Andhra Bank PO Online Examination Held on December 27, 2015 General Awareness & English Language Question Paper With Answer Key

Andhra Bank PO Online Examination Held on December 27, 2015 General Awareness & English Language
Andhra Bank PO Online Examination Held on December 27, 2015 General Awareness & English Language Question Paper With Answer Key

Andhra Bank PO Online Examination Held on December 27, 2015

Part I General Awareness

1. Government approved an investment of Rs 3120 crore for boosting urban infrastructure in 102 cities across five States. These States are

(a)  Andhra Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Rajasthan, Gujarat

(b)  West Bengal, Odisha, Karnataka, Kerala, Bihar

(c)  Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Telangana

(d)  Maharashtra, Haryana, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

(e)  Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Kerala, West Bengal and Telangana

Answer: (a)

2. BCSBI is an independent and autonomous institution to monitor and ensure that the Codes and Standards adopted by the banks are adhered to. What does BCSBI stands for in the financial language?

(a)  Business Codes and Standards Board in India

(b)  Banking Codes and Standards Codes of India

(c)  Banking Codes and Systems Bureau of India

(d)  Banking Culture and Standards Board of India

(e)  Banking Systems and Systems Board of India

Answer: (a)

3. A payment bank cannot

(a)  accept demand deposits

(b)  undertake lending activities

(c)  offer payments and remittance services

(d)  distribute non-risk sharing financial product

(e)  issue ATM/debit cards

Answer: (b)

4. Name the Chairman and Managing Director of Dena Bank, who is also the chairman of Indian Banks Association (IBA).

(a)  Shikha Sharma

(b)  Arundhati Bhattacharya

(c)  Ashwani Kumar

(d)  Rajeev Rishi

(e)  MV Tanksale

Answer: (c)

5. According to reports, the 7th Pay Commission has made a significant recommendation to enhance the ceiling of gratuity from the existing Rs 10 lakh to

(a)  Rs 18 lakh

(b)  Rs 20 lakh

(c)  Rs 25 lakh

(d)  Rs 15 lakh

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

6. Australia defeated ………… by 2-1 to clinch the title of the 2014-15 Men’s FIH Hockey World League Final.

(a)  the USA

(b)  China

(c)  India

(d)  Belgium

(e)  Russia

Answer: (d)

7. In a blockbuster merger deal, Plizer Inc is all set to take over

(a)  Allergan Plc

(b)  Biogen

(c)  Other than those given as options

(d)  Gilead Sciences, Inc.

(e)  Genentech, Inc.

Answer: (a)

8. Name the country whose President will be the Chief Guest in the Republic Day Parade in 2016?

(a)  The USA

(b)  UAE

(c)  France

(d)  China

(e)  Poland

Answer: (c)

9. The Union government had recently informed the Supreme Court that it had accepted Commission’s recommendation to allow Non-Resident Indians to vote through ………… of proxy.

(a)  e-Ballot system

(b)  cumulative voting

(c)  Condorcet method

(d)  instant run-off voting

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

10. Cash kept in the currency chest is owned by

(a)  State government

(b)  Currency chest branch bank

(c)  Reserve Bank of India

(d)  Central Bank

(e)  Lead Bank

Answer: (c)

11. What does FATCA stand for in financial parlance?

(a)  Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act

(b)  Forex Account Tax Compliance Act

(c)  Foreign Account Total Compliance Act

(d)  Foreign Agencies Tax Compliance Act

(e)  Foreign Account Tax Companies Act

Answer: (a)

12. What is the maximum period for which a term deposit can be normally opened?

(a)  18 years

(b)  20 years

(c)  5 years

(d)  10 years

(e)  15 years

Answer: (d)

13. Which of the following institutions do not held a banking license?

(a)  Foreign banks

(b)  Small banks

(c)  Payment banks

(d)  NBFCs

(e)  Commercial banks

Answer: (d)

14. Where was the first India International Science Festival headed recently?

(a)  Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur

(b)  Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi

(c)  Lady Shri Ram College, Delhi

(d)  ISRO Headquarters, Bengaluru

(e)  Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru

Answer: (b)

15. India and …………. have entered into a € 2 billion pact with the creation of long-term ‘Climate and Renewable Alliance’ for developing a clean energy corridor.

(a)  Germany

(b)  United Kingdom

(c)  Brazil

(d)  Australia

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

16. The erstwhile Imperial Bank of India is today’s

(a)  IDBI Bank

(b)  State Bank of India

(c)  Allahabad Bank

(d)  Bank of Baroda

(e)  Central Bank of India

Answer: (b)

17. ……………. based journalist Zaina Ezhalm has won the Peter Meckler Award for courageous and ethical journalism.

(a)  Lebanon

(b)  Syria

(c)  Iran

(d)  Jordan

(e)  Iraq

Answer: (b)

18. A cheque bearing a date earlier than the date on which it is presented to the bank, is called a/an

(a)  stale

(b)  antedated

(c)  post dated

(d)  endorsed

(e)  crossed

Answer: (c)

19. What is the minimum initial deposit required for opening a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account?

(a)  There is requirement of any initial deposit.

(b)  Rs 100

(c)  Rs 1000

(d)  Rs 250

(e)  Rs 500

Answer: (a)

20. ‘The Banker to Every Indian’ is the tagline of

(a)  Canara Bank

(b)  Indian Bank

(c)  State Bank of India

(d)  Andhra Bank

(e)  Syndicate Bank

Answer: (c)

21. A ………. is a document from a bank guaranteeing that a seller will receive payment in full as long as certain delivery conditions have been met.

(a)  Bid Bond Guarantee

(b)  Security receipts

(c)  Letter of Credit

(d)  Participatory Note

(e)  Letter of Guarantee

Answer: (c)

22. A banknote, of which a portion is missing or which is composed of more than two pieces is called

(a)  Mutilated Note

(b)  Bad Note

(c)  Reusable Note

(d)  Other than those given as options

(e)  Soiled Note

Answer: (a)

23. What is the capital of Saudi Arabia?

(a)  Arar

(b)  Riyadh

(c)  Abha

(d)  Dammam

(e)  Mecca

Answer: (b)

24. Which among the following is a money market instrument?

(a)  Fixed deposit

(b)  Debentures

(c)  Equity shares

(d)  Bonds

(e)  Commercial paper

Answer: (*)

25. ‘Smart Vault’ is a digital locker facility of which bank?

(a)  Bank of Baroda

(b)  Yes Bank

(c)  Axis Bank

(d)  ICICI Bank

(e)  State Bank of India

Answer: (d)

26. Under Sukanya Samridhi Yojana, what is the maximum age of a girl child to open an account?

(a)  14 years

(b)  8 years

(c)  15 years

(d)  12 years

(e)  10 years

Answer: (e)

27. Which bank in India has launched its first multi currency contactless cards?

(a)  Kotak Mahindra Bank

(b)  Yes Bank

(c)  Axis Bank

(d)  Bank of Baroda

(e)  Union Bank

Answer: (c)

28. Shishu, Kishore and Tarun are the offerings of

(a)  Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

(b)  Pradhan Mantri Shiksha Yojana

(c)  Pradhan Mantri Avishkaar Yojana

(d)  Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana

(e)  Pradhan Mantri Vatsalya Yojana

Answer: (d)

29. The RBI has kept the Cash Reserve Ratio unchanged in its fifth bimonthly monetary policy review. What is the present CRR?

(a)  5%

(b)  4%

(c)  6.75%

(d)  7.75%

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

30. The market in which long-term financial securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is called

(a)  Commodities market

(b)  Money market

(c)  Bank market

(d)  Capital market

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

31. The Securitization and Reconstructions of Financial Assets and Enforement of Security Interest Act came into force in the year

(a)  2002

(b)  2010

(c)  2004

(d)  2008

(e)  2000

Answer: (d)

32. DICGC is a subsidiary of the RBI. What is the full form of DICGC?

(a)  Direct Insurance and Credit Guarantee Cooperation

(b)  Direct Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation

(c)  Other than those given as options

(d)  Deposit Insurance and Clearances Guarantee Corporation

(e)  Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation

Answer: (e)

33. When is the ‘World AIDS Day’ observed?

(a)  December 1

(b)  April 10

(c)  March 1

(d)  March 2

(e)  December 2

Answer: (a)

34. ……….. was elected at the 2015-Commonwealth Heads of Government meeting, as the next Secretary General of Commonwealth.

(a)  Patricia Scotland

(b)  Kamalesh Sharma

(c)  Dr. Ojambo

(d)  Shirin Sharmin Chaudhary

(e)  Pius Psekwa

Answer: (a)

35. What is the maximum term/period of Medium Term Deposit as per the Gold Monetization Scheme 2015?

(a)  8 years

(b)  2 years

(c)  7 years

(d)  10 years

(e)  4 years

Answer: (c)

36. The Union Cabinet recently (December, 2015) has cleaned the proposal regarding the setting up of six new IITs. Which of the following States is not identified for the project?

(a)  Andhra Pradesh

(b)  Kerala

(c)  Karnataka

(d)  Jammu-Kashmir

(e)  Gujarat

Answer: (e)

37. Who among the following decides the volume and value of Bank notes to be printed in India?

(a)  Reserve Bank of India

(b)  State Bank of India

(c)  State government

(d)  Finance Minister

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

38. The SDR are supplementary foreign exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by IMF. What does IMF stands for?

(a)  Indigenous Monetary Fund

(b)  International Monetary Fund

(c)  International Money Fund

(d)  Indian Monetary Fund

(e)  Indian Money Fund

Answer: (b)

39. The maturity period of certificate of deposits issued by banks should not be less than 7 days and not more than ………….. from t he date of issue.

(a)  six months

(b)  one year

(c)  two years

(d)  nine months

(e)  eighteen months

Answer: (b)

40. The Pawl Kuf Festival is a harvest festival of …………… State in India.

(a)  Nagaland

(b)  Meghalaya

(c)  Tripura

(d)  Mizoram

(e)  Manipur

Answer: (d)

41. Finance Minister has launched two funds by SIDBI. The funds are IAF and SMILE. What does IAF stand for?

(a)  India Agriculture Fund

(b)  Indian Air force Fund

(c)  India Achievement Fund

(d)  India’s Applied Fund

(e)  India Aspiration Fund

Answer: (e)

42. The government has recently launched a programme-GIAN in higher education, aimed at tapping the talent pool of scientist and entrepreneurs. What is the full form of GIAN?

(a)  Global Incorporates of Academic Networks

(b)  Globally International Academic Networks

(c)  Gross Initiative of Academic Networks

(d)  Global Initiative of Academic Networks

(e)  Global Indian Academic Nation

Answer: (d)

43. According to TOPSOO, Tianhe-2 (or Milky Way-2) supercomputer is the most powerful machine in the world. To which country does it belong?

(a)  China

(b)  Germany

(c)  Russia

(d)  South Africa

(e)  Japan

Answer: (a)

44. ‘Speed Wallet’ is the mobile wallet launched by

(a)  Airtel

(b)  BOB

(c)  PNB

(d)  SBI

(e)  BSNL

Answer: (e)

45. Where is the headquarters of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) located?

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Kolkata

(c)  Chennai

(d)  Ahmedabad

(e)  Delhi

Answer: (a)

46. Indian filmmaker Kaushik Ganguly won the newly instituted ICFT-UNESCO Fellini Medal Award for his film

(a)  Laptop

(b)  Cinemawala

(c)  Shabdu

(d)  Apur Panchali

(e)  Arekti Premer Golpo

Answer: (b)

47. Who is the current Minister for Labour and Employment?

(a)  Dr. Najma Heptulla

(b)  Bandaru Dattatreya

(c)  Uma Bharati

(d)  Manohar Parrikar

(e)  Kiren Rijiju

Answer: (b)

48. The Human Resource Development Ministry has constructed a 13-member export committee exclusively on Sanskrit in its attempt to revive interest in the ancient language. The committee will be headed by

(a)  Ved Prakash

(b)  Ramesh Bhardwaj

(c)  Smriti Irani

(d)  Vivek Debroy

(e)  N. Gopalaswami

Answer: (e)

49. LIBOR stands for …………… in financial parlance.

(a)  London Interbank Offered Ratio

(b)  London International Offered Rate

(c)  London International Offered Ratio

(d)  London Interbank Offered Rate

(e)  London Internal Offered Rate

Answer: (d)

50. What is the currency of Germany?

(a)  Pound

(b)  Yen

(c)  Dollar

(d)  Taka

(e)  Euro

Answer: (e)

Part IV English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-155) Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

51. Complying the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act which was passed in the US in 2010, mutual fund investors have to submit declarations and KYC details.

(a)  Comply with

(b)  In order to comply with

(c)  By complying

(d)  Inspite of complying

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (b)

52. When BRICS countries faced opposition to reforms, they pursuit change by establishing new institutions such as the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.

(a)  their pursuit of change

(b)  they pursued change

(c)  their pursuit changing

(d)  they were to pursuit changes

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (b)

53. Knowledge centres being much useful in disseminating information pertaining to weather and crop price and also benefit students as they can look up exam scores; learn skills and look for employment.

(a)  are m ore usually

(b)  being of much use

(c)  have much to use

(d)  are very useful

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (d)

54. Experts believe that it is utmost important that staff be trained to take adequate security precautions to avoid cyber attacks.

(a)  utmost importantly

(b)  most importance

(c)  mostly too important

(d)  of  utmost importance

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (d)

55. It can be difficult to impart financial know how at a young age but in developing countries financial literacy among the young are quite well.

(a)  is quite good

(b)  are getting better

(c)  have been good

(d)  will be best

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 156-160) Each sentence has two blanks which indicate that something has been omitted. Choose the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

56. Each country must realize that it has played a …………. in global warming and should embrace responsibility to …………. this problem.

(a)  joke; reduce

(b)  hunch; improve

(c)  role; arrest

(d)  part; recover

(e)  card; strengthen

Answer: (d)

57. Micro credit institutions in Guatemala provide loans along with free advice and training in how to ………. use the money and this ………. farmers boost their productivity and income.

(a)  best; helps

(b)  well; enables

(c)  better; encourage

(d)  important; makes

(e)  often; urge

Answer: (b)

58. It is ………. that we don’t have to wait for enormous economic growth to improve society, as even small steps such as financial inclusion can bring about ………… progress.

(a)  realized; any

(b)  likely; remarkable

(c)  true; tremendous

(d)  appropriate; significantly

(e)  certainly; superb

Answer: (b)

59. These relaxations in guidelines are ………….only to long-term borrowings and RBI will ………. keep a check on short-term borrowings.

(a)  given; continue

(b)  made; necessary

(c)  valid; ensure

(d)  granted; be

(e)  applicable; still

Answer: (e)

60. Today we ……….. computers with data and get them to use probability to infer and provide us with recommendations and ………. .

(a)  enter; result

(b)  feed; solutions

(c)  type; answer

(d)  key; algorithms

(e)  provide; outcome

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 161-165) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

(A)  In addition, the government wants to boost ‘shared ownership; where people buy a chunk of a house and pay the rest (with the option to buy it in full later) and the hope is that 13500 such homes will be built.

(B) The constructions of homes in Britain has been below its long-term trend since 1990.

(C) These two plans are not without their drawbacks-one of which is house builders will be encouraged to provide houses to buy rather than to rent which will be a problem for low-income families for whom putting together a deposit is tricky.

(D) The government has proposed building 40000 ‘affordable’ homes by 2020 which could bring Britain close to its overall target of 250000 a year which it hopes will help keep its housing prices in check.

(E) Moreover the Prime Minister has merely mentioned these reforms in his speech but has offered no details and until the changes are more concrete efforts to delicate the housing bubble will not get far.

(F) Since 1990 prices too have risen by 60% in real terms, faster than most other rich countries.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  B

(b)  A

(c)  E

(d)  D

(e)  F

Answer: (e)

62. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  F

(e)  D

Answer: (a)

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  C

(b)  A

(c)  B

(d)  E

(e)  D

Answer: (c)

64. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  C

(b)  B

(c)  A

(d)  D

(e)  E

Answer: (d)

65. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  B

(c)  A

(d)  C

(e)  F

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 166-180) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given. Certain words/phrases have been in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Tastes have changed in the land of traditional tea drinkers. A generation ago few Japanese had sample coffee by the cup, let alone by the tub-full. Now Tokyo alone has some 16000 coffee houses; the nation, more than 100000. Japan’s yen for coffee requires plenty of yen these days-the equivalent of $ 1.50 a serving. For those who find indoor prices too steep, platoons of curb side vending machines dispense coffee for about 50 cents a can, hot or cold according to the season.

From humble beginnings as both food and drink for African tribesmen, coffee evolved into a global phenomenon of extravagant proportions. Among natural commodities in international trade, coffee usually ranks second only to petroleum in dollar value, accounting for 12 billion in 1979. All 50 exporting countries-led by Brazil, Colombia, Indonesia, and the lvory Coast rely on coffee as a major source of foreign exchange. Some 25 million people depend on it for their livelihood. And uncounted millions down it by the pot-full. This adds up to an amazing piece of action for a peanut-size bean whose sole purpose on this planet is to provide a virtually nutrition-less beverage made mildly stimulating by the caffeine it contains-75 to 155 milligrams per cup.

Unlike Brazil, which grows a third of the world’s supply-some five million tons last year-and drinks a third of what it raises, most producing nations consume coffee sparingly. The bean brings more leaving home than staying there. It’s not their addiction to caffeine doses heavily sweetened and darkly brewed-that gives Brazilians the jitters. Rather, it’s the chilling thought of a killing frost, which, in 1975, damaged nearly half of the country’s three billion coffee trees and sent retain prices into orbit.

Another such disaster loomed in June, 1979. Frost had again hit southern Brazil. The loss of a single tree means the loss of income on that spot for the three to five years it takes to replace it. Multiply that by the 15 million trees, and you can appreciate the concern. At Pirajui, an hour’s flight inland, the cold wave had already blackened large swatches of trees. Atalla’s workers, bleary-eyed, toiled into their third sleepless night, burning oil-soaked sawdust and saltpeter to smudge vulnerable areas with warming smog. The Atallas, pioneers in this process, saw their pending assessment of damage. And uneasy importers, fearing a shortage, went on a buying spree. Inevitably, prices rose, even though Brazil’s actual losses fell far below the first dire predictions.

Several international experts summed up coffee’s swings in much the same way. “We have long periods of low prices, short periods of high ones. When highs occur, farmers rush in to plant. Once the tree begins bearing, it churns out beans without too much effort for the 12 to 30 years of its normal life. Overproduction follows; prices fall. Farmers tear up their plants and put in more stable crops. A disruption in coffee supplies starts the cycle all over again. ‘Producers and consumers agree that the only sensible solution is to limit output to what the market can absorb, plus a standby reserve, and sell at prices reasonable to both sides. But what’s reasonable?

Since 1963, 24 import and 44 export countries have cooperated through their London-based International Coffee Organization to stabilize the situation. By imposing a quota system, they can limit the outflow of beans from producing nations in times of oversupply. These controls, in force to sustain prices only until the market does so normally, have been applied twice; from 1963 to 1973 and again in October, 1980.

Despite yo-yo conditions and a 100% increase in living costs in the United States over the past decade, coffee remains one of the least inflated prepared beverages: five cents a brew-it-yourself cup.

66. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Appreciate’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Increase

(b)  Applaud

(c)  Praise

(d)  Welcome

(e)  Understand

Answer: (e)

67. Which of the following sentences is true in the context of the passage?

(a)  Prices of coffee remained relatively stable in the US despite the increases in cost living in the country.

(b)  Coffee is losing its demand on account of its increasing price worldwide.

(c)  Brazil is the only country that grows and exports coffee.

(d)  Only half the coffee manufactured is fit for export to other countries.

(e)  None of the given statements is true.

Answer: (a)

68. The characteristics of coffee as mentioned by author of the passage includes

(A) propensity to get addicted to it

(B) its high nutrient content

(C) its global economic standing

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only C

(c)  A and B

(d)  A and C

(e)  All of these

Answer: (d)

69. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Down’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Consume

(b)  Throw

(c)  Fall

(d)  Lose

(e)  Climb

Answer: (a)

70. Which of the following can be a suitable title for the passage?

(a)  The History of Coffee Making

(b)  Brazil’s Battle with Coffee Imports

(c)  Coffee Today-Gone Tomorrow

(d)  Plummeting Demand for Coffee the World Over

(e)  The Dynamics of Coffee

Answer: (d)

71. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Dire’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Obtuse

(b)  Terrible

(c)  Urgent

(d)  Torn

(e)  Shredded

Answer: (b)

72. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Steep’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Short

(b)  Gentle

(c)  Low

(d)  Gradual

(e)  Inclined

Answer: (c)

73. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Swings’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Slides

(b)  Pendulum

(c)  Stability

(d)  Position

(e)  Altercation

Answer: (e)

74. In June, 1979, Brazil

(a)  intentionally restricted the supply of coffee to other nations, thereby increasing the price of the commodity

(b)  faced a never before witnessed frost which destroyed all crops, propelling the country into economic turmoil

(c)  managed to contain a major disaster with respect to coffee production through its dedicated efforts

(d)  faced an unprecedented crisis with respect to coffee production on account of frost freezing all its crops

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

75. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Sparingly’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Abundantly

(b)  Compellingly

(c)  Attractively

(d)  Seldom

(e)  Rarely

Answer: (a)

76. In order to regulate the prices of coffee

(a)  coffee production countries have been asked to increase their production of beans, creating an oversupply

(b)  stakeholders countries have tried in the past to bring order to the supply of coffee beans

(c)  governments of coffee importing countries have tried to dissuade citizens from taking to coffee drinking

(d)  stakeholders countries have nominated Brazil as the sale controller of coffee production worldwide

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (e)

77. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Humble’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Lonely

(b)  Modest

(c)  Shy

(d)  Arrogant

(e)  Ashamed

Answer: (a)

78. The author in the given passage

(a)  is definitely not an avid coffee drinker himself

(b)  thinks that Brazil should cut down on its coffee consumption

(c)  believes that US is the only place where coffee is abundantly available

(d)  ridicules people who are addicted to coffee

(e)  seems to marvel over the popularity of coffee

Answer: (e)

79. Which of the following is the meaning of the phrase ‘gives Brazilians the jitters’ as mentioned in the passage?

(a)  Isolates Brazilians from the rest of the world

(b)  Emboldens Brazilians

(c)  Worries Brazilians

(d)  Makes Brazilians susceptible to the cold

(e)  Makes Brazilians lonely

Answer: (b)

80. As mentioned in the passage, factor/s which attract/s the prices of coffee is/are

(A) short-life span of coffee trees which  produce poor quality beans with a age and hatch very little money

(B) overproduction of coffee

(C) extreme cold in the coffee producing country

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B

(c)  A and B

(d)  B and C

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 181-190) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it the error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, then answer is (e).

81. Challenges for the world have increased / a great deal today and we need / greater coordination among nations/ to cope with these.

(a)  Challenges for the world have increased

(b)  a great deal today and we need

(c)  greater coordination among nations

(d)  to cope with these

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

82. The World Bank report has found that / last year out of 45 economies, / 33 introduced reforms to/ make it easily to start a business.

(a)  The World Bank report has found that

(b)  last year out of 45 economies

(c)  33 introduced reforms to

(d)  make it easily to start a business

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

83. In an effort to revitalize a stagnant / rural economy, the Central Bank has pumped / more than $ 9 into them/ hoping that farmers will benefit.

(a)  In an effort to revitalize a stagnant

(b)  rural economy, the Central Bank has pumped

(c)  more than $ 9 into them

(d)  hoping that farmers will benefit

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

84. From just telling consumers to go / and buy products and celebrating with / their families, brands today are embedding/ social messages in their advertisements.

(a)  From just telling consumers to go

(b)  and buy products and celebrating with

(c)  their families, brands today are embedding

(d)  social messages in their advertisements

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

85. The State is looking to diversity/ and has been encouraging investments in/ sectors such as information technology/ to creating jobs for youth.

(a)  The State is looking to diversity

(b)  and has  been encouraging investments in

(c)  sectors such as information technology

(d)  to creating jobs for youth

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

86. As the gains from one set of/ reforms gradually disappear, a country needs/ to initiate another sets of returns/ to take its economy to the next level.

(a)  As the gains from one set of

(b)  reforms gradually disappear, a country needs

(c)  to initiate another sets of returns

(d)  to take its economy to the next level

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

87. Entrepreneurs today think’ globally’ whether/ they are applied global ideas/ to the domestic market or buildings / in India for the global market.

(a)  Entrepreneurs today think’ globally’ whether

(b)  they are applied global ideas

(c)  to the domestic market or buildings

(d)  in India for the global market

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

88. As a Chairperson one has to/ work hard to set/ the right agenda so that all member / of the board can add value to discussions.

(a)  As a Chairperson one has to

(b)  work hard to set

(c)  the right agenda so that all member

(d)  of the board can add value to discussions

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

89. By giving women access to / better health facilities and education/ we can ensure that poverty/ reduces and the standard of living improves.

(a)  By giving women access to

(b)  better health facilities and education

(c)  we can ensure that poverty

(d)  reduces and the standard of living improves

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

90. With the aim of/ controlling water pollution, / the environment ministry issued/ new norms last week.

(a)  With the aim

(b)  of controlling water pollution

(c)  the environment ministry issued

(d)  new norms last week

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Reminiscing about the good old days when we were growing up is a memory trip well, worth taking when trying to understand the issues (91) the children of today. A mere 20 years ago, children used to play outside all day, riding bikes and building forts. (92) of imaginary games, children of the past created their own form of play that didn’t require costly equipment or parental supervision. Children of the past moved …. a lot, and their sensory world was nature based and simple. Technology’s impact on the 21st century family is (93) its very foundation, and causing a disintegration of core values that long ago, were the fabric that held families (94). TV, internet, video games, iPads, cell phones  have advanced so rapidly, that families have (95) noticed the significant impact and changes to their family structure and lifestyles. Children’s developing sensory, motor and attachment systems have biologically not (96) to accommodate this sedentary, yet frenzied and chaotic nature today’s technology. The impact of rapidly advancing technology on the developing child has seen an (97) in physical, psychological and behaviour disorders that the health and education systems are just beginning to detect, much less (98).

It’s important to come together as parents, teachers and therapists to help society’ wake up’ and see the (99) effects that technology is having on our children. While technology is a train that will (100) move forward, knowledge regarding its detrimental effects, and action taken toward balancing the use of technology, all work toward sustaining our children.

91.

(a)  by

(b)  ahead

(c)  plaguing

(d)  solving

(e)  determining

Answer: (e)

92.

(a)  Made

(b)  Usage

(c)  Kind

(d)  Contents

(e)  Masters

Answer: (e)

93.

(a)  fracturing

(b)  building

(c)  comprising

(d)  mending

(e)  breached

Answer: (b)

94.

(a)  beliefs

(b)  together

(c)  once

(d)  protected

(e)  whole

Answer: (b)

95.

(a)  failed

(b)  definitely

(c)  scarcely

(d)  silently

(e)  never

Answer: (c)

96.

(a)  provided

(b)  entrusted

(c)  arranged

(d)  evolved

(e)  enough

Answer: (d)

97.

(a)  empathy

(b)  reduction

(c)  improvement

(d)  increase

(e)  enlargement

Answer: (d)

98.

(a)  identifying

(b)  understand

(c)  expect

(d)  important

(e)  revelation

Answer: (a)

99.

(a)  encouraging

(b)  common

(c)  anticipated

(d)  feeble

(e)  devastating

Answer: (e)

100.

(a)  continually

(b)  rarely

(c)  never

(d)  repeatedly

(e)  cease

Answer: (a)

Andhra Bank PO Examination Held on 27-12-2015 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

Andhra Bank PO Examination Held on 27-12-2015
Andhra Bank PO Examination Held on 27-12-2015 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

Andhra Bank PO Examination Held on 27-12-2015

Quantitative Aptitude

1. A, B and C started a business by investing Rs 18,000, Rs 8,000 and Rs 15,000 respectively. At the end of 6 months from the start of the business, A and B invested additional amount Rs 2,000 each and C withdrew Rs 4,000. If at the end of the year, the annual profit received was Rs 10,250, what was B’s share in the profit ?

(A)  Rs 2,250

(B)  Rs 2,475

(C)  Rs 2,070

(D)  Rs 2,180

(E)  Rs 2,380

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. 2-6) Study the table and answer the given questions.

     Note : (i) Data regarding number of students studying in colleges A, B, C, and D in the year 2009. The mentioned colleges offer courses in three streams only-Arts, Commerce and Science.

(ii) Total student strength = students studying (arts + commerce + science)

2. What is the average number of students studying Science in all the numbered colleges ?

(A)  875

(B)  925

(C)  800

(D)  825

(E)  820

Answer: (A)

3. Total number of students studying Arts and Commerce together in College A is what per cent more than that in college B?

(A)  240

(B)  150

(C)  180

(D)  250

(E)  200

Answer: (E)

4. Number of students studying Arts in college C is what per cent of number of students studying Arts in College D ?

(A)  151/9

(B)  270/12

(C)  321/12

(D)  30

(E)  25

Answer: (B)

5. What is the total number of students studying Commerce in colleges A and C together ?

(A)  2350

(B)  1450

(C)  2170

(D)  2850

(E)  3520

Answer: (C)

6. What is the difference between the total students strength of college A and B together and that of colleges C and D together ?

(A)  2900

(B)  2380

(C)  3100

(D)  3900

(E)  1900

Answer: (B)

7. While purchasing a flight ticket, Sonakshi got a promotional discount of 20% on the fare but she had to pay 12.5% service tax on the discounted fare and Rs 100 as convenience fee. If Sonakshi paid Rs 3160 as the total fare, how much promotional discount did she get ?

(A)  Rs 480

(B)  Rs 580

(C)  Rs 720

(D)  Rs 680

(E)  Rs 600

Answer: (D)

8. A sum of money (Rs X) was invested for 5 years in a scheme which offers simple interest at a rate of 12% p a.. The amount received after 5 years was reinvested in the same scheme for the same period. If the amount received after reinvesting for the same period is Rs 780 more than Rs X, what was the initial sum of money (Rs X) invested in the scheme ?

(A)  Rs 500

(B)  Rs 400

(C)  Rs 550

(D)  Rs 850

(E)  Rs 600

Answer: (A)

9. What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the given number series ?

60  21  9  6  6  ?

(A)  5

(B)  7

(C)  3

(D)  8

(E)  11

Answer: (C)

10. 280 263  274  301  220 ?

(A)  463

(B)  193

(C)  949

(D)  781

(E)  139

Answer: (A)

11. 2  4  10  22  ?  72

(A)  54

(B)  42

(C)  30

(D)  50

(E)  32

Answer: (B)

12. 8  9  20  63  256

(A)  1285

(B)  1474

(C)  846

(D)  37

(E)  47

Answer: (A)

13. 73  ?  19  10  5  3.25

(A)  43

(B)  31

(C)  29

(D)  37

(E)  47

Answer: (D)

Directions – (Q. 14-18) In the following questions, two questions numbered I and II are given, you have to solve both the questions and give answer-

(A) If x > y    (B) If x ≥ y

(C) If x < y    (D) If x ≤ y

(E) x = y or the relation cannot be established

14. I. 2x2 + 15x + 22 = 0

II. 3y2 + 20y + 25 = 0

Answer: (E)

15. I. 3x2 – 23x + 44 = 0

II. 3y2 – 19y + 30 = 0

Answer: (A)

16. I. x2 – 8x + 16 = 0

II. 4y2 – 27y + 35 = 0

Answer: (A)

17. I. 4x2 – 20x + 21 = 0

II. 2y2 – 13y + 21 = 0

Answer: (D)

18. I. 4x2 + 7x + 3 = 0

II. 10y2 + 13y + 3 = 0

Answer: (E)

19. The sum of side of a square and length of a rectangle is 30 m and the sum of the side of the square and breadth of the rectangle is 24 m. If the length of the rectangle is twice its breadth, what is the respective ratio between the area of t he square and the area of the rectangle ?

(A)  9 :2

(B)  7 : 4

(C)  9 : 5

(D)  9 : 4

(E)  7 : 2

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 20-24) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and given answer :

(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the questions.

20. A vessel contains ‘X’ litres of mixture of milk and water. The respective ratio of milk and water in the vessel is 9 : 4. What is the numerical value of ‘X’ ?

I. If 40% of the mixture is taken out and 5 litres of water is added, the percentage of water in resultant mixture will be 44%.

II. If 20% of the mixture is taken out and this action is repeated once more (i.e. 20% of the remaining mixture is taken out) the remaining quantity of milk in the mixture will be 28.8 litres.

Answer: (C)

21. In how many days persons A, B and C together finish a piece of work ?

I. A and B together can finish the same piece of work in  8 B and C together can finish the same piece of work in  C and A together can finish the same piece of work in

II. The time taken by A alone to finish the same piece of work is 24 days less than time taken by C alone to finish the same piece of work.

Answer: (A)

22. What is the height of the cylinder ? (in m)

I. The volume of the cylinder is 4158 m3.

II. The total surface area of the cylinder is 1485 m2.

Answer: (D)

23. What is the marked price of the pen ?

I. When a discount of 25% is given on the marked price of the pen, the loss incurred is 10%. The cost price of the price is Rs 480.

II. The marked price of the pen is 20% above the cost price of the pen.

Answer: (A)

24. What distance (in km) the boat can travel downstream in 36 minutes ?

I. The distance travelled by the boat upstream in 40 minutes is equal to the distance travelled by the boat downstream in 24 minutes.

II. The speed of the water current is 4 kmph.

Answer: (E)

Directions – (Q. 25-29) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions –

25. The number of students who could pass the exam in the year 2006 were 10% more than that in the previous year. Only 75% of those who appeared in the year 2006 could pass the exam that year. How many students appeared for the exam in the year 2006 ?

(A)  340

(B)  336

(C)  418

(D)  420

(E)  352

Answer: (E)

26. Number of students who had passed the exam in the year 2002 are what percent less than that in the year 2003 ?

(A)   

(B)  25

(C)   

(D)   

(E)  30

Answer: (D)

27. What per cent of students who appeared for the exam in the year 2001 could pass the exam ?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)  75

(D)  60

(E)  80

Answer: (C)

28. What is the respective ratio of total number of students who appeared for the exam in the years 2004 and 2005 together and the total number of students who could pass the exam in the same years together ?

(A)  35 : 29

(B)  31 : 25

(C)  28 : 23

(D)  33 : 25

(E)  31 : 26

Answer: (B)

29. What is the average number of students who appeared for the exam in the years 2002, 2003 and 2004 ?

(A)  240

(B)  200

(C)  150

(D)  250

(E)  280

Answer: (D)

30. Vessel A contains a mixture of orange juice and apple juice in the respective quantities of 16 litres and 4 litres. Vessel B contains a mixture of orange juice and apple juice in the respective quantities of 24 litres and 6 litres. Mixture from vessels A and B,, are both mixed together in Vessel C. What is the resultant percentage of Apple juice in vessel C ?

(A)  20

(B)  25

(C)  10

(D)  30

(E)  35

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 31-35) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.

      In an office, there are three departments HR, Finance and IT.

     Out of the total employees in the office, 20% are in finance department. Out of the remaining employees 9/10th are in IT department and the remaining are in HR department.

     Out of the total number of employees in IT department, 9/120th are females.

       Out of the total employees in Finance department, 30% are females.

       Out of the total employees in HR department, 4/5th are females.

       The total number of female employees in the office is 1120.

31. The number of male employees in Finance department as what per cent of the number of employees (both male and female) in IT department ?

(A)    

(B) 

(C)   

(D)   

(E)  

Answer: (E)

32. What is the total number of male employees in the office ?

(A)  1380

(B)  1694

(C)  1420

(D)  1340

(E)  1124

Answer: (A)

33. By what per cent is the number of female employees in HR department more than those in Finance department ?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   

Answer: (A)

34. What is the respective ratio between number of female employees in Finance department and those in IT department ?

(A)  7 : 29

(B)  6 : 29

(C)  7 : 23

(D)  5 : 23

(E)  5 : 27

Answer: (E)

35. What is the difference between the number of male employees in HR department and those in IT department ?

(A)  940

(B)  920

(C)  910

(D)  950

(E)  930

Answer: (D)

36. In the month of March 2014, Rashmi paid EMI which was 30% of her monthly salary. The remaining salary she spent on shopping of groceries and clothes in the respective ratio of 4 : 3. She spent Rs 15000 on shopping of clothes. If in April 2014, her salary increased by 12%, what was her salary in April ?

(A)  Rs 48,000

(B)  Rs 50,000

(C)  Rs 56,000

(D)  Rs 66,000

(E)  Rs 55,000

Answer: (C)

37. Prasad sold his work tools at n Rs 1850 and earned a profit of 25%. How much did he p ay to purchase work tools ?

(A)  Rs 1,360

(B)  Rs 1,300

(C)  Rs 1,240

(D)  Rs 1,480

(E)  None of these

Answer: (D)

38. If the number of male qualified candidates from State A is 264, what per cent of qualified candidates from State A is female ?

(A)  35

(B)  40

(C)  42.5

(D)  47.5

(E)  45

Answer: (E)

39. What is the average number of candidates who could not qualify in the competitive exam from States C, D and E ?

(A)  276

(B)  264

(C)  258

(D)  272

(E)  268

Answer: (E)

40. What is the central angle corresponding to number of qualified candidates from State E ?

(A)  32.8°

(B)  24.4°

(C)  22.8°

(D)  24.6°

(E)  28.8°

Answer: (E)

41. What is the difference between total number of qualified candidates from states C and D together and those who could not qualify in the competitive exam from the same states together ?

(A)  674

(B)  664

(C)  682

(D)  672

(E)  678

Answer: (D)

42. Total number of qualified candidates from States B and E together is what per cent more than the number of appeared candidates from State A ?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   

Answer: (B)

43. A boat takes 2 hours to travel 28 kms upstream. If the respective ratio between speed of the boat downstream and the speed of the boat upstream is 9 : 7, what is the speed of the current ?

(A)  1 km/h

(B)  2.5 km/h

(C)  3 km/h

(D)  2 km/h

(E)  3.5 km/h

Answer: (D)

44.  Amaya’s present age is 1.5 times of Himanshu’s present age. If after 4 years, Amaya’s age will be twice of Himanshu’s age 4 years ago, what is the difference between their present ages ?

(A)  13 years

(B)  14 years

(C)  12 years

(D)  15 years

(E)  18 years

Answer: (C)

Directions – What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given question ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

45. 15 * 17.98 – ?2 = 2984

(A)  8

(B)  14

(C)  12

(D)  18

(E)  16

Answer: (E)

46. 02% of 225.9 + 449.98 ÷ 5.99 = ?

(A)  200

(B)  245

(C)  120

(D)  225

(E)  165

Answer: (E)

47. (859.98 – 379.88) ÷999 = ?

(A)  30

(B)  60

(C)  40

(D)  20

(E)  50

Answer: (C)

48. 295 – 14 * 3.99 + 99.95 = ?2

(A)  19

(B)  11

(C)  17

(D)  27

(E)  9

Answer: (A)

49. 992 + 4.982 * 8.03 + 64.15 = ?

(A)  575

(B)  425

(C)  520

(D)  610

(E)  480

Answer: (C)

50. The average of vie observations X1 , X2, X3, X­4 and X5 is 24. The average of first three observations (X1, X2 and X3) is less than the average of last three observations {X3, X4 and X5}. If the average of first two observations {X1 and X2} is 16.5, what s the value of the third observations {X3} ?

(A)  24

(B)  25

(C)  29

(D)  14

(E)  19

Answer: (A)

Andhra Bank PO Examination Held on 27-12-2015 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key

Andhra Bank PO Examination Held on 27-12-2015
Andhra Bank PO Examination Held on 27-12-2015 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key

Andhra Bank PO Examination

Held on 27-12-2015

Reasoning

Directions – (Q. 1-5) Study the following information to answer the questions-

   In a certain code language,

   ‘economy and wealth balance’ is written as ‘gh mk ru st’

   ‘wealth of nations depleting’ is written as ‘tl zm ak gh’

    ‘taxes balance nations better’ is written as ‘dj ru zm pn’

     ‘better to revive economy’ is written as ‘br ht dj st’

     (All codes are two letter codes only)

1. What does the code ‘tl’ stand for in the given code language ?

(A)  and

(B)  either ‘of or ‘depleting’

(C)  either ‘nations’ or ‘taxes’

(D)  to

(E)  taxes

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following may possibly represent ‘revive now’ in the given code language?

(A)  zm ht

(B)  bt zm

(C)  ht co

(D)  br ht

(E)  br dj

Answer: (C)

3. What is the code for ‘economy’ in the given code language ?

(A)  st

(B)  either ‘mk’ or ‘ru’

(C)  gh

(D)  dj

(E)  mk

Answer: (A)

4. What is the for ‘balance’ in the given code language ?

(A)  st

(B)  gh

(C)  ru

(D)  ak

(E)  zm

Answer: (C)

5. Which of the following may represent ‘better generate wealth’ in the given code language ?

(A)  fs gh dj

(B)  dj mk gh

(C)  gh pn st

(D)  gh fs mk

(E)  xs dj ak

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

    Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between each other, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them speaks a different language viz., Hindi Urdu, Punjabi, Tamil, Marathi, Sanskrit, Gujarati and Bengali but not necessarily in the same order.

    S sits second to the left of the one who speaks Marathi. Only two people sit between S and U. The one who speaks Bengali is an immediate neighbour of U. Q sits third to the right of the one who speaks Bengali. Only three people sit between Q and the one who speaks Punjabi. Only two people sit between the one who speaks Punjabi and R. P sits second to the left of the one who speaks Urdu. P does not speak Bengali. T sits third to the left of W. Only three people sit between W and the one who speaks Gujarati.. The one who speaks Tamil sits fourth to right of the one who speaks Hindi. The one who speaks Hindi is not an immediate neighbour of the one who speaks Marathi.

6. Which of the following statements is true about V ?

(A)  V is an immediate neighbour of the one who speaks Bengali.

(B)  V speaks Punjabi.

(C)  None of the given statements is true.

(D)  V sits to the immediate left of U.

(E)  Only two persons sit  between V and R.

Answer: (D)

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?

(A)  S-Marathi

(B)  Q-Gujarati

(C)  W-Hindi

(D)  V-Punjabi

(E)  P-Sanskrit

Answer: (A)

8. Who amongst the following is equidistant from T and the one who speaks Hindi, when counted from the left of the one who speaks Hindi?

(A)  The one who speaks Marathi

(B)  Q

(C)  The one who speaks Gujarati

(D)  R

(E)  U

Answer: (E)

9. Who amongst the following speaks Sanskrit ?

(A)  R

(B)  P

(C)  T

(D)  U

(E)  S

Answer: (A)

10. Who amongst the following sits third to the right of W ?

(A)  V

(B)  U

(C)  The one who speaks Urdu

(D)  R

(E)  The one who speaks Tamil

Answer: (C)

11. In this question is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step of administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested course of action logically follows for pursuing.

Statement : Annual results of school G are continuously falling from past three years as the school is unable to hire adequate number of teachers due to lack of funds.

Course of Action I : School G should increase the fees of students by 30% in order to generate funds for hiring new teachers.

Course of Action II : Classes of school G should be divided into two shifts and should be continued with the existing teachers.

(A)  Either course of action I or course of action II follows

(B)  Neither course of action I nor course of action II follows

(C)  Only course of action I follows

(D)  Only course of action II follows

(E)  Both courses of action I and II follow

Answer: (D)

12. Read the given information and answer the question.

‘Students of country X go abroad for higher studies despite having some excellent universities in their own country. In fact, there is no benefit but just the hype of studying abroad that encourages students to do s’-Statement by the General Secretary of students’ association of a college in Country X?

Which of the following strengthens the statement of the General Secretary that students do not benefit from studying abroad ?

(A)  Getting some admission in some good universities of country X is next to impossible as more than 55% of seats are reserved seats and most students compete for the seats which are not reserved.

(B)  Statistics suggest that more than 55% students of Country X, studying abroad either accept mediocre jobs or return to country X after completing their course due to lack of job opportunities.

(C)  Country X provides a number of scholarships for students in almost all the fields in order to ensure that all students get equal opportunity to finish their higher education.

(D)  The fees charged by a few universities of country X is much less than the fees charged by many universities abroad.

(E)  Some good universities of country X conduct entrance exams which are more difficult to clear than the entrance exams conducted by universities around the world.

Answer: (B)

13. Read the given information and answer the question.

Three Aeroplanes of Airline-L had to make an emergency landing in the past four months due to technical glitches. As a result the popularity of the airline declined drastically. Also many people cancelled their existing booking at a short notice and are paying double the fare to the competitor companies instead.

Airline-L has to choose one course of action from the options given below. Which amongst the following options would be the best decision for the Airline in the present scenario?

(A)  Making its fare cheaper than the market rate to ensure that its popularity rises again.

(B)  Reducing the number of planes flying per day, to ensure that optimum work load per employee maintained.

(C)  Reducing the number of cancellation of tickets by charging a very huge amount as cancellation fee.

(D)  Adding additional checks for ensuring safety and advertising the same.

(E)  Firing its old technical staff and hiring new staff instead.

Answer: (E)

14. If the expressions ‘R ≥ U = N ≥ S’ and A > N ≥ D’ are true, which of the following conclusions is definitely true?

(A)  R ≥ D

(B)  U > A

(C)  D < S

(D)  A < R

(E)  U < D

Answer: (A)

15. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question .

Since its launch, ‘Thrice-Spice’ restaurant chain to city X has earned accolades from each of its visitors. After almost a year of successful service, ‘Thrice-Spice’ has been nominated for the ‘Best Restaurant of the City’ Award. But, against the expectation of many people, it lost the award to a newbie in the market.

Which of the following can be the major reason believed to lose the award?

(A)  The restaurant that won the award is a multi-cuisine restaurant and offers a much wider variety than ‘Thrice-Spice’.

(B)  The first month profit of the new restaurant was higher than that of ‘Thrice-Spice’, which according to some people is because it threats its customers to stop DJ

(C)  The sale of ‘Thrice-Spice’ in the last month was a little lower than the winning restaurant due to its weekend discount offers in the said month.

(D)  Though the winning restaurant has only one outlet, unlike ‘Thrice-Spice’ chains it’s located in the heart of the city.

(E)  ‘Thrice-Spice’ remains closed on every Wednesday, whereas the other restaurants of the city are open throughout the week.

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 16-20) Study the following information and answer the question.

    Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in three different months (of the same year) but not necessarily in the same order, namely March, June and December such that not less than two people and not more than three people were born in a month. Each of them also likes a different fruit namely Guava, Peach, Banana, Cherry, Mango, Orange, Kiwi and Apple but not necessarily in the same order.

     Only Q and W were born in March. R likes Apple and was born in the same month as T. R was not born in December. The one who likes Mango was born in June. T does not like Mango. U was not born in the same month as T. S likes cherry and born in the same month as U. V does not like Mango. The one who likes Kiwi and the one who likes Banana were born in the same month. The one who likes Kiwi was not born in the same month as W. U does not like Kiwi. The one who likes Guava was born in the same month as P. Q does not like Peach.

16. As per the given arrangement which of the following combinations represents only the people who were born in December ?

(A)  T, V

(B)  U, P, T

(C)  V, U

(D)  P, T

(E)  U, V, S

Answer: (E)

17. As per the given arrangement, which of the following persons represent the one who was born in the same month as the one who likes orange ?

(A)  U

(B)  P

(C)  R

(D)  T

(E)  W

Answer: (E)

18. Which of the following fruits does T like, as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  Orange

(B)  Peach

(C)  Guava

(D)  Banana

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (C)

19. Which of the following combinations is correct, as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  December-Peach

(B)  June-Orange

(C)  June-Banana

(D)  March-Guava

(E)  December-Banana

Answer: (E)

20. Who amongst the following likes Peach, as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  P

(B)  V

(C)  U

(D)  W

(E)  T

Answer: (D)

Directions – (Q. 21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

    When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers)

Input : 41 sprain 10 early 97 noble 26 65 ankle death

Step I : 97 41 10 early noble 26 65 ankle death sprain

Step II : noble 97 41 10 early 26 ankle death sprain 65

Step III : 41 noble 97 10 26 ankle death sprain 65 early

Step IV : death 41 noble 97 10 ankle sprain 85 early 26

Step V : 10 death 41 noble 97 sprain 65 early 26 ankle

Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input : omits 36 59 yards 41 elect train 12 lakes 85

21. Which element comes exactly between ‘85’ and ‘lakes’ in Step III of the given input ?

(A)  59

(B)  yards

(C)  train

(D)  omits

(E)  elect

Answer: (E)

22. If in the first step, ‘59’ interchanges its position with ‘lakes’ and ‘omits’ also interchanges it position with ‘12’ then which element will be to the immediate left of ‘41’ ?

(A)  59

(B)  omits

(C)  12

(D)  elect

(E)  lakes

Answer: (E)

23. Which of the following combinations represent the first two and the last two elements in the step V of the given input ?

(A)  41, train and omits, 36

(B)  12, lakes and 36, elect

(C)  12, lakes and omits, 36

(D)  lakes, 41 and 36, elect

(E)  lakes, 41 and 59, omits

Answer: (B)

24. Which element is fourth to the right of the one which is ninth from the right and in Step V of the given input ?

(A)  36

(B)  yards

(C)  85

(D)  elect

(E)  12

Answer: (B)

25. In which step are the elements ‘train 85 yards 59’ found in the same order ?

(A)  Third

(B)  Fourth

(C)  Second

(D)  Fifth

(E)  The given order of elements is not found in any step

Answer: (D)

Directions – (Q. 26-30) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

     Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G were appointed to a company on seven different days of the same week starting from Monday to Sunday (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also plays a different game namely. Cricket, Hockey, Football, Squash, Volleyball, Tennis and Kho-Kho, but not necessarily in the same order.

     Only two people were appointed after the one who plays Hockey. E was appointed on one of the days after the one who plays Hockey. Only three people were appointed between E and G. Only one person was appointed between G and the one who plays Volleyball. A was appointed immediately after the one who plays Volleyball. Only three people were appointed after the one who plays Kho-Kho. F was appointed immediately after C, but not on Friday. Only two people were appointed between F and the one who plays Cricket. B was appointed immediately after the one who plays Cricket. More than two people were appointed between D and the one who plays Tennis. A and F does not play Football.

26. Who amongst the following was appointed on Wednesday ?

(A)  The one who plays Kho-Kho

(B)  A

(C)  B

(D)  The one who plays Cricket

(E)  F

Answer: (D)

27. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  Only one persons was appointed between F and the one who plays Squash.

(B)  Only three people were appointed before C

(C)  A plays Tennis

(D)  B was appointed on Saturday

(E)  None of the given options is true

Answer: (E)

28. The person who plays Tennis was appointed on which of the following days ?

(A)  Thursday

(B)  Tuesday

(C)  Sunday

(D)  Monday

(E)  Saturday

Answer: (E)

29. Which of the following combinations will be definitely true as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  C-Squash

(B)  Thursday-D

(C)  Saturday-Cricket

(D)  Monday-Volleyball

(E)  F-Kho-Kho

Answer: (D)

30. How many people were appointed before G ?

(A)  Two

(B)  One

(C)  Three

(D)  Four

(E)  None, as G was appointed on Monday

Answer: (A)

31. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right)in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both ‘D > S’ as well as ‘E ≤ B’ definitely holds true ?

B__A__S__E___D

(A)  >, ≥, <, =

(B)  >, =, ≥, <

(C)  ≥, ≥, ≥, ≤

(D)  ≥, = ≥, <

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (E)

Directions- (Q. 32-36) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and given answer :

(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the questions.

32. Among buildings J, K, L, M, N and O (each building is of different height), which is the tallest ?

I. M is taller than J and O but shorter than K. N is taller than M but not the tallest. K is not the tallest.

II. K is shorter than only two buildings. J is shorter than M and K but taller than O. N is taller than J.

Answer: (A)

33. What is the direction of M with respect to K ?

I. K is 8 m to the East of S. Q is to the north of S. P is 4 m away from Q. M is 2 m to the north of P.

II. M is 12 m to the west of J. Q is 6 m to the South of M. K is to the South-East of Q.

Answer: (B)

34. How is P related to M?

I. M is the wife of C. M and I are the only children of R. G is the only daughter of C. P is the grand-daughter of R.

II. G is married to L. M is the mother-in-law of L. M is the only daughter of R and A. P is the grandchild of R.

Answer: (A)

35. Five people-M, N, O, P and Q live on five different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered five. How many people live between M and Q?

I. M lives on floor number three. Only one person lives between M and P. N lives on an odd numbered floor immediately above Q.

II. O lives on an even numbered floor immediately below M. Only one person lives between O and Q. N lives on the topmost floor.

Answer: (C)

36. Six people are sitting in two parallel rows containing three people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, U, V and W are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2, P, Q and R are seated and all of them are facing north.

(Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.) Who sits at extreme left end of row-2?

I. V sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between Q and the one who faces V. P is an immediate neighbour of Q.

II. Only one person sits between Q and R. W faces one of the immediate neighbours of R. V is an immediate neighbour of W.

Answer: (D)

37. In which of these expressions ‘S > V’ be definitely false ?

(A)  S > P ≥ Q = G ≥ R > V

(B)  P < A ≤ S ≤ T; V ≥ O > T

(C)  V ≤ A ≤ L = R < S

(D)  S > C ≥ F ≤ H; V < F

(E)  S ≥ T = O ≥ P; V < J = P

Answer: (B)

Directions- (Q. 38-42) In this questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Given answer:

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows

(C) If either conclusions I or conclusion II follows

(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

(E) If conclusion I and II follow

38. Statement : No number is a digit. All digits are fractions. Some fractions are integers.

Conclusions :

I. Atleast some digits are integers.

II. All numbers being integers is a possibility.

Answer: (B)

39. Statement : Some seconds are minutes. All minutes are hours.

Conclusions :

I. Some seconds are hours.

II. All seconds are hours.

Answer: (A)

40. Statement : No number is a digit. All digits are fractions. Some fractions are integers.

Conclusions :

I. All fractions can never be numbers.

II. Some integers are definitely not numbers.

Answer: (A)

41. Statements : All flaws are errors. Some errors are mistakes. Some mistakes are blunders.

Conclusions :

I. All flaws can never be mistakes.

II. Atleast some blunders are errors.

Answer: (D)

42. Statement : All flaws are errors. Some errors are mistakes. Some mistakes are blunders.

Conclusions :

I. All flaws being blunders is a possibility

II. No error is a blunder.

Answer: (A)

43. Read the following information and answer the question.

A new apparel store has been opened by a telecom company XYZ, from which customers have very high expectations.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given statements ? (An inference is something  by which you can logically deduce something to be true based on known/given premises.)

(A)  XYZ previously operated in telecom industry only

(B)  Expansion is the best strategy to have competitive edge in the market

(C)  To be successful in an expansion, one needs to be a leader in telecom industry

(D)  XYZ has already established brand name in the market through its telecom business

(E)  XYZ’s apparel store offers premium products for youngsters only.

Answer: (D)

44. In this question there are two statements I and II. These statements may either be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements carefully and decide which of the given answers choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

I. Despite giving their best performance, more than 100 employees of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. have been laid off.

II. More than 40% employees of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. who have crossed the age of 50 years have been asked to take voluntary retirement from their services.

(A)  Statement I is the cause and Statement II is effect

(B)  Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect

(C)  Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes

(D)  Both statement I and II are independent causes

(E)  Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Answer: (C)

45. This question consists of a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. All assumptions is something supposed r taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of those is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement : ‘Due to inadequate rainfall this year, the harvest obtained by farmers of village C is 50% of what was expected. As a result this year we will be buying the crop from village Z as it is been convenient and cheaper for us to buy the crop from the farmers of one village rather than buying it from farmers of different villages’.-Statement by a distributor.

I. Atleast some farmers in village Z produce the same crop as farmers in village C.

II. The harvest in village Z was much more than expected.

(A)  Both I and II are implicit

(B)  Either I or II is implicit

(C)  Only I is implicit

(D)  Neither I nor II is implicit

(E)  Only II is implicit

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 46-50) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

    Eight people-M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight line with equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing north and some are facing South.

• M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only three people sit between M and S. Q sits exactly between M and S.

• T sits third to the right of Q. N is an immediate neighbour of T and faces south. O sits second to the right of R. O is not an immediate neighbour S.

• Immediate neighbour of S face opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbour faces north then the other neighbour faces south and vice-versa). Immediate neighbours of R face opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbour faces north then the other neighbour faces south and vice-versa).

• M and P face the same direction as Q (i.e., If Q faces north then M and O also face north and vice-versa.) Both the immediate neighbours of Q face south.

46. In the given arrangement, if two people come and sit to the immediate left of Q, how many people will sit between R and O?

(A)  Two

(B)  Three

(C)  Four

(D)  More than four

(E)  One

Answer: (B)

47. The amongst the following sits third to the right of R ?

(A)  M

(B)  Q

(C)  Other than those given as options

(D)  N

(E)  S

Answer: (A)

48. How many people face north as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  Two

(B)  Three

(C)  Four

(D)  More than four

(E)  One

Answer: (C)

49. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon their seating arrangement and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

(A)  QO

(B)  MR

(C)  NR

(D)  OS

(E)  PS

Answer: (A)

50. How many people sit between S and N as per the given arrangement ?

(A)  None

(B)  Two

(C)  More than three

(D)  One

(E)  Three

Answer: (D)

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