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UPSC NDA/NA (I) Examination 2018 Held on April 22, 2018 General Ability Question Paper With Answer Key

January 28, 2021August 24, 2018 by suresh84

UPSC NDA-NA (I) Examination 2018 Held on April 22, 2018

General Ability Test

Section A English

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your answer sheet accordingly.

1. I do not want you to lead a life of sycophancy as you did during the foreign rule.

(a) admiration

(b) love

(d) flattery

Answer: (c)

2. In India, it has become easy to attack cultural artefacts these days.

(a) beckon

(b) assault

(d) appreciate

Answer: (b)

3. A local court granted bail to the criminal on Thursday.

(a) confessed

(b) donated

(d) yielded

Answer: (c)

4. The judge told that he would analyze the evidence and then deliver the verdict.

(a) liberate

(b) surrender

(d) pronounce

Answer: (d)

5. The growth and development of the peasant movement was indissolubly linked with the national struggle for freedom.

(a) firmly

(b) vaguely

(d) steadily

Answer: (a)

6. Weather conditions have been improving over the past few days.

(a) mending

(b) amending

(d) advancing

Answer: (c)

7. The confusion on the interlocutor’s face was gratifying.

(a) government officer

(b) party worker

(d) revolutionary

Answer: (c)

8. He spends his money

(a) hesitatingly

(b) generously

(d) carefully

Answer: (b)

9. The government’s new policies will come into force from the next fiscal

(a) calendar

(b) academic

(d) leap

Answer: (c)

10. Abundant food was available for the soldiers in the mess.

(a) little

(b) plentiful

(d) wholesome

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

11. The country’s economy must be geared to wartime requirements.

(a) subordinated to

(b) related to

(d) unlinked to

Answer: (d)

12. Why does the attract insects?

(a) discharge

(b) destroy

(d) remove

Answer: (c)

13. The party was excellent, and I would like to thank all the people

(a) cared

(b) attentive

(d) uninvolved

Answer: (d)

14. He is very serious by temperament.

(a) grave

(b) trivial

(d) stupid

Answer: (b)

15. There are a few miscellaneous items to discuss in this meeting.

(a) pure

(b) mixed

(d) discordant

Answer: (c)

16. Due to the postal strike, the outgoing mail got delayed.

(a) urgent

(b) incoming

(d) speedy

Answer: (b)

17. He had a fine ear for music.

(a) small

(b) close

(d) smooth

Answer: ()

18. There is no likeness between him and his brother.

(a) unlikeliness

(b) unlikelihood

(d) disaffinity

Answer: (c)

19. Cultural diversity in the working place is good for business.

(a) unformity

(b) conformity

(d) similarity

Answer: (a)

20. The company was liquidated within five years.

(a) bankrupt

(b) closed down

(d) privatized

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

21. The politician lost face in his constituency (a)/ when he broke the pre-election promises (b) / he made to his people. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (c)

22. At the request of the Defence Attorney, (a) / the jury were called (b)/ and their individual verdicts were recorded. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (b)

23. Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed (a)/ by colleagues (b) / as the greater of all modern architects. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (c)

24. In my younger days (a)/ I could run four miles (b)/ at a stretch. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (a)

25. The owner (a)/ as well as his servants (b)/ is honest. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternatives meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

26. Cry over spilt milk

(a) Complaining about a loss in the past

(b) Too much inquisitive about something

(d) Dealing with a problem only in an emergency situation

Answer: (a)

27. Cut the mustard

(a) Prepare spices out of mustard seeds

(b) To come up to expectations

(d) Very enthusiastic

Answer: (b)

28. Devil’s advocate

(a) A dangerous person

(b) To present a counter argument

(d) Creating an unpleasant situation

Answer: (c)

29. Don’t count your chickens before the eggs have hatched

(a) If you are not good at something better to avoid that

(b) Don’t make plans for something that might not happen

(d) Don’t put all your resources in one possibility

Answer: (b)

30. Give the benefit of doubt

(a) To be partial to someone

(b) To be judgemental

(d) Say something exactly right

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.

31. S1 : The Subsidiary Alliance system was extremely advantageous to the British.

S6 : They controlled the defence and the foreign relations of the protected ally.

P : They could now maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states.

Q : if many war occurred in the territories

R : either of the British ally or of the Britishers

S : This enabled them a to fight wars far away from their own territories

This proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) P S Q R

(d) S R P Q

Answer: (b)

32. S1 : In reality, by signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian State virtually signed away its independence.

S6 : In fact, the Indian ruler lost all vestiges of sovereignty in external matters.

P : of maintaining diplomatic relations

Q : It lost the right of self defence

R : with its neighbours

S: and of settling its disputes

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) R S P Q

(d) Q S R P

Answer: (c)

33. S1 : A mighty popular Revolt broke out in Northern and Central India in 1857.

S6 : Millions of peasants, artisans and soldiers fought heroically and wrote a glorious chapter.

P : Sepoys or the Indian soldier of the Company’s army

Q : but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses

R : and nearly swept away the British rule

S : It began with a mutiny of the

The proper sequence should be

(a) R S P Q

(b) P Q R S

(d) Q R PS

Answer: (a)

34. S1 : The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most efficient and powerful civil services in the world.

S6 : though these qualities obviously served. British and not Indian interests.

P : and often participated in the making of policy

Q : independence, integrity and hard work

R : They developed certain traditions of

S : Its members exercised vast power

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) Q R S P

(d) S P R Q

Answer: (d)

35. S1 : The ruin of India handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufactures.

S6 : Centres were developed and laid waste.

P : Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising industrial

Q : ravages of war and plunder, failed to

R : survive British conquest

S : Cities which had withstood the

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S Q R P

(d) Q R S P

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-45) In this section you have two short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage I

The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We ‘have both liberties to preserve – our Individual liberty and our social liberty.

That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not.

36. According to the author, the “rule of the road” implies

(a) the rule regulating the traffic on the road

(b) the principle on which a road is constructed to ensure safe traffic

(d) restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all

Answer: (d)

37. The author thinks that when a policeman signals you to stop on a road-crossing, he is

(a) behaving in a whimsical manner

(b) interfering with you freedom to use the road

(d) mischievously creating hurdles in your way from some personal motive

Answer: (c)

38. The authors is of the view that we should

(a) have absolute individual liberty without any restrictions imposed by the society

(b) have everything, controlled by the society without any kind of individual liberty

(d) have more of social liberty than individual liberty

Answer: (c)

39. The author holds that

(a) educating or not educating his child is a matter of personal liberty

(b) educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty

(d) choosing the subject of study for his child is a matter of social liberty

Answer: (b)

40. The most suitable title of the passage would be

(a) The Policeman at a Road Crossing

(b) The Laws of the Road

(d) Education of Children

Answer: (c)

Passage 2

My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning – a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just pain crazy?

41. Consider the following statements :

(1) The tiny bat flew in low like a dive bomber.

(2) The tiny bat like all bats keeps near the ceiling.

(3) It has lost direction because its radar has gone wrong.

(4) It wants to entertain the author with its skill in flying.

Which of the above statements may be assumed to be true from the information given in the passage?

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

42. The bat entered the room

(a) because there was no alternative

(b) to eat the moths round the lamps

(d) as it preferred to fly in through the open floor

Answer: (b)

43. After comparing the habits of the tiny bat with those of other bats, the author was

(a) sure that this bat had lost its direction

(b) not sure of its preferences

(d) unable to give the correct explanation for its behaviour

Answer: (d)

44. The author calls the tiny bat an “interesting visitor”. This means

(a) the bat visits him at night

(b) the bat is interested in the moths

(d) this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber

Answer: (c)

45. What, according to you, can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(a) Someone visits me

(b) Night of Mysteries

(d) A Funny Visitor

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

46. The tired traveler ……… on in the hop of finding some resting place.

(a) strolled

(b) scurried

(d) plodded

Answer: (d)

47. The car was damaged beyond repair in the …………. accident.

(a) outrageous

(b) ghastly

(d) heinous

Answer: (b)

48. They gave a…… dinner to celebrate the occasion, which impressed every guest.

(a) austere

(b) public

(d) summary

Answer: (c)

49. Once the ………… manuscript is received by the publishers, it is typed in double space.

(a) total

(b) full

(d) filled

Answer: ()

50. I am used to ………… in queues.

(a) stand

(b) standing

(d) standing still

Answer: (c)

Section B General Knowledge

51. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat.

(b) Any energy transfer always requires a temperature difference

(d) Whenever there is a temperature difference, heat is the only way of energy transfer

Answer: (a)

52. If T is the time period of an oscillating pendulum, which one the following statements is not correct?

(a) The motion repeats after time T only once

(b) T is the least time after which motion repeats itself

(d) T remains the same only for small angular displacements

Answer: (a)

53. If an object moves with constant velocity then which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Its motion is along a straight line

(b) Its speed changes with time

(d) Its displacement increases linearly with time

Answer: (d)

54. An object is moving, with uniform acceleration a. Its initial velocity is u and after time t its velocity is v. The equation of its motion is v = u + at. The velocity (along y-axis) time (along x-axis) graph shall be a straight line

(a) passing through origin

(b) with x-intercept u

(d) with slope u

Answer: (c)

55. What is the net force experienced by a bar magnet placed in a uniform magnetic field?

(a) Zero

(b) Depends upon length of the magnet

(d) Depends upon temperature

Answer: (a)

56. Which one of the following has maximum inertia?

(a) An atom

(b) A molecule

(d) A cricket ball

Answer: (d)

57. Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy converted into joules?

(a) 1.8 × 10⁶ J

(b) 3.6 × 10⁶ J

(d) 7.2× 10⁶ J

Answer: (b)

58. Which one of the following statements about gravitational force is not correct?

(a) It is experienced by all bodies in the universe

(b) It is a dominant force between celestial bodies

(d) It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe

Answer: (d)

59. Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends on

(a) mass of the object only

(b) mass of the object and density of liquid only

(d) mass and shape of the objet only

Answer: (c)

60. Which one of the, following devices is non-ohmic?

(a) Conducting copper coil

(b) Electric heating coil

(d) Rheostat

Answer: (c)

61. Which one of the following is the natural phenomenon based on which a simple periscope works?

(a) Reflection of light

(b) Refraction of light

(d) Total internal reflection of light

Answer: (a)

62. Which one of the following frequency range is sensitive to human ears?

(a) 0 – 200 Hz

(b) 20 – 20000 Hz

(d) 2,000 – 20000 Hz only

Answer: (b)

63. The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation, which is due to inject of

(a) hydrochloric acid

(b) methanoic acid

(d) sulphuric acid

Answer: (b)

64. Which of the following properties is true for a tooth paste?

(a) It is acidic.

(b) It is neutral.

(d) It is made up of calcium phosphate, the material of tooth enamel.

Answer: (c)

65. Which one of the following gives the highest amount of hydrogen ions (H⁺)?

(a) Sodium hydroxide solution

(b) Milk of magnesia

(d) Gastric juice

Answer: (d)

66. Brine is an aqueous solution of

(a) NaCl

(b) NaOH

(d) Na₂CO₃

Answer: (a)

67. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Washing Soda?

(a) NaCO₃

(b) Na₂CO₃ . 10H₂O

(d) NaOH

Answer: (b)

68. Which one of the following is not true for bleaching powder?

(a) It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries

(b) It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories

(d) It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry

Answer: (a)

69. AIDS is caused by a virus whose genetic material is

(a) single stranded circular DNA

(b) double stranded DNA

(d) double stranded RNA

Answer: (c)

70. Which one of the following organelle is not found in prokaryotic cells?

(a) Cell wall

(b) Mitochondria

(d) Ribosome

Answer: (b)

71. Which one of the following parts of body does not take part in the process of breathing?

(a) Bronchi

(b) Bowman’s capsule

(d) Trachea

Answer: (b)

72. Which one of the following statements about classification of plants is correct?

(a) Thallophytes have well differentiated body design

(b) Funaria is a fungus

(d) Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes

Answer: (d)

73. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of levels of hierarchy of classification of organisms from higher to lower?

(a) Phylum – Glass – Order – Family – Genus

(b) Phylum – Class – Family – Order – Genus

(d) Class – Family – Order – Species – Genus

Answer: (a)

74. Which one of the following statements about meristematic tissues in plants is correct?

(a) These are dead tissues and form wood

(b) They provide flexibility to plant due to their thickened walls

(d) Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues

Answer: (d)

75. Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate?

(a) Chandigarh

(b) Lakshadweep

(d) Puducherry

Answer: (b)

76. Consider the following statements about Roaring Forties:

(1) They are strong Westerly winds found in the oceans of Southern Hemisphere.

(2) The strong East to West air currents are caused by the combination of air being displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole and the Earth’s rotation and abundance of landmasses to serve as wind breaks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

77. Consider the following statements

(1) The doldrums is a low pressure area around Equator where the prevailing winds are calm.

(2) Chinook is a hot and dry wind that blows in winter and therefore raises the temperature in short time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

78. Which one of the following is the driest desert of the world?

(a) Atacama

(b) Gobi

(d) Kalahari

Answer: (a)

79. Which of the following statements about latent heat for a given substance is/are correct?

(1) It is fixed at a given temperature.

(2) It depends upon the temperature and volume.

(3) It is independent of temperature and volume.

(4) It depends on the temperature but independent of volume.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (b)

80. Which one of the following statements about the mass of a body is correct?

(a) It changes from one place to another.

(b) It is same everywhere.

(d) It does not depend on its temperature.

Answer: (b)

81. A ball balanced on a vertical rod is an example of

(a) stable equilibrium

(b) unstable equilibrium

(d) perfect equilibrium

Answer: (b)

82. Which of the following statements about a fluid at rest in a cup is/are correct?

(1) Pressure is same-at all the points in the fluid.

(2) Pressure is exerted on the walls.

(3) Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid.

Select the correct answer ‘using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

83. Which one of the following devices is sued to measure atmospheric pressure?

(a) Ammeter

(b) Barometer

(d) Lactometer

Answer: (b)

84. Which one of the following is the number of water molecules that share with two formula unit CaSO₄ in Plaster of Paris?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Ten

Answer: (a)

85. How is carbon black obtained?

(a) By heating wood at high temperature in a absence of air

(b) By heating coal at high temperature in absence of air

(d) By heating coal at high temperature in presence of air

Answer: (c)

86. Which one of the following properties is not true for graphite?

(a) Hybridization of each carbon atom is sp³

(b) Hybridization of each carbon atom is sp²

(d) Each layer is composed of hexagonal rings

Answer: (a)

87. Which one of the following is the purest form of carbon?

(a) Charcoal

(b) Coke

(d) Carbon black

Answer: (d)

88. The poisonous nature of carbon monoxide (CO) is due to its

(a) insolubility in water

(b) ability to form a complex with haemoglobin

(d) property of having one sigma bond

Answer: (b)

89. Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells?

(a) Lithium

(b) Sodium

(d) Caesium

Answer: (b)

90. Who among the following first discovered cell?

(a) Robert Brown

(b) Robert Hooke

(d) Rudolf Virchow

Answer: (b)

91. Which one of the following group of organisms forms a food chain?

(a) Grass, human and fish

(b) Grass, goat and human

(d) Goat, cow and human

Answer: (b)

92. Which one of the following types of tissues will have contractile proteins?

(a) Nervous tissue

(b) Muscle tissue

(d) Blood tissue

Answer: (b)

93. If by an unknown accident the acid secreting cells of the stomach wall of an individual are damaged. Digestion of which one of the following biomolecule will be affected to a greater extent?

(a) Protein only

(b) Lipid

(d) Protein and Carbohydrate

Answer: (a)

94. In which one of the following places, Headquarters of a Railway Zone is located?

(a) Kanpur

(b) Lucknow

(d) New Jalpaiguri

Answer: (c)

95. Which of the following statements about Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is/are correct?

(1) It is a registered society.

(2) It is collaborative body of both Central government and State governments.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

96. Which one of the following is not a tributary of Indus river?

(a) Beas

(b) Ravi

(d) Tawi

Answer: (d)

97. Which one among the following is the largest tiger reserve of India in terms of area of the core/critical tiger habitat?

(a) Manas

(b) Pakke

(d) Periyar

Answer: (c)

98. Which one of the, following is not a coastal depositional feature?

(a) Tombolo

(b) Sand bar

(d) Spit

Answer: (c)

99. Which of the following is/are coastal erosional feature(s)?

(1) Notch (2) Sea Arch

(3) Cliff (4) Hook

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (a)

100. Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in place with

(a) cold and dry climate

(b) hot and humid climate

(d) cold and humid climate

Answer: (b)

101. Which of the following statements about specific heat of a body is/are correct?

(1) It depends upon mass and shape of the body

(2) It is independent of mass and shape of the body

(3) It depends only upon the temperature of the body

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a)

102. Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob?

(a) Applied force

(b) Frictional force

(d) Virtual force

Answer: (c)

103. Which one of the following statements about the refractive index of a material medium with respect to air is correct?

(a) It can be either positive or negative.

(b) It can have zero value.

(d) It is always greater than one.

Answer: (d)

104. Which one of the following statements about magnetic field lines is not correct?

(a) They can emanate from a point

(b) They do not cross each other

(d) There are no filed lines within a bar magnet

Answer: (c)

105. Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is

(a) 0.10 m

(b) 2 m

(d) 0.25 m

Answer: (d)

106. Which one of the following alkali metals has lowest melting point?

(a) Sodium

(b) Potassium

(d) Caesium

Answer: (d)

107. Which one of the following metals is alloyed with sodium to transfer heat in a nuclear reactor?

(a) Potassium

(b) Calcium

(d) Strontium

Answer: (a)

108. Which one of the following metals is used in the filaments of photo-electric cells that convert light energy into electric energy?

(a) Tungsten

(b) Copper

(d) Aluminium

Answer: (a)

109. Which of the following statements about Ring of Fire is/are correct?

(1) It is a zone of convergence plate boundaries.

(2) It is an active seismic and volcanic zone.

(3) It is associated with deep trench.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

110. Which one of the following Himalayan vegetation species is found between the altitudes of 1800 to 2600 m?

(a) Saal

(b) Chir

(d) Deodar

Answer: (d)

111. Which one of the following rivers is not a tributary of river Cauvery?

(a) Hemavati

(b) Arkavati

(d) Amravati

Answer: (c)

112. Which of the following conditions is/are essential for tea cultivation?

(1) Tropical and sub-tropical climate

(2) Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm

(3) Soil should contain good amount of lime.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) All of these

(b) 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

113. Bharatmala Project is related to

(a) Improving road connectivity

(b) Interlinking ports and railways

(d) Interlinking major cities with gas pipelines

Answer: (a)

114. Which one of the following is a local wind that blows out from Siberia?

(a) Bora

(b) Purga

(d) Blizzard

Answer: (d)

115. Which one of the following centres is not known for iron and steel industry?

(a) Bhadravati

(b) Salem

(d) Renukoot

Answer: (d)

116. Which of the following are essential prerequisites for establishment of a thermal power station?

(1) Availability of fossil fuels

(2) Proximity to a river, lake or sea

(3) Good transport network

(4) Proximity to an urban centre

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a)

117. Which of the following statements about ‘Aadi Mahotsav’ held recently in New Delhi is/are correct?

(1) The theme of the festival was ‘A Celebration of the Spirit of Tribal Culture, Cuisine and Commerce’

(2) The festival was organized by the Ministry of Tourism, government of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

118. Light year is a unit for measurement of

(a) age of universe

(b) very large distance

(d) very high temperature

Answer: (b)

119. Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water waves is/are” correct?

(1) The exhibit reflection.

(2) They carry energy.

(3) They exert pressure.

(4) They can travel in vacuum.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (a)

120. Thermal capacity of a body depends on the

(a) mass of the body only

(b) mass and shape of the body only

(d) mass, shape and temperature of the body

Answer: (d)

121. Who among the following first used the term ‘Industrial Revolution’ in English to describe, the changes that occurred in British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?

(a) Karl Marx

(b) Georges Michelet

(d) Friedrich Engels

Answer: (c)

122. Which one of the following statements about the Olympe de Gouges (1748 – 1793) is correct?

(a) She declared that although citizens should have equal rights, they are not entitled to the same honours by the State.

(b) She was a supporter of the Jacobin government.

(d) She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man.

Answer: (a)

123. Who among the following built a model steam engine in 1698 called “Miner’s Friend” to drain mines?

(a) Thomas Savery

(b) Thomas Newcomen

(d) Richard Arkwright

Answer: (a)

124. Which one of the following statements about Renaissance Humanist culture is not true?

(a) It slackened the control of religion over human life.

(b) It believed that human nature was many-sided.

(d) It criticized material wealth, power and glory.

Answer: (c)

125. Who gifted the Badshah Nama to King George in 1799?

(a) Abul Fazl

(b) Abdul Hamid Lahori

(d) William Jones

Answer: (c)

126. What is the name of the award given to meritorious men in the Mughal Court in the form of a robe of honour that was once worn by the Emperor?

(a) Sarapa

(b) Patka

(d) Khilat

Answer: (c)

127. Who among the following social reformer started a society for t he encouragement of widow remarriage in 1866 in Maharashtra?

(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(b) Jyotirao Phule

(d) Pandita Ramabai

Answer: (b)

128. Name the first major voluntary association representing primarily Indian landlord interests that was set-up in Calcutta in 1851?

(a) British Indian Association

(b) Landholder’s Society

(d) Bombay Association

Answer: (a)

129. Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793?

(a) Lord Cornwallis

(b) Lord Ripon

(d) John Adam

Answer: (a)

130. Name the rebel who fought against the British in the Battle of Chinhat in the course of the 1857 Revolt?

(a) Ahmadullah Shah

(b) Shah Mal

(d) Kunwar Singh

Answer: (*)

131. Who among t he following are the two civil servants who assisted the Constituent Assembly in framing the Constitution of India?

(a) BN Rau and KM Munshi

(b) SN Mukherjee and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar

(d) KM Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar

Answer: (c)

132. Which member of ‘the Constituent Assembly proposed the resolution that the National Flag of India be a “horizontal tricolor of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion”, with a wheel in navy, blue at the centre?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) BR Ambedkar

(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (c)

133. Which of the following is/are not historical biography/biographies?

(1) Dipavamsa

(2) Harshacharita

(3) Vikramankadevacharita

(4) Prithvirajavijaya

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (a)

134. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (a)

135. Which of the following clans are included in the Agnikula Rajputs?

(1) Pratiharas (2) Chaulukyas

(3) Paramaras (4) Chahamanas

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (c)

136. Who among the following was the author of Humayun Nama?

(a) Roshanara Begum

(b) Ruquaiya Sultan Begum

(d) Gauhara Begum

Answer: (c)

137. Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is not correct?

(a) The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

(b) There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha.

(d) Some members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President.

Answer: (c)

138. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is not correct?

(a) He is appointed by the President of India.

(b) He can be removed from office in the same way as the judge of the Supreme Court of India.

(d) The salary of the CAG is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Answer: (c)

139. The Superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in

(a) The supreme Court of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(d) The Chief Election Commissioner

Answer: (c)

140. Which of the following provision(s) of the Constitution of India became effective from November 26, 1949?

(1) Elections

(2) Citizenship

(3) Emergency provisions

(4) Appointment of the Judges

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (b)

141. Which of the following statements regarding construction of Rohtang tunnel is not correct?

(a) It is located at an altitude of 5000 feet.

(b) It will provide all-year connectivity to Lahaul and Spiti Valley.

(d) It will reduce the length of the Leh-Manali highway by approximately 50 km.

Answer: (a)

142. Who among the following recently became the first woman pilot in Indian Navy?

(a) Astha Segal

(b) Roopa A

(d) Shubhangi Swaroop

Answer: (d)

143. Who among the following Indian did NOT hold the title of Miss World?

(a) Reita Faria

(b) Sushmita Sen

(d) Yukta Mookhey

Answer: (b)

144. Which one of the following countries has failed to qualify for the first time in 60 years for the FIFA World Cup to be held in Russia in the year 2018

(a) Mexico

(b) Iran

(d) Italy

Answer: (d)

145. The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) is a forum for dialogue on defence partnership between India and

(a) Russia

(b) United State of America

(d) France

Answer: (b)

146. As per the policy applicable in 2017, how much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted in the defence sector in India?

(a) 49% through the automatic route

(b) 26% through the government route

(d) 75% through the automatic route

Answer: (a)

147. Which one of the following countries did not participate in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar?

(a) United States of America

(b) Japan

(d) Australia

Answer: (d)

148. Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India was recently re-elected to the International Court of Justice after Christopher Greenwood pulled out before 12th round of voting. Chrisopher Greenwood was a nominee of

(a) Canada

(b) Russia

(d) the USA

Answer: (c)

149. In order to review the Income Tax Act, 1961 and to draft a new Direct Tax Law in consonance with economic needs of the country, the government of India in November, 2017 has constituted a Task Force. Who among the following is made the convenor of it?

(a) Arvind Subramanian

(b) Arbind Modi

(d) Dr. Bibek Debroy

Answer: (b)

150. The 5th Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) was held in New Delhi in November, 207. Which of the following statements about GCCS is/are correct?

(1) The 4th version of GCCS was held in London.

(2) The main theme of GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All : A Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable Development’.

(3) ‘Bindu’ is the logo of GCCS 2017.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

UPSC CDS (I) Examination Held on February 4, 2018 General Knowledge & English Question Paper With Answer Key

January 23, 2021May 22, 2018 by suresh84

UPSC CDS (I) Examination Held on February 4, 2018

General Knowledge

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-7) The following consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the options given below.

Give answer

(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

1. Statement I By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole.

Statement II Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.

Answer: (b)

2. Statement I Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river.

Statement II Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.

Answer: (a)

3. Statement I Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.

Statement II The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.

Answer: (a)

4. Statement I In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.

Statement II Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.

Answer: (a)

5. Statement I Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and Sun and the rotation of the Earth.

Statement II The Earth rotates from West to East.

Answer: (b)

6. Statement I A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place.

Statement II Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.

Answer: (a)

7. Statement I Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metalsand pesticides in an organism.

Statement II Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.

Answer: (b)

8. Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?

(a) Silverfish

(b) Jellyfish

(d) Flyingfish

Answer: (d)

9. In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored?

(a) Adipocyte

(b) Chondrocyte

(d) Reticulocyte

Answer: (a)

10. Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?

(a) Euglena : Flagellum

(b) Paramecium : Cilia

(d) Starfish : Tuberfect

Answer: (c)

11. Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?

(a) Nucleus

(b) Endoplasmic reticulum

(d) Ribosomes

Answer: (c)

12. A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 5

Answer: (*)

13. Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?

(a) Deflection and advection

(b) Latent heat of condensation

(d) Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere

Answer: (*)

14. Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence process of precipitation?

(a) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level

(b) Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level

(d) Cirrocumulus cloud

Answer: (a)

15. Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?

(a) Jaisalmer

(b) Leh

(d) Guwahati

Answer: (b)

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (a)

17. Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. thus brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?

(a) Argon

(b) Xenon

(d) Helium

Answer: (b)

18. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?

(a) Composition is variable.

(b) All particles of compound are of only one type.

(d) Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods.

Answer: (b)

19. Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water?

(1) Mg(HCO₃)₂(2) Ca(HCO₃)₂

(3) CaCl₂(4) MgSO₄

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (d)

20. Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?

(a) Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons

(b) Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons

(d) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons

Answer: (a)

21. Which of the following represents a relation for ‘heat lost = heat gained?

(a) Principle of thermal equilibrium

(b) Principle of colours

(d) Principle of vaporization

Answer: (c)

22. Two metallic wires made from copper have same length, but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes

(a) 2R

(b) R/2

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

23. When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is

(a) reflection of light

(b) refraction of light

(d) scattering of light

Answer: (c)

24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists.

(a) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (c)

25. Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?

(a) Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits

(b) Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing

(d) Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables

Answer: (a)

26. In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project being implemented as a pilot investment?

(a) Gujarat, Kerala and Goa

(b) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

(d) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Answer: (c)

27. Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct?

(1) The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.

(2) The NWA is located in New Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

28. A wire of copper having length l and area of cross-section A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be

(a) P

(b) < P

(d) 2P

Answer: (c)

29. The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = P₀ + ρgh, where ρ is the fluid density. This expression is associated with

(a) Pascal’s law

(b) Newton’s law

(d) Archimedes’ principle

Answer: (c)

30. Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere

(1) Argon (2) Neon

(3) Helium (4) Carbon dioxide

Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume percentage?

(a) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

(b) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3

(d) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

Answer: (b)

31. Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its population?

(a) Mizoram

(b) Nagaland

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (a)

32. Extrusive volcanoes are not found in, which one of following mountains?

(a) Alaska

(b) Rocky

(d) Himalayas

Answer: (d)

33. Which one of the following crops in not cultivates in Karewas, the lacustrine deposits of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders?

(a) Saffron

(b) Almond

(d) Ling nut

Answer: (*)

34. Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga

(1) Gandak (2) Kosi

(3) Ghaghara (4) Gomti

Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from East to West?

(a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2

(b) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

(d) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Answer: (b)

35. Which of the following statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct?

(a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.

(b) It is a scheme for crop protection.

(d) It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.

Answer: (a)

36. Which of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?

(a) It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls.

(b) It aims to convert India’s demographic suplus into a demographic dividend.

(d) It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.

Answer: (d)

37. Where is Hambantota Port located?

(a) Iran

(b) Sri Lanka

(d) Pakistan

Answer: (b)

38. The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?

(a) Eight

(b) Ten

(d) Fourteen

Answer: (a)

39. Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?

(a) The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.

(b) This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.

(d) The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016.

Answer: (c)

40. ‘SAMPRITI-2047’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and

(a) Bhutan

(b) Bangladesh

(d) Myanmar

Answer: (b)

41. The judgement of the Supreme Court of Indian in the Vishakha Case pertains to

(a) sexual harassment in the work-place

(b) sati

(d) rape

Answer: (a)

42. The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was the held at

(a) Brasilia

(b) Sanya

(d) Durban

Answer: (b)

43. Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharashthi scripts?

(a) Piyadassi

(b) Colin Mackenzie

(d) James Prinsep

Answer: (d)

44. Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya/Grants during 600 – 1200 AD?

(1) Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.

(2) These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.

(3) Most grants were made in unsettled areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

45. Who is the author of Manimekalai?

(a) Kovalan

(b) Sathanar

(d) Tirutakkatevar

Answer: (b)

46. Which of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?

(a) It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.

(b) It contains one large cave.

(d) It is associated with the Pashupata sect.

Answer: (b)

47. Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?

(1) He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.

(2) His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.

(3) He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights.

(4) The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (d)

48. Consider the following statements about impact of tax

(1) A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.

(2) A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

49. According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to

(a) improve

(b) diminish

(d) first diminish and then improve

Answer: (b)

50.eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Governance Plan of the government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by

(a) Tata Consultancy Services

(b) Infosys Technologies Limited

(d) HCL Technologies

Answer: (b)

51. Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?

(1) They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.

(2) The live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.

(3) The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

52. Consider the following statement :

“A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.”

The above statement is attributed to

(a) Sardar Patel

(b) Winston Churchill

(d) Baden-Powell

Answer: (c)

53. Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) BR Ambedkar

(d) Swami Vivekananda

Answer: (a)

54. Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayangara Empire.

(a) Mahanavami Dibba

(b) Lotus Maha

(d) Virupaksha

Answer: (a)

55. The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?

(a) Shihabuddin Suhrawardi

(b) Nizamuddin Auliya

(d) Bayazid Bistami

Answer: (a)

56. Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?

(a) Vinaya Pitaka

(b) Sutta Pitaka

(d) Mahavamsa

Answer: (c)

57. Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?

(a) Ahoka playued an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult.

(b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.

(d) They were located close to trade routes.

Answer: (d)

58. Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of eats in its Legislative Assembly?

(a) West Bengal

(b) Bihar

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (a)

59. Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct?

(1) It is a discretionary power.

(2) The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

60. Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?

(a) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide-1985

(b) Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT-1994

(d) Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange (Nasdaq)-1971

Answer: (a)

61. Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) :

(1) ITBP is raised in 1962.

(2) ITBP is basically a mountain trained force.

(3) ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty.

(4) ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: ()

62. Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?

(a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

(b) Convention of the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against women

(d) Declaration on the Right to Development

Answer: (d)

63. In the context of electrons in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

(a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail

(b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail

(d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail

Answer: (c)

64. Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)

(a) To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level

(b) To expand cultivable area under irrigation

(d) To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities

Answer: (d)

65. Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO?

(1) Keoladeo National Park

(2) Sundarbans National Park

(3) Kaziranga National Park

(4) Ranthambore National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

66. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

(b) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1

(d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

Answer: (a)

67. Which one of the following statements about lymph is correct?

(a) Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries.

(b) Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC.

(d) Lymph only transports hormones.

Answer: (a)

68. Which of the following classes of animals has/have three-chambered heart?

(a) Pisces and Amphibia

(b) Amphibia and Reptilia

(d) Amphibia only

Answer: (b)

69. Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles of sprinters leads to cramp?

(a) Lactic acid

(b) Ethanol

(d) Glucose

Answer: (a)

70. Which one of the following statements about Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct?

(a) It is a marketable security.

(b) It experiences price changes throughout the day.

(d) An ETF does not have its net asset value calculated once at the end of every day.

Answer: (c)

71. Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector?

(a) 55 yr

(b) 60 yr

(d) 70 yr

Answer: (c)

72. The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high-level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) to suggest a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive and near-real-time PCR for India. The task force is headed by

(a) Sekar Karnam

(b) Vishakha Mulye

(d) YM Deosthalee

Answer: (d)

73. In October, 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the government of India to supply 1. 1 million tonnes of wheat that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through

(a) Iran

(b) Pakistan

(d) China

Answer: (a)

74. Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is/are correct?

(1) It has been incorporated as Public Limited Company.

(2) It started its operation by establishment two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

75. Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?

(1) Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights

(2) Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim.

(3) Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates

(4) Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

76. A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person

(1) holds any office of profit under the government of India or the government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder

(2) is an undischarged insolvent

(3) is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India

(4) is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) All of these

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

77. According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as recognized political party in how many States?

(a) At least two States

(b) At least three States

(d) At least five States

Answer: (c)

78. Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct?

(a) It is a commercial arm of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.

(b) It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.

(d) It is a commercial arm of the Department of Science and Technology.

Answer: (b)

79. Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?

(1) Bijak in Varanasi

(2) Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan

(3) Adi Granth Sahib

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) All of these

(d) Only 3

Answer: (b)

80. Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?

(a) Potassium

(b) Caesium

(d) Magnesium

Answer: (b)

81. Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?

(a) Potassium

(b) Lithium

(d) Caesium

Answer: (a)

82. Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Oxygen

(d) Hydrogen

Answer: (a)

83. Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of Chlorophyll in green plants?

(a) Calcium

(b) Iron

(d) Potassium

Answer: (c)

84. Consider the following chemical reaction :

aFe₂O₃(s) + bCO(g) → cFe(s) + dCO₂

In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c, and d respectively?

(a) 3, 2, 3, 1

(b) 1, 3, 2, 3

(d) 3, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (b)

85. Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?

(a) to increase the life of the bulb

(b) To reduce the consumption of electricity

(d) To reduce the cost of the bulb

Answer: (d)

86. Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (t_c)?

(a) These are two independent temperature scales

(b) T = t_c

(d) t = t_c + 273.15

Answer: (d)

87. Sound waves cannot travel through a

(a) copper wire placed in air

(b) silver slab placed in air

(d) wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum

Answer: (d)

88. Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?

(a) 10⁻⁷ cm

(b) 10⁻⁶ cm

(d) 10⁻³ cm

Answer: (a)

89. Consider the following statements

(1) There is not net moment on a body which is an equilibrium.

(2) The momentum of a body is always conserved.

(3) The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) All of these

(b) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

90. Working of safety fuses depends upon

(1) magnetic effect of the current

(2) chemical effect of the current

(3) magnitude of the current

(4) heating effect of the current

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) All of these

(b) 1, 2, and 3

(d) Only 4

Answer: (c)

91. In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship 2017 held at Ho Chi Minch City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner?

(a) 48 kg

(b) 51 kg

(d) 57 kg

Answer: (a)

92. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil Day 2017?

(a) Soils and pulses, symbol for life

(b) Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground

(d) Soils, foundation for family farming

Answer: (b)

93. Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship (Men) 2017?

(a) Kidambi Srikanth

(b) HS Prannoy

(d) Sai Praneeth

Answer: (b)

94. Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?

(1) It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek.

(2) Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

95. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagawad Gita.

(b) According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra.

(d) Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body.

Answer: (d)

96. Consider the following statements “So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.”

Who among the following European travelers had made the above statements about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?

(a) Francisco Pelsaert

(b) Francois Bernier

(d) Niccolao Manucci

Answer: (a)

97. What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who area branch of the Ismaili sect?

(a) Ginan

(b) Ziyarat

(d) Shahada

Answer: (a)

98. Who was/were the 10th century composer (s) of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham?

(a) Alvars

(b) Nayanars

(d) Sambandar

Answer: (a)

99. Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?

(a) Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General

(b) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal

(c) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal

(d) Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral

Answer: (c)

100. Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?

(1) He is the first Law Officer of the government of India.

(2) He is entitled to the privileges of Member of the Parliament.

(3) He is a whole-time counsel for the government.

(4) He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

101. Under which one of the following Amendment Acts has Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?

(a) 35th

(b) 36th

(d) 38th

Answer: (b)

102. Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?

(a) Tibet

(b) Hong Kong

(d) Inner Mongolia

Answer: (b)

103. Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?

(a) States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.

(b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.

(d) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

Answer: (d)

104. Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031

(1) This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.

(2) The NWAP us unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.

(3) The NWAP has ten components.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

105. Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative?

(a) Natural gas

(b) Refinery products

(d) Coal

Answer: (a)

106. Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify

(1) continuous link between the master and disciple

(2) unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad

(3) the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

107. In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?

(a) Surya Sukta

(b) Purusha Sukta

(d) Urna Sutra

Answer: (a)

108. Which of the following statements about the Non-cooperation Movement is/are correct?

(1) It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka.

(2) It was marked by non-Brahmin lower casted participation in Madras and Maharashtra.

(3) It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like

(4) It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) Only 2

Answer: (c)

109. Which one of the following was a focus country of the ‘World Food India’, a mega food event held in November, 2017 in New Delhi?

(a) Germany

(b) Japan

(d) Italy

Answer: (d)

110. Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series-India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Rajasthan

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (c)

111. The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school children called ‘Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of

(a) sports

(b) philately

(d) web designing

Answer: (b)

112. Which one of the following temples of India has won the ‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit 2017’ for cultural heritage conservation?

(a) Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati

(b) Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam

(d) Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath

Answer: (b)

113. Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?

(a) Japan

(b) China

(d) Pakistan

Answer: (b)

114. Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?

(a) India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.

(b) 95 percent of India’s trade by volume and 68% by value are moved through maritime transport.

(d) In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020.

Answer: (d)

115. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) India joined MTCR in 2016.

(b) India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.

(d) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.

Answer: (d)

116. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?

(a) 91st Amendment

(b) 87th Amendment

(d) 90th Amendment

Answer: (a)

117. Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?

(1) Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority

(2) Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border

(3) Coastal security in territorial waters

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) All of these

(d) Only3

Answer: (b)

118. Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?

(a) Astra

(b) Akash

(d) Shankhnaad

Answer: (c)

119. The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred in Ist November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Limitd, Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?

(a) Dr. LD Papney

(b) Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar

(d) PD Siwal

Answer: (d)

120. In November, 2017, and India short film, The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the Director of the film?

(a) Anurag Kashyap

(b) Dheeraj Jindal

(d) Samvida Nanda

Answer: (b)

ENGLISH

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-15) Given below are some idioms/phrases followed b y four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

1. A hot potato

(a) A dish to relish when it is hot

(b) A very important person in a gathering

(d) A way of thinking what someone is thinking

Answer: (c)

2. You snooze, you lose

(a) Don’t take it lightly

(b) Don’t be over-enthusiastic

(d) Don’t be pessimistic

Answer: (a)

3. I don’t buy it

(a) I don’t believe it

(b) I have no money

(d) I don’t need it

Answer: (a)

4. My two cents

(a) My money

(b) My opinion

(d) My explanation

Answer: (b)

5. Out of the blue

(a) Undoubtedly

(b) Unexpectedly

(d) Unconcerned

Answer: (b)

6. What a small world

(a) What a coincidence

(b) What a challenging task

(d) What a beautiful place

Answer: (a)

7. Down the road

(a) In future

(b) In the past

(d) No particular time

Answer: (a)

8. Raising eyebrows

(a) To show surprise

(b) Criticize

(d) Instruct

Answer: (a)

9. Step up the plate

(a) Take control

(b) Take a job

(d) Take an opportunity

Answer: (c)

10. The Holy Grail

(a) The pious place of worship

(b) An important object or goal

(d) Someone’s destination of life

Answer: (b)

11. You scratch my back, I’ll scratch yours

(a) Mutual favour

(b) Mutual understanding

(d) Mutual disliking

Answer: (a)

12. At the drop of a hat

(a) Without any hesitation

(b) When attempt fails and it’s time to start all over

(d) Judging other’s intentions too much

Answer: (a)

13. Ball is the your court

(a) Be happy at the dance/ball room

(b) It’s up to you to make the decision

(d) No speaking directly about an issue

Answer: (b)

14. Best of both worlds

(a) A happy person who is the best with all

(b) All the advantages

(d) Someone whom everybody likes

Answer: (b)

15. Costs an arm and a leg

(a) Severe punishment to someone

(b) Too much consciousness about one’s body

(d) Something very expensive

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-30) Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.

………16…… to millions of people not only ………17……. all parts of India, but in …….. 18. countries around the world as well. …….19. October, 1966 Subbulakshmi was invited to …….20. in New York, where people of ………21…… foreign countries listened to her music …….22…… . This was one of the greatest ……….23……… ever given to any musician. For…..24…. together MS kept that international ……25….. spell-bound with the Te second Anglo-Maratha War had shattered the …..26….. of the beauty of her voice and her style of singing. Maratha chiefs, but not their spirit. The …….27….. of their freedom rankled in their hearts. They made a last ……28…… attempt to regain their independence and old ……29….. in 1817. The lead in organizing a united front of the Maratha chiefs was taken by the Peshwa who was smarting under the ……..30…… control exercised by the British Resident.

16.

(a) sorrow

(b) joy

(d) pain

Answer: (b)

17.

(a) over

(b) on

(d) with

Answer: (a)

18.

(a) strange

(b) unknown

(d) familiar

Answer: (c)

19.

(a) Within

(b) On

(d) By

Answer: (c)

20.

(a) dance

(b) sing

(d) enjoy

Answer: (b)

21.

(a) many

(b) few

(d) all

Answer: (a)

22.

(a) attentively.

(b) quietly.

(d) boldly.

Answer: (a)

23.

(a) awards

(b) honours

(d) recognitions

Answer: (b)

24.

(a) seconds

(b) minutes

(d) days

Answer: (c)

25.

(a) spectator

(b) audience

(d) businessmen

Answer: (b)

26.

(a) power

(b) dignity

(d) patience

Answer: (a)

27.

(a) disappearance

(b) empowerment

(d) disappointment

Answer: (c)

28.

(a) horrible

(b) desperate

(d) strong

Answer: (b)

29.

(a) prestige

(b) army

(d) infantry

Answer: (a)

30.

(a) pleasant

(b) satisfying

(d) orthodox

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-50) Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the answer sheet against the corresponding letter. i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

31. The best way in which you can open the bottle is

(a) (b)

by putting it into hot water first. No error

Answer: (a)

32.Somebody Who I enjoy reading is Tagore. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (b)

33. Electricity companies are working throughout

(a) (b)

days and nights to repair the damage No error

Answer: (b)

34. The students test results were pleasant. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (d)

35. Two thirds of the book were rubbish. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (b)

36. You will be answerable for the court with

(a) (b)

any lies you have told. No error

Answer: (b)

37. She felt terribly anxious for have to sing

(a) (b)

in front of such a large audience. No error

Answer: (b)

38. I don’t agree with smacking children

(a) (b)

if they do something wrong. No error

Answer: (d)

39. The fruit can be made to jam. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (c)

40. I asked him what he has done. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (d)

41. There have been a tornado watch issued for Texas country

(a) (b)

until even O’clock tonight. No error

Answer: (a)

42. Although the Red Cross accepts blood from the donors

(a)

the nurses will not leave you give blood,

(b)

if you have just had cold. No error

Answer: (b)

43. A prism is used to refract white light so it spreads out

(a) (b)

in a continuous spectrum. No error

Answer: (b)

44. Because of the movement of a glacier, the form

(a) (b)

of the Great Lakes was very slow. No error

Answer: (d)

45. The new model costs twice more than last year’s model.

(a) (b) (c)

No error

(d)

Answer: (b)

46. Gandhi ji always regretted for the fact

(a)

that people gave him adulation while what he wanted

(b)

was acceptance of his way of life. No error

Answer: (a)

47. The party was ousted in power after twelve years. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (b)

48. He was held in the prevention of Terrorism act. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (b)

49. He has great fascination for each and every thin

(a) (b)

that are connected with drama. No error

Answer: (c)

50. It’s no secret that the President wants to have a second term of office.

(a) (b) (c)

No error

(d)

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-70) In this section you have four short passages.

After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage-I

Over-population is the most pressing of India’s numerous and multi-faceted problems. In fact it has caused equally complex problems such as poverty, under-nourishment, unemployment and excessive fragmentation of land. Indisputably, this country has been facing a population explosion of crisis dimensions. In has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress that the nation has made during the last four decades or so. The entire battle against poverty is thwarted by the rapid increase in the population. The tragedy is that while over-population accentuates poverty, the country’s stark poverty itself is in many areas a major cause of over-population.

51. What is the irony behind the over-population of India?

(a) Over-population gives birth to poverty, which (poverty) itself is the cause of over-population.

(b) Under nourishment and unemployment are outcomes of flawed economic progress.

(d) Fruits of the remarkable economic progress are trickling down to the poor.

Answer: (a)

52. What is the general tone of the passage?

(a) funny/humorous

(b) sombre

(d) tragic

Answer: (b)

53. What, in the author’s view, severely affects the economic growth of our country?

(a) poverty

(b) illiteracy

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

54. What, according to the author, is the biggest reason behind over-population?

(a) under-nourishment

(b) unemployment

(d) poverty

Answer: (d)

55. ‘It has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress’. Find antonym of the underline word

(a) coalesced

(b) compounded

(d) consolidated

Answer: (d)

Passage-2

To eat and not be eaten – that’s the imperative of a caterpillar’s existence. The leaf roller reduces its risks of being picked off by predators by silking together a temporary shelter in which to feed and rest. Adopting different line of defense, the jelly slug extrudes a sticky translucent coating that may four the mouth-parts of marauding ants. For its part, the aquatic larva, by its watery element, fashions a portable hideout from fragments of aquatic leaves. Cutting a serpentine trail as it feeds on tender young levels, the minute citrus leaf miner spends its entire larval life inside its host plant, thus kepping its appetizing body safely under wraps.

56. Which varieties of caterpillars ‘build’ shelters to protect themselves?

(a) Leaf roller and aquatic larva

(b) Leaf roller and jelly slug

(d) Jelly slug and citrus leaf miner

Answer: (a)

57. Which one of the following cater pillars produces a sticky covering?

(a) Leaf roller

(b) Jelly slug

(d) Citrus leaf miner

Answer: (b)

58. Which one of the following pairs of words in the passage describes enemies of the caterpillar?

(a) Serpentine and host

(b) Predator and marauding

(d) Predator and host

Answer: (b)

59. Which one of the following makes itself unpalatable?

(a) Leaf roller

(b) Jelly slug

(d) Leaf miner

Answer: (b)

60. The main idea of the passage is that caterpillars

(a) like to eat a lot

(b) have to protect themselves while feeding

(d) are not good to eat

Answer: (b)

Passage-3

I have always opposed the idea of dividing the world into the Orient and the Occident. It is, however, the tremendous industrial growth that has made the West what it is. I think the difference, say, between India and Europe in the 12th of 13th century would not have been very great. Difference have been intensified by this process f industrialization which has promoted material well-being tremendously and which is destroying the life of the mind, which is in a process of deterioration, chiefly because the environment that has been created by it does not give time or opportunity to individuals to think. If the life of the mind is not encouraged, then inevitably civilization collapses.

61. The words ‘the Orient and the Occident’ mean

(a) the West and the East respectively

(b) the East and the West respectively

(d) the South and the North respectively

Answer: (b)

62. The author believes that the difference between India and Europe in the 12th or 13th century was not very great because

(a) Indian and Europeans mixed freely

(b) Indians imitated the European way of living

(d) Industrialization had not yet taken place

Answer: (d)

63. In the opinion of the author, Industrialization is

(a) an absolute blessing

(b) an absolute curse

(d) more of a curse than a blessing

Answer: (d)

64. The author says that the mental life of the world is in a process of deterioration because the modern generation is

(a) endowed with low mental powers

(b) too lazy to exert its mental powers

(d) brought up in an environment unfavourable to the growth of the mental life

Answer: (d)

65. The title that best expresses the central idea of the passage is

(a) difference between the Occident and the Orient

(b) impact of Industrialization on our civilization

(d) disadvantages of Industrialization

Answer: (b)

Passage-4

In Delhi, it was forbidden by the law, at one time, to take a Dog into a public vehicle. One day a lady, accompanied by a pet dog, entered a bus. Wishing to evade the law, she placed her tiny dog in her dress pocket. It so happened that the person next to this lady was a pick-rocket; and during the journey he carefully placed his hand into her pocket in search of her purse. Great was the horror to find instead a pair of sharp teeth inserted into this fingers. His exclamation of pain and surprise drew the attention of other passengers to him.

66. Once the law in Delhi did not permit the people to

(a) carry dogs into private vehicles

(b) board a bus without ticket

(d) carry animals with them

Answer: (c)

67. In order to evade the law, the lady

(a) hid the dog under seat

(b) got off the bus

(d) put the dog in the her pocket

Answer: (d)

68. The pick-pocket travelling with lady

(a) reported the matter to the conductor

(b) put his hand in her pocket

(d) asked the lady to get off

Answer: (b)

69. Which one of the following correctly expresses the meaning of ‘whishing to evade the law’?

(a) Wish to avoid following the law

(b) Desire to follow the law blindly

(d) Wish to change the law

Answer: (a)

70. Why did the pick-pocket exclaim with pain?

(a) He was hit by the lady

(b) He was caught by the fellow-passengers

(d) He fell of the bus

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 71-80) In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.

71. S1 : First and foremost, there are order and safety in our civilization.

S6 : Nobody may come and break into my house and steal my goods.

P : Thus in disputes between man and man, right has taken the place of might.

Q : If today I have a quarrel with another man, I do not get beaten merely because I am physically weaker.

R : I go to law and the law will decide fairly between the two of us.

S : Moreover, the law protects me from robbery and violence.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R Q P S

(b) S R Q P

(d) P R S Q

Answer: (c)

72. S1 : In democratic countries, men are equal before the law.

S6: And they live like this not for fun, but because they are too poor to afford another room.

P : While some few people live in luxury, many have not enough to eat, drink and water

Q : There are many families of live or six persons who live in a single room.

R : But the sharing-out of money which means the sharing-out of food and clothing and houses is still very unfair.

S : In this room they sleep and dress and wash and eat and in this same room they die.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R P Q S

(b) P R S Q

(d) S P R Q

Answer: (a)

73. S1: Tomorrow it will be a year since we lost great leader.

S6: Though he is no more with us, the qualities he possessed and the ideals he cherished remain with us.

P : To these he added a feminine sensitiveness to atmosphere.

Q : He was involved in the major events of his time.

R : He participated in them all while maintaining the highest standards of public conduct.

S : He was incomparably the greatest figure in our history – a man of dynamic force, intellectual power and profound vision.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P S R Q

(b) R Q P S

(d) S P Q R

Answer: (d)

74. S1: It would be possible to adduce may examples showing what could be done with the limited means at our ancestor’s disposal in the way of making life comfortable.

S6 : I hope, in t his essay, to make that connection manifest.

P : What have comfort and cleanliness to do witih politics, morals and religion?

Q : But look more closely and you will discover that there exists the closest connection between the recent growth of comfort and the recent history of ideas.

R : They show that if they lived in fifth and discomfort, it was because fifth and discomfort fitted in which their principles, political, moral and religious.

S : At a first glance one would say that there could be no casual connection between arm chairs and democracies, sofas and the family system, hot baths and religious orthodoxy.

The correct sequence should b e

(a) P R Q S

(b) R P S Q

(d) Q S P R

Answer: (c)

75. S1 : To most people, the term technology conjures up images of mills or machines.

S6: It includes to make chemical reactions occurs, ways to breed fish, plant forests or teach history.

P : The classic symbol of technology is still the assembly line created by Henry Ford half a century ago.

R : Moreover, technology includes techniques, as well as the machines that may or may not be necessary to apply them.

S : This symbol, however, has always been inadequate, for technology has always been more than factories and machines.

The correct sequence should be

(a) S P R Q

(b) P S Q R

(d) Q S R P

Answer: (b)

76. S1 : I was the secretary of the Philosophical Society of the Patna College.

S6: I have been to Kolkata many times since, but never has it been more pleasant than that first visit.

P : It was my first visit to the city and its impression on my mind was indelible.

Q : In that capacity, I once led a trip to Kolkata.

R : I felt I had landed in the midst of beautiful dream world of a fairy land.

S : I saw the roads, the trams, the skyscrapers and the magnificent shops at the Chowranghee lane.

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q P S R

(b) P S Q R

(d) S Q R P

Answer: (a)

77. S1: Union Finance Ministry announced a series of concessions to trade and industry last month.

S6: Manufacturers feel that prices of certain components may not be brought down because of the imposition of a 30% duty where there was none earlier.

P : Together, these will result in a loss of revenue of Rs 100 crore to the exchequer.

Q : Earlier, these were attracting customs duty varying from zero to 100%.

R : The chunk of the relief of Rs 60 crore has gone to the electronics industry.

S: Raw materials and piece parts now carry customs duty of 30% and 40% and valorem respectively.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R S Q P

(b) P R S Q

(d) Q P R S

Answer: (b)

78. S1 : At four O’clock this morning, Hitler attacked and invaded Russia.

S6: Under its cloak of false confidence, the German armies drew up in immense strength along a line which stretches from the White Sea to the Black Sea.

P : No complaint had been made by Germany of its non0fullfilment.

Q : All his usual formalities of perfidy were observed with scrupulous technique.

R : No one could have expected that Hitler would do it.

S : A non-aggression treaty had been solemnly signed and was in force between the two countries.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R Q S P

(b) R S Q P

(d) Q P S R

Answer: (a)

79. S1: Roderick Usher has always been a quiet person who talked little of himself.

S6: In the part of the country where he lived, the ‘House of Usher’ had come to mean both the family and its ancestral mansion.

P : Many of his ancestors had been famous for their artistic and musical abilities.

Q : Others were known for their exceptional generosity and charity.

R : Yet I did know that his family was an old one.

S : So I did not know too much about him.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S R Q P

(d) S R P Q

Answer: (d)

80. S1 : Mass production has increased the tendency to view things as useful rather than delightful.

S6 : Indeed a lowering of quality usually results when mass production is substituted for more primitive methods.

P : These various things share northing with the buttons except money value.

Q : All the rest you wish to exchange for food, shelter and many other things.

R : Suppose you are a manufacturer of buttons : however excellent your buttons may be, you do not want more than a few for your own use.

S : And it is not even the money value of the buttons that is important to you : what is important is profit which may be increased by lowering their quality.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) R Q P S

(d) Q R P S

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Each item in this section consist of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response.

81. It was a mystery as to where the young girl had acquired such naïve

(a) credulous

(b) childlike

(d) innocent

Answer: (c)

82. It’s the only treatment suitable for cancer.

(a) insufficient

(b) impertinent

(d) congenial

Answer: (a)

83. Some of the criticisms which they had to put up were very unfair.

(a) scold

(b) scorn

(d) censure

Answer: (c)

84. I would beg of all friends not to rush to Birla house nor try to dissuade me or be anxious about me.

(a) certain

(b) composed

(d) heedless

Answer: (b)

85. It could not have been expected that, with such a bent of mind of the people, there should have been much activity for the cultivation of the physical sciences in this part of the world.

(a) dull

(b) dormant

(d) idle

Answer: (c)

86. Indian culture has been from time immemorial, of a peculiar cast and mould.

(a) common

(b) customary

(d) familiar

Answer: (a)

87. The princess charming was the centre of attraction today.

(a) enchanting

(b) hypnotic

(d) fascinating

Answer: (c)

88. Macbeth is a/an abominable

(a) abhorrent

(b) repugnant

(d) attractive

Answer: (c)

89. Terrorists profess fanatical

(a) bigoted

(b) militant

(d) fervid

Answer: (c)

90. Rakesh is vulnerable to political pressure.

(a) weak

(b) unguarded

(d) resilient

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words for group of word given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.

91. In the face of the overwhelming mass of evidence against him, we cannot ……… him of the crime.

(a) punish

(b) absolve

(d) ignore

Answer: (b)

92. I hope that the rain will ……… for our picnic tomorrow.

(a) keep off

(b) put off

(d) stay out

Answer: (d)

93. After the marathon, some of the competitors felt completely … .

(a) cut up

(b) done in

(d) run out

Answer: (b)

94. Scarcely …………. the teacher entered the class when he heard the noise.

(a) did

(b) has

(d) will have

Answer: (c)

95. I do not think he will ever …….. the shock of his wife’s death.

(a) get by

(b) get off

(d) get over

Answer: (d)

96. It is not use in crying over ……… .

(a) spoiled milk

(b) spirited milk

(d) spilt milk

Answer: (d)

97. You must go to the station now, your brother …………… go just yet as his train leaves after three hours.

(a) shouldn’t

(b) mustn’t

(d) needn’t

Answer: (d)

98. Every rash driver becomes a ………. killer.

(a) sure

(b) reckless

(d) powerful

Answer: (c)

99. The country owes a deep debt of ………. for the freedom fighters.

(a) patriotism

(b) sincerity

(d) gratitude

Answer: (d)

100. The whole lot young men was very enthusiastic but your friend alone was ……….. .

(a) quarrelsome

(b) complaining

(d) sleepy

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-110) Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response.

101. A truly respectable old man is a ripe

(a) senior

(b) mature

(d) seasoned

Answer: (b)

102. The soldiers repulsed the enemy.

(a) defeated

(b) destroyed

(d) repelled

Answer: (d)

103. She deftly masked her feelings.

(a) hid

(b) flaunted

(d) obscured

Answer: (a)

104. Vendors must have license.

(a) One who drives a car

(b) One who works in a hospital

(d) One engaged in selling

Answer: (d)

105. They will not admit children under fourteen.

(a) avow

(b) receive

(d) concede

Answer: (c)

106. The jewels have been stolen from her bedroom.

(a) embezzled

(b) asserted

(d) abdicated

Answer: (a)

107. The soldier showed an exemplary

(a) flawed

(b) faulty

(d) boisterous

Answer: (c)

108. They served fruits after the dinner.

(a) assisted

(b) obliged

(d) offered

Answer: (d)

109. the committee should recommend his name to the government.

(a) praise

(b) advise

(d) suggest

Answer: (d)

110. Can medicines save us from death?

(a) hide

(b) rescue

(d) liberate

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-120) Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the pars of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled, P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

111. P : the British manufactures

Q : popularity of Indian textiles

R : were jealous of the

S : from the very beginning

The correct answer should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S P Q R

(d) Q R S P

Answer: (c)

112. P : dress fashions changed and light cotton

Q : of the English

R : textiles began to replace

S : the coarse woolens

The correct answer should be

(a) P R S Q

(b) R S P Q

(d) S P R Q

Answer: (a)

113. P : put pressure on their government

Q : Indian goods in England

R : the British manufacturers

S : to restrict and prohibit

The correct answer should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S P R Q

(d) Q R S P

Answer: (c)

114. P : however

Q : still held their own in foreign markets

R : in spite of these laws

S : India silk and cotton textiles

The correct answer should be

(a) Q P R S

(b) S P R Q

(d) R P S Q

Answer: (d)

115. P : and it led to rapid economic development

Q : the Industrial Revolution

R : transformed the British

S : society in a fundamental manner

The correct answer should be

(a) S P R Q

(b) Q P R S

(d) S R P Q

Answer: (c)

116. P : Muhammad Iqbal

Q : the philosophical and religious outlook of people through his poetry

R : profoundly influenced

S : one of the greatest poets of modern India

The correct answer should be

(a) Q R S P

(b) S R Q P

(d) S P R Q

Answer: (d)

117. P : to accept any of the important

Q : disillusionment

R : demands of the nationalists produced

S : the failure of the British government

The correct answer should be

(a) S P R Q

(b) P Q R S

(d) Q R P S

Answer: (a)

118. P : showed that a backward

Q : the rise of

R : modern Japan after 1868

S : Asian country could develop itself without Western control

The correct answer should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S R Q P

(d) Q R P S

Answer: (d)

119. P : and the current Hindu emphasis

Q : and urged the people to imbibe the spirit of free-thinking

R : or rituals, ceremonies and superstitions.

S : Vivekananda condemned the caste system

The correct answer should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S P R Q

(d) R P S Q

Answer: (b)

120. John

P : who was hardly six months old

Q : Charles

R : as his son

S : adopted

The correct answer should be

(a) S Q R P

(b) P S Q R

(d) P R S Q

Answer: (a)

UPSC Central Armed Police Forces Assistant Commandant Examination Held on 23-07-2017 General Ability and Intelligence Question Paper With Answer Key

January 23, 2021May 11, 2018 by suresh84

UPSC Central Armed Police Forces Assistant Commandant Examination Held on 23-07-2017

General Ability and Intelligence

1. Which of the following statement about the Equatorial region are correct?

(1) It is a megathermal region

(2) It is a sclerophyll region.

(3) It is a region of high development.

(4) It is a region of aerial streamlets.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

2. Which one of the following statements about the Himalayas is not correct?

(A) They are young fold mountains

(B) They have geosynclinals rocks

(D) Indus and Sutlej rivers form antecedent drainage in Himalaya

Answer: (C)

3. Which one of the following is NOT a favourable condition for occurrence of a thunderstorm?

(A) Conditional and convective instability

(B) Adequate supply of moisture in the lower atmosphere

(D) A synoptic situation of low level convergence and upper level divergence

Answer: (B)

4. The ecological niche of an organism relates to-

(A) specific habitat of the organism

(B) symbiotic relationship with other organisms

(D) its interaction with all other organisms

Answer: (A)

5. Free swimming macroscopic animals in an aquatic environment are referred to as-

(A) Plankton

(B) Periphyton

(D) Nekton

Answer: (D)

6. The term Biomagnifications is referred to as-

(A) increase in the body weight

(B) uncontrolled growth of harmful organisms

(D) increase in the number of bacteria in a culture medium

Answer: (C)

7. Which one of the following statements about air pollution caused by diesel engines is correct?

(A) It produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower and high temperatures

(B) It produces large quantity of nitrogen oxides at lower and high temperatures

(D) It products large quantity of nitrogen oxides at lower temperature and carbon monoxide at high temperature

Answer: (B)

8. In an election which was contested by two candidates, X and Y, 4000 votes were polled. Suppose that every vote was polled in favour of either of the two candidates. Y got 40% of vote polled and was defeated. What was the margin of defeat?

(A) 500 votes

(B) 800 votes

(D) 1600 votes

Answer: (B)

9. The average of 7 consecutive odd number is M. If the next 3 odd numbers are also included, the average-

(A) remains unchanged

(B) increases by 1.5

(D) increases by 3

Answer: (D)

Directions – The next three items are based on the information provided below-

10. What is the percentage increase in investment in the Electrical sector from 2005-06 to 2009-10?

(A) 30%

(B) 40%

(D) 60%

Answer: (D)

11. During the given years, what is the average investment per year for the services sector (in Rupees Hundred Crore)?

(A) 490

(B) 550

(D) 670

Answer: (B)

12. During which one of the following years, was the total investment maximum?

(A) 2006-07

(B) 2007-08

(D) 2009-10

Answer: (D)

13. Which one of the following is a major effect of the long term consumption of drinking water containing little (less than 0.5 ppm) or no fluoride?

(A) Cavity of tooth

(B) Erosion of nail

(D) Mottling of tooth

Answer: (C)

14. Carborundum is used as an abrasive, because it-

(A) has high thermal conductivity

(B) has low coefficient of expansion

(D) is extremely hard

Answer: (D)

15. Which one of the following is NOT decomposed by bacterial action?

(A) Vegetable remains

(B) Plastic materials

(D) Wastes of flowers

Answer: (B)

16. Two positions of a dice with 1 to 6 dots on its side are shown below :

If the dice is resting on the side with three dots, what will be the number of dots on the side at the top?

(A) 1

(B) 1 or 5

(D) 2 or 5

Answer: (B)

17. Consider the following figure –

What is the number of rectangles which are not squares in the above figure?

(Given that ABCD is a square and E, F, G, H are mid-points of its sdies)

(A) 14

(B) 16

(D) 21

Answer: (B)

18. Consider the following number-

n = [(63.74)¹⁷⁹³ × (625)³¹⁷ × (313)⁴⁹]

Which one of the following is the digit at the unit place of n?

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) 5

Answer: (A)

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-

List-I

(Bird Sanctuary)

(a) Sultanpur

(b) Kulik

(d) Attiveri

List-II

(State)

(1) West Bengal

(2) Haryana

(3) Uttar Pradesh

(4) Karnataka

(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 4

(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4

(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 2

Answer: (A)

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-

List-I

(National Park)

(a) Corbett (b) Neora Valley

(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 4

(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4

(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 2

Answer: (D)

21. Consider the following statements-

(1) Areas where rainfall exceeds 250 cm

(2) Annual temperature 25°C – 27°C

(3) Average humidity exceeds 75%

(4) Trees do not shed the leaves

To which one of the following types of vegetation does the above represent?

(A) Tropical wet evergreen

(B) Tropical semi evergreen

(D) Tropical dry evergreen

Answer: (A)

22. Which of the following statements related to tribes in India are correct?

(1) Tharu tribes are found in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

(2) Irula, Chenchu and Sumali tribes are found in Kerala.

(3) Garasia tribes are found in Goa.

(4) Gaddi tribes are nomadic herders of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C)

23. Consider the following statements about ‘Ring of Fire’-

(1) It is also known as circum-Pacific belt of volcanoes.

(2) It is an active seismic zone.

(3) It is a zone of divergent plate margin.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

24. The Bum La Pass is located in

(A) Sikkim

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Uttarakhand

Answer: (B)

25. Which one of the following is located at the southernmost latitude?

(A) South Africa

(B) Australia

(D) Polynesia

Answer: (C)

26. In which one of the following buildings the first extant true arch is found?

(A) Arhai din ka Jhonpra

(B) Quwwat ul Islam Mosque

(D) Alai Darwaza

Answer: (D)

27. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) Sharaf Qai was a minister of Allauddin Khalji

(B) Under Giyasuddin Tughluq Muqtis were warned not to ill-treat any of their officials for small amounts taken over and above their salaries

(D) Marco Polo has not mentioned about Pearl Fishery of Tuticorin in South India

Answer: (D)

28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-

List-I (Book)

(a) The World As I See it

(b) How to Live Longer and Feel Better

(d) Indomitable Spirit

List-II (Author)
(1) APJ Abdul Kalam

(2) Stephen Hawking

(3) Albert Einstein

(4) Linus Pauling

(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 4

(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3

(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3

Answer: (A)

29. Which one of the following countries has officially recognized Bitcoin as a legal payment method since Ist April, 2017?

(A) Japan

(B) China

(D) India

Answer: (A)

30. Consider the following passage and indentify the person-

Born in April 1932, she was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist. She was recognized as an innovative exponent of the Jaipur Gharana. She was awarded Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan. She was also a Fellow of Sangeet Natak Academy. She died in April 2017.

(A) Mrinalini Sarabhai

(B) Mogubai Kurdikar

(D) MS Subbulakshmi

Answer: (C)

31. Which one of the following is the winner of the Vijaya Hazare Trophy 2017?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Karnataka

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (D)

32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-

List-I

(a) Rangarajan Committee

(b) Narsimhan Committee

(d) Malhotra Committee

List-II

(Subject)

(1) Tax Reform

(2) Insurance Reform

(3) Disinvestment of shares in PSEs

(4) Banking Sector Reform

(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3

(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3

(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2

Answer: (C)

33. To which of the following sectors of the economy, the activity of agriculture and services belong to?

(A) Primary and Tertiary respectively

(B) Primary and Secondary respectively

(D) Secondary and Quaternary respectively

Answer: (A)

34. Which one of the following statements about Allahabad Prashasti is correct?

(A) It clearly presents the Gupta empire as the epicenter of a complex web of varied political relationships

(B) Line 15 of it refers to the capturing a king of the Kota family

(D) Line 20 refers to rulers offering tribute, obeying the orders of the Gupta King

Answer: (A)

35. Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period is NOT correct?

(A) Forced labour (Vishti) became more common than before in this period

(B) A passage in the Vishnu Purana refers to the Guptas enjoying all the territories along the Ganga up to Prayaga

(C) The Mehrauli inscription suggests that Chandragupta fought against a confederacy of enemies in Bengal and also led a campaign into the Punjab

(D) Saurashtra was not a part of the Gupta Empire

Answer: (D)

36. Which one of the following statements about the Sukanya Samridhi Scheme is NOT correct?

(A) Only parents of girls up to the age of 10 years can open such accounts in their daughters name

(B) Contributions are eligible for tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act

(D) A maximum of Rs 1.50 lakh per annum can be invested in this account

Answer: (C)

37. Which of the following are the reforms introduced in Budget 2017-2018?

(1) Presentation of Budget advanced to 1st February to enable the Ministries to operationalise all activities from the commencement of the financial year.

(2) Merger of Railway Budget with General Budget to bring Railways to the centre stage of Government’s Fiscal Policy.

(3) Removal of plan and non-plan classification of expenditure to facilitate a holistic view of allocations for Sectors and Ministries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (C)

38. ‘Nomadic Elephant’ is a joint military exercise between India and-

(A) China

(B) Mongolia

(D) Bhutan

Answer: (B)

39. Which one of the following artificial sweeteners is modified sugar?

(A) Aspartame

(B) Saccharin

(D) Alitame

Answer: (C)

40. Which one of the following polymers is made of protein?

(A) Rubber

(B) Cotton

(D) Jute

Answer: (C)

41. Which of the following diseases are caused by the consumption of water contaminated by mercury and nitrate?

(A) Minmata disease and Osteoporosis

(B) Osteoporosis and Blue Baby Syndrome

(D) Osteoporosis and Minamata disease

Answer: (C)

42. Leakage of which one of the following gases has caused Bhopal Gas Tragedy in the year 1984?

(A) Methyl isocyanate

(B) Hexamethylene diisocyanate

(D) Isothio cyanate

Answer: (A)

43. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interes for 2 years on a sum of money is Rs 60. If the simple interest for 2 years is Rs 1440, what is the rate of interest?

(A)

(B)

(D)

Answer: (D)

44. A, B, C, D, E and F compared their marks is an examination and found that A obtained the highest marks, B obtained more marks than, D, C obtained more than at least two others and E had not obtained the lowest marks.

Consider the following statements-

Statement 1 : At least two members obtained less marks than C.

Statement 2 : E and F obtained the same marks.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are sufficient to identify the one with the lowest marks?

(A) Both 1 and 2

(B) Neither 1 nor 2

(D) 2 only

Answer: (D)

45. Two men set out at the same time to walk towards each other from points A and B; 72 km apart. The first man walks at the speed of 4 kmph while the second walks 2 km in the first hour, in the second hour, 3 km in the third hour, and so on. The two men will meet-

(A) in 8 hours

(B) nearer to A than B

(D) midway between A and B

Answer: (D)

46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given b below the Lists-

List-I

(Hydro Power Project)

(a) Maithon project

(b) Salal project

List-II

(River)

(1) Chambal river

(2) Bhagirathi river

(3) Barakar river

(4) Chenab river

(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3

(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3

(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2

Answer: (D)

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-

List-I

(Vegetation)

(a) Chaparrals

(b) Maquis

(d) Malle scrubs

List-II

(Region)

(1) North America

(2) Southern Europe

(3) South Africa

(4) Australia

(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4

(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 4

(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1

Answer: (A)

48. Which one of the following tiger reserves of India has ‘Bhoorsingh the Barasingha’ as its official mascot?

(A) Nameri tiger reserve

(B) Ranthambhore tiger reserve

(D) Kanha tiger reserve

Answer: (D)

49. Which one of the following elements is present in the green pigment of leaves?

(A) Magnesium

(B) Iron

(D) Copper

Answer: (A)

50. Which one of the following is NOT correct about organic farming?

(A) It does not use genetically modified seeds

(B) Synthetic pesticides or fertilizers are not used

(D) It uses ecologically protective practices

Answer: (C)

The following 7 (Seven) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

51. Statements :

(I) Plantation farming has mostly been practices in humid tropics.

(II) The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.

Answer: (C)

52. Statements :

(I) Chameleon changes its skin colour to match with the colour of the surroundings.

(II) The skin of chameleon emits light of the colour of the surrounding through fluoresce

Answer: (C)

53. Statements :

(I) Occasionally we see two rainbows together, the primary rainbow with another less intense secondary rainbow.

(II) The secondary rainbow appears due to refraction after an internal reflection of sunlight inside the water droplets.

Answer: (A)

54. Statements :

(I) Nationalism in India, which was assigned a privileged position by its western educated political leadership, was a ‘different’, but a ‘derivative discourse’ from the west.

(II) Indian nationalism as response to western imperialism was ‘like all such responses, shaped by what it was responding to’.

Answer: (B)

55. Statements :

(I) The British legal scholars relied on Indian Pandits and Maulavis for understanding of cannons of authoritative texts.

(II) British codified the Hindu Laws in 1783 and the Muslim Laws in 1785

Answer: (C)

56. Statements :

(I) Dadabhai Naoroji argued that what was being drained out was ‘potential surplus’ that could generate more economic development in India if invested in India.

(II) Imperialists believed that India was brought into the large capitalist world market and that was in itself a progress towards modernization.

Answer: (B)

57. Statements :

(I) The Man Booker International Prize is now unlikely to be won by an English author.

(II) The Booker Prize Foundation announced that the Man Booker International Prize was to evolve from 2016 onwards into a prize for fiction in translation.

Answer: (D)

58. Which one of the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Ujjawala Yojana is NOT correct?

(A) It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL households

(B) The scheme was launched in the year 2015

(D) The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuel

Answer: (B)

59. Which one of the following portals was launched on the 250th anniversary of Survey of India?

(A) Service Plus

(B) DigiMap

(D) Nakshe

Answer: (D)

60. Which one of the following countries has been ranked as the least corrupt country in the Corruption Perception Index 2016 released by Transparency International?

(A) Denmark

(B) Sweden

(D) Norway

Answer: (A)

61. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of-

(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(B) Gorwala Committee

(D) Santhanam Committee

Answer: (D)

62. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the-

(A) Fourteenth Amendment

(B) First Amendment

(D) Ninety-Ninth Amendment

Answer: (B)

63. Which one of the following cases in the Supreme Court of India dealt with the issue of ‘creamy layer’ among the backward classes?

(A) K M Nanavati vs. State of Bombay

(B) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India

(D) Sajjan Singh vs. State of Punjab

Answer: (B)

64. Which one of the following about Cripps Mission is NOT correct?

(A) In March 1942, Cripps persuaded War Cabinet to agree to a draft declaration

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel represented Congress to negotiate with the mission

(D) The mission offered formation of constitution making body after the war

Answer: (B)

65. Which one of the following statements about the Treaty of Allahabad is NOT correct?

(A) It was signed in the year 1765

(B) The Mughal Emperor by a farman formally granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company

(D) Banaras the Surrounding tracts were detached from Awadh and handed over to Shah Alam II

Answer: (D)

66. Which among the following was NOT the provision of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?

(A) Immediate release of all political prisoners of the Civil Disobedience Movement

(B) Clause 2 of the March 1931 pact defined ‘reservations and safeguards’ to cover financial credit of India

(D) Reservation of 18 per cent seats for Depressed classes

Answer: (D)

67. Which one of the following novels won the Pultizer Prize for the year 2017 in the Fiction category?

(A) The Goldfinch

(B) All the Light We Cannot See

(D) The Underground Railroad

Answer: (D)

68. Which one of the following does NOT pass through the Kaziranga National Park?

(A) The Brahmaputra river

(B) The Diphlu river

(D) Railway track of Indian Railway

Answer: (D)

69. The US President in 2017 has signed an executive order for US withdrawal from a trade organization of the Pacific region. Identify the organization from among the following-

(A) Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC)

(B) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)

(D) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)

Answer: (B)

70. Which one of the following judgements declared that the Parliament has NO power to amend any of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India?

(A) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

(B) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab

(D) Minerva Mills Ltd. vs. Government of India

Answer: (B)

71. Who among the following leaders is associated with the concept of party less democracy?

(A) J. B. Kripalani

(B) Jayaprakash Narayan

(D) Vinoba Bhave

Answer: (B)

72. Who among the following is empowered to establish Inter State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution of India?

(A) Parliament

(B) Council of Ministers

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C)

73. Which among the following was NOT the recommendation of the Nehru Report?

(A) Dominion Status

(B) Separate Electorate

(D) Adult Suffrage

Answer: (B)

74. Which one of the following statements about the Indigo Revolt of 1859 is correct?

(A) It broke out at Poona and Ahmadnagar

(B) It was directed against money lenders

(D) It was directed against the petty Zamindars and ex-employees of the planters

Answer: (C)

75. Which of the following active step(s) was/were taken by the Congress in 1823 to eradicate untouchability from India?

(1) Effort to educate the mobilize opinion among caste Hindus.

(2) Efforts to educate the ‘avarnas’ about the evils of untouchability.

(3) Forcibly open the doors of temples for ‘avaranas’.

(4) Petition the Government to pass laws that would declare untouchability unlawful.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 4 only

Answer: (*)

76. Which one of the following instruments is used for measuring moisture content of air?

(A) Hydrometer

(B) Hygrometer

(D) Pycnometer

Answer: (B)

77. Bronze is an alloy of copper and-

(A) nickel

(B) iron

(D) aluminium

Answer: (C)

78. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what per cent would the width have to be decreased to maintain the same area?

(A) 37.5%

(B) 60%

(D) 120%

Answer: (A)

79. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened together, then after how much time, B should be closed so that the tank is full in 9 minutes?

(A)

(B) 4 min

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B)

80. One year ago, a father was four times as old as his son. After six years his age exceeds twice his son’s age by 9 years. The ratio of their present age is-

(A) 9 : 2

(B) 11 : 3

(D) 13 : 4

Answer: (B)

81. Which one of the following pairs is Island and Sea/Ocean is NOT correctly matched?

(A) Cyprus : Mediterranean Sea

(B) Falkland : Atlantic Ocean

(D) Islas Cocos : Indian Ocean

Answer: (C)

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-

List-I List-II

(Mineral) (Mine)

(a) Zinc 1. Amjhore

(b) Gold 2. Sukinda

(d) Pyrite 4. Hutti

(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3

(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3

(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3

Answer: (C)

83. As per Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct descending order of States in India in respect of sex ratio (female per thousand of males)?

(A) West Bengal – Madhya Pradesh – Uttarakhand – Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Madhya Pradesh – West Bengal – Jammu and Kashmir – Uttarakhand

(D) West Bengal – Uttarakhand – Madhya Pradesh – Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (C)

84. Liquid water is denser than ice due to-

(A) higher surface tension

(B) hydrogen bonding

(D) covalent bonding

Answer: (B)

85. Which one of the following is the chemical name of heavy water?

(A) Hydrogen oxide

(B) Deuterium dioxide

(D) Heavy hydrogen oxide

Answer: (C)

86. Who among the following has coined the term ‘Quark’, the fundamental particles that make up protons and neutrons in an atomic nucleus?

(A) Richard Feynman

(B) Murray Gell-Mann

(D) Niels Bohr

Answer: (B)

87. The mass number of an element is NOT changed when it emits-

(A) Alpha and Beta radiations only

(B) Alpha and Gamma radiations only

(D) Alpha, Beta and Gamma radaitions

Answer: (C)

88. Which one of the following is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it a perfect square?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(D) 6

Answer: (C)

89. A 3 digit number 4X3 is added to 984 to get a 4 digit number 13Y7. If 13Y7 is divisible by 11, then what is the value of (X + Y)?

(A) 15

(B) 12

(D) 10

Answer: (D)

90. If all students are boys and all boys are dancers, then which one of the following statements is definitely true?

(A) All dancers are boys

(B) All boys are students

(D) All students are dancers

Answer: (D)

91. In March 2017, a High Court in India had accorded the status of living human entities to which two of the following rivers?

(A) Brahmaputra and Ganga

(B) Ganga and Yamuna

(D) Krishna and Kaveri

Answer: (B)

92. Which one of the following statements about land tenure system is NOT correct?

(A) During the British rule in India three categories of land tenure system, viz. Zamindari, Mahalwari and Ryotwari were introduced

(B) Under Zamindari system, land was held by one person or at the most by a few joint owners who were responsible for the payment of land revenue

(D) Under Ryotwari system, the individual holders had the permanent right over land and were directly over land and were directly responsible for payment of land revenue

Answer: (C)

93. Which of the following are the necessary conditions for the growth of coral reefs?

(1) Photic conditions

(2) Clean and sediment free water

(3) Sea salinity of 6%

(4) Tropical sea water with temperature of 20°C to 21°C

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A)

94. Which one of the following diseases is caused by Cadmium pollution?

(A) Minamata

(B) Itai-itai

(D) Blue baby syndrome

Answer: (B)

95. Presence of ozone in the atmosphere is important because it absorbs-

(A) ultraviolet-A and ultraviolet-B radiations

(B) ultraviolet-B radiations only

(D) outgoing ultraviolet-B radiations and incoming ultraviolet-A radiations

Answer: (A)

96. NPP (Net Primary Productivity) is highest for-

(A) tropical forests

(B) swamps

(D) woodland and shrub land

Answer: (B)

97. Study of a single species and the environmental factors in its habitat is called-

(A) Genecology

(B) Synecology

(D) Ethology

Answer: (C)

98. In an examination, 25% of the candidates failed in Mathematics and 12% failed in English. If 10% of the candidates failed in both the subjects and 292 candidates passed in both the subjects, which one of the following is the number of total candidates appeared in the examination?

(A) 300

(B) 400

(D) 500

Answer: (B)

99. 5% of income of A is equal to 15% of income of B and 10% income of B is equal to 20% of income of C. If the income of C is Rs 2,000, then what is the total income of A, B and C?

(A) Rs 20,000

(B) Rs 18,000

(D) Rs 6,000

Answer: (B)

100. If the product of n positive number is unity, then their sum is-

(A) a positive integer

(B) divisible by n

(C)

(D) never less than n

Answer: (D)

101. Which one of the following is NOT a river covered under the Indus Water Treaty 1960?

(A) Ravi

(B) Chenab

(D) Beas

Answer: (C)

102. Who among the following are awarded with the Special Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics for the year 2017?

(A) Stephen W Hawking and Roger Penrose

(B) Ronald Drever, Kip S Throne and Rainer Weiss

(D) J. Michael Kosterlitz, Duncan Haldane and David J. Thouless

Answer: (C)

103. Who among the following Mathematician is the recipient of the Abel Prize for the year 2017?

(A) John F. Nash

(B) Yves Meyer

(D) Andrew Wiles

Answer: (B)

104. Who among the following scholars has conceptualized the Constitution of India as a ‘seamless web’?

(A) MV Pylee

(B) DD Basu

(D) Subhash Kashyap

Answer: (C)

105. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Article 15 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners.

(2) Article 16 of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only.

(3) Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B)

106. Who among the following are entitled to get the benefits of equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws as enshrined under Article 14 of the Constitution of India?

(1) All Indian citizens living in India.

(2) All Indian citizens living abroad.

(3) Foreigners living within the territory of India.

(4) All citizens born in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 4 only

Answer: (C)

107. Which one of the following statements about the English Education Act of 1835 is NOT correct?

(A) It was proposed by Governor General William Bentinck on the advice of Macaulay

(B) It made English the language of instruction in Indian education system

(C) With the formal institutionalization of English as the language of instruction, the stage was set for a new direction to Indian education

(D) To the existing Oriental Institutions fresh awards of stipends to students and the publication of classical texts were to continue

Answer: (D)

108. Which one of the following dynasties ruled under the suzerainty of Kingdom of Vijayanagar?

(A) Sangamas, Saluvas, Tuluvas and Aravidus

(B) Sangamas, Hoysalas, Aravidus and Tuluvas

(D) Yadavas of Devagiri, Hoysalas, Saluvas and Aravidus

Answer: (A)

109. Which one of the following statements about the Colonial economy is NOT correct?

(A) The British presence inhibited indigenous capitalism

(B) Laissez-faire actively promoted indigenous capitalism

(D) The Bombay hinterland was difficult to penetrate before the construction of railways

Answer: (B)

110. Which of the following statement(s) about Easterine Kire is/are correct?

(1) Born in Nagaland, she is a poet, novelist and children’s book writer.

(2) She is the recipient of the Hindu Prize for the year 2015 for her poetic novel ‘When the River Sleeps’.

(3) ‘When the River Sleeps’ was an exploration of the Naga spirit universe.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

111. Which of the following statements about the Paris Agreement on Climate Change is NOT correct?

(A) The agreement has been signed by more than 190 countries (as of March 2017)

(B) The agreement went into effect on 4 November, 2016

(C) The Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) pledge during the 2015 Climate Change Conference has been withdrawn in the Paris Agreement

(D) Both USA and China joined the Paris Agreement

Answer: (D)

112. Akshay Kumar was chosen for the best actor award for the 64th National Film Awards (2017) for his role in the Hindi film-

(A) Mukti Bhawan

(B) Naam Shabana

(D) Airlift

Answer: (C)

113. Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India is correct?

(A) Minorities can establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

(B) Only linguistic, ethnic and religious minorities find mention under Article 30

(C) Every religious denomination has unfettered right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes

(D) An educational institution established by a religious minority loses its minority status on receiving financial aid from the Government

Answer: (D)

114. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

(1) Rule of Lapse : Part of grant that can be carried over to next year.

(2) Supplementary grant : An advance grant to meet expenditures.

(3) Vote on account : granted in the course of financial year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

115. Who among the following has won the Dadasaheb Phalke award for the year 2016?

(A) K. Viswanath

(B) Shashi Kapoor

(D) Manoj Kumar

Answer: (D)

116. Which one of the following had created the office of the Secretary of State for India?

(A) The Councils Act 1861

(B) The Government of India Act 1858

(D) Montague Chelmsford reforms

Answer: (B)

117. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-

List-I

(Author)

(a) Herman Kulke

(b) Brajadulal Chattopadhyaya

(d) Sunil Kumar

List-II

(Book)

(1) The Delhi Sultanate : A Political and Military History

(2) The Emergence of Delhi Sultanate : AD 1192-1296

(3) The State in India : 1000-1700

(4) The Making of Early Medieval India

(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3

(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2

(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2

Answer: (B)

118. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-

List-I

(Official)

(a) Samhartri

(b) Samnidhatri

(d) Antaravamshika

List-II

(Office held)

(1) Chief of the Palace Guards

(2) Chief collector of revenue

(3) Treasurer

(4) Superintendent of market

(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 1

(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 1

(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 2

Answer: (B)

119. Which of the following most suitably captures the meaning and essence of ‘globalization’?

(1) It is about conducting external relations between two or more States of the world,

(2) It is a process of coming together of world-wide social relations bypassing territories.

(3) It refers to thinking transterritorially about global risks affecting people.

(4) It has a wishful vision of suprastate governance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 3 ad 4

Answer: (C)

120. Who among the following is one of the six winners of the Goldman Environmental Prize, for the year 2017?

(A) Jadav Payeng

(B) Anadish Pal

(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

Answer: (C)

121. Padma Shri Sudarsan Pattnaik is well known as a-

(A) novelist

(B) golfer

(D) sand artist

Answer: (D)

122. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of different stages of a budget has to go through in the Parliament?

(1) Presentation of the Budget

(2) Scrutiny by Departmental Committees

(3) Passing of Finance Bill

(4) Passing the Appropriation Bill

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1, 2, 4, 3

(B) 1, 3, 2, 4

(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (A)

123. Government of which one of the following States has appointed the Rajamanner Committee to study the Centre State relations?

(A) Government of Andhra Pradesh

(B) Government of Karnataka

(D) Government of Tamil Nadu

Answer: (D)

124. Which one of the following was the mandate of the Dhar Commision (1948)?

(A) To study the classification of States

(B) To recommend whether the States can be re-organized on linguistic basis

(D) To examine whether Madras City can be transferred to Andhra

Answer: (B)

125. Which one of the following pairs of term and meaning is NOT correctly matched?

(A) Khalisa : Villages whose income went directly to the State Treasury.

(B) Mauza : Rebellious territory

(D) Jagir : Territorial assignment given to Mansabdars in lieu of salary

Answer: (B)

UPSC CDS (I) Examination Held on February 14, 2016 General Studies Question Paper With Answer Key

January 20, 2021April 30, 2018 by suresh84

UPSC CDS (I) Examination Held on February 14, 2016

General Studies

1. Which one of the following is considered as ‘good cholesterol’ with reference to individuals facing the risk of cardio-vascular diseases and hypertension?

(a) High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

(b) Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)

(d) Fatty acids

Answer: (a)

2. Which of the following pairs of a vitamin and disease is/are correctly matched?

(1) Vitamin-(A) : Rickets (2) Vitamin-B₁ : Beri-Beri

(3) Vitamin-C ; Scurvy

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

3. The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the resultant

(a) energy

(b) power

(d) impulse

Answer: (c)

4. After a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof-top because

(a) water helps air around the roof-top to absorb the heat instantly

(b) water has lower specific heat capacity

(d) water has large latent heat of vaporization

Answer: (a)

5. Consider the following map of India :

The areas marked in the map given above account for the production of which one of the following cash crops?

(a) Cotton

(b) Groundnut

(d) Tobacco

Answer: (a)

6. Pir Panjal range in the Himalayas is a part of

(a) Shiwalik

(b) Trans Himalaya

(d) Lesser Himalaya

Answer: (d)

7. Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils of India :

(1) Laterite soils are generally red in colour.

(2) Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash.

(3) Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

(4) Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (c)

8. Which of the following statements regarding Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is/are correct?

(1) Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter while in Monson climate it is mostly in summer.

(2) The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean climate is higher than the Monsoon climate.

(3) Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

9. The handle of pressure cookers is made of plastic because it should be made non-conductor of heat. The plastic used there is the first man-made plastic, which is

(a) polythene

(b) terylene

(d) bakelite

Answer: (d)

10. Methyl Isocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster in Bhopal in December, 1984, was used in the Union Carbide factory for production of

(a) dyes

(b) detergents

(d) pesticides

Answer: (d)

11. The germplasm is required for the propagation of plants and animals, Germplasm is the

(1) genetic resources

(2) seeds or tissues for breeding

(3) egg and sperm repository

(4) a germ cell’s determining zone

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (c)

12. Dengue virus is known to cause low platelet count in blood of patient by

(1) interfering in the process of platelet production in bone marrow

(2) infecting endothelial cells

(3) binding with platelets

(4) accumulating platelets in intestine

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

13. The SI unit of mechanical power is

(a) Joule

(b) Watt

(d) Joule-second

Answer: (b)

14. Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if an only if

(a) there can be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures

(b) there cannot be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures

(d) their temperature are slightly different

Answer: (c)

15. ‘German silver’ is used to make decorative articles, coinage, metal, ornaments etc. The name is given because

(a) it is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of its components

(b) Germans were the first to use silver

(d) it is an alloy of silver

Answer: (c)

16. Plants contain a variety of sterols like stigmasterol, ergosterol, sitosterol, etc., which very closely resemble cholesterol. These plant sterols are referred as

(a) phytosterols

(b) calciferols

(d) lumisterols

Answer: (a)

17. With which one of the following countries, India has signed an MoU under the International Cooperation on Brahmaptura and Setlug rivers?

(a) Pakistan

(b) China

(d) Nepal

Answer: (b)

18. Headquarters of which one among the following Railway Zones in India is situated at the highest elevation from the mean sea level?

(a) East Central Railway

(b) South Eastern Railway

(d) West Central Railway

Answer: (a)

19. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of

(a) glacial topography

(b) volcanic topgraphy

(d) fluvial topography

Answer: (c)

20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter)?

(a) Mars-Venus-Earth-Mercury-Uranus

(b) Mercury-Mars-Venus-Earth-Uranus

(d) Venus-Mercury-Mars-Earth-Uranus

Answer: (b)

21. In Artificial Insemination (AI) process, which of the following is/are introduced into the uterus of the female?

(a) Egg only

(b) Fertilized egg

(d) Egg and sperm

Answer: (c)

22. Genetically Modified (GM) crops contain modified genetic material due to

(1) introduction of new DNA

(2) removal of existing DNA

(3) introduction of RNA

(4) introduction of new traits

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (d)

23. Which one of the following statements is correct? The velocity of sound

(a) does not depend upon the nature of media

(b) is maximum in gases and minimum in liquids

(d) is maximum in solids and minimum in gases

Answer: (d)

24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in nature.

(b) Sound waves having frequency below 20 Hz are known as ultrasonic waves.

(d) Sound waves with high audible frequencies are sharp.

Answer: (b)

25. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting?

(a) Vitamin-A

(b) Vitamin-B

(d) Vitamin-K

Answer: (d)

26. Vitamin-B₁₂ deficiency causes pernicious anameia, Animals cannot synthesise vitamin-B₁₂. Humans must obtain all their vitamin-B₁₂ from their diet. The complexing metal ion in vitamin-B₁₂ is

(a) Mg²⁺ (Magnesium ion)

(b) Fe²⁺ (Iron ion)

(d) Zn²⁺ (Zinc ion)

Answer: (c)

27. Consider the following statements :

(1) Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vindhyas.

(2) The peninsular India once formed part of the super-continent which included Australia, Antarctica, Africa and South America.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

28. The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in

(a) Pirotan Island

(b) Rameswaram

(d) Port Blair

Answer: (d)

29. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) The Earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3.

(2) The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4.

(3) The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4.

(4) The Earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on January 3

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (c)

30. Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin?

(a) Reunion island

(b) Andaman & Nicobar islands

(d) Maldives

Answer: (a)

31. Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following types of molecule is glucose?

(a) Carbohydrate

(b) Protein

(d) Nucleic acid

Answer: (a)

32. The living content of cell is called protoplasm. It is composed of

(a) cytoplasm only

(b) cytoplasm and nucleoplasm

(d) cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles

Answer: (d)

33. Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions in

(1) development of high-yielding crops

(2) modernization of irrigation infrastructure

(3) introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

34. A myoplc person has a power of −25 Dioptre. What is the focal length and nature of his lens?

(a) 50 cm and convex lens

(b) 80 cm and convex lens

(d) 80 cm and concave lens

Answer: (d)

35. A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is kept at 0℃. The amount of heat it requires to melt at 0℃ is (take latent heat of melting of ice to be 333.6 J/g)

(a) 750.6 J

(b) 83.4 J

(d) 3.336 J

Answer: (c)

36. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain?

(a) Oxytocin

(b) Corticotropin

(d) Cortisone

Answer: (c)

37. Which one of the following is an example of chemical change?

(a) Burning of paper

(b) Magnetization of soft iron

(d) Preparation of ice cubes from water

Answer: (a)

38. Which one of the following is the cause of long-term sea-level change?

(a) Atmospheric disturbance

(b) Change in marine water density

(d) Melting of ice sheets

Answer: (b)

39. Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra :

(1) Lohit (2) Tista

(3) Subansiri (4) Sankosh

Arrange the above rivers from West to East:

(a) 2, 4, 3, 1

(b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (a)

40. Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected towards its left?

(a) Difference in the water masses of northern and southern hemisphere

(b) Temperature and pressure variations

(d) Rotation of the Earth

Answer: (d)

41. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has

(a) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure

(b) abnormally low temperature and pressure

(d) dense cloud cover and low pressure

Answer: (c)

42. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Acid rain reacts with buildings made from limestone.

(2) Burning of sulphur containing coal can contribute to acid rain.

(3) Eutrophication is an effective measure to control pollution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

43. Which one of the following statements about bar magnet is correct?

(a) The pole strength of the North pole of a bar magnet is larger than that of the South pole.

(b) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, the North and South poles get separated.

(d) The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in magnitude and opposite in nature.

Answer: (c)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Hydrogen is an element.

(b) Hydrogen is the lightest element.

(d) Hydrogen and oxygen form an explosive mixture.

Answer: (c)

45. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Atoms of different elements may have same mass numbers.

(b) Atoms of an element may have different mass numbers.

(d) All the atoms of an element will always have same number of neutrons.

Answer: (d)

46. Which of the following statements regarding chemical industry in India is/are correct?

(1) Chemical industry is one of the oldest industries in India.

(2) Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of chemical industry.

(3) Textile industry accounts for the largest consumption of dyestuffs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

47. Which of the following statements about India’s scientific and research mission in Antarctica is/are correct?

(1) The first scientific base station in Antarctica was Dakshin Gangotri.

(2) Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as supply base and transit camp.

(3) The Maitri station is manned throughout the year for scientific activities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

48. The synthetic rubber has replaced nature rubber for domestic and industrial purposes. Which one of the following is the main reason behind that?

(a) Natural rubber is unable to meet the growing demand of different industries.

(b) Natural rubber is grown in tropical countries only.

(d) Natural rubber is not durable

Answer: (d)

49. A person rings a metallic bell near a strong concrete wall. He hears the echo after 0.3 second. If the sound moves with a speed of 340 m/s, how far is the wall from him?

(a) 102 m

(b) 11 m

(d) 30 m

Answer: (c)

50. Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in terms of their height (from highest to the lowest) from the mean sea level :

(1) Mussoorie (2) Shimla

(3) Ooty (4) Darjeeling

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 3, 2, 4, 1

(b) 3, 1, 4, 2

(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Answer: (b)

51. Consider the following statements :

(1) In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individual as well as the society.

(2) Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

52. Which of the following is/are constitutional body/bodies?

(1) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(2) National Commission for Women

(3) National Commission for Minorities

(4) National Human Rights Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

53. Which of the following statements relating to the Bandung Conference on Afro-Asian Resurgence (1955) are correct?

(1) Bandung Conference was organized by Indonesia, Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, and Pakistan in which 29 countries representing more than half of the world’s population sent delegates.

(2) The Conference reflected the five sponsor’s dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance by the Western powers to consult with them on decision affecting Asia.

(3) The Conference was concerned over tension between the People’s Republic of China and the United States.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

54. Who among the following archaeologists was the first to identify similarities between a pre-Harappan culture and the mature Harappan culture?

(a) Amalananda Ghosh

(b) Rakhaldas Banerji

(d) Sir John Marshall

Answer: (b)

55. Which one of the following is the common element between the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora and the Shore temple at Mamallapuram?

(a) Both the examples of Nagara architecture.

(b) Both are carved out from solid rocks.

(d) Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings.

Answer: (b)

56. Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput paintings?

(1) The stories of Krishna

(2) Ragas and Raginis

(3) The deeds of Hamza

(4) The deeds of Babur

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) Only 4

Answer: (d)

57. Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in the economic situation?

(a) Fourth Plan (1969-74)

(b) Fifth Plan (1974-79)

(d) Seventh Plan (1985-90)

Answer: (d)

58. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true with respect to Philips Curve?

(1) It shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation.

(2) The downward sloping curve of Philips Curve is generally held to be valid only in the short run.

(3) In the long run, Philips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the Non-Accelerating Inflation rate of Unemployment (NAIRU).

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

59. Which one of the following nations is not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union?

(a) Belarus

(b) Russia

(d) Uzbekistan

Answer: (d)

60. BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the summit held in

(a) New Delhi, India (2012)

(b) Durban, South Africa (2013)

(d) Ufa, Russia (2015)

Answer: (c)

61. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes of

(a) Regional Rural Banks

(b) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Limited (MUDRA)

(d) Industrial Development Bank of India

Answer: (b)

62. Consider the following statements :

(1) The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

(2) The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

63. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was concerned with

(a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance

(b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Justice System

(d) devising new measures for urban governance and management

Answer: (a)

64. As per the Constitution of India, the Write of Prohibition relates to an order

(1) issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authority

(2) to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try

(3) to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

65. Which one among the following was not an attribute of Samudragupta described in Prayag Prashasti?

(a) Sharp and polished intellect

(b) Accomplished sculptor

(d) Poetical talent of a genius

Answer: (b)

66. Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to

(a) Logic and Philosophy

(b) Mathematics

(d) Grammar

Answer: (c)

67. The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a standard text on

(a) Mathematics

(b) Surgery

(d) Linguistics

Answer: (a)

68. Which of the following statements are true with respect to the concept of EFFICIENCY as used in mainstream economics?

(1) Efficiency occurs when no possible reorganization of production can make anyone better off without making someone else worse off.

(2) An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF).

(3) At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)

(4) The terms such as ‘Pareto Efficiency’, ‘Pareto Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are all essentially one and the same which denote ‘efficiency in resource allocation’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

69. The first summit of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in

(a) Jaipur

(b) Suva

(d) Port Moresby

Answer: (b)

70. Which one of the following island nations went for Parliamentary elections in the month of August, 2015?

(a) Maldives

(b) Fiji

(d) Singapore

Answer: (c)

71. Which one of the following nations has faced severe economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in repayment of IMF loan?

(a) China

(b) Greece

(d) Belgium

Answer: (b)

72. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No Confidence?

(1) Morarji Desai

(2) Viswanath Pratap Singh

(3) HD Deve Gowda

(4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (c)

73. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is/are correct?

(1) The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250.

(2) In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories.

(3) It shares legislative powers equally with lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All India services.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (a)

74. Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct?

(1) The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases.

(2) The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session.

(3) The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency.

(4) The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

75. The followers of Gorakhnath were called

(a) Jogis

(b) Nath-Panthis

(d) Sanyasis

Answer: (a)

76. What were the 12 States of the Sikh confederacy called?

(a) Mist

(b) Gurmata

(d) Rakhi

Answer: (a)

77. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

(1) The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article-44 of the Constitution of India.

(2) In certain respects, the High Courts in India has been given more extensive powers than the Supreme Court.

(3) The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set-up under the Constitution of India in 1950.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

Answer: (a)

78. Which of the following is/are the example (s) of Transfer Payment(s)?

(1) Unemployment allowance

(2) Payment of salary

(3) Social security payments

(4) Old age pension

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

79. The Erawan Shrine, which witnessed a major bomb blast in August, 2015, is located at

(a) Singapore

(b) Bangkok

(d) Kabul

Answer: (b)

80. Who among the following is the first ‘Indian sportsperson to reach the finals in the World Badminton Championship (Women) in 2015?

(a) Jwala Gutta

(b) Saina Nehwal

(d) Madhumita Bisht

Answer: (b)

81. Which one of the following Articles/Schedules in the Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District Councils?

(a) Eighth Schedule

(b) Article-370

(d) Article-250

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following statements with regard to UID/ Aadhar Card are correct?

(1) It is a 12-digit unique form of identification for all residents of India.

(2) It is an identity number along with the biometric information of the individuals.

(3) It is national identity and citizenship card.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

83. Which of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct?

(1) The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 years term.

(2) The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India.

(3) The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.

(4) The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (a)

84. Human Development Report for each year at global level is published by

(a) WTO

(b) World Bank

(d) IMF

Answer: (c)

85. Which one among the following statements about the coins of the Gupta rulers is correct?

(a) The obverse and reverse, both, had only the king’s portrait and date.

(b) The obverse and reverse, both, had only an image of a deity and date.

(d) The obverse generally had king’s portrait and reverse always had a date.

Answer: (d)

86. The Agrahara in early India was

(a) the name of a village or l and granted to Brahmins

(b) the garland of flowers of Agar

(d) land of village settled by Vaishya farmers

Answer: (a)

87. Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006 are correct?

(1) The Act recognises forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying t he forest land before October 25, 1980.

(2) The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State/UT governments.

(3) The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

88. Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015)? partnering with

(a) Kristina Mladenovic

(b) Flavia Pennetta

(d) Sania Mirza

Answer: (c)

89. Who among the following is the winner of the Word Food Prize (2015)?

(a) Sanjaya Rajaram

(b) Baldev Singh Dhillon

(d) Rajendra Singh Paroda

Answer: (c)

90. In which one of the following judgments of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down?

(a) Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab (1980)

(b) Gopalanachari vs State of Kerala (1980)

(d) Tukaram Vs State of Maharashtra (1979)

Answer: (a)

91. Consider the following statements about the President of India :

(1) The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information.

(2) The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation.

(3) All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

92. In which one of the following cases, the constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan Vs Shah Bano Begum

(b) Danial Latifi vs Union of India

(d) Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India

Answer: (a)

93. Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara empire is/are true?

(1) The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaskha.

(2) Rulers used the title ‘Hindu Suratrana’ to indicate their close links with Gods.

(3) All royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit and Tamil.

(4) Royal portrait sculpture was now displayed in temples.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 4

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (d)

94. Iqta in medieval India meant

(a) land assigned to religious personnel for spiritual purposes

(b) land revenue from different territorial units assigned to army officers

(d) the rights of the Zamindar

Answer: (b)

95. Which one of the following books was not illustrated with paintings, in Akbar’s court?

(a) Hamzanama

(b) Razmnama

(d) Tarikh-i-Alfi

Answer: (c)

96. Which of the following is not a ‘Public Good’?

(a) Electricity

(b) National Defence

(d) Public Parks

Answer: (a)

97. Which one of the following is not among the aims of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-57 to 1960-61)?

(a) Rapid industrialization with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries.

(b) Large expansion of employment opportunities.

(c) Achieve self-sufficiency in foodgrains and increase agricultural production to meet the requirements of industry and exports.

(d) Reduction of inequalities income and wealth and a more even distribution of economic power.

Answer: (c)

98. The National Policy for Children 2013 recognizes every person as a child below the age of

(a) 12 years

(b) 14 years

(d) 18 years

Answer: (d)

99. Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan?

(a) Provide girl’s toilet in every school in 100 Child Sex Ratio (CSR) districts by the year 2017

(b) 100% girls’ enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020

(c) Promote a protective environment for girl children through implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act 2012

(d) Train Elected Representative/Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilize communities to improve CSR and promote girls’ education

Answer: (b)

100. Which of the following is not an objective of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) Improve the overall quality of private educational institutions

(b) Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and examination systems

(d) Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher education institutions to devote themselves institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations

Answer: (a)

101. Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is/are correct?

(1) The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article-22 of Constitution of India.

(2) The detenue has a right to challenge the detention order on the ground that he was already in jail when the detention order was passed.

(3) The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an order of the Magistrate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

102. A member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the Member

(a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected

(b) is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House

(d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/her political party

Answer: (c)

103. Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India?

(a) English

(b) Sanskrit

(d) Nepali

Answer: (a)

104. Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong to?

(a) Avadh

(b) Travancore

(d) Ahom

Answer: (c)

105. Consider the following statements about votive inscriptions in the second century BC :

(1) They record gifts made to religious institutions.

(2) They tell us about the idea of transference of the meritorious results of the action of one person to another person.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

106. Consider the following statements :

(1) Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called the Tantraloka which systematically presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems.

(2) The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in Gujarat around the eighth century is technically not a tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and practices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

107. Which of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near Money’?

(1) Treasury Bill (2) Credit Card

(3) Savings accounts and small time deposits.

(4) Retail money market mutual funds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

108. Which one of the following terms is used in Economics to denote a technique for avoiding a risk by making a counteracting transaction?

(a) Dumping

(b) Hedging

(d) Deflating

Answer: (b)

109. ‘Citizenfour’ the 87th Academy Award winner in the category of documentary feature, is based on the life of

(a) Abraham Lincoln

(b) Albert Einstein

(d) Laura Poitras

Answer: (c)

110. Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the Railway Budget 2015-16?

(a) Online booking of disposable bed rolls

(b) Defence Travel System to eliminate Warrants

(d) Bio-toilets

Answer: (c)

111. Which one of the following services of ‘India Post’ has permanently been discontinued?

(a) Money Order

(b) Telegram

(d) Inland Letter

Answer: (b)

112. The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year

(a) 1986

(b) 1992

(d) 2003

Answer: (d)

113. The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the

(a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act 2002

(b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act 2005

(d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act 2011

Answer: (a)

114. Consider the following statements :

(1) The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid details of Ashoka’s Dhamma.

(2) The Nigalisagar inscription records the fact of Ashoka having visited the Konagamana stupa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

115. Consider the following statements :

(1) The province of Assam was created in the year 1911.

(2) Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and established as an independent administration under a Chief Commissioner in the year 1874.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

116. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was the earliest first-hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and practices in India.

(2) Faxian was only 25 years old at the time of writing the text.

(3) Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing monastic rules.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 2

(d) only 3

Answer: (c)

117. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that the amount of taxes people pay should relate to their income or wealth.

(2) The Benefit Principle of taxation States that individuals should be taxed in proportion to the benefit they receive from government programmes.

(3) A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from poor families than it does from rich families.

(4) Indirect taxes have the advantage of being cheaper and easier to collect.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

118. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?

(1) Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with representatives from workers, employers and independent members.

(2) Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and Non-Journalists, all the other wage boards are statutory in nature.

(3) Second National Commission on Labour has recommended against the utility of wage boards.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

119. The rank of Major General in Indian Army is equivalent to

(a) Air Marshal in Indian Air Force

(b) Rear Admiral in Indian Navy

(d) Commodore in Indian Navy

Answer: (b)

120. Among the currently operational Indian satellites, there is no

(a) communication satellite

(b) navigation satellite

(d) Jupiter orbiter satellite

Answer: (d)

UPSC NDA/NA Examination 2016 (I) Held on April 17, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 20, 2021April 28, 2018 by suresh84

UPSC NDA/NA Examination 2016 (I) Held on April 17, 2016

General Ability Test

Part-A

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

1. Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening

(a) dangerous

(b) terrifying

(d) very loud

Answer: (d)

2. He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.

(a) usual

(b) durable

(d) some

Answer: (c)

3. When the new teachers entered the classroom, he found the pupils

(a) at rest

(b) idle

(d) impatient

Answer: (d)

4. There is no dearth of talent in this country.

(a) scarcity

(b) availability

(d) absence

Answer: (a)

5. The servants retired to their quarters.

(a) entered

(b) went away

(d) mobilized

Answer: (b)

6. The navy gave tactical support to marines.

(a) sensitive

(b) strategic

(d) expert

Answer: (b)

7. A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking.

(a) dispute

(b) disagree

(d) differ

Answer: (d)

8. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.

(a) depressed

(b) weakened

(d) defeated

Answer: (b)

9. His efforts at helping the poor are

(a) welcome

(b) sincere

(d) praiseworthy

Answer: (d)

10. His conduct brought him reproach from quarters.

(a) rebuke

(b) sympathy

(d) remorse

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence, Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions. for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response against the corresponding letter (a),, (b) or (C). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

11. When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.

(a) carried aloft

(b) carried down

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

12. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.

(a) rose another two feet

(b) arisen another two feet

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

13. One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars.

(a) seldom

(b) hardly

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

14. Applications of those who are graduates will be considered.

(a) whom are graduates

(b) whose are graduates

(d) No improvement

Answer: (d)

15. It is raining heavily all through this week.

(a) has rained

(b) rains

(d) No improvement

Answer: ()

16. The sparrow took no notice about the bread.

(a) notice of

(b) notice from

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

17. As the spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.

(a) big

(b) tall

(d) No improvement

Answer: (d)

18. We ought to stand for what is right.

(a) stand at

(b) stand on

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

19. He enjoys to tell stories to children.

(a) how to tell stories

(b) telling stories

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

20. In a few minutes time,, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.

(a) shall be waiting on

(b) shall have been waiting

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-31) Each item in this section consist of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

21. He handled the machine with deft

(a) delicate

(b) sturdy

(d) clumsy

Answer: (d)

22. I was deeply affected by his urbane

(a) rural

(b) rude

(d) indifferent

Answer: (b)

23. His timidity proved costly.

(a) arrogance

(b) boldness

(d) cunning

Answer: (b)

24. Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.

(a) significant

(b) small

(d) noisy

Answer: (b)

25. He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.

(a) occupied

(b) inattentive

(d) absent

Answer: (b)

26. These are the main points of the preceding

(a) following

(b) previous

(d) last

Answer: (a)

27. He made a shrewd

(a) clever

(b) wild

(d) discriminating

Answer: (c)

28. He is suffering from a severe

(a) violent

(b) mild

(d) continuous

Answer: (b)

29. Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs quite bad

(a) Individually

(b) Obviously

(d) Collectively

Answer: (a)

30. He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.

(a) charming

(b) ugly

(d) unnoticeable

Answer: (d)

31. He hates these continual arguments with friend.

(a) repeated

(b) irrational

(d) regular

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-40) In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for t he blank space.

32. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was ……….

(a) inevitable

(b) undeniable

(d) miserable

Answer: (a)

33. To explain his design to his visitors, the architect ……….. a simple plan on the blackboard.

(a) built

(b) finalized

(d) arranged

Answer: (c)

34. Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was ………… by the Japanese.

(a) cultivated

(b) finished

(d) enlarged

Answer: (c)

35. He is greatly admired for his ……….. behaviour.

(a) decrepit

(b) decadent

(d) decorous

Answer: (d)

36. Would you mind …….. to the Principal how the trouble started?

(a) remarking

(b) saying

(d) talking

Answer: (c)

37. Vaccination will make people immune ……………. certain diseases for a given period.

(a) against

(b) to

(d) for

Answer: ()

38. The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to …………… between them.

(a) discriminate

(b) discern

(d) identify

Answer: (c)

39. The campers ………. their tents at the base of the mountain.

(a) installed

(b) dug

(d) established

Answer: (c)

40. The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still he refused to ………. the state secrets.

(a) divulge

(b) divert

(d) invert

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence in find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicated you response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, you response should be indicated as (d).

41. She said that she was understanding his point of view very well. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (a)

42. All the houses having been washed away by the floods,

(a) (b)

the villagers sought shelter in the panchayat office. No error

Answer: (b)

43. It is necessary for us to familiarize with and get used to the ways of the people

(a) (b)

among whom we live. No error

Answer: (b)

44. The mother asked the child why did she cry out in her sleep. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (b)

45. I asked him that why he was angry but he did not answer. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (a)

46. I not taken ill, I would have sent you my research paper much earlier.

(a) (b) (c)

No error

(d)

Answer: (a)

47. The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying rats which could,

(a)

if left unchecked do a lot of damage to the crops. No error

(b) (c) (d)

Answer: (a)

48. He had gone home three weeks ago and was expected back yesterday,

(a) (b)

but he has not come yet. No error

Answer: (a)

49. We must sympathise for others in their troubles. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer: (d)

50. The scientists in America are trying for long

(a) (b)

to discover the genes responsible for ageing. No error

Answer: (b)

Part-B

51. Which one of the following oxides dissolve in water?

(a) CuO

(b) Al₂O₃

(d) Na₂O

Answer: (d)

52. To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have

(1) low cholesterol level (2) high HDL level

(3) high VLDL level (4) high LDL level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

53. Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of

(a) equatorial forest

(b) temperate coniferous forest

(d) temperate deciduous forest

Answer: (b)

54. ‘Sal’ tree is a

(a) tropical evergreen tree

(b) tropical semi-evergreen tree

(d) moist deciduous tree

Answer: (c)

55. Matter around us can exist in three different states namely, solid, liquid and gas. Correct order of their compressibility is

(a) Liquid < Gas < Solid

(b) Solid < Liquid < Gas

(d) Solid < Gas < Liquid

Answer: (b)

56. The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of

(a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction

(b) strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion

(d) molecular size

Answer: (a)

57. Consider the following circuit :

The equivalent resistant of the circuit will be

(a) 12 Ω

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

58. Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H₂?

(a) Hg

(b) Al

(d) Fe

Answer: (a)

59. Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) Only 2

Answer: (b)

60. Consider the following statements :

(1) All echinoderms are not marine.

(2) Sponges are exclusively marine.

(3) Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.

(4) Many primates are arboreal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(d) Only 3

Answer: (b)

61. Areas which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as

(a) Export Processing Zones

(b) Duty Free Tariff Zones

(d) Technology Parks

Answer: (c)

62. Deserts, fertile plains and moderate mountains are the characteristics of which one of the following regions?

(a) South-Western border along sea

(b) Coromandel coast

(d) North-Western India

Answer: (d)

63. A racing car accelerates on a straight line from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the throughout, the distance covered in this will be

(a) 625 m

(b) 1250 m

(d) 50 m

Answer: (a)

64. A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in lift. If the cable of the lift breaks sudden the weight of the man would become

(a) 70 kg

(b) 35 kg

(d) Zero

Answer: (d)

65. A given conductor carrying a current of I ampere, It produce an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. the current through the conductor is double the amount of heat produced will be

(a) 2000 J

(b) 4000 J

(d) 1000 J

Answer: (c)

66. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?

(1) DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.

(2) All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.

(3) Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel.

(4) DNA is also found in mitochondria.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(d) Only 4

Answer: (c)

67. Which organization prepares the topographical maps of India?

(a) Geological Survey of India

(b) Archaeological Survey of India

(d) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organization

Answer: (c)

68. Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?

(a) Dresden Line

(b) Durand Line

(d) 38th Parallel

Answer: (a)

69. A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm toward the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is

(a) 40 cm

(b) 60 cm

(d) 120 cm

Answer: (c)

70. The brightness of a star depends on its

(a) size and temperature

(b) size and distance from the earth

(d) size, temperature and distance from the earth

Answer: (a)

71. When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called

(a) Condensation

(b) Evaporation

(d) Diffusion

Answer: (c)

72. Which one of the following is water gas?

(a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen

(b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen

(d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapur

Answer: (a)

73. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Males are haploid.

(2) Workers are sterile and diploid.

(3) Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly.

(4) Honey is collected/made by males.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1,2, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (c)

74. The ‘Amarkantak Hills’ is the source of which of the following rivers?

(1) Narmada (2) Mahanadi

(3) Tapti (4) Son

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (d)

75. Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?

(1) Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.

(2) Summer solstice occurs on December 22.

(3) Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.

(4) Winter solstice occurs on June 21.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

76. A glass vessel is filled with water up to the brin and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Then it is kept inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?

(a) The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down

(b) The water in the glass vessel summer freezes to ice

(d) The water does not freeze at all

Answer: (c)

77. A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When turn on the switch, the ammeter connected to the circuit would read

(a) 0.5 A

(b) 2 A

(d) 5 A

Answer: (a)

78. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4, 8 ohm are connected in parallel equivalent resistance of the system would e

(a) less than 2 ohm

(b) more than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm

(d) 14 ohm

Answer: (a)

79. Suppose you have four test tubes labelled A, B, C and D. A contains water, B contains solution of an alkali, C contains solutions of an acid, and D contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?

(a) Solution-A

(b) Solution-B

(d) Solution-D

Answer: (b)

80. Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?

(1) Pesticide residues (2) Lead

(3) Metanil yellow (4) Mercury

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

81. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in

(a) Sapt Kosi Valley

(b) Jhelum Valley

(d) Teesta Valley

Answer: (b)

82. Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of

(a) Shiwalik Range

(b) Deccan Plateau

(d) Aravalli Range

Answer: (b)

83. Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The ass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Momentum of B will be double that of A

(b) Momentum of A will be double that of B

(d) Momentum of both A and B will be equal

Answer: (a)

84. During solar eclipse,

(a) the Earth comes in between the Sun and the Moon

(b) the Moon comes in between the Sun and the Earth

(d) the Sun comes in between the Earth and the Moon

Answer: (b)

85. The SI unit of acceleration is

(a) ms⁻¹

(b) ms⁻²

(d) kms⁻²

Answer: (b)

86. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?

(a) 12

(b) 6

(d) 14

Answer: (b)

87. Which one of the following is a reduction reaction ?

(a) 2Mg(s) + O₂(g) → 2MgO(s)

(b) S(s) + O₂(g) → SO₂(g)

(c)

(d) Mg(s) + S(s) → MgS(s)

Answer: (c)

88. Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A (BPA) which is endocrine distruptor and bad for human health?

(1) Steel utensils

(2) Plastic coffee mugs

(3) Aluminium utensils

(4) Water storage plastic bottles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

89. The Nagarjuna Saga Project is located on which one of the following rivers?

(a) Godavari

(b) Krishna

(d) Mahanadi

Answer: (b)

90. Consider the following statements :

(1) Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.

(2) Bundelkhand gneiss belong to the oldest Achaean rocks of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

91. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be

(a) real and magnified

(b) virtual and magnified

(d) virtual and reduced

Answer: (a)

92. A pencil is placed upright at a distance 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be

(a) real, inverted and magnified

(b) real, erect and magnified

(d) virtual, erect and magnified

Answer: (c)

93. Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?

(a) Tidal energy

(b) Geothermal energy

(d) Biomass energy

Answer: (d)

94. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?

(a) N₂O

(b) N₂O₃

(d) N₂O₅

Answer: (c)

95. Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda?

(a) Sodium bicarbonate (sodium hydrogen carbonate)

(b) Sodium carbonate

(d) Potassium carbonate

Answer: (a)

96. Which of the following statements relating to the Conptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?

(1) The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts.

(2) The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

(3) The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (a)

97. Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?

(1) A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.

(2) The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.

(3) A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds an office of profit.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) Only 3

Answer: (c)

98. Which one of the following nations adopted first democratic Constitution in September, 2015?

(a) Bhutan

(b) Myanmar

(d) Singapore

Answer: (c)

99. Who among the following was defeated Novak Ojokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles event (2015)?

(a) Tommy Robredo

(b) Fabio Fognini

(d) Pablo Cuevas

Answer: (c)

100. The citizens of India do not have which of the following Fundamental Rights?

(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India.

(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose property

(d) Right to form cooperative societies

Answer: (b)

101. Which one among the following Acts for first time allowed Indians, at theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?

(a) Charter Act, 1813

(b) Charter Act, 1833

(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861

Answer: (b)

102. Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:

(1) They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.

(2) They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large at grants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

103. After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is

(a) Jaintia, Hills, Meghalaya

(b) Koriya, Chhattisgarh

(d) Bardhaman, West Bengal

Answer: (a)

104. Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true?

(1) It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer’s rifle.

(2) It began when the Rani of Janshi declared war on the British.

(3) It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.

(4) It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (c)

105. Which of the following statements above Gandhiji’s Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?

(1) Hind Swaraj offers a civilization concept of the Indian nation.

(2) Hind Swaraj States that Parliament democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings Indians.

(3) Hind Swaraj argues that industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) Only 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

106. Division of labour often involves

(1) specialized economic activity

(2) highly distinct productive roles

(3) involving everyone in many of the san activities

(4) individuals engage in only a sing activity and are dependent on others meet their various needs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (b)

107. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?

(a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt

(b) Narendra Dabholkar

(d) Kailash Satyarthi

Answer: (b)

108. Consider the following statements :

(1) Warren Hastings set-up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law related subjects.

(2) Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

109. Consider the following statements about Sufism in India :

(1) Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.

(2) The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

110. Which of the following thinkers movements influenced the development Gandhiji’s political ideas?

(1) Henry David Thoreau

(2) John Ruskin

(3) John Milton

(4) Jainism

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (c)

111. Consider the following statements :

(1) The Arthashstra is the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origin of the State.

(2) The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origin of the State.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

112. Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after 2010?

(1) Permission of 100% FDI in automotive sector.

(2) Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49%.

(3) Permission of up to 51% FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions.

(4) Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

113. Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?

(1) Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas.

(2) Metering of distribution transformers/ feeders/ consumers in the rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

114. Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?

(1) The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.

(2) Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharashtra of Burdwan.

(3) Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj.

(4) The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

Answer: (a)

115. Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are true?

(1) To foster a mutual appreciation of each others culture and literature among nations.

(2) To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character.

(3) To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries.

(4) To organize international countries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) The following five items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below

Code

(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

(b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

116. Statements

(I) Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.

(II) The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.

Answer: (b)

117. Statements

(I) There is high salinity in Red Sea.

(II) Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.

Answer: (a)

118. Statements

(I) Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.

(II) Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.

Answer: (b)

119. Statements

(I) Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics.

(II) The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.

Answer: (c)

120. Statements

(I) India has wide variation in population density.

(II) Factors like agricultural productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.

Answer: (b)

121. A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has density of 13.6 × 10³ kg/m³. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then

(a) X = Y

(b) X = 13.6Y

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

122. Density of water is

(a) maximum at 0℃

(b) minimum at 0℃

(d) minimum at −4℃

Answer: (c)

123. The phosphorus used in the manufacturer of safety matches is

(a) red phosphorus

(b) black phosphorus

(d) scarlet phosphorus

Answer: (a)

124. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?

(a) Ripening of fruits

(b) Curdling of milk

(d) Digestion of food

Answer: (c)

125. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like

(1) nitrogen oxides (NO_x)

(2) carbon monoxide (CO)

(3) carbon dioxide (CO₂)

(4) benzene

Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human being even at very low level?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: ()

126. Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East of West :

(1) Rishikesh (2) New Delhi

(3) Patna (4) Bhubaneswar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 4-3-1-2

(b) 4-1-3-2

(d) 3-2-1-4

Answer: (a)

127. Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become

(a) F

(b) 2F

(d)

Answer: (c)

128. A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, then body would

(a) lose one-fourth of its total energy

(b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy

(d) gain three-fourth of its total energy

Answer: (b)

129. Soap is the sodium or potassium salt of

(a) stearic acid

(b) oleic acid

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

130. Mass of a particular amount of substance

(1) is the amount of matter present in it

(2) does not vary from place to place

(3) changes with change in gravitational force

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

131. Which of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?

(a) Benzene

(b) Hexane

(d) Anthracene

Answer: (b)

132. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

(a) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (d)

133. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as

(a) Dhrian

(b) Daurs

(d) Dhaya

Answer: (a)

134. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its

(a) force

(b) momentum

(d) energy

Answer: (b)

135. Which one of the following statements with regarding to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?

(a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4℃

(b) Mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating.

(d) The length of metallic wire increase when its temperature is increased.

Answer: (a)

136. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) Only 2

Answer: (b)

137. Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?

(a) Nuclear energy

(b) Potential energy

(d) Chemical energy

Answer: (a)

138. The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure

The car starts from O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are, respectively

(a) 25 km and 60 km

(b) 95 km and 35 km

(d) 85 km and 35 km

Answer: (d)

139. Jelep La pass is located in

(a) Punjab Himalaya

(b) Sikkim Himalaya

(d) Kashmir Himalaya

Answer: (b)

140. What is the number of mole(s) of H₂(g) required to saturate one mole of benzene?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (c)

141. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its content is not correctly matched?

Answer: (b)

142. Consider the following statements :

(1) The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.

(2) Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article-370 of the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

143. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

(a) President of India

(b) Prime Minister of India

(d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer: (d)

144. Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’?

(a) Shantha Sinha

(b) Kailash Satyarthi

(d) Anil Agarwal

Answer: (b)

145. Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana?

(1) Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor.

(2) Enhancing financial literacy.

(3) Provision for accidental insurance to account holders.

(4) Allowing bank accounts with zero balance.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

146. The Election Commission recognises a political party as a national party if

(1) it secures at least 6% of the total valid votes polled in four or more states in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.

(2) it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

147. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of development strategy?

(a) Development of capital goods industries.

(b) Major involvement of the State in the economy.

(d) Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector.

Answer: (c)

148. Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-17)?

(a) Faster, sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.

(b) Modernization of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure.

(d) Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning.

Answer: (a)

149. Nabhah Sprsam Diptam is the motto of

(a) Central Industrial Security Force

(b) Indian Air Force

(d) Indian Navy

Answer: (b)

150. Consider the following statements :

(1) The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article-368 of the Constitution of India.

(2) The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

UPSC 2018 Annual Exam Calendar

January 20, 2018January 20, 2018 by Krushna Chandra Satapathy

UPSC NDA-NA Examination 2017 (I) Held on April 23, 2017 English Question Paper With Answer Key

January 13, 2021January 3, 2018 by suresh84

UPSC NDA/NA Examination 2017 (I) Held on April 23, 2017

English

Part-A

Ordering of Words in a Sentence

Directions – (Q. 1-9) Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (A), (B) (C) and (D). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

1. P : Farm workers Q: spend R : outdoors most of their S: time

The proper sequence should be-

(A) P Q R S

(B) P R Q S

(D) R P Q S

Answer: (C)

2. P : He shuffled Q: the papers in a R : drawer S : together

The proper sequence should be –

(A) P Q S R

(B) P Q R S

(D) R S P Q

Answer: (A)

3. P : Do you think Q : will this R : soap S : shrink woolen clothes ?

The proper sequence should be-

(A) P Q R S

(B) P R Q S

(D) Q P R S

Answer: (B)

4. P : We advised the Q : hijackers to surrender R : to the police S : themselves

The proper sequence should be-

(A) P Q R S

(B) P R Q S

(D) R P Q S

Answer: (C)

5. P : Sports cars Q : appeal to some R : motorists only with noisy S : exhausts

The proper sequence should be-

(A) R Q S P

(B) P S Q R

(D) P Q S R

Answer: (B)

6. P : He Q : almost planned R : the entire strategy of operation S : singlehanded

The proper sequence should be-

(A) R S P Q

(B) P R Q S

(D) Q P S R

Answer: (B)

7. P : She has Q : more R : intelligence than we S : suspected her to possess

The proper sequence should be-

(A) P Q S R

(B) P R Q S

(D) P Q R S

Answer: (A)

8. P : They should Q : implant in the R : minds of young children sound S : principles

The proper sequence should be-

(A) P Q R S

(B) P Q S R

(D) P R Q S

Answer: (B)

9. P : When I was a student I Q : learnt swimming at the age. of R : 15of class X in a S : government school

The proper sequence should be-

(A) P Q R S

(B) P R Q S

(D) Q S P R

Answer: (C)

Spotting Errors

Directions – (Q. 10-14) Each item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (A), (B) and (C). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (A) or (B) or (C). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (D).

10. I can fly (A) / if I will be (B) / a bird.(C) No error (D)

Answer: (B)

11. As soon as (A) / the train arrived the passengers (B) / entered the compartments. (C) No error (D)

Answer: (D)

12. Never (A) / I have (B) / seen such a town. (C) No error (D)

Answer: (B)

13. He goes to his office (A) / by bicycle (B) / every day. (C) No error (D)

Answer: (B)

14. Far from being appreciated, (A) / his conduct was discussed (B) / and sharply commented. (C) No error (D)

Answer: (C)

Comprehension

Directions – (Q. 15-20) In this section, you have two short passages. Read the passages and answer the items that follow. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage-I

We had just passed Tenali, where I roused myself in order to hear the name of the station. As I was falling asleep again, a violent jolt shot me into the arms of somebody in the seat opposite. The engine with one wheel broken was lying across the track and beside it was the luggage van, likewise, derailed. Groaning, wheezing, gasping, sputtering in its death agony, the engine was like a fallen horse which, snorting, trembling in every limb, its flanks heaving, its chest laboring, seems incapable of making the smallest effort to struggle on to its legs again.

15. The author had roused himself as he wanted to-

(A) get off

(B) meet someone

(D) keep himself awake

Answer: (C)

16. The engine stopped because-

(A) the driver had stopped it

(B) one of the wheels was broken

(D) there was no fuel

Answer: (B)

17. The engine is compared to a fallen horse because-

(A) it was groaning like a horse

(B) it was lying across the track

(D) it had a broken wheel

Answer: (A)

Passage-2

I was beginning to tire a little now. I had been cutting steps continuously for two hours, and Tenzing, too, was moving very slowly. As I chipped steps around still another corner, I wondered rather dully just how long we could keep it u p. Our original zest had now quite gone and it was turning more into a grim struggle. I then realized that the ridge ahead, instead of still monotonously rising, now dropped sharply away, and far below I could see the North Col and Rongbuk glacier. I looked upwards to see a narrow ridge running up to a snowy summit. A few more whacks of the ice-axe in the firm snow and we stood on top.

18. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the area in which the narrator had been moving?

(A) A steep rocky slope

(B) A peak with a flight of steps

(D) A long ridge

Answer: (B)

19. “ I had been cutting steps continuously for two hours” suggests that-

(A) the climber was unskilled in the art of making steps

(B) he had to cut the steps out of snow before climbing up which was necessarily a slow process

(D) he had to work suspended from a ledge

Answer: (B)

20. “It was turning more into a grim struggle” would mean-

(A) that after the long exertion he was feeling so weak that any further climbing meant a hard struggle with the forces of nature

(B) that Tenzing was making the task more difficult

(D) that he was in a mood to give up ultimately

Answer: (A)

Antonyms

Directions – (Q. 21-25) In this section, item consists of a sentence with a word bold and if followed by four words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the bold word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

21. My first lecture in the classroom was a

(A) success

(B) joy

(D) disaster

Answer: (A)

22. It was indeed arduous to cross streets in New York.

(A) pleasant

(B) effortless

(D) risky

Answer: (B)

23. Unlike his brother he is

(A) reserved

(B) gullible

(D) lovable

Answer: (A)

24. The birth of his child decidedly proved to be an auspicious event in his life.

(A) precious

(B) ominous

(D) unforgettable

Answer: (B)

25. The witness corroborated word for word the statement of the victim.

(A) accepted

(B) confirmed

(D) repeated

Answer: (C)

Synonyms

Directions – (Q. 26-30) In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word bold and is followed by four words or groups of worlds. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the bold word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

26. It is unwise to sever diplomatic relations with a neighbouring country over small matters.

(A) engage

(B) estrange

(D) twist

Answer: (C)

27. Bad tendencies are to be countered by good ones until all that is evil disappears.

(A) opposed

(B) balanced

(D) bypassed

Answer: (A)

28. The police fired indiscriminately at the crowd, killing many innocent women and children.

(A) continuously

(B) without distinguishing

(D) rapidly

Answer: (B)

29. Businessmen who lack acumen cannot be expected to be very successful.

(A) fairness

(B) sharpness

(D) righteousness

Answer: (B)

30. His candid opinions have won him many friends.

(A) kind

(B) courteous

(D) frank

Answer: (D)

Selecting Words

Directions – (Q. 31-40) Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

31. I ………….. you to be at the party this evening.

(A) look forward to

(B) hope

(D) think

Answer: (C)

32. When I met John yesterday, it was the first time I ………. his since Christmas.

(A) saw

(B) have seen

(D) have been seeing

Answer: (A)

33. He ………. to listen to my arguments and walked away.

(A) denied

(B) disliked

(D) refused

Answer: (D)

34. The flow of blood was so ………. that the patient died.

(A) intense

(B) adequate

(D) extensive

Answer: (C)

35. You have never ………….. me about your experiences in America.

(A) said

(B) told

(D) spoken

Answer: (B)

36. I always felt hungry …………….. I heard the dinner bell.

(A) as much as

(B) as well as

(D) as close as

Answer: (C)

37. Although they took every precaution, they could not ……….. the accident.

(A) defer

(B) allow

(D) block

Answer: (C)

38. The ambitious nobleman …………. to marry the king’s daughter.

(A) transpired

(B) perspired

(D) expired

Answer: (C)

39. The dictator of that country was a monster of wickedness, insatiable in his ………… for blood and plunder.

(A) idea

(B) vision

(D) intention

Answer: (C)

40. Please don’t give me any more, I have had ………..

(A) few

(B) too little

(D) enough

Answer: (D)

Sentence Improvement

Directions – (Q. 41-50) In this section, look at the bold part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (A), (B) or (C) is better than the bold part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (A), (B) or (C). If none of the substitutions. Improves the sentence, indicate (D) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (D).

41. I disliked him not so much for his meanness but for his dishonesty.

(A) as for

(B) but because

(D) No improvement

Answer: (A)

42. He preferred death rather than

(A) for

(B) to

(D) No improvement

Answer: (B)

43. They kept the idea

(A) secretive

(B) secret

(D) No improvement

Answer: (B)

44. He ought not be tell me your secret, but he did.

(A) telling

(B) have told

(D) No improvement

Answer: (B)

45. If I don’t know the meaning of a word, I took it after in the dictionary.

(A) look it out

(B) look it for

(D) No improvement

Answer: (B)

46. Mr. and Mrs. Rao stay in their home every evening.

(A) at home

(B) inside home

(D) No improvement

Answer: (A)

47. When we saw him last, he ran to catch a bus.

(A) has run

(B) had run

(D) No improvement

Answer: (C)

48. She cut a sad figure in her first performance on the stage.

(A) made a sorry figure

(B) cut a sorry face

(D) No improvement

Answer: (C)

49. Last evening I went to the optician and bought

(A) a spectacle

(B) two spectacles

(D) No improvement

Answer: (C)

50. I would like to avail a fifteen days’ holiday this summer.

(A) to avail of

(B) to avail myself of

(D) No improvement

Answer: (B)

UPSC Assistant Commandant (BSF-CRPF-ITBP-SSB-CISF) Examination Held on July 23, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021December 4, 2017 by suresh84

UPSC Assistant Commandant (BSF/CRPF/ITBP/SSB/CISF) Examination Held on July 23, 2017

Paper I General Ability and Intelligence

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-7) The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct using the code given below.

Code

a. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

b. Both t he statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

c. Statement I is true, but statement II is false.

d. Statement I is false, but statement II is true.

1. Statement I Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics.

Statement II The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.

Answer: (a)

2. Statement I Chameleon changes its skin colour to match with the colour of the surroundings.

Statement II The skin of chameleon emits light of the colour of the surroundings through fluorescence.

Answer: (c)

3. Statement I Occasionally we see two rainbows together, the primary rainbow with another less intense secondary rainbow about 10°

Statement II The secondary rainbow appears due to refraction after a reflection of sunlight from the water droplets.

Answer: (a)

4. Statement I Nationalism in India, which was assigned a privileged position by its western educated political leadership, was ‘different’, but a ‘derivative discourse’ from the West.

Statement II Indian nationalism as s response to western imperialism was ‘like all such responses, shaped by what it was responding to’.

Answer: (b)

5. Statement I The British legal scholars relied on Indian Pandits and Maulavis for understanding of canons of authoritative texts.

Statement II British codified the Hindu Laws in 17983 and the Muslim Laws in 1785.

Answer: (a)

6. Statement I Dadabhai Naoroji argued that what was being drained out was ‘potential surplus’ that could generate more economic development in India if invested in India.

Statement II Imperialists believed that India was brought into the large capitalist world market and that was in itself a progress towards modernization.

Answer: (b)

7. Statement I The man Booker International Prize is now unlikely to be won by an English author.

Statement II The Booker Prize Foundation announced that the Man Booker International Prize was to evolve from 2016 onwards into a prize for fiction in translation.

Answer: (d)

8. Which one of the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is not correct?

(a) It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL households

(b) The scheme was launched in the year 2015

(d) The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuel

Answer: (b)

9. Which one of the following portals was launched on the 250th anniversary of Survey of India?

(a) Service Plus

(b) DigiMap

(d) Nakshe

Answer: (d)

10. Which one of the following countries has been ranked as the least corrupt country in the Corruption Perception Index 2016 released by Transparency International?

(a) Denmark

(b) Sweden

(d) Norway

Answer: (a)

11. The Central Vigilance Commission was set-up on the recommendation of

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(b) Gorwala Committee

(d) Santhanam Committee

Answer: (d)

12. The Ningth schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the

(a) Fourteenth Amendment

(b) First Amendment

(d) Ninety-Ninth Amendment

Answer: (b)

13. Which one of the following cases in the Supreme Court of India dealt with the issue of ‘creamy layer’ among the backward classes?

(a) KM Nanavati Vs State of Bombay

(b) Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India

(d) Sajjan Singh Vs State of Punjab

Answer: (b)

14. Which one of the following statements about Cripps Mission is not correct?

(a) In March, 1942, Cripps persuaded War Cabinet to agree to a draft declaration

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel represented Congress to negotiate with the mission

(d) The mission offered formation of Constitution making body after the war

Answer: (a)

15. Which one of the following statements about the Treaty of Allahabad is not correct ?

(a) It was signed in the year 1765.

(b) The Mughal Emperor by a farman formally granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company.

(d) Banaras and the Surrounding tracts were detached from Awadh and handed over to Shah Alam II.

Answer: (d)

16. Which among the following was not the provision of the Gandhi-Irwin act?

(a) Immediate release of all political prisoners of the Civil Disobedience Movement

(b) Clause 2 of the March, 1931 pact defined ‘reservations and safeguards’ to cover financial credit of India

(d) Reservation of 18% seats for depressed classes

Answer: (d)

17. Which one of the following novels won the Pulitzer Prize for the year 2017 in the Fiction category?

(a) The Goldfinch

(b) All the Light We Cannot See

(d) The Underground Railroad

Answer: (d)

18. Which one of the following doe not p ass through the Kaziranga National Park?

(a) The Brahmputra River

(b) The Diphlu river

(d) Railway Track of Indian Railway

Answer: (d)

19. The US President in 2017 has signed an executive order for US withdrawal from a trade organization of the Pacific region. Identify the organization from among the following.

(a) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)

(b) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)

(d) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)

Answer: (b)

20. Which one of the following judgements declared that the Parliament has not power to amend an of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India?

(a) Kesavananda Bharati Vs State of Kerala

(b) Golak Nath Vs State of Punjab

(d) Minerva Mills Limited Vs Government of India

Answer: (b)

21. Who among the following leaders is associated with the concept of partyless democracy?

(a) JB Kripalani

(b) Jay Prakash Narayan

(d) Vinoba Bhave

Answer: (b)

22. Who among the following is empowered to establish Inter-State Council under Article-263 of the Constitution o f India?

(a) Parliament

(b) Council of Ministers

(d) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (c)

23. Which among the following was not the recommendation of the Nehru Report ?

(a) Dominion Status

(b) Separate Electorate

(d) Adult Suffrage

Answer: (b)

24. Which one of the following statements about the Indigo Revolt of 1859 is correct?

(a) It broke out at Poona and Ahmadnagar.

(b) It was directed against moneylenders.

(d) It was directed against the petty Zamindars and ex-employees of t he planters.

Answer: (d)

25. Which of the following active step (s) was/were taken by the Congress in 1823 to eradicate untouchability from India?

1. Effort to educate and mobilize opinion among caste Hindus.

2. Efforts to educate the ‘avarnas’ about the evils of untouchability.

3. Forcibly open the doors of temples for ‘avarnas’.

4. Petition the government to pass laws that would declare untouchability unlawful.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) Only 40

Answer: (d)

26. Which one of the following is not a river covered under the Indus Water Treaty 1960?

(a) Ravi

(b) Chenab

(d) Beas

Answer: (c)

27. Who among the following are awarded with the Special Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics for the year 2017?

(a) Stephan W. Hawkings and Roger Penrose

(b) Ronald Drever, Kp S. Thorne and Rainer West

(d) J. Michael Kosterlitz, Duncan Haldane and David J. Thouless

Answer: (c)

28. Who among the following Mathematician is the percipient of the Abel P rize for the year 2017?

(a) John F. Nash

(b) Yves Meyer

(d) Andrew Wiles

Answer: ()

29. Who among the following scholars has conceptualized the Constitution of India as a ‘seamless web’?

(a) MV Pylee

(b) DD Basu

(d) Subhas Kashyap

Answer: (c)

30. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Article-15 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners.

2. Article-16of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only.

3. Article-21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

31. Who among the following are entitled to get the benefits of equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws as enshrined under Article-14 of the Constitution of India?

1. All Indian citizens living in India.

2. All Indian citizens living abroad.

3. Foreigners living within the territory of India.

4. All citizens born in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) Only 4

Answer: (b)

32. Which one of the following statements about the English Education Act of 1835 is not correct?

(a) It was proposed by Governor General William Bentinck on the advice of Macaulay.

(b) It made English the language of instruction in Indian education system

(c) With the formal institutionalization of English as the language of instruction, the stage was set for a new direction of Indian education.

(d) To the existing Oriental Institutions fresh awards of stipends to students and the publication of classical texts were to continue.

Answer: (d)

33. Which one of the following dynasties ruled under the suzerainty of Kingdom of Vijaynagar?

(a) Sagamas, Saluvas, Tuluvas and Aravidus

(b) Sangamas, Hoysalas, Aravidus and Tuluvas

(d) Yadavas of Devagiri, Hoysalas, Saluvas and Aravidus

Answer: (a)

34. Which one of the following statements about the Colonial economy is not correct?

(a) The British presence inhibited indigenous capitalism.

(b) Laissez-faire actively promoted indigenous capitalism.

(d) The Bombay hinterland was difficult to penetrate before the construction of railways.

Answer: (b)

35. Which of the following statement(s) about Easterine Kire is/are correct?

1. Born in Nagaland, she is a poet, novelist and children’s book writer.

2. She is the recipient of the Hindu Prize for the year 2015 for her poetic novel ‘When the River Sleeps’.

3. ‘When the River Sleeps’ was an exploration of the Naga spirit universe.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

36. Which of the following statements about the Paris Agreement of Climate Change is not correct?

(a) The agreement has been signed by more than 190 countries (as of March 2017).

(b) The agreement went into effect on November 4, 2016.

(c) The Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) pledged during the 2015 Climate Change Conference has been withdrawn in the Paris Agreement.

(d) Both the USA and China joined the Paris Agreement.

Answer: (c)

37. Akshay Kumar was chosen for the best actor award for the 64th National Film Awards (2017) for h is role in the Hindi film

(a) Mukti Bhawan

(b) Naam Shabana

(d) Airlift

Answer: (c)

38. Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India is correct?

(a) Minorities can establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

(b) Only linguistic ethnic and religious minorities find mention under Article-30.

(c) Every religious denomination has unfettered right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

(d) An educational institution established by a religious minority loses its. Minority status on receiving financial aid from the government.

Answer: (a)

39. Which of the following pair (s) is/are correct matched?

1. Rule of lapse : Part of grant that can be carried over to next year.

2. Supplementary grant : An advance grant to meet expenditures

3. Vote on account : Additional funds granted in the course of financial year

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

40. Who among the following has won the Dada Saheb Phalke award for the year 2016?

(a) K. Viswanath

(b) Shashi Kapoor

(d) Manoj Kumar

Answer: (a)

41. Which one of the following has created the office of the Secretary of State for India?

(a) The Councils Act 1861

(b) The Government of India Act 1858

(d) Montague Chelmsford reforms

Answer: (b)

42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

(b) A – 3; B –4; C – 1; D – 2

(d) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

Answer: (b)

43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1

(b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(d) A – 1; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2

Answer: (b)

44. Which of the following most suitably captures the meaning and essence of ‘globalization’?

1. It is about conducting external relations between two or more States of the world.

2. It is a process of coming together of world-wide social relations bypassing territories.

3. It refers to thinking trans territorially about global risks affecting people.

4. It has a wishful vision of suprastate governance

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

45. Who among the following is one of the six winners of the Goldman Environmental prize, for the year 2017?

(a) Jadav Payeng

(b) Anadish Pal

(d) Sunderlal dahuguna

Answer: (c)

46. Padma Shri Sudarsan Pattnaik is well known as a

(a) novelist

(b) golfer

(d) sand artists

Answer: (d)

47. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of different stages a budget has to go though in the Parliament?

1. Presentation of the Budget

2. Scrutiny by Departmental Committees

3. Passing of Finance Bill

4. Passing of Appropriation Bill

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

(b) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

(d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Answer: (a)

48. Government of which one of the following States has appointed the Rajamannar Committee to study the Centre-State relations?

(a) Government of Andhra Pradesh

(b) Government of Karnataka

(d) Government of Tamil Nadu

Answer: (d)

49. Which one of the following was the mandate of the Dhar Commission (1948)?

(a) To study the classification of States

(b) To recommend whether the States can be reorganized on linguistic basis

(d) To examine whether Madras city can be transferred to Andhra

Answer: (b)

50. Which one of the following pairs of term of meaning is not correctly matched?

(a) Khalisa : Villages whose income went directly to the State Treasury

(b) Mauza : Rebellious territory

(d) Jagir : Territorial assignment given to Mansabdars in lieu of salary

Answer: (d)

51. In which one of the following buildings the first extant true arch is found?

(a) Arhai din ka Jhonpra

(b) Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque

(d) Alai Darwaza

Answer: (c)

52. Which one of the following statement is not correct?

(a) Sharaf Qai was a minister of Allauddin Khilji.

(b) Under Giyuasuddin Tughluq Muqtis were warned not to ill-treat any of their officials for small amounts taken over and above their salaries.

(d) Marco Polo has not mentioned about Pearl Fishery of Tuticorin in South India.

Answer: (c)

53. Match List with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

(a) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

(b) A – 1; B – 2; C – 4; D – 3

(d) A – 1; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2

Answer: ()

54. Which one of the following countries has officially recognized Bitcoin as a legal payment method since April 1, 2017?

(a) Japan

(b) China

(d) India

Answer: (a)

55. Consider the following passage and indentify the person :

Born in April, 1932, she was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist. She was recognized as an innovative exponent of the Jaipur Gharana. She was awarded Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan. She was also a Fellow of Sangeet Natak Akademy. She died in April 2017.

(a) Mrinalini Sarabhai

(b) Mogubai Kurdikar

(d) MS Subbulakshmi

Answer: (c)

56. Which one of the following is the winner of the Vijay Hazare Trophy 2017?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Karnataka

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (d)

57. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

(a) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(d) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

Answer: (c)

58. To which of the following sectors of the economy, the activity of agriculture and service belong to?

(a) Primary and Tertiary respectively

(b) Primary and Secondary respectively

(d) Secondary and Quaternary respectively

Answer: (a)

59. Which one of the following statements about Allahabad Prashasti is correct?

(a) It clearly presents the Gupta empire as the epicenter of a complex web of varied political relationship.

(b) Line 15 of it refers to the capturing a king of the Kota family.

(d) Line 20 refers to rulers offering tribute, obeying the orders of the Gupta king.

Answer: (c)

60. Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period is not correct?

(a) Forced labour (Vishti) became more common than before in this period.

(b) A passage in the Vishnu Purana refers to the Guptas enjoying all the territories along the Ganga up to Prayaga.

(c) The Mehrauli inscription suggests that Chandragupta fought against a confederacy of enemies in Bengal and also led a campaign into the Punjab.

(d) Saurashtra was not a part of the Gupta empire.

Answer: (d)

61. Which one of the following statements about the Sukanya Samridhi Scheme is not correct?

(a) Only parents of girls up to the age of 10 years can open such accounts in their daughter’s name.

(b) Contributions are eligible for tax benefits under Section-80C of the Income Tax Act.

(d) A maximum o f Rs 1.50 lakh per annum can be invested in t his account.

Answer: (a)

62. Which of the following are the reforms introduced in Budget 2017-18?

1. Presentation of Budget advanced to February 1 to enable the Ministries to operationalise all activities from the commencement of the financial year.

2. Merger of Railway Budget with General Budget to bring Railways to the centre stage of government’s Fiscal Policy.

3. Removal of plan and non-plan classification of expenditure to facilitate a holistic view of allocations for Sectors and Ministries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (c)

63. ‘Nomadic Elephant’ is a joint military exercise between India and

(a) China

(b) Mongolia

(d) Bhutan

Answer: (b)

64. Which one of the following artificial sweeteners is modified Sugar?

(a) Aspartame

(b) Saccharin

(d) Alitame

Answer: (c)

65. Which one of the following polymers is made of protein?

(a) Rubber

(b) Cotton

(d) Jute

Answer: (c)

66. Which of the following diseases are caused by the consumption of water contaminated by mercury and nitrate?

(a) Minamata disease and Osteoporosis

(b) Osteoporosis and Blue baby syndrome

(d) Osteoporosis and Minamata disease

Answer: (c)

67. Leakage of which one of the following gases had caused Bhopal Gas Tragedy in the year 1984?

(a) Methyl isocyanate

(b) Hexamethylene di isocyanate

(d) Isothiocyanate

Answer: (a)

68. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest for 2 years on a sum of money is Rs 60. If the simple interest for 2 years is Rs 1440, what is the rate of interest?

(a)

(b)

(d)

Answer: (d)

69. A, B, C, D, E and F compared their marks in an examination and found that A obtained the highest marks, B obtained more marks than D, C obtained more than at least two others and E had not obtained the lowest marks.

Consider the following statements :

Statement 1 At least two members obtained less marks than C.

Statement 2 E and F obtained the same marks.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are sufficient to identify the one with the lowest marks?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a)

70. Two men set out at the same time to walk towards each other from points A and B; 72 km apart. The first man walks at the speed of 4 km/h while the second walks 2 km in the first hour, in the second hour, 3 km in the third hour, and so on. The two men will meet

(a) in 8 hours

(b) nearer to A and B

(d) midway between A and B

Answer: (d)

71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

(a) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (d)

72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

(a) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(b) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1

Answer: (a)

73. Which one of the following their reserves of India has ‘Bhoorsingh the Barasingha’ as its official mascot?

(a) Nameri tiger reserve

(b) Ranthambhore tiger reserve

(d) Kanha tiger reserve

Answer: (d)

74. Which one of the following elements is present in the green pigment of leaves?

(a) Magnesium

(b) Iron

(d) Copper

Answer: (a)

75. Which one of the following is not correct about organic farming?

(a) It does not use genetically modified seeds.

(b) Synthetic pesticides or fertilizers are not used.

(d) It uses ecologically protective practices.

Answer: (c)

76. Which one of the following instruments is used for measuring moisture content of air?

(a) Hydrometer

(b) Hygrometer

(d) Pycnometer

Answer: (b)

77. Bronze is an alloy of copper and

(a) nickel

(b) iron

(d) aluminium

Answer: (c)

78. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent would the width have to be decreased to maintain the same area?

(a) 37.5%

(b) 60%

(d) 120%

Answer: (a)

(a)

(b) 4 min

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

80. One year ago, a father was four times as old as his son. After six years his age exceeds twice his son’s age by 9 years. The ratio of their present age is

(a) 9 : 2

(b) 11 : 3

(d) 13 : 4

Answer: (b)

81. Which one of the following pairs of Island and Sea/Ocean is not correctly matched?

(a) Cyprus : Mediterranean Sea

(b) Falkland : Atlantic Ocean

(d) Islas Cocos : Indian Ocean

Answer: (c)

82. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 1; B – 2; C – 4; D – 3

(b) A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1

(d) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3

Answer: (c)

83. As per Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct descending order of States in India in respect of sex ratio (female per thousand of males)?

(a) West Bengal-Madhya Pradesh-Uttarakhand-Jammu and Kashmir

(b) Madhya Pradesh-West Bengal-Jammu and Kashmir-Uttarakhand

(d) West Bengal-Uttarakhand-Madhya Pradesh-Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (c)

84. Liquid water is denser than ice due to

(a) higher surface tension

(b) hydrogen bonding

(d) covalent bonding

Answer: (b)

85. Which one of the following is the chemical name of heavy water?

(a) Hydrogen oxide

(b) Deuterium dioxide

(d) Heavy hydrogen oxide

Answer: (c)

86. Who among the following has coined the term ‘Quark’, the fundamental particles that make up protons and neutrons in an atomic nucleus?

(a) Richard Feynman

(b) Murray Gell-Mann

(d) Niels Bohr

Answer: (b)

87. The mass number of an element is not changed when it emits

(a) Alpha and Bea radiations only

(b) Alpha and Gamma radiations only

(d) Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations

Answer: (c)

88. Which one of the following is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it a perfect square ?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(d) 6

Answer: (c)

89. A 3 digit number 4X3 is added to 984 to get a 4 digit number 13Y7. If 13Y7 is divisible by 11, then what is the value of (X + Y)?

(a) 15

(b) 12

(d) 10

Answer: (d)

90. If all students are boys and all boys are dancers, then which one of the following statements is definitely true?

(a) All dancers are boys

(b) All boys are students

(d) All students are dancers

Answer: (d)

91. In March, 2017, a High Court in India had accorded he status of living human entities to which two of the following rivers?

(a) Brahmaputra and Ganga

(b) Ganga and Yamuna

(d) Krishna and Kaveri

Answer: (b)

92. Which one of the following statements about land tenure system is not correct?

(a) During the British rule in India three categories of land tenure system, viz. Zamindari, Mahalwari and Ryotwari were introduced.

(b) Under Zamindari system, land was held by one person or at the most by a few joint owners who were responsible for the payment of land revenue.

(d) Under Ryotwari system, the individual holders had the permanent rights over land were directly responsible for payment of land revenue.

Answer: (c)

93. Which of the following are the necessary conditions for the growth of coral reefs?

1. Photic conditions

2. Clean and sediment-free water

3. SEA salinity of 6%

4. Tropical sea water with temperature of 20℃ to 21℃

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

94. Which one of the following diseases is caused by cadmium pollution?

(a) Minamata

(b) Itai-itai

(d) Blue baby syndrome

Answer: (b)

95. Presence of ozone in the atmosphere is important because it absorbs

(a) ultraviolet-A and ultraviolet-B radiations

(b) ultraviolet-B radiations only

(d) outgoing ultraviolet-B radiations and incoming ultraviolet-A radiations

Answer: (a)

96. NPP (Net Primary Productivity) is highest for

(a) tropical forests

(b) swamps

(d) woodland and shrub land

Answer: (a)

97. Study of a single species and the environmental factors in its habitat is called

(a) Genecology

(b) Synecology

(d) Ethology

Answer: (c)

(a) 300

(b) 400

(d) 500

Answer: (b)

99. 5% of income of A is equal to 15% of income of B and 10% income of B is equal to 20% of income of C. If the income of C is Rs 2000, then what is the total income of A, B and C?

(a) Rs 20000

(b) Rs 18000

(d) Rs 6000

Answer: (b)

100. If the product of n positive numbers is unity, then their sum is

(a) a positive integer

(b) divisible by n

(c)

(d) never less than n

Answer: (a)

101. Which of the following statements about the Equatorial region are correct?

1. It is a megathermal region.

2. It is a sclerophyll region.

3. It is a region of high development.

4. It is a region of aerial streamlets.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

102. Which one of the following statements about the Himalayas is not correct?

(a) They are young fold mountains.

(b) They have geosynclinals rocks.

(d) Indus and Sutlej rivers form antecedent drainage in Himalaya

Answer: (c)

103. Which one of the following is not a favourable condition for occurrence of a thunderstorm?

(a) Conditional and convective instability

(b) Adequate supply of moisture in the lower atmosphere

(d) A synoptic situation of low level convergence and upper level divergence

Answer: (c)

104. The ecological niche of an organism relates to

(a) specific habitat of the organism

(b) symbiotic relationship with other organisms

(d) its interaction with all other organisms

Answer: (a)

105. Free swimming macroscopic animals in an aquatic environment are referred to as

(a) Plankton

(b) Periphyton

(d) Nekton

Answer: (d)

106. The term ‘ Biomagnification’ is referred to as

(a) increase in the body weight

(b) uncontrolled growth of harmful organisms

(d) increase in the number of bacteria in a culture medium

Answer: (c)

107. Which one of the following statements about air pollution caused by diesel engines is correct?

(a) It produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower and high temperatures.

(b) It produces large quantity of nitrogen oxides at lower and high temperatures.

(d) It produces large quantity of nitrogen oxides at lower temperature and carbon monoxide at high temperature.

Answer: (c)

108. In an election which was contested by two candidates, X and Y, 4000 votes were polled. Suppose that every vote was polled in favour of either of the two candidates. Candidate Y got 40% of vote polled and was defeated. What was the margin of defeat?

(a) 500 votes

(b) 800 votes

(d) 1600 votes

Answer: (b)

109. The average of 7 consecutive odd number is M. If the next 3 odd number 3 odd numbers are also included, the average

(a) remains unchanged

(b) increases by 1.5

(d) increases by 3

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 110-112) Following three questions are based on the information provided below

110. What is the percentage increase in investment in the Electrical sector from 2005-06 to 2009-10?

(a) 30%

(b) 40%

(d) 60%

Answer: (d)

111. During the given years, what is the average investment per y ear for the service sector (Rs 100 Crore)?

(a) 490

(b) 550

(d) 670

Answer: (b)

112. During which one of the following year, was the total investment maximum?

(a) 2006-07

(b) 2007-08

(d) 2009-10

Answer: (d)

113. Which one of the following is a major effects of long term consumption of drinking water containing little (less than 0.5 ppm) or no fluoride?

(a) Cavity of tooth

(b) Erosion of nail

(d) Mottling of tooth

Answer: (d)

114. Carborundum is used as an abrasive, because it

(a) has high thermal conductivity

(b) has low coefficient of expansion

(d) is extremely hard

Answer: (d)

115. Which one of the following is not decomposed by bacterial action?

(a) vegetable remains

(b) Plastic materials

(d) Wastes of flowers

Answer: (b)

116. Two positions of a dice with I to 6 dots on its side are shown below :

If the dice is resting on the side with three dots, what will be the number of dots on the side at the top?

(a) 1

(b) 1 or 5

(d) 2 or 5

Answer: (b)

117. Consider the following figure :

What is the number of rectangles which are squares in the above figure? (Given that ABCD is a square and E, F, G, H are mid-points of its sides)

(a) 14

(b) 16

(d) 21

Answer: (b)

118. Consider the following number : n = [(6374)¹⁷⁹³ × (625)³¹⁷ × (313)⁴⁹]

Which one of the following is the digit at the unit place of n?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 5

Answer: (a)

119. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2

Answer: (a)

120. Match List with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (National Park)

A. Corbett B. Neora Valley

C. Betta D. Kanha

(a) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (d)

121. Consider the following statements:

1. Areas where rainfall exceeds 250 cm

2. Annual temperature 25-27℃

3. Average humidity exceeds 75%

4. Trees do not shed the leaves

To which one of the following types of vegetation does the above represent?

(a) Tropical wet evergreen

(b) Tropical semi-evergreen

(d) Trophical dry evergreen

Answer: (a)

122. Which of the following statements related to tribes in India are correct?

1. Tharu tribes are found in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

2. Irula, Chenchu and Sumali tribes are found in Kerala.

3. Garasia tribes are found in Goa.

4. Gaddi tribes are nomdic herders of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

123. Consider the following statements about ‘Ring of Fire’:

1. It is also known as Circum-Pacific belt of volcanoes

2. It is an active seismic zone

3. It is a zone of divergent place margin

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

124. The Bum-la Pass is located in

(a) Sikkim

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Uttarakhand

Answer: (b)

125. Which one of the following is located at the southernmost latitude?

(a) South Africa

(b) Australia

(d) Polynesia

Answer: (c)

UPSC Assistant Commandant Recruitment Examination Held on June 26, 2016 General Ability and Intelligence Paper-1 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021December 2, 2017 by suresh84

UPSC Assistant Commandant Recruitment Examination Held on June 26, 2016

General Ability and Intelligence Paper-1

1. Which one of the following figures correctly represents the relations between Jupiter, Mars and Planets?

Answer: (a)

2. Consider the following statements and conclusions :

Statements Mohan is a good sportsman.

Sportsmen are healthy.

Conclusions I. All healthy persons are sportsmen.

II. Mohan is healthy.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Only Conclusion I follows

(b) Only Conclusions II follows

(d) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

Answer: (b)

3. Which one of the following layers of atmosphere has high concentration of ions?

(a) Stratosphere

(b) Exosphere

(d) Troposphere

Answer: (c)

4. Which one of the following cities has greater annual range of temperature?

(a) Kuala Lumpur

(b) New Delhi

(d) Ulaanbaatar

Answer: (d)

5. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

(a) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1

(d) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

Answer: (c)

6. Ramsar Convention, to which India is a signatory, is related to conservation and wise use of

(a) wetlands

(b) genetic resources

(d) forest lands

Answer: (a)

7. Which one of the following rivers flows between Satpura and Vindhya ranges?

(a) Tapi

(b) Sabarmati

(d) Mahi

Answer: (c)

8. Which one of the following is the correct taxonomic hierarchy?

(a) Kingdom – Phylum – Order – Genus – Family – Class – Species

(b) Kingdom – Order – Class – Phylum – Family – Genus – Species

(d) Kingdom – Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus – Species

Answer: (d)

9. The subunits of DNA are known as

(a) Nucleotide

(b) Nucleosome

(d) Polypeptide

Answer: (a)

10. The process of using microbes to treat areas and land or sea that have been contaminated by pesticides, oil or solvents is known as

(a) Eutrophication

(b) Nitrification

(d) Bioremediation

Answer: (d)

11. How is the rate of transpiration affected by decreasing humidity and by decreasing light intensity?

Decreasing humidity Decreasing light intensity

(a) Decreases Decreases

(b) Increases Decreases

(d) Decreases Increases

Answer: (b)

12. Vaccination involves

(a) injecting the body with materials that stimulate the body to produce antibodies

(b) injecting the body with materials that stimulate the body to produce antigens

(d) use of antibiotics to cure diseases

Answer: (a)

13. Which of the following are examples of carnivorous plants?

(a) Sundew, Venus fly trap, Pitcher plant

(b) Cuscuta, Rafflesia, Mistletoe

(d) Cuscuta, Bladderwort, Mistletoe

Answer: (a)

14. Consider the following :

Which one of the following figures will come in the blank space?

Answer: (a)

15. Consider the following diagram (not in scale) :

There are seven places marked as P, Q, R, S, T, U and V as shown in the diagram. The directly connected paths between two places are indicated by line segments joining the two places along with the length labeled in km. Then, the shortest distance between P and U is

(a) 14 km

(b) 15 km

(d) 13 km

Answer: (d)

16. The number of persons reading newspaper is shown in the following Venn diagram (Survey of 50 persons)

In a population of 10000, what is the number of persons expected to read at least two newspapers?

(a) 5000

(b) 6000

(d) 5400

Answer: (d)

17. A vehicle with mileage 15 km/L contains 2 L of fuel. The vehicle gets some defect as a result of which 5 L of fuel gets wasted per hour, when the engine is on. With what minimum speed, the vehicle has to move to travel 20 km, with the existing amount of fuel, if it travels with a uniform speed?

(a) 100 km/h

(b) 120 km/h

(d) 200 km/h

Answer: (c)

18. Consider the following statements relating to Sea Salinity

1. The ocean salinity depends on evaporation and precipitation.

2. Any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity.

3. Major source of sea salinity is terrestrial discharge by rivers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

19. Consider the following statements relating to salt production in India :

1. India is the second largest producer of iodized salt in the world next only to China.

2. Salt mining is carried out in Himachal Pradesh.

3. Gujarat is the leading producer of salt in India.

4. Ground water is important source of salt in Rajasthan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

20. Which of the following statements relating to Dharwar geological system are correct?

1. They belong to Archaean geological period.

2. They are metamorphosed sedimentary rocks.

3. They are of great economic importance for its mineral resources.

4. They are found predominantly in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Jharkhand.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (b)

21. Which one of the following is the correct order of formation of geological systems in India in terms of their age? (Starting with the oldest)

(a) Dharwas – Aravallis – Vindhyans – Cuddapahs

(b) Aravallis – Dharwars – Cuddapahs – Vindhyans

(d) Cuddapahs – Vindhyans – Dharwars – Aravallis

Answer: (b)

22. A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state is called

(a) Fusion

(b) Sublimation

(d) Emulsion

Answer: (b)

23. Water at 273 K is less effective in cooling than ice at the same temperature. It is because

(a) water is difficult to handle

(b) water at 273 K has less energy than ice at the same temperature

(d) water is not a cooling agent

Answer: (b)

24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The rate of evaporation depends on temperature

(b) The rate of evaporation does not depend on surface area exposed to the atmosphere but on volume of the liquid

(d) The rate of evaporation depends on the wind speed

Answer: (b)

25. Which one of the following is not a colloid?

(a) Milk

(b) Mud

(d) Boric acid

Answer: (d)

26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

(a) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (a)

27. A device can write 100 digits in 1 min. It stars writing natural numbers. The device is stopped after running it for half an hour. It is found that the last number it was writing, is incomplete. The number is

(a) 3000

(b) 3001

(d) 1027

Answer: (d)

28. A circular coin of radius 1 cm is allowed to roll freely on the periphery over a circular disc of radius 10 cm. If the disc has no movement and the coin completes one revolution rolling on the periphery over the disc and without slipping, then what is the number of times the coin rotated about its centre?

(a) 10

(b) 10.5

(d) 12

Answer: (a)

29. Which one of the following is different from the remaining three?

(a) Triangle

(b) Square

(d) Ellipse

Answer: (d)

30. Which one of the following inequalities is always true for positive real numbers x, y?

(a) ax > x + y

(b) (x + y) < (x + y)²

(d) 1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)²

Answer: (d)

31. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Kolkata port is the only riverine major port of India.

2. The port of Cochin is located on the Willington Island.

3. Maharashtra has three major ports.

4. Mundra port is India’s major port in private sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (d)

32. Perth located on 118° East longitude, will be celebrating new year event on 1st of January 2017 at 6:00 am. At that time, what would be the time at Los Angeles located on 110° West Longitude?

(a) 9 : 12 pm of January 1, 2017

(b) 2 : 48 pm of December 31, 2016

(d) 5 : 28 am of January 1, 2017

Answer: (b)

33. Which one of the following States has the maximum number of registered e-waste

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Tamil Nadu

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (c)

34. Arrange the following substances in their order of increasing hardness :

1. Gypsum 2. Topaz

3. Fluorite 4. Feldspar

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 4-3-2-1

(b) 1-3-4-2

(d) 1-4-3-2

Answer: (b)

35. During 2014-15, in which one of the following industrial sectors, the FDI equity inflow was maximum?

(a) Telecommunications

(b) Services (Financial, Banking and Insurance, Non-financial/Business, R and D etc.

(d) Hotel and Tourism

Answer: (b)

36. Which one of the following is not an industrial corridor as per the policy initiatives?

(a) Amritsar – Kolkata

(b) Delhi – Mumbai

(d) Chennai – Bengaluru

Answer: (c)

37. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Bleaching powder is prepared by the action of Chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)₂].

(b) Bleaching powder acts as a reducing agent in many chemical industries.

(d) Bleaching powder is used for disinfecting drinking water.

Answer: (b)

38. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Graphite is a non-metal.

(b) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon.

(d) Graphite has a tetrahedral structure.

Answer: (d)

39. Consider the following physical quantities:

Energy, power, pressure, impulse, temperature, gravitational potential

Which of the above is/are the vector quantity/quantities?

(a) Impulse only

(b) Impulse and pressure

(d) Gravitational potential

Answer: (a)

40. A piece of stone tied to a string is made to revolve in a circular orbit of radius r with other end of the string as the centre. If the string breaks, the stone will

(a) move away from the centre

(b) move towards the centre

(d) stop

Answer: (c)

41. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a) The gravitational force of Earth acting on a body of mass 1 kg is 9.8 newton.

(b) The force acting on an object of mass 5 kg moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s on a frictionless surface is zero.

(d) The momentum of a man having mass 100 kg walking with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s is 200 newton second.

Answer: (c)

42. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Acceleration due to gravity decreases with the increase of altitude.

(b) Acceleration due to gravity increases with the increase of depth (assuming Earth to be a sphere of uniform density).

(d) Acceleration due to gravity is independent of the mass of the Earth.

Answer: (a)

43. A Barometer kept in an elevator reads 760 mm when the elevator is at rest. When the elevator moves in the upward direction with increasing speed, the reading of the Barometer will be

(a) 76 mm

(b) < 760 mm

(d) zero

Answer: (b)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Earth’s magnetic field is due to the motion of metals like iron and nickel in the core of the Earth.

(b) The magnetic field lines of force are widely separated near the poles of a magnet but these lines come closer to one another at other places.

(c) If the cross-sectional area of a magnetic field increases, but the flux remains the same, the flux density decreases.

(d) When the speed of a conductor moving through a magnetic field is increased, the induced voltage increases.

Answer: (b)

45. Let a resistor having 4 ohm resistance be connected across the terminals of a 12 volt battery. Then, the charge in coulomb passing through the resistor per second is

(a) 12

(b) 4

(d) 0.33

Answer: (c)

46. Arrange the following varieties of silk in India in their order of decreasing production :

1. Muga 2. Eri

3. Mulberrty 4. Tasar

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3-2-4-1

(b) 3-4-2-1

(d) 2-1-4-3

Answer: (a)

47. Which of the following are the objectives of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission?

1. To provide employment in rural areas

2. To produce saleable articles

3. To create self reliance amongst people and building up a strong rural community spirit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a)

48. Which of the following statements concerning circum-pacific belt are correct?

1. It is an active volcanic realm.

2. It is an active seismic realm.

3. It is a divergent plate boundary.

4. It is prone to Tsunami.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

49. Which of the following statements relating to solar system is/are correct?

1. Venus and Uranus rotate opposite to the direction of rotation of Earth.

2. Venus is the nearest planet to Earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

50. If a place is affected by Tide at 6 : 00 am Monday, normally at what time the same place will be affected by Ebb?

(a) 6 : 26 pm Monday

(b) 6 : 52 am Tuesday

(d) 00 : 26 am Tuesday

Answer: (c)

51. In the diagram given below, there is a circle, a square and a triangle dividing the region into five disjoint bounded areas. Each of these areas are labeled with number of players belonging to that area. The circle contains cricketers, the square contains football players and the triangle contains hockey players.

Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) Every hockey player plays football.

(b) Every cricket player plays either football or hockey.

(d) There are some football players who play neither cricket nor hockey.

Answer: (b)

52. There are two concentric circles. The radii of the two circles are 100 m and 110 m respectively. A wheel of radius 30 cm rolls on the smaller circle and another wheel rolls on the larger circle. After they have completed one revolution, it is found that the two wheels rolled equal number of times on their respective axes. What is the radius of the other wheel?

(a) 31 cm

(b) 32 cm

(d) 34 cm

Answer: (c)

53. A triangle is formed with vertices (0, 0), (0, 100) and (100, 100). What is the number of points inside the triangle with integer coordinates?

(a) 5000

(b) 4999

(d) 4800

Answer: (c)

54. Which one of the following is the wrong number in the series 6, 14, 30, 64, 126?

(a) 126

(b) 64

(d) 6

Answer: (b)

55. Given below is a figure of a square transparent sheet with a pattern

Which one of the following is the correct figure showing, how the pattern would appear after folding the above mentioned transparent sheet at the dotted line?

Answer: (a)

56. In a school, there are three batches of players, who play cricket, football and hockey. An incomplete chart of number of students playing an individual sport belonging to an individual batch is displayed in the following table

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Batch II is empty

(b) Batch I and batch II do not have equal number of students

(d) Batch II and batch III can have equal number of students

Answer: (b)

57. There are two boxes. Box I contains one white card and two black cards and box II contains one white card and a black card. Two persons P and Q play a game. P picks a card randomly from box I. If P finds the white card, P wins and the game stops. If P finds the black card, Q draws a card randomly from box II. If q finds the white card Q wins. The game stops whether Q draws the white card or the black card.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) If P loses, Q wins

(b) If Q loses, P wins

(d) Both P and Q may lose

Answer: (d)

58. Suppose R is the region bounded by the two curves Y = x² and Y = 2x² – 1 as shown in the following diagram :

Two distinct lines are drawn such that each of these lines partitions the regions into at least two parts. If ‘n’ is the total number of regions generated by these lines, then

(a) ‘n’ can be 4 but not 3

(b) ‘n’ can be 4 but not 5

(d) ‘n’ can be 6

Answer: (c)

59. Consider the following sequence : 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210

Which one of the following numbers will come next in the sequence?

(a) 240

(b) 290

(d) 504

Answer: (c)

60. Consider the following figure

Which one of the following is the number of triangles in the figure given above?

(a) 22

(b) 27

(d) 29

Answer: (b)

61. Recently French military announced to end ‘Operation Sangaris’ which was in operation since 2013, in which one of the following nations?

(a) Chad

(b) Central African Republic

(d) Congo

Answer: (b)

62. Which one of the following cities hosted the Tenth Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organization during December, 2015?

(a) Geneva

(b) Manila

(d) Nairobi

Answer: (d)

63. Which one of the following films was awarded the best children’s film in Berlin International Film Festival, 2016?

(a) Ottal

(b) Killa

(d) Hail, Caesar!

Answer: (a)

64. Which one of the following statements regarding Zika virus is not correct?

(a) It was first isolated from a monkey in the Zika forest of Uganda.

(b) It is transmitted by daytime active Aedes mosquitoes.

(d) Zika virus in pregnant women results in abnormal brain development of the fetus.

Answer: (c)

65. Which one of the following friction was selected for Man Booker Prize 2015?

(a) A Little Life

(b) The Fishermen

(d) Satin Island

Answer: (c)

66. Which one of the following is not a source of political legitimacy?

(a) Consent

(b) Rational prudence

(d) Public reason

Answer: (c)

67. Which one of the following is a characteristic of Presidential form of government?

(a) President is not a part of legislative body.

(b) It does not separate Legislative and Executive functions.

(d) The tenure of the President. depends on the legislature.

Answer: (a)

68. Which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the abolition and creation of Legislative Councils?

(a) Article-171

(b) Article-169

(d) Article-182

Answer: (b)

69. The provision under Article-51A of the Constitution of India relates to the

(a) uniform civil code for the citizens

(b) organization of village panchayats

(d) fundamental duties

Answer: (d)

70. Parochial political culture is generally found in

(a) developing societies

(b) societies having multi-party system

(d) monarchical societies

Answer: (d)

71. Who among the following sociologist is the first to propound the concept of civil society?

(a) Adam Ferguson

(b) Antonio Gramsci

(d) Alexis de Tocqueville

Answer: (c)

72. The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force on

(a) August 15, 1946

(b) August 15, 1947

(d) January 26, 1957

Answer: (d)

73. Who among the following British ethnographers launched the Survey of India project in the 1860s ?

(a) Hunter

(b) Dufferin

(d) Thurston

Answer: (a)

74. Which of the following statements about ‘Barnaparichay’, a mid 19th century Bengali text is/are correct?

1. It was written by Raja Rammohan Roy.

2. It was the most widely used Bengali primer of the time

Select correct answer using code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

75. Which of the following statements about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct?

1. The Champaran region had a long tradition of anti-planter discontent and agitation.

2. Mahatma Gandhi gave all India publicity to the grievances of Champaran cultivators.

3. The cultivators of Champaran had protested against excessive taxation on sugar.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

76. Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of the debate between ‘Anglicists’ and ‘Orientalists’ in the 1830s?

1. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money being spent on printing Sanskrit and Arabic texts.

2. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money spent on printing Sanskrit texts, but wished to continue to print in Persian.

3. The Orientalists wanted stipend for the students of Arabic and Sanskrit.

4. The Orientalists started a new Sanskrit College in Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

77. Which of the following statements about Exercise IBSAMAR is/are correct?

1. It is a joint exercise of Navy of India, Brazil and Sri Lanka.

2. The fifth edition of IBSAMAR was held in Goa.

3. All previous editions of IBSAMAR were held outside India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

78. Which of the following statements about ‘Nairobi Package’ adopted in the Tenth Ministerial Conference of WTO is/are correct?

1. No safeguard mechanism for developing country members.

2. Preferential rules of origin for least developed countries.

3. Public stockholding for food security purposes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

79. The ‘Paris Agreement’ adopted in Conference of the Parties (CoP 21) in December, 2015, will be effective provided the document, is signed by

(a) 51 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 51% of global greenhouse gas emission.

(b) 51 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 55% of global greenhouse gas emission.

(d) 75 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 51% of global greenhouse gas emission.

Answer: (c)

80. Which one of the following cities hosted the Twelfth South Asian Games, 2016?

(a) Patiala

(b) Kochi

(d) Agartala

Answer: (c)

81. The latest trophy introduced in Indian domestic cricket competition is

(a) Deodhar Trophy

(b) Vijay Hazare Trophy

(d) Duleep Trophy

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are correct?

1. It was not based on adult franchise.

2. It resulted from direct election.

3. It was a multi-party body.

4. It worked through several committees.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

83. Who among the following may be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad?

(a) Chief Minister

(b) District Collector

(d) Elected from its own members

Answer: (d)

84. What is meant by Social Equality?

(a) Each person should perform the functions according to his status.

(b) No effort should be made to modify the existing social system.

(c) No person should be made to suffer a position of relative inferiority in relation to other men due to caste, race or religion.

(d) Special effort to improve the lot of weaker section.

Answer: (c)

85. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) Every State Government has powers of its own.

(b) Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government.

(d) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified.

Answer: (a)

86. The Joint Training Exercise, Garuda Shakti is conducted as part of military diplomacy between Indian Army and

(a) Bangladesh Army.

(b) Royal Bhutan Army.

(d) Indonesian Army.

Answer: (d)

87. Which one of the following statements regarding Human Rights is not correct?

(a) Human Rights derive their inspiration from moral principles.

(b) They are applicable subject to their adoption by States.

(d) The universalism of Human Rights is challenged by the cultural relativists.

Answer: (c)

88. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Permanent Settlement?

(a) The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership rights in the Zamindar.

(b) The Permanent Settlement continued to pay attention to the customary occupancy rights of peasants.

(d) The condition of the actual cultivators of the land declined under Permanent Settlement.

Answer: (b)

89. Which of the following is /are characteristic(s) of the Ryotwari system?

1. It was the brainchild of Thomas Munro.

2. It was meant to reduce intermediaries.

3. Cultivating peasants were gradually impoverished by the system.

4. I was introduced in parts of Madras and Bengal Presidency.

Select the correct answer the using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

90. Who among the following founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1815?

(a) Keshab Chandra Sen

(b) Debendranath Tagore

(d) Bijoy Krishna Goswami

Answer: (c)

91. Consider the following statements about the Santhal Hool of 1855-56 :

1. The Santhals were in a desperate situation as tribal lands were leased out.

2. The Santhal rebels were treated very leniently by British officials.

3. Santhal inhabited areas were eventually constituted into separate administrative units called Santhal parganas.

4. The Santhal rebellion was the only major rebellionin mid 19th century India.

Which of the following given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d)

92. Which of the following statement(s) about Subedar Major Fateh Singh is/are correct?

1. He was a big bore rifle shooter, who won two gold medals during first Commonwealth championship.

2. He retired from Bihar regiment before joining Defence Service Corps.

3. He was killed during the terror attack at Pathankot Air Force Base.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

93. Which one among the following is the oldest Regiment of Indian Army?

(a) Sikh Regiment

(b) Kumaon Regiment

(d) Madras Regiment

Answer: (d)

94. Which one of the following cities has been identified as the best habitable city in the 18th Mercer Quality of Life Study, 2016?

(a) Munich

(b) Vienna

(d) Vancouver

Answer: (b)

95. Which one of the following States won the 61th National School Athletics Championship in the year 2016?

(a) Punjab

(b) Kerala

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (b)

96. In February 2016, which one of the following countries has rejected the plea of the incumbent President through a referendum to contest the Presidential election for the third term?

(a) Brazil

(b) Paraguay

(d) Peru

Answer: (c)

97. The theory of Separation of Powers is a division of powers between:

(a) Central and State Governments

(b) different branches of Government.

(d) State and Local Governments.

Answer: (b)

98. The 10th Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to

(a) the provisions relating to the formation of District Councils.

(b) the land reforms.

(d) the anti-defection law.

Answer: (d)

99. The amending power of the Parliament set forth in which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article-368

(b) Article-360

(d) Article-370

Answer: (a)

100. With regard to a Constitution Amendment Bill, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can call a joint sitting of both the Houses to pass the Bill.

(b) Each Houses needs to pass the Bill separately by a prescribed special majority.

(d) The Bill can be sponsored by a Private Member.

Answer: (a)

101. ‘Cut Motion’ can be introduced after the presentation of

(a) any Bill introduced in the Parliament

(b) the Railway and General Budgets

(d) a Constitution Amendment Bill

Answer: (b)

102. Who among the following divided governments into ‘Republican”, ‘Monarchical’ and ‘Despotic’?

(a) Aristotle

(b) Hobbes

(d) St. Augustine

Answer: (c)

103. Who among the following coined the terms ‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command Polity’?

(a) Lloyd I. Rudolph & Susanne H. Rudolph

(b) Rajni Kothari

(d) Paul Brass

Answer: (a)

104. Which of the following statements about the Bengali literary epic, Meghnad Badh Kabya (1861), is/are correct?

1. It was written by Michael Madhusudan Dutta.

2. It draws upon existing Hindu and Jain traditions of Ramayana.

3. It was translated into Assamese and Hindi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a)

105. Which one of the following is the famous novel written in 1869 by Nazir Ahmad?

(a) Twilight in Delhi

(b) Mirat-ul-urus

(d) City of Djinns

Answer: (b)

106. Which of the following statements about the founding of the Indian National Congress (INC) is/are correct?

1. The INC was formed in Bombay in 1885.

2. The first President of the INC was WC Bannerjee.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

107. The earliest literary references to iron in the Indian Sub-continent are found in the

(a) Rigveda

(b) Samaveda

(d) Vinaya Pitaka

Answer: (c)

108. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

(a) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(b) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (a)

109. Consider the following statements about the Morley-Minto reforms of 1909:

1. They were name after the British Parliamentarians, Minto and Morley.

2. They provided for limited self government by increasing the number of elected Indian sin the legislative Councils.

3. The contained provisions that ensured that British officials retained their majority in the Imperial Legislative Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

110. Identify from the following novel written by Charles Dickens that critiqued the adverse impact of industrialization on the poor:

(a) The Day Before America

(b) Hard Times

(d) The Courtier

Answer: (b)

111. What is the meaning of the term ‘Humanist’ used during the Renaissance in 5th century Europe?

1. It refers to the masters who taught grammar and rhetoric.

2. It refers to the masters who taught poetry, history and moral philosophy.

3. It refers to the masters, who taught subjects that were connected with religion.

4. It refers to masters who emphasized skills that were developed through discussion and debate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (c)

112. Which of the following was/were the features of the Quit India Movement?

1. From the very beginning, it was a rural revolt.

2. It was essentially a moderate movement

3. It was marked by the unprecedented use of violence.

4. It was marked by acute state repression.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

113. Which of the following statement(s) about the new style of architecture of Rome in the 15th century is/are correct?

1. It was marked by a complete break from the past.

2. It was actually revival of the imperial Roman style.

3. The Architects familiar with classical style were employed by wealthy merchants and aristocrats.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

Answer: (b)

114. Which of the following statements about the ideology of Utilitarianism in the context of British India is/are correct?

1. Utilitarianism believed that the rule of law was necessary for societal betterment.

2. James Mill expounded the principles of Utilitarianism in his famous book, ‘Utilitarian’s and the Raj’.

3. Utilitarian’s differed from the liberals in significant ways.

4. Utilitarianism had distinct authoritarian tendencies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

115. Which of the following statements about the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal in 1905 are correct?

1. It was marked by the mass mobilization through the organization of ‘Samitis’

2. It was marked by the mass mobilization through labour strikes.

3. It advocated a constructive programme of self help or ‘atmashakti’.

4. In the sphere of education, national schools were established.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

116. Who among the following is the winner of the 8th Human Rights Award by Amnesty International, Germany?

(a) Monira Rahman

(b) Abel Barrera

(d) Henri Tiphange

Answer: (d)

117. Which of the following pairs of Scheme and Target Group, as initiated in the Railway Budget 2016 is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) Only 2

Answer: (b)

118. Who among the following is the first person outside Indian Navy to become the Director General of Indian Coast Guard?

(a) Krishna Chaudhary

(b) Rajendra Singh

(d) HCS Bisht

Answer: (b)

119. Who among the following is the winner of the Jnanpith Award for the year 2015?

(a) Bhalachandra Nemade

(b) Raghuveer Chaudhary

(d) Girish Karnad

Answer: (b)

120. Lance Naik Hanmanthappa Koppad, who was buried alive under snow by deadly avalanche at Siachen Glacier, who later died in a hospital after he was miraculously rescued by army, was a soldier of

(a) Dogra Regiment

(b) Madras Regiment

(d) Jat Regiment

Answer: (b)

121. Which one of the following was the Theme State in the 30th Surajkund International Craft Mela?

(a) Chhattisgarh

(b) Kerala

(d) Bihar

Answer: (c)

122. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, government of India, has recently decided to set up India’s first defence industrial park at :

(a) Kochi

(b) Ottappalam

(d) Bengaluru

Answer: (b)

123. Who among the following scientists of Indian origin is/has been the President of Royal Society?

(a) Ronald Ross

(b) Har Gobind Khorana

(d) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

Answer: (d)

124. The largest greenhouse gas leakage in the US history took place in February, 2016. The gas was

(a) carbon dioxide

(b) methane

(d) nitrous oxide

Answer: (b)

125. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. Gravitational waves were predicted by Albert Einstein in 1916 on the basis of his theory of General Relativity.

2. Gravitational waves do also exist in the Newtonian theory of Gravitation.

3. Gravitational waves are to be detected by very sensitive detectors known as Interferometers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination Held on August 7, 2016 General Studies Paper-I Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021December 2, 2017 by suresh84

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination Held on August 7, 2016

General Studies (Paper-I)

1. ‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontiers)’, often in the news, is

(a) a division of World Health Organization

(b) a non-governmental international organization

(d) a specialized agency of the United Nations

Answer: (b)

2. With reference ot an initiative called The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, whichof the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.

2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.

3. It presents an approach that can help decision-markers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

3. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’ sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements :

1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.

2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD + Programme can significantly contribute to

1. protection of biodiversity 2. resilience of forest ecosystems

2. poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

5. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantity and manage greenhouse gas emissions.

(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.

(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement countries ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022.

(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD + initiatives hosted by the World Bank.

Answer: (a)

6. With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.

2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.

3. It monitors macro prudential supervision of the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

7. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements :

1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.

2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

8. ‘Satya Shodkhak Samaj’ organized

(a) a movement for upliftment o f tribals in Bihar

(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat

(d) a peasant movement in Punjab

Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Viruses can infect

1. bacteria 2. fungi 3. plants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

10. The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

(a) mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich but backward areas

(b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies

(d) lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning and implementation of developmental projects

Answer: (b)

11. Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set-up in

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Gujarat

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (a)

12. What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘District Mineral Foundations’ in India?

1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts.

2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations.

3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for mineral exploration.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

13. ‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the government of India, aims at

(a) promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas

(b) providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs

(d) providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free

Answer: (d)

14. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to

(a) social reforms

(b) educational reforms

(d) constitutional reforms

Answer: (d)

15. What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?

1. Both were built in the same period.

2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.

3. Both have rock-cut monuments.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

16. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.

2. Anyone with a Bitcoins address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address.

3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.

Select the correct answer suing the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

17. Consider the following statements :

1. New Development Bank has been set-up by APEC.

2. The headquarters of the New Development Bank is in Shanghai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

18. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to

(a) constitutional reforms

(b) Ganga Action Plan

(d) protection of Western Ghats

Answer: (d)

19. Consider the following :

1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee

2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation

3. Indian Reform Association

Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

20. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council?

(a) Iran

(b) Saudi Arabia

(d) Kuwait

Answer: (a)

21. What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme?

1. To bring the gold lying with Indian households into the economy.

2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector.

3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: ()

22. ‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

(a) African Union

(b) Brazil

(d) China

Answer: (d)

23. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at

(a) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system

(b) providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops

(d) funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation

Answer: (a)

24. In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?

1. Cambay basin 2. Cauvery basin

3. Krishna-Godavari basin

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

25. ‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the

(a) European Central Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(d) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

Answer: (b)

26. Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.

2. Only one member of a family can join the scheme.

3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after subscriber’s death.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

27. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as

(a) G-20

(b) ASEAN

(d) SAARC

Answer: (b)

28. On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?

1. Ceiling fans 2. Electric geysers

3. Tubular fluorescent lamps

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

29. India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’ If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?

(a) it can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation.

(b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation.

(d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation.

Answer: (d)

30. In the context of the history of India, consider the following pairs :

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a)

31. Consider the following statements :

1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.

2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

32. ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an

(a) agency created by EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving from Middle East

(b) agency of EU that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries

(d) agency of EU to deal with the conflicts arising among the member countries

Answer: (b)

33. Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?

1. Reduction in weed 2. Reduction in soil salinity

3. Reduction in soil erosion

Select the correct answer using the codes give below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

34. Regarding ‘DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a digital locker system offered by the government under Digital India Programme.

2. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

35. Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken?

(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra

(b) Godavari and Krishna

(d) Narmada and Tapti

Answer: (b)

36. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?

1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide

3. Nitrogen dioxide 4. Sulphur dioxide

5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b)

37. With reference to ‘Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.

2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

38. With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to

(a) bonded labour

(b) land grants made to military officers

(d) wasteland converted to cultivated land

Answer: (c)

39. With reference to the cultural history of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and epic tales was the profession of who of the following?

(a) Shramana

(b) Parivraajaka

(d) Magadha

Answer: (d)

40. Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following states has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Maharashtra

Answer: (d)

41. Consider the following statements The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO

1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission

2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA

3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: ()

42. What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?

(a) Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto

(b) Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British government

(d) Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress

Answer: (b)

43. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War

(a) India should be granted complete Independence

(b) India should be partitioned into two before granting Independence

(d) India should be given Dominion status

Answer: (d)

44. Consider the following pairs :

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)

45. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership.

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-third of its total membership.

(d) Rajay Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.

Answer: (d)

46. Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to sea by a long navigational channel?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Chhattisgarh

(d) Rajasthan

Answer: (d)

47. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.

2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2℃ or even 1.5℃ above pre-industrial levels.

3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warning and committed to donate $ 1000billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 3

(b) Only 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

48. Consider the following statements :

1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1992 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.

2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.

Which of the following given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

49. A recent movie titled ‘The Man Who Knew Infinity’ is based on the biography of

(a) S. Ramanujan

(b) S. Chandrasekhar

(d) C V Raman

Answer: (a)

50. Consider the following statements:

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.

2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.

2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not japes on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

52. Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?

1. Undernourishment 2. Child stunting

3. Child mortality

Select the correct answer using codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (c)

53. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?

1. Reducing revenue expenditure

2. Introducing new welfare schemes

3. Rationalizing subsidies

4. Reducing import duty

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

54. The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payments Banks.

2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.

3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

55. With reference to ‘Lifi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It uses light as the medium for high speed data transmission.

2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘Wifi’.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

56. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

(a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East.

(b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world of combat climate change.

(d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals.

Answer: (b)

57. Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, as scheme of the government of India?

(a) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy

(b) Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018

(c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time

(d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies

Answer: (d)

58. With reference of ‘IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.

2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

59. Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements

1. The tax rate on l and was fixed depending on the quality of the land.

2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

60. Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

(a) Swapnavasavadatta

(b) Malavikagnimitra

(d) Ratnavali

Answer: (b)

61. In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms’ amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?

(a) WTO affairs

(b) SAARC affairs

(d) India-EU negotiations on FTA

Answer: (a)

62. Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the government of India?

1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc

2. Loans received from foreign governments

3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

63. What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification?

1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships.

2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.

3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

64. Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?

(a) Rouble

(b) Rand

(d) Renminbi

Answer: (d)

65. With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements

1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.

2. The World Bank participates as observer IMFC’s meetings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

66. ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to

(a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood.

(b) release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood.

(d) release the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them.

Answer: (c)

67. With refrence to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following statements

1. Siddhas (Sittars) to Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry.

2. Lingayats of Kananda region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

68. Which of the following best describes the term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the news?

(a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross Domestic Product of a country.

(b) It is the total value of imports of a country in a year.

(d) It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves.

Answer: (d)

69. Consider the following pairs

Which of the pair given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) Only 3

Answer: (c)

70. With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements :

1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NTO and WHO.

2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.

3. It provides assistance and protection to State (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

71. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements :

1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of 2% for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.

2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

72. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

(a) Sand deserts of North-West India

(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir

(d) Western Ghats

Answer: (d)

73. Which of the following are the key of features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)?

1. River basin in the u nit of planning and management.

2. In spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.

3. One of the Chief Ministers of the states through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

74. Why does the government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?

(a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms.

(b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil

(d) It is a combination of weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops.

Answer: (b)

75. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a state is appointed by the Governor of that state.

2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

76. With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.

2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

77. The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity.

2. To identify and Safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities.

3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

78. Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?

1. Dibang 2. Kameng 3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

79. The term ‘Core Banking Solution’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?

1. It is a networking of bank’s branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.

2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization.

3. It is detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

80. Consider the following pairs

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

81. In the context of the development in Bioinformatics, the term, ‘transcriptome’ sometimes seen in the news, refers to

(a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing.

(b) the full range of m RNA molecules expressed by an organism.

(d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells.

Answer: (b)

82. ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the government of India pertains to

(a) immunization of children and pregnant women

(b) construction of smart cities across the country

(d) New Educational Policy

Answer: (a)

83. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the government of India?

1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’

2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security tone and all in the future

3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

84. With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main lable, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011?

1. List of ingredients including additives

2. Nutrition information

3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions

4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (c)

85. ‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to

(a) waste management technology

(b) wireless communication technology

(d) water conservation technology

Answer: (b)

86. ‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the

(a) production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers.

(b) use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households.

(d) installation of water meters in urban households.

Answer: (a)

87. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?

(a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

(b) World Economic Forum

(d) World Trade Organization (WTO)

Answer: (c)

88. Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally

(a) agriculturists

(b) warriors

(d) traders

Answer: (d)

89. Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?

(a) Georg Buhler

(b) James Prinsep

(d) William Jones

Answer: (b)

90. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.

2. The Act allows local social activists as meditors/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

91. With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements

1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.

2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

92. Consider the following statements :

The India-Africa Summit

1. held in 2015 was the third such Summit.

2. was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

93. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?

1. These guidelines help to improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.

2. These guidelines help to ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

94. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’ , a breed found in India?

1. It is capable of swimming upto three kilometers in seawater.

2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.

3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.

Select the correct answer using given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

95. Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?

(a) Andaman Islands

(b) Anaimalai forests

(d) Tropical rain forests of North-East

Answer: (a)

96. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS-Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

(a) Amphibious warfare ship

(b) Nuclear-powered submarine

(d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Answer: (c)

97. What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10); recently in the news?

(a) Electric plane tested by NASA

(b) Solar-powered two-seater aircraft designed by Japan.

(d) Reusable rocket designed by ISRO

Answer: (a)

98. With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster approach.

2. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and microirrigation equipment.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

99. The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods of struggle for the firt time during the

(a) agitation against the Partition of Bengal

(b) Home Rule Movement

(d) visit of the Simon Commission to India

Answer: (a)

100. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements

1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.

3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) NDA/NA Online Examination 2017 (I) Held on April 23, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021September 15, 2017 by suresh84

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) NDA/NA Online Examination 2017 (I) Held on April 23, 2017

General Ability Test

Part A

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

1. I ………. you to be at the party this evening.

(a) look forward to

(b) hope

(d) think

Answer: (c)

2. When I met John yesterday, it was the first time I ……. him since Christmas.

(a) saw

(b) have seen

(d) have been seeing

Answer: ()

3. He ………. to listen to my arguments and walked away.

(a) denied

(b) disliked

(d) refused

Answer: (d)

4. The flow of blood was so …… that the patient died.

(a) intense

(b) adequate

(d) extensive

Answer: (a)

5. You have never ……….. me about your experiences in America.

(a) said

(b) told

(d) spoken

Answer: (b)

6. I always felt hungry ………. I heard the dinner bell.

(a) as much as

(b) as well as

(d) as close as

Answer: (c)

7. Although they took every precaution, they could not ……… the accident.

(a) defer

(b) allow

(d) block

Answer: (c)

8. The ambitious nobleman ………… to marry to king’s daughter.

(a) transpired

(b) perspired

(d) expired

Answer: (c)

9. The dictator of that country was a monster of wickedness, insatiable in his ………… for blood and plunder.

(a) idea

(b) vision

(d) intention

Answer: (c)

10. Please don’t give me any more, I have had …….. .

(a) few

(b) too little

(d) enough

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

11. My first lecture in the classroom was a

(a) Success

(b) Joy

(d) Disaster

Answer: (a)

12. It was indeed arduous to cross streets in New York.

(a) pleasant

(b) effortless

(d) risky

Answer: (b)

13. Unlike his brother, he is affable.

(a) Reserved

(b) Gullible

(d) Lovable

Answer: (a)

14. The birth of his child decidedly proved to be an auspicious event in his life.

(a) Precious

(b) Ominous

(d) Unforgettable

Answer: (b)

15. The witness corroborated word for word the statement of the victim.

(a) Accepted

(b) Confirmed

(d) Repeated

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

16. It is unwise to sever diplomatic relations with a neighbouring country over small matters.

(a) Engage

(b) Estrange

(d) Twist

Answer: (c)

17. Bad tendencies are to be countered by good one until all that is evil disappears.

(a) Opposed

(b) Balanced

(d) Bypassed

Answer: (a)

18. The police fired indiscriminately at the crowd, killing many innocent women and children.

(a) Continuously

(b) Without distinguishing

(d) Rapidly

Answer: (b)

19. Businessman who lack acumen cannot be expected to be very successful.

(a) Fairness

(b) Sharpness

(d) Righteousness

Answer: (d)

20. His candid opinions have won him may friends.

(a) Kind

(b) Courteous

(d) Frank

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part, if one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as the answer. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).

21. I disliked him not so much for his meanness but for his dishonesty.

(a) as for

(b) but because

(d) No improvement

Answer: (d)

22. He preferred death rather than

(a) for

(b) to

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

23. They kept the idea

(a) secretive

(b) secret

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

24. He ought not to tell me your secret, but he did.

(a) telling

(b) have told

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

25. If I don’t know the meaning of a word, I look it after in the dictionary.

(a) look it out

(b) look it for

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

26. Mr. and Mrs. Rao stay in their home every evening.

(a) at home

(b) inside home

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

27. When we saw him last, he ran to catch a bus.

(a) has run

(b) had run

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

28. She cut a sad figure in her first performance on the stage.

(a) made a sorry figure

(b) cut a sorry face

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

29. Last evening I went to the optician and bought

(a) a spectacle

(b) two spectacles

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

30. I would like to avail a fifteen days’ holiday this summer.

(a) to avail of

(b) to avail myself of

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Each item in this section has a sentence with three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against corresponding letter i.e, (a), (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

31. I can fly (a) / if I will be (b) / a bird. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (b)

32. As soon as (a) /the train arrived (b) / the passengers entered the compartments. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (d)

33. Never (a) / I have (b) /seen such a town. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (b)

34. He goes to his office (a) / by bicycle (b) /every day. (c) No error (d)

Answer: ()

35. Far from being appreciated, (a)/ his conduct was discussed (b) / and sharply commented. (c) No error (d)

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-41) In this section, you have two short passages. Read passages and answer the items that follow. you are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage 1

We had just passed Tenali, where I roused myself in order to hear the name of the station. A I was falling asleep again, a violent jolt shot me into the arms of somebody in the seat opposite. The engine with one wheel broken was lying across the track and beside it was the luggage van, likewise, derailed. Groaning, wheezing, gasping, sputtering in its death agony, the engine was like a fallen horse which, snorting, trembling in every limb, its flanks heaving, its chest laboring, seems incapable of making the smallest effort to struggle on it its legs again.

36. The author had roused himself as he wanted to

(a) get off

(b) meet someone

(d) keep himself awake

Answer: (c)

37. The engine stopped because

(a) the driver had stopped it

(b) one of the wheels was broken

(d) there was no fuel

Answer: (b)

38. The engine is compared to a fallen horse because

(a) it was groaning like a horse

(b) it was lying across the track

(d) it had a broken wheel

Answer: (a)

Passage 2

I was beginning to tire a little now. I has been cutting steps continuously for two hours, and Tenzing, too, was moving very slowly. As I chipped steps around still another corner, I wondered rather dully just how long we could keep it up. Our original zest had now quite gone and it was turning more into a grim struggle. I then realized that the ridge ahead, instead of still monotonously rising, now dropped sharply away, and far below I could see the North Col and Rongbuk glacier. I looked upwards to see a narrow ride running up to a snowy summing. A few more whacks of the ice-taxes in the firm snow and we stood on top.

39. Which of the following is most appropriate description of the area in which the narrator had been moving?

(a) A steep rocky slope

(b) A peak with a flight of steps

(d) A long ridge

Answer: (c)

40. ‘I had been cutting steps continuously for two hours’ suggests that

(a) the climber was unskilled in the art of making steps

(b) he had to cut the steps out of snow before climbing up which was necessarily a slow process

(d) he has to work suspended from a ledge

Answer: (b)

41. ‘It was turning more into a grim struggle’ would mean

(a) that after the long exertion h e was feeling so weak that any further climbing meant a hard struggle with the forces of nature

(b) that Tenzing was making the task more difficult

(d) that he was in a mood to give up ultimately

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-50) Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled P, Q, R and S. .Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

42. Farm workers (P) / spend (Q) / outdoors (R) / most of their time (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) P R Q S

(d) R P Q S

Answer: (c)

43. He (P) /shuffled the papers (Q) / in a drawer (R) / together (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q S R

(b) P Q R S

(d) R S P Q

Answer: (a)

44. Do you think (P) / will (Q) / this soap (R) / shrink woolen clothes (S) ?

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) P R Q S

(d) Q P R S

Answer: (b)

45. We advised (P) / the hijackers to surrender (Q) / to the police (R) / themselves (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) P R Q S

(d) R P Q S

Answer: (c)

46. Sports cars (P) / appeal (Q) / to some motorists only (R) / with noisy exhausts (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) R Q S P

(b) P S Q R

(d) P Q S R

Answer: (b)

47. He (P) / almost (Q) / planned the entire strategy of operation (R) / single-handed (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) R S P Q

(b) P R Q S

(d) Q P S R

Answer: (b)

48. She has (P) / more (Q) / intelligence (R) / than we suspected her to possess (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q S R

(b) P R Q S

(d) P Q R S

Answer: (d)

49. They (P) / should implant (Q) / in the minds of young children (R) / sound principles (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) P Q S R

(d) P R Q S

Answer: (b)

50. When I was a student (P) / I learnt swimming at the age of 15 (Q) / of class X (R) / in a government school (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) P R Q S

(d) Q S P R

Answer: (c)

Part B

51. Which one of the following devices changes low voltage alternating current to high voltage alternating current and vice versa?

(a) Generator

(b) Motor

(d) Vibrator

Answer: (c)

52. An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts during hot summer is based on the principle of

(a) Reflection

(b) Interference

(d) Total internal reflection

Answer: (d)

53. At which place Earth’s magnetic field becomes horizontal?

(a) Magnetic meridian

(b) Magnetic equator

(d) Tropic of Cancer

Answer: (b)

54. The speed of car travelling on a straight road is listed below at successive intervals of 1 second:

Which of the following is/are correct? The car travels.

(1) with a uniform acceleration of 2 m/sec²

(2) 16 m in 4 sec.

(3) with an average speed of 4 m/sec.

(a) All of these

(b) 2 and 3

(d) only 1

Answer: (d)

55. The speed of a body that has Mach number more than 1 is

(a) supersonic

(b) subsonic

(d) about 10 m/s

Answer: (a)

56. Molecules of which of the following has cage like structure?

(1) Diamond

(2) Graphite

(3) Fullerenes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) All of these

(b) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

Answer: (d)

57. Temporary hardness in water is due to which one of the following of calcium and magnesium?

(a) Hydrogencarbonates

(b) Carbonates

(d) Sulphates

Answer: (a)

58. Stung by hairs of nettle leaves causes burning pain. This is due to the injection of

(a) acetic acid

(b) methanoic acid

(d) hydrochloric acid

Answer: (b)

59. Which one of the following elements is least reactive with water?

(a) Lithium

(b) Sodium

(d) Cesium

Answer: (a)

60. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

(a) Electron

(b) Proton

(d) Helium

Answer: (c)

61. Glass is a

(a) liquid

(b) colloid

(d) crystalline solid

Answer: (c)

62. Cell wall of any fungus is different from plants in having

(a) cellulose

(b) chitin

(d) glycogen

Answer: (b)

63. Sleeping sickness is a parasitic disease of humans and other animals. It is caused by

(a) Histomonas

(b) Trypanosoma

(d) Naegleria

Answer: (b)

64. Which one of the following agencies enforces the laws on food security in India?

(a) FDA

(b) WHO

(d) FAO

Answer: (c)

65. Dengue virus causes high fever, rashes and reduces the number of particular type of blood cells. Those blood cells are

(a) monocytes

(b) platelets

(d) neutrophils

Answer: (b)

66. Kidney secrets an enzyme, which changes plasma protein angiotensinogen into angiotensin. The enzyme is

(a) renin

(b) nitrogenase

(d) mono-oxygenase

Answer: (a)

67. Red blood cells (RBCs) have

(a) no nucleus, no mitochondria and no endoplasmic reticulum

(b) nucleus, mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

(d) no mitochondria but endoplasmic reticulum is present

Answer: (a)

68. According to the Census 2011, the density of population in which one among the following States is the lowest?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Nagaland

(d) Mizoram

Answer: (d)

69. Headquarters of the World Meterological Organization is located in

(a) Washington

(b) Geneva

(d) London

Answer: (b)

70. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

(b) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1

(d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

Answer: (a)

71. Consider the following statements pertaining to Coffee plantation in India:

(1) Need warm and moist climate with a spell of dry weather during the ripening period.

(2) Rolling fields having good drainage.

(3) Strong sunshine over hilly slopes exceeding temperature 35℃.

(4) Karnataka is the leading producer in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (d)

72. Urjit Patel, who has been appointed recently as Governor of Reserve Bank of India, was holding which position immediately prior to this appointment?

(a) Chief Economist, IMF

(b) Deputy Governor, Reserve bank of India

(d) Professor of Economics at Harvard University

Answer: (d)

73. Who among the following personalities is not a Governor of any Indian State?

(a) Najma Heptulla

(b) Ram Nath Kovind

(d) Arvind Subramaniam

Answer: (d)

74. Which of the following cricket teams was defeated by India to lift the Women’s T-20 Asia Cup 2016?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Sri Lanka

(d) Afghanistan

Answer: (c)

75. Which one of the following was the venue of 2nd BRICS Youth Summit of the Ministers, Officials and Youth Delegations?

(a) New Delhi

(b) Mumbai

(d) Guwahati

Answer: (d)

76. Which one among the following States of India has recently proposed to frame the first Internal Security Act to deal with the challenges of terrorism, insurgency, communalism and caste violence?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Gujarat

(d) Chhattisgarh

Answer: (a)

77. The World Humanitarian Day is being observed every year on which date?

(a) October 24

(b) August 19

(d) March 8

Answer: (b)

78. Surge pricing takes place when a service provider

(a) raises the price of its product or service as demand outstrips supply

(b) follows preset prices immune to demand and supply dynamics

(d) fixes and average price on the basis of transactions carried over a day

Answer: (a)

79. By fulfilling which of the following conditions can a political party claim the status of a national party?

1. It secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more States, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly.

2. It wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States or wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are l elected from at least three different States.

3. The party in question has got recognition as a State party in at least two States.

4. It must have its headquarters in New Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

80. In its emphasis on enhancing human capabilities, which one among the following does not figure in the Twelfth Five Year Plan?

(a) Life and longevity.

(b) Education

(d) Skill development

Answer: (a)

81. Which one of the following is not a target of the 12th Five-Year Plan?

(a) Real GDP Growth Rate of 8%

(b) Agriculture Growth Rate of 5%

(d) Increase in green cover by 1 million hectare every year during the Plan period

Answer: (b)

82. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) In the conduction mode of transference of heat, the molecules of solid pass heat from one molecule to another without moving from their positions.

(b) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance is called its specific heat capacity.

(d) The process of heat transfer from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature to a body at lower temperature without heating the space between them is known as radiation.

Answer: (b)

83. The amount of heat required to change a liquid to gaseous state without any change in temperature is known as

(a) specific heat capacity

(b) mechanical equivalent of heat

(d) quenching

Answer: (c)

84. The following figure shows displacement versus time curve for a particle executing simple harmonic motion :

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 1 sec and t = 3 sec

(b) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 2’ sec and t – 8 sec

(d) Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 4 sec and t= 10 sec

Answer: (c)

85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 4; B – 2; C – 1; D – 3

(b) A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3

(d) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

Answer: (a)

86. A circular coil of single turn ha a resistance of 20 Ω. Which one of the following is the correct value for the resistance between the ends of any diameter of the coil?

(a) 5 Ω

(b) 10 Ω

(d) 40 Ω

Answer: (a)

87. In a solenoid, the current flowing through t the wire is I and number of turns per unit length is n. This gives a magnetic field B inside the solenoid. If number of turn per unit length is increased to 2n, what will be the value of magnetic field in the solenoid?

(a) B

(b) 2B

(d) B/4

Answer: (b)

88. Which one of the following statements is correct about the magnification of an optical microscope?

(a) Magnification increases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece.

(b) Magnification increases with the increase in focal length of objective.

(d) Magnification decreases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece.

Answer: (d)

89. A homogeneous mixture contains two liquids. How are they separated?

(a) By filtration

(b) By evaporation

(d) By condensation

Answer: (c)

90. Which one of the following elements forms highest number of compounds?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Hydrogen

(d) Carbon

Answer: (d)

91. Which one of the following elements corrodes rapidly?

(a) Aluminium

(b) Iron

(d) Silver

Answer: (a)

92. 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g of water. What is the mass percentage of the salt in the solution?

(a) 5%

(b) 9%

(d) 15%

Answer: (c)

93. The valency of an element depends upon the

(a) total number of protons in an atom

(b) mass number of an atom

(d) total number of electrons in the outer most shell of an atom

Answer: (d)

94. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

(b) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3

Answer: (d)

95. Colour vision in human eyes is the function of photoreceptor cells named

(a) rods

(b) cones

(d) fovea

Answer: (b)

96. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) All proteins are enzymes

(b) Mostly enzymes are proteins

(d) glucose is a common carbohydrate

Answer: (a)

97. Sugarcane is one of the important cash crops in India. It is grown to obtain

(a) starch

(b) glucose

(d) sucrose

Answer: (d)

98. The colorful part of the Sunflower or Marigold plant is

(a) flower

(b) inflorescence

(d) seed

Answer: (b)

99. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(b) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

Answer: (d)

100. Which one among the following is the correct order of tiger reserves situated from North to South in India?

(a) Corbett-Simlipal-Sariska-Periyar

(b) Periyar-Sariska-Simlipal-Corbett

(d) Periyar-Simlipal-Sariska-Corbett

Answer: (c)

101. Which of the following are correct with regard to Indian Monsoonall Rainfall?

1. Largely governed by the topographical features

2. Regional and seasonal variation in the distribution of rainfall

3. Heavy downpour resulting in considerable runoff

4. Beginning and end of rain is regular and on time

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

102. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

(b) A – 4; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2

(d) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

Answer: (a)

103. Which one of the following Himalayan rivers does not originate from across the Himalayas?

(a) Indus

(b) Satluj

(d) Brahmaputra

Answer: (d)

104. The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian Railway is located at

(a) Bhubaneswar

(b) Kolkata

(d) Guwahati

Answer: (b)

105. Which one among the following countries is the largest trading partner of India in external trade for the year 2015-16?

(a) United States of America

(b) United Kingdom

(d) China

Answer: (a)

106. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 20 cm. The refractive index of the glass is 1.5. What is the power of this lens?

(a) +7.5D

(b) −7.5 D

(d) +5.0 D

Answer: (c)

107. The time period of a simple pendulum made using a thin copper wire of length L is T. Suppose the temperature of the room in which this simple pendulum is placed increases by 30℃, What will be the effect on the time period of the pendulum?

(a) T will increase slightly

(b) T will remain the same

(d) T will become more than 2 times

Answer: (a)

108. Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure?

(a) Angular momentum

(b) Stress

(d) Work

Answer: (b)

109. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the material of electrical insulators?

(a) They contain no electrons

(b) Electrons do not flow easily through them

(d) They have more number of electrons than the protons on their surface

Answer: (b)

110. Which one of the following physical quantities does not affect the resistance of a cylindrical resistor?

(a) The current through it

(b) Its length

(d) The area of cross-section of the cylinder

Answer: (c)

111. Which one of the following statements regarding King Krishnadev a Ray is not correct?

(a) He was a great scholar of Telugu and Sanskrit.

(b) Foreign travelers Paes and Nuniz visited his court.

(d) He wrote his magnum opus Amuktamalyada in Sanskrit.

Answer: (d)

112. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 4; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2

(b) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

(d) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

Answer: (b)

113. Which one of the following was not a cause of the Revolt of 1857?

(a) The rumour that the British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour being sold in the market.

(b) The prophecy that British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey on June 23, 1857.

(d) The prophecy that the end of British rule would lead to the end of the kali Yuga and the return of Ram Rajya.

Answer: (b)

114. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Subsidiary Alliance of Lord Wellesley?

(a) The British were responsible for protecting the ally from any external threats.

(b) All internal threats were to be handled by the ally alone, with no help from the British.

(d) The ally could not enter into any agreement with other rulers without the permission of the British.

Answer: (b)

115. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

(b) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(d) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

Answer: (c)

116. Which of the following are the major coral reef areas of India?

1. Gulf of Kachchh

2. Gulf of Mannar

3. Lakshadweep

4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

117. Which of the following regions is/are not known for cotton-textile industry?

1. Mumbai-Pune region

2. Madurai – Coimbatore region

3. Dhanbad-Jamshedpur region

4. Indore-Ujjain region

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

Answer: (d)

118. Which one of the following States does not have t he Headquarters of any Railway Zone?

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Chhattisgarh

(d) Bihar

Answer: (a)

119. Suppose a rod is given a negative charge by rubbing it with wool.

Which one of the following statements is correct in this case?

(a) The positive charges are transferred from rod to wool

(b) The positive charges are transferred from wool to rod

(d) The negative charges are transferred from wool to rod

Answer: (d)

120. Which one of the following is the correct relation between frequency f and angular frequency ω ?

(a) f = ??

(b) ω = 2πf

(d) f = 2πω

Answer: (b)

121. A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer both give the same reading for a certain sample. What would be the corresponding reading in a Celsius thermometer?

(a) 574

(b) 301

(d) 232

Answer: (b)

122. If the potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is doubled while keeping the separation between the filament and the target as same, what will happen to the cutoff wavelength?

(a) Will remain same

(b) Will be doubled

(d) Will be four times of the original wavelength

Answer: (c)

123. Which one of the following statements is true for the relation (All symbols have their usual meanings)

(a) The quantity G depends on the local value of g, acceleration due to gravity

(b) The quantity G is greatest at the surface of the Earth

(d) The quantity G is a universal constant

Answer: (d)

124. Why is it difficult to measure the coefficient of expansion of a liquid than solid?

(a) Liquids tend to evaporate at all temperatures

(b) Liquids conduct more heat

(d) Their containers also expand when heated

Answer: (d)

125. Radon is

(a) an inert gas

(b) an artificial fibre

(d) a metal

Answer: (a)

126. The chemical name of baking soda is

(a) Na₂CO₃

(b) NaHCO₃

(d) NaOH

Answer: (b)

127. Which one of the following elements is used in pencil-lead?

(a) Zinc

(b) Lead

(d) Tin

Answer: (c)

128. Who among the following is one of the authors of the book ‘Philosophy of the Bomb?

(a) Bhagat Singh

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Yashpal

Answer: (a)

129. Which of the following statements about the Chittagong group is not correct?

(a) Its membership included a large number of youth including Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Baul and Anant singh.

(b) Its leader Surya Sen had been a lawyer in Dhaka before joining the group.

(d) This group had prepared an action plan to occupy the armouries in Chittagong.

Answer: (b)

130. Which one of the following was a significant feature of the Quit India Movement?

(a) Women did not play an important role in the movement.

(b) Nasik in Maharashtra was an important regional base during the movement.

(d) It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India.

Answer: (d)

131. Which one of the following characteristics does not describe the Khilafat movement?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-Cooperation movement.

(b) It was not supported by the Congress.

(d) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

Answer: (b)

132. Which one of the following was not a feature of railways in colonial India?

(a) The main purpose of the setting up of railways in India was to serve the interest of the empire.

(b) British capital investments were invited with 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian revenues.

(d) The construction of the railways was planned in such a way that it connected the internal markets with the ports, but provided no interconnection between internal market cities.

Answer: (c)

133. Which colonial administrator made the following declaration about the partition of Bengal in 1904?

“Bengal united is a power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways”. That is perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme.

(a) Lord Curzon

(b) HH. Risley

(d) Sir lancelot hare

Answer: (b)

134. Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on February 4, 1928?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Kalyani Metha

Answer: (b)

135. Which one of the following Princely States did not support the Congress during the course of Civil Disobedience Movement?

(a) Bhavnagar

(b) Mysore

(d) Kathiawar

Answer: (c)

136. Which one of the following is a feature of thought and philosophy of the Kandukuri Viresalingam?

(a) He believed that science and morality were unconnected to truth.

(b) He believed in universal education.

(d) He did not attempt to build a national consciousness on a cultural base.

Answer: (b)

137. Name the calligrapher in Akbar’s court who was honoured with the title ‘Zarrin Kalam’ or Golden Pen

(a) Abul Fazl

(b) Tansen

(d) Muhammad Kasim

Answer: (c)

138. Which one of the following sections of the Golden Quadrilateral Highway in India is the longest in terms of route distance?

(a) Delhi-Kolkata

(b) Kolkata-Chennai

(d) Mumbai-Delhi

Answer: (b)

139. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(b) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 2; C – 1; D – 3

Answer: (a)

140. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

(a) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(b) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1

Answer: (c)

141. Which one of the following pairs of Tribe and State is not correctly matched?

(a) Tharu : Madhya Pradesh

(b) Adi : Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Shaharia : Rajasthan

Answer: (a)

142. If the absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively, what will be the ratio of velocity of light in glass and water?

(a) 3 : 4

(b) 4 : 3

(d) 8 : 9

Answer: (d)

143. A positive charge +q is placed at the centre of a hollow metallic sphere of inner radius a and outer radius b. The electric field at a distance r from the centre is denoted b y E. In this regard, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) E = 0 for a < r < b

(b) E = 0 for r < a

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

144. Consider the following Indian State :

1. Bihar

2. Rajasthan

3. Jammu and Kashmir

4. Haryana

Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above States on the basis of percentage of State’s population to total population of India (based on census 2011)?

(a) 3-4-1-2

(b) 4-2-1-3

(d) 2-3-4-1

Answer: (c)

Who among the following was the author of the Badshah Nama?

(a) Abdul Hamid Lahori

(b) Abul Fazl

(d) Sadullah Khan

Answer: (a)

146. Which one of the following statements about Fatehpur Sikri is not correct?

(a) It was located on the direct road to Ajmer.

(b) Akbar commissioned the building of a marble tomb for Sheikh Salim Chisti next to the Friday mosque at Fatehpur Sikri.

(d) In 1585, the capital of the Mughal emperor shifted from Fatehpur Sikri to Delhi.

Answer: (d)

147. Which one of the following cities hosted the 3rd World Trauma Congress recently?

(a) New Delhi

(b) Dacca

(d) Bangkok

Answer: (a)

148. Which one of the following is not one of the objectives of Act East Policy?

(a) To promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationship with countries in the Asia-Pacific region.

(b) To promote peace and amity with the neighbouring countries of Asia.

(d) To provide enhanced connectivity to the North East of India.

Answer: (b)

149. Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of the total medals earned by them in Rio Olympic 2016 :

1. United States

2. China

3. Great Britain

4. Russia

Select the correct answer u sing the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 1, 3, 2, 4

(d) 4, 3, 1, 2

Answer: (c)

150. Which one of the following is not an objective of the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016?

(a) Establish an integrated eco-system which will lead to significant growth of civil aviation sector.

(b) To promote tourism, increase employment and lead to a balanced regional growth.

(d) Enhance regional connectivity through fiscal support and infrastructure development.

Answer: (c)

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination Held on 18-6-2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021September 5, 2017 by suresh84

UPSC

Civil Services (Pre.) Examination Held on 18-6-2017

Directions – (Q. 1-7) Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only

Passage-1

An air quality index (AQI) is a way to combine measurements of multiple air pollutants into a single number or rating. This index is ideally kept constantly updated and available in different places. The AQI is most useful when lots of pollution data are being gathered and when pollution levels are normally, but not always, low. In such cases, if pollution levels spike for a few days, the public can quickly take preventive action (like staying indoors) is response to an air quality warning. Unfortunately, that is not urban India. Pollution levels in many large Indian cities are so high that they remain well above any health or regulatory standard for large part of the year. If our index stays in the ‘Red/Dangerous’ region day after day, there is not much any one an do, other than getting used to ignoring it.

1. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?

(A) Our governments are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free

(B) There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country

(D) In every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase

Answer: (C)

Passage-2

Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good job is the best form of inclusion. More than half of our population depends on agriculture, but the experience of other countries suggests that the number of people dependent on agriculture will have to shrink if per capita incomes in agriculture are to go up substantially. While industry is creating jobs, too many such jobs are low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the unorganized sector, offering low incomes, little protection and no benefits. Service jobs are relatively of high productivity, but employment growth in services has been slow in recent years.

2. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?

(A) We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion

(B) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion

(C) We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture

(D) We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture

Answer: (A)

Passage-3

A landscape-scale approach to land use can encourage greater biodiversity outside protected areas. During hurricane ‘Mitch’ in 1998, farms using ecoagricultural practices suffered 58 per cent, 70 per cent and 99 per cent less damage in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala, respectively, than farms using conventional techniques. In Costa Rica, vegetative windbreaks and fencerows boosted farmers’ income from pasture and coffee while also increasing bird diversity. Bee pollination is more effective when agricultural fields are closer to natural or seminatural habitat, a finding that matters because 87 per cent of the world’s 107 leading crops depend on animal pollinators. In Costa Rica, Nicaragua and Colombia silvopastoral systems the integrate trees with pastureland are improving the sustainability of cattle production and diversifying and increasing farmers’ income.

3. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?

(A) Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters.

(B) All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with conventional agricultural

(D) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them

Answer: (A)

Passage-4

The medium term challenge for Indian manufacturing is to move from lower to higher tech sectors, ,from lower to higher value-added sectors and from lower to higher productivity sectors. Medium tech industries are primarily capital intensive and resource processing and high tech industries are mainly capital and technology intensive. In order to push the share of manufacturing in overall GDP to the projected 25 per cent, Indian manufacturing needs to capture the global market in sectors showing is a rising trend in demand. These sectors are largely high technology and capital intensive.

4. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?

(A) India’s GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries

(B) Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India

(C) India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and development, technology upgradation and skill development.

(D) India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand

Answer: (A)

Passage-5

Over the last decade, India agriculture has become more robust with record production of foodgrains and oilseeds. Increased procurement, consequently, has added huge stocks of foodgrains in the granaries. India is one of the world’s top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits and vegetables. India is still home to a quarter of all undernourished people in the world. On an average, almost half of the total expenditure of nearly half of the households is on food.

5. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ?

(A) Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition

(B) Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India

(D) Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India

Answer: (A)

Passage-6

The States are like pearls and the Centre is the thread which turns them into a necklace; if the thread snaps, the pearls are scattered.

6. Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement ?

(A) A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong

(B) A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity

(D) State autonomy is a prerequisite for a federation

Answer: (B)

Passage-7

Really I think that the poorest he that is in England has a life to live, as the greatest he and therefore truly, I think it is clear that every man that is to live under a government ought first by his own consent to put himself under the government and I do think that the poorest man in England is not at all bound in a strict sense to that government hat he has not had a voice to put himself under.

7. The above statements argues for-

(A) distribution of wealth equally to all

(B) rule according to the consent

(D) expropriation of the rich

Answer: (B)

8. The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0.40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4 : 3. The average of six days was 0.50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth day ?

(A) 0.60 inch

(B) 0.70 inch

(D) 0.90 inch

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 9-11) Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow –

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different cities –

Hyderabad, Delhi, Shilong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily in the same order) who participated in a conference. Each one of them is specialized in a different subject, viz. Economics, Commerce, History, Sociology, Geography, Mathematics and Statistics (not necessarily in the same order). Further :

1. Lecturer from Kanpur is specialized in Geography

2. Lecturer D is from Shillong.

3. Lecturer C from Delhi is specialized in Sociology.

4. Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor Mathematics.

5. Lecturer A who is specialized in Economics does not belong to Hyderabad.

6.Lecturer F who is specialized in Commerce belongs to Srinagar.

7. Lecturer G who is specialized in Statistics belongs to Chennai.

9. Who is specialized in Geography ?

(A) B

(B) D

(D) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

Answer: (A)

10. To which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics belong ?

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Mumbai

(D) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

Answer: (B)

11. Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad ?

(A) B

(B) E

(D) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

Answer: (B)

12. In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E. A and B teach Hindi and English. C and B teach English and Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi. E and B teach History and French. Who teaches maximum number of subjects ?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) E

Answer: (B)

13. A 2-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder ?

(A) 9

(B) 27

(D) 45

Answer: (D)

14. The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, each saves Rs. 6,000 per month. What is their total monthly income ?

(A) Rs 28,000

(B) Rs 42,000

(D) Rs 84,000

Answer: (B)

15. Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m from the point P. How many meters is the fly from the ceiling ?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(D) 15

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 16-18) Consider the given information and answer the three times that follow –

Eight railway stations A, B, C, D E, F, G and H are connected either by two-day passages or one-way passages. One-way passages are from C to A, E to G, B to F, D to H, G to C, E to C and H to G. Two-way passages are between A and E, G and B, ,F and D and E and D.

16. While travelling from C to H, which one of the following stations must be passed through ?

(A) G

(B) E

(D) F

Answer: (B)

17. In how many different ways can a train travel from F to A without passing through any station more than once ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

Answer: (D)

18. If the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following stations need not be passed through while travelling from H to C ?

(A) E

(B) D

(D) B

Answer: (C)

19. There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one obtained on reversing it is always 27. How many such maximum 2-digit numbers are there ?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

20. What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 50 ?

(A) 262

(B) 342

(D) 450

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 21-27) Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. You answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

Disruption of traditional institutions, identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some people may renew their identification with traditional groups whereas other align themselves with new groups and symbols emergent from processes of political development tends to foster group awareness of a variety of class, tribe, region, clan, language, religion, occupation and others.

21. Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage ?

(A) Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay

(B) Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development

(D) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development

Answer: (A)

Passage-2

There has been a significant trend worldwide towards regionalism in government, resulting in a widespread transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since 1990s. This process, which involves the creation of new political entities and bodies at a sub-national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has been characterized as being made up of three factors- political legitimacy, decentralization of authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from below for the decentralization process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place. In many cases decentralization is initiated by upper tier of government without sufficient political mobilization for it at the grassroots level and in such cases the decentralization process often does not fulfill its objectives.

22. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?

(A) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization

(B) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the regional communities by law or otherwise

(C) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level

(D) For devolution to take place a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential

Answer: (C)

Passage-3

We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who were are, how we connect to the world around us,, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labour and language are hugely structured by the digital technologies. The digital i s every where and like air, invisible. We live within digital systems, we live with intimate gadgets, we interact through digital media and the very presence and imagination of the digital has dramatically restructured our lives. The digital, far from being a took, is a condition and context that defines the shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the society, and the structure of governance.

23. Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage ?

(A) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies

(B) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living

(D) Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future

Answer: (B)

Passage-4

The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of falling into ‘middle0-income trap’. It means that average incomes in these countries, which till now have been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a point-a point that is well short of incomes in the developed West. The IMF identifies a number of causes of middle-income trap-none of which is surprising-from infrastructure to weak institutions, to less than favourable macroeconomic conditions. But the broad, overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the growth of productivity.

24. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?

(A) Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes

(B) Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies

(D) As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory

Answer: (D)

Passage-5

An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R & D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created b rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase income inequality. By encouraging India’s R & D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the costs of goods and services and create income-earning opportunities for the poor people.

25. Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage ?

(A) Innovation and R & D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration

(B) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors

(D) Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country’s economic growth is rapid

Answer: (B)

Passage-6

Climate change is likely to expose a large number of people to increasing environmental risks forcing them to migrate. The international community is yet to recognize this new category of migrants. There is no consensus on the definition and status of climate refugees owing to the distinct meaning the term refugees carry under international laws. There are still gaps in understanding how climate change will work as the root cause of migration. Even if there is recognition of climate refugees, who is going to provide protection ? More emphasis has been given a international migration due to climate change. But there is a need to recognize the migration of such people within the countries also so that their problems can be addressed properly.

26. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage ?

(A) The world will not be able to cope with large-scale migration of climate refugees

(B) We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change

(D) Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood

Answer: (D)

Passage-7

Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are reports that these compounds possess inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the farm operators, consumers and the environment. Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in environment. Entering in food chain they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted in development of resistance among insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest control using the botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the environment because they break down into harmless compounds within hours or days in the presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal properties have been in nature for millions of years without any ill or adverse effects on the ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by many microbes common in most soils. They help in the maintenance of biological diversity of predators and the reduction of environmental contamination and human health hezards. Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection is a practical sustainable alternative.

27. On the basis of above passage, the following assumptions have been made –

1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modern agriculture.

2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance.

3. Botanical pesticides are more effectives as compared to synthetic pesticides.

Which of the assumptions give above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B)

28. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides ?

1. They are not hazardous to human health.

2. They are persistent in environment.

3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem.

Select the correct answer using the code given below –

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

29. Certain 3-digit numbers have the following characteristic –

1. All the three digits are different.

2. The number is divisible by 7.

3. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7.

How many such 3-digit numbers are there ?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Answer: (B)

30. Examine the following statements-

1. All colours are pleasant.

2. Some colours are pleasant.

3. No colour is pleasant.

4. Some colours are not pleasant.

Given that statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded ?

(A) 1 and 2 are true

(B) 3 is true

(D) 1 is false

Answer: (D)

31. How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place ?

(A) 64

(B) 80

(D) 104

Answer: (C)

32. If for a sample data

Mean < Median < Mode

then the distribution is-

(A) symmetric

(B) skewed to the right

(D) skewed to the left

Answer: (C)

33. The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again ?

(A) 42

(B) 38

(D) 16

Answer: (B)

34. P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings ?

(A) 3 : 1 : 1

(B) 3 : 2 : 4

(D) 3 : 1 : 4

Answer: (A)

35. Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F-

1. The number of males equal that of females.

2. A and E are sons of F.

3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.

4. B is the son of A.

5. There is only one married couple in the family at present.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above ?

(A) A, B and C are all females

(B) A is the husband of D

(D) D is the daughter of F

Answer: (B)

36. A bag contains 20 balls, 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour ?

(A) 17

(B) 16

(D) 11

Answer: (B)

37. If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arrange din a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there ?

(A) 3

(B) 6

(D) 24

Answer: (C)

38. The outer surface of a 4 cm × 4 cm × 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces ?

(A) 8

(B) 16

(D) 36

Answer: (A)

39. Consider the following-

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. B is not neighbour of G.

F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E.

G is not at the extreme end.

A is sixth to the left of E.

H is sixth to the right of C.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above ?

(A) C is to the immediate left of A

(B) D is immediate neighbour of B and F

(D) A and E are at the extreme ends

Answer: (C)

40. In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’ and ‘254’ means ‘white colour chalk’. The digit in the code that indicates ‘white’ is-

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 41-48) Read the following eight passages and answer the items that follow the passages,. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

What climate change will undeniably to is cause or amplify events that hasten the reduction of resources. Competition over these diminishing resources would ensue in the form of political or even violent conflict. Resource-based conflicts have rarely been overt and are thus difficult to isolate. Instead they take on veneers that appear more politically palatable. Conflicts over resources like water are often cloaked in the guise of identity or ideology.

41. What does the above passage imply ?

(A) Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated

(B) There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts

(D) Political conflict based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved

Answer: (C)

Passage-2

The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his resolution to be changed by the first counter-suggestion of a friend-who fluctuates from opinion to opinion and veers from plan to plan-can never accomplish anything. he will at best be stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is only the man who first consults wisely, then resolves firmly and then executes his purpose with inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those petty difficulties which daunt a weaker spirit – that can advance to eminence in any line.

42. The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that-

(A) we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly

(B) we should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged

(D) we should be resolute and achievement-oriented

Answer: (A)

Passage-3

During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea ice has been melting earlier and faster and the winter freeze has been coming later. In the last three decades, the extent of summer ice has declined by about 30 per cent. The lengthening period of summer melt threatens to undermine the whole Arctic food web atop which stand polar bears.

43. Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage ?

(A) Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short, but temperature to be high

(B) Polar bears can be shifted to South Pole to ensure their survival

(D) Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears

Answer: (D)

Passage-4

Why do people prefer open defecation and not want toilets or, if they have them, only use them sometimes ?

Recent research had shown two critical elements : ideas of purity and pollution and not wanting pits or septic tanks to fill because they have to be emptied. These are the issues that nobody wants to talk about, but if we want to eradicate the practice of open defecation, they have to be confronted and dealt properly.

44. Which among t he following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

(A) The ideas of purity and pollution are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people

(B) People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting

(D) People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy

Answer: (B)

Passage-5

In the last two decades, the world’s gross domestic product (GDP) has increased by 50 per cent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased by a mere 6 per cent. In recent decades, GDP-driven economic performance has only harmed inclusive wealth like human capital; and natural capital like forests, land and water. While the world’s human capital which stands at 57 per cent of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8 per cent, the natural capital which is 23 per cent of total inclusive wealth declined by 30 per cent worldwide in the last two decades.

45. Which of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage ?

(A) More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital

(B) The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable

(D) The word needs more human capital under the present circumstances.

Answer: (B)

Passage-6

By 2020, when the global economy is expected to run short of 56 million young people, India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fill the gap. It is in this context that labour reforms are often cited as the way to unlock double-digit growth in India. In 2014, India’s labour force was estimated to be about 40 per cent of the population, but 93 per cent of this force was in unorganized sector. Over the last decade, the compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of employment has slowed to 0.5 per cent, with about 14 million jobs created during last year when the labour force increased by about 15 million.

46. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage ?

(A) India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate

(B) Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force productively

(D) India is capable of supplying the skilled young people to other countries

Answer: (B)

Passage-7

The very first lesson that should be taught to us when we are old enough to understand it, is that complete freedom from the obligation to work is unnatural and ought to be illegal, as we can escape our share of the burden of work only by throwing it on someone else’s shoulders. Nature ordains that the human race shall perish of famine if it stops working. We cannot escape from this tyranny. The question we have to settle is how much leisure we can afford to allow ourselves.

47. The main idea of the passage is that-

(A) it is essential for human beings to work

(B) there should be a balance between work and leisure

(D) human’s understanding of the nature of work is essential

Answer: (B)

Passage-8

There is no harm in cultivating habits so long as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are little more than bundle of habits. Take away our habits and the residuum would hardly be worth bothering about. We could not on without them. They simplify the mechanism of life. They enable us to do a multitude of things automatically, which if we had go give fresh and original thought to them each time, would make existence an impossible confusion.

48. The author suggests that habits-

(A) tend to make our lives difficult

(B) add precision to our lives

(D) tend to mechanize our lives

Answer: (C)

Directions – (Q. 49 and 50) Consider the given information and answer the two items that follow-

No supporters of ‘party X’, who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the alliance with ‘party Y’; but some of them had friends in ‘party Y’.

49. With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true ?

(A) Some supporters of ‘party Y’ did not agree for the alliance with the ‘party X’

(B) There is at least one supporter of ‘party Y’ who knew some supporters of ‘party X’ as a friend

(D) No supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z

Answer: (B)

50. With reference to the above information, consider the following statements-

1. Some supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z.

2. Some supporters of ‘party X’, who opposed Z’s campaign strategy, knew Z.

3. No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

51. If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?

(A) 23

(B) 22

(D) 20

Answer: (B)

52. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from one place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there is no further growth in the population during this period ?

(A) part of the population

(B) part of the population

(D) part of the population

Answer: (D)

53. Four tests- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after two tests are held. Which is the last test held ?

(A) Physics

(B) Biology

(D) Chemistry

Answer: (C)

54. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. Whose income is the highest ?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) D

Answer: (B)

55. Consider the following-

Statement : Good voice is a natural gift, but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music.

Conclusions :

1. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.

2. Eventhough one’s voice is not good, one can keep practising.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement and conclusions ?

(A) Only conclusion I follows from the statement

(B) Only conclusion II follows from the statement

(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement

Answer: (D)

56. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm, but slips down 1 cm B climbs on Y by 7b cm, but slips down 3 cm C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm, but slips down 2 cm. If each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of the shortest pillar ?

(A) 161 cm

(B) 163 cm

(D) 210 cm

Answer: (B)

57. “Right are certain advantageous conditions of social well-being indispensable to the true development of the citizen.”

In the light of this statement, which one of the following is the correct understanding of rights ?

(A) Rights aim at individual good only

(B) Rights aim at social good only

(D) Rights aim at individual good devoid of social well-being

Answer: (C)

58. 15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is the his position from the bottom ?

(A) 18th

(B) 17th

(D) 15th

Answer: (C)

59. Consider the following-

A + B means A is the son B.

A – B means A is the wife of B.

What does the expression P + R – Q mean ?

(A) Q is the son of P

(B) Q is the wife of P

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

60. Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal to 10% loss. What will be Gopal’s position if he agreed ?

(A) Neither loss nor gain

(B) Loss 1%

(D) Gain 0.5%

Answer: (C)

Directions –(Q. 61-67) Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

We have hard work ahead. There is no resting for any of us till we redeem our pledge in full, till we make all the people of India what destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of a great country, on the verge of bold advance and we have to live up to that high standard. All of us, to whatever religion we may belong, are equally the children of India with equal rights, privileges and obligations. We cannot encourage communalism or narrow mindedness for no nation can be great whose people are narrow in thought or action.

61. The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve-

(A) a high standard of living, progress and privileges

(B) equal privileges, fulfillment of destiny and political tolerance

(D) hard work, brotherhood and national unity

Answer: (B)

Passage-2

“The individual, according to Rousseau, puts his person and all his power in common under the supreme direction of the General Will and in our corporate capacity we receive each member as an invisible part of the whole.”

62. In the light of the above passage, the nature of General Will is best described as-

(A) the sum total of the private wills of the individuals

(B) what is articulated by the elected representatives of the individuals

(D) the material interests of the community

Answer: (A)

Passage-3

In a democratic State, where a high degree of political maturity of the people obtains, the conflict between the will of the sovereign law making body and the organized will of the people seldom occurs.

63. What does the above passages imply ?

(A) In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

(B) In a mature democracy,, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

(D) In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

Answer: (D)

Passage-4

A successful democracy depends upon widespread interest and participation in politics, in which voting is an essential part. To deliberately refrain from taking such an interest and from voting, is a king of implied anarchy; it is to refuse one’s political responsibility while enjoying the benefits of a free political society.

64. This passage relates to-

(A) duty to vote

(B) right to vote

(D) right to participate in politics

Answer: (A)

Passage-5

In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of outstanding character and ability. Moreover, it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early in life on can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country.

65. The passage seems to suggest that-

(A) a leader foresees his future position

(B) a leader is chosen only by a free country

(D) despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship

Answer: (D)

Passage-6

The greatest blessing that technological progress has in store for mankind is not, of course, an accumulation of material possessions. The amount of these that can be effectively enjoyed by one individual in one lifetime is not great. But there is not the same narrow limit to the possibilities of the enjoyment of leisure. The gift of leisure may be abused by people who have had no experience of making use of it. Yet the creative use of leisure by a minority in societies has been the mainspring of all human progress beyond the primitive level.

66. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made –

1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more material possessions.

2. Use of leisure by some people to produce new and original things has been the chief source of human progress.

Which of the these assumptions is/are valid ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B)

Passage-7

There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events”. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying particularly the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire to leadership. Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win-and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. And the student will see that the same pattern recurs consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.

67. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made –

1. A study of the famous battles of history would help us understand the modern warfare.

2. Studying the history is essential for anyone who aspires to be a leader.

Which of these assumptions is/are valid ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B)

68. Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of the 5th person will be-

(A) 45 kg

(B) 47.5 kg

(D) 52.5 kg

Answer: (C)

69. In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are among the tennis players. Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgraduate in Commerce, who among the following is both a tennis player and a bank employee ?

(A) Amala

(B) Komala

(D) Shyamala

Answer: (C)

70. P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B.

In this context, which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) P is greater than Q

(B) Q is greater than P

(D) None of the above can be concluded with certainty

Answer: (A)

71. A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2 minutes in every 24 hours. At a particular instant,, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of the following statements is correct if 24 hour clock is followed ?

(A) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days

(B) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 90 days

(D) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (D)

72. In a city, 12% of households earn less than Rs 30,000 per year, 6% households earn more than Rs 2,00,000 per year, 22% house-holds earn more than Rs 1,00,000 per year and 990 households earn between Rs 30,000 and Rs 1,00,000 per year. How many households earn between Rs 1,00,000 and Rs 2,00,000 per year ?

(A) 250

(B) 240

(D) 225

Answer: (B)

73. A clock strikes ones at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock an thrice at 3 o’clock and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock ?

(A) 20 seconds

(B) 24 seconds

(D) 30 seconds

Answer: (B)

74. Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow –

Statement : Morning walk is good for health.

Conclusions :

1. All healthy people go for morning walk.

2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health.

What is/are the valid conclusion/conclusions ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (D)

75. There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?

(A) 47

(B) 49

(D) 45

Answer: (A)

76. Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who passes on 1 to E. Then the number of cards possessed by D and E is equal to the number of cards possessed by-

(A) A, B and C

(B) B, C and F

(D) A, C and F

Answer: (B)

77. There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to-

(A) 25%

(B) 30%

(D) 40%

Answer: (A)

78. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to one another on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed ?

(A) 16

(B) 24

(D) 42

Answer: (D)

79. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train ?

(A) 480 km

(B) 260 km

(D) 120 km

Answer: (C)

80. In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks that Shankar. Neha obtained moremarks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained highest marks?

(A) Randhir

(B) Neha

(D) Data are inadequate

Answer: (D)

UPSC Central Armed Police Forces (AC) Examination Held on June 2016 General Ability and Intelligence Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021September 5, 2017 by suresh84

UPSC Central Armed Police Forces (AC) Examination June 2016

GENERAL ABILITY AND INTELLIGENCE

1. ‘Cut Motion’ can be introduced after the presentation of:

(a) any Bill introduced in the Parliament.

(b) the Railway and General Budgets.

(d) a Constitution Amendment Bill.

Answer: (a)

2. Who among the following divided governments into ‘Republican’, ‘Monarchical’ and ‘Despotic’?

(a) Aristotle

(b) Hobbes

(d) St. Augustine

Answer: (c)

3. Who among the following coined the terms ‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command Polity’?

(a) Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne H. Rudolph

(b) Rajni Kothari

(d) Paul Brass

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following statements about the Bengali literary epic, Meghnad Badh Kabya (1861), is/are correct?

1. It was written by Michael Madhusudan Dutta.

2. It draws upon existing Hindu and Jain traditions of Ramayana.

3. It was translated into Assamese and Hindi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a)

5. Which one of the following is the famous novel written in 1869 by Nazir Ahmad?

(a) Twilight in Delhi

(b) Mirat-ul-urus

(d) City of Djinns

Answer: (b)

6. Which of the following statements about the founding of the Indian National Congress (INC) is/are correct?

1. The INC was formed in Bombay in 1885.

2. The first president of the INC was W.C. Bonnerjee.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

7. The earliest literary references to iron in the Indian sub-continent are found in the:

(a) Rigveda

(b) Samaveda

(d) Vinaya Pitaka

Answer: (c)

8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

(Author)

A. Dadabhai Naoroji

B. Prafulla Chandra Ray

C. Mahadev Govind Ranade

D. R. C. Dutt

List II

(Book)

1. Essay on Indian Economics

2. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India

3.Economic History of India

4. The poverty Problem in India

(a) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(b) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (a)

9. Consider the following statements about the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909:

1. They were named after the British Parliamentarians, Minto and Morley.

2. They provided for limited self-government by increasing the number of elected Indians in the Legislative Councils.

3. They contained provisions that ensured that British officials retained their majority in the Imperial Legislative Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

10. Identify from the following the novel written by Charles Dickens that critiqued the adverse impact of industrialization on the poor.

(a) The Day Before America

(b) Hard Times

(d) The Courtier

Answer: (b)

11. What is the meaning of term “Humanist” use during the Renaissance in 15th century Europe?

1. It refers to the masters who taught grammar and rhetoric.

2. It refers to the masters who taught poetry, history and moral philosophy.

3. It refers to the masters who taught subjects that were connected with religion.

4. It refers to masters who emphasized skills that were developed through discussion and debate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (d)

12. Which of the following was/were the features of the Quit India Movement?

1. From the very beginning, it was a rural revolt.

2. It was essentially a moderate movement.

3. It was marked by the unprecedented use of violence.

4. It was marked by acute state repression.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

13. Which of the following statements about the new style of architecture of Rome in the 15th century is/are correct?

1. It was marked by a complete break from the past.

2. It was actually a revival of the imperial Roman style.

3. The architects familiar with classical style were employed by wealthy merchants and aristocrats.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)

14. Which of the following statements about the ideology of Utilitarianism in the context of British India is/are correct?

1. Utilitarianism believed that the rule of law was necessary for societal betterment.

2. James Mill expounded the principles of Utilitarianism in his famous book, “Utilitarians and the Raj”.

3. Utilitarians differed from the liberals in significant ways.

4. Utilitarianism had distinct authoritarian tendencies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

15. Which of the following statements about the Swadeshi movement in Bengal in 1905 are correct?

1. It was marked by the mass mobilization through the organization of “Samitis”.

2. It was marked by the mass mobilization through labour strikes.

3. It advocated a constructive programme of self help or “atmashakti”.

4. In the sphere of education, national schools were established.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

16. Who among the following is the winner of the 8th Human Rights Award by Amnesty International, Germany?

(a) Monira Rahman

(b) Abel Barrera

(d) Henri Tiphagne

Answer: (b)

17. Which of the following pairs of Scheme and Target Group, as initiated in the Railway Budget 2016, is/are correctly matched?

Scheme Target Group

1. Antyodaya : Express For the Reserved Passengers

2. Deen Dayalu : Coaches For the Unreserved Passengers

3. Humsafar : For the Reserved Passengers

4. Tejas : For the Unreserved Passengers

The correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Answer: (b)

18. Who among the following the first person outside Indian Navy to become the Director-General of Indian Coast Guard?

(a) Krishna Chaudhary

(b) Rajendra Singh

(d) H. C. S. Bisht

Answer: (b)

19. Who among the following is the winner of the Jnanpith Award for the year 2015?

(a) Bhalachandra Nemade

(b) Raghuveer Chaudhary

(d) Girish Karnad

Answer: (b)

20. Lance Naik Hanumanthappa Koppad, who was buried alive under snow by deadly avalanche at Siachen Glacier, who later died in a hospital after he was miraculously rescued by army, was a soldier of

(a) Dogra Regiment

(b) Madras Regiment

(d) Jat Regiment

Answer: (b)

21. Which one of the following was the Theme State in the 30th Surajkund International Craft Mela?

(a) Chhattisgarh

(b) Kerala

(d) Bihar

Answer: (c)

22. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Government of India, has recently decided to set up India’s first defence industrial park at

(a) Kochi

(b) Ottappalam

(d) Bengaluru

Answer: (b)

23. Who among the following scientists of Indian origin is/has been the President of Royal Society?

(a) Ronald Ross

(b) Har Gobind Khorana

(d) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

Answer: (d)

24. The largest greenhouse gas leakage in the US history took place in February 2016. The gas was

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Methane

(d) Nitrous oxide

Answer: (b)

25. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Gravitational Waves were predicted by Albert Einstein in 1916 on the basis of his theory of General Relativity.

2. Gravitational waves do also exist in the Newtonian theory of Gravitation.

3. Gravitational Waves are to be detected by very sensitive detectors known as Interferometers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

26. In the diagram given below, there is a circle, a square and a triangle dividing the region into five disjoint bounded areas. Each of these areas are labeled with number of players belonging to that area. The circle contains cricketers, the square contains football players and the triangle contains hockey players.

Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) Every hockey player plays football

(b) Every cricket player plays either football or hockey

(d) There are some football players who play neither cricket nor hockey.

Answer: (b)

27. There are two concentric circles. The radii of the two circles are 100 m and 110 m respectively. A wheel of radius 30 cm rolls on the smaller circle and another wheel rolls on the larger circle. After they have completed one revolution, it is found that the two wheels rolled equal number of times on their respective axes. What is the radius of the other wheel?

(a) 31 cm

(b) 32 cm

(d) 34 cm

Answer: (c)

28. A triangle is formed with vertices (0, 0), (0, 100) and (100, 100). What is the number of points inside the triangle with integer coordinate?

(a) 5000

(b) 4999

(d) 4800

Answer: (c)

29. Which one of the following is the wrong number in the series 6, 14, 30, 64, 126?

(a) 126

(b) 64

(d) 6

Answer: (b)

30. Given below is a figure of a square transparent sheet with a pattern:

Which one of the following is the correct figure showing how the pattern would appear after folding the above mentioned transparent sheet at the dotted line?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

31. In a school there are three batches of players who play cricket, football and hockey. An incomplete chart of number of students playing an individual sport belonging to an individual batch is displayed in the following table:

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Batch II is empty

(b) Batch I and Batch II do not have equal number of students

(d) Batch II and Batch III can have equal number of students

Answer: (b)

32. There are two boxes. Box I contains one white card and two black cards and Box II contains one white card and black card. Two persons P and Q play a game. P picks a card randomly from Box I. If P finds the whit3e card, P wins and the game stops. If P finds the black card, Q draws a card randomly from Box II. If Q finds the white card Q wins. The game stops whether Q draws the white card or the black card,

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) If P loses, Q wins

(b) If Q loses, P wins

(d) Both P and Q may lose

Answer: (d)

33. Suppose R is the region bounded by the two curves y = x² and y = 2x² – 1 as show in the following diagram :

Two distinct line are drawn such that each of these lines partitions the regions into at least two parts. If ‘n’ is the total number of regions generated by these lines, then:

(a) ‘n’ can be 4 but not 3

(b) ‘n’ can be 4 but not 5

(d) ‘n’ can be 6

Answer: (b)

34. Consider the following sequence : 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210

Which one of the following numbers will come next in the sequence?

(a) 240

(b) 290

(d) 504

Answer: (c)

35.Consider the following figure:

Which one of the following is the number of triangles in the figure given above?

(a) 22

(b) 27

(d) 29

Answer: (c)

36. Recently French military announced to end ‘Operation Sagaris’, which was in operation since 2013, in which one of the following nations?

(a) Chad

(b) Central African Repulic

(d) Congo

Answer: (b)

37. Which one of the following cities hosted the Tenth Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organization during December 2015?

(a) Geneva

(b) Manila

(d) Nairobi

Answer: (d)

38. Which one of the following films was awarded the best children’s film in Berlin International Film Festival, 2016?

(a) Ottal

(b) Killa

(d) Hail, Caesar!

Answer: (a)

39. Which one of the following statements regarding Zika virus is not correct?

(a) It was first isolated from a monkey in the Zika forest of Uganda

(b) It is transmitted by daytime-active Aedes mosquitoes

(d) Zika virus in pregnant women results in abnormal brain development of the foetus

Answer: (c)

40. Which one of the following fiction was selected for Man Booker Prize, 2015?

(a) A Little Life

(b) The Fishermen

(d) Satin Island

Answer: (c)

41. Which one of the following is not a source of political legitimacy?

(a) Consent

(b) Rational prudence

(d) Public reason

Answer: (c)

42. Which one of the following is a characteristic of Presidential form of Government?

(a) President is not a part of legislative body

(b) It does not separate Legislative and Executive functions

(d) The tenure of the President depends on the Legislature

Answer: (a)

43. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the abolition and creation of legislative Councils?

(a) Article 171

(b) Article 169

(d) Article 182

Answer: (b)

44. The provision under Article 51A of the Constitution of India relates to the

(a) uniform civil code for the citizens.

(b) organization of village panchayats.

(d) fundamental duties.

Answer: (d)

45. Parochial political culture is generally found in

(a) Developing societies

(b) Societies having multi-party system.

(d) Monarchical societies.

Answer: (d)

46. Who among the following sociologists is the first to propound the concept of civil society?

(a) Adam Ferguson

(b) Antonio Gramsci

(d) Alexis de Tocqueville

Answer: (a)

47. The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force on

(a) 15 August 1946

(b) 15 August 1947

(d) 26 January 1957

Answer: (d)

48. Who among the following British ethnographers launched the Survey of India project in the 1860s?

(a) Hunter

(b) Dufferin

(d) Thurston

Answer: (b)

49. Which of the following statements about ‘ Barnaparichay’, a mid 19th century Bengali text is/are correct?

1. It was written by Raja Rammohan Roy.

2. It was the most widely used Bengali primer of the time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

50. Which of the following statements about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct?

1. The Champaran region had along tradition of anti-planter discontent and agitation.

2. Mahatma Gandhi gave all India publicity to the grievances of Champaran cultivators.

3. The cultivators of Champaran had protested against excessive taxation on sugar.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

51. Which one of the following figures correctly represents the relations between Jupiter, Mars and Planets?

Answer: (a)

52. Consider the following Statements and Conclusions:

Statements:

Mohan is a good sportsman. Sportsman are healthy.

Conclusions:

I. All healthy persons are sportsmen.

II. Mohan is healthy.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Only Conclusion I follows

(b) Only Conclusion II follows

(d) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

Answer: (b)

53. Which one of the following layers of atmosphere has high concentration of ions?

(a) Stratosphere

(b) Exosphere

(d) Troposphere

Answer: (c)

54. Which one of the following cities has greater annual range of temperature?

(a) Kuala Lumpur

(b) New Delhi

(d) Ulaanbaatar

Answer: (b)

55. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I

(Climate type in letter code)

A. Aw

B. Af

C. Cs

D. Am

List II

(Major area)

1. Central California

2. Indian Sub-Continent

3. North and South of Amazon

4. Western Equatorial Africa

(a) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(d) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

Answer: (*)

56. Ramsar Convention, to which India is a signatory, is related to the conservation and wise use of:

(a) wetlands

(b) genetic resources

(d) forest lands

Answer: (a)

57. Which one of the following rivers flows between Satpura and Vindhya ranges?

(a) Tapi

(b) Sabarmati

(d) Mahi

Answer: (c)

58. Which one of the following is the correct taxonomic hierarchy?

(a) Kingdom – phylum – order – genus – family – class – species

(b) Kingdom – order – class – phylum – family – genus – species

(d) Kingdom – phylum – class – order – family – genus – species

Answer: (d)

59. The subunits of DNA are known as:

(a) Nucleotide

(b) Nucleosome

(d) Polypeptide

Answer: (a)

60. The process of using microbes to treat areas of land of sea that have been contaminated by pesticides, oil or solvents is known as:

(a) Eutrophication

(b) Nitrification

(d) Bioremediation

Answer: (d)

61. How is the rate of transpiration affected by decreasing humidity and by decreasing light intensity?

Decreasing humidity Decreasing light intensity

(a) Decreases Decreases

(b) Increases Decreases

(d) Decreases Increases

Answer: (b)

62. Vaccination involves:

(a) injecting the body with materials that stimulate the body to produce antibodies

(b) injecting the body with material that stimulate the body to produce antigens

(d) use of antibiotics to cure diseases

Answer: (a)

63. Which of the following are examples of carnivorous plants?

(a) Sundew Venus fly trap, Pitcher plant

(b) Cuscuta, Rafflesia, Mistletoe

(d) Cuscuta, Bladderwort, Mistletoe

Answer: (a)

64. Consider the following

Which one of the following figures will come in the blank space?

Answer: (b)

65. Consider the following diagram (not in scale) :

(a) 14 km

(b) 15 km

(d) 13 km

Answer: (d)

66. The number of persons reading newspaper is shown in the following Venn Diagram (Survey of 50 persons):

In a population of 10000, what is the number of persons expected to read at least two newspapers?

(a) 5000

(b) 6000

(d) 5400

Answer: (d)

67. A vehicle with mileage 15 km per litre contains 2 L of fuel. The vehicle gets some defect as a result of which 5 L of fuel gets wasted per hour when the engine is on. With what minimum speed the vehicle has to move to travel 20 km with the existing amount of fuel, if it travels with a uniform speed?

(a) 100 km per hour

(b) 120 km per hour

(d) 200 km per hour

Answer: (c)

68. Consider the following statements relating to Sea Salinity:

1. The ocean salinity depends on evaporation and precipitation

2. Any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity

3. Major source of sea salinity is terrestrial discharge by rivers

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

69. Consider the following statements relating so salt production in India:

1. India is the second largest producer of iodised salt in the world next only to China.

2. Salt mining is carried out in Himachal Pradesh.

3. Gujarat is the leading producer of salt in India.

4. Groundwater is the important source of salt in Rajasthan

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

70. Which of the following statements relating Dharwar geological system are correct?

1. They belong to Archaean geological period.

2. They are metamorphosed sedimentary rocks.

3. They are of great economic importance for its mineral resources.

4. They are found predominantly in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Jharkhand.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (b)

71. Which one of the following is the correct order of formation of geological systems in India in terms of their age?

(Starting with the oldest)

(a) Dharwars – Aravallis – Vindhyans – Cuddapahs

(b) Aravallis – Dharwars – Cuddapahs – Vindhyans

(d) Cuddapahs – Vindhyans – Dharwars – Aravallis

Answer: (d)

72. A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state is called:

(a) Fusion

(b) Sublimation

(d) Emulsion

Answer: (b)

73. Water at 273 K is less effective in cooling than ice at the same temperature. It is because:

(a) water is difficult to handle

(b) water at 273 K has less energy than ice at the same temperature

(d) water is not a cooling agent

Answer: (c)

74. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The rate of evaporation depends on temperature

(b) The rate of evaporation does not depend on surface area exposed to the atmosphere but on volume of the liquid

(d) The rate of evaporation depends on the wind speed

Answer: (b)

75. Which one of the following is not a colloid?

(a) Milk

(b) Mud

(d) Boric acid

Answer: (d)

76. Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of the debate between “Anglicists” and “Orientalists” in the 1830s?

1. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money being spent on printing Sanskrit and Arabic texts.

2. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money spent on printing Sanskrit texts, but wished to continue to print in Persian .

3. The Orientalists wanted stipend for the students of Arabic and Sanskrit.

4. The Orientalists started a new Sanskrit College in Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

77. Which of the following statements about Exercise IBSAMAR is/are correct?

1. It is a joint exercise of Navy of India, Brazil and Sri Lanka.

2. The fifth edition of IBSAMAR was held in Goa.

3. All previous editions of IBSAMAR were held outside India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

78. Which of the following statements about “Nairobi Package’ adopted in the Tenth Ministerial Conference of WTO is/are correct?

1. No safeguard mechanism for developing country members.

2. Preferential rules of origin for least developed countries.

3. Public stockholding for food security purposes.

Select t he correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

79. The ‘Paris Agreement’ adopted in Conference of the Parties (COP 21) in December 2015 will be effective provided the document is signed by:

(a) 51 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 51% of global greenhouse gas emission

(b) 51 UNFCCC parties accounting for at leas 55% of global greenhouse gas emission

(d) 75 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 51% of global greenhouse gas emission

Answer: (c)

80. Which one of the following cities hosted the Twelfth South Asian Games, 2016?

(a) Patiala

(b) Kochi

(d) Agartala

Answer: (c)

81. The latest trophy introduced in Indian domestic cricket competition is:

(a) Deodhar Trophy

(b) Vijay Hazare Trophy

(d) Duleep Trophy

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are correct?

1. It was not based on adult franchise.

2. It resulted from direct election.

3. It was a multi-party body.

4. It worked through several committees.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

83. Who among the following may be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad?

(a) Chief Minister

(b) District Collector

(d) Elected from its own members

Answer: (b)

84. What is meant by Social Equality?

(a) Each person should perform the functions according to his status

(b) No effort should be made to modify the existing social system

(c) No person should be made to suffer a position of relative inferiority in relation to other men due to caste, race or religion

(d) Special effort to improve the lot of weaker section

Answer: (c)

85. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) Every State Government has powers of its own

(b) Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of Government

(d) Sources of revenue for each level of Government are clearly specified

Answer: (c)

86. The Joint Training Exercise, Garuda Shakti, is conducted as part of military diplomacy between Indian Army and

(a) Bangladesh Army.

(b) Royal Bhutan Army.

(d) Indonesian Army.

Answer: (d)

87. Which one of the following statements regarding Human Rights is not correct?

(a) Human Rights derive their inspiration from moral principles

(b) They are applicable subject to their adoption by States

(d) The universalism of Human Rights is challenged by the cultural relativists.

Answer: (c)

88. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Permanent Settlement?

(a) The Permanent Settlement vested landownership rights in the Zamindar

(b) The Permanent Settlement continued to pay attention to the customary occupancy rights of peasants

(d) The condition of the actual cultivators of the land declined under Permanent Settlement

Answer: (b)

89. Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of the Ryotwari system?

1.It was the brainchild of Thomas Munro

2. It was meant to reduce intermediaries.

3. Cultivating peasants were gradually impoverished by the system

4. It was introduced in parts of Madras and Bengal Presidency

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

90. Who among the following founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1815?

(a) Keshab Chandra Sen

(b) Debendranath Tagore

(d) Bijoy Krishna Goswami

Answer: (c)

91. Consider the following statements about the Santhal Hool of 1855-56:

1. The Santhals were in a desperate situation as tribal lands were leased out.

2. The Santhal rebels were treated very leniently by British officials.

3. Santhal-inhabited areas were eventually constituted into separate administrative units called Santhal Parganas.

4. The Santhal-rebellion was the only major rebellion in the mid-19th century India.

Which of the following given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (d)

92. Which of the following statements about Subedar Major Fateh Singh is/are correct?

1. He was a big bore rifle shooter who won two gold medals during first Commonwealth Championship.

2. He retired from Bihar regiment before joining Defence Service Corps.

3. He was killed during the terror attack at Pathankot Air Force Base.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

93. Which one among the following is the oldest Regiment of Indian Army?

(a) Sikh Regiment

(b) Kumaon Regiment

(d) Madras Regiment

Answer: (d)

94. Which one of the following cities has been identified as the best habitable city in the 18th Mercer Quality of Life Study, 2016?

(a) Munich

(b) Vienna

(d) Vancouver

Answer: (b)

95. Which one of the following States won the 61st National School Athletics Championship in the year 2016?

(a) Punjab

(b) Kerala

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (b)

96. In February 2016, which one of the following countries rejected the plea of the incumbent President through a referendum to contest the Presidential election for the third term?

(a) Brazil

(b) Paraguay

(d) Peru

Answer: (c)

97. The Theory of Separation of Powers is a division of powers between

(a) Central and State Governments.

(b) different branches of Government.

(d) State and local governments.

Answer: (b)

98. The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to

(a) the provisions relating to the formation of District Councils.

(b) the land reforms.

(d) the Anti-Defection Law.

Answer: (d)

99. The amending power of the Parliament is set forth in which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 368

(b) Article 360

(d) Article 370

Answer: (a)

100. With regard to a Constitution Amendment Bill, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can call a joint sitting of both the Houses to pass the Bill

(b) Each house needs to pass the Bill separately by a prescribed special majority

(d) The Bill can be sponsored by a Private Member

Answer: (a)

101. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I List II

(Isotope) (Application)

A. Carbon 1. Treatment of goiter

B. Cobalt 2. Calculation of age of the earth

C. Iodine 3. Treatment of cancer

D. Uranium 4. Fuel in nuclear reactors

(a) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(d) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (a)

102. A device can write 100 digits in 1 minute. It starts writing natural numbers. The device is stopped after running it for half an hour. It is found that the last number it was writing is incomplete. The number is:

(a) 3000

(b) 3001

(d) 1027

Answer: (d)

103. A circular coin of radius 1 cm is allowed to roll freely on the periphery over a circular disc of radius 10 cm. If the disc has no movement and the coin completes one revolution rolling on the periphery over the disc and without slipping, then what is the number of times the coin rotated about its centre?

(a) 10

(b) 10.5

(d) 12

Answer: (c)

104. Which one of the following is different from the remaining three?

(a) Triangle

(b) Square

(d) Ellipse

Answer: (a)

105. Which one of the following inequalities is always true for positive real numbers x, y?

(a) xy > x + y

(b) (x + y) < (x + y)²

(d) 1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)²

Answer: (d)

106. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Kolkata port is the only riverine major portof India

2. The port of Cochin is located on the Wellington Island

3. Maharashtra has three major ports

4. Mundra port is India’s major port in private sector

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (d)

107. Perth located on 118° East Longitude will be celebrating New Year event on 1st of January 2017 at 6:00 AM. At that time, what would be the time at Los Angeles located on 110° West Longitude?

(a) 9 : 12 PM of 1st January 2017

(b) 2 : 48 PM of 31st December 2016

(d) 5 : 28 AM of 1st January 2017

Answer: (b)

108. Which one of the following States has the maximum number of registered E-Waste recyclers/dismantlers?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Tamil Nadu

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (c)

109. Arrange the following substances in their order of increasing hardness:

1. Gypsum 2. Topaz

3. Fluorite 4. Feldspar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4-3-2-1

(b) 1-3-4-2

(d) 1-4-3-2

Answer: (d)

110. During 2014-15, in which one of t he following industrial sectors, the FDI equity inflow was maximum?

(a) Telecommunications

(b) Services (Financial, Banking and Insurance, Non-Financial/Business, R & D etc.)

(d) Hotel and Tourism

Answer: (b)

111. Which one of the following is not an industrial corridor as per the policy initiatives ?

(a) Amritsar – Kolkata

(b) Delhi – Mumbai

(d) Chennai – Bengaluru

Answer: (c)

112. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Bleaching powder is prepared by the action of Chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)₂]

(b) Bleaching powder acts as reducing agent in many chemical industries

(d) Bleaching powder is used for disinfecting drinking water

Answer: (b)

113. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Graphite is a non-metal

(b) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon

(d) Graphite has a tetrahedral structure

Answer: (d)

114. Consider the following physical quantities:

Which of the above is/are the vector quantity/quantities?

(a) Impulse only

(b) Impulse and pressure only

(d) Gravitational potential

Answer: (a)

115. A piece of stone tied to a string is made to revolve in a circular orbit of radius r with other end of the string as the centre. If the string breaks, the stone will

(a) move away from the centre.

(b) move towards the centre.

(d) stop

Answer: (c)

116. Which one of the following statement is not true?

(a) The gravitational force of earth acting on a body of mass 1 kg is 9.8 newton

(b) The force acting on an object of mass 5 kg moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s on a frictionless surface is zero

(d) The momentum of a man having mass 100 kg walking with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s is 200 newton second

Answer: (c)

117. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(a) Acceleration due to gravity decreases with the increase of altitude

(b) Acceleration due to gravity increases with the increase of depth (assuming earth to be a sphere of uniform density)

(d) Acceleration due to gravity is independent of the mass of the earth

Answer: (a)

118. A Barometer kept in the elevator reads 760 mm when the elevator is at rest. When the elevator moves in the upward direction with increasing speed, the reading of the Barometer will be

(a) 760 mm

(b) < 760 mm

(d) Zero

Answer: (c)

119. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The earth’s magnetic field is due to the motion of metals like iron and nickel in the core of the earth

(b) The magnetic field lines of force are widely separated near the poles

(d) When the speed of a conductor moving through a magnetic field is increased, the induced voltage increases

Answer: (b)

120. Let a resistor having 4 ohm resistance be connected across the terminals of a 12 volt battery. Then the charge in coulomb passing through the resistor per second is

(a) 12

(b) 4

(d) 0.33

Answer: (c)

121. Arrange the followings varieties of silk in India in their order of decreasing production:

1. Muga

2. Eri

3. Mulberry

4. Tasar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3-2-4-1

(b) 3-4-2-1

(d) 2-1-4-3

Answer: (a)

122. Which of the following are the objectives of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission?

1. To provide employment in rural areas

2. To produce saleable articles

3. To create self reliance amongst people and building up a strong rural community spirit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a)

123. Which of the following statements concerning circum-pacific belt are correct?

1. It is an active volcanic realm

2. It is an active seismic realm

3. It is a divergent plate boundary

4. It is prone to Tsunami

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

124. Which of the following statements relating to solar system is/are correct?

1. Venus and Uranus rotate opposite to the direction of rotation of Earth.

2. Venus is the nearest planet to Earth.

Select the correct answer u sing the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

125. If a place is a affected by tide at 6:00 AM Monday, normally at what time the same place will be affected by Ebb?

(a) 6:26 PM Monday

(b) 6:52 AM Tuesday

(d) 00:26 AM Tuesday

Answer: (b)

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) CDS Examination Held On February 2017, English Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021August 8, 2017 by suresh84

Union Public Service Commission

Combined Defence Services Examination Held On February 2017

English

Directions (Qs. 1 to 22) : In this section, you have six short passages. After each passage, you will find some questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage – 1

When Jonathan (the seagull) came, it was well after dark, and he floated in moonlight on the surface of the ocean. His wings were ragged bars of lead, but the weight of failure was even heavier on his back. He wished, feebly, that the weight would be just en enough to drag him gently down to the bottom, and end it all. But soon he came back to normal. He pushed wearily away from the dark water and flew towards the land, grateful for what he had learned about work-saving low-altitude flying.

1. The word “wearily” means

(a) tireless

(b) exhausted

(d) unconscious

Answer: (b)

2. The seagull suffered because

(a) he had tried to do something that other seagulls had not done.

(b) probably he had been attacked by a stronger bird.

(d) he had swooned and fallen into the water.

Answer: (a)

3. ‘His wings were ragged bars of lead’ means that

(a) his wings were damaged and supported by bars of lead.

(b) his wings were damaged and therefore very heavy.

(d) his wings were broken like pieces of lead.

Answer: (b)

4. The lesson that h e head learnt that day was about

(a) not fighting with stronger birds.

(b) flying carrying bars of lead on his wings.

(d) flying at low altitudes.

Answer: (d)

Passage – 2

Vacationing on a motorcycle, you see things in a way that is completely different from any other. In a car you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do not realize that through that car window everything you see is just m ore TV. You are a passive observer and it is all moving by you boringly in a frame. On a motorcycle, however, the frame is gone. You are completely in contact with it all. You are in the scene, not just watching it anymore, and the sense of presence is overwhelming.

5. The writer likes travelling on the motorcycle. What is the most likely reason for this?

(a) The motorcycle has no windows.

(b) The motorcycle does not go as fast as a car.

(d) Travelling by motorcycle, the writer feels that he is p art of the scenery.

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following statements is closest to the truth?

(a) The writer does not like TV as it gives a narrow view of things.

(b) The writer likes TV but he does not like watching it from car windows.

(d) The writer does not like TV because the programmes are boring.

Answer: (c)

7. “In a car you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do not realize that ………. .” In this sentence, ‘it’ refers to

(a) travelling in a car.

(b) always being in a compartment, e.g. one’s room, office.

(d) seeing so much TV at home.

Answer: (c)

8. In the last sentence, the writer talks of a ‘sense of presence’. He is referring to the presence of

(a) his own self as part of the scene.

(b) the time that is now passing.

(d) senses with which one feels.

Answer: (a)

9. The word ‘overwhelming’ means

(a) very strong

(b) unavoidable

(d) humorous

Answer: (a)

Passage-3

I was lying down in a dark, lonely compartment of the speeding train, trying to sleep. But, quite unusually, sleep eluded me. A vague uneasiness gripped me. It was pitch dark outside. A few pints of light flashed by as we sped through a small station and in the dim light I thought I saw a hand gripping the bars of my window. Once gain the train was swallowed up by the impenetrable darkness. My heart pounded. My mouth was parched. I could not get up. I do not know how long I remained thus before the train began to slow down. The reassuring bright lights of the station we were entering revealed no intruder. I breathed again.

10. The narrator could not sleep because

(a) he usually found it difficult to fall asleep.

(b) he could not find a place to lie down.

(d) the people near him were disturbing him.

Answer: (c)

11. In the dim light he saw

(a) someone trying to climb into the train.

(b) someone clinging to the bars of the window.

(d) someone standing outside the window.

Answer: (a)

12. Which of the following words best describes the condition of the traveller?

(a) Cautious

(b) Imaginative

(d) Nervous

Answer: (d)

Passage-4

I was abruptly awakened by a noisy scuffle. The sun, a mere fringe over the horizon, immediately chased away the grey half-darkness. I was too sleepy to notice what was happening. Yuri was rolling over on the ground. I ran up to him but was struck dumb. With his right hand he was holding a cobra by the neck. Two sharp fangs showed from its jaws. The battle was over in a few minutes. A hollow hissing and convulsive jerks were then only reminders of a just-ended tussle. The catcher half-opened the lid of the box and calmly put the quarry in.

13. When the writer saw Yuri holding a cobra by the neck, he was ‘struck dumb’. This means that he was

(a) extremely delighted.

(b) very much helpless.

(d) absolutely shocked.

Answer: (d)

14. From the passage, Yuri appears to be a man who is

(a) calm and courageous.

(b) cunning and crafty.

(d) active and jumpy.

Answer: (a)

15. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The incident took place early in the morning.

2. Yuri threw the snake away.

Which of these assumptions is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Passage-5

Urbanisation and inustrialisation have often resulted in whole areas of forests being cleared to gain new land and to obtain timber for the various building projects. Large areas of fields and forests have disappeared to make way for concrete jungles many of which are fitted with huge plants and chimney stacks. Industrial growth has necessitated the increased demand for fuel oil to run the machines and in doing so produces industrial gases and fumes which belch through the chimney and pollute the atmosphere. The most evident elements in the contamination of the atmosphere are dust, sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide.

16. The writer expresses the belief that

(a) there is plenty of scope for further industrialisation.

(b) unplanned growth of industry has done more harm than good.

(d) the timber obtained from the forests has been beneficially used.

Answer: (b)

17. The effect on forest areas produced by the activity described in the first sentence is called

(a) devastation

(b) deforestation

(d) devaluation

Answer: (b)

18. The results of industrial development, according to the writer, are

(a) urbanisation.

(b) no shortage of fuel oil.

(d) greater fuel consumption and pollution.

Answer: (d)

19. The phrase ‘concrete jungle’ in the paragraph refers to the factories and houses built as a result of urbanisation and industrialisation. This phrase suggests that the author

(a) regrets that fields and forests have been replaced by city buildings.

(b) believes that too much cement has been used in building factories.

(d) would like to go back to life in the jungle.

Answer: (a)

Passage – 6

I must say a word about the Eiffel Tower. I do not know what purpose it serves today. But I then heard it greatly disparaged as well as praised. I remember that Tolstoy was the chief among those who disparaged it. He said that the Eiffel Tower was a monument of man’s folly, not of his wisdom. Tobacco, he argued, was the worst of all intoxicants, inasmuch as a man addicted to it was tempted to commit crimes which a drunkard never dared to do; liquor made a man mad, but tobacco clouded his intellect and made him build castles in the air. The Eiffel Tower was one of the creations of a man under such influence. There is no art about the Eiffel Tower. In no way can it be said to have contributed to the real beauty of the Exhibition. Men flocked to see it and ascended it as it was a novelty and of unique dimensions. It was the toy of the Exhibition. So long as we are children we are attracted by toys, and the Tower was a good demonstration of the fact that we are children attracted by trinkets. That may be claimed to be the purpose served by the Eiffel Tower.

20. Why did Tolstoy disparage Eiffel Tower?

1. Man was foolish to build it.

2. Huge man-made structures did not appeal to him.

3. Men flocked to see it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

21. Why did Tolstoy believe that tobacco was the worst of all intoxicants?

(a) Man lost his intellectual abilities under the influence of tobacco.

(b) Tobacco kept man in a state of inebriation.

(d) Statements (a) and (b) above are correct in this context.

Answer: (a)

22. Why did men flock to the Eiffel Tower?

(a) Men were attracted to the castles built in the air.

(b) Men lost their wisdom under the influence of intoxicants.

(d) Men were attracted to things of no value.

Answer: (c)

FILL IN THE BLANKS

Directions (Qs. 23 to 32): In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space an four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

23. In this University, there is no ______ for awarding scholarships on the basis of merit in examination alone.

(a) precedent

(b) opportunity

(d) possibility

Answer: (a)

24. Can you pay ______ all these articles?

(a) out

(b) of

(d) off

Answer: (c)

25. He may not come, but we’ll get ready in case he_______.

(a) may

(b) will

(d) does

Answer: (d)

26. He is quite __________; you can never count on him in matters of secrecy.

(a) unjust

(b) unbearable

(d) unreliable

Answer: (d)

27. The Governor will ________ the oath of office to the thirty-five new ministers at 9.30 p.m. tomorrow.

(a) confer

(b) present

(d) administer

Answer: (d)

28. Most of the students have forgotten to bring their certificates; they will be _______ by the Principal for this reason.

(a) reproached

(b) abused

(d) reprimanded

Answer: (d)

29. The consequences of economic growth have now _______ to the lowest level.

(a) drawn

(b) slipped

(d) crept

Answer: (c)

30. Ramsay did not know whether Miss Jane knew ________.

(a) swimming

(b) to swim

(d) how to swimming

Answer: (c)

31. He ____________ the role of the organisation in creating environmental awareness among the people.

(a) collaborated

(b) commanded

(d) commended

Answer: (d)

32. We should give everyone training in citizenship but we have _______ this aspect till now.

(a) denied

(b) neglected

(d) disallowed

Answer: (b)

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions (Qs. 33 to 52) : In each of the items in this section, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and select your answer accordingly.

33. he (P)/ almost (Q) / planned the entire strategy of operation (R)/ single-handed (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) RSPQ

(b) PRQS

(d) QPSR

Answer: (b)

34. it is a fact that rice is one of the most prolific (P) / than almost any other crop (Q)/ yielding a greater return per acre (R) of food crops (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) SRQP

(b) RPSQ

(d) PSRQ

Answer: (d)

35. up to the end of the eighteenth century, not only because it was often fatal, (P) / smallpox was a particularly dreaded disease, (Q) / but also because those who recovered (R) / were permanently disfigured (S)

The correct sequence should be:

(a) PQRS

(b) QRSP

(d) QPRS

Answer: (d)

36. a person bitten by a rabid dog (P) / would be seized by violent symptoms (Q) / after an incubation period of a month or two (R) / and die an agonizing death (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PRSQ

(b) SRQP

(d) PQRS

Answer: (d)

37. The traveler, sat down (P) / to rest (Q) / by the roadside (R) / being weary (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PQRS

(b) RSPQ

(d) RPQS

Answer: (c)

38. the house was (P) / away (Q) / with liveliest member (R) / gloomy (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PQRS

(b) PSRQ

(d) QRPS

Answer: (b)

39. he was a tiny man (P) /with a sprightly walk (Q) / tall (R) / barely five feet (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) RSQP

(b) SRQP

(d) PSRQ

Answer: (d)

40. rules and regulations (P) / he cheerfully ignored its demands (Q) / a life of (R) / unaccustomed to (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PQRS

(b) QRPS

(d) QSRP

Answer: (c)

41. The man for a moment, (P) / looked at me (Q) / and thus emptied my pockets (R) / turned me upside down (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PQRS

(b) QPRS

(d) PQSR

Answer: (c)

42. The lady today(P) / is visiting (Q) / us (R) / be recognizsing (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) RQPS

(b) PRQS

(d) SQRP

Answer: (d)

43. Animals are able to measure (P) / the passing of the seasons (Q) / changes in day-length (R) / by recoginising (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PQSR

(b) SQPR

(d) SRPQ

Answer: (c)

44. May people inaudible to others (P) / in the ears or head (Q) / suffer persistent noises (R) / with hearing problems (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) RQSP

(b) PSQR

(d) RSQP

Answer: (c)

45. Researchers found that allergic reactions are brought about (P) / in the bloodstream (Q) / in the 1940s (R) / by the liberations of small quantities of a substance called histamine (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) RPSQ

(b) QRPS

(d) PSQR

Answer: (a)

46. Attempts at transplanting other organs, but that which most caught the public fancy (P) / was the heart transplant (Q) / such as the lungs or the liver, (R) / have been made (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) SRQP

(b) RSPQ

(d) QRPS

Answer: (b)

47. sports cars (P) / appeal (Q) / to some motorists only (R) / with noisy exhausts (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) RQSP

(b) PSQR

(d) PQSR

Answer: (b)

48. Friendship has its place in (P) / truth and justice (Q) / but it cannot override (R) / life, (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PQRS

(b) RSPQ

(d) RQPS

Answer: (c)

49. the workaholic often (P) / becomes a prisoner of success (Q) / inadvertently (R) / reaping greater and greater rewards (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) SPRQ

(b) SPQR

(d) PQRS

Answer: (d)

50. the school masters and the professors tend to believe (P) / that innate intelligence is a quality (Q) / but that you can’t do much about it except measure it (R) / which varies very greatly from one individual to another (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PSQR

(b) PRSQ

(d) QSRP

Answer: (c)

51. People do not realise (P) / that modern society (Q) / who object to driver education (R) / is built around the automobile (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) RPQS

(b) QRSP

(d) SPQR

Answer: (a)

52. with an idea to reach the deprived child (P) /by the United Nations Organisation (Q) / the year 1979 has been declared as (R) / the International Year of the Child (S)

The correct sequence should be :

(a) PQRS

(b) PSQR

(d) RSPQ

Answer: (c)

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions (Qs. 53 to 72) : In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled P, Q R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and select your response accordingly.

53. S1: According to the legend it was during a famine in China many thousands of years ago that rice first came into the lives of the Asians.

S6: And the little gathered a harvest of rice.

P: The golden sunbeams dropped through the meshes and transformed themselves into golden grains.

Q: A little girl went fishing.

R: But instead of catching fish she netted the King of Frogs

S: The King told her to hold out the net to the sun beams while h e sang a magic song.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) PSQR

(b) RPSQ

(d) PQSR

Answer: (c)

54. S1: Ramu was in a great hurry.

S6: Fortunately, it wasn’t a very serious one.

P: As a result of this carelessness, the met with an accident.

Q: The examination was to begin in five minutes time.

R: He just rushed across the road.

S: So he forgot to look to the left of right as he always did.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) RQSP

(b) SRPQ

(d) QSRP

Answer: (a)

55. S1: Chandran was terribly angry.

S6: Saro ran screaming.

P: His pen was in her hand and Chandan rushed at her.

Q: Just then his sister, Saro, appeared at the door-step.

R: His pen was missing from the place where he had left it.

S: He thought it was lost.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) PRSQ

(b) RSQP

(d) SQPR

Answer: (b)

56. S1: One fine morning, I heard a sound of fire engines with loud alarm bells.

S6: It was a terrible scene, as huge flames of fire were coming out of the house.

P: I thought, perhaps a house was on fire.

Q: They were regulating the crowd.

R: The policemen were standing around a big house.

S: I immediately rushed out to see what was happening.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) PQRS

(b) RSQP

(d) PSRQ

Answer: (d)

57. S1: The sun-dried stalks of rice had caught fire and burst into flames.

S6: Even those who were too feeble too keep up with the first rush were on their feet, eager to join the fire-fighters.

P: Then came most of the holder people, and mothers with babies at their backs.

Q: And all the active women and girls followed them to assist them in fighting the fire.

R: All the young men and boys were soon on the spot.

S: Staring wildly at the blazing rice, the people of the village ran to extinguish the fire.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) PSQR

(b) QPRS

(d) SRQP

Answer: (d)

58. S1: People’s fear of snakes seems to be based on a series of misconceptions.

S6: Yet people will insist that they cannot touch a snake because of its sliminess.

P: The most common one is the conviction that all these creatures are poisonous.

Q: Another very popular idea is that these reptiles are slimy to touch.

R: Snakes are really dry and cold; not slimy like a wet cake of soap but rather like a crocodile-skin handbag to the touch.

S: In fact, the non-poisonous ones outnumber the poisonous ones by about ten to one.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) RQPS

(b) PRQS

(d) RQSP

Answer: (c)

59. S1: The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.

S6: The animals were not clever enough to learn anything from this.

P: Fires sometimes occur by themselves in the forests perhaps by rubbing together of flints or something else.

Q: We light a fire now by a match.

R: In olden times fires were made by striking two flints against each other till a spark came for setting fire to a dry thing.

S: But matches are quite recent things.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) PRSQ

(b) QSPR

(d) RPQS

Answer: (b)

60. S1: A common disease of the eye is conjunctivitis or ‘pink eye’, which often occurs in schoolchildren.

S6: Students with this condition should be sent to the doctor.

P: This disease spreads rapidly among schoolchildren.

Q: A white discharge also appears in the corners of the eyes.

R: One or both eyeballs turn quite red and have a feeling of irritation.

S: This discharge forms a crust which can often be seen in the morning after the eyes have been shut all night.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) PSQR

(b) RSQP

(d) QSRP

Answer: (c)

61. S1: My office sent a message with a terrific urgency asking me to return.

S6: It was the evening before I could sit and write to my parents that I would join them soon.

P: I immediately sent a message requesting a few days of grace as I had to book the return ticket and attend sundry matters before winding up my establishment here.

Q: On the way, I went to the laundry and made sure I would get my clothes in time.

R: Then I rushed to the bank collected all my money and made reservations for my return journey.

S: From the shop next to it, I bought a strong box to dump my books and other odd articles so t hat I could send them away in advance.

The p roper sequence should be :

(a) QRSP

(b) RQPS

(d) PRQS

Answer: (d)

62. S1: Harsten’s theory was that plants definitely react to music.

S6: He found that this plant grew faster and 70 percent taller than the other plant.

P: In his experiment, he used two banana plants.

Q: The music was in fact a high-patched humming sound.

R: He gave both plants the same light, heat and water.

S: But for about an hour a day, one of the plants listened to some music.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) QSRP

(b) PQRS

(d) QRPS

Answer: (c)

63. S1: Some students may feel that fast readers do not understand as much as slow readers.

S6: This statement, however, needs to be made with caution.

P: Some slow readers will have good comprehension and others poor.

Q: A quick glance at the scores will show that fast readers sometimes have very good comprehension and sometime poor.

R: This fallacy can easily be disproved when you give the first reading test in a class.

S: In short, there is little relation between reading speed and comprehension.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) RQPS

(b) SQRP

(d) QSRP

Answer: (a)

64. S1: There isn’t a cricketer worth his salt who does not aspire for captaincy.

S6: It is against this background that any emotions surrounding the captaincy should be viewed.

P: Even parents are proud when their sons become the captain.

Q: At the lower levels, it is the best player who gets to lead the team.

R: In cricket, the greatest honour any player can get is the captaincy.

S: Right from their school days, boys dream of leading the team.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) PQRS

(b) SRQP

(d) SQPR

Answer: (d)

65. S1: Systematic and ceaseless efforts are being made to tap scientifically the abundant solar energy available in the country.

S6: Installation of solar thermal systems and devices has helped to save or generate energy to the extent of 350 kWh per annum.

P: These include cooking, water heating, water desalination, space heating, etc.

Q: A large number of applications in the area have already become commercial

R: Efforts are also afoot to develop economically viable solar collectors for high temperature applications.

S: A simple and common mode in solar energy utilization in solar thermal conversion.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) QSRP

(b) QPRS

(d) RQSP

Answer: (c)

66. S1: The houses in the Indus Valley were built of baked bricks.

S6: They led outside into covered sewers which ran down the side of the streets.

P: This staircase sometimes continued upwards on to the roof.

Q: Access to the upstairs rooms was by a narrow stone staircase at the back of the house.

R: The drains were built in the walls.

S: The houses had bathrooms and water closets, rubbish chutes and excellent drainage systems.

The p roper sequence should be :

(a) SPQR

(b) PSQR

(d) QPSR

Answer: (d)

67. S1: I remember, some years ago, the library of a famous divine and literary critic, who had died, being sold.

S6: Yet, he was a holy man and preached admirable sermons.

P: Multitudes of the books had the marks of libraries all over the country.

Q: It was a splendid library of rare books, chiefly concerned with seventeenth century writers.

R: Evidently, he was very possessive about the books he borrowed.

S: He had borrowed them and never found a convenient opportunity of returning them.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) RPQS

(b) QPSR

(d) PSRQ

Answer: (b)

68. S1: Of course, it is silly to try to overcome fears that keep us from destroying ourselves.

S6: The only fears you need to avoid are silly fears which prevent you from doing what you should od.

P: This is sensible.

Q: You wait until it is out of the way before crossing.

R: You need some fears to keep you from dong foolish things.

S: You are afraid of an automobile coming rapidly down the street you wish to cross.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) PRSQ

(b) RSQP

(d) PQRS

Answer: (b)

69. S1: Nobody likes staying at home one a public holiday-especially if the weather is fine.

S6: It was very peaceful in the cool grass-until we heard bells ringing at the top of the hill.

P: We had brought plenty of food with us and we got it out of the car.

Q: The only difficulty was that millions of other people had the same idea.

R: Now everything was ready so we sat down near a path at the foot of a hill.

S: We moved out of the city slowly behind a long line of cars, but at last we came to a quiet country road and after some time, stopped at a lonely farm.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PSQR

(b) QSPR

(d) SPQR

Answer: (b)

70. S1: The teaching work for the term is over.

S6: For this, weekend trips do not suffice, and a longer stay is necessary.

P: That will end on October 13 and the Diwali vacation will begin from October 14.

Q: After I complete the assessment of examination papers, I plan to go and stay at our house in Lonavla for at least a week.

R: Next week the terminal examination beings.

S: There is a lot of repair work that needs to be carried out in the house.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) SQRP

(b) QSPR

(d) RPQS

Answer: (d)

71. S1: A proposal to remove from circulation 5 paise cons has been given up by the Centre on advice from the Reserve Bank of India.

S6: It is, however, proposed to reduce the costs of minting these coins by changing their metallic content.

P: The Government had been thinking of removing from circulation even the 10 paise coin.

Q: The cost of minting a 5 paise coin is said to be 7 paise while the cost of minting a 10 paise coin is 10.5 paise.

R: Moreover their removal would cause tremendous hardship to some people.

S: The RBI had opposed this saying that they figure largely in public transactions.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) SRQP

(b) QPSR

(d) PQSR

Answer: (d)

72. S1: It is common knowledge that people go after different objects in the world to get happiness.

S6: He is conscious of the fact that happiness is within and not without.

P: The wise man with a properly attuned mind is happy with them, in spite of them and without them too.

Q: Can a condemned prisoner, awaiting execution on the morrow, relish food, however delicious?

R: But a little reflection will prove that in reality these sense-objects, by themselves, can never make a person happy.

S: It is folly to equate objects with happiness.

The proper sequence should be :

(a) RQSP

(b) SQRP

(d) RSQP

Answer: (a)

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions (Qs. 73 to 98) : Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and select your answer the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be (d).

73. I waited (a) / for her return (b) / with growing unease. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (c)

74. I do not understand why (a) / in spite of my best efforts to please him (b) / my boss is so angry at me. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (c)

75. Being a rainy day, (a) / we did not feel like going out or doing anything (b) / except playing chess in our room. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (a)

76. It is not difficult to believe that a man (a) / who has lived in this city for a long time (b) /he will never feel at home anywhere else in the world. (c) / No error.

Answer: (c)

77. Although we reached his house on time (a) / he was left (b) / for the airport. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (b)

78. If a thing (a) / is worth doing at all (b) / it is worth done well. (c) / No error.

Answer: (c)

79. All the boys (a) /returned back home (b) / well in time for lunch. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (b)

80. Tell me the name of (a) / a country where every citizen is law-abiding (b) / and no trouble is there. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (c)

81. Considering about these facts (a) / the principal has offered (b) / him a seat. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (a)

82. His friends feel that (a) / he will be suspended (b) / unless he does not report for duty immediately. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (c)

83. One of the most interesting feature of travel in Himachal Pradesh is (a) / the large number of traveller’s lodges (b) / provided by the State Government. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (a)

84. It (a) / was raining (b) / cats and dogs. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (d)

85. I prefer (a) / this book (b) / than that one. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (c)

86. Their belongings (a) / were lost (b) / in the fire. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (b)

87. Tell him to take (a) / another photograph (b) / of the group. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (d)

88. I courteously asked him (a) / where was he going (b) / but he did not reply. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (b)

89. The memoranda (a) / are (b) / on the table. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (d)

90. Nandita asked me (a) / if I was working (b) / hardly these days. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (c)

91. He couldn’t (a) / find (b) / an answer. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (d)

92. Whom you think (a) / will be dismissed (b) / first? (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (a)

93. Of the many problems that confront the leaders of the world (a) / none are of grave consequence (b) / than the problem of saving the normal human race from extinction (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (b)

94. All of them (a) / speak (b) / good English. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (c)

95. The peon (a) / has not sweeped (b) / the floor today. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (b)

96. Her parents (a) / has not permitted her (b) / to marry Sunil. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (b)

97. Emperor Ashoka (a) / have conquered Kalinga (b) / before he embraced Buddhism. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (b)

98. Every student (a) / should be asked (b) / to give their ideas on the subject. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer: (c)

SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT

Directions (Qs. 99 to 120): Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, select that part as your answer. If none of the substitutions improves the sentences, choose (d) as your answer.

99. Go north-east across the mountains till you will reach an island.

(a) reached

(b) reach

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

100. It is hard these days to cope with the rising prices.

(a) cope by

(b) cope up with

(d) No improvement

Answer: (d)

101. He took a loan of hundred rupees from me.

(a) debt

(b) demand

(d) No improvement

Answer: (d)

102. From the last five days it has been raining torrentially.

(a) Since the last

(b) For the last

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

103. The teacher, along with her three children, were taken to hospital.

(a) was taken

(b) had taken

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

104. The Prime Minister had wide-ranging discussions on the international situation.

(a) widely-ranged

(b) wide-ranged

(d) No improvement

Answer: (d)

105. The man disappeared after he was rescuing a boy from drowning.

(a) was rescued

(b) has been rescued

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

106. I shall be obliged if you could grant me an interview.

(a) give

(b) allow

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

107. By 8.00 in the morning he wrote four letters to his friends.

(a) had written

(b) had been writing

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

108. But for one witness the accused ought to have been sent to jail.

(a) would have

(b) had

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

109. He is now looking about a job.

(a) for

(b) after

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

110. He did not abide with my decision.

(a) to

(b) by

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

111. I was living in Chennai for ten years when I was a child.

(a) had lived

(b) lived

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

112. I didn’t feel like going out yesterday, but on account of my son’s illness I had to go to the doctor.

(a) have

(b) might have

(d) No improvement

Answer: (d)

113. Your services are dispensed.

(a) from

(b) with

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

114. I didn’t go to office because I was

(a) felt

(b) had become

(d) No improvement

Answer: (d)

115. The angry neighbours never passed from each other without making rude remarks.

(a) passed on

(b) passed against

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

116. The chairman with the other members of the board are touring Europe these days.

(a) have been on touring

(b) is touring

(d) No improvement

Answer: (b)

117. Mahatma Gandhi is called as the Father of the Nation.

(a) called Father of the Nation

(b) called the Father of the Nation

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

118. Poor Tom laid in the shade of a tree before he could walk further.

(a) lied

(b) lain

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

119. You must accustom yourself with new ideas.

(a) accustomed with

(b) accustom to

(d) No improvement

Answer: (c)

120. This telephone number is not existing.

(a) does not exist

(b) has not been existing

(d) No improvement

Answer: (a)

UPSC CDS Examination Held on February 5, 2017 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answer Key

January 6, 2021July 27, 2017 by suresh84

Union Public Service Commission

CDS Examination Held On February 5, 2017

General Knowledge

1. Polynucleotide chain of DNA contains

(a) a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group

(b) a nitrogenous base, ribose sugar and phosphate group

(d) a nitrogenous base and phosphate group only

Answer: (a)

2. The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as

(a) translation

(b) transcription

(d) mutation

Answer: (b)

3. AIDS is caused by the Human Immuno-deficiency Virus (HIV). The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs through

(a) eating contaminated food and water

(b) transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products

(d) shaking hand with infected person

Answer: (b)

4. In human body, the cell growth and differentiation are highly controlled and regulated, but in cancer cells

(a) there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms leading to formation of benign and malignant tumours

(b) controlled cell division and over production of genetic material occur

(d) DNA is mutated and produced in less amount

Answer: (a)

5. Most viruses that infect plants possess

(a) single-stranded DNA

(b) single-stranded RNA

(d) double-stranded RNA only

Answer: (d)

6. Syngamy results in formation of

(a) haploid zygote

(b) diploid zygote

(d) motile male gametes

Answer: (b)

7. Bleeding of gums, falling of teeth, fragile bones and delayed wound healing occur due to the deficiency of which one of the following vitamins?

(a) Vitamin C

(b) Vitamin K

(d) Vitamin B

Answer: (a)

8. When a piece of pure silicon is doped with aluminium, then

(a) the conductivity of the doped silicon piece will remain the same

(b) the doped silicon piece will become n-type

(d) the resistivity of the doped silicon piece will increase

Answer: (c)

9. Suppose voltage V is applied across a resistance R. The power dissipated in the resistance is P. Now, the same voltage V is applied across a parallel combination of three equal resistors each of resistance R. Then the power dissipated in the second case will be

(a) P

(b) 3P

(d) 2P/3

Answer: (b)

10. Which one of the following is not a semiconductor?

(a) Silicon

(b) Germanium

(d) Gallium arsenide

Answer: (c)

11. A parallel-plate capacitor, with air in between the plates, has capacitance C. Now, the space between the two plates of the capacitor is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 7. Then the value of the capacitance will become

(a) C

(b) C/7

(d) 14C

Answer: (c)

12. For which of the following does the centre of mass lie outside the body?

(a) A fountain pen

(b) A cricket ball

(d) A book

Answer: (c)

13. Which one of the following is a physical change?

(a) Burning of coal

(b) Burning of wood

(d) Heating of potassium chlorate

Answer: (c)

14. The pH value of a sample multiple-distilled water is

(a) zero

(b) 14

(d) very near to seven

Answer: (d)

15. Which one of the following is the most characteristic property of an element?

(a) Density

(b) Boiling point

(d) Atomic number

Answer: (d)

16. There are two elements-calcium (atomic number 20) and argon (atomic number 18). The mass number of both the elements is 40. They are therefore known as

(a) isotones

(b) isochores

(d) isotopes

Answer: (c)

17. ‘Plum Pudding Model’ for a atom was proposed by

(a) Antoine Lavoisier

(b) Robert Boyle

(d) JJ Thomson

Answer: (d)

18. What is the number of atoms in 46g of sodium-23 (N = Avogadro constant)?

(a) N/2

(b) N

(d) 23N

Answer: (c)

19. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate

(b) a person aged eight and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate

(c) a person aged nine and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate

(d) a person aged ten and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate

Answer: (a)

20. In which one of the following States is Loktak Lake situated?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Meghalaya

Answer: (c)

21. The ratio of Gross Cropped Area to the Net Sown Area is called

(a) cropping intensity

(b) intensity of crop rotation

(d) cropping diversity

Answer: (a)

22. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of occurrences of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata when travelled by road (shortest distance)?

(a) Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

(b) Krishna, Periyar, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

(d) Penneru, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna

Answer: (c)

23. Which one of the following statements with regard to volcanoes is not correct?

(a) Stratovolcanoes produce lava flows that initially follow valleys but are highly resistant to erosion.

(b) The surrounding areas can remain highlands, lava ridges or mesas.

(d) The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is not a radial drainage pattern.

Answer: (d)

24. Kwashiorkor disease in children is caused by

(a) sufficient carbohydrates but less fats in diet

(b) sufficient carbohydrates and fats but deficient proteins in diet

(d) sufficient fats but deficient vitamins in diet

Answer: (b)

25. The mammalian heart is myogenic and it is regulated by nerves. The heartbeat originates from

(a) sinoatrial node

(b) QRS wave

(d) hepatic portal system

Answer: (a)

26. The plant growth regulators are small, simple molecules of diverse chemical composition. They are

(a) carbohydrates, fats and proteins

(b) indole compounds, adenine derivatives, carotenoids and terpenes

(d) vitamin C, vitamin D and glucose

Answer: (b)

27. Consider the electromagnetic radiations having wavelengths 200 nm, 500 nm and 1000 nm. Which wavelength(s) of the following can make visual sensation to a human eye?

(a) 200 nm and 500 nm

(b) 500 nm and 1000 nm

(d) 200 nm and 1000 nm

Answer: (c)

28. A copper wire of radius r and length l has a resistance of R. A second copper wire with radius 2r and length l is taken and the two wires are joined in a parallel combination. The resultant resistance of the parallel combination of the two wires will be

(a) 5R

(b)

(c)

(d) R/5

Answer: (d)

29. A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C₁ is made using two gold plates. Another parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C₂ is made u sing two aluminium plates with same plate separation, and all the four plates are of same area. If ρ_g and ρ_a are respectively the electrical resistivities of gold and aluminium, then which of the following relations is correct?

(a) C₁ > C₂

(b) C₂ > C₁

(d) C₁ = C₂

Answer: (c)

30. A photon of X-ray has energy of 1 keV. A photon of visible radiation has energy of 3 eV. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The wavelength of X-ray photon is less than the wavelength of visible radiation photon.

(b) Both the photons have different energies.

(d) The frequency of X-ray photon is higher than the frequency of visible radiation photon.

Answer: (c)

31. The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is

(a) diffraction

(b) interference

(d) reflection

Answer: (c)

32. With regard to ‘Project Tiger’, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) It was launched in India in the year 1973.

(b) The objective of the Project is to preserve the habitats and tigers therein as natural heritage.

(d) There are no tiger reserves in north-eastern part of India.

Answer: (d)

33. Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve of India?

(a) Agasthyamalai

(b) Nokerek

(d) Great Himalayan

Answer: (d)

34. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Indian Railways is not correct?

(a) The Indian rail networks have been developed throughout the Konkan coast.

(b) There is very low density of railway lines in the Himalayan region.

(d) At present, India has the largest railway network in the world.

Answer: (d)

35. Which of the following statements with regard to the Mediterranean agriculture is/are correct?

1. The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialised commercial agriculture.

2. It is intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.

3. It is a primitive subsistence agriculture.

4. Viticulture is a specialty of the Mediterranean region.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

36. Which one of the following statements with regard to the winter solstice is correct?

(a) The South Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness.

(b) It occurs on June 21.

(d) The Sun is at aphelion.

Answer: (c)

37. Tropical evergreen rainforest biome provides optimum environmental conditions for the growth of plants and animals. Which one among the following statements regarding this is not correct?

(a) It has heavy rainfall and high temperature throughout the year.

(b) This biome is also called mega-thermal biome.

(d) The maximum development of this biome has taken place in central and southern California, and North-western coastal lands of Africa.

Answer: (d)

38. Tsunami waves are the undersea occurrence of earthquake exceeding 7.5 on Richter scale. Which one of the following statements regarding this is not correct?

(a) If often generates strong waves.

(b) The Pacific coasts are most vulnerable to Tsunami waves.

(d) Tsunami is a Latin word.

Answer: (d)

39. Which of the following statements with regard to cloudburst is/are correct?

1. It is defined as sudden localized very heavy downpour with cloud thunder and lightning.

2. It mostly occurs in the hilly areas.

3. It results into very high intensity of rainfall. i.e., 250 mm-300 mm in a couple of hours.

4. It occurs only during daytime.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 only

Answer: (a)

40. Which one of the following with regard to Aridisol, one of the soil orders, is not correct?

(a) Lack of water for plants during most part of the year

(b) High organic matter

(d) Absence of deep wide cracks

Answer: (b)

41. What is the maximum number of states of matter?

(a) Three

(b) Four

(d) Variable

Answer: (c)

42. The chemical properties of an element depend upon

(a) the number of isotopes of the element

(b) the mass number of the element

(d) the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the element

Answer: (d)

43. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The cathode rays originate from cathode and proceed towards the anode in a cathode-ray discharge tube.

(b) The television picture tubes are nothing but cathode-ray tubes.

(d) the characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of the gas present in the cathode-ray tube.

Answer: (d)

44. The molecular mass of sulphuric acid is 98. If 49 g of the acid is dissolved in water to make on litre of solution, what will be the strength of the acid?

(a) Two normal

(b) One normal

(d) Four normal

Answer: (b)

45. Which one of the following statement with regard to Jet stream, an upper level tropospheric wave, is not correct?

(a) It is narrow band of high-velocity wind.

(b) It follows the wave path near the tropopause at elevations of 8 km to 15 km

(d) In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force.

Answer: (d)

46. The Gulf Stream is a poleward flowing current in the Atlantic Ocean. Which one of the following statements with regard to this is not correct?

(a) It is similar to the Kuroshio current in the North Pacific Ocean.

(b) It transports warm, tropical water towards polar region.

(d) The warm water of the Gulf Stream sustains the coral reefs of West Pacific Coast.

Answer: (d)

47. Which one of the following about sugar industry of Peninsular India is not correct?

(a) High yield per hectare of sugarcane

(b) Higher crushing season

(d) Most of the mills in the Peninsula are located mainly along the East coast

Answer: (d)

48. ‘Rand/Zar’ is the currency of

(a) Burundi

(b) Libya

(d) South Africa

Answer: (d)

49. Which one of the following ports is located on estuary?

(a) Kandala

(b) Marmagao

(d) Turicorin

Answer: (b)

50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Pavo cristatus is the national bird of India.

(b) Nelumbo nucifera gaertn is the national flower of India.

(d) Mangifera indica is the national animals of India.

Answer: (d)

51. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the GST Bill passed by the Rajya Saba in August 2016?

(a) It will replace all Central taxes, duties, etc., only by a single tax.

(b) It will subsume Central as well as State taxes, duties, etc.

(d) Petroleum and petroleum products shall not be subjected to the levy of GST.

Answer: (b)

52. The sensitive information leaked in August, 2016 concerns, which one of the following defense platforms of India?

(a) Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft

(b) Combat Helicopters

(d) Unmanned Aerial Vehicles

Answer: (c)

53. How many medals were won by India in 2016 Summer Olympics?

(a) One Silver and one Bronze

(b) Two Gold

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

54. India became a member of which one of the following in 2016?

(a) Non-Proliferation Treaty

(b) Missile Technology Control Regime

(d) Wassenaar Arrangement

Answer: (b)

55. India signed an agreement in 2016 to develop a strategic port in one of its neighbouring countries. What is the name of the port?

(a) Chabahar

(b) Gwadar

(d) Mongla

Answer: (d)

56. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?

(a) Its Headquarters is located in Kathamandu.

(b) China is the only country with an Observer status in SAARC.

(d) The Eighteenth SAARC Summit was held in Nepal.

Answer: (b)

57. Which of the following statements about the IIbert Bill (1883) is/are correct?

1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials.

2. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials.

3. The proposed Bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India.

4. In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed without any modifications.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

58. Consider the following statements about the Second Five-Year Plan:

1. It was drafted under the leadership of K N Raj.

2. It proposed that industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector.

3. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult.

4. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture really easy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

59. Consider the following statement about the different meanings of ‘Swaraj’ as articulated b y Mahatma Gandhi:

1. Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (non-violence) and Satyagraha (adherence to truth).

2. Swaraj has two senses-one political and one beyond the realm of politics.

3. Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire.

4. With determination, Swaraj could be obtained easily and quickly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

60. What was/were the formative influence (s) on the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi?

1. Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th Century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths.

2. Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists.

3. Gandhiji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

61. Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct?

1. It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the late 19th century.

2. It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali movement.

3. It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines from the government manipulated loyalist committees.

4. If formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) to reclaim control of the shrines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following with regard to the speech of Mahatma Gandhi at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University are correct?

1. He charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the laboring poor.

2. He asserted that our salvation can come only through the farmers.

3. He highlighted the plight of the untouchables.

4. He promised to take up the cause of the mill owners of Ahmedabad.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

63. To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should

1. have a functional toilet at home

2. have payment slips of power bills

3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter

4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

64. Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting :

1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission

2. The Eleventh Finance Commission

3. Punchhi Commission

4. Sarkaria Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 4, 3, 1, 3

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Answer: (a)

65. Who among the following won a Gold medal for India in Men’s Javelin Throw event at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games?

(a) Rinku Hooda

(b) Devendra Jhajharia

(d) Mariyappan Thangavelu

Answer: (b)

66. Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India are correct?

1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.

2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area.

3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional autonomy.

4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (b)

67. Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal system is/are correct?

1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries.

3. There is no dual citizenship in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Answer: (b)

68. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India?

1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the government of India and one or more States.

2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts.

3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it.

4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

69. Which one of the following is not a component of Revenue Receipts of the Union government?

(a) Corporate tax receipts

(b) Dividends and profits

(d) Interest receipts

Answer: (c)

70. TRIPS Agreement pertains to

(a) international tariff regime

(b) intellectual property protection

(d) international taxation of property

Answer: (b)

71. The 7.6% growth rate registered by Indian economy during the year 2015-16 is based on

(a) Gross National Product at market

(b) Gross value Added at constant prices

(d) Gross Domestic Product at constant prices

Answer: (b)

72. Which of the following statements about the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) is/are correct?

1. The TPP was signed by 12 Pacific Ri nations in the year 2015.

2. The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade as member countries account for about 40% of global GDP.

3. India is a founder member of TPP.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1 only

Answer: (b)

73. Which of the following statements about Bitcoin is/are correct?

1. It is a decentralized virtual currency.

2. It is generated through complex computer software systems.

3. The Reserve Bank of India recognized it as a legal tender is January, 2016.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

74. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first two indigenously designed and manufactured light combat aircrafts to the Indian Air Force in 2016. What is the name of these new combat aircrafts?

(a) Marut

(b) Garud

(d) Pushpak

Answer: (c)

75. Consider the following statement about the famous football player : “He was diagnosed with a growth hormone deficiency during his childhood but went on to win three European Golden shoes in his career.” Who is that player?

(a) Andres Iniesta

(b) Lionel Messi

(d) Zinedine Zidane

Answer: (b)

76. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In June 2016, the LIGO group of scientists announced the detection of a second set of gravitational waves.

2. Gravitational waves were generated due to merger of two black holes at about 1.4 billion light-years distant.

3. Gravitational waves were inserted due to collision of two white dwarf stars at about 1.4 billion light-years distant.

Select the correct answer u sing the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b, d)

77. In the year 2016, the government of India announced a Rs. 6000 crore special package for the textile and apparel sector to

1. create one crore jobs within three years

2. create jobs equally for men and women

3. provide tax and production incentives for the entrepreneurs

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

78. Which one of the following is not an Inter-Services Establishment?

(a) Officers Training Academy

(b) National Defence Academy

(d) Armed Forces Medical College

Answer: (c)

79. Which one of the following is a Peacetime Gallantry Award?

(a) Shaurya Chakra

(b) Vir Chakra

(d) Param Vir Chakra

Answer: (a)

80. The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command of the Indian Navy is located at which one of the following places?

(a) Karwar

(b) Kochi

(d) Chennai

Answer: (b)

81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list :

List-I (Act/Event) List-II (year)

A. Rowlatt Act 1. 1922

B. Salt March 2. 1931

C. Chauri Chaura Incident 3. 1930

D. Second Round table Conference 4. 1919

(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

(b) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

Answer: (a)

82. Consider the following statements about the Salt March:

1. The Salt March was deliberately ignored by the European media.

2. The Salt March was widely covered by the American and European press.

3. The Salt March was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers.

4. The Salt March impressed upon the British the urgent need to devolve more power to Indians.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

83. In the elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937 in British India

1. only about 10 to 12 percent of the population had the right to vote

2. the untouchables had no right to vote

3. the Congress won an absolute majority in five out of eleven provinces

4. the Muslim League won more than 80% of the seats reserved for Muslims

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

84. Which of the following statements about the social base of the Arya Samaj in British India is/are correct?

1. It was located mainly in Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh.

2. It mainly comprised the trading castes.

3. It was much more limited than that of the Brahmo Samaj.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

85. Who among the following is the author of the book A Comparison between Women and Men?

(a) Pandita Ramabai

(b) Sarojini Naidu

(d) Rameshwari Nehru

Answer: (c)

86. The fact that the planets move around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses, was first demonstrated by

(a) Galileo

(b) Martin Luther

(d) Copernicus

Answer: (c)

87. During the mid 19th century Industrial Revolution, the average life span of workers in Manchester was

(a) 17 years

(b) 30 years

(d) 62 years

Answer: (a)

88. George Washington was made the commander-in-Chief of the American forces

(a) in December 1773, after the Boston Tea Party

(b) at the First Continental Congress in September, 1774

(d) by the Continental Congress at the Declaration of Independence on July 4, 1776

Answer: (c)

89. Alexander Kerensky was

(a) the head of the Provisional government in Russia before the October Revolution

(b) a close confident of Lenin, with whose help the Czar was dethroned

(d) the advisor of Joseph Stalin

Answer: (a)

90. The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focused on inclusive growth. Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness?

1. Poverty

2. Group inequality

3. Regional imbalance

4. Unemployment

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

91. Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Saakshar Bharat’ scheme?

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan.

2. The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general.

3. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10 years.

4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

92. BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in

(a) Brazil

(b) China

(d) South Africa

Answer: (c)

93. Which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon Peas/Tur and other pulses in July, 2016?

(a) South Africa

(b) Syria

(d) Mozambique

Answer: (d)

94. Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct?

1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President.

2. The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him.

3. The Supreme Command of the defence forces of the Union Shall be vested in the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: (c)

95. Which of the following statements regarding Article-21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.

2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right.

3. Under Article-21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 2 only

Answer: (c)

96. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India?

1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.

2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.

3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: (a)

97. Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct?

(a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities.

(b) Every religion or any section there of shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.

(c) Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

(d) Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

Answer: (a, c)

98. Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article-22 is not correct?

(a) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest.

(b) No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his/her choice.

(c) Every person, who is arrested and detained in custody, shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.

(d) The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order.

Answer: (c)

99. Which one of the following intellectual property rights is protected without making any registration?

(a) Copyright

(b) Patent

(d) Trademark

Answer: (a)

100. Which one of the following indices is now used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to measure the rate of inflation in India?

(a) NASDAQ Index

(b) BSE Index

(d) Wholesale Price Index

Answer: (c)

101. The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) clause under WTO regime is based on the principle of

(a) non-discrimination between nations

(b) discrimination between nations

(d) uniform tariff across commodiates

Answer: (a)

102. Goods and Services Tax likely to be levied in India is not a

(a) gross value tax

(b) value-added tax

(d) destination-based tax

Answer: (a)

103. Amartya Sen was awarded the Noble Prize for his contribution to

(a) Monetary Economics

(b) Welfare Economics

(d) Developmental Economics

Answer: (b)

104. The rank of Captain of the Indian Navy is equivalent to which one of the following?

(a) Captain of the Indian Army

(b) Group Captain in the Indian Air Force

(d) Wing Commander of the Indian Air Force

Answer: (b)

105. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the Indian Air Force?

(a) It has bases in many friendly countries.

(b) It does not carry out joint exercises with any country.

(d) No officer has ever been elevated to the rank Marshal of the Indian Air Force.

Answer: (c)

106. The Indian Navy in October 2016 commissioned the highly maneuverable fast attack craft INS-Tihayu. INS-Tihauy would be based in

(a) Kochi

(b) Panaji

(d) Mumbai

Answer: (c)

107. Which one of the following sectors is not affected by the changes made in the Foreign Direct Investment Policy in June, 2016?

(a) Multi-brand retailing

(b) Defence

(d) Manufacturing of small arms and ammunitions covered under the Arms Act, 1959

Answer: (d)

108. BREXIT refers to the Great Britain leaving which one of the following?

(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) Commonwealth

(d) European Union

Answer: (d)

109. In which one of the following cities are the Summer Olympics, 2020 going to be held?

(a) London

(b) Paris

(d) Moscow

Answer: (c)

110. Who among the following is the President of Republic of the Union of Myanmar?

(a) Aung San Suu-Kyi

(b) Htin Kyaw

(d) Henry Van Thio

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-112) The following two items consist of two statements, I and II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Code

(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

111. Statement I The passing of the Coercive Acts made recondition between Britain and her American colonies virtually impossible.

Statement II The British Parliament, having issued the Stamp Act in 1765,

Answer: (a, b)

112. Statement I The Poona Pact provided for 151 reserved seats for the scheduled casts to be elected by a joint, not separate, electorate.

Statement II Dr. BR Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost a decade when the Communal Award was revoked.

Answer: (c)

113. Which one of the following statements about the All India Depressed Classes Association is not correct?

(a) The Al India Depressed Classes Association was formed in Nagpur with MC Rajah as its first elected President.

(b) The All India Depressed Classes Association was not attended by Dr. BR Ambedkar in 1926.

(c) Ambedkar resigned from All India Depressed Classes Association and formed his own All India Depressed Classes Congress in 1930.

(d) The All-India Depressed Classes Association favoured Ambedkar’s demand for separate electorate for the depressed classes.

Answer: (d)

114. Which one of the following statements about the Justice Party is not correct?

(a) It clamoured for the same kind of separate communal representation for the Non-Brahmins as h ad been granted to the Muslims by the Morley-Minto Reforms.

(b) It was patronized mainly by richer landowning and urban middle class Non-Brahmins.

(d) It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920.

Answer: (d)

115. The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by

(a) Henry Dundas

(b) Alexander Reed

(d) Mounstuart Elphinstone

Answer: (b)

116. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

1. The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court of Law.

2. The Preamble states the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote.

3. The Preamble indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 2 only

Answer: (a)

117. Which one of the following statement relating to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct?

(a) Every section of the citizens has the right to conserve its language, script or culture.

(b) No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of religion, race or language.

(c) The State shall, in granting aid educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community.

(d) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Answer: (c)

118. Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?

(a) The provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India shall not be enforceable by any Court.

(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country.

(d) The Directive Principles are directive in making Indian and Advanced capitalist country of the world.

Answer: (d)

119. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of the Vice-President of India?

(a) The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament.

(b) The Vice-President is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

(c) The Vice-President shall not be a member of either house of the Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State.

(d) The Vice-President of India shall be ex-officio chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any office of profit.

Answer: (a)

120. Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice-President of India?

(a) The Supreme Court of India

(b) The Election Commission of India

(d) The High Court of Delhi

Answer: (a)

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2016 General Studies Paper II (CSAT) Question Paper with Answer Key

January 6, 2021May 12, 2017 by suresh84

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2016 General Studies Paper - II (CSAT) — UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2016 General Studies Paper II (CSAT) Question Paper with Answer Key

Union Public Service Commission

Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2016

General Studies : Paper – II (CSAT)

1. A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code. FRACTION can be written as :

(a) CARFTION

(b) FRACNOIT

(d) CARFNOIT

Ans: (d)

2. If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily true?

(a) R – S is divisible by 5

(b) R + S is divisible by 10

(d) R² + S² divisible by 5

Ans: (b)

3. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?

(a) 110

(b) 111

(d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

Directions (Qs. 4 to 11) : Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed two billion more people, the question of which diet is best has taken on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the coming decades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put, a die that revolves around meat and dairy, a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the developing world, will take a greater toll on the world’s resources than one that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables.

4. What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?

(a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources

(b) Diets based on gains, nuts, fruits and vegetables are best suited for health in developing countries

(d) From a global perspective, we still do not know which type of diet is best for us

Ans: (a)

Passage – 2

All humans digest mother’s milk as infants, but until cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the Middle East and Africa. Groups not dependent on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant.

5. Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a) About 10,000 years ago, the domestication of animals took place in some parts of the world

(b) A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members

(d) People who are not lactose tolerant cannot digest any diary product

Ans: (b)

Passage – 3

“The conceptual difficulties in National Income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialized countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in various underdeveloped countries is produced without passing through the commercial channels.”

6. In the above statement, the author implies that:

(a) the entire national output produced and consumed in industrialized countries passes through commercial channels

(b) the existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income comparisons over countries difficult

(d) a part of the national output being produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign of underdevelopment

Ans: (b)

Passage – 4

An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between plants and microorganisms that would unsettle one of the largest carbon reservoirs on the planet-soil. In a study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice the amount of carbon present in all plants and Earth’s atmosphere combined, could become increasingly volatile as people add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant growth. Although greenhouse gas and a pollutant, carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future, their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its release into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

7. Which among the following is most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Carbon dioxide is essential for the survival microorganisms and plants

(b) Humans are solely responsible for the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere

(d) Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil

Ans: (d)

Passage – 5

Historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance cab en a critical policy issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surpluses to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, supply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to countries of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of hunger, starvation, under- or mal-nourishment, etc, at the world level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty pocket hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined t the underdeveloped economies, Inasmuch as ‘a two-square meal’ is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand have been undergoing big change, and because, in recent years, the capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions.

8. According to the above passage, which of the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem?

1. Setting up more agro-based industries

2. Improving the price affordability by the poor

3. regulating the conditions of marketing

4. Providing food subsidy to one and all

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

9. According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is:

(a) to find sufficient land for agriculture and to expand food processing industries

(b) to eradicate hunger in underdeveloped countries

(d) to achieve a balance between, demand for and supply of food

Ans: (d)

10. According to the above passage, which of the following helps/help in reducing hunger and starvation in the developing economies?

1. Balancing demand and supply of food

2. Increasing imports of food

3. Increasing purchasing power of the poor

4. Changing the food consumption patterns and practices

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

11. The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained importance mainly because of :

1. overgrowth of the population worldwide

2. sharp decline in the area of food production

3. limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

12. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of the these four digits are repeated in any manner. Further.

1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other

2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3

3. 4 is not to appear at the last place

4. 1 is not to appear at the first place

How many different numbers can be formed?

(a) 6

(b) 8

(d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

13. A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 7 m to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5 m × 4 m × 6 m . How much portion of the underground tank is still filed with water after filling the overhead tank completely?

(a) 1/3

(b) 1/2

(d) 1/6

Ans: (a)

14. In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after his is:

(a) 13

(b) 12

(d) 3

Ans: (b)

15. A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 8.00 a.m. and before 9.30 a.m.?

(a) 7

(b) 6

(d) 8

Ans: (a)

16. W can do 25% of a work in 30 days, ,X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete t3he work first?

(a) W

(b) X

(d) Z

Ans: (d)

17. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. What will be the average monthly income of a person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year?

(a) Rs. 12,000

(b) Rs. 16,000

(d) Rs. 34,000

Ans: (d)

18. In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line on a track and a bucket is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. If the has to drop all the apples in the bucket, how much total distance he has to run if the bucket is 5 metres from the first apple and all other apples are placed 3 metres apart?

(a) 40 m

(b) 50 m

(d) 150 m

Ans: (d)

19. A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with for scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target?

(a) 0.40

(b) 0.20

(d) 0.04

Ans: (c)

20. A person allows a 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770?

(a) Rs. 610

(b) Rs. 620

(d) Rs. 640

Ans: (c)

Directions (Qs. 21 to 26) : Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance, generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should in internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor-General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.

Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the Centre and in the States. Decentralization and devolution of authority of bring government and decision-making closer to the people also help to enhance accountability.

21. According to the passage, which, of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration?

1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities

2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services

3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services

4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-à-vis political executive in this context

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

22. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society

2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society

Which of the these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

23. Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?

(a) Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving

(b) Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership

(d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services

Ans: (d)

24. According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?

(a) Better job security and safeguards

(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission

(d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision-making process

Ans: (d)

Passage-2

In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principal. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to t he practice and understanding of justice.

25. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions

2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god

3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice

Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

26. Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?

(a) Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions

(b) Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue

(d) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god

Ans: (c)

27. A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, Bad n C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was:

(a) Apple

(b) Pineapple

(d) Oranges

Ans: (d)

28. Consider the following statements:

1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country

2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate

3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate

4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country

Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?

(a) The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration

(b) The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only

(d) The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate

Ans: (d)

29. A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?

(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south

(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north

(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north

Ans: (b)

30. Consider the following statement:

“We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking”.

Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?

(a) We go for a picnic but not for trekking

(b) Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities

(d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking

Ans: (d)

31. There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party it was discovered that no member knew music. The conclusion is that:

(a) the party comprised male faculty members only

(b) the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music

(d) nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party

Ans: (a)

32. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.

(i) C is seated next to A

(ii) A is seated two seats from D

(iii) B is not seated next to A

On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true?

1. D is seated next to B

2. E is seated next to A

3. D and C are separated by two seats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3

Ans: (b)

33. There are five hobby clubs in a college-photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?

(a) 5

(b) 18

(d) 3

Ans: (d)

34. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are :

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 3 and 2

(d) 4 and 3

Ans: (c)

Directions (Qs. 35 to 39): Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group-P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

35. Who is the doctor?

(a) T

(b) P

(d) R

Ans: (a)

36. Who is the artist?

(a) P

(b) Q

(d) T

Ans: (c)

37. Who is the spouse of R?

(a) P

(b) T

(d) S

Ans: (b)

38. Who is true lawyer?

(a) P

(b) Q

(d) S

Ans: (b)

39. Who among the following is definitely a man?

(a) P

(b) S

(d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

40. There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per day out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed?

(a) 18

(b) 19

(d) 22

Ans: (c)

Directions Qs. 41 to 45): Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-I

Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate.

Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150-200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80-170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass based carbon capture ad storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century.

Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second-generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks-such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood-hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R&D stage.

41. What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generations?

1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass

2. Biomass production competes with food production

3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

42. Which of the following can lead to food security problem?

1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation

2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage

3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

43. In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel?

1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirr3ements of the world by 2050

2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources

3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

44. With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been made:

1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions

2. It is not possible to sue biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources.

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Passage -2

We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolutions is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high-yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future.

45. Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that

(a) In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green revolution

(b) Monocropping vast fields high-yield varieties is possible due to green revolution

(d) Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run

Ans: (d)

46. A class starts at 11:00 am and last till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is:

(a) 48 minutes

(b) 50 minutes

(d) 53 minutes

Ans: (a)

47. Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Person that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower persons. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original p lace and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows: A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?

(a) 23 minutes

(b) 22 minutes

(d) 20 minutes

Ans: (a)

48. 30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel. C. The solution in vessel B is:

(a) sweeter than that in C

(b) sweeter than that in A

(d) less sweet than that in C

Ans: (d)

49. In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class?

(a) 12

(b) 21

(d) 45

Ans: (b)

50. Anita’s mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is:

(a) 1

(b) 5

(d) 9

Ans: (b)

51. In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three- fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class what is the number of girls in the class?

(a) 6

(b) 12

(d) 21

Ans: (b)

52. Consider the following statements:

1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B

2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C

3. B is older than C

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) A is older than B

(b) B and D are of the same age

(d) A is older than C

Ans: (d)

53. The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary p aid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the percentage of male employed in the company is:

(a) 75%

(b) 80%

(d) 90%

Ans: (b)

Directions (Qs. 54 to 56) : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily ion the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey bal is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey bal is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.

54. Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?

(a) F

(b) E

(d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

55. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) D is painted yellow

(b) F is painted indigo

(d) All of the above

Ans: (b)

56. The football is in the box of which colour?

(a) Yellow

(b) Indigo

(d) Blue

Ans: (c)

57. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?

(a) 12%

(b) 10%

(d) 8%

Ans: (b)

58. A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the shuttle service?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 7

Ans: (c)

59. A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is:

(a) 2 cm

(b) 3 cm

(d) 6 cm

Ans: (c)

60. In a questions paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices – True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is:

(a) 10

(b) 18

(d) 32

Ans: (d)

Directions (Qs. 61 to 68): Read the following eight passages and answer the item that follows each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage-1

By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return of payoofs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economies like India is the middle-income trap where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth.

61. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for the current schemes are urgently needed

(b) Efforts should be made push up economic growth by other means and provide licences to the poor

(c) Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present

(d) We should concentrate more on developing manufacturing sector than service sector

Ans: (c)

Passage-2

Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated measures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest management and agricultural information services. Some of these measures may have to do with climate changes and others with economic development.

62. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) It is difficult to pursue climate adaptation in the developing countries

(b) Improving food security is a far more complex issue than climate adaptation

(d) Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options

Ans: (d)

Passage-3

Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle enables better policy-making. The term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and the ecosystems ion which they occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions: In turn, vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. Every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacte3ria, soil and other organism. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water is a critical service that the environment provides.

63. Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water

(b) We cannot get potable water without the existence of living organisms

(d) Living organisms could not have come into existence without hydrological cycle

Ans: (a)

Passage-4

In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is a need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man.

64. Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?

(a) Need for more automation and more products of banks

(b) Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system

(d) Need to promote financial inclusion

Ans: (d)

Passage-5

Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dignity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, only goes to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging.

65. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:

1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only

2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Passage-6

To understand the nature and quantity of Government proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she intended. In all cases she made his natural wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is capable, without the aid of society, of supplying his own wants; and those wants, acting upon every individual, impel the whole of them into society.

66. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Nature has created a great diversity in human society.

(b) Any given human society is always short of its wants

(d) Diverse natural wants forced man towards social system

Ans: (d)

Passage-7

The nature of the legal imperatives in any given state corresponds to the effective demands that state encounters, and that these, in their turn, depend, in a general way, upon the manner in which economic power is distributed in the society which the state controls.

67. The statements refers to:

(a) the antithesis of Politics and Economics

(b) the interrelationship of Politics and Economics

(d) the predominance of Politics over Economics

Ans: (b)

Passage-8

About 15 percent of global greenhouse gas emissions come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous oxide from fertilizers; methane from livestock, rice production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide (CO₂) from burning biomass, but his excludes CO₂ emissions from soil management practices, savannah burning and deforestation. Forestry, land use, and land-use change account for another 17 percent of greenhouse gas emissions each year, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same amount of carbon is stored in the world’s peatlands as is stored in the Amazon rainforest.

68. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Organic farming should immediately replace mechanized and chemical dependent agricultural practices all over the world

(b) It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate climate change

(d) Tropical areas are the chief sites of carbon sequestration

Ans: (b)

69. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point ‘O’ on the ground in the direction of north-east and reaches a point ‘A’ after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point ‘A’ he moves to point ‘B’ in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point ‘O’?

(a) 7 km

(b) 13 km

(d) 11 km

Ans: (b)

70. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X₁ metres and breadth X₂ metres (X₁ and X₂ are variable). If X₁ + X₂ = 40 metres, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values?

(a) 400 sq m

(b) 300 sq m

(d) 80 sq m

Ans: (a)

71. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?

(a) 6 months

(b) 1 year

(d) 2 years and 6 months

Ans: (b)

72. The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:

(a) 16 : 13

(b) 5 : 4

(d) 12 : 11

Ans: (d)

73. A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps does the ladder have?

(a) 8

(b) 9

(d) 11

Ans: (b)

Directions (Qs. 74 to 76): Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are: jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order are: Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh. Further, we k now that:

1. Neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater

2. C wore a tie

3. Singh’s garment was not white

4. Kumar does not wear a jacket

5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour.

6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour

74. What is C’s surname?

(a) Ribeiro

(b) Kumar

(d) Cannot be determined

Ans: (a)

75. What is the colour of the tie?

(a) Black

(b) Blue

(d) Cannot be determined

Ans: (b)

76. Who wore the sweater?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) Cannot be determined

Ans: (a)

77. AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 metres, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 metres from A, then the original height of the trunk is:

(a) 20 m

(b) 25 m

(d) 35 m

Ans: (b)

78. A persons walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due south. How far is he from the starting point?

(a) 5 km

(b) 9 km

(d) 61 km

Ans: (a)

79. A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is:

(a) 32

(b) 24

(d) 8

Ans: (d)

80. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes lave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the entire job alone?

(a) 6 days

(b) 8 days

(d) 11 days

Ans: (c)

Civil Services Mains Examination Held on 5-12-2016 Genera Studies Question Paper

January 6, 2021April 14, 2017 by suresh84

Civil Services (Mains.) Exam., 2016

Held On 5-12-2016

General Studies

Paper-1

1. Early Buddhist Stupa-art while depicting folk motifs and narratives, successfully expounds Buddhist ideals. Elucidate.

2. Krishnadeva Raya, the king of Vijayanagar, was not only an accomplished scholar himself but was a also a great patron of learning and literature. Discuss.

3. Explain how the uprising of 1857 constitutes an important watershed in the evolution of British policies towards colonial India.

4. Discuss the role of women in the freedom struggle especially during the Gandhian phase.

5. Highlight the differences in the approach of Subhash Chandra Bose and Mahatma Gandhi in the struggle for freedom.

6. Has the formation of linguistic states strengthened the cause of Indian unity?

7. The anti-colonial struggles in West Africa were led by the new elite of Western-educated Africans. Examine.

8. To what extent has globalization influenced the core of cultural diversity in India ? Explain.

9. “An essential condition to eradicate poverty is to liberate the poor from the process of deprivation.” Substantiate this statement with suitable examples.

10. Why are the tribals in India referred to as Scheduled Tribes ? Indicate the major provisions enshrined in the Constitution of India for their upliftment.

11. With a brief background of quality of Urban life in India, introduce the objesctives and strategy of the ‘Smart City Programme’

12. What is the basis of regionalism ? Is it that unequal distribution of benefits of development on regional basis eventually promotes regionalism ? Substantiate your answer.

13. Discuss the concept of air mass and explain its role in macroclimatic changes.

14. “The Himalayas are highly prone to landslides.” Discuss the causes and suggest suitable measures of mitigation.

15. The effective management of land and water resources will drastically reduce the human miseries. Explain.

16. South China Sea has assumed great geopolitical significance in the present context. Comment.

17. Major cities of India are becoming more vulnerable to flood conditions. Discuss.

18. Present an account of the Indus Water Treaty and examine its ecological, economic and political implications in the context of changing bilateral relations.

19. Enumerate the problems and prospects of inland water transport in India.

20. In what way do micro watershed development projects help in water conservation in drought-prone and semi-arid regions of India ?

Objective Questions

1. In India, under the Department of Posts (GoI), the first Post Office was set-up in the year 1727 at –

(A) Kolkata (West Bengal)

(B) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)

(D) New Delhi

Ans: (A)

2. Under the Department of Posts (GoI), General Post Offices (GPOs)were also set-up in the then three Presidencies of –

(A) Kolkata (1774)

(B) Chennai (1786)

(D) In all of these three Presidencies

Ans: (D)

3. EMO (Electronic Money Order) Service was introduced by the Department of Posts-in all the Departmental Post Offices across the country, in the year ….. (website : indiapost.gov.in to track EMO).

(A) 2007

(B) 2008

(D) 2010

Ans: (B)

4. E-IPO (Electronic Indian Postal Order) was launched by the Department of Posts (GoI) on 22nd March, 2013, which has been extended to Indian citizens living in India w.e.f. 13th February –

(A) 2014

(B) 2015

(D) None of these

Ans: (A)

5. APY (Atal Pension Yojana) has been launched in CBS Head Post Office w.e.f. 1 December, ….

(A) 2013

(B) 2014

(D) 2016

Ans: (C)

6. Jansuraksha Schemes, viz., PMSBY (Pradhan Mantri Surksha Bima Yojana) and PMJJBY ( Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana) have been launched w.e.f. 7th September, …… in all CBS Post Office.

(A) 2012

(B) 2013

(D) 2015

Ans: (D)

7. By the Department of Posts (GoI), ‘Hindi Fortnight’ was observed from ….. to promote Hindi Typing competitions on computer.

(A) 14-28th Sept., 2015

(B) 14-28th Oct., 2015

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Indian Forest Service Examination (IFS) UPSC

May 7, 2016 by Rohit

INDIAN FOREST SERVICE EXAMINATION

Indian Forest Service Examination is organized by Union Public Service Examination. It is combined competitive exam all over India for different Central Government forestry posts. The exams are conducted for the following posts,

Principal Chief Conservator of Forests
Additional Principal Chief Conservator of Forests
Chief Conservator of Forests
Conservator of Forests
Deputy Conservator of Forests
Junior Administrative Grade
Senior Time Scale

Eligibility Criteria:

The candidate must be either

Citizen of India
Citizen of Bhutan
Citizen of Nepal

Before Applying Read Carefully:

Migrated to other countries with the intention of permanently returning to India
The candidate must have an age limit between 21 to 32 years
The upper age relaxation for SC/ST candidate is maximum five years
The upper age relaxation for Other Backward Caste is maximum three years
Candidate must have a degree in Animal Husbandry, Physics, Statistics and Zoology, Agriculture, Forestry and Engineering from a recognized University/Institution
Aspirant must be physically and mentally fit

Number of Attempts:

The candidate in general Category only have 6 attempts
The candidate in SC/ST have any number of attempts
The candidate in other Backward Caste have 9 attempts

Selection Procedure:

The stages of Selection are

Civil(Preliminary)Exam
Main Examination
Personal Interview

Syllabus:

The syllabus for the examination is

Civil Service Preliminary Exam Syllabus

Paper I

Current events of national and international importance.
History of India and Indian National Movement.
Indian and World Geography – Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.
Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
Economic and Social Development – Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc.
General issues on Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization.
General Science

Paper II

Comprehension
Interpersonal skills including communication skills;
Logical reasoning and analytical ability
Decision-making and problem solving
General mental ability
Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. – Class X level)

Compulsory Subjects:

General English
General Knowledge

Optional Subjects:

Agriculture
Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science
Botany
Chemistry
Chemical Engineering
Civil Engineering
Forestry
Geology
Mathematics
Mechanical Engineering
Physics
Statistics
Zoology

Agricultural Engineering:

Soil and water conservation, Aerial Photography and Remote Sensing
Irrigation and Drainage, Agricultural Structures
Farm Power and Machinery, Agro-energy
Agricultural Process Engineering, Instrumental and computer applications in Agriculture

Animal Husbandry:

Animal Nutrition
Animal Physiology,
Livestock Production,
Genetics
Health and Hygiene
Animal Diseases
Veterinary Public Health
Milk and Milk Product Technology
Extension

Botany:

Microbiology
cryptogams
Phanerogams
Plant Utility
Cell Biology
Genetics
Plant Breeding
Biochemistry
Ecology
Forest type of India

Mathematics:

Linear Algebra, Calculus, Analytics Geometry
Differential Equations, Dynamics, Vector Analysis
Algebra, Real Analysis, Linear Programming
Partial Differential Equations, Numeric Integration, Numeric Analysis, Mechanics and Fluid Dynamics

Exam Pattern:

The candidates who are selected from the Civil service Preliminary Examination are moved to the main Examination .the main examination consists of two main papers general English and General Knowledge with 300 marks each and four optional papers with 200 marks each .The papers are as stated above. The optional papers are selected by the candidates. Shortlisted candidates from the written examination is moved to the interview process

How to apply:

Log onto the official website upsconline.nic.in
Fill all the necessary details
Upload the signature and photo of the candidate
Pay via Internet Banking, Credit/Debit Cards
Recheck the application for any error
Agree to the declaration
Submit the application
Take the printout for future reference

Combined Medical Service Examination (CMS) UPSC

May 7, 2016May 7, 2016 by Rohit

COMBINED MEDICAL SERVICE EXAMINATION

Combined Medical Service Examination is conducted by Union Public Service Examination for medical officers in Central Government and other organisations. The examination is conducted for the posts are

Assistant Divisional Medical Officer in Railways
Assistant Divisional Medical Officer in Indian Ordnance Food Health Service
Junior Scale Posts in Central Health Services
Medical Officers in Municipal Corporation of Delhi
General Duty Medical Officer in New Delhi Municipal Council

Eligibility Criteria

The candidate must be either

Citizen of India
Citizen of Nepal
Citizen of Bhutan

Before Applying Read Carefully:

Candidate migrated to other countries with the intention of settling permanently in India
Candidate must have passed final written test and practical in M.B.B.S examination
Candidate must have completed his/her rotary internship before the appointment is passed
Candidate must be physically and mentally fit for the Combined Medical Service Examination
The age limit for the candidate must be below 32 years

Selection Procedure:

The stages of selection are

Written Examination
Personal Interview

Syllabus:

The syllabus for the written test is

General Ability

Indian Society, Heritage & Culture, Polity, Economy, Human Development Indices and the Development Programmes
Natural Resources, their distribution, exploitation, conservation and related issues
Basic concepts of Ecology and Environment and their impact on health and economy
Impact of changing demographic trends on health, environment and society
Indian Agriculture, Industry, Trade, Transportation and Service Sectors
Natural and man made disasters and their management
Food adulteration, Food processing, food distribution, food storage and their relevance to public health
Recent trends in Science and Technology

General Medicine

Cardiology
Respiratory diseases
Gastro-intestinal
Genito-Urinary
Neurology
Hematology
Endocrinology
Metabolic disorders
Infections/Communicable Diseases (Virus, Rickets, Bacterial, Spirochetal, Protozoan, Metazoan, Fungus)
Nutrition/Growth
Diseases of the skin (Dermatology)
Musculoskelatal System
Psychiatry

Surgery

General Surgery: Wounds, Infections, Tumours, Lymphatic, Blood vessels, Cysts/sinuses, Head and neck, Breast, Alimentary tract – (Oesophagus, Stomach, Intestines, Anus, Developmental), Liver, Bile, Pancreas, Spleen, Peritoneum, Abdominal wall, Abdominal injuries

Urological Surgery
Neuro Surgery
Otorhinolaryngology E.N.T.
Thoracic surgery
Orthopedic surgery
Ophthalmology
Anesthesiology
Traumatology

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Obstetrics: Ante-natal conditions, Intra-natal conditions, Post-natal conditions, Management of normal labours or complicated labour

Gynaecology: Questions on applied anatomy, Questions on applied physiology of menstruation and fertilization, Questions on infections in genital tract, Questions on neoplas main the genital tract, Questions on displacement of the uterus

Family Planning: Conventional contraceptives, U.D. and oral pills, Operative procedure, sterilization

and organization of programmes in the urban and rural surroundings, Medical Termination of Pregnancy

Preventive Social and Communit Medicine

Social and community Medicine
Concept of Health, Disease and Preventive Medicine
Health Administration and Planning
General Epidemiology
Demography and Health Statistics
Communicable Diseases
Environmental Health
Nutrition and Health
Non-communicable diseases
Occupational Health
Genetics and Health
International Health
Medical Sociology and Health Education
Maternal and Child Health
National Programs

Exam Pattern

The written exam consists of two papers with objective type questions with 250 marks and two hours time duration. The Questions will be set in English only. There will be penalty for each wrong answer. The eligible candidate in written examination are shortlisted for interview process with 100 marks.

How to apply

Log onto the official website upsconline.nic.in
Fill all the mandatory details
Upload the signature and photo of the candidate
Make the payment via Internet Banking,Debit cards/Credit cards
Submit the application
Take the printout for future reference