class IX students. The results of half-yearly and annual examinations are shown in the table given below.

49. If the number of students passing an examination be considered a criteria for comparison of difficulty level of two examinations, which of the following statements is true in this context?

(a)   Half-yearly examinations were more difficult.

(b)   Annual examinations were more difficult.

(c)   Both the examinations had almost the same difficulty level.

(d)   The two examinations cannot be compared for difficulty level.

Show Answer

50. How many students are there in Class IX in the school?

(a)   336

(b)   189

(c)   335

(d)   430

Show Answer

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-60) Read the following two passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

Comprehensive lifestyle changes including a better diet and more exercise can lead not only to a better physique, but also to swift and dramatic changes at the genetic level, as US researchers advocate recently. In a small study, the researchers tracked thirty men with low-risk prostate cancer who decided against conventional medical treatment such as surgery and radiation or hormone therapy.

The men underwent three months of major lifestyle changes, including eating a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes and soy products, moderate exercise such as walking for half an hour a day, and an hour of daily stress management methods such as meditation. As expected, they lost weight lowered their blood pressure and experienced other health improvements.

The researchers ascertained more profound changes when they compared prostate biopsies taken before and after the lifestyle changes of these men. After the three months, there were changes in activity in about five hundred genes of each of these men including forty eight that were turned, on and four hundred fifty three genes that were turned off.

The activity of disease-preventing genes increased while a number of disease-promoting genes, including those involved in prostate cancer and breast cancer, shut down, according to the study ‘published in the journal, Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences.

The research was led by Dr. Dean Ornish, head of the Preventive Medicine Research Institute in Sausalito, California, and a well known author advocating lifestyle changes to improve health. “It’s an exciting finding because so often people say, ‘Oh, it’s all in my genes, what can I do?’ Well, it turns out you may be able to do a  lot.” Ornish, who is also affiliated with the University of California, San Francisco, said in a telephone interview “In just three months, I can change hundreds of my genes simply by changing what I eat and how I live? That’s pretty exciting,” Ornish, said. “The implications of our study are not limited to men with prostate cancer.”

51. The main focus of the articles is that a healthy lifestyle

(a)   can help all cancer patients

(b)   can alter our genes for the better

(c)   has no effect our genes

(d)   can cure cancer

Show Answer

52. Apart from eating healthy food and exercising, the men in the study

(a)   were taught techniques to handle tension

(b)   were put under various stresses

(c)   were given animal protein to lose weight

(d)   developed healthy physique

Show Answer

53. In total, …….. genes changed as a result of the healthy lifestyle.

(a)   48

(b)   453

(c)   30

(d)   500

Show Answer

54. This was what happened to some of the disease-causing genes

(a)   their activity increased

(b)   their activity ceased

(c)   there was little change in their activity

(d)   these genes helped in removing cancer

Show Answer

55. Which of the following is not mentioned in the article?

(a)   Patients undergoing standard treatment

(b)   Patients losing weight

(c)   Patients experiencing lower blood pressure

(d)   Patients were  helpless with regard to their genetic activities.

Show Answer

Passage-2

There is still no consensus about how the Neanderthals were drive to extinction, leaving our Homo sapiens ancestors without any competition. The disappearance of the native European Neanderthals is odd partly because their shorter, stockier bodies must have made them better able to withstand the colder temperatures that prevailed when their cousins from Africa entered Europe. With a smaller surface area, the Neanderthal Body would have been able to retain more heat.

The once common assumption that the key was the inferior vocal abilities of the Neanderthal has since been disproved by research on the Neanderthal hyoid bone, located in the throat. The larger skull capacity and, thus, the larger brain is another respect in which they no longer seem to have been inferior. It was once thought that proof a superior intellect was to be found in the narrower Homo Sapiens stone tools known as ‘Blades’, which were assumed to be more efficient than the broader ‘flakes’ used by the Neanderthals.

In a number of important ways, including durability this idea has proved to be unfounded. However, the blades would have been more effective as tips for throwing spears whereas the stone flakes would have been limited to the kind of thrusting spears the Neanderthals are believed to have used.

This could have combined with the greater agility of the Homo sapiens to give them a distinct advantage in hunting in open terrain. Crucial in this respect were the larger canals in the Homo sapiens inner ear, providing a more acute sense of balance, in addition to the longer limbs and lighter build.

The Neanderthal technique of hiding and lying in wait for passing animals ceased to be viable when the dense forests of Europe began to recede. After a period of co-existence with their cousins, the Neanderthals were slowly eradicated.

56. According to the passage, what is now believed about the stone tools used by the Neanderthals compared to those of the Homo sapiens?

(a)   They were at least as long lasting.

(b)   They could have been used as better spear tips.

(c)   They were longer and narrower.

(d)   They indicated a superior mental capacity.

Show Answer

57. The passage states that the Neanderthals relied on the dense forests

(a)   to provide cover when hunting

(b)   for firewood and shelter

(c)   to provide wood for spears

(d)   to hid from their attackers

Show Answer

58. The hyoid bone is evidence of

(a)   a capacity for language

(b)   an ability to adapt to a cold climate

(c)   brain capacity

(d)   the inferior anatomy of the Neanderthal

Show Answer

59. The Neanderthals were wiped out

(a)   before the Homo sapiens arrived

(b)   in battles with their opponents

(c)   after the climate changed

(d)   due to their  primitive social organization

Show Answer

60. According to the passage, which of the following is not an older assumption that has now been cast in doubt?

(a)   Neanderthals were considerably less intelligent than Homo sapiens.

(b)   The Neanderthals evolved first in Africa.

(c)   Flakes were inferior to blades in all respects

(d)   Neanderthals had very poor communication skills.

Show Answer

61. You are appointed as the new head of a government department and find the that many employees have got into the habit of coming late to the office. What should you do?

(a)   Circulate an official letter stating that you are aware of the late comers, whose behaviour cannot be excused henceforth.

(b)   Tell your immediate subordinate to look into the matter and circulate a notice for the defaulters

(c)   Call the defaulters to  your office chamber and warn them of serious consequences

(d)   Call a meeting of the employees and show your displeasure to the defaulters

Show Answer

62. You boss rebukes you in the presence of others. You think you are not at fault and his action is based on the information given to him by one of your juniors to whom the boss appears to be over sympathetic. What should you do?

(a)   Lodge a complaint against your junior to the boss.

(b)   Meet the boss when you find him cool to know the reasons for disapproval.

(c)   Bring the writing the entire incident before the management committee of the institution.

(d)   Ask for a written explanation from your junior.

Show Answer

63. You are the head teacher of a government school. One student tells, you that his friend saw a lizard from the roof falling onto the food being cooked. What would you do immediately?

(a)   Ask the cook to stop cooking and not serve the food to students.

(b)   Write against the cook to higher authorities about his carelessness.

(c)   Taste the food yourself to find out if what the student was telling was true.

(d)   Call the school management committee meeting to inform members about cook’s carelessness

Show Answer

64. You are the Director of an institute. A group of angry workers created turmoil over petty issue and rushed to your office to see you. You became apprehensive and thought that they may aggressively deal with you. What would do?

(a)   Ask them to meet you after an hour.

(b)   Call the higher authorities seeking their protection.

(c)   Pass of the message to them that they submit their grievances in writing.

(d)   Ask them to assemble in a hall and hold talks with them.

Show Answer

65. Critical reading of a text is a very demanding process. It requires the reader to read the text slowly and mark h is thoughts and comments on the text using a pencil. Reading is active engagement with the text. Which of the following statements is logically best supported by the paragraph given above?

(a)   Critical reading requires the readers to evaluate the truth value of what they read.

(b)   Critical reading is a slow, dull, but demanding process.

(c)   Critical reading requires careful attention.

(d)   Critical reading can happen only when the person makes marks on the text.

Show Answer

66. Though Yoga now-a-days, has become popular, it may not be suitable for everyone. Before getting admitted into a Yoga center, it is better to examine what you want for your fitness. If you want high energy aerobic exercises, Yoga may not be a good choice for you.

Which of the following statements is logically best supported by the paragraph given above?

(a)   Before admission into a Yoga centre, think of your needs and preferences.

(b)   Yoga keeps the body and mind fit.

(c)   Yoga is certainly more popular than aerobic exercises.

(d)   Yoga is not a good choice for’ majority of people.

Show Answer

67. Three statements are given in each of the alternatives Assuming the statements to be true, even if they are not supported by common knowledge, select the alternative in which the third statement logically follows from the first two statements.

(a)   All houses are insured. All buildings are insured. Some buildings are houses.

(b)   All monkeys can jump. All cats are monkeys. All cats can jump.

(c)   All mangoes are yellow. Some oranges are mangoes All oranges are yellow.

(d)   All ions are timid. All leopards are timid. Some leopards are lions.

Show Answer

68. Three statements are given in each of the alternatives. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they are not supported by common knowledge, select the alternative in which the third statement logically does not follow the first two statements.

(a)   All actors are rich. No rich person is humble. All actors are not humble.

(b)   All men can swim. No animal can swim. Man is not an animal.

(c)   All dogs live in cities. Green forests are in cities. All dogs live in green forests.

(d)   Some actors are not polite. All actors are humble. Not all humble persons are polite.

Show Answer

69. Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered as I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows from t he given statements and choose your answer from the options given.

Statements

(1) Some tables are chairs. (2) All chairs are desks.

Conclusions

(I) No table is a desk.       (II) Some desks are tables.

(a)   Only conclusion I follows

(b)   Only conclusion II follows

(c)   Both conclusions I and II follow

(d)   Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer

70. Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered as I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the given statements and choose your answer from the options given.

Statements

(1) All trees are mountains.       (2) All mountains are forests.

(3) All stones mountains.

Conclusions

(I) Some forests are stones.                 (II) No stone is a forest.

(III) Some forests are trees.

(a)   Only conclusion I follows

(b)   Only conclusion II follows

(c)   Both conclusions I and II follow

(d)   Both conclusions I and III follow

Show Answer

71. You are a member of the Executive Council of a Community and find that most of the inmates are unreasonable and do things that do not take cognizance of the perspectives of others. In spite of your well-intentioned effort to enrich their perspective taking, there is very little improvement. What would be the most appropriate course of action for you?

(a)   Wait until the term of the Executive Council is over and not be a member of the next Executive Council.

(b)   Keep yourself engaged in community welfare activities independent of whether of whether it is appreciated by others.

(c)   Assertively place your views and make the inmates agree with your viewpoint

(d)   Lower down your involvement in community affairs

Show Answer

72. You find that a friend whom you believe for so long is a self-centered person and has no respect for others perspectives. The best course of action for you to take is

(a)   Dissociate yourself from your friend

(b)   Send him for a special training on perspective taking

(c)   Tell him to correct  his/her perspectives in order for you to continue the relationship

(d)   Continue your relationship while trying to be empathetic to his/her feelings

Show Answer

73. A person is sharing his life problems and experiences with you and expects that you actively listen to him. In order for you to give him the felling that you are actively listening, the most appropriate course of action for you would be

(a)   share your life experiences with him

(b)   express astonishment over what has happened to him

(c)   paraphrase his utterances

(d)   offer your point of view while the conversation proceeds

Show Answer

74. Your team has been given an important project to complete. Two of your team members do not pull on well with each other. You feel that the project cannot be completed in time as the involvement of both of them is important. What would you do ?

(a)   Warn each of t hem of the dire consequences if they do not work in cooperation

(b)   Drive both of them out of your team and assign the responsibility to other employees

(c)   Forget about them and carry out the work on your own

(d)   Hold a conversation with both them by being sensitive to their viewpoints

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75. Your neighbour has the habit of p laying loud music which disturbs you. You have brought the problem to his attention but without any positive outcome. You should

(a)   play loud music to give him a feeling of how disturbing it can be

(b)   complain to other neighbours about the disturbing nature of  this neighbour’s behaviour

(c)   carry an open discussion with him to appreciate the problem and try for an amicable solution

(d)   close all the doors and windows of  your home to lower down the noise impact

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76. Which of the following is important for maintaining good interpersonal relationship in community living ?

(a)   Taking a lead role in community affairs

(b)   Contributing to community welfare

(c)   Enjoying and being happy in community get-togethers

(d)   Rendering help in times of individual need

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77. While working for an NGO, you have differences of opinion with one of your juniors on a proposal prepared by him and to be submitted for funding immediately. Your junior is trying hard to justify his views. You would

(a)   tell him to stop justifying a proposal based on wrong information

(b)   ask him to write the proposal as you would want it to be

(c)   revise the proposal on your own

(d)   hold a meeting of the teammates to convince him that he is wrong

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78. While filling up several forms in an office, a visitor complains about the bureaucratic procedure which slows down the functioning of the Government machinery. How can you best respond to the visitor?

(a)   Suggest him to write a letter to the office boss

(b)   Tell  him the reasons why you office needs the information in writing

(c)   Keep your calmness and do not tell him anything

(d)   Tell him that his application cannot be processed if he does not follow rules

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79. Your immediate boss did not intimate you the deadline for completing task. As a result the task was not completed in time and the top boss asked you for an explanation. What would be the first and the most appropriate thing to do?

(a)   Draft a written reply to explain the situation and send it to the top boss

(b)   Withhold your answer and seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation

(c)   Put the responsibility on your immediate boss to explain the situation

(d)   Admit your fault to save the immediate boss

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80. You are attending a very formal meeting of equals in your office called to discuss the innovative changes in the governance system. You find that the discussion are turning out to be irrelevant and boring and members are arguing out on petty issues without reaching a conclusion. What would be your most befitting course of action?

(a)   Try to persuade others to postpone the meeting

(b)   Leave the meeting telling them that you have an urgent telephone call to attend to

(c)   Get involved in the meeting and help members to focus on the issues of interest

(d)   Sit through the meeting because it would be impolite to leave

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