*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
0
0
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
19020.22508
(in Acres.)
4.70
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
887.98
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
9000
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
10
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
10
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
1
1
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
31619.70779576
(in Acres.)
7.8134
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
5515
Whether the School at one site or two site
NO
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
11009
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
09
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
09
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
1
1
0
NTTs
0
0
0
PRTs
11
11
0
TGTs
5
5
0
Librarian
1
1
0
PTI
1
1
0
PGTs
0
0
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
36421.7076
(in Acres.)
09
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
20130
Whether the School at one site or two site
NO
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
8400
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
14
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
14
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Uttar Pradesh Subordinate Selection Commission Excise Constable Recruitment Examination Held on September 25, 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
Uttar Pradesh Subordinate Selection Commission – Excise Constable Recruitment Examination Held on September 25, 2016
Part II General Intelligence & Elementary Maths
1. Find out the logical number from the given options to complete the following number series :
3, 10, 29, 66, 127, …..
(a) 218
(b) 215
(c) 242
(d) 193
Ans: (a)
2. A series of numbers is given, where one number is incorrect. Find the incorrect number from the given options
54, 43, 34, 26, 22, 19, 18
(a) 18
(b) 26
(c) 36
(d) 43
Ans: (b)
3. A is the father of B. E is brother of A. D is father of A. C is sister of B. What is the relation of E with C?
(a) Sister
(b) Father
(c) Uncle
(d) Nephew
Ans: (c)
4. Which number when placed at the sign of question mark, shall complete the matrix in a logical manner?
(a) 9
(b) 23
(c) 27
(d) 33
Ans: (d)
5. Find out the number from the given alternatives to complete the given series in a logical manner
538, 725, 813, ?
(a) 219
(b) 328
(c) 455
(d) 640
Ans: (d)
6. How many terms are there in the series 201, 208, 215, ……,….. 313
(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 17
Ans: (d)
7. If SAND is written as VDQG and BRID is written as ELUG in a coded language, then how will LOVE be written in the same language?
(a) NPUH
(b) ORYH
(c) PRYG
(d) ORTG
Ans: (b)
8. Arrange the following in a logical order:
1. GOLD 2. SAND
3. IRON 4. PLATINUM
5. DIAMOND
(a) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
(c) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3
(d) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
Ans: (b)
9. Find out t he missing number from the given alternatives at the place of sign (?) to complete the matrix
(a) 92
(b) 38
(c) 66
(d) 36
Ans: (b)
10. A group of 1200 army persons consisting of captain and soldiers are travelling in a train. For every 15 soldiers, there is one captain. Find out the total numbers of captains in the group?
(a) 80
(b) 78
(c) 75
(d) 72
Ans: (c)
11. Four out of the five given pairs of numbers have the common relation. Find the odd one out.
I. 4 : 63 II. 1 : 0 III. 5 : 124
IV. 3 : 25 V. 2 : 15
(a) I
(b) III
(c) V
(d) IV
Ans: (c)
12. There are five rivers A, B, C, D and E. A is shorter than B, but longer than E. C is the longest one. If D is shorter than B, but longer than A, then which is the shortest river?
(a) E
(b) A
(c) D
(d) B
Ans: (a)
13. A man stars walking in the East direction from point A and covers a certain distance till point B. At point B, he turns right and walks the same distance he covered,, while walking in East direction. Then he again turn left and covers the same distance. Finally, he turns left and walks the same distance to point C. How many times is the distance between A and C to that of A and B
(a) Two times
(b) Three times
(c) Equal
(d) Half
Ans: (a)
14. If there is a difference of Rs. 5 on the interest component received from two different Banks on a deposit of Rs. 1000 each for two year term, then find out the difference in rate of interest paid by the banks
(a) 5%
(b) 1.50%
(c) 0.50%
(d) 0.25%
Ans: (d)
15. A group of friends decided to visit a fare and spend an amount of Rs. 96 on food items. However four friends did not turn up, as a result, rest of the friends had to incur an additional expense of Rs. 4 each. Find out the number of friends, who visited the fare?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 5
Ans: (c)
16. A is three times as old as B. Four years ago, C was twice as old as A. Four years from now, A will be 31 years old. What is the present age of B and C?
(a) 9 yr and 46 yr
(b) 9 yr and 50 yr
(c) 10 yr and 46 yr
(d) 10 yr and 50 yr
Ans: (b)
17. Select the most suitable word from the given alternatives at sign (?), which will complete the analogy.
DOCTOR : PATIENT : : POLITICIAN :?
(a) LEADER
(b) POSITION
(c) ELECTION
(d) VOTERS
Ans: (d)
18. A lift has a capacity of 12 adults or 20 children. If there are 15 children in the lift, how many adults can be accommodated in the lift?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
Ans: (d)
19. Choose the correct option in place of question mark (?) to complete the matrix.
(a) K 7
(b) L 7
(c) K 8
(d) N 8
Ans: (c)
20. A large piece of 5 × 30 × 30 cm is cut into smaller pieces of size 5 × 5 × 10 cm. How many smaller pieces can be obtained?
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 6
Ans: (a)
21. A cube with a side of 3 inch was coloured in red from all sides. Then this cube was cut into 27 smaller cubes. Find out the number of smaller cubes, which has red colour on two sides
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 15
Ans: (c)
22. How many times, the minute hand and hour hand of a clock will form a right angle between 10 AM to 10 PM?
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 36
(d) 48
Ans: (b)
23. A man travels from one point to another point at a speed of 12 k m/h and returns back from the same point to his starting point at a speed of 8 km/h. Calculate the average speed of his complete journey.
(a) 10 km/h
(b) 10.5 km/h
(c) 9 km/h
(d) 9.6 km/h
Ans: (d)
24. A basket is being filled with apples and the quantity of apples doubles every minute. If the basket is completely filled with apples in an hour, at what time will the basket be half filled?
(a) 15 min
(b) 45 min
(c) 30 min
(d) 59 min
Ans: (d)
25. If the length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 20%, the percentage increase in the area of rectangle will be
(a) 24%
(b) 22%
(c) 44%
(d) 40%
Ans: (c)
26. A seller initially sells his product at 10% more than his cost price. Later h e reduces the selling price by 10%. What will be the net effect on his profit and loss?
(a) 1% loss
(b) 1% profit
(c) 2% profit
(d) No profit, no loss
Ans: (a)
27. If an amount doubles in 5b years on a fixed rate of interest compounded annually, then in what time the amount will become eight times?
(a) 10 yr
(b) 12 yr
(c) 15 yr
(d) 21 yr
Ans: (c)
28. If 1st March, 2008 was a Saturday, what day it was on March 1st, 2002?
(a) Saturday
(b) Friday
(c) Sunday
(d) Thursday
Ans: (b)
29. Four different positions of the same dice have been shown. Find out, which number is on the opposite surface of number 3?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 1
Ans: (a)
30. The following Venn diagram shows the number of students, who got distinction in three subjects out of a total 500 students. Study the diagram carefully and find out the percentage of students, who got distribution in two subject?
(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) 16%
Ans: (a)
Part III General Knowledge
31. Battle of Haldighati in the year 1576 was fought between:
(a) Shershah-Humayun
(b) Maharana Pratap-Akbar
(c) Muhammad Ghori-Prithviraj Chauhan
(d) Babur-Ibrahim Lodi
Ans: (b)
32. Who was the architect of Humayun’s Tomb situated at Delhi?
(a) Mirak Mirza Ghiyath
(b) Abdul Latif
(c) Mir Qasim
(d) Shaikh Alam Shah
Ans: (a)
33. Which article of the Constitution of India declared Hindi as the official language of India?
(a) Article-315
(b) Article-343
(c) Article-370
(d) Article-51 A
Ans: (b)
34. Which Indian film has won the National Award for best film in 2016?
(a) Baahubali
(b) Bajirao Mastani
(c) Baby
(d) Bajrangi Bhaijaan
Ans: (a)
35. Recently Akhilesh Yadav led Samajwadi government has proposed to increase the salaries of Legislators from
(a) Rs. 75000 to Rs. 125000 per month
(b) Rs. 60000 to Rs. 75000 per month
(c) Rs. 50000 to Rs. 60000 per month
(d) Rs. 40000 to Rs. 50000 per month
Ans: (a)
36. Which Nation won its 1000th Olympic Gold Medal at Rio Olympic 2016?
(a) Germany
(b) China
(c) Britain
(d) America
Ans: (d)
37. What is the average annual temperature of Uttar Pradesh State?
(a) 38℃
(b) 28℃
(c) 31℃
(d) 40℃
Ans: (b)
38. What is the estimated length of ‘BICYCLE HIGHWAY’ to be developed by Uttar Pradesh government to encourage eco-tourism?
(a) 250 km
(b) 150 km
(c) 200 km
(d) 300 km
Ans: (c)
39. The highest point of India is
(a) Mount Iso
(b) Saddle Peak
(c) Kangchenjunga
(d) Doli Gutta
Ans: (c)
40. What is the approximate ratio of Hydrogen to Helium in Sun?
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 4 : 3
Ans: (b)
41. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 18
Ans: (c)
42. Which of the following blood group is called ‘Universal Donor’?
(a) A
(b) AB
(c) O
(d) B
Ans: (c)
43. The new numbering scheme for National Highway Network in India was introduced in which year?
(a) 2005
(b) 2010
(c) 2012
(d) 2014
Ans: (b)
44. Which is the largest lake in India?
(a) Wular Lake
(b) Loktak Lake
(c) Dal Lake
(d) Pangong Iso
Ans: (a)
45. Which article of the Indian Constitution gives Jammu and Kashmir a special status?
(a) Article-315
(b) Article-353
(c) Article-363
(d) Article-370
Ans: (d)
46. The ‘SACHET’ portal to check illegal money collection has been launched by
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Income Tax Department
(c) Central Excise Department
(d) Central Bureau of Investigation
Ans: (a)
47. Famous author of Indian origin Arvind Adiga has written, which of the following Book?
(a) India 2020
(b) Golden Threshold
(c) Kora Kagaz
(d) The White Tiger
Ans: (d)
48. Under the ongoing Income declaration Scheme 2016, which is the last date to declare unaccounted Assets and Income?
(a) October 2, 2016
(b) September 30, 2016
(c) August 15, 2016
(d) August 31, 2016
Ans: (b)
49. Which is the smallest country in the world in term of geographical area?
(a) Singapore
(b) Macau
(c) Vatican City
(d) Maldives
Ans: (c)
50. Under the Samajwadi free Smartphone Yojana, a resident of Uttar Pradesh can register for free smartphone, provided his annual income is up to
(a) Rs. 4 lakh
(b) Rs. 3 lakh
(c) Rs. 2.5 lakh
(d) Rs. 2 lakh
Ans: (d)
51. ‘ALU’ in computer system stands for
(a) Arithmetical Logical Unit
(b) Array Logic Unit
(c) Application Logic Unit
(d) All drive Logic Unit
Ans: (a)
52. Which one of the following is different from others?
(a) Linux
(b) Google
(c) Windows
(d) IOS
Ans: (b)
53. Who has been appointed as the new Lokayukta of Uttar Pradesh in 2016?
(a) Justice Rudrama Devi
(b) Justice Arun Mishra
(c) Justice Deepak Mishra
(d) Justice Sanjay Mishra
Ans: (d)
54. Which is the second largest gland in human body?
(a) Gall Bladder
(b) Pituitary
(c) Pancreas
(d) Liver
Ans: (c)
55. At Rio Olympic 2016, Carolina Marin defeated, which player to win Gold Medal in Women’s single Badminton?
(a) Yu Yang
(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Majin
(d) PV Sindhu
Ans: (d)
56. Recently, which country was declared Malaria-free by World Health Organisation (WHO)
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Iran
(d) Kenya
Ans: (b)
57. When was the national Anthem of India adopted by Constituent Assembly?
(a) August 15, 1947
(b) January 26, 1950
(c) January 1, 1948
(d) January 24, 1950
Ans: (d)
58. ‘Pravasi Bhartiya Divas’ in India is celebrated on
(a) January 1
(b) February 15
(c) October 11
(d) January 9
Ans: (d)
59. Which of the following is not an inner planet?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Neptune
Ans: (d)
60. Where is the birth place of legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand?
SSC Stenographer Recruitment Examination Held on July 31, 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Stenographer Recruitment Examination Held on July 31, 2016
Part I Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-9) Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.
1. Prediction : Future : : Regret : ?
(a) Past
(b) Present
(c) Sin
(d) Time
Ans: (a)
2. Adversary : Enemy : : Adversity : ?
(a) Friend
(b) Dynamic
(c) Love
(d) Difficulty
Ans: (d)
3. Bird : Worm :: ?
(a) Horse : Stable
(b) Trap : Cheese
(c) Lion : Cave
(d) Cat : Mouse
Ans: (d)
4. MAD : JXA : : RUN : ?
(a) OSQ
(b) PRJ
(c) UXQ
(d) ORK
Ans: (d)
5. BEGK: ADFJ:: PSVY: ?
(a) ORUX
(b) ROUX
(c) LQUT
(d) LOQT
Ans: (a)
6. AZBY: CXDW : : EVFU : ?
(a) GHTS
(b) TGSH
(c) GTHS
(d) GSTH
Ans: (c)
7. 42 : 20 : : 64 : ?
(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 33
(d) 34
Ans: (a)
8. 6 : 18 : : : 4 : ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 14
Ans: (d)
9. 8 : 24 : : ? : 32
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 8
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-18) Find the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.
10.
(a) Tired
(b) Tardy
(c) Slow
(d) Late
Ans: (d)
11.
(a) Agitation
(b) Confusion
(c) Commotion
(d) Annihilation
Ans: (b)
12.
(a) Pen : Stationery
(b) Earth : Moon
(c) Sun: Star
(d) Painter : Artist
Ans: (b)
13.
(a) EDC
(b) MLK
(c) NPR
(d) XWV
Ans: (c)
14.
(a) MOQS
(b) ZADE
(c) CEGI
(d) SUWY
Ans: (b)
15.
(a) NILE
(b) LIEN
(c) LINE
(d) LEAN
Ans: (a)
16.
(a) 78
(b) 91
(c) 84
(d) 26
Ans: (c)
17.
(a) 48
(b) 96
(c) 59
(d) 12
Ans: (c)
18.
(a) 16-32
(b) 19-38
(c) 21-40
(d) 23-46
Ans: (c)
19. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order?
1. Probation 2. Interview
3. Selection 4. Appointment
5. Advertisement
(a) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
(c) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
Ans: (a)
20. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence :
1. Printer 2. Publisher
3. Writer 4. Editor
5. Seller
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(d) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
Ans: (b)
21. Which of the following words will come fourth, if arranged according to the English dictionary?
(a) Rain
(b) Reef
(c) Ready
(d) Rainbow
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 22-26) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
22. ACE, GIK, MOQ, ?
(a) RTU
(b) SUW
(c) UVW
(d) STV
Ans: (b)
23. LMnP, PQrT, TUvX, ?
(a) VWnP
(b) PRsT
(c) UVwY
(d) XYzB
Ans: (d)
24. 826, 480, 346, 134, ?
(a) 83
(b) 61
(c) 212
(d) 126
Ans: (c)
25. 78, 155, 309, ?, 1233
(a) 625
(b) 1230
(c) 1000
(d) 617
Ans: (d)
26. 5, 8, 16, 19, 38, 41, ?
(a) 44
(b) 80
(c) 40
(d) 82
Ans: (d)
27. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
h_t_l_tt_lht_m_htt_l
(a) m m h t l t m
(b) h m m t t l m
(c) t m h m t l m
(d) l m t m h m t
Ans: (c)
28. A and B is a married couple. C and D are brothers. C is the brother of A. How is D related to B?
(a) Brother-in-law
(b) Brother
(c) Son-in-law
(d) Cousin
Ans: (a)
29. The average age of the present ages of Amit and Anil is 32 years. If Amit is 6 years older than Anil, then what is Anil’s present age?
(a) 29 yr
(b) 38 yr
(c) 26 yr
(d) 19 yr
Ans: (a)
30. From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
JURISPRUDENCE
(a) PREJUDICE
(b) PRINCE
(c) PRUNE
(d) PRESIDENT
Ans: (d)
31. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.
MONUMENT
(a) TENENT
(b) TENT
(c) MOUNT
(d) MOVEMENT
Ans: (c)
32. If in a certain code, DIAGRAM is written as AFXDOXJ, then how can PICTURE be written in that code?
(a) NGARSPC
(b) MGAQRPB
(c) NFYQROC
(d) MFZQROB
Ans: (d)
33. If ABLE is written as 5324 and BINGO is written as 36178, then BANGLE can be written as
(a) 351724
(b) 356724
(c) 321846
(d) 362417
Ans: (a)
34. If ‘+’ stands for ÷; ‘×’ stands for +; ‘−’ stands for ×, ‘÷’ stands for −, then which of the following equations is correct?
(a) 33 – 4 ÷ 5 × 6 + 2 = 130
(b) 33 × 4 – 5 + 6 ÷ 2 = 26
(c) 33 ÷ 4 × 5 + 6 – 2 = 30
(d) 33 – 4 + 5 ÷ 6 × 2 = 24
Ans: (a)
35. Sonu and his friend Rahul went for shopping. Sonu had Rs. 500 with him while Rahul had Rs. 240. Sonu spent twice as much as Rahul on shopping. Now, Sonu has three times as much money as is left with Rahul. How much money did Sonu spend?
(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 440
(d) Rs. 120
Ans: (c)
36. Which one of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
5 + 3 × 8 – 12 ÷ 4 = 3
(a) + and −
(b) − and ÷
(c) + and ×
(d) + and ÷
Ans: (b)
37. Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
If 29 × 13 = 14, 76 × 26 = 34, then 64 × 14 = ?
(a) 54
(b) 39
(c) 32
(d) 26
Ans: (*)
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-39) Select the missing number from the given responses.
38. 121 100 ? 169
4 8 9 7
7 2 5 6
(a) 81
(b) 114
(c) 196
(d) 214
Ans: (c)
39. 1 4 9 16
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 4
Ans: (a)
40. A girl leaves from her home. She first walks 30 m in North-West direction and then 30 m in South-West direction. Next, she walks 30 m in South-East direction. Finally, she turns towards her house. In which direction is she moving?
(a) North-East
(b) North-West
(c) South-East
(d) South-West
Ans: (a)
41. Starting from a point O, Mahesh walks a distance of 5 km South, then turns to his right and walks 3 km. From there, he again turns right and walks 5 km. .He then runs to his left and walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 15 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 8 km
(d) 5 km
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-43) Two statements are given followed by two/our conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
42.Statements
All apples are oranges.
Some oranges are papayas.
Conclusions
I. Some apples are papayas.
II. Some papayas are apples.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither I nor II follows
Ans: (d)
43. Statements
All aeroplanes are trains.
Some trains are chairs.
Conclusions
I. Some aeroplanes are chairs.
II. Some chairs are aeroplanes.
III. Some chairs are trains.
IV. Some chairs are trains.
(a) None follows
(b) I and II follow
(c) II and III follow
(d) III and IV follow
Ans: (d)
44. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 22
Ans: (b)
45. Which of the following figures given the proper relation to Fruit, Red and Shirt?
Ans: (d)
46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Ans: (b)
47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
Ans: (d)
48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened
Ans: (a)
49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the question figure?
Ans: (b)
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 90. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘O’ can be represented by 01, 33 etc. and ‘Q’ can be represented by 55, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘METAL’.
(a) 23, 67, 96, 40, 44
(b) 23, 76, 95, 40, 44
(c) 32, 76, 95, 44, 04
(d) 32, 76, 44, 95, 04
Ans: (c)
Part II General Awareness
51. The supply side measure to control inflation is
(a) credit control
(b) reducing public expenditure
(c) price control through Public Distribution System
(d) higher taxation to mop up liquidity
Ans: (d)
52. The Ability Principle of Taxation is given by
(a) JS Mill
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Edgeworth
(d) Joan Robinson
Ans: (b)
53. ‘World Economic Report’ is published by
(a) UNCTAD
(b) World Bank
(c) UNDP
(d) IMF
Ans: (d)
54. ‘Galloping inflation’ is also known as
(a) Creeping inflation
(b) Walking inflation
(c) Running inflation
(d) Hyper inflation
Ans: (d)
55. Average fixed cost curve is
(a) downward sloping
(b) Walking inflation
(c) Running inflation
(d) Hyper inflation
Ans: (c)
56. Article-368 of the Indian Constitution deals with
(a) amending procedure
(b) emergency provisions
(c) right to primary education
(d) right to information
Ans: (a)
57. Who among the following proposed the suggestion for a Constituent Assembly first in 1935?
(a) MN Roy
(b) Nehru
(c) Gandhi
(d) JP Narayan
Ans: (a)
58. According to Paul Appleby, the quality of good administrators is
(a) self-confidence
(b) intelligence
(c) integrity
(d) loyalty
Ans: (b)
59. Which of the following works of Plato is primarily a ‘treastise’ on justice?
(a) Apology
(b) Phaedo
(c) The Statesman
(d) The Republic
Ans: (d)
60. Who was referred to as the ‘Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity’ by Sarojini Naidu?
(a) Maulana Azad
(b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(c) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(d) Shaukat Ali
Ans: (b)
61. The capital of Yadava kings was
(a) Krishnagiri
(b) Devagiri
(c) Varanasi
(d) Kanchipuram
Ans: (b)
62. The fall of Bastille is associated with the
(a) Greek War of Independence
(b) Russian Revolution of November, 1917
(c) French Revolution of 1789
(d) American War of Independence
Ans: (c)
63. Which Governor-General was called as the ‘Father of Local Self-Government’ in India?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Ans: (a)
64. ‘The Three Emperor’s League’, 1873 was also known as
(a) The Dual Alliance
(b) Dreikaiserbund Treaty
(c) Triple Alliance
(d) Reinsurance Treaty
Ans: (b)
65. Panditraj Jagannath was the poet laureate of which of the following rulers?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Ans: (c)
66. Which of the following is formed out of volcanic eruptions in India?
(a) Himalayas
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Lakshadweep Islands
(d) Western Ghats
Ans: (b)
67. Terrigenous deposits are found in
(a) continental shelf and slope
(b) deep sea plain
(c) ocean trenches
(d) rift valley
Ans: (a)
68. Which of the following is the only volcanic peak in Antarctica?
(a) Mt. Cook
(b) Mt. Blanc
(c) Mt. Erebus
(d) Mt. Elbrus
Ans: (c)
69. Who laid the foundation of the ‘School of Possibilism’?
(a) Ratzel
(b) Brunches
(c) La Blache
(d) Humboldt
Ans: (c)
70. The lysimeter helps in the estimation of
(a) wind direction
(b) evapotranspiration
(c) relative humidity
(d) vapour pressure
Ans: (b)
71. Compounds that are needed for enzymes to function properly are
(a) buffers
(b) steroids
(c) vitamins
(d) heavy metals
Ans: (c)
72. Heavy water is
(a) deuterium oxide
(b) deuterium
(c) rain water
(d) tritium oxide
Ans: (a)
73. Which one of the following is commonly known as ‘Pond Silk’?
(a) Ulothrix
(b) Spirogya
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Yeast
Ans: (b)
74. ‘Gynecomastia’ is
(a) development of breasts in males
(b) development of hair on ears in males
(c) increased height in females
(d) development of an extra finger in females
Ans: (a)
75. The highest concentration of urea is found in
(a) renal vein
(b) hepatic portal vein
(c) dorsal aorta
(d) hepatic vein
Ans: (d)
76. The inert gas which is substituted for nitrogen in the air used by deep sea divers for breathing, is
(a) helium
(b) xenon
(c) krypton
(d) argon
Ans: (a)
77. Cryogenics is the study of
(a) low temperature
(b) high temperature
(c) superconductor
(d) production of fuels
Ans: (a)
78. To prevent damage from lightning, lightning conductors are sued on tall structures. The lightning conductor
(a) should be made of a good conductor, like copper with sharp pointed edges
(b) should be made of a good conductor but can be of any shape
(c) should be in the form of a vertical rod
(d) can be of any shape.
Ans: (b)
79. Infrared radiations are detected by
(a) spectrometer
(b) pyrometer
(c) nanometer
(d) photometer
Ans: (a)
80. Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are
(a) electromagnetic radiations
(b) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
(c) charged particles emitted by nucleus
(d) neutral particles
Ans: (a)
81. Which of the following computer memories is non-volatile?
(a) RAM
(b) DRAM
(c) SRAM
(d) ROM
Ans: (a)
82. In present day computing, which code is used and is accepted worldwide?
(a) ISCII
(b) ASCII
(c) Hollerith Code
(d) EBCDIC
Ans: (b)
83. Which of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
(a) Ethylamine
(b) Diethylamine
(c) Triethylamine
(d) Ammonia
Ans: (c)
84. Which one of the following is not an artificial sweetener?
(a) Aspartame
(b) Fructose
(c) Saccharin
(d) Sucralose
Ans: (b)
85. An acid having basicity one is
(a) Phosphoric acid
(b) Sodium dihydrogen phosphate
(c) Disodium hydrogen phosphate
(d) Sodium phosphate
Ans: (a)
86. Which one of the following vegetable oils is used in the manufacture of paints?
(a) Cottonseed oil
(b) Palm oil
(c) Sunflower oil
(d) Linseed oil
Ans: (d)
87. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c) ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Ans: (d)
88. Which of the following is not a gaseous air pollutant?
(a) Oxides of sulphur
(b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Hydrocarbon
(d) Smoke
Ans: (c)
89. Which one of the following is called the ‘Land of One Thousand Lakes’?
(a) Finland
(b) Sweden
(c) Greenland
(d) The USA
Ans: (a)
90. The tree popularly known as ‘Green Gold’, but which is an ecological
(a) Eucalyptus
(b) Banyan
(c) Pipal
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
91. Garampani Wildlife Sanctuary is located at
(a) Junagarh (Gujarat)
(b) Diphu (Assam)
(c) Gangtok (Sikkim)
(d) Kohim (Nagaland)
Ans: (b)
92. Who won the prestigious Gujarmal Modi Award for Innovative Science and Technology for the year 2015?
(a) Amalendu Krishna
(b) Professor Mustansir Barma
(c) GM Reddy
(d) Vivekanand Kain
Ans: (b)
93. ‘Entomology’ is the science that studies
(a) insects
(b) behaviour of human beings
(c) formation of rocks
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
94. Which country uses the ‘Birr’ as its currency?
(a) Estonia
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Togo
(d) Eritera
Ans: (b)
95. How many Noble Prize awards are awarded each year?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 4
Ans: (a)
96. Wellington trophy is associated with
(a) bridge
(b) rowing
(c) Chess
(d) hockey
Ans: (b)
97. World Autism Awareness Day is observed on
(a) April 1
(b) April 2
(c) April 3
(d) April 5
Ans: (b)
98. Who invented the ‘World Wide Web’?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Tim Berners Lee
(c) Martin Cooper
(d) R. Samuel Tomlinson
Ans: (b)
99. The novel ‘When the river Sleeps’ is written by
(a) Easterine Kire
(b) Anuradha Roy
(c) Vikram Seth
(d) Shobha De
Ans: (a)
100. In Which country did the world’s first organized motor race occur?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) The USA
(d) Portugal
Ans: (a)
Part III English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 101-110) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out, which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, choose ‘No Error’.
101. I want to exchange (a) / my Maruti (b)/ from a Santro. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (c)
102. There were extensive (a)/ lawn in front (b)/ of the bungalow. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (b)
103. Wise men follow nobel (a)/ideas whereas fools (b)/ disregard them. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (a)
104. The navel officers (a)/ successfully fought the pirates (b)/who had looted and plundered for many years. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (c)
105. He acted no (a)/as per my advice (b)/but somebody else. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (c)
106. The chairs in the (a)/ room are in a (b)/ state disarray. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (c)
107. Ashoka the Great was (a)/ regarded one of the greatest Emperors (b)/the world has ever produced. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (d)
108. Will you please (a)/ given me little milk (b) for my cat? (c) No error (d)
Ans: (b)
109. The light bulbs (a)/ on the hall (b)/ need to be changed. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (b)
110. A recent survey indicates (a)/ that the number of drug addicts (b)/grew day by day. (c) No error (d)
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (S). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the most appropriate alternative out of the four.
111. Do Not look ……. on women.
(a) up
(b) down
(c) right
(d) left
Ans: (b)
112. I ……. him on this point.
(a) agree to
(b) agreeing with
(c) agreed with
(d) admitted to
Ans: (c)
113. The stranger ……… in through the window last night.
(a) creeps
(b) creep
(c) crept
(d) creeping
Ans: (c)
114. They ……. living here since 2000.
(a) are still
(b) have been
(c) are
(d) will be
Ans: (b)
115. The specialist ……. you want to meet is available only one Thursday.
(a) which
(b) whom
(c) whose
(d) who
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the similar meaning of the given words.
116. Hesitate
(a) Resolve
(b) Determine
(c) Pause
(d) Settle
Ans: (c)
117. Consciousness
(a) Vision
(b) Understanding
(c) Nothingness
(d) Awareness
Ans: (d)
118. Calibre
(a) Career
(b) Capacity
(c) Calmness
(d) Crowd
Ans: (b)
119. Persuade
(a) Deter
(b) Hinder
(c) Coax
(d) Restrain
Ans: (c)
120. Wander
(a) Race
(b) Wrestle
(c) Gallop
(d) Roam
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given words.
121. Virtue
(a) Fool
(b) Vice
(c) Untrue
(d) Defeat
Ans: (b)
122. Evasive
(a) Categorical
(b) Indefinite
(c) Explicit
(d) Unclear
Ans: (c)
123. Relentless
(a) Gentle
(b) Sensitive
(c) Yielding
(d) Kind
Ans: (c)
124. Hostility
(a) Enmity
(b) Friendship
(c) Partnership
(d) Relationship
Ans: (b)
125. Assent
(a) Separation
(b) Confusion
(c) Dissent
(d) Self-interest
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 126-130) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
126. The teacher was taken aback by the student’s remark.
(a) annoyed
(b) surprised
(c) hurt
(d) pleased
Ans: (b)
127. The Lawyer insisted on having the contract in black and white.
(a) in writing
(b) orally
(c) figuratively
(d) obliquely
Ans: (a)
128. Our parents allowed us to watch films once in a blue moon.
(a) everywhere
(b) rarely
(c) secretly
(d) forever
Ans: (b)
129. Hold your tongue, my Lad ! I’ll deal with you later.
(a) Stick out the tongue
(b) Be silent
(c) Cool the tongue
(d) Gargle
Ans: (b)
130. If you read his letter between the lines, you will find that he has no faith in his colleague’s honesty.
(a) strain your eyes
(b) read in secret
(c) find out the inner meaning
(d) read an untidy letter
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order, Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
131. 1. My grandmother was an old woman
P. But that was hard to believe
Q. And she even had a husband
R. People said that she had once been young and pretty
S. She had been like this for the twenty years that I had known her
6. She often told us of the games she used to play as child.
The proper sequence should be
(a) SRQP
(b) QPSR
(c) RSPQ
(d) RPQS
Ans: (a)
132. 1. It is the twilight hour
P. The sound breaks the still silence around me
Q. I turn round and see her seated on a rock
R. I hear more bells behind me
S. The temple bell rings in the distance
6. Her eyes sparkle like the anklets on her swinging feet
The proper sequence should be
(a) RSQP
(b) SPRQ
(c) SQPR
(d) RQSP
Ans: (b)
133. 1. Use bright, cheerful, favourable words and phrases to describe other people. Make it
P. for all your friendss and associates
Q. Be extremely careful
R. a rule to have a big, positive word
S. to avoid
6. the petty cut-him-down language.
The proper sequence should be
(a) PQRS
(b) RSPQ
(c) RPQS
(d) QRPS
Ans: (c)
134. 1. An officer in Andhra Pradesh
P. found that the tribals put
Q. materials in turbid water
R. who was in charge of tribal development
S. certain gums and wood
6. to make the water clear.
The proper sequence should be
(a) RSPQ
(b) PSRQ
(c) PQSR
(d) RPSQ
Ans: (d)
135. 1. Along with the orthodox Hindu’s
P. and in the deity,
Q. Raghupati has his Brahmin’s pride
R. faith in the scriptures
S. because he is the
6. lord of the temple.
The proper sequence should be
(a) SPQR
(b) RPQS
(c) RQPS
(d) SQPR
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 136-145) A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternative suggested, select the one, which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
136. James Cameron directed the Titanic.
(a) The Titanic has been directed by James Cameron.
(b) The Titanic was directed by James Cameron.
(c) James Cameron had directed the Titanic.
(d) James Cameron had been directing the Titanic.
Ans: (b)
137. Dutta teaches us English.
(a) English is taught to us by Dutta.
(b) We are being taught English by Dutta.
(c) By Duta were are taught English.
(d) We have been taught English by Dutta.
Ans: (a)
138. Has the postman not delivered the letter?
(a) Has the letter been delivered by the postman?
(b) Has the letter not been delivered by the postman?
(c) Is the letter delivered by the postman?
(d) The postman hasn’t delivered the letter.
Ans: (b)
139. John is building a new cupboard.
(a) John has been building a new cupboard.
(b) A new cupboard is being built by John.
(c) A new cupboard is been built by John.
(d) John’s new cupboard is being built.
Ans: (b)
140. Someone will pay you next Monday.
(a) You would be paid next Monday.
(b) Someone will be paying you next Monday.
(c) You will be paid next Monday.
(d) Someone is going to pay you next Monday.
Ans: (c)
141. Drinking was ruining his life gradually.
(a) His life was being ruined gradually by drinking.
(b) His life ruined by gradual drinking.
(c) Gradually, his life is ruined because of drinking problems.
(d) Drinking problems caused the gradual ruin of his life.
Ans: (a)
142. A small epitaph had been laid out by them in his memory.
(a) They laid out a small epitaph.
(b) They had laid out a small epitaph in his memory.
(c) They were laying out, in h is memory, a small epitaph
(d) They lay out a small epitaph in his memory.
Ans: (b)
143. The nurse is giving food to the sick boy.
(a) The sick boy is given food by the nurse.
(b) The sick boy gets food from the nurse.
(c) The sick boy is being given food by the nurse.
(d) Food is given to the sick boy by the nurse.
Ans: (c)
144. Our parents have taught us to behave properly.
(a) We have been taught to behave properly by our parents.
(b) We were taught how not to behave properly by our parents.
(c) Our parents taught us how to behave properly.
(d) Our parents have been teaching us how to behave properly.
Ans: (a)
145. Why did your father refuse such an honourable job?
(a) Why was such an honourable job denied by your father?
(b) Why does your father refused such an honourable job?
(c) Why is such an honourable job refused by your father?
(d) Why was such an honourable job refused by your father?
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-155) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required,, choose ‘No Improvement’ option.
146. He is entitled to a reward for honesty.
(a) titled
(b) entitle to
(c) entitled
(d) No improvement
Ans: (d)
147. The sight chosen for the school building is good.
(a) site
(b) eye-sight
(c) side
(d) No improvement
Ans: (a)
148. The matter must be considered in every point of view.
(a) from every
(b) at every
(c) on every
(d) No improvement
Ans: (a)
149. The poor villagers have waited in the bitter cold for more than two hours now.
(a) has been waiting
(b) had waited
(c) have been waiting
(d) No improvement
Ans: (c)
150. You must accustom yourself with new
(a) accustomed with
(b) accustom to
(c) accustom yourself to
(d) No improvement
Ans: (c)
151. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of need?
(a) borrow me a few rupees
(b) lend me any rupees
(c) lend me a few rupees
(d) No improvement
Ans: (c)
152. The car with a burst tyre halted swiftly.
(a) stopped quick
(b) stopped fastly
(c) jolted to a halt
(d) No improvement
Ans: (d)
153. Many incidents of the last month seem unimportant when viewed in perception.
(a) prospective
(b) perceptive
(c) perspective
(d) No improvement
Ans: (c)
154. The youths jostled their way in the crowd.
(a) over
(b) through
(c) among
(d) No improvement
Ans: (b)
155. What is wrong with t he argument is that even if the two premises are true, then the conclusion isn’t necessarily true.
(a) the conclusion will be true
(b) the conclusion is false
(c) the conclusions aren’t necessarily true
(d) No improvement
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 156-165) A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct.
156. I said to him, “You are wrong.”
(a) I told him how wrong he was.
(b) I told him that he was wrong.
(c) I said that he was wrong.
(d) I told him that he is wrong.
Ans: (b)
157. He said to me, “You are late.”
(a) He said to me that you were late.
(b) He said to me that I was late.
(c) He told me that I was late.
(d) He told me that you were late.
Ans: (c)
158. The teacher said, “Be quiet and listen to my words.
(a) The teacher said to stop talking and listen to her words.
(b) The students were told be quiet and listen to her words.
(c) The teacher asked the students to be quiet and listen to her words.
(d) The teacher shouted students listen to my words and be quiet.
Ans: (c)
159. He said that the book was very interesting.
(a) He said, “This book is very interesting.”
(b) He said, “This book has been very interesting.”
(c) He said, “This book had been very interesting.”
(d) He said, “This book would be very interesting.”
Ans: (a)
160. She said to him, “I have bought a new car.”
(a) She told him that she would buy a new car.
(b) She told him that a new car has been bought by her.
(c) She told him that she had bought a new car.
(d) She told him that she has bought a new car.
Ans: (c)
161. “I love chocolate,” said Angeline.
(a) Angeline said that she loves chocolate.
(b) Angeline said she loved chocolate.
(c) Angeline said she loves chocolate.
(d) Angeline says she loved chocolate.
Ans: (b)
162. “Do you know that man ?” Ravi asked his friend.
(a) Ravi asked his friend he knew or not that man.
(b) Ravi asked his friend if he knows that man.
(c) Ravi asked his friend whether he knew that man.
(d) Ravi asked his friend whether he knows that man.
Ans: (c)
163. I asked him whether he had not promised to come.
(a) I asked him, “Did you come? You promise.”
(b) I said to him, “Did you not promise to come?”
(c) I said to him, “Do you not promise to come?”
(d) I said, “Did I ask you not to come?”
Ans: (b)
164. Rahul said, “What have you been searching for all these hours ?”
(a) Rahul asked me what I was searching for all these days?
(b) Rahul asked me what I had been searching for all those hours?
(c) Rahul asked what Ii have been searching for all those hours?
(d) Rahul said that what you had been searching for all these hours?
Ans: (b)
165. He said to the children. “Come to the park with me.”
(a) He invited the children to come to the park with me.
(b) He invited the children to come to the park with him.
(c) I invited the children to come to the park with me.
(d) I invited the children to come to the park with us.
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 166-185) In the following two passages, some of the words have been left out. Read the passages carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.
Passage I
How old is the Earth? This is a (166) to which we may never have the exact (167). Man has (168) about the age of the Earth since (169) times and there were all kinds of myths and (170) that seemed to have the answer. When it was proven that the Earth (171) around the Sun, (172) then knew where to begin. To find the (173) of the Earth, it was necessary to (174) how the solar system was (175).
166.
(a) point
(b) question
(c) debate
(d) fact
Ans: (b)
167.
(a) reason
(b) logic
(c) answer
(d) deduction
Ans: (c)
168.
(a) wondered
(b) marvelled
(c) thought
(d) asked
Ans: (a)
169.
(a) antiquated
(b) bygone
(c) olden
(d) ancient
Ans: (d)
170.
(a) tale
(b) legends
(c) fables
(d) story
Ans: (b)
171.
(a) circled
(b) rotated
(c) moved
(d) revolved
Ans: (d)
172.
(a) scientists
(b) scholars
(c) academicians
(d) students
Ans: (a)
173.
(a) years
(b) age
(c) date
(d) oldness
Ans: (b)
174.
(a) tell
(b) narrate
(c) recount
(d) explain
Ans: (d)
175.
(a) born
(b) originated
(c) formed
(d) begun
Ans: (c)
Passage II
One thing we can do is (176) a good book. Another is to look at a new (177) conducted by William Mercer, one of the world’s largest human resources consultancies. Mercer decided to (178) some of the world’s great cities. They produced their results by giving (179) for (180) criteria. These included political, economic and social environment, healthcare, educational provision, recreation and transport (181). So, which are the best cities to live in, and which should we (182)? In (183) first place were Vancouver, Berne, Vienna and Zurich, while Sydney, Geneva, Auckland and Copenhagen came in second. Swiss cities (184) three of the top ten places, making it the single most successful country of all those (185).
176.
(a) look
(b) read
(c) obtain
(d) retrieve
Ans: (b)
177.
(a) survey
(b) research
(c) consultation
(d) advice
Ans: (a)
178.
(a) proclaim
(b) decide
(c) judge
(d) rule
Ans: (c)
179.
(a) signs
(b) spots
(c) marks
(d) places
Ans: (c)
180.
(a) various
(b) ranging
(c) assorted
(d) different
Ans: (d)
181.
(a) ways
(b) reasons
(c) facilities
(d) versions
Ans: (c)
182.
(a) escape
(b) deny
(c) regret
(d) avoid
Ans: (d)
183.
(a) joint
(b) dual
(c) united
(d) together
Ans: (a)
184.
(a) occupied
(b) controlled
(c) absorbed
(d) vacated
Ans: (a)
185.
(a) created
(b) surveyed
(c) experimented
(d) established
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 186-200) You have three brief passages with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Passage I
The London Eye is a giant Ferris wheel situated on the banks of the River Thames in London, England. The entire structure is 135 metres (443 ft) tall and the wheel has a diameter of 120 metres (394 ft). It is the tallest Ferris wheel in Europe, and the most popular paid tourist attraction in the United Kingdom, visited by over 3.5 million people annually. When erected in 1999 it was the tallest Ferris wheel in the world, until surpassed first by the 160 metres (520 ft) Star of Nanchang in 2006 and then the 165 metres (541 ft) Singapore Flyer in 2008. Supported by A-frame on one side only, unlike the taller Nanchang and Singapore wheels, the Eye is described by its operators as “the world’s tallest cantilevered observation wheel”. It provides the highest public viewing point and is the 20th tallest structure, in London.
The London Eye, or Millennium Wheel, was officially called the British Airways London Eye and then the Merlin Entertainments London Eye. Since 20th January, 2011, its official name is the EDF Energy London Eye following a three-years Sponsorship deal.
The London Eye adjoins the western end of Jubilee Gardens, on the South Bank of the River Thames between Westminster Bridge and Hungerford Bridge, in the London Borough of Lambeth. The site is adjacent to that of the former Dome of Discovery, which was built for the Festival of Britain in 1951.
186. The tallest Ferris wheel in the world is
(a) Star of Nanchang
(b) Singapore Flyer
(c) Dome of Discovery
(d) London Eye
Ans: (b)
187. The London Eye is situated on the banks of
(a) Westminster Bridge
(b) Hungerford Bridge
(c) The Thames
(d) London Borough
Ans: (c)
188. Which of the following does not mean the same as ‘entire’?
(a) Complete
(b) Total
(c) Partial
(d) Whole
Ans: (c)
189. The highest viewing point is provided by
(a) Westminster Bridge
(b) Hungerford Bridge
(c) Dome of Discovery
(d) Millennium Wheel
Ans: (d)
190. The structure built for the Festival of Britain in 1951 was
(a) Millennium Wheel
(b) London Eye
(c) Dome of Discovery
(d) Jubilee Gardens
Ans: (c)
Passage II
Not all that glitters is gold. Not all that is white is milk. Not all people, who wear saffron clothes are sages. These age-old saying hold true even now, especially the last one. We see a lot of people wearing saffron clothes, but not all of them are sanyasis in the true sense of the word. A sanyasi is one who guides his followers on the right path.
Recently, I attended the inaugural function of a home for destitute women in Mysore. In most cases, the women were there because they were either harassed by their in-laws or tortured by drunken husbands. Owing to their socio-economic conditions, even the parents of the victims were unable to take them in and care for their helpless children. There had also been instances when young girls, lured by romance, had run away from their homes and had been deserted by their lovers after the honeymoon. These girls usually did not dare return to their parents.
The saying that ‘success has many fathers, but failure has none’ is true indeed. We get to see only the distressed women and their children, while the main cause of their problems remains hidden in the background. So, the victims cannot be blamed altogether. Often it is circumstances that force them into such drudgery. These women and girls need to be psychologically strong and determined to face difficulties with courage and go on with their lives.
191. The opening sentence “Not all that glitters is gold” means
(a) All meals that shine must necessarily be as good as gold
(b) One must not be deceived by appearances
(c) Only gold has that unmistakable shine
(d) Glitter is the true quality of truth
Ans: (b)
192. Wearing saffron clothes does not make one a sanyasi, is another way of saying
(a) saffron must only be worn by true ascetics
(b) saffron is not the favourite colour of the sanyasis
(c) saffron must be changed to some other colour
(d) anybody who wears saffron is a sanyasi
Ans: (a)
193. Owing to their socio-economic conditions, even the parents of the victims were unable to help them because
(a) they were financially self-sufficient
(b) society considered them to be backward
(c) their social and economic situation did not allow them to do so
(d) they could afford to but were reluctant
Ans: (c)
194. Success has may fathers but failure has none means
(a) Success has only fathers but not mothers
(b) Failure has many mothers but not fathers
(c) Success comes naturally to men not women
(d) No one owns upto failure
Ans: (d)
195. The main reason for the main cause of their problems remaining hidden is
(a) nobody has bothered to find out the real cause
(b) people are waiting for it to come out in the open
(c) people don’t want to be bothered with other’s problems
(d) nobody has tried to expose it
Ans: (d)
Passage III
The heart is one of the most vital components of the human body. The heart of the human body has the continuous job to keep oxygen-rich blood flowing through the body. All the body’s cells need a constant supply of oxygen, particularly in the brain. The brain cells live only four to five minutes after the oxygen is cut off and death comes to the entire body. Heart disease can result from damage to the heart muscles, the valves or the pacemaker.
If the muscle is damaged, the heart is unable to pump properly. If the valves are damaged, blood cannot flow normally. Dr John Gibbon of USA developed a machine in 1953 that could take over temporarily from the heat. Surgeons had the chance to repair or replace a defective heart. Many patients have had plastic valves inserted in their hearts when their hearts were faulty. Many people are now being kept alive with tiny battery operated pacemakers.
196. If the supply of oxygen is cut off, the brain cells survive
(a) 4 to 5 minutes
(b) 9 to 10 minutes
(c) for 15 minutes
(d) for an hour
Ans: (a)
197. The heart sends oxygen-rich blood
(a) to the brain only
(b) to the kidneys only
(c) to the entire body
(d) to the lungs only
Ans: (c)
198. Dr John Gibbon of USA developed an artificial heart in
(a) 1955
(b) 1953
(c) 1960
(d) 1950
Ans: (b)
199. Heart diseases occur from
(a) damage to the heart muscles
(b) coronium
(c) pericardium
(d) heart cells
Ans: (a)
200. All the body’s cells need a constant supply of
SSC Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Examination 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
SSC Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Exam 2016
Part-A : General Intelligence And Reasoning
1. ZbYa XdWc VfUe ?
(A) ShTg
(B) ThSi
(C) ThSg
(D) TgSh
Ans: (C)
2. 4, 6, 8, 12, 14, 18, 20, 24, 30, ? ?
(A) 32, 34
(B) 32, 38
(C) 32, 33
(D) 34, 36
Ans: (B)
3. 6, 6, 10, 11, 14, 16, 18, ?
(A) 21
(B) 20
(C) 19
(D) 23
Ans: (A)
Directions (Qs. 4-9): Select the related word/letters/ number from the given alternatives.
4. UASC: YEWG : DHLO : ?
(A) LHUS
(B) HLPS
(C) HLOD
(D) HSPL
Ans: (B)
5. brain : natural :: ? : artificial
(A) deserts
(B) computers
(C) forests
(D) minerals
Ans: (B)
6. 36 : 50 :: 64 : ?
(A) 82
(B) 72
(C) 70
(D) 78
Ans: (A)
7. R : ARE :: U : ?
(A) IUE
(B) URE
(C) VEE
(D) YOU
Ans: (A)
8. 16 : 64 :: 49 : ?
(A) 93
(B) 343
(C) 196
(D) 97
Ans: (B)
9. heat : calorie :: sound : ?
(A) richter
(B) decible
(C) knot
(D) joule
Ans: (B)
Directions (Qs. 10 & 11): Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
10.
1. Directional 2. Directory
3. Directive 4. Directional
(A) 3, 4, 1, 2
(B) 1, 3, 4, 2
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 1, 2
Ans: (D)
11.
1. Analyze 2. Assignation
3. Arrival 4. Assassination
5. Analyst
(A) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
(B) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
(C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
(D) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
Ans: (D)
12. I walk 12 km to the North, then South. How far am I from the starting point?
(A) 34 km
(B) 24 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 22 km
Ans: (C)
Directions (Qs. 13-16): Select the missing number from the given responses.
13. 6 5 3 10
2 8 ? 4
4 6 3 8
5 9 15 3
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans: (D)
14. 6 11 25
8 6 16
12 5 ?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 22
Ans: (B)
15. 25 36 64
81 9 4
16 49 100
18 ? 20
(A) 16
(B) 22
(C) 19
(D) 24
Ans: (A)
16.
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans: (B)
17. 12 years old Sami is three times as old as his brother Vinay. How o ld will Sami be when he is twice as old as Vinay?
(A) 16 yrs
(B) 20 yrs
(C) 18 yrs
(D) 14 yrs
Ans: (A)
18. Four positions of a cube are shown below. Identify the numbers at the bottom when top is 6?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 5
Ans: (B)
Directions (Qs. 19-24): Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
19.
(A) Crunch
(B) Brittle
(C) Cringe
(D) Crisp
Ans: (C)
20.
(A) Optimism
(B) Pessimism
(C) Cynicism
(D) Fatalism
Ans: (C)
21.
(A) 25
(B)18
(C) 21
(D) 15
Ans: (A)
22.
(A) 625
(B) 3375
(C) 50625
(D) 225
Ans: (B)
23.
(A) TVWY
(B) ACEG
(C) FHJL
(D) IKMO
Ans: (A)
24.
(A) AYWV
(B) IGEC
(C) QOMK
(D) YWUS
Ans: (A)
25. A bus starts from point A and runs 20 kms towards South, turns to its right and runs 25 km. It then turns right again runs 20 km. Afterwards it runs 5 km in the East direction and reaches point B. How far is the bus from the starting point?
(A) 25 km
(B) 35 km
(C) 20 km
(D) 30 km
Ans: (C)
26. If LACK is written as 396 then BACK is written as
(A) 86
(B) 72
(C) 66
(D) 56
Ans: (C)
Directions (Qs. 27 & 28): Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure.
27.
Ans: (D)
28.
Ans: (D)
29. If ‘+’ stands for division, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication, ‘×’ stands for subtraction and ‘−’ stands for addition, which one of the following is correct?
(A) 18 ÷ 6 × 7 + 5 – 2 = 22
(B) 18 + 6 ÷ 7 × 5 – 2 = 18
(C) 18 × 6 + 7 ÷ 5 – 2 = 16
(D) 18 ÷ 6 – 7 + 5 × 2 = 20
Ans: (B)
Directions (Qs. 30 & 31). From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
30.
Ans: (C)
31.
Ans: (B)
32. Which figure best represents the relationship between Religion, Mosque, Temple?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans: (B)
Directions (Qs. 33 & 34): A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., A’ can be represented by 01, 20 etc., and ‘B’ can be represented by 56, 65 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given in each question.
33. SILK
(A) 76, 67, 33, 68
(B) 76, 67, 32, 65
(C) 76, 66, 33, 68
(D) 76, 67, 32, 68
Ans: (D)
34. CARS
(A) 96, 00, 23, 99
(B) 66, 20, 31, 88
(C) 95, 01, 13, 77
(D) 77, 33, 40, 69
Ans: (D)
Directions (Qs. 35 & 36): If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
35.
Ans: (A)
36.
Ans: (A)
37. How many triangles are there in this figure?
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 16
(D) 12
Ans: (C)
38. Choose from the 4 diagrams given below, the one that illustrates the relationship among Languages, Japanese, German.
Ans: (D)
Directions (Qs. 39 & 40): From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:
39. GEMDISTIONARY
(A) GAME
(B) STAR
(C) DISTART
(D) MEGASITY
Ans: (C)
40. AUTOBIOGRAPHY
(A) GRAPHIC
(B) BRIGHT
(C) TROPHY
(D) TROOP
Ans: (A)
41. Seeta and Ram both start from a point towards North. Seeta turns to left after walking 10 km. Ram turns to right after walking the same distance. Seeta waits for sometime and then walks another 5 km, whereas Ram walks only 3 km. They both then return to their respective South and walk 15 km forward. How far is Seeta from Ram?
(A) 10 km
(B) 12 km
(C) 8 km
(D) 15 km
Ans: (C)
42. If ‘+’ stands for multiplication, ‘−’stands for division, ‘×’stands for addition, ‘÷’stands for subtraction, then which one of the following equations is correct?
(A) 12 + 5 – 4 × 5 ÷ 4 = 16
(B) 12 ÷ 5 + 4 – 5 × 4 = 18
(C) 12 ÷ 5 – 4 × 5 + 4 = 22
(D) 12 × 5 + 4 – 5 ÷ 4 = 20
Ans: (A)
43. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
s – nx – mnx – mn – sm – x
(A) nxyms
(B) mssxn
(C) smnxx
(D) nmxxn
Ans: (B)
Directions (Qs. 44 & 45): A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures. indicate how it will appear when opened.
44.
Ans: (D)
45.
Ans: (D)
46. The number of squares in the figure is?
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 10
(D) 8
Ans: (C)
47. A man starts from a point moves 9 km South and then turns to East and goes 3 km. He turns South and walks 3 km and then moves 8 km towards West. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 15 km
(B) 11 km
(C) 12 km
(D) 13 km
Ans: (D)
Directions (Qs. 48 & 49) : In these questions one or two statements are given, followed by two Conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be a variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Choose your answer accordingly.
48. Statement:
Economic security makes people better and happier and has a good influence on their personality.
Conclusions:
I. People who earn enough money are happier.
II. To have a good personality people should be economically sound.
(A) Only I follows.
(B) Both I and II follow.
(C) Only II follows.
(D) Neither I nor II follows.
Ans: (B)
49. Statements :
(I) Authors are learned people.
(II) Some doctors are authors.
Conclusions:
I. Some Doctors are learned people.
II. Some learned people are Doctors.
(A) Neither I nor II is implicit.
(B) Both I and II are implicit.
(C) Only II is implicit.
(D) Only I is implicit.
Ans: (B)
50. If RAMAYANA is written as BOBZBNBS, then GRANTH is written as
(A) IUOBSH
(B) IUOCSI
(C) HSBOUI
(D) IVPBTH
Ans: (A)
Part B : General Knowledge and General Awareness
51. A_____ is a computer, appliance or router that sits between the trusted and untrusted systems.
(A) hub
(B) switch
(C) firewall
(D) bridge
Ans: (C)
52. A group of genes whose activity is coordinated by a DNA site is called
(A) operon
(B) polysome
(C) polypeptide
(D) cistron
Ans: (A)
53. Who among the following was ruler from the Kushan dynasty?
(A) Danti Durga
(B) Pushyamitra
(C) Vikramaditya
(D) Khadphises I
Ans: (D)
54. Red rot of sugar cane is caused by :
(A) Phylophthora
(B) Alternaria alternata
(C) Colletotrichum falcatum
(D) Cercospora personata
Ans: (C)
55. Engineers of which of the following countries have developed the world’s fastest car Venom GT with a top speed of 435 kilometres per hour?
(A) USA
(B) South Korea
(C) Germany
(D) Japan
Ans: (A)
56. Chemical name of Gammaxane is
(A) Chloro benzene
(B) Benzene hexachloride
(C) Toluene
(D) Aniline
Ans: (B)
57. India’s share in total global trade in value terms is
(A) less than 1% but more than 1/2%
(B) more than 2%
(C) less than 1/2%
(D) between 1% and 2%
Ans: (B)
58. Who among the following film-makers has won the Best Documentary Producer Award of the Madrid International Film Festival in July 2015?
(A) Benoy Behl
(B) Debalina Majumdar
(C) Arun Chadha
(D) Gopal Menon
Ans: (A)
59. Cancellation of thread occurs only when it reaches a
(A) Target point
(B) Error point
(C) Virtual point
(D) Cancellation point
Ans: (D)
60. _______ percent of Delhiites are suffering from Asthma and Rhinitis.
(A) 12%
(B) 13%
(C) 10%
(D) 11%
Ans: (D)
61. Which of the following considers the state as primarily a social organism?
(A) Historical Approach
(B) Economic Approach
(C) Sociological Approach
(D) Psychological Approach
Ans: (C)
62. Which State’s High Court imposed a complete ban on all types of buffalo and bull fights in the State, stating that it is against the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Karnataka
Ans: (A)
63. By which of the following Act the system of Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre?
(A) 1909
(B) 1947
(C) 1919
(D) 1935
Ans: (C)
64. Which Article of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?
(A) Article 51 A
(B) Article 25
(C) Article 50
(D) Article 30 A
Ans: (A)
65. Which one of the following has a maximum tendency to form M3− ion?
(A) As
(B) Bi
(C) N
(D) P
Ans: (C)
66. Which of the following statements
(A) sugar is transported in problem as non-reducing sugar
(B) Ca+ is the most abundant cation in phloem sap
(C) phloem transport occurs unidirectionally
(D) gravity influences phloem transport
Ans: (A)
67. An employer goes on employing more and more of a factor units until
(A) the Average Revenue Productivity becomes equal to Marginal Revenue Productivity.
(B) the Diminishing Marginal Returns sets into operation.
(C) the Marginal Revenue Productivity of a factor becomes equal to its reward.
(D) the Marginal Revenue Productivity becomes zero.
Ans: (A)
68. An agricultural department known as ‘Diwn-i-kohi’ was created by
(A) Firoz Tughlaq
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Jalaluddin Khilji
(D) Mohamad-bin-Tughlaq
Ans: (D)
69. The correct sequence of countries on the basis of fish catch in DESCENDING order:
(A) Japan, China, Peru
(B) Peru, China, Japan
(C) China, Japan, Peru
(D) China, Peru, Japan
Ans: (D)
70. Match List I and List II and mark the correct answer:
List I List II
(climate) (station)
a Taiga 1 Jacobabad
b Monsoon 2 India
c Alpine 3 Veckhoyansk
d Desert 4 La Paz
(A) a – 3, b – 2, c – 4, d – 1
(B) a – 2, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1
(C) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2
(D) a – 4, b – 2, c – 1, d – 3
Ans: (A)
71. Copper substances when exposed to air gain a green coating due to the formation of
(A) Cu(NO3)2
(B) CuSO4
(C) CuO
(D) CuCO3. Cu(OH)2
Ans: (D)
72. Who is the author of the new book “Knowledge Innovation Strategy’?
(A) Amish Tripathi
(B) Durjoy Datta
(C) Ravinder Singh
(D) Parag Kulkarni
Ans: (D)
73. The weight of a body at the centre of earth is
(A) half the weight at the surface
(B) infinite
(C) zero
(D) twice the weight at the surface
Ans: (C)
74. Adding Cl2 to benzene in the presence of AlCl3 is an example of
(A) Addition reaction
(B) Substitution reaction
(C) None of the options
(D) Elimination reaction
Ans: (A)
75. Which one of the following is related to Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(A) Election Commission seeking opinion from the Supreme Court
(B) President of India seeking opinion on law or facts
(C) States seeking opinion from the Supreme Court
(D) Speaker of Parliament seeking opinion from the Supreme court
Ans: (B)
76. Which article of the Constitution deals with Money Bills?
(A) Article 130
(B) Article 100
(C) Article 110
(D) Article 120
Ans: (C)
77. Maharaja Sawai Jaisingh of Jaipur had not built the observatory at
(A) Varanasi
(B) Ujjain
(C) Mathura
(D) Allahabad
Ans: (D)
78. What was the rank of India in Human Development Index according to the Human Development Report released by UNDP in July 2014, which covered 187 countries?
(A) 130th
(B) 14th
(C) 135th
(D) 73rd
Ans: (C)
79. The India Independence Bill was first presented in the House of Commons in London on
(A) July 14, 1947
(B) August 10, 1947
(C) July 4, 1947
(D) August 1, 1947
Ans: (C)
80. John Locke propounded
(A) Theory of Force
(B) Theory of Divine Rights
(C) Patriarchal Theory
(D) Social Contract Theory
Ans: (D)
81. Which of the following States has declared a ban on the use of plastic in the State for the first time?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra
Ans: (C)
82. If total product at its maximum then
(AP = Average product)
(MP = Marginal product)
(A) AP < 0
(B) AP = MP = 0
(C) AP = 0
(D) MP = 0
Ans: (D)
83. Though there is no single theory which can explain the origin of south west monsoon, it is believed that the main mechanism is the differential heating of land & sea during
(A) Cyclonic storms
(B) Winter months
(C) Summer months
(D) South-west trade wind flow
Ans: (D)
84. Inhibition of photosynthesis in the presence of O2 in C3 plants is called
(A) Warburg effect
(B) Hexose monophosphate shunt
(C) Decker effect
(D) Pasteur effect
Ans: (C)
85. Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairman of India’s Oscar Jury by Mumbai-based Film Federation of India?
(A) Anupam Kher
(B) Amol Palekar
(C) Jaya Bachchan
(D) Amitabh Bachchan
Ans: (B)
86. Match List I and List II and mark the correct answer:
List I List II
(Winds) (Locations)
a Chinook 1 Alps
b Foehn 2 India
c Siroco 3 USA
d Loo 4 Egypt
(A) a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2
(B) a – 4, b – 2, c – 1, d – 3
(C) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
(D) a – 3, b – 1, c – 4, d – 2
Ans: (D)
87. Equilibrium output is determined by
(A) the equality between Average cost and Average revenue
(B) the equality between total Variable cost & Marginal revenue
(C) the equality between total cost & total revenue.
(D) the equality between Marginal cost & Marginal revenue.
Ans: (A)
88. When average product of an input is at its maximum then
(AP : Average product)
(MP= Marginal product)
(A) AP > MP
(B) AP < MP
(C) AP = MP
(D) AP = 0
Ans: (D)
89. “Slipper animalcule” is the common name for:
(A) Monocystis
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Trypanosoma
(D) Paramecium
Ans: (D)
90. Apart from the availability of raw material, location of an industry is also dependent on the availability of
(A) manpower and energy source
(B) environmental protection & vegetation
(C) transport and bio-energy
(D) water and inputs
Ans: (A)
91. The Greek viewed “politics” on the basis of:
(A) Terms of power
(B) Legalistic terms
(C) Ethical terms
(D) Both ethical and legalistic terms
Ans: (C)
92. Which one of the following painters of Jahangir’s reign was conferred the title of Nadir-ul-Asra’?
(A) Bishandas
(B) Daulat
(C) Mansur
(D) Manohar
Ans: (C)
93. Who established the Sadr-Diwani-Adriat during the British East India Company’s rule?
(A) Dalhousie
(B) Wellesley
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings
Ans: (D)
94. The period of revolution of a certain planet in an orbit of radius R is T. Its period of revolution in an orbit of radius 4R will be
(A) 2 T
(B) 4T
(C) 8T
(D) 2√2 T
Ans: (A)
95. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with
(A) Allocation of Seats in the Council of States
(B) Powers of the Governor of State
(C) Distribution of power between the Union and the States
(D) Power and Authority of the Municipalities
Ans: (C)
96. Which of the following human genetic disorders is sex-linked
(A) Cystic fibrosis
(B) PKU
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Albinism
Ans: (C)
97. Gliders depend on the following energy for their flight:
(A) heat energy
(B) chemical energy
(C) wind energy
(D) electrical energy
Ans: (C)
98. The source of authority of the Indian Constitution is
(A) The People of India
(B) The Government
(C) The President
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans: (A)
99. When temperature difference between liquid and its surroundings is doubled, the rate of loss of heat will:
(A) double
(B) remain same
(C) three times
(D) four times
Ans: (A)
100. Who was appointed by the Union Sports Ministry of the Government of India as he head of the selection committee for Arjuna Award so as to pick the eminent athletes for year’s award (2015)?
(A) Justice Deepak Verma
(B) Justice V. K. Bali
(C) Justice A, K. Patnaik
(D) Justice Ranjana P. Desai
Ans: (B)
Part C : Quantitative Aptitude
101. By selling an umbrella for Rs. 30, a shop-keeper gains 20%. During a clearance sale, the shop-keeper allows a discount of 10%. Find his gain percent during the sale season.
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C)
(D) 9
Ans: (A)
102. In ∆ ABC, the line parallel to BC intersects AB &AC at P & Q respectively. If AB : AP = 5 : 3, then AQ : QC is :
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 3 : 5
(D) 2 : 3
Ans: (B)
103. In ∆ABC and ∆PQR, ∠B = ∠Q, ∠C = ∠R. M is the midpoint on QR. If AB : PQ = 7 : 4, then is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans: (D)
104. If the difference between the average of x, y and y, z is 12, then the difference between x and z is:
(A) 24
(B) 12
(C) 6
(D) 48
Ans: (A)
105. If 12 + 22 + 32 + …. +p2 then 12 + 32 + 52 + …+ 172 is :
(A) 1700
(B) 969
(C) 980
(D) 1785
Ans: (B)
Directions (Qs. 106 to 110) : The Pie-chart shows the result of a survey among 119060 people concerning the use of tobacco. Study the Pie-chart and answer these questions.
106. Number of people preferring Bidi is:
(A) 29790
(B) 37185
(C) 35718
(D) 29765
Ans: (D)
107. Number of people smoking Cigarettes is:
(A) 59305
(B) 11906
(C) 53905
(D) 59530
Ans: (D)
108. Let P be the percentage of people using Cigarettes, Pipe and Bidi is their smoking means and Q be the percentage of people using other means as their smoking habits. Then P is more than Q by:
(A) 25%
(B) 85%
(C) 10%
(D) 75%
Ans: (D)
109. Number of Cigarette smoking people is greater than the number of Pipe smoking people by:
(A) 47624
(B) 29765
(C) 59530
(D) 11906
Ans: (A)
110. Percentage of people under survey, who do not have any smoking habit is:
(A) 10%
(B) 5%
(C) 52%
(D) 7.5%
Ans: (B)
111. ∠Y is the right angle of the triangle XYZ. If XY = 2√6 cm and XZ – YZ = 2 cm, then the value of (sec X + tan X) is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans: (A)
112. The simple interest on a sum of money for 3 years is Rs. 240 and the compound interest on the same sum, at the same rate for 2 years is Rs. 170. The rate of interest is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans: (C)
113. In a factory, the salary of each worker is increased in the ratio 22 : 25 but the number of workers is decreased by The net effect on the salary is:
(A) 20%
(B)
(C)
(D) 10% decrease
Ans: (B)
114. A car completed a journey of 400 km in The first 3/4 of the journey was done at 30 km/hr. Calculate the speed for the rest of the journey.
(A) 40 km/hr
(B) 30 km/hr
(C) 25 km/hr
(D) 45 km/hr
Ans: (A)
115. A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B in 24 days. If they work together, in how many days will they finish the work?
(A) 8 days
(B) 12 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 15 days
Ans: (A)
116. A sells a car priced at Rs. 36,000. He gives a discount of 8% on the 1st Rs. 20,000 and 5% on the remaining Rs. 16,000. B also sells a car of the same make, priced at Rs. 36,000. He gives a discount of 7% on the total price. Calculate the actual on the total price. Calculate the actual prices charged by A and B for the cars.
(A) A = Rs. 33,500; B = Rs. 33,400
(B) A = Rs. 33,450; B = Rs. 33,650
(C) A = Rs. 33, 600; B = Rs. 33,480
(D) A = Rs. 33,480; B = Rs. 33,600
Ans: (C)
117. If and then the value of tan α is
(A)
(B)
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans: (C)
118. If p (x + y)2 = 5 and q(x – y)2 = 3, then the simplified value of p2(x + y)2 + 4 pq xy – q2(x – y)2 is:
(A) 2(p + q)
(B) −2(p + q)
(C) p + q
(D) −(p + q)
Ans: (C)
Directions (Qs. 119 to 122): The data given in Bar diagram relate to the department wise admission of 320 students to B.Sc. (Honours) first year classes of a certain college in the given five subjects. Study the graph and answer the questions.
119. The subject in which the difference in the number of male and female students is minimum is:
(A) Chemistry
(B) Physics
(C) Economics
(D) Statistics
Ans: (D)
120. The subject which the female students are finding difficult as compared to other subjects is:
(A) Statistics
(B) Mathematics
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
Ans: (C)
121. The difference of the choice of the subject between male and female students is maximum for the subject:
(A) Statistics
(B) Physics
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
Ans: (C)
122. The total number of male students who got admitted in Mathematic and Economics as compared to the total number of female students getting admission in Mathematics and Economics is:
(A) less by 17%
(B) more by 12.8%
(C) more by 14.8%
(D) more by 4.2%
Ans: (C)
123. ∆ ABC is right angled triangle with AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm. O is in-centre of the triangle. The radius of the in-circle is
(A) 2 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 3 cm
Ans: (A)
124. The base of a right prism, whose height is 2 cm, is a square. If the total surface area of the prism is 10 cm2, then its volume is:
(A) 2 cm3
(B) 1 cm3
(C) 4 cm3
(D) 3 cm3
Ans: (A)
125. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 2200 at 5% interest, Rs. 2320 at 8% interest in the same period of time. The period of time is:
(A) 4 years
(B) 2 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 3 years
Ans: (B)
126. The radius of a wire is decreased to one third. If volume remains the same, length will increase by
(A) 6 times
(B) 9 times
(C) 1 time
(D) 3 times
Ans: (B)
127. The value of following is:
(A) 2
(B) tan θ
(C) 0
(D) 1
Ans: (D)
128. The total surface area of a right pyramid on a square base of side 10 cm with height 12 cm is:
(A) 360 square cm
(B) 260 square cm
(C) 330 square cm
(D) 300 square cm
Ans: (A)
129. PS is a diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm. In the diameter PS, Q and R are two points such that PQ, QR, RS are all equal. Semicircles are drawn on PQ and QS as diameter (as shown in the fig). The perimeter of shaded portion is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans: (C)
130. Present ages of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 6 respectively. After seven years this ratio becomes 6 : 7. Then the present age of A in years is:
(A) 33 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 32 years
Ans: (C)
131. A train 150 metres long takes 20 seconds to cross a platform 450 metres long. .The speed of train in, km per hour, is:
(A) 104
(B) 108
(C) 100
(D) 106
Ans: (B)
132. If then the value of x3 – 9x2 + 27x – 34 is
(A) −1
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans: (D)
133. If then the value of xp + xq is:
(where p is an even number and q is an odd number)
(A) −2
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) 2
Ans: (C)
134. Let ABCDEF be a prism whose base is a right angled triangle, where sides adjacent to 90° are 9 cm and 12 cm. If the cost of painting the prism is Rs. 151.20, at the rate of 20 paisa per sq cm then the height of the prism is:
(A) 17 cm
(B) 18 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 16 cm
Ans: (C)
135. Given 22 + 42 + 62 + … + 402 = 11480, then the value of 12 + 22 + 32 + … + 202 is
(A) 2869
(B) 2867
(C) 2868
(D) 2870
Ans: (D)
136. Simplified value of the following expressions is:
(A) 1
(B) √2
(C) √3
(D) 0
Ans: (D)
137. If sec θ + tan θ = 2, then the value of sin θ is:
(A) 3/5
(B) 4/5
(C) √3/5
(D) 2/5
Ans: (A)
138. The value of following is:
(A) 0.40
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.50
Ans: (C)
139. If cos θ + sec θ = √3, then the value of (cos3θ + sec3θ) is:
(A) 1/√2
(B) √2
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans: (D)
140. In the figure given below ∠AOC = 140° where O is the centre of the circle, then ∠ABC is equal to:
(A) 90°
(B) 100°
(C) 40°
(D) 110°
Ans: (D)
141. The value of the following is
(A) 4
(B) 2√2
(C) 2
(D) 2√3
Ans: (A)
142. An item is offered for sale at Rs. 250, less successive discounts of 20% and 15%. The sale price of the item is:
(A) 77% of Rs. 250
(B) 68% of Rs. 250
(C) 65% of Rs. 250
(D) 82% of Rs. 250
Ans: (B)
143. The sum of 3 consecutive natural numbers divisible by 3 is 45. The smallest number is:
(A) 3
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 9
Ans: (B)
144. The value of x in the below equation is:
(A)
(B)
(C) 5.3
(D)
Ans: (B)
145. If the area of a square is increased by 44%, retaining its shape as a square, each of its sides increases by:
(A) 21%
(B) 19%
(C) 22%
(D) 20%
Ans: (D)
146. A sold a watch at a gain of 5% to B and B sold it to C at a gain of 4%. If C paid Rs. 91 for it, then the price paid by A is:
(A) Rs. 82.81
(B) Rs. 83
(C) Rs. 84.33
(D) Rs. 83.33
Ans: (D)
147. Three containers whose volumes are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 are full of mixture of spirit and water. In the 1st container, the ratio of spirit and water is 11 : 4 and in the 3rd container ratio is 7 : 3. All the three mixtures are mixed in a big container. The ratio of spirit and water in the resultant mixture is:
(A) 5 : 10
(B) 4 : 9
(C) 9 : 5
(D) 11 : 4
Ans: (D)
148. The ratio of inradius and circumradius of an equilateral triangle is:
(A) √2 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : √2
(D) 1 : 2
Ans: (D)
149. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and the child 5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:
(A) None of the options
(B) 35 years
(C) 40 years
(D) 50 years
Ans: (C)
150. A, B and CC working separately can do piece of work in 11 days, 20 days and 55 days, respectively. In how many days, the work will be completed if A is assisted by B and C on alternate days?
(A) 8
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans: (A)
Part-D : English Comprehension
Directions (Qs. 151-155): Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
151. Sporadic
(A) Stagnant
(B) Epidermic
(C) Occasional
(D) Whirling
Ans: (C)
152. Spectrum
(A) Star
(B) Specific
(C) Range
(D) Telephone
Ans: (C)
153. Connote
(A) To conspire
(B) To print
(C) To pay
(D) To convey
Ans: (D)
154. Stringent
(A) Evident
(B) Compulsory
(C) Strict
(D) Farfetched
Ans: (C)
155. Regime
(A) Clique
(B) Authority
(C) Gang
(D) Cabal
Ans: (B)
Directions (Qs. 156 to 160): Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.
156. The science of the functioning and growth of society.
(A) Philosophy
(B) Sociology
(C) Anthropology
(D) Psychology
Ans: (B)
157. Those who pass through this gate without permission will be prosecuted.
(A) Bypassers
(B) Trespassers
(C) Culprits
(D) Absconders
Ans: (B)
158. A person between 90 and 100 years old:
(A) Nonagenarian
(B) Centenarian
(C) Octagenarian
(D) Septagenarian
Ans: (A)
159. Reasoning method involving two statements from which a conclusion is reached:
(A) Rhetoric
(B) Syllogism
(C) Logism
(D) Rhapsody
Ans: (B)
160. Change the appearance to deceive or to hide the identify:
(A) Dupe
(B) Display
(C) Disguise
(D) Dissemble
Ans: (C)
Directions (Qs. 161 to 165): Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
161. To pick holes
(A) to destroy something
(B) to criticize someone
(C) to cut some part of an item
(D) to find some reason to quarrel
Ans: (B)
162. She wrangled over an ass’s shadow.
(A) quarreled like fools
(B) sat on the shadow of the ass
(C) quarreled over trifles
(D) did unnecessary work
Ans: (C)
163. God’s acre refers to which of the following places:
(A) A cemetery beside a Church
(B) Altar
(C) Church
(D) Aisle
Ans: (A)
164. He is like a snake in the grass for our family:
(A) a distant relative
(B) a close friend
(C) a hidden rival
(D) a stupid person
Ans: (C)
165. To put one’s hand to plough
(A) to take up a task
(B) take interest in technical work
(C) to get entangled into unnecessary things
(D) to take up agricultural farming
Ans: (A)
Directions (Qs. 166 to 170): Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
166. Profuse
(A) Sacred
(B) Meagre
(C) Adverse
(D) Ambiguous
Ans: (B)
167. Agony
(A) Ecstasy
(B) Sorrow
(C) Misery
(D) Conflict
Ans: (A)
168. Subsequent
(A) Aloof
(B) Preceding
(C) Dismissive
(D) Inferior
Ans: (B)
169. Erudite
(A) Ignorant
(B) Immature
(C) Professional
(D) Unimaginative
Ans: (A)
170. Redundant
(A) Wordy
(B) Repetitions
(C) Surplus
(D) Concise
Ans: (D)
Directions (Qs. 171 to 175): Four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
171.
(A) gourmandize
(B) gourmendize
(C) gormandize
(D) gormandise
Ans: (A)
172.
(A) appearance
(B) appiarance
(C) apparance
(D) appearance
Ans: (D)
173.
(A) connoisure
(B) connoisseur
(C) conoisseur
(D) connoiseur
Ans: (B)
174.
(A) xenophobia
(B) xenofobia
(C) zenophobia
(D) zenofobia
Ans: (A)
175.
(A) Pseudonymn
(B) Soodonym
(C) Seudonym
(D) Pseudonym
Ans: (D)
Directions (Qs. 176 to 180): In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.
Passage
It’s soccer’s newest power player; a ball called the sOccket generates and stores energy as players kick it, then provides energy at home. Fifteen minutes on the field ….(I)… enough energy to power a small light for three hours and may help people in developing nations like India …(II)… kerosene, a leading cause of …(III)… illness and fires. Working on the principle of flashlights that charge3 when shaken, the sOccket is the ….(IV)… of Harvard students, Jessica Lin, Julia Silverman, Jessia Matthews and Hemali Thakker and is being ….(V)…. by the Clinton Global Initiative University and the WalMart Foundation.
176.
(A) (I) stores
(B) (I) conserves
(C) (I) captures
(D) (I) reserves
Ans: (C)
177.
(A) (II) supplant
(B) (II) restore
(C) (II) substitute
(D) (II) replace
Ans: (D)
178.
(A) (III) respiratory
(B) (III) cardio-vascular
(C) (III) pulmonary
(D) (III) cardiac
Ans: (A)
179.
(A) (IV) output
(B) (IV) achievement
(C) (IV) brainchild
(D) (IV) inventory
Ans: (C)
180.
(A) (V) promoted
(B) (V) financed
(C) (V) sponsored
(D) (V) funded
Ans: (A)
Directions (Qs. 181 to 185): Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part as your answer. If a sentence is free from error, then mark that part corresponding to “No Error” option.
181. Long life is good if one by happy and has friends.
(A) Long life is good
(B) No Error
(C) and has friends
(D) if one be happy
Ans: (D)
182. He went to the doctor because he had not been feeling well since several weeks.
(A) because he had not been feeling well
(B) He went to the doctor
(C) since several weeks
(D) No Error
Ans: (C)
183. Had you participated in the drawing competition, you would have won the first prize.
(A) Had you participated
(B) you would have won the first prize.
(C) in the drawing competition
(D) No Error
Ans: (D)
184. The thief did not known that there was a dog laying under the table.
(A) laying under the table.
(B) that there was a dog
(C) The thief did not know
(D) No Error
Ans: (A)
185. Before we returned from swimming in the river near the camp, someone had stole our clothes, and we had to walk back with our towels around us.
(A) someone had stole our clothes
(B) Before we returned from swimming in the river near the camp
(C) No Error
(D) and we had to walk back with our towels around us.
Ans: (A)
Directions (Qs. 186 to 190): A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed choose “No Improvement”.
186. I would gladly accompany your sister if you had asked me:
(A) No Improvement
(B) will gladly accompany
(C) would have gladly accompanied
(D) would gladly accompanied
Ans: (C)
187. College students went at the rampage in the city yesterday.
(A) over the rampage
(B) NO Improvement
(C) with the rampage
(D) on a rampage
Ans: (D)
188. You cannot forbid him leaving.
(A) he leaving
(B) his leaving
(C) him to leave
(D) No Improvement
Ans: (C)
189. I met the two girls, which I believe, are identical twins.
(A) No Improvement
(B) who, I believe are
(C) who, to my belief, are
(D) whom, I thought are
Ans: (B)
190. Helen Keller’s efforts to rehabilitate herself despite her triple handicap.
(A) reinstate
(B) manage
(C) readapt
(D) No Improvement
Ans: (C)
Directions (Qs. 191 to 195) : Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
191. He read _____ that are ____ to his profession.
(A) Weeklies; appropriate
(B) Magazines; acceptable
(C) Periodicals; pertinent
(D) Papers; apparent
Ans: (C)
192. The Press is suppose to be a means of _____between the government and
(A) Help; society
(B) Propaganda; Private sector
(C) Confrontation; terrorists
(D) Communication; people
Ans: (D)
193. I _____ him for the post _____ he was very active.
(A) Recommended; because
(B) Admitted; but
(C) Acknowledged; and
(D) Commended; even though
Ans: (A)
194. The man was absorbed ______ has work.
(A) with
(B) at
(C) in
(D) into
Ans: (C)
195. Your friends think you are conceited because you seem to ___ them.
(A) Patronise
(B) Penalise
(C) Emulate
(D) Cheat
Ans: (A)
Directions (Qs. 196 to 200): Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Passage
Fat comes in two types: Omega-3 which is found in marine life and Omega-6 which is concentrated in vegetable oils. The first is good, the other is plain rotten. The best source of Omega-3 is preferably sea-fish. But frying it in Omega-6 rich vegetable oil kills all its goodness.
Ageing brains have low levels of thiamin, which is concentrated in wheat germ and bran, nuts, meat and cereals. More good brain-food comes from liver, milk and almond, which are rich in riboflavin and extremely good for memory. Carotene, available in deep green leafy vegetables and fruits, is also good for geriatric brains. So is a high iron diet; it can make old brains gallop hyperactively like young ones. Iron comes from greens; liver, shell0-fish, red meat and soyabeans. Sea-food very high in iron, is an excellent diet supplement. The New England Journal of Medicine reported in its May 1985 issue that 30 grams of fish a day could result in a dramatic drop in the chances of acquiring a cardiovascular disease. Sea fish, particularly shell-fish, crabs, m mackerel and sardines, are more effective than riverine fish because the latter is more vulnerable to chemical effluents.
196. ‘Geriatrics’ pertain to:
(A) toddlers
(B) old people
(C) adolescents
(D) new born babies
Ans: (B)
197. Cardiovascular relates to the:
(A) heart and tendons
(B) heart and blood vessels
(C) heart and cartilage
(D) heart and muscles
Ans: (B)
198. Almonds are rich in riboflavin and are good for
(A) memory
(B) anaemia
(C) sleepwalking
(D) leukameia
Ans: (A)
199. The best source of Omega-3 fat is found in:
(A) all dairy products
(B) sea fish
(C) eggs only
(D) vegetables
Ans: (B)
200. 30 grams of fish a day could result in:
(A) an increased change of acquiring lung disease.
(B) a drop in the chances of getting lung cancer.
(C) a drop in the chances of getting heart disease.
(D) an increased chance of acquiring heart disease.
SSC Food Corporation of India Management Trainee (Depot) Examination October 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key
Staff Selection Commission
Food Corporation of India Management Trainee (Depot) Examination October 2015
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5): The following questions are based on graphic information for company A and company B. Figures of gross sales, profit and net profit have3 been provided in crore rupees. The gross profit is arrived after deducting all direct expenses (treat variable wherever required) related to production/sales units and net profit is arrived after deducting all indirect expenses (treat fixed wherever required) which are not directly related to production/sales units.
1. If direct expenses are the criteria to judge inflationary conditions, which year should be under the grip of highest inflation after analysis of the data of both companies during five years:
(1) 2011
(2) 2013
(3) 20104
(4) 2015
Ans: (4)
2. After analyzing the data of both companies during five years the highest indirect expenses to gross sales ratio has been achieved by:
(1) Company A, in 2014
(2) Company B, in 2012
(3) Company B, in 2015
(4) Company A, in 2011
Ans: (3)
3. After analyzing data of both companies during five years the highest, net profit to gross sales ratio has been achieved by:
(1) Company A, in 2011
(2) Company B, in 2013
(3) Company A, in 2012
(4) Company B, in 2011
Ans: (3)
4. After analyzing data of both companies during five years highest, gross operating margin percentage has been achieved by:
(1) Company B, in 2011
(2) Company B, in 2012
(3) Company A, in 2012
(4) Company A, in 2014
Ans: (3)
5. In which two years breakeven point sales of both the companies will be same:
(1) 2011, 2013
(2) 2012, 2013
(3) 2013, 2014
(4) None of these
Ans: (3)
6. If interest payments are subtracted from gross fiscal deficit, the remainder will be:
(1) Revenue deficit
(2) Gross primary deficit
(3) Capital deficit
(4) Budgetary deficit
Ans: (2)
7. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Govt. of India and or more states.
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of legislative of a state.
3. A dispute between the Govt. of India and a union territory.
4. A dispute between two or more states.
Select the correct answers using the codes.
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans: (3)
8. Enzymes are organic compounds of protein category which
(1) acts as catalysts in life process.
(2) help in the mechanism of supply of oxygen in blood.
(3) help to regulate the manner and rate of u se of glucose in body.
(4) help in heredity maintenance.
Ans: (1)
9. The name of a candidate for the office of President of India is proposed by
(1) any five Citizens of India.
(2) any five Members of the Parliament.
(3) any fifty Members of the Electoral College.
(4) any ten Members of the Electoral College.
Ans: (3)
10. The principle that a subordinate should receive order and be responsible to only boss is known as:
(1) Unity of command
(2) Unit of direction
(3) Span of control
(4) Span of direction
Ans: (1)
11. The term ‘gang boss’ is used in
(1) Line organization
(2) Staff organization
(3) Line and staff organization
(4) All of these
Ans: (2)
12. Delphi technique is associated with:
(1) Decision Making
(2) Planning
(3) Staffing
(4) Directing
Ans: (2)
13. One megabyte is :
(1) 1048576 Bytes
(2) 1068576 Bytes
(3) 1058576 Bytes
(4) None of these
Ans: (1)
14. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from the:
(1) Hard disk
(2) Cache Memory
(3) RAM
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
15. Which of the following commands is given to lock the computer in Window?
(1) Ctrl + Alt + Del
(2) Ctrl + Shift + Tab
(3) Ctrl + Shift + Del
(4) None of these
Ans: (4)
16. In a laboratory study, 100 rabbits in an experimental group were injected with serum D and 100 rabbits in control group were injected with harmless sugar solution. In one week 50% of experimental group contracted jungle fever, a very contagious disease. Therefore jungle fever must be caused by a substance similar to substances in Serum D. This argument would be strengthened if:
(1) Normal rate of jungle fever in rabbit is less than 1%
(2) 50% of control group rabbis had also contracted jungle fever in the same time
(3) The Serum D has substances extracted from a poisonous jungle flower
(4) The blood samples of fever victims invariably contain a high level of toxic substances also found in Serum D
Ans: (3)
17. What is the chronological (first published first and so on) correct sequence of the following books?
1. Richard Attenborough – In search of Gandhi
2. Louis Fischer – The Life of Mahatama Gandhi
3. E. H Erikson – Gandhi’s Truth
4. J. Eaton – Gandhi, Fighter Without
A Sword
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(1) 4, 2, 3, 1
(2) 4, 3, 1, 2
(3) 2, 4, 3, 1
(4) 1, 2, 4, 3
Ans: (3)
18. Who in census of India applied the ‘ternary diagram’ for the functional classification of towns of India:
(1) P. Padamanabha
(2) A. R. Nanda
(3) Ashok Mitra
(4) Chandra Shekhar
Ans: (3)
19. Which Gharana of classical singing did late Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belong to?
(1) Dhrupad
(2) Maihar
(3) Kirana
(4) Etawah
Ans: (3)
20. Norman Borlaug is famous as Father of the Green Revolution in 1960’s. His initial goal was to create varieties of wheat adapted to the climate of:
(1) India
(2) Mexico
(3) USA
(4) China
Ans: (2)
21. Which of the following is not a Simulation Technique of development?
(1) In-basket
(2) Case Study
(3) Sensitivity Training
(4) Management Games
Ans: (2)
22. ‘Indian Standard Meridian’ passes through the States of :
(1) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhatisgarh, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh
(2) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal
(3) Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
(4) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, ,Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and West Bengal.
Ans: (1)
23. Pick the choice diagram that best represents the following relationship:
Insat 1B, Satellites, Insat 1C, Aircraft, Metsat.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans: (1)
24. The control function of management cannot be performed without:
(1) Planning
(2) Organizing
(3) Staffing
(4) Directing
Ans: (3)
25. To retain the chief/senior executives in an organization which one is an appropriate strategy :
(1) Silver parachute
(2) Golden parachute
(3) Bronze parachute
(4) None of these
Ans: (4)
26. The grant of Diwani of Bengal Bihar and Orissa is associated with:
(1) Shah Alam II
(2) Bahadur Shah
(3) Nawab Asif-ud-Daula
(4) Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula
Ans: (1)
27. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves from:
(1) West to East
(2) East & West of Prime Meridian
(3) Poles to Equator
(4) Equator to Poles
Ans: (4)
28. The most learned ruler of the Delhi sultanate who was well versed in various branches of learning including Astronomy Mathematics and Philosophy was:
(1) Iltutmish
(2) Alauddin Khalji
(3) Sikander Lodhi
(4) Muhammad-bin Tughlaq
Ans: (4)
29. Identify the ‘spell check’ command in MS Word?
(1) F5
(2) F7
(3) F8
(4) F9
Ans: (2)
30. Where the chairman or speaker of the house has become subject to disqualification on ground of defection and where such question has arisen, the question shall be referred:
(1) For the decision of President of India and has decision shall be final.
(2) For the decision of such member of the house as the house may elect in this behalf and his decision shall be final.
(3) For th3e decision of leader of house and his decision shall be final.
(4) For the decision of the leader of opposition and his decision shall be final.
Ans: (2)
Directions (Qs. 31 to 35): Answer these questions on the basis of the information available in the graph below providing GDP and the percentage of G DP for education in the given years.
31. In how m any years has actual educational spending reduced as compared to that of the previous year?
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) None of these
Ans: (4)
32. Between the given years, both inclusive, what percentage of the country’s total GDP has gone into education:
(1) 4.3%
(2) 3.6%
(3) 5.4%
(4) 4.9%
Ans: (2)
33. The total amount given to education would be how many times the total amount given to defence, if every year 2% of GDP is given to defence (for the entire period)?
(1) 2.15 times
(2) 1.55 times
(3) 1.35 times
(4) 1.80 times
Ans: (4)
34. If due to an HR Ministry report it is obligatory for the government to allocate at least Rs. 3200 Crore for education in 2013, provided educational spending, as a percentage of GDP does not exceed 6.5%, then what is the least desirable GDP for the year 2013? (in Rs. 000 Crore)
(1) 51.52
(2) 48.24
(3) 49.23
(4) 42.72
Ans: (3)
35. In which year was the spending on education the lowest?
(1) 2010
(2) 2009
(3) 2008
(4) 2007
Ans: (4)
36. Proposal to prefer charge for impeachment of President of India contained in a resolution in writing is to be signed by not less than _____ total number of members of the house giving their intention to move such resolution.
(1) 2/3
(2) 1/4
(3) 3/4
(4) 1/2
Ans: (2)
37. A victim of a road accident is unconscious. Put in correct order the steps in first aid:
I. Treating for cardiac arrest
II. Treating for asphyxia
III. Arrest Haemorrhage (bleeding)
IV. Cleanse and cover wounds
(1) II, I, III, IV
(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) III, II, I, IV
(4) IV, III, II, I
Ans: (4)
38. Which command will be used to carry out ‘superscript’ of words/letters in MS Word?
(1) ctrl+shift+minus
(2) ctrl+shift+plus
(3) ctrl+shift+p
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
39. Which command will be used to carry out ‘subscript’ of words/letters in MS Word?
(1) ctrl+plus
(2) ctrl+shift+minus
(3) ctrl+shift+p
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
40. Annual payment to certain Devaswom funds as enumerated under Article 290 A of the Constitution of India shall be charged on and paid out of the Consolidated Fund of States. This Article refers to which States.
(1) State of Kerala, State of Tamil Nadu
(2) State of Andhra Pradesh, Stat of Tealngana
(3) State of Karnataka, State of Tamil Nadu
(4) State of Rajasthan, State of Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (1)
41. Which one of the following date is a valid date for testing the citizenship as enumerated under Article-5 of the Constitution of India?
(1) 24-01-1950
(2) 26-11-1949
(3) 26-01-1950
(4) None of these
Ans: (3)
42. Horizontal, Vertical, and Random Cliques are parts of which of the following groups:
(1) Core Groups
(2) Informal Groups
(3) Formal Groups
(4) Closed Groups
Ans: (2)
43. As per Keith Davis, which leadership skills are not required at the junior management position in an organization to be an effective leader.
(1) Conceptual skills
(2) Human skills
(3) Technical skills
(4) Specialist skills
Ans: (4)
44. These oceanic resources belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilize these without the concurrence of International institutions :
(1) Beyond 200 nautical miles of exclusive economic zone
(2) Beyond 100 nautical miles of exclusive economic zone
(3) Beyond 19.2 nautical miles of exclusive economic zone
(4) Beyond 12 nautical miles of exclusive economic zone
Ans: (1)
Directions (Qs. 45 & 46) : An argument is followed by two statements I and II. Pick the choice a follows:
A. If statement I strengthens the argument
B. If statement II strengthens the argument
C. Both the statements I & II strengthen the argument
D. Neither statement I nor II strengthens the argument
45. The number of people dying in train accident per year has increased in the last five years.
I. A railway official on television stated that since larger number of people travel by train, however the percentage of killed in a accident to n umber of travelers has remained the same as five years ago.
II. The railway official also stated in term of numbers that the number killed in an accident per year in last five years was 2000 compared to 990 per year 5 years ago.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans: (2)
46. The meteorological department had predicted a more than average rainfall during 2001 monsoons. Has their predictions been successful.
I. 50% of the States have already got their average value of rainfall while one month of monsoon still left.
II. The remaining states have already received 60% of their average value of rainfall.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans: (4)
47. Permanent instructions that he computer uses when it is turned on and that cannot be changed by other instructions, are contained in:
(1) ROM
(2) RAM
(3) ALU
(4) None of these
Ans: (1)
48. The hormone which controls the process of burning fats, proteins and carbohydrates to liberate energy in the body is:
(1) Cortisone
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Insulin
Ans: (3)
49. Match the pair correctly.
(1) A – 4; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2
(2) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(3) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2
(4) A – 4; B – 2; C – 1; D – 3
Ans: (3)
50. Which enzyme is used as catalyst to convert glucose into ethanol?
(1) Zymase
(2) Invertase
(3) Maltase
(4) Diastase
Ans: (1)
51. Find the wrong statement:
(1) Pakistan recently became the first Asian country to become associate member of CERN
(2) ‘SAMANVAY’ Portal was recently launched by Ministry of Rural Development
(3) International Olympic Committee has officially recognized Frisbee as an Olympic sport recently
(4) Laos has become 206th member of Olympic family
Ans: (3)
52. For empowerment of women, ‘Women-20 (W-20)’ group has been launched by G-20. Newly appointed president of W-20 group belongs to which country?
(1) Germany
(2) South Africa
(3) Turkey
(4) China
Ans: (3)
53. What would be the number of bytes transferred at the rate of 1 kilobit per second?
(1) 100
(2) 108
(3) 125
(4) 128
Ans: (4)
54. Venus Williams of United States has won the 2015 Wuhan Open single title defeating:
(1) Garbine Muguruza of Spain
(2) Anglique Kerber of Germany
(3) Martina Hingis of Switzerland
(4) Sania Mirza of India
Ans: (1)
55. Arvind Pangariya has been chosen next G-20 Sherpa. Who was just earlier G-20 India’s Sherpa?
(1) Suresh Prabhu
(2) Sindhusri Khullar
(3) Sushma Swaraj
(4) None of these
Ans: (1)
56. Chapchar cut, Mim cut and Pawl kut festivals are related to which State of India:
(1) Nagaland
(2) Mizoram
(3) Sikkim
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (2)
57. The well-known book “The Rediscovery of India” has been written by:
(1) L. K Advani
(2) Anita Desai
(3) Vikram Seth
(4) Meghnad Desai
Ans: (4)
58. Fusion process theory is related to:
(1) Motivation
(2) Coordination
(3) Direction
(4) Goal congruency
Ans: (4)
59. Bureaucratic model of management was developed by:
(1) Max Weber
(2) Mooney and Raiby
(3) E. F. L Breach
(4) Robert L. Katz
Ans: (1)
60. Which of the following elements occurs predominately in crude oil:
(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon
(4) Nitrogen
Ans: (3)
Directions : In the following question a number series given. After the series a number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to complete the series starting with the number given following the sequence of the given series and answer the question given below the series.
61. 3 4 16 75 364 1945
1 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (c)
(1) 63
(2) 64
(3) 65
(4) None of these
Ans: (4)
62. Match the correct election symbols of political parties and identify the mismatched one:
(1) Indian National Congress (I) : Hand
(2) Communist Party of India (Marxist) : Ears of Corn and Sickle
(3) Nationalist Congress Party : Clock
(4) Bhartiya Janta Party : Lotus
Ans: (2)
63. 9, 9 leadership style as per managerial grid is called
(1) Country club style
(2) Team style
(3) Middle road style
(4) Task style
Ans: (2)
64. “Horizontal loading of a job” indicates which one of the phenomenon :
(1) Job rotation
(2) Job enlargement
(3) Job enrichment
(4) Task style
Ans: (4)
65. The following is the top most need in the hierarchy as per Maslow’s theory
(1) Esteem
(2) Self actualization
(3) Safety
(4) Social
Ans: (2)
66. The French industrialist who first identified the basic management is:
(1) Weber
(2) Taylor
(3) Herzberg
(4) Fayol
Ans: (4)
67. Organization chart is an important technique of:
(1) Analysis of any organization
(2) Analysis of non-formal organization
(3) Analysis of formal organization
(4) Analysis of informal organization
Ans: (3)
68. Goal-setting theory states that:
(1) Difficult goals lead to higher performance
(2) Easy goals lead to higher performance
(3) Difficult goals lead to lower performance
(4) Easy goals lead to lower performance
Ans: (1)
69. A program written in assembly language converts the source program into:
(1) Assembly program
(2) Machine language program
(3) Object program
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
70. Match the following:
Field
A. Economics
B. Peace
C. Literature
D. Physics
Nobel Prize winner 2015
1. Svetlana Alexievich
2. Angus Deaton
3. Takaaki Kajita & Arthur B.
4. Tunisian National Dialogue Quartet
(1) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
(2) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4
(3) A – 1; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2
(4) A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1
Ans: (3)
Directions (Qs. 71 to 74) : Answer these questions based on the following information.
The graph given below represents the sales and profit in Rs. Crore of XYZ Ltd. for five years from 2007-08 to 2011-12. During this period the sales increased from Rs. 150 Crore to Rs. 800 Crore. Correspondingly, the net profit increased from Rs. 4.2 Crore to Rs. 15 Crore. Net Profit is defined as the excess of sales over total costs.
71. The highest percentage of growth in sales,, relative to previous years occurred in :
(1) 2008-09
(2) 2009-10
(3) 2010-11
(4) 2011-12
Ans: (4)
72. The highest percentage of growth in net profit, relative to the previous years was occurred in :
(1) 2008-09
(2) 2009-10
(3) 2010-11
(4) 2011-12
Ans: (4)
73. Defining profitability as the ratio of net profit to sales, XYZ Ltd. recorded the highest profitability in :
(1) 2007-08
(2) 2009-10
(3) 2010-11
(4) 2011-12
Ans: (1)
74. With profitability as defined as the ratio of the net profit to sales, it can be concluded that:
(1) Profitability is non decreasing during the five years from 2007-08 to 2011-12
(2) Profitability is non increasing during the five years from 2007-08 to 2011-12
(3) Profitability remained constant during the five years from 2007-08 to 2011-12
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
75. A program that places programs into main memory and prepares them for execution.
(1) Linker
(2) Assembler
(3) Loader
(4) Absolute entity
Ans: ()
Directions (Qs. 76 to 80):
There are six IPL players from six different states UP, Jharkhand, Haryana, Rajasthan, Delhi and West Bengal staying in three different hotels of Delhi. Two players in each hotel are roommates. Every player reads one of the following newspapers, The times of India, the Asian Age, the Hindustan Times, The Pioneer, The Hindu and the Indian Express. Dhoni stays in Ashoka and he is from Jharkhand. He does not read the Asian Age and The Hindustan Times. R.P Singh from U.P. reads The Indian Express. He does not stay with Amit. Youvraj Singh stays with a player from Rajasthan. The Asian Age is read by a player in Le Meridian Hotel. Rahul is not from Haryana and West Bengal and he reads the Pioneer. A player from Hotel Samrat reads The Hindu. Sachin is n either from Delhi nor from West Bengal. The Hindustan Times and the Indian Express do not come in Ashoka. Players from U.P and Haryana stay together. The Pioneer comes to Ashoka. The player who reads The Indian Express resides at Le Meridian Hotel.
76. Who stays in Samrat Hotel:
(1) Youvraj Singh and Dhoni
(2) Youvraj Singh and Amit
(3) Sachin and Amit
(4) None of the above is correct
Ans: (2)
77. Who reads the Time of India.
(1) Sachin
(2) Rahul
(3) Dhoni
(4) None of these
Ans: (3)
78. Who stays with Sachin:
(1) R. P. Singh
(2) Dhoni
(3) Youvraj Singh
(4) Rahul
Ans: (1)
79. Which state does Amit belong to?
(1) Delhi
(2) Jharkhand
(3) West Bengal
(4) Rajasthan
Ans: (4)
80. In which Hotel does Rahul stay?
(1) Le Meridian
(2) Samrat
(3) Ashoka
(4) Data Inadequate
Ans: (3)
81. Which of the following is not used as a data structure?
(1) Array
(2) Linked list
(3) Graph
(4) Directory
Ans: (3)
82. Microsoft Access is:
(1) RDBMS
(2) DBMS
(3) Table
(4) Text Editor
Ans: (2)
83. ‘The Year of the Runaways’ has been written by:
(1) Hanya Yanagihara
(2) Marlen James
(3) Sanjeev Sahota
(4) Tom McCarthy
Ans: (3)
Directions: Each face of a cube has a different colour. Its top face is painted BLACK. BLUE is between RED and YELLOW, GREEN is between BLACK and WHITE. WHITE is between YELLOW and RED.
84. Which colour is at the bottom.
(1) Red
(2) White
(3) Black
(4) Yellow
Ans: (2)
85. ‘C’ is a place which is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from the capital Z. R is another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from ‘C’. ‘M’ is another place and that is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from ‘R’. ‘T’ is yet another place that is located 2 km way in the south-west direction from ‘M’. In which direction is ‘T’ located in relation to ‘Z’?
(1) South-West
(2) West
(3) North
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
86. Arjun is Arvind’s brother. Swati is Arvind’s mother. Prakash is Swati’s father. Malti is Prakash’s mother. How Arjun is related Malti?
(1) Grand Son
(2) Great Grand Son
(3) Son
(4) Cannot be determined
Ans: (2)
87. Tide caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and Sun together in the sam direction is called
(1) Spring Tide
(2) Neap Tide
(3) Tidal Wave
(4) Tidal Bore
Ans: (1)
88. A non-violent revolution called Velvet Revolution and whose hero was Vaclav Havel took place in 1989 in :
(1) Czechoslovakia
(2) Indonesia
(3) Myanmar
(4) Egypt
Ans: (1)
Directions : Answer the following question according to the instructions given.
A$B means A is not smaller than B.
A#B means A is not greater than B.
A@B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B.
A*B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B.
A%B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.
89. Statement :
M@J, J$T, F*N
Conclusions:
I. N#J
II. T%M
III. M@N
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) All are true
Ans: (4)
90. In a certain code language,
‘cro te na’ stands for ‘elephants are huge’;
‘mee cro da’ stands for ‘animals are dark’ and ‘mee cro te dana’ stans for ‘huge animals are lovable’. How is ‘elephants are lovable’ written in this code language?
(1) mee dana cro
(2) na mee dana
(3) na dana cro
(4) ted a mee
Ans: (3)
Directions (Qs. 91 to 93) : From among the five doctors 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, four engineers G, H, K. K, L and six teachers M, N, O, P, Q and R, some teams are to be selected. Of these 1, 2, G, H, O, P, Q are females and the rest are males. The formation of teams is subject to the following conditions.
Wherever there is a male doctor, there will not be a female teacher.
Wherever there is a male engineer, there will not be a female doctor.
There shall not be more than two male teachers in any team.
91. If the team consists of two doctors, two female teachers and two engineers, then all the following teams are possible except:
(1) 1, 2, K, L, P, Q
(2) 1, 2, G, H, P, Q
(3) 1, 2, G, H, O, Q
(4) O, P, G, H, 1, 2
Ans: (1)
92. If the team consists of two doctors, three female teachers and two engineers, then the members of the team are:
(1) 3, 4, O, P, Q, G, H
(2) 1, 2, O, P, Q, G, H
(3) 3, 4, K, L, O, P, Q
(4) 4, 5, G, H, O, P, Q
Ans: (2)
93. If the team consists of three doctors, two male engineers and two teachers, then the members of the team could be:
(1) 3, 4, 5, K, L, M, N
(2) 1, 2, 3, K, L, M, R
(3) 3, 4, 5, K, L, P, R
(4) 1, 2, H, M, R, P, Q
Ans: (2)
94. Pro Kabaddi League 2015 title was won b y:
(1) Jaipur Pink Panthers
(2) Bengalurur Bulls
(3) U Mumba
(4) Dabang Delhi
Ans: (3)
95. Statements:
Al boys are girls
No girls is a father
Conclusions:
I. All girls are boys
II. No boy is a father
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Both I and II are true
(4) None of them is true
Ans: (2)
96. Statements:
Some rings are diamonds
All fruits are tasty
Some tasty are diamonds
All diamonds are almonds
Conclusions:
I. Some almonds are fruits
II. No ring is almond
(1) Only conclusion I follows
(2) Only conclusion II follows
(3) Both conclusions I and II follow None follows
(4) None follows
Ans: (4)
97. Who among the following were well known for their study on poverty in India.
(1) V. M. Dandekar
(2) Neel Kanth
(3) Raghuram Rajan
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Ans: (4)
Directions : In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II. Select the choice the follows.
A. If statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
B. If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
C. If statements I & II are required to answer the question
D. If statements I and II together are insufficient and more data is needed to answer the question.
98. Will the power position become satisfactory within 3 years due to satisfactory within 3 years due to privatization of distribution in Delhi:
Statements:
I. Distribution losses will be cut be 30% in the next three years.
II. Power requirements are growing by 10% each year.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans: (3)
99. In the diagram given below, if the circle F represents women living with families, W represents working women and S represents women who are studying, what does the shaded area represent?
(1) Women who are studying and working
(2) Women who are living independently and studying
(3) Women who are living with their families and studying
(4) Women who are living with their families, studying and working
Ans: (3)
100. One of the pioneering robots, that went missing into space almost a decade ago, has been recently found on the surface of red planet. Name it:
(1) Beagle 2
(2) Mars-2 Prop-M. Rover
(3) Mars Rover
(4) Spirit (MER-A)
Ans: (1)
101. The Union Govt. appointed four Brand Ambassadors for digital India Programme recently. Who among these is an author and ethical hacker.
(1) Pranav Mistry
(2) Satwat Jagwani
(3) Krati Tiwari
(4) Ankit Fadia
Ans: (4)
102. A mountain which was recently renamed ‘Denali’ is in which country:
(1) USA
(2) Russia
(3) China
(4) Australia
Ans: (1)
103. A $ B means ‘A’ is father of ‘B’, A # B means ‘A’ is sister of ‘B’, A Ψ be means ‘A’ is daughter of ‘B’ and A @ B means ‘A’ is brother of ‘B’.
Then which of the following expressions indicates the relationship ‘R’ is wife of ‘K’?
(1) K @ P $ T Ψ R
(2) K $ P @ T Ψ R
(3) K $ P Ψ T @ R
(4) K $ P # T @ R
Ans: (2)
104. Will require a great deal of courage on part of lawmakers in Delhi to introduce and pass laws for licensing and registration of arms possession. Many feel private ownership of arms is the main cause of sociological ills of the country. The arms lobby in Delhi would describe it as an invasion on personal liberty. Select the best argument against strict registration of arms:
(1) It would be difficult to enforce
(2) It would be violation of rights in the Constitution
(3) Most murders/crimes are committed by the privately owned arms
(4) Some murders are committed without the use of arms
Ans: (2)
105. In a 20 pages book, pages 1 and 2 face each other, 3 and 4 face each other, 5 and 6 face each other. This pattern is repeated till the end. The product of 2 pages facing each other in this book cannot be:
(1) 184
(2) 132
(3) 90
(4) 56
Ans: (1)
106. There are 50 employees in the office of ABC company. Of these, 22 have taken accounting course, 15 have taken a course in finance, and 4 have taken a marketing course. None of the employees has taken exactly two of the course, and one employee has taken all of these courses. How many of the 50 employees have taken none of the courses?
(1) 9
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
107. In a certain code STREAMLINE is written as BFSUTDMHKL. How is SCIENTIFIC written in that code?
(1) OFJDTBHEHS
(2) OFJDTDJGJU
(3) OFJTBDHESH
(4) OFJDTDGJUT
Ans: (1)
108. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take cold drink while 9 take only cold drink not green coconut drink. How many persons in this group take only green coconut drink but not cold drink. (Every person takes drink either cold drink or green coconut or both)
(1) 27
(2) 25
(3) 20
(4) 22
Ans: (3)
109. Which of the following circuit is used as ‘Memory device’ in computers?
(1) Rectifier
(2) Flip-Flop
(3) Comparator
(4) Attenuator
Ans: (2)
110. India successfully launched its 1st dedicated satellite for astronomy ‘ASTROSAT’ recently. This success made India a member of elite group of nations having their own space observatory. The elite group does not consist of the following nation:
(1) USA
(2) China
(3) Japan
(4) Russia
Ans: (2)
111. In Microsoft Excel a Worksheet has 65536 rows and
(1) 200 columns
(2) 256 columns
(3) 65536 columns
(4) 192 columns
Ans: (2)
112. Identify the wrong match.
(1) Vishwanath Tripathi – Vyomkesh Darvesh
(2) Narendra Kohli – Na Bhooto Na Bhavishyati
(3) Dr. Kamal Kishore Goenka – Prem Chand Kie Kahaniyon Ka Kaal Kramanussar Adhyayan
(4) Ram Vilas Sharma – Aam K Patte
Ans: (4)
113. The theme of International Day of Peace for the year 2015 is :
(1) Association for Peace – Peace for all
(2) Peace Initiatives – Prosperity for all
(3) Partnership for Peace – Dignity for all
(4) Peaceful Resolutions – Solutions for all
Ans: (3)
114. Who will host 2022 Asian Games?
(1) Beijing
(2) Jakarta
(3) Gaungzhou
(4) Hangzhou
Ans: (4)
115. To save water and protect environment, hybrid vacuum toilet was installed recently by Indian Railways on trial basis in:
(1) Delhi-Mumbai Rajdhani Train
(2) Delhi-Kolkata Rajdhani Train
(3) Delhi-Dibrugarh Rajdhani Train
(4) Delhi- Chennai Rajdhani Train
Ans: (3)
116. 8th edition of Global Innovation Index 2015 was released recently. India’s rank in GIL 2015:
(1) 76
(2) 81
(3) 82
(4) 26
Ans: (2)
117. An organization that has developed capacity to adapt and change is described as:
(1) Virtual organization
(2) Learning organization
(3) Changing organization
(4) Developing organization
Ans: (2)
118. The phenomenon of temporarily closing down the undertaking forcing workers to accept the demands of employer is:
(1) Lay-off
(2) Retrenchment
(3) Lock out
(4) Termination
Ans: (1)
119. The theory which explains affiliation in Group formation and dynamics is called:
UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2016 General Studies Paper II (CSAT) Question Paper with Answer Key
Union Public Service Commission
Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2016
General Studies : Paper – II (CSAT)
1. A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code. FRACTION can be written as :
(a) CARFTION
(b) FRACNOIT
(c) NOITCARF
(d) CARFNOIT
Ans: (d)
2. If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily true?
(a) R – S is divisible by 5
(b) R + S is divisible by 10
(c) R × S is divisible by 25
(d) R2 + S2 divisible by 5
Ans: (b)
3. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?
(a) 110
(b) 111
(c) 112
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Directions (Qs. 4 to 11) : Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed two billion more people, the question of which diet is best has taken on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the coming decades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put, a die that revolves around meat and dairy, a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the developing world, will take a greater toll on the world’s resources than one that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables.
4. What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources
(b) Diets based on gains, nuts, fruits and vegetables are best suited for health in developing countries
(c) Human beings change their food habits from time to time irrespective of the health concerns
(d) From a global perspective, we still do not know which type of diet is best for us
Ans: (a)
Passage – 2
All humans digest mother’s milk as infants, but until cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the Middle East and Africa. Groups not dependent on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant.
5. Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?
(a) About 10,000 years ago, the domestication of animals took place in some parts of the world
(b) A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members
(c) Lactose tolerant people only are capable of getting simple sugars in their bodies
(d) People who are not lactose tolerant cannot digest any diary product
Ans: (b)
Passage – 3
“The conceptual difficulties in National Income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialized countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in various underdeveloped countries is produced without passing through the commercial channels.”
6. In the above statement, the author implies that:
(a) the entire national output produced and consumed in industrialized countries passes through commercial channels
(b) the existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income comparisons over countries difficult
(c) no part of national output should be produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels
(d) a part of the national output being produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign of underdevelopment
Ans: (b)
Passage – 4
An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between plants and microorganisms that would unsettle one of the largest carbon reservoirs on the planet-soil. In a study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice the amount of carbon present in all plants and Earth’s atmosphere combined, could become increasingly volatile as people add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant growth. Although greenhouse gas and a pollutant, carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future, their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its release into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
7. Which among the following is most logical corollary to the above passage?
(a) Carbon dioxide is essential for the survival microorganisms and plants
(b) Humans are solely responsible for the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
(c) Microorganisms and soil carbon are mainly responsible for the increased plant growth
(d) Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil
Ans: (d)
Passage – 5
Historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance cab en a critical policy issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surpluses to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, supply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to countries of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of hunger, starvation, under- or mal-nourishment, etc, at the world level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty pocket hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined t the underdeveloped economies, Inasmuch as ‘a two-square meal’ is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand have been undergoing big change, and because, in recent years, the capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions.
8. According to the above passage, which of the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem?
1. Setting up more agro-based industries
2. Improving the price affordability by the poor
3. regulating the conditions of marketing
4. Providing food subsidy to one and all
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
9. According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is:
(a) to find sufficient land for agriculture and to expand food processing industries
(b) to eradicate hunger in underdeveloped countries
(c) to achieve a balance between the production of food and non-food items
(d) to achieve a balance between, demand for and supply of food
Ans: (d)
10. According to the above passage, which of the following helps/help in reducing hunger and starvation in the developing economies?
1. Balancing demand and supply of food
2. Increasing imports of food
3. Increasing purchasing power of the poor
4. Changing the food consumption patterns and practices
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
11. The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained importance mainly because of :
1. overgrowth of the population worldwide
2. sharp decline in the area of food production
3. limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
12. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of the these four digits are repeated in any manner. Further.
1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place
How many different numbers can be formed?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
13. A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 7 m to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5 m × 4 m × 6 m . How much portion of the underground tank is still filed with water after filling the overhead tank completely?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/6
Ans: (a)
14. In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after his is:
(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 3
Ans: (b)
15. A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 8.00 a.m. and before 9.30 a.m.?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 8
Ans: (a)
16. W can do 25% of a work in 30 days, ,X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete t3he work first?
(a) W
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) Z
Ans: (d)
17. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. What will be the average monthly income of a person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year?
(a) Rs. 12,000
(b) Rs. 16,000
(c) Rs. 20,000
(d) Rs. 34,000
Ans: (d)
18. In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line on a track and a bucket is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. If the has to drop all the apples in the bucket, how much total distance he has to run if the bucket is 5 metres from the first apple and all other apples are placed 3 metres apart?
(a) 40 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 75 m
(d) 150 m
Ans: (d)
19. A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with for scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target?
(a) 0.40
(b) 0.20
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.04
Ans: (c)
20. A person allows a 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770?
(a) Rs. 610
(b) Rs. 620
(c) Rs. 630
(d) Rs. 640
Ans: (c)
Directions (Qs. 21 to 26) : Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance, generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should in internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor-General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.
Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the Centre and in the States. Decentralization and devolution of authority of bring government and decision-making closer to the people also help to enhance accountability.
21. According to the passage, which, of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration?
1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities
2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services
3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services
4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-à-vis political executive in this context
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
22. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society
2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society
Which of the these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
23. Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?
(a) Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving
(b) Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership
(c) The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services
(d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services
Ans: (d)
24. According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?
(a) Better job security and safeguards
(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission
(c) Judicial review of executive decisions
(d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision-making process
Ans: (d)
Passage-2
In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principal. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to t he practice and understanding of justice.
25. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions
2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god
3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice
Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
26. Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?
(a) Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions
(b) Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue
(c) Balance between rights and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society
(d) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god
Ans: (c)
27. A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, Bad n C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was:
(a) Apple
(b) Pineapple
(c) Grapes
(d) Oranges
Ans: (d)
28. Consider the following statements:
1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country
2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate
3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate
4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country
Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?
(a) The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration
(b) The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only
(c) The rate of population growth is increasing due to increase in birth rate only
(d) The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate
Ans: (d)
29. A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?
(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south
(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north
Ans: (b)
30. Consider the following statement:
“We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking”.
Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?
(a) We go for a picnic but not for trekking
(b) Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities
(c) We go for trekking and not for picnic
(d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking
Ans: (d)
31. There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party it was discovered that no member knew music. The conclusion is that:
(a) the party comprised male faculty members only
(b) the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music
(c) the party comprised both male and female faculty members
(d) nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party
Ans: (a)
32. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.
(i) C is seated next to A
(ii) A is seated two seats from D
(iii) B is not seated next to A
On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true?
1. D is seated next to B
2. E is seated next to A
3. D and C are separated by two seats
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3
Ans: (b)
33. There are five hobby clubs in a college-photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?
(a) 5
(b) 18
(c) 10
(d) 3
Ans: (d)
34. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are :
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 and 3
Ans: (c)
Directions (Qs. 35 to 39): Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:
There are five persons in a group-P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.
35. Who is the doctor?
(a) T
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) R
Ans: (a)
36. Who is the artist?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) T
Ans: (c)
37. Who is the spouse of R?
(a) P
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) S
Ans: (b)
38. Who is true lawyer?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
Ans: (b)
39. Who among the following is definitely a man?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) Q
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
40. There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per day out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 22
Ans: (c)
Directions Qs. 41 to 45): Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-I
Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate.
Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150-200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80-170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass based carbon capture ad storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century.
Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second-generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks-such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood-hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R&D stage.
41. What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generations?
1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass
2. Biomass production competes with food production
3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
42. Which of the following can lead to food security problem?
1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation
2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage
3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
43. In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel?
1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirr3ements of the world by 2050
2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources
3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
44. With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been made:
1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions
2. It is not possible to sue biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources.
Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Passage -2
We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolutions is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high-yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future.
45. Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that
(a) In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green revolution
(b) Monocropping vast fields high-yield varieties is possible due to green revolution
(c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the only way to ensure food security to millions
(d) Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run
Ans: (d)
46. A class starts at 11:00 am and last till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is:
(a) 48 minutes
(b) 50 minutes
(c) 51 minutes
(d) 53 minutes
Ans: (a)
47. Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Person that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower persons. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original p lace and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows: A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?
(a) 23 minutes
(b) 22 minutes
(c) 21 minutes
(d) 20 minutes
Ans: (a)
48. 30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel. C. The solution in vessel B is:
(a) sweeter than that in C
(b) sweeter than that in A
(c) as sweet than that in C
(d) less sweet than that in C
Ans: (d)
49. In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 43
(d) 45
Ans: (b)
50. Anita’s mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is:
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
Ans: (b)
51. In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three- fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class what is the number of girls in the class?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 21
Ans: (b)
52. Consider the following statements:
1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B
2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C
3. B is older than C
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) A is older than B
(b) B and D are of the same age
(c) D is older than C
(d) A is older than C
Ans: (d)
53. The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary p aid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the percentage of male employed in the company is:
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%
Ans: (b)
Directions (Qs. 54 to 56) : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.
Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily ion the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey bal is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey bal is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.
54. Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
55. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) D is painted yellow
(b) F is painted indigo
(c) B is painted blue
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
56. The football is in the box of which colour?
(a) Yellow
(b) Indigo
(c) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
(d) Blue
Ans: (c)
57. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?
(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 9%
(d) 8%
Ans: (b)
58. A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the shuttle service?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 7
Ans: (c)
59. A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is:
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 6 cm
Ans: (c)
60. In a questions paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices – True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is:
(a) 10
(b) 18
(c) 26
(d) 32
Ans: (d)
Directions (Qs. 61 to 68): Read the following eight passages and answer the item that follows each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage-1
By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return of payoofs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economies like India is the middle-income trap where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth.
61. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
(a) Launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for the current schemes are urgently needed
(b) Efforts should be made push up economic growth by other means and provide licences to the poor
(c) Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present
(d) We should concentrate more on developing manufacturing sector than service sector
Ans: (c)
Passage-2
Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated measures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest management and agricultural information services. Some of these measures may have to do with climate changes and others with economic development.
62. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) It is difficult to pursue climate adaptation in the developing countries
(b) Improving food security is a far more complex issue than climate adaptation
(c) Every developmental activity is directly or indirectly linked to climate adaptation
(d) Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options
Ans: (d)
Passage-3
Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle enables better policy-making. The term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and the ecosystems ion which they occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions: In turn, vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. Every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacte3ria, soil and other organism. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water is a critical service that the environment provides.
63. Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water
(b) We cannot get potable water without the existence of living organisms
(c) Plants, animals and microorganisms continuously interact among themselves
(d) Living organisms could not have come into existence without hydrological cycle
Ans: (a)
Passage-4
In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is a need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man.
64. Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?
(a) Need for more automation and more products of banks
(b) Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system
(c) Need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions
(d) Need to promote financial inclusion
Ans: (d)
Passage-5
Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dignity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, only goes to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging.
65. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only
2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Passage-6
To understand the nature and quantity of Government proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she intended. In all cases she made his natural wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is capable, without the aid of society, of supplying his own wants; and those wants, acting upon every individual, impel the whole of them into society.
66. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Nature has created a great diversity in human society.
(b) Any given human society is always short of its wants
(c) Social life is a specific characteristic of man
(d) Diverse natural wants forced man towards social system
Ans: (d)
Passage-7
The nature of the legal imperatives in any given state corresponds to the effective demands that state encounters, and that these, in their turn, depend, in a general way, upon the manner in which economic power is distributed in the society which the state controls.
67. The statements refers to:
(a) the antithesis of Politics and Economics
(b) the interrelationship of Politics and Economics
(c) the predominance of Economics over Politics
(d) the predominance of Politics over Economics
Ans: (b)
Passage-8
About 15 percent of global greenhouse gas emissions come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous oxide from fertilizers; methane from livestock, rice production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide (CO2) from burning biomass, but his excludes CO2 emissions from soil management practices, savannah burning and deforestation. Forestry, land use, and land-use change account for another 17 percent of greenhouse gas emissions each year, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same amount of carbon is stored in the world’s peatlands as is stored in the Amazon rainforest.
68. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Organic farming should immediately replace mechanized and chemical dependent agricultural practices all over the world
(b) It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate climate change
(c) There are no technological solutions to the problem of greenhouse gas emissions.
(d) Tropical areas are the chief sites of carbon sequestration
Ans: (b)
69. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point ‘O’ on the ground in the direction of north-east and reaches a point ‘A’ after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point ‘A’ he moves to point ‘B’ in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point ‘O’?
(a) 7 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 17 km
(d) 11 km
Ans: (b)
70. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X1 metres and breadth X2 metres (X1 and X2 are variable). If X1 + X2 = 40 metres, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values?
(a) 400 sq m
(b) 300 sq m
(c) 200 sq m
(d) 80 sq m
Ans: (a)
71. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 2 years and 6 months
Ans: (b)
72. The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:
(a) 16 : 13
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 7 : 5
(d) 12 : 11
Ans: (d)
73. A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps does the ladder have?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
Ans: (b)
Directions (Qs. 74 to 76): Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.
When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are: jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order are: Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh. Further, we k now that:
1. Neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater
2. C wore a tie
3. Singh’s garment was not white
4. Kumar does not wear a jacket
5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour.
6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour
74. What is C’s surname?
(a) Ribeiro
(b) Kumar
(c) Singh
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans: (a)
75. What is the colour of the tie?
(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans: (b)
76. Who wore the sweater?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans: (a)
77. AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 metres, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 metres from A, then the original height of the trunk is:
(a) 20 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 35 m
Ans: (b)
78. A persons walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due south. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 5 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 37 km
(d) 61 km
Ans: (a)
79. A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is:
(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 16
(d) 8
Ans: (d)
80. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes lave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the entire job alone?
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
1
1
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
13637.906068
(in Acres.)
3.37
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
1554.48
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
6254.15
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
dry
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
13
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
13
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Asansol Kashinath Lahiri Memorial Social Welfare & Educational Society
Location of the School:
Nearest Railway Station
Damodar
Distance in KM
1
Nearest Police Station
DamodarHirapur
Distance in KM
6
Nearest Nationalised Bank
SBI, Rangapara Branch
Distance in KM
2
Nature of the School:
Category of School
Co-educational
Medium of Instruction
English
Types of School
Independent
Enrollment of the Students:
Class
No. of Section
No. of Student
Nursery/KG/LKG
0
0
I-V
1
138
VI-VIII
1
93
IX-X
0
0
XI-XII
0
0
Infrastructure Details:
Room
Number
Size
Length (in Ft.)
Breadth (in Ft.)
Composite Science Lab
1
31
22
Physics Lab
0
0
0
Chemistry Lab
0
0
0
Biology Lab
0
0
0
Maths Lab
1
30
9
Computer Science Lab
1
22
20
Home Science Lab
0
0
0
Library
1
51
16
Other Rooms
4
20
18
Class Room
10
27
21
Particulars of Teaching Staff:
Staff
Number
Trained
Untrained
PRTs
6
6
0
TGTs
5
5
0
Librarian
1
1
0
PTI
1
1
0
PGTs
0
0
0
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
0
0
0
NTTs
0
0
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
7260.0603816
(in Acres.)
1.794
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
956
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
6043
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
5
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
5
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
is:
then 12 + 32 + 52 + …+ 172 is :
The net effect on the salary is:
The first 3/4 of the journey was done at 30 km/hr. Calculate the speed for the rest of the journey.
and 
then the value of tan α is
then the value of x3 – 9x2 + 27x – 34 is
then the value of xp + xq is:
