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2007 O.U.A.T Question with Answer
Physics
1. Two bodies of masses m1, m2 have equal kinetic energies. If p1, p2 are their momenta, the ratio p 1/p2 is equal to
(a) 
(b) m1/m2
(c) m2/m1
(d) 
Answer: (a)
2. At what angle to the horizon a body must be projected so that the vertical height attained and the horizontal range are equal.
(a) tan−1 1
(b) tan−1 2
(c) tan−1 3
(d) tan−1 4
Answer: (d)
3. The energy of electron in H-atom is given by En = (−6/n2)eV. Then, the energy required to send the electron from the first orbit to the second is
(a) 10.2 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 12.1 eV
(d) 3.4 eV
Answer: (a)
4. Equal number of identical cells, each of emf e and internal resistance r are joined in series and parallel. If R be the external resistance of the circuit, then the condition for equal current in two case is
(a) er = R
(b) R = r/e
(c) r = R
(d) R = r/2
Answer: (c)
5. An engine moves along a straight line such that s ∝ t2 where s is the distance traversed by the engine in time t. The power of the engine is proportional to
(a) t2
(b) t
(c) t1/2
(d) t4
Answer: (b)
6. When ultraviolet radiation is incident on a metallic surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. Another beam of radiation however causes photoemission from the same surface. The second beam must consist of
(a) radio waves
(b) infrared rays
(c) visible radiation
(d) X-rays
Answer: (d)
7. The current in a coil of inductance 20μH increases uniformly from zero to 1 ampere in 0.1 second. The magnitude of the induced emf in volt is given by
(a) 2 × 10−4
(b) 2
(c) 2 × 10−5
(d) 2 × 10−6
Answer: (a)
8. A certain radioactive element 
transform into 
In the process, how many α and β particles are emitted?
(a) 6, 8
(b) 7, 4
(c) 4, 7
(d) 8, 6
Answer: (b)
9. The image of an object formed by a convex mirror is 1/n times the size of the object. The focal length of the mirror is f. The object distance is
(a) (n – 1)f
(b) f/n
(c) (n + 1)f
(d) nf
Answer: (a)
10. The refractive angle of a prism is 60° and there refractive index of the prismatic material is 
If a ray of emergent light grazes the second surface of refraction, the angle of incidence would be
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 30°
(d) 0°
Answer: (d)
11. The path difference between the two waves
y1 = a1sin(ωt – 2πx/λ) and
y2 = a2 cos(ωt – 2πx/λ + ϕ) is given by
(a) (λ/2π)ϕ
(b) (2π/λ)ϕ
(c) (λ/2π)(ϕ + π/2)
(d) (2π/λ) (ϕ + π/2)
Answer: (a)
12. An equiconvex lens of focal length 2 m is symmetrically cut into two pieces to obtained two plano-convex lenses. The focal length of each piece is
(a) 4 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 1 m
(d) 8 m
Answer: (a)
13. With what velocity should a source of sound approach a stationary observer so that the apparent frequency be double the actual? (Velocity of sound = 332 m/s)
(a) 83 m/s
(b) 166 m/s
(c) 332 m/s
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
14. In a capillary glass tube, water rises to a height h. The cross-sectional area of the tube is next reduced to one-fourth of the previous value. The water will now rise to a height
(a) 4h
(b) h/4
(c) 2h
(d) h/2
Answer: (c)
15. A proton of mass m moves with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic field of flux density B. The force experienced by proton is
(a) Bv
(b) zero
(c) Bmv
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
16. A D.C. voltage supply has an internal resistance of rΩ. A resistive load R is connected across the terminals of the supply. the power developed in R is maximum when the value of R is
(a) 1Ω
(b) √2Ω
(c) r2Ω
(d) rΩ
Answer: (d)
17. The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is
(a) 0
(b) grater than 1
(c) negative
(d) less than 1
Answer: (c)
18. The saturation current of a diode valve is governed by
(a) Ampere’s law
(b) Kirchoff’s law
(c) Chirld’s law
(d) Richardson’s law
Answer: (d)
19. In a vacuum tube, the principal effect of negative space charge is to
(a) increase electron emission from cathode
(b) decrease the grid current
(c) increase the plate voltage
(d) decrease the plate current
Answer: (d)
20. A triode valve has a resistance 5 × 103 ohm and its mutual conductance is 1.5 × 103/volt. The valve has an amplification factor
(a) 7.5
(b) 3 × 105
(c) 3 × 106
(d) 75
Answer: (a)
21. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the direction of the field. Which of the following would change?
(a) Charge of the particle
(b) Speed of the particle
(c) Energy of the particle
(d) Trajectory of particle
Answer: (d)
22. How much electricity should be passed through an electrolyte solution for one second to liberate one gram-equivalent weight of the substance at the electrode.
(a) 1 C
(b) 96500 C
(c) 1 Faraday
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: (d)
23. A p article moves such that the velocity in m/sec is given by 
The acceleration of the body at the instant t = 2s given by
(a) 1 ms−2
(b) 2 ms−2
(c) 4 ms−2
(d) 6 ms−2
Answer: (d)
24. The sum of the absorptance, reflectance and transmittance of a body is always
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) between 0 and 1
(d) infinite
Answer: (b)
25. A liquid flows through a tube. If α, β be the cross-sections of the portions of the tube at two places 1 and 2, then the ratio of the speeds v1/v2 at the two places will be
(a) α/β
(b) β/α
(c) α2/β2
(d) 
Answer: (b)
26. The turn-ratio in a step-up transformer is 1 : 3. A Lechlance cell of emf 1.5V is connected across the primary. The volt age across the secondary will be
(a) 4.5 V
(b) 0.5 V
(c) 0 V
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
27. In n-p-n transistor, the collector current is
(a) equal to emitter current
(b) slightly less than emitter current
(c) greater than emitter current
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
28. The nuclei suitable for fusion process are
(a) light nuclei
(b) heavy nuclei
(c) intermediate nuclei in periodic table
(d) any nuclei
Answer: (a)
29. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation and having a refractive index μ. If c be the velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is
(a) unchanged
(b) halved
(c) Doubled
(d) quadrupied
Answer: (d)
30. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness and having a refractive index μ. If c be the velocity light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is
(a) t/μc
(b) tμc
(c) tμ/c
(d) tc/μ
Answer: (c)
31. The angular momentum of the electron in H-atom can possibly be
(a) h/4π
(b) h/2π
(c) 2π /h
(d) h/π
Answer: (b)
32. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be
(a) 60
(b) 32
(c) 4
(d) 64
Answer: (a)
33. If the main A.C. supply is 220V, the maximum voltage of the supply will be
(a) 220V
(b) 440V
(c) 311V
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
34. The average power in a pure inductive circuit is given by
(a) Irms × Vrms
(b) Imax × Vmax
(c) 1
(d) zero
Answer: (d)
35. A capacitor of 0.052 F after being charged to 600 V is connected across another capacitor of 0.1F. the voltage across the capacitor changes from 600 V to
(a) 100 V
(b) 120 V
(c) 300 V
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
36. In the decay equation, a neutron can be considered as nucleus of (A = mass number, Z = atomic number)
(a) A = 0, Z = 0
(b) A = 1, Z = 0
(c) A = 0, Z = 1
(d) A = 0, Z = −1
Answer: (b)
37. Ne nucleus, after absorbing energy, decays into two α-particles and an unknown nucleus. The unknown nucleus is
(a) nitrogen
(b) carbon
(c) boron
(d) oxygen
Answer: (b)
38. The potential energy of an electron in the first Bhor orbit in an H-atom is
(a) 13.6 eV
(b) −13.6 eV
(c) 27.2 eV
(d) −27.2 eV
Answer: (d)
39. The astronaut in a satellite moving in a circular orbit somewhat expels out one fifth of the mass of the satellite. Now the satellite will be
(a) go to an orbit of smaller radius
(b) go to an orbit of larger radius
(c) go to an orbit elliptic radius
(d) remain in the same orbit.
Answer: (d)
40. The potential difference between A and B is 23 V. The potential difference in volt across the 3 μF capacitor is given by
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 23
(d) 4
Answer: (d)
41. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process 
, where a, b are constants. When V = b, the temperature of the gas is
(a) a/27Rb
(b) ab/R
(c) ab/2R
(d) ab/5R
Answer: (c)
42. A tank containing water has two orifices at depths 40 cm and 90 cm below the free surface of water. The ratio of discharges through orifices is
(a) 4 : 9
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 5 : 9
(d) 1 : 1
Answer: (b)
43. A liquid of refractive index 1.5 is poured into a beaker such that the height of the liquid is 6 cm. The apparent depth of the liquid will be
(a) 3 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) None of these
Answer: ()
44. A photon behave as if it had a mass equal to
(a) hγ/c
(b) hγ/c2
(c) c/hγ
(d) c2/hγ
Answer: ()
45. In the circuit shown in the figure, the heat produced in the 5 Ω resistor, due to current flowing through it, is 10 calories/s. The heat generated in the 4 Ω resistor is given by
(a) 1 cal/s
(b) 2 cal/s
(c) 3 cal/s
(d) 4 cal/s
Answer: ()
46. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light at the central fringe is I0. The intensity of light at the same spot, when one of the slits is closed is
(a) (1/2)I0
(b) I0
(c) (1/4)I0
(d) None of these
Answer: ()
47. A sphere has numerically equal volume and surface area. Such a sphere has a radius
(a) 9 unit
(b) 6 unit
(c) 3 unit
(d) None of these
Answer: ()
48. A physical quantity P is given by the relation 
The quantity that brings in the maximum percentage error is
(a) B
(b) A
(c) D
(d) C
Answer: ()
49. A closed vessel of volume V contains helium at a pressure P and temperature T. Another closed vessel of same volume V contains oxygen at pressure 2P and temperature T/2. The ratio of mHe : mO2 is
(a) 1 : 8
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 16
Answer: ()
50. A mixture of two gases A and B is enclosed at constant temperature. The ratio of the molecular weights A (diatomic) and B(monatomic) is 8. The ratio of the r.m.s. speed of molecules of B to that of the molecules of A is
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 2√2
Answer: ()
51. The Newtonian constant of gravitation G has the dimensional formula
(a) MLT−3
(b) ML2T3
(c) ML3T−2
(d) None of these
Answer: ()
52. Two vectors 
are such that 
. Then the angle between the vectors is
(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) 120°
(d) 180°
Answer: (b)
53. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of mass 3 kg and 6 kg. If the velocity of the smaller piece be 16 m/sec, then kinetic energy of the larger piece is
(a) 96 J
(b) 384 J
(c) 192 J
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
54. A machine gun fires n bullets a second. If the mass and speed of each bullet be m and v respectively, then the force acting on the machine gun is
(a) mn/v
(b) mnv
(c) mv/n
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
55. What is the total current in the circuit shown in the adjacent diagram?
(a) 1 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 3 A
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
56. A certain radioactive element disintegrates for an interval of time equal to its mean life. What fraction of element is left?
(a) e−1
(b) √e
(c) 1 – e−1
(d) 1 – √e
Answer: (a)
57. The frequency f light falling on a photosensitive material is doubled. Then the kinetic energy of the photelectron
(a) is also doubled
(b) is less than double
(c) more than double
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
58. A convex lens has maximum focal length for
(a) yellow rays
(b) green rays
(c) violet rays
(d) red rays
Answer: (d)
59. In a simple harmonic motion, it is found that the maximum acceleration is α and the maximum velocity is β. The period of the S.H.M is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) T = 2πβ/α
(d) T = β2/α
Answer: (c)
60. Two satellites of masses m1, m2 (m1 > m2) revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. If their speeds be v1 and v2 respectively then
(a) v1 = v2
(b) v1 < v2
(c) v1/r1 = v2/r2
(d) v1 > v2
Answer: (d)
61. If the densities of two gases are in the ratio 25 : 9, then the velocities of sound in the two gases will be in the ratio of
(a) 9 : 25
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 5 : 3
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
62. The ratio of the radius of planet P to that of plant Q is r. The ratio of the g-values on the planets is x. Then, the ratio of the escape velocities corresponding to the two planets is
(a) xr
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Answer: (c)
63. There are two charges +1 μC and +5 μC, separated by a distance d. The ratio of the forces acing on them is
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 1 : 25
(d) 1 : 1
Answer: (d)
64. The Young’s modulus of a material in the form of a wire is numerically equal that stress which will increase the length L0 of the wire to
(a) 
(b) 2L0
(c) 
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
65. Which of the following is an ohmic conductor
(a) Transistor
(b) Thermionic valve
(c) Constantan
(d) Electrolyte
Answer: (c)
66. When light travels from one medium to another, separated by a sharp boundary, the characteristic that does not change is
(a) velocity
(b) wavelength
(c) amplitude
(d) frequency
Answer: (d)
Chemistry
1. Bohr’s model can explain
(a) the spectrum of hydrogen only
(b) the spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only
(c) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(d) the solar spectrum
Answer: (b)
2. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative atom is
(a) ns2 np3
(b) ns2 np4
(c) ns2 np5
(d) ns2 np6
Answer: (c)
3. Diagonal relationship exists between
(a) Li and Mg
(b) Na and Mg
(c) K and Mg
(d) Al and Mg
Answer: (a)
4. The energy required to remove an electron of a gaseous atom from its ground state is called
(a) potential energy
(b) ionization energy
(c) electrode potential
(d) activation energy
Answer: (b)
5. Amongst the following, the molecule that is linear is
(a) CO2
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) SiO2
Answer: (a)
6. Which has the least bond angle?
(a) NH3
(b) BeF2
(c) H2O
(d) CH4
Answer: (c)
7. Amongst the following molecules, the one with the largest distance between the two adjacent carbon atoms is
(a) ethane
(b) ethene
(c) ethyne
(d) benzene
Answer: (a)
8. Graphite is used in nuclear reactors
(a) as a fuel
(b) for lining inside of the reactor as an insulator
(c) as a lubricant
(d) for reducing the velocity of neutrons
Answer: (d)
9. Which of the following elements is most metallic?
(a) P
(b) As
(c) Bi
(d) Sb
Answer: (a)
10. Oxygen molecule exhibits
(a) paramagpetism
(b) diamagnetism
(c) ferromagnetism
(d) ferrimagnetism
Answer: (a)
11. Mark the element which displaces other halogens from their compounds.
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I
Answer: (a)
12. Which of the following series contain only nucleophiles?
(a) H2O, SO3, H3O+
(b) NH3, H2O, ROH
(c) NH3, H2O, AlCl3
(d) CN−, SO3, OH−
Answer: (b)
13. Which of the following exerts +I effect ?
(a) CH3−
(b) Cl
(c) −NH2
(d) −NO2
Answer: (a)
14. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism
(a) but-1-ene
(b) but-2-ene
(c) propene
(d) 1, 1-dichlorobutane
Answer: (b)
15. 
. The compound is
(a) acetic acid
(b) acetaldehyde
(c) acetone
(d) ethanol
Answer: (b)
16. Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in presence of sunlight to form
(a) formyl chloride
(b) phosgene
(c) trichloroacetic acid
(d) formic acid
Answer: (b)
17. The change in internal energy of a system depends on
(a) initial and final states of the system
(b) whether the path is reversible
(c) whether the path is irreversible
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
18. In exothermal reactions
(a) ∆E = 0
(b) ∆H is negative
(c) S = 0
(d) H is positive
Answer: (b)
19. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2 is 0.25, the equilibrium constant of the reaction H2 + I3 ⇌ 2HI would be
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer: (a)
20. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + heat
(a) Kp = Ke
(b) Kp = KcRT
(c) Kp = Kc(RT)−1
(d) Kp = Kc(RT)−1
Answer: (c)
21. Diazonium salt decomposes as C6H5N2 + Cl− → C6H2Cl + N2
At 0℃, the evolution of N2 becomes 2 times faster when the initial concentration of the salt is doubled. So it is
(a) a first order reaction
(b) a second order reaction
(c) independent of the initial concentration of the salt
(d) a zero order reaction
Answer: (a)
22. If the concentration is expressed in moles litre, the unit of the rate constant of a first order reaction is
(a) Mole litre−1 sec−1
(b) sec−1
(c) Mole litre−1
(d) Mole−1
Answer: (c)
23. The number of Faradays needed to reduce 4 gm equivalents of Cu2+ to Cu metal will be
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 1/2
(d) 4
Answer: (d)
24. The radionucleide 
undergoes two successive β-decays followed by one α-decay. The atomic number and mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are :
(a) 92 and 234
(b) 94 and 230
(c) 90 and 230
(d) 92 and 230
Answer: (c)
25. Half-life of a radioelement X is twice that of another radioelement Y. Initially the number of X and Y atoms are Nx and Ny If after 3 h alf lives of X, the number of atoms of X and Y become equal. then the ratio of Nx : Ny is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 6
(d) 1 : 8
Answer: ()
26. A solution of potassium ferrocyanide would contain
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5 ions
Answer: (d)
27. In the complexes [Fe(CN)6]3− & [Cr(C2O4)]3− the respective coordination number of iron and chromium are
(a) 6 and 3
(b) 3 and 3
(c) 6 and 6
(d) 3 and 6
Answer: (c)
28. Which of the following metal is obtained by leaching its ore with dilute cyanide solution?
(a) Silver
(b) Titanium
(c) Vanadium
(d) Zinc
Answer: (a)
29. Which one of the following metals forms a volatile compound and this property is taken advantage for its extractioq?
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Cobalt
(d) Tungsten
Answer: (b)
30. Alkali metals give colour in Bunsen flame due to
(a) ionization potential
(b) low melting point
(c) softness
(d) one electron in outermost orbit
Answer: (a)
31. Glauber’s salt is
(a) Na2CO3, 10H2O
(b) Na2SO4, 10H2O
(c) CuSO4, 5H2O
(d) FeSO4, 7H2O
Answer: (c)
32. The geometry and type of hybrid orbital present about the central atom in BF3 is
(a) linear; sp
(b) trigonal, sp2
(c) tetrahedral, sp3
(d) pyramidal, sp3
Answer: (b)
33. Transition metal are coloured due to
(a) small size
(b) metallic nature
(c) unpaired d electrons
(d) all
Answer: (c)
34. Cr has which of the following electronic configuration?
(a) 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2
(b) 3s2 3P6 3d5 4s1
(c) 3s2 3P6 3d6
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
35. Cinnabar is an ore of
(a) Hg
(b) Cu
(c) Pb
(d) Zn
Answer: (a)
36. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, it gives a precipitate of
(a) Cu
(b) CuO
(c) Cup
(d) Cu + CuO +Cu2O
Answer: (b)
37. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of
(a) electrophilic addition
(b) nucleophilic addition
(c) nucleophilic substitution
(d) electrophilic substitution
Answer: (b)
38. Cannizzaro reaction is not responded by
(a) trimethylacetaldehyde
(b) benzaldehyde
(c) acetaldehyde
(d) fonnaldehyde
Answer: (c)
39. Which compound would liberate CO2 from, NaHCO3 solution ?
(a) CH3CONH2
(b) CH3NH2
(c) (CH3)4N+OH−
(d) [CH3NH3]+ Cl−
Answer: ()
40. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly alkaline medium gives
(a) diphenyl ether
(b) para hydroxyazobenzene
(c) chlorobenzene
(d) benzene
Answer: (b)
41. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic due to the presence of
(a) 6 π electrons
(b) 10 π electrons
(c) 4 π electrons
(d) 12 π electrons
Answer: (b)
42. The reaction of tolune with chlorine in presence of FeCl3 gives predominantly
(a) benzoyl chloride
(b) m-chlorotoluene
(c) benzyl chloride
(d) o-and p-chlorotoluenes
Answer: (d)
43. Which of the following does not react with Fehling’s solution?
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Glucose
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Formaldehyde
Answer: (b)
44. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Cannizzaro reaction
(c) Perkin reaction
(d) Claisen reaction
Answer: (b)
45. Which of the following is responsible for depletion of stratospheric ozone?
(a) Polyhalogens
(b) Ferrocene
(c) Fullerenes
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons
Answer: (d)
46. A greenhouse gas is
(a) H2S
(b) H2O vapour
(c) SO2
(d) NO2
Answer: (c)
47. Natural rubber is a polymer of
(a) neoprene
(b) chloroprene
(c) isoprene
(d) butadiene
Answer: (c)
48. Which of the following is an antibiotic?
(a) Chloroamphenicol
(b) Aspirin
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Chloroquine
Answer: (a)
49. Which one of the following is a conducting polymer?
(a) PVC
(b) Bakelite
(c) Polyaniline
(d) Polyethylene
Answer: (c)
50. An atom is 10 times heavier than 1/12th mass of a carbon atom (C-12). The mass of the atom in a.m.u. is
(a) 10
(b) 120
(c) 1.2
(d) 12
Answer: (a)
51. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by mass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is approximately 67200. the number of iron atoms (at. mass 56) in one molecule of haemoglobin is
(a) 6
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2
Answer: (c)
52. Analysis shows that a binary compound of x(at. mass = 10) and y(at. mass = 20) contains 50% x. The formula of the compound is
(a) xy
(b) x2y
(c) xy2
(d) x2y3
Answer: (b)
53. The maximum number of molecules is present in
(a) 15 L of H2 gas at STP
(b) 5L of N2 gas at STP
(c) .5 g of H2 gas
(d) 10 g of O2 gas
Answer: (a)
54. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25℃. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 16
(d) 15 : 16
Answer: (d)
55. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular weight of X is
(a) 64
(b) 32
(c) 4
(d) 8
Answer: (a)
56. In Vander Waal’s equation of state for a real gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces is
(a) (v – b)
(b) RT
(c) 
(d) (RT)−1
Answer: (c)
57. Which of the following is not a coligative property?
(a) Osmotic pressure
(b) Elevation of b.p.
(c) Vapour pressure
(d) Depression of f.p.
Answer: (a)
58. Blood and the solution in which blood cells retain their normal forms are
(a) isotonic
(b) hypertonic
(c) isoosmotic
(d) equinormal
Answer: (a)
59. Milk is an example of
(a) pure solution
(b) emulsion
(c) gel
(d) suspension
Answer: (b)
60. Gold number represents
(a) quantity of gold in alloys
(b) percentage of gold in gold biscuits
(c) colloid protective power
(d) percentage of gold in colloidal gold
Answer: (c)
61. The sky appears blue due to
(a) dispersion
(b) reflection
(c) transmission
(d) scattering
Answer: (d)
62. How many Cl− are there around Na+ ion in NaCl crystal?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer: (c)
63. In a crystal, the atoms are located at the position of
(a) maximum P.E.
(b) minimum P.E.
(c) zero P. E.
(d) infinite P.E.
Answer: (b)
64. The number of d-electron retained in Fe2 ion (at, no. of Fe = 26) is
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer: (a)
65. For principal quantum number n= 4, the total number of orbitals having t = 3 is
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 9
Answer: ()
66. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of a particles showed for the first time that the atom has
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) nucleus
(d) neutrons
Answer: (c)
Biology
1. The last five vertebral in the human vertebral column is fused and called
(a) Pygostyle
(b) Coccyx
(c) Sacrum
(d) Urostyle
Answer: (c)
2. Thoracic ribs have two heads which articulate with
(a) the sternum and the neural arch of the stenum
(b) the neural arch and the transverse process of the vertebra
(c) the sternum and transverse process of vertebra
(d) the sternum and the neural spine of vertebra
Answer: (c)
3. During muscle contraction which filaments of a myofibril move?
(a) Myosin filaments
(b) Actin filaments
(c) Both myosin and actin filaments
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
4. At the time of swallowing food the nasal passage is blocked by
(a) terminal part of the soft palate
(b) the epiglottis
(c) the tongue
(d) the turbinates
Answer: (b)
5. Normal quite breathing of either the costal or abdominal type is known as
(a) Apnea
(b) Dyspnea
(c) Orthopnea
(d) Eupnea
Answer: (d)
6. Breathing rate is controlled by coordination centres in
(a) the medulla oblongata
(b) the hypothalamus
(c) the cerebral hemisphere
(d) the cerebellum
Answer: (a)
7. Wall of the stomach is not damaged/digested by the gastric juice, because
(a) Stomach lining secretes antacid
(b) Stomach cells produce some antienzymes
(c) Stomach lining is covered with thick mucus
(d) Gastric juice is diluted with water in food
Answer: (c)
8. Lacteals are
(a) the ducts of mammary gland
(b) blood vessels draining the small intestine
(c) lymph vessels in the villi of intestine
(d) blood vessels in the kidney
Answer: (a)
9. Parathormone tends to increase blood concentration of calcium, the reverse effect is produced by
(a) Glucocorticoides
(b) Thyrocalcitonin
(c) Aldosterone
(d) Thyroxine
Answer: (b)
10. Granular leukocyte are produced in
(a) the red bone narrow
(b) the lymphatic tissue
(c) the liver
(d) the spleen
Answer: (a)
11. Which of the following constituents are essential for normal blood clotting?
(a) Vitamin B12 and Na+
(b) Vitamin B12 and Ca++
(c) Vitamin K and Ca++
(d) Vitamin K and Na+
Answer: (c)
12. Bundle of His is situated in
(a) the wall of the interauricular spetum
(b) the interventricular septum
(c) the wall of the pulmonary aorta
(d) the wall of the superior vencava
Answer: (b)
13. Nissl bodies consist of
(a) groups of flat, membranous sacs and RNA
(b) membranous sacs containing mitochondria
(c) vesicles secreting acetylcholine
(d) vesicles secreting cholinesterase
Answer: (a)
14. A nerve impulse is
(a) the depolarization of the nerve fibre
(b) the repolarization of the nerve fibre
(c) the self propagating wave of negativity
(d) a wave of positivity
Answer: (c)
15. The appetite centre is located in
(a) the cerebral cortex
(b) the lateral part of the hypothalamus
(c) the middle part of the hypothalamus
(d) medulla oblongata
Answer: (c)
16. The blood group of a child is AB, and that of one of the parents is B; the blood group of other parent may be
(a) A, AB
(b) B, AB
(c) A, B, AB
(d) O, B
Answer: (a)
17. The blood plasma of a person of blood group AB is transfused into person of group ‘O’ the recipient will
(a) die
(b) suffer from agglutination
(c) suffer from hemorrhage
(d) remain normal
Answer: (b)
18. The cause of Down’s syndrome is
(a) loss of one chromosome
(b) trisomy of 21st chromosome
(c) an XXY condition
(d) and XO condition
Answer: (b)
19. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is
(a) Trophozoite stage
(b) Quadrinucleated cysts
(c) Octanucleated cysts
(d) Minuta stage
Answer: (a)
20. Exflagellationis the process found in the formation of
(a) Sporozoites in Plasmodium vivax
(b) Female garnets of Plasmodium vivax
(c) Male garnets of Plasmodium vivax
(d) Ookinete of Plasmodium vivax
Answer: (d)
21. Digestion of food in Hydra is
(a) extracellular
(b) intracellular
(c) both extracellular and intracellular
(d) some times extracellular, sometimes intracellular
Answer: (a)
22. Gonads of Obelia are placed in the
(a) Blastostyle
(b) Feeding Zooid
(c) Medusa
(d) Hydrorhyza
Answer: (c)
23. Physalia is a
(a) Solitary Zooid
(b) Polymorphic Colony
(c) Dimorphic Colony
(d) Trimorphic Colony
Answer: ()
24. During copulation of earthworms sperms are transferred into
(a) Oviducts
(b) Spermathecae
(c) Seminal vesicles
(d) Sperm ducts
Answer: (b)
25. The elongated body with two pairs of legs in each body segments is found in
(a) Scorpion
(b) Millipede
(c) Mites
(d) Prawn
Answer: (b)
26. The fish with placoid scales and heterocercal tail is
(a) Jelly fish
(b) Cuttle fish
(c) Dogfish
(d) Cat fish
Answer: (c)
27. A mammal that lays egg is
(a) The scaly ant eater (pangolin)
(b) Kangaroo
(c) Whale
(d) Platypus
Answer: (d)
28. The adult chordaic without persistent notochord is
(a) the ascidian
(b) the amphioxus
(c) the scoliodon
(d) Hagfish
Answer: ()
29. The best non-renewable energy resource for mankind is
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Hydroelectricity
(c) Solar energy
(d) Thermal power
Answer: (a)
30. Excretory organs in Cockroach are
(a) Green gland
(b) Nephridia
(c) Malpighian tubules
(d) Coxal gland
Answer: (c)
31. Osphradium is present in the mantle cavity near
(a) ctenidium
(b) right nuchal lobe
(c) over the buccal mass
(d) left nuchal lobe
Answer: (a)
32. The last moulting of Ascar larva takes place in
(a) Lung of man
(b) Intestine of man
(c) Liver of man
(d) Heart of man
Answer: ()
33. The smallest unit of a rom pound eye in Periplaneta is
(a) Ommatidium
(b) Rod cells
(c) Cone cells
(d) Rhabdome
Answer: ()
34. Primitive streak develops during
(a) Cleavage
(b) Blastulation
(c) Gastrulation
(d) Implantation
Answer: (a)
35. Slight yellow colour of normal urine is due to the presence of
(a) Billirubin
(b) Billivardin
(c) Ketone bodies
(d) Urochrome
Answer: (d)
36. Rate of glomerular filtration and the power of nitrogen retention of kidney decreases and insomnia is found in
(a) Grave’s disease
(b) Addison’s disease
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) Diabetes mellitus
Answer: (a)
37. The plants do not store carbohydrates as glucose, because it
(a) would replace ribose in DNA synthesis
(b) is an unstable molecule
(c) attracts insects harbivores
(d) dissolves in water, thereby altering the osmotic balance
Answer: (d)
38. The spindle fibres formed during mitosis connect to the
(a) Nucleoli
(b) Sugar-phosphate strands
(c) Kinetochores
(d) Nuclear membrane
Answer: (c)
39. The carbohydrates in cell membrane participates in
(a) cell to cell recognition
(b) transporting substances across the membrane
(c) attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton
(d) cell adhesion
Answer: (a)
40. The two strands of a double-helix model DNA are held together hydrogen bond between
(a) sugar and phosphate group
(b) sugar and nitrogenous bases
(c) phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases
(d) nitrogenous bases
Answer: (d)
41. In the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking nucleotides to the developing strand which enzyme catalyzes?
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) Tupoisomerase
(d) Endonuclease
Answer: (a)
42. A Barr-body is a
(a) extranuclear molecular DNA
(b) connection between two X-chromosome.
(c) coiled, inert X-chromosome
(d) Supernumerary Y-chromosome
Answer: (c)
43. Most of the fossils are found in
(a) Granite rock
(b) Lava flows
(c) Black soil
(d) Sedimentary rock
Answer: (d)
44. The ‘Natural selection’ is best defined as occurring when the environment causes
(a) differ initial success in reproduction
(b) differential mortality
(c) assertive mating
(d) a reduced gene pool
Answer: (c)
45. Presence of Cnidoblast cell is the characteristic feature of
(a) Physalia
(b) Beroe
(c) Poterion
(d) Trypanosoma
Answer: (c)
46. The Hybrid disease in man is caused by the larvae of
(a) Echinococcus granulosus
(b) Taenia solium
(c) Ancylostoma duodenale
(d) Fasciola hepatica
Answer: (a)
47. Microfilaria bancroffii is the embryo of
(a) Ascaris lumbricoides
(b) Ancylostoma duodenale
(c) Fasciola hepatica
(d) Wuchereria sp
Answer: (d)
48. The enzymes of Lysosomes are capable of
(a) Aerobic cellular respiration
(b) Synthesizing proteins
(c) Digesting part of cells
(d) Synthesizing lipids
Answer: (c)
49. Which one of the following is a crop pest?
(a) Tse-tse fly
(b) Drosophila
(c) Aphid
(d) Pediculus
Answer: (c)
50. SO2 of the atmosphere combines with water to form H2SO4 and this when reaches to soil it
(a) increases pH of soil
(b) decreases pH of soil
(c) pH remains unchanged
(d) Soil eroded easily
Answer: (b)
51. Dependance of host cell nucleic add for multiplication is found in
(a) Bacteria
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Virus
(d) Eukaryotes
Answer: (c)
52. Fixation of atmospheric Nitrogen to the soil is known as
(a) Nitrogen fixation
(b) Denitrification
(c) Ammonification
(d) Decomposition
Answer: (a)
53. Azygospores is produced in spirogyra by
(a) Conjugation
(b) Parthenogenesis
(c) Syngamy
(d) Fertilization
Answer: (c)
54. Which of the following is a development for pterdophytes over Bryophytes?
(a) Formation of spores
(b) Alternation of generation
(c) Vascular system
(d) Presence of ovator
Answer: (c)
55. All of the following features are shown by Monocotyledonous plants except
(a) Bears only one Cotyledon in their embryo
(b) Radicle on germination produces adventitious roots
(c) Leaves show parallel venation
(d) Vascular bundles are open in stem
Answer: (d)
56. Which of the following is true in exalbuminous seed?
(a) Only nucellus is consumed
(b) None of the endosperm and nucellus are consumed.
(c) Only endosperm is consumed
(d) Both endosperm and nucellus are consumed.
Answer: (a)
57. Tuberous modification of roots is for
(a) mechanical support
(b) vital function
(c) storage of food
(d) reproduction
Answer: (c)
58. Which of the following pair of words are appropriately matched?
(a) Tuber-Ginger
(b) Rhzome-Onion
(c) Cladode-Asparagus
(d) Phyllode-Hugonia
Answer: (c)
59. When rachis contains more than three leaflets in a compound pinnate leaf, it is called
(a) Peripinnate
(b) Quadrifoliate
(c) Imparipinnate
(d) Decompound
Answer: (c)
60. In which of the following Hypanthodium type of inflorescence is seen?
(a) Euphorbia
(b) Ficus
(c) Dorstenia
(d) Sibricus
Answer: (b)
61. Which of the following combination of Chromosomal pattern is produced by double fertilization and triple fusion?
(a) n and n
(b) 2n and 3n
(c) n and 2n
(d) 2n and 2n
Answer: (b)
62. Which of the following diseases is most likely to occur due to noise pollution?
(a) Hypertension
(b) Diabetes
(c) Lung cancer
(d) Renal failure
Answer: (a)
63. Chlorophyll is found to be concentrated in which part of plastid?
(a) Grana
(b) Lamellae
(c) Stroma
(d) Sap
Answer: (a)
64. Which of the following phenomenon contradicts Mendels’ Law of Independent Assortment?
(a) Linkage
(b) Testcross
(c) Back cross
(d) Abberation
Answer: (a)
65. Which one of the following enzymes is used in genetic Engineering?
(a) Lipoprotein lipase
(b) Endonuclease
(c) Enterokinase
(d) Amylase
Answer: (b)
66. All of the following are end products in light reaction of photosynthesis except
(a) Adenosine triphosphate
(b) NADPW
(c) Oxygen
(d) Phosphoglyceric acid
Answer: (d)
67. How many molecules of ATP are produced in anaerobic glycolysis?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer: (a)
68. Which of the following hormones helps in blooming of flowers?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberelin
(d) Florigen
Answer: (d)
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