SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 06-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 06-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 06-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-1) Exam-2019 Held on 06-03-2020 Time 10.00-11.00 AM

General Intelligence and Reasoning

1. In a certain code language, ‘DKQX’ is written as ‘WPJC’. How will ‘AFKP’ be written as in that language?

(a)   ZUQJ

(b)   ZVQL

(c)   ZTOK

(d)   ZUPK

Answer: (d)

2. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

(1) Some machines are kites.

(2) No machine is a pigeon.

Conclusion:

(I) Some machines are pigeons.

(II) All kites are pigeons.

(III) Some kites are not pigeons.

(a)   Only conclusion III follows

(b)   Only conclusion II follows

(c)   Only conclusion I and III follow

(d)   Only conclusion I and II follow

Answer: (a)

3. Select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

A, E, I, ?, Q, U

(a)   K

(b)   N

(c)   M

(d)   O

Answer: (c)

4. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a mirror is placed on the right of the figure.

Answer: (a)

5. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

North : South

(a)   Ductile : Bendable

(b)   Whole : Total

(c)   Frown : Smile

(d)   Integrity : Honesty

Answer: (c)

6. In the given Venn diagram, the ‘rectangle’ represents ‘travelers who like to travel by plane’, the ‘circle’ represents ‘travelers who like to travel by bus’, and the ‘triangle’ ‘represents travelers who like to travel by train’. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of travelers in that particular category.

How many travelers like to travel either by train or plane but NOT by bus?

(a)   36

(b)   30

(c)   29

(d)   27

Answer: (b)

7. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

(1) Quadrillion   (2) Quintillion (3) Million

(4) Octillion        (5) Trillion

(a)   4-3-5-1-2

(b)   2-3-5-1-4

(c)   3-5-1-2-4

(d)   3-5-1-4-2

Answer: (c)

8. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.

(a)   FBL

(b)   DDP

(c)   GCV

(d)   BJT

Answer: (c)

9. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

(a)   113

(b)   95

(c)   111

(d)   77

Answer: (d)

10. In a certain group of men and horse, the total number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. How many horses are there in the group?

(a)   11

(b)   9

(c)   5

(d)   7

Answer: (d)

11. Four words been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different, Select the odd word.

(a)   Trumpet

(b)   Xylophone

(c)   Saxophone

(d)   Clarinet

Answer: (b)

12. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

12 + 81 – 27 × 9 ÷ 3 = 36

(a)   − & ÷

(b)   × & −

(c)   ÷ & ×

(d)   + & ×

Answer: (a)

13. In a certain code language, ‘PAGE’ is coded as ‘161495’. How will ‘PART’ be coded as in that language?

(a)   16128620

(b)   16125020

(c)   16136220

(d)   16132420

Answer: (d)

14. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest.

(a)   15:250

(b)   13:169

(c)   17:289

(d)   11:121

Answer: (a)

15. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Answer: ()

16. Select the option that depicts how the given transparent sheet of paper would appear if it is folded at the dotted line.

Answer: (a)

17. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

5, 10, 26, ?, 122, 170

(a)   77

(b)   65

(c)   82

(d)   50

Answer: (d)

18. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

(a)   82

(b)   92

(c)   98

(d)   88

Answer: (d)

19. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

AG, CGK, EJO, ?, IPW

(a)   GNZ

(b)   GMS

(c)   GMZ

(d)   GNS

Answer: (b)

20. Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

62, 66, 74, 90, ?

(a)   122

(b)   106

(c)   120

(d)   116

Answer: (a)

21. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(a)   16

(b)   22

(c)   28

(d)   25

Answer: (d)

22. A + B means ‘A is the husband of B’;

A – B means ‘B is the sister of A’;

A × B means ‘A is the mother of B;

A ÷ B means ‘B is the son of A’.

If, P + R × T – Q ÷ S + U, then how is P related to S?

(a)   Maternal grandfather

(b)   Uncle

(c)   Paternal

(d)   Father-in-law

Answer: (a)

23. ‘Astronomy’ is related to ‘Stars’ in the same way as ‘Agronomy’ is related to’

(a)   Emotions

(b)   Planets

(c)   Crops

(d)   Mines

Answer: (c)

24. Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the symbol that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘+’.

(a)   $

(b)   #

(c)   @

(d)   *

Answer: (c)

25. Select the option in the which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed).

Answer: (d)

General Awareness

26. Which of the following is the primary sex organ in females?

(a)   Uterus

(b)   Ovary

(c)   Vagina

(d)   Fallopian tube

Answer: (b)

27. Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted from one person to another?

(a)   Cirrhosis

(b)   AIDS

(c)   Hepatitis B

(d)   Syphilis

Answer: (a)

28. Which International organization released the ‘World Energy Outlook 2019’ Report?

(a)   United Nations

(b)   International Energy Agency

(c)   World Trade Organization

(d)   UNESCO

Answer: (b)

29. The Supreme Court has declared access to the internet a fundamental right under Article ______ of the Indian constitution.

(a)   19

(b)   14

(c)   21

(d)   17

Answer: (a)

30. Name the Indian wrestler who has been named the Junior Freestyle Wrestler of the year (2019) by United World Wrestling (UWW).

(a)   B. P. Raju

(b)   Kamareddy

(c)   Amita Bagchi

(d)   Deepak Punia

Answer: (d)

31. UN Women propose to partner with _____ gender park with an aim to secure gender parity is South Asia.

(a)   Kerala’s

(b)   Rajasthan’s

(c)   Punjab’s

(d)   Haryana’s

Answer: (a)

32. Which of the following is a natural flame retardant?

(a)   RNA

(b)   Skin

(c)   DNA

(d)   Flowers

Answer: (c)

33. Merchant Discount rate refers to ______.

(a)   The total discount a bank offers to the merchant for promoting online transactions

(b)   The rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit and credit card transactions

(c)   The total discount a merchant offers on online transactions

(d)   Only taxes that a digital payment entails

Answer: (b)

34. Alyssa Healy who created a world record by becoming the highest scorer in women’s T20I, belongs to

(a)   Japan

(b)   India

(c)   Canada

(d)   Australia

Answer: (d)

35. In the sequence of planets in the Solar system, which planet comes in between Mercury and Earth?

(a)   Uranus

(b)   Venus

(c)   Jupiter

(d)   Mars

Answer: (b)

36. The SDG India index is developed by _____.

(a)   Ministry of Home affairs

(b)   World Bank

(c)   Ministry of Environmental, Forests and Climate Change

(d)   NITI Aayog

Answer: (d)

37. Who performs the task of capturing oxygen in the blood?

(a)   Chlorophyll

(b)   Haemoglobin

(c)   Red blood cells

(d)   White blood cells

Answer: (b)

38. If the inflation in an economy is rising steadily, the Central Bank might_____.

(a)   keep the repo rate unchanged

(b)   decrease the repo rate

(c)   increase the repo rate

(d)   decrease the reverse repo rate

Answer: (c)

39. Name the only metal that is antibacterial.

(a)   Iron

(b)   Sodium

(c)   Copper

(d)   Aluminium

Answer: (c)

40. On which river and in which state is the Jayakwadi dam situated?

(a)   Priyar river – Kerala

(b)   Banas river – Rajasthan

(c)   Ravi river – Punjab

(d)   Godavari river – Maharashtra

Answer: (d)

41. Who is the first General of the Indian Army, whose retirement day is celebrated as the ‘Armed Forces Veterans Day’ every year?

(a)   General K. S. Thimayya

(b)   General S. M. Srinagesh

(c)   General Maharaj Rajendra Sinhji

(d)   General K. M. Cariappa

Answer: (d)

42. Which India journalist was honoured with India’s Most powerful Woman in Media Award during the prestigious Confluence Excellence Award ceremony held in the British Parliament on 27 September 2019?

(a)   Kalli Puri

(b)   Anubha Bhonsle

(c)   Sunetra Chaudhary

(d)   Sona Choudhary

Answer: (a)

43. Which of the following gases is consistently seen to be most abundant in a volcanic eruption?

(a)   water vapour

(b)   Carbon Dioxide

(c)   Sulphur Dioxide

(d)   hydrogen Sulphide

Answer: (a)

44. Maharunnisa who was known as Nur Jahan was the wife of

(a)   Jahangir

(b)   Saha Jahan

(c)   Akbar

(d)   Aurangzeb

Answer: (a)

45. Which leader gave us the C R Formula?

(a)   Tilak

(b)   C. R. Das

(c)   Mahatma Gandhi

(d)   C. Rajagopalachari

Answer: (d)

46. Which of the following is the first South Asian country to cell match-fixing a crime?

(a)   Pakistan

(b)   India

(c)   Sri Lanka

(d)   Nepal

Answer: (c)

47. To which of the following Indian states does Mardani Khel, one of the famous martial art forms in India belong?

(a)   Maharashtra

(b)   Rajasthan

(c)   Uttar Pradesh

(d)   Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (a)

48. In which year did D. C. Sircar publish Indian Epigraphy and Indian Epigraphical Glossary?

(a)   1966-67

(b)   1967-68

(c)   1965-66

(d)   1964-65

Answer: (c)

49. Madhavpur Mela takes place in _____.

(a)   Uttar Pradesh

(b)   Maharashtra

(c)   Madhya Pradesh

(d)   Gujarat

Answer: (d)

50. When did the Vikrama Era Begin?

(a)   57 BC

(b)   55 BC

(c)   50 BC

(d)   47 BC

Answer: (a)

Quantitative Aptitude

51. A, B and C can individually complete a task in 24 days, 20 days and 18 days, respectively. B and C start the task, and they work for 6 days and leave. The number of days required by A alone to finish the remaining task, is:

(a) 10 day

(b)    

(c)    

(d)  

Answer: (c)

52. If (2sinA + cosec A) = 2√2, 0° < A < 90°, then the value of 2(sin4A + cos4A) is:

(a)   2

(b)   1

(c)   4

(d)   0

Answer: (b)

53. If the number 687×29 is divisible by 9, then the value of 2x is:

(a)   4

(b)   8

(c)   2

(d)   3

Answer: (b)

54. If the value of (a + b – 2)2 + (b + c – 5)2 + (c + a – 5)2 = 0, then the value of  is:

(a)   3

(b)   2

(c)   0

(d)   1

Answer: (a)

55. In the following table, the production of various crops (in tones) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

The difference (in tones) between the average production of barley and average production of rice is:

(a)   471

(b)   549

(c)   780

(d)   231

Answer: (d)

56. An article was sold at a gain of 18%. If it had been sold for Rs 49 more, then the gain would have been 25%. The cost price of the article is:

(a)   Rs 890

(b)   Rs 700

(c)   Rs 650

(d)   Rs 570

Answer: (b)

57. The average of the marks of 30 boys is 88, and when the top two scores were excluded, the average marks reduced to 87.5. If the top of two scores differ by 2, then the highest marks is:

(a)   90

(b)   94

(c)   96

(d)   92

Answer: (c)

58. Two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point P. If ∠OAB = 30°, then ∠APB is:

(a)   120°

(b)   30°

(c)   60°

(d)   15°

Answer: (c)

59. If a sum of Rs 1,180 is to be divided among A, B and C, such that 2 times A’s share, 5 times B’s share and 7 times C’s share, are equal, then A’s share is:

(a)   Rs 750

(b)   Rs 500

(c)   Rs 650

(d)   Rs 700

Answer: (d)

60. In the following table, the production of various crops (in tones) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

The percentage growth of maize in the year 2019 over the year 2015 is : (correct to two decimal places)

(a)   60.28%

(b)   65.12%

(c)   71.43%

(d)   77.77%

Answer: (c)

61. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 36√3 cm2, then the perimeter of the triangle is:

(a)   36√3 cm

(b)   18√3 cm

(c)   12 cm

(d)   36 cm

Answer: (d)

62. ABC is an equilateral triangle. P, Q and R are the midpoints of sides AB, BC and CA, respectively. If the length of the side of the triangle ABC is 8 cm, then the area of ∆PQR is:

(a)   √3/3 cm2

(b)   8√3 cm2

(c)   4√3 cm2

(d)   √3/4 cm2

Answer: (c)

63. A circular disc of area 0.64 π m2 rolls down a length of 1.408 km. The number of revolutions it makes is: (Take π = 22/7)

(a)   280

(b)   360

(c)   140

(d)   180

Answer: (a)

64. If 3a = 27b = 81c and abc = 144, then the value of  is:

(a)   18/120

(b)   33/10

(c)   17/120

(d)   18/10

Answer: (b)

65. A shopkeeper marks the price of an article in such a way that after allowing a discount of 22%, he gets a gain of 11%. If the marked price is Rs 888, then the cost price of the article is:

(a)   Rs 550

(b)   Rs 895

(c)   Rs 624

(d)   Rs 782

Answer: (c)

66. What will be the difference in compound interest on a sum of Rs 7,800 at 8% for 1 year, when the interest is paid yearly and half yearly?

(a)   Rs 19.46

(b)   Rs 12.48

(c)   Rs 29.18

(d)   Rs 24.72

Answer: (b)

67. Solve the following:

(a)   1

(b)   −2

(c)   2

(d)   −1

Answer: (b)

68. A student takes 1.25 hours to travel from home to school at a speed of 4 km/h. By what percentage should he increase his speed to reduce the time by 25% to cover the same distance from school of home?

(a)    

(b)   45%

(c)   25%

(d)   50%

Answer: (a)

69. A metallic sphere of diameter 40 cm is melted into smaller spheres of radius 0.5 cm. How many such small balls can be made?

(a)   32,000

(b)   6400

(c)   64,000

(d)   3200

Answer: (c)

70. If a + b + c = 9 and ab + bc + ca = −22, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc is:

(a)   783

(b)   1571

(c)   487

(d)   1323

Answer: (d)

71. If xcosA – ysinA = 1 and x sinA + y cosA = 4, then the value of 17x2 + 17y2 is

(a)   289

(b)   49

(c)   7

(d)   0

Answer: (a)

72. The population of a city increased by 30% in the first year and decreased by 15% in the next year. If the present population is 11,050 then the population 2 years ago was:

(a)   10,050

(b)   99,000

(c)   10,000

(d)   99,500

Answer: (c)

73. If ‘+’ means ‘−’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘×’ then the value of is:

(a)   2

(b)   1

(c)   −2

(d)   −1

Answer: (c)

74. In the following table, the production of various crops (in tones) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

The highest growth of sugarcane production over its previous year is recorded in the year:

(a)   2019

(b)   2017

(c)   2016

(d)   2018

Answer: (c)

75. In the following table, the production of various crops (in tones) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

The average production of wheat (in tones) in the period given in the table is:

(a)   3600

(b)   3482

(c)   3300

(d)   4218

Answer: (a)

English Comprehension

76. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

The farmer is ploughing the fields.

(a)   The fields were ploughed by the farmer.

(b)   The fields are being ploughed by the farmer

(c)   The fields are ploughed by the farmer.

(d)   The fields have been ploughed by the farmer.

Answer: (b)

77. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

We came back because we had ran out of money.

(a)   No improvement

(b)   we have ran

(c)   we had run

(d)   we run

Answer: (c)

78. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words/phrase.

Having two opposing feeling at the same time

(a)   Ambivalent

(b)   Contemporary

(c)   Coinciding

(d)   Equivalent

Answer: (a)

79. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’

Those who are late they will not be allowed inside the classroom.

(a)   No error

(b)   Those who are late

(c)   inside the classroom

(d)   they will not be allowed

Answer: (d)

80. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Persist

(a)   Cease

(b)   Continue

(c)   Remain

(d)   Insist

Answer: (a)

81. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

“What a rare flower!” she said.

(a)   She exclaimed that it was a very rare flower.

(b)   She asked if it was a rare flower.

(c)   She exclaimed what a rare flower it is.

(d)   She told that what a rare flower it was.

Answer: (a)

Comprehension:

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Atlas was made to hold the sky up on his shoulders as a punishment. Once, Hercules (1) ______ to hold it for Atlas while the latter went looking (2) ______ golden apples. When Atlas returned, he saw Hercules (3) _____ hard to hold the sky. The weight of the sky (4) _______ Hercules sweat and groan. Now Atlas did not want to (5) _______ a job as arduous as that!

82. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.

(a)   extended

(b)   offered

(c)   ordered

(d)   afforded

Answer: (b)

83. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.

(a)   for

(b)   after

(c)   at

(d)   on

Answer: (a)

84. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.

(a)   struggling

(b)   tackling

(c)   seeking

(d)   coping

Answer: (a)

85. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.

(a)   were making

(b)   has made

(c)   make

(d)   was making

Answer: (d)

86. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.

(a)   take in

(b)   take out

(c)   take back

(d)   take away

Answer: (c)

87. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Ovation

(a)   Preparation

(b)   Censure

(c)   Applause

(d)   Creation

Answer: (c)

88. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The roof of the old building _____ during the storm.

(a)   demolished

(b)   destroyed

(c)   scratched

(d)   collapsed

Answer: (d)

89. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

(a)   Alliance

(b)   Acquaintence

(c)   Abandon

(d)   Acquisition

Answer: (b)

90. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

(a)   Feared

(b)   Favoured

(c)   Adored

(d)   Compared

Answer: (b)

91. Select the appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She _____ how the magician had performed the rope trick.

(a)   wondered

(b)   bewildered

(c)   puzzled

(d)   suspected

Answer: (a)

92. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute, it select No improvement.

When it started raining, I ran to the nearer house for shelter.

(a)   No improvement

(b)   the nearest house

(c)   a near house

(d)   the near house

Answer: (b)

93. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Chicken-hearted

(a)   Generous

(b)   Miserly

(c)   Selfish

(d)   Cowardly

Answer: (d)

94. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Glee

(a)   Fun

(b)   Joy

(c)   Woe

(d)   Bliss

Answer: (c)

95. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

By and by

(a)   Gradually

(b)   Suddenly

(c)   On the whole

(d)   By any means

Answer: (a)

96. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

(A) The mountain range was covered with snow

(B) Napoleon had to cross the Alps in winter.

(C) Napoleon replied that the word impossible’ did not exist for him.

(D) So, someone told Napoleon that the task was impossible.

(a)   DBCA

(b)   BADC

(c)   BDCA

(d)   ADBC

Answer: (b)

97. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words/phrase.

A group of ships

(a)   squad

(b)   fleet

(c)   swarm

(d)   colony

Answer: (b)

98. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’

Everyone except she have travelled by air.

(a)   travelled by air

(b)   Everyone except

(c)   she have

(d)   No error

Answer: (c)

99. Select the wrongly spelt word.

(a)   Fierce

(b)   Sieze

(c)   Piece

(d)   Grief

Answer: (b)

100. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

(A) Much of this war had taken place along the Western Front.

(B) Both sides had dug in deep and each lost many men over little ground.

(C) This front was  a line of trenches across which the two sides faced each other.

(D) Andre Maginot had fought a war with the French against the Germans.

(a)   BCDA

(b)   DACB

(c)   ACDB

(d)   DBCA

Answer: (b)

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