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OUAT Previous Question Paper-2021
PHYSICS
1. An automobile engine of mass N accelerates and constants power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be
2. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from L to 4L in 4 second. The magnitude of this torque will be
(a) L
(b) 4L
(c) 3L/4
(d) 12L
3. The resultant force on the current loop. PQRS due to along current carrying conductor will be
(a) 10−4N
(b) 3.5 × 10−4N
(c) 1.8 × 10−4N
(d) 5 × 10−4N
4. A capacitor with plate separation ‘d’ is charged to ‘V’ volts. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness d/2 and dielectric constant ‘2’ is inserted between the plates. The potential difference across its terminals becomes
(a) V
(b) 2V
(c) 4V/2
(d) 3V/4
5. The total energy, stored in the condenser system, shown in the figure below is
(a) 2 mJ
(b) 4 mJ
(c) 8 mJ
(d) 16 mJ
6. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm are illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 10−7 The interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringes on the same side of central maxima is
(a) 0.65 mm
(b) 1.62 mm
(c) 3.25 mm
(d) 4.88 mm
7. A spherical ball is falling with a uniform velocity v through a viscous medium of coefficient of viscosity n. If the viscous force acting on the spherical ball is F then
(a) F ∝ η and F ∝ 1/v
(b) F ∝ η and F ∝ v
(c) F ∝ 1/η and F ∝ 1/v
(d) F ∝ 1/η and F ∝ v
8. Determine the r.m.s value of a semicircular current wave which has a maximum value of a
9. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are:
(a) FV−1T−1
(b) FVT−1
(c) FV−1T
(d) FVT−2
10. During charging a capacitor, the variation of potential V of the capacitor with time t is
11. A force of 0.5 N is applied on upper block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on upper for a displacement 3m of the upper block is
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 1 joule
(b) −1 joule
(c) 2 joule
(d) −2 joule
12. A photon of wavelength 900 nm behaves like a particle of mass
(a) 5.53 × 10−36 kg
(b) 0 kg
(c) 2.46 × 10−36 kg
(d) 1.84 × 10−44 kg
13. Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the corners of a thin rectangular sheet (1.2m ×0m) as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point.
(a) (0.8, 0.6)m
(b) (0.6, 0.8)m
(c) (0.4, 0.4)m
(d) (0.5, 0.6)m
14. The resistance across A and B in the figure below will be
(a) 3R
(b) R
(c) R/3
(d) None
15. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10A. If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15T making an angle of 45 with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be
(a) 1.5N
(b) 3√2N
(c) 3N
(d) 3/√2
16. An electron is placed on X-axis where the electric potential depends on x as shown in the figure (the potential does not depend on y and z). What is the electric force on the electron?
(a) 4.0 × 10−18 N
(b) 8.0× 10−18 N
(c) 3.0 × 10−16 N
(d) 4.0 × 10−16 N
17. A carrier was is modulated by n number of sine wave with modulation indices μ1, μ2, μ3 … The total modulation index (μ) of the wave is
(a) μ1 + μ2 + μ3 . + …
18. A solid cylinder first rolls without sliding and then slides without rolling down the same inclined plane. The ratio of velocities in the two cases, at the bottom of the plane, is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) √6 : 3
(d) √3 : 1
19. An automobile engine of mass M accelerates and a constant power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be
20. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y axes as shown in figure below. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is
21. A particle is projected from the ground with kinetic energy E at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be:
(a) E/√2
(b) E/2
(c) E/4
(d) E/8
22. Refer to the figure, Potential difference between A and B is
(a) zero
(b) 5 V
(c) 10 V
(d) 15 V
23. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude. Electric field is zero at the centre of
24. In an LCR series a-c circuit, the voltage across LC combination is
(a) 50 V
(b) 50√2 V
(c) 100 V
(d) zero
25. A block of mass ‘m’ as shown the figure is pulled by a force 40 N. The tension at the middle of the block is
(a) 10 N
(b) 20 N
(c) 25 N
(d) 30 N
26. Some water drops of radius r each coalesce to form a big drop of radius R. The rise in temperature is given by
(a) rT/J
(b) 3T/Jr
(c)
(d)
27. An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as a:
(a) concave lens
(b) convex lens
(c) neither concave nor convex
(d) none of these
28. A ray of light travelling in glass (μ = 3/2) is incident on a horizo glass-air surface at the critical angle. If a thin layer of water (μ = 4/3) is poured on the glass-air surface. The angle at which the ray emerges into air at the water-air surface is
(a) 0
(b) π/4
(c) π/3
(d) π/2
29. Which one of the following is the correct graph between energy and wavelength for a given photon?
30. A 5F capacitor has potential difference across its plates of 200 volt. The charge on the capacitor is
(a) 2.5 × 10−8 C
(b) 10 to 5C
(c) 103C
(d) 4 × 103C
31. If ϕ1 and ϕ2 are the angels of dip in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and ϕ is the true angle of dip then
(a) cot2 ϕ = cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2
(b) tan2 ϕ = tan2 ϕ1 + tan2 ϕ2
(c) cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 + cot ϕ2
(d) tan ϕ = tan ϕ1 + tan ϕ2
32. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half-life of the radioactive substance expressed in days is
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 20
33. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is
(a) Q/2
(b) −Q/2
(c) −Q/4
(d) Q/4
34. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distanced as shown. The fringes obtained on the screen will be
(a) points
(b) straight lines
(c) semi-circle
(d) concentric circles
35. In Young’s double slits experiment, the length of band is 1 mm. The fringe width is 0.021 mm. The number of fringes is
(a) 45
(b) 46
(c) 47
(d) 48
36. If power dissipated in 9Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across 2Ω resistor is
(a) 2 volt
(b) 4 volt
(c) 8 volt
(d) 10 volt
37. The position time graphs of two cars ‘A’ and ‘B’ are straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with time axis respectively. The ratio of velocities of ‘A’ and ‘B’ is
(a) 1 : √2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) √3 : 1
(d) 3 : 1
38. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is p where the velocity of flow is ν. At another point, where the pressure is p/2, the velocity of flow is [density of water = ρ]
39. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
(a) 1/√2
(b) √2
(c) 1/2
(d) 2
40. A composite slab made up of two different material having thickness 2x and 8x, thermal conductivity 2K and 4K respectively and temperatures T2 and T1 (T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is with f equals to
(a) 1
(b) 1/2
(c) 2/3
(d) 1/3
41. The amount of heat generated in 500 Ω resistance when the keys is thrown over from constant 1 to 2, as shown in figure is
(a) 40 × 10−3 J
(b) 50 × 10−3 J
(c) 60 × 10−3 J
(d) 30 × 10−3 J
42. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown below, is (capacitance are in μF)
(a) 21 μF
(b) 23 μF
(c)
(d)
43. In a conical pendulum the length of strings is ‘l’ and ‘θ’ is the angle of strings with vertical. The time period of revolution is
44. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current is
45. An electric motor operating on 15V supply draws a current of 5A and yields mechanical powers of 60W. The energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is :
(a) 0.54
(b) 5.4
(c) 54
(d) 540
46. Four persons are initially at the four corners of a square whose side is equal to d. Each person now moves with a uniform speed V in such a way that the first move directly towards the second, the second directly towards the third, the third directly towards the fourth and the fourth directly towards the first. The four persons meet after a time equals to
(a) d/V
(b) 2d/3V
(c) 2d/√3V
(d) d/√3V
47. In the given graph, adiabatic and isothermal curves are shown:
(a) the curve A is isothermal
(b) the curve B is isothermal
(c) the curve A is adiabatic
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct
48. Which is the value of emf E in the figure below?
VL = 40 V, VR = 80 V
VC = 100 V, E1 = 50 Hz
(a) 200 V
(b) 140 V
(c) 100 V
(d) 20 V
49. In semiconductors which of the following relations is correct at thermal equilibrium?
(a) n = ne = nh
(b) n12 = nenh
(c) n1 = ne/nh
(d) n1 = ne + nh
50. A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed. If the direction of rotation is reversed and the speed is doubled, then
(a) the direction of centripetal acceleration is doubled
(b) the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is doubled
(c) the direction of centripetal acceleration remains unchanged
(d) the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is halved
51. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is:
(a) MV
(b) 1.5 MV
(c) 2 Mv
(d) Zero
52. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given respectively (β is current gain IB, IC, IE are respectively base, collector and emitter currents).
53. A weight W is suspended from the midpoint of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In order to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be
(a) less than W
(b) equal to W
(c) equal to 2W
(d) infinitely large
54. The critical speed of an artificial satellite is
(a) 8 km/s
(b) 8.1 km/s
(c) 7.9 km/s
(d) 8 m/s
55. By increasing temperature of a gas by 6°C its pressure increases by 0.4% at constant volume. Then initial temperature of gas is
(a) 1000 K
(b) 1500 K
(c) 2000 K
(d) 750 K
56. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas
(a) the temperature will decrease
(b) the volume will increase
(c) the pressure will remain constant
(d) the temperature will increase
57. The charge on the capacitor in steady state in the circuit shown is
(a) 0.5 μC
(b) 1 μC
(c) 2 μC
(d) 4 μC
58. Six point charges are arranged at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a (shown in figure). The magnitude of electric field at the centre of regular hexagon is
(a) q/4πε0a2
(b) Zero
(c) q/2πε0a2
(d) None
59. The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be
(a) 1.25
(b) 0.18
(c) 5
(d) 10
60. A square frame of side ‘l’ carries a current ‘t’. The magnetic fields at its centre is B. The same current is passed through a circular coil having the same perimeter as the square. The field at the centre of the circular coil is Bʹ. The ratio of B and Bʹ is
(a) 8√2/π2
(b) 8√2/π3
(c) 8√2/π
(d) 4√2/π
61. In the figure below, the capacitance of each capacitor is 3 μF. The effective capacitance between A and B is
(a)
(b) −3μF
(c) 6μF
(d) 5μF
62. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving around the earth in orbits of radii r1 and r2(r1 > r2) with velocities v1 and v2 In this case
(a) v1 = v2
(b) v1 < v2
(c) v1 > v2
(d) v1/r1 = v2/r2
63. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation will be
64. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the energy levels in the p-type semiconductor?
65. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be
(a) one fourth
(b) halved
(c) doubled
(d) four times
66. Springs of spring constant K, 3K, 9K, 2K, … ∞ are connected in series. Equivalent spring constant of the combination is
(a) 3K/2
(b) K/2
(c) 2K/3
(d) ∞
CHEMISTRY
67. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?
H2N−CH2−CH2−OH+CH3Na (one mole)→
(a) CH3−NH−CH2−OH
(b) H2N−CH2−CH2−O−CH3
(c) CH4−NaNH−CH2−CH2−OH
(d) CH4+H2N−CH2−CH2−ONa
68. The no. of H+ in 10 ml of a solution with pH = 13 is :
(a) 1013
(b) 6.023 × 108
(c) 6.023 × 1010
(d) 6.023 × 1013
69. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using the date.
(a) +43.93 kJ/mol
(b) −43.93 kJ/mol
(c) +527.61 kJ/mol
(d) −527.61 kJ/mol
70. In the relation, Electronegativity r is
(a) Metallic radius
(b) Ionic radius
(c) van der Walls radius
(d) Covalent radius
71. The equivalent conductance of an aqueous solution of 1.0283 × 10−3 g equivalent acetic acid per litre is 48.15Ω−1 cm2 equiv−1 at 25°C and at infinite dilution value is 390.7Ω−1 cm2 equiv−1. Calculate the degree of ionization and ionization constant of acetic acid.
(a) 0.1232, 1.78×10−5
(b) 0.223, 10.2×10−5
(c) 0.229, 1.78×10−5
(d) 0.531, 2.85×10−5
72. The maximum number of molecules is present in
(a) 15 L of H2 gas at STP
(b) 5L of N2 gas at STP
(c) 0.5g of H2 gas
(d) 10g of O2 gas
73. IUPAC name for the following compound is
(a) 1, 3-pentamethyl propane
(b) 1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane
(c) 2, 4, 4, 5-trimethyl pentane
(d) 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane
74. Biodegradable detergent should have
(a) Phynyl side chain
(b) Aromatic side chain
(c) Normal unbranched side chain
(d) Branched side chain
75. Which of the following is correct regarding the I-effect of the substituents?
(a) −NR2 < −OR < −F
(b) −NR2 > −OR < −F
(c) −NR2 < −OR > −F
(d) −NR2 > −OR > −F
76. Consider the following reaction:
The product Z is
(a) Benzaldehyde
(b) Benzene
(c) Benzoic acid
(d) Toluene
77. The total number of π-bond electrons in the following structure is
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
78. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?
79. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
(a) CH3CH = CHCH3
(b) CH3CH3C = CCHCH3
(c) CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3CH3
(d) CH3CH3C = CH
80. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
(a) Molarity of solution is independent of temperature
(b) Molality of solution is independent of temperature
(c) Mole fraction of solute is dependent on temperature
(d) The unit of molality is mol dm−3
81. The IUPAC name Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the IUPAC name is
(a) sodium pentacyanonitrate
(b) sodium pentacyanonitrosy lferous(II)
(c) sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)
(d) disodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)
82. Bond lengths of C−H, C−O, C−C and C=C follow the sequence
(a) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C
(b) C – H < C = C < C – O < C − C
(c) C – C < C = C < C – O < C − H
(d) C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C
83. For the non-stoichiometric reaction, 2A+B→C + D the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K.
The rate law for the formation of C is
84. Which of the functional groups on the following molecule are susceptible to nucleophilic attack?
(a) ‘a’ and ‘b’
(b) a’ and ‘c’
(c) ‘b’ and ‘c’
(d) ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’
85. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability of the gas?
(a) H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2
(b) H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2
(c) CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2
(d) CO2 < CH4 < H2 < N2
86. The reaction of an ester ROORʹ with an alcohol RʹʹOH is presence of an acid gives.
(a) RʹCOOR
(b) RʹCOOH
(c) RCOORʹʹ
(d) RʹʹCOOR
87. Which of the following substance form a colloidal solution in water?
(a) Glucose
(b) Urea
(c) BaSO4
(d) Starch
88. Copper crystallises in FCC lattice with a u nit cell edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom is
(a) 181 pm
(b) 108 pm
(c) 128 pm
(d) 157 pm
89. In the extraction of cooper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with
(a) FeS
(b) CO
(c) Cu2S
(d) SO2
90. What is the formal charge of the oxygen atom of the following compound?
(a) +3
(b) +1
(c) −2
(d) −3
91. Dimer Al2Cl6 is formed because
(a) aluminium is electron rich
(b) aluminium is having lone pair of electron
(c) aluminium forms coordinate bonds with chlorine to complete its octet
(d) aluminium donates lone pair to form bridge
92. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+|Fe and Sn2+|Sn electrodes are −44 and −0.14 V respectively for the cell reaction:
Fe2+ + 2n → Fe + Sn2+, the standard emf is
(a) +0.30 V
(b) −0.58 V
(c) +0.58 V
(d) −0.30 V
93. When 800 g of a 40% solution by weight was cooled, 10g of solute was precipitated. The percentage composition of the remaining solution is
(a) 20.0%
(b) 25.0%
(c) 31.4%
(d) 50.0%
94. For the gas phase reaction,
C2H4 + H2 – C2H6; (∆H = −32.7 Kcal) carried out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be increased by
(a) decreasing the pressure
(b) increasing the temperature
(c) removing some C2H6
(d) adding some H2
95. On which factors interface depends?
(a) Size of the molecules in the bulk phase
(b) Weight of the molecules in the bulk phase
(c) Numbers of molecules in the bulk phase
(d) Physical state of molecules in the bulk phase
96. The Gibbs energy for decomposition Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows:
The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is at latest
(a) 5V
(b) 4.5V
(c) 3V
(d) 2.5V
97. Which of the following carbohydrate CANNOT be digested by human body?
(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Glycogen
(d) All of these
98. For a weak acid with α, as its degree of dissociation, the value of dissociation constant is given by
[C is concentration of acid in mole per litre).
(a) Ka = Cα
(b) Ka = Cα2
(c) Ka = C2α
(d) Ka = C2α2
99. Which of the following nitrogen oxides is ionic?
(a) Nitrogen trioxide
(b) Nitrogen pentoxide
(c) Dinitrogen tetroxide
(d) Nitric oxide
100. 1 M solution each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2 and Mg(NO3)2 is electrolyzed using Pt-electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials in volts are Ag+/ASg = +0.08V, Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V, Hg22+/Hg = +0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = −37V. The sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be
(a) Mg > Ag > Cu
(b) Mg > Cu > Ag
(c) Ag > Hg > Cu
(d) Cu > Hg > Ag
101. Which bond is the smallest?
102. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?
(a) (CH3)2C = CH2
(b) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(c) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2
(d) CH3 – CH = CH2
103. Which of the following is used as fire extinguisher under the name pyrene?
(a) CO2
(b) CCl4
(c) CH2 = CH−Cl
(d) Cl−CH=CH−Cl
104. Zn(s) + Cl2 (1 atm) → Zn2+ + 2Cl−, The E° of the cell is 2.12 V. To increase E
(a) Zn2+ concentration should be increased
(b) Zn2+ concentration should be decreased
(c) Cl− concentration should be increased
(d) partial pressure of Cl2 should be decreased
105. In a reversible process, if the changes in entropy of the system and its surroundings are ∆S1 and ∆S2 respectively then
(a) ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0
(b) ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0
(c) ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0
(d) ∆S1 + ∆S2 ≥ 0
106. Which of the following statements is NOT true for hydrolysis of XeF6?
(a) XeOF4 is formed
(b) XeO2F2 is formed
(c) It is a redox reaction
(d) XeO3 is formed
107. Which of the following will NOT affect the value of the equilibrium constant of a reaction?
(a) Change in the concentration of the reactants
(b) Change in temperature
(c) Addition of catalyst
(d) All of these
108. The IUPAC name of
is
(a) 2-methyl-3-bromohexanal
(b) 2-methyl-3-bromobutanal
(c) 3-bromo-2-methylbutanal
(d) 3-bromo-2-methylpentanal
109. An electrochemical cell has two half cell reactions as,
A2+ + 2e → A E° = 0.34 V
X → X2 + 2e E° = 2.37 V
The cell voltage will be
(a) 2.71 V
(b) 2.03 V
(c) −2.71 V
(d) −2.03 V
110. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At No. 64) is
(a) [Xe]4f85d06s2
(b) [Xe]4f75d16s2
(c) [Xe]4f35d56s2
(d) [Xe]4f65d26s2
111. The compound which is used to extinguish fire caused by combustion of alkali metals is
(a) CCl4
(b) Sand
(c) Water
(d) Kerosene
112. In the following reaction
The product ‘P’ is :
(a) RCHO
(b) R2CHOEt
(c) R3CH
(d) RCH(OEt)2
113. A crystal lattice with alternate +ve and –ve ions has radius ratio 0.524. Its co-ordination number is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 12
114. Which of the following alkenes would have the largest Imax?
115. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant what volume will the oxygen occupying at 760 mm pressure?
(a) 569 ml
(b) 365 ml
(c) 265 ml
(d) 621 ml
116. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g Na2CO3 will be
(a) 6.02 × 1022
(b) 12.04 × 1022
(c) 1.806 × 1023
(d) 31.80 × 1028
117. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-amonophenol exists in (X) an d(Y) forms respectively
Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic substitution occurs at
(a) a, c
(b) a, d
(c) b, c
(d) b, d
118. When glycerol is heated with KHSO4 it gives
(a) CH2 = CH – CH3
(b) CH2 = CH – CH2OH
(c) CH2 = CH – CHO
(d) CH2 = C = CH2
119. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by
120. Which of the following would NOT be reasonable nucleophile in SN2 reaction?
(a) NH3
(b) NC−
(c) H2O
(d) HO−
121. Exothermic reaction among the following is
(a) combustion of N2 from NO
(b) decomposition of H2O
(c) conversion of diamond to graphite
(d) dehydrogenation of ethane to ethane
122. Isoprene is the monomeric unit of which of the following polymers?
(a) Dacron
(b) Natural rubber
(c) Bakelite
(d) Polyvinyl chloride
123. A mixture containing N2 and H2 in a mole ratio 1 : 3 is allowed to attain equilibrium when 50% of the mixture has reacted. If P is the pressure a equilibrium, then the partial pressure of NH3 formed is
(a) P/2
(b) P/3
(c) P/5
(d) P/9
124. Two aromatic compounds having formula C7H8O which easily identifiable by FeCl3 solution test (violet coloration) are
(a) 0-cresol and benzyl alcohol
(b) m-cresol and p-cresol
(c) o-cresol and p-cersol
(d) methyl phenyl ether and benzyl alcohol
125. Which graph will show equilibrium condition ?
126. Calculate the standard heat of reaction for Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn+2(aq) + Cu(s)
(a) −217 KJ/mole
(b) +217 KJ/mole
(c) −88 KJ/mole
(d) +88 KJ/mole
127. The reaction of CH3CH = CH2 with HOCL will yield.
(a) 2-chloro-1-propanol
(b) 3-chloro-2-propanol
(c) 1-chloro-2-propanol
(d) 1-chloro-1-propanol
128. Out of the following compounds, which one would have a zero dipole moment?
(a) 1, 1-Dichloroethylene
(b) cis-1, 2-Dichloroethylene
(c) tans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene
(d) None of these compounds
129. At 250°C, the correct order of molar ionic conductances of the ions H+, Li+, Na+ and K+ in infinite dilute aqueous solution is
(a) H+ < Li+ < Na+ < K+
(b) K+ < Na+ < Li+ < H+
(c) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < H+
(d) Li+ < K+ < H+ < Na+
130. Which one of the following is an example of homogeneous catalysis?
(a) Manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process
(b) Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process
(c) Hydrogenation of oil
(d) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid
131. When one coulomb’ of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode is equal to
(a) equivalent weight
(b) molecular weight
(c) electrochemical equivalent
(d) one gram
132. Which of the following compound shows optical isomerism?
(a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(b) [ZnCl4]2−
(c) [Cr(C2O4)2]3−
(d) None
MATHEMATICS
133. The sum of the series is
134. The equation (cop-1) x2 + (cos p) x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable, has real roots the p lies in
(a) (0, 2π)
(b) (−π, 0)
(c) (−π/2, π/2)
(d) (0, π)
135. What is the value of
(a) 0
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/3
(d) 1
136. Let A = {a, b, c, d} and f : A → A be defined by, f(a) = d, f(b) = a, f(d) = c. State which of the following is equal to f(b)?
(a) {a}
(b) {b}
(c) {c}
(d) {d}
137. If then
(a) Re(z) = 0
(b) lm(z) = 0
(c) Re(z) > 0, lm(z) < 0
(d) Re(z) < 0, lm(z) > 0
138. The value of is
(a) π
(b) π/6
(c) π/3
(d) π/4
139. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse is
(a) 2ba
(b) ab
(c) √ab
(d) a/b
140. If the three points (3q, 0), (0, 3p) and (1, 1) are collinear, then which one is TURE?
141. If the position vector of the point (5, n) is such that
then what is the value of n?
(a) ±12
(b) 0
(c) ±1
(d) 4
142. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then |KA| is equal to
(a) K|A|
(b) K2|A|
(c) K3|A|
(d) 3K|A|
143. If the coefficients of x7 and x8 in are equal, then value of n is
(a) 56
(b) 55
(c) 47
(d) 19
144. Let satisfied A2 + aA + bI = 0, then a, b are respectively equal to
(a) −4, 2
(b) −3, 3
(c) −4, 1
(d) −3, 1
145. If the angle θ between the line and the plane 2x – y + √λx + 4 = 0, is such that θ = 1/3, then the value of λ is
(a) 5/3
(b) −3/5
(c) 3/4
(d) −4/3
146. The derivative of is
(a) 1/8
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1
147. Which of the following is ODD function?
148. The smallest positive integer n for which holds is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
149. If then f(x) is equal to
150. The equations of perpendicular bisectors of the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are x – y + 5 = 0 and equation of the line BC is
(a) 23x + 14y – 40 = 0
(b) 23x + 14y + 40 = 0
(c) 14x + 23y – 40 = 0
(d) 14x + 23y + 40 = 0
151. If x + |y| = 2y, then y as a function of x is
(a) defined for all real x
(b) continuous at x = 0
(c) such that for x < 0
(d) All of these
152. Value of is
153. Consider the matrices X4×3, y4×3 and P2×3. The order of [P(XTY)−1PT]T will be
(a) (2 × 2)
(b) (3 × 3)
(c) (4 × 3)
(d) (3 × 4)
154. The sum of the series is equal to
(a) 2 loge2
(b) loge2 – 1
(c) loge2
(d) loge(4/e)
155. Three positive numbers form an increasing GP. If the middle term in this GP, is tripled, the new numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of GP, is
(a) 3 + 2√2
(b) 2√2 – 3
(c) 2 + 2√3
(d) 2√2 + √3
156. The least value of n so that y n = yn+1 where y = x2 + ex is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
157. If lies on
(a) an ellipse
(b) a circle
(c) a straight line
(d) a parabola
158. If the function f(x) satisfy is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) π
159. The value of tan 75° − cot 75° = ?
(a) 2√3
(b) 2 + √3
(c) 2 – √3
(d) 1
160. The equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, −9) is
(a) x + 2y – 6 = 0
(b) x – 2y – 6 = 0
(c) x + 2y + 6 = 0
(d) x – 2y + 6 = 0
161. If x = k(t – sin t), y = k( 1 – cos t) (k ≠ 0) then is equal to
(a) −1/k
(b) 1/2k
(c) 1/k2
(d) 2k
162. The unit vector which is orthogonal to the vector 5i + 2j + 6k and is coplanar with the vectors 2i + j + k and i – j + k is
163. The value of is
(a) 0
(b) π
(c) π/2
(d) π/4
164. ∫cos3 xelog(sin x) dx =
165. Which of the following is NOT correct?
(a) A – (B ∪ C) = (A – B) ∩ (A – C)
(b) A ∪ (B – C) = (A ∪ B) – (A ∪ C)
(c) A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)
(d) None of these
166. The slope of the tangent to the ellipse at the point (a cos θ, b sin θ) is
167. Two flag staffs stand on a horizontal plane. A and B are two points on the line joining their feet and between them. The angles of elevation of the tops of the flag staffs a seen from A are 30° and 60° and as seen from B are 60° and 45°. If AB is 30 m, the distance between the flag staffs in meters is
(a) 30 + 15√3
(b) 45 + 15√3
(c) 60 – 15√3
(d) 60 + 15√3
168. If n is a positive integer greater than unity and z is a complex number satisfying the equation zn = (z + 1)n, then
(a) lm(z) < 0
(b) Im(z) > 0
(c) lm(z) = 0
(d) None of these
169. The domain of definition of the function y(x) as given by the equation 2x + 2y = 2 is
(a) 0 < x ≤ 1
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ 1
(c) −∝ < x ≤ 1
(d) −∝ < x < 1
170. is
(a) π
(b) −2π
(c) −π
(d) 2π
171. The distance between the lines y = mx + c1, and y = mx + c2 is
172. One focus of hyperbola is at (0, 4) and the length of its transverse axis is 6. The equation of the hyperbola is
173. The integral is equal to
174. equals
(a) 1 + √5
(b) −1 + √5
(c) −1 + √2
(d) 1 + √2
175. If A and B are two events such that P(A) > 0 and P(B) ≠ 1 then is equal to
176. If tan pθ + cos qθ = 0, then the general value of θ is
177. The general solution of the differential equation is
(a) x – cy + 5 = 0
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
178. The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is
(a) 37/256
(b) 219/256
(c) 128/256
(d) 28/256
179. A ray of light passing through the point (3, 7) reflects on the X-axis at a point A and the reflected ray passes through the point (2, 5), the coordinates of A are
(a) (29/10, 0)
(b) (1/2, 0)
(c) (−1/2, 0)
(d) (−29/10, 0)
180. Let
Then the real roots of the equation x2 – f(x) = 0 are
(a) ±1
(b) ±1/√2
(c) ±1/2
(d) 0 and 1
181. The complex number sin x + icos 2x and cos x – isin 2x are conjugate to each other for
(a) x = πn
(b) x = 0
(c)
(d) no value of x
182. The range of the function is
(a) [1/5, 1]
(b) [1/3, 1/3]
(c) [1/3, 1]
(d) [1/5, 1/3]
183. The value of in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3 (where i = √−1, n ≥ 1) is
(a) 1
(b) −1
(c) 0
(d) None of these
184. The lines and
(a) coincident
(b) skew
(c) intersecting
(d) parallel
185. Cosine of the angle between the lines whose vector equations are
r = 3i + 2j – 4k + λ(i + 2j + 2k) and
r = 5i – 2k + μ(3i + 2j + 6k) : λ, μ being parameters, is
(a) −1/3√29
(b) 3/7√29
(c) 23/29
(d) 29/21
186. The value of is ([x] is the greatest integer function)
187. If A = sin2θ + cos4θ, then for all real value at θ.
188. The value of (tan 70° − tan 50° + tan 10°) is
(a) 2
(b) √3
(c) 1
(d) √3/2
189. If X is a tautology and Y is any other formula, then (X V Y) is a
(a) Tautology
(b) Contradiction
(c) Well-formed formula
(d) None of these
190. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15° respectively, then the value of 2 + q – p is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 2
191. n ∈ N then n(n + 1) (n + 2) and n(n + 1) (n + 5) both are divisible by:
(a) 5, 4, 2
(b) 2, 3, 6
(c) 3, 4, 5
(d) 5, 3, 2
192. If then at x = 0
(a) f(x) has no limit
(b) f(x) is discontinuous
(c) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable
(d) f(x) is differentiable
193. For real value of x, the function will assume all real values provided
(a) a > b > c
(b) b > a > c
(c) a > c > b
(d) None of these
194. If S1, S2 and S3 denote the sum of first n1, n2, n3 terms of an A.P. respectively, then the value of is
(a) S1 + S2 + S3
(b) 2(S1 + S2 + S3)
(c) (n1 + n2 + n3) (S1 + S2 + S3)
(d) 0
195. The order and degree of the differential equation are
(a) 4, 2
(b) 1, 4
(c) 2, 4
(d) 1, 2
196. If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 ≤ n ≤ 5}, then the number of subsets of A is
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 4
(d) None
197. If y = cosec(cot−1 x) then at x = 1 is equal to
(a) 1/√2
(b) 1
(c) −√2
(d) −1/√2
198. The solution of the equation (2x + y + 1)dx + (4x + 2y – 1) dy = 0 is
(a) log|2x + y – 1| = C + x + y
(b) log(4x + 2y – 1) = C + 2x + y
(c) log(2x + y + 1) + x + 2y = C
(d) log|2x + y + 1| + x + 2y = C
199. The value of
(a) zero
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/5
(d) 1/30
200. The sin θ of the angle between the straight line and the plane 2x – 2y + z = 5 is
(a) 2√3/5
(b) √2/10
(c) 4/5√2
(d) 10/6√5
BIOLOGY
133. Hb value for a healthy adult male is
(a) 100 g/100 ml
(b) 11 g/100 ml
(c) 12 g/100 ml
(d) 14-15 g/100 ml
134. Which of the following relations is correct
(a) Ψw = Ψs – Ψp
(b) Ψw = Ψm + Ψs
(c) Ψw = Ψs + Ψp
(d) Ψw = Ψm – Ψs + Ψp
135. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is
(a) extensive mixed cropping
(b) introduction of high yielding varieties
(c) extensive use of fertilizers
(d) extensive use of insecticides and pesticides
136. The functions of the collaterial gland in cockroach is to
(a) store eggs
(b) store sperms
(c) keep vagina moist
(d) secretate the egg case
137. Find the sequence of binding of the following amine acyl t = RNa complexes during translation to a m-RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence ‘3TACATGGGTCCG5’. Choose the answer showing the correct order of numerals.
(i) AUG (ii) UAC
(iii) CCG (iv) GGU
(a) (ii), (i), iv), (iii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
138. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from
(a) effector organs to CNS
(b) receptors to CNS
(c) CNS to receptors
(d) CNS to muscles
139. Which hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?
(a) TSH and ACTH
(b) Ostrogen and Progesterone
(c) FSH and LH
(d) Vasopressin
140. Assertion : A widely used diagnostic test for AIDs is enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
Reason : “Western blotting test is employed for confirmation of ELIZS negative cases.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
141. Hair, nails, hoots and horns are formed with the help of protein, known as
(a) Keratin
(b) Globulin
(c) Chitin
(d) Histone
142. Which of the following hormones causes reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O?
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) TSH
(d) Aldosterone
143. Column-I is the part of human brain and Column-II is its function. Match the two columns.
(a) (a) – (s), (b) – (t), (c) – (p), (d) – (q)
(b) (a) – (t), (b) – (s), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)
(c) (a) – (s), (b) – (t), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)
(d) (a) – (t), (b) – (s), (c) – (p), (d) – (r)
144. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the following biofertilizer?
(a) Mycorrhiza
(b) Azollapinnata
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
145. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
(a) 1/2 Vmax
(b) 2 Vmax
(c) 1/4 Vmax
(d) 4 Vmax
146. Which of the following combination represents the vector of cloniq capacity of DNA from smaller to bigger?
(a) BAC, YAC, Plasmid, Cosmid
(b) Plasmid, BAC, YAC, Cosmid
(c) YAC, Plasmid, BAC, Cosmid
(d) Plasmid, Cosmid, BAC, YAC
147. When a fresh water protozoan is placed in marine water
(a) the contractile vacuole disappears
(b) the contractile vacuole increases in size
(c) a number of contractile vacuoles appear
(d) the contractile vacuole remains unchanged
148. represents
(a) Natality
(b) Growth rate
(c) Mortality
(d) All of these
149. Antibiotics inhibit the growth of or destroy
(a) bacteria and fungi
(b) bacteria and viruses
(c) bacteria, algae and viruses
(d) bacteria, fungi and viruses
150. Total number of bones in the hind limb of man is
(a) 14
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 21
151. Name of the following having oxygen storage capacity.
(a) Myoglobin
(b) Prophase II
(c) Anaphase I
(d) Metaphase II
152. Given below is the ECG of a normal human, which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?
(a) Complex QRS-one complete pulse
(b) Peak T-initiation of total cardiac concentration
(c) Peak P and Peak R together systolic and diastolic blood pressure
(d) Peak P-initiation of left atrial contraction only
153. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse?
(a) SA node – AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibers
(b) AV node – Bundle of His – SA node – Purkinje fibers
(c) SA node – Purkinje fibers – AV node – Bundle of His
(d) Purkinje fibers – AV node – SA node – Bundle of His
154. Diploid chromosome number being 8, what shall be the number of chromatids in each daughter after Meiosis-I?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
155. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made of
(a) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic
(b) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by a α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(c) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by α-1, 4-glycosidic bond
(d) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic bond in straight chain and α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching
156. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
(a) Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and Hallucinations
(b) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes Hallucinations
(c) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
(d) barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary Euphoria
157. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which of the following?
(a) Snails
(b) Birds
(c) Insects
(d) Air
158. Consider the given diagram and identify the lebels A, B, C, D and E.
Choose the correct option identifying the lebels.
(a) A-illium, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis
(b) A-Stapes, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis
(c) A-Incus, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis
(d) A-Coccyx, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis
159. Which one of the following reactions is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?
(a) Conversion of succinate to fumerate
(b) Conversion of fumerate to malate
(c) Conversion of private to acetyl CoA
(d) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate
160. Most primitive number in which roots are NOT present in
(a) Rhynia
(b) Psilotum
(c) Lycopidium
(d) Selaginella
161. Miller synthesized simple amino acids from one of the following mixtures in an experiment.
(a) H2, O2, N2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour
(b) H2, O2, N2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour
(c) CH4, NH2, H2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour
(d) CH4, NH3, H2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour
162. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banana fruits?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cumarin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Cytokinin
163. Balbiani rings occur in
(a) Autosome
(b) Hetersome
(c) Lampbrush chromosome
(d) Polytene chromosome
164. In haemoglobin, which amino acids acts as a blood buffer?
(a) Histidine
(b) Glutamine
(c) Aspartic acid
(d) Lysine
165. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that
(a) the strongest of all species survives
(b) the most intelligent of the species survives
(c) the cleverest of the species survives
(d) the most adaptable of the species to changes survives
166. Genetic drift operates in …. population
(a) small
(b) large
(c) island
(d) mendelian
167. What is TRUE about haemoglobin?
(a) It is a dipeptide and present in red blood corpuscles in blood worm
(b) It is present in the dissolved state in blood plasma in earth worm
(c) It is a dipeptide in mammals and localized in RBC
(d) It is present in dissolved state in blood plasma in Scorpion
168. Iris is part of
(a) sclerotic
(b) choroid/uvula
(c) choroid and retina
(d) sclerotic and choroid
169. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs?
(a) Abcaris
(b) Bacteria
(c) Suinea worm
(d) Ring worm
170. In the pedigree shown in the figure, individuals with the solid symbols suffer from a genetic disease caused by a recessive allele at an autosomal locus. You would counsel the couple marked A and B, that the probability that each of their children will have the disease is
(a) 0%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
171. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms
(a) being ever green
(b) being smaller size
(c) having compounds leaves
(d) having ovules enclosed in ovary
172. A common bio control agent for the control of plant diseases is
(a) Bacillus
(b) Trichoderma
(c) baculovirus
(d) Glomus
173. A person suffering from a disease caused by plasmodium experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when
(a) the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen
(b) the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
(c) the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs
(d) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs
174. One of the following is the correct sequence to make a Transgenic animals.
(a) Transomics – Transfection Micro infection Electro portion -Retroviral vectors
(b) Micro injection Transfection Electro portion
(c) Retroviral vectors Transomics Transfection – Micro injection – Transomics Electroportion – Retroviral vectors
(d) None of these
175. Which of the following cellular structure always disappear during mitosis and metosis?
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
(c) Plastids
(d) None of these
176. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?
(a) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
(b) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
(c) First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly carbohydrates
(d) First proteins, next lipid and lastly carbohydrates
177. Cosmopolites stordidus is the pest of
(a) sugarcane
(b) jowar
(c) banana
(d) cotton
178. The correct sequence of arrangement of segments in the leg of cockroach is
(a) Coxa, Femur, Trochanter, Tibia, Tarsus
(b) Coxa, Trochanter, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus
(c) Trochanter, Coxas, Tibia, Femur, Tarsus
(d) Trochanter, Coxas, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus
179. Suppression of reproduction of one type of organism by utilizing some features of its biology or physiology to destroy it or by use of another organism is known as
(a) Competition
(b) Predation
(c) Biological control
(d) Physiological control
180. Which one is bacteria fertilizer?
(a) Anabaena
(b) Nostoe
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Phycomyces
181. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATP ase activity is
(a) troponin
(b) tropomyosin
(c) myosin
(d) a-actinin
182. In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This is called
(a) Colinearity
(b) commaless
(c) degeneracy
(d) non-ambiguity
183. Down’s syndrome is a typical case of
(a) Nullisomy
(b) Monosomy
(c) Gene mutation
(d) Trisomy
184. C4 plants have higher net photosynthetic rate because
(a) they have no photorespiration
(b) they can photosynthesize in low light intensity
(c) they have PEP as CO2 acceptor
(d) they have Kranz type of anatomy
185. In general, in the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-chambered fish like heart, three-chambered frog like hear and finally to four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement by approximated?
(a) Hardy-Weinberg law
(b) Lamarck’s principle
(c) Biogenetic law
(d) Mendelian principles
186. The non-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during
(a) Leptotene
(b) Diakinesis
(c) Diplotene
(d) Pachytene
187. Proton gradient is very important across the membrane because
(a) building up of protein gradient release energy
(b) building up of proton gradient increase the pH towards human side of thylakoid membrane
(c) breakdown of proton gradient release CO2
(d) breakdown of proton gradient release energy
188. What is a genophore?
(a) DNA in prokaryotes
(b) DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
(c) DNA and protein in prokaryotes
(d) RNA in prokaryotes
189. The intermediate between Glycolysis and TCA cycle is
(a) Oxaloacetate
(b) Glucose-1-6 diphosphate
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Acetyl Co-A
190. How many ova and sperms will be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis in man?
(a) 50 ova, 100 sperms
(b) 100 ova, 100 sperms
(c) 200 ova 200 sperms
(d) 100 ova, 200 sperms
191. Removal of apical bud results in
(a) formation of new apical bud
(b) elongation of main stem
(c) death of plant
(d) formation of lateral branching
192. How much frequency of ultrasound, can be beamed in human body for sonography?
(a) 15-30 MHz
(b) 30-45 MHz
(c) 45-70 MHz
(d) 1-15 MHz
193. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect
(a) production of somatostatin
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
(c) maturation of sperms
(d) stop movement of foods down the intestine
194. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds?
(a) Nilgiri pipit, Rofous babler, Lesser-Florican
(b) Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet
(c) Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofous babbler
(d) Flycatcher, Jungle babbler, Nilgiri pipit
195. Genital warts STD is a viral disease and is caused by
(a) Trichomonas vaginalis
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Human papiloma virus
(d) Chamydia treachomatis
196. Match the following
I-Helophytes, II-Psammophytes
III-Oxylophytes, IV-Chasmophytes
A-Saline soil, B-Sandy soil,
C-Rockcrevices, D-Acidic soil
(a) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(b) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-C
(c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
197. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in Favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of
(a) Biogeography
(b) Anatomy
(c) Embryology
(d) Paleontology
198. In an ecosystem Biotic factors affect the survival of an organism in that ecosystem. They include
(a) competition for water
(b) competition for shelter
(c) co-operation to help find food
(d) All of these
199. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as
(a) squamous epithelium
(b) columnar epithelium
(c) ciliated epithelium
(d) cubical epithelium
200. Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle of
(a) Hibiscus
(b) Nephrolepis
(c) Cycas
(d) Funaria
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