JIPMER

JIPMER SOLVED PAPER-2019

Physics

1. Find the current in the 8Ω resistance in the given circuit.

(a) 2 A

(b) 3 A

(c) 4 A

(d) 5 A

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2. In the given circuit find the heat produced between A and B (given C = 1 μF)

(a) 50 μJ

(b) 60 μJ

(c) 70 μJ

(d) 100 μJ

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3. In the given circuit, if power rating of heater is 1000 Watt at 100 Volt, find the resistance R in figure so that heater produces power of 62.5 W.

(a) 5 Ω

(b) 7 Ω

(c) 10 Ω

(d) 8 Ω

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4. Ba-122 has half life of 2 min. Experiment has to be done using Ba-122 and it takes 10 min to set up the experiment. If initially 80 g of Ba-122 was taken, how much Ba was left when experiment was started?

(a) 2.5 g

(b) 5 g

(c) 10 g

(d) 20 g

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5. Find the value of θ in the given diagram.

(a) sin⁻¹(2/√3)

(b) sin⁻¹(1/√3)

(c) sin⁻¹(1/2)

(d) sin⁻¹(1/√2)

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6. Find the position of final image from first lens. Given focal length of each lens is 10 cm.

(a) 40 cm

(b) 50 cm

(c) 45 cm

(d) 55 cm

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7. If velocity of light in air is c, what will be the velocity of light in a medium of refractive index 1.4?

(a) 2.1 × 10⁸ m/s

(b) 1.4 × 10⁸ m/s

(c) 2.8 × 10⁸ m/s

(d) None of these

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8. If ratio of terminal velocity of two drops falling in air is 3 : 4, then what is the ratio of their surface area?

(a) 2/3

(b) 3/4

(c) 4/3

(d) 3/2

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9. If frequency (v) of light is 5 × 10⁶ Hz and speed of light in air is 3 × 10⁸ m/s. Find the ratio of wavelength of light in a medium of refractive index ‘2’ to air

(a) 1/2

(b) 3

(c) 3/2

(d) 2

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10. Find the maximum radius of circle so that the block can complete the circular motion.

(a) 5 cm

(b) 3 cm

(c) 2 cm

(d) 4 cm

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11. Find the height of liquid in capillary tube, if surface tension of liquid = S, radius of capillary tube = r and acceleration due to gravity = g.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

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12. Following circuit will act as

(a) NOR gate

(b) NAND gate

(c) AND gate

(d) OR gate

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13. The rate of decrease of kinetic energy is 9.6 J/s. Find the magnitude of force acting on particle when it’s speed is 3 m/s.

(a) 3.2 N

(b) 4.8 N

(c) 2.4 N

(d) 5.6 N

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14. Maximum acceleration in SHM

(a) ω²A

(b) ω²A/2

(c) ω²A²

(d) 0

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15. If frequencies are (v – 1), (v + 1), then find beats.

(a) 2

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 4

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16. If mass (M), distance (L) and time (T) are fundamental quantities, then find dimension of torque.

(a) [ML²T⁻²]

(b) [MLT⁻²]

(c) [MLT]

(d) [ML²T]

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17. Find the correct diagram of electric lines of forces for negative charge.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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18. A circuit contain two resistance R₁ and R₂ in series. Find the ratio of input voltage to voltage of R₂.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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19. Find the current drawn from the battery just after the switch is closed.

(a) E/2R

(b) 2E/R

(c) E/R

(d) 2E/3R

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20. Find the average velocity when a particle complete the circle of radius 1m in 10 sec.

(a) 2 m/s

(b) 3.14 m/s

(c) 6.28 m/s

(d) zero

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21. Speeds of a particle at 3rd and 8th sec are 20 m/s and zero respectively, then average acceleration between 3rd and 8th sec will be

(a) 3 m/s²

(b) 4 m/s²

(c) 5 m/s²

(d) 6 m/s²

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22. If object starts from rest and covers angle of 60 rad in 10 sec in circular motion magnitude of angular acceleration will be

(a) 1.2 rad/sec²

(b) 1.5 rad/sec²

(c) 2 rad/sec²

(d) 2.5 rad/sec²

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23. One object of mass 20 kg is moving with speed 10 m/s in west direction another object of mass 10 kg is moving with 15 m/s in North direction. Both collide and stick together. Choose the correct alternative.

(a) There K.E. is conserved as it is inelastic collision

(b) There K.E. is conserved on it is elastic collision

(c) There momentum is conserved as it is inelastic collision

(d) There momentum is conserved as it is elastic collision

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24. One rod of length 2 m and thermal conductivity 50 unity is attached to another rod of length 1 m and thermal conductivity 100 unit. Temperature of free ends are 70°C and 50°C respectively. Then temperature of junction point will be

(a) 60°C

(b) 54°C

(c) 64°C

(d) 68°C

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25. If three objects are thrown with velocity then find the ratio of their maximum heights.

(a) 2 : 6 : 1

(b) 2 : 5 : 3

(c) 2 : 4 : 7

(d) 3 : 7 : 4

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26. Find the distance between two consecutive nodes, if for a string T = 0.25 N, μ = 1 mg/m f = 250 Hz.

(a) 2m

(b) 1m

(c) 3m

(d) 1.5m

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27. If escape velocity on earth surface is 11.1 km/h, then find the escape velocity on moon surface. If mass of moon is 1/81 times of mass of earth and radius of moon is 1/4 times radius of earth.

(a) 2.46 km/h

(b) 3.46 km/h

(c) 4.4 km/h

(d) None of these

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28. Two disc having mass ratio 1/2 and diameter ratio 2/1 then find ratio of moment of inertia.

(a) 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 1

(c) 1 : 2

(d) 2 : 3

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29. For a battery the electromotive force is 1.5 V. Terminal voltage is 1.25 V. Power supplied to external resistance is 2.5 W. Find the internal resistance of battery.

(a) 0.125 Ω

(b) 0.25 Ω

(c) 0.5 Ω

(d) 0.1 Ω

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30. A projectile of mass 1 kg is projected with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 60° from the horizontal when projectile is at its highest point, its magnitude of angular momentum (about point of projection)

(a)

(b)

(c) 75 Nm/s

(d) 150 Nm/s

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31. Two wire of same material having radius in ratio 2 : 1 and lengths in ratio 1 : 2. If same force is applied on them, then ratio of their change in length will be

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 1 : 4

(d) 1 : 8

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32. If frequency of a photon is 6 × 10¹⁴ Hz, then find its wavelength.

[Take, speed of light, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s]

(a) 500 Å

(b) 500 nm

(c) 200 Å

(d) 200 nm

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33. Find resonance frequency in the given circuit

(a) 1/√LC

(b) 2/√LC

(c) 1/2√LC

(d) 4/√LC

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34. If a ball of mass 0.1 kg hits the ground from the height of 20 m and bounce back to the same height, then find out the force exerted on the ball if the time of impact is 0.04 sec.

(Take, g = 10 m/s²)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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35. A galvanometer of 50 Ω resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 × 10⁻⁴ A gives a deflection of one division. To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25 V, it should be connected with a resistance of

(a) 2500 Ω as a shunt

(b) 245 Ω as a shunt

(c) 2550 Ω in series

(d) 2450 Ω in series

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36. A man applying force of 20 N on an object at an angle of 60° from the horizontal. If object moved by 20 m in horizontal direction, then work done by the force on the object is

(a) 300 J

(b) 400 J

(c) 100 J

(d) 200 J

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37. What is dimensions of energy in terms of linear momentum (P), area (A) and time (T)

(a) [P¹A¹T¹]

(b) [P²A²T⁻¹]

(c) [P¹A^1/2T⁻¹]

(d) [P^1/2A^1/2T⁻¹]

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38. Ratio of charge on positron to mass of positron is approximately

(a) +2 × 10¹¹

(b) +5 × 10¹²

(c) −2 × 10¹¹

(d) −5 × 10¹¹

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39. In the given circuit, find voltage across 12 Ω

(a) 12 Volt

(b) 36 Volt

(c) 72 Volt

(d) 48 Volt

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40. Potential difference is given as

V(x) = −x²y volt. Find electric field at a point (1, 2)?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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41. A planet of radius R has a time period of revolution T. Find time period of planet of radius 9R?

(a) 3√3T

(b) 9T

(c) 27T

(d) 9√3T

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42. A toy truck of mass 2m elastically collides with a toy car of mass m. speed of truck is v and car is at rest. Find the velocity of car after collision.

(a) 4v/3

(b) v/3

(c) v

(d) 2v/3

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43. If resistivity of copper is 1.72 × 10⁻⁸ Ω-m and number of free electrons in copper is 8.5 × 10²⁸/m³. Find the mobility.

(a) 4.25 × 10⁻³ m²/CΩ

(b) 6.8 × 10⁻³ m²/CΩ

(c) 8.5 × 10⁻³ m²/CΩ

(d) 3.4 × 10⁻³ m²/CΩ

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44. Van De graff generator is used to

(a) create a high potential of range of few million volts

(b) create a low potential of range of few million volts

(c) to de-accelerate projectile; like protons, deuterons etc.

(d) it can not be used to study collision experiments in physics

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45. Coercivity and retentivity of soft iron is

(a) high coercivity, high retentivity

(b) low coercivity, high retentivity

(c) low coercivity, low rententivity

(d) high coercivity, low retentivity

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46. In YDSE angular fringe width is 0.1ʹ wavelength of light used is 6000 Å. Find the distance between two slits.

(a) 2 μm

(b) 3 μm

(c) 5 μm

(d) 6 μm

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47. Lenz law is based on principle of conservation of

(a) Linear momentum

(b) Energy

(c) Charge

(d) Mass

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48. Two objects of mass m each moving with speed u m/s collide at 90°, then final momentum is (assume collision is inelastic)

(a) mu

(b) 2 mu

(c) √2 mu

(d) 2√2 mu

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49. A particle is projected at an angle of 30° from the horizontal with a speed of 10 m/s on the earth. It’s time of flight, range, velocity of impact are respectively T, R, V. If this projectile is projected on the moon then its time of flight, range and velocity of impact is (assume gravitational field on moon is g/6 m/s²)

(a) 6T, 6R, 6V

(b) 6T, 6R, V

(c) T, R, V

(d) T, 6R, 6V

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50. A particle is moving with 10 m/s in a circle of radius 5m, find out magnitude of average velocity if particle moved by 60° in 1 sec.

(a) 5 m/s

(b) 10 m/s

(c) 5√3 m/s

(d) 20 m/s

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51. A particle of mass 7 kg executing circular motion with time period of 11 sec. Find out centripetal force, if radius circle is 10 m.

(a) 30/7 N

(b) 40/7 N

(c) 30 N

(d) 160/7 N

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52. A stationary wave equation is given as y = 20 sin(20x) cos (1000 t).

What will be the speed of stationary wave?

(a) 20 m/s

(b) 50 m/s

(c) 2 cm/s

(d) not defined

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53. Huygen’s principle does not use

(a) Reflection

(b) Refraction

(c) Diffraction

(d) Point of spectra origin

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54. When a light ray enters from oil to glass on oil-glass interface, then velocity of light changes by a factor of

[given, μ_oil = 2, μ_glass = 3/2]

(a) 4/3

(b) 3/4

(c) 3

(d) 1

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55. For CE configuration n-p-n transistor.

Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) I_C = I_E + I_B

(b) I_B = I_E + I_C

(c) I_E = I_C + I_B

(d) All of these

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56. Psychrometer is used to measure

(a) relative humidity

(b) pressure

(c) temperature

(d) density

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57. If same charge q is placed inside a sphere and cube having radius 1 m and side 2 m respectively. What will be the ratio of flux passing through them?

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 8

(c) 8 : 1

(d) 1 : 2

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58. Induction furnace uses ……….. to produce heat.

(a) eddy current

(b) resistance

(c) capacitor

(d) None of these

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59. The given combination will work as

(a) NAND gate

(b) OR gate

(c) AND gate

(d) NOR gate

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60. In which radiation atomic number and mass number are not affected?

(a) α-radiation

(b) γ-radiation

(c) β-radiation

(d) None of these

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Chemistry

61. Final product is

(a) propene

(b) propanol

(c) cyclopropane

(d) propane-1, 2-diol

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62. Which of the following can from H-bond?

(a) NH_­3

(b) R-CN

(c) R-O-R

(d) R-Br

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63. Which of the following amino acid is optically inactive?

(a) Glycine

(b) Valine

(c) Alanine

(d) Histidine

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64. In which of the following, oxidation state of phosphorus is +3?

(a) Orthophosphoric acid

(b) Pyrophosphoric acid

(c) Orthophosphorous acid

(d) Meta phosphoric acid

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65. If react with Cl₂ in presence of light and then react witih Na metal in dry ether, final product is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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66.

What is suitable reagent (X)?

(a) H₂ | Pt

(b) B_2­H­₆|THF, H₂O₂|OH⁻

(c) Br₂ | HCl

(d) HBr | H₂O₂

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67. What is the oxidation number of Cr in Na₂Cr₂O₇?

(a) 2

(b) 6

(c) 10

(d) 16

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68. What is the value of γ for mono atomic gas (ideal gas) ?

(a) 7/5

(b) 4/3

(c) 5/2

(d) None of these

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69. Formula for half-life of a zero order reaction is

(a) C₀/K

(b) C₀/2K

(c) 2C₀/K

(d) 2C₀/2K

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70. In an ideal gas equation which is constant?

(a) Temperature

(b) Pressure

(c) Volume

(d) Universal gas constant

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71. If two atoms have equal number of electron, it is called

(a) isoelectronic

(b) isotone

(c) isobar

(d) None of these

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72. Hund’s rule state that

(a) number of two e⁻ can be in two separate orbitals

(b) number of two e⁻ can be present with similar spin in a orbital

(c) no one e⁻ can exist in d orbital

(d) None of the above

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73. ¹⁹F⁻¹, ¹⁶O^{−2 20}Ne choose the correct statement

(a) Both O⁻² and F⁻ are isoelectronic

(b) All given have equal to of e⁻

(c) F⁻ and Ne have equal number of e⁻

(d) All of the above

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74. Which method is used to find halogen in organic compound?

(a) Duma’s method

(b) Leibig’s method

(c) Kjeldahl method

(d) Carius method

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75. Which of the following is not iso electronic with H₂S?

(a) F₂ gas

(b) oxide ion

(c) Ca⁺²

(d) Sc⁺³

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76. Number of σ and π bonds in C₂H₂ is respectively

(a) 2, 3

(b) 3, 2

(c) 4, 2

(d) 2, 4

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77. If molarity of Cu⁺² ions is 3 × 10⁻⁴ express this in ppm

(a) 0.3

(b) 0.2

(c) 0.1

(d) 0.6

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78. Which of the following has octet around central atom?

(a) PF₅

(b) SF₆

(c) CCl₄

(d) BF₃

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79. Which of the following is correct?

(a) SO₃² ⇒ Tetrahedral

(b) NO₂⁻ ⇒ Trigonal planar

(c) ClO₄⁻ ⇒ Tetrahedral

(d) NH₃ ⇒ Trigonal planar

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80. If 50 ml of 0.1 HBr is mixed with 50 ml 0.2 M NaOH, find pH of resulting mixture

(a) 2.7

(b) 12.7

(c) 10.7

(d) 1.3

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81. IUPAC name of is

(a) 4-hydroxy-3-methyl cyclohexene

(b) 2-methyl cyclohex-3-en-1-ol

(c) 3-hydroxy-2-methyl cyclohexene

(d) 1-Hydroxy-3-methyl cyclohexene

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82. Bisphenol A is

(a) Phenol + Ethanol

(b) Phenol + Aniline

(c) Phenol + Acetone

(d) Phenol + Ethanal

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83. If equilibrium constant is 2.6 × 10⁸ at 298 K, then find the value of ∆G°.

(a) −48.14 kJ

(b) −63.2 kJ

(c) −23.3 kJ

(d) +40 kJ

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84. Which of the following is not correct?

(a) PhCH₂Br > PhCHBrCH₃ > PhCBr(CH₃)₂(S_N1₎

(b) R – I > R – Br > R – Cl (S_N2)

(c) CH₂ = CH – Cl < CH₂ = CH – CH₂ – Cl < PhCH₂ – Cl (S_N1)

(d) R – Cl < R – Br < R – I (S_N1)

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85. Invert sugar is mixture of

(a) D-glucose + D-fructose

(b) L-glucose + D-fructose

(c) L-glucose + D-glucose

(d) L-glucose + L-glucose

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86. Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon?

(a) Diamond

(b) Fullerene

(c) Soot

(d) Graphite

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87. Calculate molarity of one litre solution of 22.2 gm CaCl₂.

(a) 0.4 M

(b) 0.2 M

(c) 0.8 M

(d) 0.6 M

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88. If V = 1 litre, 10 mole of H₂ and 10 mole of N₂ gas are mixed temperature 26°C, then calculate pressure of the gas.

(a) 491 atm

(b) 300 atm

(c) 550 atm

(d) 600 atm

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89. Which mixture is immiscible?

(a) C₅H₁₂ + Alcohol

(b) Alcohol + Amine

(c) H₂O + Alcohol

(d) Alkane + Alkane

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90. Silicon carbide is example of

(a) molecular solid

(b) metallic solid

(c) ionic crystal

(d) covalent solid

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91. Which type of defect present in NaCl?

(a) Frenkel defect

(b) Schottky defect

(c) F-centre defect

(d) None of these

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92. Which one follow 18 electron octet rule?

(a) [Mn(CO)₅]

(b) [Cr(CO)₅]

(c) [Fe(CO)₅]

(d) None of these

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93.

Suitable reagent for conversion of following reaction?

(a) NaBH₄

(b) Ni/H₂

(c) Zn/Hg/HCl

(d) Red P + Hi

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94. Bordeaux mixture consist of

(a) CuSO₄ + Ca(OH)₂

(b) CuSO₄ + CaCl₂

(c) ZnSO₄ + Mg(OH)₂

(d) FeSO₄ + Ba(OH)₂

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95. BrO­₃⁻ changes into Br₂ in an acidic medium of a unbalanced equation. How many electron should be present on the balanced equation?

(a) 10 electron in left

(b) 6 electron in left

(c) 3 electron in left

(d) 3 electron in left

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96. Frenkel defect is present in which of the following?

(a) NaOH

(b) NaI

(c) AgBr

(d) None of these

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97. Butter is a colloidal solution of

(a) solid-solid

(b) liquid-solid

(c) solid-liquid

(d) gas-solid

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98. Azimuthal quantum number (ℓ) defined

(a) shape of orbitals

(b) orientation of orbitals

(c) energy of orbitals

(d) size of orbitals

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99. 2KHCO₃ →… + CO₂ + H₂O find amount of gases formed (in lit). When amount of KHCO₃ is 33 gm.

(a) 5.6

(b) 11.2

(c) 7.46

(d) 22.4

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100. final product C is

(a) CH₃CH₂OH

(b) CH₃CH₂ – Br

(c) CH₃ – CH₂ – I

(d)

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101. Glucose IUPAC name of Y and Z

(a) Hexa hydroxyl heptanoic acid, heptane

(b) Hepta hydroxyl hexanoic acid, hexane

(c) Penta hydroxyl hexanoic acid, hexane

(d) Hepta hydroxyl hexanoic acid, heptane

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102. Write the IUPAC name of given structure

(a) Para bromo benzene

(b) 1, 4-di bromo benzene

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Meta bromo benzene

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103. Which of the following statement is correct for isotope of carbon?

(a) graphite is conductor of electricity

(b) diamond have all sp³ carbon

(c) graphite is more stable thermodynamically than diamond

(d) All are correct

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104. Write IUPAC name of the following

(a) 2-bromo-2-ethyl hexanal

(b) 3-bromo-2-methyl hexanal

(c) 2-methyl-3-bromo hexanal

(d) 3-bromo-2-formyl hexane

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105. Most common isotopes of hydrogen (non-radioactive) is

(a) protium

(b) deuterium

(c) tirium

(d) All of these

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106. How many ions obtain after dissociation of this complex [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃?

(a) 3

(b) 2

(c) 5

(d) 4

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107. Given, The potential for the cell

Cr|Cr³⁺(0.1M) || Fe²⁺(0.01 M)Fe is

(a) −0.339 V

(b) −0.026 V

(c) 0.26 V

(d) 0.3 V

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108. The magnetic moment of Ni²⁺ ion (atomic number of Ni = 28) in BM unit is

(a) 1.73

(b) 4.81

(c) 5.96

(d) 2.84

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109. Which one of the following nitro compound does not react with nitrous acid?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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110. The main product obtained from phenol with PCl₅ is

(a) BHC

(b) hexachlorobenzene

(c) chlorobenzene

(d) triphenyl phosphate

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111. An element with mass number 81 contains 31.7% more neutrons as compared to protons. It symbol is

(a) ₄₀X⁸¹

(b) ₃₅X⁸¹

(c) ₈₁X³¹⁷

(d) ₄₀X⁸¹

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112. Which of the following will not be formed when calcium acetate is distilled with calcium formate?

(a) Acetone

(b) Propanal

(c) Ethanal

(d) Methanal

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113. If half-life of a surface is 36 minutes. Find amount left after 2 hrs. Initial amount is 10 gm?

(a) 1 g

(b) 2 g

(c) 3 g

(d) 4 g

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114. Moles of N₂ = 0.4 and moles of O₂ = 0.1 find (partial pressure) N₂ = ? at atmospherim pressure

(a) 0.2 atm

(b) 0.8 atm

(c) 0.6 atm

(d) 0.4 atm

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115. What is hybridization of O in H₂O?

(a) sp

(b) sp³

(c) sp²

(d) No hybridization

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116. Which of the following act as epimeric pair?

(a) Glucose and fructose

(b) Fructose and mannose

(c) Glucose and mannose

(d) Glucose and sucrose

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117. Which can not behave as nucleophile for S_N2 reaction?

(a) H₂O

(b) CN⁻

(c) NH₂⁻

(d) I⁻

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118. Which of the following rate gas is the abundant in air?

(a) He

(b) Ne

(c) Ar

(d) Kr

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119. Saccharin an artificial sweetener is manufactured form

(a) toluene

(b) cyclohexane

(c) starch

(d) cellulose

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120. During nitration of benzene the attacking electrophile is

(a) NO₃⁻

(b) NO₂⁻

(c) NO₂⁺

(d) HNO₃

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Biology

121. Verticillaster inflorescence is found in

(a) mustard

(b) Ocimum

(c) China rose

(d) sunflower

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122. Zooidogamy is found in

(a) Cedrus

(b) Pinus

(c) Cycas

(d) Both (b) and (c)

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123. Dark reaction

(a) in light

(b) in dark

(c) requires product of light reaction

(d) All of the above

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124. Vernalisation is

(a) low pH treatment

(b) low temperature treatment

(c) high temperature treatment

(d) high pH treatment

Show Answer

125. An interaction in which one organism is benefitted and other is unaffected

(a) predation

(b) commensalism

(c) mutualism

(d) parasitism

Show Answer

126. Karyotype of Down’s syndrome has how many chromosomes?

(a) 43

(b) 46

(c) 47

(d) 45

Show Answer

127. Hardest substance in plant kingdom is

(a) saple

(b) corolla

(c) sporopollenin

(d) anther

Show Answer

128. Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

(a) B

(b) Zn

(c) Mn

(d) Mg

Show Answer

129. Cell placed in hypertonic solution is shown by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Show Answer

130. Genetic variation cannot be effectively brought about by

(a) transduction

(b) mutation

(c) transformation

(d) amplification

Show Answer

131. Which of the following is not considered as a secondary messenger?

(a) Acetylcholine

(b) cAMP

(c) Ca²⁺

(d) diacylglycerol

Show Answer

132. Which is also called molecular glue

(a) DNA gyrase

(b) DNA helicase

(c) DNA ligase

(d) DNA polymerase

Show Answer

133. In DNA 20% bases are adenine. What percentage of bases are pyrimidines?

(a) 30%

(b) 60%

(c) 50%

(d) 20%

Show Answer

134. Most advanced invertebrates are

(a) Arthropoda

(b) Annelida

(c) Mollusca

(d) Cephalopoda

Show Answer

135. Gastrulation means

(a) conversion of blastula into morula

(b) formation of 3 germs layers

(c) a phase in which organogenesis takes places

(d) a phase characterized by inner cell mass

Show Answer

136. Traditional anesthesia is obtained from

(a) Datura

(b) poppy

(c) Cannabis

(d) erythroxylum

Show Answer

137. Band 3 protein in RBC has the function of

(a) it mediates the exchange of cellular HCO₃⁻ with Cl⁻ in plasma

(b) it is a cytoplasmic protein

(c) it mediates the exchange of cations between cell and plasma

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Show Answer

138. Hypothalamus can regulate

(a) anger

(b) patience

(c) thermoregulation

(d) pleasure

Show Answer

139. Choose correct option for larva of housefly.

(a) Grub

(b) Cypris

(c) Maggot

(d) Wriggler

Show Answer

140. Chromosome walking is

(a) used in genetic mapping

(b) observed during mitosis

(c) to see position of ribosomes on nuclear membrane

(d) to check the expression of mutant genes

Show Answer

141. Which one is only found in plant?

(a) Ribosome

(b) Mitochondria

(c) Glyoxysomes

(d) Lysosome

Show Answer

142. Kranz anatomy is found in

(a) C₃-plants

(b) Only in moncots

(c) Both C₄ and C₃-plants

(d) C₄-plants

Show Answer

143. What will be the DNA content and number of chromosomes in a cell of after S-phase as compared to the gamete of the same organism?

(a) Same DNA content but double chromosome number

(b) Four times DNA content but double chromosome number

(c) Same DNA content but half chromosome number

(d) Half DNA content but double chromosome number

Show Answer

144. Radula is a part of which animal.

(a) Mollusca

(b) Poriferans

(c) Coelenterata

(d) Annelida

Show Answer

145. Chordae tendineae is found in

(a) heart of cockroach

(b) heart of Amphibians

(c) heart of Reptiles

(d) heart of Mammals

Show Answer

146. Length of oesophagus is

(a) 25 cm

(b) 55 cm

(c) 33 cm

(d) 45 cm

Show Answer

147. Citrulline structure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Show Answer

148. Bradykinin is a

(a) antibody

(b) hormone

(c) enzyme

(d) receptor

Show Answer

149. Reproduction without actual fertilization is called as

(a) parthenogenesis

(b) parthenocarpy

(c) pseudo-reproduction

(d) All of these

Show Answer

150. Coacervates were discovered by

(a) Huxley

(b) Fox

(c) Oparin

(d) Miller

Show Answer

151. Which of the following is not a stop codon?

(a) UAA

(b) UAC

(c) UAG

(d) UGA

Show Answer

152. Which of the following is uricotelic?

(a) Insects

(b) Birds

(c) Lizards

(d) All of these

Show Answer

153. To make chromosomal studies easier, chromosomes are classified into certain groups. So, the chromosome number 21, 22, and Y are listed in

(a) A

(b) D

(c) E

(d) G

Show Answer

154. Choose the incorrect about gemmules.

(a) They resist dessication

(b) They are internal buds

(c) They are asexual structure which are produce by binary fission

(d) They can give rise to new organisms

Show Answer

155. Choose the correct regarding antibodies.

(a) IgA – Helps in allergic reaction

(b) IgG – Cross placenta

(c) IgE – Found in secretions

(d) IgM – Exists as dimer

Show Answer

156. During DNA replication, supercoilling is relaxed by

(a) primase

(b) polymerase

(c) DNA topoisomerase

(d) SSBPs

Show Answer

157. Structure analogous to the placenta in mammals.

(a) Chorion

(b) Amnion

(c) Yolk sac

(d) Allantois

Show Answer

158. In annealing

(a) primers anneal to the DNA template

(b) Taq polymerase adds nucleotides to the annealed primer

(c) two strands of the DNA separate

(d) temperature is 92°C

Show Answer

159. Which of the following is not true?

(a) β – galactosidase – lac operon

(b) Photorespiration – C₃ – plants

(c) Krebs cycle – mitochondrial matrix

(d) Sothern hybridization – related to identification of RNA sequence

Show Answer

160. Carcinogen present in cigarette smoke is

(a) benzopyrene

(b) nicotine

(c) carbon monoxide

(d) All of these

Show Answer

161. Atlas is

(a) 1st cervical vertebrae

(b) 2nd cervical vertebrae

(c) 1st thoracic vertebrae

(d) 2nd lumbar vertebrae

Show Answer

162. Typhoid is caused by

(a) penumonia

(b) filarial worm

(c) Salmonella typhii

(d) None of the above

Show Answer

163. Chl-b differ from chl-a by

(a) −CH₃ group

(b) CHO group

(c) COOH group

(d) CH₂OH group

Show Answer

164. Number of chromosomes present in secondary spermatocyte is

(a) 22

(b) 23

(c) 24

(d) 25

Show Answer

165. Flame cells are present in

(a) Aschelminthes

(b) Platyhelminthes

(c) Annelida

(d) Cephalochordata

Show Answer

166. Which one of the labeled part utilizes fructose as a source of energy?

(a) Head

(b) Tail

(c) Acrosome

(d) Middle piece

Show Answer

167. A normal man and a normal woman both having one of their parent albino, if get married then what is the probability of their child of being albino?

(a) 20%

(b) 25%

(c) 75%

(d) 80%

Show Answer

168. Which is the correct sequence of modification and transport of secretory vesicles?

(a) RER → Cell membrane → Secretory vesicles → Golgi body

(b) RER → Secretory vesicles → Cell membrane

(c) RER → Cell membrane → Secretory vesicles → Golgi body

(d) SER → Golgi body → Cell membrane → Secretory vesicles

Show Answer

169. Among the following choose the correct epimers.

(a) Glucose, galactose

(b) Glucose, fructose

(c) Glucose, ribose

(d) Gluconic acid, glucose

Show Answer

170. Gynaecomastia is present in which syndrome?

(a) Turner

(b) Klinefelter

(c) Down

(d) None of the above

Show Answer

171. In gluconeogenesis, which of the following cannot act as substrate?

(a) Fructose

(b) Palmitic acid

(c) Glycine

(d) Glycerol

Show Answer

172. Identify the diagram of heterocyst.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Show Answer

173. Level of LH is maximum

(a) just before ovulation

(b) just after ovulation

(c) at the time of ovulation

(d) during menstrual bleeding phase

Show Answer

174. Number of chromosomes present in spermatogonium is

(a) 46

(b) 23

(c) 48

(d) 43

Show Answer

175. Which one of them is odd with respect to human male?

(a) absence of one X-chromosome

(b) addition of one X-chromosome

(c) presence of XY-chromosome

(d) absence of Barr body

Show Answer

176. Eutrophication is caused due to

(a) accumulation of minerals

(b) effect of UV-C

(c) accumulation of metals only

(d) accumulation of zooplankton

Show Answer

177. Synaptonemal complex is formed

(a) during anaphase

(b) during metaphase

(c) during prophase-II

(d) during prophase-I of meiosis

Show Answer

178. Which one is the oldest in following?

(a) Gymnosperms

(b) Angiosperms

(c) Bryophytes

(d) None of these

Show Answer

179. RNA binds to mRNA through

(a) anticodon loop

(b) T Ψ C loop

(c) amino acid binding loop

(d) D loop

Show Answer

180. Find odd one out.

(a) Stamen

(b) Stigma

(c) Style

(d) Ovary

Show Answer

English and Quantitative Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 181-185) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

In this passage, Ria and Gargi give their opinions about a new painting by Marcello Vasquez. Ria, ‘The new painting is spectacular! It is certainly the best work ever completed by Marcello Vasquez. I like the new painting for several reasons. First, the painting is large. It almost covers the entire wall! Second, the painting is inexpensive. Normally, a painting like this would cost thousands of dollars. But this painting costs less than $500. Third, the painting is colourful. Red and green dominate the canvas, peppered with bright spots of yellow.’

Gargi, ‘The new painting is horrendous! Marcello Vasquez should be ashamed of his work. I haven’t seen a painting this bad in a long time. I dislike the new painiting for several reasons. First, the painting is far too large. It almost covers the entire wall! I think small paintings are better than large ones. Second, the painting is inexpensive. This tells me that Vasquez must have been unable to sell the painting for a higher price. Now, he is desperate. As a result, it appears he is trying to give the painting away. Third the painting is colourful. Although I usually like a painting to be colourful. Although I usually like a painting to be colourful, I strongly dislike the colours Vasquez uses. To p u tint plainly, the combination of red, green and yellow is ugly.’

181. With respect to how they like new painting Ria and Gargi?

(a) agree

(b) strongly agree

(c) disagree

(d) strongle disagree

Show Answer

182. Ria and Gargi both view the new painting as

I. Large II. Inexpensive III. Colourful

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only I

(b) I and II

(c) II and III

(d) All of these

Show Answer

183. In the second paragraph Gargi said it can be understood that ‘desperate’ belongs to which of the following word groups?

(a) Passionate, enthusiastic, excited

(b) Idiotic, silly, foolish

(c) Anxious, worried, troubled

(d) Improverished, broke poor

Show Answer

184. As used in the passage, which of the following words always has/have negative meaning?

I. Spectacular II. Horrendous IIII. Inexpensive

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) II and III

(d) All of these

Show Answer

185. Gargi and Ria go to see another painting. The painting is small, expensive and colourful, who would probably like this painting?

(a) Ria

(b) Gargi

(c) Both Ria and Gargi

(d) Neither Ria nor Gargi

Show Answer

Directions (Q. Nos. 186-187) Each of the following question consist of a word, followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word given below.

186. Expansion

(a) Depression

(b) Negligent

(c) Precise

(d) Enlargement

Show Answer

187. Thrift

(a) Parsimony

(b) Dismantle

(c) Prodigality

(d) Essential

Show Answer

Directions (Q. Nos. 188-190) Choose the correct option out of the choices given below.

188. He will abide ………. his friend Suresh in all circumstances.

(a) with

(b) by

(c) along

(d) to

Show Answer

189. He should not be blind ………….. the misdeeds of his son Rahul.

(a) at

(b) to

(c) with

(d) on

Show Answer

190. God had destine him ………. the post of Prime Minister of India

(a) for

(b) to

(c) with

(d) on

Show Answer

191. In a certain code language, ‘SAFER’ is written as ‘5@3#2’ and ‘RIDE’ is written as ‘2©%#’, how would ‘FEDS’ be written in that code?

(a) 3#©5

(b) 3@%5

(c) 3#%5

(d) 3#%2

Show Answer

192. Find the missing number from the given response.

(a) 72

(b) 720

(c) 7200

(d) 38

Show Answer

193. If the first and second letters in the word DEPRESSION were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, then which of the following would be seventh letter from the right.

(a) O

(b) P

(c) R

(d) S

Show Answer

194. Today is Thursday. The day after 59 days will be

(a) Sunday

(b) Monday

(c) Tuesday

(d) Wednesday

Show Answer

195. Which of the following represents coal mines, factories and fields?

(a) 

(b) 

(c)

(d)

Show Answer

196. Find out the missing term in the series.

1, 8, 27, ?, 125, 216

(a) 52

(b) 58

(c) 64

(d) 65

Show Answer

197. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means’ ‘+’, ‘x’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’means ‘−’, then 6 – 9 + 8 × 3

(a) −2

(b) 6

(c) 10

(d) 12

Show Answer

198. What is the water image of

(a)

(b) 

(c)

(d)

Show Answer

199. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in the figure below.

How will it appear when unfolded.

Show Answer

200. Here are some words translated from an artificial language. Mallon piml means blue light mallon tifl means blue berry arpan tifl means rasp berry?

Which word could means ‘light house’?

(a) tiflmallon

(b) pimlarpan

(c) mallonarpan

(d) pimldoken

Show Answer

JIPMER SOLVER PAPER-2018

1. The magnetic moment of an electron orbiting in a circulate orbit of radius r with a speed v is equal to

(a)  evr/2

(b)  evr

(c)  er/2v

(d) None of these

Show Answer

2. If point charges Q₁ = 2 × 10⁻⁷ C and Q₂ = 3 × 10⁻⁷ C are at 30 cm separation, then find electrostatic force between them

(a)  2 × 10⁻³ N

(b)  6 × 10⁻³ N

(c)  5 × 10⁻³ N

(d) 1 × 10⁻³ N

Show Answer

3. If a machine perform 4000 J output work and 1000 J inside loss due to friction, then the find efficiency?

(a)  80%

(b)  30%

(c)  25%

(d) 60%

Show Answer

4. Dimension of force is

(a)  [M²L¹T⁻¹]

(b)  [M¹L¹T⁻²]

(c)  [M²L⁻¹T⁻²]

(d) [M¹L¹T⁻¹]

Show Answer

5. The efficiency of an ideal gas with adiabatic exponent γ for the shown cyclic process would be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

6. Find R_net between A and B.

(a)  60 Ω

(b)  40 Ω

(c)  70 Ω

(d) 20 Ω

Show Answer

7. Velocity is given by v = 4t(1 – 2t), then find time at which velocity is maximum

(a)  0.25 s

(b)  1 s

(c)  0.45 s

(d) 4 s

Show Answer

8. Find current (i) in circuit shown in figure.

(a)  0.5 A

(b)  0.2 A

(c)  1 A

(d) 2 A

Show Answer

9. Find V_P – V_Q in the circuit shown in figure.

(a)  6.68 V

(b)  8 V

(c)  4.65 V

(d) 7 V

Show Answer

10. If a capacitor having capacitance 2F and plate separation of 0.5 cm will have area

(a)  1130 cm²

(b)  1130 m²

(c)  1130 km²

(d) None of these

Show Answer

11. Find the capacitance in shown figure

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

12. Find ratio of radius of gyration of a disk and ring of same radii at their tangential axis in plane.

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  1

(d) 2/3

Show Answer

13. If compressibility of material is 4 × 10⁻⁵ per atm, pressure is 100 atm and volume is 100 cm³, then find ∆V = ?

(a)  0.4 cm³

(b)  0.8 cm³

(c)  0.6 cm³

(d) 0.2 cm³

Show Answer

14. If speed of sound in air is 340 m/s and in water is 1480 m/s. If frequency of sound is 1000 kHz, then find wavelength in water

(a)  2.96 mm

(b)  1.48 mm

(c)  0.74 mm

(d) 1 mm

Show Answer

15. 1000 N force in required to lift a hook and 1000 N force is requires to lift a load slowly. Find power required to lift hook with load with speed v = 0.5 m/s

(a)  5 kW

(b)  1.5 kW

(c)  5.5 kW

(d) 4.5 kW

Show Answer

16. If minimum deviation = 30°, then speed of light in shown prism will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

17. A current i is flowing through the wire of diameter (d) having drift velocity of electrons v_d in it. What will be new drift velocity when diameter of wire is made d/4?

(a)  4v_d

(b)  v_d/4

(c)  16v_d

(d) v_d/16

Show Answer

18. How much intense is 80dB sound in comparision to 40 dB?

(a)  10²

(b)  10⁴

(c)  2

(d) 1/2

Show Answer

19. Find i in shown figure

(a)  0.2 A

(b)  0.1 A

(c)  0.3 A

(d) 0.4 A

Show Answer

20. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 0.5 kg for 0.25s starting from rest. What is its momentum now?

(a)  0.25 N/s

(b)  2.5 N/s

(c)  0.5 N/s

(d) 0.75 N/s

Show Answer

21. Which of the following is fusion process?

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  Uranium decay

(d) None of the above

Show Answer

22. A ball of 0.5 kg collided with wall at 30° and bounced back elastically. The speed of ball was 12m/s. The contact remained for 1s. What is the force applied by wall on ball?

(a)  12√3 N

(b)  √3 N

(c)  6√3 N

(d) 3√3 N

Show Answer

23. A electron (e⁻) is accelerated by V volts experiences a force F, when it enters in a uniform magnetic field. What will the force experienced when it is accelerated by 2V?

(a)  √2F

(b)  F

(c)  2F

(d) F/2

Show Answer

24. Kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 4 times. What will be the relation between initial and final momentum?

(a)  p₂ = 2p₁

(b)  p₂= p₁/2

(c)  p₂ = p₁

(d) p₂ = 4p₁

Show Answer

25. What is the range of a projectile thrown with velocity 98 m/s with angle 30° from horizontal?

(a)  490√3 m

(b)  245√3 m

(c)  980√3 m

(d) 100 m

Show Answer

26. If the efficiency of an engine is 50% and its work output is 500 J, then find input.

(a)  1000 J

(b)  500 J

(c)  100 J

(d) 250 J

Show Answer

27. The efficiency of a heat engine is 1/6. Its efficiency double when the temperature of sink decrease by 62°C, its efficiency doubles. Then, what is the temperature of source?

(a)  470 K

(b)  372 K

(c)  542 K

(d) 1042 K

Show Answer

28. A ball is thrown upwards with a speed u from a height h above the ground. The time taken by the ball to hit the ground is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

29. A mass of Hg is executing SHM which is given by  What is the maximum kinetic energy?

(a)  3 J

(b)  6 J

(c)  9 J

(d) 18 J

Show Answer

30. A uniform rod of mass m and length l₀ is pivoted at one end and is hanging in the vertical direction. The period of small angular oscillations of the rod is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

31. A box of mass 8 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination 30°. Its downward motion can be prevented by applying a horizontal force F, then value of F for which friction between the block and the incline surface is minimum, is

(a)  80/√3

(b)  40√3

(c)  40/√3

(d) 80√3

Show Answer

32. A mass M is hung with a light inextensible string as shown in the figure. Find the tension of the horizontal string.

(a)  √2 Mg

(b)  √3 Mg

(c)  2 Mg

(d) 3 Mg

Show Answer

33. A Carnot engine absorbs 6 × 10⁵ cal at 227° The work done per cycle by the engine, if its sink is maintained at 127°C is

(a)  15 × 10⁸ J

(b)  15 × 10⁴ J

(c)  5 × 10⁵ J

(d) 2 × 10⁴ J

Show Answer

34. A machine gun fires 360 bullets per minute, with a velocity of 600 ms⁻¹. If the power of the gun is 5.4 kW, then mass of each bullet is

(a)  5 kg

(b)  0.5 kg

(c)  5 g

(d) 0.5 g

Show Answer

35. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air 1 ms⁻¹. The viscosity of air is 18 × 10⁻⁵ Find the viscous force on the rain drops.

(a)  2.05 × 10⁻⁷ N

(b)  1.018 × 10⁻⁷ N

(c)  1.05 × 10⁻⁷ N

(d) 2.058 × 10⁻⁷ N

Show Answer

36. Find density of ethyl alcohol

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

37. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each nucleus of uranium atoms U²³⁸ is 170 MeV. The number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be

(a)  30 × 10²⁵

(b)  4 × 10²²

(c)  10 × 10²⁰

(d) 5 × 10¹⁵

Show Answer

38. How much should the temperature of a brass rod be increased so as to increase its length by 1%? (Given, α for brass is 0.00002°C⁻¹).

(a)  300°C

(b)  400°C

(c)  500°C

(d) 550°C

Show Answer

39.  what is time period?

(a)  0.04 s

(b)  1 s

(c)  0.006 s

(d) 0.02 s

Show Answer

40. In the fusion reaction  the masses of deuteron, helium and neutron expressed in amu are 2.015, 3.017 and 1.009, respectively. If 1 kg of deuterium undergoes complete fusion, find the amount of total energy released. (1 amu = 931.5 MeV).

(a)  9.0 × 10¹³ J

(b)  20 × 10⁵ J

(c)  5 × 10¹⁶ J

(d) 8 × 10⁵ J

Show Answer

41. A prism of crown glass with refracting angle of 5° and mean refractive index = 1.51 is combined with a flint glass prism of refractive index = 1.65 to produce no deviation. Find the angle of flit glass.

(a)  3.92°

(b)  4.68°

(c)  5.32°

(d) 7.28°

Show Answer

42. Water flows through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section at the rate of 20 L min⁻¹. What will be the velocity of water at a point where diameter is 4 cm?

(a)  0.2639 ms⁻¹

(b)  0.5639 ms⁻¹

(c)  0.4639 ms⁻¹

(d) 0.3639 ms⁻¹

Show Answer

43. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 49 × 10⁻⁵°C⁻¹. What is the fractional change in density for a 30°C rise in temperature?

(a)  0.0155

(b)  0.0145

(c)  0.0255

(d) 0.0355

Show Answer

44. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 mm and illuminated with light of λ = 6000 Å. If the screen is placed 2.5 m, from the slits. The distance of third bright image from the centre will be

(a)  1.5 mm

(b)  3 mm

(c)  6 mm

(d) 9 mm

Show Answer

45. Calculate the dispersive power for crown glass from the given data

μ_V = 1.523

and         μ_R = 1.5145

(a)  0.01639

(b)  1.05639

(c)  0.05639

(d) 2.05639

Show Answer

46. A particle doing SHM having amplitude 5 cm, mass 0.5 kg and angular frequency 5 rad/s is at 1 cm from mean position. Find potential energy and kinetic energy.

(a)  KE = 625 × 10⁻⁴ J, PE = 150 × 10⁻³ J

(b)  KE = 150 × 10⁻⁴ J, PE = 625 × 10⁻⁴ J

(c)  KE = 625 × 10⁻⁴ J, PE = 625 × 10⁻⁴ J

(d) KE = 150 × 10⁻³ J, PE = 150 × 10⁻⁴ J

Show Answer

47. A organ pipe open on both ends in the nth harmonic is in resonance with a source of 1000 Hz. The length of pipe is 16.6 cm and speed of sound in air is 332 m/s. Find the value of n.

(a)  3

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d) 4

Show Answer

48. R = 65 ± 1 Ω L, l = 5 ± 0.1 mm and d = 10 ± 0.5 mm. Find error in calculation of resistivity.

(a)  21%

(b)  13%

(c)  16%

(d) 41%

Show Answer

49. A solid floats with 1/4th of its volume above the surface of water, the density of the solid is

(a)  750 kg m⁻³

(b)  650 kg m⁻³

(c)  560 kg m⁻³

(d) 450 kg m⁻³

Show Answer

50. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of surface tension 0.06 Nm⁻¹ from 2 cm radius to 5 cm radius is

(a)  0.004168 J

(b)  0.003168 J

(c)  0.003158 J

(d) 0.004568 J

Show Answer

51. The force of attraction between two charges 8 μC and −4 μC is 0.2 N. Find the distance of separation

(a)  1.2 cm

(b)  12 m

(c)  120 m

(d) 0.12 m

Show Answer

52. A runner starts from O and goes to O following path OQRO in 1 hr. What is net displacement and average speed?

(a)  0, 3.57 km/hr

(b)  0, 0 km/hr

(c)  0, 2.57 km/hr

(d) 0, 1 km/hr

Show Answer

53. A disc of moment of inertia 2 kg-m² revolving with 8 rad/s is placed on another disc of moment of inertia 4 kg-m² revolving 4 rad/s. What is the angular frequency of composite disc?

(a)  4 rad/s

(b)  3/16 rad/s

(c)  16/3 rad/s

(d) 16/5 rad/s

Show Answer

54. In a L-C circuit, angular frequency at resonance is ω. What will be the new angular frequency when inductor’s inductance is made two times and capacitor’s capacitance is made four times?

(a)  ω/2√2

(b)  ω/√2

(c)  2ω

(d) 2ω/√2

Show Answer

55. Electron revolving with speed v is producing magnetic field B at centre. Find relation between radius of path B and v?

(a)  B ∝ V ∝ 1/r

(b)  B ∝ V ∝ 1/r²

(c)  B ∝ V² ∝ 1/r

(d) B ∝ V² ∝ 1/r²

Show Answer

56. A regular hexagone of side a. A wire of length 24 a is coiled on that hexagone. If current in hexagone is I, then find the magnetic moment.

(a)  6√3 la²

(b)  3√3 la²

(c) 

(d) 6 la²

Show Answer

57. At what speed will the velocity of a stream of water be equal to 20 cm of mercury column? (Taking, g = 10 ms⁻²)

(a)  6.4 ms⁻¹

(b)  7.3756 ms⁻¹

(c)  6.4756 ms⁻¹

(d) None of these

Show Answer

58. At what distance (in metre) from the centre of the Moon, the intensity of gravitational field will be zero? (Take, mass of Earth and Moon as 5.98 × 10²⁴ kg and 7.35 × 10²² kg respectively and the distance between Moon and Earth is 3.85 × 10⁸)

(a)  zero

(b)  3.85 × 10⁷

(c)  8 × 10⁸

(d) 3.46 × 10⁸

Show Answer

59. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light in glass is

(a)  3 × 10⁸ m/s

(b)  2 × 10⁸ m/s

(c)  1 × 10⁸ m/s

(d) 4 × 10⁸ m/s

Show Answer

60. R is the radius of Earth and ω is its angular velocity and g_p is the value of g at the poles. The effective value of g at a latitude λ = 60°.

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

Chemistry

61. Which one of the following species is paramagnetic in nature?

(a)  V⁴⁺

(b)  Sc³⁺

(c)  V⁵⁺

(d) Zn²⁺

Show Answer

62. Given that, for the reaction,

∆H_f(HCl) = −93 kJ/mol

B.E (H₂) = 434 kJ/mol

B.E (Cl₂) = 242 kJ/mol

The bond dissociation energy of HCl is

(a)  232 kJ/mol

(b)  331 kJ/mol

(c)  431 kJ/mol

(d) 530 kJ/mol

Show Answer

63. The pair of structures given below represents

(a)  Chain isomers

(b)  Position isomers

(c)  Tautomers

(d) Metamers

Show Answer

64. In the extraction of copper from is sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu₂O with

(a)  FeS

(b)  CO

(c)  Cu₂S

(d) SO₂

Show Answer

65. For the following reaction,

2NH₃(g) + CO₂(g) ⇌ NH₂CONH₂ (aq) + H₂O (l)

∆G° = −13.6 kJ mol⁻¹ at 298 K

Then, log K_eq for this equilibrium is

(a)  −3.41

(b)  2.38

(c)  120

(d) 1500

Show Answer

66. Xenon hexatluoride reacts with silica to form a xenon compound X. The oxidation state of xenon of X is

(a)  +2

(b)  +4

(c)  +6

(d) 0

Show Answer

67. Neopentyl chloride reacts with benzene in presence of a lewis acid (AlCl₃) to form

Show Answer

68. Lead is extracted from galena (PbS), either by following ways.

Auto-reduction process is

(a)  I

(b)  II

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Show Answer

69. In the reactoion,

The major product formed is

(a)  C₆H₅ – CH₂ – CHO

(b)  C₆H₅ – COOH

(c)  C₆H₅ – CH = CH – COOH

(d) C₆H₅ – CH = CH – COCH₃

Show Answer

70. Which one of the following represents the correct structure of cellulose?

(a)  Branched, α(1, 4) and β(1, 6) – glucose

(b)  Unbranched, α(1, 6) – glucose

(c)  Branched, α(1, 4) – glucose

(d) Unbranched, β(1, 4) – glucose

Show Answer

71. The correct formula for plaster of Paris is

(a)  CaSO₄ ∙ 4H₂O

(b)  CaSO₄ ∙ 2H₂O

(c)

(d) CaSO₄ ∙ 1H₂O

Show Answer

72. The value of K_C for the reaction, 2A ⇌ B + C is 2 × 10⁻³. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10⁻⁴ In which direction, the reaction will proceed?

(a)  Forward direction

(b)  Reverse direction

(c)  No net reaction occur

(d) None of these

Show Answer

73. Which of the following chemicals are used to manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused “Bhopal tragedy”?

(i) Methylamine  (ii) Phosgene

(iii) Phosphine    (iv) Dimethylamine

(a)  (i) and (ii)

(b)  (iii) and (iv)

(c)  (i) and (iii)

(d) (ii) and (iv)

Show Answer

74. The correct order of ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion exchange resin is

(a)  Rb⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

(b)  Li⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ < Rb⁺

(c)  Na⁺ < Li⁺ < K⁺ < Rb⁺

(d) K⁺ < Na⁺ < Rb⁺ < Li⁺

Show Answer

75. Identify the major product that is obtained on treatment of CH₃CH₂CH(F)CH₃ with CH₃O⁻/CH₃OH is

(a)  CH₃CH₂(OCH₃CH₃

(b)  CH₃CH = CHCH₃

(c)  CH₃CH₂CH = CH₂

(d) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OCH₃

Show Answer

76. Among the following, the non-aromatic heterocyclic compound is

(a)  piperidine

(b)  pyrrole

(c)  furan

(d) pyridine

Show Answer

77. If Na⁺ ioin is larger than Mg²⁺ ions and S²⁻ ion is larger than Cl⁻ ion, which of the following will be stable salt in water?

(a)  Sodium chloride

(b)  Sodium sulphide

(c)  Magnesium sulphide

(d) Magnesium chloride

Show Answer

78. 

Product P is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

79. Which of the following is correct statement?

(a)  Aluminium dissolves in dilute mineral acids but is made passive by concentrated nitric acid.

(b)  Aluminium vessel can be used as storage of NaOH.

(c)  Alminium chloride does not dissociate in water.

(d) AlF₃ is soluble in anhydrous HF.

Show Answer

80. If molar conductivity of Ca²⁺ and Cl⁻ ions are 119 and 71S cm²mol⁻¹ respectively, then the molar conductivity of CaCl₂ at infinite dilution is

(a)  215 S cm²mol⁻¹

(b)  340 S cm²mol⁻¹

(c)  128 S cm²mol⁻¹

(d) 261 S cm²mol⁻¹

Show Answer

81. An atom forms face centred cubic crystal with density d = 8.92 g/mL and edge length a = 3.6 × 10⁻⁸ The molecular mass of atom in amu is

(a)  98 amu

(b)  63 amu

(c)  32 amu

(d) 93 amu

Show Answer

82. In a crystalline solid, having formula XY₂O₄, oxide ions are arranged in cubic close packed lattice while, cations X are present is tetrahedral voids and cations Y are present in octahedral voids. The percentage of tetrahedral voids occupied by X is

(a)  12.5%

(b)  25%

(c)  50%

(d) 75%

Show Answer

83. Conversion of oxygen into ozone is non-spontaneous at

(a)  low temperature

(b)  all temperature

(c)  high temperature

(d) room temperature

Show Answer

84. A 100 mL flask contained H₂ at 200 torr, and a 200 mL flask contained He at 100 torr. The two flask were then connected so that each gas filled their combined volume. Assume, no change in temperature, total pressure is

(a)  104 torr

(b)  163.33 torr

(c)  279 torr

(d) 133.33 torr

Show Answer

85. For the dot structure shown, the most likely elements X = … and Y = … are

(a)  carbon, fluorine

(b)  carbon, hydrogen

(c)  carbon, oxygen

(d) oxygen, carbon

Show Answer

86. Valence electrons in the element X are 3 and that in element Y is 6. Most probable compound formed from X and Y is

(a)  X₂Y

(b)  XY₂

(c)  X₆Y₃

(d) X₂Y₃

Show Answer

87. A compound, containing only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen has molecular weight of 44. On Complete oxidation, it is converted into a compound of molecular weight is 60. The original compound is

(a)  alcohol

(b)  acid

(c)  aldehyde

(d) ether

Show Answer

88. Number of photons emitted by a 100 W (Js⁻¹) yellow lamp in 1.0 s is

(λ of yellow light is 560 nm)

(a)  1.6 × 10¹⁸

(b)  1.4 × 10¹⁸

(c)  2.8 × 10²⁰

(d) 2.1 × 10²⁰

Show Answer

89. In Kjeldahl’s method, the nitrogen present in an organic compound in quantitatively converted into

(a)  gaseous ammonia

(b)  ammonium sulphate

(c)  ammonium phosphate

(d) ammonia

Show Answer

90. In the reversible reaction,

 the rate of disappearance of NO₂ is equal to

(a) 

(b)  2k₁[NO₂]² – 2k₂[N₂O₄]

(c)  2k₁[NO₂]² – k₂[N₂O₄]

(d) (2k₁ – k₂) [NO₂]

Show Answer

91. If E°(Zn²⁺, Zn) = −763 V and E°(Fe²⁺, Fe) = −0.44 V, then the emf of the cell Zn|Zn²⁺ (a = 0.001)|| Fe²⁺ (a = 0.005)|Fe is

(a)  equal to 0.323 V

(b)  less than 0.323 V

(c)  greater than 0.323 V

(d) equal to 1.103 V

Show Answer

92. For the electrochemical cell,

Ag⁻|AgCl|KCl||AgNO₃|Ag⁺, the overall cell reaction is

(a)  Ag⁺ + KCl → AgCl(s) + K⁺

(b) 

(c)  AgCl(s) → Ag⁺ + Cl⁻

(d) Ag⁺ + Cl⁻ → AgCl(s)

Show Answer

93. Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K₄[Fe(CN)₆]?

(a)  Al₂(SO₄)₃

(b)  K₂SO₄

(c)  K₃[Fe(CN)₆]

(d) Al(NO₃)₃

Show Answer

94. The van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO₃)₂ solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is

(a)  91.3%

(b)  87%

(c)  100%

(d) 74%

Show Answer

95. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a)  3-propylpent-1-ene

(b)  3-ethylpent-1-ene

(c)  4-ethylhex-1-ene

(d) 3-ethylhex-1-ene

Show Answer

96. Bleeding due to a cut can be stopped by applying ferric chloride solution in the laboratory. This is due to

(a)  coagulation of negatively charged blood particles by Fe³⁺ ions.

(b)  coagulation of positively charged blood particles by Cl⁻ ions.

(c)  reaction taking place between ferric ions and the haemoglobin forming a complex

(d) common element, iron, in both FeCl₃ and haemoglobin.

Show Answer

97. Relative stabilities of the following carbocations will be in the order

(a)  C > B > A

(b)  C < B < A

(c)  B > C > A

(d) C > A > B

Show Answer

98. Among the following species, the one which become paramagnetic on heating at 850 K is

(a)  Fe₃O₄

(b)  MnO

(c)  ZnFe₂O₄

(d) Both (a) and (c)

Show Answer

99. Which of the following is not a surfactant?

(a)  CH₃ – (CH₂)₁₅ – N⁺(CH₃)₃Br⁻

(b)  CH₃ – (CH₂)₁₄ – CH₂NH₂

(c)  CH₃ – (CH₂)­₁₆ – CH₂OSO₂ Na⁺

(d) OHC – (CH₂)₁₄ –CH₂ – COO⁻Na⁺

Show Answer

100. In the complex, [Cr(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺, the oxidation number of Cr is

(a)  +4

(b)  +3

(c)  +2

(d) +6

Show Answer

101. Arrange the following polymers in increasing order of their intermolecular forces.

Nylon-6, 6, buna-S, polythene, neoprene

(a)  Neoprene < buna-S < nylon-6, 6, < polythene

(b)  Neoprene < buna-S < polythene < nylon-6, 6

(c)  Polythene < nylon-6. 6 < buna-S < neoprene

(d) Polythene < buna-S < nylon-6, 6 < neoprene

Show Answer

102. The product of electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution on anode and cathode respectively is

(a)  H₂ and Cl₂

(b)  Cl₂ and H₂

(c)  Na and Cl₂

(d) Na and O₂

Show Answer

103. In adiabatic conditions, 2 mole of CO₂ gas at 300 K is expanded such that its volume becomes 27 times. Then , the work done is (C_V = 6 cal mol⁻¹ and γ = 1.33)

(a)  1400 cal

(b)  1000 cal

(c)  900 cal

(d) 1200 cal

Show Answer

104. The compounds and are distinguished by

(a)  C₆H₅SO₂Cl and OH⁻ in H₂O

(b)  AgNO₃ in H₂O

(c)  dilute HCl

(d) HNO₂ and β-naphthol

Show Answer

105. Alkali metals readily dissolved in liquid ammonia to give blue coloured solutions. The blue colour is believed to be due to

(a)  ammoniated cations

(b)  ammoniated anions

(c)  ammoniated electrons

(d) ammoniated cations and ammoniated electrons

Show Answer

106. 

What is the product ‘P’ is the above reaction?

(a)  Methyl ethanoate

(b)  Ethenoic acid

(c)  Propanal

(d) Methyl proppanoate

Show Answer

107. If osmotic pressure of 4% (w/v) solution of sucrose is same as 2% (w/v) solution of ‘X’, then the molecular mass of X (g/mol) is

(a)  171

(b)  205.2

(c)  570

(d) None of these

Show Answer

108. Which of the following is disproportionation reaction?

(a)  CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O

(b)  CH₄ + 4Cl₂ → CCl₄ + 4HCl

(c)  2F₂ + 2OH⁻ → 2F⁻ + OF₂ + H₂O

(d) 2NO₂ + 2OH⁻ → NO₂⁻ + NO₃⁻ + H₂O

Show Answer

109. Among the following the suitable reagent for Wurtz reaction is

(a)  Na/alcohol

(b)  Na/ether

(c)  Zn/ether

(d) Zn/alcohol

Show Answer

110. Which type of drugs come under anti-microbial drugs?

(a)  Antiseptics, antacids, antithista mines

(b)  Tranquilizers, antiseptics, antifertility

(c)  Tranquilizers, analgesics, antiseptics

(d) Antiseptics, antibiotics, disinfectants

Show Answer

111. Which of the following pair behaves as strong and weak base hydride respectively NH₃, PH₃, AsH₃, SbH, BiH₃

(a)  NH₃, PH₃

(b)  NH₃, BiH₃

(c)  PH₃, BiH₃

(d) BiH₃, AsH₃

Show Answer

112. Among the following the correct formula of Marshall’s acid is

(a)  H₂S₂O₆

(b)  H₂S₂O₈

(c)  H₂SO₄

(d) H₂SO₅

Show Answer

113. When hydrogen peroxide is added to acidified solution of dichromate Cr₂O₇²⁻, a deep blue coloured complex of chromic peroxide CrO₅ is formed. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO₅ is

(a)  +5

(b)  +3

(c)  +6

(d) −10

Show Answer

114. When phenol is treated with CHCl₃ and NaOH followed by acidification, salicylaldehyde is obtained. Which of the following species is involved in the above mentioned reaction as intermediates?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

115. Which of the following is the correct sequence of step involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro reaction?

(a)  Nucleophilic attack, transfer of H⁻ and transfer of H⁺

(b)  Transfer of H⁻, transfer of H⁺ and nucleophilic attack

(c)  Transfer of H⁺, nucleophilic attack and transfer of H⁻

(d) Electrophilic attack by OH⁻, transfer of H⁺ and transfer of H⁻

Show Answer

116. 

What is the product is the above reacton?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

117. Red blood cells are placed in a solution and neither a haemolysis nor crenation occurs. Therefore, the solution is

(a)  hypertonic

(b)  hypotonic

(c)  isotonic

(d) isotopic

Show Answer

118. If M is element of actinoids series, the degree of complex formation decreases in the order

(a)  M⁴⁺ > M³⁺ > MO₂²⁺ > MO₂⁺

(b)  M⁴⁺ > MO₂²⁺ > M³⁺ > MO₂⁺

(c)  MO₂⁺ > MO₂²⁺ > M³⁺ > M⁴⁺

(d) MO₂²⁺ > MO₂⁺ > M⁴⁺ > M³⁺

Show Answer

119. A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and 280 K. The rate constant were found to be k₁ and k₂ respectively, then

(a)  k₂ = 4k₁

(b)  k₂ = 0.25 k₁

(c)  k₂ = 2k₁

(d) k₂ = 0.5k₁

Show Answer

120. Which of the following compound can exhibit tautomerism?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

Biology

121. Which of the following is not a derivative of cholesterol?

(a)  Vitamin-B

(b)  Vitamin-D

(c)  Bile salts

(d) Steroid

Show Answer

122. Shape of chloroplast of Ulothrix is

(a)  star-shaped

(b)  band-shaped

(c)  girdle-shaped

(d) spinal-shaped

Show Answer

123. What is the function of Kupffer’s cells?

(a)  Bile secretion

(b)  Digestion of lipid

(c)  Phagocytosis

(d) Digestion of protein

Show Answer

124. Which one is an anti-allergic antibody?

(a)  IgA

(b)  IgG

(c)  IgE

(d) IgD

Show Answer

125. Loss of water from body occurs by all of the following except

(a)  muscles

(b)  lungs

(c)  kidney

(d) skin

Show Answer

126. Pollenkitt is present in

(a)  anemophily

(b)  entomophily

(c)  malacophily

(d) zophily

Show Answer

127. Which motile-stage of p rotozoans is helpful in feeding?

(a)  Pseudopodium

(b)  Cilia

(c)  Flagella

(d) Tentacles

Show Answer

128. Function of hypothalamus is

(a)  themoregulation

(b)  water balance

(c)  control of hormone function

(d) All of the above

Show Answer

129. Inhibin is composed of

(a)  glycoprotein

(b)  lipoprotein

(c)  steroid

(d) amino acid derivative

Show Answer

130. What is ribotide?

(a)  Ribose + Uracil + Phosphate

(b)  Deoxyribose + Uracil + Phosphate

(c)  Deoxyribose + Thymine + Phosphate

(d) Ribose + Thymine + Phosphate

Show Answer

131. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are formed in glycolysis?

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  15

(d) 16

Show Answer

132. Molecular formula of chlorophyll-b is

(a)  C₅₅H₇₀O₆N₄Mg

(b)  C₅₅H₇₂O₅N₄Mg

(c)  C₅₅H₇₀O₅N₄Mg

(d) C₅₄H₇₀O₆N₄Mg

Show Answer

133. Non-essential amino acid is

(a)  valine

(b)  arginine

(c)  histidine

(d) lysine

Show Answer

134. Non-disjunction in meiosis results in

(a)  trisomy

(b)  normal diploid

(c)  gene mutation

(d) None of these

Show Answer

135. Caryopsis is present in

(a)  wheat

(b)  groundnut

(c)  coconut

(d) mango

Show Answer

136. AB blood group shows

(a)  codominance

(b)  incomplete dominance

(c)  polygenic inheritance

(d) pleiotropy

Show Answer

137. What is the symmetry of medusa?

(a)  Bilateral

(b)  Radial

(c)  Asymmetrical

(d) Biradial

Show Answer

138. Which one is parasitic alga?

(a)  Oedogonium

(b)  Cephaleuros

(c)  Spirogyra

(d) Cladophora

Show Answer

139. RQ of malic acid is

(a)  1.9

(b)  1.49

(c)  1.33

(d) 1

Show Answer

140. Which one is present in the urine of pregnant woman?

(a)  hCG

(b)  LH

(c)  Oestrogen

(d) FSH

Show Answer

141. 

Above diagram represents

(a)  anaphase-I

(b)  metaphase-I

(c)  telophase-I

(d) prophase-I

Show Answer

142. Histamine is secreted by

(a)  mast cells

(b)  Kupffer’s cells

(c)  oxyntic cells

(d) neutrophils

Show Answer

143. Peyer’s patches are present in

(a)  ileum

(b)  jejunum

(c)  duodenum

(d) sacculus rotandous

Show Answer

144. The correct sequence is

(a)  Zygota → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

(b)  Cleavage → Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

(c)  Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Cleavage → Gastrula

(d) Zygote → Blastula → Morula → Cleavage → Gastrula

Show Answer

145. Purkinje’s fibres are found in

(a)  heart

(b)  liver

(c)  brain

(d) lungs

Show Answer

146. Gene transfer is present in

(a)  biolistics

(b)  hybridisation

(c)  tissue culture

(d) vegetative propagation

Show Answer

147. Which one is used in tissue culture?

(a)  Explant

(b)  Somaclones

(c)  Hybridization

(d) None of these

Show Answer

148. What is common between a eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella?

(a)  Same structure

(b)  Both are used for locomotion

(c)  Composed of same proteins

(d) Both are extension of cell membrane

Show Answer

149. Heterotrichous thallus is shown by which organism?

(a)  Chlamydomonas

(b)  Ectocarpus

(c)  Spirogyra

(d) Volvax

Show Answer

150. What is acrosomal reaction?

(a)  Contact of sperms with eggs

(b)  Digestion of zona pellucida

(c)  Disintegration of acrosome

(d) Contact of acrosome and nucleus of egg

Show Answer

151. Daily requirement of vitamin-A for adult women is

(a)  500 micrograms

(b)  700 micrograms

(c)  900 micrograms

(d) 300 micrograms

Show Answer

152. Which of these is incorrect for C₄-plants?

(a)  Kranz anatomy

(b)  CO₂ acceptor is PEP

(c)  PEPCase in mesophyll

(d) RuBisCO in mesophyll

Show Answer

153. Rouleaux formation is related to which of the cell/tissue?

(a)  RBCs

(b)  WBCs

(c)  Platelets

(d) Monocytes

Show Answer

154. Which of the following is not a plant growth inhibitor?

(a)  Dormin

(b)  IAA

(c)  Ethylene

(d) ABA

Show Answer

155. What is the RQ of glucose?

(a)  One

(b)  Less than one

(c)  More than one

(d) Infinite

Show Answer

156. Brunner’s gland is located in

(a)  duodenum

(b)  jejunum

(c)  ileum

(d) stomach

Show Answer

157. Perianth is found in which family?

(a)  Cruciferae

(b)  Solanaceae

(c)  Liliaceae

(d) Malvaceae

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158. Which trait is shown by given pedigree analysis?

(a)  Autosomal dominant

(b)  X-Linked dominant

(c)  Autosomal recessive

(d) X-Linked recessive

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159. Which of the following is involved in passive immunity?

(a)  IgA

(b)  IgE

(c)  IgM

(d) IgD

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160. Fimbraie are associated with which organ?

(a)  Fallopian tube

(b)  Uterus

(c)  Vagina

(d) Ovary

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161. Linker-DNA is attached to

(a)  H₁

(b)  H₂A

(c)  H₂B

(d) H₃

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162. To which of the following, repressor protein is attached?

(a)  Operator

(b)  Inducer

(c)  Promoter

(d) Structural gene

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163. Palmella stage is present in

(a)  Aspergillus

(b)  Cystopus

(c)  Chlamydomonas

(d) None of these

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164. Formation of corpus luteum is induced by

(a)  LH

(b)  Oestrogen

(c)  FSH

(d) Progesterone

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165. Cell wall of fungi is composed of

(a)  chitin

(b)  pectin

(c)  cellulose

(d) mannans

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166. Which of the following mRNA can be transcripted as

(a)  AUG, UGA, UUU

(b)  UAA, UAV, UGG

(c)  UAG, UGA, UUV

(d) UGA, UUV, UGG

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167. Which is incorrect with reference to chloroplast?

(a)  Presence in algae and plants

(b)  Releases O₂

(c)  Occurs only in cells with aerobic respiration

(d) None of the above

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168. Proteins are needed in diet because

(a)  all amino acids are not available in body

(b)  during fasting, body utilizes proteins

(c)  proteins act as building blocks of our body.

(d) All of the above

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169. Which of the following pituitary hormones works indirectly?

(a)  MSH

(b)  TSH

(c)  GH

(d) Oxytocin

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170. XYZ → composition

(a)  Super female

(b)  Hermaphrodite

(c)  Male

(d) Super male

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171. Which is present at 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNA?

(a)  Poly-A tail

(b)  Modified C at 5’

(c)  7 mG

(d) Poly-C

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172. Conditions required for cyclic photophosphorylation are

(a)  aerobic condition, low light intensity

(b)  aerobic, condition, optimum light intensity

(c)  anaerobic condition, low light intensity

(d) anaerobic condition, optimum light intensity

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173. What is/are is the function(s) of calcium?

(a)  Blood clotting

(b)  Muscular contraction

(c)  Nerve conduction

(d) All of these

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174. What is the role of sterol in cell membrane?

(a)  Stability

(b)  Communication with other cells

(c)  Secretion

(d) Transport

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175. Where is sacculus rotandus located?

(a)  Between duodenum and jejunum

(b)  Between ileum and caecum

(c)  Caecum and colon

(d) Colon and rectum

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176. 

Above diagram represents

(a)  metaphase-I

(b)  anaphase-I

(c)  metaphase-II

(d) anaphase-II

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177. Omega 3 fatty acid is present in

(a)  sunflower oil

(b)  flax seed oil

(c)  groundnut oil

(d) butter

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178. Which is the 21st amino acid?

(a)  Pyrrolysine

(b)  Selenocysteine

(c)  Cystine

(d) Histidine

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179. What is incorrect about inhibin?

(a)  It is a lipoprotein

(b)  Decreases FSH secretion

(c)  Molecular weight is between 10k-30k Dalton

(d) Secreted by Sertoli cells

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180. Eyespot is seen in

(a)  Chlamydomonas

(b)  Ulothrix

(c)  Spirogyra

(d) Polysiphonia

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English and Quantitative Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 181-183) Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

181. He used to regale us with antedotes.

(a)  box

(b)  flatter

(c)  entertain

(d) tire

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182. Millionaires become accentric in their old age.

(a)  irritable

(b)  peculiar

(c)  dull

(d) miserly

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183. The date complied by the organization was very useful.

(a)  analysed

(b)  enclosed

(c)  collected

(d) published

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Direction (Q. Nos. 184-186) Fill in the blanks.

184. Some regions of our country still remain ….. to the average man.

(a)  inaccessible

(b)  impossible

(c)  impermeable

(d) invincible

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185. The employees are entitled to ………. dividends from the annual surplus.

(a)  submit

(b)  deposit

(c)  dedcut

(d) receive

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186. His arrogance is preceeded only by his ……… ignorance.

(a)  eternal

(b)  abysmal

(c)  meteoric

(d) diabolic

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Direction (Q. Nos. 187-190) Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

187. The treaty was ratified by the heads of states.

(a)  set aside

(b)  unsettled

(c)  destroyed

(d) annulled

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188. Many people try to resist reforms in the society.

(a)  repel

(b)  welcome

(c)  accept

(d) fight

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189. He was always prepared to refute the idea.

(a)  agree

(b)  subscribe

(c)  recommend

(d) endorse

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190. We should not belittle others achievements.

(a)  recommend

(b)  preuse

(c)  encourage

(d) inspire

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191. If GOODNESS is coded as HNPCODTR, then how GREATNESS can be written in that code?

(a)  HQZSMFRT

(b)  HQFZUFRTM

(c)  HQFZUODTR

(d) HQFZUMFRT

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192. Find the missing number in the series given below

40, 30, 22, 16, ?

(a)  10

(b)  12

(c)  15

(d) 17

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193. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the series given below?

P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?

(a)  Y17O

(b)  X16M

(c)  X17O

(d) X16O

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194. Find the missing number in the following figure.

(a)  13

(b)  15

(c)  17

(d) 19

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195. There are 25 boys in a horizontal row. Rahul was shifted by three laces towards his right side and he occupies the middle position in the row. What was his original position from the left end of the row?

(a)  15th

(b)  16th

(c)  12th

(d) 10h

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196. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?

(a)  Mother

(b)  AUnt

(c)  Sister

(d) Daughter

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197. Five villages P, Q, R, S and T situated close to each other. P is to the West of Q, R is to the South of P, T is to the North of Q and S is to the East of T. Then, in which direction R is with respect to S?

(a)  North-West

(b)  South-East

(c)  South-West

(d) Data inadequate

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198. If the day after tomorrow is a Sunday, what was it day before yesterday?

(a)  Wednesday

(b)  Thursday

(c)  Friday

(d) Saturday

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199. Four positions of a dice given below. Identify the number at the bottom when top is 6.

(a)  1

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d) 5

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200. Choose the figure from the given answer figures that will complete the pattern of the given problem figure.

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