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2014 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

1. If C is the capacity and V is the potential across the condenser, then the dimensional representation of will be

(a) [ML²T⁻²A²]

(b) [ML⁻²T⁻²]

(d) [ML²T⁻²]

Answer: (d)

2. The vernier of a circular scale is divided into 30 divisions which coincide against 29 main scale divisions. Each main scale division is The least count of the instrument is

(a) 30ʹ

(b) 10ʹ

(d) 0.1ʹ

Answer: (a)

3. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with reservoir temperature of 100℃ and −23℃ will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

4. The energy of the ground electronic state of hydrogen atom is −6 eV. The energy of the first excited state will be

(a) −3.4 eV

(b) −6.8 eV

(d) −52.4 eV

Answer: (a)

5. The kinetic energy o f an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 volts is

(a) 1.602 × 10¹⁷ J

(b) 1.6 × 10⁴ J

(d) 6.636 Cal

Answer: (a)

6. The ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle of 450 with horizontal. The kinetic energy at the highest point of its flight will be

(a) E

(b) E/2

(c)

(d) 0

Answer: (b)

7. A ball is thrown up vertically with velocity v0; it reaches a maximum height h. If one wishes to triple the maximum height of the ball should be thrown with a velocity of

(a) 3v₀

(b) 9 v₀

(d) 3/2

Answer: (c)

8. If denote the sides of a parallelogram whose area is The angle between is

(a) 60°

(b) 45°

(d) 37°

Answer: (c)

9. A particle is moving towards east with a velocity of 5 ms⁻¹. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 ms⁻¹ The average acceleration in this time is

(a)

(b) 0

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

10. A force of 200 N is required to push a car of 500 kg slowly at a constant speed on level road. If the applied force is 600 N, the acceleration of the car is

(a) 0.2 ms⁻²

(b) 0.8 ms⁻²

(d) 0

Answer: (b)

11. If two bulbs, whose resistances are in the ratio of 1:2 are connected in series, the power dissipated in them was the ratio of

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2

(d) 1 : 4

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

(a) The current in photocell increases with increasing frequency

(b) The photo current is proportional to the applied volt age

(d) The stopping potential increases with increase of incident light.

Answer: (c)

13. Due to earth’s magnetic field, the charged cosmic-ray particles

(a) require greater kinetic energy to reach the equator than the pole

(b) require less kinetic energy to each the equator than the pole

(d) can never reach the equator.

Answer: (d)

14. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop at 0.5 at all currents and a maximum power rating of 100 miliwatts. What should be the value of the resistor R, connected in series and with diode and obtaining maximum current?

(a) 5 ohm

(b) 5.6 ohm

(d) 20 ohm

Answer: (a)

15. The primary winding of a transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to an A.C. supply 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an output of

(a) 200 V, 50 Hz

(b) 200 V, 500 Hz

(d) 2V, 5 Hz

Answer: (a)

16. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of a 5N force. If the work done is 25 J, then the angle between the force and the direction of motion of the body is

(a) 30°

(b) 45°

(d) 75°

Answer: (c)

17. An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 26 Hz. The length of the air column is

(a) 21.25 cm

(b) 62.50 cm

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

18. A mass sliding down an inclined plane and reaches the bottom with velocity v. If the same mass is in the form of a disc and rolls down the same inclined plane, what is its velocity at the bottom?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

19. When kinetic energy of the body is increased by 300% the momentum of the body is increased by

(a) 200%

(b) 100%

(d) 150%

Answer: (b)

20. A wire of mass M and length l is bent in the form of a circular ring. The moment of inertia about its axis is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

21. Two masses m₁ and m₂ are initially at rest at infinite distance. They approach each other due to gravitational attraction. What is the speed of approach at a distance r between them? (G = Gravitational constant).

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

22. In an orbital motion, the angular momentum vector is

(a) along radius vector

(b) Perpendicular to orbital plane

(d) in the orbital plane

Answer: (d)

23. A thick rope of density ρ and length L is hung from a rigid support. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is (Y = the Young’s modulus)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

24. 8 equal rain drops are falling through air with a steady velocity of 10 cm/s. If the drops coalesce, the new terminal velocity will be

(a) 20 cm/s

(b) 30 cm/s

(d) 60 cm/s

Answer: (c)

25. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its

(a) pressure and temperature are both high

(b) pressure and temperature are both low

(d) pressure is low and temperature is high

Answer: (d)

26. For a certain gas the ratio of specific heat is 1.5. For this gas

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

27. Work done against friction is

(a) adiabatic process

(b) isothermal process

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

28. At 0 K a body emits

(a) no radiation

(b) electromagnetic radiation of single wavelength

(d) electromagnetic radiation of fewer wavelengths than that are emitted by it at room temperature

Answer: (c)

29. Two stars P and Q observed at night; star P appears reddish white, star Q is white. From this, we conclude

(a) temperature of Q is higher than that of P

(b) temperature of Q is lower than that of P

(d) star P is further away than star Q

Answer: (d)

30. In a cyclic process the change in internal energy of a system is

(a) minimum but not zero

(b) zero

(d) infinite

Answer: (b)

31. A simple pendulum executing SHM has a period T and amplitude A. Its peed, when at a distance A/4 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

32. A particle of mass m is the attached to three identical springs A, B and C each of force constant K as shown in figure. If the particle of mass m is pushed slightly against the spring A and released then the time period of oscillations is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

33. A transverse wave is described by the equation The maximum particle velocity is equal to 4 times the wave velocity if

(a)

(b)

(d) λ = 2πy₀

Answer: (b)

34. Ultrasonics are used for stirring liquid solutions in order to produce

(a) soundless stirring

(b) perfectly homogenous solution

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

35. If the intensity of sound is doubled, the sound level will increase by nearly

(a) 2 dB

(b) 3 dB

(d) a factor of 2

Answer: (b)

36. Two equal electric currents are flowing perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. AB and CD are perpendicular to each other and symmetrically placed with respect to the currents. Where do we expect the resultant magnetic field to be zero?

(a) On AB

(b) On CD

(d) On both OD and BO

Answer: (a)

37. A body dropped from a height h with initial velocity zero, strikes the ground with a velocity 3 m/s. Another body of same mass dropped from the same height h with an initial velocity of 4 m/s. Find the final velocity of second mass, with which it strikes the ground.

(a) 3 m/s

(b) 4 m/s

(d) 12 m/s

Answer: (c)

38. A diatomic gas initially at 18℃ is compressed adiabatically to one-eighth of its original volume. The temperature after compression will be

(a) 18℃

(b) 887.4℃

(d) 144℃

Answer: (c)

39. A beaker full of the water is kept in a room. If it cools from 80℃ to 75℃ in t₁ minutes, from 75℃ to 70℃ in t₂ minutes and from 70℃ to 65℃ in t₃ minutes, then

(a) t₁ = t₂ =t₃

(b) t₁ < t₂ = t₃

(d) t₁ > t₂ > t₃

Answer: (c)

40. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on the wall for its two different positions. The area o f the source of light is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

41. A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate tumours in a tissue. The operating frequency of the scanner is 4.2 MHz. The speed of sound in a tissue is 1.7 km/s. The wavelength of sound in the tissue is close to

(a) 4 × 10⁻⁴ m

(b) 8 × 10⁻⁴ m

(d) 8× 10⁻³ m

Answer: (a)

42. The figure represents the observed intensity of X-rays emitted by an X-ray tube as a function of wavelength. The sharp peaks A and B denote

(a) band spectrum

(b) continuous spectrum

(d) characteristic radiation

Answer: (d)

43. After the emission of one α-particle followed by one β-particle from the atom of ₉₂X²³⁸, the number of neutrons in the atom will be

(a) 148

(b) 146

(d) 143

Answer: (d)

44. The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with time t as b.t. The p article starts from the origin with an initial velocity v₀. The distance travelled by the particle in time t will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

45. The ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness. The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure. I_AB, I_BC and I_CA are the moments of inertia of the plate about AB, BC and CA respectively. Which one of the following relations is CORRECT?

(a) I_AB > I_BC

(b) I_BC > I_AB

(d) I_CA is minimum

Answer: (b)

46. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with

(a) voltage gain

(b) no feedback

(d) negative feedback

Answer: (a)

47. An an A.C. circuit, the current flowing is i = 5 sin(100t – π/2) amp and the potential difference is V = 200 sin 100t volt. The power consumption is equal to

(a) 1000 W

(b) 40 W

(d) 0 W

Answer: (d)

48. Colours appear on a thin soap film and on soap bubbles due to the phenomenon of

(a) refraction

(b) dispersion

(d) diffraction

Answer: (c)

49. The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for this surface is

(a) 4125 Å

(b) 2062.5 Å

(d) 6000 Å

Answer: (c)

50. A uniform field having a magnitude E₀ exists along positive X-axis. If the potential V = 0 at x = 0, then its value at x = +x will be

(a) xE₀

(b) −xE₀

(d) −x²E₀

Answer: (b)

51. Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e are placed inside a cube. The total electric flux coming out of cube is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

52. A capacitor C₁ is charged by a potential difference V₀ as shown in the figure. This charging battery removed and the capacitor is connected as into an uncharged capacitor C₂. The final potential difference V across the combination

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

53. n identical cells are joined in series with two cells A and B with reversed polarities. EMF of each cell is E and internal resistance is r. Potential difference across cell A or B is (n > 4)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

54. If the radius of a copper wire carrying a current is doubled, the drift velocity of the electrons will

(a) increase four times

(b) decrease four times

(d) increase first and then decrease

Answer: (b)

55. In the figure shown, the reading of an ideal voltmeter V is zero. Then the relation between R and r₁ and r₂ is

(a) R = r₂ – r₁

(b) R = r₁ – r₂

(d)

Answer: (b)

56. If J is the current density then the power transferred per unit volume in joules in a resistor of resistivity ρ is

(a)

(b) J²ρ

(d) ρ²J²

Answer: (b)

57. A moving charge would produce

(a) electric field only

(b) magnetic field only

(d) no field

Answer: (c)

58. Two electrons move parallel to each other with speed v; the a ratio of magnetic and electric force between them is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

59. If a long copper pipe carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with current will be

(a) only outside the pipe

(b) only inside the pipe

(d) both inside and outside

Answer: (a)

60. A magnetic field is measured by

(a) Avometer

(b) Pyrometer

(d) Thermopile

Answer: (c)

61. The magnetic field of earth is due to

(a) motion and distribution of some material in and outside the earth

(b) induction effect of the sun

(d) a magnetic dipole buried at the centre of the earth

Answer: (b)

62. If the magnetic flux linked with a coil through which a current of x amp is flowing, is y weber, then the coefficient of self inductance of coil is

(a) (x – y) Henry

(b)

(c)

(d) xy Henry

Answer: (c)

63. When X-rays are scattered by electrons their wavelength increases. This phenomenon is called

(a) Compton effect

(b) Thomson effect

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

64. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron of energy 600 eV is

(a) 4Å

(b) 2 Å

(d) 0.5 Å

Answer: (d)

65. A certain element disintegrates for an interval of time equal to its mean life. The fraction of the original amount that remains undecayed is

(a) 1/e

(b) e

(d) 1/e²

Answer: (a)

66. The velocity of an electron in the first orbitor H-atom is v. The velocity of an electron in the 2nd orbit of He⁺ is

(a) 2v

(b) v

(d) v/4

Answer: (c)

Chemistry

1. Which of the following has the smallest radius ? N³⁺, N⁰, N³⁻

(a) N⁰

(b) N³⁻

(d) All

Answer: (c)

2. A neutral compound whose molecular formula C₇H₈O, is found to the reaction of Phenol with CH₂N₂ and ether. What is the compound?

(a) m-Cresol

(b) p-Cresol

(d) o-Cresol

Answer: (c)

3. Which of the following compounds is nonpolar?

(a) CCl₄

(b) CHCl₃

(d) CH₃OCH₃

Answer: (a)

4. ∆H° values for complete combustion of C(s), H₂(g) and CH₄(g) are −96, −71, and −218 Kcal per mole respectively. The ∆H° value for the reaction

C_(s) + 2H_2(g) → CH_4(g) is

(a) −17 Kcal

(b) −81 Kcal

(d) −34 Kcal

Answer: ()

5. In the periodic table which one of the following trends is NOT correct across a period?

(a) Metallic to non-metallic

(b) Oxidising to reducing

(d) Base to acid forming

Answer: (b)

6. A saturated Hydrocarbon of molecular weight 72 gives only one monochloro substitution product. Identify this product.

(a) Methyl cyclopentene

(b) 2, 2 Dimethylpropane

(d) 2 Methyl-2-butene

Answer: (b)

7. The normality of 5 volumes of H₂O₂ is

(a) 2.78

(b) 5.80

(d) 1.78

Answer: (a)

8. The Vander Wall’s equation explains the behaviour of

(a) ideal gas

(b) vapours

(d) real gases

Answer: (d)

9. An optically active alkene with molecular formula C₆H₁₂ which upon hydrogenation gives optically inactive alkane is

(a) 2-hexene

(b) 3-methyl-2-pentene

(d) 3-methyl-1-pentene

Answer: (d)

10. A pink coloured residue obtained in Cobalt Nitrate Charcoal cavity test is due to

(a) Mg²⁺

(b) Sn²⁺

(d) Zn²⁺

Answer: (a)

11. If two molecules of A and B having mass 121 Kg and 81 Kg and rate of diffusion of A is 16 × 10⁻³, then what will be the rate of diffusion of B?

(a) 20.75 × 10⁻³

(b) 20.75 × 10⁻⁴

(d) 20.75× 10⁻⁴

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest?

(a) O − H —————- F

(b) O − H ———H

(d) O − H———O

Answer: (c)

13. When a pair of one cation and one anion are missing from an ionic crystal lattice, this defect is known as

(a) Schottky defect

(b) Frenkel defect

(d) Interstitial defect

Answer: (a)

14. What happens when Benzoic acid is treated with concentrated Nitric acid in the presence of concentrated Sulphuric acid?

(a) p-Nitro benzoic acid

(b) m-Nitro benzoic acid

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

15. Some standard electrode (or reduction) potential in acidic solutions are as follows.

Cu²⁺/Cu = 0.34 V ; Ag⁺/Ag = 0.80 V

Will copper (s) reduce Ag⁺ ion in aqueous solution?

(a) Yes

(b) No

(d) Cannot be said

Answer: (b)

16. Calculate the number of α and β particles which are emitted in the conversion of Thorium (_∞Th²³²) to Lead (₈₂Pb²⁰⁸)

(a) 4α and 2β

(b) 5α and 4β

(d) 6α and 4β

Answer: (d)

17. Which of the following compound is NOT Chiral?

(a) DCH₂CH₂CH₂Cl

(b) CH₃CH₂CHDCl

(d) CH₃CHClCH₂D

Answer: (a)

18. At constant T and P, which one of the following statements is CORRECT for the reaction,

(a) ∆H is independent of the physical state of the reactants of that compound

(b) ∆H > ∆E

(d) ∆H = ∆E

Answer: (b)

19. A salt solution is acidified with dil. HCl and BaCl₂ solution is added. A white ppt. is formed. The salt contains which radical?

(a) Br⁻

(b) SO₄²⁻

(d) I⁻

Answer: (a)

20. Which of the following is the buffer solution of strong acid structure?

(a) HCOOH + HCOO⁻

(b) CH₂COOH + CH₃COO⁻

(d) H₃BOO₃ + BO₃³⁻

Answer: (b)

21. 4 g calcium is dissolved in HCl acid at 27℃ in an open vessel at the atmosphere pressure 0.821 atm. The work done is

(a) −24.94 J

(b) 0.08211 J

(d) 0

Answer: (c)

22. Which of the following Basic radical gives positive test on Borax Bead?

(a) Ca²⁺

(b) NH⁴⁺

(d) Cu²⁺

Answer: (d)

23. Aldehydes and Ketones form hydrocarbons by

(a) Rosenmund’s reduction

(b) Clemmenson reduction

(d) Stephen’s reduction

Answer: (b)

24. If the wavelength of photon is 4.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ m, h = 13.2 × 10⁻³⁴ Js, then momentum of photon is

(a) 3 × 10⁻²⁰ Kgms⁻¹

(b) 3× 10²⁰ Kgms⁻¹

(d) 0.33 × 10⁻²⁰ Kgms⁻¹

Answer: (a)

25. 30 ml of a solution of Barium Hydroxide on titration with a 0.2 molar solution of HCl acid gave a liter value of 40 ml. The molarity of Barium Hydroxide solution was

(a) 0.23

(b) 0.32

(d) 0.11

Answer: (c)

26. Which of the following gives a tertiary alcohol when treated with Grignard reagents?

(a) HCHO

(b) CH₃CHO

(d) CH₃COCH₃

Answer: (d)

27. 1 ppm is equal to

(a) 1 mg/Lit

(b) 10⁶ mg/Lit

(d) 10⁶ gm/Lit

Answer: (b)

28. The conjugate base of H₃PO₄ is

(a) PO₄³⁻

(b) P₂O⁵

(d) HPO₄²⁻

Answer: (d)

29. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe²⁺ ion is

(a) 4

(b) 5

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

30. The effect of temperature on reaction ratio is given by

(a) Clausius Clapeyron equation

(b) Arrhenius reaction

(d) Kirchoff’s equation

Answer: (c)

31. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some

(a) pesticides

(b) dyes

(d) vitamins

Answer: (b)

32. In the flame test on which does radical produce brick red colour flame?

(a) Mg²⁺

(b) K⁺

(d) Ca²⁺

Answer: (d)

33. The stability of the dispersed phase in a lyphobic colloids is due to

(a) the formation of electrical layer between two phases

(b) high viscosity of the medium

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

34. Why in the titration of Mohr’s salt solution with standard K₂Cr₂O₇ solution, dil. H₂SO₄ is added?

(a) K₂Cr₂O₇ acts as reducing agent in acidic medium

(b) K₂Cr₂O₇ acts as an oxidizing agent in acidic medium

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

35. Of the following outer electronic configuration of atoms, the highest oxidation state is achieved by which one of these?

(a) (n – 1)d⁵ns²

(b) (n – 1)d⁸ns²

(d) (n – 1)d³ns²

Answer: (a)

36. Which one of the following is NOT correct to prepare Diborane?

(a) NaBH₄ + I₂

(b) BCl₃ + H₂

(d) BCl₃ + NaH

Answer: (b)

37. A heat engine absorbs heat Q₁ at temperature T₁ and heat Q₂ at temperature T₂. Work done by the engine is J(Q₁ – Q₂). This data

(a) violates 1st Law of thermodynamics

(b) violates 1st Law of thermodynamics if Q₁ is negative

(d) does not violate 1st Law of thermodynamics

Answer: (b)

38. The bond, present in CuSO₄, 5H₂O is

(a) Ionic, Covalent and Co-ordinate

(b) Ionic & Covalent

(d) Ionic and Co-ordinate

Answer: (a)

39. For reaction H₂(g) + Br₂(g) = 2BHr(g) the reaction rate = k[H₂][Br₂]^1/2. Which of the following statements is T RUE in this reaction?

(a) The reaction is of second order

(b) The unit of k is sec⁻¹

(d) Molecularity of the reaction is 2

Answer: (d)

40. n-propyl magnesium bromide on treatment with carbon dioxide and further hydrolysis gives which compound?

(a) Acetic acid

(b) Acetone

(d) Butanoic acid

Answer: (d)

41. Consider t he given equilibrium in a closed container N₂O₄(g) → 2 NO₂(g) at a fixed temperature, the volume of t he reaction container is halved. For this change which of the following holds TRUE regarding the equilibrium constant (K_P) and degree of dissociation (α).

(a) Neither K_P nor α changes

(b) Both K_P and α changes

(d) K_P does not change but α changes

Answer: (d)

42. Bakelite a ———- polymer

(a) Plastic

(b) natural

(d) Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (c)

43. Which of the following compounds show(s) Geometrical isomerism?

(a) 2-Butene

(b) 2-Methyl-2-Butene

(d) 1, 2-Dichloropropane

Answer: (c)

44. 02 × 10¹⁹ molecules of urea are present in 200 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is (Avogadro constant, N_A = 6.02 × 10²³ ml⁻¹)

(a) 0.0005 M

(b) 0.005 M

(d) 0.001 M

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following does NOT conduct electricity?

(a) Molten NaOH

(b) Molten NaCl

(d) Molten AlCl₃

Answer: (c)

46. When Conc. H₂SO₄ and Cu turning are added to Nitrate salt, a coloured gas is evolved. What is the colour of this gas?

(a) Blue

(b) Green

(d) Red

Answer: (b)

47. Calculate the K.E. of a molecule of CO₂ at 100C (R = 8.314 J mol⁻¹K⁻, Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 10²³)

(a) 5.65 × 10⁻²¹ J Molecule⁻¹

(b) 6.79 × 10⁻²⁰ J Molecule⁻¹

(d) 6.21 × 10⁻²⁰ J Molecule⁻¹

Answer: (a)

48. Specific conductance does NOT depend on

(a) dimension of the cell

(b) electric flow of the cell

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

49. What weight of copper will be deposited by passing 2 Faradays of electricity through cupric salt (At. wt. of Cu= 63.5)?

(a) 2.0 gm

(b) 3.175 gm

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

50. With a particular ligand, which one of the following ions will form the least stable complex (Keeping the other factors constant)?

(a) K⁺

(b) Cs⁺

(d) Rb⁺

Answer: (c)

51. According to Bohr’s model, the angular momentum of an electron in the third orbit is

(a) 3h/π

(b) 1.5h/π

(d) 9h /π

Answer: (b)

52. Ionization of Boric acid in aqueous medium gives

(a) [B(OH)₄]⁻

(b) [B(OH)₂O]⁻

(d) [BO₃]³⁻

Answer: (c)

53. BaSO₄ is insoluble and MgSO₄ is soluble in water because

(a) BaSO₄ is more covalent than MgSO₄

(b) lattice energy of MgSO₄ is greater than BaSO₄

(d) lattice energy of BaSO₄ is greater than MgSO₄

Answer: (c)

54. Sodium Nitroprusside solution is used for which radical identification?

(a) SO₃²⁻

(b) S²⁻

(d) PO₄³⁻

Answer: (d)

55. When nitrobenzene is treated with bromine in presence of FeBr₃, the major product formed is m-bromo nitrobenzene. The statement which is related to obtain m-isomer is

(a) The intermediate carbonium ion formed after initial attack of Br⁺ at the meta position is least stabilized

(b) The electron density of meta carbon is more than that on ortho and para position

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

56. Which of the following will distinguish ethanol from Benzaldehyde?

(a) [Ag(NH₃)₂]OH

(b) 2, 4, DNP

(d) NaHSO₃

Answer: (b)

57. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is

(a) Cu₂O + FeS

(b) FeSiO₃

(d) Cu₂S + FeO

Answer: (b)

58. The relatively lowering of vapour pressure in case of a solution of non-volatile solute is equal to the mole fraction of solute. The statement is based on

(a) Ostwald Law

(b) Raoult’s Law

(d) Frendlich & Langmuir Law

Answer: (b)

59. An electric current of 1A is passed through acidulate water for 321 minutes 40 seconds. What is the volume of the Oxygen liberated at the anode(as reduced to NTP)?

(a) 1.12 lit

(b) 11.2 lit

(d) 22.4 lit

Answer: (d)

60. Rust is

(a) FeO + Fe(OH)₂

(b) Fe₂O₃ + Fe(OH)₂

(d) Fe₂O₃ + Fe(OH)₂

Answer: (c)

61. Four moles of ClCH₂SiCl₃ react with three moles of LiAlH₄ in diethyl ether solution. Which one of the following compounds is obtained?

(a) ClCH₂SiH₃

(b) CH₂SiLiH₃Cl

(d) ClCH₂LiAlH₂

Answer: (a)

62. With a particular ligand,, which one of the following ions will form the least stable complex (keeping the other factors constant)?

(a) K⁺

(b) Cs⁺

(d) Rb⁺

Answer: (c)

63. Octahedral hybridization is found on which compound?

(a) XeF₂

(b) XeF₄

(d) XeOF₄

Answer: (d)

64. An FCC crystal has an atomic radius of 1.41 Å. What are the d₂₀₀ spacing?

(a) 2 Å

(b) 4 Å

(d) 16 Å

Answer: (c)

65. Substance used in bringing down the body temperature in high fever is called

(a) Antiseptics

(b) Pyretics

(d) Antipyretics

Answer: (d)

66. Give the number of unpaired electrons in the complex ions : [CoF₆]³⁻

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (c)

Mathematics

1. If X = {4ⁿ – 3n – 1 : n ∈ N} and Y = {9(n – 1) : n ∈ N} then X ∪ Y =

(a) X

(b) Y

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

2. Let A be a non-void set of the children in a family. The relation ‘X is a brother of Y’ on Y is

(a) Reflexive

(b) Symmetric

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

3. A mapping f : R → R which is defined as f(x) = cos x, x ∈ R is

(a) One-One only

(b) Onto only

(d) Neither One-One nor Onto

Answer: (d)

4. Let α, β be the roots of the equation x² – tx + r = 0 and be the roots of their equation x² – tx + r = 0, then the value of r is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

5. If sin α, cos α are the roots of the equation ax² + bx + c = 0, then

(a) a² – b² + 2ac = 0

(b) a² + b² – 2ac = 0

(d) (a + c)² = b² – c²

Answer: (c)

6. The product of cube roots of −1 is equal to

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

7. The Point in sphere which corresponds to is

(a) (1, 1, 1)

(b) (0, 0, 0)

(d) (1/3, 1/3, 1/3)

Answer: (b)

8. The region of the Argand diagram defined by |z – 3| > 0 is

(a) interior of the ellipse

(b) exterior of a circle

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

9. How many numbers between 5000 and 10000 can be formed with the digits if each digit NOT appearing more than once in each number?

(a) 1080

(b) 1680

(d) 1008

Answer: (b)

10. The unit digit of 2¹⁰⁰ is

(a) 2

(b) 4

(d) 8

Answer: (c)

11. The minimum value of cos 2θ + cos θ for real values of θ is

(a) 9/8

(b) −9/8

(d) −2

Answer: (b)

12. The number of solutions of the pair of the equations 2sin² θ – cos 2θ = 0

3cos² θ – 3 sin θ = 0 in the interval [0, 2π] is

(a) zero

(b) one

(d) four

Answer: (a)

13. The solution of the differential equation y[x² + y² + 1]dy + [2x(x² + y²) – 1]dx = 0 is

(a) 2x² + y² + 3log(x² + y² – 2) = C

(b) 2x² + y² − 3log(x² + y² – 2) = C

(d) 2x² – y² – 3log(x² + y² + 2) = C

Answer: (a)

14. Consider the following differential equations:

The sum of the order of 2nd differential equation and the degree of the 1st differential equation is

(a) 2

(b) 7

(d) 9

Answer: (b)

15.

(a) 2

(b) 1

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

16. Probability that A speaks truth is 4/5, while this probability for B is 3/4. The probability that they contradict each other when asked to speak on a fact is

(a) 3/20

(b) 1/5

(d) 4/5

Answer: (c)

17. A bag contains unlimited number of black, blue, red and orange balls. The number of ways to select 10 balls so that the selection includes at least one ball of each colour is

(a) 1001

(b) 276

(d) None of these

Answer: (*)

18. The number of diagonals of n-sided polygon is

(a) n(n – 1)/2

(b) n(n – 1) (n – 2)/6

(d) n(n – 3)/2

Answer: (d)

19. The middle term of (1 + x)²ⁿ is

(a)

(b) 2n!xⁿ

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

20. The product of the series is

(a) e⁻¹

(b) 1 – e⁻¹

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

21. If a variable line passes through the point of intersection of the lines x + 2y – 1 = 0 and 2x – y – 1 = 0 and meets the co-ordinate axes at A and B, then the locus of mid-point of AB is

(a) x + 3y = 0

(b) x + 3y = 10

(d) None of these

Answer: ()

22. If M is 7 × 5 matrix of rank 3 and N is a 5 × 7 matrix of rank 5, then rank of MN is

(a) 5

(b) 2

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

23. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix with det A = 5 and if B = A² then det B – ?

(a) 20

(b) 100

(d) 1600

Answer: (*)

24. If then det(A⁻¹) = ?

(a) 2

(b) −2

(d) −1/2

Answer: ()

25. Five horses are in a race. Mr. A selects two of them at random and bets on them. The probability that Mr. A selected the winning horse is

(a) 4/5

(b) 3/5

(d) 2/5

Answer: (c)

26. The relationship between mean, median and mode for a moderately skewed distribution is

(a) mode = median – 2 mean

(b) mode = 2median – mean

(d) mode = 2median – 3 mean

Answer: (c)

27. If two lines of regression are 3x + 12y = 19 and 9x + 3y = 46, the correlation coefficient is

(a)

(b)

(d) −0.52

Answer: (a)

28.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

29. ∫{xf ʹ(x) + f(x)}dx = ?

(a) f(x) + C

(b) xf(x) + C

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

30. If then Fʹ(x) = ?

(a) 2 – sin x

(b) 2 + sin t

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

31.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) −1

Answer: (a)

32. If x = f(t) cost – f ʹ(t) sin t and y = f(t) sin t + f ʹ(t) cost t then

(a) [f(t) – f ʹʹ(t)]²

(b) [f(t) + f ″(t)]²

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

33. If f(x) is a differentiable function on [0, 3], and f(3) = 2 then

(a) 5f ʹ(2)

(b) 3f ʹ(2)

(d) None of these

Answer: (*)

34. log₃sinx – log₃ cos x – log₃(1 – tan x) – log₃(1 + tan x) = −1 then tan 2x = ?

(a) 2

(b) 3/2

(d) 6

Answer: (c)

35. then the value of is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 3

Answer: (b)

36. The co-efficient of x⁹⁹ in the expansion of (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3) …. (x – 100) is

(a) 5050

(b) −5050

(d) −3310

Answer: (*)

37. The number of solutions of the equation 2 sin(e^x) = 5^x + 5⁻^x is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) infinitely many

Answer: (*)

38. The straight li ne y = mx + c cuts the circle x² + y² = a² in real points if

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (*)

39. If are two vectors such that and , then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

40. Let P, Q, R, and S be the points on the plane with position vectors respectively. The quadrilateral PQRS must be a

(a) parallelogram which is neither a rhombus nor a rectangle

(b) square

(d) rhombus but not a square

Answer: (*)

41. The value of

(a) log 2

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

42. Let and be three vectors. A vector in the plane whose projection on is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (*)

43. Let P = {θ : sin θ – cos θ = √2 cos θ} and Q = {θ : sin θ + cos θ = √2 sin θ} be two sets. Then

(a) P ⊂ Q and Q – P ≠ ϕ

(b) Q ⊄ Q

(d) P = Q

Answer: ()

44. If the cardinality of a set A is 4 and that of a set B is 3, then what is the cardinality of the set A ∆ B?

(a) 1

(b) 5

(d) Cannot be determined

Answer: ()

45. The total number of subsets of a finite set A has 56 more elements than the total number of subsets of another finite set B. What is the number of elements in the set A?

(a) 5

(b) 6

(d) 8

Answer: (b)

46. The number of continuous functions on R which satisfy (f(x))² = x², ∀x ∈ R, is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (*)

47. The value of C of Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem if f(x) = x(x – 1)(x – 2); a = 0, b = 1/2 is

(a) 1/4

(b) 1/3

(c)

(d)

Answer: ()

48.

(a) −1

(b) 1

(d) sin x

Answer: (b)

49. Let f(x) = x² – 5x + 6 and then f(A) = ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

50. Multiplication of matrices E and G is F where and Then the value of F is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

51. What is the value of following determinant?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

52. The real part of complex number (1 + i)n is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

53. If 1, ω, ω² are the cube roots of unity, then the roots of the equation (x – 1)³ + 8 = 0 are

(a) −1, −1, −1

(b) −1, 1 + 2ω;1 + 2ω²

(d) −1, 1 – 2ω, 1 – 2ω²

Answer: (d)

54. The remainder when 2⁵⁰ is divided by 7 is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (b)

55. Solution of is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

56. A fair dice is tossed 7 times. The probability that a 5 or a 6 occurs atleast once is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

57. The maximum value of Z = 2x + 3y, subject to constraints x + y ≤ 30, y ≥ 3, 0 ≤ 12, 0 ≤ x ≤ 20 and x – y ≥ 0 is

(a) 11

(b) 72

(d) 36

Answer: (*)

58. Consider the LP problem : max z = x + y subject x – 2y ≤ 10

y – 2x ≤ 10

x, y ≥ 0

Then the LP problem

(a) admits an optimal solution

(b) is unbounced

(d) admits a unique feasible solution

Answer: (*)

59. Which of the following is the convex set?

(a) {(x, y) : x² + y² ≥ 1}

(b) {(x, y) : y² ≤ x}

(d) {(x, y) : y ≥ 2, y ≤ 4}

Answer: (a)

60. The reflection of the point A(1, 0, 0) in the line is

(a) (3, −4, −2)

(b) (5, −8, −4)

(d) (2, −3, 8)

Answer: (a)

61. If α, β are roots of the equation 8x² – 3x + 27 = 0 then the value of is

(a) 1/3

(b) 1/4

(d) 1/6

Answer: (b)

62. In decimal system, the number (362)₁₆ is equivalent to

(a) (962)₁₀

(b) (862)₁₀

(d) (860)₁₀

Answer: ()

63. The least value of n for which the sum of the series 3 + 6 + 9 +…to n terms exceeds 1000 is

(a) 25

(b) 26

(d) 28

Answer: (b)

64. (1 – x)^3/2 can be expanded in ascending power of x if

(a) −1 < x < 1

(b) x < −1

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

65. The angle made by a double ordinate of length 8a at the vertex of the parabola y² = 4ax is

(a) π/3

(b) π/2

(d) π/6

Answer: (b)

66.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

67. Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x and f(x) = [tan²x] then

(a)

(b) f(x) is continuous at x = 0

(d) f ʹ(0) = 1

Answer: (c)

68. If f(x) = (x – p)² + (x – q)² + (x – r)², then f(x) has a minimum at

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

Biology

1. Father of ‘Zoology’ is

(a) Carolus Linnaeus

(b) Aristotle

(d) Buffon

Answer: (b)

2. Which one of the following is NOT eukaryotic?

(a) Protista

(b) Monera

(d) Animalia

Answer: (b)

3. Prion consists of

(a) protein

(b) DNA

(d) Both DNA & RNA

Answer: (a)

4. In bacteria the respiratory enzymes are located on

(a) Plasmid

(b) Episome

(d) Nucleoid

Answer: (c)

5. Spirulina belongs to the kingdom

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

(d) Fungi

Answer: (a)

6. Signet ring stage of plasmodium represents

(a) beginning of schizogony in liver cells

(b) end of schizogony in RBC

(d) beginning of sporogony in humans

Answer: (c)

7. Yeast and Penicillium producing fungi are included under

(a) Basidiomycetes

(b) Zygomycetes

(d) Phycomycetes

Answer: (c)

8. The CO₂-acceptor in calvin cycle /C₃ plants is

(a) Phospho-enol pyruvate (PEP)

(b) Ribulose 1, 5-bi- phosphate (RuBP)

(d) Ribulose mono-phosphate (RuMP)

Answer: (b)

9. An animal without segmentation is

(a) Ship Worm

(b) Earthworm

(d) Glow worm

Answer: (a)

10. Which is an ectotherm?

(a) Lizard

(b) Pigeon

(d) Camel

Answer: (a)

11. Larva of Jelly fish (Aurelia) is

(a) Plannula

(b) Medusa

(d) Blastula

Answer: (a)

12. Excretory organs of flatworms are

(a) Malpighian tubules

(b) Nephridia

(d) Nephrone

Answer: (c)

13. A feature ABSENT in annelids is

(a) Clitellum

(b) Pseudocoelom

(d) Nephridia

Answer: (b)

14. Insects are

(a) Ammonotelicc

(b) Ureotelic

(d) Aminotelic

Answer: (c)

15. The scientific name of National Bird is

(a) Passer domesticus

(b) Pavo cristatus

(d) Psittacula eupatrica

Answer: (b)

16. An egg lying mammal is

(a) Kangaroo

(b) Platypus

(d) Whale

Answer: (b)

17. The simplest amino acid is

(a) Lysine

(b) Glycine

(d) Aspertic acid

Answer: (b)

18. Non-membranous organelle is

(a) Ribosome

(b) Lysosome

(d) G. B.

Answer: (b)

19. Nucleolar organizer is

(a) Primary constriction

(b) Secondary constriction

(d) Nucleolus

Answer: (d)

20. Mitochondria do NOT occur in

(a) human liver cell

(b) human nerve cell

(d) frog liver cell

Answer: (c)

21. Which is a component chlorophyll?

(a) Mg

(b) Mn

(d) Fe

Answer: (a)

22. DNA synthesis occurs during

(a) Interphase-G₁ stage

(b) Interphase-S stage

(d) Anaphase

Answer: (b)

23. Zygotic Meiosis occurs in

(a) Pinus

(b) Marchantia

(d) Dryopteris

Answer: (c)

24. Cell division is initiated by

(a) Cytokinin

(b) IAA

(d) ABA

Answer: (b)

25. Total root parasite is

(a) Rafflesia

(b) Cassytha

(d) Loranthus

Answer: (a)

26. Hypanthodium inflorescence is found in

(a) Coriander

(b) Sunflower

(d) Fig

Answer: (d)

27. Zig zag development of flowers on inflorescence axis is

(a) Helicoid cyme

(b) Umbel

(d) Corymb

Answer: (c)

28. Fruit of coconut is

(a) berry

(b) cypsela

(d) cremocarp

Answer: (c)

29. The outer layer of ovuam is

(a) theca externa

(b) theca interna

(d) corona radfata

Answer: (d)

30. The hormone which is secreted from the Corps Luteum is

(a) Testosterone

(b) FSH

(d) HCG

Answer: (c)

31. The weight of the adult male kidney is

(a) 75 gm

(b) 150 gm

(d) 330 gm

Answer: (b)

32. The name of the 10th cranial nerve is

(a) Hypoglossal

(b) Vagus

(d) Abducens

Answer: (b)

33. The Rolandic fissure of the cerebrum is located in between the

(a) Frontal-Parietal

(b) Frontal-Temporal

(d) Temporal-Insula

Answer: (a)

34. Kranz anatomy is typical of

(a) C₄ plants

(b) C₃ plants

(d) CAM plants

Answer: (a)

35. Xylem is exarch in

(a) leaf

(b) petiole

(d) root

Answer: (d)

36. Stomata generally operate in response to

(a) atmospheric humidity

(b) soil temperature

(d) light

Answer: (d)

37. Vascular bundles surrounded by sclerenchymatous sheath occur in

(a) monocot stem

(b) dicot stem and leaf

(d) dicot root

Answer: (a)

38. Largest family of flowering plants is

(a) Fabaceae

(b) Liliaceae

(d) Asteraceae

Answer: (d)

39. Oryza sativa belongs to family

(a) Asteracceae

(b) Malvaceae

(d) Poaceae

Answer: (d)

40. What is TRUE of cardiac muscles?

(a) Voluntary

(b) Striated

(d) Antagonastic

Answer: (b)

41. Which is NOT a Micronutrient?

(a) P

(b) Cu

(d) Mo

Answer: (a)

42. Haversian canals are found in

(a) muscle

(b) nerve

(d) bone

Answer: (d)

43. Lymph differs from blood is possessing

(a) only WBC

(b) more ABC and WBC

(d) more WBC and few ABC

Answer: (d)

44. Heparin is formed by

(a) liver cells

(b) plasma cells

(d) spleen cells

Answer: (a)

45. Which is NOT phagocytic?

(a) Monocyte

(b) Lymphocyte

(d) Histiocyte

Answer: (b)

46. Open circulatory system occurs in

(a) Pheretima

(b) Rana

(d) Cavia

Answer: (c)

47. Collagen is

(a) protein

(b) fat

(d) starch

Answer: (a)

48. Pacemaker causes

(a) heart beat

(b) hunger felling

(d) heart failure

Answer: (a)

49. R.S.T. is related to

(a) Ventricular contraction

(b) Auricular contraction

(d) Auricular relaxation

Answer: (a)

50. In an kidney is

(a) pronephros

(b) mesonephros

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

51. Anaemia is due to deficiency of

(a) leucocytes

(b) blood

(d) thrombocytes

Answer: (c)

52. Knee joint is

(a) gomphosis

(b) cartilaginous joint

(d) synovial joint

Answer: (d)

53. Pelvic girdle consists of

(a) ilium.

(b) ilium and ischium

(d) ischium and pubis

Answer: (c)

54. Sympathetic nervous system is also called

(a) Visceral

(b) Thoracico-lumbar

(d) Mesenteric

Answer: (b)

55. Common neutrotransmitter of peripheral nervous system is

(a) colchicine

(b) epinephrine

(d) acetylcholine

Answer: (d)

56. In human eye, the blind spot contains

(a) rods

(b) cones

(d) neither rods and cones

Answer: (d)

57. Organ of corti is connected with the sense of

(a) taste

(b) smell

(d) equilibrium

Answer: (d)

58. The metabolic rate is controlled by

(a) pancreas

(b) liver

(d) pituitary

Answer: (c)

59. Addison’s disease is due to under secretion of

(a) adrenaline

(b) corticoids

(d) Insulin

Answer: (c)

60. Length of one coil of B-DNA helix is

(a) 0.34 nm

(b) 3.4 nm

(d) 20 nm

Answer: (d)

61. DNA molecule has small units called

(a) purines

(b) adenine and thymine

(d) adenine

Answer: (c)

62. The condition of sickle cell anaemia is due to

(a) chromosomal mutation

(b) silent mutation

(d) fame-shift mutation

Answer: (c)

63. Which one causes mutations?

(a) Crossing over

(b) Colchicine

(d) Hybridization

Answer: (c)

64. Golden age of Dinosaurs’/Age of Reptiles was

(a) Mesozoic

(b) Coenozoic

(d) Psychozoic

Answer: (a)

65. Cranial capacity of Neanderthal Man was

(a) 1450 cc

(b) 1300 cc

(d) 1100 cc

Answer: (a)

66. Human population shows

(a) J-shaped growth curve

(b) Z-shaped growth curve

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

67. Plants, living partly inside water and partly above it, are

(a) Xerophytes

(b) Thallophytes

(d) Halophytes

Answer: (c)

68. An incomplete ecosystem is

(a) grassland

(b) river

(d) Cave

Answer: (d)

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