Syndicate Bank P.O. Examination 2016 Held on 25-02-2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key
Syndicate Bank P.O. Examination 2016 Held on 25-02-2017
Quantitative Aptitude
1. A shopkeeper purchases an artifact and marks its price up by 40%. He sells the artifact to a customer at a certain discount, thereby making a profit of 5% on the whole transaction. What is the the discount % given by the shopkeeper?
(A) 15
(B) 25
(C)
(D)
(E) 35
Answer: (B)
Directions – (Q. 2-7) What approximate value will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following question ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
2. [7.995 + 25.96 + 13.02] ÷490 = ?
(A) 30
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) 19
(E) 1
Answer: (D)
3. (5.95 ×06) ÷ (8.03 × 2.04) = ? – 4.95
(A) 4
(B) 16
(C) 8
(D) 40
(E) 20
Answer: (C)
4. 4. 014 ÷ 1.894 × 15.011 ÷ 8.971 = (?)
(A) 9
(B) 15
(C) 3
(D) 12
(E) 10
Answer: (C)
5. (6.90)3 – (2.99)3 – (6.02)3 = (?)2
(A) 50
(B) 25
(C) 10
(D) 1
(E) 100
Answer: (C)
6.
(A) 1
(B) 20
(C) 10
(D) 15
(E) 5
Answer: (E)
7. 6523 ÷ 544 ×2 = ?
(A) 21
(B) 33
(C) 14
(D) 8
(E) 28
Answer: (C)
Directions – (Q. 8 – 12) Refer the pie chart and answer the given questions.
8. What is the respective ratio between the total number of students taking part in Tennis and Swimming together and those taking part in Cricket and Football together?
(A) 19 : 18
(B) 17 : 7
(C) 10 : 9
(D) 39 : 35
(E) 28 : 19
Answer: (A)
9. What is the number of girls who take part in Volleyball, if the ratio of boys to girls is 5 : 11 respectively?
(A) 143
(B) 13
(C) 56
(D) 65
(E) 67
Answer: (A)
10. What is the average number of students taking part in Tennis, Cricket, Football and Swimming?
(A) 142
(B) 143
(C) 162
(D) 122
(E) 158
Answer: (*)
11. If out of the number of students taking part in tennis, 79 are girls, what is the difference between the number of boys and girls taking part in tennis?
(A) 24
(B) 21
(C) 13
(D) 10
(E) 18
Answer: (E)
12. The number of students taking part in Cricket is approximately what per cent more than those taking part in Football?
(A) 12
(B) 26
(C) 29
(D) 19
(E) 20
Answer: (A)
Directions (Q. 13-17) Study the table and answer the given question.
13. What is the respective ratio of the total number of cars produced by company C in both the years 2007 and 2010 together, to the total number of cars sold b y company A in both the years 2007 and 2009 together?
(A) 3 : 2
(B) 14 : 11
(C) 9 : 7
(D) 7 : 4
(E) 29 : 18
Answer: (C)
14. What is the percentage change in the number of unsold cars for company C in the year 2009, compared to the previous year?
(A)
(B) 500% increase
(C) 25% decrease
(D) 50% increase
(E) 400% increase
Answer: (E)
15. What is the total number of cars sold by all the given companies together in the y ear 2008?
(A) 10.4 lakh
(B) 12.1 lakh
(C) 11.8 lakh
(D) 11.0 lakh
(E) 8.4 lakh
Answer: (D)
16. What is the average production of company A overall the years?
(A) 2.85 lakh
(B) 2.90 lakh
(C) 2.36 lakh
(D) 2.79 lakh
(E) 2.58 lakh
Answer: (D)
17. What is the respective ratio between the total sales for company A and that of company D for the years 2007, 2009 and 2010 taken together?
(A) 3 : 7
(B) 4 : 7
(C) 10 : 11
(D) 7 : 13
(E) 14 : 23
Answer: (A)
Directions – (Q. 18-22) In the question, a question and two statement is given, you have to decide which statements is/an sufficient to answer the question and answered as-
(A) Statement I above is sufficient to answer the question.
(B) Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(C) To the Statement I and II are necessary to answer the question.
(D) Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) Either Statement I also or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
18. What is the speed of the train (in metre/second)
(I) The train crosses a platform of length 20 metre in 15 seconds and a vertical pole in 7 seconds, while travelling t the same speed.
(II) The train, 105 metre in length, passes a person running at a speed of 4.5 metre/second in the same direction in which the train is running in 10 seconds.
Answer: (E)
19. What is the percentage by which an item’s price was marked up over its cost price?
(I) The item was sold at a profit of 15% after a discount of 8% was allowed on the marked price.
(II) The selling price of the item was Rs 2705.
Answer: (A)
20. What is the age of Anju’s mother?
(I) The ratio of the present ages of Anju and her mother is 3 : 13.
(II) Anju’s mother is 5 years younger than Anjus father.
Answer: (D)
21. What is the total volume of the right circular cylinder (in cm3)?
(I) The curved surface area of the cylinder is 4620 cm2.
(II) The height of the cylinder is equal to the height of a giant circular cone of volume 2158 cm2 and radius 7 cm.
Answer: (C)
22. What is the rate of compound interest compounded annually?
(I) Mr. A invests a sum of Rs 8000.
(II) A sum becomes 1.44 times of itself at the end of 2 years, when compounded on an annual basis.
Answer: (B)
Directions – (Q. 23-28) In this question two equation numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option and given answer :
(A) x > y (B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y (D) x ≤ y
(E) x = y or relationship correct be determined.
23. (I) 3x2 + 8x + 4 = 0
(II) 4y2 – 19y + 12= 0
Answer: (C)
24. (I) 4x2 – 12x – 17 = 0
(II) 3y2 + 10y + 8 = 0
Answer: (E)
25. (I) 7x + 3y = 7
(II) 5x – 6y = 8
Answer: (A)
26. (I) x2 + 10x – 96 = 0
(II) 3y2 + 11y – 14 = 0
Answer: (E)
27. (I) x2 – 6x + 5 = 0
(II) y2 – 4y + 3 = 0
Answer: (B)
28. (I) x2 – 11x + 30 = 0
(II) y2 – 7y + 10 = 0
Answer: (B)
29. The cost of mowing a lawn is Rs 18 per m2. A rectangular lawn of dimension 16 m × 30 m is to be moved. A paved track having a uniform width of 1.5 m runs along the periphery of the lawn. What will be the total cost of mowing? (Assume that there are no additional charges)
(A) Rs 6318
(B) Rs 5719
(C) Rs 5615
(D) Rs 6218
(E) Rs 6510
Answer: (A)
30. The average weight of boys in a class of students is 58 kg, while that of girls is 50 kg. The average weight of the entire class is 53 kg. The number of girls is approximately what per cent of the number of boys in the class?
(A) 167
(B) 178
(C) 69
(D) 100
(E) 129
Answer: (A)
31. A bag contains 5 red balls, 6 blue balls, 2 green balls and 7 white balls. If 2 balls are picked up at random, what is the probability that both the balls are white in colour?
(A) 1/9
(B) 3/95
(C) 3/35
(D) 1/190
(E) 21/190
Answer: (E)
32. What is the average number of students who have opted for Commerce from all schools taken together?
(A) 140
(B) 144
(C) 154
(D) 135
(E) 160
Answer: (*)
33. What is the ratio between the total number of students who have opted for both science and Arts together from School Q and those from School R respectively?
(A) 20 : 17
(B) 17 : 10
(C) 5 : 4
(D) 84 : 55
(E) 124 : 117
Answer: (E)
34. Which of the following combinations represents schools with the minimum number of students opted for Science and the minimum number of students who have opted for Arts respectively?
(A) Q, S
(B) S, R
(C) Q, R
(D) P, S
(E) R, P
Answer: (C)
35. What is the ratio of number of students who have opted for Commerce from School R and those from School P respectively?
(A) 6 : 11
(B) 24 : 55
(C) 9 : 14
(D) 6 : 11
(E) 23 : 53
Answer: (*)
36. The number of students who have opted for Science from School P is what per cent of the number of students who have opted for Science from school P is what per cent of the number of students who have opted for Commerce from School R?
(A)
(B) 50
(C)
(D)
(E)
Answer: (*)
37. Ramesh and Suresh start a business by investing a certain amount in a ratio of 9 : 16 respectively. Both of them invest for an equal period of time. At the end of the term, Ramesh’s share of profit is what per cent less-than Suresh’s share of profit?
(A)
(B) 60
(C)
(D) 28
(E)
Answer: (E)
Directions – (Q. 38-42) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.
In a school of 1200 students, the number of male students and the number of female students are in the ratio of 7 : 5 respectively. There are 3 subjects-Economics, Social Studies and Science. Each student studies at least one of these subjects.
10% of male students study Economics only. 20% study Social studies only and 12% study Science only. 10% Study only Economics and Science. 18% study only Science and Social Studies and 20%W study only Economics and Social Studies. The remaining male students study all the subjects.
18% of female students study Economics only. 10% study Social Studies only and 12% studies Science only. 20% study only Economics and Science, 12% study only Science and Social Studies and 8% study only Economics and Social Studies. The remaining female students study all the three subjects.
38. What is the respective ratio between the number of male students who study Social Studies and the number of female students who study Economics?
(A) 230 : 165
(B) 231 : 65
(C) 170 : 61
(D) 7 : 5
(E) 25 : 17
Answer: (*)
39. The total number of male students studying less than two subjects is what per cent of the total number of female students studying more than one subject?
(A) 50
(B) 79
(C) 90
(D)
(E) 98
Answer: (E)
40. What is the respective ratio of total number of female students who study all the subjects and the total number of male students who study all the subjects?
(A) 10 : 7
(B) 25 : 9
(C) 29 : 14
(D) 14 : 5
(E) 14 : 9
Answer: (A)
41. The number of female students studying Science only is approximately what per cent less than the number of male students studying Economics only?
(A) 68
(B) 14
(C) 80
(D) 42
(E) 152
Answer: (B)
42. What is the difference between the number of male and female students studying Economics and Science only?
(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 45
(D) 60
(E) 54
Answer: (A)
43. 6 – 3 24 – 57 186 ?
(A) −582
(B) 475
(C) 627
(D) 545
(E) −543
Answer: (E)
44. 4 8 14 23 5 ?
(A) 124
(B) 91.75
(C) 108.5
(D) 84.5
(E) 56.75
Answer: (E)
45. 9 5 6 5 23 ?
(A) 60
(B) 16
(C) 18.5
(D) 42.5
(E) 32.5
Answer: (A)
46. 1 19 55 112 193 ?
(A) 301
(B) 336
(C) 330
(D) 252
(E) 636
Answer: (A)
47. 3 7 15 31 63 ?
(A) 95
(B) 125
(C) 128
(D) 127
(E) 98
Answer: (D)
48. 26 37 48 59 ?
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 70
(D) 80
(E) 90
Answer: (C)
49. A can complete a given task in 24 days, while B is twice as efficient as him. A started on the work initially and was joined by B after a few days. If the whole work was completed in 10 days, after how many days, from the time A started working, did B join A?
(A)
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 3
(E)
Answer: (D)
50. A hollow iron pipe is 21 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron weight 8g/cm3 then the weight of the pipe is-
Syndicate Bank PO Examination Held on 9-2-2016 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key
Syndicate Bank PO Examination Held on 9-2-2016
Reasoning
Directions – (Q. 1-5) The question consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
1. Among five friends A, B, C, D, and E each studying in a different standard viz., 1st, 4th 7th, 8th and 10th in which standard does C study ? (‘Junior’ in the statements implies a lower standard and ‘senior’, higher standard)
I. B studies in a standard which is an odd number. C is B’s senior but does not study in 10th standard.
II. Only three people are senior to A but junior to C.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Answer: (E)
2. Four friends viz, P , Q, R and S are seated around a circular table. Some are facing the centre while some face outside (i.e., opposite to the centre). Which direction is R facing (centre or outside)?
I. R sits second to left of S. R sits to immediate right of Q.
II. Q sits to immediate right of R. P is an immediate neighbour of both R and S.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Answer: (D)
3. Point M is in which direction with respect to Point A?
I. A person starts walking from point A, walks 5 m towards North and then takes a right turn and walks 8 m. He then takes a left turn and walks for 3 m before stopping at Point Z. Point M is 12 m away from Point Z.
II. A person starts from Point A and walks 4 m towards the West. He then takes a right turn and walks 9 m towards the North. He then takes right turn and walks 5 m. he then takes a final right turn and stops at point R after walking for 5 m. Point M is towards the North of Point R.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Answer: (B)
4. Is Q the father of A?
I. M is the mother of A and B. C is the only sister of A. R is married to B. R is the daughter-in-law of Q.
II. Q has only one daughter C. C is the sister of A and B. B is the son of M. R is the daughter-in-law of M.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Answer: (A)
5. Six people are sitting in two parallel rows containing three people each, ini such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, A, B and C are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, P, Q and R are seated and all of them are facing North. (Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row). Who amongst A, B and C faces R?
I. A faces the one who sits to immediate right of R. A is not an immediate neighbour of C.
II. Only one person sits between Q and P. The one who faces B sits to immediate left of Q.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Answer: (C)
6. If all the vowels in the word ‘SAINTLY’ are rearranged in the alphabetical order form left to right, followed by the consonants in the alphabetical order from left to right, the position of which of the following five alphabets given below will remain unchanged?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) L
(D) A
(E) Y
Answer: (E)
Directions – (Q. 7-9) Read the information carefully and answer the given questions.
P @ Q means P is the father of Q.
P + Q means P is the husband of Q
P $ Q means P is the brother of Q
P % Q means P is the mother of Q
P & Q means P is the husband of Q
7. How is B related to E in this expression: ‘A @ B % C & D + E’ ?
(A) Grandmother
(B) Granddaughter
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Aunt
(E) Daughter-in-law
Answer: (C)
8. What should come in place of the question mark to establish that C is the aunt of E in the expression ?
A%B + C & D ? E
(A) $
(B) &
(C) +
(D) Either + or &
(E) Either @ or %
Answer: (E)
9. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘A + B & C @ D % E $ F’ is definitely true ?
(A) E is the sister-in-law of A
(B) F is the daughter-in-law of C
(C) B is the aunt of D
(D) A is the uncle of E
(E) C is the uncle of A
Answer: (C)
10. Statements : All drivers are swimmers. Some swimmers are athletes. No athlete is a banker.
Conclusions :
I. All swimmers being bankers is a possibility.
II. No driver is a banker.
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (D)
11. Statements : All frogs are amphibians. Some turtles are amphibians. All turtles are reptiles.
Conclusions :
I. Atleast some amphibians are reptiles.
II. No frog is a turtle.
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (E)
12. Statements : All kings are warriors. Some dukes are kings.
Conclusions :
I. All kings are dukes.
II. Atleast some dukes are warriors.
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (C)
13. Statements : Some plants are trees. All trees are weeds. All weeds are shrubs.
Conclusions :
I. All plants are weeds
II. Some plants are weeds.
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (C)
14. Statements : All frogs are amphibians. Some turtles are amphibians. All turtles are reptiles.
Conclusions :
I. All frogs being turtles is a possibility
II. No reptile is a frog.
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (E)
15. Statements : Some plants are trees. All trees are weeds. All weeds are shrubs.
Conclusions:
I. All trees are shrubs.
II. All shrubs being plants is a possibility.
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (B)
16. It is possible to make only o ne meaningful English word with the third, fourth, seventh and the eighth letters of the word ‘VIDEOGRAPHY’, which would be the second letter of that word from the right end ? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer.
(A) D
(B) R
(C) A
(D) X
(E) Y
Answer: (D)
17. Statements :
M ≥ O ≥ L ≥ T = E ≥ D
Conclusions : I. D ≤ O
II. M ≥ E
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (B)
18. Statement :
B < C = D ≤ X ≤ Y < Z
Conclusions: I. B < X
II. Z ≤ C
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (E)
19. Statement : R < O ≤ L ≤ E;
G = E ≥ S; P ≤ S
Conclusions : I. R > P
II. P ≤ E
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (C)
20. Statement :
M ≥ O ≥ L ≥ T = E ≥ D
Conclusions: I. T < O
II. T = O
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (A)
21. Statement :
S ≤ P ≤ A = R > E ≤ D
Conclusions : I. A > D
II. S ≤ E
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (D)
22. Statement :
R < O ≤ L ≤ E; G = E ≥ S; P ≤ S
Conclusions : I. O < G
II. G = O
(A) either conclusion I or II is true
(B) both conclusions I and II are true
(C) only conclusion II is true
(D) neither conclusion I nor II is true
(E) only conclusion I is true
Answer: (A)
23. Statement A : In the past few y ears, enrolment in Government schools of country Matino has declined from 133.7 million to 121 million per year, while enrolment in private schools has increased from 51 million to 78 million per year.
Statement B : Due to lack of funds, Government schools of Matino are unable to hire properly trained teachers who would be able to provide good learning environment to the students.
(A) Statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect
(B) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause
(C) Statement (A) is the cause and Statement (B) is its effect
(D) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes
(E) Both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes
Answer: (A)
24. Statement A : The IT resources of company X are often measured by its employees, which sometimes creates unwanted risk and liabilities for the company.
Statement B : Company X will be monitoring online activities of its employees on official computers and may block content which it feels may adversely affect the productivity of the employees.
(A) Statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect
(B) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause
(C) Statement (A) is the cause and Statement (B) is its effect
(D) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes
(E) Both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes
Answer: (C)
Directions – (Q. 25-30) Study the following information and answer the given question.
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between each other, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them belongs to a different profession viz., Manager, Engineer, Chef, Pilot, Lawyer, Doctor, Architect and Teacher but not necessarily in the same order.
V sits second to the right of the Manager. The Pilot and the Engineer are the immediate neighbours of V. R sits second to the right of T who is Lawyer. T is an immediate neighbour of the Pilot. Only one person sits between W and U. S sits third to the left of T. P sits exactly between U and S. The Architect sits second to the left of P. The Chef and the Teacher are immediate neighbours of the Architect. W is not a Teacher.
25. Who among the following is a doctor?
(A) R
(B) V
(C) other than those given as options
(D) W
(E) P
Answer: (B)
26. Who sits exactly between R and the manager, when counted from the right of R?
(A) W
(B) T
(C) Q
(D) S
(E) U
Answer: (E)
27. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given information?
(A) R is a Chef
(B) P and V are immediate neighbours of S.
(C) All the given statements are true
(D) Only three persons sit between U and Q
(E) S is an Engineer
Answer: (A)
28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(A) SU
(B) RW
(C) TQ
(D) PU
(E) VS
Answer: (A)
29. Who sits second to the right of Q ?
(A) S
(B) P
(C) other than those given as options
(D) W
(E) U
Answer: (D)
30. If all the persons are made to sit in the alphabetical order in clockwise direction starting from P, the position of how many of them will remain unchanged (excluding P)?
(A) Three
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Four
(E) None
Answer: (A)
31. This consists of an information followed by two statements numbered I and II.
The travel authorities of country Talong have eased the process of acquiring visa for the tourists.
Statements :
I. The economy of country Talong is more dependent on Tourism industry than any other.
II. Students will be encouraged to go for higher studies to Talong.
Which of the given two statements can be inferred about the given information ? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)
(A) Neither I nor II can be inferred from the given information
(B) Both I and II can be inferred from the given information
(C) Either I or II can be inferred from the given information
(D) Only II can be inferred from the given information
(E) Only I can be inferred from the given information
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 32 and 33) Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a class, Sameer’s rank is 10th from the top and Anjali’s rank is 4th from the top. Among girls, Anjali’s rank is 3rd from the top and 7th from the bottom. Among boys, Sameer’s rank is 5th from the top and 21st from the bottom.
32. What is the total number of students in that class ?
(A) 43
(B) 30
(C) 34
(D) 39
(E) 36
Answer: (C)
33. How many boys and girls are in between Sameer and Anjali?
(A) Four Boys, two Girls
(B) Two Boys, Four Girls
(C) Three Boys, two Girls
(D) Two Boys, Two girls
(E) Two Boys, Three Girls
Answer: (C)
Directions – (Q. 34-39) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Seven people-P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a straight line with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing North and some are facing South.
Only two people are sitting to the left of V. Only two people sit between V and Q. P sits second to the left of Q. The immediate neighbours of P face opposite directions (i.e., if one of the neighbours faces South then the other faces North and vice-versa). Only one person sits between P and R. U sits third to the left of R. S is not an immediate neighbour of Q. Both the immediate neighbours of R face the same direction (i.e., if one neighbour face South then the other neighbour also faces South and vice-versa). P faces the same direction as that of R. T faces North. Q sits to the immediate left of T.
34. Whoa amongst the following sits exactly between V and the one who is sitting to the immediate left of Q?
(A) P
(B) R
(C) other than those given as options
(D) T
(E) U
Answer: (A)
35. Who amongst the following sits exactly in the middle of the line ?
(A) S
(B) P
(C) U
(D) T
(E) R
Answer: (B)
36. Which of the following statements is TRUE as per the given information?
(A) S faces South
(B) V sits third to the left of Q.
(C) None of the given options is true
(D) S sits exactly between R and P
(E) U sits to the immediate right of P
Answer: (B)
37. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting at the two extreme ends of the line ?
(A) QR
(B) Other than those given as options
(C) TU
(D) SQ
(E) ST
Answer: (E)
38. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of S?
(A) U
(B) V
(C) Q
(D) Other than those given as options
(E) P
Answer: (B)
39. Which of the following pairs represent the immediate neighbours of Q?
(A) TU
(B) QP
(C) PR
(D) TV
(E) VU
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 40-44) Read the given information and answer the given questions.
Eight People S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z live on separate floors of an 8-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the topmost floor is numbered 8.
• Y lives on floor numbered 1. Only two people live between Y and T.
• S lives immediately above X. S lives on an even numbered floor.
• Only one person lives between X and W. X lives above W.
• Z lives on an odd-numbered floor above S.
• V does not live on the topmost floor.
40. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?
(A) Only one person live between T and X
(B) Only two people live between T and U
(C) W lives immediately above Y
(D) Z lives on floor numbered 7
(E) U lives on an odd-numbered floor
Answer: (D)
41. Who amongst the following lives between U and S?
(A) Z
(B) V
(C) T
(D) W
(E) No one
Answer: (A)
42. Who among the following live on floor number 5?
(A) U
(B) X
(C) V
(D) T
(E) Z
Answer: (B)
43. Who lives on the floor immediately below T?
(A) S
(B) other than those given as options
(C) Y
(D) Z
(E) W
Answer: (E)
44. How many people live between the floors on which Z and T live?
(A) More than three
(B) Three
(C) No one
(D) One
(E) Two
Answer: (E)
Directions – (Q. 45-49) Study the information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language,
‘many residents of city’ is written as ‘ja nu pa la’
‘city with many choices’ is written as ‘ko la nu si’
‘choices made by residents is written as ‘pa mx ko tr’
‘made good choices here’ is written as ‘vk rpt r ko’
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
45. What is the code for ‘with’ in the given code language?
(A) si
(B) la
(C) ko
(D) tr
(E) nu
Answer: (A)
46. What is the code for ‘made by residents’ in the given code language?
(A) mx pa tr
(B) ko mx pa
(C) tr mx ko
(D) la pa tr
(E) mx tr vk
Answer: (A)
47. What is the code for ‘choices’ in the given code language?
(A) ko
(B) vk
(C) la
(D) nu
(E) si
Answer: (A)
48. Which of the following may represent ‘here for good’ in the given code language?
(A) la rp wq
(B) xz vk si
(C) rp uy vk
(D) vk rp ja
(E) vk rp la
Answer: (C)
49. What does the code ‘nu’ stand for in the given code language ?
(A) of
(B) Either ‘city’ or ‘many’
(C) with
(D) Either ‘city’ or ‘good’
(E) good
Answer: (B)
50. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MACHINERY’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both the forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
Syndicate Bank PO Examination Held on 9-2-2016 English Language Question Paper With Answer Key
Syndicate Bank PO Examination Held on 9-2-2016
English Language
Directions- (Q. 1-5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In general, before the financial crisis of 2008, the financial sector the world over had been steadily liberalizing limits on foreign ownership of banks and on the kinds of transactions they were able to engage in were being lifted. Rich countries were deregulating faster than others. Banks were given greater leeway on how much capital they should hold and how much risk they should take on. But banks the world over, did not maintain adequate capital cushions and balance sheets showed inflated profits. In 1999, America also repealed the Glass Staegall Act-a 190s Depression era law separating investment and commercial banking-with-out bothering about the threat to the economy. ‘Restrictions are a sign of backwardness’ –But the resulting crisis of 2008 put an end to this belief. Banking supervisors in many developing countries said that tight regulations saved them from getting into trouble. Under the old rules supervisors were simply referees tryi9ng to ensure that the game was played fairly. Now regulators have gone from saying ‘tell me’ that all your payment systems work to saying ‘show me how your payment system works’. Regulators are now tentatively stepping over a long standing divide between enforcing basic rules and playing a part in business decisions. This shift is particularly marked in Britain which once championed ‘light touch regulation’. This precrisis behaviour is being criticized as surrender to banks or as a self servicing device for attracting financial activity to Britain. In truth it was neither. It was the simple belief that markets are better than governments at allocating services. In America, too, regulators were reluctant to suppress innovation because they felt that “the self interest of lending institutions will be enough to ensure they did not all leap from the same tall building.”
In rich countries, enthusiasm for prescriptive supervision depends on the degree of harm suffered during the banking crisis or to the threat from the failing banks to bring down their governments with them. But it is not easy to stop banks from making bad decisions. In the past, regulators left it to the market to judge the health of the banks. But clever, well-paid analysts failed to see the crisis coming. Now central bankers are expected to do a better job. One problem is that the rules and the laws are written with the benefit of hindsight. The good ideas that may have prevented the last crisis however can make regulators dangerously overconfident about being able to predict and prevent the next one. Also, if regulators underwrite certain strategies that seem safe such as lending to small business, they may encourage banks to crowd into those lines of business. If enough banks pile into these markets, downturns in them can affect not just a few banks but the whole system. On the other hand prescriptive supervision can stifle financial innovation and squeeze all appetite for risk out of the banking system. In Japan, a banking crisis that started more than two decades ago still lingers on, in part because the country’s bankers have become gun shy and lend to buy government bonds rather than lend money or make foreign investments. Regulators are doing all they can to strike a balance and mitigate these risks.
1. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word LAST given in bold as used in the passage-
(A) final
(B) continue
(C) first
(D) recent
(E) subsequent
Answer: (D)
2. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage ?
(A) Regulators are lazy and shirk their duty of protecting financial systems
(B) Banks should go back to traditional banking and abandon riskier options
(C) Banks in developed countries have destroyed developing economies.
(D) Today the task of financial regulation is tricky.
(E) Financial systems have been damaged beyond repair.
Answer: (D)
3. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the CROWD given in bold as in the passage.
(A) multitude
(B) flock
(C) party
(D) crew
(E) not
Answer: (B)
4. Which of the following is/are the possible impact(s) of prescriptive supervision ?
1. Governments are likely to collapse as people are opposed to such measures.
2. Many executives are likely to exploit the system.
3. The measures could unintentionally prolong a crisis.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2
Answer: (C)
5. What is the author’s view of central banks’ present efforts at regulation ?
(A) These are unnecessary and harmful to banks.
(B) These are faulty as they encourage risky financial innovations.
(C) To succeeded these should be coordinated and uniform across countries.
(D) The measures they prescribe have not loopholes.
(E) They have done their best to effectively regulate.
Answer: (E)
6. Which of the following can be said about ‘light touch regulation’ adopted by Britain ?
(A) It gave Britain’s financial institutions very little autonomy.
(B) It forced banks to invest in government bonds.
(C) It resulted in banks holding too much capital.
(D) It encouraged financial activity in the country.
(E) It stifled banks’ appetite for risk.
Answer: (D)
7. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word LIMITS given in bold as used in the passage.
(A) caps
(B) rims
(C) frames
(D) frontiers
(E) skirts
Answer: (A)
8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The financial crisis of 2008 did not impact developing countries.
(B) Markets can easily regulate themselves.
(C) Developing economies should not allow foreign investment at present.
(D) After the crisis, America’s central bank has imposed unnecessary regulations.
(E) None of the given statements is true in the context of the passage.
Answer: (E)
9. Why was the author citied the reference of repealing the Gass-Steagall Act ?
(A) To indicate that regulations were relaxed without appreciating the impact on the economy.
(B) To criticize the backward restrictions that rich countries imposed on developing countries.
(C) To show that the economy had not progressed much since the Depression.
(D) To illustrate that only America could foresee the financial crisis.
(E) To indicate the soundness of America’s financial system prior to depression.
Answer: (A)
10. Which of the following difficulties is faced by regulators at present ?
(A) Bank lack the expertise to comply with norms.
(B) Tremendous competition between local and foreign banks.
(C) Striking a balance between protecting and stifling the economy
(D) Unwillingness of government to bail out failing banks
(E) Lack of adequate manpower
Answer: (C)
11. Which of the following approaches was adopted by the financial sector of rich world economies prior to the crisis ?
(A) Bank strictly adhered to outdated laws.
(B) Banks maintained very large capital cushions.
(C) They were innovative and took a lot of risks.
(D) They withdrew investment from traditional banking.
(E) Not clearly mentioned in the passage.
Answer: (C)
12. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word TENTATIVELY given in bold as used in the passage.
(A) confidently
(B) hesitantly
(C) fixed
(D) provisionally
(E) None
Answer: (A)
13. Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of the crisis of 2008 ?
1. Banks have become over-confident in their ability to regulate themselves.
2. Regulators have increased vigilance of financial systems.
3. Economies are careful about foreign investment.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Answer: (B)
14. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the world FAILING given in bold as used in the passage-
(A) increasing
(B) passing
(C) successful
(D) depleting
(E) important
Answer: (C)
15. What does the author want to convey through the phrase ‘Under the old rules, supervisors were simply referees trying to ensure that the game was played fairly’ ?
(A) Regulators did not make mistakes while regulating financial markets.
(B) Regulators were passive and did not intervene in the working of financial organizations in the past.
(C) Regulators were concerned about the health of financial organizations.
(D) Regulators used to cross the lone and interfere in financial markets in the past.
(E) Regulators devised many strict rules without taking into account the needs of financial systems.
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 16-25) Read this sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. That part is the answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as the answer. (ignore the error of the punctuation, if any).
16. In the current year, / small
(A)
lenders, who global banks have /
(B)
long sneered at, are performing /
(C)
more better than the giants.
(D)
No error
(E)
Answer: (D)
17. The Central Bank has cut / its
(A)
policy repo rate by fifty basis
(B)
points/ but only a few banks
(C)
has / lowered their base lending rates
(D)
No error
(E)
Answer: (C)
18. Apart from not speaking up
(A)
enough, / many professional do
(B)
not think about / how asking different types of questions /
(C)
can lead to different outcomes.
(D)
No error
(E)
Answer: (A)
19. With the exception of / music,
(A)
no other industry / has embraced
(B)
has globalization / as keenly as the banking industry.
(C) (D)
No error
(E)
Answer: (D)
20. The bank’s stringent on boarding process /
(A)
for new executives ensures / that they understand
(B) (C)
from other leaders / what it takes to success.
(D)
No error
(E)
Answer: (E)
21. CEO’s have a lot / to worry about, / but what are / their greatest concerns.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
No error
(E)
Answer: (D)
22. When business leaders / fail to decide / and act wisely, /
(A) (B) (C)
their companies suffers. No error
(D) (E)
Answer: (D)
23. We are often blindly to / the many forces / that create and /
(A) (B) (C)
sustain our behaviours. No error
(D) (E)
Answer: (A)
24. Mediclaim policies usually /
(A)
reimburse certain / medical expenses and /
(B) (C)
not the out-of-pocket expenses. No error
(D) (E)
Answer: (E)
25. High performers show a stronger tendency /
(A)
to direct their own learning, / which may be one of
(B) (C)
the ways to predict / who will be a high performer. No error
(D) (E)
Answer: (A)
Directions – (Q. 26-30) In the given sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence five pairs of words have been given. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
26. A new study has ………… the five most common health issues in men and how to ……. them.
(A) said, arrest
(B) stated, shrink
(C) revealed, prevent
(D) exposed, react
(E) laid, restrict
Answer: (C)
27. ………… to the challenge of fighting drug addiction, children have ………. up the task of spreading awareness against drugs.
(A) Taking, set
(B) Accepting, taken
(C) Responding, set
(D) Reply, found
(E) Accept, found
Answer: (C)
28. The night fabric can do ……… for your frame and as a ……….. your confidence.
(A) wonders, consequence
(B) marvels, side
(C) good, process
(D) remarkably, finish
(E) superb, result
Answer: (A)
29. The wheat grains do not meet the ……… standards …….. for procurement of food grains by the government agencies.
(A) total, kept
(B) most, meant
(C) excellence, allowed
(D) optimistic, placed
(E) quality, prescribed
Answer: (E)
30. Students will be ………. on their reading and writing abilities through questions papers ………… by the government.
(A) judged, assorted
(B) kept, set
(C) tested, provided
(D) evaluated, asked
(E) calculated, assigned
Answer: (C)
Directions – Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.
(1) But the conventional wisdom is wrong.
(2) The assumption is that planting trees and avoiding further deforestation provides a convenient carbon capture and storage facility on the land.
(3) Considering all the interactions, large-scale increases in forest cover can actually make global warming worse.
(4) Deforestation accounts for about 20 per cent of global emissions of carbon dioxide.
(5) That is the conventional wisdom.
(6) In reality, the cycling of carbon, energy and water between the land and atmosphere is much more complex.
31. Which of the following should be second sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Answer: (B)
32. Which of the following should be third sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 5
Answer: (E)
33. Which of the following should be fourth sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Answer: (A)
34. Which of the following should be first sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Answer: (D)
35. Which of the following should be last (sixth) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 2
Answer: (D)
36. Whether people change or not is largely determines by ‘why’ they change.
(A) large determinant of
(B) largely determined by
(C) large determination by
(D) large determinant for
(E) No correction required
Answer: (B)
37. With the night mentoring at the top, everyone stands to gain.
(A) for gain
(B) to gaining
(C) of gained
(D) to gained
(E) No correction required
Answer: (E)
38. The best leaders know how to kept moving forward even in ambiguous situations.
(A) know how to keep
(B) knows how to keep
(C) know how for keeping
(D) knowing what to keep
(E) No correction required
Answer: (A)
39. Asking questions helps up better understand what has been say.
(A) has being said
(B) has been said
(C) have been say
(D) has been saying
(E) No correction required
Answer: (B)
40. A high performer is four hundred times much productivity that the average performer.
(A) more produce
(B) productive more
(C) more productive
(D) much products
(E) No correction required
Answer: (C)
Directions – (Q. 41-50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate world in each case.
Visual experiences can ……..(41)……… children, teenagers and even adults learn and absorb more due to its highly stimulating and ……..(42)…. engaging impact. It is for this reason that we are seeing an increase in schools across the globe ……….(43)….. content provider programmes into their class curriculum to ……..(44)….. lessons through, video. Visual excursions and school collaborations are …..(45)…… by advances in high definition video, high fidelity audio and content sharing, allowing students to experience a richer and more stimulating learning experience.
Schools that have previously transported students to excursions in ….(46)…. now face increased transportations costs, higher insurance premiums, attendance costs for the families and strict duty of care policies for students while …….(47)…….. school property. Virtual excursions …..(48)…. students to improve their presentation, research, learning and speaking skills while they engage in a live learning session. Students also now have the ability to meet peers from many cultures, speak to subject-matter ……(49)….. like scientists or authors practice a foreign language with students from another country, and learn about global issues from the …..(50)…. of their own classrooms.
Syndicate Bank Probationary Officers Examination Held on 25-2-2017 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key
Syndicate Bank Probationary Officers Examination
Held on 25-2-20107
Reasoning
Directions- (Q. 1-6) In this question three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decided which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts and answered as :
(A) Conclusion I follows
(B) Conclusion II follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Either I or II follows
(E) Both conclusions I and II follow
1. Statements : Some juices are cans. All cans are drinks. All juices are beverages.
Conclusions :
I. No drink is a juice.
II. All drinks being beverages is a possibility
Answer: (B)
2. Statements : All animals are plants. All plants are insects. Some insects are reptiles.
Conclusion :
I. All animals are insects.
II. All reptiles being animals is a possibility.
Answer: (E)
3. Statements : Some juices are cans. All cans are drinks. All juices are beverages.
Conclusion :
I. At least some beverages are cans.
II. No beverages is a can.
Answer: (A)
4. Statements : No star is a moon. All planets are moon. No planet is an asteroid.
Conclusion :
I. All moon being asteroid is a possibility
II. No star is a planet.
Answer: (B)
5. Statements : No star is a moon. All planets are moon. No planet is an asteroid.
Conclusion :
I. All asteroids being moon is a possibility.
II. No asteroid is a star.
Answer: (A)
6. Statements : All animals are plants. All plants are insects. Some insects are reptiles.
Conclusion :
I. At least some plant are reptiles.
II. All insects are plants
Answer: (C)
Directions – (Q. 7 and 8) Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
If ‘A * B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.
If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.
7. Which of the following relations/s is/are true based upon the relation’s given in the expression ?
S – T + V ÷ Y * Z
1. Z, is the brother of T.
2. S, is the grand-mother of Y.
3. T, is the aunt of Z.
4. V, is the son of T.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 4
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) Only 1
Answer: (D)
8. In the expression ‘P ÷ Q – R + T’ then how is R related to P ?
(A) Grand-daughter
(B) Grand-father
(C) Grand-son
(D) Nephew
(E) Either ‘Nephew’ or ‘Niece’
Answer: (A)
9. In a certain code language, ‘DESTINY’ is written as ‘EFTQHMX’ and ‘PLANETS’ is written as QMBKDSR’. How is ‘ROUTERS’ written in that code ?
(A) QNTWFST
(B) QNTODOR
(C) URXSBOP
(D) SPVQDQR
(E) SPVWHUV
Answer: (D)
10. This consists of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decided which of the given statements weaken/s or strengthen/s the information and decide the appropriate answer.
Information installation of wind energy system should be encouraged to meet the energy requirements in common households rather than solar systems as wind energy system are more economical.
I. More the number of moving parts in an energy system equipment, more is the frequency of replacements needed due to recurrent wear and tear.
II. Manufacture, transportation and installation of solar as well as wind energy systems have been associated with the use of toxic and hazardous products which adversely affect the environment.
(A) Both statement I and statement II weaken the information
(B) Both statement I and statement II are neutral statement
(C) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the information
(D) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information
(E) Statement I weakens the information while statement is neutral statement
Answer: (A)
11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STADIUMS, each of each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
(A) None
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) More than three
(E) One
Answer: (B)
Directions – (Q. 12-16) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : 30 overcome a do 67 18 lie so 85 74 come
I : admit 30 overcome 67 18 lie so 74 come 84
II : commit admit 30 overcome 67 18 le so 84 73.
III : limit commit admit 30 overcome 18 so 84 73 66.
IV : overcommit limit commit admit 18 so 84 73 66 29.
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of the above arrangement is obtained. As per the rules appropriate steps for the given input.
Input : 61 ox herb 33 86 intern sums 28 49 perk.
12. In step III, how many elements are there between ‘85’ and the third element from the left end ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) More than three
(E) Two
Answer: (D)
13. Which of the following is the sixth element from the left end of step II ?
(A) sums
(B) hermit
(C) to
(D) perk
(E) 28
Answer: (E)
14. ‘Summit’ is related to ‘85’ in the same way as ‘omit’ is related to ‘48’ in step V. Following the same pattern to which element is ‘permit’ related to in step IV ?
(A) intermit
(B) omit
(C) 28
(D) 32
(E) 48
Answer: (C)
15. What is the difference between the fourth element from the right end in step IV and fourth element from the left right end in step V?
(A) 27
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 5
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (E)
16. In step V, which of the following elements does not appear between ‘permit’ and fourth element from the right end ?
(A) intermit
(B) hermit
(C) omit
(D) 32
(E) 85
Answer: (D)
17. The positions of how many digits will remain the same if the digits in the number 49735812 are rearranged in the descending order within the number, from left to right ?
(A) One
(B) More than three
(C) None
(D) Two
(E) Three
Answer: (A)
Directions (Q. 18 and 19) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Anil starts from point P and walks 15 m towards north and reaches point Q. He then takes a right turn and walks 10 m and reaches point R. He again takes a right turn and walks 25 m and reaches point S. He takes a left turn and walks for 5 m and reaches point T. He again takes left turn and walks for 30 m to reach point U. From here the takes a left turn and walks 15 m and stops at point V.
18. If Amit stands at point T, then in which direction is he with respect to the starting point ?
(A) South-East
(B) North-East
(C) South-West
(D) South
(E) East
Answer: (A)
19. How far is Amit from the starting point ?
(A) 20 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 25 m
(E) 30 m
Answer: (A)
Directions – (Q. 20-24) Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven people, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V launched products in seven different months (of the same year)namely January, February, May, June September, November and December but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also likes a different state namely Gujarat, Punjab, Odisha, Haryana, Assam, Sikkim and Telangana But not necessarily in the same order.
R launched product in a month which has 31 days. Only three people launched products between R and the one who likes Haryana. T launched product immediately before the one who likes Haryana. T did not launch product in a month which has less than 30 days. P launched product immediately before the one who likes Odisha. P launched product in a month which has 31 days. Only two people launched products between the one who like Odisha and V. The one who likes Gujarat launched product in a month which has more than 30 days but not in January. V neither likes Gujarat nor Sikkim. Q launched product in a month immediately before the one who likes Sikkim. The one who likes Punjab launched product after the one who likes Sikkim. U launched product in a month which has less than 30 days. The one who likes Assam launched product in one of the month before U.
20. How many people launched products between the months in which U and T launched product ?
(A) Two
(B) More than three
(C) Three
(D) One
(E) None
Answer: (D)
21. If W launched product in July, then who amongst the following launched product immediately before W ?
(A) The one who likes Sikkim
(B) The one likes Assam
(C) R
(D) T
(E) U
Answer: (D)
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) VT
(B) RT
(C) PS
(D) PU
(E) QU
Answer: (D)
23. Which of the following represents the people who launched products in May and November respectively ?
(A) P, S
(B) V, R
(C) R, T
(D) T, Q
(E) S, U
Answer: (A)
24. Which of the following states does S like ?
(A) Telangana
(B) Haryana
(C) Odisha
(D) Sikkim
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (D)
Directions (Q. 25-30) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight people- P, Q R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. Each of them speaks a different language namely- Marathi, English, Hindi, Bengai, Malyalam, Tamil, Gujarati and Urdu but not necessarily in the same order.
The one who speaks Malyalam sits second to the right of W. Only two people sit between the one who speaks Malyalam and the one who speaks Gujarati. V sits to the immediate left of the one who speaks Gujarati, Only two people sit between V and U. U is an immediate neighbour of W. The one who speaks Hindi sits second to the right of U. T sits to the immediate right of the one who speaks Hindi. Only three people sit between T and the one who speaks Marathi. The one who speaks Tamil sits second to the left of the one who speaks Marathi. S sits to the immediate left of P . The one who speaks Urdu sits second to the right of P. Only three people sit between the one who speaks Bengali and the one who speaks English. The one who speaks Bengali is not an immediate neighbour of T. R sits second to the left of the one who speaks English.
25. Which of the following will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the given arrangement ?
Bengali V, Hindi P, English (?)
(A) S
(B) W
(C) T
(D) Q
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (B)
26. What is the position of U with respect to the one who speaks Malyalam ?
(A) Immediate right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Second to the left
Answer: (D)
27. Who sits second to the left of the one who speaks Gujarati ?
(A) V
(B) W
(C) T
(D) Q
(E) U
Answer: (D)
28. Four of the following five are a like in a certain way based on their seating arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
(A) Q-Hindi
(B) V-English
(C) R-Bengali
(D) U-Gujarati
(E) P-Tamil
Answer: (B)
29. Which of the following is true regarding Q ?
(A) Q, sits third to the right of U
(B) Only three people sit between Q and P
(C) Q is an immediate neighbour of the one who speaks Tamil
(D) Q, sits second to the left of P
(E) Q speaks Malyalam
Answer: (C)
30. How many people are sitting between the one who speaks Marathi and R when counted from the left of R ?
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) More than three
(D) Three
(E) One
Answer: (B)
Directions-(Q. 31-35) Study the information to answer the given questions-
In a certain code,
‘place satellite in orbit’ is written as ‘jo ki la si’
‘orbit moon in circle’ is written as ‘bp la mi jo’
‘circle earth through satellite’ is written as ‘si dv tu pb’
‘moon navigation gone through’ is written as ‘jsmi dv hm’
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
31. What is the possible code for ‘place through committee’ in the given code language ?
(A) mi ki hm
(B) ki dv jo
(C) to dv tu
(D) ty dv ki
(E) dv mi ki
Answer: (D)
32. What is the code for ‘satellite’ in the given code language ?
(A) la
(B) ki
(C) si
(D) bp
(E) jo
Answer: (C)
33. What is the code for ‘earth’ in the given code language ?
(A) mi
(B) si
(C) dv
(D) tu
(E) bp
Answer: (D)
34. What does the code ‘hm’ stand for in the given code language ?
(A) earth
(B) Either ‘navigation’ or ‘gone’
(C) Either ‘moon’ or ‘through’
(D) through
(E) moon
Answer: (B)
35. Which of the following may sand for ‘jo ka la’ in the given code language ?
(A) orbit the moon
(B) launch in orbit
(C) orbit in circle
(D) satellite in navigation
(E) orbit moon closely
Answer: (B)
Directions-(Q. 36-40) In the these questions one question and two statement is given. You have to answer as:
(A) Statement I is implicit
(B) Only statement II alone is implicit
(C) Both statement I and II are necessary to answer the question
(D) Either statement I alone is sufficient or statement II alone is sufficient
(E) Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
36. Is C the son of S ?
I. S is the father of F. F is the only sister of B. B is married to K. K the only child of L, is the sister-in-law of C.
II. F is the sister of C. F is the daughter of T. T is the mother of B. B is the son S. S has only one daughter.
Answer: (D)
37. How many people are sitting in a circle, where all the people are facing the centre ?
I. B sits third to the right of M. Only one person sits between B and P. P sits third the left of Q. P is an immediate neighbour f V.
II. P sits second to the left of M. V is an immediate neighbour of P. V sits second to the right of S. Only one person sits between S and M.
Answer: (E)
38. The people are sitting in two parallel rows seating five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2-D, E, F, G and H are seated and all of them are facing north. (therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.) Who amongst D, E, F, G and H faces L ?
I. M sits third to the left of K. The one who faces M sits to the immediate right of F. L is an immediate neighbour of J. D sits second to the right of G. G does not sit at an-extreme ends of the line.
II. N sits at an extreme end the line. Only two people sit between N and J. The one who faces J sits to the immediate left of F. E sits second to the left of F. Only one person sits between L and K.
Answer: (C)
39. Among six people, A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different number of experience viz. 4, 9, 13, 55, 22, and 27 years (but not necessarily in the same order), who is the person with second lowest experience ?
I. Only two people are more experience than B. F is less experienced than B but more than A. Both E and C are more experienced than D. D’s experience is an even number.
II. C is more experienced than F but less than E. Both A and D are less experienced than F. B is more experienced than F. B is more experienced than D. B’s experienced is in odd number.
Answer: (A)
40. Point R is in which direction with respect to Point T ?
I. Point M is 20 m to the south of Point T. Point T is 15 m to the east of point L. Point L is 40 m to the north of Point X. Point X is exactly between points R and C such that points R, X and X form a straight line of 30 m.
II. Point R is 30 m to the North of point J. Point J is 15 m to the west of point S. Point S is 30 m to the south of point U. Point U is 10 m to the west of point M. Point T is to the north of point M.
Answer: (B)
41. The question consists of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to deduce which of given statement/s could be reasons for the given information and select the appropriate answer.
Information- Despite several pleas from t he women employees, with young children, of company XYZ company has no started a babysitting facility within the premises of the company giving rise to a sense of dissatisfaction regarding the company amongst some employees.
I. In order to start babysitting facility within the premises a company needs minimum 300 women employees, while the number of women employees of company XYZ is only 30% of the total employee population.
II. The number of employees having children young enough to avail the babysitting facility is less than the required number as per the policies of the company.
(A) Neither I nor II can be reasons for the given information
(B) Only II can be a reason for the given information
(C) Both I and II can be reasons for the given information
(D) Only I can be a reason for the given information
(E) Either I or II can be a reason for the given information
Answer: (E)
Directions-(Q. 42 and 43) Read the given information carefully and answer the question which follows :
42. Statement : The use of polybags leads to hazards and environmental pollution and should be replaced by cloth to jute bags’-A report.
Which of the following does not strengthen the given report ?
(A) Certain environmental programs have recommended a ban on all plastic bags globally
(B) State government has imposed a plastic bag tax to discourage people from using plastic bags
(C) Plastic bags are end products made from the remains of petroleum and natural gas and create greenhouse gases
(D) The polybags are a convenient way to carry goods that can travel long distances even in heavy storms and rains
(E) The cost of plastic bag cleanup from the environment is about Rs. 10,000 per bag per year
Answer: (D)
43. Statement : The government has recently banned alcohol in the states. Which of the following weakens the step taken by the government ?
(A) alcohol abuse cause many consumers to resort to domestic violence
(B) There are many people who are immature to understand the consequences of alcohol intake
(C) People commit suicide and murder under the influence of alcohol
(D) Alcohol production and distribution provides jobs to several people
(E) A sizeable number of road accidents are caused by driving under the influence of alcohol
Answer: (D)
44. Solar energy is widely and readily available free of cost. The government should promote the use of this energy by offering subsidies.
Which of the following weakens the given statements ?
(A) Initial installation is required in installation of solar bands and solar cells that are used for power generation
(B) Solar energy is an inexhaustible fuel source and often free from noise
(C) A large number of solar panel are needed to generate even a small amount of energy making it unfeasible alternative for conventional sources of energy
(D) Energy generation through solar panels leads to less pollution as compared to conventional sources of energy
(E) Villages lack in power supply to power produced through solar energy can be made available to villages for consumption at an affordable rate
Answer: (C)
45. If ‘A’ coded as ‘1’, ‘B’ coded as ‘3’ ‘C’ coded as ‘5’ and so on then what will be the sum of numerical value of the word ‘FAZED’.
