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O.U.A.T 2015 Question with Answer
Physics
1. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g helium and 16g of oxygen, The ration Cp/Cv of the mixture is
(a) 1.62
(b) 1.59
(c) 1.54
(d) 1.4
Answer: (a)
2. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the average rotational KE per O2 to per N2 molecule
(a) is 1 : 1
(b) is 1 : 2
(c) is 2 : 1
(d) depends on the moment of inertia of two molecules
Answer: (a)
3. A given quantity of an ideal gas is at pressure P and absolute temperature T. The isothermal bulk modulus of the gas is
(a) 
(b) P
(c) 
(d) 2P
Answer: (b)
4. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking in equally speed plates connected alternatively. If the capacitance between any two adjacent states is ‘C’, then the resultant capacitance is
(a) (n + 1)C
(b) (n – 1)C
(c) nC
(d) C
Answer: (b)
5. A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impendance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the circuit will be
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.125
(d) 1.25
Answer: (b)
6. In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each of the components L,C and R is 50 V. The voltage across LC combination is
(a) 50 V
(b) 50√2V
(c) 100V
(d) zero
Answer: (a)
7. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance ‘b’ are carrying a current ‘I’ ampere each. The magnitude of force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
8. A spherical ball falls on a table about its diameter without slipping. Then the fraction of the total energy associated with its rotation is
(a) 2/5
(b) 2/7
(c) 3/7
(d) 3/5
Answer: (a)
9. A solid cylinder first rolls without sliding and then slides without rolling down the same inclined plane. The ratio of velocities in the two cases, at the bottom of the plane, is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) √6 : 3
(d) √3 : 1
Answer: (c)
10. The displacement of a wave is given by the equation 
The frequency of the wave is
(a) 30 Hz
(b) 25 Hz
(c) 20 Hz
(d) 15 Hz
Answer: (c)
11. If the temperature of the Sun is to increase from T to 2T and is radius from R to 2R, then the ratio of the radiant energy received on the earth to what it was previously, is
(a) 4
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer: (b)
12. The temperature of a piece of metal is raised from 27℃ to 51℃. The rate at which metal radiates energy increases nearly
(a) 2 times
(b) 1.36 times
(c) 2.72 times
(d) 4 times
Answer: (b)
13. To get three image of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Answer: (c)
14. A person having the nearest distinct of distance vision of 32 cm uses a reading lens of 8 cm focal length. The magnification of his reading lens is
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer: (a)
15. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generation will be
(a) 4 times
(b) doubled
(c) half
(d) 1/4
Answer: (b)
16. 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across 110 volt main supply. The power consumed will be
(a) 1000 watt
(b) 750 watt
(c) 500 watt
(d) 250 watt
Answer: (d)
17. Two bodies each of mass 66.7 kg are at a distance of 2 m. The escape velocity of a body midway between them is
(a) 13.34 m/s
(b) 6.67 m/s
(c) 33.35 m/s
(d) zero
Answer: (a)
18. Radio carbon is produced in the atmosphere as a result of
(a) collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the atmosphere
(b) action of ultraviolet light from the Sun of atmospheric oxygen
(c) action of solar radiations particularly cosmic rays on CO2 present in the atmosphere
(d) lighting discharge in atmosphere
Answer: (a)
19. The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves
(a) viscosity of ink
(b) capillary action
(c) diffusion of ink
(d) siphon action
Answer: (b)
20. What will be the maximum velocity for the overturn of a car moving on a circular track of radius 100 m? The coefficient of friction between the road & tyre is 0.2.
(a) 0.14 m/s
(b) 140 m/s
(c) 1.4 km/s
(d) 14 m/s
Answer: (d)
21. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz is called
(a) audio sounds
(b) infrasonic
(c) ultrasonic
(d) supersonic
Answer: (b)
22. One thousand micron means
(a) 10−3 m
(b) 10−6 m
(c) 10−9 m
(d) 10−12 m
Answer: (a)
23. A bar magnet is equivalent to
(a) solenoid carrying current
(b) circular coil carrying current
(c) toroid carrying current
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
24. A body weighs 50 grams in air and 40 grams in water. How much would it weight in liquid of specific gravity 1.5?
(a) 30 grams
(b) 35 grams
(c) 65 grams
(d) 45 grams
Answer: (b)
25. The total energy, stored in the condenser system, shown in the figure below, is
(a) 2 mJ
(b) 4 mJ
(c) 8 mJ
(d) 16 mJ
Answer: (b)
26. Which is the value of emf E in the figure below?
VL = 40 V, VR = 80 V, VC = 100 V, EI = 50 Hz
(a) 200 V
(b) 140 V
(c) 100 V
(d) 20 V
Answer: (c)
27. An unpolarised beam of intensity I0 falls on a Polaroid. The intensity of the emergent light is
(a) I0/2
(b) I0
(c) I0/4
(d) zero
Answer: (a)
28. Hydrogen atom does NOT emit X-rays because
(a) it contains only a single electron.
(b) energy levels in it are far apart.
(c) its size is very small
(d) energy levels in it are very close to each other
Answer: (a)
29. If power dissipated in 9 Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across 2 Ω resistor is
(a) 2 volt
(b) 4 volt
(c) 8 volt
(d) 10 volt
Answer: (d)
30. Solar spectrum is an example for
(a) line emission spectrum
(b) continuous mission spectrum
(c) band absorption spectrum
(d) line absorption spectrum
Answer: (d)
31. The most stable particle in Baryon group is
(a) neutron
(b) omega-particle
(c) proton
(d) lamda-particle
Answer: (c)
32. The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be
(a) 1.25
(b) 0.25
(c) 5
(d) 10
Answer: (b)
33. Which of the following is a dichoric crystal?
(a) Quartz
(b) Tourmaline
(c) Mica
(d) Selenite
Answer: (b)
34. A missile is fired for maximum range, with an initial velocity of 20 m/s; if g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is
(a) 20 m
(b) 40 m
(c) 60 m
(d) 70 m
Answer: (b)
35. Which instrument is used to measure the altitudes in aircrafts?
(a) Audiometer
(b) Ammeter
(c) Altimeter
(d) Anemometer
Answer: (c)
36. p-n junction when reverse biased acts as a/an
(a) capacitor
(b) inductor
(c) on switch
(d) off switch
Answer: (d)
37. The device or circuit used for conversion of AC into DC is called
(a) an amplifier
(b) a rectifier
(c) filtering circuit
(d) converter
Answer: (b)
38. For long distance transmission, the transformer used, is
(a) step down
(b) step up
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
39. A 5F capacitor has potential difference across its plates of 200 volt. The charge on the capacitor is
(a) 2.5 × 10−8 C
(b) 10 to 5 C
(c) 103C
(d) 4 × 103 C
Answer: (c)
40. The blue colour of sky is due to
(a) diffraction
(b) reflection
(c) polarization
(d) scattering
Answer: (d)
41. Crystals of a material can behave as
(a) convex lens
(b) interferometer
(c) diffraction grating
(d) concave
Answer: (c)
42. A man is in a car is moving with velocity 36 km/hr. His speed with speed respect to the car is
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 36 m/s
(c) zero
(d) infinite
Answer: (c)
43. Excited atoms return to the ground state is
(a) 10 s
(b) 10 to 8 s
(c) 10 to 6 s
(d) 10 to 9 s
Answer: (a)
44. When a body moves in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity & angular velocity is always
(a) 180°
(b) 0°
(c) 90°
(d) 40°
Answer: (c)
45. The critical speed of an artificial satellite is
(a) 8 km/s
(b) 8.1 km/s
(c) 7.9 km/s
(d) 8 m/s
Answer: (c)
46. Which phenomenon can be applied to estimate the velocity of star with respect to earth
(a) Doppler’s effect
(b) Interference of waves
(c) beats phenomenon
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
47. What is the value of the current in a wire of 10 cm long at the right angle to uniform magnetic field of 0.5 Weber/m2, when the force acting on toe wire is 5 N?
(a) 1 A
(b) 10 A
(c) 100 A
(d) 1000 A
Answer: (c)
48. Heating a magnet will
(a) weaken it
(b) strengthen it
(c) reverse its polarity
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
49. A ferromagnet will get fully magnetized at
(a) high voltage AC
(b) low voltage AC
(c) AC at its peak value
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
50. The distance covered by a body in one complete vibration is 20 cm. The amplitude of
(a) 10 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 7.5 cm
Answer: (b)
51. A photon of wavelength 900 ohm behaves like a particle of mass
(a) 5.53 × 10−36 kg
(b) 0 kg
(c) 2.46 × 10−36 kg
(d) 1.84 × 10−44 kg
Answer: (c)
52. A camera uses a …….. to form an image on a piece of film at the back.
(a) convex lens.
(b) concave lens
(c) diverging lens
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
53. When white light passes through a prism it splits into …….. colours.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer: (c)
54. Short sight defect should be correct
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) converging lens
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
55. Ozone layer protects the Earth form
(a) microwaves
(b) infrared radiation from Sun.
(c) X-rays
(d) U V
Answer: (d)
56. Which of the following is NOT renewable energy?
(a) Geothermal
(b) Solar
(c) Nuclear
(d) Bio fuels
Answer: (d)
57. Large angle produces
(a) high trajectory
(b) curve trajectory
(c) straight trajectory
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
58. If a projectile is launched at 45° with velocity 100 m/s, it hits the target. It will have double the range if its velocity is
(a) 200 m/s
(b) 141.4 m/s
(c) 173.2 m/s
(d) 400 m/s
Answer: (b)
59. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown below, is (capacitances are in μF)
(a) 21 μF
(b) 23 μF
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
60. A body of mass M starts siding down on the inclined plane where the critical angle is
∠ACB = 30° as shown in the figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (c)
61. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance ‘d’ as shown in the figure. The work done on the particle during the displacement of 12 m is
(a) 13 J
(b) 18 J
(c) 21 J
(d) 26 J
Answer: (19J)
62. Identify the logic operation performed by the circuit given below:
(a) NOT
(b) NAND
(c) OR
(d) NOR
Answer: (d)
63. In the circuit below, the points A, B and C are 70 V, zero, 10 V respectively. Then
(a) current in the paths AD, DB and DC are ratio of 1 : 2 : 3
(b) current in the paths AD, DB and DCC are in ratio of 3 : 2 : 1
(c) the point D will be at a potential of 60 V
(d) the point D will be at a potential of 20 V
Answer: (b)
64. The resultant force on the current loop PQRS due to a long current carrying conductor will be
(a) 10−4 N
(b) 3.6 × 10−4 N
(c) 1.8 × 10−4 N
(d) 5 × 10−4 N
Answer: (d)
65. A satellite is moving round the Earth in a circular orbit with a velocity V. If the gravitational force of the Earth were suddenly disappear, then satellite would
(a) spirally move away from Earth
(b) move radially outward with a velocity V
(c) fall towards the surface of the Earth
(d) move with a velocity V, tangentially to its circular orbit
Answer: (d)
66. When a mass is attached to a spring, its length is increased by 20 cm. It is further lowered and released. The time period of its S.H.M. is.
(a) 
(b) 2π sec
(c) 4π
(d) Data is not enough
Answer: (a)
Chemistry
1. The bond length of HCl molecule is 1.275 Å and its dipole moment is 1.03 D. The ionic character of the molecule (in percent) (charge of electron 4.8 × 10−10 esu) is
(a) 100
(b) 67.3
(c) 33.6
(d) 16.83
Answer: (d)
2. Which is NOT tetrahedral?
(a) 
(b)
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (c)
3. The velocity constant of a reaction at 290 K was found to be 3.2 × 10−3 s−1. When the temperature is raised to 310 K, it will be about
(a) 9.6 × 10−3
(b) 1.28 × 10−2
(c) 6.4 × 10−3
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
4. Which of the following compound shows optical isomerism?
(a) [CuNH3)4]2+
(b) [ZnCl4]2+
(c) [Cr(C2O4)3]3−
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
5. The radical 
is aromatic because it has
(a) 6 p-orbitals & 6 unpaired electrons
(b) 7 p-orbitals & 6 unpaired electrons
(c) 7 p-orbitas
(d) 6 p-orbitals
Answer: (a)
6. The coal tar fraction which contains phenol is
(a) heavy oil
(b) light oil
(c) middle oil
(d) green oil
Answer: (c)
7. pH of saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is
(a) 4.0 × 10−6
(b) 5× 10−6
(c) 3.3 × 10−7
(d) 5.0 × 10−7
Answer: (d)
8. 023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer: (d)
9. An acid HA ionizes as
HA ⇔ H+ + A−
The pH of 1.0 M solution is 5. Its dissociation constant would be
(a) 1 × 10−5
(b) 1 × 10−10
(c) 5
(d) 5 × 10−8
Answer: (c)
10. Aluminium oxide may be electrolyzed at 1000℃ to furnish aluminium metal. (Atomic mass = 27 amul Faraday = 96,500 coulombs). The cathode reaction is Al2+ + 3e− → Al what will be the charges?
(a) 1.83 × 107 of electricity
(b) 5.49 × 107C of electricity
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
11. The Gibbs energy for decomposition Al2O3 at 500℃ is as follows:
The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500℃ is at least
(a) 5V
(b) 4.5V
(c) 3V
(d) 2.5V
Answer: (d)
12. For one mole, which one h as highest entropy?
(a) Liquid nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen gas
(c) Mercury
(d) Diamond
Answer: (b)
13. The RMS velocity of an ideal gas at 300 K is 12240 cm. sec−1. What is the most probable velocity (in cm. sec−1) at the same temperature?
(a) 10000
(b) 11280
(c) 1000
(d) 12240
Answer: (a)
14. Solution A contains 7g/L, of MgCl2 and solution B contains 7g/L of NaCl. At room temperature the osmotic pressure of
(a) solution B is greater than A
(b) Both have same osmotic pressure
(c) solution A is greater
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
15. Volume of water needed to mix with 10 mL NHCl to get 0.1 NHCl is
(a) 90 mL
(b) 9 mL
(c) 900 mL
(d) 1000 mL
Answer: (b)
16. The crystal with metal deficiency defect is
(a) NaCl
(b) FeO
(c) KCl
(d) ZnO
Answer: (b)
17. The monomer of polystyrene, is
(a) C2H5-CH = CH2
(b) CH2 = CHCl
(c) CH2 = CH2Cl
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
18. The pKa of a weak acid, HA is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base BOH is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the corresponding salt, BA will be
(a) 7.01
(b) 9.22
(c) 9.58
(d) 4.79
Answer: (a)
19. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
(a) CH3CH = CHCH3
(b) CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3
(c) CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3CH3
(d) CH3CH3C = CH
Answer: (d)
20. If the radius of 13Al27 nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fermi, then the radius of 52Te125 nucleus will nearly.
(a) 8 fermi
(b) 6 fermi
(c) 5 fermi
(d) 4 fermi
Answer: (b)
21. The halflife of radioactive radon is 3.8 days. The time at the end of which 1/20th of the radon sample will remain undecayed is
(given log10e = 0.4343)
(a) 3.8 days
(b) 16.5 days
(c) 33 days
(d) 76 days
Answer: (b)
22. An alpha particle of energy 6 MeV is scattered through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of the order of
(a) 1A°
(b) 10−10 m
(c) 10−12 m
(d) 10−15 m
Answer: (c)
23. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in fused state is called
(a) smelting
(b) roasting
(c) calcinations
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
24. The spectrum produced by while light is
(a) emission spectrum
(b) continuous spectrum
(c) absorption spectrum
(d) Both (A) & (B)
Answer: (b)
25. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?
(a) (CH3)2C = CH2
(b) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(c) CH3–CH2–CH = CH2
(d) CH3 – CH = CH2
Answer: (a)
26. An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on monochlorisation gives one chloro derivative, then A is
(a) iso – butyl chloride
(b) secondary butyl chloride
(c) t-butyl chloride
(d) n-butyl chloride
Answer: (c)
27. Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The reaction is called.
(a) Fittig reaction
(b) Williamson reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Etard reaction
Answer: (b)
28. The IUPAC name of 
is
(a) 2-methyl-3-bromohexan
(b) 2-methyl-3-bromobutanal
(c) 3-bromo-2-methylbutanal
(d) 3-bromo-2-methylpentanal
Answer: (d)
29. Which of the following is acidic hydrogen?
(a) 2-Hexanone
(b) 2, 4-Hexanedione
(c) 2, 5-Hexanedione
(d) 2, 3-Hexanedione
Answer: (a)
30. The species having pyramidal shape is
(a) SO3
(b) BrF3
(c) 
(d) OSF3
Answer: (d)
31. IUPAC name for the following compound is
(a) 1, 3-pentamethyl propane
(b) 1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane
(c) 2, 4, 4-trimethyl pentane
(d) 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane
Answer: (d)
32. Which of the following nuclei will have a magnetic moment?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (a)
33. What is the best name for the following compound?
(a) 2-methylcyclohexene
(b) 3-methylhexene
(c) 1-methyl cyclohex-2-ene
(d) 3-methyl cyclohexene
Answer: (c)
34. Which of the following alkenes would have the largest Imax?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
35. What is Imax for
(a) 229 nm
(b) 249 nm
(c) 254 nm
(d) 259 nm
Answer: (d)
36. What is major product expected from the following reaction?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (a)
37. Which of the following bonds would show the strongest absorption in IR?
(a) Carbon-Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen-Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen-Hydrogen
(d) Sulfur-Hydrogen
Answer: (c)
38. Which of the following would NOT be reasonable nucelophile in reaction?
(a) NH3
(b) NC−
(c) H2O
(d) HO−
Answer: (a)
39. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?
(a) 
(b)
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
40. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?
H2N – CH2 – CH2 – OH + CH3Na (one mole) →
(a) CH3 – NH – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(b) H2N – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH3
(c) CH4 + NaNH – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(d) CH4 + H2N – CH2 – CH2 – ONa
Answer: (d)
41. What is the major product 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (a)
42. What is the best reagent to convert isopropyl alcohol to isopropyl bromide?
(a) HBr
(b) SOBr2
(c) Br2
(d) CH3MgBr
Answer: (a)
43. Which of the functional groups on the following molecule are susceptible to nucleophilic attack?
(a) ‘a’ & ‘b’
(b) ‘a’ & ‘c’
(c) ‘b’ & ‘c’
(d) ‘a’, ‘b’ & ‘c’
Answer: (b)
44. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
45. How many moles of CO2 are present in 220 mg ?
(a) 5 moles
(b) 0.005 mole
(c) 5000 moles
(d) 10 moles
Answer: (b)
46. One mole of (NH4)2 HPO4 contains ——- moles of hydrogen atoms.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 9
Answer: (d)
47. If 2.68 g of hydrated sodium sulphate N2SO4 + nH2O, on heating produces 1.26 g of water, what is the empirical formula of this compound?
(a) Na2SO4 + H2O
(b) 2Na2SO4 + H2O
(c) Na2SO4 + 7H2O
(d) 9NaSO4 + 8H2O
Answer: (c)
48. The following reaction balanced properly, when the value of O2 will be
C2H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O
(a) 1.5 moles
(b) 13 moles
(c) 19 moles
(d) 38 moles
Answer: (a)
49. What is the formal charge of the oxygen atom of the following compound?
(a) +3
(b) +1
(c) −2
(d) −3
Answer: (b)
50. The common isotopes of carbon 12C and 13 The average mass of carbon is
12.01115 amu. What is the abundance of 13C isotope?
(a) 1.115%
(b) 98.885%
(c) 0.480%
(d) 99.52%
Answer: (a)
51. How many grams of carbon are needed to completely react with 75.2 g of SiO2?
SiO2(g) + 3 C(g) → SiC (s) + 2CO(g).
(a) 3.76 g
(b) 15.1 g
(c) 36 g
(d) 45.1 g
Answer: (d)
52.Calculate the standard heat of reaction for Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)
(a) −217 KJ/mole
(b) +217 KJ/mole
(c) −88 J/mole
(d) +88 KJ/mole
Answer: (a)
53. In allene (C3H4), the types of hybridization of carbon atoms are
(a) Sp & Sp3
(b) Sp & Sp2
(c) only Sp2
(d) Sp2 & Sp3
Answer: (a)
54. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound
(a) MgCl2
(b) FeCl2
(c) SnCl2
(d) AlCl3
Answer: (d)
55. The hybridization of orbits of N atom in 
are respectively
(a) Sp2, Sp3, Sp
(b) Sp, Sp2, Sp3
(c) Sp2, Sp, Sp3
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
56. Calculate KE of 3 molecules of nitrogen at 100℃.
(a) 553 × 10−12 cal
(b) 5573 × 10−24 cal
(c) 53 × 10−12 cal
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
57. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential?
(a) 8O16
(b) 7N14
(c) 55Cs123
(d) 18Ar14
Answer: (c)
58. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from the first excited state of Li++ is
(a) 122.4 eV
(b) 30.6 eV
(c) 13.6 eV
(d) 3.4 eV
Answer: (b)
59. If the atom 100Fm257 follows the Bohr model and the radius of 100Fm257 is ‘n’ times the Bohr radius, then find ‘n’.
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 4
(d) 1/4
Answer: (d)
60. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were NOT allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be
(a) 60
(b) 32
(c) 4
(d) 64
Answer: (d)
61. Williamson’s synthesis is used for preparation of
(a) alcohols
(b) ketones
(c) ethers
(d) aldehydes
Answer: (c)
62. Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and KBrO3. The major product obtained in the above reaction is
(a) 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol
(b) 3-Bromophenol
(c) 2-Bromophenol
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
63. Trichloro acetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in the presence of sulphuric acid and produces
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (a)
64. Number of lone pairs in XeOF4 is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer: (a)
65. RCH2CH2OH can be converted to RCH2CH2COOH by the following sequence of steps
(a) KNC, H3O+
(b) PBr3, KNC, H2/P+
(c) PBr3, KNC, H3O+
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
66. If the bond length and dipole moment of a diatomic molecule are 1.25 A and 1.0 D respectively, what is the percent ionic character of the bond?
(a) 10.66
(b) 12.33
(c) 16.66
(d) 19.33
Answer: (*)
Biology
1. Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of
(a) metaphase
(b) late anaphase
(c) telophase
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
2. The stage is which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is
(a) Anaphase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Prophase
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
3. Chiasmata are first seen in
(a) Pachytene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Leptotene
(d) Diplotene
Answer: (d)
4. Protein subunit found within microtubules is
(a) collagen
(b) tubulin
(c) myosin
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
5. Balbiani rings occur in
(a) Autosome
(b) Heterosome
(c) Lampbrush chromosome
(d) Polytene chromosome
Answer: (d)
6. Cell plate grows from
(a) one wall to another
(b) centre to wall
(c) wall to centre
(d) simultaneously
Answer: (b)
7. Which of the following cellular structure always disappear during mitosis and meiosis?
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Nucleolus & nuclear envelope
(c) Plastids
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
8. Centromere is a constituent of
(a) Ribosome
(b) ER
(c) Chromosome
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
9. Chiasma forma occurs in
(a) Pachytene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Lepotene
(d) Diplotene
Answer: (d)
10. Crossing-over results in
(a) recombination of linked alleles
(b) dominance of alleles
(c) segregation of alleles
(d) linkage between genes
Answer: (a)
11. Cytoplasmic division of a cell is called
(a) cell plate formation
(b) cytokinesis
(c) mitosis
(d) synapsis
Answer: (b)
12. Purines possess nitrogen at
(a) 1, 2, 4 & 6 position
(b) 1, 3, 5 & 7 position
(c) 1, 3, 7 & 9 position
(d) 1, 3, 6 & 8 position
Answer: (c)
13. NADP+ is
(a) Enzyme activator
(b) Ion carrier
(c) Hydrogen acceptor
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
14. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
(a) 1/2Vmax
(b) 2 Vmax
(c) 1/4 Vmax
(d) 4 Vmax
Answer: (a)
15. Which one of is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
(a) Collagen
(b) Insulin
(c) Trypsin
(d) Haemoglobin
Answer: (a)
16. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by
(a) molecule size of the enzyme
(b) pH optimum value
(c) Km value
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
17. Which one of the following amino acids was NOT found to be synthesized on Miller’s experiment?
(a) Glutamic
(b) Aspartic acid
(c) Glycine
(d) Alanine
Answer: (a)
18. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs?
(a) Abcaris
(b) Bacteria
(c) Suinea worm
(d) Ring worm
Answer: (b)
19. Scolidon or dog fish belongs to the group of fishes, called
(a) cartilaginous fishes
(b) bony fishes
(c) running fishes
(d) jawless fishes
Answer: (a)
20. Potyploid, derived from two different species, is called
(a) autopolyploid
(b) triploid
(c) allopolyploid
(d) monoploid
Answer: (c)
21. Pieces of plant tissue, used in tissue culture, is called
(a) explant
(b) somaclone
(c) inoculant
(d) clone
Answer: (a)
22. Ovule integument gets transformed into
(a) seed
(b) fruit wall
(c) seed coat
(d) cotyledons
Answer: (c)
23. Osteomalacia i s a deficiency disease of
(a) infants due to protein energy malnutrition
(b) adults due to protein energy malnutrition
(c) adults due to vitamin D deficiency
(d) vitamin K deficiency
Answer: (c)
24. Name the following having oxygen storage capacity.
(a) Myoglobin
(b) Prophase II
(c) Anaphase I
(d) Metaphase II
Answer: (a)
25. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
(a) facial nerve
(b) trigeminal nerve
(c) hypoglossal nerve
(d) vagus nerve
Answer: (c)
26. Pick the mammal with true placenta.
(a) Kangaroo
(b) Echidna
(c) Platypus
(d) Mongoose
Answer: (d)
27. Which one is NOT the method of soil conservation?
(a) Overgazing
(b) Mulching
(c) Crop rotation
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
28. Which of the following is NOT an antitranspirant?
(a) PMA
(b) BAP
(c) Silicon oil
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
29. Which one of the following is NOT a second messenger in hormone action?
(a) Calcium
(b) Sodium
(c) Al
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
30. Which one of the following human cells do NOT contain mitochondria?
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Red blood cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
31. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity?
(a) T-lymphocyte
(b) B-lymphocyte
(c) I-lymphocyte
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
32. Which hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?
(a) TSH & ACTH
(b) Ostrogen & Progesterone
(c) FSH & LH
(d) Vasopressin
Answer: (c)
33. Which is NOT matched correctly?
(a) Sycon-Canal system
(b) Ascaris-Flame cell
(c) Star fish – Radial symmetry
(d) Prawn – Haemocoel
Answer: (b)
34. Spawning of fishes is induced by injecting females with
(a) Progesterone
(b) Prostaglandin
(c) FSH & LH
(d) Estrogen
Answer: (c)
35. The most common method for fish preservation is
(a) Chilling
(b) Sun drying
(c) Smoking
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
36. Which of the following is NOT marine fish?
(a) Bombay Duck
(b) Pomfret
(c) Labeo
(d) Mackerei
Answer: (c)
37. Which one is an edible fungus?
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Ustilago
(c) Polyporus
(d) Morchella
Answer: (d)
38. Which one is bacteria fertilizer?
(a) Anabaena
(b) Nostoc
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Phycomyces
Answer: (c)
39. Tumor enclosed in a capsule is
(a) Malignant
(b) Benign
(c) Metastasis
(d) Basophils
Answer: (b)
40. Which of the following is a structural changes in cancer cells?
(a) Hypoplasia
(b) Metastasis
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
41. Iodine deficiency causes ______ disease
(a) Goiter
(b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Scurvy
(d) Anaemia
Answer: (d)
42. The structural and functional unit of striated muscle fibre is called
(a) Z-band
(b) Myofibrill
(c) Sarcoplasm
(d) Sarcomere
Answer: (d)
43. The monocotyledonous seed, consists of one large and shield shaped cotyledon, is known as
(a) Coleptile
(b) Scutellum
(c) Aleurone layer
(d) Coleorhiza
Answer: (b)
44. Inter fascicular cambium develops from the cells of
(a) Medullary rays
(b) Xylem parenchyma
(c) Endodermis
(d) Pericycle
Answer: (a)
45. How much frequency of ultrasound, can be beamed in human body for sonography?
(a) 15-30 MHz
(b) 30-45 MHz
(c) 45-70 MHz
(d) 1-15 MHz
Answer: (d)
46. Hybridomas are the fusion product of
(a) abnormal antibody producing cell with myeloma
(b) normal antibody producing cell with myeloma
(c) sex cells with myeloma
(d) bone cells with myeloma
Answer: (c)
47. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation therapy to treat
(a) certain types of cancer
(b) gall bladder stones by breaking them
(c) enlarged prostate gland
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
48. The antibody dependent cytotoxicity is seen in
(a) non-compatible blood transfusion
(b) local anaphylaxis
(c) generalized anaphylaxis
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
49. Vernalization stimulates flower in
(a) carrot
(b) turmeric
(c) elephant yam
(d) ginger
Answer: (a)
50. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which of the following?
(a) Snails
(b) Birds
(c) Insects
(d) Air
Answer: (b)
51. Hormone related with cell divisions is
(a) NAA
(b) IAA
(c) Cytokinin
(d) GA3
Answer: (c)
52. In C3 path way, the first stable compound is
(a) PGAL
(b) OAA
(c) PGA
(d) RUDP
Answer: (c)
53. In the synthesis of which of the following, DNA molecule is NOT directly involved?
(a) mRNA molecule
(b) protein molecule
(c) tRNA molecule
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
54. A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes A, B and C. In a cross Aa BbCc, phenotypic ratio of the a offsprings was observed as 1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1. What is the value of x?
(a) 3
(b) 9
(c) 15
(d) 25
Answer: (c)
55. Total number of water molecule produced per molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration is
(a) 10
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 8
Answer: (b)
56. Both B-cells and T-cells of Immune system are produced in
(a) spleen
(b) lymphoid nodes
(c) Bone narrow
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
57. Hb value for a: healthy adult male is
(a) 100 g/100 ml
(b) 11 g/100 ml
(c) 12 g/100 ml
(d) 14-15 g/100 ml
Answer: (d)
58. Deoxygenated blood from wall of heart is carried by
(a) coronary sinus
(b) inferior vena cava
(c) superior vena cava
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
59. First and louder sound of heart during ventricular systole is
(a) Lubb
(b) Dubb
(c) Murmur
(d) Hissing
Answer: (a)
60. Accumulation of urea and other waste substance in the blood is called
(a) Hemodialysis
(b) Cystitis
(c) Uremia
(d) Urethritis
Answer: (c)
61. Motor neurons electrically stimulate nearby muscle fibres at
(a) creatine phosphate
(b) actin filament
(c) neuromuscular junction
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
62. In an ecosystem Biotic factors affect the survival of an organism in that ecosystem. They include
(a) competition for water
(b) competition for shelter
(c) co-operation to help find food
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
63. Cell division CANNOT be stopped in which phase of the cell cycle?
(a) G1 phase
(b) G2 phase
(c) S-phase
(d) Prophase
Answer: (c)
64. What type of plant is formed when colchicines is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
(a) Autotetraploid
(b) Haploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Allotetraploid
Answer: (d)
65. The n on-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during
(a) Leptotene
(b) Diakinesis
(c) Diplotene
(d) Pachytene
Answer: (d)
66. Cells in Go phase of cell cycle
(a) exit cell cycle
(b) enter cell cycle
(c) suspend cell cycle
(d) terminate cell cycle
Answer: (c)
67. During oogenesis the cell that is fertilized by a sperm to become an egg is
(a) primary spermatocyte
(b) secondary oocyte
(c) primary oocyte
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
68. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect
(a) fertilization
(b) formation of zygote
(c) pattern of cleavage
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Mathematics
1. A natural number is selected from first 20 natural numbers. The probability that 
is
(a) 1/5
(b) 2/5
(c) 3/5
(d) 4/5
Answer: (d)
2. A and B are two events such that P(A)>0 and P(B) ≠ 1 then 
is equal to
(a) 1 – P(A|B)
(b) 
(c)
(d) 
Answer: (c)
3. The range of the function f(x) = 7 – xPx – 3 is
(a) {1, 2, 3}
(b) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(c) {1, 2, 3, 4}
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
4. Let f(x) = |x – 1|, then
(a) f(x2) = [f(x)]2
(b) f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)
(c) f(|x|) = |f(x)|
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
5. If X and Y are two sets, then X ∩ (X ∪ Y)C equals
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) ϕ
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
6. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = |x – 2|; x = 1, x = 3 and x-axis is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (b)
7. 
(a) 3/2
(b) 5/2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer: (b)
8. What is the last digit in the expansion of (2457)754?
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer: (d)
9. If 3x + 27(3−x) = 12, then x = ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 1 or 2
(d) 0 or 1
Answer: (c)
10. If x = 1 + √2, then x4 + 4x3 + 4x2 = ?
(a) −1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer: (c)
11. The sum of the series 
is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (d)
12. The sum of any ten positive real numbers multiplied by the sum of their reciprocals is
(a) ≥ 10
(b) ≥ 50
(c) ≥ 100
(d) ≥ 200
Answer: (d)
13. If Sn denotes the sum of integer n terms of an A.P. and S2n = 3 Sn then the ratio S3n/Sn = ?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer: (b)
14. The value of cos2 α + cos2(α + 1200) + cos2(α – 1200) is
(a) 3/2
(b) 1/2
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer: (a)
15. If A = sin2 θ + cos4 θ, the for all real values at θ
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
16. The principal value of 
is
(a) 
(b)
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
17. The smallest positive root of the equation tan x = x lies in
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (c)
18. The sum of the series 
is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (b)
19. Suppose f(x) is differential at x = 1 and 
then f ʹ(1) =
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer: (c)
20. If and 
|W| = 1, then Z lies on
(a) an ellipse
(b) a circle
(c) a straight line
(d) a parabola
Answer: (c)
21. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity, then (1 + ω – ω2)7 =
(a) 128ω
(b) −128ω
(c) 128ω2
(d) −128ω2
Answer: (d)
22. If n+1C3 = 2 nC2, then the value of n =
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer: (c)
23. If f : R → S, defined by f(x) = sin x – √3 cos x + 1 is onto, then the interval of S is
(a) [0.3]
(b) [−1, 1]
(c) [0, 1]
(d) [−1, 3]
Answer: (d)
24. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribe in an ellipse 
is
(a) 2ba
(b) ab
(c) √ab
(d) a/b
Answer: (a)
25. The points (−a, −b), (0, 0), (a, b) and (a2, ab) are
(a) collinear
(b) vertices of parallelogram
(c) vertices of rectangle
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
26. The area enclosed between the curve y = loge(x + e) and the coordinate axes is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (a)
27. If the roots of the equation x2 – bx + c = 0 be two consecutive integers, then b2 – 4c =
(a) −2
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer: (d)
28. If the angle θ between the line 
and the plane 
, is that 
then the value of λ is
(a) 5/3
(b) −3/5
(c) 3/4
(d) −4/3
Answer: (a)
29. A line through the point P(0, 6, 8) intersects the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 36 in points A and B, then PA × PB = ?
(a) 36
(b) 24
(c) 100
(d) 64
Answer: (a)
30. The third term of a geometric progression is 4. The product of first five terms is
(a) 43
(b) 45
(c) 44
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
31. If the first term minus third term of G.P. = 768 and the third term minus seventh term of the same G.P. = 240, then the product of first 21 terms is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (*)
32. If x, y, z are pth, qth and rth term respectively of an A.P. and also of a G.P. then xy – z yz – xzx – y = ?
(a) xyz
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) ∞
Answer: (c)
33. If 2a + 3b + 6c = 0, then at least one root of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, lies in the interval of
(a) (0, 1)
(b) (1, 2)
(c) (2, 3)
(d) (1, 3)
Answer: (a)
34. If x + |y| = 2y, then y as a function of x is
(a) defined for all real x
(b) continuous at x = 0
(c) 
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
35. If 
then 
is
(a) 0
(b) ∞
(c) 1
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
36. If y = aInx + bx2 + x has extreme values at x = −1 and x = 2, then
(a) a = 2, b = −1
(b) a = 2, b = −1/2
(c) a = −2, b = 1/2
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
37. There are 8 players from which four teams each of two players are formed. What is the probability that two specific players are in one team?
(a) 1/4
(b) 15/28
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/7
Answer: (b)
38. The number of ways of putting 10 different things in 2 boxes, such that there are not less than 2 things in any of the two boxes is
(a) 1024
(b) 1023
(c) 1013
(d) 1002
Answer: (a)
39. Four dice are rolled. The number of possible outcomes in which altleast two dice show 6 is
(a) 216
(b) 900
(c) 150
(d) 171
Answer: (c)
40. The domain of definition of the function y(x) has given by the equation 2x + 2y = 2 is
(a) 0 < x ≤ 1
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ 1
(c) −∞ < x ≤ 0
(d) −∞ < x < 1
Answer: (d)
41. The number log2 7 is
(a) an integer
(b) a rational number
(c) an irrational number
(d) a prime number
Answer: (c)
42. If two circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 – 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points, then
(a) 2 < r < 8
(b) r < 2
(c) r = 2
(d) r > 2
Answer: (d)
43. If f(x) = cos (lnx), then 
has the value
(a) −1
(b) 1/2
(c) −2
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
44. For any integer n, the integer 
has the value
(a) x
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) None of these
Answer: (*)
45. In triangle PQR, 
if 
are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0, then
(a) a = b + c
(b) c = a + b
(c) b = c
(d) b = a + c
Answer: (b)
46. If 
then the value of x is
(a) 
(b) 
(c)
(d) 
Answer: (c)
47. For which value of x, sin[cot−1(x + 1)] = cos(tan−1x) ?
(a) 1/2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) −1/2
Answer: (a)
48. If α and β are roots of x2 + px + q = 0 and α4 and β4 are the roots of r2 – rx + s = 0, then the equation x2 – 4qx + 2q2 – r = 0 ha always
(a) two real roots
(b) two positive roots
(c) two negative roots
(d) one positive and one negative root
Answer: (a)
49. For real value of x, the function 
will assume all real values provided
(a) a > b > c
(b) b > a > c
(c) a > c > b
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
50. The number of real solutions of the equation |x|2 – 3|x| + 2 = 0 is
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer: (a)
51. Both the roots of the equation (x – b) (x – c) + (x – a) (x – c) + (x – a) (x – b) = 0 are always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) real
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
52. The value of 
is
(a) 6/17
(b) 7/16
(c) 16/7
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
53. The value of the definite integral 
is
(a) −1
(b) 2
(c) 1 + e−1
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
54. The value of 
is
(a) 0
(b) π
(c) π/2
(d) π/4
Answer: (d)
55. The value of the integral 
(a) π/4
(b) π/2
(c) π
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
56. 
(a) 2
(b) −2
(c) 1/2
(d) −1/2
Answer: (a)
57. The complex number sin x + i cos 2x and cos x – i sin 2x are conjugate to each other for
(a) x = πn
(b) x = 0
(c) 
(d) no value of x
Answer: (d)
58. The inequality |z – 4| < |z – 2| represents the region given by
(a) Re(z) > 0
(b) Re(z) < 0
(c) Re(z) > 2
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
59. The points Z1, Z2, Z3, Z4 in the complex plane are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order if and only if
(a) Z1 + Z4 = Z2 + Z3
(b) Z1 + Z3 = Z2 + Z4
(c) Z1 + Z2 = Z3 + Z4
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
60. If 
are non-coplanar unit vectors such that 
then the angle between 
is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d)
Answer: (b)
61. The number of vectors of unit length perpendicular to 
is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) infinite
Answer: (a)
62. The points with position vectors 60i + 3j, ai – 52 are collinear, if
(a) a = −40
(b) a = 40
(c) a = 20
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
63. The value of 
(a) 0
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/5
(d) 1/30
Answer: (a)
64. The function 
has local minimum at x = ?
(a) 0
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2, 4
(d) 3, 1
Answer: (c)
65. Which of the following functions is differentiable at x = 0 ?
(a) cos (|x|) + |x|
(b) cos(|x|) − |x|
(c) sin(|x|) + |x|
(d) sin(|x|) − |x|
Answer: (d)
66. The events A, B, C are mutually exclusive events such that
The set of possible values of x are in the intervals
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (a)
67. If 
and 
then P(B ∩ C) =
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (a)
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