United India Insurance Company Administrative Officer (AO) Online Examination Held on June 12, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

United India Insurance Company Administrative Officer (AO) Online Examination Held on June 12, 2016
United India Insurance Company Administrative Officer (AO) Online Examination Held on June 12, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

United India Insurance Company Administrative Officer (AO) Online Examination Held on June 12, 2016

Part-I English Language

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Almost everywhere we turn, trust is on the decline. Trust in our culture at large, in our institutions and in our companies significantly lower than a generation ago. Research shows that only 49% of employees trust senior  management, and only 28% believe CEOs are a credible source of information. Consider the loss of trust and confidence in the financial markets today. Indeed, ‘trust makes the world go ‘round’ and right now we’re experiencing a crisis of trust.

This crisis compels us to ask three questions. First, is there a measurable cost to low trust? Second, is there a tangible benefit to high trust? Third,, how can the best leaders build trust in and within their organizations to reap the benefits of high trust?

Most people don’t know how to think about the organizational and societal consequences of low trust because they don’t know, how to quantify or measure the costs of such as so called ‘soft’ factor as trust. For many, trust is intangible, ethereal, and unquantifiable. If it remains that way, then people don’t know, how to get their arms around it or how to improve it. But the fact is, the costs of low trust are very real, they are quantifiable, and they are staggering.

In 2004, one estimate put the cost of complying with federal rules and regulations alone in the United States put-in place essentially due to lack of trust at $ 1.1 trillion, which is more than 10% of the gross domestic  product. A recent study conducted by the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners estimated that the average American company lost 6% of its annual revenue to some sort of fraudulent activity. Research shows similar effects for the other disguised low trust taxes as well.

Think about  it this way: When trust is low, in a company or in a relationship, it places a hidden ‘tax’ on every transaction: every communication, every interaction, every strategy, every decision is taxed, bringing speed down and sending costs up. My experience is that significant distrust doubles the cost of doing business and triples the time it takes to get things done.

By contrast individuals and organizations that have earned and operate with high trust experience, the opposite of a tax, a ‘dividend’ that is alike a performance multiplier, enabling them to succeed in their communications, interactions, and decisions, and to move with incredible speed. A recent study showed that high trust companies outperform low trust companies by nearly 300%!

I contend that the ability to establish, grow, extend, and (where needed) restore trust among stakeholders is the critical competency of leadership needed today. It is needed more than any other competency.

Engendering trust is, in fact, a competency that can be learned, applied, and understood. It is something that you can get good at, something you can measure and improve, something for which you can ‘move the needle.’ You cannot be an effective leader without trust. As Warren Bennis put it, “Leadership without mutual trust is a contradiction in terms.”

1. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(a)  The Downfall of Societal Trust

(b)  What Leaders Want

(c)  Trust-The Art of Portraying What is not True

(d)  Building Trust-The Need of the Hour

(e)  Characteristics of a Good Leader

Answer: (d)

2. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning of the word ‘Disguised’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Concealed

(b)  Altered

(c)  Rear

(d)  Evident

(e)  Personal

Answer: (d)

3. According to the author, why do organizations given enough thought to developing trust?

(a)  They find trust to be an unquantifiable trait and cannot fathom the path to improve it.

(b)  They believe that it is a frivolous trait and need not be focused on.

(c)  They feel that trust is the responsibility of a single individual and an organization cannot possess collective trust.

(d)  They find very little time from their economic activities to focus on soft skills development.

(e)  They behave that they already possess a sufficient amount of it and don’t think that as a scope for improvements

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning of the word ‘Engendering’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Emasculating

(b)  Creating

(c)  Itemising

(d)  Threatening

(e)  Menace

Answer: (b)

5. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning of the word ‘Staggering’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Shocking

(b)  Shaking

(c)  Wobbly

(d)  Unstable

(e)  Shivering

Answer: (a)

6. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning of the word ‘Significantly’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Potentially

(b)  Unsatisfactorily

(c)  Unusually

(d)  Marginally

(e)  Vastly

Answer: (d)

7. According to the author, which of the following can be said about trust?

A. It is a competency which is on the decline.

B. It is competency that can be acquired.

C. Its economic consequences are measurable.

(a)  Only C

(b)  Only A

(c)  B and C

(d)  A and B

(e)  All of these

Answer: (e)

8. Which of the following is/are true according to the passage?

A. The economic performance of companies which have a high perceived trust value tends to be much better than those with a low perceived trust value.

B. The implementation of rules and regulations to ensure trustworthy behaviour pose a high cost to a country.

C. More than half of a company’s economic revenue is lost of fraudulent activity.

(a)  A and C

(b)  B and C

(c)  A and B

(d)  All of these

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

9. What is the author trying to convey through Warren Bennis’ statement?

(a)  Leadership and trust are contradicting terms.

(b)  A leader without trust is no leader.

(c)  A trustworthy person cannot be a leader.

(d)  A trustworthy person automatically becomes a leader.

(e)  All of the above

Answer: (b)

10. According to the passage, which of the following is/are not true?

A. The companies which have a high perceived trust value seem to have a smoother ride when it comes to getting things done.

B. Companies that have high perceived trust value will entail significantly lower costs as compared to other companies.

C. The American government levies more taxes on companies with lower trust.

(a)  All of these

(b)  B and C

(c)  Only C

(d)  Only B

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E, F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A. This success has been achieved despite the fact that agriculture has been the most volatile sector of the country’s economy over the past four decades.

B. Such high levels of volatility are caused by the country’s climate, which is punctuated by severe and prolonged periods of drought across the country.

C. Climate change is expected to exacerbate these drought patterns with reduced average rainfall and increased variability.

D. Agriculture plays a pivotal role in the Australian economy generating around $40 billion in export earnings each year.

E. Thus, the agriculture industry demands a sophisticated risk management framework to ensure the sustainability of productive farm businesses.

F. In addition to climatic changes, the government has also failed to deliver a consistent and transparent framework for providing assistance.

11. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  C

(c)  B

(d)  D

(e)  E

Answer: (d)

12. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  C

(b)  F

(c)  A

(d)  D

(e)  E

Answer: (c)

13. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  A

(e)  F

Answer: (c)

14. Which of the following is the SIXTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  E

(b)  B

(c)  A

(d)  D

(e)  F

Answer: (a)

15. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  D

(c)  B

(d)  F

(e)  C

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Which of the following phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required then choose (e).

16. Long-term exposure to air pollution may increased the risk of developing heart disease.

(a)  must increased the risk

(b)  might risk the increase

(c)  may increase the risk

(d)  may increasing risk

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

17. Investigators are still trying for piece together how thieves pulled off a spectacular hack that siphoned $81 m out of the country’s Central Bank.

(a)  still trying to

(b)  are still tried to

(c)  are still trying to

(d)  are tried for

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

18. The strange, slithery creatures inside the cave were one considered living proof that dragons existed.

(a)  were once considered

(b)  was once considered

(c)  ones considered

(d)  were consider as

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

19. ‘Has a person, was has spend fifteen years of life behind bars without parole, being executed before in the history of this country?’ asked the agitated journalist.

(a)  been execution

(b)  becoming executing

(c)  been execute

(d)  been executed

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (d)

20. Barely an eyebrow is raised these days when credit-card details of customers are stolen en masse as such crimes are committed daily.

(a)  committing daily

(b)  is commit everyday

(c)  are committing everyday

(d)  is commit daily

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part. The letter of the that part is your answer. If there is no error then answer is (e). (Ignore the errors of punctuation if any.)

21. According to the data provided by the organization,/ since its exception, the helpline has/received over fifty million calls and/ has assisted over five million distressed children.

(a)  According to the data provided by the organization

(b)  since its exception, the helpline has

(c)  received over fifty million calls and

(d)  has assisted over five million’ distressed children

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

22. An annuity is a retirement product/ that gives one a person from life/ and in India this product/ is sold by life insurance companies.

(a)  An annuity is retirement product

(b)  that gives one a person from life

(c)  and in India this product

(d)  is sold by life insurance companies.

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

23. Estimates t hat say that India only/ has to create one million jobs per month/ fail to be recognized the magnitude and complexity/ of the employment and skill defects in India.

(a)  Estimates that say that India only

(b)  has to create one million jobs per month

(c)  fail to be recognized the magnitude and complexity

(d)  of the employment and skill defects in India

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

24. After conducting an asset quality review,/RBI provided a list of companies to the lenders/ and directed it to treat their loans/ to these companies as non-performing assets.

(a)  After conducting an asset quality review

(b)  RBI provided a list of companies to the lenders

(c)  and directed it to treat their loans

(d)  to these companies as non-performing assets

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

25. Despite unseasonal rainfall, the agriculture sector is expected/ to pick up in the fourth quarter/ on the back of better rate production of wheat, oilseeds/ and pulses which will keep up GDP growth high.

(a)  Despite unseasonal rainfall, the agricultural sector is expected

(b)  to pick up in the fourth quarter

(c)  on the back of better rate production of wheat, oilseeds

(d)  and pulses which will keep up GDP growth high

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

26. Connectivity through mobile phones has/successfully strengthen access/ to banking and other financial services/ across the country.

(a)  Connectivity through mobile phones has

(b)  successfully strengthen access

(c)  to banking and other financial services

(d)  across the country

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

27. The tax reform is very significant/ as it entail all states voluntarily/ giving up their right to set and impose sales tax/ and adopting instead a uniform system of taxation.

(a)  The tax reform is very significant/

(b)  as it entail all states voluntarily

(c)  giving up their right to set and impose sales tax

(d)  and adopting instead a uniform system of taxation.

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

28. There are elaborate plans in place / in each of the five states that the river flows through / but the work of cleaning up the river / has not been going at the desired paces.

(a)  There are elaborate plans in place

(b)  in each of the five states that the river flows through

(c)  but the work of cleaning up the river

(d)  has not been going at the desired paces.

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

29. The company expects to increases sales / by 90% this financial year by increasing / the selection of products it offers / and reducing the delivery time.

(a)  The company expects to increases sales

(b)  by 90% this financial year by increasing

(c)  the selection of products it offers

(d)  and reducing the delivery time

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

30. As climate change exacerbates / the effects of storms, flooding and erosion, / the lives and livelihoods of hundreds / of millions of people will be risky.

(a)  As climate change exacerbates

(b)  the effects of storms, flooding and erosion

(c)  the lives and livelihoods of hundreds

(d)  of millions of people will be risky

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered in bold.

These numbers are presented below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

The Bank’s decision to start charging few customers, each time they withdraw money from one of its automated teller machines (31) a trend that is sweeping the banking industry, (32) consumers facing rising fees for services that once were (33).

Banks used to be so (34) to attract customer business that they gave services away. Checking accounts was free safe-deposit lockers’ cost nothing and neither did money orders or cheques.

And the (35) of charging customers to use an automated teller machine was out of question. After all, customers were (36) to use ATMs because the machines would (37) tellers and allow banks to (38) costs. Those days have (39), however, and bank customers now face a fee for almost any type of transaction. And fees are going  up, doubling and tripling the cost of banking for consumers who cannot afford to (40) the minimum deposit levels required to avoid or reduce the fees.

31.

(a)  reflects

(b)  show

(c)  leads

(d)  returns

(e)  catches

Answer: (a)

32.

(a)  parting

(b)  allowing

(c)  limiting

(d)  leaving

(e)  remaining

Answer: (d)

33.

(a)  compliment

(b)  freebie

(c)  free

(d)  nothing

(e)  unpaid

Answer: (c)

34.

(a)  satisfied

(b)  concerned

(c)  apathetic

(d)  adoring

(e)  eager

Answer: (e)

35.

(a)  ideas

(b)  impression

(c)  confidence

(d)  techniques

(e)  concept

Answer: (e)

36.

(a)  optimist

(b)  disheartened

(c)  drawn

(d)  promoted

(e)  encouraged

Answer: (e)

37.

(a)  follow

(b)  change

(c)  substitutes

(d)  replace

(e)  remain

Answer: (d)

38.

(a)  mark

(b)  adhere

(c)  dissect

(d)  cut

(e)  chopped

Answer: (d)

39.

(a)  abandoned

(b)  escaped

(c)  passed

(d)  advanced

(e)  perished

Answer: (c)

40.

(a)  contain

(b)  maintain

(c)  hurts

(d)  permit

(e)  conserve

Answer: (b)

Part II Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-44) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Seven different cars (Kwid, Alto, i10, Duster, Corolla, Polo and XUV) were sold on different days of the same week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.

Duster was sold on one of the days before Thursday. Only four cars were sold between Duster and XUV. Only one car was sold between XUV and Kwid. Polo was sold on one of the days after Kwid but not on Friday. Only four cars were sold between Polo and Alto. Corolla was sold neither on Wednesday nor on Thursday.

41. Which of the following cars were sold before i10?

(a)  Both Duster and Alto

(b)  Only Alto

(c)  Both Corolla and Polo

(d)  Both XUV and Kwid

(e)  Only Kwid

Answer: (a)

42. On which of the following days was Kwid sold?

(a)  Friday

(b)  Thursday

(c)  Monday

(d)  Saturday

(e)  Wednesday

Answer: (b)

43. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a)  Corolla-Wednesday

(b)  Duster-Wednesday

(c)  Polo-Friday

(d)  Kwid-Saturday

(e)  Alto-Tuesday

Answer: (e)

44. How many cars were sold between i10 and Corolla?

(a)  None

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  More than three

(e)  One

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) Read the following information and answer the given questions.

Eight people J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is numbered 2and so on until the topmost floor is numbered 8.

I. K lives on floor numbered three.

II. Only one person lives between K and Q.

III. P lives immediately above J. P lives on an odd numbered floor

IV. Only two people live between N and Q. N lives above Q.

V. O lives immediately above L.

45. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(a)  None of the given statements is true.

(b)  Only two people live between P and M.

(c)  L lives on an even numbered floor.

(d)  J lives immediately above O.

(e)  Only one person lives  between K and O.

Answer: (b)

46. Who lives on the floor immediately below M?

(a)  O

(b)  P

(c)  N

(d)  K

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

47. How many people live between the floors on which P and K live?

(a)  Two

(b)  One

(c)  None

(d)  Three

(e)  More than three

Answer: (d)

48. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5?

(a)  N

(b)  Q

(c)  M

(d)  P

(e)  L

Answer: (b)

49. Who amongst the following lives between J and M?

(a)  Q

(b)  No one

(c)  P

(d)  K

(e)  N

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-54) Each of the following questions consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option from given options.

Give answer

a. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

c. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

d. if the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

e. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

50. Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order. What is the position of D with respect to G?

I. F stands fifth to the right of B. Only one person stands between F and G. D is neither an immediate neighbour of B nor F.

II. C stands at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people stand between C and G. D stands second to the right of B.

Answer: (c)

51. Among five friends, S,, T, U, V and W, who owns the maximum number of houses? (Each owning a different number of houses)

I. T owns more houses than V. V owns more houses than S but less than W. U does not own the least number of houses.

II. Only one person owns more number of houses than W. S and V own less number of houses than U. T owns more houses than S.

Answer: (d)

52. A certain number of boxes have been stacked one above the other. How many boxes are there in the stack?

I. Only three boxes are kept between U and B. M is kept immediately below B but not at the bottom of the stack. Only five boxes are kept between M and D.

II. R is kept exactly in the middle of the stack. Only two boxes are kept between R and U. S is kept immediately above U.

Answer: (e)

53. A certain number of boxes have been stacked one above the other. How many boxes are there in the stack?

I. G is kept fifth from the bottom of the stack. Only two boxes are kept between G and Y. Only three boxes are kept above Y.

II. F is kept third from the top of the stack. Y is kept immediately below F. Only two boxes are kept between Y and B.

Answer: (e)

54. Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are standing in a straight line facing north, not necessarily in the same order. What is the position of R with respect to T?

I. S stands second to the right of R. P stands third to the left of R. Only one person stands between P and T.

II. Q stands second from the left end of the line. T is an immediate neighbour of Q. R stand to the immediate left of U.

Answer: (a)

55. Read the following information and answer the given question :

The government of country X is  being criticized for introducing an additional cess in the service tax for the welfare of micro and small industries.

Which of the following statements best explains the stand of the government in introducing the additional cess?

(a)  The percentage of cess introduced by government of country X is higher than similar cases in the neighbouring countries.

(b)  Most of the micro and small industries fall in country X only because of lack of funds.

(c)  Additional cess has been introduced by government of country X for the third time in a year.

(d)  Two new schemes worth Rs 2500 crore fully funded by World Bank have been implemented this year by the government of country X for micro and small industries.

(e)  A recent survey revealed that few cess earlier levied by the government of country X did not reach the beneficiaries.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-57) Read the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Hitesh starts walking towards East from Point G. He walks for 15 m and then takes a left turn. He then walks for 9 m and again takes a left turn. He reaches Point F after walking for 7 m. He takes a right turn, walks for 6 m and reaches Point K. He finally stops at Point S after walking for 8 m to the left of Point K.

56. If, Ankur walks 5 m North from Point G, takes a right turn and stops after walking for 18 m. Then, in which direction is Point K, with respect to Ankur’s final position?

(a)  South

(b)  South-East

(c)  North

(d)  North-West

(e)  East

Answer: (d)

57. How far is Point S from Point G?

(a)  12 m

(b)  9 m

(c)  7 m

(d)  18 m

(e)  15 m

Answer: (e)

58. Study the given information carefully to answer the question :

Kulkarni worked with GRS telecom for 6 years, after which he decided to start his own venture and hence resigned in March, 2012. At present, his venture is successfully running since the past 4 years. However, recently, Kulkarni received a notice from court mentioning that GRS Telecom has filed a case against him for violating their company rules.

Which of the following can be a reason behind a case being filed by GRS Telecom against Kulkarni after so many years?

(a)  With the consent of Kulkarni, GRS telecom had deducted Rs 55000 per year from his salary as Employee Emergency Fund which Kulkarni had failed to claim.

(b)  Kulkarin’s present venture also is related to the telecom industry and his success is becoming a threat to GRS Telecom.

(c)  During the service period in GRS Telecom, Kulkarni was warned at least 5 times to stop misbehaving with the clerical staff, but they all went ignored by him.

(d)  Kulkarni still attempt to lure out internal confidential informations of GRS Telecom from its present employees despite being warned twice about the same

(e)  When Kulkarni resigned from GRS Telecom, he served a notice period of 83 days as against the company rule of 3 months, but the paid the money for the remaining days.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-63) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and give answer.

a. if only conclusion I is true       b. if only conclusion II is true

c. if both conclusions are true    d. if no one conclusion is true

e. if either conclusion I or II is true

59. Statements C ≤ H ≤ I > L; D ≥ I; L ≥ N

Conclusions I. D > L        II. N < I

Answer: (c)

60. Statements P ≥ A = R ≤ E < N; R ≥ T

Conclusions I. A ≥ N       II. T ≤ P

Answer: (b)

61. Statements M ≥ U = S > T; R < S ≥ D

Conclusions I. M ≥ D       II. T > R

Answer: (a)

62. Statements C ≤ H ≤ I > L; D ≥ I; L ≥ N

Conclusions I. D > C       II. C = D

Answer: (e)

63. Statements H ≤ E < R ≥ O; R ≤ S ≤ M

Conclusions I. M ≥ O       II. H < S

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 64-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

B is married to S. S is the mother of J. J is the father of P. P is the only daughter of T.

64. If P is the sister of K, then how is K related to S?

(a)  Grandmother

(b)  Daughter

(c)  Grandson

(d)  Granddaughter

(e)  Daghter-in-law

Answer: (c)

65. How is T related to B?

(a)  Father-in-law

(b)  Niece

(c)  Daughter

(d)  Son-in-law

(e)  Daughter-in-law

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) In each of the following questions, three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

a. if only conclusion I follows

b. if only conclusion II follows

c. if either conclusion I or II follows

d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows

e. if both conclusions I and II follow

66. Statements No cookie is a biscuit.

All biscuits are juices.

Some juices are fruits.

Conclusions I. All juices can never be cookies.

II. Some fruits are definitely not cookies.

Answer: (a)

67. Statements No cookie is a biscuit.

All biscuits are juices.

Some juices are fruits.

Conclusions I. At least some biscuits are fruits.

II. All cookies being fruits is a possibility.

Answer: (d)

68. Statements Some lines are strokes.

All strokes are paints.

Some paints are colours.

Conclusions I. Some paints are definitely not lines.

II. All colours being strokes is a possibility.

Answer: (a)

69. Statements All days are weeks.

Some weeks are months.

All months are years.

Conclusions I. At least some days are years.

II. No day is a year.

Answer: (d)

70. Statements Some lines are strokes.

All strokes are paints.

Some paints are colours.

Conclusions I. Some strokes are definitely not colours.

II. All lines can never be colours.

Answer: (e)

71. This questions consists of a decision and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weakens or strengthens the decision and choose the appropriate answer.

Decision The management department of ASP College has decided that the practice sessions for the upcoming annual fest should not run after 7 pm.

Statement I The props, halo lights, and other materials necessary for the  practice have been rented from 10 am-9 pm till the last day of the test.

Statement II Recently, cases of accidents on the highway connecting ASP College and the main city have increased during the peak traffic hours.

Given answer

(a)  if both statement I and statement II weaken the decision

(b)  if both statement I and statement II are neutral statements

(c)  if statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information

(d)  if statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the information

(e)  if both statement I and statement II strengthen the decision

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 72-74) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘start coaching in summer’ is written as ‘mo ph rd jt’

‘summer classes for students’ is written as ‘es nag k mo’

‘coaching for badminton students’ is written as ‘na jt es bt’

72. In the given code language, what does the code ‘na’ stand for?

(a)  Summer

(b)  Badminton

(c)  Classes

(d)  Either ‘summer’ or ‘mid’

(e)  for

Answer: (e)

73. What is the code for ‘summer’ in the given code language?

(a)  na

(b)  ph

(c)  gk

(d)  jt

(e)  mo

Answer: (e)

74. What will be the code for ‘badminton classes’ in the given code language?

(a)  jt ph

(b)  rd bt

(c)  es rd

(d)  bt gk

(e)  gkes

Answer: (d)

75. What in the code for ‘start’ in given code language?

(a)  ph

(b)  rd

(c)  Either ph or rd

(d)  jt

(e)  gk

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G were appointed to a company on seven different days of the same week starting from Monday to Sunday (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also plays a different game namely- Cricket, Hockey, Football, Squash, Volleyball, Tennis and Kho-Kho, but not necessarily in the same order.

Only two people were appointed after the one who plays Hockey. E was appointed on one of the days after the one who plays Hockey. Only three people were appointed between E and G. Only one person was appointed between G and the one who plays Volleyball. A was appointed immediately after the one who plays Volleyball. More than three people were appointed after the one who plays Kho-kho. C was appointed immediately after F, but not on Friday. Only two people were appointed between F and the one who plays Cricket. B was appointed immediately after the one who plays Cricket. More three people were appointed between D and the one who plays Tennis. F does not play Football.

76. Who amongst the following was appointed on Wednesday?

(a)  The one who plays Kho-kho

(b)  A

(c)  B

(d)  The one who plays Cricket

(e)  F

Answer: (e)

77. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(a)  Only one person was appointed between F and the one who plays Squash.

(b)  Only three people were appointed before C.

(c)  A plays Tennis.

(d)  B was appointed on Saturday.

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

78. The person who plays Tennis was appointed on which of the following days?

(a)  Thursday

(b)  Tuesday

(c)  Sunday

(d)  Monday

(e)  Saturday

Answer: (c)

79. Which of the following combinations will be definitely true as per the given arrangement?

(a)  C-Squash

(b)  Thursday-D

(c)  Saturday-Cricket

(d)  Monday-Volleyball

(e)  F-Kho-kho

Answer: (c)

80. How many people were appointed before G?

(a)  Two

(b)  One

(c)  Three

(d)  Four

(e)  None, as G was appointed on Monday

Answer: (b)

Part III General Awareness (Special Reference to Financial Sector)

81. Which of the following airports has become world’s first solar-run airport?

(a)  Jay Prakash International Airport

(b)  Chandigarh International Airport

(c)  Indira Gandhi International Airport

(d)  Cochin International Airport

(e)  Sardar Vallabhbai Patel International Airport

Answer: (d)

82.  Provident Fund is a long term saving instrument with a maturity period of ……….. years.

(a)  one

(b)  twenty

(c)  five

(d)  fifteen

(e)  ten

Answer: (d)

83. Who is the current President of the World Bank?

(a)  Ban Ki-moon

(b)  Dr. Jim Yong Kim

(c)  Rober Zoellick

(d)  Paul Wolfowitz

(e)  Sir James Wolfonsonhn

Answer: (b)

84. Which country will host the 13th South Asian Games to be held in 2018?

(a)  India

(b)  Bhutan

(c)  Nepal

(d)  Sri Lanka

(e)  Bangaldesh

Answer: (c)

85. In terms of BASEL is what does LFR refer to?

(a)  Logistic Channel Report

(b)  Least Cost Routing

(c)  Looking For Raid

(d)  Loan to Funding Ratio

(e)  Loan for Routing

Answer: (d)

86. Who is the winner of 2016 Italian Open title of Tennis in the women’s singles category?

(a)  Elina Vesnina

(b)  Madison Keys

(c)  Maria Sharapova

(d)  Ekaterina Makarova

(e)  Serena Williams

Answer: (e)

87. State Bank of India has recently (March, 2016) tied-up with ………… to provide instant vehicle finance for driver partners

(a)  Meru

(b)  Ola

(c)  Hola

(d)  Uber

(e)  Taxi For Sure

Answer: (d)

88. Reserve Bank of India has recently (January, 2016) imposed a penalty of Rs 1 crore in instructions including reporting of data of ORILC. Name the bank.

(a)  State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur

(b)  State Bank of Hyderabad

(c)  State Bank of Travancore

(d)  State Bank of Patiala

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

89. The Kaziranga National Park is situated in which of the following states?

(a)  Arunachal Pradesh

(b)  Andhra Pradesh

(c)  Assam

(d)  Gujarat

(e)  Uttarakhand

Answer: (c)

90. The National Science Day is celebrated on which date in India?

(a)  February 18

(b)  March 28

(c)  February 28

(d)  April 28

(e)  January 28

Answer: (c)

91. ………… was one of the entities to have been given in-principal approval for opening a payments bank. But it has decided not to pursue it.

(a)  Reliance Industries Limited

(b)  Fino Pay Tech Limited

(c)  Vodafone m-Pesa Limited

(d)  National Securities Depository

(e)  Cholamandalam Distribution Services

Answer: (e)

92. Who has won the best actress at the 63rd National Film Awards 2016?

(a)  Kangana Ranaut

(b)  Priyanka Chopra

(c)  Aishwarya Rai

(d)  Katrina Kaif

(e)  Kareena Kapoor

Answer: (a)

93. ASBA is a process developed by the India’s stock market regulator SEBI for applying to IPO. ASBA stands for

(a)  Applicant Supported by Blocked Amount

(b)  Application Supported by Blocked Amount

(c)  Application Supported by Bank Account

(d)  Applicant Supported by Bank Account

(e)  Application Supported by Banking Account

Answer: (a)

94. Who among the following won the 2015 Pulitzer Prize (announced in April, 2016) in the Journalism (public service)?

(a)  The Washington Post

(b)  The Tampa Bay Times

(c)  The New York Times

(d)  Inside Climate News

(e)  The Associated Press

Answer: (e)

95. Reserve Bank of India extended the deadline for exchanging pre ………. currency notes of various denominations including Rs 500 and Rs 1000 by another six months to June 30, 2016.

(a)  2013

(b)  2005

(c)  2008

(d)  2004

(e)  2006

Answer: (b)

96. IRDAI is an autonomous apex statutory body, which regulates and develops the insurance industry in India. IRDAI is headquartered at

(a)  Bengaluru (Karnataka)

(b)  Mumbai (Maharashtra)

(c)  New Delhi (Delhi)

(d)  Hyderabad (Telangana)

(e)  Jaipur (Rajasthan)

Answer: (d)

97. Which of the following is the winner of the recently held Italian Open?

(a)  Novak Djokovic

(b)  Rafael Nadal

(c)  Roger Federer

(d)  Andy Murray

(e)  Stanislas Wawrinka

Answer: (d)

98. International Anti-Corruption Day has been observed annually, on ……….., since the passage of the United Nations Convention against Corruption on October 31, 2003.

(a)  October 9

(b)  December 15

(c)  January 15

(d)  January 9

(e)  December 9

Answer: (e)

99. Recently, which of the following has been selected for the second time as the Chairman of the ICC Cricket Committee?

(a)  Ravi Shashtri

(b)  Rahul Dravid

(c)  Anil Kumble

(d)  Saurav Ganguly

(e)  Mahela Jayawardene

Answer: (c)

100. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) recently predicted a report regarding the growth rate of India. It is

(a)  6.7%

(b)  7.5%

(c)  8.2%

(d)  7.2%

(e)  9.1%

Answer: (b)

101. What is the full form of SAO associated with Fasal Bima Yojana?

(a)  Seasonal Agricultural Operational

(b)  Seasonal Agricultural Operative

(c)  Seasonal Agricultural Operational

(d)  Seasonal Agenda Operative

(e)  Seasonal Agro Operative

Answer: (a)

102. What is the minimum time frame for short-term loans?

(a)  30-60 days

(b)  50-80 days

(c)  60-120 days

(d)  30-90 days

(e)  90-150 days

Answer: (d)

103. Ramon Magasaysay Award is named after which country’s President?

(a)  Mauritius

(b)  Iran

(c)  Sri Lanka

(d)  Philippines

(e)  Oman

Answer: (d)

104. Which of the following basketball player is recently selected in NBA?

(a)  Satnam Singh Bhamara

(b)  Sim Bhullar

(c)  Vinay Kaushik

(d)  Bhriguvanshi

(e)  Vikas Kumar

Answer: (a)

105. Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in August, 2015 launched INDRADHANUSH to revamp the functioning of

(a)  insurance companies

(b)  private companies

(c)  public sector banks

(d)  private sector banks

(e)  stock market

Answer: (c)

106. Who among the following is an Executive Director of Reserve Bank of India?

(a)  SS Mundra

(b)  BP Kanungo

(c)  Deepak Singhal

(d)  Raghuram Rajan

(e)  DK Awasthi

Answer: (c)

107. Who is the current Prime Minister of Sri Lanka?

(a)  Ranil Wickremesinghe

(b)  DM Jayaratne

(c)  Ratnasiri Wickremanayake

(d)  Mahindra Rajapaksa

(e)  Dingiri Banda Wijetunga

Answer: (a)

108. The second edition of Gyan Sangam was recently (March,, 2016) held in

(a)  Pune

(b)  Kolkata

(c)  Chandigarh

(d)  Guragaon (Gurugram)

(e)  Delhi

Answer: (d)

109. The 42nd G-7 Summit was recently (May, 2016) held in which of the following cities?

(a)  Shima (Japan)

(b)  Bavaria (Germany)

(c)  Sochi (Russia)

(d)  New Delhi (India)

(e)  Brussels (Belgium)

Answer: (a)

110. Where is the headquarters of BCBS located?

(a)  Basel (Switzerland)

(b)  Paris (France)

(c)  Tokyo (Japan)

(d)  New York (USA)

(e)  New Delhi (India)

Answer: (a)

111. Which of the following is appointed as the present Attorney General of India?

(a)  Soli Sorabjee

(b)  Milon K. Banerjee

(c)  Goolam Essaji Vahanvati

(d)  Mukul Rohatgi

(e)  AK Antony

Answer: (d)

112. Which among the following is India’s first small financial bank?

(a)  Disha MicroFn Private Limited

(b)  Au Financiers

(c)  Capital Local Area Bank

(d)  Janalakshmi Financial Services Private Limited

(e)  Ujjvan Financial Services Private Limited

Answer: (c)

113. Which of the following recently (May, 2016) broke the Sachin Tendulkar’s record of youngest to reach 10000 runs?

(a)  Ian Bell

(b)  Alistair Cook

(c)  Adam Voges

(d)  Kumar Sangakkara

(e)  Michael Clarke

Answer: (b)

114. State Bank of India recently launched a dedicated branch for start-ups called SBI InCube in the city of

(a)  Jaipur

(b)  Delhi

(c)  Bengaluru

(d)  Mumbai

(e)  Pune

Answer: (c)

115. Which is the first State in the country to give social welfare benefits to transgender community?

(a)  Kerala

(b)  Odisha

(c)  Tamil Nadu

(d)  Maharashtra

(e)  Karnataka

Answer: (b)

116. MCLR is a new methodology of setting lending rate commercial banks. MCLR stands for

(a)  Marginal Cost of Funds Based Lending Rate

(b)  Minimum Cost of Funds Based Lending Rate

(c)  Marginal Cost of Funds Based Legal Rate

(d)  Minimum Cost of Funds Based Legal Rate

(e)  Minimal Cost of Funds being Legislative Route

Answer: (a)

117. The Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) launched by the government of India, aims at

(a)  holistic development of heritage cities

(b)  financial Inclusion

(c)  increasing the number of people getting insurance

(d)  revival of power distribution companies

(e)  reconstruction of highways and roads

Answer: (d)

118. The Asia’s largest underground railway station is located in

(a)  India

(b)  China

(c)  Japan

(d)  Iran

(e)  UAE

Answer: (b)

119. In context of banking, what does ‘BBB’ stands for?

(a)  Bank Board Bureau

(b)  Banking Board Bureau

(c)  Bank Broad Bureau

(d)  Banking Broad Bureau

(e)  Better Business Bureau

Answer: (a)

120. Who among the following has published ‘Payment and Settlement Systems in India :

(a)  NITI Aayog

(b)  Reserve Bank of India

(c)  Ministry of Finance

(d)  Ministry of Home Affairs

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

Part IV Computer Literacy

121. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)  www.google.com is the website address to a popular search engine.

(b)  www.google.com is a computer virus.

(c)  www.google.com is an e-mail address to a computer company.

(d)  www.google.com is the name of the person who invented the internet.

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

122. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)  [email protected] is a website (url).

(b)  [email protected] is an e-mail address.

(c)  [email protected] is a computer name.

(d)  [email protected] is a robot.

(e)  [email protected] is a web builder.

Answer: (b)

123. Files have been moved to the trash bin, and the trash bin has been emptied. Which of t he following is true of the deleted files?

(a)  They are no longer accessible.

(b)  The can be selected and changed.

(c)  They appear in light grey shade.

(d)  They can be retrieved, edited, and saved in a new location.

(e)  They cannot be selected but can be changed.

Answer: (d)

124. You have a spreadsheet under the name ‘MathResults’. You made changes to it and want to save it while maintaining a copy of the original spreadsheet, what do you do?

(a) 

(b)  Click ‘Save’ in the file menu

(c)  Click ‘Save As’ in the file menu

(d)  Use the shortcut Ctrl/S

(e)  Use the shortcut Ctrl/V

Answer: (c)

125. What is the full form of PDF?

(a)  Portable Document Format

(b)  Performable Document Format

(c)  Portable Deformed Format

(d)  Performable Deformed Format

(e)  Portable Distributed Format

Answer: (a)

126. …………. controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.

(a)  The operating system

(b)  The motherboard

(c)  The platform

(d)  Application software

(e)  Utility software

Answer: (a)

127. Servers are computers that provide access to other computer connected to a

(a)  mainframe

(b)  supercomputer

(c)  network

(d)  client

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

128. A …………. is approximately one billion bytes.

(a)  bit

(b)  kilobyte

(c)  gigabyte

(d)  megabyte

(e)  byte

Answer: (c)

129. URL is an acronym for

(a)  Uniform Resource Locator

(b)  Uniform Resource Link

(c)  Unique Resource Link

(d)  Unique Resource Locator

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

130. All of t he following are examples of real security and privacy risks except

(a)  viruses

(b)  identity theft

(c)  hackers

(d)  spam

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

131. The set of instructions that tells the computer what to do, is

(a)  softcopy

(b)  software

(c)  hardware

(d)  hardcopy

(e)  program

Answer: (e)

132. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called

(a)  Instructions

(b)  Operating system

(c)  Application software

(d)  System unit

(e)  Part programming

Answer: (a)

133. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminals computer, is an example of a law enforcement speciality, called

(a)  Simulation

(b)  Animation

(c)  Robotics

(d)  Computer forensics

(e)  Cryptography

Answer: (d)

134. Data that are accumulated and processed in group are called

(a)  Group Processing

(b)  Batch Processing

(c)  Time Sharing

(d)  Process Planning

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

135. The process of transferring files from a computer on the internet to your computer is called

(a)  Uploading

(b)  Forwarding

(c)  FTP

(d)  Downloading

(e)  Browsing

Answer: (d)

136. ‘Bluetooth’ technology allows

(a)  satellite communication

(b)  wireless communication between equipments

(c)  signal transmission on mobile phones only

(d)  landline phone to mobile phone communication

(e)  data modification on mobile phones only

Answer: (b)

137. Verification of a login name and password is known as

(a)  198.168.111.1111

(b)  192.168.1.1

(c)  192.168.900.1

(d)  192.900.168.1

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

138. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel, is called a

(a)  Cell

(b)  Table

(c)  Box

(d)  Column

(e)  Row

Answer: (a)

139. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel, is called a

(a)  Cell

(b)  Table

(c)  Box

(d)  Column

(e)  Row

Answer: (a)

140. Disk Operating System (DOS) was designed to work with which of the following input device?

(a)  Mouse

(b)  Keyboard

(c)  Joystick

(d)  Xbox

(e)  Printer

Answer: (b)

141. A switch in a network is used to

(a)  connect systems on network

(b)  stop hacking

(c)  stop viruses

(d)  boot systems remotely

(e)  connect to multiple computers

Answer: (a)

142. MAC in computer stands for

(a)  Media Access Control

(b)  Media Available Control

(c)  Maximum Access Control

(d)  Maximum Available Control

(e)  Minimum Access Control

Answer: (a)

143. What do you mean be motherboard?

(a)  Scanner and other things are part of motherboard.

(b)  Keyboard otherwise known as motherboard.

(c)  A circuit board which connects all the elements.

(d)  It is a type of file server.

(e)  It is a software.

Answer: (c)

144. LSI in chip technology stands for

(a)  Large Scale Integration

(b)  Low Scale Integration

(c)  Local Scale Integration

(d)  Low Scale Internet

(e)  Large Scale Internet

Answer: (a)

145. HTTP stands for

(a)  Hyper Text Transmission Protocol

(b)  Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

(c)  Hyper Text Transfer Program

(d)  Hyper Text Transmission Program

(e)  High Text Transfer Protocol

Answer: (b)

146. Files that are included with an e-mail message are often referred to as

(a)  Server-side includes

(b)  Attachments

(c)  Cookies

(d)  Javascripts

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

147. In current presentation which short cut key inserts a new slide?

(a)  Ctrl + N

(b)  Ctrl + M

(c)  Ctrl + V

(d)  Ctrl + Y

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

148. SOAP is a messaging protocol that allows programs that run on disparate operating systems (such as Windows and Linux) to communicate using Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and its Extensible Markup Language (XML). What does SOAP stands for?

(a)  Simple Orientation Access Protocol

(b)  Simple Orientation Application Protocol

(c)  Simple Object Access Protocol

(d)  Simple Object Application Protocol

(e)  Simple Operating Access Protocol

Answer: (c)

149. Which of the following software interacts with the hardware?

(a)  Application software

(b)  Utility program

(c)  System software

(d)  Interpreter

(e)  Compiler

Answer: (c)

150. Electronic Mail/Message System (EMMS) is similar or best suits to

(a)  postal service

(b)  telephone service

(c)  telegraph service

(d)  mobile phone service

(e)  other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

151. Microsoft Excel is a

(a)  financial planning package

(b)  electronic spreadsheet

(c)  graphics package

(d)  database-management package

(e)  MS Office package

Answer: (b)

152. Distributed data processing configuration where all activities passes through a centrally located computer, is

(a)  ring network

(b)  spider network

(c)  hierarchical network

(d)  data control network

(e)  bus network

Answer: (b)

153. Data communication involving telegraph lines uses

(a)  simplex lines

(b)  wideband channels

(c)  narrowband channels

(d)  dialed service

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

154. Extended ASCII uses

(a)  8 bits for coding

(b)  9 bits for coding

(c)  10 bits for coding

(d)  7 bits for coding

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

155. A data transmission medium made of tiny threads of glass or plastic that can transmit huge amount of information at the speed of light is known as

(a)  Fibre optic cable

(b)  Copper cable

(c)  Twisted wire cable

(d)  Untwisted wire cable

(e)  Co-axial cable

Answer: (a)

156. The software that allows us to browse through web pages is known as

(a)  Browser

(b)  FTP client

(c)  Operating system

(d)  Mail client

(e)  Messenger

Answer: (a)

157. Which one of the following manages the computer resources?

(a)  ALU

(b)  BUS

(c)  Control Unit

(d)  I/O Unit

(e)  Operating System

Answer: (e)

158. Which one of the following lets you leave a screen or a program?

(a)  Boot

(b)  Programs

(c)  Exit

(d)  Text

(e)  Leave

Answer: (c)

159. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is responsible for

(a)  sending e-mail

(b)  accessing any e-mail

(c)  where e-mails are ready to be sent

(d)  where e-mails come

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

160. The data on the tracks of a magnetic disk is written as

(a)  zero or one

(b)  up or down

(c)  high or low voltage

(d)  high or low data rate

(e)  tiny magnetic spots

Answer: (e)

Part V Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 161-165) Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

  1. Expenditure of company B in 2009 and 2010 are Rs 12 lakh and Rs 14.5 lakh respectively. What was the total income of company B in 2009 and 2010 together?

(a)  Rs 39.75 lakh

(b)  Rs 37.95 lakh

(c)  Rs 38.75 lakh

(d)  Rs 38.55 lakh

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

162. Ratio of expenditure of company A and B in 2012 was 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their incomes in 2012?

(a)  21 : 26

(b)  13 : 14

(c)  14 : 13

(d)  26 : 21

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

163. Total expenditure of company A in all the years together was Rs 82.5 l akh. What was the total income of the company A in all the years together?

(a)  Rs 1.23 crore

(b)  Rs 98.75 crore

(c)  Rs 99.85 crore

(d)  Cannot be determined

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

164. If the expenditure of company A and B in 2013 were equal and total income of the two companies was Rs 5.7 lakh. What was the total expenditure of the two companies in 2013?

(a)  Rs 4 lakh

(b)  Rs 2 lakh

(c)  Rs 4.2 lakh

(d)  Cannot be determined

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

165. If the income of company B in 2010 and 2011 were in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively. What was the respective ratio of expenditure of that company in these two years?

(a)  20 : 29

(b)  9 : 10

(c)  29 : 45

(d)  10 : 29

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 166-176) What should come in place of the question marks in the following number series?

166. 258     130     66      34      18      ?

(a)  12

(b)  10

(c)  4

(d)  6

(e)  9

Answer: (b)

167. 1    3    9        31      ?        651

(a)  177

(b)  184

(c)  196

(d)  129

(e)  258

Answer: (d)

168. 84    86   81      91      74      ?

(a)  166

(b)  100

(c)  148

(d)  158

(e)  82

Answer: (b)

169. 17   9   10      5   35      ?

(a)  90

(b)  50

(c)  60

(d)  80

(e)  70

Answer: (a)

170. 420    84     21      7        ?        5

(a)  3.5

(b)  6

(c)  3

(d)  4

(e)  2.5

Answer: (a)

171. 180   179    172    153    116    ?

(a)  59

(b)  45

(c)  55

(d)  64

(e)  62

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 172-174) In these questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both equations and mark appropriate answer.

Give answer

a. if x > y b. if x < y

b. if x ≥ y d. if x ≤ y

c. if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined

d. 3x2 + 8x + 4 = 0 II. 2y2 + 11y + 14 = 0

Answer: (c)

173. I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0 II. 3y2 + 4y + 1 = 0

Answer: (b)

174. I. x2 – 12x + 36 = 0 II. y2 – 11y + 24 = 0

Answer: (e)

175. A can finish a piece of work in 24 days. B is 20% more efficient than A. C is 25% more than B. In how many days B and C together can finish the same piece of work?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (a)

176. Monthly salaries of Pia and Som are in the respective ratio of 5 : 4. Pia, from her monthly salary, give 3/5th to her mother, 15% towards her sister’s tution fees, 18% towards a loan and she shops with the remaining amount, which was Rs 2100. What is the monthly salary to Som?

(a)  Rs 25000

(b)  Rs 30000

(c)  Rs 15000

(d)  Rs 20000

(e)  Rs 24000

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 177-184) Study the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below.

177. Number of cellular phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold by store B is, what percent more than the number of Nokia cellular phones sold by store A?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (b)

178. What is the central angle corresponding to number of cellular phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold by store D?

(a)  124.20°

(b)  112.40°

(c)  115.20°

(d)  120.80°

(e)  118.80°

Answer: (e)

179. What is the average number of Samsung cellular phones sold by stores B, C and D?

(a)  796

(b)  792

(c)  780

(d)  812

(e)  784

Answer: (b)

180. What is the difference between number of cellular phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold by store A and total number of Nokia cellular phones sold by stores B and E together?

(a)  442

(b)  436

(c)  432

(d)  428

(e)  426

Answer: (b)

181. Number of Samsung cellular phones sold by store E is what percent of the number of phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold by store C?

(a)  55%

(b)  45%

(c)  60%

(d)  65%

(e)  50%

Answer: (a)

182. There are three positive numbers, one-third of average of all the three numbers is 8 less than the value of the highest number. Average of the lowest and the second lowest number is 8. Which is the highest number?

(a)  11

(b)  14

(c)  10

(d)  9

(e)  13

Answer: (a)

183. In school ABC, the respective ratio between the number of students in class 8, class 9 and class 10 in the year 2013, was 4: 5 : 6. If in 2014, the number of students in class 8 and class 9 increased by 10% and 20% respectively and the number of students in class 10 decreased by 20%, what was the respective ratio between the number of students in class 8, class 9 and class 10 in 2014?

(a)  11 : 15 : 12

(b)  10 : 11 : 12

(c)  14 : 15 : 11

(d)  11 : 13 : 12

(e)  12 : 17 : 12

Answer: (a)

184. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 15% and the breadth is decreased by 12%, what is the percentage change in the area of the rectangle?

(a)  2.4% decrease

(b)  1.2% increase

(c)  1.8% decrease

(d)  1.2% decrease

(e)  1.8% decrease

Answer: (b)

185. In an examination, the average of marks was found to be 50. For deducting marks for computational errors, the marks of 100 candidates had to be changed from 90 to 60 each and so the average of marks come down to 45. The total number of candidates, who appeared in the examination was

(a)  600

(b)  300

(c)  400

(d)  200

(e)  250

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 186-190) Study the following table and carefully answer the given questions.

186. What is the difference between the total number of cars manufactured in countries A and B together and the total number of cars manufactures in country C and D together?

(a)  10000

(b)  12000

(c)  15000

(d)  6000

(e)  10500

Answer: (a)

187. Total number of cars sold in countries A and B together for what percent of the total cars manufactured by in all the countries together in that particular quarter?

(a)  30%

(b)  35%

(c)  40%

(d)  32%

(e)  38%

Answer: (a)

188. What is the total number of cars, which remained unsold in the given quarter in the countries C and E together?

(a)  2400

(b)  3400

(c)  3650

(d)  3800

(e)  3600

Answer: (e)

189. What is the respective ratio between sales (in Rs) of the total number of cars sold in country D and the sales (in Rs) of the total number of cars sold in country E?

(a)  55 : 47

(b)  52 : 47

(c)  53 : 44

(d)  55 : 42

(e)  52 : 45

Answer: (d)

190. If the cost for manufacturing a car in country C is Rs 450000, what is the percent profit earned by the company, on which car sold, in the same company?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (e)

191. Shindey had a sum of money, which he decided to be distributed among his wife, his one son and one daughter. He gave 25% of the total money to his wife and the remaining amount he distributed in the respective ratio of 2 : 3 among his son and daughter. If his daughter got Rs 24300, how much money did Mr. Shindey have?

(a)  Rs 54000

(b)  Rs 64000

(c)  Rs 48000

(d)  Rs 40000

(e)  Rs 60000

Answer: (a)

192. Rs 6100 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually) for 2 years and partly in Scheme B at 10% p.a. simple interest for 4 years. Both the schemes equal interests. How much was invested in Scheme A?

(a)  Rs 3750

(b)  Rs 4500

(c)  Rs 4000

(d)  Rs 3250

(e)  Rs 5000

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 193-197) What approximate value will come in place of questions marks in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

193. 5003 × 14.96 ÷12 + ? = 122 × 52

(a)  600

(b)  1200

(c)  800

(d)  1000

(e)  900

Answer: (a)

194. 952 * 5.05 + 15.012 * 2.99 = ?

(a)  1150

(b)  1215

(c)  1188

(d)  1395

(e)  1084

Answer: (d)

195. 952 + 12.052 + (1987.25 + 21.85) ÷ ? = 900

(a)  115

(b)  120

(c)  90

(d)  85

(e)  100

Answer: (e)

196.

(a)  27

(b)  48

(c)  58

(d)  40

(e)  32

Answer: (d)

197. 99 ÷ 9.85 + 54.94% of 271 = ?

(a)  800

(b)  300

(c)  500

(d)  700

(e)  400

Answer: (e)

198. Jar A and Jar B both contain mixture of milk and water. Jar A has 80 L of mixture, out of which 2% is water. The mixture in jar B has 40% of water. The mixture from both the jars is poured in an empty jar C. The resultant respective ratio between m ilk and water in the jar C is 5 : 2. What is the quantity of milk in jar C?

(a)  105 L

(b)  120 L

(c)  110 L

(d)  100 L

(e)  130 L

Answer: (d)

199. The sum of present ages of a father and his son is 8 more than the present age of the mother. The mother is 22 years older to the son, what will be the age of the father after 4 years?

(a)  34 years

(b)  36 years

(c)  40 years

(d)  38 years

(e)  28 years

Answer: (a)

200. A boat can travel 36 km upstream in 5 hours. If the speed of the stream is 2.4 km/h, how much time will the boat take to cover a distance of 78 km downstream?

(a)  5 h

(b)  6.5 h

(c)  5.5 h

(d)  8 h

(e)  6 h

Answer: (b)

United India Insurance Co. Administrative Officers (Mains) Exam Held on 3-1-2015 Quantative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

United India Insurance Co. Administrative Officers (Mains) Exam Held on 3-1-2015
United India Insurance Co. Administrative Officers (Mains) Exam Held on 3-1-2015 Quantative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

United India Insurance Co. Administrative Officers (Mains) Examination

Held on 3-1-2015

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 1-5) What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the given number series?

1. 6   11      31      121    601    ?

(A) 3600

(B) 3621

(C) 3601

(D) 3611

(E) 3602

Answer: (C)

2. 7   11      19      35      67      ?

(A) 99

(B) 131

(C) 9264

(D) 137

(E) 24

Answer: (B)

3. 8    22      64      190    568    ?

(A) 1702

(B) 1654

(C) 1650

(D) 1706

(E) 1705

Answer: (A)

4. 5760   2880  960    240    48      ?

(A) 6

(B) 12

(C) 8

(D) 24

(E) 16

Answer: (C)

5. 13   16      24      39      ?       

(A) 63

(B) 74

(C) 85

(D) 65

(E) 70

Answer: (A)

6. The sum of digits of a two-digit number is 12 and when the digits of the two-digit number are interchanged, the new number is 36 more than the original number. What is the original two digit number ?

(A) Cannot be determined

(B) 93

(C) 48

(D) 39

(E) 84

Answer: (C)

7. A, B and C entered into a partnership by investing Rs 64,000, Rs 52,000 and Rs 36,000 respectively. All of them invested for equal period of time, what amount did C get as his share, when annual profit is 84512-

(A) Rs 20,632

(B) Rs 18,296

(C) Rs 21,084

(D) Rs 19,768

(E) Rs 20,016

Answer: (E)

8. If a man runs at 6 kmph from his house, he misses the train at the station by 8 minutes. if he runs at 10 kmph he reaches 7 minutes before the departure of the train. What is the distance of the station from the man’s house ?

(A)  

(B)  

(C)  

(D)   

(E)  

Answer: (D)

9. Number of students in institutes A and B were in the ratio of 7 : 15 respectively in 201. In 2013 the number of students in institute A increased by 25% and the no. of students in institute B increased by 26%, then what was the respective ratio between no. of students in institutes A and B respectively in 2013?

(A) 25 : 56

(B) 24 : 55

(C) 24 : 53

(D) 25 : 53

(E) 25 : 54

Answer: (E)

10. An employer pays Rs 26 for each day a worker works and forfeits Rs 7 for each day he is idle. At the end of 56 days, if the worker gets Rs 829, for how many days did the worker remain idle?

(A) 21

(B) 15

(C) 19

(D) 13

(E) 17

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 11-20) What will come in lace of the question mark (?) in the given questions ?

11. 

(A) 9/2

(B) 4

(C) 11/2

(D) 7/2

(E) 6

Answer: (C)

12. 

(A) 8

(B) 6

(C) 7.5

(D) 5.2

(E) 10

Answer: (E)

13. 

(A)  

(B)  

(C)  

(D)  

(E)  

Answer: (B)

14. 6 × 1.5 + 3.4 × 1.2 – 1.8 × 2.5 = ?

(A) 3.16

(B) 2.78

(C) 3.22

(D) 3.48

(E) 2.96

Answer: (D)

15. 156% of 850 – 3/5 of 280 + 85% of 440 = ?

(A) 1580

(B) 1478

(C) 1675

(D) 1532

(E) 1572

Answer: (D)

16. 

(A) 

(B)  

(C)  

(D)  

(E) 

Answer: (A)

17. 11880/44/18 = ?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 11

(D) 16

(E) 12

Answer: (B)

18. 

(A) 4420

(B) 4240

(C) 4320

(D) 4030

(E) 4120

Answer: (D)

19. 25 × 12.4 + 1.8 × 52.5 = ? – 175.85.

(A) 2124.5

(B) 2212.6

(C) 2207.85

(D) 2684.8

(E) 2624.4

Answer: (C)

20. 

(A)  

(B)   

(C)  

(D)  

(E)  

Answer: (C)

21. Sharat bought 36 kg of sugar @ Rs 45 per kg and 24 kg of sugar @ Rs 40 per kg. He mixed the two qualities of sugar and sold it so as to earn 20% profit. At what rate per kg did he sell t he sugar?

(A) Rs 52.56

(B) Rs 56.42

(C) Rs 56.36

(D) Rs 55.44

(E) Rs 51.60

Answer: (E)

22. The difference between the length and the breadth of a rectangle is 6 m. Length of the rectangle is equal to the side of t he square whose area is 729 sq. m. What is the perimeter of the rectangle ?

(A) 96

(B) 108

(C) 92

(D) 88

(E) 84

Answer: (A)

23. Raghuvir purchased 10 calculators and 16 watches for Rs 56,100 and sold them so as to earn an overall profit of 20%. At what total price should he sell 15 calculators and 24 watches together so as to earn the same per cent profit ?

(A) Rs 1,00,980

(B) Rs 1,16,176

(C) Rs 1,21,176

(D) Rs 1,00,660

(E) Rs 1,24,132

Answer: (A)

24. Some chocolates were distributed among four friends A, B C and D such that the respective ratio of chocolates received by A to chocolates received by C was 7 : 9. B receives 29 more chocolate than A and D received 33 more chocolates than C. If B received 15 more chocolates than C, how many chocolates did D receive ?

(A) 84

(B) 96

(C) 72

(D) 99

(E) 87

Answer: (B)

25. Abhijit invested an amount with company X for two years on simple interest rate 15 p.c.p.a. The entire amount obtained from company X after two years, he invested with company Y on compound interest rate 12 p.c.p.a. for two years. If the amount finally received by him was Rs 81,536, what was the amount invested by him originally with company X?

(A) Rs 65,000

(B) Rs 60,000

(C) Rs 56,000

(D) Rs 50,000

(E) Rs 45,000

Answer: (D)

26. The average weight of 30 students in class is 55 kg. 6 of them whose average weight is 52 kg left the class and set of 6 students whose average weight is 42 kg joined the class. What is the new average weight of the class ?(in kg)

(A) 54.25

(B) 52.75

(C) 53.5

(D) 54

(E) 53

Answer: (E)

27. What will be the compound interest on Rs 18,600 for 2 years, the rate of interest being 8% for the first year and for the second year being 15%?

(A) Rs 4489.90

(B) Rs 4967.20

(C) Rs 4232.80

(D) Rs 4501.20

(E) Rs 3837.10

Answer: (D)

28. A certain number of capsules were purchased for Rs 176.6 more capsules could have been purchased in the same amount if each capsule was cheaper by Rs 3. What was the number of capsules purchased?

(A) 13

(B) 16

(C) 17

(D) 8

(E) 11

Answer: (E)

29. Ram was asked to find 7/8th of a fraction but made the error of dividing the fraction by 7/8. As a result of this he was off the correct answer by 75/784. What answer was supposed to arrive at ?

(A) 13/32

(B) 9/14

(C) 5/16

(D) 5/14

(E) 9/16

Answer: (D)

30. 36 workers can finish a piece of work in 14 days. If the work is to be completed in 8 days, how many extra workers are required ?

(A) 29

(B) 33

(C) 23

(D) 31

(E) 27

Answer: (E)

31. A man can row 13 kmph downstream and 9 kmph upstream. What is the speed of the man in still water? (in kmph)

(A) 12

(B) 10.5

(C) 11

(D) 10

(E) 11.5

Answer: (C)

32. The cost of 8 fans and 14 ovens is Rs 36,520. What is the cost of 12 fans and 21 ovens ?

(A) Rs 56,800

(B) Rs 54,780

(C) Rs 57,950

(D) Rs 55,700

(E) Cannot be determined

Answer: (B)

33. The average age of a man and his son is 28 years. The ratio of their ages is 3 : 1 respectively. What is the man’s age ?

(A) 30

(B) 38

(C) 44

(D) 42

(E) Cannot be determined

Answer: (D)

34. 855 candidates applied for a job, out of which 80% of the candidates were rejected. How many candidates were selected for the job ?

(A) 684

(B) 151

(C) 676

(D) 171

(E) Cannot be determined         

Answer: (D)

35. A is 60% more efficient than B. In how many days will ‘A’ and ‘B’ working together complete a piece of work which ‘A’ alone takes 15 days to finish ?

(A)  

(B) 

(C)  

(D)   

(E)  

Answer: (E)

Directions (Q. 36-40) Refer to the following table and answer the given questions-

Number of books sold by 6 stores in 5 different months-

36. Number of books sold by store E in March is what per cent less than the number of books sold by store A in May ? (rounded off to nearest integers)

(A) 29

(B) 31

(C) 33

(D) 37

(E) 35

Answer: (C)

37. Total number of books sold by store B during all the given months together is what per cent of the total number of books sold by store D during all the given months together ?

(A) 82

(B) 88

(C) 92

(D) 84

(E) 86

Answer: (E)

38. What is the average number of books sold by all the stores on February ?

(A) 207

(B) 211

(C) 219

(D) 223

(E) 227

Answer: (B)

39. What is the difference between total number of books sold by all the stores together in January and total number of books sold by all the stores together in April ?

(A) 353

(B) 379

(C) 263

(D) 347

(E) 369

Answer: (C)

40. What is the respective ratio between total number of books sold by stores A and C together in March and total number of books sold by stores E and F together in May ?

(A) 9 : 11

(B) 11 : 13

(C) 5 : 7

(D) 13 : 17

(E) 7 : 9

Answer: (A)

United India Insurance Co. Ltd. A.O. Examination Held on 12-6-2016 2nd Shift Reasoning Question Paper with Answer Key

United India Insurance Co. Ltd. A.O. Examination
United India Insurance Co. Ltd. A.O. Examination Held on 12-6-2016 2nd Shift Reasoning Question Paper with Answer Key

United India Insurance Co. Ltd. A.O. Exam., 2016 (2nd Shift)

Held on 12-6-2016

Reasoning

Directions – (Q. 1-6) Study the following information and answer the given questions :

       Seven people namely A, B, C, D, E F and G have a holiday on the seven different days of the same week namely, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday and Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order. Each person also works for seven different departments of a company namely, Marketing, Production, Advertising, HR, Online, Accounts and Maintenance not necessarily in the same order.

     C has a holiday on Thursday and works in Maintenance department. Only two people have a holiday between C and A. The one who works in online department has a holiday immediately after A. only one person has a holiday between B and the one who works on Accounts department. B neither has a holiday on Sunday nor on Friday. Only Two people have holidays between B and D, E does not have a holiday immediately before or after D. The one working in HR department has a holiday immediately after the one working in Marketing department. D does not work in HR department. D does not work in HR department. F does not have a holiday on any of the days after G. Neither B nor F work in Production department.

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

(A)  B-Tuesday      

(B)  C-Wednesday

(C)  E-Friday

(D)  G-Saturday

(E)  F-Thursday

Ans: (C)

2. Which of the following represents the day on which G has his holiday ?

(A)  Wednesday

(B)  Friday

(C)  Saturday

(D)  Sunday

(E)  Monday

Ans: (D)

3. Who amongst the following works in HR department ?

(A)  E

(B)  B

(C)  G

(D)  F

(E)  A

Ans: (C)

4. Based on the given arrangement, which of the following statements is true?

(A)  The one who works in Accounts department has a holiday on Saturday.

(B)  E has a holiday on Friday.

(C)  None of the given statements are true.

(D)  A works in HR department.

(E)  Only one person has a holiday between G and F.

Ans: (E)

5. In which of the following departments does D work ?

(A)  Advertising

(B)  Marketing

(C)  Production

(D)  Accounts

(E)  Online

Ans: (B)

6. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct ?

(A)  Wednesday-B-Production

(B)  Monday-A-Online

(C)  Tuesday-B-Online

(D)  Sunday-G-Accounts

(E)  Friday-F-Accounts

Ans: (E)

Directions – (Q. 7-11) This question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.

7. How is ‘self’ coded in the given coded language ?

I. In the given code language, ‘help self to win’ is coded as ‘&$”+’ and ‘help to win him’ is coded as ‘6$%&’.

II. In the given code language, ‘make plan with self’ is coded as ‘@*#>’ and connect to self important is written as ‘&/?*’.

(A)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(B)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(D)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(E)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Ans: (A)

8. Among students M, N, O, P and Q, each having a different weights who weighs the  most ?

I. P weighs more than M, but less than N, N does not weigh the most. M weighs more than O.

II. P weighs less than only two people. M weighs more than O, but less than Q.

(A)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(B)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(D)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(E)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Ans: (E)

9. On which day, of the same week from Monday to Sunday was Naina born ?

I. Naina’s aunt correctly remembers that she was born after Tuesday, but before Sunday and that she was not born on Thursday.

II. Naina’s uncle correctly remembers that she was born after Monday and she was not born on Wednesday.

(A)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(B)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(D)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(E)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Ans: (B)

10. How many people stand between H and I in a straight line of 8 people (Note : All are facing North) ?

I. B stands second from the right end of the line. Only two people stand between B and M. Only one person stands between M and L. H stands to the immediate right of S.

II. Y Stands at the extreme left end of the line. Only three people stand between Y and S. S is an immediate neighbour of both H and M. L stands second to the left of M

(A)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(B)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(D)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(E)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Ans: (B)

11. Is W the Uncle of E ?

I. M is the sister of W. B has only one daughter, M.D is the daughter of M. E is the sister of D.

II. S has only two children, M and W. E is the daughter of M. J is married to M. W is married to K.

(A)  The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(B)  The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C)  The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(D)  The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

(E)  The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Ans: (D)

Directions – (Q. 12-17) Study the given information and answer the questions-

        When a number and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

                                        (All the numbers are two digit numbers)

Input : 36 24 maintain 87 safe distance 60 12 with other 98 cars

Step I : cars 36 24 maintain 87 safe distance 60 with other 98 12

Step II : 24 cars 36 maintain 87 safe 60 with other 98 12 distance

Step III : maintain 24 cars 87 safe 60 with other 98 12 distance 36

Step IV : 60 maintain 24 cars 87 safe with 98 12 distance 36 other

Step V : safe 60 maintain 24 cars with 98 12 distance 36 other 87

Step VI : 98 safe 60 maintain 24 cars 12 distance 36 other 87 with

     Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

     As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input : weight 34 93 and 14 density 84 concept to 49 74 be understood 56

12. Which element is seventh to the right of the element which is eleventh from the right end of the last step of the given arrangement ?

(A)  74

(B)  to

(C)  understood

(D)  56

(E)  density

Ans: (E)

13. What is the position of ‘concept’ from the right end of the second last step of the given arrangement ?

(A)  Eighth

(B)  Eleventh

(C)  Ninth

(D)  Seventh

(E)  Tenth

Ans: (B)

14. Which element/s is/are exactly between ‘93’ and ‘to’ in the fourth step of the given arrangement ?

(A)  Both density and 84

(B)  Density

(C)  There is not element

(D)  Both density and concept

(E)  84

Ans: (E)

15. What is the position of ‘weight’ from the left of ‘56’ in the third step of the given arrangement ?

(A)  Seventh

(B)  Fourth

(C)  Ninth

(D)  Sixth

(E)  Fifth

Ans: (A)

16. In which step of the given arrangement are the elements ‘to 49 74 understood’ found in the same order ?

(A)  Fourth

(B)  Second

(C)  Third

(D)  Fifth

(E)  The given order of elements is not found in any step

Ans: (B)

17. Which of the following is the third last step of the given arrangement ?

(A)  To 56 concept 34 and weight 93 84 understood 14 be 49 density 74

(B)  To density concept be and weight 93 84 understood 14 34 49 56 74

(C)  14 34 49 56 74 weight 93 84 understood to density concept be and

(D)  To density concept be and 14 34 49 56 74 weight 93 84 understood

(E)  To 74 concept 49 14 and weight  93 84 understood be 34 density 56

Ans: (A)

Directions – (Q. 18-23) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

(A) Either conclusion I or II is true

(B) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(C) Both conclusion I and II are true

(D) Only conclusion I is true

(E) Only conclusion II is true

18. Statements :

T < D < S ≤ Y; D ≥ R > L; S ≤ N

Conclusions : I. T < R

                         II. S > L

Ans: (E)

19. Statements :

T < D < S ≤Y; D ≥ R > L; S ≤ N

Conclusions: I. S ≤ R

                        II. Y ≥ N

Ans: (B)

20. Statements :

A < B ≤ C = D > K; J ≤ B

Conclusions : I. B < K

                        II. J ≤ C

Ans: (E)

21. Statements :

D ≤ J < Y ≤ L ≤ S; Y ≥ M < T

Conclusions : I. L ≥ M

                        II. D < S

Ans: (C)

22. Statements :

P > Q > R ≤ D – E ≤ F

Conclusions : I. P > D

                        II. Q ≤ E

Ans: (B)

23. Statements :

A < B ≤C = D > K; J ≤ B

Conclusions : I. K ≥ J

                        II. A < D

Ans: (E)

Directions – (Q. 24-26) Read the information carefully and answer the given questions.

A @ B means A is the father of B;

A + B means A is the son of B;

A $ B means A is the daughter of B;

A % B means A is the mother of B;

A & B means A is the husband of B.

24. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘P + Q% R $ S + T & W’ is definitely true ?

(A)  Q is the only daughter of T.

(B)  P is the grandson of S.

(C)  R is the granddaughter of W.

(D)  T is the father-in-law of P.

(E)  W is the grandmother of Q.

Ans: (C)

25. How is V related to P in the expression ‘P & S% T @ U + V’ ?

(A)  Grandmother

(B)  Daughter-in-law

(C)  Grandson

(D)  Wife

(E)  Daughter

Ans: (B)

26. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that P is the mother-in-law of T in the expression ?

P% Q + R @ S ? T

(A)  @

(B)  Either & or %

(C)  $

(D)  &

(E)  +

Ans: (D)

Directions – (Q. 27-32) In this question two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

27. Statements :

All hosts are guests.

All visitors are hosts.

Some visitors are invites.

Conclusions :

I. Atleast some guests are invitees.

II. All invites being hosts is a possibility.

(A)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(B)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(D)  Only conclusion I is true

(E)  Only conclusion II is true

Ans: (C)

28. Statements :

All gadgets are instruments.

Some instruments are devices

Conclusions :

I. Atleast some tools are instruments.

II. All tools being gadgets is a possibility.

(A)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(B)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(D)  Only conclusion I is true

(E)  Only conclusion II is true

Ans: (C)

29. Statements :

All hosts are guests.

All visitors are hosts.

Some visitors are invitees.

Conclusions :

I. No visitor is a guest.

II. All hosts are visitors.

(A)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(B)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(D)  Only conclusion I is true

(E)  Only conclusion II is true

Ans: (B)

30. Statements :

No cup is a medal.

All medals are trophies.

No trophy is a shield.

Conclusions :

I. Some shields being cups is a possibility.

II. No trophy is a cup.

(A)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(B)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(D)  Only conclusion I is true

(E)  Only conclusion II is true

Ans: (D)

31. Statements :

No cup is a medal.

All medals are trophies.

No trophy is a shield.

Conclusions :

I. All trophies are medals.

II. No shield is a medal.

(A)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(B)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(D)  Only conclusion I is true

(E)  Only conclusion II is true

Ans: (E)

32. Statements :

Some dreams are aims.

Some aims are objectives.

Conclusions:

I. All objectives being dreams is a possibility.

II. No objective is a dream.

(A)  Either conclusion I or II is true

(B)  Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(C)  Both conclusion I and II are true

(D)  Only conclusion I is true

(E)  Only conclusion II is true

Ans: (D)

Directions – (Q. 33-38) Study the information carefully and answer the questions-

       J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular area at equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people are facing the centre while facing outside ( (i.e., in a direction opposite to the centre).

(Note : Facing the same direction means if one faces the centre then the other also faces the centre and vice versa. Facing the opposite directions means if one faces the centre then the other faces outside and vice-versa.)

      Q sits second to the left of P. Q faces outside. Only two people sit between P and K. Both M and J are immediate neighbours of Q. Only three people sit between J and L. N sits third to the right of M. L is not an immediate neighbour of N. Both the immediate neighbours of P face the same direction. O sits third to the left of J. N faces the same direction as M. O sits to the immediate right of K. Both the immediate neighbours of K face opposite directions. Q faces a direction opposite to that of O.

33. Which of the following is true as per the given seating arrangement ?

(A)  None of the given options is correct.

(B)  P sits to the immediate left of M.

(C)  Q sits second to right of N.

(D)  L faces the same direction as J.

(E)  O is an immediate neighbour of M.

Ans: (B)

34. What is L’s position with respect to K ?

(A)  Immediate left

(B)  Immediate right

(C)  Second to the left

(D)  Second to the right

(E)  Third to the right

Ans: (D)

35. How many people in the given arrangement face outside ?

(A)  Four

(B)  Six

(C)  Five

(D)  Two

(E)  Three

Ans: (C)

36. Who amongst the following sits exactly between P and O when counted from the right of P ?

(A)  Q

(B)  U

(C)  N

(D)  M

(E)  L

Ans: (E)

37. Who is sitting third to the right of Q ?

(A)  N

(B)  K

(C)  J

(D)  L

(E)  O

Ans: (B)

38. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A)  O

(B)  L

(C)  K

(D)  Q

(E)  N

Ans: (A)

Directions – (Q. 39) Read the given information and answer the questions.

39. Company X, a Telecom company of country Z, which proposed last week that it would charge its customers for video calls, said that it will not go ahead with the plan. Video call is a facility given free of cost by the company for its existing customers.

Which of the following may be a reason for the change in plan by the said company ?

(A)  The shares of company L, which charges its customer for a similar facility since the beginning, dropped substantially this week.

(B)  Many people using the services of company X live in rural areas and might not be able to afford an extra charge for certain services.

(C)  Company X plans to expand its market globally this year.

(D)  Company X underwent a lot of criticism for the said proposal and also experienced a drop of around 10 per cent customers in just one week.

(E)  Company Y, a rival to company X setup shop in country Z just two months back and has introduced a  number of interesting offers for customers.

Ans: (D)

40. If A’s code is 1, B’s 3 and C’s code is 5 and so on similarly then. What will be the numerical value of ‘FAZED’ ?

(A)  81

(B)  79

(C)  80

(D)  None of the above

Ans : (B)

United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (A.O.) Examination Held on 12-6-2016 2nd Shift General Awareness Question Paper with Answer Key

United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (A.O.) Examination
United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (A.O.) Examination Held on 12-6-2016 2nd Shift General Awareness Question Paper with Answer Key

United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (A.O.) Exam., 2016 (2nd Shift)

Held on 12-6-2016

General Awareness

1. The International Court of Justice, commonly referred to as the World Court or ICJ is the primary judicial branch of the United Nations. It is based in –

(A)  The Hague, Netherlands

(B)  Geneva, Switzerland

(C)  Gland, Switzerland

(D)  Glasgow, Scotland

(E)  Rome, Italy

Ans: (A)

2. The 726 MW gas based thermal plant is situated in the Indian state of-

(A)  Tripura

(B)  Uttarakhand

(C)  Odisha

(D)  Sikkim

(E)  Gujarat

Ans: (A)

3. Shree Singaji Thermal Power Project is a coal-based plant in the Indian state of-

(A)  Gujarat 

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Chhattisgarh

(D)  Maharashtra

Ans: (C)

4. India’s Indigenous Beyond Visual Range (BVR) air-to-air missile integrated by HAL on Su-30 MKI aircraft was successfully launched from Chandipur, Odisha. It is named as-

(A)  Astra

(B)  Phython

(C)  Derby

(D)  IRIS

(E)  Matra

Ans: (A)

5. A general or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs. Fifty Thousands or less is known as a-

(A)  Micro Insurance Policy

(B)  Plain Insurance Policy

(C)  Standard Insurance Policy

(D)  Basic Insurance Policy

(E)  Generic Insurance Policy

Ans: (A)

6. Which of the following is a mode of creating charge on immovable property ?

(A)  Mortgage

(B)  Nomination

(C)  Assignment

(D)  Hypothecation

(E)  Pledge

Ans: (A)

7. The ‘SBI Life Insurance Company Limited’ is a joint venture life insurance company between State Bank of India and-

(A)  BNP Paribas Assurance

(B)  Standard Life Insurance Company

(C)  Prudential Life Insurance Company

(D)  Life Insurance Corporation of India

(E)  New York Life Insurance Company

Ans: (A)

8. The amount to be paid for a contract of insurance to the insurance company, that is the sum that a person pays monthly, quarterly or annually according to their plan, in return of the coverage he/she has taken from the insurance company is known as-

(A)  Certain Loss

(B)  Uncertain Loss

(C)  Claim amount

(D)  Premium

(E)  Sum Insured

Ans: (D)

9. A Global Depository Receipt (GDR) is also known as –

(A)  Commercial Depository Receipt (CDR)

(B)  Inter Continental Depository Receipt (ICDR)

(C)  International Depository Receipt (IDR)

(D)  Domestic Depository Receipt (DDR)

(E)  National Depository Receipt (NDR)

Ans: (C)

10. ‘Wings of Fire’ is the autobiography of-

(A)  K. Natwar Singh

(B)  A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(C)  L.K. Advani

(D)  Yuvraj Singh

Ans: (B)

11. The currency of the Czech Republic is-

(A)  Czech Kyat

(B)  Czech Krone

(C)  Czech Rupiah

(D)  Czech Kuna

(E)  Czech Koruna

Ans: (B)

12. The ‘Kinnerasani Wildlife Sanctuary’ is located in the Indian state of-

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Telangana

(C)  Kerala

(D)  Karnataka

(E)  Other than those given as options

Ans: (B)

13. As per census 2011, the state having the highest urban population of 508.8 million is-

(A)  Maharashtra

(B)  Bihar

(C)  Karnataka

(D)  Gujarat

(E)  Uttar Pradesh

Ans: (A)

14. ‘Dispur’ is the capital of the Indian state of-

(A)  Assam

(B)  Arunachal Pradesh

(C)  Tripura

(D)  Meghalaya

(E)  Manipur

Ans: (A)

15. Christopher Henry ‘Chris’ Gayle is a cricketer, who plays international cricket for-

(A)  New Zealand

(B)  Australia

(C)  Bangladesh

(D)  South Africa

(E)  West Indies

Ans: (E)

16. An act by which the policyholders authorizes another person to receive the policy money is known as

(A)  Nomination

(B)  Assignment

(C)  Negotiation

(D)  Hypothecation

(E)  Transfer

Ans: (A)

17. Who amongst the following is the CEO of the ‘NITI Aayog’ ?

(A)  Arvind Panagariya

(B)  Narendra Modi

(C)  Sindhushree Khullar

(D)  Amitabh Kamat

(E)  Bibek Debroy

Ans: (D)

18. Situations when the insurance company passes some part of or all risks to another-

(A)  Reinsurance

(B)  Double-insurance

(C)  Co-insurance

(D)  Void-insurance

(E)  Dual insurance

Ans: (A)

19. The them for ‘The World Sparrow Day 2015’ observed on March 20, 2015 was-

(A)  I Love Sparrows

(B)  Chrip for the Sparrow, Tweet for the Sparrow

(C)  Save Sparrows for Nature’s Balance

(D)  Spare a Thought for the Sparrows

(E)  Sparrows : Heroes of the Environment

Ans: (A)

20. The regulator of the insurance business in India is-

(A)  PFRDA

(B)  IRDA

(C)  FMC

(D)  SEBI

(E)  RBI

Ans: (B)

21. The annual investment limit under the Public Provident Fund (PPF) scheme-

(A)  Rs. 2,50,000

(B)  Rs. 1,50,000

(C)  Rs. 2,25,000

(D)  Rs. 1,00,000

(E)  Rs. 2,00,000

Ans: (B)

22. Which of the following political newspaper is published form Moscow ?

(A)  Dawn

(B)  The Times

(C)  Daily Mirror

(D)  Pravda

(E)  The Sun

Ans: (D)

23. ‘Gramin Gaurav Path’ is a major construction project under which 2,048 km of roads would be built in 33 districts of-

(A)  Bihar

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Odisha

(E)  Gujarat

Ans: (C)

24. Under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) scheme, each customer who opens his account will get a RuPay debit card with an in-built-

(A)  Life Insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000

(B)  Accident Insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000

(C)  Crop Insurance of Rs. 1,00,000

(D)  Medical Insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000

(E)  Health Insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000

Ans: (B)

25. ‘Keenan Stadium’, a multipurpose stadium mostly used for cricket matches is-

(A)  Jamshedpur, India

(B)  Canberra, Australia

(C)  Beijing, China

(D)  Colombo, Sri Lanka

(E)  Cape Town, South Africa

Ans: (A)

26. The Brand Ambassador for the Government of India’s campaign against ‘Hepatitis B’ is-

(A)  Salman Khan

(B)  Aamir Khan

(C)  Priyanka Chopra

(D)  Vidhya Balan

(E)  Amitabh Bachchan

Ans: (E)

27. A life Insurance which provides coverage at a fixed rate of payments for a limited period of time is known as-

(A)  Variable Life Insurance Policy

(B)  Term Life Insurance Policy

(C)  Permanent Life Insurance Policy

(D)  Universal Life Insurance Policy

(E)  Whole life Insurance Policy

Ans: (B)

28. ‘Greg Chappell’ is associated with the game of-

(A)  Cricket

(B)  Tennis

(C)  Badminton

(D)  Hockey

(E)  Boxing

Ans: (A)

29. The headquarters of the State Owned Life Insurance Corporation Limited is situated in-

(A)  Gurgaon

(B)  Mumbai

(C)  Hyderabad

(D)  Kolkata

(E)  New Delhi

Ans: (B)

30. The 2015 Ranji Trophy Title was won by Karnataka against –

(A)  Mumbai

(B)  West Bengal

(C)  Assam

(D)  Tamil Nadu

(E)  Railways

Ans: (D)

31. The Federal Reserve is the central banking system of-

(A)  Russia

(B)  United Kingdom

(C)  Europe

(D)  USA

(E)  Latin America

Ans: (D)

32. Which of the following countries leads the world in production and export of the cocoa beans used in the manufacture of Chocolate ?

(A)  South Africa

(B)  Chile

(C)  Brazil

(D)  Jamaica

(E)  Ivory Cost

Ans: (E)

33. A company selling the insurance policy is known as the-

(A)  Insurance Carrier

(B)  The Insurance Agent

(C)  The Life Insured

(D)  Business Correspondent

(E)  Beneficiary of a contract of Insurance

Ans: (B)

34. The three day International Conference on Counter Terrorism 2015 was recently held at-

(A)  New York, USA

(B)  Tokyo, Japan

(C)  Paris, France  

(D)  London, UK

(E)  Jaipur, India

Ans: (E)

35. The ‘World Quality Day’ is observed every year on the –

(A)  Second Thursday of December

(B)  Third Thursday of December

(C)  Second Friday of December

(D)  Second Thursday of November

(E)  Second Friday of November

Ans: (D)

36. ‘Berlin’ is the capital of the-

(A)  Federal Republic of Austria

(B)  Federal Republic of Poland

(C)  Federal Republic of Yugoslavia  

(D)  Federal Republic of Germany

(E)  Federal Republic of USA

Ans: (D)

37. The Ways and Means Advances (WAM) are short term advance s to tide over temporary mismatches in receipts and payments which the RBI lends to-

(A)  Public Sector Banks

(B)  Life Insurance Corporation of India     

(C)  General Insurance Companies

(D)  State Bank of India

(E)  Government

Ans: (E)

38. The newly instituted Innovation Council of the Indian Railways named as ‘Kayakalp’ is headed by former-

(A)  ICICI Bank Chairman K.V. Kamath

(B)  Infosys Chairman Narayan Murthy

(C)  SBI Chairman O.P.Bhatt

(D)  Tata Group Chairman Ratan Tata

(E)  RBI Governor, Bimal Jalan


Ans: (D)

39. The present Minister for ‘Road Transport and Highways’ in the Union Cabinet is-

(A)  Shri Nitin Jairam Gadkari

(B)  Shri Kalraj Mishra

(C)  Shri Rajnath Singh

(D)  Shri Vankaiah Naidu

(E)  Shri Suresh Prabhu

Ans: (A)

40. In India the apex body for the formulation coordination and promotion of biomedical research is-

(A)  Indian Medical Association (IMA)

(B)  Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

(C)  Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM)

(D)  All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)

(E)  Medical Council of Research (MCI)

Ans: (B)

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