1. What is the commonest site of secondary metastasis in Choriocarcinoma
(A) Vagina
(B) Urethra
(c) Lungs
(D) Brain
Answer: (C)
2. All the following can be used in Preterm labor except
(A) Ritodrine
(B) Magnesium sulphate
(c) Nifedipine
(D) Chlorpromazine
Answer: (D)
3. Which is the commonest site of ectopic pregnancy
(A) Isthmus
(B) Ampulla
(c) Infundibulum
(D) Abdominal
Answer: (B)
4. α-Fetoprotein is increased in all except
(A) Increased maternal weight
(B) Multiple gestation
(c) Maternal hepatoma
(D) Abdominal wall defect
Answer: (A)
5. Which Heart disease has the highest mortality in pregnancy
(A) Eisenmenger complex
(B) Mitral valve prolapse
(c) Mitral stenosis
(D) Mitral regurgitation
Answer: (A)
6. Trial of labor is contraindicated in all the following except
(A) Rachitic pelvis
(B) Rachitic pelvis
(c) Previous LSCS
(D) Multigravida
Answer: (D)
7. The commonest cause of breech presentation is
(A) Hydramnios
(B) Oligohydramnios
(c) Prematurity
(D) Contracted pelvis
Answer: (C)
8. Forceps are applied in all the following except
(A) After coming head in breech presentation
(B) Face presentation
(c) Occipitoposterior
(D) Brow presentation
Answer: (D)
9. Maximum breast milk secretion at ____months
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(D) 12 months
Answer: (B)
10. The use of steroids in neonates is required in
(A) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
(B) Meconium aspiration syndrome
(c) Congential polycystic disease
(D) Craniopharyngioma
Answer: (A)
11. Which of the following true regarding precocious puberty
(A) Sexual maturity is attained early
(B) Mental function is increased
(c) No reproductive function
(D) Body proportions are enlarged
Answer: (A)
12. All the following are primary support of the uterus except
(A) Utero-sacral ligament
(B) Pelvic floor
(c) Broad ligament
(D) Antiflexion
Answer: (C)
13. Stress incontinence is best corrected by
(A) Colpo-suspension
(B) Hysterectomy
(c) Bladder neck repair
(D) Bladder exercise
Answer: (C)
14. Gonococcal infection spreads by
(A) Ascending route
(B) Hematogenous route
(c) Involvement of adjacent structures
(D) Both a and c
Answer: (D)
15. All the following are features of progesterone pills except
(A) Acts by altering cervical mucous secretion
(B) Break ovulation cycle
(c) Failure rate is equal to that seen with OCP’s
(D) Irregular bleeding is a known complications
Answer: (C)
16. A woman has 20 ml menstrual blood loss every 35 days. She suffers from
(A) Metrorrhagia
(B) Menometorhagia
(c) Oligomenorrhea
(D) Menorrhagia
Answer: (C)
17. Treatment of Endometriosis involves all except
(A) Estrogens
(B) Gonadotropins
(c) Progestins
(D) Danazol
Answer: (A)
18. The commonest ovarian tumor complicating pregnancy is
(A) Fibroma
(B) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
(c) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
(D) Dermoid
Answer: (D)
19. The most definitive clinical sign of pregnancy is
(A) Ballottement
(B) Fetal heart sounds
(c) Braxton Hick’s contraction
(D) Enlarged uterus
Answer: (B)
20. Involution of the uterus is completed by
(A) 6 weeks
(B) 8 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(D) 16 weeks
Answer: (A)
21. The earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding in pregnancy is
(A) Tachycardia
(B) Oliguria
(c) Postural hypotension
(D) Low body temperature
Answer: (A)
22. A patient presents at 28 weeks gestation with severe abdominal pain, bleeding and hypertension. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Placental previa
(B) Accidental hemorrahge
(c) Vasa previa
(D) Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
Answer: (B)
23. Which of the following is suggestive of ectopic pregnancy in a young woman with acute abdomen
(A) Tender cervix
(B) Amenorrhea
(c) Positive urinary HCG
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
24. The most common type of pelvis associated with Direct occipitoposterior position is
(A) Gynecoid
(B) Plattypelloid
(c) Anthropoid
(D) Android
Answer: (C)
25. The most unfavorable presentation for vaginal delivery is
(A) Mentoposterior
(B) Mentoanterior
(c) Occipitoposterior
(D) Deep transverse arrest
Answer: (A)
26. Deep transverse arrest is commonly seen in which type of pelvis
(A) Android
(B) Anthropoid
(c) Gynecoid
(D) Platypelloid
Answer: (A)
27. An absolute indication for Classical caesarean section is
(A) Carcinoma cervix
(B) Multi-fibroid uterus
(c) Breech presentation
(D) Central Placenta Previa
Answer: (D)
28. The best contraceptive method in a patient with heart disease is
(A) Double barrier
(B) IUCD
(c) Tubectomy
(D) Oral pills
Answer: (A)
29. The most common complication of IUCD is
(A) Ectopic pregnancy
(B) Bleeding
(c) Backache
(D) Cervical stenosis
Answer: (B)
30. Which of the following anti-tuberculous drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy.
(A) Rifampicin
(B) INH
(c) Streptomycin
(D) Ethambutol
Answer: (C)
31. The safest drug in pregnancy is
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol
(D) Streptomycin
Answer: (A)
32. DIC in pregnancy is seen in all the following conditions except
(A) Amniotic fluid embolism
(B) Abruptio placentae
(c) Intrauterine death
(D) Fat embolism
Answer: (D)
33. Molecular analysis of Chorionic villous sample is useful in diagnosis all the following except
(A) Tay-Sachs disease
(B) Cystic fibrosis
(c) β-Thallassemia
(D) Duchene’s dystrophy
Answer: (A)
34. Neonatal complications of the fetus in a diabetic include all the following except
(A) Hypoglycemia
(B) Polycythemia
(c) Hypocalcemia
(D) Omphalitis
Answer: (D)
35. Which of the following is true about menopausal hormonal change
(A) LH/TSH ↑
(B) Gonadotropins ↑, estrogen ↓
(c) Estrogens and Gonadotropins both ↓
(D) Estrogen and Gonadotropins both ↑
Answer: (C)
36. Progesterone is produced by
(A) Granulosa luteal cells
(B) Stroma of the ovary
(c) Theca cells
(D) Sertoli cells
Answer: (A)
37. The procedure of choice to diagnose Uterus didelphis is
(A) Laparoscopy
(B) Ultrasound
(c) IVP
(D) Hysterosalpingography
Answer: (D)
38. Which of the following is the rarest modification in a fibroid uterus
(A) Red degeneration
(B) Calcification
(c) Hyalinization
(D) Sarcomatous changes
Answer: (D)
39. Cryptomenorrhea occurs due to
(A) Imperforate hymen
(B) Asherman’s syndrome
(c) Mullerian agenesis
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
40. The most common complication of an ovarian tumor is
(A) Torsion
(B) Hemorrhage
(c) Infection
(D) Hyaline change
Answer: (A)
41. The commonest complication of Cryotherapy is
(A) Bleeding
(B) Watery discharge
(c) Pain
(D) Ulceration
Answer: (B)
42. The most effective drug in Sheehan’s syndrome is
(A) Gonadotropins
(B) Estrogens
(c) Thyroxin
(D) Corticosteriods
Answer: (D)
43. The commonest indication of IVF is
(A) Abnormality of Uterus abnormality
(B) Abnormality of Fallopian tube
(c) Anovulation
(D) Azoospermia
Answer: (B)
44. Genetic disorders are diagnosed at 11 weeks of pregnancy by
(A) Chorionic villous biopsy
(B) Amniocentesis
(c) Endometrial biopsy
(D) Placentography
Answer: (A)
45. Abnormal α-fetoprotein is seen in
(A) Trisomy 18
(B) Twin pregnancy
(c) Neural tube defect
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
46. Weight of the placenta at term is
(A) 500 gm
(B) 1000 gm
(c) 120 gm
(D) 1500 gm
Answer: (A)
47. Polyhydramnios is seen in all the following except
(A) Diabetes
(B) Renal agenesis
(c) Esophageal atresia
(D) Hydronephrosis
Answer: (B)
48. A 40-year-old P4+2 female has been diagnosed to have H. mole. The treatment would be
(A) Radiotherap
(B) Chemotherapy
(c) Total hysterectomy
(D) Radio + Chemotherapy
Answer: (C)
49. Most common site of spread of Choriocarcinoma is
(A) Lung
(B) Liver
(c) Brain
(D) Bone
Answer: (A)
50. Ectopic pregnancy is most common in
(A) Previous h/o recurrent PID
(B) Previous h/o Abortion
(c) Previous h/o Twin pregnancy
(D) Endometriosis
Answer: (A)
51. Clinical features pseudocyesis are all of the following except
(A) Quickening
(B) Enlargement of uterus
(c) Amenorrhea
(D) False labor
Answer: (B)
52. In pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH), which test is not done
(A) Roll-over test
(B) Serum uric acid
(c) Shake test
(D) Weight gain > 2 kg/month
Answer: (C)
53. In Rh incompatibility, the prognosis depends on
(A) Serum bilirubin
(B) Coomb’s test
(c) Blood smear
(D) Serum albumin
Answer: (A)
54. All the following ATT are given in pregnancy except
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Ethambutol
(c) INH
(D) Streptomycin
Answer: (D)
55. Which drug is contraindicated in Pregnancy
(A) Methyldopa
(B) Hydralazine
(c) Captopril
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
56. Pap smear in pregnancy is
(A) Contraindicated
(B) Not useful
(c) Routine, as a part of screening
(D) Done in every patient
Answer: (C)
57. All of the following indicate Fetal distress except
(A) Thick (pea-soup) meconium
(B) Fetal heart rate 100/minute
(c) Loss of beat-to-bear variation
(D) Fetal skull blood pH >7.32
Answer: (D)
58. Which of the following is the earliest conclusive evidence of intrauterine death
(A) Shrinking of body
(B) Intra-aortic gas
(c) Increased curvature of spine
(D) Spalding sign
Answer: (B)
59. Fetal blood loss in abnormal cord insertion is seen in
(A) Vasa previa
(B) Decidua basalis
(c) Battledore placenta
(D) Succenturiate placenta
Answer: (A)
60. X-ray pelvimetry is done in all of the following except
(A) Osteomalacia
(B) Breach presentation
(c) Severe CPD
(D) Outlet obstruction
Answer: (C)
61. The following may be used for post-coital contraception
(A) Cu-T
(B) RU 486
(c) Estrogen in high doses
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
62. Corpus luteum activity is maintained by
(A) FSH
(B) LH
(c) Estrogen
(D) Progesterone
Answer: (B)
63. The hormone responsible for a positive ‘Fern test’ is
(A) Estrogen
(B) Progesterone
(c) FSH
(D) LH
Answer: (A)
64. Which of the following is not used in induction of ovulation
(A) Danazole
(B) HMG
(c) Uro-follitropin
(D) HCG
Answer: (A)
65. Which ovarian tumor is likely to involve the opposite ovary by metastasis
(A) Granulosa cell tumor
(B) Dysgerminoma
(c) Gynandroblastoma
(D) Endodermal tumor
Answer: (A)
66. All the following are true about Krukenbrug’s tumor except
(A) Has a rough surface
(B) Shape of ovary is maintained
(c) Usually bilateral
(D) Arises usually from stomach carcinoma
Answer: (A)
67. All of the following are components of manning score except :
(A) Non stress test
(B) Oxytocin challenge test
(c) Fetal body movement
(D) Respiratory activity of child
Answer: (B)
68. All of the following can be used for establishing antenatal diagnosis except :
(A) Fetal blood
(B) Maternal blood
(c) Amniotic fluid
(D) Decidua
Answer: (D)
69. Shortest diameter of fetal skull is :
(A) Suboccipito-bregmatic
(B) Bitemporal
(c) Sub occipito frontal
(D) BPD
Answer: (B)
70. Most common heart disease associated with pregnancy is
(A) Mitral stenosis
(B) Mitral regurtation
(c) Patent ductus arteriosus
(D) Tatralogy of fallot’s
Answer: (A)
71. Most common congenital malformation seen in a diabetic pregnant woman amongst the following are :
(A) cardiac defect
(B) Renal defect
(c) Liver defect
(D) Lung defect
Answer: (A)
72. One of the following features can be used to define a contracted pelvis :
(A) Transverse diameter of 10 cm
(B) AP diameter of 12 cm
(c) Platypelloid pelvis
(D) Gynacoid pelvis
Answer: (A)
73. Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of ‘face of pubis’ delivery :
(A) Gynaecoid pelvis
(B) Anthropoid pelvis
(c) Android pelvis
(D) Platypelloid pelvis
Answer: (B)
74. Commonest cause of breech presentation is
(A) Prematurity
(B) Post maturity
(c) Diabets mellitus
(D) Osteomalacia
Answer: (A)
75. Rupture of membrane is said to be premature when it occurs at :
(A) 38 weeks of pregnancy
(B) 32 weeks of pregnancy
(c) Prior of Ist stage to labour
(D) II stage of labour
Answer: (A)
76. Likely size of uterus at 8 weeks post partum is :
(A) 100 gm
(B) 500 gm
(c) 700 gm
(D) 900 gm
Answer: (A)
77. Postpartum decidual secretions present are referred to as :
(A) Lochia
(B) Bleeding per vaginum
(c) Vasa-previa
(D) Decidua-capsularis
Answer: (A)
78. IUGR is defined when :
(A) Birth weight is below the tenth percentile of the average of gestational age
(B) Birth weight is below the 20 percentile of the average of gestational age
(c) Birth weight is below the 30 percentile of the average of gestational age
(D) Weight of baby is less than 1000 gm
Answer: (A)
79. Absolute contraindication for IUCD includes all of the following except :
(A) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
(B) Suspected pregnancy
(c) Congenital malformation of uterus
(D) PID
Answer: (C)
80. Asymptomatic carriage of gonococcal infection in female is commonly seen in :
(A) Endocervix
(B) Vagina
(c) Urethra
(D) Fornix
Answer: (A)
81. All of the following conditions are associated with primary amenorrhea except :
(A) Testicular feminization syndrome
(B) Stein-leventhal syndrome
(c) Tuner’s syndrome
(D) Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome
Answer: (B)
82. Least common complication of fibroid uterus is
(A) Malignant change
(B) Hyaline change
(c) Torsion
(D) Cystic degeneration
Answer: (A)
83. Carcinoma cervix extends upto lateral pelvic wall. The stage would be :
(A) Stage I
(B) Stage II
(c) Stage III
(D) Stage IV
Answer: (C)
84. A 42 year old female P3+0+0+3 is found to have carcinoma in situ. Best treatment would be :
(A) Hysterectomy
(B) Wertheim’s hysterectomy
(c) Conisation
(D) Wait and watch
Answer: (A)
85. Which of the following are masculizing tumours of the ovary :
(A) Granulosa cell tumour
(B) Dysgerminoma
(c) Dermoid Cyst
(D) Arrhenoblastoma
Answer: (D)
86. Best prognosis for reversibility is seen in
(A) Isthemic-isthemic type
(B) Isthemic-ampullary type
(c) Ampullary-forneacial type
(D) Ampullary-fibrialtype
Answer: (A)
87. A middle aged female presents with increasing visual loss, breast enlargement & irregular menses. Investigation of choices would be:
(A) S. calcitonin
(B) S. prolactin
(c) S. haemoglobin concentration
(D) S. calcium
Answer: (B)
88. Diagnosis of Down syndrome at 11 weeks is best assessed by :
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) Aminocentesis
(c) Chorionic villous biopsy
(D) Doppler Ultrasound
Answer: (C)
89. Doppler Ultrasound in pregnancy detect :
(A) Cardavascular malformation
(B) Neural tube defect
(c) Abdominal masses
(D) IUGR
Answer: (D)
90. Late decceleration indicates
(A) Head compression
(B) Cord compression
(c) Fetal-hypoxia
(D) Breech presentation
Answer: (C)
91. Following represents foetal hypoxia except :
(A) Excessive foetal movements
(B) Meconium in vertex presentation
(c) Foetal scalp blood pH > 7.3
(D) Heart rate < 100
Answer: (C)
92. A pregnant mother is treated with oral anticoagulant. The likely congenital malformation that may result in the fetus is :
(A) Long bones limb defect
(B) Cranial Malformations
(c) Cardiovascular malformations
(D) Chondrodysplasia Punctata
Answer: (D)
93. Plecenta previa is associated with all of the following except :
(A) Large placenta
(B) Previous C.S. scar
(c) Primigravida
(D) Previous placenta previa
Answer: (C)
94. A pregnant woman at 34 weeks pregnancy, comes with bleeding P/V, B.P. 80:
(A) Examination in OT and termination of pregnancy
(B) Blood transfusion
(c) Observation
(D) LSCS
Answer: (B)
95. Treatment regimen in ecclampsia that causes minimum effect on fetus is :
(A) Lytic cocktail regime
(B) MgSO4 regime
(c) Diazepam therapy
(D) Phenobarbitone therapy
Answer: (B)
96. X-ray pelvimetry is indicated in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Severe CPD
(B) Breech presentation in vaginal delivery
(c) Outlet obstruction
(D) Osteomalacia
Answer: (A)
97. Cause of renal failure in septicemic shock is :
(A) Acute tubular necrosis
(B) Acute cortical necrosis
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(D) Focal sclerosis
Answer: (A)
98. Blighted ovum is characterized by :
(A) Avascular villi
(B) Syntical knot
(c) Intervillous haemorrhage
(D) Intracerebral haemorrhage
Answer: (A)
99. Duration of action of Cu-380-A is :
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(D) 8 years
Answer: (D)
100. All of the following agents may be used for post coital contraception except :
(A) Danazole
(B) CUT
(c) RU-486
(D) High dose estrogen
Answer: (A)
101. Condyloma acuminate in pregnancy should be treated by :
(A) Podophylline
(B) Podophylline toxin
(c) Trichloroacetic acid
(D) 5-FU cream
Answer: (C)
102. Most common site for genital tuberculosis is :
(A) Ovary
(B) Uterus
(c) Cervix
(D) Fellopian tube
Answer: (D)
103. Endometrial hyperplasia is seen in
(A) Endodermal sinus tumour
(B) Dysgerminosa
(c) Polycystic ovarian disease
(D) Carcinoma of cervix
Answer: (C)
104. Clomiphene citrate is indicated in
(A) Stein-leventhal syndrome
(B) Ovarian cyst
(c) Asserman’s syndrome
(D) Carcinoma endometrium
Answer: (A)
105. Which of the following treatment is not done in ectopic pregnancy
(A) Salpingctectomy
(B) Salpingo-oopherectomy
(c) Salpingostomy
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
106. In ectopic pregnancy deciduas is shed as :
(A) Decidua-vera
(B) Decidual basalis
(c) Decidua capsularis
(D) Decidua rubra
Answer: (A)
107. Least common complication of fibroid is :
(A) Menstrual disorders
(B) Malignancy
(c) Urinary retension
(D) Degeneration
Answer: (B)
108. Most common site for metastasis in choriocarcinoma is :
(A) Lungs
(B) Brain
(c) Liver
(D) Spine
Answer: (A)
109. Best gas used for creating pneumoperitonium at laproscopy is :
(A) N2
(B) O2
(c) CO2
(D) N2O
Answer: (C)
110. Treatment of the lutein cyst in hydatiform mole is
(A) Ovarian cystectomy
(B) Ovarioctomy
(c) Suction evacuation
(D) Ovariotomy
Answer: (C)
111. Red degeneration of fibroma during pregnancy is most commonly seen at :
(A) Ist trimester
(B) IInd trimester
(c) IIIrd trimester
(D) Puerperium
Answer: (B)
112. A pregnant women in 2nd trimester presented with UTI Drug of choice is :
(A) Ampicilline
(B) Low doses cotrimoxazole
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(D) Cephaperazone
Answer: (A)
113. Retension of urine in a pregnant women with retroverted uterus is most commonly seen at :
(A) 8-10 weeks
(B) 12-16 weeks
(c) 20-24 weeks
(D) 28-32 weeks
Answer: (B)
114. Highest rate of transmission of toxoplasmosis during pregnancy is seen in :
(A) Ist trimester
(B) IInd trimester
(c) IIIrd trimester
(D) Puerperium
Answer: (C)
115. Nonimmume hydrops foetallils is seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) α-Thalassemia
(B) Parvo-virus-19
(c) Rh-incompatibility
(D) Chromosomal anomaly
Answer: (C)
116. Which of the following antiepileptic is least likely to cause malformation in foetus during pregnancy is :
(A) Phenytoin
(B) Carbamazepine
(c) Sodium-Valproate
(D) Phenobarbitone
Answer: (D)
117. Which of the following drug may be used to arrest pre mature labour :
(A) Aspirin
(B) Aspirin
(c) Magnesium-sulphate
(D) Diazoxide
Answer: (C)
118. During foetal life maximum growth is caused by :
(A) Growth harmone
(B) Insulin
(c) Cortisol
(D) Thyroxin
Answer: (B)
119. CA-125 increased in all of the following conditions except :
(A) T.B. of genital organ
(B) Ovarian cancer
(c) Endometriosis
(D) Stein-leventhal-syndrome
Answer: (D)
120. All of the following are harmone dependent carcinoma except :
(A) Prostate CA
(B) Endometrium CA
(c) Breast CA
(D) Ovary CA
Answer: (D)
121. Gn RH analogue may be given in all of the following except :
(A) Prostate CA
(B) Endometrium CA
(c) Fibroadenoma-uterus
(D) Precocious puberty
Answer: (B)
122. Carcinoma endometrium with positive superficial inguinal lymph node status is classified as stage :
(A) I
(B) II
(c) III
(D) IV
Answer: (D)
123. Long term tamoxifen therapy may cause :
(A) Endometrium CA
(B) Ovary CA
(c) Cervix CA
(D) Vagina-CA
Answer: (A)
124. Precocious puberty may be seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Granulosa-cell tumour
(B) Head-injury
(c) Corticosteriod intake
(D) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: (D)
125. Menstruation is defined as precocious if it starts before the child reaches the age of :
(A) 8 years
(B) 10 years
(c) 14 years
(D) 20 years
Answer: (B)
126. All of the following are classified as primary supports of uterus except :
(A) Trans cervical ligament
(B) Pubocervical ligament
(c) Utero-sacral ligament
(D) Broad ligament
Answer: (D)
127. Oral contraceptive pills decreases incidence of all of the following conditions except :
(A) Salpingitis
(B) Hepatic adenoma
(c) Ovary CA
(D) Fibroadenosis
Answer: (B)
128. True statement about Minipill is :
(A) Irregular vaginal bleeding may b e a side effect
(B) Used with combination of oral contraceptive pill
(c) Can not be used in lactation
(D) Prevents ectopic pregnancy
Answer: (A)
129. True statement about RU-486 is :
(A) Used for inducing abortion in early weeks of pregnancy
(B) Used along with contraceptive pills
(c) Acts on the cytoplasmic receptors
(D) Used for prevent ectopic implantation
Answer: (A)
130. Characteristic features of Rokitanski-Kuster Hauser syndrome are all of the following except :
(A) Absent uterus
(B) Absent vagina
(c) Anovulation
(D) 46-XX
Answer: (C)
131. Most common manifestation of ectopie pregnancy is:
(A) Vomiting
(B) Bleeding
(c) Pain abdomen
(D) Shock
Answer: (C)
132. Most common type of twin pregnancy is:
(A) Vertex + transverse
(B) Both vertex
(c) Vertex + breech
(D) Both breech
Answer: (B)
133. Hegar’s sign of pregnancy is
(A) Uterine contraction
(B) Bluish discolouration of vagina
(c) Softening of isthums
(D) Quickening
Answer: (C)
134. Mother has been infected with rubella, all the following foetal congenital malformation can occur except:
(A) VSD
(B) ASD
(c) PDA
(D) PS
Answer: (B)
135. Most common immunoglobulin secreted by mother in milk and colostrums is:
(A) IgA
(B) IgG
(c) IgE
(D) IgD
Answer: (A)
136. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly in ultrasound is seen at week
(A) 6
(B) 8
(c) 10
(D) 14
Answer: (D)
137. P. diameter is maximum in which type of pelvis:
(A) Platypelloid
(B) Android
(c) Anthropoid
(D) Gynaecoid
Answer: (C)
138. Face to pubis delivery is seen in pelvis:
(A) Platypelloid
(B) Android
(c) Gynaecoid
(D) Anthropoid
Answer: (D)
139.Most common cause of uterine rupture in India is:
(A) Previous LSCS
(B) Obstructed labour
(c) Fibroid
(D) Endometriosis
Answer: (B)
140. Early deceleration denotes:
(A) Head compression
(B) Cord compression
(c) Placental insufficiency
(D) Fetal distress
Answer: (A)
141. In pregnancy, which type of anemia is not common in India:
(A) Vitamin B12 anemia
(B) Folic acid anemia
(c) Iron + folic anemia
(D) Iron deficiency anemia
Answer: (A)
142. Oxygenated blood from placenta to heart in utero is by:
(A) Umbilical vein
(B) IVC
(c) Ductus arteriosus
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
143. Most common cause of HIV infection in infant is:
(A) Perinatal transmission
(B) Breast milk
(c) Transplacement
(D) Umbilical cord sepsis
Answer: (A)
144. Diabetic mother will have the following complications in foetus except:
(A) Hydramnios
(B) Macrosomia
(c) Cardiac anomaly
(D) Dimorphic anemia
Answer: (D)
145. Gas most commonly used in laparoscopy is:
(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(c) N2
(D) O2
Answer: (A)
146. Abruptio placentae occurs in all except:
(A) Smokers
(B) Alcoholics
(c) PET
(D) Folic acid deficiency
Answer: (B)
147. In microinvasive cervical cancer, most common treatment is:
(A) Conization
(B) Laser
(c) Simple hysterectomy
(D) Radical hysterectomy
Answer: (A)
148. In colposcopy, following are visualized except:
(A) Upper 2/3 rd endocervix
(B) Lower 1/3rd endocervix
(c) Vault of vagina
(D) Lateral fornix
Answer: (A)
149. Causes of ectopic pregnancy includes A/E
(A) IUCD
(B) Tubal ciliary damage
(c) Blighted ovum
(D) Late fertilization
Answer: (C)
150. Triradiate pelvis is seen in:
(A) Rickets
(B) Chondrodystrophy
(c) Osteoporosis
(D) Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: (A)
151. Cause of death in breech delivery:
(A) Intracranial haemorrhage
(B) Aspiration
(c) Atlanto axial dislocation
(D) Asphyxia
Answer: (A)
152. Hydrops foetalis is seen in following except:
(A) Rh incompatibility
(B) Syphilis
(c) ABO incompatibility
(D) CMV
Answer: (D)
153. Recurrent abortion in 1st trimester is most often due to
(A) Chromosomal abnormalities
(B) Uterine anomaly
(c) Hormonal disturbance
(D) Infection
Answer: (A)
154. Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine in
(A) Induction of labour
(B) Prevention of PPH
(c) Both
(D) None
Answer: (A)
155. Low level of AFP is seen is
(A) Fetal death
(B) Trisomy
(c) Anencephaly
(D) Open neural tube effects
Answer: (B)
156. Atonic uterus is more common in:
(A) Caesarean section
(B) Multi gravida
(c) Primi gravida
(D) Breech delivery
Answer: (B)
157. Assessment of progress of labour is best done by:
(A) Station of head
(B) Rupture of membrane
(c) Contraction of uterus
(D) Partogram
Answer: (D)
158. Withdrawal bleeding with progesterone seen in otherwise amenorrheic woman due to:
(A) Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
(B) Anovulation
(c) Ovarain failure
(D) TB endometritis
Answer: (B)
159. Cervical hostility is tested by following except:
(A) Spinbarkeit
(B) Post coital test
(c) Miller kuzrole test
(D) Keller test
Answer: (A)
160. Most reversible form of infertility is:
(A) Endometriosis
(B) Azoospermia
(c) Anovulation
(D) Tubal stenosis
Answer: (C)
161. A 45 year old presenting with dysmenorrhoea & menorrhagia most probably has:
(A) DUB
(B) Endometriosis
(c) Fibroid
(D) Endometrial Ca
Answer: (C)
162. Treatment of choice for Ca in situ cervix is:
(A) Follow-up with serial pap smear
(B) Conization
(c) Hysterectomy
(D) Laser vaporization
Answer: (B)
163. Commonest type of endometrial change in dysfunctional uttering bleeding
(A) Secretory
(B) Hyperplasia
(c) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
(D) Atophic
Answer: (B)
164. Commonest cause of non – engagement at term, in primi is :
(A) CPD
(B) Hydramnios
(c) Brow presentation
(D) Breech
Answer: (A)
165. Most constant symptom present in undisturbed ectopic :
(A) Pain in lower abdomen
(B) Amenorrhea
(c) Bleeding P/V
(D) Fainting attack
Answer: (A)
166. Bishop’s score include following, except :
(A) Dilatation of Cx
(B) Effacement of Cx
(c) Contractions of uterus
(D) Station of head
Answer: (C)
167. Pseudomyxoma peritonei is seen in :
(A) Serous cystadenoma
(B) Pseudomucinous cystadenoma
(c) Mucinous cystadenoma
(D) Teratoma
Answer: (C)
168. Best method to deliver arms in breech :
(A) Lovset’s method
(B) Smellie veit
(c) Pinard’s
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (A)
169. Bandi’s ring is also called as :
(A) Constriction ring
(B) Schroeder’s ring
(c) Retraction ring
(D) Cervical dystocia
Answer: (C)
170. PGE2 is not used in first trimester abortion, in :
(A) Bronchial asthma
(B) DM
(c) Twins
(D) HT
Answer: (A)
171. DIC is not seen in :
(A) IU death
(B) Missed abortion
(c) Amniotic fluid embolism
(D) Inevitable abortion
Answer: (D)
172. Gyanecomazia is caused by :
(A) Kallman’s syndrome
(B) 5 – α reductase deficiency
(c) Androgen insensitivity
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
173. Commonest site of obsteric surgery leading to uretero vaginal fistula :
(A) Near cervix
(B) At crossing of iliac artery
(c) Near broad ligament
(D) Below cardinal ligament where uterine artery crosses
Answer: (D)
174. Treatment of gynaecomastia is A/E :
(A) Hormonal therapy
(B) Simple mastectomy
(c) Subcutaneous liposuction of mastectomy
(D) None
Answer: (D)
175. Drug strictly contraindicated in lactation :
(A) Lithium
(B) Carbamazepine
(c) Penicillin
(D) Ovarian
Answer: (A)
176. MC cause of abortion in first trimester is, defect in :
(A) Placenta
(B) Uterus
(c) Embryo
(D) Ovarian
Answer: (C)
177. Best prognosis in infertile women is seen in :
(A) Tubal block
(B) Anovulation
(c) Oligospermia
(D) Endometritis
Answer: (B)
178. In PIH an impending sign of eclampsia is:
(A) Visual disturbance
(B) Wt gain of 2 Ib per week
(c) Severe proteinuria of 10g
(D) Pedal edema
Answer: (A)
179. In heart disease, prophylactic forceps is applied at head station of:
(A) -1
(B) +1
(c) 0
(D) +2
Answer: (D)
180. Vacuum extraction is C. I in:
(A) Premature babies
(B) Heart disease
(c) Microcephaly
(D) Polyhydramic
Answer: (A)
181. In suction evacuation, the pressure applied is:
(A) 0-100 mg H
(B) 200-400 mm Hg
(c) 400-600 mg Hg
(D) 600-800 mm Hg
Answer: (C)
182. Baby born to DM have following except:
(A) Hypercalcemia
(B) Hypokalemia
(c) Hypoglycemia
(D) Obesity
Answer: (A)
183. To start with, all fibroids are:
(A) Interstital
(B) Submucus
(c) Subserous
(D) Ovarian
Answer: (A)
184. Bicornuate uterus is due to:
(A) Incomplete fusion of uterine cavity
(B) Incomplete fusion of paramesonephnic duct
(c) Incomplete fusion of mesonephric duct
(D) Incomplete formation of vagina
Answer: (B)
185. OC pills intake cause psychiatric symptoms, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is:
(A) Acute intermittent porphyria
(B) Systemic lupus
(c) Thromobosis
(D) Anemia
Answer: (A)
186. A young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix and pap smear shows dysplasia next step is:
(A) Antibiotics
(B) Coloposcopy
(c) Cryosurgery
(D) Conisation
Answer: (B)
187. Couvelaire uterus is seen in
(A) Placental previa
(B) Accidental haemorrhage
(c) PIH
(D) PPH
Answer: (B)
188. ARM is contraindicated in
(A) Pl. previa
(B) Hydramios
(c) Acc. Hem
(D) Twins
Answer: (B)
189. A lady with IUCD becomes pregnant with tail of IUCD being seen next course of action is:
(A) MTP
(B) Remove the IUCD
(c) Continue the pregnancy
(D) Remove IUCD and terminate pregnancy
Answer: (B)
190. Precocious puberty is seen with which ovarian tumour:
(A) Dermoid
(B) Gynandroblastoma
(c) Granulosa cell tumour
(D) Arhenoblastoma
Answer: (C)
191. 38 weeks primi in early labour with transverse presentation TOC is:
(A) Allow for cervical dilatation
(B) Internal podalic version
(c) LSCS
(D) Forceps
Answer: (C)
192. Spalding sign is seen in
(A) Live born fetus
(B) Still born
(c) Intra uterine death
(D) Hydrocephalic foetus
Answer: (C)
193. The after coming head of breech, Chin to Pubis is delivered by:
(A) Maricelli tech
(B) Burns marshal method
(c) Lovest’s method
(D) Manual rotation and extraction by Piper’s forceps
Answer: (D)
194. In a preg women of 28 weeks gestation IUD is earliest demonstrated X-ray:
(A) Increased flexion
(B) Overlapping of cranial bone
(c) Spalding’s sign
(D) Gas in vessels
Answer: (D)
195. In accidental haemorrhage, TOC:
(A) Induction of labour
(B) Rx of hypofibrinogenemia then blood transfusion
(c) Simultaneous emptying of uterus and blood transfusion
(D) Wait and watch
Answer: (C)
196. TB endometritis causes infertility by:
(A) Causing anovulation
(B) Destroying endometrium
(c) Tubal blockage
(D) Ciliary dysmotility
Answer: (B)
197. The most common histological finding of endometrium in DUB is :
(A) Hypertrophic
(B) Hyperplastic
(c) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
(D) Dysplastic
Answer: (B)
198. A 35 year old woman with dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia of 6 months duration showed an enlarged uterus of 20 weeks which was tender, the possible diagnosis is :
(A) Adenomyosis
(B) Fibroid
(c) Carcinoma endometrium
(D) PID
Answer: (A)
199. The first step in the management of hirsutism due to stein leventhal syndrome is :
(A) OCP
(B) HMG
(c) Spironolactone
(D) Bromocriptine
Answer: (A)
200. In intrauterine death with transverse lie, the following are treatment options except :
(A) Decapitation
(B) Evisceration
(c) Craniotomy
(D) Caesarean section
Answer: (D)
201. Commonest cause of first trimester abortion is :
(A) Monosomy
(B) Trisomy
(c) Triploidy
(D) Aneuploidy
Answer: (B)
202. The Colposcopic features suggestive of malignancy are except :
(A) Condyloma
(B) Vascular atypia
(c) Punctation
(D) White epithelium
Answer: (A)
203. Among the following, which is a feature of testicular feminization syndrome :
(A) XX pattern
(B) Commonly reared as male
(c) Well formed female internal genitalia
(D) High testosterone levels
Answer: (D)
204. The thickness of endomtrium at the time of implantation is :
(A) 3-4 mm
(B) 20-30 mm
(c) 15-20 mm
(D) 30-40 mm
Answer: (A)
205. Spalding’s sign is seen in :
(A) Still born
(B) Live born
(c) Premature
(D) Dead born
Answer: (D)
206. The most common anomaly seen with chorionic villous biopsy done in early gestation is :
(A) Neural tube defects
(B) Limb abnormalities
(c) Kidney abnormalities
(D) CH
Answer: (B)
207. A 50 year old woman, nulliparous, diabetic and obese presenting with post –monopausal bleeding can be any of the following except :
(A) Carcinoma in situ of cervix
(B) Carcinoma endometrium
(c) DUB
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
208. Mestranol exerts it’s contraceptive effect by :
(A) Inhibiting FSH
(B) Inhibiting LH
(c) FSH
(D) LH
Answer: (A)
209. The ideal treatment for metastatic choriocarcinoma in the lungs in a young women is :
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Surgery with radiation
(c) Surgery
(D) Wait and watch
Answer: (A)
210. Concentration of MgSO4 in the treatment of eclampsia in mEq/L :
(A) 7-10
(B) 10-15
(c) 2-4
(D) 4-7
Answer: (D)
211. Trans-cervical endometrial resection (TER) is used in A/E:
(A) Endometriosis
(B) DUB
(c) Carcinoma endometrium
(D) Carcinoma endometrium
Answer: (C)
212. All are seen in testicular feminization syndrome except :
(A) 46 XY
(B) Primary amenorrhoea
(c) Short stature
(D) Vagina may present
Answer: (C)
213. Chromosomal no. or primary spermatocyte is :
(A) 46 xy
(B) 22 x/y
(c) 22 xx
(D) 46 xx
Answer: (A)
214. Earliest symptom of carcinoma cervix is :
(A) Irregular vaginal bleed
(B) Post coital bleed
(c) Foul smelling discharge
(D) Pain
Answer: (B)
215. Meig’s syndrome is associated with :
(A) Teratoma
(B) Brenner tumour
(c) Theca cell tumour
(D) Fibroma
Answer: (D)
216. Persistent anovulation not treated leads to A/E:
(A) Hirsutism
(B) Ovarian carcinoma
(c) Endomatrial carcinomas
(D) Increased risk of CVS disease
Answer: (B)
217. Increased incidence of ectopic preganancy is seen with :
(A) Copper T
(B) Copper T
(c) Progestasert
(D) Membrance barrier
Answer: (C)
218. Cause of decubitus ulcer in uterine proplase is:
(A) Friction
(B) Venous congestion
(c) Intercourse
(D) Trauma
Answer: (B)
219. Non gonococcal urethritis is caused by:
(A) Chlamydia
(B) LGV
(c) Syphilis
(D) Gardnella vaginalis
Answer: (A)
220. OCP’s are contraindicated in A/E:
(A) Smoking 35 years
(B) Coronary occlusion
(c) Polyscystic ovarian ds
(D) Cerebro vascular ds
Answer: (C)
221. C. vaginal carcinoma is :
(A) Squamo columnar junction
(B) Isthmus
(c) Cervical lip
(D) Internal os
Answer: (A)
222. AFP is raised in A/E:
(A) Polycystic kidney
(B) Trisomy
(c) IUD
(D) Oesophageal atresia
Answer: (B)
223. 40 yrs female, mass in pelvis detected clinically, following investigations should be done except :
(A) CT
(B) Laparoscopy
(c) PAP smear
(D) USG
Answer: (C)
224. Pain in endometriosis correlates best with :
(A) Depth
(B) DepthMultiple sites
(c) ↑CA 125
(D) Stage of disease
Answer: (B)
225. Brachytherapy is used in :
(A) Stage 1b Ca Cx
(B) Ovarian Ca
(c) Stage IV Ca vagina
(D) Stage 2 fallopian tube Ca
Answer: (A)
226. Post menopausal estrogen production is due to :
(A) Peripheral aromatization of androstenedione
(B) Adrenal-Direct production
(c) Ovarian tumour
(D) Ovary testosterone secretion
Answer: (A)
227. Corpus luteum functions maximally without an implantaton for ………days :
(A) 9
(B) 12
(c) 6
(D)15
Answer: (A)
228. In transvaginal ultrasound, earliest detection of gestation sac is by :
(A) 21 days after ovulation
(B) 21 days after implantation
(c) 28 days post ovulation
(D) 14 days after ovulation
Answer: (D)
229. Earliest detection of pregnancy by ultrasound is by :
(A) Gestation sac
(B) Fetal node
(c) FHS
(D) Fetal skeleton
Answer: (A)
230. Mannings score includes all except :
(A) Fetal tone
(B) Fetal breath movements
(c) BPD
(D) Amniotic fluid volume
Answer: (C)
231. About Amniocentesis true is following except :
(A) It carries risk of miscarriage
(B) Always done as a blind procedure
(c) Done between 10-18 weeks
(D) Chromosomal abnormality can be detected
Answer: (B)
232. I for breast feeding are except :
(A) Hepatitis –B infection of mother
(B) Lithium treatment of mother
(c) Acute bacterial mastitis
(D) Teracycline treatment of mother
Answer: (A)
233. Most common cause of platelet ↓ in pregnancy :
(A) Immune
(B) Incidental
(c) Idiopathic
(D) Benign Gestational
Answer: (D)
234. Treatment for 32 yr. old multipra with dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is :
(A) Progestrogens
(B) Danazol
(c) Prostaglandins
(D) Endometrial ablation
Answer: (A)
235. “Swiss-cheese” endometrium is seen in :
(A) Simple endometrial hyperplasia
(B) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
(c) Proliferative endometrium
(D) Endometriosis
Answer: (B)
236. Cardiac activity of fetus by transabdominal USG is seen earliest at what gestational age :
(A) 5th week
(B) 6th week
(c) 8th week
(D) 9th week
Answer: (C)
237. Adult hemoglobin appears in fetus at the gestational age of (in weeks) :
(A) 5th
(B) 10th
(c) 15th
(D) 25th
Answer: (D)
238. All are associated with hydramnios except :
(A) Premature labour
(B) Gestational diabetes
(c) Renal agenesis
(D) Increased amniotic fluid
Answer: (C)
239. Patient with CIN-II positive on pap’s smear, next step will be :
(A) Repeat pap’s smear
(B) Cone biopsy
(c) Colposcopic directed biopsy
(D) Punch biopsy
Answer: (C)
240. According to Hellins law chances of twins in pregnancy are :
(A) 1 in 60
(B) 1 in 70
(c) 1 in 80
(D) 1 in 90
Answer: (C)
241. All are causes of postmenopausal bleeding except :
(A) Carcinoma in situ of cervix
(B) Ca. endometrium
(c) Ca. ovary
(D) Ca. Fallopian tube
Answer: (A)
242. IUGR is characterized by a/e
(A) Polycythemia
(B) Meconium aspiration synd
(c) HMD
(D) Hypocalcemia
Answer: (C)
243. Raised beta-HCG levels are seen in :
(A) DM
(B) Preeclampsia
(c) Ectopic pregnancy
(D) Down synd.
Answer: (D)
244. True about endometrial carcinoma :
(A) Predisposed by DM, hypertension & obesity
(B) Adenosquamus type is commonest
(c) Commonly associated with Ca. cervix
(D) Common age group affected is between 20-40 yrs
Answer: (A)
245. True about indications for prevention of Rh-isoimmunization :
(A) Given to the newborn within 72 hrs. of birth
(B) Required when baby is Rh⁺ & mother Rh⁻
(c) Can be helpful in ABO incompatibility
(D) Can be given upto one month of age of baby
Answer: (B)
246. USG s/o fetal death :
(A) ‘Halo’ sign of head
(B) Heart beat absent
(c) Spalding sign
(D) Hegar’s sign
Answer: (B)
247. Which is contraindicated in pregnancy :
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol
(D) Streptomycin
Answer: (D)
248. Ectopic pregnancy is most commonly associated with :
(A) Endometriosis
(B) Congential tubal anomalies
(c) Tuberculosis
(D) Tubal inflammatory diseases
Answer: (D)
249. Initiation of lactation is affected by :
(A) Oxytocin
(B) Prolactin
(c) HPL
(D) Thyroid hormone
Answer: (B)
250. Schiller-Duval body is seen in :
(A) Germ cell tumor
(B) Yolk-sac tumor
(c) Choriocarcinoma
(D) Granulosa cell tumor
Answer: (B)
251. A lady presents with 16 weeks pregnancy with acute appendicitis. Management includes :
(A) Conservative
(B) Do early surgery
(c) Appendicectomy with MTP
(D) Appendicectomy after childbirth
Answer: (B)
252. Most important diameter of pelvis during labour is :
(A) Interspinal diameter of outlet
(B) Oblique diameter of inlet
(c) AP diameter of outlet
(D) Intertubercular diameter
Answer: (A)
253. Utrine fibromyoma is associated with :
(A) Endometriosis
(B) Pevic inflammatory disease
(c) Ovary ca
(D) Amenorrhea
Answer: (A)
254. Breech presentation with hydrocephalus is managed by :
(A) Cesarean section
(B) Trans-abdominal decompression
(c) PV decompression
(D) Craniotomy of aftercoming head
Answer: (C)
255. Fetal heart activity can be detected by sonography at about :
(A) 5 weeks
(B) 6 weeks
(c) 7 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
Answer: (C)
256. Ovary develop from :
(A) Mullerian duct
(B) Genital ridge
(c) Genital tubercle
(D) Mesonephric duct
Answer: (B)
257. Endometriosis commonly associated with :
(A) B/L chocolate cyst of ovary
(B) Adenomyosis
(c) Fibroid uterus
(D) Luteal cyst
Answer: (A)
258. Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by :
(A) Alkaline pH
(B) Strawberry clot in vagina
(c) Creamy discharge
(D) Clue cells in wet mount
Answer: (D)
259. Sexual development in the adolescent girls occur in the following order :
5. Fundoscopic features of papilledema include all the following except
(A) III-defined disc margin
(B) Deep physiological cup
(C) Absent venous pulsation
(D) Bending of blood vessels
Answer: (B)
6. Bending of blood vessels
(A) Blurring of the disc
(B) Congestion of retinal veins
(C) Soft white exudates around the disc
(D) Sudden loss of vision
Answer: (D)
7. 5% guanethidine is used for
(A) Ptosis
(B) Neuro-paralytic ketatitis
(C) Thyrotoxic ophthalmopathy
(D) Horner’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
8. Cherry red spot is seen in
(A) Eale’s disease
(B) Retinitis pigmentosa
(C) Central retinal artery thrombosis
(D) Central retinal vein occlusion
Answer: (C)
9. All the following changes are caused in the retina by benign hypertension except
(A) Narrowing of arterioles
(B) Exudates
(C) Cotton wool spots
(D) Retinal hemorrhage
Answer: (C)
10. Which of the following can cause Superior qudrantopia
(A) Temporal lobe tumor
(B) Frontal lobe tumor
(C) Pituitary tumor
(D) Craniopharyngioma
Answer: (A)
11. All the following are true of Eale’s disease except
(A) Occurs in the young
(B) Vitreous hemorrhage is present
(C) Retinal detachment
(D) Optic neuritis
Answer: (D)
12. Critical period of development of fixation reflex is
(A) 2-4 months of age
(B) 6-8 months of age
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years
Answer: (A)
13. Photophthalmia is seen with
(A) Ultraviolet rays
(B) Infra red rays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) X-rays
Answer: (A)
14. Which of the following does not cause hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
(A) Adenovirus
(B) Coxsaskie-24
(C) Enterovirus-70
(D) Papilloma virus
Answer: (D)
15. Herbert’s pits are seen in
(A) Trachoma
(B) Spring catarrh
(C) Phlycetenular conjunctivitis
(D) Sarcoidosis
Answer: (A)
16. A dendritic ulcer is caused by
(A) Mycetoma
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Staphylococcus
(D) Pneumococcus
Answer: (B)
17. Steroids are contraindicated in
(A) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(B) Granular conjunctivitis
(C) Mooren’s ulcer
(D) Dendritic ulcer
Answer: (D)
18. Satellite nodule on a corneal ulcer is seen in
(A) Fungal infection
(B) Bacterial infection
(C) Viral infection
(D) Mycoplasma infection
Answer: (A)
19. All the following drugs are used in acute anterior uveitis except
(A) Pilocarpine
(B) Atropine
(C) Timolol
(D) Propranolol
Answer: (A)
20. The commonest complication of topical steroids is
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Cataract
(C) Ptosis
(D) Iritis
Answer: (A)
21. All the following are true about Papilledema except
(A) It is a purely non-inflammatory phenomenon
(B) Transient loss of vision occurs
(C) First sign is blurring of the nasal side of the optic disc
(D) Sudden loss of vision with painful eye movement
Answer: (D)
22. Pseudoglioma differs from Retinoblastoma in that pseudoglioma is associated with
(A) Decreased intraocular pressure
(B) Blurring of vision
(C) Enlargement of the optic foramen
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
23. Which of the following ATT drugs is associated with visual deterioration
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Capreomycin
(D) Ethambutol
Answer: (D)
24. Agent used for dilatation of pupil in children is
(A) Atropine
(B) Homatropine
(C) Tropicamide
(D) Phenylephrine
Answer: (A)
25. Treatment of choice in Aphakia is
(A) Spectacles
(B) Contact lens
(C) Intraocular lens
(D) None
Answer: (C)
26. Corneal sensation is lost in
(A) Herpes simplex
(B) Conjunctivitis
(C) Fungal infection
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
27. Horner-Tranta’s spots are seen in
(A) Venal conjunctivitis
(B) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(C) Angular conjunctivitis
(D) Follicular conjunctivitis
Answer: (A)
28. Anterior lenticonus is found in
(A) Lowe’s syndrome
(B) William’s syndrome
(C) Alport’s syndrome
(D) Down’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
29. Steroid induced cataract is
(A) Posterior subcapsular cataract
(B) Anterior subcapsular cataract
(C) Nuclear cataract
(D) Cupulliform cataract
Answer: (A)
30. Voissius ring is seen in the
(A) Cornea
(B) Anterior capsule of the lens
(C) Posterior capsule of the lens
(D) Iris
Answer: (B)
31. Treatment of primary angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Trabeculectomy
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Timolol
(D) Iridotomy
Answer: (D)
32. A cherry red spot is seen in fundus in
(A) CRV obstruction
(B) Diabetic retinopathy
(C) Trauma
(D) Retinitis pigmentosa
Answer: (C)
33. A child presents with sudden loss of vision with painful ocular movements. The eye is white and there are no obvious signs on ophthalmoscopy. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Optic nerve glioma
(B) Retrobulbar neuritis
(C) Craniopharyngioma
(D) Eales disease
Answer: (B)
34. All of the following are components of Horner’s syndrome except
(A) Ptosis
(B) Exophthalmos
(C) Anhidrosis
(D) Loss of cilio-spinal reflex
Answer: (B)
35. Power of a reduced eye is normally :
(A) 20-D
(B) 35-D
(C) 18-D
(D) 58-D
Answer: (D)
36. All of the following are examples of mydriatics except :
(A) Atropine
(B) Homatropine
(C) Tropicamide
(D) Pirenzepine
Answer: (D)
37. All of the following are cycloplegics except :
(A) Phenylephrine
(B) Atropine
(C) Homatropine
(D) Cocaine
Answer: (A)
38. Most important factor determining convergence of light ray on retina is :
(A) Length of eyeball
(B) Diptor power of lens
(C) Refractive index of cornea
(D) Physical state of vitreous
Answer: (C)
39. In Cataract, spectacles are advised after following number of weeks after operation :
(A) 6 weeks
(B) 10 weeks
(C) 12 weeks
(D) 14 weeks
Answer: (A)
40. Sunflower type cataract is characteristically seen in :
(A) Chalcosis
(B) Diabetes
(C) Stragardt’s disease
(D) Congenital syphilis
Answer: (A)
41. Lateral rectus palsy is characterized by :
(A) Crossed diplopia
(B) Uncrossed diplopia
(C) Suppression of eye ball
(D) Upward rotated eye ball
Answer: (B)
42. Snow blindness is caused by :
(A) Ultraviolet rays
(B) Infrarads
(C) Microwaves
(D) Defect in mirror
Answer: (A)
43. Flourscent dye for ophthalmological diagnosis is injected in :
(A) Antecubital vein
(B) Popleteal vein
(C) Femoral vein
(D) Subclavian vein
Answer: (A)
44. Best investigation for optic nerve damage amongst the following is :
(A) Opthalmoscopy
(B) Flourscence angiography
(C) Ultrasound
(D) Perimetry
Answer: (D)
45. First sign in sympathetic ophthamilis is :
(A) Presence of aquous flare
(B) Presence of precipitates
(C) Constriction of pupil
(D) Retrolental flare
Answer: (D)
46. Most commonly employed treatment for cortivocavernous fistula nowadays is :
(A) Ballon embolization
(B) Ligation of internal artery
(C) No treatment available
(D) Fistulectomy
Answer: (A)
47. Treatment of choice in aphakia :
(A) Contect lens
(B) Spectacles
(C) IOL
(D) Laser therapy
Answer: (C)
48. Treatment of choice in acute congestive glaucoma
(A) Pilocarpine
(B) Laser iriddotomy
(C) Timolol
(D) Trabeculoplasty
Answer: (B)
49. Features of Horner’s syndrome include all of the following except :
(A) Miosis
(B) Ptosis
(C) Anhydrosis
(D) Exopthalmos
Answer: (D)
50. Most common ocular foreign body is :
(A) Chiesel and hammer
(B) Glass
(C) Plastics
(D) Stone
Answer: (A)
51. Cherry red spot is seen in :
(A) CRVO
(B) Blunt Trauma
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Retinitis pigmentosa
Answer: (B)
52. In a patient presenting with headache and eye complaints, Examination of rigt eye reveals: Right eye superotemporal quadrotpsia. Left eye reveals : Left eye superotemporal quadrotopsia
(A) Left optic nerve + chiasma
(B) Left optictract + chiasma
(C) Right optic nerve + chiasma
(D) Right optic tract + chiasma
Answer: (A)
53. Most common cause of blindness in India is :
(A) Trachoma
(B) Vit-A deficiency
(C) Cataract
(D) Mypopia
Answer: (C)
54. Direct distant ophthalmoscopy is done from distance of :
(A) 10 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 50 cm
(D) 1 meter
Answer: (B)
55. Mydriatic used in 3 years old child for refraction is :
(A) 1% Atropine drops
(B) 1% Atropine ointment
(C) 1% Homoatropine drops
(D) 1% Tropicamide drops
Answer: (A)
56. Dendritic Keratitis is characteristic of :
(A) Herpes virus
(B) Pseudomonas
(C) Streptococci
(D) Staphylococci
Answer: (A)
57. Treatment of choice for acute anterior uveitis is :
(A) Local steroids
(B) Systemic steroid
(C) Local NSAIDS
(D) Systemic NSAIDS
Answer: (A)
58. Treatment of First degree angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Trabeculectomy
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Laser Irodotomy
(D) Timolol
Answer: (C)
59. Function of superior oblique muscle is :
(A) Elevation with eye rotated outwards
(B) Elevation with eye rotated downwards
(C) Depression with inward rotation
(D) Depression with outward rotation
Answer: (C)
60. III nerve palsy causes all of the following except :
(A) Ptosis
(B) Mydriasis
(C) Medial deviation of eyeball
(D) Pupillary reflex lost
Answer: (C)
61. In unilateral Afferent papillary defect, when light is moved from normal to affected eye, there is :
(A) Dilatation in affected side and constriction in normal eye
(B) Dilatation in normal eye and constriction in affected side
(C) Dilatation in both pupils
(D) Constriction in both pupils
Answer: (C)
62. Ipsilaterla optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema is a feature of :
(A) Fischer syndrome
(B) Foster kennedy syndrome
(C) Vogt-kayanagi-Harada syndrome
(D) WAGR syndrome
Answer: (B)
63. Increased ICT is associated with all of the following except :
(A) Disc-oedema
(B) Macular oedema
(C) Normal vision
(D) Afferent papillary defect
Answer: (D)
64. Ptosis with weakness of orbicularis-oculi is an early feature of :
(A) Polymyositis
(B) Myasthenia-gravis
(C) Eaten-lambert-myasthenic syndrome
(D) Thyrotoxicosis
Answer: (B)
65. Weakness of extraocular muscle may be seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) Fisher syndrome
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Eaten lambert syndrome
(D) None
Answer: (D)
66. Treatment of choice for other eye in angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Laser trabeculoplasty
(B) Trabeculectomy
(C) Laser iridotomy
(D) Peripheral iridectomy
Answer: (C)
67. All are true about indirect ophthalmoscope except:
(A) Image is real and inverted
(B) Details of fundus can be seen even with slightly hazy media
(C) Magnification is more than direct ophthalmoscope
(D) Used for seeing periphery of fundus
Answer: (C)
68. Treatment of choice for the other eye in open angle glaucoma is:
(A) Trabeculectomy
(B) Laser iridotomy
(C) Laser trabeculoplasty
(D) Peripheral iridectomy
Answer: (C)
69. Early sign of glaucoma includes following except:
(A) Nerve fibre atrophy
(B) Peripheral halo
(C) Vertical cup
(D) Horizontal cup
Answer: (D)
70. Blindness in a child is most commonly due to:
(A) Keratomalacia
(B) Congenital cataract
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Injuries
Answer: (A)
71. Gonioscopy is used to study:
(A) Ant. chamber
(B) Post chamber
(C) Angle of anterior chamber
(D) Retina
Answer: (C)
72. In acute congestive glaucoma, pupil is:
(A) Oval and horizontal
(B) Oval and vertical
(C) Circular
(D) Slit like
Answer: (B)
73. Indirect ophthalmoscope is done for:
(A) Central retina
(B) Periphery of retina
(C) Sclera
(D) Angle of ant. chamber
Answer: (B)
74. Light reflex absent but accommodation reflex present in seen in:
(A) Hutchison’s pupil
(B) Argyl Robertson pupil
(C) Adie pupil
(D) Horner’s syndrome
Answer: (B)
75. Drug used in glaucoma is:
(A) Propranolol
(B) Atenolol
(C) Timolol
(D) Pindolol
Answer: (C)
76. Most appropriate position for intraocular implant in extracapsular extraction is:
(A) Capsular
(B) Posterior chamber
(C) Anterior chamber
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (B)
77. Lid lag on ptotic eye on same side is caused by:
(A) Neurogenic
(B) Myogenic
(C) Metabolic
(D) Traumatic ptosis
Answer: (B)
78. Superior oblique muscle performs action of:
(A) Intortion
(B) Extortion
(C) Elevation
(D) Medial rotation
Answer: (A)
79. Cherry red spot on retina is seen in A/E
(A) CRAO
(B) CRVO
(C) Nieman-pick diseases
(D) Tay-sach’s disease
Answer: (B)
80. Macula involvement is common in:
(A) Toxoplasma
(B) Malaria
(C) CMV
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (A)
81. Cherry red spot is seen in :
(A) Retinitis pigmentosa
(B) Retinopathy of prematurity
(C) Metachromatic leukodeystrophy
(D) CRV occlusion
Answer: (C)
82. Treatment of congenital cataract is
(A) Needling and aspiration
(B) Intracapsular extraction
(C) Extracapsular extraction
(D) Cryotheraphy
Answer: (A)
83. Radial keratotomy is used as treatment modality for
(A) Small degree in myopia
(B) Progressive non healing ulcer
(C) High astigmatism
(D) High hypermetropia
Answer: (A)
84. Proptosis is seen in:
(A) Neuroblastoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Sympathetic ophthalmia
(D) Injuries
Answer: (A)
85. Ring Scotoma is seen in:
(A) Retinitis pigmentosa
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Cararact
(D) Retinal detachment
Answer: (A)
86. Sympathetic ophthalmitis results due to:
(A) Penetrating injury of ciliary body
(B) Uveitis
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
87. Prophylactic peripheral iridectomy is done in:
(A) Narrow angle glaucoma
(B) Ac. Congestive glaucoma
(C) Congenital glaucoma
(D) Secondary glaucoma
Answer: (B)
88. Enucleation means
(A) Removal of the contents of globe
(B) Removal of the contents of globe and sclera except a frill around the optic nerve
(C) Removal of entire globe along with portion of optic nerve
(D) Removal of the entire contents of orbit
Answer: (C)
89. In sympathetic ophthalmitis, earliest sign is :
(A) KP
(B) Retrolental flare
(C) Aquous flare
(D) Hypopion
Answer: (A)
90. Crocodile tears are seen in :
(A) Frey’s syndrome
(B) Conjunctivitis
(C) Lacrimal tumour
(D) Abnormal VII nerve regeneration
Answer: (D)
91. Commonest cause of keratitis in soft contact lens users is :
(A) Acanthamoeba
(B) Staph aureus
(C) Naegleria
(D) Herpes
Answer: (A)
92. All are indications of intracapsular cataract extraction except :
(A) Mature cataract in age group above 45 years
(B) Immature cataract
(C) Subluxated and dislocated lens
(D) Mature cataract in age group of 30-45 years
Answer: (D)
93. Most characteristic finding of retinitis pigmentosa :
(A) Ring scotoma
(B) Peripheral field defect
(C) Central scotoma
(D) Diplopia
Answer: (A)
94. Following are seen in CRA occlusion except :
(A) Gradual loss of vision
(B) Headache
(C) Sudden loss of vision
(D) Retained central vision
Answer: (A)
95. Dislocation of lens is seen in :
(A) Trachoma
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Homocystinuria
(D) Turner’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
96. Pseudorossettes are seen in :
(A) Retinoblastoma
(B) Ophthalmic nodosa
(C) Phakolytic glaucoma
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
97. Diplopia is not a presenting feature in :
(A) Manifest squint
(B) Paralytic squint
(C) Latent squint
(D) Anisometropia
Answer: (C)
98. Cobble stone appearance is seen in :
(A) Trachoma
(B) Viral conjunctivitis
(C) Spring catarrh
(D) Trauma
Answer: (C)
99. Waardenburg’s syndrome following are seen except
(A) Widening of the eyebrow
(B) Short palpebral fissure
(C) Interstital keratitis
(D) Heterochromia iridis
Answer: (C)
100. Good vision in dim light and clumsy in day lights seen in :
(A) Cortical cataract
(B) Morgagnian cataract
(C) Nuclear cataract
(D) Steroid induced cataract
Answer: (C)
101. Commonest type of cataract is :
(A) Blue dot
(B) Zonular
(C) Cupuliform
(D) Cuneiform
Answer: (A)
102. Macular edema is caused by all except :
(A) Microaneurysm
(B) Cap dilatation
(C) Neovascularization
(D) None
Answer: (D)
103. In Buphthalmos, seen are all except :
(A) Subluxated lens
(B) Large cornea
(C) Small cornea
(D) Big eye ball
Answer: (C)
104. In pupillary reflex nerve tested is :
(A) 2nd
(B) 3rd
(C) Both 2nd and 3rd
(D) 4th
Answer: (C)
105. Dysthyroid opthalmopathy all are true except :
(A) Proptosis
(B) Myopathy
(C) Exophthalmos
(D) Optic neuritis
Answer: (D)
106. Berlins’s oedema is due to :
(A) Blunt injury
(B) Penetrating injury
(C) Sympathetic ophthalmia
(D) Congential glaucoma
Answer: (A)
107. Best IOL is :
(A) Ant chamber
(B) Post chamber
(C) Iris supported
(D) Angle supported
Answer: (B)
108. Most common cataract in new born is :
(A) Zonular
(B) Morganian
(C) Ant. polar
(D) Post. polar
Answer: (A)
109. Phlicten is due to :
(A) Exogenous allergy
(B) Endogenous allergy
(C) Viral keratitis
(D) Fungal keratitis
Answer: (B)
110. Peribulbar injection is given in :
(A) Subtenon space
(B) Muscle case
(C) Periorbital space
(D) Subperiorbital space
Answer: (C)
111. Trantas spots and Herbert’s pits are seen in :
(A) Trachoma
(B) Following conjunctivitis
(C) Spring catarh
(D) Glaucoma
Answer: (A)
112. Dendritic ulcer is caused by :
(A) Adeno virus
(B) H. simplex
(C) H. zoster
(D) Aspergillus
Answer: (B)
113. In buphthalmos, lens is :
(A) Anteropost flat
(B) Small
(C) Large
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
114. Snow banking is typically seen in :
(A) Pars planitis
(B) Endophthalmitis
(C) Coat’s disease
(D) Eale’s disease
Answer: (A)
115. Aniseikonia refers to :
(A) Difference in the corneal diameter
(B) Difference in the image size (retinal image)
(C) Difference in the refractive power
(D) Difference in image colour
Answer: (B)
116. Which is not a part of the papillary light reflex :
(A) Lateral geniculate body
(B) Pre-tectal area
(C) Retina
(D) Edinger-Westphal nucleus
Answer: (A)
117. Christmas tree cataract is seen in :
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Rubella
(C) Myotonic dystrophy
(D) Diabetes
Answer: (C)
118. A 30 year old woman with sudden right-sided painful red eye associated with nausea, vomiting and headache. The diagnosis is :
(A) Acute congestive glaucoma
(B) Endophthlmitis
(C) Eale’s disease
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
119. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in :
(A) CRVO
(B) CRAO
(C) Diabetic retinopathy
(D) Neovasccularization
Answer: (B)
120. Enlarging dot sign in fundus fluorescein scanning is seen in :
(A) Cystoid macular edema
(B) Central serous retinopathy
(C) Significant macular edema
(D) Coat’s disease
Answer: (B)
121. Which should not be used in raised IOT associated with uveitis :
(A) Timolol
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Artopine
(D) Acetazolamide
Answer: (B)
122. Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in :
(A) Chloroquine
(B) Methanol
(C) Ethambutol
(D) Steroids
Answer: (A)
123. Photophobia in an infant could be due to :
(A) Buphthalmos
(B) Lid coloboma
(C) Cataract
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (A)
124. Coloured halo is seen in all except :
(A) Open angle glaucoma
(B) Closed angle glaucoma
(C) Cataract
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (A)
125. Refractive condition of the eye at birth is :
(A) Hypermetropia of 2 D
(B) Myopia of 2 D
(C) Hypermetropia of 5 D
(D) Myopia of 5 D
Answer: (A)
126. Cobble stone appearance is seen in :
(A) Spring catarrh
(B) Trachoma
(C) Phlyctenular keratitis
(D) Fasicular ulcer
Answer: (A)
127. Image formed in direct opthalmoscopy is :
(A) Real and erect
(B) Real and inverted
(C) Virtual and erect
(D) Virtual and inverted
Answer: (C)
128. Superior oblique is supplied by :
(A) Upper branch of 3rd N
(B) Lower branch of 3rd N
(C) Trochlear
(D) Abducens
Answer: (C)
129. Pupil that responds to convergence but light reflex is absent:
(A) Adies pupil
(B) Argyl Robertson pupil
(C) Hutchison pupil
(D) Myotonic pupil
Answer: (B)
130. Yag laser is used in :
(A) Retinal detachment
(B) Diabetes
(C) After cataract
(D) Refractive errors
Answer: (C)
131. Avascular coat in eye is :
(A) Sclera
(B) Cornea
(C) Retina
(D) Choroid
Answer: (B)
132. Keratometer is used to assess :
(A) Thickness of cornea
(B) Refractive power
(C) Astigmatism
(D) Curvature of cornea
Answer: (D)
133. Knudson’s hypothesis is applied for :
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Cataract
(D) Melanoma
Answer: (B)
134. Pituitary tumour causes :
(A) Binasal hemianopia
(B) Homonymous hemianopia
(C) Monocular blindless
(D) Bitemporal hemianopia
Answer: (D)
135. Dalen fuch’s nodule is seen in :
(A) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
(B) Myopia
(C) Retinal detachment
(D) Spring catarrah
Answer: (A)
136. Malignant glaucoma is seen in :
(A) Malignancy
(B) After surgery for cataract or glaucoma
(C) Trauma
(D) Thrombosis
Answer: (B)
137. In retinoscopy for refractive error at 1 m we add 1D if done at distance of 66 cm, the addition factor will be :
(A) -2
(B) -1.5
(C) -0.5
(D) -5
Answer: (B)
138. Common complications of IOL
(A) Corneal dystrophy
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Anisocoria
(D) Macular edema
Answer: (C)
139. Retinopathy in neonate is due to :
(A) Prematurity < 1500 gm
(B) O₂ toxicity
(C) Trauma
(D) Diabetes
Answer: (A)
140. Ophthalmic change initially seen in DM :
(A) Microaneurysm
(B) Hard exudate
(C) Cotton wool exudate
(D) Neovascularization
Answer: (A)
141. First sign seen in open angle glaucoma :
(A) Arcuate scotoma
(B) Extension above blind spot
(C) Roene’s nasal step
(D) Siedel’s scotoma
Answer: (B)
142.Horner’s syndrome, all are true except :
(A) Unilateral loss of sweating
(B) Enophthalmos
(C) Mydriasis
(D) Ptosis
Answer: (C)
143. In Retinitis pigmentosa, following are true except :
(A) Pigments present
(B) pale waxy disc
(C) Narrowing of vessels
(D) ERG-normal
Answer: (D)
144. Rosette shaped cataract is seen in :
(A) Trauma
(B) Radiation
(C) DM
(D) Iridocyclitis
Answer: (A)
145. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by :
(A) Moraxella
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteroides
(D) Fungus
Answer: (A)
146. All are seen in ac. iridocyclitis except :
(A) Pain
(B) Ciliary congestion
(C) Mucopurulent discharge
(D) Small pupil
Answer: (C)
147. In Keretoconus, all are seen except :
(A) Munson’s sign
(B) Thinning of cornea in center
(C) Distortion of corneal reflex at center
(D) Hypermetropic refractive error found
Answer: (D)
148. One year old male child with cat’s eye reflex and raised IOT :
(A) Toxplasma gondi infection
(B) Toxcara canis
(C) Retinoblastoma
(D) Retinopathy of prematurity
Answer: (A)
149. Keratomalacia is :
(A) Occurs due to Vit-A deficiency
(B) Relatively benign condition
(C) First feature of Vit-A deficiency
(D) Also seen in retinitis pigmentosa
Answer: (A)
150. Complications of soft contact lens are a/e :
(A) Giant papillary conjunctivitis
(B) Folliculosis
(C) Corneal vascularization
(D) Corneal erosion
Answer: (B)
151. Amsler grid is used in :
(A) Detecting maculopathy
(B) Optic disc examination
(C) Squint
(D) Retinal examination
Answer: (A)
152. Black floaters in a diabetic patient indicate :
(A) Vitreous H’ge
(B) Maculopathy
(C) Vitreous infarction
(D) Post. vitreous detachment
Answer: (A)
153. Knudson’s two stage hypothesis is for :
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) optic glioma
(D) Meningioma
Answer: (B)
154. Image seen by indirect ophthalmoscopy is :
(A) Inverted + Virtual
(B) Erect + Virtual
(C) Inverted + real
(D) Erect + Virtual
Answer: (C)
155. Lost of convergence with slight light reflex is seen in :
(A) ARP
(B) Holme Adie’s pupil
(C) Marcus gun pupil
(D) Wirnecke’s pupil
Answer: (B)
156. Black floaters in a diabetic patient indicate :
(A) Vitreous H/ge
(B) Maculopathy
(C) Vitreous infarction
(D) Post vitreous detachment
Answer: (A)
157. Best site for IOL implantation :
(A) IRIS
(B) Capsular bag
(C) Ant. Chamber
(D) Sulcus
Answer: (B)
158. Field defect seen in pituitary adenoma :
(A) Bitemporal hemianopia
(B) Binasal hemianopia
(C) Quadrantanopia
(D) “Pie in sky” defect
Answer: (A)
159. True about rhinophyma :
(A) Premalignant
(B) Common in alcoholics
(C) Acne rosacea
(D) Fungal etiology
Answer: (C)
160. In NIDDM, fundus examination is done :
(A) At the time of diagnosis
(B) 5 years after diagnosis
(C) At diagnosis and 5 years after diagnosis
(D) At 2 years
Answer: (A)
161. Corneal epithelium is composed of :
(A) Stratified keratinized epithelium
(B) Stratified non-keratinized epithelium
(C) Columnar epithelium
(D) Pseudostratified epithelium
Answer: (A)
162. Cataract is caused by all except :
(A) Ultraviolet radiation
(B) MRI
(C) Infrared radiation
(D) Microwave radiation
Answer: (B)
163. In angle-closure glaucoma, treatment given to the fellow eye is :
(A) Pilocarpine eyedrops
(B) Atropine
(C) LASER iridectomy
(D) Trabeculoplasty
Answer: (C)
164. Familial retinoblastoma :
(A) Has autosomal recessive inheritance
(B) More commonly bilateral
(C) Due to mutation
(D) More common than sporadic retinoblastoma
Answer: (B)
165. Arlt’s line is seen in
(A) Ophthalmia neonatorum
(B) Trachoma
(C) Angular conjunctivitis
(D) Vernal catarrh
Answer: (B)
166. The Visual pathway consists of all of these except :
(A) Optic tract
(B) Geniculocalcarine tract
(C) Inferior colliculus
(D) Lateral geniculate body
Answer: (C)
167. In a young patient presenting with recurrent vitreous hemorrhage, diagnosis is :
(A) Eale’s disease
(B) CRVO
(C) Proliferative retinopathy
(D) Coat’s disease
Answer: (A)
168. Haab’s straie are seen in :
(A) Angle-closure glaucoma
(B) Infantile glaucoma
(C) Stargardt disease
(D) Disciform keratitis
Answer: (B)
169. Treatment of preshyopia :
(A) LASIK
(B) Concave lens
(C) Convex lens
(D) Radial keratotomy
Answer: (C)
170. Periphery of retina is visualized by :
(A) Indirect ophthalmoscopy
(B) Direct ophthlmoscopy
(C) Goniocopy
(D) Contact lens
Answer: (A)
171. Surface ectoderm gives rise to all of the following structures except.
(A) Lens
(B) Corneal epithelium
(C) Conjunctival epithelium
(D) Anterior layers of iris
Answer: (D)
172. Corneal endothelium is embryological derived from:
(A) Neural crest
(B) Ectoderm
(C) Mesoderm
(D) Endoderm
Answer: (A)
173. The following ocular structure is not derived from surface ectoderm :
(A) Crystalline lens
(B) Sclera
(C) Corneal epithelium
(D) Epithelium of lacrimal glands
Answer: (B)
174. All are true about optic nerve except :
(A) Arises from axons of bipolar neurons
(B) 4 cm long
(C) Convered by 3 layers continuous with meninges
(D) Crossed by ophthalmic artery
Answer: (C, B, D)
175. All statement are true about the eye of a newborn except
(A) Optic nerve is myelinated only upto lamina cribrosa
(B) Orbit is more divergent than adult
(C) Apart from macular area the retina is fully differentiated
(D) New born I usually myopic by-2 to -3 D
Answer: (D)
176. Infant Eye is
(A) Myopic
(B) Astigmatism
(C) Hypermetropic
(D) None
Answer: (C)
177. Refractive condition of the eye at birth is :
(A) Hypermetropia of 2 D
(B) Myopia of 2 D
(C) Hypermetropia of 5 D
(D) Myopia of 5 D
Answer: (A)
178. Critical period of development of fixation reflex is
(A) 2-4 months of age
(B) 6-8 months of age
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years
Answer: (A)
179. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following :
(A) Overlay of contours
(B) Motion parallax
(C) Bi-nasal disparity
(D) Linear perspective
Answer: (C)
180. Anteroposterior stability of eye ball is provided by all except:
(A) Suspensory ligament of the eye ball
(B) Superior oblique
(C) Superior rectus
(D) Orbital fat
Answer: (A)
181. Coloured halos are seen in all, EXCEPT
(A) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
(B) Acute anterior uveitis
(C) Tetracycline
(D) Glaucoma
Answer: (C)
182. Coloured halos are seen in all, EXCEPT
(A) Cataract
(B) Angle closure glaucoma
(C) Corneal edema
(D) Corneal opacity
Answer: (D)
183. In which type of glaucoma the coloured haloes are NOT seen :
(A) Phacomorphic glaucoma
(B) Pigmentary glaucoma
(C) Glaucoma of epidemic dropsy
(D) Steroid induced glaucoma
Answer: (D)
184. Coloured halo is seen in all except
(A) Open angle glaucoma
(B) Closed angle glaucoma
(C) Cataract
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (A)
185. A 60 year male presented with the feature of coloured halos was examined with fincham’s test, which revealed that halos split and then reunion, Diagnosis is:
(A) Acute congestive glaucoma
(B) Open angle glaucoma
(C) Senile immature cataract
(D) Mucopurulant conjunctivitis
Answer: (C)
186. Funcham’s test differentiates cataract from
(A) Conjunctivitis
(B) Iridocyclitis
(C) Open angle Glaucoma
(D) Ac. congestive Glaucoma
Answer: (D)
187. Kratometry is useful in measuring
(A) Corneal curvature
(B) Corneal thickness
(C) Corneal diameter
(D) Depth of anterior chamber
Answer: (A)
188. Curvature of cornea can be measured by
(A) Keratometry
(B) Direct ophthalmoscopy
(C) Retinoscopy
(D) Perimetry
Answer: (A)
189. Gonioscopy is used to study
(A) Ant. Chamber
(B) Post chamber
(C) Angie of anterior chamber
(D) Retina
Answer: (C)
190. Tonography helps you to determine:
(A) The rate of formation of aqueous
(B) The facility of outflow of aqueous
(C) The levels of intraocular pressure at different times.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
191. Fluorescein angiography is used to identify lesions in all EXCEPT:
(A) Retina
(B) Lenis
(C) Optic nerve head
(D) Iris
Answer: (B)
192. Fluorescent dye for ophthalmological diagnosis is injected in:
(A) Antecubital vein
(B) Popliteal vein
(C) Femoral vein
(D) Subclavian vein
Answer: (A)
193. Dye is injected in which vessel in cerebral angiography
(A) Branchial artery
(B) Cubital vein
(C) Femoral artery
(D) Cartoid artery
Answer: (D)
194. Inverted Purkinje image is seen on:
(A) Anterior surface of cornea
(B) Anterior surface of lens
(C) Posterior surface of cornea
(D) Posterior surface of lens
Answer: (D)
195. The magnification obtain with a direct ophthalmoscope is :
(A) 5 times
(B) 10 times
(C) 15 times
(D) 20 times
Answer: (C)
196. Direct distant ophthalmoscopy is done from a distance of:
(A) 10 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 50 cm
(D) 1 meter
Answer: (B)
197. Distant direct ophthalmoscopy is done at a distance of:
(A) 20 cm.
(B) 25 cm.
(C) 50 cm.
(D) 100 cm.
Answer: (B)
198. Image seen by indirect ophthalmoscopy is
(A) Inverted + Virtual
(B) Erect + Virtual
(C) Inverted + real
(D) Erect + Virtual
Answer: (C)
199. Image formed in direct ophthalmoscopy is:
(A) Real and erect
(B) Real and inverted
(C) Virtual and erect
(D) Virtual and inverted
Answer: (C)
200. Area of retina visualized by direct ophthalmoscopy
(A) 1DD
(B) 2DD
(C) 3DD
(D) 4DD
Answer: (B)
201. Magnification in Indirect ophthalmoscopy :
(A) Depends on power of lens used
(B) Depends on refractive error of pt
(C) Independent of refractive error of pt
(D) None
Answer: (A, B)
202. Periphery of retina is visualized by:
(A) Indirect ophthalmoscopy
(B) Direct ophthalmoscopy
(C) Goniocopy
(D) Contact lens
Answer: (A)
203. Indirect ophthalmoscopy is done for:
(A) Central retina
(B) Periphery of retina
(C) Sclera
(D) Angle of ant. Chamber
Answer: (B)
204. The periphery of retina is visualized with:
(A) Indirect binocular ophthalmoscopy
(B) Direct ophthalmoscopy
(C) Contact lens
(D) Goldman’s three mirror contact lens
(E) Hruby lens
Answer: (A, D)
205. All are true about indirect ophthalmoscope except:
(A) Image is real and inverted
(B) Details of fundus can be seen even with slightly hazy media
(C) Magnification is more than direct ophthalmoscope
(D) Used for seeing periphery of fundus
Answer: (C)
206. Indirect ophthalmoscopy detects A/E
(A) Examination of oraserrta
(B) Retinal periphery
(C) Examination of vitreous base
(D) Examination of fovea
Answer: (D)
207. An 18 years old girl who was suing spectacles for last 10 years, came with the history of photopsia and sudden loss of vision in right eye. Which one of the following clinical examinations should be performed to clinch the diagnosis?
(A) Cycloplegic refraction
(B) Indirect Ophthalmoscopy
(C) Schiotz tonometry
(D) Goniscopy
Answer: (B)
208. A fried of yours has a spectacle correct of −6.0 and −8.0. He telephones you one morning and tells that he has started seeing some opacities floating in front of his eye and that his vision has decreased slightly over the last few days. As an intern in the ophthalmology section, what would you do
(A) Reassure
(B) Refraction of prescribe a new spectable
(C) Direct ophthalmoscopy
(D) Indirect ophthalmoscopy
Answer: (D)
209. In the normal human right eye, the peripheral field of vision is usually least:
(A) On the left side (nasally)
(B) In the downward direction
(C) In the upward direction
(D) On the right side (temporally)
Answer: (C)
210. All except one are tests for macular function-
(A) Laser interferometry
(B) Two point discrimination
(C) Maddox rod test
(D) Retinal ERG Electroretinogram
Answer: (D)
211. Amsler grid is used in:
(A) Detecting maculopathy
(B) Optic disc examination
(C) Squint
(D) Retinal examination
Answer: (A)
212. ETDRS vision charge study is done in patients with diabetic retinopathy. ETDRS stands for:
(A) Extended therapy for diabetic retinopathy & its study
(B) Emergency treatment for diabetic retinopathy and study
(C) Eye testing or rotatory drum & its study
(D) Eye testing or rotatory drum & its study
(E) Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy
Answer: (D)
213. True about visual testing in a child:
(A) Visual evoked potential
(B) Teller’s acquity card test
(C) Perimetry
(D) Keratometry
Answer: (A, B)
214. Indocyanine Green Angiography (ICG Angiography) is most useful in detecting
(C) Angioid streaks with choroidal Neovascularization (CNV)
(D) Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
Answer: (A)
215. Peribulbar injection is given in:
(A) Subenon space
(B) Muscle case
(C) Periorbital space
(D) Subperiorbital space
Answer: (C)
216. A patient Mohan, aged 60 yrs, needs an eye examination. He needs a drug which will dilate his eyes but not parlyse his ciliary muscles) Choose the drug:
(A) Atropine
(B) Phenylephrine
(C) Cyclopentolate
(D) Tropicamide
Answer: (B)
217. All of the following are cycloplegics except:
(A) Phenylephrine
(B) Atropine
(C) Homatropine
(D) Cocaine
Answer: (A)
218. Which is the shortest acting mydriatic
(A) Atropine
(B) Homatropine
(C) Tropicamide
(D) Cyclopentolat
Answer: (C)
219. All of the following are examples of mydriatics except:
(A) Atropine
(B) Homatropine
(C) Tropicamide
(D) Pirenzepine
Answer: (D)
220. Agent used for dilatation of pupil in children is
(A) Atropine
(B) Homatropine
(C) Tropicamide
(D) Phenylephrine
Answer: (A)
.
221. Mydriatic used in 3 years old child for refraction is
(A) 1% Atropine drops
(B) 1% Atropine ointment
(C) 1% Homoatropine drops
(D) 1% Tropicamide drops
Answer: (B)
222. Drug required for dilatation of eye in patient of children with squint
(A) Tropicamide
(B) 1% Atropine drop
(C) Homatropine
(D) 1% Atropine ointment
Answer: (D)
223. Mydriatic used in children for refraction is
(A) Tropicamide
(B) Cyclopentolate
(C) Atropine ointment
(D) Homatropine
Answer: (C)
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224. For refraction in hypermetropic child, which is the best drug
(A) Phenylephrine
(B) Atropine ointment
(C) Atropine drops
(D) Homatropine
Answer: (C)
225. Short acting mydriatics are:
(A) Atropine
(B) Hematropine
(C) Tropicamide
(D) Cyclopentolate
Answer: (C, D)
226. The commonest complication of topical steroids is
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Cataract
(C) Ptosis
(D) Iritis
Answer: (A)
227. Complications of topical steroids:
(A) Cataract
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Uveitis
(D) None
Answer: (B)
228. Power of a reduced eye is normally:
(A) 20-D
(B) 35-D
(C) 18-D
(D) 58-D
Answer: (D)
229. The length of the eye ball is
(A) 12 mm
(B) 16 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 24 mm
Answer: (D)
230. Which component of the eye has maximum refractive index :
(A) Anterior surface of the lens
(B) Posterior surface of the lens
(C) Centre of the lens
(D) Cornea
Answer: (C)
231. Refractive index of cornea is
(A) 1.33
(B) 1.37
(C) 1.42
(D) 1.45
Answer: (B)
232. Refractive power of eye depends upon mainly following factor/factors:
(A) Lens
(B) Cornea
(C) Vitreous haemorrhage
(D) Aq. Humours
(E) Axial length of the eye
Answer: (A, B, E)
233. Most important factor determining convergence of light rays on retina is:
(A) Physical stat of vitreous
(B) Dioptre power of lens
(C) Curvature of cornea
(D) Length of eyeball
Answer: (C)
234. Most important factor determining convergence of light rays on retina is:
(A) Length of eyeball
(B) Dioptre power of lens
(C) Refractive index of cornea
(D) Physical state of vitreous
Answer: (C)
235. True about cornea:
(A) Power is 43D
(B) Majority of refraction occur at air-tear interface
(C) With the rule astigmatism is present because vertical meridian more steep than horizontal meridian
(D) Spherical structure
(E) Refractive index 1.334
Answer: (A, B, C)
236. If the axial length of the eyeball is changed by 1 mm then the power changes by:
(A) 1 dioptre
(B) 2 D
(C) 3 D
(D) 4 D
Answer: (C)
237. A man, 35 yrs of age complains of poor near vision Distant vision is normal. Retinoscopy at 1 meter shows + 2 D spherical lens. He has:
(A) Hypermetropia
(B) Presbyopia
(C) Myopia
(D) Accommodation paralysis
Answer: (A)
238. True in myopes:
(A) Use diverging lens
(B) Image formed infront of retina
(C) Far pint becomes near
(D) Fundus normal
Answer: (A)
239. A child presented with difficulty in seeing the blackboard in school. His teachers say that he frequently squeezes his eyes. Most probable cause is:
(A) Hypermetropia
(B) Myopia
(C) Presbyopia
(D) Astigmatism
Answer: (B)
240. Lattice retinal degeneration seen in
(A) Myopia
(B) Hypermetropia
(C) Presbyopia
(D) Anisocoria
Answer: (A)
241. Peripheral retinal degeneration is most common in case of
(A) Myopia
(B) Prespyopia
(C) Hypermetropia
(D) Astigmatism
Answer: (A)
242. In simple astigmatism, foci of image formed on:
(A) Both image are formed in front of retina
(B) Both image are formed behind retina
(C) One image front & other behind the retina
(D) One on retina, other behind the retina
(E) One on retina, other front of the retina
Answer: (D, E)
243. A 55-year-old male with a limbal scar presents to the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective vision for near and far. Clinical examination reveals a wide & deep anterior chamber, iridodonesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.
(A) Aphakia
(B) Pseudophakia
(C) Hypermetropia
(D) Posterior Dislocation of Lens
Answer: (A)
244. Treatment of choice in aphakia:
(A) Contact lens
(B) Spectacles
(C) IOL
(D) Laser therapy
Answer: (C)
245. The ideal rehabilitation for aphakia is
(A) Spectacle
(B) Contact lens
(C) Anterior chamber intraocular lens
(D) Posterior chamber intraocular lens
Answer: (D)
246. Best IOL is:
(A) Ant chamber
(B) Post chamber
(C) Iris supported
(D) Angle supported
Answer: (B)
247. Intraocular lens has advantage over glasses in
(A) Better field of vision
(B) Better accommodation
(C) Better under water vision for swimmer
(D) No chromatic aberration
(E) All of the above
Answer: (E)
248. Aniseikonia meAnswer:
(A) Difference in the axial length of the eyeballs.
(B) Difference in the size of corneas
(C) Difference in the size of pupils
(D) Difference in the size of image formed by the tow eyes.
Answer: (D)
249. True about presbopia
(A) Age related defect of refraction
(B) Defect in accommodation
(C) Concave lens used
(D) Convex lens used
Answer: (B, D)
250. All are true about prespyopia except:
(A) Common in young age group
(B) Not able to seen near objects
(C) Spectacles having unifocal or bifocal lens should be used
(D) Correction of refractive error should be done
(E) Failure of accommodation
Answer: (A)
251. Treatment of presbyopia
(A) LASIK
(B) Concave lens
(C) Convex lens
(D) Radial keratotomy
Answer: (C)
252. A 30 year old man has 6-5 vision each eye, inaided. His cycloplegicretinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. at 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of new sprint at 30 cm, that clears up in about two minutes. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Hypermetropia
(B) Presbyopia
(C) Accommodative inertia
(D) Cycloplegia
Answer: (C)
253. A 14 year old boy complains of pain during reading. On examination, his both eyes are normal and vision with Snellen’s reading is 6/5. He will complains of pain on occluding one eye. He diagnosis is
(A) Myopia
(B) Pseudomyopia
(C) Hyperopia
(D) Emmetropia
Answer: (B)
254. Cross cylinders is
(A) One plus cylinder and one minus cylinder of equal strength
(B) One plus cylinder and one minus cylinder of unequal strength
(C) Two plus cylinder
(D) Both minus cylinder
(E) One spherical & one cylindrical lens
Answer: (A)
255. Retinoscopy is done on a 0.5D myopic patient at a distance of 1 mere. Movement of the image will
(A) Move with the mirror
(B) Move opposite to the mirror
(C) No movement of image with mirror
(D) Image can move to any side
Answer: (A)
256. On performing refraction using a plane mirror on a patient who has a refractive error of -3d sphere with -2D cylinder at 90° from a distance of 1 metre under no cycloplegia, the reflex would be seen to move
(A) With the movement in the horizontal axis and against the movement in the vertical axis
(B) With the movement in both the axes
(C) Against the movement in both the axes
(D) With the movement in the vertical axis and against the movement in horizontal axis.
Answer: (C)
257. In retinoscopy for refractive error at 1 m we add 1D if done at distance of 66 cm, the addition factor will be:
(A) −2
(B) −1.5
(C) −0.5
(D) −5
Answer: (B)
258. A 35 years old hypermetrope is using 1.50 D sphere both eyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward on his nose he will feel that his near vision:
(A) Becomes enlarged
(B) Becomes distorted
(C) Becomes decreased
(D) Remains the same
Answer: (A)
259. A soft contact lens user presents to you with pain, watering, photophobia and a white spot in the centre of the cornea. What will be your3 initial management?
(A) Start frequent antibiotic eye drops after discontinuing the contact lens
(B) Pad & bandage the eye for 12 hours
(C) Frequent instillation of artificial tears
(D) Topical non steroidalanti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
Answer: (A)
260. A soft contact lens users has corneal keratitis cause is
(A) Acanthamoeba-ulcer
(B) Erosion of cornea
(C) Psudomonas infection
(D) Herpes infection
Answer: (C)
261. Soft contact lens is made up of
(A) PMMA
(B) HEMA
(C) Glass
(D) Silicone
Answer: (B)
262. Contact lens wear is proven to have deleterious effects on the corneal physiology. Which of the following statements is incorrect in connection with contact lens wear?
(A) The level of glucose availability in the corneal epithelium is reduced
(B) There is a reduction in hemidesmosome density
(C) There is increased production of CO2 in the epithelium
(D) There is a reduction in glucose utilization by corneal epithelium
Answer: (A)
263. Complications of soft contact lens are A/E:
(A) Giant papillary conjunctivitis
(B) Folliculosis
(C) Corneal vascularization
(D) Corneal erosion
(E) canthomeba keratitis
Answer: (B)
264. A patient with contact lens is diagnosed to have over wear syndrome) He has symptoms of photophobia, redness, blurring of vision, Treatment should be
(A) Antibiotic + cycloplegic
(B) Avoid wearing of contact lens for 48-72 hours
(C) Removal of contact lens and wear new lens
(D) Send the lens for culture sensitivity
Answer: (B)
265. A person with prolonged usage of contact lenses presented with irritation of left eye. After examination a diagnosis of keratitis was made corneal scrapings revealed growth of pseudomonas aeroginosa. The bacteria were observed to be multidrug resistant. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of antimicrobial resistance in these isolated pseudomonas aeroginosa strains
(A) Ability to transfer resistance genes from adjacent commensal flora
(B) Improper contact lens hygiene
(C) Frequent and injudicious use of topical antibiotics
(D) Ability of Pseudomonas to produce biofilms
Answer: (D)
266. Which of the following reflects wavelengths (nanometers) of Laser used for shaping cornea in refractive surgery:
(A) 193
(B) 451
(C) 532
(D) 1064
Answer: (A)
267. Refractive power of eye can be changed by:
(A) Radial keratotomy
(B) Keratomileusis
(C) IOL
(D) LASIK
(E) Photocoagulation
Answer: (A, B, C)
268. Treatment modalities for myopia are:
(A) Radial keratotomy
(B) LASER Keratomileusis
(C) Epikeratophakia
(D) LASER Keratoplasty
Answer: (A, B)
269. Radial keratotomy is used as treatment modality for:
(A) Small degree in myopia
(B) Progressive non healing ulcer
(C) High astigmatism
(D) High hypermetropia
Answer: (A)
270. A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. asks for your opinion. All the following things are suitable for performing LASIK surgery except:
(A) Myopia of 4 Diopers
(B) Age of 15 years
(C) Stable refraction for 1 year
(D) Corneal thickness of 600 microns
Answer: (B)
271. Conjunctive epithelium is
(A) Psudostratified
(B) Stratified columnar
(C) Stratified keratinized squamous
(D) Transitional
Answer: (C)
272. Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in:
(A) Superior conjunctiva
(B) Inferior conjunctiva
(C) Nasal conjunctiva
(D) Temporal conjunctiva
Answer: (C)
273. Follicular conjunctivitis are found in all except:
(A) Herpes simplex conjunctivitis
(B) Drug induced
(C) Adult inclusion conjunctivitis
(D) Allergic conjunctivitis
(E) Molluscum contagiosum
Answer: (D)
274. Staphylococcal conjunctivitis is associated with all except:
(A) Corneal margin infiltration
(B) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(C) Vernal conjunctivitis
(D) Hordeolum
(E) Follicular conjunctivitis
Answer: (C, D, E)
275. Unilateral watery discharge from the eye of a new born,, with no edema or chemosis is due to:
(A) Chamydia
(B) Gonoccocos
(C) Sticky eye
(D) Chemical conjunctivitis
Answer: (D)
276. Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by
(A) Gonorrhoea
(B) H. Influenzae
(C) Chlamydia
(D) Pseudomonas
(E) Staph, Areus
Answer: (A, C, E)
277. Ophthalmia neonatorum is seen in:
(A) Gonococcus
(B) Chlamydiae
(C) H. influnzae
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (A, B)
278. Which of the following is not given in ophthalmia neonatorum:
(A) Erythromycin locally
(B) Tetracycline 1%
(C) Penicillin 1%
(D) Silver nitrate
Answer: (D)
279. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by:
(A) Moraxella
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteroids
(D) Fungus
Answer: (A)
280. The specific topical remedy suggested for angular conjunctivitis is
(A) Dexamethasone
(B) Sulphacetamide
(C) Zinc sulphate
(D) Penicillin
Answer: (C)
281. A patient complains of pain both eyes with congestion. Blurring of vision, photophobia and mucopurulent discharge since one day. Many cases have been reported from the same community. The causative agent is probably:
(A) Adenovirus
(B) Enterovirus 70
(C) Herpes simplex
(D) ECHO virus
Answer: (B)
282. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis occurs with
(A) Herpes zoster
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Enterovirus
(D) Picornavirus
Answer: (C, D)
283. Which of the following does not cause hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
(A) Adenovirus
(B) Coxsackie-24
(C) Enterovirus-70
(D) Papilloma virus
Answer: (D)
284. Seen in trachoma are/is:
(A) Papillary hypertrophy
(B) Follicles
(C) Panus formation
(D) Ropy discharge
Answer: (ALL)
285. Which of the following is/are caused by trachoma:
(A) Entropion
(B) Ectropion
(C) Pinguecula
(D) Corneal opacity
(E) Dry eye
Answer: (A, D, E)
286. Trachoma is characterized by A/E:
(A) Epithelial Keratitis
(B) Conjunctival follicles
(C) Round pannus
(D) Ectropion of upper eyelids
Answer: (D)
287. Herbert’s pits are seen in
(A) Trachoma
(B) Spring catarrh
(C) Phylyctenular conjunctivitis
(D) Sarcoidosis
(E) Molluscum contagiosum
Answer: (A)
288. Arlt’s line is seen in:
(A) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
(B) Pterygium
(C) Ocular pemphigoid
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (B)
289. Trantas spots and Herbert’spits are seen in:
(A) Trachoma
(B) Following conjunctivitis
(C) Spring catarrh
(D) Glaucoma
Answer: (A)
290. All statements are true about trachoma except
(A) Trachoma is caused by bedsonian organism of psittacosis – lymphogranuloma – trachoma group.
(B) Strains mainly responsible are A, B, Ba and C
(C) Marked papillary hyperplasia with limbal follicles are seen in stage III
(D) Mature follicles are seen in stage IIa.
Answer: (C)
291. Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by
(A) Chlamydia trachomatis
(B) Chlamydia psittaci
(C) Herpes
(D) Gonorrhea
Answer: (A)
292. In the grading of trachoma, trachomatous inflammation- follicular is defined as the presence of
(A) 5 or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
(B) 3 or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
(C) 5 or morefollicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
(D) 3 or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
Answer: (C)
293. All are features of Trachoma stage III, EXCEPT
(A) Herbert’s pits
(B) Pannus
(C) Necrosis is scar
(D) Scar on tarsal conjunctiva
Answer: (B)
294. Drug of choice of trachoma is
(A) Penicillin
(B) Sulfonamide
(C) Tetracycline
(D) Chloramphenicol
Answer: (C)
295. Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as:
(A) Iridocylitis
(B) Polyarteritis nodosa
(C) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(D) Giant cell arteritis
Answer: (C)
296. Phlicten is due to:
(A) Exogenous allergy
(B) Endogeneous allergy
(C) Viral keratitis
(D) Fungal keratitis
Answer: (B)
297. A malnourished child from a poor socioeconomic status, residing in overcrowded and dirty areas presents with nodule around the limbus with hyperemia of surrounding conjunctiva in his left eye. He is also observed to have axillary and cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
(A) Plyctenular conjunctivitis
(B) Foreign body granuloma
(C) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
(D) Episcleritis
Answer: (A)
298. Most common allergic manifestation of tuberculosis is:
(A) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(B) Koeppe’s nodule
(C) Retinopathy
(D) Scleritis
Answer: (B)
299. Features of vernal keratitis are:
(A) Papillary hypertrophy
(B) Follicular hypertrophy
(C) Herbert’s pits
(D) Trantra’s Spot
(E) Ciliary congestion
Answer: (A, D)
300. Ramu, age 10 yr present with itching in his eye, foreign body sensation, & ropy discharge since several months. These symptoms are more prominent in summer. Most probable diagnosis is
(A) Vernal conjunctivitis
(B) Fungal keratoconjunctivitis
(C) Viral conjunctivitis
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
301. A 12 year old boy presents with recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis for the last 2 years with intense itching and ropy discharge. The diagnosis is
(A) Vernal conjunctivitis
(B) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(C) Trachoma
(D) Viral conjunctivitis
Answer: (B)
302. A 10 year old boy presents with severe itching of the eye and a ropy discharge. His symptoms aggravate in summer season. Most likely diagnosis is?
(A) Trachoma
(B) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
(C) Acute conjunctivitis
(D) Blepharitis
Answer: (D)
303. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:
(A) Trachoma
(B) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(C) Mucopurulrnt conjunctivitis
(D) Vernal kerato conjunctivitis
Answer: (D)
304. Features of vernal conjunctivitis are A/E:
(A) Shield ulcer
(B) Horner-Tranta’s spots
(C) Papillary hypertrophy
(D) Herbert pits, pannus & follicles
(E) Pseudogerontoxon
Answer: (D)
305. Spring catarrh is characterized by:
(A) Hebert’s pit
(B) Tranta’s spot
(C) Papillary hypertrophy
(D) Cilliary congestion
(E) Follicular changes
Answer: (B, C)
306. Seen in vernal catarrh are:
(A) Papillary hypertrophy
(B) Follicles
(C) Pannus formation
(D) Shield ulcer
(E) Ropy discharge
Answer: (A, D, E)
307. Trantas spots are seen in
(A) Vernal conjunctivitis
(B) Eczematous conjunctivitis
(C) Opthalmia nodosa
(D) Tularemia
Answer: (A)
308. Feature (s) Allergic conjunctivitis is/are all except:
(A) Itching
(B) Papillary hiperplasia
(C) Presence of abundant eosinophils in the discharge
(D) Usually present throughout year
(E) Mild hyperaemia
Answer: (D)
309. Cobblestone appearance of conjunctiva is typically seen with:
(A) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(B) Foreign body
(C) Spring catarrh
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (C)
310. Spring catarrh is-
(A) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV
Answer: (A)
311. Stocker’s line is seen in:
(A) Pinguencula
(B) Pterygium
(C) Congenital ocular Melanosis
(D) Congenital epithelial melanosis
Answer: (B)
312. Pterygium all are true except:
(A) Arise from any part of conjunctiva
(B) Can cause astigamatism
(C) Surgery is treatment of choice
(D) UV exposure is risk factor
(E) Stromal defect seen
Answer: (A)
313. Pterygium is:
(A) A vascular anamoly
(B) Collagen degeneration
(C) Acute inflammatory condition
(D) A benign conjunctival neoplasm
Answer: (B)
314. Corneal epithelium is composed of:
(A) Stratified keratinized epithelium
(B) Stratified non-keratinized epithelium
(C) Columnar epithelium
(D) Pseudostratified epithelium
(E) Transitional epithelium
Answer: (A)
315. True about anatomy of adult cornea:
(A) Horizontal diameter is 12 mm
(B) Horizontal diameter is 10 mm
(C) In megalocornea diameter is > 12 mm
(D) In micro cornea Diameter < 10 mm
(E) Vertical diameter > Horizontal Diameter
Answer: (A, C, D)
316. True about adult cornea:
(A) Diameter is 10 mm
(B) Diameter is 12 mm
(C) Diameter is 14 mm
(D) Vertically it is about 1 mm more than transverse
(E) Microcornea-diameter < 10 mm
Answer: (E)
317. Avascular coat in eye is:
(A) Sclera
(B) Cornea
(C) Retina
(D) Choroids
Answer: (B)
318. Metabolically active layer of cornea is:
(A) Endothelium
(B) Stroma
(C) Descernets membrane
(D) Epithelium
Answer: (A)
319. The corneal transparency is maintained by
(A) Keratocytes
(B) Bowman’s membrane
(C) Descement’s membrane
(D) Endothelium
Answer: (D)
320. Corneal transparency is due to all except:
(A) Na+ – K+ pump
(B) Normal IOT
(C) Hypercellularstroma
(D) Peculiar arrangement of lamella
Answer: (C)
321. Transparency of cornea is maintained by all except:
322. Ionic exchange in the corneal endothelium depends upon the metabolic rate. Which of the following can block Ionic exchange in corneal endothelium?
(A) Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis
(B) Activation of anaerobic glycolysis
(C) Activation of cAMPphosphodiesterase inhibitors
(D) Interference with electron chain transport
Answer: (A)
323. The corneal receives all its nutrition from
(A) Corneal vessels
(B) Atmosphere
(C) Iris
(D) Aqueous humour
Answer: (B)
324. Refractive index of cornea is about –
(A) 1.30
(B) 1.33
(C) 1.37
(D) 1.42
(E) 1.50
Answer: (C)
325. Corneal vascularization is/are caused by:
(A) Graft rejection
(B) Chemical burn
(C) Contact lens use
(D) Vitreous haemorrhage
(E) Viral/Fungal keratitis (infection)
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
326. Causes of corneal neovascularisation
(A) Transplantation rejection
(B) Infection
(C) Contact lens use
(D) None
Answer: (A, B, C)
327. Which of the following organism can penetrate the normal cornea:
(A) Gonococcus
(B) Pseudomonus
(C) Diptheria
(D) Streptococcus
(E) Staphylococcus epidermidis
Answer: (A, C)
328. Lallo, 25 yr old man, presented with h/o of pain redness & watering of left eye for last 1 day. There is also intolerance to light. Most probable diagnosis is
(A) Keratitis
(B) Acute anterior uveitis
(C) Acute posterior uveitis
(D) Epidemic kerato conjunctivitis
Answer: (A)
329. A 30 years old male from a rural background presents in the ophthalmology clinic with history of difficulty in vision for 10 days. He gives history of vegetative material falling into the left eye about 15 days back. On examination an ulcerative lesion in the cornea with feathery margins and creamy exudates is seen. Few satellite lesions were also noted. The most likely diagnosis etiologic agent is:
(A) Corynebacterium diphtheria
(B) Fusarium sp.
(C) Acanthomoeba sp.
(D) Streptococcus pneumonia
Answer: (B)
330. True about fungal corneal ulcer:
(A) Satellite lesion
(B) Symptoms more than signs
(C) Purulent ulcer
(D) Hypopyon
(E) Dry ulcer
Answer: (A, D, E)
331. A young man aged 30 years, presents with difficulty in vision in the left eye for the last 10 days. He is immunocompetent,, a farmer by occupation, comes from a rural community and gives history of trauma to his left eye with vegetative matter 10-15 days back. on examination, there is an ulcerative lesion in the cornea, whose base has raised soft creamy infiltrate. Ulcer margin is feathery and hyphate. There are a few satellite lesions also. The most probable etiological agent is:
(A) Acanthamoeba
(B) Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae
(C) Fusarium
(D) Streptococcus pneumonia
Answer: (C)
332. A 30 year old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology
(A) Anterior uveitis
(B) Conjunctivitis
(C) Fungal corneal ulcer
(D) Corneal laceration
Answer: (C)
333. Features of fungal ulcer :
(A) Symptoms more than signs
(B) Dry ulcer
(C) Diffuse corneal edema
(D) Hyphated margins
Answer: (B, D)
334. True about fungal corneal ulcer
(A) Symptoms are severe
(B) Dry looking ulcer
(C) Satellite lesion
(D) Shifting hypopion
(E) Immunogenic ring
Answer: (B, C, E)
335. All are features of fungal keratitis, EXCEPT
(A) Less symptoms, more signs
(B) Infected hypopyon
(C) Early vascularisation of cornea
(D) Dry white slough
Answer: (C)
336. Satellite nodules are seen in
(A) Fungal corneal ulcer
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Sarcoidosis
(D) Viral ulcer
(E) All
Answer: (A)
337. Satellite lesions in eye is caused by
(A) Herpes zoster
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Aspergillosis
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (C)
338. Satellite nodule on a corneal ulcer is seen in
(A) Fungal infection
(B) Bacterial infection
(C) Viral infection
(D) Mycoplasma infection
Answer: (A)
339. Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a cse of fungal corneal ulcer:
(A) Atropine sulphate eye ointments
(B) Dexamethasone eye drops
(C) Pilocarpine eye drops
(D) Lignocaine eye drops
Answer: (A)
340. Topical antifungal used in corneal fungal infection
(A) Silver sulfadiazine
(B) Neomycin
(C) Natamycin
(D) Griseofulvin
Answer: (C)
341. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi?
(A) Itraconazole
(B) Natamycin
(C) Nystatin
(D) Fluconazole
Answer: (B)
342. Steroid are contraindicated in:
(A) Herpes keratitis
(B) Atopic dermatitis
(C) Fungal corneal ulcer
(D) Exposure keratitis
Answer: (C)
343. Steroids are contraindicated in
(A) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
(B) Granular conjunctivitis
(C) Mooren’s ulcer
(D) Dendritic ulcer
Answer: (D)
344. Which of the following is true of dendritic ulcer:
(A) Caused by Herpes simplex virus
(B) Topical corticosteroid given suppresses the symptoms
(C) Oral acyclovir is effective in treatment
(D) Topical acyclovir is effective in treatment
(E) Heals spontaneously
Answer: (A, D)
345. Dendritic Keratitis is characteristic of:
(A) Herpes virus
(B) Pseudomonas
(C) Streptococci
(D) Staphylococci
Answer: (A)
346. Dendritic figures are a feature of keratitis with
(A) Measles
(B) Trachoma
(C) Herpes simplex
(D) Vaccinia
Answer: (C)
347. A dendritic ulcer is caused by
(A) Mycetoma
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Staphylococcus
(D) Pneumococcus
(E) Gonococcus
Answer: (B)
348. Corneal sensation is lost in
(A) Herpes simplex
(B) Conjunctivitis
(C) Fungal infection
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
349. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the following except:
(A) Keratoconus
(B) Herpes simplex keratitis
(C) Leprosy
(D) Neurofibromatosis.
Answer: (B)
350. Rx of dendritic ulcer:
(A) Acyclovir
(B) Idoxuridine
(C) Steroid
(D) Tetracycline
(E) Trychophytoncanis
Answer: (A, B)
351. Herpetic keratitis is treated by
(A) Analgesics
(B) Atropine
(C) Steroids
(D) Idoxuridine
Answer: (D)
352. Topical antiviral drugs not indicated in :
(A) Dendritic ulcer
(B) Mest herpetic ulcer
(C) Stromal necrotizing keratitis
(D) Neuroparalytic keratitis
(E) Disciform keratitis
Answer: (B, D)
353. Topical steroids can be used in :
(A) Herpetic keratitis
(B) Herpetic dendrite
(C) Disciform keratitis
(D) Ant. uveitis
(E) Pars planitis
Answer: (C, D, E)
354. A 56 year old man has painful weeping rashes over the upper eyelid and forehead for the last 2 days along with ipsilateral acute punctate keratopathy. About a year back, he had chemotherapy for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. There is no other abnormality. Which if the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Impetigo
(B) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
(C) Herpes Zoster
(D) Pyodermagangrenosum
Answer: (C)
355. All of the following occur in herpes zoster ophthalmicus except
(A) Anterior stromal keratitis
(B) Pseudodendritic keratitis
(C) Sclerokertitis
(D) Endothelitis
Answer: (C)
356. Occular symptom not seen in Herpes zoster is:
(A) Nummular keratitis
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Uveitis
(D) Cranial nerve palsies
Answer: (D)
357. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is predictor of:
(A) Leukemia
(B) Lymphoma
(C) HIV
(D) Disseminated T.B
(E) Metastasis
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
358. Kallu, a 25 yr male pt. presented with a red eye and complain of pain, photophobia, watering and blurred vision. He gives a history of trauma to his eye with a vegetable matter. Corneal examination shows a dendritic ulcer. A corneal scraping was taken and examined. Microscopy showed macrophages like cells on culturing the corneal scrapings over a non-nutrient agar enriched with E.coli, there were plaque formations. Which organism is most likely-
(A) Herpes Simplex
(B) Acanthameba
(C) Candida
(D) Adeno virus
Answer: (B)
359. A 17 year old girl with keratitis and severe pain in the eye came to the hospital and acanthamoeba keratitis was suspected. The patient gave the history of following 4 points. Out of these which is not a risk factor for acanthamoeba keratitis.
(A) Extend wear contact lens.
(B) Exposure to dirty water.
(C) Corneal trauma
(D) Squamous belpharitis.
Answer: (D)
360. Commonest cause of keratitis in soft contact lens users is:
(A) Acanthamoeba
(B) Staph aureus
(C) Naegleria
(D) Herpes
Answer: (A)
361. Which of the following statement is true regarding ACanthamoeba keratitis?
(A) For the isolation of the causative agent, corneal scraping should be cultured on a nutrient agar plate.
(B) The causative agent, Acanthamoeba is a helminth whose normal habitat is soil
(C) Keratitis due to Acanthamoeba is not seen in the immunocompromised host.
(D) Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a human host for the completion of its life-cycle.
Answer: (D)
362. A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection. Laboratory diagnosis is acanthemoeba keratitis was established. The following is the best drug for treatment
(A) Propamidine
(B) Neosporine
(C) Ketoconazole
(D) Polyhexamethylenebiguanide
Answer: (D)
363. A regular contact lens user presents with complaints of severe pain, redness, photophobia and blurring of vision for more than two weeks not responding to standard treatment. On examination, a paracentral ring shaped lesion with stromal infiltrates and overlying epithelial defects is observed in the affected eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.
(A) Fungal keratitis
(B) Viral keratitis
(C) Aanthomoeba keratitis
(D) Bacterial keratitis
Answer: (C)
364. Interstitial keratitis is seen in all except:
(A) Syphilis
(B) Acanthamoeba
(C) Chlamydia Trachomatis
(D) HSV
(E) HZV
Answer: (B)
365. Neurotrophickeratopathy is caused by
(A) Bell’s palsy
(B) Facial and trigeminal nerve palsy both
(C) Trigeminal nerve palsy
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
366. Band shaped keratopathy is caused by:
(A) Amyloid
(B) Calcium
(C) Monopolysaccharide
(D) Lipid
Answer: (B)
367. Which of the following is seen with Sarcoidosis?
(A) Band keratopathy
(B) Angioid streak
(C) Choroid plaques
(D) Cataract nigra
Answer: (A)
368. Corneal dystrophies are
(A) Primary & unilateral
(B) Primary & bilateral
(C) Primary, bilateral with systemic disease
(D) Primary, unilateral without systemic disease
Answer: (B)
369. Which of the following is the least common corneal dystrophy
(A) Macular Dystrophy
(B) Lattice type I
(C) Lattice type III
(D) Granular Corneal Dystrophy
Answer: (A)
370. Corneal dystrophies are:
(A) Macular
(B) Granular
(C) Lattice
(D) Moorens
(E) Fuchs
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
371. Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition?
(A) Lattice dystrophy
(B) Granular dystrophy
(C) Macular dystrophy
(D) Fleck dystrophy
Answer: (C)
372. Cat eye syndrome is-
(A) Partial trisomy 21
(B) Partial trisomy18
(C) Partial trisomy13
(D) Partial trisomy 22
Answer: (D)
373. Recurrent corneal erosion seen in
(A) Corneal dystrophy
(B) Keratoglobus
(C) Keratoconus
(D) Peuz-anomalies
Answer: (A)
374. Corneal curvature is quantified by
(A) Retinoscopy
(B) Keratometry
(C) Slit lamp
(D) Pachymetry
(E) Opthalmoscopy
Answer: (B)
375. Treatment option for keratoconus includes:
(A) Spectacles
(B) Contact lens
(C) Kerotoplasty
(D) LASIK
(E) IOL/Steroids
Answer: (A, B, C)
376. True about keratoconus
(A) ↑curvature of cornea
(B) Astigmatism
(C) K.F. ring seen
(D) Thick cornea
(E) Soft contact lens used
Answer: (A, B, C)
377. True about keratoconus:
(A) Munson sign seen
(B) Protrusion of anterior cornea
(C) Protrusion of posterior cornea
(D) Fleisher’s sign positive
Answer: (A, B, D)
378. In Keratoconus, all are seen except:
(A) Munson’s sign
(B) Thinning of cornea in centre
(C) Distortion of corneal reflex at center
(D) Hypermetropic refractive error fond
Answer: (D)
379. Kayser-Fleishcer rings (KF ring) are seen in
(A) Pterygium
(B) Hematochromatosis
(C) Wilson’s disease
(D) Menke’s kinked hair syndrome
Answer: (C)
380. Fleischer ring is characteristic of
(A) Megalocornea
(B) Diabetes
(C) Chalcosis
(D) Keratoconus
Answer: (D)
381. Brown skin cornea is seen in:
(A) Siderosis
(B) Mustard gas exposure
(C) Chalcosis
(D) Argyrosis
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
382. Pigment deposition on cornea seen in:
(A) Chloroquin
(B) Digoxin
(C) Ranitidine
(D) Amiodarone
Answer: (A, D)
383. A patient on amiodarone is diagnosed to have cornea verticillata. What should be management:
(A) Stop the drug
(B) Penetrating keratoplasty
(C) Lamellar keratoplasty
(D) Observation
(E) Steroids
Answer: (B, D)
384. A 20 year students has myopia of −2.0 D and a post traumatic nebular corneal opacity in her right eye. Which of the following is the best refractive surgery option of her?
(A) Photorefractive keratectomy
(B) LASIK
(C) Radial keratotomy
(D) Epikeratoplasty
Answer: (D)
385. All of the following may lead to corneal opacity in newborn except
(A) Endothelial dystrophy
(B) Sclerocornea
(C) Mucopolysaccharidosis
(D) Droplet keratopathy
Answer: (D)
386. In human corneal transplantation, the donor tissue is
(A) Synthetic polymer
(B) Donated human cadaver eyes
(C) Donated eyes from live human beings
(D) Monkey eyes
Answer: (B)
387. Percentage of endothelial cell loss during Descent’s membrane stripping in automated penetrating keratoplasty
(A) 0.5-%
(B) 10-15%
(C) 30-40%
(D) 50-60%
Answer: (C)
388. Which of the following statements regarding corneal transplantation is true
(A) Whole eye needs to be preserved in tissue culture
(B) Donor not accepted if age > 60 years
(C) Specular microsocopy analysis is used to assess endothelial cell count
(D) HLA matching is mandatory
Answer: (C)
389. Signs of graft rejection are all except
(A) Krachmer spots
(B) Khodadoust line
(C) Oedema
(D) Epithelial line
(E) Foster spot
Answer: (E)
390. Xerophthalmia is caused by:
(A) Vit. C deficiency
(B) Small bowel resection
(C) Cystic fibrosis
(D) Chronic alcoholism
(E) Glomerulonephritis
Answer: (B, C, D)
391. Keratomalacia is:
(A) Occurs due to Vit-A deficiency
(B) Relatively benign condition
(C) First feature of Vit-A deficiency
(D) Also seen in retinitis pigmentosa
Answer: (A)
392. Vit A deficiency produces
(A) Bitots Spots
(B) Trantas spots
(C) Kratomalacia
(D) Xeropthamia
(E) Color blindness
Answer: (A, C, D)
393. Keratomalacia is associated with:
(A) Measles
(B) Mumps
(C) Rubella
(D) Diarrhoea
(E) Chicken pox
Answer: (A, D)
394. Parenchymatousxerosis of conjunctivitis is caused by
(A) Trachoma
(B) Vitamin A deficiency
(C) Vernal catarrh
(D) Phlyctenularkeratoconjunctivitis
(E) Alkali burns
Answer: (A, E)
395. Waardenburg’s syndrome following are seen except:
(A) Widening of the syndrome
(B) Short palpebral fissure
(C) Interstitial keratitis
(D) Heterochromiairidis
Answer: (C)
396. Sclera is thinnest all:
(A) Limbus
(B) Equator
(C) Anterior to attachment of superior rectus
(D) Posterior to attachment of superior rectus
Answer: (D)
397. Weakest portion of sclera is
(A) Limbus
(B) Quator
(C) Anterior to attachment of superior rectus
(D) Front of rectus insertion
(E) Behind rectus insertion
Answer: (E)
398. The most common systemic association of scleritis is:
(A) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
(B) Disseminated systemic sclerosis
(C) Rehumatoid arthritis
(D) Giant cell arteritis
Answer: (C)
399. Endophthalmitis involves inflammation of all of the following, Except
(A) Sclera
(B) Uvea
(C) Retina
(D) Viterous
Answer: (A)
400. Circulusiridis major is seen at
(A) Ciliary body
(B) Root of iris
(C) Collarette of iris
(D) Pupillary margin of iris
Answer: (B)
401. Neovascularization of iris is frequently seen in all/except:
(A) CRVO
(B) Diabetic retinopathy
(C) Fuch’sheterochromiccyclitis
(D) Congenital cataract
Answer: (D)
402. Granulomatous uveitis is seen in:
(A) Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada disease
(B) Fuch’s disease
(C) Bechet’s syndrome
(D) Sarcoidosis
(E) Psoariasis
Answer: (A, D)
403. Uveitis is caused by
(A) T.B.
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Streptococcus
(D) Klebsiella
(E) E. Coli
Answer: (A, B, C)
404. A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient department with gradual blurring of vision in the left eye. Slit lamp examination reveals find stellate keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Intermediate uveitis
(B) Heerfordt’s disease
(C) SubacuteIridocyclitis
(D) HeterochormicIridocyclitis of Fuch’s
Answer: (D)
405. A 30 year old male patient presented with anterior granulomatous uveitis, arthralgia and respiratory difficulties. Probable diagnosis is
(A) Ocular sarcoidosis
(B) TB
(C) Behcet’s syndrome
(D) HLA B27 Uveitis
Answer: (A)
406. Chorioretinitis is caused by:
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) CMV
(C) Rubella
(D) Oncocerca volvulus
(E) Adeno virus
Answer: (A, B, D)
407. A young adult presented with diminished vision. On examination he has anterior uveitis, vtritis, focal necrotizing granuloma & macular spot. Probable diagnosis is
(A) Proteus syndrome
(B) White do syndrome
(C) Multifocal choroiditis
(D) Ocular toxoplasmosis
Answer: (D)
408. Which drug cause macular toxicity when given intravitreally?
(A) Gentamicin
(B) Vancomycin
(C) Dexamethasone
(D) Ceftazidime
Answer: (A)
409. A 10 yr old boy presents with b/I chronic uveitis. Which investigation should be ordered:
(A) Hemogram
(B) X-ray of sacroiliac jt.
(C) HIV test
(D) Mountaux test
(E) ACE/ANA
Answer: (A, B, C, D, E)
410. The investigation of anterior uveitis of a young boy are:
(A) HLA B27
(B) X-ray sacroiliac joint
(C) TORCH agents
(D) ELISA for HIV
(E) USG abdomen
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
411. Most common cause of anterior uveitis associated with arthritis:
(A) Ankylosing spondylitis
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Syphilis
(D) Tuberculosis
Answer: (A)
412. A 25-year-old male gives a history of redness, pain and mild diminution of vision in one eye for past 3 days. There is also a history of low backache for the past one year. On examination there is circumcorneal congestion, cornea is clear apart from a few fine keratic precipitates on the corneal endothelium, there are 2+ cells in the anterior chamber and the intraocular pressure is within normal limits. The patient is most likely suffering from
(A) Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma
(B) HLA B-27 related anterior uveitis
(C) JRA associated uveitis
(D) Herpetic keratitis
Answer: (B)
413. A 25 year old lady presents with severe sudden onset of pain, corneal congestion, photophobia and deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. X-ray pelvis shows sacroiliitis. The diagnosis is:
(A) Anterior uveitis
(B) Posterior uveitis
(C) Intermediate uveitis
(D) Scleritis
Answer: (A)
414. Uveitis is associated most commonly with:
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) Systemic JRA
(C) Pauciarticular JRA
(D) Polyarticular JRA
Answer: (C)
415. Iridocyclitis is a feature of
(A) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis with systemic involvement
416. Pauciarticular JRA is characterized by all except
(A) Uveitis
(B) Scleritis
(C) Cataract
(D) Keratopathy
Answer: (B)
417. Signs of uveitis
(A) Generalized conjunctival congestion
(B) Circumciliary congestion
(C) Cells and flare in aqueous
(D) None
Answer: (B, C)
418. Anterior uveitis is characterized by A/E:
(A) Aqueons flare
(B) Shallow anterior chamber
(C) Circumcorneal congestion
(D) Miosis
Answer: (B)
419. A patient has a miotic pupil, IOP = 25, normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea and a shallow anterior chamber in fellow eye. Diagnosis is:
(A) Acute anterior uveitis
(B) Acute angle closure glaucoma
(C) Acute open angle glaucoma
(D) Senile cataract
Answer: (A)
420. A patient has normal anterior chamber and hazy cornea in one eye and shallow ant chamber and meiotic pupil in fellow eye. The diagnosis is:
(A) Endopthalmitis
(B) Acute congestive glaucoma
(C) Chronic simple glaucoma
(D) Acute anterior uveitis
Answer: (D)
421. All are seen in acute Iridocyclitis except:
(A) Pain
(B) Ciliary congestion
(C) Mucopurulent discharge
(D) Small pupil
Answer: (C)
422. A pt. presents with meiotic pupil of size 2 mm in diameter IOP is 25 mm of Hg. Cornea is hazy. AC is shallow in fellow eye, most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Acute congestive glaucoma
(B) Acute anterior uveitis
(C) Chronic simple glaucoma
(D) Endopthalmitis
Answer: (B)
423. Pupil in Ac attack of Ant. Uveitis is
(A) Semidilated
(B) Large and fixed
(C) Irregular & constricted
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (D)
424. In acute anterior uveitis, pupil is
(A) Oval
(B) Circular
(C) Goniform
(D) Filiform
Answer: (C)
425. The type of synechiae in iris bombe is
(A) Ring
(B) Total
(C) Goniform
(D) Filiform
Answer: (A)
426. Iris bomb occurs with
(A) Posterior complete synechiae
(B) Anterior complete synechaie
(C) Ring synechiae
(D) Angle block glaucoma
Answer: (C)
427. In patient with anterior uveitis, decrease in vision due to involvement of posterior segment can occur because of
(A) Exudative RD
(B) Cystoid macular edema (CME)
(C) Vitreal floaters
(D) Inflammatory disc edema
Answer: (B)
428. Complication of acute anterior uveitis are all EXCEPT
(A) Secondary glaucoma
(B) Cataract
(C) Retinal detachment
(D) Macular oedema
Answer: (C)
429. Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisisbulbi?
(A) The intraocular pressure is increased
(B) Calcification of the lens is common
(C) Sclera is thickened
(D) Size of the globe is reduced
Answer: (A)
430. What is the most common complication in recurrent anterior uveitis
(A) Staphyloma
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Cataract
(D) Vitrealhaemorrhage
Answer: (B)
431. Treatment of choice for acute anterior uveitis is
(A) Local steroids
(B) Systemic steroid
(C) Local Nsaids
(D) Systemic NSAIDS
Answer: (A)
432. Drug of choice for increased IOT in acute anterior uveitis
(A) Atropine
(B) Timolol
(C) 5% Epinephrine
(D) 2% Pilocarpine
Answer: (A)
433. All the following drugs are used in acute anterior uveitis except
(A) Pilocarpine
(B) Atropine
(C) Timolol
(D) Propanolol
Answer: (A)
434. Atropine is drug of choice in
(A) Chorioretinitis
(B) Lens induced glaucoma
(C) Iridocyclitis
(D) Close angle glaucoma
Answer: (C)
435. Primary objective of use of atropine in anterior uveitis
(A) Rest to the ciliary muscle
(B) Increase supply of antibody
(C) Increase blood flow
(D) Prevents posterior synechia formation
Answer: (A)
436. In anterior uveitis with secondary glaucoma, all mydriatics can be given, except
(A) Pilocarpine
(B) Homatropine
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Tropicamide
Answer: (A)
437. Which should not be used in raised IOT associated with uveitis:
(A) Timolol
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Atropine
(D) Acetazolamide
Answer: (B)
438. Uveitis with raised intraocular tension is best managed by
(A) Timolol
(B) Atropine
(C) Pilocarpine
(D) Steroid
Answer: (D)
439. In a case of hypertensive uveitis, most useful drug to reduce intraocular pressure is :
(A) Pilocarpine
(B) Latanosprost
(C) Physostigmine
(D) Dipivefrine
Answer: (D)
440. Anterior uveitis is hypertensive patient, Drug of choice is to decreased the IOP
(A) Lanatoprost
(B) Pilocrapine
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Timolol
Answer: (D)
441. Drug of choice of choroiditis is
(A) Cycloplegic (atropine)
(B) Analgesic
(C) Steroid
(D) Antibiotic
Answer: (C)
442. The Uveitis associated with vitiligo& auditory defects occurs in
(A) Bechet’s syndrome
(B) Steven’s Johnson syndrome
(C) Vogt-Koyanagi syndrome
(D) Ankylosing-spondylitis
Answer: (C)
443. Common features between sympathetic ophthalmitis and Vogt Kanayagi Harada syndrome
(A) Autoimmune etiology
(B) Injury
(C) Uveitis
(D) Vitiligo
Answer: (A, C)
444. Skin depigmentation b/L uveitis and tinitus are features of –
(A) Vogt Koyanagiharada syndrome
(B) Waadenberg Syndrome
(C) Alport Syndrome
(D) Werner’s Syndrome
Answer: (A)
445. Common ocular manifestation in Trisomy 13 is
(A) Capillary hemangioma.
(B) Bilateral microphthalmos.
(C) Neurofibroma.
(D) Dermoid Cyst.
Answer: (B)
446. Snow banking is typically seen in:
(A) Pars planitis
(B) Endophthalmitis
(C) Coat’s disease
(D) Eale’s disease
Answer: (A)
447. Enucleation of the eyeball is contraindicated in
(A) Endophthalmitis
(B) Panophthalmitis
(C) Intraocular tumours
(D) Painful blind eye
Answer: (B)
448. Hyaluronica acid is found in :
(A) Vitreous Humor
(B) Synovial Fluid
(C) Cartilage/Aqueous humor
(D) Cornea/Lens
Answer: (A)
449. Floaters can be seen in following except :
(A) Vitreous haemorrhage
(B) Retinal detachment
(C) Uveitis
(D) A. congestive Glaucoma
Answer: (D)
450. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is:
(A) Retinal hole
(B) Trauma
(C) Hypertension
(D) Diabetes
Answer: (D)
451. Black floaters in a diabetic patient indicate:
(A) Vitreous H’ge
(B) Maculopathy
(C) Vitreous infarction
(D) Post vitreous detachment
Answer: (A)
452. A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment in normal but there is not fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
(A) Vitreous haemorrhage.
(B) Optic atrophy.
(C) Developmental cataract.
(D) Acute attack f angle closure glaucoma.
Answer: (A)
453. ‘Snow ball’ Opacity in vitreous is seen in:
(A) Pars planitis
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Juvenile RA
(D) Taxoplasmosis
(E) Fuch’s lesion
Answer: (A, B)
454. Snow ball opacity in vitreous is seen:
(A) Pars planitis
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Juvenile RA
(D) Taxoplasmosis
(E) Fuch’s lesion
Answer: (A, B)
455. Which one of the following statements, concerning persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) is not true?
(A) It is generally unilateral
(B) Visual prognosis is usually good
(C) It may calcify
(D) It is most easily differentiated from retinoblastoma by the presence of exophthalmos or cataract.
Answer: (B)
456. PHPV is associated with which of the following?
(A) Patau syndrome
(B) Down syndrome
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Sturge weber syndrome
Answer: (A)
457. A vitreous aspirate has been collected in an emergency at 9 pm. What advice you like to give to the staff on duty regarding the overnight storage of the sample:
(A) The sample should be kept at 4℃
(B) The sample should be incubated at 37℃
(C) The sample should be refrigerated in deep freezer
(D) The sample should be refrigerated for the initial 3 hours and then incubated at 37℃
Answer: (A)
458. True about Optic disc:
(A) Horizontal diameter 1.76 mm
(B) Vertical diameter 1.88 m
(C) Contain 1 million nerve fibre
(D) Central retinal artery directly supplies this area
(E) Forms an scotoma in eye field
(F) Fovea centralis is nasal to it
Answer: (C, D, E)
459. The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the optic disc is:
(A) 1 disc diameter
(B) 2 disc diameter
(C) 3 disc diameter
(D) 4 disc diameter
Answer: (B)
460. Regarding fovea, which of the following statements is true:
(A) Has the lowest threshold for light
(B) Contains only cones
(C) Contains only rods
(D) Maximum visual acuity
(E) Is located at apex of optic nerve
Answer: (A, B, D)
461. Most sensitive part of retina is
(A) Macula
(B) Fovea-centralis
(C) Optic disc
(D) Peripheral-retina
Answer: (B)
462. Strongest force of bonding b/w retina an RPE
(A) Vitreous gel pressure
(B) Intraocular fluid pressure
(C) RPE water transport
(D) IPM
Answer: (D)
463. Which of the following is not seen in inter photoreceptor matrix?
(A) Glycoproteins
(B) Metalloproteinase
(C) Proteoglycans
(D) GLycolipids
Answer: (B)
464. The retina receives its blood supply from all, except:
(A) Posterior ciliary artery
(B) Central retinal artery
(C) Retinal arteries
(D) Plexus of Zinn and Haller arteries
Answer: (D)
465. A 30 year old patient with history of recurrent headache was sent for fundus evaluation. He was found to be having generalized arterial attenuation with multiple cotton wool spots and flame shaped haemorrhages in both eyes. he most likely cause is-
(A) Diabetic retinopathy
(B) Hypertensive retinopathy
(C) Central retinal artery occlusion
(D) Temporal arteritis
Answer: (B)
466. All the following changes are caused in the retina by benign hypertension except
(A) Narrowing of arterioles
(B) Exudates
(C) Cotton wool spots
(D) Retinal hemorrhage
Answer: (C)
467. Exudative retinopathy in hypertensive is due to
(A) Co-arctation of aorta
(B) Type I takaysu’s arteritis
(C) Renal artery stenosis
(D) Diabetic atherosclerosis
Answer: (C)
468. In NIDDM, fundus examination is done:
(A) At the time of diagnosis
(B) 5 years after diagnosis
(C) At diagnosis & 5 years after diagnosis
(D) At 2 years
Answer: (A)
469. A case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination?
(A) As early as feasible
(B) After 5 years
(C) After 10 years
(D) Only after visual symptoms develop
Answer: (A)
470. Child with Type I Diabetes. What is the advised time for fundus examinations from the time of diagnosis?
(A) After 5 years
(B) After 2 years
(C) After 1 year
(D) At the time of diagnosis
Answer: (A)
471. Diabetic retinopathy, most likely present with
(A) IDDM with 2 years duration
(B) NIDDM with 2 years duration
(C) Juvenile diabetes
(D) Gestational diabetes
Answer: (B)
472. In maturity onset diabetes mellitus, ophthalmoscopy should be done at
(A) Immediately
(B) After 5 years
(C) After 10 years
(D) After 15 years
Answer: (A)
473. Degree of diabetic retinopathy depends on
(A) Type of disease
(B) Duration of disease
(C) Severity of disease
(D) Retinal involvement
Answer: (B)
474. Development of Diabetic retinopathy depends on
(A) Intensity of disease
(B) Age of onset
(C) Duration of disease
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (D)
475. Causes of floaters in DM is:
(A) Vitreous hemorrhage
(B) Vitreal detachment
(C) Maculopathy
(D) Infarction
Answer: (A)
476. A 40 year old diabetic male present with vitroushaemorrhage. Most important cause for it is
(A) Posterior vitreous detachment
(B) CRVO
(C) CRA trauma
(D) Neovascularization of disc
Answer: (D)
477. A 29 years old man with IDDM for the last 14 years develops sudden vision loss, has non-proliferating diabetic retinopathy, cause is
(A) Macular oedema
(B) Vitreous haemorrhage
(C) Subretinalhaemorrhage
(D) Retinal traction
Answer: (A)
478. A 60 yr old man has both HTN and DM for 10 years. There is reduced vision in one eye. On fundus examination there is a central bled and the fellow eye is normal. The diagnosis is
(A) Diabetic retinopathy
(B) Retinal tear
(C) Optic neuritis
(D) Hypertensive retinopathy
Answer: (B, D)
479. Diabetes mellitus an lead to:
(A) Vitreous haemorrhage
(B) Rubeosisiridis
(C) Retinal detachment
(D) III, IV and VI nerve palsy
(E) Hypermetropia
Answer: (A)
480. A 35 year old insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) patient on Insulin for the past 10 years complains of gradually progressive painless loss of vision. Most likely he has:
(A) Cataract
(B) Vitreous haemorrhage
(C) Total rhegmatogenous retinal detachment.
(D) Tractional retinal detachment not involving the macula.
Answer: (D)
481. Earliest manifestation of diabetic retinopathy is
(A) Soft exudates/Cotton wool spot
(B) Dot haemorrhage
(C) Hard exudates
(D) Microaneurysm
(E) Macular edema
Answer: (D)
482. Features of non-proliferative DR is all except:
(A) Neovascularization
(B) Soft exudates
(C) Hard exudates
(D) Vitreous detachment
(E) Cotton-wool spot
Answer: (A, D)
483. Diabetes mellitus is associated with:
(A) Hard exudates
(B) Neovascularization
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Cataract
(E) Retinal redatchment
Answer: (ALL)
484. Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by:
(A) Hard exudates, dot haemorrhages and microaneurysm
(B) Flame shaped haemorrhages, soft exudates
(C) Deep haemorrhage only
(D) Hard exudates only
Answer: (A, B)
485. Which of following is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination
(A) Microaneurysms
(B) Retinal hemorrhages
(C) Arteriolar dilation
(D) Neovascularization
Answer: (C)
486. First retinal abnormality in diabetic retinopathy:
(A) Microaneurysm
(B) Hard exudates
(C) Soft exudates
(D) Cotton wool spots
Answer: (A)
487. Opthalmic change initially seen in DM:
(A) Microaneurysm
(B) Hard exudates
(C) Cotton wool exudates
(D) Neovascularization
Answer: (A)
488. All of the following take part in the pathogenesis of CME in diabetic retinopathy except:
(A) Retinal Pigment Epithelial (RPE) dysfunction
(B) Oxidative stress
(C) VEGF
(D) Increased protein kinase
Answer: (A)
489. Macular edema is caused by all except :
(A) Microaneurysm
(B) Cap dilatation
(C) Neovascularization
(D) None
Answer: (D)
490. A patient with clinically significant diabetic macular edema with non progressive diabetic retinopathy was treated with Macular grid photocoagulation. The patient still has vitreo macular traction. What is the preferred treatment?
(A) Intravitrealbevacizumab
(B) Pars planavirectomy
(C) Repeat macular grid photocoagulation
(D) Augmented macula photocoagulation
Answer: (B)
491. Which of the following agents is not used in the treatment of Diabetic Macular Edema/Retinopathy:
(A) Ruboxistaurim
(B) Pyridazinones
(C) Benfotiamine
(D) Tamoxifen
Answer: (D)
492. Treatment of diabetic retinopathy neovascularization is/are :
(A) Retinal laser photocoagulation
(B) Pars planavitrectomy
(C) Phacoemulsion
(D) Anti VEGF Ab
(E) LASIK
Answer: (A, B, D)
493. Treatment of diabetic retinopathy
(A) Phacoemulsification
(B) Retina laser photocoagulation
(C) LASIK
(D) Pars planavitrectomy
Answer: (B, D)
494. Diabetic retinopathy is treated by :
(A) Strict glycemic control
(B) Panphotococagulation
(C) Antihypertensive
(D) Antioxidants
(E) Cyclophotocoagulation
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
495. Treatment of Advanced Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional retinal detachment involves all of the following except.
(A) Reattachment of detached or torn retina
(B) Removal of epiretinal membrane
(C) Vitrectomy
(D) Exophotocoagulation
Answer: (D)
496. What is the treatment of threshold ROP :
(A) Laser photocoagulation
(B) Slow reduction in oxygen
(C) Retinal reattachment
(D) Antioxidants
Answer: (A)
497. Baby born premature at 29 wks on examination at 42 wks with ROP both eyes shows stage 2 zone I plus disease, how will you manage the patient?
(A) Examination the patient after 1 week
(B) Laser photocoagulation of both eyes
(C) Laser photocoagulation of worse eye, follow up of other eye
(D) Vitreoretinal surgery
Answer: (B)
498. While working in a neonatal ICU. your team delivers a premature infant at 27 weeks of gestation and weighing 1500 gm. How soon will you request fundus examination by an ophthalmologist?
(A) Immediately
(B) 3-4 weeks after delivery
(C) At 34 weeks gestational age
(D) At 40 weeks gestational age
Answer: (C)
499. Retinopathy in neonate is due to:
(A) Prematurity < 1500 gm
(B) O2 toxicity
(C) Trauma
(D) Diabetes
Answer: (A, B)
500. A young patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision with systolic murmur over chest, ocular examination reveals – cherry red spot in macula with clear AC, with perception of light, diagnosis:
(A) Central retinal artery occlusion
(B) Central retinal vein occlusion
(C) Macular choroiditis with infective endocarditis
(D) Central serous retinopathy
Answer: (A)
501. Cherry red spot is seen in all except
(A) Niemann Pick Disease
(B) GM1 Gangliosidosis
(C) TaySach’s disease
(D) Gaucher’s disease
Answer: (D)
502. An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye; examination reveals cherry red spot; diagnosis is
(A) Central retinal vein occlusion
(B) Central retinal artery occlusion
(C) Amaurosisfugax
(D) Acute ischemic optic neuritis
Answer: (B)
503. Cherry red spot is seen in
(A) Eale’s disease
(B) Retinitis pigmentosa
(C) Central retinal artery thrombosis
(D) Central retinal vein occlusion
Answer: (C)
504. Cherry Red spot is found in all of the following except:
(A) Nimen Pick’s disease
(B) GM1 gangliosidosis
(C) Krabbe’s disease
(D) Multiple sulfatase deficiency
Answer: (C)
505. Cherry red spot is seen in:
(A) CRVO
(B) Blunt Trauma
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Retinitis pigmentosa
Answer: (B)
506. A cherry red spot is seen in fundus in
(A) CRVO
(B) Blunt Trauma
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Retinitis pigmentosa
Answer: (C)
507. Cherry red spot found in
(A) Gangliosidosis
(B) Retinopathy of prematurity
(C) Tay-Sach’s disease
(D) Gaucher’s disease
(E) Retinal detachment
Answer: (A, C, D)
508. Cherry red spot is seen in:
(A) Retinitis pigmentosa
(B) Retinopathy of prematurity
(C) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
(D) CRV occlusion
Answer: (C)
509. Cherry red spot at macula is seen in:
(A) Macular infarction
(B) Neimen picks disease
(C) Commotio retinae
(D) CRVO
Answer: (D)
510. Cherry red spot on retina is seen in A/E
(A) CRAO
(B) CRVO
(C) Nieman-pick diseases
(D) Tay-sach’s disease
Answer: (B)
511. On fundoscopic examination of a patient of giant cell arteritis, who has had history of sudden & painless loss of vision two days back, the surgeon finds orange reflex. He also notices segmentation of blood column in vessels. These vessels are – & patient had suffered from –
(A) Retinal arteries & Central Retinal Artery occlusion
(B) Retinal veins & CRAO
(C) Retinal veins & CRVO
(D) Retinal arteries & CRVO
Answer: (B)
512. Following are seen in CRA occlusion except:
(A) Gradual loss of vision
(B) Headache
(C) Sudden loss of vision
(D) Retained central vision
Answer: (A)
513. CRAO may be seen in
(A) Diabetes mellitus
(B) CMV retinitis
(C) Panophthalmitis
(D) Orbital mucormycosis
Answer: (D)
514. All of the following may be used to differentiate Central Retinal Venous Occlusion (CRVO) from Ocular Ischemic Syndrome due to Carotid Artery Stenosis, Except:
(A) Dilated Retinal Vein
(B) Tortuous Retinal Vein
(C) Retinal Artery Pressure
(D) Opthalmodynamometry
Answer: (A)
515. Retinal neovascularization is seen in A/E
(A) Diabetic retinopathy
(B) Eale’s disease
(C) Retinitis pigmentosa
(D) Retinopathy of prematurity
(E) CRAO/CRVO
Answer: (C)
516. Rubeosisiridis is not seen in:
(A) CRVO
(B) CRAO
(C) Diabetic retinopathy
(D) Neovascularization
Answer: (B)
517. Neovascularization is seen in
(A) Central vein obstruction
(B) Central retinal artery obstruction
(C) Branch retinal vein obstruction
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
518. Indications of Retinal laser photocoagulation are all except:
(A) Proliferative DM
(B) Non-proliferative DM
(C) Eales’ disease
(D) Retinopathy of prematurity
Answer: (B)
519.A 25 year old executive presents with metamorphopsia in his right eye. One examination the fundus shows a shallow detachment at the macula. The fluorescein angiography shows a “smoke stack” sign. Which of the following management should be given?
(B) Systemic corticosteroid for two weeks and then taper
(C) Pulse Methyl Prednisolone for three days and then taper
(D) Just wait and watch of spontaneous recovery
Answer: (D)
520. A young adult male presented with sudden painless loss of vision. He recovered spontaneously within 3 months. Most likely cause of his blindness is:
(A) Central serous retinopathy
(B) Macular hole
(C) Myopic crescent
(D) Vitreous haemorrhage
Answer: (A)
521. All are ocular emergencies except:
(A) Angle closure glaucoma
(B) Central serous retinopathy
(C) Retinal detachment
(D) Central retinal arterial occlusion
Answer: (B)
522. Enlarging dot sign in fundus fluorescein scanning is seen in:
(A) Cystoid macular edema
(B) Central serous retinopathy
(C) Significant macular edema
(D) Coat’s disease
Answer: (B)
523. ChoroidalNeovascular Membrane (CNV)
(A) Trauma
(B) Myopia
(C) Angioid streaks
(D) Hypermetropia
Answer: (D)
524. Soft exudates are found in:
(A) DM
(B) HTN
(C) Toxemia
(D) Coat’s disease
(E) CMV
Answer: (ALL)
525. Cotton wool spot is/are seen in:
(A) DR (Diabetic retinopathy)
(B) Hypertensive retinopathy
(C) AIDS
(D) Retinoblastoma
(E) Toxaemia of pregnancy
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
526. Hard exudates are seen in all except:
(A) Diabetic retinopathy
(B) Retinitis pigmentosa
(C) Eale’s disease
(D) Retinal artery macroaneurysm
(E) Chorodial neovascularization
Answer: (B, C)
527. Hard exudates not seen in:
(A) Hypertension
(B) DM
(C) Toxemia of pregnancy
(D) SLE
(E) Coat’s disease
Answer: (C)
528. Hard exudates seen in
(A) CRVO
(B) DM
(C) HTN
(D) Neovascularization
Answer: (B, C, D)
529. Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in A/E:
(A) HIV
(B) DM
(C) Hypertension
(D) CMV
Answer: (D)
530. Ocular manifestation of HIV are :
(A) Predispose to viral, bacterial & fungal function
(B) Kaposi sarcoma
(C) CMV retinitis
(D) Cotton wool spot
(E) Intraocular lymphoma
Answer: (ALL)
531. Ocular manifestations in AIDS:
(A) Kaposi sarcoma
(B) Retinitis
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Tuberculosis
(E) Herpes
Answer: (ALL)
532. In a patient with AIDS chorioretinits is typically caused by:
(A) Cytomegalovirus
(B) Toxoplasma gondii
(C) Cryptococusneoformans
(D) Histoplasmacapsulatum
Answer: (A)
533. Commonest opportunistic organism to cause ocular inflammation in AIDS is
(A) Cytomegalovirus
(B) Herpes simplex virus
(C) Toxoplasmosis
(D) Candida albicans
Answer: (A)
534. Chorioretinitis in AIDS is caused by
(A) Candida albicans
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Toxoplasma
(D) Cytomegalovirus
Answer: (D)
535. Sauce and chees retinopathy is seen in:
(A) CMV
(B) Rubeua
(C) Toxoplasmosis
(D) Congenital Syphilis
Answer: (A)
536. Macula involvement is common in:
(A) Toxoplasma
(B) Malaria
(C) CMV
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (C)
537. Salt and pepper fundus is seen in
(A) Multiple sclerosis
(B) Cystinosis
(C) Weil-Marchaesani syndrome
(D) Congenital syphilis
Answer: (D)
538. Salt and pepper fundus occurs in
(A) Toxoplasma
(B) Toxocara
(C) Rubella
(D) Ehlers Danlos syndrome
Answer: (C)
539. “Photo dynamic therapy” is used in the eye for the following disease:
(A) Cataract
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Uveitis
(D) Wet AMD (Age related macular degeneration)
Answer: (D)
540. Snow blindness is caused by :
(A) Ultraviolet rays
(B) Infrarads
(C) Microwaves
(D) Defect in mirror
Answer: (A)
541. Photophthalmia is seen with
(A) Ultraviolet rays
(B) Infrared rays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) X-rays
Answer: (A)
542. A 10 year old boy after watching the sun during eclipse in the apparent twilight developed persistant negative after image of the sun. He has taken to an ophthalmic surgeon who examined his fundus and found it normal. Most probable diagnosis is
(A) Malingering
(B) Photophthalmia
(C) Photoretinits
(D) Light induced maculopathy
Answer: (C)
543. Treatment of photophthalmia includes :
(A) Irrigation with saline water
(B) Padding & Bandaging
(C) Cold compresses
(D) Lubricant eye drop
(E) Analgesics
Answer: (B, C, D, E)
544. Treatment for phtophthalmia:
(A) Flush with saline
(B) Apply pad and bandage
(C) Topical antibiotics
(D) Steroid eye drops
(E) Reassurance
Answer: (B, C, E)
545. Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except:
(A) Refsum’s disease
(B) Hallervordmspatz syndrome
(C) NARP
(D) A-betalipoproteinemia
Answer: (B)
546. Which enzyme is defective in Refsums disease?
(A) Phytanic acid oxidase
(B) Succinate thiokinase
(C) Malonate dehydrogenase
(D) Thiophorase
Answer: (A)
547. Retinitis Pigmentosa is associated with all except:
(A) Usher Syndrome
(B) Marfan’s Syndrome
(C) Kearns-Sayre Syndrome
(D) Bassen-Kornzweig Syndrome
Answer: (B)
548. All are true about retinitis pigmentosa EXCEPT
(A) Genetic inheritance (X-linked)
(B) Early diagnosis and treatment prevents progression
(C) Visual acuity not diminished till late in course
(D) Associated with systemic abnormalities
Answer: (B)
549. A young adult presents with night blindness and tubular vision. On examination, Intraocular Pressure was observed to be 18 mm and the anterior segment was unremarkable. Fundoscopy showed attenuation of arterioles and waxy pallor of the optic disc with bony corpuscles like spicules of pigmentation in mid peripheral retina. Ring scotomas were observed on perimetry. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
(A) Pigmentary Retinal Dystrophy
(B) Primary Open Angle Glaucoma
(C) Lattice degeneration of Retina
(D) Diabetic Retinopathy
Answer: (A)
550. A patient presented with peripheral field loss and fundus examination shows waxy exudates &plae disc with pigmentation around retinal vessels, diagnosis is
(A) Behcet’s syndrome
(B) Chorio-retinitis
(C) Open angle glaucoma
(D) Retinitis-pigmentosa
Answer: (D)
551. Ring scotoma is a feature of :
(A) Blue dot cataract
(B) Diabetic retinopathy
(C) Nuclear cataract
(D) Retinitis pigmentosa
Answer: (D)
552. Ring scotoma is seen in:
(A) Retinitis pigmentosa
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Cataract
(D) Retinal detachment
Answer: (A, B)
553. Most characteristic finding of retinitis pigmentosa:
(A) Ring scotoma
(B) Peripheral field defect
(C) Central scotoma
(D) Diplopia
Answer: (A)
554. In Retinitis pigmentosa, following are true except:
(A) Pigments present
(B) Pale waxy disc
(C) Narrowing of vessels
(D) ERG-normal
Answer: (D)
555. Idiopathic nyctalopia is due to a hereditary
(A) Absence of rod function
(B) Absence of cone function
(C) Absence of rod and conic function
(D) Decrease of cone function
Answer: (A)
556. MIZUO phenomenon is seen in
(A) Choroideremia
(B) Oguchi’s disease
(C) Fundus flavimaculatus
(D) Fundus albipathicus
Answer: (B)
557. A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. There is no obvious family history. ERG and EOG were observed to be normal which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.
(A) Stargardt’s disease
(B) Best’s Vitelliform Dystrophy
(C) Retinitis Pigmentosa
(D) Cone-Rod Dystrophy
Answer: (A)
558. A young patient presents with significant loss of central vision and a normal ERG. There is no obvious family history of similar presentation. The most likely diagnosis:
(A) Best’s disease
(B) Stargardt’d disease
(C) Retinitis Pigmentosa
(D) Cone Red Dystrophy
Answer: (B)
559. A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
(A) Stargardt’s disease
(B) Best’s Vtielliform Dystrophy
(C) Retinitis Pigmentosa
(D) Cone-Rod Dystrophy
Answer: (B)
560. Which is autosomal dominant
(A) Gyrate Atrophy
(B) Best Disease
(C) Lawrance Moon Biedl Syndrome
(D) BassenKornzweig’s Disease
Answer: (B)
561. Best diagnostic test for Best disease is:
(A) Dark adaptation
(B) ERG
(C) EOG
(D) Gonioscopy
Answer: (C)
562. Which of the following ocular conditions is autosomal dominant in inheritance:
(A) Best disease
(B) Gyrate atrophy
(C) Lawrence-Moon-Biedel syndrome
(D) BassenKornzweig disease
Answer: (A)
563. Which is not an AR disorder
(A) Gyrate atrophy
(B) Goldmann syndrome
(C) Bardet-Biedel syndrome
(D) Butterfly macular dystrophy
Answer: (D)
564. Which of the following is beneficial for patient suffering from gyrate atrophy of choroid due to deficiency of enzyme Ornithine trans carbomylase
(A) Ornithine free diet
(B) Arginine free diet
(C) B1, B6, B12 supplementation
(D) Folic acid & pyridoxine
Answer: (B)
565. Angoid streaks in the eyes are seen in-
(A) Pseudoxanthomaelasticum
(B) Tendinousxanthoma
(C) Xanthelasma
(D) Eruptive xanthoma
Answer: (A)
566. All of the following statements are true about Juxtafoveal Retinal Telengiectasias, Except:
(A) Variant of Coat’s disease
(B) Associated with telengiectasis in the macula
(C) Associated with structurally abnormal Retinal Vessels
(D) Associated with peripheral telengiectasias
Answer: (D)
567. Uveal Effusion syndrome may be associated with all of the following, Except:
(A) Myopia
(B) Ciliochoroidal detachment
(C) Structural defect in Sclera
(D) Nanophthalmos
Answer: (A)
568. RD is diagnosed by:
(A) +90D
(B) Hruby lens
(C) 3 mirror contact lens
(D) Direct ophthalmoscopy
(E) Indirect ophthalmoscopy
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
569. Cause of exudative retinal detachment are all except
(A) Scleritis
(B) Toxaemia of pregnancy
(C) Dysthyroid eye disease
(D) Central serous retinopathy
(E) Hypertension/Neoplasm
Answer: (C)
570. Risk factors for retinal Detachment are all except
(A) Diabetic retinopathy
(B) Myopia
(C) Hypermetropia
(D) CRVO
(E) Retinopathy of prematurity
Answer: (C)
571. Causes of exudative retinal detachment
(A) Central retinal artery detachment
(B) Hypertensive retinopathy
(C) Harada’s syndrome
(D) Coat’ disease
Answer: (C, D)
572. Retinal detachment seen in:
(A) Myopia
(B) Hypermetropia
(C) Eale’s disease
(D) Cataract extraction
(E) NdYag photocoagulation
Answer: (A, C, D)
573. A patient with detachment of retina with photopsia with floaters in the eye. Diagnosis is
(A) Vitreous haemorrhage
(B) Exudative retinal detachment
(C) Rhegmetogenous retinal detachment
(D) Tractiona retinal detachment
Answer: (C)
574. A patient presents with flashing light. Sudden floaters and perception of a curtain falling in front of the eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
(A) Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment
(B) Traditional Retinal Detachment
(C) Vitreous Hemorrhage
(D) Eale’s disease
Answer: (A)
575. Cause(s) Exudative Retinal detachment:
(A) Posterior scleritis
(B) VKHS
(C) DM
(D) Refractory HTN
(E) Metastictumour of choroid
Answer: (A, B, D, E)
576. Cause of exudative retinal detachment are:
(A) Scleritis
(B) Toxaemia of pregnancy
(C) Dysthyroid eye disease
(D) Central serous retinopathy
(E) Sickle cell retinopathy
Answer: (A, B, D)
577. Features in retinal detachment all except:
(A) Field defect
(B) Retinal tears
(C) A/W vitreous haemorrhage
(D) Greyish-brown fundus
(E) Defective vision
Answer: (C)
578. A 35 year old insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) patient on Insulin for the past 10yrs complains of gradually progressive painless loss of vision. Most likely he has:
(A) Cataract.
(B) Vitreous haemorrhage.
(C) Total rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
(D) Tractional retinal detachment not involving the macula.
Answer: (D)
579. A 60 year old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is
(A) Vitreous hemorrhage
(B) Retinal detachment
(C) Central retinal artery occlusion
(D) Cystoid macular edema
Answer: (B)
580. Primary aim of retinal detachment surgery
(A) Removal of vitreous
(B) Drainage of subretinal fluid
(C) Vitrectomy
(D) Encirclage
Answer: (D)
581. Which of the following will cause Bull’s eye retinopathy
(A) INH
(B) Chloroquine
(C) Ethambutol
(D) Steroids
(E) Dapsone
Answer: (B)
582. Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:
(A) Chloroquine
(B) Methanol
(C) Rifampicin
(D) Dapsone
(E) Gold
Answer: (A)
583. All the following are true of Eale’s disease except
(A) Occurs in the young
(B) Vitreous hemorrhage is present
(C) Retinal detachment
(D) Optic neuritis
Answer: (D)
584. In a young patient presenting with recurrent vitreous hemorrhage, diagnosis is
(A) Eale’s disease
(B) CRVO
(C) Proliferative retinopathy
(D) Coat’s disease
(E) Episcleritis
Answer: (A)
585. A 25 year old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination is not contributory. What is the probable diagnosis:
(A) Retinal detachment
(B) Eale’s disease
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Cataract
Answer: (B)
586. True statement about crystalline lens:
(A) Fibres of fetal nucleus meet around sutures
(B) Lamellar cataract is the most common type of congenital cataract
(C) In Blue dot cataract vision is severely impaired
(D) Translucent in in nature
(E) Can not be removed surgically
Answer: (A, B)
587. Lens contains the oldest cells in
(A) Nucleus
(B) Anterior surface of lens
(C) Posterior surface of lens
(D) Nucleo-cortical junction
Answer: (A)
588. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from
(A) Blood vessels
(B) Connective tissue
(C) Aqueous and vitreous
(D) Zonules
Answer: (C)
589. The best accounted function to MIP-26 in lens
(A) Glucose transport
(B) Maintains lens transparency
(C) Oxygen transport
(D) CO2 transport
Answer: (B)
590. Which of the following does not handle free radicles in lens
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Catalase
Answer: (B)
591. Which does not handle free radicals inside lens
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Catalase
Answer: (A)
592. Cause of Cataract
(A) Infrared
(B) Microwaves
(C) UV rays
(D) Obesity
Answer: (A, C, B)
593. Cataract is caused by all except:
(A) Ultraviolet radiation
(B) MRI
(C) Infrared radiation
(D) Microwave radiation
(E) Ionizing radiation
Answer: (B)
594. Cataract can be caused by :
(A) Hype Ca2+
(B) Obesity
(C) Steroids
(D) Chloroquine
Answer: (A, C, D)
595. Cataract is seen in following except:
(A) Glucocorticoid administration
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Hypoparathyroidism
(D) Galactosemia
Answer: (B)
596. Commonest cause of cataract
(A) Hereditary
(B) DM
(C) Trauma
(D) Age related
(E) Radiation
Answer: (D)
597. Which morphological type of cataract is most visually handicapping?
(A) Cortical
(B) Nuclear
(C) Posterior subcapsular
(D) Zonular
Answer: (C)
598. Causes of anterior polar cataract
(A) DM
(B) Perforating (penetrating) corneal injury
(C) Irradation
(D) Chalcosis
(E) Barbiturates
Answer: (B)
599. Steroid induced cataract is
(A) Posterior subcapsular cataract
(B) Anterior subcapsular cataract
(C) Nuclear cataract
(D) Cupulliform cataract
Answer: (A)
600. Good vision in dim light and clumsy in day lights seen in:
(A) Cortical cataract
(B) Morgagnian cataract
(C) Nuclear cataract
(D) Steroid induced cataract
Answer: (A, C, D)
601. A 55 year old patient complains of decreased distance vision. However, now he does not require his near glasses for near work. The most likely cause is
(A) Posterior subcapsular cataract
(B) Zonular cataract
(C) Nuclear sclerosis
(D) Anterior subcapsular cataract
Answer: (C)
602. Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in
(A) Morgagnian cataract
(B) Diabetic cataract
(C) Intumescent cataract
(D) Traumatic cataract
Answer: (B)
603. An infant presents with bilateral white pupillary reflex. On slit lamp examination a zone of opacity is observed around the fetal nucleus with spoke like radial opacities. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) CataractoCentralisPulverulenta
(B) Lamellar cataract
(C) Coronary cataract
(D) Posterior polar cataract
Answer: (B)
604. Most common type of congenital cataract is
(A) Capsular
(B) Zonular
(C) Coralliform
(D) Blue dot
Answer: (D)
605. Commonest type of cataract is
(A) Blue dot
(B) Zonular
(C) Cupuliform
(D) Cuneiform
Answer: (A)
606. Most common cataract in new born is:
(A) Zonular
(B) Morganian
(C) Ant. Polar
(D) Post. Polar
Answer: (A)
607. A two week old child presents with unilateral cataract. Which of the following statements represents the best management advice:
(A) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four weeks
(B) The best age to operate him to get the bet visual results is four months
(C) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four years
(D) The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is required
Answer: (A)
608. A child gas got a congenital cataract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated:
(A) Immediately
(B) At 2 months of age
(C) At 1 year of age when the globe becomes normal sized
(D) After 4 years when entire ocular and orbital growth becomes normal
Answer: (A)
609. Treatment of choice in anew born child with cataract:
(A) ICCE
(B) Pars planalansectomy
(C) ECCE
(D) Vitrectomy
(E) Aspiration
Answer: (C, E, B, D)
610. Treatment of paediatric cataract
(A) Needle aspiration
(B) Discission
(C) Inta-oculra lens implantation
(D) Lensectomy
(E) Phacoemulsification
Answer: (B, C, D)
611. Treatment of congenital cataract is:
(A) Needing and aspiration
(B) Intracpasular extraction
(C) Extracapsular extraction
(D) Cyrotherapy
Answer: (A)
612. The most common complication of hypermature sclerotic cataract is:
(A) Dislocation of the lens
(B) Phakomorphic glaucoma
(C) Uveitis
(D) Neovascularization of retina
Answer: (A)
613. Which type of senile cataract is notorious for glaucoma formation
(A) Incipient cataract
(B) Hypermaturemorgagni
(C) Intumescent cataract
(D) Nuclear cataract
Answer: (C)
614. A male patient with a history of hypermature cataract presents with a 2 day history of ciliary congestion, photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination has a deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. The diagnosis is:
(A) Phakomorphic glaucoma
(B) Phakolytic glaucoma
(C) Phakotoxic glaucoma
(D) Phakoanaphylactic uveitis
Answer: (D)
615. Cataract associated with convulsion is seen in
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Tay Sac’s disease
(C) Gatactosemia
(D) Birth asphyxia with prematurity
Answer: (C)
616. Cataract in a diabetic patients is because of accumulation of sorbital in lens. The enzyme responsible for this is
(A) Hexokinase
(B) NADPH + dependent aldolasereductase
(C) Glucokinase
(D) Phosphofructoisomerase
Answer: (B)
617. Typical appearance of diabetic cataract is:
(A) Sunflower type
(B) Breadcrumb type
(C) Polychromatic lusture
(D) Snow flake appearance
Answer: (D)
618. Snow-flake cataract seen in
(A) Diabetes
(B) Trauma
(C) Chalcosis
(D) Posterior subcapsular
Answer: (A)
619. Sunflower types cataract is characteristically seen in:
(A) Chalcosis
(B) Diabetes
(C) Stragardt’s disease
(D) Congenital syphilis
Answer: (A)
620. Sun flower cataract is seen in:
(A) Galactosemia
(B) Injuries
(C) Laurence Moon Biedle syndrome
(D) Wilson’s disease
Answer: (D)
621. Sunflower cataract is seen in
(A) Hypertension
(B) Diabetes
(C) Trauma
(D) SLE
Answer: (C)
622. Christmas tree cataract is seen in:
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Rubella
(C) Myotonic dystrophy
(D) Diabetes
Answer: (C)
623. Polychromatic lusture is seen in:
(A) Complicated cataract
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Post radiation cataract
(D) Congenital cataract
Answer: (A)
624. Polychromatic Lustre is seen in
(A) Posterior cortical cataract
(B) Zonular cataract
(C) Cuppliform cataract
(D) Posterior subcapsular
Answer: (A)
625. Clinical features of complicated cataract are all, EXCEPT
(A) Polychromatic luster
(B) Axial spread of opacity
(C) Opacity along sutures
(D) Posterior subcapsular opacity
Answer: (C)
626. In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery?
(A) Fuch’sheterochromiccyclitis
(B) Juvenile rehumatopid arthritis
(C) Posriatic arthritis
(D) Reiter’s syndrome
Answer: (B)
627. In preoperative assessment of cataract patient following is to be done:
(A) Axial length of eyeball
(B) Corneal thickness
(C) Keratometry
(D) Thickness of the lens
(E) Corneal curvature
Answer: (A, C, E)
628. Cataract is evaluated by:
(A) Gonioscopy
(B) Tonometry
(C) Stereoacuity
(D) Contrast
(E) Color vision
Answer: (A, B, E)
629. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis is cataract surgery?
(A) Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine
(B) One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery
(C) Trimming of eyelashes
(D) Use of intravitreal antibiotics
Answer: (A)
630. Postcataract infection can be prevented by:
(A) Preop oral antibiotics
(B) Postop oral antibiotics
(C) Intraop IV antibiotics
(D) Postop topical antibiotics
Answer: (D)
631. Extra capsular cataract extraction (ECCE) is
(A) Posterior capsulectomy only
(B) Lens extracted with posterior capsule left behind
(C) Posterior capsulectomy with no lens removal
(D) Anterior capsulectomy with no lens removal
Answer: (B)
632. The standard sutureless cataract surgery done with phaco-emulsification and foldable IOL has an incision of:
(A) 1mm-1.5mm
(B) 2 mm-2.5 mm
(C) 3mm-3.5mm
(D) 3.5mm-4.5mm
Answer: (C)
633. All are indication of intracapsular cataract extraction except:
(A) Mature cataract in age group above 45 years
(B) Immature cataract
(C) Subluxated and dislocated lens
(D) Mature cataract in age group of 30-45 years
Answer: (D)
634. The best irrigating fluid during ECCE is-
(A) Ringer lactate
(B) Normal saline
(C) Balanced salt solution
(D) Balanced salt solution + glutathione
Answer: (D)
635. Which of the following instrument is NOT used in intracapsular extraction of lens
(A) Cryo
(B) Elschning’s forceps
(C) Phaco-emulsifire
(D) Van-graefe’s cataract knife
Answer: (C)
636. Phacoemulsification includes:
(A) Hydrodissection
(B) Hydrodelineation
(C) Continuous curvilinear capsular incision
(D) IOL
(E) Aspiration of lens matter
Answer: (A, B, C, D, E)
637. Common mode of procedures for cataract in adult includes:
(A) Phacoemulsilication with posterior capsulotomy IOI implant
(B) Phacoemulsilication with comeo-scleral incision IOI implant
(C) ECCE with IOI implant
(D) ICCE with IOI implant
(E) ECCE without IOI implant
Answer: (B, C)
638. Most appropriate position for intraocular implant in exracapsular extraction is:
(A) Capsular
(B) Posterior chamber
(C) Anterior chamber
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (A)
639. Intraocular lenses are made up of
(A) PMMA
(B) HEMA
(C) Glass
(D) Plastic
Answer: (A)
640. Modern IOL is made up of:
(A) Acrylic acid
(B) PMMA
(C) PML
(D) Silicon
(E) Glass
Answer: (A, B, D)
641. Common complications of IOL lens are except:
(A) Corneal dystrophy
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Anisocoria
(D) Macular edema
Answer: (C)
642. In cataract, spectacles are advised after following number of weeks after operation
(A) 6 weeks
(B) 10 weeks
(C) 12 weeks
(D) 14 weeks
Answer: (A)
643. A 60 year old diabetic patient has an uneventful phacoemulsification with IOL Implantation. He presented with pain, diminution of vision, redness, watering and a grayish yellow pupillary reflex on the third postoperative day. Examination revealed circumcorneal congestion, aqeous cells 4+, hypopyon in the anterior chamber with posterior synechiae and retorlental flare. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Post-op endophthalmitis
(B) Post-op glaucoma
(C) Post-op keratitis
(D) Post-op cystitis
Answer: (A)
644. Complication of cataract surgery:
(A) Endophthalmitis
(B) Optic neuropathy
(C) Retinal detachment
(D) Vitreous loss
(E) Lagophthalmos
Answer: (A, C, D)
645. A 70-year old man presents with deterioration of vision 3 weeks after cataract extraction and IOL implanatation. Slit lamp examination shows honeycomb maculopathy and Fluorescin angiography (FA) shows ‘ flower petal’ hyperfluorescence. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Age related macular degeneration (ARMD)
(B) Central serous Retinopathy (CSR)
(C) Macular Dystrophy
(D) Cystoid Macular Edema
Answer: (D)
646. Late onset endophthalamitis after cataract surgery is most often caused by:
(A) Staphylococcus Eipdermidis
(B) Pseudomonas
(C) Streptococcus Pyogenes
(D) PropionobacteriumAenes
Answer: (D)
647. The complication of extra capsular extraction of lens is:
(A) Cystoid macular oedema
(B) Opacification of capsule
(C) Iritis
(D) Glaucoma
Answer: (ALL)
648. A 56 year old patient presents after 3 days of cataract surgery with a history of increasing pain and diminution of vision after an initial improvement. The most likely cause would be:
(A) Endophthalmitis
(B) After cataract
(C) Central retinal vein occlusion
(D) Retinal detachment
Answer: (A)
649. Leaving the capsule behind in cataract surgery is advantageous because it:
(A) Prevents cystoid macular edema
(B) Decreases endothelial damage
(C) Progressively improves vision
(D) Decreased chance of retinal detachment
(E) Decreases chance of endophthalmitis
Answer: (A, B, D, E)
650. Advantages of extracapuslar cataract extraction (ECCE):
(A) Less chance of vitreous h’ge& RD
(B) Decreased chance of CME (cystoid macular edema)
(C) Can be used is traumatic lens dislocation
(D) Minimal endothelial damage
(E) Sutureless surgery
Answer: (A, B, D)
651. Infective complications in cataract operation can be decreased by:
(A) Antibiotic eye drops
(B) Intracamarel instillation of antibiotics at the end of the operation
(C) Intraoperative antibiotics
(D) Preoperative antibiotics
(E) Postoperative oral antibiotics
Answer: (A, C, D)
652. A 60 year old man patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floater and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is:
(A) Vitreous hemorrhage
(B) Retinal detachment
(C) Central retinal artery occlusion
(D) Cystoid macular edema
Answer: (B)
653. Wavelength of Nd: Yag laser
(A) 1040 nm
(B) 1040 mm
(C) 1040 cm
(D) 1040 μm
Answer: (A)
654. Ring of Sommering is seen in
(A) Galactosemia
(B) Dislocation of lens
(C) Acute congestive glaucoma
(D) After cataract
Answer: (D)
655. Which laser is used in the management of after cataracts
(A) Argon
(B) Krypton
(C) Nd – YAG
(D) Excimer
Answer: (C)
656. YAG laser is used in
(A) Retinal detachment
(B) Diabetes
(C) After-cataract
(D) Refractive errors
Answer: (C)
657. Laser used in cutting out cataract capsule is
(A) Nd : YAG laser
(B) Argon laser
(C) DYE laser
(D) Diode
Answer: (A)
658. In posterior capsular cataract, treatment is
(A) Krypton Laser
(B) Nd-YAG Laser
(C) Argon Laser
(D) CO2 Laser
Answer: (B)
659. A patient presents to the emergency department with uniocular diplopia. Examination with oblique illumination shows shining golden crescent while examination with co-axial illumination show a black dark crescent line. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.
(A) Ectopialentis
(B) Lenticonus
(C) Coloboma
(D) Microspherophakia
Answer: (A)
660. Dislocation of lens is seen in all the following conditions except:
(A) Congenital rubella
(B) Marchesani’s syndrome
(C) Marfan syndrome
(D) Homocystinuria
Answer: (A)
661. Ectopialentis (eye lens dislocation) is seen in
663. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxations of the lens is seen in:
(A) Marfan’s syndrome
(B) Homocystinuria
(C) Hyperinsulinemia
(D) Ocular trauma
Answer: (B)
664. Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated with Marfan’s syndrome:
(A) Microcornea
(B) Microspherophakia
(C) Megalocornea
(D) Ectopialentis
Answer: (D)
665. Abnormalities of the optic lens are recognized in:
(A) Hypoparathyroidism
(B) Homocystinuria
(C) Congenital rubella
(D) Wilson disease
(E) Myotonic Dystrophy
Answer: (ALL)
666. Anterior lenticonus is found in
(A) Lowe’s syndrome
(B) William’s syndrome
(C) Alport’s syndrome
(D) Down’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
667. The Conversion of CO2 and H2O into Carbonic acid during the formation of Aqueous humor is catalyzed by which one of the following enzymes
(A) Carboxylase
(B) Carbamylase
(C) Carbonic anhydrase
(D) Carbonic deoxygenase
Answer: (C)
668. Regarding aqueous humor which one of them are correct:
(A) It is secreted at rate of 2-3 microL/min
(B) Secreted by ciliary process
(C) Has less protein than plasma
(D) Provides nutrition
(E) Normal pressure is 5-15 mm Hg
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
669. False statement about depth characterior chamber:
(A) Less in women than men
(B) Correspondent to volume of anterior chamber
(C) Increase with age
(D) More in myopes
(E) Less in hypermetropes
Answer: (B, C)
670. On mutation, which of the following may give rise to hereditary glaucoma.
(A) Optineurin
(B) Ephrins
(C) RBA8
(D) Huntingtin
Answer: (A)
671. Bablooo a 5 yrs old child presents with large cornea, lacrimation and photophobia; Diagnosis is:
(A) Megalocornea
(B) Congenital glaucoma
(C) Congenital cataract
(D) Anterior uveitis
Answer: (B)
672. A child presents with lid lag and an enlarged cornea with a diameter of 13 mm. Examination of the eye reveals double contoured opacities concentric to the limbus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
(A) Superficial keratitis
(B) Deep keratitis
(C) Thyroid Endocrinopathy
(D) Congenital Glaucoma
Answer: (D)
673. A neonate, 30 days old, presented with excessive lacrimation and photophobia. He has a large and hazy cornea. His both lacrimal duct systems are normal. The diagnosis is:
(A) Megalocornea
(B) Keratoconus
(C) Congenital glaucoma
(D) Hunter’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
674. True about Buphthalmos
(A) Large cornea
(B) Haab’s stria
(C) Shallow AC
(D) Glaucoma
(E) Medical treatment helps
Answer: (A, B, D)
675. In Buphthalmos, seen are all except:
(A) Subluxated lens
(B) Large cornea
(C) Small cornea
(D) Big eye ball
Answer: (C)
676. Haab’s striae seen in
(A) Angle closure glaucoma
(B) Infantile glaucoma
(C) Stargardt disease
(D) Disciform keratitis
(E) Leber’s disease
Answer: (B)
677. In buphthalmos, lens is:
(A) Anteroposterior flat
(B) Small
(C) Large
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
678. Photophobia in an infant could be due to:
(A) Buphthalmos
(B) Lid colodoma
(C) Cataract
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (A)
679. The treatment of congenital glaucoma is
(A) Essentially topical medications
(B) Trabeculoplasty
(C) Trabeculotomy with trabeculectomy
(D) Cyclocryotherapy.
Answer: (C)
680. Which of the following is primary glaucoma:
(A) Juvenile glaucoma
(B) B. Steroid induced glaucoma
(C) Pigmentary glaucoma
(D) Congenital glaucoma
(E) E. Infantile glaucoma
Answer: (A, D, E)
681. Features of open angle glaucoma are
(A) Common in Asian
(B) Small diurnal pressure change
(C) Thin cornea is a risk factor
(D) Optic disc changes
(E) IOP
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
682. A 75 year old patient presents with deterioration of vision. On examination the pupillary reflex is observed to be sluggish and the Intraocular pressure is normal. Optic disc evaluation shows a large and deep cup and primarily shows paracentral scotomas. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Primary Narrow Angle glaucoma
(B) Normal Tension Glaucoma
(C) Neovascular Glaucoma
(D) Absolute Glaucoma
Answer: (B)
683. Rapid change of presbyopic glass is a feature of
(A) Senile cataract
(B) Retinal detachment
(C) Intumescent cataract
(D) Open angle glaucoma
Answer: (D)
684. In POAG (primary open angle glaucoma) which is not seen:
(A) Horizontal cupping
(B) Bayonetting sing (crossing of vessels)
(C) Macular oedema
(D) Dot sign
Answer: (A, C)
685. Earliest field defect in primary open angle glaucoma:
(A) Reidel’s scotoma
(B) Scotoma in Bjerrumns field
(C) Arcuuate scotoma
(D) Nasal spur
Answer: (B)
686. Earliest visual field change in open angle glaucoma is
(A) Paracentral scotoma
(B) Ring scotoma
(C) Siedel’s scotoma
(D) Arcuate scotoma
Answer: (A)
687. First sign seen in open angle glaucoma:
(A) Arcuate scotoma
(B) Extension above blind spot
(C) Roene’s nasal step
(D) Siedel’s scotoma
Answer: (B)
688. In a case of acute attack of glaucoma Vogt’s triad excludes:
(A) Iris atrophy
(B) Goniosynechiae
(C) Pigment dispersal
(D) Glaucoma floaters
Answer: (C)
689. The following are true about optic disc:
(A) Forms an absolute scotoma in the eye field
(B) Optic disc measures vertically 1.84 mm & horizontally 1.76 mm
(C) Approx. 1 million nerve fiber
(D) Supplied by central retinal artery
(E) Fovea centralis situated nasally to disc
Answer: (A, C, D)
690. In open Angle Glaucoma which investigation is least useful
(A) Indirect opthalmoscopy
(B) Tonometry
(C) Direct opthalmoscopy
(D) Perimetry
Answer: (A)
691. Early sign of glaucoma includes following except:
(A) Nerve firbre atroiphy
(B) Peripheral halo
(C) Vertical cup
(D) Horizontal cup
Answer: (D)
692. You have been referred a middle-aged patient to rule out open angle glaucoma. Which of the following findings will help in the diagnosis:
(A) Cupping of the disc
(B) Depth of anterior chamber
(C) Visual acuity and refractive error
(D) Angle of the anterior chamber
Answer: (A)
693. Rx of primary open angle glaucoma:
(A) Timolol maleate
(B) Atropine
(C) Acetazolamide
(D) Prostaglandin analogue
Answer: (A, C, D)
694. Drug used in glaucoma is:
(A) Propranolol
(B) Atenolol
(C) Timolol
(D) Pindolol
Answer: (C)
695. Drug used in acute congestive glaucoma are:
(A) Atropine
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Acetozolamide
(D) Mannitol
(E) Timolol
Answer: (B, C, D, E)
696. Which one of the following is NOT used in glaucoma
(A) Timolol
(B) Physostigmine
(C) Donepezil
(D) Dipivefrine
Answer: (C)
697. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with history of sulfa allergy presenting with an acute attack of angle closure glaucoma
(A) Glycerol
(B) Acetazolamide
(C) Mannitol
(D) Latanoprost
Answer: (B)
698. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?
(A) Latanoprost
(B) Timolol
(C) Drimonidine
(D) Dorzolamide
Answer: (C)
699. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of opoen angle glaucoma:
(A) Latanoprost
(B) Brimonidine
(C) Acetazolamide
(D) Dorzolamide
Answer: (C)
700. All of the following conditions are contraindicated or likely to worsen in a case of Primary Open Angle Glaucoma, when treated with Timolol maleate 0.5% eye drops, except
(A) Hypertension
(B) Hypercholesterolemia
(C) Depression
(D) Bronchial asthma
Answer: (A)
701. Contraindication of topical beta blockers
(A) Hypertension
(B) Asthma
(C) Tachycardia
(D) Hypotension
(E) Depression
Answer: (B)
702. A patient of glaucoma with bronchial asthma presents to the emergency with status asthamaticus, causative agent might have been
(A) Pilocarpine eye drop
(B) Timolol eye drop
(C) Betaxolol eye drop
(D) Levobunolol eye drop
Answer: (B)
703. A patient having glaucoma develops blepharconjunctivitis after instilling some antiglaucoma drug. Which of the following drug can be responsible for it:
(A) Timolol
(B) Latanosprost
(C) Dipiverine
(D) Pilocarpine
Answer: (A)
704. Lanatoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by:
(A) Decreasing aqueous humour formation
(B) Increasing uveoscleral outflow
(C) Releasing pupillary block
(D) Increasing trabecular outflow
Answer: (B)
705. Which of the following is not used in glaucoma in a hypertensive patients
(A) Dipivefrine
(B) B blockers
(C) Alpha agonist
(D) Trabeculoplasty
Answer: (C)
706. Epinephrine not used in:
(A) Uveitis glaucoma
(B) Open angle glaucoma
(C) Aphakic glaucoma
(D) Neovascular glaucoma
Answer: (C)
707. Side effects of Pilocrpine are A/E
(A) Shallow anterior chamber
(B) Punctate stenosis
(C) Follicular conjunctivitis
(D) Posterior synechia
Answer: (A)
708. Treatment of choice for the other eye in open angle glaucoma is:
(A) Trabeculectomy
(B) Laser iridotoomy
(C) Laser trabeculoplasty
(D) Peripheral iridectomy
Answer: (C)
709. Sudden painful loss of vision seen in:
(A) Angle closure glaucoma
(B) Central retinal artery occlusion
(C) Aute uveitis
(D) Endophthalmitis
(E) Retinal detachment
Answer: (A, C, D)
710. Painless sudden visual loss is seen inn all except
(A) CRAO
(B) Retinal detachment
(C) Vitreous hemorrhage
(D) Angle closure glaucoma
Answer: (D)
711. True about primary angle closure glaucoma:
(A) More common in females
(B) Shallow anterior chamber is a risk factor
(C) Deep anterior chamber is risk factor
(D) Shorter diameter of cornea is predisposing factor
(E) Common in myopes
Answer: (A, B, D)
712. Painful loss of vision is seen in:
(A) Senile cataract
(B) Primary open angle glaucoma
(C) Primary angle closure glaucoma
(D) Anterior uveitis
Answer: (C)
713. All except one predispose to angle closure glaucoma:
(A) Small cornea
(B) Flat cornea
(C) Shallow AC
(D) Short axial length of eye ball
Answer: (B)
714. Which of the following is a feature of Acute congestive glaucoma-
(A) Deep angle
(B) Painful condition
(C) Vertically oval pupil
(D) Increased intraocular pressure
(E) Nonreactive pupil
Answer: (B, C, D, E)
715. A woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in the evening, with nausea and vomiting, IOP is normal; Diagnosis is
(A) Incipient stage glaucoma open angle
(B) Prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma
(C) Migraine
(D) Cluster Headache
Answer: (B)
716. A patient presents with h/o evening halos and occasional headache for some months. His examination shows normal IOP but shallow AC. He is in which stage of glaucoma:
(A) Acute
(B) Absolute
(C) Prodrome
(D) Constant instability
Answer: (C)
717. Acute angle closure glaucoma
(A) Colored haloes present
(B) Flashes of light seen
(C) Deep anterior chamber
(D) Vertically oval pupil
(E) Increased IOP
Answer: (A, D, E)
718. A patient has complaint of seeing coloured holoes in the evening and blurring of vision for last few days with normal IOP:
(A) Prodomal phase of acute angle closure glaucoma
(B) Acute angle closure glaucoma
(C) Chronic glaucoma
(D) Epidemic dropsy
Answer: (A)
719. In close angle glaucoma all are TRUE, EXCEPT
(A) Iridectomy is done
(B) Pilocarpine is used
(C) Nonsystemic manifestations
(D) Atropine is not used
Answer: (C)
720. Cause of red congested painful eye with mild dilated vertically oval pupil
(A) Acute congestive glaucoma
(B) Anterior uveitis
(C) Keratoconjunctivitis
(D) Eale’s disease
Answer: (A)
721. In acute congestive glaucoma, pupil is:
(A) Oval and horizontal
(B) Oval and vertical
(C) Circular
(D) Slit like
Answer: (B)
722. Mild dilated fixed pupil seen in
(A) Acute congestive glaucoma
(B) Iridocyclitis
(C) Chronic congestive glaucoma
(D) Open angle glaucoma
Answer: (A)
723. Kusumlata presents with acute painful red eye and mild dilated vertically oval pupil. Most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Acute retrobulber neuritis
(B) Acute angle closure glaucoma
(C) Acute anterior uveitis
(D) Severe kerato-conjunctivitis
Answer: (B)
724. A 30 year old woman with sudden right-sided painful red eye associated with nausea, vomiting and headache. The diagnosis is:
(A) Acute congestive glaucoma
(B) Endophthalmitis
(C) Eale’s disease
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
725. Drug of choice for acute congestive glaucoma is:
(A) 1-2% pilocarpine
(B) Timolol
(C) Levobunanol
(D) Atropine
Answer: (A)
726. Drug used in acute congestive glaucoma are all except:
(A) Atropine
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Acetozolamde
(D) Mannitol
(E) Timolol
Answer: (A)
727. Treatment of choice in acute congestive glaucoma
(A) Pilocarpine
(B) Laser iridotomy
(C) Timolol
(D) Trabeculoplasty
Answer: (B)
728. A 55 year old female comes to the eye casualty with history of severe eye pain, redness and diminution of vision. On examination the visual acuity is 6/60, there is circumcorneal congestion, corneal oedema and a shallow anterior chamber, which of the following is the best drug of choice-
(A) Atropine ointment
(B) I.V. Mannitol
(C) Ciprofloxacin eye drops
(D) Betamethasone eye drops
Answer: (B)
729. Ideal cure for subacute angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Timolol
(B) Peripheral iridectomy
(C) Pilocarpine
(D) Trabeculectomy
Answer: (B)
730. Treatment for First degree angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Trabeculectomy
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Laser Irodotomy
(D) Timolol
Answer: (C)
731. Treatment of primary angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Trabeculectomy
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Timolol
(D) Iridectomy
Answer: (D)
732. Treatment of choice for acute angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Timolol
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Steroid
(D) Atropine
Answer: (B)
733. Earliest drug used in acute angle closure glaucoma
(A) Diamox
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Atropine
(D) DFP
Answer: (A)
734. A patient of closed angle Glaucoma the treatment of choice in other eye is
(A) Acetolazimide
(B) Laser iridotomy
(C) Pilocarpine
(D) Timolol eye drop
Answer: (B)
735. The treatment of choice of fellow eye of acute angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Pilocarpine
(B) Nd: YAG laser iridotomy
(C) Peripheral iridectomy
(D) Careful follow up
Answer: (B)
736. Treatment of choice for other eye in angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Laser trabeculoplasty
(B) Trabeculectomy
(C) Laser iridotomy
(D) Peripheral iridectomy
Answer: (C)
737. Treatment of choice for fellow eye in acute angle closure glaucoma is
(A) Pilocarpine
(B) Timolol
(C) Surgical iridotomy
(D) Laster iridotomy
Answer: (D)
738. Prophylactic peripheral iridectomy is done in:
(A) Narrow angle glaucoma
(B) Ac. Congestive glaucoma
(C) Congenital glaucoma
(D) Secondary glaucoma
Answer: (A, B)
739. In angle-closure glaucoma, treatment given to the fellow eye is:
(A) Pilocarpine eyedrops
(B) Atropine
(C) Laser iridectomy
(D) Trabeculoplasty
(E) Physostigmine eye drops
Answer: (C)
740. Peripheral iridectomy is indicated in
(A) Acute angle closure glaucoma
(B) Open angle glaucoma
(C) Malignant glaucoma
(D) In ICCE
(E) Pupil block glaucoma
Answer: (A, D, E)
741. Peripheral iridectomy indicated in:
(A) Open angle glaucoma
(B) Angle closure glaucoma
(C) Malignant glaucoma
(D) IOL extraction
(E) Pupillary block glaucoma
Answer: (A, D, E)
742. Treatment option for glaucoma includes all except:
(A) Trabeculectomy
(B) Trabeculotomy
(C) Vitrectomy
(D) Viscocanalostomy/Sclerectomy
(E) Iridectomy/Iridotomy
Answer: (C)
743. All of the following factor stimulate angiogenesis in a fetus Except:
(A) Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
(B) Basic Fibroblast Growth Factor (bFGF)
(C) Interleukin – 8 (IL8)
(D) Interferon Alpha (INFa)
Answer: (D)
744. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in:
(A) CRVO
(B) CRAO
(C) Diabetic retinopathy
(D) Neovascularization
Answer: (B)
745. The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization is:
(A) Goniophotocoagulation
(B) Laser trabeculoplasty
(C) Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP)
(D) Laser iridoplasty
Answer: (C)
746. True about malignant glaucoma:
(A) Anterior chamber normal
(B) Misdirected aqueous flow
(C) Pilocarpine is the drug of choice
(D) Management is medical only
(E) Atropine is also given
Answer: (B, E)
747. Malignant glaucoma is seen in:
(A) Malignancy
(B) After surgery for cataract or glaucoma
(C) Trauma
(D) Thrombosis
Answer: (B)
748. Epidemic dropsy is characterized by all EXCEPT:
(A) Disc-edema
(B) Hard-exudates
(C) Peri-retinal haemorrhage
(D) Tortuous-retinal vessels
Answer: (B)
749. Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in:
(A) Epidemic dropsy
(B) Marfan’s syndrome
(C) Hypertension
(D) Diabetes
Answer: (A)
750. Irido-Corneal Endothelial syndrome is characterized by
(A) Opacity of the cornea with edema of the stroma
(B) Deposition of abnormal collagen in descemet’s membrane
(C) Deposition of glycosaminoglycans in the descemet’s membrane
(D) Diffuse-bilateral senile iris degeneration
Answer: (B)
751. Intractable glaucoma characteristically occurs due which one of the following?
(A) Diffuse iris melanoma
(B) Anterior iris melanocyte proliferation
(C) Posterior uveal melanocyte proliferation
(D) Lens enlargement
Answer: (A)
752. Ocular symptom of Von Recklinghausen disease is
(A) Deformed anterior chamber with reduced angle of AC
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Choroidal hemangioma
(D) Subretinal neovascularization
Answer: (B)
753. An optic nerve injury may result in all of the following except.
(A) Loss of vision in that eye.
(B) Dilatation of pupil.
(C) Ptosis
(D) Loss of light reflex.
Answer: (C)
754. First sign of optic nerve disease is:
(A) Papilloedema
(B) Colour blindness
(C) Afferent pupillary defect
(D) Efferent pupillary defect
Answer: (C)
755. Best investigation for optic nerve damage amongst the following is:
(A) Opthalmoscopy
(B) Flourscenceangiograhy
(C) Ultrasound
(D) Perimetry
Answer: (D)
756. Papilloedema is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Loss of retinal venous pulsations
(B) Transient obscurations of vision
(C) Sudden painless loss of vision
(D) Disc oedema
Answer: (C)
757. All statements are true about papilloedema except
(A) Collection of extra-cellular fluid
(B) Disruption of neurofilament
(C) Stasis of exoplasmic transport
(D) Swelling of the axon
Answer: (B)
758. Acute Papiloedema present with A/E:
(A) Post neuritic atrophy
(B) Increase blind spot
(C) Severe loss of vision
(D) Hypermic field
Answer: (C)
759. Significant loss of vision in a patient with hypertension can occur due to all of the following except:
(A) Occipital infarct
(B) Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy.
(C) Papilloedema.
(D) Retinal hemorrhage
Answer: (C)
760. All the following are true about Papilledema except
(A) It is a purely non-inflammatory phenomenon
(B) Transient loss of vision occurs
(C) First sign is blurring of the nasal side of the optic disc
(D) Sudden loss of vision with painful eye movement
Answer: (D)
761. Fundoscopic features of papilledema include all the following except
(A) III-defined disc margin
(B) Deep physiological cup
(C) Absent venous pulsation
(D) Bending of blood vessels
Answer: (B)
762. All are seen in papilloedema Except
(A) Hyperemia of disc
(B) Sudden vision loss
(C) Post-neuritic atrophy
(D) Macular fan
Answer: (B)
763. In papilledema, all the following are true except
(A) Blurring of the disc
(B) Congestion of retinal veins
(C) Soft white exudates around the disc
(D) Sudden loss of vision
Answer: (D)
764. All are seen papilledema after a head injury except:
(A) Blurring of disc margin
(B) Hyperemia
(C) Afferent pupillary defect
(D) Filling of cup
Answer: (C)
765. Increased ICT is associated with all of the following except:
(A) Dis-oedema
(B) Macular oedema
(C) Normal vision
(D) Afferent pupillary defect
Answer: (D)
766. A 40 year old lady presents with bilateral Pipilloedema. CT scan shows normal ventricles. Diagnosis is:
(A) Benign intracranial hypertension
(B) Malignant hypertension
(C) Papillus
(D) Raised intraocular pressure
Answer: (A)
767. Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema is a feature of:
(A) Fischer syndrome
(B) Foster kennedy syndrome
(C) Vogt-kayanagi-Harada syndrome
(D) WAGR syndrome
Answer: (B)
768. Foster Kennedy syndrome is
(A) I/L Papilloedema C/L optic atrophy
(B) I/L Optic atrophy C/L papilloedema
(C) I/L Optic atrophy and papilledema
(D) I/L Papilloedema C/L Papillitis
Answer: (B)
769. In Optic neuritis in children all symptoms are present EXCEPT:
(A) Afferent pupillary defect
(B) Headache and vomiting
(C) Pain on movement of eye ball
(D) Sudden visionless
Answer: (B)
770. Optic neuritis is seen in all except:
(A) DM
(B) Methanol poisoning
(C) Multiple sclerosis
(D) SLE
(E) None
Answer: (E)
771. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause:
(A) Biotemporal hemianopia
(B) Binasal hemianopia
(C) Heteronymous hemianopia
(D) Centracecalscotoma
Answer: (D)
772. Arden Index is related to
(A) ERG (Electroretinogram)
(B) EOG(Electrococulogram)
(C) VER(Visual Evoked response)
(D) Perimetry
Answer: (B)
773. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
(A) Decreased visual acuity
(B) Decreased pupillary reflex
(C) Abnormal electroretinogram
(D) Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram
Answer: (C)
774. A child presents with sudden loss of vision with painful ocular movements. The eye is white and there are no obvious sings on ophthalmoscopy. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Optic nerve glioma
(B) Retrobulbar neuritis
(C) Craniopharyngioma
(D) Eales disease
Answer: (B)
775. All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis, except:
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Digoxin
(C) Chloroquine
(D) Ethambutol
Answer: (A)
776. Which of the following ATT drugs is associated with visual deterioration
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Capreomycin
(D) Ethambutol
Answer: (D)
777. Fundoscopy of a patient shows chalky white optic disc with well defined margins. Retinal vessels and surrounding retina appears normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
(A) Primary Optic Atrophy
(B) Post-neuritic secondary optic atrophy
(C) Glaucomatous optic atrophy
(D) Consecutive optic atrophy
Answer: (A)
778. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except
(A) Syphilis
(B) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
(C) Post papilledema optic neuritis
(D) Traumatic injury to the optic nerve
Answer: (C)
779. A 15 year old boy has bilateral optic atrophy, diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus. The diagnosis is
(A) Kjer syndrome
(B) Behr syndrome
(C) Wolfram syndrome
(D) None
Answer: (C)
780. A young man with blurring of vision right eye, followed by left eye after 3 months, showing disc hyperemia, edema, circumpapillary telangiectasia with normal pupillary response with centrocecalscotoma on perimetry, the cause is:
(A) Typical optic neuritic
(B) Acute Papilledema
(C) Toxic optic neuropathy
(D) Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
Answer: (D)
781. The most common condition of inherited blindness due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is:
(A) Retinopathy of prematurity
(B) Leber’sHerediatry Optic neuropathy
(C) Retinitis pigmentosa
(D) Retinal detachment
Answer: (B)
782. A case of injury to right brow due to a fall from scooter presents with sudden loss of vision in the right eye. The pupil shows absent direct reflex but a normal consensual pupillary reflex is present. The fundus is normal. The treatment or choice is:
(A) Intensive intravenous corticosteroids as prescribed spinal injuries to be instituted with six hours
(B) Pulse methyl Prednisolone 250 mg four times daily for three days
(C) Oral Prednisolone 1.5 mg/kg body weight
(D) Emergency optic canal decompression.
Answer: (A)
783. Lamina Cribrosa is not formed in which of the following condition:
(A) Iris coloboma
(B) Nanophthalmia
(C) Morning Glory Syndrome
(D) Optic nerve agenesis
Answer: (C)
784. Absence of Lamina cribrosa occurs in
(A) Optic nerve hypoplasia agenesis
(B) Morning glory syndrome
(C) Drusen
(D) Non opthalmia
Answer: (B)
785. Most common malignant eyelid tumor
(A) Squamous cell CA
(B) Basal cell CA
(C) Sebacous CA
(D) Malignant melanoma
Answer: (B)
786. Most common intraocular tumour in adult:
(A) Metastasis
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Malignant melanoma
(D) Vitreous tumour
Answer: (A)
787. Most common eye ball tumour is
(A) Retinoblastoma
(B) Sarcoma
(C) Medulloblastoma
(D) Malignant
Answer: (A)
788. Most common orbital tumor in children:
(A) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Melanoma
(D) Chloroma
Answer: (A)
789. The commonest malignant tumor of the orbit in the 1st decade (children) is
(A) Retinoblastoma
(B) Neurobalstoma
(C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(D) Chloroma (AML) and ALL
(E) Cavernous Hemangioma
Answer: (C)
790. In which of the following, orbital metastasis is common
(A) Hypernephroma
(B) Hepatoma
(C) Neuroblastoma
(D) Melanoma
Answer: (C)
791. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults
(A) Neurofibroma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Cavernous haemangioma
(D) Schwannoma
Answer: (C)
792. Knudson’s two stage hypothesis is for:
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Optic glioma
(D) Meningioma
Answer: (B)
793. Familial retinoblastoma
(A) Hass autosomal recessive inheritance
(B) More commonly bilateral
(C) Due to mutation
(D) More common than sporadic retinoblastoma
(E) Poorer prognosis than sporadic type
Answer: (B, C, E)
794. A patient with known mutation in the ‘Rb gene’ is ‘disease free’ from Retinoblastoma. The patient is at highest risk of developing which of the following malignancies
(A) Renal cell carcinoma
(B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Pinealoblastoma
(D) Chondrosarcoma
Answer: (B)
795. Pseudorossettes are seen in:
(A) Retinoblastoma
(B) Ophthalmic nodosa
(C) Phakolytic glaucoma
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
796. Rosettes are characteristically seen in
(A) Dysgerminoma
(B) Melanoma
(C) Retinoblastoma
(D) Lymphoma
Answer: (C)
797. True about Retinoblastoma:
(A) Leucocoria is most common presentation
(B) Always unilateral and nystagmus common
(C) May have family history
(D) Eneucleation is the only treatment
(E) Most common age group affected is 1-2 yr
Answer: (A, C, E)
798. All are presentation of retinoblastoma except:
(A) Leucocoria
(B) Squint
(C) Cataract
(D) Glaucoma
Answer: (C)
799. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false:
(A) 94% of case are sporadic
(B) Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their off springs
(C) Calcification in the tumor can be detected on ultrasound scan
(D) Reese-Ellsworth classification is useful in predicting visual prognosis following radiotherapy
Answer: (B)
800. The most common mode of spread of retinoblastoma is
(A) Haematogenous
(B) Lymphatic
(C) Optic nerve
(D) Trans-sclera
Answer: (C)
801. Increased LDH in Aqueous Humor suggests a diagnosis of :
(A) Galactosemia
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Gyrate atrophy
Answer: (B)
802. Pseudoglioma differs from Retinoblastoma in that pseudoglioma is associated with
(A) Decreased intraocular pressure
(B) Blurring of vision
(C) Enlargement of the optic foramen
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
803. Leucocoria seen is:
(A) PHPV
(B) Coat’s disease
(C) R.D.
(D) Retinopathy of prematurity
Answer: (A, B, D)
804. The differential diagnosis of retinoblastoma would include all except:
(A) Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
(B) Coat’s disease.
(C) Retinal astrocytoma
(D) Retinal detachment
Answer: (D)
805. Leucokoria can be seen in all except-
(A) Persistant hyperplastic primary vitreous
(B) Congenital glaucoma
(C) Fungal endopthalmitis
(D) Retinoblastoma
Answer: (B)
806. All of the following can cause a white pupillary reflex except:
(A) Retinoblastoma
(B) Cataract
(C) Retrolental fibroplasias
(D) Glaucoma
Answer: (D)
807. The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On computed tomography scan of the orbital there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Congenital cataract.
(B) Retinoblastoma.
(C) Endophthalmitis.
(D) Coats disease.
Answer: (B)
808. A 2-year old child presented with leucocoria in the right eye since 2 months. On examination a total retinal detachment was present in the same eye. Ultrasound B scan revealed a heterogeneous subretinal mass with calcification. The most likely clinical diagnosis is
(A) Coats-disease
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Toxocriasis
(D) Retinal tuberculoma
Answer: (B)
809. One year old male child with cat’s eye reflex and raised IOT:
(A) Toxplasmagondi infection
(B) Toxcaracanis
(C) Retinoblastoma
(D) Retinopathy of prematurity
(E) Noorie’s disease
Answer: (C)
810. The most common second malignant in survivors of retinoblastoma is:
(A) Thyroid cancer
(B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(C) Optic glioma
(D) Osteosarcoma
Answer: (D)
811. A child with a unilateral white reflex raised IOP. The required investigation are:
(A) USG
(B) Observation under anesthesia
(C) Tonometry
(D) X-ray
Answer: (ALL)
812. A one year old child having leucocoria was detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve:
(A) Enucleation
(B) Chemotherapy followed by local dyes
(C) Direct Laser ablation using photo dynamic cryotherapy
(D) Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy.
Answer: (A)
813. Ideal treatment of B/L retinoblastoma
(A) Enucleation
(B) Radiation
(C) Chemotherapy
(D) Cyclophotocoagulation
Answer: (A, C)
814. Management of retinoblastoma:
(A) Enucleation
(B) Chemotherapy
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) USG
(E) Fluorescein angiography
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
815. In retinoblastoma, after enucleation, which tissue is sectioned to find out systemic metastasis
(A) Central retinal artery
(B) Sclera and episclera
(C) Optic nerve
(D) Vortex vein
Answer: (C)
816. Enucleation means
(A) Removal of the contents of globe
(B) Removal of the contents globe and sclera except a frill around the optic nerve
(C) Removal of entire globe along with portion of optic nerve
(D) Removal of the entire contents of orbit
Answer: (C)
817. Enucleation is done for:
(A) Retinoblastoma
(B) Malignant melanoma
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Pthisisbulbi
(E) Vitreous hemorrhage
Answer: (A, B, D)
818. A patient is on follow-up with you after enucleation of painful blind eye. After enculeation of the eyeball, a proper sized artificial prosthetic eye is advised after a postoperative period of:
(A) About 10 days
(B) About 20 days
(C) 6-8 weeks
(D) 12-24 weeks
Answer: (B)
819. Treatment of b/I retinoblastoma is
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Enucleation
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) Cryo
Answer: (A)
820. Treatment of metastatic disease is retinoblastoma is
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Enucleation
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) Cryo
Answer: (A)
821. Most B/L multifocal retinoblastoma require
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Radiotherapy
(C) Enucleation
(D) Multi Modality therapy
Answer: (D)
822. A 5 year old boy presents with lencocoria in the right eye which is diagnosed as diffuse retinoblastoma involving the entire globe. Examination of the left eye revealed a small 2-3mm tumor in the periphery. What will be the ideal management of this patient:
(A) Enucleation of both eyes
(B) Enucleation of right eye and observation for left eye
(C) Enucleation of right eye and local therapy of the left eye
(D) Six cycles of Chemotherapy
Answer: (C)
823. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance to choroidal melanoma?
(A) Presence of retinal detachment
(B) Size of the tumour
(C) Cytology of the tumor cells
(D) Presence of extraocular extension
Answer: (A)
824. Vortex Vein invasion is commonly seen in:
(A) Retinoblastoma
(B) Malignant melanoma
(C) Optic nerve gliomas
(D) Medullo-epitheliomas
Answer: (B)
825. Most common type of optic nerve glioma is
(A) Gemistocytic
(B) Fibrous
(C) Protoplasmic
(D) Pilocytic
Answer: (D)
826. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Optic glioma?
(A) Has a peak incidence in first decade
(B) Arises from oligodendrocytes
(C) Causes meningeal hyperplasia
(D) Is associated with type I neurofirbromatosis
Answer: (C)
827. A child age 5 years, presents with loss of vision and mild proptosis of left eye. On examination direct is absent but consensual is present in left eye. He is having:
(A) Optic nerve glioma
(B) Optic sheath meningioma
(C) Retinoblastoma
(D) Optic disc angioma
Answer: (A)
828. A young 25 year old man following RTA presented with proptosis (pulsatile in nature), chemosis and pain in right eye after 4 days. On Examination there was bruit on forehead and right eye. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
(B) Carotico cavernous Fistula
(C) Fracture sphenoid
(D) Internal Cartoid Artery Aneurysm
Answer: (B)
829. 20 year old man with progressive proptosis which increases on bending forward. It is compressible and has no bruit or thrill. USG showed “hyperintense” mass with shadowing of mass. The diagnosis is:
(A) Orbital varix
(B) AV malformation
(C) Neurofibromatosis
(D) “Orbital” encephalocele
Answer: (A)
830. A child presents with unilateral propotosis which is compressible and increases on bending forwards. It is non-pulsatile and has no thrill or bruit. MRI shows retroorbital mass with econgenic shadows (with enhancement). The most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Orbital varix
(C) Orbital A-V fstula
(D) Orbital encephalocele
Answer: (B)
831. Most commonly employed treatment for cortivocavernous fistula nowadays is:
(A) Ballon embolization
(B) Ligation of internal artery
(C) No treatment available
(D) Fistulectomy
Answer: (A)
832. A 8 year old boy presented with swelling in the left eye of 3 months duration, examination revealed proptosis of left eye with preserved vision. Right eye is normal CT scan revealed intraorbital extra conal mass lesion. Biopsy revealed embryonalrhabdomyosarcoma. Metastatic work up was normal. The standard line of treatment is
(A) Chemotherapy only.
(B) Wide local excision.
(C) Enuleation
(D) Chemotherapy and Radiation therapy
Answer: (D)
833. Which of the following are orbital tumours :
(A) Glioma
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Chloroma
(D) Meningioma
(E) Schwannoma
Answer: (ALL)
834. All of the following type of lymphoma are commonly seen in the orbit except:
(A) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic &histiocytic.
(B) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma, lymphocytic poorly differentiated.
836. In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome?
(A) Optic radiation.
(B) Optic tract.
(C) Cerebellum.
(D) Pulvinar.
Answer: (C)
837. All the following signs could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus except:
(A) Constricted pupil in response to light
(B) Engorgement of the retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopic examination
(C) Ptosis of the right eyelid
(D) Right Ophthalmoplegia.
Answer: (A)
838. Unilateral proptosis with bilateral VIth nerve palsy, diagnosis is:
(A) Grave’s disease
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Pseudotumour of orbit
(D) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer: (D)
839. A Young girl with previous history of repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic use of decongestants now presents with intense chills, rigors, and diplopia on lateral gaze. Examination shows optic disc congested. Most likely diagnosis would be:
(A) Ethmoidal Sinusitis
(B) Orbital Cellulitis
(C) Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
(D) Orbital Apex syndrome
Answer: (C)
840. A patient with history of running nose and pain over medial aspect of the eye presents with sudden onset of high grade fever, prostration, chemosis, proptosis and diplopia on lateral gaze with congestion of the optic disc. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.
(A) Acute ethmoidal sinusitis
(B) Orbital Cellulitis
(C) Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
(D) Orbital Apex Syndrome
Answer: (C)
841. All the following signs could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus, except
(A) Loss of pupillary light reflex.
(B) Loss of corneal blink reflex.
(C) Ptosis
(D) Right ophthalmopegia
Answer: (B)
842. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to:
(A) Cavernous sinus.
(B) Apex of orbit.
(C) Brainstem.
(D) Base of skull.
Answer: (A)
843. Bilateral proptosis is common in
(A) Cavernous hemangioma
(B) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(C) A-V communications
(D) Orbital cellulitis
Answer: (C)
844. A patient presented with painful ophthalmoplegia. On CT scan, there was enlargement of the cavernous sinus on one side. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
(B) Gradeniego’s syndrome
(C) Tolosa-Hunt syndrome
(D) Orbital Pseudotumor
Answer: (C)
845. The most common cause of bilateral proptosis in children is:
(A) Cavernous hemangioma
(B) Fibrous Histocytoma
(C) Chloroma (Leukemia)
(D) Rhadomyosarcoma
Answer: (C)
846. Proptosis is seen in:
(A) Neuroblastoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Sympathetic ophthalmia
(D) Injuries
Answer: (A)
847. Which of the following tumours present with proptosis-
(A) Neuroblastoma
(B) Nephroblastoma
(C) Germ cell tumour
(D) Meduloblastoma
(E) Meningioma
Answer: (A, B)
848. A 35 yr. old male presented with a 15 day history of proptosis in his right eye and pain on eye movement. There is difficulty in upwards and down wards gaze movements. CT scan showed a cystic lesion with a hyperdense opacity within it, located in the superior oblique muscle. Most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Dermoid
(B) Hemangioma
(C) Pseudotumor
(D) Cysticercosisccellulosae
Answer: (D)
849. A tumor has the following characteristics :-
Retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive proptosis,, easily resectable, occurs most commonly in the 2nd to 4th decade.
Most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Capillary hemangioma
(B) Cavernous heamgioma
(C) Lymphngioma
(D) Hemangiopericytoma
Answer: (B)
850. Most common cause of unilateral proptosis is
(A) Thyrotoxicosis
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Intraocular haemorrhage
(D) Raised intracranial tension
Answer: (A)
851. True statement about dysthyroid eye disease (grave’s opthalmopathy) is
(A) Decreased power of divergence
(B) Most common cause of U/L proptosis in <25 years age group
(C) Extreme exophthalmos is usually seen in hypothyroidism
(D) On looking upwards lower lid does not follow eye movements
Answer: (C)
852. Thyroid ophthalmopathya/w
(A) External ophthalmoplegia
(B) Internal ophthalmoplegia
(C) Proptosis
(D) Large extra-ocular muscle
(E) Lid lag
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
853. Dysthyroidophthalmopahty all are true except:
(A) Proptosis
(B) Myopathy
(C) Exophthalmos
(D) Optic neuritis
Answer: (D)
854. The most common ocular motility problem in thyroid myopathy is due to involvement of:
(A) Medial rectus
(B) Superior rectus
(C) Inferior rectus
(D) Inferior oblique
Answer: (C)
855. Kamla, age 48 yrs, presents with unilateral mild axial proptosis. There is no redness or pain. Investigation of choice is:
(A) T3& T4 measurements to rule out thyrotoxicosis
(B) CT scan to rule out meningioma
(C) Doppler to rule out hemangioma
(D) USG to rule out orbital pseudotumor
Answer: (A)
856. 5% guanethidine is used for
(A) Ptosis
(B) Neuro-paralytic keratitis
(C) Thyrotoxicophthalmopathy
(D) Horner’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
857. Best X-ray view to visualize superior orbital fissure is:
(A) Anteroposterior
(B) Basal
(C) Towne’s
(D) Caldwell Luc’s view
Answer: (D)
858. Traumatic eye lesion can cause:
(A) vitreoushaemorrhage
(B) Corneal opacity
(C) Exudative retinal detachment
(D) Glaucoma
(E) Cataract
Answer: (A, B, C, D, E)
859. In blunt injury to eye, following changes are seen EXCEPT
(A) Macular hole
(B) Berlin’s edema
(C) Subluxation of lens
(D) Soft exudates
Answer: (D)
860. A young boy present to the ophthalmology department with decreased vision, six months after being hit by a tennis ball in the eye. Which of the following findings on optical examination is suggestive of Blunt injury to the eye:
(A) Optic Neuritis
(B) Pars Planitis
(C) Vitreous base detachment
(D) Equatorial edema
Answer: (C)
861. A person suffered an injury in right eye with a tennis ball. Following which he developed pain and on fundus examination a red spot is seen at the mecula. What is the most probable diagnosis
(A) Berlin’s edema
(B) Macular bleed
(C) Macular hole
(D) Macular tear
Answer: (A)
862. Which of the following is not seen in blunt trauma to eye :
(A) Retinal detachment
(B) Double perforation in iris
(C) Hyphaema
(D) Iridiodialysis
Answer: (B)
863. Blow out fracture of orbit most commonly leads to fracture of:
(A) Lateral wall
(B) Roof of orbit
(C) Medial wall of orbit
(D) Posterior-medial wall of floor
Answer: (D)
864. “Blow out” fracture of orbit involve:
(A) Floor
(B) Medial wall
(C) Lateral wall
(D) Roof
(E) Apex
Answer: (A, B)
865. A boy presents with diplopia and restriction of eye movements following blunt trauma to his eye. X-ray reveals blow out fracture of orbit. Which part of orbit is most likely damaged:
(A) Superior wall
(B) Inferior wall
(C) Lateral wall
(D) Medial wall
Answer: (B)
866. True about blow out # orbit:
(A) Herniates into maxillary antrum
(B) Movements restricted
(C) Looking down is easy
(D) Silastic better for correction
(E) Diplopia
Answer: (A, B, D, E)
867. Blow out # orbit is characterized by:
(A) Diplopia
(B) “Tear drop. sign
(C) Forced duction test
(D) Exophthalmos
Answer: (A, B, C)
868. Bone that not forms medal wall of orbit:
(A) Greater wing of sphenoid
(B) Lesser wing of sphenoid
(C) Ethmoid bone
(D) Lacrimal bone
(E) Frontal process of maxilla
Answer: (A, B)
869. Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit:
(A) Blow on back of head
(B) Blow on parietal bone
(C) Blow on the forehead
(D) Blow on the upper jaw
Answer: (C)
870. Global rupture due to blunt trauma is indicated by
871. An 18 year old boy comes to the eye causality with history of injury with a tennis ball. One examination there is no perforation but there is hyphaema. The most likely source of the blood is
(A) Iris vessels
(B) Circulusiridis major.
(C) Circulusiridis minor.
(D) Short posterior ciliary vessels.
Answer: (B)
872. Secondary glaucoma associated with angle recession is seen in
(A) Concussion injury
(B) Radiation injury
(C) Penetrating injury
(D) Chemical injury
Answer: (A)
873. A patient presented with pain in left eye associated with visual disturbance, also a history of blunt trauma to eye 4 month back, first investigation of choice is
(A) Introcular tension
(B) Ophthalmoscopy
(C) Perimetry
(D) Ultrasound
Answer: (A)
874. After blunt trauma to eye a pt. develops circumcorneal congestion. The further test done is:
(A) Perimetry
(B) Direct opthalmoscopy
(C) Ultrasonography
(D) Intra oculor pressure measurement.
Answer: (D)
875. A patient sustained blunt trauma to eye after that the developed sudden loss of vision with deep anterion chamber, Most likely causes is
(A) Lens dislocation
(B) Berlin’s oedema
(C) Retinal haemorrhage
(D) Recession of angle of AC
Answer: (A)
876. Voissius ring is seen in the
(A) Cornea
(B) Anterior capsule of the lens
(C) Posterior capsule of the lens
(D) Iris
Answer: (B)
877. Vossius ring occurs in
(A) Lens dislocation
(B) Concussion injury
(C) Penetrating injury
(D) Extra capsular extraction
Answer: (B)
878. Rosette shaped cataract is seen in:
(A) Trauma
(B) Radiation
(C) DM
(D) Iridocyclitis
Answer: (A)
879. In which of the following conditions Berlin’s edema is seen
(A) Open angle glaucoma
(B) After cataract surgery
(C) After concessional trauma
(D) Diabetic retinopathy
Answer: (C)
880. MC retained foreign body intraocularly
(A) Airgun pellets
(B) Iron
(C) Glass
(D) Chisel and hammer
Answer: (B)
881. Most common ocular foreign body is:
(A) Chiesel and hammer
(B) Glass
(C) Plastics
(D) Stone
Answer: (A)
882. Chalcosis is seen with
(A) Pb
(B) Cu
(C) Fe
(D) Hg
Answer: (B)
883. Dangerous area of eye:
(A) Ciliary body
(B) Optic nerve
(C) Sclera
(D) Choroid
Answer: (A)
884. Two weeks after injury to his right eye. a boy presents with bilateral pain and redness, most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Sympathetic opthalmitis
(B) Endopthalmitis
(C) Optic neuritis
(D) Glaucoma
Answer: (A)
885. In sympathetic ophthalmitis first sign is:
(A) Presence of KPs.
(B) Retrolental flare
(C) Presence of aquous flare
(D) Constriction of pupil
Answer: (A)
886. Sympathetic ophthalmia is:
(A) U/L suppurative uveitis
(B) B/L suppurative uveitis
(C) U/L non-suppurative uveitis
(D) B/L non-suppurative uveitis
Answer: (D)
887. Earliest symptom of sympathetic ophthalmia is
(A) Photophobia
(B) Pain
(C) Loss of near vision
(D) Loss of distant vision
Answer: (A)
888. A 20 year old man complains of difficulty in reading the newspaper with his right eye, three weeks after sustaining a gun shot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Macular edema
(B) Sympathetic ophthalmia
(C) Optic nerve avulsion
(D) Delayed vitreous hemorrhage
Answer: (B)
889. First sign in sympathetic ophthamilis is:
(A) Presence of aquous flare
(B) Presence of precipitates
(C) Constriction of pupil
(D) Retrolental flare
Answer: (D)
890. Dalen fuch’s nodule is seen in:
(A) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
(B) Myopia
(C) Retinal detachment
(D) Spring catarrah
Answer: (A)
891. In sympathetic ophthalmitis, earliest sign is:
(A) KP
(B) Retrolental flare
(C) Aquous flare
(D) Hypopion
Answer: (A)
892. Sympathetic ophthalmitis results due to:
(A) Penetrating injury of ciliary body
(B) Uveitis
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Trachoma
Answer: (A)
893. Traumatic eye with late presentation of hyperaemic sclera with unilateral proptosis is due to:
(A) Retrobulbar hematoma
(B) Retrobular cellulites
(C) Carotico-cavernous fistula
(D) Pneumo-orbit
Answer: (B)
894. Components of pupillary reflex are
(A) Retina
(B) Pretectal nucleus
(C) Lateral geniculate body
(D) Edlinger-westphal nucleus
(E) Calcarine sulcus
Answer: (A, B, D)
895. Which is not a part of the pupillary light reflex:
(A) Lateral geniculate body
(B) Pre-tectal area
(C) Retina
(D) Edlinger-Westphal nucleus
Answer: (A)
896. In pupillary reflex nerve tested is:
(A) 2nd
(B) 3rd
(C) Both 2nd and 3rd
(D) 4th
Answer: (C)
897. The afferent pathway for light pupillary reflex is:
(A) Trigeminal nerve
(B) Optic nerve
(C) Abducent nerve
(D) Ciliary nerve
Answer: (B)
898. A patient presented with normal eyesight and absence of direct and consensual light reflexes. Which of the following cranial nerves is suspected to be lesioned?
(A) Occulomotor
(B) Trochlear
(C) Optic
(D) Abducent
Answer: (A)
899. Wernicke’s hemianopic pupillary response is seen in lesions at:
(A) Optic tract
(B) Optic chaisma
(C) Optic radiation
(D) Lateral geniculate body
Answer: (A)
900. Topical Pilocarpine 1% administration failed to produce papillary constriction in a patient who had large dialt3ed pupil. What could be most probable reason
(A) Adie’s tonic pupil
(B) Uncalheniation
(C) Pharmacological blockade
(D) Diabetic IIrdranial nerve palsy.
Answer: (C)
901. In unilateral Afferent pupillary defect, when light in moved from normal to affected eye, there is:
(A) Dilatation in affected side and constriction in normal eye
(B) Dilatation in normal eye and constriction in affected side
(C) Dilatation in both pupils
(D) Constriction in both pupils
Answer: (C)
902. Loss of convergence with slight light reflex is seen in:
(A) ARP
(B) Holme Adie’s pupil
(C) Marcs gun pupil
(D) Wirnecke’s pupil
Answer: (B)
903. Pupil that responds to convergence but light reflex is absent:
(A) Adies pupil
(B) Argyl Robertson pupil
(C) Hutchison pupil
(D) Myotonic pupil
Answer: (B)
904. Light reflex absent but accommodation reflex present is seen in:
(A) Hutchison’s pupil
(B) Aregyl Robertson puppil
(C) Adie pupil
(D) Horner’s syndrome
Answer: (B)
905. Relative Afferent papillary defect (RAPD) is characteristically seen in damage to
(A) Optic nerve
(B) Optic Tract
(C) Lateral geniculate body
(D) Occulomotor Nerve
Answer: (A)
906. All of the following statements about Argyll Robertson pupil are correct, Except:
(A) Nar Reflex Normal
(B) Direct light Reflex Absent
(C) Consensual Light Reflex Normal
(D) Visual Acuity Normal
Answer: (C)
907. Horner’s syndrome consists of-
(A) miosis and endopthalmos
(B) miosis and exophalmos
(C) miosis and proptosis
(D) miosis and ptosis
Answer: (D)
908. All of the following are features of Horner’s syndrome except:
(A) Ptosis and Miosis in ipsilateral eye
(B) Anydrosis of ipsilateral face
(C) Hetrochromiairides
(D) Appaent exophthalmos
Answer: (D)
909. Features of Horner’s syndrome include all of the following except:
(A) Miosis
(B) Ptosis
(C) Anhydrosis
(D) Exopthalmos
Answer: (D)
910. All of the following are components of Horner’s syndrome except
(A) Ptosis
(B) Exophthalmos
(C) Anhidrosis
(D) Loss of cilio-spinal reflex
Answer: (B)
911. Horner’s syndrome, all are true except:
(A) Unilateral loss of sweating
(B) Enophthalmos
(C) Mydriasis
(D) Ptosis
Answer: (C)
912. Not a feature of Horner syndrome
(A) Exophthalmos
(B) Ptosis of upper eyelid
(C) Miosis
(D) Conjuctival congestion
(E) Anhydrosis
Answer: (A)
913. Enphthalmos is caused weakness by:
(A) LPS palsy
(B) Tarsal plate
(C) Tenon’s capsule instability
(D) Orbitalis palsy
Answer: (C)
914. Enophthalmos is due to palsy of:
(A) Levatorpalpebraesuperioris
(B) Superior tarsal muscle
(C) Orbitalis muscle
(D) Inferior tarsal muscle
Answer: (C)
915. Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by:
(A) Vagus nerve
(B) Facial nerve
(C) Trigeminal nerve
(D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
Answer: (C)
916. The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina project to the following layer of the lateral geniculate nucleus:
(A) Layers 2, 3 & 5.
(B) Layers 1, 2 & 6.
(C) Layers 1, 4 & 6.
(D) Layers 4, 5 & 6.
Answer: (C)
917. Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual cortex is:
(A) Layer 1
(B) Layer 2 & 3
(C) Layer 4
(D) Layer 5 & 6
Answer: (C)
918. The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with:
(A) Ocular dominance
(B) Orientation
(C) Color processing
(D) Saccadic eye movements
Answer: (C)
919. The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries signals for the detection of:
(A) Movement, depth and flicker
(B) Color vision, shape and fine details
(C) Temporal frequency
(D) Luminance contrast
Answer: (B)
920. The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual cortex is most sensitive for the stimulus of:
(A) Color contrast.
(B) Luminance contrast.
(C) Temporal frequency.
(D) Saccadic eye movements.
Answer: (A)
921. Relative colour and luminosity of photoreceptive input under changing light conditions are regulated and maintained by:
(A) Muller cells
(B) Amacrine cells
(C) Ganglion cells
(D) Retinal astrocytes
Answer: (B)
922. During the dark phase of visual cycle, which form of vitamin A combines with opsin to make Rhodopsin:
(A) All trans-Retinaldehyde
(B) All trans-Retinol
(C) 11-cis-Retinaldehyde
(D) 11-cis-Retinol
Answer: (C)
923. Visible range of electromagnetic spectrum of human eye
(A) 370-740 nm
(B) 740-1140 nm
(C) 200-340 nm
(D) 200-370 nm
(E) 370-770 nm
Answer: (A)
924. The visual pathway consists of all of these except:
(A) Optic tract
(B) Geniculocalcarine tract
(C) Inferior colliculus
(D) Lateral geniculate body
(E) Pretectal region
Answer: (C)
925. Visual defect in optic chaismal lesion
(A) Bitemporal hemianopia
(B) Binasal hemianopia
(C) Homonymous lower temporal hemianopia
(D) Homonymous upper nasal hemianopia
(E) Homonymous lower temporal hemianopia
Answer: (A, B)
926. Field defect seen in pituitary adenoma:
(A) Bitemporal hemianopia
(B) Binasal hemianopia
(C) Quadrantanopia
(D) “Pie in sky” defect
(E) AMaurosis in one eye & temporal hemianopia other eye
Answer: (A)
927. Visual field defect in pituitary tumour with supracellar extension is
(A) Bitemporal hemianopia
(B) Binasal hemianopia
(C) Homonymous hemianopia
(D) Pie in the sky vision
Answer: (A)
928. Lesion in the optic chiasma causes
(A) Bitemporal hemianopia
(B) Upper nasal
(C) Lower nasal
(D) Upper temporal
(E) Lower temporal
Answer: (A)
929. Bitemporal hemianopia field defect is characteristic of
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Optic neuritis
(C) Pituitary tumour
(D) Retinal detachment
Answer: (C)
930. In a patient presenting with headache and eye complaints Examination of right eye reveals: Right eye superotemporalquadrotpsia. Left eye reveals :
Lefty eye superotemporalquadrotopsia
Left eye reveals: Left eye contrcecalscotoma.
Likely site of lesion is:
(A) Left optic nerve +chiasma
(B) Left optictract + chiasma
(C) Right optic nerve + chiasma
(D) Right optic tract + chiasma
Answer: (A)
931. Homonymous hemianopia is seen in lesion of :
(A) Optic tract
(B) Optic chiasma
(C) Optic radiation
(D) Optic nerve
(E) Occipital cortex
Answer: (A, C, E)
932. Homonymous hemianopia is seen in:
(A) Pituitary adenoma
(B) Optic nerve damage
(C) Post chiasmic damage
(D) Cortical lesion
Answer: (C, D)
933. Site of lesion on Bitemporal hemianopia is
(A) Optic nerve
(B) Optic tract
(C) Optic chiasma
(D) Optic radiation
Answer: (C)
934. Which of the following can cause Superior quadrantopia
(A) Temporal lobe tumor
(B) Frontal lobe tumor
(C) Pituitary tumor
(D) Craniopharyngioma
Answer: (A)
935. A homonymous upper quadrantic field defect is typical of lesion in
(A) Parietal lobe
(B) Temporal lobe
(C) Occipital lobe
(D) Optic chiasma
Answer: (B)
936. A lesion of the optic radiation involving the Meyer’s loop causes-
(A) Homonymous hemianopia
(B) Superiorquadrantopia
(C) Inferior quadrantopia
(D) centralscotoma.
Answer: (B)
937. The colours best appreciated by the central cones of our foveo-macular area are:
(A) Read and blue
(B) Blue and green
(C) Red and green
(D) Blue and yellow
Answer: (D)
938. True about color blindness
(A) Age related
(B) Hereditary
(C) Males only
(D) Female only
(E) Can be treated
Answer: (B)
939. True about color blindness:
(A) More common in male
(B) More common in female
(C) Age related
(D) Hereditary
(E) Treatable
Answer: (A, D)
940. A person has defective blue colour appreciation. His condition is better named as
(A) Deuteranomalous
(B) Deuteranopia
(C) Tritanopia
(D) Tritanomalous
Answer: (D)
941. Protonopes have defect in identifying which colour
(A) Red
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Black
Answer: (A)
942. Any spectral colour can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in different proportions. If a person needs more of one of the colour for matching than a normal person, then he has a colour anomaly. More red colour is needed in the case of:
(A) Deuteranomaly
(B) Trianomaly
(C) Protonomaly
(D) Tritanomaly
Answer: (C)
943. Regarding color blindness true:
(A) Mainly congenital
(B) Can be testes with Fansworth 100 hue test
(C) Isihara chart test red/green color blindness
(D) Jerlin-Merlin cotton wool tests it
Answer: (A, B, C)
944. Amblyopia means
(A) Colour blindness
(B) Any deviation from normal usual function of eye
(C) Squint
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
945. A 16 year old boy complains of pain in the right eye. After refractometry, he was prescribed a +3.5 D sphere lens. the cover test is normal. There is no heterophoria. The diagnosis is:
(A) Organic amblyopia
(B) Anisometric amblyopia
(C) Emmetropic amblyopia
(D) Toxic amblyopia
Answer: (B)
946. A 12 year old boy presented with right eye vision 6/36 and left eye vision of 6/6 after maximum correction retinoscopy shows fundus and anterior chamber is normal
Right eye = +4.5 D in both axis
Left eye = +1.5 D in both axis
Cause of decreased vision in right eye is
(A) Refractive error
(B) Amblyopia
(C) Optic neuritis
(D) Occipital lobe infarction
Answer: (B)
947. A 12 year old child complains of headache and decreased vision. On examination he has a visual acuity of 3/36 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye. On Retinoscopy at 66cms, the left eye showed correction of 1.5D and the right eye of 5 D. The anterior chamber and fundus of eye were normal. What may be the cause of decreased vision in the right eye:
(A) Amblyopia
(B) Occipital lobe infarct
(C) Optic neuritis
(D) Refractive error
Answer: (A)
948. Amblyopia should be corrected by the
(A) < 5 tear of age
(B) 5-8 year
(C) 8-12 year
(D) 10-15 year
Answer: (A)
949. Treatment of choice for amblyopia is
(A) Convergent exercises
(B) Spectacles
(C) Surgery
(D) Conventional occlusion
Answer: (D)
950. Regarding amblyopia which of following is true:
(A) Reversible loss of vision
(B) Associated with squint
(C) Defect in refractive error
(D) Surgery is treatment of choice
(E) Exercise is done
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
951. Treatment of amblyopia in a 3 year old child is
(A) Orthoptic exercises
(B) Occlusion of one eye
(C) Prism
(D) Surgery
Answer: (B)
952. amblyopia which of the following is true-
(A) Spectacles should be used
(B) T/t with occlusion method
(C) Surgery is the TOC
(D) Idiopathic condition
Answer: (A, B)
953. Amblyopia is treated by:
(A) Optical correction
(B) Occlusion
(C) Orthoptic exercise
(D) Pleoptic exercise
Answer: (ALL)
954. True regarding cortical blindness
(A) Direct and consensual reflexes are present in both the eyes
(B) Direct and consensual reflexes absent in both the eyes
(C) Direct reflex is present and consensual absent on the normal side
(D) Direct reflex is absent on normal side and consensual reflex present
Answer: (A)
955. Feature of cortical blindness is
(A) Absent direct and intact consensual reflex
(B) Absent consensual but positive direct reflex
(C) Absent direct and consensual reflex
(D) Normal direct and consensual reflex
Answer: (D)
956. A female presented with loss of vision in both eyes and on examination has normal pupillary responses and normal fundus, Her visually evoked response (VER) examination shows extinguished responses. The most likely diagnosis is –
(A) Hysteria
(B) Cortical blindness
(C) Optic Neuritis
(D) Retinal Detachment
Answer: (B)
957. A 20 year old young female presented with sudden, severe bilateral loss of vision more so on right side with no perception of light. Rest of the examination including pupillary reflex, fundus and optokineticnystagmus are normal. She was able to touch tips of her finger with right eye closed but not with left eye closed. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Optic neuritis
(B) CMV retinitis
(C) Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
(D) Functional visual loss
Answer: (D)
958. Internuclearopthalmoplegia is caused due to lesion in-
(A) Occipital lobes
(B) pretectalfibres
(C) Medial longitudinal fasciculus
(D) parapontine reticular fibres
Answer: (C)
959. Dilator pupillae is supplied by
(A) Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from EdlingerWestphal nucleus
(B) Post ganglionic sympathetic fibers from cervical sympathetic chain
(C) IIIrd CN
(D) Sympathetic fibers from V1 nerve
Answer: (B)
960. All are characteristic of 3rd nerve except
(A) Carries parasympathetic nerve
(B) Supplies inferior oblique
(C) Enters orbit through the inferior orbital fissure
(D) Causes miosis
Answer: (C)
961. Most common ocular complication of Diphtheria is
(A) Paralysis of accommodation
(B) External opththalmoplegia
(C) Sluggish pupillary reflex
(D) Optic neuritis
Answer: (A)
962. 3rd cranial nerve supplies
(A) Lateral rectus
(B) Medial rectus, Lateral palpabresuperioris
(C) Superior rectus
(D) Superior oblique
(E) Inferior oblique
Answer: (B, D, E)
963. Occulomoter nerve palsy affects all of the following muscles, EXCEPT:
(A) Medial rectus
(B) Inferior oblique
(C) Lateral rectus
(D) Levetorpeopabraesuperioris
Answer: (C)
964. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by:
(A) 3rd cranial nerve.
(B) 4th cranial nerve.
(C) 5th cranial nerve.
(D) 6th cranial nerve.
Answer: (B)
965. Superior oblique is supplied by:
(A) Upper branch of 3rd N
(B) Lower branch of 3rd N
(C) Trochlear
(D) Abducens
Answer: (C)
966. Downward and lateral gaze is action of
(A) Inferior oblique
(B) Medial rectus
(C) Superior oblique
(D) Lateral rectus
Answer: (C)
967.Function of superior oblique muscle is:
(A) Elevation with eye rotated outwards
(B) Elevation with eye rotated downwards
(C) Depression with inward rotation
(D) Depression with outward rotation
Answer: (C)
968. Superior oblique muscle performs action of:
(A) Intortion
(B) Extortion
(C) Elevation
(D) Medial rotation
Answer: (A)
969. Function of superior oblique muscle:
(A) Intortion
(B) Extortion
(C) Lateral rotation
(D) Upward rotation
(E) Downward rotation
Answer: (A, E)
970. Action of superior oblique is following except:
(A) Extortion
(B) Depression
(C) Abduction
(D) Intortion
Answer: (A)
971. Which muscle is intorter of eye:
(A) Inferior oblique
(B) Inferior rectus
(C) Superior rectus
(D) Medial rectus
Answer: (C)
972. Which action of extra-ocular muscles is spared in involvement of Occulomotor nerve:
(A) Abduction
(B) Depression
(C) Elevation
(D) Adduction
Answer: (A)
973. III nerve palsy with pupillary sparing is seen in:
(A) Craniopharyngioma
(B) Hypertension
(C) Aneurysm of post. communicating artery
(D) DM
Answer: (D)
974. III nerve palsy causes all of the following except:
(A) Ptosis
(B) Mydriasis
(C) Medial deviation of eyeball
(D) Pupillary reflex lost
Answer: (C)
975. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:
(A) Ptosis
(B) Diplopia
(C) Miosis
(D) Outward deviation of eye
Answer: (C)
976. Eye is deviated laterally and downwards; patient is unable to look up or medially; likely nerve involved is:
(A) Trochlear
(B) Trigeminal
(C) Oculomotor
(D) Abducent
Answer: (C)
977. Which of these can cause 3rd nerve paralysis
(A) Posterior communicating artery (PCA) aneurysm
(B) Tolosa-Hunt syndrome
(C) Midbrain infarct
(D) Pons Infarct
(E) Lateral medullary lesion
Answer: (A, B, C)
978. Left sided sixth nerve palsy would lead to:
(A) Accommodation paresis of left eye
(B) Ptosisod left eye
(C) Adduction weakness of left eye
(D) Diplopia in left gaze
Answer: (D)
979. In complete 3rd Nerve palsy
(A) Eye Deviated Medially
(B) Superior and inferior recti affected
(C) Dilated pupil
(D) Ptosis
(E) Conversion/accommodation is lost
Answer: (B, C, D, E)
980. A 30 year old man came to the outpatient department because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it was found that his right eye, when at rest, was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are:
(A) Medial rectus and superior division of oculomotor nerve
(B) Inferior oblique and inferior division of oculomotor nerve
(C) Lateral rectus and abducent nerve
(D) Superior rectus and trochlear nerve
Answer: (C)
981. Clinical features of sixth nerve palsy is:
(A) Convergent squint
(B) Divergent squint
(C) Limitation in upward movement
(D) Limitation in downward movement
Answer: (A)
982. In right lateral rectus palsy all of the following are seen except
(A) Face turned to left
(B) Medial convergent squint
(C) Inability to abduct right eye.
(D) Diplopia
Answer: (A)
983. Diplopia is Superior Oblique palsy is most correctly described as:
(A) Vertical on looking down
(B) Vertical on looking up
(C) Horizontal on looking in
(D) Horizontal on looking out
Answer: (A)
984. A patient presented with his head tilted towards left On examination, he was having left hypertropia which increased in looking towards right or medially. The muscle which is most likely paralyzed is :
(A) Left superior oblique
(B) Left inferior oblique
(C) Right superior oblique
(D) Right inferior oblique.
Answer: (A)
985. Ophthalmoplegic migraine is best defined by:
(A) Headache with irreversible loss of ophthalmic nerve function
(B) Recurrent transient 3rd nerve palsy associated with headache
(C) Recurrent transient 3rd, 4th and / or 6th nerve palsy associated with headache
(D) Headache associated with optic neuritis
Answer: (C)
986. Ophthalmoplegic migraine means
(A) When headache is followed by complete paralysis of the IIIrd and VIth nerve on the same side as the hemicrania
(B) When the headache is followed by partial paralysis of the IIIrd nerve on the same side as the hemicranias without any scotoma
(C) Headache is associated with IIIrd, IVth and VIth nerve paralysis
(D) Headache associated with optic neuritis
Answer: (B)
987. Which of the following best defines the “Saccade”
(A) Voluntary slow eye movements
(B) Involuntary slow eye movement
(C) Abrupt, involuntary slow eye movements
(D) Abrupt, involuntary rapid eye movements
Answer: (D)
988. All horizontal movements of eye are affected by lesions in the
(A) Cerebellum
(B) Midbrain
(C) Cerebrum
(D) Pons
Answer: (D)
989. A patient presents with diplopia with limitations of adduction in the left eye and adducting saccade in the right eye. Convergence is preserved. Most likely etiology is:
(A) Partial 3rd nerve palsy
(B) Internuclearophthalmoplegia
(C) Duane’s reactionary syndrome
(D) Absence of medial rectus muscle
Answer: (B)
990. Final centre for horizontal movements of eye is
(A) Aducent nucleus
(B) Trochlear nucleus
(C) Oculomotor nucleus
(D) Vestibular nucleus
Answer: (A)
991. Down beat nystagmus could be due to:
(A) Cerebellar lesion
(B) Arnold-Chiari malformation
(C) Optic neuritis
(D) Pontime lesion
Answer: (A, B)
992. The reciprocal inhibition of antagonist muscle upon lateral gaze is explained by
(A) Sherrington’s law
(B) Hering’s law
(C) Laplace law
(D) Hick’s law
Answer: (A)
993. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of:
(A) Right frontal lobe
(B) Right occipital lobe
(C) Left occipital lobe
(D) Left frontal lobe
Answer: (A)
994. A patient has a right homonymous hemian-opia with saccadic pursuit movements and defective optokineticnystagmus. The lesion is most likely to be in the
(A) Frontal lobe
(B) Occipital lobe
(C) Parietal lobe
(D) Temporal lobe
Answer: (C)
995. A 3 years old child with 15°esotropia management of the child will be:
(A) Refraction lesion & correction
(B) Prism cover test
(C) Surgical alignment
(D) Wait and watch
Answer: (A, C)
996. True about infantile esotropia:
(A) Presented from birth
(B) Large angle of deviation
(C) Inferior oblique muscle hyperactivity
(D) Variable angle of deviation
(E) A/W refractive error
Answer: (B, C)
997. Which of the following are features of congenital esotropia-
(A) Present since birth
(B) Abduction abnormality
(C) Inferior oblique involved
(D) Surgery is treatment of choice
(E) Small angle squint
Answer: (C, D)
998. Treatment of accommodative strabismus is
(A) Orthoptic exercises
(B) Lens implant
(C) Surgery
(D) Prism correction
Answer: (A)
999. Iris cyst are induced by
(A) Atropine
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Phenylephrine
(D) Ecothiopate
Answer: (D)
1000. Iris cysts are prevented by
(A) Atropine
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Phenylephrine
(D) Ecothiopate
Answer: (C)
1001. True regarding accommodative esotropia is
(A) Glasses are used when miotics ineffective
(B) Miotics are used when glasses are ineffective
(C) Use of both together salvage patient who does not respond to one
(D) Miotics are use in high AC/A ratio
Answer: (D)
1002. Weakness of both abduction & adduction occurs in
(A) Duane retraction syndrome type 1
(B) Duane retraction syndrome type 2
(C) Duane retraction syndrome type 3
(D) Double elevator palsy
Answer: (C)
1003. Rx of Accommodative squint in children is
(A) Surgery
(B) Occlusion of one eye
(C) Convergent exercise
(D) Correction of refractory error
Answer: (D)
1004. A 3-year –old child presents with a right convergent squint of 6 months duration. What is the appropriate management?
(A) Immediate surgical correction followed by amblyopia therapy
(B) Proper refractive correction, amblyopia therapy followed by surgical correction
(C) Prescribe spectacles and defer surgery until the child is 5 year old
(D) Botulinum toxin injection followed by occlusion
Answer: (B)
1005. Diplopia is not a presenting feature in:
(A) Manifest squint
(B) Paralytic squint
(C) Latent squint
(D) Anisometropia
Answer: (C)
1006. Manifestation of squint in children are all EXCEPT
(A) Diplopia
(B) Confusion
(C) Deviation of eye
(D) Stereopsis
Answer: (D)
1007. Uncrossed diplopia in seen in:
(A) Exotropia
(B) Exophoria
(C) Esotropia
(D) Esophoria
Answer: (C)
1008. Paralytic squint patient presents with A/E
(A) Deviation
(B) Diplopia
(C) Steriopsis
(D) Confusion
Answer: (C)
1009. A feature of paralytic squint is
(A) Detected by cover uncover test
(B) Always divergent
(C) Clinically called tropia
(D) Associated with decreased vision
Answer: (A)
1010. What is not a feature of paralytic squint
(A) Diplopia
(B) Decreased visual activity
(C) Limited movement of eye ball
(D) Change of head posture
Answer: (B)
1011. What is incorrect about paralytic squint
(A) Deviation is more on radial side
(B) Deviation is same in all directions
(C) Deviation is more on lateral side
(D) There is no deviation
Answer: (B)
1012. All are TRUE about paralytic squint, EXCEPT
(A) Head tilt
(B) Lateral deviation
(C) Diplopia
(D) Amblyopia
Answer: (D)
1013. All are true about paralytic strabismus EXCEPT
(A) Binocular diplopia
(B) False orientation
(C) Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
(D) False projection
Answer: (C)
1014. Lateral rectus palsy is characterized by:
(A) Crossed diplopia
(B) Uncrossed diplopia
(C) Suppression of eye ball
(D) Upward rotated eye ball
Answer: (B)
1015. Telecanthus meAnswer:
(A) Widened interpupillary distance
(B) Widened root of nose with normal interpupillary distance
(C) Widely separated medial orbital walls
(D) Widely separated nose and medial canthi
Answer: (B)
1016. Chalazion is/are:
(A) True meibomian cyst
(B) Mucous cyst
(C) Sebaceous cyst
(D) Cyst of hair follicule
(E) Obstruction of meibomian gland
Answer: (A, C, E)
1017. Which among the following statements is true regarding chalazion:
(A) Mucous cyst
(B) Sebaceous cyst
(C) Duet to staphylococcal infection
(D) Recurrence may imply malignancy
(E) Occlusion of Meibomian gland
Answer: (B, D, E)
1018. Treatment of chalzion :
(A) Incision & drainage
(B) Curettage
(C) Intra-lesion steroid
(D) Pressure bandage
(E) Antibiotics
Answer: (B, C, E)
1019. True about Chalazion treatment
(A) Intralesional steroid
(B) Laser
(C) Curettage
(D) I & D
(E) Medical treatment
Answer: (A, C, D,. E)
1020. A 35 year female presents with recurrent chalazion of the upper eyelid. The cureitage should be subjected tohistopathological examination to rule out which of the following?
(A) Sebaceous cell carcinoma
(B) Squamous cell carcinoma
(C) Basal cell carcinoma
(D) Epidermoid Carcinoma
Answer: (A)
1021. Recurrent chalazion is predisposed to develop
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma
(B) Basal cell carcinoma
(C) Adeno carcinoma
(D) Epidermoid Carcinoma
Answer: (C)
1022. The operation of plication of inferior lid refractors is indicated in:
(A) Senile ectropion
(B) Senile entropion
(C) Cicatrical entropion
(D) Paralytic entropion
Answer: (B)
1023. Lid lag on the ptotic side on down gaze is characteristic of
(A) Congenital ptosis
(B) Traumatic ptosis
(C) Myogenic ptosis
(D) Synkinetic ptosis
Answer: (C)
1024. Lig lag on ptotic eye on same side is caused by
(A) Neurogenic
(B) Myogenic
(C) Metabolic
(D) Traumatic ptosis
Answer: (B)
1025. Eyelid drooping is/are seen in:
(A) Damage to edinger-westphal nucleus
(B) Damage to motor part of facial nerve
(C) Damage to sympathetic nerve supply
(D) Damage to motor root of occulomotor nerve
(E) Damage to lacrimal nerve
Answer: (C, D)
1026. A patient with ptosis presents with retraction of the ptotic eye lid on chewing. This represents.
(A) Marcus Gunn Jaw Winking Syndrome
(B) Third nerve misdirection syndrome
(C) Abducent palsy
(D) Occulomotor palsy
Answer: (A)
1027. Ptosis results from trauma to which nerve
(A) VII
(B) VIII
(C) III
(D) VI
Answer: (C)
1028. Fasanella Servan operation is specifically indicated in:
(A) Congenital ptosis
(B) Steroid induced ptosis
(C) Myasthenia gravis
(D) Horner’s syndrome
Answer: (D)
1029. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in
(A) Marfan’s syndrome
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Myotonic dystrophy
(D) Kerans sayre syndrome
Answer: (A)
1030. Patient presents with intermittent weakness in proximal group of muscles, fatigubility, ptosis. Which of the following is most definite test to detect the abnormality
(A) Muscle biopsy
(B) CPK
(C) Endrophonium test
(D) EMG
Answer: (C)
1031. Ptosis with weakness of orbicularis-oculi is an early feature of:
(A) Fisher syndrome
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Eaten lambert syndrome
(D) Thyrotoxicosis
Answer: (B)
1032. A person has restricted eye movements in all directions, ptosis but no squint or diplopia. What is diagnosis:
(A) CPEO
(B) Multiple cranial nerve palsy
(C) Myasthenia gravis
(D) Orbital apex syndrome
(E) Thyroid myopathy
Answer: (A)
1033. A person has restricted eye movements in all directions, ptosis but no squint or diplopia. What is the diagnosis?
(A) Myasthenia
(B) CPEO
(C) Multiple cranial nerve palsy
(D) Thyroid myopathy
Answer: (B)
1034. Weakness of extraocular muscle may be seen in all of the following conditions except:
(A) Polymyositis
(B) Myasthenia-gravis
(C) Eaten-lambert-myasthenic syndrome
(D) Thyrotoxicosis
Answer: (A)
1035. Shanti, aged 27 yrs presented with complaints of difficulty in reading near print. There is ptosis and diplopic in all directions. She is having-
(A) III CN palsy
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Presbyopia
(D) VI CN palsy
Answer: (B)
1036. Commonest tumor of lid is
(A) Adenocarcinoma
(B) Basal cell carcinoma
(C) Malignant melanoma
(D) Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: (B)
1037. The most common malignant tumor of the eyelids is
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma
(B) Basal cell carcinoma
(C) Melanoma
(D) Adenocarcinoma
Answer: (B)
1038. Treatment of choice in basal cell carcinoma at inner canthus of eye is
(A) Radium implant
(B) Radiotherapy
(C) Chemotherapy
(D) Wide excision and reconstruction
Answer: (D)
1039. MC ocular manifestation of mumps is
(A) Dacrodenitis
(B) Chhorioretinits
(C) Anterior uveitis
(D) Memb. Conjunctivitis
Answer: (A)
1040. Crocodile tears are seen in:
(A) Frey’s syndrome
(B) Conjunctivitis
(C) Lacrimal tumour
(D) Abnormal VII nerve regeneration
Answer: (D)
1041. All are true regarding tear film except:
(A) Consists of aqueous, lipid & mucus layer
(B) Lipid layer is secreted by meibomian glands
(C) Aqueous layer is formed by filtration from blood capillaries
(D) Deficiency cause dry eye
(E) Protects the cornea from dryness
Answer: (C)
1042. Absence of tear film is seem in
(A) Conjunctivitis
(B) Lacrimal gland removal
(C) Herpes keratitis
(D) Kerato conjunctivitis sicca
Answer: (D)
1043. Mucin layer tear film deficiency occurs in:
(A) Keratoconjunctivitissicca
(B) Lacrimal gland removal
(C) Canalicular block
(D) Herpetic keratitis
Answer: (A)
1044. A two months old child presents with epiphora and regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
(B) Buphthalmos
(C) Congenital dacryocystitis
(D) Encysted mucocele
Answer: (C)
1045. Treatment of nasolacrimal duct obstruction:
(A) Syringing
(B) Probing
(C) DCR
(D) Dacryocystectomy (DCT)
(E) Antibiotic
Answer: (A, B, E)
1046. Treatment of chronic dacrocystitis:
(A) Dacrocystorhinostomy
(B) Antibiotics
(C) Probing/Syringing
(D) Massage
(E) Endoescopic DCR
Answer: (ALL)
1047. A mother noticed mucopurulent discharge from the right puncta of her 3 month old child. There is h/o watering from his right eye, t/t is:
(A) Syringing
(B) Probing with syringing
(C) Sac massage with topical antibiotics
(D) Dacryocysto-rhinostomy
Answer: (C)
1048. Epiphora is:
(A) Cerebrospinal fluid running from the nose after fracture of anterior cranial fossa
(B) An epiphenomenors of a cerebral tumor
(C) An abnormal overflow of tears due to obstruction of lacrimal duct
(D) Eversion of lower eyelid following injury
Answer: (C)
1049. Acquired nasolacrimal duct obstruction is caused by
(A) Timolol
(B) Pilocarpine
(C) Brimonidine
(D) Dorzolamide
Answer: (B)
1050. A 60 year old man presented with watering from his left eye since 1 year. Syringing revealed a patent drainage system. Rest of the ocular examination was normal. A provisional diagnosis of lacrimal pump failure was made. Confirmations of the diagnosis would be by:
(A) Dacryoscintigraphy.
(B) Dacryocystography.
(C) Pressure syringing.
(D) Canaliculus irrigation test.
Answer: (A)
1051. Most common cause of blindness in India is
(A) Trachoma
(B) Vit-A deficiency
(C) Cataract
(D) Mypopia
Answer: (C)
1052. Most common cause of blindness in children in India except:
(A) Malnutrition
(B) Ophthalmianeonatorum
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Congenital dacryocystitis
Answer: (D)
1053. Blindness in a child is most commonly due to:
(A) Keratomalacia
(B) Congenital cataract
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Injuries
Answer: (A)
1054. Most common cause of blindness in children in India is
(A) Trachoma
(B) Cataract
(C) Injury
(D) Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: (D)
1055. Which is the commonest cause of ocular morbidity in the community
(A) Cataract
(B) Refractive error
(C) Occular injury
(D) Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: (B)
1056. The commonest cause of low vision in India is:
(A) Uncorrected refractive errors
(B) Cataract
(C) Glaucoma
(D) Squint
Answer: (A)
1057. Commonest infection causing blindness in adult man:
(A) Toxocara
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Toxoplasma gondii
(D) Teniasolium
Answer: (C)
1058. According to the national programme for control of blindness (NPCB) survey (1986-1989) the highest prevalence of blindness in India is in
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Orissa
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (A)
1059. For revised NPCB cataract surgeries are approaches followed except:
(A) Uniform distribution
(B) Regular follow up
(C) Fixed place surgery treatment
(D) Mobile surgery camps
Answer: (D)
1060. Under the school eye screening programme in India, the initial vision screening of school children is done by:
(A) School teachers.
(B) Primary level health workers.
(C) Eye specialists.
(D) Medical officers.
Answer: (A)
1061. The eye condition for which the World Bank assistance was provided to the National Programme for Control of Blindness (1994-2001) is:
(A) Cataract.
(B) Refractive errors.
(C) Trachoma.
(D) Vitamin A deficiency.
Answer: (A)
1062. Founder members of vision 2020 are A/E
(A) WHO
(B) UNICEF
(C) ORBIS
(D) International Agency for prevention of blindness
Answer: (B)
1063. All of the following conditions are immediate priorities in the WHO’s “Vision-2020: The Right to sight” except”
(A) Trachoma
(B) Epidemic conjunctivitis
(C) Cataract
(D) Onchocerciasis
Answer: (B)
1064. All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goals, except:
(A) Refractive errors.
(B) Cataract.
(C) Trachoma.
(D) Glaucoma.
Answer: (D)
1065. Under the WHO ‘Vision 2020’ programme, the ‘SAFE’ strategy is adopted for which of the following diseases?
(A) Trachoma.
(B) Glaucoma.
(C) Diabetic retinopathy.
(D) Onchocerciasis.
Answer: (A)
1066. SAFE strategy for Trachoma includes all of the following except:
(A) Screening
(B) Antibiotic
(C) Face wash
(D) Environmental improvement
Answer: (A)
1067. For the field diagnosis of trachoma,, the WHO recommends that follicular and intense trachoma inflammation should be assessed in
(A) Woman aged 15-45 years
(B) Population of 10 to 28 year range
(C) Children aged 0-10 years
(D) Population above 25 years of age irrespective of sex
Answer: (C)
1068. Mass treatment with azithromycin is indicated if prevalence of trachoma follicles (TE) in 1-9 years population is more than
(A) 4%
(B) 6%
(C) 8%
(D) 10%
Answer: (D)
1069. River blindness is caused by:
(A) Drinking river water without boiling
(B) Oncocercavovulus
(C) Toxoplasma canis
(D) Glaucoma
Answer: (B)
1070. Which of the following drug is used currently for the prophylaxis of non infectious uveitis in LUMINATE programme
19. Skin pigmentation & Icthyosis like side effects are seen in
(A) Rifampcin
(B) Clofazimine
(C) Dapsone
(D) Steroid
Answer: (B)
20. A patient has Bullous Lesion; on Tzank smear
(A) langerhans cells are seen
(B) Acontholysis
(C) leucocytosis
(D) Absens of melanin pigment
Answer: (B)
21. Gonococcus resistant structure is
(A) Urethra
(B) Testis
(C) Fallopian Tube
(D) Ampulla
Answer: (B)
22. Underlying internal malignancy is not shown by
(A) Acanthosis nigricans & Annular ertythema
(B) Bullous pyoderma & migratory nectrotizing
(C) Granuloma annlure
(D) Erythema gyratum repens
Answer: (C)
23. All of the following diseases may be caused by staphylococcus except :
(A) Impetigo
(B) Erysipelas
(C) Ecthyma
(D) Scalded skin syndrome
Answer: (B)
24. Donovanosis is caused by :
(A) Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis
(B) T. pertunae
(C) Chalmydia trachomatis
(D) Haemophillus-ducreyi
Answer: (A)
25. Skin biopsy in leprosy is characterized by :
(A) Pariappendegeal bacilli
(B) Pariappendegeal Iymphocytosis
(C) Perivascular lymphocytosis
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (D)
26. Skin smear reports negative following pattern of leprosy
(A) Indeterminate leprosy
(B) Neuritic type leprosy
(C) Lepromatous leprosy
(D) Border line leprosy
Answer: (B)
27.All of the following lesions may be seen in leprosy except :
(A) Erythematous macules
(B) Vesicles
(C) Hypopigemented patches
(D) Flat & raised patches
Answer: (B)
28. A 25 year old female has paltal ulcers & skin blisters, most likely diagnosis is : E:
(A) Pemphigus vulgarisis
(B) Pemphigus follacious
(C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(D) Pemphigoid
Answer: (A)
29. Target (Iris) lesion seen in :
(A) Urticaria
(B) Erythema multiformae
(C) Scabies
(D) Licken planus
Answer: (B)
30. A child has hypopigmented patch on the check and no sensory loss & no scale diagnosis is :
(A) Indeterminate leprosy
(B) Scabies
(C) Pityriasis alba
(D) Alopecia aeriata
Answer: (A)
31. Itchy polygonal violaceous papularlesion is seen in :
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Pitriasis rosea
(D) Pitriasis rubra pilaris
Answer: (A)
32. Least common site involvement in psoriasis is
(A) Scalp
(B) Nail involvement
(C) CNS involvement
(D) Arthritis
Answer: (C)
33. Gonococcus is not involved in :
(A) Testis
(B) Fallopian tube
(C) Cervix
(D) Ovary
Answer: (A)
34. All of the following are true about syphilis except :
(A) VDRL is sensistive but NOT specific
(B) Infection leads to life long immunity
(C) Ig M & IgA
(D) Both b and c
Answer: (D)
35. Commonest cause of air born dermatitis in India is :
(A) Parthenium
(B) Crysophillous
(C) Calotropis
(D) Rothrangal
Answer: (A)
36. Patch test is read after :
(A) 2 hours
(B) 2 days
(C) 2 weeks
(D) 4 weeks
Answer: (B)
37. Atopic dermatitis is diagnosed by :
(A) Patch test
(B) Clinical examination
(C) Wood’s lamp
(D) ↑IgE
Answer: (B)
38. Cutancous tuberculous secondary to under lying tissue is called as :
(A) Scrofuloderma
(B) Lupus vulgaris
(C) Tuberculous verrucosa cutis
(D) Spina-ventosa
Answer: (A)
39. Satllite lesion are seen in the following type of leprosy :
(A) Tuberculoid-leprosy
(B) Lepromatous leprosy
(C) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
(D) Histoid leprosy
Answer: (C)
40. Thalidomide is the drug of choice for :
(A) Lepra type I reaction
(B) Lepra type II reaction
(C) Nerve abscess
(D) Nerve-excision
Answer: (B)
41. Permethrin is used in the treatment of :
(A) Scabies
(B) Leprosy
(C) Body louse
(D) Leishmaniasis
Answer: (A)
42. Chancroid may be caused by :
(A) T. Pallidium
(B) G. donovari
(C) Chlamydia trachomatis
(D) Herpes virus – hominis
Answer: (D)
43. Cicaterical alopecia is seen in :
(A) Taenia-capitis
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Discoid lupus erethroamatosis
(D) Alopesia-areata
Answer: (C)
44. True about endotracheal intubation is :
(A) It reduces the normal anatomical dead space
(B) It produces ↓ resistance to respiration
(C) Sub-glattic oedema is the most common complication
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
45. Neither raised nor depressed is:
(A) Macule
(B) Plaque
(C) Nodule
(D) Papule
Answer: (A)
46. Most common type of leprosy in India:
(A) BT
(B) TT
(C) LL
(D) BL
Answer: (B)
47. Oral examination is done in case of:
(A) Peutz jegher syndrome
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Plummer Vinson syndrome
Answer: (A)
48. Genetic predisposition is seen in which disease:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Pemphigus vulgaris
(D) Epidermolysis Bullosa
Answer: (D)
49. Following are signs of internal malignancy except:
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Acanthosis nigricans
(C) Clubbing
(D) Dermatomyositis
Answer: (A)
50. Casal’s paint necklace is caused by:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Pellagra
(C) Pernicious anemia
(D) SLE
Answer: (B)
51. Changes of squamous cell carcinoma are seen in:
(A) Seborrhoeic keratosis
(B) Bowen’s disease
(C) Lichen planus
(D) DLE
Answer: (B)
52. In alopecia areata, seen is:
(A) Exclamatory mark hair
(B) Scaring
(C) Fungal infection
(D) Traumatic
Answer: (A)
53. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are:
(A) High ulnar, low median
(B) High median, low ulnar
(C) Triple nerve palsy
(D) High radial, low median
Answer: (A)
54. Growth phase of hair is:
(A) Anagen
(B) Metagen
(C) Telogen
(D) None
Answer: (A)
55. Linear lesion is seen in:
(A) Sporotrichosis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Pemphigus
Answer: (A)
56. In Tzank smear multinucleated cells are seen in:
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Molluscum contagiosum
(D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Answer: (A)
57. Jarish herxheimer reaction is seen in early cases of :
(A) Syphilis
(B) Gonorrhoea
(C) LGV
(D) Granuloma iguinale
Answer: (A)
58. In secondary syphilis all are seen except :
(A) Condyloma lata
(B) Interstitial keratitis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Proteinuria
Answer: (B)
59. Most characteristic feature of lichen planus is :
(A) Thinning of nail plate is most common
(B) Non scarring alopecia
(C) Violaceous lesions on skin and mucous membrane
(D) Wickham striae
Answer: (C)
60. syphilis, true about rash is :
(A) Pruritic
(B) Vesicular
(C) Asymptomatic
(D) Tender
Answer: (C)
61. Leprosy does not involves:
(A) CNS
(B) Testes
(C) Skin
(D) Cornea
Answer: (A)
62. The most characteristic finding in lichen planus is :
(A) Civatte bodies
(B) Basal cell degeneration
(C) Thinning of nail plate
(D) Violaceous lesions
Answer: (B)
63. Sub-epidemal splitting is not found in :
(A) Bullous pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(D) Burns
Answer: (B)
64. Lisch nodule is seen in :
(A) Von Recklinghausens disease
(B) Lupus vulgaris
(C) Leprosy
(D) LGV
Answer: (A)
65. Koebner’s phenomenon is characteristic of :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus vulgaris
(C) Pityriasis rosea
(D) Lupus vulgaris
Answer: (A)
66. Erysipeloid is transmitted by :
(A) Droplet
(B) Feco-oral
(C) Mosquito bite
(D) Contact with animal
Answer: (D)
67. In leprosy which of the following is not seen :
(A) Abnormal EMG
(B) Voluntary muscle wasting
(C) Decreased Proprioception
(D) Decreased response to tactile sensation
Answer: (C)
68. A 85 yr old woman with Nikolsky sign-ve, blisters on thigh & trunk, lesions come on & off. What is the cause :
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Answer: (B)
69. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :
(A) Basement membrane
(B) Intercellular substance
(C) Cell nucleus
(D) Keratin
Answer: (B)
70. Causative factor for acne are following except :
(A) Androgen
(B) Only food
(C) Bacterial contamination
(D) Hypercornification of duct
Answer: (B)
71. True about drug induced SLE is :
(A) CNS manifestation are common
(B) Renal involvement is common
(C) Antihistone antibodies are found
(D) All with antibodies progress to lupus
Answer: (C)
72. Eczema herpeticum is caused by :
(A) Herpes simplex virus
(B) Varicella
(C) CMV
(D) HPV
Answer: (A)
73. Which of the following statements is true regarding Pityriasis Rubra Pilaris :
(A) Isolated patches of normal skin are found
(B) Cephalocaudal distribution
(C) I.V. cyclosporine is effective
(D) More common in females
Answer: (A)
74. Basal cell degeneration seen in :
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Pemphigus
(D) None
Answer: (A)
75. Recurrent Balanoposthitis seen in :
(A) DM
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Smoking
(D) Alcohol
Answer: (A)
76. True about corneum lucidum:
(A) Sadwithched b/w s. spinosum& s. granulosum
(B) Sandwitched b/w s. conrneum& s. granulosum
(C) Contain hair follicle
(D) Also K/a prickle cell layer
(E) Contain degenerated cells
Answer: (B, E)
77. All statements are true regarding skin except
(A) Skin is stratified squamous epithelium
(B) Melanocyte &merkel cells are immigrant cells
(C) Keratin filaments are a hall m ark of epidermal cells
(D) Keratinization process cause hydration of cells
(E) Spines of spinous cells are formed from house keeping organelle.
Answer: (D, E)
78. Which layer of epidermis is underdeveloped in the VLBW infants in the initial 7 days:
(A) Stratum germinativum
(B) Stratum granulosum
(C) Stratum lucidum
(D) Stratum corneum
Answer: (D)
79. Normal turnover time of epidermis (skin doubling time) is
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks.
Answer: (B)
80. Melanocytes are present in :
(A) Stratum corneum
(B) Stratum basale
(C) Stratum granulosum
(D) Dermis
Answer: (B)
81. The correct sequence of cell cycle is:
(A) G0-G1-S-G2-M
(B) G0-G1-G2-S-M
(C) G0-M-G2-S-G1
(D) G0-G1-S-M-G2
Answer: (A)
82. Lines of Blaschko represents:
(A) lines along lymphatics
(B) Lines along blood vessels
(C) Lines along nerves
(D) Lines of development
Answer: (D)
83. Neither raised nor depressed is
(A) Macule
(B) Plaque
(C) Nodule
(D) Papule
Answer: (A)
84. A flat discolouration on skin as 1 cm is called :
(A) Macule
(B) Plague
(C) Boil
(D) Papule
(E) Wheal
Answer: (A)
85. Which among is not a primary skin lesion of :
(A) Plaque
(B) Macule
(C) Abscess
(D) None
Answer: (C)
86. Acne vulgaris is caused by-
(A) Staph aureus
(B) Diphtheroids
(C) Sweat gland hyperplasia
(D) Obstruction to pilosebaceous duct
Answer: (D)
87. Causative factor for acne are all except:
(A) Androgen
(B) Only food
(C) Bacterial contamination
(D) Hypercornification of duct
(E) Lipophilic yeast
Answer: (B)
88. Causative factor for acne are following except
(A) Androgen
(B) Only food
(C) Keratin
(D) Cell nucleus
Answer: (B)
89. Comedones are characteristics of –
(A) Acne vulgaris
(B) Acne rosasea
(C) SLE
(D) Adenoma sebaeceum
Answer: (A)
90. 19 years old girl has multiple papulopustular erythematous lesions on face and neck, the likely diagnosis is
(A) Acne rosacae
(B) Acne Vulgaris
(C) PityriasisVersicolour
(D) Lupus Vulgaris
Answer: (B)
91. Treatment of acne –
(A) 13 cisretionol
(B) Minocycline/Tetracycline
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Dapsone
(E) Rifampicin
Answer: (A, B, C)
92. Treatment of acne vulgaris may include all except-
(A) Cryotherapy
(B) Oestrogens
(C) UV light
(D) Androgens
Answer: (D)
93. A patient presented with multiple nodulocystic lesions on the face. The drug of choice is :
(A) Retinoids
(B) Antibiotics
(C) Steroids
(D) UV light
Answer: (A)
94. Treatment of nodulocystic acne is
(A) Erythromycin
(B) Tetracycline
(C) Isoretinonine (Retinoic acid)
(D) Steroids
Answer: (C)
95. Recalcitrant Pustular Acne is treated by
(A) Oral Erythromycin
(B) Oral Tetracycline
(C) Steroid
(D) Retinoid
Answer: (D)
96. Treatment of choice for Acne vulgaris
(A) Minocycline for inflammatory acne
(B) Retinoids for comedonal acne
(C) Etretinate
(D) Rifampicin
(E) Dapsone
Answer: (A, B)
97. A 24- year-old unmarried women has multiple nodular cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be :
(A) Acitretin
(B) Isotretinoin
(C) Doxycycline
(D) Azithromycin
Answer: (B)
98. Most common side effects of retinoids is
(A) Headache
(B) Skin rashes
(C) Photosensitivity
(D) Diarrhoea
Answer: (B)
99. A teenager girl with moderate acne is also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be :
(A) Oral isotretinon
(B) Oral acitretin
(C) Oral minocycline
(D) Cyproterone acetate
Answer: (D)
100. A 17 year old girl with Acne has been taking a drug fro the last two years. Show now presents with blue black pigmentation of nails. The likely medication causing the above pigmentation is
(A) Tetracycline
(B) Minocycline
(C) Doxycycline
(D) Azithromycin
Answer: (B)
101. Acne vulgaris is due to involvement of:
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Eccrine glands
(C) Pilosebaceous glands
(D) Apocrine glands
(E) Sweat glands
Answer: (C)
102. Regarding Fordyce spots:
(A) Represent internal maliganancy
(B) Ectopic sebaceous glands
(C) Present in axillae
(D) Found in healthy people
(E) Area erythematous
Answer: (B, D)
103. Fordyce’s disease mainly involves :
(A) Lips
(B) Buccal mucosa
(C) Neck
(D) Trunk
Answer: (A)
104. Rhinophyma is (a complication of) –
(A) Glandular form of acne rosacea
(B) Form of acne vulgaris
(C) Affects the scalp
(D) A form of dermatofibroma
Answer: (A)
105. Rhnopyma is (Potate nose) –
(A) Septal deviation of nose
(B) Sweat gland hypertrophy
(C) Mucous gland hypertrophy
(D) Sebaceous gland hypertrophy
Answer: (D)
106. A 40 year old woman presents with a 2 year old h/o erythematous papulopustular lesions on convexities of the face. There in a background of erytherma&telengiec-tasia. The most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Acne valgris
(B) Rosacea
(C) SLE
(D) Polymorphic light eruption
Answer: (B)
107. Sweat glands of palm can be differentiated from others by the following:
(A) Apocrine glands
(B) High chloride content
(C) Secretion stimulated by emotional stimuli
(D) Chemical mediators control the secretion.
Answer: (C)
108. All are false except
(A) Sweat glands are most numerous on back & least on sole
(B) Palm & sole sweat glands are last to appear
(C) Sweat duct produce isotonic sweat
(D) Hypothalmicpreoptic nucleus has key role in sweating
(E) Gonadectomy of adults impair apocrine sweat secretion.
Answer: (D)
109. True about apocrine gland is A/E
(A) Modified sweat gland
(B) Modified sebaceous gland
(C) Preset in groin & axilla
(D) Infection is k/a hydrdenitis suppurativa
Answer: (B)
110. Bromhidrosis may be produced by intake of the following except:
(A) Asafoetida
(B) Ginger
(C) Onions
(D) Garlic
Answer: (B)
111. Crystalinemiliaria is due to obstruction to-
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Sweat glands
(C) Hair roots
(D) Accessory sweat glands
Answer: (B)
112. Miliaria is a disorder of :
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Apocrine glands
(C) Merocrine glands
(D) Holocrine Glands
(E) Eccrine Glands
Answer: (E)
113. In Fox Fordyce disease, true is/are:
(A) Common in adult woman
(B) Bullous lesions are common
(C) Common in areola & axilla
(D) Associated with other malignancies
Answer: (A)
114. Anagen phase of the hair indicates :
(A) The phase of activity and growth
(B) The phase of transition
(C) The phase of resting
(D) The phase of degeneration
Answer: (A)
115. Growth phase of hair is
(A) Anagen
(B) Metagen
(C) Telogen
(D) None
Answer: (A)
116. The time period that elapses between the physic emotional stress and the hair loss is about-
(A) 21 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months
Answer: (C)
117. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is :
(A) Androgenetic alopecia
(B) Telogen effluvium
(C) Anagen effluvium
(D) Alopecia areata
Answer: (B)
118. A 30 year old female developed diffuse hair loss 3 months after delivery of her first child. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Androgenic alopecia
(B) Endocrinal alopecia
(C) Telogen effluvium
(D) SLE
Answer: (C)
119. Cicatrising alopecia with prerifollicular blue-gray patches hyperpigmentation is most commonly associated with:
(A) Pitting of nails
(B) Whitish lesions in the buccal mucosa
(C) Arthritis
(D) Discoid plaques in the face
Answer: (B)
120. Cicatrisial alopecia is seen in:
(A) DLE
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Alopecia areata
(D) Lichen planus
(E) SLE
Answer: (A, D, E)
121.Cicatrial Alopecia is seen in:
(A) TeniaCapitis
(B) Psoriasis
(C) DLE
(D) Alopecia Aereta
Answer: (C)
122. Pseudo pelade is synonym of-
(A) Alopeciasteatoides
(B) Premature alopecia
(C) Traction
(D) Cicatricial alopecia
Answer: (D)
123. Cicatricial alopecia is seen in:
(A) DLE
(B) SLE
(C) Secondary syphilis
(D) Psoriasis
(E) Lichen planus
Answer: (A, B, E)
124. Scarring alopecia is seen in:
(A) T. capitis
(B) Androgenic alopecia
(C) Alopecia areata
(D) Lichen planus
Answer: (D)
125. Non cicatrical alopecia is present in-
(A) Scleroderma
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Parva virus
Answer: (C)
126. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Discoid lupus erythematosus
(C) Alopecia areata
(D) Lupus vulgaris
Answer: (C)
127. Alopecia aerata is :
(A) Cicattricial scar
(B) Non cicatricial scar
(C) Fungal infection
(D) None
Answer: (B)
128. Non-circatrical alopecia is seen in
(A) Alopecia aerate
(B) Androgeneticalopeia
(C) Pseudopalade
(D) DLE
(E) SLE
Answer: (A, B, E)
129. Alopecia aerate is presumed to be:
(A) Androgenic in nature
(B) Autoimmune in etiology
(C) Infective in etiology
(D) Part of lichenoid in spectrum
Answer: (B)
130. Exclamation mark hairs is seen in:
(A) Alopecia areata
(B) Traumatic alopecia
(C) Lichen planus
(D) All
Answer: (A)
131. In alopecia areata, seen is:
(A) Exclamatory mark hair
(B) Scaring
(C) Fungal infection
(D) Traumatic
Answer: (A)
132. Exclamation mark alopecia is a feature of:
(A) Telogen effluvium
(B) Androgenic alopecia
(C) Alopecia aerata
(D) Alopecia mucinosa
Answer: (C)
133. Male with patchy loss of scalp hair and grey hair in the eyebrows and beard diagnosis is
(A) Anagen effluvium
(B) Alopecia areata
(C) Telogen effluvium
(D) Androgenic alopecia
Answer: (B)
134. Alopecia areata is treated by-
(A) Minoxidil
(B) Tranquilizers
(C) Whitfields ointment
(D) Parenternal penicillin
Answer: (A)
135. Diagnosis of a man with diffuse hair loss involving crown & frontal scalp with maintenance of frontal hair line
(A) Alopecia areata
(B) Anagen effluvium
(C) Male pattern baldness
(D) Female pattern baldness
Answer: (D)
136. Contraindicated in Androgenic Alopecia :
(A) Testosterone
(B) Minoxidil
(C) Cyproterone
(D) Finasteride
Answer: (A)
137. Nail are involved in
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Pemphgoid
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Answer: (C)
138. Nail is involved in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Fungal infection
(D) Alopecia
(E) Viral infection
Answer: (A, B, C)
139. Nail involvement is not a feature of
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichenplanus
(C) Dermatophytosis
(D) DLE
Answer: (D)
140. Nail involvement is not a feature of
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Drug induced lupus erythematous
(C) Dermatophytosis/Tenia
(D) Lichen Planus
Answer: (B)
141. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Tineaunguium
(D) Alopecia areata
Answer: (A)
142. Wrong statement is:
(A) Mees line in Arsenic poisoning
(B) Pterygium of nails in Lichen Planus
(C) Oncholysis in Psoriasis
(D) Koilonychia in Megaloblastic Anemia (B12 def.)
Answer: (D)
143. Pitting of nails is seen in:
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Phemphigus
(D) Arsenic poisoning
(E) Leprosy
Answer: (B)
144. Pitting nail dystrophy seen in:
(A) Dermatophytic infection
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Seborrhic dermatitis
Answer: (B)
145. Oil drop is seen in:
(A) Psoriasis of nails
(B) Lichen planus of nails
(C) Clubbing
(D) T. Unguium
Answer: (A)
146. Which of the following is wrong statements:
(A) Koilonychia in Vit B12 deficiency
(B) Oncholysis in Psoriasis
(C) Mees lines in Arsenic poisoning
(D) Pterygium of nailis in Lichen Planus
Answer: (A)
147. Koenen’speriungal fibroma is seen in
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Neurofibromatosis
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Alopecia aerate
Answer: (A)
148. Tineaungum effects
(A) Nail fold
(B) Nail plate
(C) Joints
(D) Inter digital space
Answer: (B)
149. A Patient presented with yellowish discoloration and thickening of nails. He also has tunneling of 2 toe and 1 Finger nails. Diagnosis can be done by
(A) Wood’s Lamp
(B) KOH. Mount
(C) Biopsy
(D) Trank Smear
Answer: (B)
150. Hyperpigmentation is not seen in:
(A) Addision’s disease
(B) Cushing’s Disease
(C) Graves Disease
(D) Hypothyroidism (Myxedema)
Answer: (D)
151. Hyperpigmented lesions are
(A) Pityriasisalba
(B) Melanoma
(C) Naevusanaemicus
(D) Dyskeratosis congenital
(E) Lentigines lichen planus
Answer: (B, D, E)
152. Which of the following is/are not the cause of hypopigmentation:
(A) Leprosy
(B) Pinta
(C) Syphilis
(D) Pityriasisalba
(E) None
Answer: (E)
153. Hypopigmentation is/are seen in:
(A) Vitiligo
(B) Pityriasisversicolor
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Melasma
(E) Scleroderma
Answer: (D)
154. Hypopigmented patches can be seen in :
(A) Becker naevus
(B) Freckles
(C) Nevus Ito
(D) Nevus Ota
(E) Nevus anemicus
Answer: (E)
155. Hypo-depigmented lesion seen in:
(A) Naevas Ito
(B) Naevusdepigmentosa
(C) Naevus Ota
(D) Naevusanaemicus
(E) Freckles
Answer: (B & D)
156. A newborn child presents with solitary white well defined hypopigmented patch on this right thigh. Diagnosis is:
(A) Piebaldism
(B) Albinism
(C) Nevus achromicus
(D) Acralvitiligo
Answer: (C)
157. True about vitiligo are all except
(A) Genetic predisposition is known
(B) Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis
(C) PUVA-B is used for treatment
(D) Topical-steroids give good results.
Answer: (B)
158. An increased incidence of vitiligo is found in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Nutritional deficiency
(C) Old age
(D) Diabetes mellitus
Answer: (D)
159. In a patch of vitiligo –
(A) Melanin synthesis is inhibited
(B) Melanosomes are absent
(C) Melanocytes are absent
(D) Melanocytes are reduced
Answer: (C)
160. Psoralen-A is used in the treatment of –
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Vitiligo
(C) Pityriasisalba
(D) Icthyosis
Answer: (B)
161. Vitiligovulvaris, best treatment is :
(A) PUVA
(B) Steroids
(C) Coaltar
(D) All
Answer: (A)
162. Vitiligovulvaris, treatment is
(A) PUVA
(B) Steroids
(C) Coaltar
(D) All
Answer: (D)
163. Pityriasisrosea true
(A) Self limiting
(B) Chronic relapsing
(C) Life threatening infection (autoimmune disease)
(D) Caused by dermatophytes
Answer: (A)
164. ‘Fir-tree’ type of distribution is seen in-
(A) PityriasisRosea
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Measles
(D) Secondary syphilis
Answer: (A)
165. Which viral association is found in pityriasisrosea :
(A) HHV 7
(B) CMV
(C) Vericella Zoster
(D) E B V
Answer: (A)
166. Annular herald (mother) patch is seen in
(A) Psoriasis
(B) P. alba
(C) P. rosea
(D) Nocardiasis
Answer: (C)
167. A 16 year old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple erythematous annular lesions with a collarette of scales at periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Pityriasisversicolor
(B) Pityriasisalba
(C) ityriasis rosacea
(D) Pityriasisrubrapilaris
Answer: (C)
168. Photosensitive lichenoid drug eruption is seen in _____therapy :
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Tetracycline (old)
(C) Gold
(D) Streptomycin
Answer: (C)
169. A patient of hypertension on ACE inhibitors developed rose asking erruptions. True statement regarding this situation is
(A) Drug may be the cause and discontinuation may improve the skin condition
(B) High dose steroids are needed initially
(C) ACE inhibitors are safe and cannot lead to skin erruptions.
(D) Drug may be the cause discontinuation is not required
Answer: (A)
170. TineaVersicolour is caused by:
(A) E. Flaccosum
(B) Malassezia Furfur
(C) T. rubrum
(D) T. Schonleini
Answer: (B)
171. An adult presents with oval scaly hypopigmented macules over chest and back. The diagnosis is
(A) Leprosy
(B) Lupus Vulgaris
(C) PityraisisVersicolour
(D) Lichen Planus
Answer: (C)
172. A 24 year old man had multiple, small hypopigmented macules on the upper chest and back for the last three months. The macules were circular, arranged around follicles and many had coalesced to form large sheets. The surface of the macules showed fine scaling. He had similar lesions one year ago which subsided with treatment. The most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis is;
(A) Potassium hydroxide preparation of scales
(B) Slit skin smear form discrete macules
(C) Tzanck test
(D) Skin biopsy of coalesced macules
Answer: (A)
173. All of the following is given for the treatment for Pityriasisversicoler Except:
(A) Ketoconazole
(B) Griseofulvin
(C) Clotrimazole
(D) Selenium sulphate
Answer: (B)
174. Griseofulvin is not useful in one of the following.
(A) Tineacapitis
(B) Tineacruris
(C) Tineaversicolor
(D) Tineapedis
Answer: (C)
175. Treatment of tineaversicolor –
(A) Clotrimazole
(B) Sod. thiosulphate
(C) Selenium Sulphide
(D) Miconazole
(E) All of the above
Answer: (E)
176. The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasisversicolar :
(A) Ketoconazole
(B) Meteronidazole
(C) Griseofulvin
(D) Chloroquine
Answer: (A)
177. Babloo around 5 to 10 year boy presents with multiple small hypopigmented scaly macule patch on check. Some of his classmates also have similar lesions. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Pityriasisrosea
(B) Pityriasisversicolour
(C) Indeterinate leprosy
(D) Pityriasisalba
Answer: (D)
178. A 5 year boy has recurrent multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on his face. The most probable clinical diagnosis is :
(A) Ptyriaisversicolor
(B) Indeterminate leprosy
(C) Ptyriasisalba
(D) Acrofacialvitiligo
Answer: (C)
179. True about pitryiasis alba :
(A) No active treatment required
(B) Common in elderly
(C) Variant of vitiligo
(D) Common over the face
(E) Presents as scaly, whitish macules
Answer: (A, D, E)
180. Which of the following statements is true regarding PityriasisRubraPilaris :
(A) Isolated patches of normal skin are found
(B) Cephalocaaudal distribution
(C) I.V. cyclosporine is effective and 1st line drug
(D) More common in females
(E) Methotrexate is effective
Answer: (A, B, E)
181. A boy comes from Bihar with non-anesthetic hypopigmentedatropic patch over face, diagnosis is
(A) P. alba
(B) P. versicolour
(C) Indeterminate leprosy
(D) Borderline leprosy
Answer: (C)
182. Woods lamp used in diagnosis of :
(A) P. versicolor
(B) Vitiligo
(C) Prophyria
(D) Psoriasis
(E) Lichen Planus
Answer: (A, B, C)
183. Skin pigmentation is caused by:
(A) Methotrexate
(B) Dactinomycin
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) Busulphan
Answer: (D)
184. Rain drop pigmentation is seen in
(A) Chronic lead poisoning
(B) Chronic Arsenic poisoning
(C) Chronic Mercury poisoning
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
185. State like discoloration of the skin is caused by all these drugs except –
(A) Chlorpromazine
(B) Minocycline
(C) Amiodarone
(D) Thiacetazone
Answer: (D)
186. ‘Itch is disease’ is true for-
(A) Atopic dermatitis
(B) Insect bites
(C) Seborrheic dermatitis
(D) Tineacruris
Answer: (A)
187. Characteristic feature of atopic dermatitis is
(A) Pruritus
(B) Dennie’s Lines
(C) Scalling skin (Lichenification)
(D) Rash
Answer: (A)
188. Minor clinical feature in diagnosis of atopic dermatitis A/E-
(A) Dry skin
(B) Pruritus
(C) Morgagnianfold
(D) Pitriasisalba
(E) Dermographism
Answer: (B)
189. Dennie Morgan fold is seen in –
(A) Mastocytosis
(B) Seborrhoic dermatitis
(C) Sarcoidosis
(D) Atopic dermatitis
Answer: (D)
190. Commonest site of Atopic dermatitis is-
(A) Scalp
(B) Elbow
(C) Trunk
(D) Ante cubital fossa
Answer: (D)
191. Spongiosis is seen in :
(A) Acute eczema
(B) Lichen Planus
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Pemphigus
Answer: (A)
192. Atopic Dermatitis is diagnosed by:
(A) Patch test
(B) Wood Lamp
(C) Clinical Examination
(D) -IgE
Answer: (C)
193. A 3yr old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces. His mother has a history of bronchial asthma. Diagnosis could be
(A) Atopic dermatitis
(B) Contact dermatitis
(C) Seborrhic dermatitis
(D) Infantile eczematous dermatitis
Answer: (A)
194. An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs, mother has history of bronchial asthma, the probable diagnosis is
(A) Air borne contact dermatitis
(B) Atopic dermatitis
(C) Seborraehic dermatitis
(D) Infectious eczematous dermatitis
Answer: (B)
195. Rakesh, a y-year-old boy had itchy, excoriated papules on the forehead and the exposed parts of the arms and legs for 3 years. The disease was most severe in the rainy season and improved completely in winter. Most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Insect the hypersensitivity
(B) Scabies
(C) Urticaria
(D) Atopic dermatitis
Answer: (D)
196. A 25 year old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema contact urticarial, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from :
(A) Seborrheic dermatitis
(B) Atopic dermatitis
(C) Airborne contact dermatitis
(D) Nummular dermatitis
Answer: (B)
197. Coin shaped eczema is :
(A) Nummular eczema
(B) Atopic eczema
(C) Infantile eczema
(D) Endogenous eczema
Answer: (A)
198. Eczema herpeticum seen with
(A) HSV
(B) EBV
(C) CMV
(D) VZV
(E) HPV
Answer: (A)
199. Kaposi’s varicelliform eruption seen in :
(A) Darrier disease
(B) Varicella rosea
(C) Atopic dermatitis
(D) Mumps
Answer: (D, A)
200. After hepatitis B vaccination child with allergic family history and pruritis involving face &convexities developed numerous umblicated vesicles; which became pustular&haemorhagic& crusted. After 2 days child developed high fever and lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is
(A) Secondary infected atopic dermatitis
(B) Molluscumcontagiosum
(C) Eczema herpaticum
(D) Eczema vaccinatum
Answer: (C)
201. Most common precipitant of contact dermatitis is
(A) Gold
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Iron
Answer: (B)
202. Commonest metal causing skin hypersensitivity-
(A) Nickel
(B) Cu
(C) Iron
(D) Brass
Answer: (A)
203. Most common cause of allergic contact dermatitis in Indian female is
(A) Vegetables
(B) Nail polish
(C) Detergents
(D) Dyes
Answer: (C)
204. Commonest cause of air borne contact dermatitis in India is:
(A) Parthenium
(B) Garden grass
(C) Calotropis/Crysophillus
(D) Yellow oleander
(E) Dust
Answer: (A)
205. In India, the plant which causes dermatitis most commonly is:
(A) Parthenium grass
(B) Cotton fibers
(C) Poison Ivy
(D) Ragweed
Answer: (A)
206. A female has hypopigmented lesion on centre of forehead drug, responsible is:
(A) Hydroquinone
(B) Mono benzene metabolite of hydroquinone
(C) Para tetra butyl catechol
(D) Para tetra butyl phenol
Answer: (D)
207. Berloque dermatitis is due to contact with-
(A) Metals
(B) Cosmetics
(C) Food
(D) Plants
Answer: (B)
208. A 55-year-old male, with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and hypertension, developed severe air-borne contact dermatitis. The most appropriate drug for his treatment would be:
(A) Systemic corticosteroids
(B) Thalidomide
(C) Azathioprine
(D) Cyclosporine
Answer: (C)
209. A 27year old male has itchy, excoriated papules on forehead and exposed parts of arms and legs for 3 years. The disease was most severe in rainy season and improved completely in winters. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Scabies
(B) Urticaria
(C) Atopic dermatitis
(D) Insect bite hypersensitivity
Answer: (D)
210. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
(A) Skin biopsy
(B) Patch test
(C) Prick test
(D) Estimation of serum IgE levels
Answer: (B)
211. Diagnostic method of choice in contact dermatitis
(A) Clinical examination
(B) Skin Biopsy
(C) Tzank Smear
(D) Patch Test
Answer: (D)
212. Patch testing is done for :
(A) Atopic dermatitis
(B) Irritant contact dermatitis
(C) Allergic contact dermatitis
(D) Discoid eczema
Answer: (C)
213. Patch test is a type of:
(A) Immediate hypersensitivity
(B) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
(C) Immune complex mediate hypersensitivity
(D) Delayed type hypersensitivity
Answer: (D)
214. Skin test can be done for which hypersensitivity reactions:
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Answer: (A, D)
215. Patch test is read after:
(A) 2 hours
(B) 2 days
(C) 2 weeks
(D) 2 months
Answer: (B)
216. All are true/except regarding patch test
(A) Diagnose ABCD
(B) Read after 48 hours
(C) Angry back 1/t false negative test
(D) Reading is delayed in neomycin
(E) T.R.U.E test
Answer: (C)
217. Morbilliform eruptions is been in:
(A) Scarlet fever
(B) Rubella
(C) Toxic shock syndrome
(D) Measles
(E) Mumps
Answer: (B)
218. All may lead to hives and wheels except
(A) Cold
(B) Hepatitis C
(C) Serum Sickness
(D) Typhoid Fever
Answer: (D)
219. A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exertion, walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Chronic idiopathic utricaria
(B) Heat urticaria
(C) Solar urticaria
(D) Cholinergic urticaria
Answer: (D)
220. A patient gets recurrent urticarial while doing exercise and on exposure to sunlight. Which of the following is most like cause:
(A) Chronic Idiopathic Utricaria
(B) Heat urticaria
(C) Solar urticaria
(D) Cholinergic urticaria
Answer: (C)
221. A 9 year-old has multiple itchy erythematous wheals all over the body for 2 days. There is no respiratory difficulty. Which is the best treatment?
(A) Antihelmithics
(B) Systemic corticosteroids
(C) Antihistamines
(D) Adrenaline
Answer: (C)
222. Darriers sign is seen in:
(A) Xenodermapigmentosa
(B) Urticariapigmentosa
(C) Herpes zoster
(D) Glucogonoma
Answer: (B)
223. A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheat, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Fixed drug eruption
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Urticariapigmentosa
(D) Urticarial vasculitis
Answer: (C)
224. All are true regarding hereditary angioedema, except?
(A) Dysfunction of enzyme is most common cause
(B) Enzyme involved in C1 INH
(C) CI inhibitor targets Hageman factor
(D) Complement C4 & C2 decrease
(E) Bradykinin level decrease during attack
Answer: (A)
225. A person present with recurrent swelling on face and lips due to emotional stress, cause is
(A) CI esterase inhibitor deficiency
(B) Allergy
(C) Anaphylaxis
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
226. A patient presents with history of episodic painful edema of face and larynx and abdominal pain associated with stress. Which of the following is likely to be deficient
(A) Complement C3
(B) Complement C5
(C) CI Esterase Inhibitor
(D) Properidin
Answer: (C)
227. Immediately after eating a man develops swelling of face and lips, respiratory distress, intense pruiritis, hypotension and feeling of impending doom. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Angioneurotic Edema
(B) Anaphylaxis
(C) Myocardial Infarction
(D) Food stuck in throat
Answer: (B)
228. Laboratory evaluation of a patient with recurrent lip edema shows decreased C4 and C1INH (quantity & function) with normal C1q. Diagnosis is
(A) Hereditary angioedema type II
(B) Hereditary angioedema type I
(C) Acquired AE type II
(D) Acquired AE type I
Answer: (B)
229. Not true about angioneurotic edema?
(A) Pitting edema of face, lips and mucous membrane
(B) CI Esterase inhibitor deficiency can cause it
(C) Extreme temperature exposure can provoke it
(D) Known with ACE inhibitors
Answer: (A)
230. A man takes peanut and develops, tongue swelling, neck swelling, stridor, hoarseness of voice. What is the probable diagnosis.
(A) Angloneurotic edema
(B) FB bronchus
(C) Parapharyngeal abscess
(D) FB in larynx
Answer: (A)
231. Quincke’s disease is popularly known as –
(A) Norweigian scabies
(B) Angioneuroticoedema
(C) Seborroheaolesa
(D) Saddle nose
Answer: (B)
232. All are causes of papulo squamous lesions except
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Para psoriasis
(C) Squamous cell carcinoma
(D) Mycosis fungoides
(E) Congenital syphilis
Answer: (E)
233. All of the following may lead to plaque formation except
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Pityriasisrosea
(D) Pemphigus
Answer: (D)
234. Exofliative dermatitis is seen in all the following except
(A) Pityriasisrosea
(B) Pityriasisrubrapilaris
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Drug hypersensitivity
(E) Eczema
Answer: (A)
235. Causes of erythroderma-
(A) Pityriasisalba
(B) Pityriasisversicolor
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Lichen planus
(E) Eczema
Answer: (C, D, E)
236. Gold poisoning leading to exfoliative dermatitis is treated by:
(A) Chloroquin
(B) Steroid
(C) Antibiotics
(D) Antihistaminics
Answer: (B)
237. Munro micro abscess is seen in:
(A) Dermal tissue
(B) Stratum basale
(C) Stratum corneum
(D) Stratum Malpighi
Answer: (C)
238. About micro-munro abscesses which of the following statements are true:
(A) Seen in stratus corneum
(B) Seen in psoriasis
(C) Contain neutrophils & lymphocyte
(D) Contain neutrophils only
(E) Associated pustules are normally seen
Answer: (A, B, D)
239. HPR finding in psoriasis:
(A) Micromunro abscess
(B) Suprapapillarythining
(C) Grenzzonme present
(D) Pautrier’s abscess
(E) Hyperkeratosis
Answer: (A, B, E)
240. Bleeding spots seen on removal of scales in psoriasis is called as:
(A) Auspitz sign
(B) Puntuate hemorrhage
(C) Nikolyski’ sign
(D) Darrier sign
Answer: (A)
241. “Auspitz” sign is characteristically seen in:
(A) Plaque Psoriasis
(B) Pustular Psoriasis
(C) Lichen Planus
(D) Inverse Psoriasis
Answer: (A)
242. A patient presents with erythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbows and knee. The clinical diagnosis is got by:
(A) Auspitz sign
(B) KOH smear
(C) Tzancksmear
(D) Skin biopsy
Answer: (A)
243. A 30 years old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is:
(A) Pityriasis
(B) Seborrhoeic dermatitis
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Secondary syphilis
Answer: (C)
244. Bulkeley membrane is seen in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Tinea
(D) Pityriasis
Answer: (A)
245. The important feature of psoriasis is –
(A) Crusting
(B) Scaling
(C) Oozing
(D) Erythema
Answer: (B)
246. All of the following are seen in psoriasis except :
(A) Auspitz sign present
(B) 10% associated with arthritis
(C) It is premalignant disease
(D) Worsening of disease during winter
Answer: (C)
247. All are true about psoriasis except:
(A) Very pruritic
(B) Pitting of nails
(C) Joint involvement in 5-10%
(D) Parakeratosis & acanthosis
Answer: (A)
248. All are true regarding Psoriasis except:
(A) Arthritis in 5%
(B) Abscess is seen
(C) Head, neck and face are not involved
(D) No scaly, red lesions are seen in infra mammary and natal area.
Answer: (C)
249. Least common site involvement in psoriasis is
(A) Scalp involvement
(B) Nail Involvement
(C) CNS involvement
(D) Arthritis
Answer: (C)
250. Psoriasis is exacerbated by-
(A) Lithium
(B) B-blockers
(C) Antimalarials
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
251. Chloroquine cause exacerbation of:
(A) Malaria
(B) Psorisasis
(C) DLE
(D) Photosensitivity
Answer: (B)
252. Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the treatment of
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Phemphigus
(D) Leprosy
Answer: (B)
253. Treatment of psoriasis-
(A) PUVA
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Systemic steroids
(D) Femicycline
(E) Terbinafine
Answer: (A, B)
254. In psoriticarthropathy TOC is
(A) Mtx
(B) 5FU
(C) PUVA
(D) Steroid
Answer: (A)
255. The treatment of choice of erythrodermic psoriasis is:
(A) Corticosteroids
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Coaltar topically
(D) Topical corticosteroids
Answer: (B)
256. The treatment of psoriatic erythroderma is –
(A) Methotrexate
(B) Retinols
(C) Diethrenol
(D) Corticosteroid
Answer: (B, A)
257. Treatment of pustular psoriasis is :
(A) Thalidomide
(B) Retinoids
(C) Hydroxyurea
(D) Metholtrexate
(E) Steroid
Answer: (B)
258. DOC of pustular psoriasis
(A) PUVA
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Steroid
(D) Cyclophosphamide
Answer: (B)
259. Treatment of choice in Pustuar psoriasis
(A) Psorialin + UV therapy
(B) Systemic steroid
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Estrogen
Answer: (C)
260. A patient with psoriasis was started on systemic steroids. After stopping the treatment, patient developed universally red scaly skin with plaques losing their margins all over his body. The most likely cause is
(A) Drug induced reaction
(B) Pustular psoriasis
(C) Bacterial infection
(D) Erythrodermic Psoriasis
Answer: (D)
261. A patient with psoriasis was started on systemic steroids. After stopping treatment, the patient developed generalized pustules all over the body. The cause is most likely to be:
(A) Drug induced reaction
(B) Pustular psoriasis
(C) Bacterial infection
(D) Septicemia
Answer: (B)
262. Treatment erythematous skin rash with multiple pus lakes in a pregnant woman is:
(A) Corticosteroids
(B) Retinoids
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Psoralen with PUVA
Answer: (A)
263. The only indication of giving corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is
(A) Psoriatic ertythroderma with pregnancy
(B) Psoriasis in a pt. with alchoholic cirrhosis
(C) Moderate arthritis
(D) Extensive lesions
Answer: (A)
264. DOC for a pregnant woman in 2nd trimester with pustular psoriasis is
(A) Prednisolone
(B) Dapsone
(C) Acitretin
(D) Methotrexate
Answer: (A)
265. Only definitive indication of systemic steroids in psoriasis is
(A) Pustular psoriasis
(B) Erythroderma
(C) Psoriatic arthropathy
(D) Impetigo herpetiformis
Answer: (D)
266. Koebner’s phenomenon is characteristic of
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus vulgaris
(C) Pityriasisrosea
(D) Lupus vulgaris
Answer: (A)
267. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in-
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Icthyosis
(D) Pitriasisrubra
(E) Phemphigus
Answer: (B)
268. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in –
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Warts
(C) Bechet syndrome
(D) Psoraisis
(E) Vitiligo
Answer: (A, B, D)
269. Pseudo koebner’s phenomenon is/are seen in:
(A) Warts
(B) Molluscumcontagiosum
(C) Lichen Planus
(D) Psoriasis
(E) Vitiligo
Answer: (A, B)
270. The mechanism of action of psoralen is :
(A) Binding to DNA
(B) Inhibiting protein synthesis
(C) Inhibiting angiogenesis
(D) Inhibiting keratinization
Answer: (A)
271. Which is not a complication of PUVA therapy :
(A) Premature aging of skin
(B) Cataracts
(C) Skin cancers
(D) Exfoliative
Answer: (D)
272. Photochemotherapy (Psoralent + UVV) is used in
(A) Pityriasisrosea
(B) Erythroderma
(C) Scabies
(D) Psoriasis
Answer: (D)
273. PUVA therapy is used in :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Freckles
(D) Melasma
(E) Vitiligo
Answer: (A)
274. Psoralen – A is used in the treatment of :
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Vitiligo
(C) Pityriasisalba
(D) Icthyosis
Answer: (B)
275. Psoralen + ultraviolet light (PUVA) therapy is useful in the treatment of:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Vitiligo
(C) Mycosis fungoides
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
276. Uses of PUVA –
(A) Pigmented purpuric lesion
(B) Herpes zoster
(C) Mycosis fungoides
(D) Lupus panniculitis
(E) Lichenoid dermatitis of Gougerot & Blum
Answer: (A, C, E)
277. Circulating lymphocytes are most sensitive to :
(A) UV-A
(B) UV-B
(C) UV-C
(D) 760-800 mm
Answer: (C)
278. The most effective treatment of pruritus in uremia is :
(A) Ultraviolet light
(B) Chloestyramine
(C) Eskazine
(D) Topical benzocaine
Answer: (A)
279. Mouth Lesion are seen in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen Planus
(C) Basal Cell CA
(D) Icthyosis Vulgaris
Answer: (B)
280. Mucosa is involved in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Alopecia
(D) Scabies
(E) Porphyria
Answer: (B)
281. Features of lichen planus are
(A) Pruritis
(B) Purple color
(C) Papule
(D) Purpura
(E) Petechiae
Answer: (A, B)
282. Oral examination is done in case of :
(A) Peutzjegher syndrome
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Plummer vinson syndrome
Answer: (A)
283. Necrotic Keratinocyts occur in
(A) DLE
(B) Graft versus host disease
(C) Erythema multiformal
(D) Lichen planus
(E) Psoriasis
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
284. Joseph’s space is a histopatho-logical feature of:
(A) Psoriasis vulgaris
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Pityrasisrosea
(D) Parapsoriasis
Answer: (B)
285. Civatte bodies are found in:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Dermatophytosis
(D) Vitiligo
Answer: (A)
286. True about lichen planus-
(A) Basal cell degeneration
(B) Colloid bodies seen
(C) Epidermal hyperplasia in chronic cases
(D) Wickham’s striae seen
(E) Autoimmune disease
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
287. Basal cell degeneration characteristically seen in:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Pemphigus
(D) DLE
Answer: (A)
288. A young lady presents with lacy lesions in oral cavity and genitals, and her proximal nail fold has extended onto the nail bed. What is the likely diagnosis
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Geographic tongue
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Candidiasis
Answer: (C)
289. A 30 year old male present with pruritic flat-topped polygonal, shiny violaceous papules with flexural distribution. the most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pityriasis
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Lichenoid dermatitis
Answer: (C)
290. Which of the following is pruritic:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Icthyosis
(D) Secondary syphilis
Answer: (A)
291. Lacy white lesion in mouth with pterygium is seen in :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Ptirysisalba
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Leprosy
Answer: (C)
292. Regarding Lichen Planus all are true, except :
(A) Hypopigmentation in most residual disease
(B) Lymphatic infiltration in supradermal layer
(C) Itchy polygonal, purple papule
(D) Skin, hair and oral mucosa commonly involved
Answer: (A)
293. All of the following regarding Lichen planus are true except:
(A) Does not involve mucous membrane
(B) Associated with Hepatitis ‘C’
(C) Topical steroid are the mainstay of therapy
(D) Spontaneous remissions 6mo to 2 years
Answer: (A)
294. A patient presented with scarring alopecia, thinned nails, hypopigmented macular lesions over the trunk and oral mucosa. The diagnosis is
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Leprosy
(C) Lichenplanus
(D) Pemphigus
Answer: (C)
295. Characteristic nail finding in lichen planus
(A) Pitting
(B) Pterygium
(C) Beau’s Lines
(D) Hyperpigmentation of nails
Answer: (B)
296. 10 year old child has violaceous papule and pterygium of nails. The diagnosis is
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Pemphigoid
(D) Lichen Planus
Answer: (D)
297. Wickehm’sstria seen in-
(A) Lichen niditus
(B) Lichenoid eruption
(C) Lichen striates
(D) Lichen planus
Answer: (D)
298. Itchy polygonal violaceous (itchy/prusitic) palpules seen in
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Pitriasiosrosea
Answer: (C)
299. Features of lichen planus are
(A) Pruritis
(B) Purple
(C) Papule
(D) Purpura
(E) Peterchiae
Answer: (A, B, C)
300. Most characteristic Feature of lichen planus is:
(A) Thinning of nail plate is most common
(B) Non scarring alopecia
(C) Violaceous lesions on skin and mucous membrane
(D) Wickham striae
Answer: (D)
301. The most characteristic finding In lichen planus is:
(A) Civatte bodies
(B) Basal cell degeneration
(C) Thinning of nail plate
(D) Violaceous lesions
Answer: (B)
302. In Lichen planus TOC is:
(A) Topical Salicylic acid
(B) UV ray
(C) Systemic steroids
(D) Erythromycin
Answer: (C)
303. Which of the following are pruritic lesions
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Sun burns
(C) Pemphigoid
(D) Psoriasis
(E) SLE
Answer: (A)
304. All are vesiculo bullous lesions except –
(A) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
(B) Scabies/Atopic dermatitis
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Pemphigoid
Answer: (B)
305. Subepidermal lesion are
(A) Bullous pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus vulgaris
(C) Hailey-Hailey disease
(D) Darier’s disease
(E) Acanthosisnigricans
Answer: (A)
306. Subepithelial Bullae are seen in:
(A) Dermatitis herpatiforms
(B) Molluscumcontagiosum
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Pemphigoid
Answer: (D)
307. Subepidermal bulla are seen in –
(A) Pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Pityriasisrosea
(D) Psoriasis
Answer: (A)
308. Blister formation in burn case is in:
(A) Intraepidermal
(B) Subepidermal
(C) Subdermal
(D) Subfascial
Answer: (B)
309. Sub-epidermal splitting is not found in :
(A) Bullous pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus foliaceus
(C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(D) Burns
Answer: (B)
310. Subepidermal bistreing is seen in all except –
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(C) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(D) Bullous pemphigoid
(E) Hailey : Hailey disease
Answer: (A, C, E)
311. Intra epidermal blisters are seen in :
(A) Bullous pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus folliaceous
(C) Bullous SLE
(D) Bullous impetigo
(E) Trauma (thermal)
Answer: (B, E)
312. Intra-epidermal acantholytic (blisters) vesicles are seen in
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Carinomatous (paraneoplastic) pemphigus
(C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(D) Congenital epidermolysisbullosa
(E) Bullous pemphigoid
Answer: (A, B)
313. Acantholytic cell in pemphigus is derived from :
(A) Stratum granulosum
(B) Stratum basale
(C) Stratum spinosum
(D) Langerhan’s cell
Answer: (C)
314. Acantholysis is seen in:
(A) Bullous pemphigoid/SSS
(B) Dermatitis herpetiformis/Impetigo
(C) Hailey-Hailey disease
(D) Darrier’s disease
(E) Pemphigus vulgaris
Answer: (C, D, E)
315. Acantholysis is characteristic of:
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Erythema multoforme
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Answer: (A)
316. Acantholysis is seen in all of the following except :
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Steven-Johnson syndrome
(D) Toxic epidermonecrolysis
Answer: (B)
317. Acantholysis is due to destruction of
(A) Epidermis
(B) Subepidermis
(C) Basement membrane
(D) Intercellular substance
Answer: (D)
318. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :
(A) Basement member
(B) Intercellular substance
(C) Keratin
(D) Cell nucleus
Answer: (B)
319. Acantholysis involves (is seen in) :
(A) Epidermis
(B) Dermis
(C) Epidermis-Dermis junction
(D) Subcutaneous tissue
(E) Adipose tissue
(F) All layers
Answer: (A)
320. Acantholytic cells are :
(A) Epidermal cells
(B) Plasma cells
(C) Keratinocytes
(D) Giant cells
Answer: (C)
321. Acantolytic cells in pemphigus is –
(A) Cell with hyperchromatic nuclei and perinuclear halo
(B) Cell with hypochromatic nuclei and perinuclear halo
(C) Multinucleted cells
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
322. A 40 year old male reported with recurrent episodes of oral ulcers, large areas of denuded skin and flaccid vesiculo-bullous eruptions. Which is the most important bed-side investigation helpful in establishing the diagnosis –
(A) Gram staining of the blister fluid
(B) Culture and sensitivity
(C) Skin biopsy and immunoflurescence
(D) Tzanksmear from the floor of bulla
Answer: (D)
323. A 50 years old man has a 2 year history of facial bullae & oral ulcers. Microscpic smear from skin lesions is most likely to disclose –
(A) Tzanck cells
(B) Acantholytic cells
(C) Necrosis
(D) Koilogytosis
Answer: (B)
324. Tzank cell is a –
(A) Lymphocytes
(B) Monocyte
(C) Neutrophil
(D) Keratinocyte
(E) Eosinophil
Answer: (D)
325. A patient has Bullous Lesion; on Tzank smear
(A) Langerhans cells are seen
(B) Acontholysis
(C) Leucocytosis
(D) Absence of melanin pigment
Answer: (B)
326. Tzank smear helps in the diagnosis of :
(A) Herpes viral infection
(B) Bullous pemphigoids
(C) Carcinoma of cervix
(D) None
Answer: (A)
327. In Tzank smear multinucleated cells are seen in :
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Molluscumcontagiosum
(D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Answer: (A)
328. Nikolsky sign ins positive in all of the following except :
(A) Staphylococal scalded skin syndrome
(B) Toxic epidermonecrolysis
(C) Bullous pemphigoid
(D) Pemphigus
Answer: (C)
329. Nikolsky sign is seen in –
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Herpes zoster
(C) Herpes simlex
(D) Leukemia
(E) All
Answer: (E)
330. Nikolsky sing not present in :
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Vitiligo
(D) Staphylococcal scalded syndrome
Answer: (C)
331. An auto immune disease is :
(A) Pemphigus Vulgaris
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Lichen Planus
(D) Acne Vulgaris
Answer: (A)
332. Genetic predisposition is seen in which disease :
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Pemphigus vulgaris
(D) Epidermolysis Bullosa
Answer: (D)
333. Hailey-hailey disease is :
(A) Benign familial chronic pemphigus
(B) Pemphigus acutus
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Lyell’s syndrome
Answer: (A)
334. Dyskeratosis is characteristic feature of:
(A) Darrier’s ds
(B) Pemphigus vulgaris
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Boweli’s disease
(E) Haikey-Hailey ds
Answer: (A, D, E)
335. Etiology of Epidermolysisbullosa is –
(A) Genetic
(B) Infections
(C) Senile
(D) Malignant
(E) Metabolic
Answer: (A)
336. In congenital dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa defect is seen in :
(A) Laminin 4
(B) Collagen type 7
(C) Collagen 4
(D) Collagen 3
Answer: (B)
337. In a 8 day old child with no history of consanguinity in the parents. The mother reports blisters and peeling off of skin at the site of handling and pressure. There was a similar history in previous child which proved to be fatal. The diagnosis :
(A) Bullous pemphigod
(B) Congenital Syphillis
(C) Congenital Epidermolysis bullosa
(D) Letterrersiwe disease
Answer: (C)
338. A 2 day old newborn girl born out of non-consanguinous marriage was evaluated for tense blister and areas of denuded skin that had ben pre3sent since birth. The child develops while mother handles for bathing and feeding. The sibling of child also had h/o developing similar lesions.
(A) Congenital syphilis
(B) Congenital epidermolysis bullosa
(C) LCH
(D) Congenital bullous icthyosiform erythroderma
Answer: (B)
339. A patient developed bullae without erythema on elbows, knee & sacral area f/b crust formation, scarring &milia. He had no photo sensitivity and negative family history for bullous diseases. On DIF IgG deposition at DEJ with no blood vessel involvement is seen probable diagnosis is
(A) EB dystrophic
(B) EB acquisita
(C) Porphyria CT
(D) Pemphigoid bullous
Answer: (B)
340. Commonest/rarest veriety of Pemphigus –
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris/vegetans
(B) Pemphigus vegetans/vulgaris
(C) Pemphigus fliaceus/erythematosis
(D) Pemphigus erythematosia/foliaceous
Answer: (A)
341. ‘Row of tombstones’ appearance is seen in :
(A) Irritant dermatitis
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Pemphigoid
(D) Harpes zoster
Answer: (B)
342. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :
(A) Basement membrane
(B) Intercellular substance
(C) Cell nucleus
(D) Keratin
(E) Cell membrane
Answer: (B)
343. True about pemphigus vulgaris A/E :
(A) Subepidermal
(B) Autoimmune disease
(C) Tzanck smear shows acanthoyltic cells
(D) Antibody are formed against desmogleins
(E) Blister on skin & mucosa
Answer: (A)
344. A patient with Bullous eruption on lower limb and trunk, biopsy show epidermal bullae. The correct diagnosis is:
(A) Pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus Vulgaris
(C) Impetigo
(D) Internal Malignany
Answer: (B)
345. A 24 years old (middle aged) female has faccid bullae in the skin and persistent painful oral erosions (palatal & vestibular lesions in buccal mucosa). Histopathology shows intraepidermalacantholytic blister. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Bullous Pemphigoid
(B) Erythema multiforme
(C) Pemphigus vulgaris
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(E) Epidermolysis bullosa acquista
Answer: (C)
346. A 40 year old male developed persistant oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extermities. Direct examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermis. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Bullous Pemphigoid
(C) Bullous Lupus erythematosus
(D) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
Answer: (A)
347. A 50 year old male known case of myasthe-nia with erythemated shallow erosions with few blisters and scales. Oral mucosa is not involved. Immunopathology demonstrates IgG deposition on keratinocytes and auto antibodies against Dsg-1.The diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Pemphigus foliaceus
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Answer: (C)
348. Drug induced pemphigus is seen in all except
(A) Penicillin
(B) Phenopthelein
(C) Iodine
(D) Frusemide
Answer: (D)
349. All are associated with pemphigus except :
(A) Thymoma
(B) CLL
(C) Myasthenia gravis
(D) Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
(E) Atrophic gastritis
Answer: (E)
350. Mucous lesions are seen in :
(A) Sec. syphilis
(B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Pemphigus
(E) Porphyria
Answer: (D)
351. A 56 year old male lallu presents with painful bullous lesion in lower extremity, the most likely diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus Vulgaris
(B) Bulllouspemphigoid
(C) Necrotic Pemphigus
(D) Contact eczema
Answer: (B)
352. A 85 year old woman with Nikolsky sign-ve, blisters on thigh & trunk, lesions come on & off. What is the cause :
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(E) Leprosy
Answer: (B)
353. A young boy with multiple flaccid bullous lesions over trunk with oral mucosal lesions. Most likely finding on biopsy would be :
(A) ‘Fishnet’ IgG deposits in epidermis
(B) Linear IgG in Deposits
(C) Linear IgA in dermal papillae
(D) Granular IgA in reticular dermis
Answer: (A)
354. Inter cellular IgG deposition in epidermis is seen in :
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Sub corneal pustulardermatosis
(C) Bulluspemphigoid
(D) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Answer: (A)
355. Direct immunofluorescence is positive in
(A) Atopic dermatitis
(B) SLE
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Secondary syphilis
Answer: (C, B)
356. A 40 year old male had multiple blisters over the trunk & Extremities. Direct Immuno fluoresce studies showed linear IgG deposits along the Basement membrane, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Pemphigus foliaceous
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Answer: (B)
357. Granular IgA deposit at dermal papilla are found in:
(A) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
(B) IgA disease of childhood
(C) Herpetic gestation
(D) Bullous pemphigoid
Answer: (A)
358. Skin disease not showing DIF (Direct immunofluorescence) :
(A) Darrier’s disease
(B) Hailey-Hailey disease
(C) Cictricialpemphigoid
(D) Dermatitis herpatiformis
(E) Pemphigus
Answer: (A, B)
359. Spontaneous remission is most frequent with
(A) Herpes labialis
(B) Herpes genitalis
(C) Herpetic chancroid
(D) Herpes gestationis
Answer: (D)
360. Commonest site of herpes Gestationis is-
(A) Perimumbilical region
(B) Flanks of abdomen
(C) Vulva
(D) Infraorbital
Answer: (A)
361. HLA associated with dermatitis Herpetiformis –
(A) HLA A5
(B) HLB B8
(C) HLA B27
(D) HLA A28
Answer: (C)
362. All are true about dermatitis herpetformis except
(A) More common in young adult
(B) Intense pruritus
(C) Deposit of IgG at the epidermodermal lesion
(D) None
Answer: (C)
363. A 30 year old male had severely itchy papula-vesicular lesions on both knees, elbows, upper back and buttocks for one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesion showed IgA deposition at dermoepidermal junction and dermal papilla. The most probable diagnosis is :
(A) Pemphigus vulagris
(B) Bullous permphigoid
(C) Dermatitis herpetiforms
(D) Nummular eczema
Answer: (C)
364. Extermely pruritic excoriation & papules on buttocks with autoantibodies against epidermal transglutaminase and IgA deposition in dermis on immuno-histological examination of normal perilesional skin. Diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Linear IgA disease
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Answer: (D)
365. DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis is :
(A) Steroids
(B) Dapsone
(C) PUVA
(D) Antihistaminic
Answer: (B)
366. The treatment of Dermatitis herpetiformis is –
(A) Gluten free diet with mineral and vitamins
(B) Carbamazepine
(C) Acyclovir
(D) Corticosteroids
Answer: (A)
367. What can patient with gluten sensitive hypersensitivity consume as food :
(A) Rice
(B) Barley
(C) Oat
(D) Corn
(E) Rye
Answer: (A)
368. All are true about linear IgA disease except
(A) Subepidermal involvement
(B) Severe itching
(C) Granular deposition of IgA
(D) Are candidates for gluten free diet
(E) A variant of dermatitis herpetiformis
Answer: (C)
369. Commonest etiology of erythema multiforme is –
(A) Viral
(B) Bacterial
(C) Food
(D) Drugs
Answer: (A)
370. All are true about erythema multiformis except :
(A) Due to herpes simplex
(B) Duet to sulphonamide
(C) Lesion are symmetrical
(D) Mucous membrane is involved in all
Answer: (D)
371. Target or Iris lesion seen in
(A) Urticaria
(B) Erythema mutiformae
(C) Scabies
(D) Lichen Planus
Answer: (B)
372. Regarding Erythema multiforme all are true except :
(A) No vesicles
(B) Target lesion are seen
(C) Involves face and neck regions
(D) Sign of internal malignancy
Answer: (A)
373. A 60-year-old patient presented with several bullous lesions for the last 3 days; each bull was surrounded by an erythematous halo. There were multiple target lesions. Patient also had oral erosions. The most likely
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Herpes zoster
(D) Steven-Johnson syndrome
Answer: (D)
374. Toxic epidermonercrolysis is caused by :
(A) Phenytoin
(B) Penicillin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Gold
Answer: (A, B)
375. All are considered to be high risk agents for TEN except
(A) Sulfonamide
(B) Sulfonyl urea
(C) Aspirin
(D) Oxicam
(E) Phenytoin
Answer: (B, C)
376. A 3 months old male infant developed otitis media for which he was given a course of Co-trimoxazole. A few days later, he developed extensive peeling of the skin; there were no mucosal lesions and the baby was not toxic. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(B) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
(C) Steven Johnson syndrome
(D) Infantile pemphigus
Answer: (B)
377. Which layer of skin causes vesicular change in case of burn :
(A) Basal layer
(B) Papillary layer
(C) Epidermis
(D) Dermis
Answer: (D)
378. Causative organism of molluscumcontagiosum is –
(A) Papova virus
(B) Pox virus
(C) Orthomyxo virus
(D) Parvo virus
Answer: (B)
379. An eight year old boy presents with multiple umbilicated pearly white papules on trunk & face following a trivial infection. Diagnosis is :
(A) MolluscumContagiosum
(B) Chicken pox
(C) Herpes zoster
(D) Dermatophytosis
Answer: (A)
380. Which of the following is true of molluscumcontagiosum –
(A) Treatment is extirption
(B) Is an STD
(C) Virall infection
(D) Central umbilication
(E) All are correct
Answer: (E)
381. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in a :
(A) Cervical region
(B) Thoracic region
(C) Lumbar region
(D) Geniculate ganglion
Answer: (B)
382. Ballooning is characteristic of :
(A) Harpes zoster
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Pemphigoid
(D) Insect bite
Answer: (A)
383. A 45 year old male has multiple grouped vesicular lesions present on the T10 segment dermatome associated with pain. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Herpes zoster
(B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(C) Herpes simplex
(D) Scabies
Answer: (A)
384. Most common site of affection of herpes simplex –
(A) Thorax
(B) Abdomen
(C) Face
(D) Extremities
Answer: (C)
385. The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is
(A) Herpes genitalis
(B) Aphthous ulcer
(C) Syphilis
(D) Chancroid
Answer: (A)
386. Drug of choice in Herpes zoster
(A) Acyclovir
(B) Vidarabine
(C) Idoxuridine
(D) Actinomycin
Answer: (A)
387. Herpes resistant to acyclovir is treated by
(A) Foscarnet
(B) Lamivudine
(C) Ganiclovir
(D) Valocyclovir
Answer: (A)
388. Which of the following not a feature of dermatomyositis?
(A) Gottren’s papules
(B) Periungua telangiectasia
(C) Salmon rash
(D) Mechanic’s hand
Answer: (C)
389. True about dermatomyositis
(A) Gottron papules
(B) ANA a/w all cases
(C) All cases a/w malignancy
(D) Proximal muscle wasting
Answer: (A, D)
390. Gottron’s papules or sign seen in :
(A) Dermatomyositis
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Acute myeloid leukemia
(D) Psoriasis
Answer: (A)
391. A 40 year old woman presented with a 8 month history of erythema and swelling of the periorbital region & papules & plaques on the dorsolateral aspect of forearms & knuckles with ragged cuticles. There was no muscle weakness. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) SLE
(B) Dermatomyositis
(C) Systemic sclerosis
(D) Mixed connective tissue disorder
Answer: (B)
392. Antibody that is strongly associated with polymyositis?
(A) Anti-jo1
(B) Anti-ku
(C) Anti-Scl-70
(D) Anti-sm
Answer: (A)
393. Female presents with history of color change from pallor to cyanosis on exposure to cold in fingers. This condition is mostly associated with?
(A) Scleroderma
(B) Leukemia
(C) Lung infections
(D) Hepatosplenomegaly
Answer: (A)
394. All are manifestations of SLE except :
(A) Lesions resembling Chr. DLE
(B) Butterfly rash
(C) Photosensitivity
(D) Constitutional symptom
(E) Sex ratio is nearly equal
Answer: (E)
395. True about drug induced SLE is :
(A) CNS manifestation are common
(B) Renal involvement is common
(C) Antihistone antibodies are found in many
(D) All with antibodies progress to lupus
(E) Sex ratio is nearly equal
Answer: (C)
396. Lupus like picture is causes by all except :
(A) Chloroquine
(B) Procanamide
(C) Hydralazine
(D) Isoniazid
Answer: (A)
397. Chloroquin is indicated in treatment of
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Pempigoid
(C) Psoriasis
(D) DLE
Answer: (D)
398. 23 year old lady sony develops brown macular lesions over bridge of nose and cheek following exposure to light. The probable diagnosis is
(A) SLE
(B) Acne Rosacea
(C) Chloasma
(D) Photodermatitis
Answer: (C)
399. A girl of 19 years with arthritis and photosensitive rash on cheeks, likely diagnosis is
(A) SLE
(B) Chlosma
(C) Steveris Johnson Syndrome
(D) Lyme’s Disease
Answer: (A)
400. The concentration of hydroquinone for treating cholasma should be –
(A) 1%
(B) 1 to 2%
(C) 2 to 5%
(D) 10%
Answer: (C)
401. Photosensitive dermatitis is/are :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pellagra
(C) Pemphigus
(D) SLE
(E) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
Answer: (ALL)
402. Which of the following are photosensitive diseases:
(A) SLE
(B) Liver spots
(C) Calcinosis cutis
(D) Morphea
(E) Prophyriacutaneatarda
Answer: (A, B, E)
403. Which of the following not photosensitive:
(A) Porphyria
(B) DLE
(C) SLE
(D) Lichen Planus
Answer: (D)
404. Exposure to sunlight can precipitate :
(A) Chlosma
(B) Discoid lupus erytyhematosus
(C) Dermatitis herpatiformis
(D) Lupus vulgaris
Answer: (B)
405. A 45-year-old farmer has itchy ertythematous popular lesions on face, neck, ‘V’ area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be :
(A) Skin biopsy
(B) Estimation of IgE levels in blood
(C) Patch test
(D) Intradermal prick test
Answer: (A)
406. Chandu 32 years male presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. He also complain of some psychiatric symptoms & visual hallucination. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Hyperthyroidism
(C) Hysteria
(D) Intermittent Porphyria
Answer: (D)
407. A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?
(A) Acute intermittent porphyria
(B) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
(C) Infectious mononucleosis
(D) Kawasaki’s disease
Answer: (A)
408. A 40 year old farmer with history of recurrent attack of porphyria complains of itching when exposed to the sun and maculopapular rashes on sun exposed area. His symptoms are exaggerated in summer. The diagnosis is:
(A) Seborrheic dermatitis
(B) Contact dermatitis
(C) Psoriasis
(D) PorphyreaCutaneatarda
Answer: (D)
409. Porphyrins are synthesized mainly in
(A) Spleen
(B) Liver and spleen
(C) Bonemarrow and spleen
(D) Liver and Bone marrow
Answer: (D)
410. Porphyria cutaneatarda can be treated by :
(A) Phelobotomy
(B) Heme
(C) Low dose chlotoquine
(D) Metronidazole
Answer: (A)
411. Treatment of choice in the cutaneous complication of porphyria is:
(A) I. V dextrose
(B) I. V Haematin
(C) Beta carotene
(D) Calamine
Answer: (C)
412. Non Palpable purpura is seen in A/E
(A) H. S. Purpura
(B) Drug induced vasculitis
(C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenicpurpura
(D) Amyloid
Answer: (A)
413. Palpable purpura is seen in all except :
(A) Wegeners GN
(B) ITP
(C) HSP
(D) Serum sickness
Answer: (B)
414. Palpable pupura is seen in all condition except
(A) Cryoglobulinuria
(B) H.S. Pupura
(C) Giant cell arteritis
(D) Drug induced vasculitis
Answer: (C)
415. A-42-year-old female has palpable purpura with rash over buttocks, pain in abdomen, and arthropathy diagnosis is
(A) Sweet syndrome
(B) HSP
(C) Purpurafulminans
(D) Meningococcemia
Answer: (B)
416. IgA deposits on skin biopsy
(A) HenochSchouleilnpuspura
(B) Giant cell arteritis
(C) Microscopic polyangitis
(D) Wegener’s granulomatosis
Answer: (A)
417. A 5 year old child develops non blanching macules, papules and petechial hemorrhage on lower extremities, mild abdominal pain, and skin biopsy showed IgA deposition along blood vessels perivascular neutrophilic infiltrate. Most probably diagnosis is
(A) Wegner’s granulomatosis
(B) Poly artiritisnodosa
(C) HenochSchonleinpurpura
(D) Kawasaki disease
Answer: (C)
418. Which of following is/are not the feature of HenochSchnleinPurpura (HSP) :
(A) Abdominal pain
(B) Splinter haemorrhage
(C) Thrombocytopenia
(D) Epistaxis
(E) Arthritis
Answer: (C)
419. All regarding, HSP is true except
(A) Hematuria resolve without treatment
(B) Steroids best treat skin lesions
(C) Self limiting arthralgia
(D) Excellent prognosis
(E) Purpurafulminans
Answer: (B, E)
420. ‘Pinch purpura’ is diagnostic of
(A) Systemic 1° amyloidosis
(B) 2° systemic anyloidosis
(C) ITP
(D) Drug induced purpura
Answer: (A)
421. Treatment of Kawasaki’s disease?
(A) IVI g
(B) Steroids
(C) Thalidomide
(D) Dapsone
Answer: (A)
422. A 4 year old child with high fever developed toxic look, eruptions on trunk & proximal extremities, bilateral bulbar conjunctivitis without discharge and fissuring-crusting-red lips. Due to limb edema walking became difficult. She also had desquamation in perineum & finger tips with cervical adenopathy. Diagnosis is
(A) PAN
(B) HSP
(C) Kawasaki syndrome
(D) Erythema infectosum
Answer: (C)
423. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in
(A) Kimura’s disease
(B) Hodgkin’s disease
(C) Castleman’s disease
(D) Kikuchi disease
Answer: (D)
424. Which of the following organisms most commonly causes reactive arthritis?
(A) Urea plasmaurealyticum
(B) Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
(C) Borreliaburgdorferi
(D) Chlamydia
Answer: (D)
425. A patient gives h/o recurrent oral ulcers. The ulcers are small with a yellow floor surrounded by an erythematous halo on lips. He also has multiple, tender nodules on shin. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Bechet’s syndrome
(C) Herpes Labialis
(D) Fixed drug eruption
Answer: (B)
426. A 27-year-old male had burning micturition & urethral discharge. After 4 weeks he developed joint pains involving both the knees & ankles, redness of the eyes & skin lesions. The most probable clinical diagnosis:
(A) Psoriasis vulgaris
(B) Reiter’s synd
(C) Bechet’ssynd
(D) Sarcoidosis
Answer: (B)
427. Which of the following is not included in the triad of Reiter’s syndrome:
(A) Conjunctivetis
(B) Urethritis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Keratodermab lenorrhagica
Answer: (D)
428. A 29 years old male with a history of long leisure trip presented with right knee pain and swollen join with foreign body sensation in eye. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Reiter’s disease
(D) Bechet’s disease
Answer: (C)
429. What is not seen in Reiters syndrome?
(A) Subcutaneous nodules
(B) Keratodermab lennorrhagicum
(C) Circinatebalantis
(D) Oral ulcers
Answer: (A)
430. True regarding reactive arthritis is all except
(A) HLA B27 & HIV affects severity
(B) Dactylitis & enthesitis
(C) Keratoderma mostly on glans
(D) Asymmetrical sacroilitis
(E) Onycholysis& hyperkeratosis of nails
Answer: (C)
431. Recurrent orogenital ulceration with arthritis is seen in
(A) Bechets syndrome
(B) Gonorrhoea
(C) Reiters syndrome
(D) Syphills
Answer: (A)
432. All the following are primary cutaneous diseases except :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Reiter’s disease
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Kcthiosis/Bowen’s disease
Answer: (B)
433. All are neutrophilic dermatosis except :
(A) Subcorneal pustular dermatosis
(B) Kimura disease
(C) Granuloma facial
(D) Sweet’s syndrome
(E) Pyoderma gungrenosum
Answer: (B, C)
434. False about sweet syndrome
(A) May be a/w high fever
(B) Neutrophilia not present
(C) May be a/w hematological malignancy
(D) Pseudovesication
(E) Tender erythematous nodule / plaque.
Answer: (B)
435. A child with fever had multiple skin lesions, an on microscopic examination the skin lesions are seen to have neutrophilic and histiocytic infiltration in the dermis. What is the diagnosis?
(A) Sweet syndrome
(B) Behchet’s syndrome
(C) Pyodermagangrenosum
(D) Juvenile dermatosis.
Answer: (A)
436. Pyoderma gangrenoum is seen in :
(A) Crohns disease
(B) Divertuculosis
(C) Ulcerative colitis
(D) Ca. Colon.
Answer: (C)
437. A 27 year old sexually active male develops a vesicobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tab paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyper pigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Bechet’s syndrome
(B) Herpes genitalis
(C) Fixed drug eruption
(D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Answer: (C)
438. Recurrent erythematous plaques on glans penis in a 19 yrs old sexually active male which heals with residual hyperpigmentation, is suggestive of?
440. Erythema nodosum is seen in all of the following except:
(A) Pregnancy
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) SLE
(D) Chronic pancreatitis
Answer: (D)
441. Erythema nodosum is seen in all, Except:
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Enteric fever
(D) Aspirin therapy
Answer: (D)
442. Erythema nodosum is seen in A/E
(A) Salicylate poisoning
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Leprosy
Answer: (A)
443. Erythema nodosum is due to A/E :
(A) Contraceptive pilles
(B) Barbiturates
(C) Penicillin
(D) Sulphonamides
Answer: (B)
444. Erythema nodosum is not seen in :
(A) Primary TB
(B) Sulfonamides
(C) Giant cell arteritis
(D) Streptococcal Infection
Answer: (C)
445. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is:
(A) Erythema nodosum
(B) Hansen’s disease
(C) Weber-Christian disease
(D) Nodular Vasculitis
Answer: (A)
446. Which of these statements is false for lesions of Erythema nodosum :
(A) They are considered as hypersensitivity reaction
(B) The skin overlying the lesions is red, smooth and shiny
(C) They are usually non tender
(D) They can be associated with tuberculosis
Answer: (C)
447. A young female presents with a history of fever and nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with nuetrophilicinfiltration. There is no evidence of vasculitis. Most probable diagnosis is :
(A) Sweet’s Syndrome
(B) Erythema nodosum
(C) Erythema nodosumleprosum
(D) Behcet’s syndrome
Answer: (B)
448. Normal commensal of skin are
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Candida
(C) Propioni bacterium acnes
(D) Diptheria
(E) Streptopyogenes
Answer: (B, C)
449. Most common type of leprosy in India :
(A) BT
(B) TT
(C) LL
(D) BL
Answer: (B)
450. Skin smear is negative in which leprosy
(A) Indeterminate
(B) Neuritic
(C) Lepromatous
(D) Borderline
Answer: (B)
451. Single lesion in skin is seen in which type of leprosy :
(A) TT
(B) BT
(C) BL
(D) LL
Answer: (A)
452. A single hypopigmented anesthetic patch with satellite lesion on forearm, likely diagnosis is :
(A) Indeterminate leprosy
(B) Tuberculoid leprosy
(C) Neuritic leprosy
(D) Lupus Vulgaris
Answer: (B)
453. Satellite Lesion are seen in :
(A) Tuberculoid Leprosy
(B) Lepromatous Leprosy
(C) Borderline Tuberculoid Leprosy
(D) Histoid Leprosy
Answer: (C)
454. Inverted saucer shaped lesion is found in
(A) Lepromatous leprosy
(B) Tuberculoid leprosy
(C) Borderline leprosy
(D) Indeterminate leprosy
Answer: (C)
455. Characteristic feature of borderline leprosy
(A) Inverted saucer lesion
(B) ENL
(C) Hypopigmented macule & plaques all over body
(D) Glove & stocking anesthesia
Answer: (A)
456. A 45 year old male had multiple hypoaesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is :
(A) Lepromatous leprosy
(B) Borderline leprosy
(C) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
(D) Borderline lepromatous leprosy
Answer: (D)
457. A patient with multiple hypopigmented&hypesthetic patches on lateral aspect of forearm with abundance of AFB and granulomatous inflammation on histology. The diagnosis is
(A) Tuberculoid leprosy
(B) Indetermediate leprosy
(C) Borderline leprosy
(D) Lepromatous leprosy
Answer: (C)
458. An 8-year old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 month h/o an ill definedhypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Ptyriasisalba
(B) Indeterminate leprosy
(C) Morphacea
(D) Calcium deficiency
Answer: (B)
459. 8 year old boy from Tamil Nadu presents with a white, non anaesthetic, non scalyhypopigmented macule on his face, likely diagnosis is:
(A) Pityriasisalba
(B) Pityriasisversicolour
(C) Indeterminate leprosy
(D) Neuritic leprosy
Answer: (C)
460. All lesions are seen in leprosy except
(A) Erythematous Macule
(B) Hypopigmented patch
(C) Vesicles
(D) Flat & raised patches
Answer: (C)
461. All are features of lepromatous leprosy except :
(A) Gynaecomastia
(B) Madarosis
(C) Saddle nose
(D) Perforating Ulcer
Answer: (D)
462. Commonest nerve involved in leprosy is
(A) Ulnar
(B) Median
(C) Radial
(D) Sciatic
Answer: (A)
463. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are :
(A) High ulnar, low median
(B) High median, low ulnar
(C) Triple nerve palsy
(D) High radial, low median
Answer: (A)
464. Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansens disease is :
(A) Pain
(B) Touch
(C) Vibration
(D) Temperature
Answer: (D)
465. In leprosy which of the following is not seen :
(A) Abnormal EMG
(B) Voluntary muscle wasting
(C) Decreased Proprioception
(D) Decreased response to tactile sensation
(E) Increased response to tactile sensation
Answer: (C)
466. Leprosy do not involve :
(A) CNS
(B) Testis
(C) Skin
(D) Cornea
Answer: (A)
467. Leprosy affects all organs except
(A) Eyes
(B) Nerves
(C) Uterus
(D) Ovary
Answer: (C)
468. Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by –
(A) Non caseating granuloma in nerve
(B) Sub epidermal free zone
(C) Bacilli in skin
(D) Skin caseation
Answer: (A)
469. All are true lepromatous leprosy except –
(A) Presence of globi
(B) Subepidermal free zone
(C) Decreased cell mediated immunity
(D) Presence of granulomas subdermally.
Answer: (D)
470. Skin biopsy in leprosy in characterized by :
(A) Pariappendegial bacilli
(B) Pariappendegeal lymphocytosis
(C) Perivascular lymphocytosis
(D) All of above
Answer: (D)
471. Cell mediated immunity is maximum suppressed in
(A) BT
(B) LL
(C) TT
(D) Indeterminate
Answer: (B)
472. Virhow’s cells are seen in:
(A) Henochscholeinpurpura
(B) Toxic Epidermal necrolysis
(C) Congenital Syphilis
(D) Leprosy
Answer: (D)
473. Lepromin test is used for :
(A) Diagnosis
(B) Treatment
(C) Prognosis
(D) Epidemiological investigation
Answer: (C)
474. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy :
(A) Lepramin test
(B) Sit skin smear
(C) Fine needle aspiration cytology
(D) Skin biopsy
Answer: (A)
475. Not true about lepromin test is
(A) It is diagnostic
(B) Negative in infants < 6 months
(C) Used to classify
(D) BCG vaccination may convert negative to positive
Answer: (A)
476. Lepromin test is positive in which leprosy
(A) Lepromatous
(B) Indeterminate
(C) Histoid
(D) Tuberculoid
Answer: (D)
477. A 16 year old student reported for the evaluation of multiple hypopigmented macules on the trunk and limbs. All of the following tests are useful in making a diagnosis of leprosy, except :
(A) Sensation testing
(B) Lepromin test
(C) Slit smears
(D) Skin biopsy
Answer: (B)
478. A 27-year-old patient was diagnosed to have borderline leprosy and started on multibacillary multi-drug therapy. Six weeks later, he developed pain in the nerves and redness and swelling of the skin lesions. The management of his illness should include all of the following except :
(A) Stop anti-leprosy drugs
(B) Systemic corticosteroids
(C) Rest to the limbs affected
(D) Analgesics
Answer: (A)
479. Reversal lepra reaction shown in response to :
(A) Cloafazimine
(B) Chloroquine
(C) Glucocorticoids
(D) Thalidomide
Answer: (D)
480. DOC in type I lepra reaction with severe neuritis
(A) Thalidomide
(B) Clafazamine
(C) Dapsone
(D) Systemic Corticosteroid
Answer: (D)
481. Treatment of Acute neuritis in Lepra I reaction is A/E:
(A) Dapsone
(B) Steroid
(C) Thalidomide
(D) Incision and Drainage
Answer: (D, C)
482. Best method of treatment of ulner never abscess in case of leprosy is:
(A) High dose of steroid
(B) Incision and drainage
(C) Thalidomide
(D) High dose of clofazamine
Answer: (B)
483. The main cytokine, involved in erythema nodusumleprosum (ENL) reaction is :
(A) Interleukin – 2
(B) Interferon-gamma
(C) Tumor necrosis factor – alpha
(D) Macrophage colony stimulating factor
Answer: (C)
484. ENL is seen in which form of leprosy :
(A) Indeterminate
(B) BT
(C) LL (lepromatous leprosy)
(D) BL
(E) TT
Answer: (C, D)
485. Manifestation of ENL includes all of the following except :
(A) Pancreatistis
(B) Fever
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Arthritis
(E) Cutaneous nodules
Answer: (A, D)
486. Drug of choice in Erythema NodosumLeprosum (Type II lepra reaction) :
(A) Steroid
(B) Thalidomide
(C) Clofazimine
(D) Aspirin
Answer: (A)
487. Thalidomide is drug of choice for :
(A) Lepra I reaction
(B) Lepra II reaction
(C) Both
(D) Nerve Abscess
Answer: (B)
488. The daily dose of thalidomide for controlling E.N.L. is :
(A) 100 mg
(B) 200 – 300 mg
(C) 500 mg
(D) 1000 mg only
Answer: (B)
489. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction
(A) Chloroquin
(B) Thalidomide
(C) Cyclosporine
(D) Corticosteroids
Answer: (C)
490. The most effective drug against M. leprae is:
(A) Dapsone
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Clofazamine
(D) Prothionamide
Answer: (B)
491. Most potent anti-leprotic drug is :
(A) Rifampcin
(B) Dapsone
(C) Clofazimine
(D) Norflox
Answer: (A)
492. The first line antileprosy drugs include all except-
(A) Dapsone
(B) Thiacetazone
(C) Clofazimine
(D) Rifampicin
Answer: (B)
493. Antileprotc drug also used in lepra reaction is :
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Dapsone
(C) Cirprofloxacin
(D) Clofazimine
Answer: (D)
494. Dose of Dapsone is –
(A) 1-2 mg/kg
(B) 5 mg/kg
(C) 10 mg/kg
(D) 20 mg/kg
Answer: (A)
495. One of the following is a side effect of clofazimine used in leprosy therapy –
(A) Hyperpigmentation
(B) Erythema
(C) Discoloration of body secretions
(D) Macular rash
Answer: (A)
496. Skin pigmentation &icthyosis like side effects are seen in :
500. Duration of treatment in pauci bacillary leprosy is
(A) 6 months
(B) 9 months
(C) 2 years
(D) Till symptoms subside
Answer: (A)
501. Average duration of treatment in multibacillary leprosy is
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 year
(C) 3 year
(D) Life long
Answer: (A)
502. Thalidomide is not used in
(A) ENL
(B) Bechet’s syndrome
(C) HIV associated Oral ulcers
(D) HIV associated neuropathy
Answer: (D)
503. Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis is a form of:
(A) Tuberculid
(B) Primary tuberculosis
(C) Postprimary tuberculosis with good resistance
(D) Post primary tuberculosis with poor resistance
Answer: (C)
504. Most common type of cutaneous T.B. is:
(A) Lupus vulgaris
(B) Scrofuloderma
(C) T.B. verruca cutis
(D) Erythema induratum
Answer: (A)
505. Skin manifestations of T.B.
(A) Lupus vulgaris
(B) Lupus pernio
(C) Scrofuloderma
(D) Butcher warts
Answer: (A, C)
506. Tuberculosis of skin is called as
(A) Lupus Vulgaris
(B) Lupus Pernio
(C) Lupus profundus
(D) Scrofuloderma
Answer: (A)
507. True about lupus vulgaris-
(A) Apple jelly nodule at root of nose
(B) TB of skin & mucosa
(C) Also known as scrofuloderma
(D) ATT is helpful
Answer: (A)
508. A 12 year old boy had a gradually progressive plaque on a buttock for the last 3 years. The plaque was 15 cm in diameter, annular in shape, with crusting and induration at the periphery and scarring at the center. The most likely diagnosis.
(A) Tineacorporis
(B) Granuloma annulare
(C) Lupus vulgaris
(D) Borderline leprosy.
Answer: (C)
509. An 8 year old boy present with well defined annular lesion over the buttock with central scarring that is gradually progressive over the last 8 months. The diagnosis is:
(A) Annular psoriasis
(B) Lupus Vulgaris
(C) TineaCorporis
(D) Chronic granulomatous disease
Answer: (B)
510. A young boy presented with a lesion over his right buttock which had peripheral scaling and central clearing with scarring. The investigation of choice would be:
(A) Tzanksmear
(B) KOH preparation
(C) Biopsy
(D) Sabourad’s agar
Answer: (C)
511. Apple-jelly nodules is/are seen in :
(A) Lupus vulgaris
(B) DLE
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Psoriasis
Answer: (A)
512. 20 year old male from Jaipur with erythermatous lesion on cheek with central crusting likely diagnosis is:
(A) SLE
(B) Lupus Vulgaris
(C) Chillblain
(D) Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
Answer: (D)
513. A farmer h as a single warty lesion on leg. Which of the following could be most likely lesion :
(A) Verruca vulgaris
(B) Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis
(C) Mycetoma
(D) Lichen planushypertrophicus
Answer: (B)
514. Cutaneous (skin) Tuberculosis secondary to underlying tissue eg lymph node is called as
(A) Lupus Vulgaris
(B) Scrofuloderma
(C) SpinaVentosa
(D) TuberculousVerrucosa Cutis
Answer: (B)
515. Tuberculides are seen in
(A) Lupus vulgaris
(B) Scrofuloderma
(C) Lichen scrofulososum
(D) Erythema nodosum
Answer: (C)
516. Which of the following is/are tuberculides
(A) Lichen scrofulosorum
(B) Lichen nichidus
(C) Lichen aureus
(D) Erythema nodosum.
Answer: (A, D)
517. Involvement of sweat gland, dermal appendages, and hair follicles with epitheloid granuloma are typical features of which of the following?
(A) Lichen Scrofulosum
(B) Miliary TB
(C) Papulonecrotic type
(D) Lupus vulgaris
Answer: (A)
518. Mycobacterium causing skin ulcer :
(A) M.smegmatis
(B) M.scrofulaceum
(C) M.ulcerans
(D) M.fortiutum
(E) M.marinum
Answer: (C)
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519. Skin hazards of swimming are :
(A) Verrucae
(B) Pyodermagangrenosum
(C) M. marinum infection
(D) M. ulcerans infection
Answer: (A, C)
520. Epitheloid granuloma is characteristic of
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Eosinohilia
(C) T.B.
(D) Mycosis Fungoides
Answer: (A)
521. Staphylococcla infection causes all disease except :
(A) Impetigo
(B) Erysipelas
(C) Ecthyma
(D) Scaldy Skin Syndrome
Answer: (B)
522. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
(A) Staphylococcal infection
(B) Streptococcus
(C) Pseudomonas
(D) E. Coli
Answer: (A)
523. False statement about impetigo
(A) Mostly caused by staphylococcus or streptococcus or both
(B) It predisposes to glomerulonephritis
(C) Produces scar on healing
(D) Erythromycin is drug of choice
(E) It is infectious lesion
Answer: (C, D)
524. Commonest skin infection in children is –
(A) Scabies
(B) Impetgocontagiosa
(C) Molluscumcontagiosa
(D) Warts
Answer: (B)
525. Impetigo contageosa most commonly due to :
(A) Group B Streptococcus
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Moniliasis
(D) Streptococcus Viridans
Answer: (B)
526. ‘Honey colored’ crusts are characteristic of :
(A) Nummular eczema
(B) Impetigo
(C) Herpes zoster
(D) Cutaneous diphtheria
Answer: (B)
527. True about Impetigo is :
(A) Contagious
(B) Bacterial infection
(C) Non contagious
(D) Honey coloured cast
(E) Viral infection
Answer: (A, B, D)
528. Erysipeloid is transmitted by :
(A) Droplet
(B) Feco-oral
(C) Mosquito bite
(D) Contact with animal
Answer: (D)
529. Staphylococcus causes A/E :
(A) Scarlet fever
(B) TSS
(C) Carbuncle
(D) Sycosisbarbae
Answer: (A)
530. Desquamation of skin occurs in
(A) Erythema infectiosum
(B) Kawasaki disease
(C) Scarlet fever
(D) Toxic shock syndrome
(E) Infectious mononucleosis
Answer: (B, C, D)
531. Which of these statements is false for Erythermamarginatum :
(A) Lesions are serpiginous
(B) Characteristically it is an evanescent
(C) Rash worsens on application of heart
(D) Rash is itchy
Answer: (D)
532. After 3 days of fever patient developed maculo erythematous rash lasting for 48 hrs diagnosis is:
(A) Fifth disease
(B) Rubella
(C) Measles
(D) Roseolainfantum
Answer: (D)
533. Primary pyodermas are:
(A) Impetigo contagiosa
(B) Ecthyma
(C) Furncle
(D) Pyodermagangrenosa
(E) Impetigo herpetiformes
Answer: (A, B, C)
534. Which of the following are bacterial infection of skin-
(A) Pyodermagangrenosum
(B) Piedra
(C) Impetigo contagiosa
(D) Ecthyma
Answer: (C)
535. Which of the following are fungal infection of skin –
(A) Sporothrichosis
(B) Molluscumcontagiousm
(C) Madura foot
(D) Tinea
Answer: (A)
536. Which of the following stains is used to study fungal morphology in tissue sections
(A) PAS
(B) Von-kossa
(C) Alizarin Red
(D) Masson’s Trichrome
Answer: (A)
537. Dermatophytes are :
(A) Sporothrix
(B) Tineaversicularis
(C) Microsporidium
(D) Trichophytonrubrum
(E) All of the above
Answer: (D, C)
538. Dermatophytes infection to:
(A) Superficial
(B) Subdermal
(C) Subfascial
(D) Muscular
Answer: (A)
539. Ring worm fungi live in
(A) Stratum Corneum
(B) Dermis
(C) Prickel Cell layer
(D) Basal Cell layer
Answer: (A)
540. Which does not cause TineaCapitis
(A) Epidermophyton
(B) Microsporum
(C) TrichophytonRubrum
(D) TrichophytonViolaceum/Schoenleiniii
Answer: (A)
541. Most common organism causing T. capitis is
(A) Trichophytontonsurans
(B) Microsporum
(C) Epidermophyton
(D) Candida albicans
Answer: (B)
542. Black dot ring worm is caused by-
(A) Microsporon
(B) Trichophyton
(C) Epiermophyton
(D) Candida
Answer: (B)
543. Karion is seen in
(A) Candida infection
(B) Trichomoniasis
(C) Pityraisis
(D) Dermatophystosis
Answer: (D)
544. An 8 yr old boy presents with boggy swelling and easily pluckable hair, Diagnosis is
(A) Tineacapitis
(B) Alopecia areata
(C) Tuberculoid leprosy
(D) Pityriasisalba
Answer: (A)
545. A 8 year old child has localized non cicatrial alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. The diagnosis is :
(A) TineaBarbae
(B) Alopecia areata
(C) TineaCapitis
(D) Lichen planus
Answer: (C)
546. A 10-yr-old boy presented with painful boggy swelling of scalp, multiple sinuses with purulent discharge, easily pluckable hair, and lymph nodes enlarged in occipital region. Which one of the following would be most help full for diagnostic evaluation?
(A) Biopsy and Giemsa staining
(B) Bacterial culture
(C) KOH amount
(D) Patch test, Gram staining &Tzank smear
Answer: (C)
547. An eleven year old boy is having tineacapitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is:
(A) Oral griseofulvin therapy
(B) Topical griseofulvin therapy
(C) Shaving of the scalp
(D) Selenium sulphide shampoo
Answer: (A)
548. Tineaungum effects
(A) Nail fold
(B) Nail plate
(C) Joints
(D) Inter digital space
Answer: (B)
549. Treatment of tineaunguium –
(A) Fluticasone
(B) Itraconazole
(C) Oleamine oil
(D) Turbinafin
(E) Neomycin
Answer: (B)
550. CiclipiroxOleaine is used in :
(A) Dermatophytosis
(B) Acne
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Lichen Planus
Answer: (A)
551. DOC for TeniaUngum
(A) Ampthotericin B
(B) Miconazole
(C) Gresiofulvin
(D) Nystatin
Answer: (C)
552. Grisefulvin given for the treatment of fungal infection in the figure nail dermatophytosis for how much duration
(A) 4 weeks
(B) 6 weeks
(C) 2 months
(D) 3 months
Answer: (D)
553. Not used topically
(A) Nystatin
(B) Ketoconazole
(C) Griseofulvin
(D) Micronazole
Answer: (C)
554. Grisofulvin is used in all except
(A) TineaCaptitis
(B) TineaVersicolor& Candida
(C) TineaCorporis
(D) TineaUngium
Answer: (B)
555. Regarding Athelete’s foot which us correct:
(A) 4th tow web is commonly involved
(B) Severe itching
(C) Caused by trichophytonmentagrophyte
(D) Hyperhydrosis is present
(E) All of the above
Answer: (E)
556. Dhobi’s itch is :
(A) Tineacorfioris
(B) Tineacruris
(C) Tineabarbae
(D) Tineacapitis
Answer: (B)
557. Most common age group to suffer from T. Cruris
(A) Infant
(B) Male child
(C) Adult male
(D) Adult female
Answer: (C)
558. A 22 year sold male patient presents with a complaints of severe itching and white scaly lesions in the groin for past month. Which of the following is most likely to be the causative agent.
(A) Trichophytonrubrum
(B) Candida albicans
(C) Candida glabrata
(D) Malassezia furfur
Answer: (A)
559. A 36 years old factory worker developed itchy annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Erythema annularecentrifugam
(B) Granuloma annulare
(C) Annular lichen planus
(D) Teniacruris
Answer: (D)
560. Tinea incognito is seen with :
(A) Steroid treatment
(B) 1% BHi3
(C) 5% permethrin
(D) Antibiotics
Answer: (A)
561. A 30 yr old female presents with history of itching under right breast. On examination annular ring lesion was present under the breast. The diagnosis is:
(A) Trichophytonrubrum
(B) Candida albicans
(C) Epidermophyton
(D) Microsporum
Answer: (A)
562. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular paque on the face is :
(A) Gram’s stain
(B) Potassium hydroxide mount
(C) Tissue smear
(D) Wood’s lamp examination
Answer: (B)
563. Which of the following drugs is not antifungal?
(A) Capofungin
(B) Undecylenic acid
(C) Ciclopirox
(D) Clofazimine
Answer: (D)
564. An otherwise healthy male presents with a creamy curd like white patch on the tongue. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Candidiasis
(B) Histoplasmosis
(C) Lichen Planus
(D) Aspergillosis
Answer: (A)
565. Commonest fungal infection of the female genitalia in diabetes is :
(A) Cryptococcal
(B) Madura mycosis
(C) Candidial
(D) Aspergellosis
Answer: (C)
566. A washerman presents with thickness erosion &discolouration of web spaces of toes diagnosis is:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) TineaUnguum
(C) Both
(D) Candidiasis
Answer: (D)
567. Drug of choice in systemic candidiasis is :
(A) Amphotericin
(B) Griseofulvin
(C) Nystatin
(D) Ketoconazole
Answer: (A)
568. About dematophytes all are true except
(A) Candida albicans usually cause systemic infection
(B) Dermatophytes involve superficial layers of skin
(C) Microsporum doesn’t involve nail
(D) Epidermophyte doesn’t involve hair
Answer: (A)
569. Discharging sinus is seen in
(A) Syphillis
(B) Herpes
(C) Actinomycosis
(D) MolluscumContagiosum
Answer: (C)
570. Linear lesion is seen in:
(A) Sporotrichosis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Pemphigus
Answer: (A)
571. Wavelength of light produced by wood’s Lamp is –
(A) 320 nm
(B) 360 nm
(C) 400 nm
(D) 480 nm
(E) 760-800 nm
Answer: (B)
572. The range of light which causes maximum skin damage
(A) 360-400 nm
(B) 290-360 nm
(C) 240-290 nm
(D) 760-800 n m
Answer: (B)
573. Medically most important form of UV radiation is –
(A) UV-A
(B) UV-B
(C) UV-C
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
574. The wood’s lamp filter is made of –
(A) Tin and chromium oxide
(B) Nickel oxide and silica
(C) Copper oxide and Barium oxide
(D) Zinc oxide
Answer: (B)
575. A pinkish red Fluorescence of urine with wood’s lamp is
(A) Lead poisoning
(B) Porphyria cutaneatarda
(C) Erythromelagia
(D) Acrocyanosis
Answer: (B)
576. Coral red-fluorescence wood’s Lamp seen in-
(A) Porphyria cutaneatarda
(B) Erythrasma
(C) Livedo-reticulris
(D) Hypomelanosis
Answer: (B)
577. Wood’s lam light is used in the diagnosis of :
(A) Tineacapitis
(B) Candida albicans
(C) Histoplasma
(D) Cryptococcos
Answer: (A)
578. Uses of woods light includes :
(A) Urine examination in porphyria
(B) Examination of hair in T. capitis
(C) Selerema
(D) All
Answer: (D)
579. Scabies, an infection of the skin caused by Sarcoptes scabiet, is an example of
(A) Water borne disease
(B) Water washed disease
(C) Water based disease
(D) Water related disease
Answer: (D)
580. Incubation period of scabies is
(A) 7 days
(B) 2 weeks
(C) 4 weeks
(D) 2-3 days
Answer: (C)
581. Characteristic lesion of scabies is-
(A) Burrow
(B) Fissure
(C) Vesicle
(D) Papule
Answer: (A)
582. The burrows in scabies is in the
(A) Straum germination
(B) Straum corneum
(C) Malphigian layer
(D) Dermis
Answer: (B)
583. Most severe form of scabies-
(A) Norwegian scabies
(B) Neular scabies
(C) Animal scabies
(D) Genital
(E) Generalized scabies
Answer: (A)
584. Nodular scabies is found in
(A) Web space of finger
(B) Axilla
(C) Abdomen
(D) Scrotum
Answer: (D)
585. Circle of hebra is associated with :
(A) Syphilis
(B) Scabies
(C) Leprosy
(D) Lichen planus
Answer: (B)
586. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects
(A) Web space
(B) Face
(C) Genitalia
(D) Axilla
Answer: (B)
587. Adult scabies is characterized by –
(A) Involve palm & soles
(B) Involve face
(C) Involve anterior abdomen
(D) Involve web space
(E) Involve genitalia
Answer: (A, D, E)
588. A 9 month old child as multiple itchy papulovesicular lesion on face, trunk, palm & sole. Similar lesions are also seen in the younger brother. Which of the following is most possible diagnosis?
(A) Papular urticaria
(B) Scabies
(C) Atopic dermatitis
(D) Allergic contact dermatitis
Answer: (B)
589. An infant presented with itchy eczematous crusted lesions with exudation on palm, sole glans penis and face. All are true except :
(A) Family should be examined
(B) Only patient needs drug treatment
(C) Only patient needs drug treatment
(D) Distribution of lesion help in diagnosis making
(E) Drug should be applied to affected areas for whole day
Answer: (A, C, E)
590. An infant presenting with itchy lesions over groin and prepuce all is indicated except
(A) Bathe & apply scabicidal solution
(B) Treatment of all family members
(C) Dispose all clothes by burning
(D) IV antibiotics
Answer: (D)
591. An 8-month old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and soles. The siblings also have similar complaints. The treatment of choice is such a patient is :
(A) Systemic ampicillin
(B) Topical betamethasone
(C) Systemic prednisolone
(D) Topical permethrin
Answer: (D)
592. The drug used for scabies is/are
(A) Sulphur ointment
(B) Benzyle benzoate
(C) Gamma benzene hexachloride
(D) Crotamiton
(E) All of the above
Answer: (E)
593. Ivermectin in indicated in the treatment of :
(A) Syphilis
(B) Scabies
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Dermatophytosis
Answer: (B)
594. Permethrin is used in treatment of
(A) Scabies
(B) Leprosy
(C) Body Louse
(D) Leishmaniaris
Answer: (A)
595. Drugs/treatment used in scabies are
(A) Crotamiton
(B) Permethrin
(C) Lindane
(D) Gammexene
(E) Washing of body clothing
Answer: (ALL)
596. A 6 month old infant presented with multiple erythematous papules & exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk few vesicles on palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother has H/o itchy lesions. The most likely diag is :
(A) Scabies
(B) Infantile eczema (atopic dermatitis)
(C) Infantile sebornheic dermatitis
(D) Impetigo contagiosa
(E) Seborrheic dermatitis
Answer: (A)
597. Vagabond’s disease is
(A) Pediculosiscorposis
(B) Scabies
(C) Eczema
(D) Ringworm
Answer: (A)
598. TOC for pediculosiscorporis is
(A) 3 application of BHC
(B) 4 application of BHC
(C) Disinfection of all clothes and beddings
(D) DDT application
Answer: (C)
599. TOC in pediaculosiscorporis is
(A) 3 applications of Gama Benzene Hexa Chloride
(B) One applications of Benzyl Benzoate
(C) 4 application of Benzyl Benzoate
(D) Disinfection of Clothes only
Answer: (A)
600. Verrucosa Vulgaris is caused by :
(A) HPV
(B) EBV
(C) CMV
(D) HIV
Answer: (A)
601. Genital Warts (condylomaaccuminata) are most commonly caused by which of the following serotypes of HPV?
(A) HPV 6
(B) HPV 16
(C) HPV 18
(D) HPV 33
Answer: (A)
602. Myrmecia warts are –
(A) Planer wart
(B) Plantar wart
(C) Verrucous wart
(D) Palmer wart
Answer: (B)
603. All are true regarding viral warts except
(A) Basophilic stippling
(B) Koilocytes are characteristic
(C) Spontaneous regression common in children
(D) Perinucear vacuolization.
(E) Verruca vulgaris is associated with HPV
Answer: (E)
604. Immunomodulator used in treatment of genital warts is
(A) ATRA
(B) Podophyllin
(C) Imiquimod
(D) Prednisolone
Answer: (C)
605. Podophylline is used in treatment of
(A) Plantar warts
(B) Palmar warts
(C) Comdylomataaccuminata (Genital wart)
(D) Condylomatalata
Answer: (C)
606. Regarding podophylin resin which of following statement is true :
(A) Dervied from plant source
(B) Safe in pregnancy
(C) Teratogenic
(D) High recurrence rate of wart after podophyllin resin treatment
(E) Individual variation in response rate
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
607. Treatment of choice for genital warts in pregnancy?
(A) Salicylic Acid with Lactic Acid solution
(B) Podopylin
(C) Imiqimod
(D) Cryotherapy
Answer: (D)
608. HPV vaccine is :
(A) Monovalent
(B) Bivalent
(C) Quadrivalent
(D) Bivalent and quadrivalent
Answer: (D)
609. Gonococcus is –
(A) Extracellular gram positive
(B) Intracytoplasmic gram positive
(C) Intracytoplasmic gram negative
(D) Intra nuclear gram positive
Answer: (C)
610. The commonest venereal disease in India is –
(A) Gonorrhoea
(B) Syphilis
(C) Chancroid
(D) LGV
Answer: (A)
611. The main feature of gonorrhea is –
(A) Purulent discharge per urethra
(B) Inguinal adenitis
(C) Ulcer over glans penis
(D) Rashes
Answer: (A)
612. Gonococcus resistant structure is
(A) Urethra
(B) Testis
(C) Fallopian Tube
(D) Ampulla of cervix
Answer: (B)
613. C. cause of Nongonococcal Urethritis
(A) Chlamydia
(B) Mycoplasma
(C) Trichomonas
(D) Gram negative rod
Answer: (A)
614. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of :
(A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis
(B) Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes ganitalis
(C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
(D) Syphilis and chancroid
Answer: (C)
615. TOC for penicillin resistant gonorrhea
(A) Ciprofloxacin
(B) Ceftriaxone
(C) Streptomycine
(D) Erythromycin
Answer: (B)
616. LGV is caused by
(A) Chalamydia trachomatis
(B) Haemophylusducrei
(C) HTLV type II
(D) Donovanosisgranulomatis
Answer: (A)
617. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in:
(A) Chancroid
(B) Granuloma Inguinale
(C) LGV
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (C)
618. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in :
(A) Chancroid
(B) Granuloma Inguinale
(C) LGV
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (C)
619. Sign of Groove is found in –
(A) Chancoid
(B) Granuloma inguinale
(C) LGV
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (C)
620. Genital elephantiasis is caused by :
(A) Donovanosis
(B) Congenital syphilis
(C) Herpes genaitalis
(D) Lymphogranulomavenerum
Answer: (D)
621. Esthiomine is seen in-
(A) Chancroid
(B) Syphilis
(C) LGV
(D) Gonorrhoea
Answer: (C)
622. Frie test is done in
(A) Donovanosis
(B) LGV
(C) Syphilis
(D) Leprosy
Answer: (B)
623. DOC for LGV
(A) Doxycycline
(B) Ampicillin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Ceftriaxone
Answer: (A)
624. Donovanosis/granuloma venerum is caused by
(A) Calymatobactergranulomatis
(B) T. pertenue
(C) Chlamydia Trachomatis
(D) H. ducreyl
Answer: (A)
625. Pseudo Bubo is seen in
(A) Chancroid
(B) LGV
(C) Donovanois
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (C)
626. Lymphadenopathy is seen is A/E
(A) Syphilis 1st Stage
(B) Donovanosis
(C) LGV
(D) Chancroid
Answer: (B)
627. A 30 year old male patient has a large, spreading and exuberant ulcer with bright red granulation tissue over the glands penis. There was no lymphadenopathy. The most likely causative organism is;
(A) Treponemapallidum
(B) Herpes simplex virus type 1
(C) Herpes simplex virus type 2
(D) Calymmatobacteriumgranulomatis
Answer: (D)
628. Safety pin appearance is shown by-
(A) Hemophhilusducreyi
(B) Chalmydia
(C) Donovanigranulomatis
(D) Mycoplasma
Answer: (C)
629. Treatment of granuloma inguinale is-
(A) Tetracycline
(B) Sulphanomide
(C) Streptomycin
(D) Penicillin
Answer: (A)
630. Drug of choice for Granuloma venereum –
(A) Sulphomamides
(B) Streptomycin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Erythromycin
(E) Gentamycin
Answer: (D)
631. Streptomycin is useful in treatment of
(A) Granuloma venerum
(B) LGV
(C) Syphilis
(D) Chancoid
Answer: (A)
632. Chanroid is caused by-
(A) Hemophilusducrey’s
(B) Hemojphilusvaginalis
(C) Trachoma virus
(D) Treponimapallidum
Answer: (A)
633. Chancroid may be caused by:
(A) T. pallidium
(B) G. donovani
(C) Chlamydia Trachomatis
(D) Herpes Hominis Virus
Answer: (D)
634. Reliable test for chancroid detection-
(A) Skin test
(B) Biopsy
(C) Grams stained smear
(D) Clinical examination
Answer: (C)
635. School of fish appearance is shown by :
(A) Hemophilusducreyi
(B) Gonococcus
(C) Chlamydia
(D) Donovaniagranulomatis
Answer: (A)
636. DOC in chancroid is
(A) Tetracycline
(B) Doxycycline
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Streptomycin
Answer: (C)
637. 20 year old male lalu develops multiple tender bleeding, nonindurated ulcer over prepuce and glans which are painful along with suppurative lymphadenopathy, 5 days after having sexual interc-ourse with a sex worker, most probable disease is
(A) LGV
(B) Herpes genitials
(C) MolluscumContagiousm
(D) Chancroid
(E) Donovanosis
Answer: (D)
638. Multiple necrotic ulcers in prepuce of penis with tender, suppurative inguinal nodes is caused by-
(A) Chalmydia
(B) Hemophilusducreyi
(C) Herpes simplex
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (B)
639. A man having multiple, painful, indurated, undermined, sloughed edged glans which occurred 5days after exposures; most likely diagnosis is
(A) Chancroid
(B) Primary chancre
(C) Herpes genitalis
(D) LGV
Answer: (A)
640. Painful lymphadenopathy is seen in:
(A) Donovanosis
(B) Syphilis
(C) Chancroid
(D) Herpes simplex
(E) Gonorrhea
Answer: (C, D)
641. A 30 year old male presented with ulcerative lesion on glans penis. Wright-Giemsa stain showed 1-2 rounded structure in macrophage vacuoles. What is the etiology
(A) Chlamydia trachomatis
(B) N. gonorrhoea
(C) H. ducreyi
(D) Calymatobacterium granulomatis
Answer: (D)
642. 19 years male develops painless penile ulcers 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professional sex worker likely diagnosis is:
(A) Chancroid
(B) Herpes
(C) Chancre
(D) Traumatic ulcer
Answer: (C)
643. A 23-year-old male had unprotectd sexual intercourse with a commercial sex worker. Two weeks later, he developed a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans which exuded clear serum on pressure. Inguinal lymph nodes in both groins were enlarged an not tender. The most appropriate diagnostic test is :
(A) Gram’s stain of ulcer discharge
(B) Dark field microscopy of ulcer discharge
(C) Giemsa stain of lymph node aspirate
(D) ELISA for HIV infection
Answer: (B)
644. A 24 year old male presents to a STC clinic with a single painless ulcer on external genitalia. The choice of laboratory test to look for the etiological agent would be
(A) Scrappings from ulcer for culture on chocolate agar with antibiotic supplement.
(B) Serology for detection of specific IgM antibodies.
(C) Scrappings from ulcer for dark field microscopy.
(D) Scrappings from ulcer for tissue culture
Answer: (C)
645. ‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of
(A) Early relapsing syphilis
(B) Late syphilis
(C) Chancroid
(D) Recurrent herpes simplex infection
Answer: (A)
646. Primary bullous lesions is seen in which type of syphilis
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Congenital
Answer: (D)
647. Characteristic feature of early congenital syphilis is:
(A) Microcephaly
(B) Saddle nose
(C) Interstitial keratitis with saber skin
(D) Vesicular rash with bulla over palms and soles
Answer: (D)
648. Hutchison’s syphilitic traid includes all except
(A) Associated with congenital syphilis
(B) Notched incisor teeth
(C) Nerve deafness
(D) Interstitial Keratitis
(E) Associated with CVS anomalies
Answer: (E)
649. Sabre Tibia
(A) Scury
(B) Rickets
(C) Leprosy
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (D)
650. A boy with multiple bullous lesions over trunk and periostitis on x-rays. What should be the next investigation
(A) VDRL of mother & child
(B) PCR for maternal TB
(C) HBsAg screening
(D) ELISA of mother and Child
Answer: (A)
651. A 40 year old female presented with numerous nonitchy, erythematous scaly papules (lesions) on trunk, with few oral white mucosal plaques. She also had erosive lesions in perianal area. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Secondary syphilis
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Disseminated candidiasis
Answer: (B)
652. In secondary syphilis all are seen except :
(A) Condylomalata
(B) Interstitial keratitis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Proteinuria
Answer: (B)
653. Early eruption of secondary syphilis are all except-
(A) Intensely pruritic
(B) Papular/maculo popular eruption
(C) Symmetrical
(D) Plemorphic
Answer: (A)
654. Not true of secondary syphilis
(A) May be asymptomatic
(B) Usually involve palms & soles
(C) Lymphadenopathy
(D) Vesicular Bullous lesions
Answer: (D)
655. Condylomatalatae are seen in
(A) Congenital syphilis
(B) Primary syphilis
(C) Secondary syphilis
(D) Tertiary syphilis
Answer: (C)
656. In secondary syphilis, true about rash is
(A) Pruritic
(B) Vesicular
(C) Asymptomatic
(D) Tender
Answer: (C)
657. Secondary syphilis manifested by
(A) Painless lymphadenopathy
(B) Pruritic rash
(C) Mucosal erosion
(D) Mostly asymptomatic
Answer: (A, C, D)
658. A 23-year-old college student has asymptomatic and hyperpigmened macules on both palms for three week. The most appropriate diagnostic test is :
(A) Veneral Diseases research Laboratory (VDRL) test
(B) Skin biopsy
(C) Serum cortisol levels
(D) Assay for arsenic in skin, hair & nails
Answer: (A)
659. Treponemapallidum isolation from CSF is maximum in which stage of syphilis?
(A) Primary syphilis
(B) Secondary syphilis
(C) Tertiary syphilis
(D) Tabesdorsalis
Answer: (B)
660. True about syphilis is A/E :
(A) VDRL is sensitive but not specific
(B) Infection leads to life long immunity
(C) IgM& IgA
(D) T. palladium when inoculated in rabbit produce progressive disease.
Answer: (B, C)
661. A patient has syphilis since 2 year. CSF examination was done & treatment started. Which of the following test is most useful in monitoring treatment
(A) TPI
(B) VDRL
(C) FTA
(D) Dark ground microscopy
Answer: (B)
662. Most specific test for syphilis
(A) VDRL
(B) RPR
(C) FTA-Abs
(D) Kahn’s test
Answer: (C)
663. Test not used for diagnosis of syphilis
(A) VDRL
(B) TPI
(C) Reagin Test
(D) Frei Test
Answer: (D)
664. DOC in primary syphilis is
(A) Corticosteroid
(B) Oral Penicilline
(C) Benzathine Penicillin
(D) Crystalline Penicillin
Answer: (C)
665. JarischHerxheimer reaction is commonly seen in :
(A) Early syphilis
(B) Late congenital syphilis
(C) Latent syphilis
(D) Syphilis of cardiovascular system
Answer: (A)
666. Not transmitted sexually
(A) Syphilis
(B) T. pertenue
(C) C. Candida
(D) Gonorrhoea
Answer: (B)
667. Incorrect statement is
(A) VDRL titre decreases with treatment
(B) VDRL becomes
(C) FTA-ABS is earliest & most sensitive test
(D) Yaws &Pinta can be differentiated by serological tests
Answer: (D)
668. A young man presents to the emergency department with a maculopapular rash 2 weeks after healing of a painless genital ulcer. The most likely etiological agent is
(A) Treponemapallidum
(B) Treponemapertunae
(C) Chalmydia Trachomatis
(D) Calymatobactergranulomatis
Answer: (A)
669. Drug of choice for syphilis in a pregnant women
(A) Azithromycin
(B) Penicillin
(C) Tetracycline
(D) Ceftriaxone
Answer: (B)
670. All is true about syphilis except
(A) Seropositive infant not treated at birth if mother received penicillin in 3rd trimester
(B) For neurosyphilis FTA-ABS is sensitive; VDRL diagnostic but CSF pleocylosis is best treatment response guide.
(C) HIV patients are less likely to become VDRL nonreactive after treatment
(D) ELA+, RPR+, indicate past or current infection
Answer: (A)
671. Treatment of both partners is recommended in A/E:
(A) Candida infection
(B) Gardenella
(C) Herpes
(D) Trichomonasvaginalis
Answer: (C, A)
672. Recurrent balanoposthitis seen in :
(A) DM
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Smoking
(D) Alcohol
(E) Bad hygiene
Answer: (A)
673. Genital ulcer is/are caused by :
(A) Human papilloma virus
(B) Herpes simplex virus
(C) HIV
(D) Treponemapallidum
(E) Lymphogranulomavenereum
Answer: (B, D, E > C, A)
674. Syndromic Management of genital ulcer syndrome in India includes
(A) Chancroid and Primary chancre
(B) Chancroid and herpes simplex
(C) Chancroid, Primary Chancre and herpes simplex
(D) Herpes simplex and primary chancre
Answer: (C)
675. Defective DNA repair is a/w
(A) Albinism
(B) Xerodermapigmentosa
(C) Vitiligo
(D) Icthyosis
Answer: (B)
676. disease that can cause skin malignancy are
(A) Xerodermapogmentosa
(B) Neurofibromatosis
(C) Actinic keratosis
(D) Porphyria cutaneatarda
Answer: (A)
677. Cells cultured from patients with this disorder exhibit low activity for the nucleotide excision repair process. This autosomal recessive genetic disease includes marked sensitivity to sunlight (Ultra violet light) with subsequent formation of multiple skin cancers and premature death, the disorder is:
(A) Acute intermittent Porphyria
(B) Alkaptonuria
(C) XerodermaPigmentosa
(D) Ataxia – Telangiectasa
Answer: (C)
678. A girl child with veerrucous lesions at an age of 2 weeks later on developed linear brands of hyperkeratotic papules and nodules followed by whorled pigmentation. Her mother had history of in utero child death and hypopigmented atrophic linear lesions. The diagnosis is
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Xerodermapirmentosa
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Incontinentiapigmenti
Answer: (D)
679. 2-month-old girl present with verrucous plaque on the trunk. What is your most probable diagnosis?
(A) Incontinentiapigmentosa
(B) Darier disease
(C) Congenital naevus
(D) Icthyosis
Answer: (A)
680. The mode of inheritance of incontinentia pigment is :
(A) Autosomal dominant
(B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked dominant
(D) X-linked recessive
Answer: (C)
681. True about incontinentapigmenti include the following except:
(A) X-linked dominant
(B) Primary skin abnormality
(C) Avascularity of peripheral retina
(D) Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% case and is typically unilateral
Answer: (D)
682. Neurofibromatosis all are true except :
(A) Autosomal recessive
(B) Scoliosis
(C) Neurofibroma
(D) Association with cataract
Answer: (A)
683. The pathognomonic sign of a neurofibromatosis is :
(A) Café-au-lait macules
(B) Axillary frekling
(C) Shagreen patch
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
684. Lisch nodule is seen in:
(A) Von Reclinghausens disease
(B) Lupus vulgaris
(C) Leprosy
(D) LGV
Answer: (A)
685. A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?
(A) Slit lamp examination of eye
(B) Measurement of intraocular tension
(C) Examination of fundus
(D) Retinal artery angiography
Answer: (A)
686. Child with h/o hypopigmented macule on back, infantile spasm and delayed milestone has
(A) NF
(B) Sturge weber syndrome
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Nevus anemicus.
Answer: (C)
687. All are seen in Tuberous sclerosis except
(A) Iris Nodule
(B) Renal Cortical Cyst
(C) Rhabdomyoma of heart and lung
(D) Adenoma Sebaceum
Answer: (A)
688. Adenoma sebaceum is a feature of:
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Tubercous sclerosis
(C) Xanthomatosis
(D) Incontinenetiapigmenti
Answer: (B)
689. Babloo a 4 year male presents with history of seizures. On examination there is hypopigmented patches on face & mental retardation. Most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Tuberous sclerosis
(C) Sturge Weber Syndrome
(D) IncontinentaPigmenti
Answer: (B)
690. Ash leaf maculate is found in :
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Neurofibromatosis
(C) Lymphangioma
(D) None
Answer: (A)
691. Koenen’speriungual fibromas are seen in > 50% of cases with:
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Sturge weber syndrome
(C) Alaxia telangiectasia
(D) Neurofibroatosis
Answer: (A)
692. All are true regarding tuberous sclerosis except
(A) Autosomal dominant sporadic transmission
(B) Vogt triad of epiloia
(C) Cafe au lait macules exclude the diagnosis
(D) Fibrous facial plaque
(E) Stippled confetti spots.
Answer: (C)
693. Inheritance of ichthyosis vulgaris is :
(A) X linked dominant
(B) X linked recessive
(C) Autosomal dominant
(D) Autosomal recessive
Answer: (C)
694. Crocodile skin or sauroderma is seen in:
(A) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Darier’s disease
(D) Ichthyosis vulgaris
Answer: (D)
695. Granular layer is absent in :
(A) Ichtyosis vulgaris
(B) X linked ichthyosis
(C) Epidermolytic hyper keratosis
(D) Lamellar ichthyosis
Answer: (A)
696. A male child with cryptorchidism presents with large black scales on body flexures. Skin biopsy showed hyper granulosis& steroid sulfatase deficiency. Probable diagnosis is
(A) Icthysois vulgaris
(B) Icthyosis-lamellar
(C) X linked icthyosisnigra
(D) Nonbullousicthyosiformerythroderma
Answer: (C)
697. Icthyosis is associated with :
(A) Hodgkins disease
(B) AIDS
(C) Hypothyroidism
(D) All
Answer: (D)
698. Ichthysis is caused by :
(A) Hemosiderosis
(B) Refsum disease
(C) Niacin deficiency
(D) Steven Johnson syndrome
Answer: (B)
699. Keratomdrma is/are seen in
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Pityriasisrosea
(C) Pityriasisherpetiformis
(D) Reiter’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
700. Casal’s paint necklace is caused by :
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Pellagra
(C) Pernicious anemia
(D) SLE
Answer: (B)
701. Flaky pain appearance of skin is seen in
(A) Dermatitis
(B) Pellagra
(C) Marasmus
(D) Kwashiorkar
Answer: (D)
702. Recurrent oral ulcers with pain and erythematous halo around them, diagnosis is
(A) Apthus ulcer
(B) Herpes
(C) Chicken pox
(D) Measles
Answer: (A)
703. All are true about Achrodermatitisenteropathica except :
(A) ↓Zn level (low serum zinc level)
(B) Reverse with Zn suppement
(C) Triad of acral dermatitis, dementia & diarrhea
(D) AR
Answer: (C)
704. Dermatitis and alopecia are due to deficiency of :
(A) Zinc
(B) Molybodenum
(C) Magnesium
(D) Calcium
Answer: (A)
705. Acrodermatitisenteropathica is d/t deficiency of :
(A) Zn
(B) Se
(C) Cu
(D) Cr
Answer: (A)
706. The rash in measles occurs first in occurs first in the –
(A) Forehead
(B) Post auricular
(C) Chest
(D) Neck
Answer: (B)
707. Erythema marginatum is seen in :
(A) Drug reactions
(B) Typhoid fever
(C) Enteric fever
(D) Rheumatic fever
Answer: (D)
708. Rose spot are seen in :
(A) Typhus fever
(B) Typhoid fever
(C) Enteric fever
(D) Rheumatic fever
Answer: (C)
709. ‘Slapped cheeks’ appearance is seen in
(A) Roseloainfantum
(B) Erythema subitum
(C) Erythema infectiosum
(D) Erythema multiforme
Answer: (C)
710. Phrynoderma is a cutaneous manifestation of severe deficiency of vitamin :
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: (A)
711. Veldt sore is most common in –
(A) Hilly areas
(B) Tropical climate
(C) Rainy areas
(D) Deserts
Answer: (D)
712. ‘Cayenne pepper’ stippling due to hemosiderin is found in :
(A) Erythroplasia of Queyrat
(B) Pagets disease
(C) Plasma cell balantitis of zoon
(D) Metronidazole
Answer: (C)
713. Common sites of Mongolian spot are :
(A) Face
(B) Neck
(C) Lumbo sacral area
(D) Leg
(E) Thigh
Answer: (C, D, E)
714. Which of the following condition resolves spontaneously in an infant :
(A) Erythema toxicum
(B) Mongolian spot
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Milia
(E) Port wine stain
Answer: (A, B, D)
715. Erythema toxicum in a neonate indicates –
(A) Staphylococcal sepsis
(B) Pneumococcemia
(C) Drug hypersensitivity
(D) Is not of any significance
Answer: (D)
716. Riehl’smelanosis mainly involves –
(A) Face and Neck
(B) Trunk
(C) Extremities
(D) Palms only
Answer: (A)
717. C. site of Atopic dermatitis
(A) Scalp
(B) Elbow
(C) Antecubital fossa
(D) Trunk
Answer: (C)
718. Monogolian spots is usually seen at region –
(A) Cervicofacial
(B) Lumbosacral
(C) Deltoid
(D) Thoraco lumbar
Answer: (B)
719. Shagreen patch is usually found in –
(A) Face
(B) Cervical region
(C) Limbs
(D) Lumbosacral region
Answer: (D)
720. Morphea occurs usually in :
(A) Forehead
(B) Sternum
(C) Limbs
(D) Back
Answer: (A)
721. Fine reticular pigmentation with palmar pits are seen in :
(A) Dowling-Degos disease
(B) Rothmund Thomson syndrome
(C) Cockyane syndrome
(D) Bloom’s syndrome
Answer: (A)
722. Underlying internal malignancy is not shown by
(A) Acanthosisnigricans&Annular erythema
(B) Bullous pyoderma& migratory necrotizing
(C) Granuloma annulare
(D) Erythema gyratumrepens
Answer: (C)
723. Following are signs of internal malignancy except :
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Acanthosisnigricans
(C) Clubbing
(D) Dermatomyositis
(E) None
Answer: (E)
724. Skin markers of internal malignancy are/is
(A) Acanthosisnigricans
(B) Migratory necrolytic erythema
(C) Necrobiosislipodica
(D) Bullous pemphigoid
(E) Dermatomyositis
Answer: (A, B, D)
725. Multiple sebaceous tumors are seen in
(A) Gardner’s syndrome
(B) Cowden’s syndrome
(C) Carney complex
(D) Muir-Torr syndrome
Answer: (D)
726. Predisposing factors for skin ca are :
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Bowen’s disease
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Behcet’s disease
(E) U V rays
Answer: (A, B, E)
727. Changes of squamous cell carcinoma are seen in :
(A) Seborrhoeic keratosis
(B) Bowen’s disease
(C) Lichen planus
(D) DLE
Answer: (B, D, C)
728. Actinic keratosis is seen in :
(A) Basal cell carcinoma
(B) Squamous cell carcinoma
(C) Malignant melanoma
(D) Epithelial cell carcinoma
Answer: (B)
729. Which is related to sunlight exposure
(A) Actinic keratosis
(B) Molluscumcontagiosum
(C) Icthyosis
(D) Basal cell carcinoma
Answer: (A)
730. Acanthosisnigricans is indicative of :
(A) Internal malignancy
(B) Endocrine disorder
(C) Blooms syndrome
(D) Pigmentation of face, neck etc.
(E) All are correct
Answer: (E)
731. AcanthosisNigricans in old patient usually indicate :
(A) Skin Disorder
(B) Malignancy
(C) Senile Brain
(D) Usually found in negro
Answer: (B)
732. False regarding acanthosisnigricans is
(A) Prognostic indicator
(B) Velvety plaques on dirty hyperpigmentation
(C) Gastric adenocarcinoma is commonest malignant association
(D) Indicate hyper androgenic state
Answer: (C)
733. True about acanthosisnigricans
(A) Most commonly seen in obesity
(B) Seen in axilla
(C) It signifies internal malignancy
(D) It is associated with insulin resistance
(E) Seen in old age
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
734. Mycosis cells are altered :
(A) T. Lymphocytes
(B) Monocytes
(C) lymphocytes
(D) Eosinophils
Answer: (A)
735. Mycosis fungoides which is not true :
(A) It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma
(B) Pautriersmicroabscess
(C) Indolent course and good prognosis, easily amenable to treatment
(D) Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral
Answer: (C)
736. Pautrier’s micro-abscess is a histological feature of :
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) TB
(C) Mycosis fungoides
(D) Ptyriasislichenoideschronica
Answer: (C)
737. Which of the following statements about mycosis fungoides is not true?
(A) It is the most common skin lymphoma
(B) Pautriers micro abscesses are common
(C) It has a indolent course and good prognosis
(D) It presents with diffuse erythroderma.
Answer: (C)
738. TOC in mycosis fungoides
(A) 5 – FU
(B) Radiotherapy
(C) Full skin electron Therapy
(D) I/V Adriamycin
Answer: (C)
739. Total skin electron irradiation is used for treatment of
(A) Sezary syndrome
(B) Mycoses fungoides
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Brain metastasis of skin cancer
Answer: (B)
740. Langerhans cells in skin are :
(A) Antigen presenting cells
(B) Pigment producing cells
(C) Keratin synthesizing cells
(D) Sensory neurons
Answer: (A)
741. All are true about Langerhans’ histocytosis except?
(A) Common before 3 years of age
(B) Letterer Siwe disease is systemic manifestation
(C) Radio sensitive
(D) Testis is commonly involved
Answer: (D)
742. All are true regarding LCH except
(A) Papular trunk lesions with scaling & crusting
(B) Ulcerative nodules on mucosa
(C) Calvarial defect with ma lesions & floating teeth
(D) CD-68 positive
(E) Polyostotis bone lesions t/t by polychemotherapy
Answer: (D, E)
743. Rx of refractory histicytosis ?
(A) Cladarabine
(B) High dose MTX
(C) High dose cytosine arabinoside
(D) Fludarabine
Answer: (A)
744. Child presents with linear verrucous plaques on the trunk with vacuolization of keratinocytes in s. spinosum and s. granulosum. Diagnosis is:
(A) In continentapigmenti
(B) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
(C) Linear / Verrucous epidermal nevus
(D) Linear Darier’s disease
Answer: (C)
745. Chemical peeling is done by all except :
(A) Trichloroaccetic acid
(B) Phosphoric acid
(C) Carbolic acid
(D) Kojic acid
Answer: (B)
746. A mother brought her child which has got a vascular plaque like lesion over the lateral aspect of forehead mainly involving ophthalmic and maxillary division of trigeminal nerve. Mother says that the lesion remains unchanged since birth. Also mother gives a history that the child is on valproate for seizure disorder. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Tubernous sclerosis
(B) Infantile hemangioma
(C) Sturage weber syndrome
(D) Incontinentia pigment
Answer: (C)
747. Child with erythematous non blanching bosselated lesion on right side of face, Rx is :
2. Treatment of choice in Central safe perforation is
(A) Modified mastoidectomy
(B) Radical mastoidectomy
(C) Myringoplasty
(D) Clerance and antibiotics
Answer: (C)
3. All the following are true of Antrochoanal polyp except
(A) Common in children
(B) Single & Unilateral
(C) Bleeds on touch
(D) Treatment involves Avulsion
Answer: (C)
4. Excessive hemorrhage from tonsillectomy is due to injury of the
(A) External palatine vein
(B) Ascending palatine artery
(C) Facial artery
(D) Internal carotid artery
Answer: (B)
5. Tonsillectomy is indicated in
(A) Acute tonsillitis
(B) Aphthous ulcers in the pharynx
(C) Rheumatic tonsillitis
(D) Physiological enlargement
Answer: (C)
6. All the following are true about Laryngeal carcinoma except
(A) More common in females
(B) Common in patients over 40 years of age
(C) After laryngectomy, esophageal voice can be used
(D) Poor prognosis
Answer: (A)
7. Ludwig’s angina is characterized by all the following except
(A) Cellulitis of the floor of the mouth
(B) Caused by anaerobic organisms Aphthous ulcers in the pharynx
(C) Aphthous ulcers in the pharynx
(D) Infection spreads to Retropharyngeal space
Answer: (C)
8. Otospongiosis is inherited as
(A) Autosomal dominant
(B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked dominant
(D) X-linked recessive
Answer: (A)
9. The earliest symptom of acoustic nerve tumor is
(A) Hearing loss
(B) Tinnitus
(C) Vertigo
(D) Otorrhea
Answer: (A)
10. For ASOM, Myringotomy is done in which quadrant
(A) Antero-inferior
(B) Antero-superior
(C) Postero-superior
(D) Postero-inferior
Answer: (C)
11. A 4-year-old-child presents with fever and earache. One examination, there is a congested and bulging tympanic membrane. The treatment of choice is
(A) Myringotomy with penicillin
(B) Myringotomy with grommet inseration
(C) Only antibiotics
(D) Wait and watch
Answer: (A)
12. DNS may be associated with all the following except
(A) Recurrent sphenoidits
(B) Bilateral septal spur
(C) Hypertrophy of the inferior turbinate
(D) Recurrent maxillary sinusitis
Answer: (A)
13. CSF rhinorrhea is commonest in fracture of the
(A) Temporal bone
(B) Nasal bones
(C) Tempro-sphenoid
(D) Cribriform plate
Answer: (D)
14. Sensory nerve supply of Larynx below the level of vocal cord is by
(A) External branch of Superior Laryngeal nerve
(B) Internal branch of Superior Laryngeal nerve
(C) Recurrent Laryngeal nerve
(D) Inferior pharyngeal nerve
Answer: (C)
15. Abductor of vocal cord is
(A) Lateral cricoarytenoid
(B) Posterior cricoarytenoid
(C) Cricothyroid
(D) Thyroarytenoid
Answer: (B)
16. Which of the following carcinomas commonly presents with neck nodes
(A) Cricoid
(B) Glottic
(C) Epiglottis
(D) Anterior commissure
Answer: (C)
17. Treatment of choice for perforation in pars flaccid of the tympanic membrane with cholesteatoma is
(A) Myringoplasty
(B) MRM
(C) Antibiotics
(D) Radical mastoidectomy
Answer: (B)
18. Treatment of choice for CSOM with vertigo and facial nerve palsy is
(A) Antibiotics and Labyrinthine sedative
(B) Myringoplasty
(C) Immediate mastoid exploration
(D) Labyrinthe ctomy
Answer: (C)
19. Otospongiosis causes
(A) U/L conductive deafness
(B) B/L conductive deafness
(C) U/L sensorineural deafness
(D) B/L sensorineural deafness
Answer: (B)
20. Schwannoma involves the
(A) Vestibular part of VIIIth nerve
(B) Cochlear part of VIIIth nerve
(C) Vagus nerve
(D) Hypoglossal nerve
Answer: (A)
21. All of the following stand true for DNS except
(A) Recurrent sinusitis
(B) Atrophy of turbinate
(C) Epistaxis
(D) Hypertrophy of turbinate
Answer: (B)
22. Maggots in nasal cavity are most commonly treated by
(A) Ether
(B) Chloroform
(C) Turpentine oil
(D) Cocaine
Answer: (B)
23. Involvement of neck lymph nodes is seen in all the following except
(A) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(B) Vocal cord carcinoma
(C) Tumors of the hypopharynx
(D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Answer: (B)
24. Characteristic clinical features of menier’s disease include all of the following except :
(A) Vertigo
(B) Deafness
(C) Tinnitus
(D) Unconsciousness
Answer: (D)
25. All of the following steps are done in radical mastoidectomy except :
(A) Lowering of facial ridge
(B) Removal of middle ear mucosa and muscles
(C) Removal of all ossicles except stapes foot plate
(D) Maintenance of patency of eustachean tube
Answer: (D)
26. A 2 years child presents with B/L nasal pink masses. Most important investigation prior to undertaking surgery is :
(A) C.T Scan
(B) FNAC
(C) Biopsy
(D) Ultrasound
Answer: (A)
27. An old man with diabetes mellitus presents with blackish nasal discharge along with necrosed inferior turbinate. Most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Mucormycosis infection
(B) Cellular osteomyelitis
(C) Midline granuloma
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (A)
28. Most common presentation in nasopharyngeal carcinoma is with :
(A) Epistaxis
(B) Hoarseness of voice
(C) Nasal stuffiness
(D) Cervical lymphadenopathy
Answer: (D)
29. Commonest etiological agent of acute epiglottitis is :
(A) H. influenza
(B) Respiratory syncytial virus
(C) Influenza virus
(D) Parainflunza virus
Answer: (A)
30. Greyish white membrane in throat may be seen in all of the following infections except :
(A) Streptococcal tonsilitis
(B) Diptheria
(C) Adenovirus
(D) Ludwig’s angina
Answer: (D)
31. Best management of inhaled foreign body in an infant is :
(A) Bronchoscopy
(B) I.P.P.V & intubation
(C) Steroid
(D) Tracheostomy
Answer: (A)
32. A-7 years child presenting with acute ottitis media does not respond to ampicilline. The examination reveals is full and bulging tympanic membrane. The treatment of choiceis :
(A) Systemic steroid
(B) Ciprofloxacin
(C) Myringotomy
(D) Cortical mastiodectomy
Answer: (C)
33. A patient of CSOM has choleastatoma and presents vertigo with Treatment of choice would be :
(A) Antibiotics & labyrinthine sedative
(B) Myringoplasty
(C) Immediately mastoid exploration
(D) Labyrinthectomy
Answer: (C)
34. Features associated with DNS include all of the following except :
(A) Epistaxis
(B) Atrophy of turbinate
(C) Hypertrophy of turbinate
(D) Recurrent sinusitis
Answer: (B)
35. Maggots in nose are best treated by :
(A) Chloroform diluted with water
(B) Liquid parafin
(C) Systemic antibiotics
(D) Lignocaine spray
Answer: (A)
36. Most common cause of acute tonsillitis :
(A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(B) H. infleunza
(C) β hemolytic streptococci
(D) Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: (C)
37. A-7 years old child has periotonisillar abscess present with trismus. The best treatment is :
(A) Immediate abscess drain orally
(B) Drainage externally
(C) Systemic antibiotics up to 48 hours then drainage
(D) Tracheostomy
Answer: (A)
38. Treatment of choice in stage III carcinoma larynx is :
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Surgery + radiation
(C) surgery + chemotherapy
(D) Only radiotherapy
Answer: (B)
39. ‘In cold caloric stimulation test’, the cold water, induces movement of the eye ball in the following direction :
(A) Towards the opposite side
(B) Towards the same side
(C) Upwards
(D) Downwards
Answer: (A)
40. The statement about ASOM is :
(A) Most frequently it resolves without sequelae
(B) Commonly follows painful parotitis
(C) Radical mastoidectomy is required for treatment
(D) Most common organism is pseudomonas
Answer: (A)
41. Acoustic neuroma most commonly arise from :
(A) Superior vestibular nerve
(B) Inferior vestibular nerve
(C) Cochlear nerve
(D) Fascial nerve
Answer: (A)
42. Quinsy is synonymous with :
(A) Parapharyngeal abscess
(B) Retrophrangeal abscess
(C) Peritonsillar abscess
(D) Paratonsillar abscess
Answer: (C)
43. All are the true about tracheostomy tube except :
(A) Consist of 2 metallic tube
(B) Tubes are made of silver alloy and titaniumoxide
(C) Metallic tubes are ideally changed every 2-3 days
(D) Cuffed tubes used for IPPV
Answer: (C)
44. Monotogomery tube used in ENT procedure is a :
(A) Double barrel tube
(B) Lobster tail tube
(C) Airway tube
(D) Silicon-T-tube
Answer: (D)
45. A child was treated for H. Influenza meningitis for 6 month. Most important investigation to be done before discharging the patient is :
(A) MRI
(B) Brainstem evoked auditory response
(C) Growth screening test
(D) Psychotherapy
Answer: (B)
46. Direction of nasolacrimal duct is :
(A) Downwards, backwards and medially
(B) Downwards, backwards and laterally
(C) Downwards, forwards and medially
(D) Downwards, forwards and laterally
Answer: (A)
47. True statement about Rhinosporodiosis is :
(A) Most common organism is klebsicla rhinoscleromatis
(B) Seen only in immunocompromised patients
(C) Presents as a nasal polyp
(D) Can be diagnosed by isolation of organism
Answer: (C)
48. Alkaline nasal douche contains all of the following except :
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium biborate
(D) Glucose
Answer: (D)
49. Simple masotoidectomy is done for:
(A) Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
(B) Small localized cholesteatoma
(C) ASOM
(D) Acute mastoiditis
Answer: (D)
50. Arterial supply of tonsil is mainly:
(A) Tonsillar branch of facial artery
(B) Maxillary artery
(C) Middle meningeal artery
(D) Ext. carotid artery
Answer: (A)
51. Eustachian tube de3velops from:
(A) 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal pouch
(B) 1st pharyngeal pouch
(C) 2nd pharyngeal pouch
(D) 3rd pharyngeal pouch
Answer: (B)
52. In a 5 year old child, most common cause of unilateral epistaxis is :
(A) Foreign body
(B) Polyp
(C) Atrophic rhinitis
(D) Maggot’s
Answer: (B)
53. Acoustic neuroma causes the following except:
(A) Ptosis
(B) Nystagmus
(C) Unilateral deafness
(D) Loss of corneal reflex
Answer: (A)
54. Horner’s syndrome is caused by:
(A) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma metastasis
(B) Facial bone injury
(C) Maxillary sinusitis
(D) Ethmoid polyp
Answer: (A)
55. Otitic barotraumas results due to:
(A) Ascent in air
(B) Descent in air
(C) Linear acceleration
(D) Sudden acceleration
Answer: (B)
56. Most common cause of obstruction in atrophic rhinitis is:
(A) Excessive formation of crust
(B) Polyp
(C) Synechiae
(D) Hypertrophy of turbinate
Answer: (A)
57. Most common cause of stridor in a neonate is:
(A) Foreign body
(B) Bronchiolitis
(C) Bronchial asthma
(D) Laryngomalacia
Answer: (C)
58. Most common complication of tracheostomy is:
(A) Tracheoesophageal fistula
(B) Tracheocutaenous fistula
(C) Surgical emphysema
(D) Tracheal stenosis
Answer: (D)
59. Oblique and horizontal fracture of nasal septum is called as:
(A) Jarjavay and chevallet fracture
(B) Arnold fracture
(C) Citteli fracture
(D) Thudicum fracture
Answer: (A)
60. Narrowest part of middle ear is
(A) Hypotympanum
(B) Epitymapanum
(C) Attic
(D) Mesotympanum
Answer: (D)
61. In CSOM commonest operation done is:
(A) Modified radical mastoidectomy
(B) Radical mastoidectomy
(C) Simple mastoidectomy
(D) Tympanoplasty
Answer: (A)
62. Inner ear is present in which bone
(A) Perietal bone
(B) Petrous part of temporal bone
(C) Occipital bone
(D) Petrous part of squamous bone
Answer: (B)
63. To distinguish between cochlear and post cochlear damage, test done is:
(A) Brainstem evoked response
(B) Impedence audiometry
(C) Pure tone aduiometry
(D) Auditory cochlear potential
Answer: (A)
64. Frontal sinus drain into:
(A) Superior meatus
(B) Inf.meatus
(C) Middle meatus
(D) Ethmoid recess
Answer: (C)
65. Tonsillectomy following peritonsillar abscess is done after weeks:
(A) 1-3
(B) 6-8
(C) 4-6
(D) 8-12
Answer: (C)
66. Carhart’s notch is characteristically seen at
(A) 1000 hz
(B) 4000 hz
(C) 2000 hz
(D) 6000 hz
Answer: (C)
67. Scwartz operation is also called as:
(A) Cortical mastoidectomy
(B) Modified radical mastoidectomy
(C) Radical mastoidectomy
(D) Fenestration operation
Answer: (A)
68. Which artery does not contribute to little’s area
(A) Septal branch of facial artery
(B) Anterior ethmoidal artery
(C) Sphenopalantine A
(D) Posterior ethmoidal A
Answer: (D)
69. Hyperacusis is defined as
(A) Hearing of only loud sounds
(B) Normal sounds heard as loud and painful
(C) Completely deaf
(D) Ability to hear in noisy surroundings
Answer: (B)
70. Structures opening in middle meatus are all except :
(A) Ant. ethmoidal sinus
(B) Post. ethmoidal sinus
(C) Frontal sinus
(D) Maxillary sinus
Answer: (B)
71. Promontory seen in the middle ear is :
(A) Jugular bulge
(B) Basal turn of cochlea
(C) Semicircular canal
(D) Head of incus
Answer: (B)
72. MC cause of epistaxis in 3 years old child :
(A) Nasal polyp
(B) Foreign body
(C) Upper respiratory catarrh
(D) Atropic rhinitis
Answer: (B)
73. In B/L abductor palsy of vocal cords following is done except :
(A) Teflon paste
(B) Cordectomy
(C) Nerve muscle implant
(D) Arytenoidectomy
Answer: (A)
74. Symptom of meniere’s disease are A/E :
(A) Conduction deafness
(B) Vertigo
(C) Tinnitus
(D) Fullness of ear
Answer: (A)
75. Secretomotor fibres to parotid glands is supplied by nerve :
(A) Auriculotemporal N
(B) Gr. auricular N
(C) Lesser occipital N
(D) Facial nerve
Answer: (A)
76. CSF rhinorrhoea is most commonly due to fracture of :
(A) Sphenoid bone
(B) Roof of orbit
(C) Cribiform plate
(D) Frontal sinus
Answer: (C)
77. Cochlear aqueduct :
(A) Connects internal ear with subarachnoid space
(B) Connects cochlea with vestibule
(C) Contains endolymph
(D) Same as S media
Answer: (A)
78. Secretory otitis media is diagnosed by :
(A) Secretory otitis media is diagnosed by :
(B) Pure tone audiometry
(C) X-ray
(D) Otoscopy
Answer: (A)
79. Ear infection causes throat infection through :
(A) Blood spread
(B) Eustachian tube
(C) Nasocaranial spread
(D) Simultaneous infection
Answer: (B)
80. Heamorhagic external otitis media is caused by:
(A) Influenza
(B) Proteus
(C) Staph
(D) Streptococcus
Answer: (A)
81. Main blood supply of palate:
(A) Greater palatine
(B) Lesser palatine
(C) Ascending pharyngeal
(D) Lingual
Answer: (A)
82. Otomycosis is caused by:
(A) Candida
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer: (C)
83. Kartagener’s syndrome: Characteristic is:
(A) Absence of cilia
(B) Cilia number
(C) Ultra structural abnormality of cilia
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
84. Myringotomy is indicated in:
(A) Coalescent Mastoiditis
(B) Choleastetoma
(C) ASOM
(D) External otitis media
Answer: (C)
85. Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess is due to spasm to:
(A) Masseter muscle
(B) Medial pterygoid
(C) Lateral pterygoid
(D) Temporalis
Answer: (B)
86. In infant most sensitive audiometric screening is:
(A) Electrocochleography
(B) BERA
(C) Cortical evoked response
(D) Tympanometry
Answer: (B)
87. Schwartz sign is seen in:
(A) Otosclerosis
(B) Menieries disease
(C) ASOM
(D) CSOM
Answer: (A)
88. Best view for evaluating sphenoid sinus is :
(A) Water’s with open mouth
(B) Schuller’s view
(C) Towne’s view
(D) Lateral view
Answer: (A)
89. Ramsay hunt syndrome is caused by :
(A) H. simplex
(B) H. Zoster
(C) Influenza
(D) Adenovirus
Answer: (B)
90. The part most commonly involved in Otosclerosis is :
(A) Oval window
(B) Round window
(C) Tympanic membranes
(D) Malleus
Answer: (A)
91. A case of CSOM presenting with vertigo can have any of the following except :
(A) Dural separation
(B) Cerebellar abscess
(C) Fistula with semicircular canal
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (A)
92. Mastoid reservoir phenomena is positive in :
(A) CSOM
(B) Petrous. apicitis
(C) Coalescent otitis media
(D) Coalescent masoiditis
Answer: (D)
93. The diagnosis in a patient with 6th nerve palsy, retro orbital pain and peristant ear discharge is:
(A) Gradenigo’s syndrome
(B) Sjogrens syndrome
(C) Frey’s syndrome
(D) Rendu osler weber disease
Answer: (A)
94. Korner’s septum is seen in :
(A) Petrosquamous suture
(B) Temporosquamous suture
(C) Petromastoid suture
(D) Frontozygomatic suture
Answer: (A)
95. Meniere’s disease is :
(A) Perilymphatic hydrops
(B) Endolymphatic hydrops
(C) Otospongiosis
(D) Coalescent mastoiditis
Answer: (B)
96. Acoustic neuroma causes :
(A) Cochlear deafness
(B) Retrocochlear deafness
(C) Conductive deafness
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (B)
97. In case of bilateral hearing loss, what should be done :
(A) Stapedectomy
(B) Cochlear implant
(C) Hearing aid bone implant
(D) Sodium fluoride
Answer: (B)
98. Which among the following is not a feature of retracted tympanic membrane :
(A) Loss of cone of light
(B) Shortening of handle of malleus
(C) Draping of tympanic membrane over handle of malleus
(D) Degeneration of head of malleus
Answer: (D)
99. The commonest site of aspiration of a foreign body in the supine position is into the :
(A) Right upper lobe apical
(B) Right lower lobe apical
(C) Left basal
(D) Right medial
Answer: (B)
100. After the rupture of tympanic membrane the hearing loss :
(A) 10-40 dB
(B) 5-15 dB
(C) 20 dB
(D) 300 dB
Answer: (A)
101. Malignant otitis externa is :
(A) Malignancy of external ear
(B) Caused by hemophilus influenzae
(C) Blackish mass of aspergillus
(D) Pseudomonas infection in diabetic patient
Answer: (D)
102. Most common cause of stridor shortly after birth :
(A) Laryngeal papilloma
(B) Laryngeal web
(C) Laryngolmalacia
(D) Vocal cord palsy
Answer: (C)
103. Impedance denotes:
(A) Site of perforation
(B) Disease of cochlea
(C) Ds. of ossicles
(D) Higher function disorder
Answer: (C)
104. Rhinosporidiosis is caused by :
(A) Fungus
(B) Chalmydia
(C) Bacteria
(D) Sporotrichosis
Answer: (A)
105. Rhinosclermoatis is caused by :
(A) Klebseilla
(B) Autommune
(C) Spriochatetes
(D) Rhinosporidium
Answer: (A)
106. A patient with sinus infection develops chemosis, B/L proptosis and fever, the diagnosis goes in favour of :
(A) Lateral sinus thrombosis
(B) Frontal lobe abscess
(C) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
(D) Meningitis
Answer: (C)
107. True about ludwigs angina is:
(A) Spreading cellulitis of neck
(B) Cellulitis of floor of mouth
(C) Treated by Nitroglycerine
(D) Excision is done
Answer: (B)
108. Perforation of nasal septum is seen in A/E:
(A) TB
(B) Syphilis
(C) Rhinosporodiosis
(D) Septal surgery
Answer: (C)
109. Cause of U/L secretory otitis media in an adult is:
(A) CSOM
(B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(C) Mastoiditis
(D) Foreign body of external ear
Answer: (B)
110. Post head injury, the patient had conductive deafness & on examination, tympanic membrane was normal & mobile. Likely diagnosis is :
(A) Distortionof ossicular chain
(B) Hemotympanum
(C) EAC sclerosis
(D) Otosclerosis
Answer: (A)
111. Most common location of vocal nodule :
(A) Anterior 1/3 & posterior 2/3 junction
(B) Posterior 1/3 & anterior 2/3 junction
(C) Anterior commissure
(D) posterior commissure
Answer: (A)
112. Cholesteatoma commonly perforates :
(A) Lat. Semicircular canal
(B) Sup. Semicircular canal
(C) Promontory
(D) Oval window
Answer: (A)
113. Antrochoanal polyp in 10 yr. old boy. What is Rx of choice
(A) Polypectomy
(B) Antibiotics & symptomatic Rx
(C) Caldwell Luc’s operation
(D) Wait till 16 yr. of age
Answer: ()
114. The distance between tymaparic membrane and medial wall of middle ear at the level of center is :
(A) 3 mm
(B) 4 mm
(C) 6 mm
(D) 2 mm
Answer: (D)
115. Commonest cause of brain abscess :
(A) CSOM
(B) Pyogenic meningitis
(C) Trauma
(D) Chr. sinusitis
Answer: (A)
116. Features of meniere’s disease. False is :
(A) Tinnitus
(B) Vertigo
(C) Conductive deafness
(D) Fullness in ear
Answer: (C)
117. Earliest ocular finding in acoustic neuroma :
(A) Diplopia
(B) Ptosis
(C) Loss of corneal sensation
(D) Papilloedema
Answer: (C)
118. Cause of nasal obstruction in atrophic rhinitis:
(A) Crusting
(B) Polyp
(C) Secretions
(D) DNS
Answer: (A)
119. True about carcinoma larynx :
(A) Glottis is most common site
(B) Rarely presents with metastasis
(C) Adenocarcinoma is commonest type
(D) Responds to chemotherapy very well
Answer: (A)
120. Flat tympanogram is seen in :
(A) A.S.O.M.
(B) Otosclerosis
(C) Serous otitis media
(D) Ossicular chaion disruption
Answer: (C)
121. True about bell’s palsy is/are :
(A) Most common cause of facial palsy
(B) Associated with tinnitus & virtigo
(C) Crocodile tears & symkinesis are early complications
(D) No role of steroids
Answer: (A)
122. True about C.S.O.M. :
(A) Etiology is multiple bacteria
(B) Oral antibiotics are not affected
(C) Ear drops are best
(D) Ottic hydrocephalus is a known complication
Answer: (A)
123. True about otogenic brain abscess is/are :
(A) H. influenza is most common causative organism
(B) C.S.O.M. with lat. sinus thrombosis inturn can cause brain abscess
(C) Most common complication of CSOM
(D) emporal lobe abscess is associated with personality changes
Answer: (B)
124. Which among the following is not true regarding nasopharyngeal carcinoma :
8. Best way to prevent hypotension during spinal anesthesia
(A) preloading with cry
(B) Mephntermine
(C) Dopamine
(D) Tredelendug’s position
Answer: (A)
9. Post spinal headache is due to
(A) Meningitis
(B) Encephaletics
(C) CSF leak
(D) Increased ICT
Answer: (C)
10. Agent causing malignant hyperthermia
(A) Succinyl Choline
(B) Pantroline
(C) gallamine
(D) Ketamine
Answer: (A)
11. Nerve Fibre affected by local anesthesia first
(A) Type A
(B) Type B
(C) Type C
(D) Type D
Answer: (C)
12. Atropine as preanesthesis has all effects except
(A) decrease secretion
(B) Bronchyoconstriction
(C) prevent bradycardia
(D) prevent hypotension
Answer: (B)
13. Least Cadiotoxic anaesthetic agent
(A) Enflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Sevoflurane
(D) Halothane
Answer: (B)
14. Dissociative anesthesia is
(A) Ketamine
(B) Halothane
(C) SCH
(D) d-TC
Answer: (A)
15. Sodium Thiopentone is ultra short acting d/t
(A) Rapid absorption
(B) Rapid metabolism
(C) Rapid redistribution
(D) Rapic excretion
Answer: (C)
16. Fasciculation are known to be caused by :
(A) Suxamethonium
(B) Vecuronium
(C) Pancuronium
(D) Atracurnium
Answer: (A)
17. Maximum analgesic action is seen with :
(A) Catecholamine
(B) Propofol
(C) Ketamine
(D) Thiopentone
Answer: (C)
18. If thiopentone is injected accidentally into an artery the first symptom is :
(A) Analgesia
(B) Paralysis
(C) Skin ulceration
(D) Pain
Answer: (D)
19. Spinal anaesthesea should be injected into the space between :
(A) T12 – L1
(B) L1 – L2
(C) L3 – L4
(D) L5 – S1
Answer: (C)
20. Shortest acting local anaesthetic agent is
(A) Procaine
(B) Leidocaine
(C) Tetracaine
(D) Bupivacaine
Answer: (A)
21. All of the following are example of amide linked local anaesthetics except :
(A) Lidocaine
(B) Procaine
(C) Bupivacaine
(D) Mepivacaine
Answer: (B)
22. All of the following are vasodilators except :
(A) Procaine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Cocaine
(D) Chlorprocaine
Answer: (C)
23. Magill circuit air flow is :
(A) Equal to minute volume
(B) Twice to minute volume
(C) Half to minute volume
(D) Equal to alveolar volume
Answer: (A)
24. Least cardiotoxic anaesthetic agent is :
(A) Enflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Halothane
(D) TCE
Answer: (B)
25. Nephrotoxicity is caused by :
(A) Seroflurane
(B) Methoxyflurane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Halothane
Answer: (B)
26. Increased intracranial tension is seen with :
(A) Halothane
(B) Ketamine
(C) Ether
(D) Cyclopropane
Answer: (B)
27. Which drug anaesthetics causes hallucination :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Trilene
(C) Halothane
(D) Trichloroethylene
Answer: (A)
28. Which of the following local anaesthetics causes vasoconstriction :
(A) Procaine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Cocaine
(D) Chlorprocaine
Answer: (C)
29. Repeated use of halothane causes :
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Encephalitis
(C) Pancreatitis
(D) Bronchitis
Answer: (A)
30. The muscle relaxant contra-indicated in Renal failure is
(A) Gallamine
(B) D-tubocurarine
(C) Vecuronium
(D) Atracurium
Answer: (A)
31. Anatomical dead space is increased by all of the following except :
(A) Atropine
(B) Halothane
(C) Massive pleural effusion
(D) Inspiration
Answer: (C)
32. In status epilepticus, drug of choice is:
(A) I/V diazepam
(B) I/M diazepam
(C) Oral clonazepam
(D) I/M phenytoin
Answer: ()
33. In a 10 year old child presented with anaphylactic shock, drug of choice is:
(A) I/V adrenaline
(B) S.C. adrenaline
(C) Anti histamine
(D) Corticosteroids
Answer: (A)
34. True about scoline are following except:
(A) Fasciculations
(B) ICT increases
(C) Non depolarizing neuro muscular blocker
(D) Short acting muscle relaxant
Answer: (C)
35. In belladoma poisoning, antidote is:
(A) Physostigmine
(B) Neostigmine
(C) Anti histamine
(D) Atropine
Answer: (A)
36. Hepatitis is caused by:
(A) Cyclopropane
(B) Halothane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Enflurane
Answer: (B)
37. Atropine is used in following except:
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Mushroom poisoning
(C) Malathion poisoning
(D) Organophosphorous poisoning
Answer: (A)
38. Local anaesthesia acts by
(A) Na⁺ channel inhibition
(B) Ca⁺⁺ channel inhibition
(C) Mg⁺⁺ channel inhibition
(D) K⁺ channel inhibition
Answer: (A)
39. Neostigmine is used for reversing the adverse effect of:
(A) d – TC + pancuronium
(B) d TC only
(C) Alcuronium only
(D) Ketamine complication
Answer: (A)
40. ICT is raised due to:
(A) Ketamine
(B) Scoline
(C) Halothane
(D) Ether
Answer: ()
41. Fluoride content is least:
(A) Methoxyflurane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Sevoflurane
Answer: (C)
42. Cholinesterase metabolizes following except:
(A) Propanidid
(B) Procaine
(C) Acetyl choline
(D) Bupivacaine
Answer: (D)
43. Muscle relaxant used in renal failure :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Atracurium
(C) Pancuronium
(D) Gallamine
Answer: (B)
44. Index of potency of general anaesthesia
(A) Minimum alveolar concentration
(B) Diffusion coefficient
(C) Dead space concentration
(D) Alveolar blood concentration
Answer: (A)
45. Which local anaesthetic causes vasoconstriction:
(A) Cocaine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Bupivacaine
(D) Procaine
Answer: (A)
46. Characteristic of an ideal gas is :
(A) Volume is directly proportional to change in pressure
(B) Volume is inversely proportional to change in temperature
(C) At absolute temp. volume of gas is 1
(D) Obeys Charles, boyles and avagadro’s laws
Answer: (D)
47. Partition coefficient of gas :
(A) Measure of potency
(B) Directly proportional to potency
(C) Measures solubility
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
48. Hoffman’s elimination is seen with :
(A) Gallamine
(B) Atracurium
(C) Succinyl choline
(D) Tubocurare
Answer: (B)
49. About lidocaine, all are true except:
(A) LA effect
(B) Cardiac arrhythmia
(C) Ester
(D) Acts on mucous membrances
Answer: (C)
50. Phase II blocker is:
(A) D-TC
(B) Cocaine
(C) Scoline
(D) Vencuronium
Answer: (C)
51. Mendelson syndrome is due to:
(A) Aspiration pneumonitis
(B) Chemical pneumonitis
(C) Oesophagitis
(D) Oesophageal spasm
Answer: (A)
52. Drug causing anaphylactoid reaction :
(A) Propofol
(B) Alcuronium
(C) Thiopentone
(D) Glycopyrrolate
Answer: (B)
53. Diffusion hypoxia is seen during :
(A) Induction of anaesthesia
(B) Recovering anaesthesia
(C) Preoperatively
(D) Postoperatively
Answer: (B)
54. Incubator heat is delivered by except :
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) Evaporation
Answer: (D)
55. Hypothermia is used in all except :
(A) Neonatal asphyxia
(B) Cardiac surgery
(C) Hyperthermia
(D) Arrythmia
Answer: (D)
56. All are true about PEEP except :
(A) useful in situations where PO₂ is low
(B) ↓CO
(C) Impaired renal function
(D) ↓ICT
Answer: (D)
57. Muscle relaxant used in renal failure :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Atracurium
(C) Pancuronium
(D) Fentanyl
Answer: (B)
58. The potency of an inhalational anesthetic depends on :
(A) Blood gas partition co-efficient
(B) Oil-gas partition co-efficient
(C) Gas pressure
(D) Blood pressure
Answer: (B)
59. ↑ICT is due to :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Scoline
(C) Halothane
(D) Ether
Answer: (A)
60. Hoffman’s elimination is for :
(A) Atracurium
(B) Pancuronium
(C) Gallamine
(D) Ketamine
Answer: (A)
61. Mis matched blood transfusion manifests intraoperatively as :
(A) Rise in B.P.
(B) Excessive bleeding
(C) Dyspnoea
(D) Hematuria
Answer: (B)
62. Muscle pain after anaesthesia is caused by:
(A) Vecuronium Fragm
(B) D tubocurare agm
(C) Suxamethonium
(D) All
Answer: (C)
63. Post operative jaundice is because of use of:
(A) Isoflurane
(B) N₂O
(C) Methoxyflurane
(D) Halothane
Answer: (D)
64. In a patient with multiple injuries, first thing to be done is :
(A) Patency of airway
(B) Maintenance of B.P
(C) Immobilize cervical spine
(D) Lateral position with mouth gag
Answer: (A)
65. End-tidal CO2 is increased to maximum level in :
(A) Pul. embolism
(B) Malignant hyperthermia
(C) Extubation
(D) Blockage of secretion
Answer: (B)
66. Short acting L.A :
(A) Procaine
(B) Lignocaine
(C) Bupivacaine
(D) Tetracaine
Answer: (A)
67. Myaesthenics are resistant to following muscle relaxant :
(A) Suxamethonium
(B) Pancurium
(C) Atracuronium
(D) Vecuronium
Answer: (A)
68. Ca2 + channel blockers in anesthesia. True is :
(A) Needs to be decreased as they augment hypotension & muscle relaxation
(B) withheld because they lower LES pressure
(C) Should be given in normal doses as they prevent MI & angina
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
69. First step in CPR (cardio pulmonary resuciatation) should be :
(A) IV adrenaline
(B) Intracardic atropine
(C) Airway maintenance
(D) Hystrectomy
Answer: (C)
70. True about endotracheal intubation (during the process) is all except :
(A) Hypertension & tachycardia
(B) Raised IOT
(C) Raised ICT
(D) Increased oesophageal peristalsis
Answer: (D)
71. Which is safest to be used in asthmatic patients :
(A) Nitrazepam
(B) Phenobarbitone
(C) Chloral hydrate
(D) All hypnotics are safe
Answer: (C)
72. During cardiac resuscitation, the following can occur except :
(A) Rupture of Lungs
(B) Rupture of liver
(C) Rupture of Stomach
(D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation occurs
Answer: (D)
73. Hyperthermia is caused by :
(A) Anticholinnergics
(B) MAO inhibitors
(C) Lithium
(D) Chlorpromazine
Answer: (B)
74. Which of the following is true about anesthesia machine
(A) Desflurane vaporizer is heated to 39℃
(B) Halothane vaporizers at 39℃
(C) Rotameter is a variable pressure flow meter & variable orifice device for gases only.
(D) O₂ sensor is attached to inspiratory limb at the machine end.
Ans: (A)
75. True about Boyle’s apparatus :
(A) Continuous flow machine
(B) Liquid anesthetic vapours not used
(C) Resistance very high
(D) Resistance low
Ans: (A, D)
76. True about Rotameter :
(A) Rotameter reading may not get affected by dirt inside the tube
(B) Rotameter reading may not get affected by static electricity
(C) The height to which bobbin rise indicates the flow rate
(D) A rotameter I a variable pressure flowmeter
Ans: (C)
77. True about Wright’s Spirometer is/are
(A) Flow rates can be calculated
(B) Gives false high values at low flow rates
(C) Gives false low values at high flow rates
(D) Used for calculation of expired volume
(E) Read bidirectional flow
Ans: (D, A)
78. True about anaesthesia breathing circuit is:
(A) Cylinder is a part of high pressure system
(B) O₂ flush delivers < 35 lts.
(C) O₂ flush delivers > 35.00 lts
(D) Pipelines is a part low pressure system
Ans: (A, C)
79. All of the following are safety measures to prevent the delivery of hypoxic gas mixture to the patient except :
(A) Location of oxygen valve after the N₂O Valve
(B) Presence of a PIN index system to prevent wrong attachment of the N2O and oxygen cylinders
(C) Location of a fail-safe valve downstream from the nitrous oxide supply source
Ans: (B)
80. Pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anaesthesia machines to prevent:
(A) Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia machines.
(B) Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia face masks.
(C) Incorrect inhalation agent delivery
(D) Incorrect gas cylinder attachment.
Ans: (D)
81. The Pin index code of Nitrous oxide is :
(A) 2, 5.
(B) 1, 5.
(C) 3, 5.
(D) 2, 6.
Ans: (C)
82. True statement regarding pin index:
(A) Pin is present on cylinder
(B) Pin is present on machine
(C) Not effective if wrong gas is filled in cylinder
(D) Pin index of air is 2, 5
(E) Hole positions on cylinder valves
Ans: (B, C, E)
83. Gas is filled as liquid in cylinder in :
(A) O2
(B) CO2
(C) N2O
(D) Cyclopropane
(E) Halothane
Ans: (B, C, D)
84. Colour of O2 cylinder
(A) Gray
(B) Orange
(C) Blue
(D) Black & White
Ans: (D)
85. An anaesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code :
(A) Black cylinders with white shoulders
(B) Black cylinders with grey shoulders
(C) White cylinders with black shoulders
(D) Grey cylinder with white shoulders
Ans: (A)
86. For high pressure storage of compressed gases cylinders are made up of
(A) Molybdenum steel
(B) Iron + Mo
(C) Steel + u
(D) Cast iron
Ans: (A)
87. Pin Code index of N2O is
(A) 1, 6
(B) 2, 5
(C) 2, 6
(D) 3, 5
Ans: (D)
88. Colour of oxygen cylinder is
(A) Grey
(B) Blue
(C) Black with white shoulder
(D) Orange
Ans: (C)
89. True about N2O cylinder
(A) Pressure is 2200 PSI
(B) Blue in colour
(C) Gas in liquid form
(D) Pin index 3.5
(E) It is flammable
Ans: (B, C, D)
90. True about N2O :
(A) Pin index 3, 5
(B) Blue in colour
(C) Stored as liquid
(D) MAC 105
Ans: (A, C, D)
91. True about N2O cylinder is/are A/E:
(A) Blue color
(B) N2O in liquid form in cylinder
(C) 2220 PSP is the pressure in cylinder
(D) Pin index 3, 5
Ans: (C)
92. All statements are true about gas cylinders except
(A) Pressure of N2O is 745 psig at 20℃
(B) Higher pressure indicates impurity in N2O
(C) N2O is in liquid form
(D) Emergency oxygen ‘E’ cylinder has more has than ‘H’ cylinder
Ans: (D)
93. Regarding critical temperature which of the following is true :
(A) TC of O2 is – 119℃
(B) TC of N2 is – 119℃
(C) TC of N2 is 36.5℃
(D) TC of N2O is 36.5℃
(E) TC of air is – 140.6℃
Ans: (A, D, E)
94. All of the following are suitable anaesthetic circuits for both controlled and assisted ventilation except
(A) Mapleson A
(B) Mapleson B & C
(C) Mapleson D
(D) Mapleson E
Ans: (A)
95. Not true for magills circuit
(A) Ideal for adults
(B) Ideal for infant
(C) Semiclosed
(D) Spontaneous breathing is a must
Ans: (B)
96. A 25 year old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general anaesthesia with spontaneous respiration. The most efficient anaesthetic circuit is :
(A) Mapleson A
(B) Mapleson B
(C) Mapleson C
(D) Mapleson D
Ans: (A)
97. True about Bain circuit :
(A) Mapleson type B
(B) Mapleson type D
(C) Can be used for spontaneous respiration
(D) Can be used for controlled ventilation
(E) Coaxial
Ans: (B, D, E)
98. In magil circuit airflow is
(A) 1/2 of minute volume
(B) equal to M.V.
(C) 2 ×m.v.
(D) 3 ×m.v.
Ans: (B)
99. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant during anaesthesia is :
(A) Jackson Rees’ modification of Ayres’ T Piece.
(B) Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit
(C) Mapleson C or Waters’ to and fro canister.
(D) Bains circuit
Ans: (A)
100. True about oxygen concentrator:
(A) Zeolite activation
(B) Delivers O2
(C) Requires power supply
(D) Gives O2 at 100%
Ans: (A, B, C)
101. For rebreathing prevention valve incorrect is
(A) Should be as far as possible from the patient
(B) Should be light
(C) Well designed
(D) Used at expiratory end to tube
Ans: (A)
102. All ↓CO2 absorption in circuit except :
(A) Resistance in circuit
(B) High flow
(C) Small granule size
(D) Medium granule size
(E) Chanelling
Ans: (A, C)
103. All decrease CO2 absorption in circuit except
(A) Resistance in circuit
(B) Flow
(C) Dead Space
(D) Tidal volume
Ans: (A)
104. Reacts with sodaline
(A) Methoxyfluene
(B) Ketamine
(C) Trilene
(D) SO2
Ans: (C)
105. Which is the main component of sodalime in closed circuit
(A) Sodium hydroxide
(B) Barium hydroxide
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Potassium hydroxide
Ans: (C)
106. All are constituents of soda lime except :
(A) Ca(OH)2
(B) Ba(OH)2
(C) Silica
(D) Moisture
Ans: (B)
107. Water is used for hardening in
(A) Sodalime
(B) Baralime
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: (B)
108. Clayton is used iin a close breathing system for the purpose of
(A) As a hardner
(B) As an absorbent
(C) As a softner
(D) As an indicator
Ans: (D)
109. Rebreathing systems are A/E
(A) To & fro system
(B) Circle system
(C) Water’s system
(D) Mapleson F
Ans: (D)
110. Which of the following are used to protect airways
(A) LMA
(B) Endotracheal tube
(C) Ryles tube
(D) Combitube
(E) Sengstaken Blackmore tube
(F) Bag & Mask
Ans: (A, B, D)
111. Dead space is increased by all except
(A) Anticholinergic drugs
(B) Standing
(C) Hyperextension of neck
(D) Endotracheal intubation
Ans: (D)
112. Seen after tracheostomy is
(A) Inversion of V/P ratio
(B) Increased V/P ratio
(C) Decrease in dead space
(D) Increased resistance to air flow
Ans: (C)
113. The physiological dead space is decreased by:
(A) Upright position
(B) Positive pressure ventilation
(C) Nek flexion
(D) Emphysema
Ans: (C)
114. Anatomical dead space is increased by all/except
(A) Atropine
(B) Halothane
(C) Massive pleural effusion
(D) Inspiration
Ans: (C)
115. True about endotracheal intubation is :
(A) It reduces normal anatomical dead space
(B) It produces decrease in resistance to respiration
(C) Subglottic edema is most common complication
(D) All of the above
Ans: (A)
116. Which one of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy:
(A) Nasal Cannula
(B) Venturi Mask
(C) O2 by T-piece
(D) Edinburg mask
Ans: (B)
117. O2 delivery is regulated by A/E
(A) O2 tent
(B) Venti mask
(C) Poly mask
(D) Noval Catheter
Ans: (D)
118. All of the following are examples of definite airways, except:
(A) Nasotracheal tube
(B) Orotracheal tube
(C) Laryngea Mask airway
(D) Cricothyroidotomy
Ans: (C)
119. Trendelenberg position produces decrease in all of the following except-
(A) Vital capacity
(B) Functional residual capacity
(C) Compliance
(D) Respiratory rate
Ans: (D)
120. Maximum vital capacity decreased in
(A) Prone
(B) Supine
(C) Trendelenberg
(D) Left lateral
Ans: (C)
121. Which of the following does not represent a significant anaesthetic problem in the morbidly obese patient?
(A) Difficulties in endotracheal intubation
(B) Suboptimal arterial oxygen tension
(C) Increased metabolism of volatile agents
(D) Decreased cardiac output relative to total body mass
Ans: (D)
122. True about Laryngeal mask airway:
(A) More reliable than face mask
(B) Prevent aspiration
(C) Alternative to Endotracheal tube (E.T.T)
(D) Does not require laryngoscope & visualization
(E) Can be used in full stomach
Ans: (A, C, D)
123. Laryngeal mask Airway (LMA) is used for:
(A) Maintenance of the airway
(B) Facilitating laryngeal surgery
(C) Prevention of aspiration
(D) Removing oral secretions
Ans: (A)
124. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except :
(A) In a difficult intubation
(B) In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(C) In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery
(D) In a patient with a large tumour in the oral cavity.
Ans: (D)
125. Laryngeal mask airway is indicated in :
(A) To prevent aspiration of stomach contents
(B) Short surgical procedure
(C) Where endotracheal intubation in contra-indicated
(D) Difficult airway
(E) Facilitate endotracheal intubation
Ans: (D, E)
126. True about LMA (Laryngea Mast Airway) :
(A) Available in 8 sizes
(B) Intubation can be done
(C) Size 1 for neonates
(D) Size 3 for adults
(E) Full protection from aspiration
Ans: (B, C, D)
127. High air way resistance is seen in
(A) Respiratory bronchiole
(B) Terminal bronchiole
(C) Intermediate bronchiole
(D) Main bronchus
Ans: (D)
128. During laryngoscopy and endo-tracheal intubation which of the maneuver is not performed:
(A) Flexion of the neck
(B) Extension of Head at the atlanto-occipital joint
(C) The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors.
(D) In a straight blade laryngoscope, the epiglottis is lifted by the tip.
Ans: (C)
129. Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?
(A) Maintenance of a patent airway
(B) To provide positive pressure ventilation
(C) Pulmonary toilet
(D) Pneumothorax
Ans: (D)
130. Malampatti grading is for
(A) Mobility of cervical spine
(B) Mobility of atlanto axial joint
(C) Assessment of free rotation of neck before intubation
(D) Inspection of oral cavity before intubation
Ans: (D)
131. True about endotracheal cuff :
(A) Low-volume, high pressure
(B) Low-volume, low pressure
(C) High-volume, low pressure
(D) High-volume, high pressure
(E) Equal-volume, pressure
Ans: (A, C)
132. All are features of difficult airway except
(A) Miller’s sign
(B) Micrognathia with macroglossia
(C) TMJ ankylosis
(D) Increased thyromental distance
Ans: (D)
133. Plan C of anesthetic airway management is
(A) Standard laryngoscopy & intubation
(B) Intubation catheter guided intubation
(C) Insertion of laryngeal mask airway &fiberoptic bronchoscopy
(D) Cancel the surgery or perform tracheostony
Ans: (C)
134. Sellickmanouever is used to prevent :
(A) Alveolar collapse
(B) Hypertension
(C) Aspiration of Gastric content
(D) Bradycardia
(E) Glaucoma
Ans: (C)
135. Sallick’smanouvere is used for
(A) To prevent gastric aspiration
(B) To facilitate Respiration
(C) To reduce dead space
(D) To prevent alveolar collapse
Ans: (A)
136. Size in < 6 years old child, of endotracheal tube is
(A) Age +3.5/3.5
(B) Age +2.5/2.5
(C) Age +4.5/4.5
(D) Age −4.5/4.5
Ans: (A)
137. In infant (full term) diameter (mm) length (cm) of ETT used are
(A) 3.5, 16
(B) 7, 12
(C) 3.5, 12
(D) 7, 10
Ans: (C)
138. Merits of nasotracheal intubation is
(A) Good oral hygiene
(B) Less infection
(C) Less muscosal damage and bleeding
(D) More movement or displacement of endotracheal tube
Ans: (A)
139. Nasal intubation is contra indicated in
(A) CSF Rhinorrhea
(B) Fracture cervical spine
(C) Fracture mandible
(D) Short neck
Ans: (A)
140. A 40 year old man who met with a motor vehicle catastrophe came to the casualty hospital in an hour with severe maxillofcaila trauma. His Pulse rate was 120/min, BP was 100/70 mm Hg, SpO2-80% with oxygen. What would be the immediate management –
(A) Nasotracheal intubation
(B) Orotracheal intubation
(C) Intravenous fluid
(D) Tracheostomy
Ans: (B)
141. Both oral and Nasal intubation are C/I
(A) Laryngeal endema
(B) CSF-Rhinorrhoea
(C) Comastose patient
(D) Acute Tracheo – Laryngo – bronchitis
Ans: (D)
142. Mendelson’s syndrome is
(A) Air leak
(B) Tracheal rupture during intubation
(C) Oesophagealrupture
(D) Aspiration of gastric content
Ans: (D)
143. Position with least vital capacity in G.A.
(A) Trendelenburg
(B) Lithotomy
(C) Prone
(D) Lateral
Ans: (A)
144. True about Laryngoscopy & intubation
(A) Hypertension
(B) Tahycardia
(C) ↑ICT
(D) ↑Inra ocular pressure
(E) ↓ Lower oesophageal sphincter tone
Ans: (A, B, C, D, E)
145. True about endotracheal intubation (during the process) is all except:
(A) Hypertension & tachycardia
(B) Raised IOT
(C) Raised ICT
(D) Arrhythmias
(E) Increased oesophageal peristalsis
Ans: (E)
146. In venture mask maximum O2 concentration attained is :
(A) 90%
(B) 100%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
Ans: (C)
147. Indications of tracheostomy are
(A) Flail chest
(B) Head injury
(C) Tetanus
(D) Cardiac tamponade
(E) Foreign body
Ans: (A)
148. Side effects of oxygen therapy are all except :
(A) Absorption atelactasis
(B) Increased pulmonary compliance
(C) Decreased vital capacity
(D) Endothelial damage
Ans: (B)
149. In a patient with fixed respiratory obstruction Helium is used along with Oxygen instead of plain oxygen because
(A) It increases the absorption of oxygen
(B) It decreases turbulence
(C) It decreases the dead space
(D) For analgesia
Ans: (B)
150. True about Heliox:
(A) Helium is a inert gas
(B) Less viscous than air
(C) Higher density than air
(D) Reduces work of breathing
(E) Mixture of He & O2
Ans: (A, D, E)
151. Properties of Helium
(A) Atomic no 2
(B) Viscosity is zero
(C) Used in COPD
(D) All
Ans: (D)
152. Which of the following produces the least damage to blood elements
(A) Disc oxygenator
(B) Membrane oxygenator
(C) Bubble oxygenator
(D) Screen oxygenator
Ans: (B)
153. In volume-cycled ventilation the inspiratory flow rate is set at:
(A) 140-160 L/min
(B) 110-130 L/min
(C) 60-100 L/min
(D) 30-50 L/min
Ans: (C)
154. Not seen with controlled ventilation
(A) Barotrauma
(B) Alkalosis
(C) Pulmonary embolism
(D) Cardiac Temponade
Ans: (D)
155. The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except
(A) Given prophylactically in all preterm with respiratory distress
(B) Started with FiO2 50 to 60 percent
(C) Given in infants less than 28 weeks and less than 1 kg weight
(D) Improves oxygenation and improves lung compliance
Ans: (B)
158. A 40 year old female underwent surgery. Postoperatively she told the anesthetist that she was aware of preoperative events. Individual intraoperative awareness is evaluated by:
(A) Cerebral pulse oximetry
(B) Colour Doppler
(C) Bispectral imaging
(D) End tidal O2
Ans: (C)
159. Which of the following in anesthesia will produce decreased EEG activities
(A) Hypothermia
(B) Early Hypoxia
(C) Ketamine
(D) N2O
Ans: (A)
160. Which of the following can lower EEG amplitude
(A) N2O
(B) Ketamine
(C) Hypothermia
(D) Early hypoxia
Ans: (C)
161. During anesthesia, which is last affected
(A) Visual evoked response
(B) Somatosenosry evoked potential
(C) Brainstem auditory evoked potential
(D) Motor evoked potential
Ans: (C)
162. C. nerve used for monitoring during anesthesia
(A) Ulnar nerve
(B) Facial nerve
(C) Radial nerve
(D) Median nerve
Ans: (A)
163. Which of the following is not a cardiovascular monitoring technique :
(A) Transesophagealechocardiography
(B) Central venous pressure monitoring
(C) Pulmonary artery catheterization
(D) Capnography
Ans: (D)
164. Flat capnogram found in A/E
(A) Disconnection of anesthetic tubing
(B) Accidental extubation
(C) Mechanical ventilation failure
(D) Bronchospasm
Ans: (D)
165. Placement of a double lumen tube (DLT) is best confirmed by :
(A) Clinically by Auscultation
(B) Fibreoptic bronchoscopy
(C) Capnography
(D) Chest radiography
(E) Chest inflation positive pressure
Ans: (B)
166. Placement of double lumen tube for lung surgery is best confirmed by :
(A) EtCO2
(B) Airway pressure measurement
(C) Clinically by auscultation
(D) Bronchoscopy
Ans: (D)
167. A 27 year old female was brought to emergency department for acute abdominal pain following which she was shifted to the operation theatre for Laparotomy. A speedy intubation, breath sounds were observed to be decreased on the left side and a high end tidal CO2 was recorded. The likely diagnosis is:
(A) Endotracheal tube blockage
(B) Bronchospasm
(C) Esophageal intubation
(D) Endobronchial intubation
Ans: (D)
168. End-tidal CO2 is increased to maximum level in:
(A) Pul. embolism
(B) Malignant hyperthermia
(C) Extubation
(D) Blockage of secretion
Ans: (B)
169. Rise in end tidal CO2 during thyroid surgery can be due to all except:
(A) Anaphylaxis
(B) Malignant hyperthermia
(C) Thyroid storm
(D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Ans: (A)
170. Best to monitor intraoperative myocardial ischemia (infarction) is
(A) ECG
(B) CVP monitoring
(C) Transesophageal echocardiography
(D) Invasive intracarotid arterial pressure
Ans: (C)
171. The most sensitive and practical techniques for detection of myocardial ischemia in the perioperative period is:
(A) Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
(B) Radio labeled lactate determination
(C) Direct measurement of end diastolic pressure
(D) Regional wall motion abnormally detected with the help of 2D transoesophageal echocardiography
Ans: (D)
172. The most common cause of hypoxia during one lung ventilation is:
(A) Malposition of the double lumen tube
(B) Increased shunt fraction
(C) Collapse of one lung
(D) Soiling of lung by secretions
Ans: (A)
173. Most common complication of central venous catheter
(A) Local bleeding
(B) Thrombosis
(C) Catheter related infection
(D) Pneumotherax
Ans: (C)
174. In an ICU, following right subclavian rein cannulation for putting CV line, patient developed respiratory distress, dyspnea, hypotension (BP 100/55) and tachycardia (140/min HR), chest examination revealed diminished air entry and decreased breath sounds on auscultation and hyper resonance on percussion towards right side of chest. Left sided breath sounds were minimally reduced. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Tension pneumothorar
(B) Acute MI
(C) Air embolism
(D) Pulmonary edema
Ans: (A)
175. All are the Complication of CVP line except:
(A) Airway injury
(B) Haemothroax
(C) Septicemia
(D) Air embolism
(E) Pseudoaneurysm
Ans: (NONE)
176. Swan Ganz catheter measure
(A) PCWP
(B) C.O.
(C) Mixed venous O2 saturation
(D) Right atrial pressure
Ans: (A, C, D)
177. While introducing the Swan-ganz catheter, its placement in the pulmonary artery can be identified by the following pressure tracing:
(A) Diastolic pressure is lower in PA than in RV
(B) Diastolic pressure is higher in PA than in RV
(C) PA pressure tracing has diacritic notch from closure of pulmonary valve
(D) RV pressure tracing for plateau and sharp drop pin early diastole
Ans: (C)
178. Pulse oxymetry detects inaccurately in presence of:
(A) Hyperbilirubinemia
(B) Nail polish
(C) Methemoglobinemia
(D) Skin pigmentation
Ans: (B, C, D)
179. The gas used to create pneumoperitoneum is
(A) CO2
(B) N2
(C) O2
(D) Room air
(E) N2O
Ans: (A, C, D, E)
180. Incubator heat is delivered by except :
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) Evaporation
Ans: (A)
181. Which of the following is used to monitor respiration in neonate (not intubated) –
(A) Capnography
(B) Impedencepulmonometry
(C) Chest movements
(D) Infrared End Tidal CO2
Ans: (B)
182. A 45 year old male with h/o smoking is scheduled for elective surgery. All are true except
(A) Effect of nicotine on aortic and carotid bodies can increase sympathetic bone
(B) Carbon monoxide shift O2-Hb dissociation curve right
(C) Muscle relaxant dose requirements are increased
(D) Smoking decreases surfactant levels
Ans: (B)
183. A patient on regular medication for medical illness. Which of the following drugs can be safely stopped with least adverse effects before an abdominal surgery
(A) Stains
(B) Steroids
(C) Beta blockers
(D) ARB
Ans: (D)
184. A patient who was on aspirin for long period was selected for an elective surgery. What should be done
(A) Stop aspirin for 7 days
(B) Infusion of fresh frozen plasma
(C) Infusion of platelet concentration
(D) Go ahead with surgery maintaining adequate hemostasis
Ans: (A)
185. Most potent antiemetic agent used in preoperative period
(A) Glycopyrolate
(B) Hyoscine
(C) Atropine
(D) Metochlorpromide
Ans: (D)
186. Atropine as preanesthesia has all effects except
(A) Decrease secretion
(B) Bronchoconstriction
(C) Prevent bradycardia
(D) Prevent hypotension
Ans: (B)
187. Preanesthetic Medication is for A/E
(A) Secretion decrease
(B) ↓Anxiety
(C) ↓dose of inducing agent
(D) Allay Anxiety
Ans: (C)
188. During G.A. shivering is abolished by suppression of
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Thalamus
(C) Cerebral Cortex
(D) Medulla
Ans: (A)
189. Drugs commonly used in pre-anaesthetic medication
(A) Diazepam
(B) Morphine
(C) Succinylcholine
(D) Atracurium
Ans: (A, B, C)
190. Preanesthetic medication is used for A/E:
(A) Decrease of anesthetic dose
(B) Decrease BP
(C) Prevent aspiration
(D) Produce amnesia for peri-operative events
(E) Relieve anxiety
Ans: (B)
191. ASA classification is done for:
(A) Status of patient
(B) Risk
(C) Pain
(D) Lung disease
Ans: (A)
192. Criteria for brain death A/E
(A) ECG
(B) EEG
(C) Brain stem reflex
(D) ↓body temperature
(E) Pupillary dilatation
Ans: (A, D)
193. Clinical criteria of brain death is all except
(A) Coma
(B) Absent brain stem reflex
(C) Absent spinal cord reflex
(D) Absent motor activity
Ans: (C)
194. Which of the following is the neuromuscular blocking agent with the shortest onset of action?
(A) Mivocurium
(B) Vecuronium
(C) Rapacuronium
(D) Succinylcholine
Ans: (D)
195. Site of action of vecuronium is
(A) Cerebrum
(B) RAS
(C) Motor neuron (ganglion) or motor end plate
(D) Myo-neural junction
Ans: (D)
196. Which ones are Non-Depolaring Muscle Relaxants:
(A) Mivacurium
(B) Halothane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Isoflurane
(E) Ether
Ans: (A)
197. Neostigmine is used for reversing the adverse effect of:
(A) dTC + pancuronium
(B) d TC only
(C) Alcuronium only
(D) Ketamine complication
Ans: (A)
198. All of the following statement about neuromuscular blockage produced by succinylcholine are true, Except
(A) No fade on Train of four stimulation
(B) Fade on titanic stimulation
(C) No post titanic facilitation
(D) Train of four ratio >0.4
Ans: (B)
199. Features of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents area all/except
(A) Cause muscle fascicutation
(B) No fade
(C) No post tetanic facilitation
(D) Isoflurane potentiates
(E) Reversed by neostigmine
Ans: (E)
200. For non depolarization block which of the following statement is correct
(A) Post tetanic potentiation is seen
(B) Tetanic fade is absent
(C) Train of four is absent
(D) Anticholinergic drugs potentiation of block
Ans: (A)
201. Train of four’ is characteristically used in concern with
(A) Malignat hyperthermia
(B) Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
(C) Mechanical ventilation
(D) To check hemodynamic parameters
Ans: (B)
202. Muscle most resistant to non depolarizing block is
(A) Intercostal
(B) Abdominal
(C) Diaphragm
(D) Adductors
Ans: (C)
203. True about non-depolarizing muscle relaxants :
(A) Competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine
(B) Metabolised by pseudochlinesterase
(C) Mg2+ predisposes the block
(D) Ca2+ antagonizes the block
(E) Hypothermia prolongs the block
Ans: (A, C, D, E)
204. Shortest acting muscle relaxant
(A) Succinyl choline
(B) d-TC
(C) Gallamine
(D) Ketamine
Ans: (A)
205. Phase II blocker is seen in:
(A) D-TC
(B) Cocaine
(C) Scoline
(D) Vencuronium, ether, N2O
Ans: (C)
206. Which muscle relaxant increases intracranial pressure?
(A) Mivacurium
(B) Atracurium
(C) Suxamethonium
(D) Vecuronium
Ans: (C)
207. Muscle pain after anesthesia is caused by:
(A) Vecuronium
(B) D-tubocurare
(C) Suxamethonium
(D) All
Ans: (C)
208. Post anesthetic muscle soreness is caused by
(A) Gallamine
(B) d-TC
(C) Suxamethonium
(D) Dantrolene
Ans: (C)
209. Postoperative muscle ache is caused by
(A) D-Tubocurarine
(B) Suxamethonium
(C) Gallamine
(D) Poncuronium
Ans: (B)
210. True about scoline are following except:
(A) Fasciculations
(B) ICT increases
(C) Non depolarizing neuro muscular blocker
(D) Short acting muscle relaxant
Ans: (C)
211. Fasciculation are caused by
(A) Suxamethonium
(B) Pancuronium
(C) d-TC
(D) Vecuronium
Ans: (A)
212. Bradycardia is common after injection of:
(A) Midazolam
(B) Succinyl choline
(C) Dopamine
(D) Isoprenaline
Ans: (B)
213. Drugs metabolized by cholinesterase –
(A) Succinylcholine
(B) Mivacurium
(C) Esmolol
(D) Remifentanyl
(E) Ketamine
Ans: (A, B)
214. All of the following statements are incorrect about the treatment of prolonged suxamethoniumapnoea due to plasma cholinesterase deficiency (after a single dose of suxamethonium) except –
(A) Reversal with incremental doses of neostigmine
(B) Continue anaesthesia and mechanical ventilation till recovery
(C) Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
(D) Plasmapheresis
Ans: (B)
215. A 70 kg old athlete was posted for surgery, Patient was administered succinylcholine due to unavailability of vecuronium. It was administered in intermittent dosing (total 640 mg). During recovery patient was not able to respire spontaneously & move limbs. What is the explanation –
(A) Pseudocholinesterase deficiency increasing action of syccinylcholine
(B) Phase 2 blockade produced by succinylcholine
(C) Undiagnosed muscular dystrophy and muscular weakness
(D) Muscular weakness due to fasciculation produced by succinylcholine
Ans: (B)
216. Myasthenics are resistant to following muscle relaxant :
(A) Suxamethonium
(B) Pancurium
(C) Atracuronium
(D) Vecuronium
Ans: (A)
217. Regarding Mysthenia true about sensitivity to curare and Scoline is
Curare Scoline
(A) ↓ ↑
(B) ↓ Normal
(C) ↑ Normal
(D) ↑ ↓
Ans: (D)
218. Regarding scolineapnoea all are true except :
(A) Caused by suxamethonium
(B) Cab be inherited
(C) deficiency of cholinesterase
(D) Mortality is very low in recent times with proper management
Ans: (C)
219. Shortest acting non depolarizing muscle relaxant
(A) Mevacurium
(B) Vercuronium
(C) Atracurium
(D) Succnil Choline
Ans: (A)
220. Mivacurium when given in high doses, all are true except
(A) Bronchospasm
(B) Hypertension
(C) Flushing
(D) Increase in dose increases the rapididity of onset
Ans: (B)
221. All of the following drugs are eliminated by kidney except –
(A) Pancuronium bromide
(B) Atracuriumbesylate
(C) Vecuronium bromide
(D) Pipecuronium
Ans: (B)
222. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants undergo Hoffman’s elimination?
(A) Atracurium
(B) Cis-atracurium
(C) Mivacurium
(D) Vecuronium
Ans: (A, B)
223. A patient with bilirubin value of 8mg/dl and serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dl is planned for surgery. What is the muscle relaxant of choice in this patient:
(A) Vecuronium
(B) Pancuronium
(C) Atracurium
(D) Rocuronium
Ans: (C)
224. Muscle relaxant of choice in hepatic and renal failure
(A) Cisatracurium
(B) Rocuronium
(C) Vecuronium
(D) Rapacuronium
Ans: (A)
225. Muscle relaxant used in renal failure :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Atracurium
(C) Pancuronium
(D) Fentanyl
Ans: (B)
226. An ICU patient on atracurium infusion develops seizures after 2 days. The most probable cause is :
(A) Accumulation of landonosine
(B) Allergy to drug
(C) Due to prolong infusion
Ans: (A)
227. Cisatracurium is preferred over atracurium due to
(A) Rapid onset
(B) Short duration of action
(C) No histamine release
(D) Less cardiodepressant
Ans: (C, D)
228. Laudanosine is metabolite of –
(A) Cisatracurium
(B) Astracurium
(C) Pancuronium
(D) Gallamine
Ans: (B)
229. A 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective caesarean section under general anesthesia. The best muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be:
(A) Panuronium
(B) Atracurium
(C) Rocuronium
(D) Vecuronium
Ans: (B)
230. The ideal muscle relaxant used for a neonate undergoing porto-enterostomy for biliary atresia is :
(A) Atracurium
(B) Vecuronium
(C) Pancuronium
(D) Rocuronium
Ans: (A)
231. At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received.
(A) Pancuronium
(B) Gallamine
(C) Atracurium
(D) Vecuronium
Ans: (C)
232. True about d-TC is all except:
(A) Excreted unchanged by kidney
(B) Causes hypotension by ganglion blocking action
(C) Vagolytic action
(D) Effects lasts for 2-3 hours.
Ans: (D)
233. The drug used for d-Tc reversal is
(A) Atropine
(B) Atracurium
(C) Diazepalm
(D) Neostigmine
Ans: (D)
234. Intubation dose of pancuronium
(A) 0.02 mg/kg
(B) 0.04 mg/kg
(C) 0.06 mg/kg
(D) 0.08 mg/kg
Ans: (D)
235. A 25 year old overweight female was given fentanyl pancuronium anesthesia for surgery. After surgery and extubation she was observed to have limited movement of the upper body and chest wall in the recovery room. She was conscious and alert but voluntary respiratory effort was limited. Her blood pressure and heart rate were normal. The likely diagnosis is:
(A) Incomplete reversal pancuronium
(B) Pulmonary embolism
(C) Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity
(D) Respiratory depression
Ans: (A)
236. Which of the following statement is not correct for vencuronium
(A) It has high incidence of cardiovascular side effects
(B) It has short duration of neuromuscular block
(C) In usual doses the dose adjustment is not required in kidney disease
(D) It has high liphophilic property.
Ans: (A)
237. Cardiovascular side effects are minimal with:
(A) Panuronium
(B) Rocuronium
(C) Doxacurium
(D) Vecuronium
(E) Mivacurium
Ans: (B, C, D)
238. Which of the following muscle relaxant can cause pain on IV injection Site
(A) Succinyl choline
(B) Vecuronium
(C) Rocuronium
(D) Pancuronium
Ans: (C)
239. Muscle Relaxant excreted exclusively by Kidney
(A) Gallamine
(B) Atracurium
(C) Vercuronium
(D) Sch
Ans: (A)
240. Muscle relaxant contra indicated in Renal failure is
(A) Gallamine
(B) d-TC
(C) Vecuronium
(D) Atracurium
Ans: (A)
241. Muscle Relaxant most sensitive to patient of myasthenia gravis (M.G.)
(A) Scoline
(B) Neostigmine
(C) Gallamine
(D) Decamethonium
Ans: (C)
242. Muscle relaxant with ganglion blocker action are A/E
(A) Pancuronium
(B) Trimethaphan
(C) Curare
(D) Halothane
Ans: (D)
243. Drug causing anaphylactoid reaction :
(A) Propofol
(B) Alcuronium
(C) Thiopentone
(D) Glycopyrrolate
Ans: (B)
244. Not intravenous Anaesthetic agent
(A) Ketamine
(B) Thiopantone
(C) Etomidate
(D) Cyclopropane
Ans: (D)
245. A 20 yr old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in day care facility. What will be the anesthetic induction agent of choice ?
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Ketamine
(C) Propofol
(D) Diazepam
Ans: (C)
246. Regarding features of propofol, which of the following statement is correct:
(A) It suppresses adrenocortical hormone secretion
(B) I.M. inj. is painful
(C) Undergoes hepatic metabolism
(D) Chemically it is derivative of D-isopropyl phenol
(E) Cerebral protector action
Ans: (C, D, E)
247. All are true about propofol except
(A) Plesant sedation & recovery
(B) Safe in porphyria
(C) Antiemetic effect
(D) Suppression of airway reflexes
(E) Cardiac stimulant
Ans: (E)
248. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding PROPOFOL?
(A) It is used in day care anesthesia
(B) It is contraindicated in porphyria
(C) Commercial preparation contains egg extract
(D) It does not cause airway irritation
Ans: (B)
249. True about propofol :
(A) Indicated in egg allergy
(B) Can be used in porphyria
(C) It is of barbiturate group
(D) Used in day care surgery
Ans: (B, D)
250. A severely ill patient was maintained on an infusionalanaesthetic agent. On the 2nd day he started detiorating. The probable culprit may be
(A) Etiomidate
(B) Propofol
(C) Opioid
(D) Barbiturate
Ans: (A, B)
251. The following anaesthetic drug causes pain on intravenous administration :
(A) Midazolam
(B) Propofol
(C) Ketamine
(D) Thiopentone sodium
Ans: (B)
252. Bradycardia during anaesthesia seen in
(A) Pancuronium
(B) Vecuronium
(C) Atracurium
(D) Propofol
(E) Succinylcholine
Ans: (C)
253. Dose of Ketamine is
(A) 0.5 mg/kg I/m
(B) 2 mg/kg I/v
(C) 5mg/kg I/v
(D) 10mg/kg I/m
Ans: (B)
254. Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated in a 32 yr old patient with hypertension planned for elective cholecystectomy?
(A) Ketamine
(B) Propofol
(C) Etomidate
(D) Diazepam
Ans: (A)
255. Which of the following drugs produces dissociative anesthesia.
(A) Ketamine
(B) Propofol
(C) Thiopentone
(D) Enflurane
Ans: (A)
256. Which drug of anesthetics causes delirium & hallucination
(A) Ketamine
(B) Trilene
(C) Halothane
(D) Trichloroethylenev
Ans: (A)
257. Increased Cardiac Oxygen demand is caused by
(A) Halothane
(B) Thiopentone
(C) N2O
(D) Ketamine
Ans: (D)
258. Intraocular Pressure is lowered by A/E (or increased by)
(A) Ketamine
(B) Scoline
(C) Halothane
(D) Thiopentane
Ans: (A)
259. ICT is raised due to :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Scoline
(C) Halothane
(D) Ether
Ans: (A)
260. Which of the following anaesthetc agents have good (maximum) analgesic property?
(A) Ketamine
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Thiopentone
(D) Propofol
(E) Midazolam
Ans: (A, B)
261. Cerebral metabolism and O2 consumption are increased by:
(A) Propofol
(B) Ketamine
(C) Atracurium
(D) Fentanyl
Ans: (B)
262. With regard to Ketamine, all of the following are true except :
(A) It is a direct myocardial depressant
(B) Emergence phenomenon are more likely if anticholinergic premedication is used
(C) It may induce cardiac dysarythmias in patients receiving tricyclic antidepressants
(D) Has no effect on intracranial pressure
Ans: (D)
263. All statements regarding ketamine are true except
(A) May be arrythmogenic
(B) Raised ICT do not respond to CO2 level
(C) Vasodialator and negative ionotropic effect
(D) Indirectly sympathetic action
Ans: (B)
264. Ketamine is safe in
(A) Raised ICT
(B) Open eye injury
(C) Ischemic heart disease
(D) Severe shock
Ans: (D)
265. Ketamine can be used in all of the situations except
(A) Status asthamaticus
(B) For analgesia & sedation
(C) Obstetric hemorrhage
(D) Ischemic heart disease
(E) Aortic aneurysm
Ans: (D, E)
266. An unconscious patient of head injury comes in casualty. On examination show raised intracranial pressure. Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated :
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Propofol
(C) Ketamine
(D) Etomidate
Ans: (C)
267. Total cerebral metabolic failure occurs at blood flow of
(A) 10 ml/100 gm/min
(B) 20 ml/100 gm/ml
(C) 30 ml/100 gm/min
(D) 40 ml/100 gm/ml
Ans: (A)
268. Most potent cerebral vasodilator is
(A) B blocker
(B) Nitro-glycerine
(C) Hyper carbia
(D) Nitroprusside
Ans: (C)
269. Anesthetic agent(s) safe to use in ↑ICP
(A) Halothane
(B) Thiopentone
(C) Ketamine
(D) Ether
Ans: (B)
270. Sodium Thiopentone is ultra short acting d/t
(A) Rapid absorption
(B) Rapid metabolism
(C) Rapid redistribution
(D) Rapid excretion
Ans: (C)
271. Commonly used in narcoanalysis
(A) Atropine
(B) Scopolamine
(C) Opium
(D) Thiopentone
Ans: (D)
272. %of thiopentone used in induction
(A) 0.5%
(B) 1.5%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 4.5%
Ans: (C)
273. Use of Thiopentone –
(A) Seizure
(B) Truth spell
(C) Reduction of ICP
(D) Cerebral protection
(E) Maintenance of an anesthesia
Ans: (ALL)
274. Dose of Thiopentone used for induction is
(A) 1 mg/kg
(B) 2 mg/kg
(C) 5 mg/kg
(D) 10mg/kg
(E) 15 mg/kg
Ans: (C)
275. All are true about Thiopentone except:
(A) NaHCO3 is a preservative
(B) Contraindicated in Porphyria
(C) Agent of choice in shock
(D) Has cerebroprotective action
Ans: (C)
276. Drugs contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria –
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Etomidate
(C) Ketamine
(D) Midazolam
Ans: (A, B)
277. Thiopentone is C/I in:
(A) Acute intermittent porphyria
(B) Bronchial Asthma
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans: (A)
278. Intravenous thiopentanepentox, produces
(A) Rash
(B) Pain
(C) Spasm
(D) Hypotension
Ans: (A, B)
279. Intra arterial injection of thiopentone causes:
(A) Vasospasm
(B) Vasodialation
(C) Necrosis of vessel wall
(D) Hypotension
Ans: (A)
280. If thiopentone is injected accidently into an artery the first symptom is
(A) Analgesia
(B) Paralysis
(C) Skin ulceration
(D) Pain
Ans: (D)
281. Which of the following anaesthetic agent lacks analgesic effect:
(A) N2O
(B) Thiopentone
(C) Methohexitone
(D) Ketamine
(E) Fentanyl
Ans: (B, C)
282. Primary mechanism responsible for cerebral protection effect of thiopentone is
(A) GABA action, calcium channel block and free radicle removal
(B) Increased cerebral blood flow
(C) Decreased (lowered) cerebral metabolism
(D) Reduces cerebral O2 demand by limiting CBF
Ans: (C)
283. Neurolept analgesia all are true except:
(A) Can be used along with O2& N2O
(B) Causes focal dystonia
(C) Fentanyl-droperidol
(D) Causes hypotension
(E) None
Ans: (E)
284. Characteristics of Remifentanyl:
(A) Metabolised by plasma esterase
(B) Short half life
(C) More potent than Alfentanyl
(D) Dose reduced in hepatic and renal disease
(E) Duration of action more than Alfentanyl
Ans: (B, C)
285. Which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl?
(A) Chest wall rigidly
(B) Tachycardia
(C) Pain in abdomen
(D) Hypertension
Ans: (A)
286. Drug contraindicated in renal failure is
(A) Morphine
(B) Pethidine
(C) Fentanyl
(D) Alfentanil
Ans: (B)
287. Muscle Rigidity is caused by which agent
(A) Fentanyl
(B) Halothane
(C) Ketamine
(D) Droperidol
Ans: (A)
288. Least sedative narcotic?
(A) Morphine
(B) Codeine
(C) Papaverine
(D) Noscapine
Ans: (C)
289. There have been many recent advances in TIVA compared to inhalational anesthesia. Which of the following is true about TIVA
(A) Reduces cerebral metabolism (CMR) and CBF
(B) Smooth induction with high incidence of post operative nausea and vomiting
(C) Propofol inhibits pulmonary vasoconstriction d/t hypoxia, and is a/w increased pulmonary toxicity, malignant hyperthermia and enhance N2O effects
(D) Higher chances of nephrotoxity
Ans: (A)
290. Which anaethetic induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Etomidate
(C) Propofol
(D) Thiopentone
(E) Fentanyl
Ans: (B)
291. A intravenous anesthetic agent that is associated with hemodynamic stability, maintenance of CPP with post operative nausea, vomiting and myoclonus
(A) Ketamine
(B) Etomidate
(C) Propofol
(D) Opioids
Ans: (B)
292. Which anesthetic induction agent produces cardiac stability. In other words cardio stable anesthesia is
(A) Ketamine
(B) Propofol
(C) Thiopental
(D) Etomidate
Ans: (D)
293. All of the following cause myocardial depression except:
(A) Halothane
(B) Etomidate
(C) Thiopentone
(D) Ketamine
(E) Propofol
Ans: (B)
294. Hypotensive Anesthesia in nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is/are given by:
(A) Propofol
(B) Ketamine
(C) Phentolamine
(D) Halothane
(E) Na Nitroprusside
Ans: (C, D, E)
295. Sodium nitroprusside infusion may result in:
(A) Hypertension
(B) Pulmonary oedema
(C) Cyanide toxicity
(D) Heart block
Ans: (C)
296. Lowest concentration of anesthetic agent in aveoli needed to produce immobility in response to painful stimulus in 50% of individual is termed as
(A) Minimum alveolar concentration
(B) Minimal analgesic concentration
(C) Minimal anaesthetic concentration
(D) Maximum alveolar concentration
Ans: (A)
297. All of the following factors decrease the Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalation anaesthetic agent except.
(A) Hypothermia
(B) Hyponatremia
(C) Hypocalcemia
(D) Anemia
Ans: (C)
298. Index of potency of general anaesthesia
(A) Minimum alveolar concentration
(B) Diffusion coefficient
(C) Dead space concentration
(D) Alveolar blood concentration
Ans: (A)
299. Partition coefficient of gas
(A) Measure of potency
(B) Directly proportional to potency
(C) Measures solubility
(D) All of the above
Ans: (C)
300. The potency of an inhalational anesthetic depends on:
(A) Blood gas partition co-efficient
(B) Oil-gas partition coefficient
(C) Gas pressure
(D) Blood pressure
Ans: (B)
301. Characteristic of an ideal gas is
(A) Volume is directly proportional to change in pressure
(B) Volume is inversely proportional to change in temperature
(C) At absolute temperature volume of gas is 1
(D) Obeys Carles, Byles and Avagardo’ laws
Ans: (D)
302. Exception of Meyer overton rule are A/E
(A) Nonanaesthetics
(B) Nonimmobilizer
(C) Cut off effect
(D) Hydrophobic site
Ans: (D)
303. Least soluble anesthetic agent is :
(A) Desflurane
(B) Sevoflurane
(C) Halothane
(D) Ether
Ans: (A)
304. Least blood gas partition coefficient anesthetic agent:
(A) Desflurane
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Halothane
(D) Ether
Ans: (A)
305. Fastest acting agent
(A) Sefoflurane
(B) Desflurane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) None
Ans: (B)
306. Least diffusion coefficient is for :
(A) Isoflurane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Halothane
(D) N2O
Ans: (D)
307. Which one of the following is the fastest acting inhalational agent?
(A) Halothane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Ether
(D) Sevoflurane
Ans: (D)
308. Pungent volatile anesthetic agents are:
(A) Halothane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Sevoflurane
(D) Desflurane
(E) Nitrous oxide
Ans: (B, D)
309. Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?
(A) Isoflurane
(B) Sevoflurane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Nitrous oxide
Ans: (C)
310. Which of the following is not true about xenon anesthesia
(A) Non explosive
(B) Minimal cardiovascular side effects
(C) Slow induction and slow recovery
(D) Inhibits Ca++ pump and low blood gas solubility
Ans: (C)
311. True about xenon anaesthesia :
(A) Rapid induction and recovery
(B) Low potency
(C) High blood solubility
(D) Non-explosive
(E) Heavier than air
Ans: (A)
312. True about nitric oxide
(A) Formed from L-Arginine by N2O synthase
(B) Causes vasodilation in all vessels
(C) Used in portal hypertension
(D) Interacts with Hb
(E) Used in erectile dysfunction
Ans: (ALL)
313. Which of the following statements is true regarding Nitric oxide:
315. Which of the following inhaled gas is used to decrease pulmonary artery pressure in adults and infants?
(A) Nitrous oxide
(B) Nitrogen dioxide
(C) Nitric oxide
(D) Nitrogen
Ans: (C)
316. Diffusion hypoxia is seen during:
(A) Induction of anaesthesia
(B) Recovering anaesthesia
(C) Preoperatively
(D) Postoperatively
Ans: (B)
317. At the end of anaesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent:
(A) Diffusion Hypoxia
(B) Second gas effect
(C) Hyperoxia
(D) Bronchospasm
Ans: (A)
318. Bone marrow depression is seen with
(A) Halothene
(B) N2O
(C) Ether
(D) Isoflurane
Ans: (B)
319. Use of nitrous oxide is contraindicated in all of the following surgeries except :
(A) Cochlear implant
(B) Microlaryngeal surgery
(C) Vitriorentinal surgery
(D) Exentration operation
Ans: (D)
320. Not compatible with soda lime
(A) Ether
(B) Halothene
(C) Trilene
(D) N2O
Ans: (C)
321. Sodalime circuit is not used with
(A) Enflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Methoxyflurane
(D) Trilene
Ans: (D)
322. Inhalation agent incompatable with sodalime
(A) Isoflurane
(B) Trichloro Ethylene
(C) Methoxyflurane
(D) Enflurane
Ans: (B)
323. stages of anesthesia were established by
(A) Ether
(B) N2O
(C) Halothane
(D) Chloroform
Ans: (A)
324. No effect on heart
(A) Chloroform
(B) Ether
(C) Methoxyflurane
(D) Halothane
Ans: (B)
325. All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except :
(A) Induction is slow
(B) Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchial secretions
(C) Cautery cannot be used
(D) Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias.
Ans: (D)
326. True about halothane
(A) 1% Thymol is used as preservative
(B) It senitizes heart of catecholamines at 1 MAC
(C) 20% metabolized
(D) It is not usually given in same patient within
(E) It forms compound – A with sodalime
Ans: (B, C, D)
327. True about Halothane
(A) Non irritant
(B) Antiarrhythmic
(C) It antagonizes bronchospasm
(D) Vasodilator
Ans: (A, C, D)
328. True about halothane:
(A) Causes bronchodilation
(B) Anti-arhthmic
(C) Can be used in hepatitis
(D) Uterine contraction occurs
(E) Causes hepatitis
Ans: (A, E)
329. Which of the following contraindication for halothane used:
(A) Male sex
(B) Middle age
(C) Recent halothane use
(D) Associated liver pathology
(E) Obesity
Ans: (C, D)
330. Post operative jaundice is because of use of:
(A) Isoflurane
(B) NO
(C) Methoxyflurane
(D) Halothane
Ans: (D)
331. Hepatitis is caused by:
(A) Cyclopropane
(B) Halothane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Enflurane
Ans: (B)
332. Repeated use of halothane causes
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Pancreatitis
(C) Encephalitis
(D) Meningitis
Ans: (A)
333. Anesthesia agent with least analgesic property
(A) N2O
(B) Halothane
(C) Ether
(D) Propane
Ans: (B)
334. Hepatotoxic agent is
(A) Ketamine
(B) Ether
(C) N2O
(D) Halothane
Ans: (D)
335. Agent which dissolves rubber
(A) Halothane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Cyclopropane
(D) Ether
Ans: (A)
336. Maximum uterine relaxation
(A) Ether
(B) N2O
(C) Halothane
(D) Chloroform
Ans: (C)
337. All are true except
(A) Halothane is good analgestic agent
(B) Halothane sensitize heart to catacholamines
(C) Halothane sensitize heart to catacholamines
(D) Halothane causes hepatitis and liver cell necrosis
Ans: (A)
338. Bronchospasm is not caused by
(A) Regurgitation
(B) Aspiration
(C) Intubation
(D) Halothane
Ans: (D)
339. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaprorizers and breathing systems?
(A) Sevoflurane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Halothane
Ans: (D)
340. Nephrotoxic agent is
(A) Methoxyflurone
(B) Isoflurone
(C) Halothane
(D) N2O
Ans: (A)
341. Fluoride content is least :
(A) Methoxyflurane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Sevoflurane
Ans: (C)
342. Which of the following inhalational agent is contraindicated in a patient with history of epilepsy;
(A) Isoflurane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Halothane
(D) Sevoflurane
Ans: (B)
343. In increased ICT, agent used for anesthesia
(A) N2O
(B) Trilene
(C) Ether
(D) Isoflurane
Ans: (D)
344. Least effect on myocardial contractility
(A) Ether
(B) Halothane
(C) Trilene
(D) Isoflurane
Ans: (D)
345. Coronary steal is caused by
(A) Halothane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Enflurane
(D) Ether
Ans: (B)
346. Least Cardiotoxicanaesthetic agent
(A) Enflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Sevoflurane
(D) Halothane, Trilene, ketamine
Ans: (B)
347. Which of the following statements regarding desflurane is correct?
(A) It causes severe myocardial depression
(B) It is structural analogue of isoflurane
(C) It has vary high blood and tissue gas partition coefficients
(D) It is metabolically unstable
Ans: (B)
348. A seventy year old patient is posted for a surgery which is likely to last 4-6 hours. The best inhalational agent of choice for maintenance of anesthestia in such a case is:
(A) Methoxyflurane
(B) Ether
(C) Trichlorethylene
(D) Desflurane
Ans: (D)
349. Rapid induction of anesthesia occurs with which of the following inhalation anesthetics?
(A) Isoflurane
(B) Halothane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Sevoflurane
Ans: (C)
350. Which of the following is an epileptogenic anesthetic agent
(A) Isoflurane
(B) Sevoflurane
(C) Methoxyflurane
(D) Halothane
Ans: (B)
351. A six year old child is posted for elective urology surgery u der general anesthesia. He refuses to allow the anaesthesiologist an I.V. access. The best inhalational agent of choice for induction of anesthesia is:
(A) Sevoflurane
(B) Methoxyflurane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Isoflurane
Ans: (A)
352. Which is C/I in closed system anesthesiology :
(A) Methoxyflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Sevoflurane
(D) Desflurane
Ans: (C)
353. True about Sevoflurane –
(A) Isopropyl ether
(B) MAC is 2%
(C) Good to use in old age
(D) Blood gas partition coefficient is more than halothane
(E) Formation of compound A with baralyme
Ans: (A, B, C, E)
354. NOT TRUE regarding sevoflurane
(A) MAC is higher than isflurane
(B) Blood gas coefficient is higher than desflurane
(C) Potency more than cardio depressant than isoflurane
(D) Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane
Ans: (D)
355. Which of the following is/are false:
(A) Enflurane interacts with sodalime
(B) Sevoflurane causes seizures
(C) Rapid recovery from propofol
(D) Ketamine acts through GABA-A receptors
(E) MAC indicates potency of inhalational agents
Ans: (B, C, A)
356. The following combination of agents are the most preferred for short ay care surgeries
(A) Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane
(B) Thiopentone sodium, morphine, halothane
(C) Ketamine, pethidine, halothane
(D) Propofol, morphine, halothane
Ans: (A)
357. Which of the following intravenous induction agent is the most suitable for day care surgery?
(A) Morphine
(B) Ketamine
(C) Propofol
(D) Diazepam
Ans: (C)
358. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
(A) Neurosurgery
(B) Day are surgery
(C) Patients with coronary artery disease
(D) In neonatesq
Ans: (B)
359. A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anaesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hours. Which one of the following induction agents is preferred :
(A) Thiopentone sodium
(B) Ketamine
(C) Diazepam
(D) Propofol
Ans: (D)
360. Best anaesthetic agent for out patientanaesthesia is
(A) Fentanyl
(B) Morphine
(C) Alfentanyl
(D) Penthidine
Ans: (C)
361. Method of choice for induction in children is by
(A) I.M.
(B) Inhalation
(C) I.V.
(D) O2 tent
Ans: (B, C)
362. Inhalational agent of choice in children :
(A) Sevoflurane
(B) Isofurane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Halothane
(E) N2O
Ans: (A)
363. A six year old child is posted for elective urology surgery u nder general anesthesia. He refuses to allow the anaesthesiologist an I.V. access. The best inhalational agent of choice for induction of anesthesia is
(A) Sevoflurane
(B) Methoxyflurane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Isoflurane
Ans: (A)
364. In a child with intestinal obstruction with dearranged liver function test, the anesthetic of choice is:
(A) Enflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Sevoflurane
(D) Ether
Ans: (D)
365. All agents can be given for induction of anesthesia is children except :
(A) Halothane
(B) Sevoflurane
(C) Morphine
(D) N2O
Ans: (C)
366. In a 2 months old infant undergoing surgery for biliary atresia, you would avoid one of the following anaesthetic
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Halothane
(C) Propofol
(D) Sevoflurane
Ans: (B)
367. The narrowest part of larynx in infants is at the cricoid level. In administering anesthesia this may lead to all except.
(A) Choosing a smaller size endotracheal tube
(B) Trauma to the subglottic region
(C) Post operative stridor
(D) Laryngeal oedema
Ans: (A)
368. Regarding neonatal circumcision, which one of the following is true:
(A) It should be done without anaesthesia, as it is hazardous to give anaesthesia.
(B) It should be done without anesthesia, as neonates do not perceive pain as adults.
(C) It should be done under local anaesthesia only
(D) General anaesthesia should be given to neonate for circumcision as they also feel pain as adults.
Ans: (D)
369. A two month old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding postoperative pain relief which one of the following is recommended:
(A) No medication is needed as infant does not feel pain after surgery due to immaturity of nervous system
(B) Only paracetamol suppository is adequate
(C) Spinal narcotics via intrathecal route
(D) Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosage
Ans: (D)
370. A five-year old child is scheduled for strabismus (squint) correction. Induction of anesthesia is uneventful. After conjunctival incision as the surgeon grasps the medial rectus, the anaesthesiologist looks at the cardiac monitor. Why do you think he did that?
(A) He wanted to check the depth of anaesthesia
(B) He wanted to be sure that the blood pressure did not fall
(C) He wanted to see if there was an oculocardiac reflex
(D) He wanted to make sure there were no ventricular dysarhythmias which normally accompany incision.
Ans: (C)
371. A six-year old boy is schedules for examination of the eye under anaesthesia. The father informed that for the past six months the child is developing progressive weakness of both legs. His elder sibling had died at the age of 14 years. Which drug would you definitely avoid during the anaesthei management?
(A) Succinylcholine
(B) Thiopentone
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Vecuronium
Ans: (A)
372. A 5 year old boy suffering from Duchenne Muscular dystrophy and polymyositis has been fasting for 8 hrs and has to undergo tendon lengthening. Which anaesthesia should be used.
(A) Induction of IV Thiopentone& maintenance by N2O & halothane
(B) Induction by IV Propofol and maintenance by N2O & O2
(C) Induction by IV scoline and Maintenance by N2O & Halothane
(D) Inhalation N2O, O2& halothane
Ans: (B)
373. A 5 year old boy suffering from Duchenne muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon lengthening procedure. The most appropriate anaesthetic would be:
(A) Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O; and halothane for maintenance
(B) Induction with intravenous suxamethonim and N2O; and oxygen for maintenance
(C) Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O; and halothane for maintenance
(D) Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O; oxygen for maintenance
Ans: (A)
374. A 5-year old patient is schedules for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery he had running nose, temperature 37.5℃ and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery.
(A) Surgery should be cancelled
(B) Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthma
(C) Should get X-ray chest before proceeding for surgery
(D) Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibiotic
Ans: (D)
375. The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Ondansetron
(C) Propofol
(D) Dexamethasone
Ans: (A)
376. A child is posted for operative repair ofexostrophy of bladder with renal failure. Which anesthetic should be preferred?
(A) Pancuronium
(B) Vecuronium
(C) Ataracurium
(D) Rocuronium
Ans: (C)
377. Blood brain barrier is permeable to all except
(A) Water
(B) Gas
(C) Lipophilic drug
(D) Protein
Ans: (D)
378. A case of road traffic accident (RTA) came with head injury, BP is 90/60, pulse is 150/min. Which anesthetic agent should be used for induction.
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Ketamine
(C) Halothane
(D) Succinylcholine
Ans: (A)
379. Following RTA, a patient suffered splenic ruture. His BP is 90/60 mmHg, PR 126/min and SpO2 92%. Induction agent of choice is
(A) Remifentanyl
(B) Halothane
(C) Midazolam
(D) Etomidate
Ans: (D)
380. Amount of K+ (mEgq/l) in ringer lactate (RL)
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans: (B)
381. A 30 year old woman with coarctation of aorta is admitted to the labour room for elective caesarean section. Which of the following is the anaesthesia technique of choice:
(A) Spinal anaesthesia
(B) Epidural anaesthesia
(C) General anaesthesia
(D) Local anaesthesia with nerve block
Ans: (C)
382. A 5 year child is suffering from cyanotic heart disease. He is planned for corrective surgery. The induction agent of the choice would by:
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Ketamine
(C) Halothane
(D) Midazolam
Ans: (B)
383. A 6 month old child is suffering from patent ductusarteriosus (PDA) with congestive cardiac failure. Ligation of ductusarteriosus was decided for surgical management. The most appropriate inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice with minimal haemodynamic alteration for induction anaesthesia is
(A) Sevoflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Enflurane
(D) Halothane
Ans: (A)
384. The most common cause of morbidity and mortality in patients undergoing major vascular surgery is:
(A) Renal complications
(B) Thrombo embolic phenomenon
(C) Coagulopathies
(D) Cardiac complications
Ans: (D)
385. A 52 year old male diagnosed as triple vessel coronary artery disease with poor left ventricular function. Coronary artery bypass grafting surgery was decided. During maintenance of anaesthesia which one of the following agents should be preferred?
(A) IV Opioids
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Halothane
(D) Nitrous oxide
Ans: (A, B)
386. During surgery for aortic arch aneurysm under deep hypothermic circulatory arrest, which of the following anesthetic agent administered prior to circulatory arrest that also provides cerebral protection.
(A) Etomidate
(B) Thiopental sodium
(C) Propofol
(D) Ketamine
Ans: (B)
387. Patient with mitral stenosis is having surgery tomorrow. There is some liver compromise. Which of the following inhalational agent is preferred
(A) Halothane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Xenon
(D) Sevoflurane
Ans: (C)
388. Which of the following is not used in controlling heart rate intraoperatively.
(A) Propanolol/Metoprolol
(B) Verapamil
(C) Esmolol
(D) Procainamide
Ans: (B)
389. Hypothermia is used in all except:
(A) Neonatal asphyxia
(B) Cardiac surgery
(C) Hyperthermia
(D) Arrythmia
Ans: (D)
390. Following will be the choice of anaesthesia in an infected tooth posted for extraction:
(A) Local block with lignocaine
(B) Local block with lignocaine
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Enflurane
Ans: (D)
391. Fire breaks out during laser vocal cord surgery. What is not be done?
(A) Pouring sterile water
(B) Removing endotracheal tube
(C) 100% oxygen after discontinuing anesthetic gases
(D) Treatment with steroid and antibiotics
Ans: (C)
392. Anaesthesia used in microlaryngoscopy is
(A) Pollarad tube of 10 mm diameter with heavy sedation
(B) Pollarad tube of 15 mm diameter with topical xylocaine
(C) Pollarad tube with infiltration block
(D) Heavy sedation on and Endotracheal intubation.
Ans: (C)
393. In pregnancy, there is decreased requirement of anesthetic agent b/o all except reasons
(A) Higher sensitivity of nerves to LA
(B) Engorged spinal veins
(C) Decreased subarachnoid space
(D) Increased lumbar lardosis
Ans: (D)
394. A 25 year old primigravide with mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation is under labor. She wants normal delivery which would be the best way to provide analgesia in this lady
(A) Inhalational analgesia
(B) Intravenous opioids
(C) Spinal anesthesia
(D) Neuraxialblockde analgesia
Ans: (D)
395. Anaesthesia of choice for manual removal of placenta
(A) GA
(B) Spinal
(C) Epidural
(D) Para Cervical
Ans: (A)
396. A patient of alcoholic liver failure requires general anesthesia AOC is
(A) Ether
(B) Halothane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Methoxyflurane
Ans: (C)
397. All anesthetic agent decrease portal vein flow. Portal flow is maximally reduced by:
(A) Ether
(B) Halothane
(C) Isoflurane
(D) Enflurane
Ans: (B)
398. Anaesthesia of choice in renal diseases :
(A) Atracurium
(B) Cisatracurium
(C) Vecuronium
(D) Rocuronium
(E) Mivacuronium
Ans: (A, B, D, E)
399. Anesthesia of choice in renal failure
(A) Methoxyflurane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Enflurane
(D) None
Ans: (B)
400. After hyperventilation for some time holding the breadth is dangerous since
(A) It can lead to CO2narcosis
(B) due to lack of stimulation by CO2, anoxia can go into dangerous level
(C) ↓CO2 shift O dissociation curve to left
(D) Alkalosis can lead to tetany
Ans: (B)
401. Best anaesthesia for status asthamaticus
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Ketamine
(C) Ether
(D) N2O
Ans: (B)
402. Inducing agent contraindicated in asthma is
(A) Ketamine
(B) Thiopentone
(C) Propofol
(D) Althesin
Ans: (D)
403. During rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia:
(A) Sellick’s maneuver is not required
(B) Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
(C) Suxamethonium is contraindicated
(D) Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation
Ans: (B)
404. Which is safest to be used in asthmatic patients :
(A) Nitrazepam
(B) Phenobarbitone
(C) Chloral hydrate
(D) All hypnotics are false
(E) Morphine
Ans: (C)
405. A 40 yr old male with controlled thyrotoxicosis and Carcinoma rectum was undergoing laparcopicabdominoperineal resection, during which he was found to have decreased Blood Pressure and Heart Rate. On examination, a mill-wheal murmur was heard. The end tidal pCO2 was observed found reducing from 40 to 10. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Air embolism
(B) Thyroid storm
(C) Blood loss
(D) Acute hypoxia
Ans: (A)
406. 5 yr old child going to sitting craniotomy while positioning in O.T. developed End Tidal CO2 0mm Hg PO2 80 mm Hg implies
(A) Endotracheal tube in oesophagus
(B) E.T. blocked with secretion
(C) Venous air Embolism
(D) Left lung collapse
Ans: (C)
407. Factors favouring fat embolism in a patient with major trauma:
(A) Mobility of #
(B) Hypovolemic shock
(C) Resp. failure
(D) Diabetes
Ans: (A)
408. The gas which produces systemic toxicity without causing local irritation is :
(A) Ammonium
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Hdyrcyanic acid
(D) Sulfur dioxide
Ans: (B)
409. True about aspiration pneumonia
(A) Affected by volume of aspiration
(B) Affected by pH of aspiration fluid
(C) ↑Incidence during induction
(D) Inflammation
(E) Infection
Ans: (ALL)
410. Upper respiratory tract infection is a common problem in children. All of the following anesthetic complications can occur in children with respiratory infections except-
(A) Bacteremia
(B) Halothane granuloma
(C) Increased mucosal bleeding
(D) Laryngospasm
Ans: (B)
411. Mendelson syndrome is due to:
(A) Aspiration pneumonitis
(B) Chemical pneumonitis
(C) Oesophagitis
(D) Oesophageal spasm
Ans: (A)
412. Drugs contraindicated in AIP:
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Etomidate
(C) Ketamine
(D) Propofol
(E) Midazolam
Ans: (A)
413. The drug which is not suitable for patient with acute porphyria for intravenous induction is:
(A) Thiopentone sodium
(B) Propofol
(C) Midazolam
(D) Etomidate
Ans: (A)
414. A patient selected for surgery was induced with Thiopentoneiv through one of anti cubital vein complains of severe pain of whole hand. The next line of management
(A) Give IV propofol through same needle
(B) IV ketamine through same needle
(C) IV lignocaine through same needle
(D) Leave it done
Ans: (C)
415. Malignant hyperthermia is most common with
(A) Succinyl Choline
(B) Gallamine
(C) Dantrolene
(D) Ketamine
Ans: (A)
416. Which of the following anesthetic agents does not trigger malignant hyperthermia?
(A) Halothane
(B) Isoflurane
(C) Suxamethonium
(D) Thiopentone
Ans: (D)
417. All the following cause malignant hyperpyrexia except :
(A) N2O
(B) Halothane
(C) Methoxyflurane
(D) Isoflurane
Ans: (A)
418. All are seen in malignant hyperthermia except:
(A) Bardycardia
(B) Hyperkalemia
(C) Metabolic acidosis
(D) Hypertension
Ans: (A)
419. Which of the following is true about malignant hyperthermia
(A) Hypernatremia
(B) Hypercalcemia
(C) Hyperkalemia
(D) Hypothermia
Ans: (C)
420. About malignant hyperthermia true:
(A) Succinylcholine & Halothane predisposes
(B) Dantroleneusefull in all cases
(C) Ketanserine can be used as an alternative to Dantrolene
(D) Propofol is safe
(E) Muscle biopsy is diagnostic
Ans: (A, B, D, E)
421. Treatment of malignant Hyperthermia includes:
(A) Dantrolene
(B) Cooling
(C) Deepening plane of inhalational anaesthesia
(D) Discontinue inhalational anesthesia
(E) Give O2 therapy with 100% O2
Ans: (A, D, E)
422. Hyperthermia is caused by:
(A) Anticholinnergics
(B) MAO inhibitors
(C) Lithium
(D) Chlorpromazine
(E) Carbimazole
Ans: (B)
423. Hypothermia is used in:
(A) Hyperpyrexia
(B) Prolonged surgeries
(C) Massive blood transfusion
(D) Hypertension
Ans: (A & B)
424. During surgery after inhalational anesthesia a patient suddenly developed, fever, increased heart rate and BP, acidosis and arrhythmia. What is your first step of intervention
(A) Dantrolene
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Procainamide
(D) Antipyretics
Ans: (A)
425. Which of the following agents is used for the treatment postoperative shivering?
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Suxamethonium
(C) Atropine
(D) Pethidine
Ans: (D)
426. In a young patient who had extensive soft tissue and muscle injury, which of these muscle relaxants used of endotracheal intubation might lead to cardiac arrest:
(A) Atracurium
(B) Suxamethonium
(C) Vecuronium
(D) Pancuronium
Ans: (B)
427. The use of succinylcholine is not contraindicated in:
(A) Tetanus
(B) Closed head injury
(C) Cerebral stroke
(D) Hepatic failure
Ans: (D)
428. Administration of Scoline (Sch) produces dangerous hyperkalemia in
(A) Acute Renal Failure (A.R.F)
(B) Raised ICT
(C) Fracture femur
(D) Paraplegia
Ans: (D)
429. The administration of succinylocholine to a paraplegic patient led to the appearance of dysarrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is
(A) Hypercalcemia
(B) Hyperkalemia
(C) Anaphylaxis
(D) Hypermagnesemia
Ans: (B)
430. Hyper K+ due to scoline is seen in all except
(A) Crush injury
(B) Burn
(C) Abdominal sepsis
(D) Muscular dystrophy
Ans: (C)
431. In myasthenia gravis, which drugs should not be used:
(A) Gallamine
(B) Neostigmine
(C) Aminoglyosides
(D) Metronidazole
(E) Ampicillin
Ans: (A, C)
432. Which of the following anaesthetic agents cause a rise in the Intracranial pressure:
(A) Sevoflurane
(B) Thiopentone sodium
(C) Lignocaine
(D) Propofol
Ans: (A)
433. ↑ICT is treated by A/E
(A) IV mannitol
(B) IV Frusemide
(C) Controlled Hyperventilation
(D) Addition of positive end respiratory pressure
Ans: (D)
434. Cause of post operative hypertension
(A) Preoperative hypertension
(B) Inadequate analgesia
(C) Phaeochromocytoma
(D) Hypoxemia
(E) Hypercarbia
Ans: (ALL)
435. Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?
(A) Sodium nitroprusside
(B) Hydralazine
(C) Mephenteramine
(D) Esmolol
Ans: (C)
436. The outcome following resuscitation of cardiac arrest is worsened if during resuscitation patient is given:
(A) Ringer’s lactate
(B) Colloids
(C) 5% Dextrose
(D) Whole blood transfusion
Ans: (C)
437. The most common rhythm disturbance during early postoperative period is:
(A) Bradycardia
(B) Ventricular fibrillation
(C) Tachycardia
(D) Complete heart block
Ans: (C)
438. Use of Intra-arterial cannula in major surgery:
(A) Measurement of direct intra-arterial BP
(B) Sample for ABG
(C) Drug injection
(D) BT
Ans: (ALL)
439. In an injured patient with hypovolemia intravenous fluid administered is guided by:
(A) Central venous pressure
(B) Blood pressure
(C) Urine output
(D) Pulse rate
Ans: (ALL)
440. Importance of CVP measurements is:
(A) Need for blood transfusion
(B) Assess amount of fluid to be given
(C) Need for inotropic support
(D) Rate of intravenous fluid replacement
(E) Assess need for plasma transfusion
Ans: (A, D, E)
441. In a patient with cardiorespiratory arrest, basic life support is given to support which of the following systems:
(A) Respiratory system
(B) Cardiovascular system
(C) Renal system
(D) Gastrointestinal system
(E) CNS
Ans: (A, B, E)
442. In a patient with multiple injuries, first thing to be done is :
(A) Patency of airway
(B) Maintenance of B.P
(C) Immobilize cervical spine
(D) Lateral position with mouth gag
Ans: (A)
443. First step in CPR (cardio pulmonary resuscitation) should be :
(A) IV adrenaline
(B) Intracardic atropine
(C) Airway maintenance
(D) Hystrectomy
Ans: (C)
444. True about adrenaline in CPR :
(A) Can be given intratracheally
(B) I.V. route better than intracardiac
(C) Intracardiac route better than IV
(D) Converts coarse fibrillation into fine ones
(E) The dose used is 2ml. containing 1 in 1000 concentration
Ans: (A & B)
445. According to 2005 AHA guidelines true about not of chest compression in CPR:
(A) 80/ min including neonate
(B) 90/min including neonate
(C) 100/min excluding neonate
(D) 120/min including neonate
(E) 120/min excluding neonate
Ans: (B)
446. During cardiac resuscitation, the following can occur except :
(A) Rupture of Lungs
(B) Rupture of Liver
(C) Rupture of Stomach
(D) Rupture of Spleen
(E) Disseminated intravascular coagulation occurs
Ans: (E)
447. Heparin interferes with which of the following results of ABG
(A) PO2
(B) PCO2
(C) pH
(D) HCO3
(E) Anion gap
Ans: (C)
448. During intraoperative anaesthesia mismatch BT develops:
(A) Increased bleeding
(B) Hypotension
(C) Bronchospasm
(D) Rash
(E) Movements of limbs
Ans: (A, B, C, D)
449. Mismatched blood transfusion manifests intraoperatively as :
(A) Rise in B.P.
(B) Excessive bleeding
(C) Dyspnoea
(D) Hematuria
Ans: (B)
450. Drugs which interfere with anesthesia are :
(A) Calcium channel blocker nifedipine
(B) Beta blockers
(C) Aminoglycosides
(D) Steroid administration
(E) D-tubocurar
Ans: (A, B, C)
451. Calcium channel blockers in anesthesia, True is :
(A) Needs to be decreased as they augment hypotension & muscle relaxation
(B) Withheld because they lower LES pressure
(C) Should be given in normal does as they prevent MI & angina
(D) All of the above
Ans: (C)
452. In a 10 year old child presented with anaphylactic shock, drug of choice is :
(A) I/V adrenaline
(B) S.C. adrenaline
(C) Anti histamine
(D) Corticosteroids
Ans: (A)
453. In status epilepticus, drug of choice is :
(A) I/V diazepam
(B) 1/M diazepam
(C) Oral clonazepam
(D) I/M phenytoin
Ans: (A)
454. In belladonna poisoning, antidote is:
(A) Physostigmine
(B) Neostigmine
(C) Anti histamine
(D) Atropine
Ans: (A)
455. Atropine is used in following except :
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Mushroom poisoning
(C) Malathion poisoning
(D) Organophosphorous poisoning
Ans: (A)
456. Local anaesthesia acts by
(A) Na+ channel inhibition
(B) Ca++ channel inhibition
(C) Mg++ channel inhibition
(D) K+ channel inhibition
Ans: (A)
457. True about local anaesthetic
(A) Cocaine acts by decreasing norepnephrine
(B) Act by decreasing sodium entry into cell
(C) Lignocaine is a amide
(D) Dibucaine is drug of choice for epidural anaesthesia
Ans: (B, C)
458. True statements about local anaesthesia
(A) It inhibits the generation of action potential
(B) Unmyelinatedthi fiber are most susceptible than myelinated large fibers
(C) Toxicity is reduced by addition of vasoconstrictor
(D) Blocks all modalities of sensation at the same time
Ans: (A)
459. True about local anaesthetic agents
(A) Duration depends on protein binding
(B) Potency depends upon lipid solubility
(C) LA with low PK is more active
(D) Higher does produces more block
(E) Signal transduction blockade
Ans: (ALL)
460. Afferent nerve fibre affected by local anesthesia first
(A) Type A
(B) Type II-B
(C) Type C
(D) Type II
Ans: (C)
461. Which of the following is/are not local anesthesia :
(A) Bupivacine
(B) Mepivacine
(C) Mivacurium
(D) Butorphenol
(E) Bupernorphine
Ans: (C, D, E)
462. Which one of the following is not a amide
(A) Lignocaine/Lidocaine
(B) Procaine
(C) Bupivacaine/Mepivacaine
(D) Dibucaine/Prilocaine/Etidocaine
Ans: (B)
463. Cholinesterase metabolizes following except :
(A) Propanolol
(B) Procaine
(C) Acetyl choline
(D) Bupivacaine
Ans: (D)
464. Earliest (first) L.A. used clinically
(A) Xylocaine/Lidocaine
(B) Morphine
(C) Cocaine
(D) Cannabis & Procaine
Ans: (C)
465. Vasoconstrictor L.A. is
(A) Cocaine
(B) Procaine
(C) Lidocaine
(D) Chlorprocaine
Ans: (A)
466. Which local anaesthetic causes vasoconstriction :
(A) Cocaine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Bupivacaine
(D) Procaine
Ans: (A)
467. All are vasodilators except
(A) Procaine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Cocaine
(D) Chlorprocaine
Ans: (C)
468. The topical use of following local anesthetic is not recommended?
(A) Ligocaine
(B) Bupivacaine
(C) Cocaine
(D) Dibucaine
Ans: (B)
469. True about EMLA :
(A) Can be used for intubation
(B) Mixture of local anesthesia
(C) Faster acting
(D) Used in children
Ans: (B, D)
470. Anesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is contraindicated in?
(A) Finger block
(B) Spinal block
(C) Epidural block
(D) Regional anesthesia
Ans: (A)
471. Sodium bicarbonate when given with local anaesthetics has which of the following effect?
(A) Increases speed and quality of anaesthesia
(B) Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
(C) Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
(D) Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia.
Ans: (A)
472. Shortest acting local anesthetic agent is
(A) Procaine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Tetracaine
(D) Bupivacaine
Ans: (A)
473. Longest acting L.A
(A) Bupivacaine
(B) Tetracaine
(C) Xylocaine
(D) Procaine
Ans: (B)
474. Local anesthetic acting for more than 2hrs.
(A) Bupivacaine
(B) Etodocaine
(C) Lignocaine
(D) Cholorprocaine
Ans: (A & B)
475. Which of the following is long acting local anesthetic > 2hrs
(A) Bupivacaine
(B) Prilocaine
(C) Etidocaine
(D) Dibucaine
(E) Tetracaine
Ans: (A, C, D & E)
476. Concentration of lignocaine used
(A) 2%
(B) 4%
(C) 5%
(D) 10%
(E) 1%
Ans: (A, C)
477. Xylocaine heavy in subarachnoid space has concentration of
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans: (D)
478. Conc. of Lidocaine used in spinal anesthesia
(A) 5%
(B) 3%
(C) 2%
(D) 1%
Ans: (A)
479. Maximum does of lidocaine as local anesthesia is
(A) 100 mg
(B) 200 mg
(C) 300 mg
(D) 500 mg
Ans: (D)
480. Max dose of lignocaine with adrenaline is
(A) 3 mg/kg
(B) 4 mg/kg
(C) 5 mg/kg
(D) 7 mg/kg
Ans: (D)
481. About lidocaine, al are true except :
(A) LA effect
(B) Cardiac arrhythmia
(C) Ester
(D) Acts on mucous membranes
Ans: (C)
482. Lignocaine in high dose produces
(A) Convulsion
(B) Respiratory depression
(C) Hypotension
(D) Cardiac arrest
(E) Hypothermia
Ans: (A, B, C, D)
483. L. A. causing Meth Haemoglobinemia
(A) Procaine
(B) Prilocaine
(C) Bupivacaine
(D) Cocaine
Ans: (B)
484. Which of the following local anaesthetics is most likely to produce an allergic reaction :
(A) Prilocaine
(B) Ropivacaine
(C) Etidocaine
(D) Benzocaine
Ans: (D)
485. A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block.
On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paresthesia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except :
(A) Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
(B) A tight cast or dressing
(C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
(D) Tourniquet pressure
Ans: (C)
486. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason :
(A) Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart
(B) Histamine receptors in bran and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure
(C) There is a sudden out-burst of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart
(D) Lidocaine is converted into a toxic met-bolite due to its longer stay in liver.
Ans: (A)
487. Which one of the following local anaesthetic is highly cardiotoxic:
489. Levo-bupivacaine is administered by which of the following route:
(A) Nasogastric
(B) Epidural
(C) Intravenous
(D) Intra-theccal
(E) Oral
Ans: (B & D)
490. Buoivacaine toxicity treated with :
(A) Esmolol
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Lignociaine
(D) 5 percent dextrose
(E) Benzodiazepines
Ans: (B, E)
491. Treatment of bupivacaine toxicity includes:
(A) Isoproterenol
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Bretylium
(D) Metoprolol
(E) Lignocaine/Calcium channel blockers
Ans: (B, C, A)
492. Bier’s block is
(A) Subarachnoid block
(B) Infiltration and surface block
(C) Intravenous block
(D) Peripheral nerve and nerve root block
Ans: (C)
493. Which anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease
(A) General anaesthesia
(B) Brachial plexus block
(C) I.V. Regional Anaesthesia
(D) Spinal
Ans: (C)
494. A 30 year old lady is to undergo surgery under intravenous regional anesthesia for her left ‘trigger finger’. Which one of the following should not be used for patient?
(A) Lignocaine
(B) Bupivacaine
(C) Prilocaine
(D) Lignocaine + ketorolac
Ans: (B)
495. A young boy has sickle cell trait. Which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated :
(A) IV regional anaesthesia (IVRA)
(B) Brachal plexus block by infraclavicular approach
(C) Brachial plexus block by infraclavicular approach
(D) Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
Ans: (A)
496. In general, the last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulbar anesthetic block is:
(A) Superior rectus
(B) Superior oblique
(C) Inferior oblique
(D) Levator palpebral superioris
Ans: (B)
497. Complication of peribulbar block-
(A) Retrobulbar hemorrhage
(B) Globe rupture
(C) Optic neuritis
(D) Local anaesthetic solution can migrate to brain
(E) Vasovagal syncope
Ans: (ALL)
498. Which of the following is not a sign of successful stellate ganglion block?
(A) Nasal stuffiness
(B) Guttman sign
(C) Horner’s syndrome
(D) Bradycardia
Ans: (D)
499. A patient in ICU was on invasive monitoring with intra arterialcanulation through right radial artery for last 3 days. Later he developed swelling and discolouration of right hand. The next line of management is
(A) Stellate ganglion block
(B) Brachial Block
(C) Radial Never block
(D) Celiac plexus block
Ans: (A)
500. From which of the following routes absorption of local anaesthetic is maximum?
(A) Intercostal
(B) Epidural
(C) Branchial
(D) Caudal
Ans: (A)
501. Interscalene approach to brachial plexus block does not provide optimal surgical anaesthesia in the area of distribution of which of the following nerve
(A) Musculocutaneous
(B) Ulnar
(C) Radial
(D) Median
Ans: (B)
502. Pneumothorax is a complication of
(A) Axillary block
(B) Brachial plexus block
(C) Epidural block
(D) High Spinal block
Ans: (B)
503. Pudendal Nerve Block Involve
(A) L1L2L3
(B) L2L3L4
(C) S1S2S3
(D) S2S3S4
Ans: (D)
504. Most common complication of celiac plexus block:
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Postural hypotension
(C) Retroperitoneal hemorrhage
(D) Intra-arterial injection
Ans: (B)
505. In all of the following conditions neuraxial blockade is absolutely contraindicated except:
(A) Patient refusal
(B) Coagulopathy
(C) Severe hypovolemia
(D) Pre-existing neurological deficits
Ans: (D)
506. Centrineuraxial (spinal and epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in-
(A) Platelets < 80,000
(B) Patient on aspirin
(C) Patient on oral anticoagulants
(D) Patient on LMH (heparin)
Ans: (B)
507. True about Epidural anesthesia:
(A) Effects start immediately
(B) C/I in coagulopathies
(C) Given in subarachnoid space
(D) Venous return decreases
Ans: (B, D)
508. True about epidural narcotics (opioids) are all except
(A) Nausea, vomiting (gi side effects)
(B) Pruritis (itching)
(C) Respiratory depression
(D) Act on dorsal horn cells
Ans: (D)
509. Site of action of epidural analgesia
(A) Sensory nerve endings
(B) Ventral horn
(C) Substantiagelatinosa
(D) Cortex
Ans: (C)
510. Epidural narcotic is preferred over epidural LA because it causes
(A) Less respiratory depression
(B) Less dose is required
(C) No motor paralysis
(D) No retention of urine
Ans: (C)
511. Drug used for Epidual Analgesic
(A) Morphine
(B) Fentanyl
(C) Piroxicam
(D) NSAID’S
Ans: (A, B)
512. True about epidural anaesthesia in pregnancy
(A) Given through subarachnoid space
(B) Increases cardiac output
(C) Venous pooling
(D) Decreased placental circulation
Ans: (C, D)
513. A patient was admitted epidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5%. Lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. The most common cause would be
(A) Allergy to drug administered
(B) Systemic toxicity to drug administered
(C) Patient got vasovagal shock
(D) Drug has entered the subarachnoid space
Ans: (D)
514. An anesthesia resident was giving spinal anesthesia when the patient had sudden aphonia and loss of consciousness. What could have happened?
(A) Total spinal
(B) Partial spinal
(C) Vaso vagal attack
(D) Intra vascular injection
Ans: (C)
515. In high spinal anaesthesia what is seen
(A) Hypotension &Bradycardia
(B) Hypotension & Tachycardia
(C) Hypertension &Bradycardia
(D) Hypertension & Tachycardia
Ans: (A)
516. A lower Segment Caesarean section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques of anaesthesia except :
(A) General anaesthesia
(B) Spinal anaesthesia
(C) Caudal anaesthesia
(D) Combined Spinal Epidural anaesthesia
Ans: (C)
517. The anesthetic drug injected for paravertebral block is least likely to diffuse to:
(A) Epidural space
(B) Subarachnoid space
(C) Intercostal space
(D) Superior and inferior paravertebral spaces
Ans: (B)
518. Structure (s) pierce in Lumbar spinal puncture is/are:
(A) Ligamentumflavum
(B) Duramater
(C) Supraspinous ligament
(D) Anterior longitudinal ligament
(E) Posterior longitudinal ligament
Ans: (A, B, C)
519. In spinal anesthesia which fiber is lost first
(A) Sympathetic
(B) Sensory
(C) Motor
(D) Propioception
Ans: (A)
520. Spinal anesthesia should be injected into the space between
(A) T12 – L1
(B) T1 – L2
(C) L3 – L4
(D) L5 – S1
Ans: (C)
521. Spinal anesthesia is given at which of the following levels :
(A) L1-2
(B) L2-4
(C) Midline of thorax
(D) Below L5(caudal)
Ans: (B)
522. Most common complication of spinal anesthesia is
(A) Hypotension
(B) Headache
(C) Meningitis
(D) Arrythmia
Ans: (A)
523. Best way to prevent hypotension during spinal anesthesia
(A) Preloading with crystalloids
(B) Mephentermine
(C) Dopamine
(D) Tredelenbug’s position
Ans: (A)
524. Following spinal subarachnoid block a patient develops hypotension. This can be managed by the following means except :
(A) Lowering the head end
(B) Administration of 1000 ml of Ringers lacate before the block
(C) Vasopressor drug like methoxamine
(D) Use of ionotrope like dopamine.
Ans: (A)
525. Vasopressor of choice in hypotension produced during sub-arachnoidblock
(A) Ephedrine
(B) Mephenteramine
(C) Adrenaline
(D) Dopamine
(E) Steroids
Ans: (A)
526. Post spinal headache is due to
(A) Meningitis
(B) Encephaletics
(C) CSF leak
(D) Increased ICT
Ans: (C)
527. Post Spinal Headache can last for
(A) Upto 10 min
(B) Upto 10 hours
(C) 7-10 days
(D) Upto 10 months
Ans: (C)
528. True about post spinal headache
(A) Frontal
(B) More in lying down
(C) Low incidence with thin (25 G) needle
(D) Increased by abdominal compression
Ans: (C)
529. Post dural puncture headache, true about –
(A) Common in elderly
(B) Small bone needle prevents it
(C) Early ambulation increases incidence
(D) Occurs immediately after spinal anaesthesia
(E) Blood patch is the first line of treatment
Ans: (B, D)
530. Which is the true statement regarding post-dural anesthetic headache:
(A) Blood patch is the first line of treatment
(B) Occurs due to low CSF pressure
(C) Increased incidence with early mobilization of patient
(D) Use of small gauge needle prevents
(E) Common in old age
Ans: (B, D)
531. Which one of the following is the description used for the term allodynia during pain management?
(A) Absence of pain perception
(B) Complete lack of pain sensation
(C) Unpleasant sensation with or without a stimulus
(D) Perception of an ordinarily non-noxious stimulus as sever pain
Ans: (D)
532. Perception of ordinarily non noxious stimuli as pain, is better known as :
(A) Allodynia
(B) Huperalgesia
(C) Hyperesthesia
(D) Radioculopathy
Ans: (A)
533. Pain rating index is provided by
(A) Faces scale
(B) Visual analogue scale
(C) Mc Gill questionniare
(D) CHEOP scale
Ans: (C)
534. Best scale to measure pain in children of 5 years age would be
(A) VAS
(B) Mc Gill Scale
(C) Faces Scale
(D) CHEOPS
Ans: (D)
535. Visual analogue scale (VAS) most widely used to measure
(A) Sleep
(B) Sedation
(C) Pain intensity
(D) Depth of Anaesthesia
Ans: (C)
536. A children hospital Eastern Ontaria Pain scale (CHEOPS) for rating potoperative pain in children includes all except
(A) Cry
(B) Touch
(C) Torso
(D) Oxygen saturation
Ans: (D)
537. Which one of the following is the shortest acting intravenous analgesic:
(A) Remifantanil
(B) Fentanyl
(C) Alfentanil
(D) Sufentanil
Ans: (A)
538. Narcotic of choice for out patient anesthesia:
(A) Morphine
(B) Alfentanyl
(C) Fentanyl
(D) Pethidine
Ans: (B)
539. Least analgesic
(A) N2O
(B) Ketamine
(C) Thiopentone
(D) Etomidate
Ans: (C)
540. Which of the following anesthetic agents have analgesic property:
(A) N2O
(B) Ketamine
(C) Thiopentone
(D) Etomidate
Ans: (A, B)
541. Which of the following anesthetic agents have analgesic property :
(A) Ketamine
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Thiopentone
(D) Propofol
(E) Midazolam
Ans: (A)
542. All are opiod agonist – antagonist compounds except
(A) Buprenorphine
(B) Nalbuphine
(C) Pentazocine
(D) Nalmefene
(E) Papaverine
Ans: (D, E)
543. True regarding morphine
(A) Tolerance develops for all except miosis and constipation
(B) Tolerance to all effects develops with chronic usage
(C) Tolerance develops for all except euphoria and sedation
(D) Tolerance can develop to all effects in high doses
Ans: (A)
544. Best antagonist of morphine is
(A) Nalorphine
(B) Naloxone
(C) Buprenorphine
(D) Pentazocine
Ans: (B)
545. Drug with Ceiling effect:
(A) Morphine
(B) Buprenorphine
(C) Fentanyl
(D) Alfentanyl
Ans: (B)
546. Management of chronic pain includes :
(A) Intra-thecal hyperbaric phenol
(B) Antrolateralcordotomy
(C) Epidural fentanyl
(D) Patient controlled analgesia (PCA)
(E) Anticonvulsant drugs
Ans: (ALL)
547. A patient after undergoing thoracotomy complains of severe pain. He can be managed by
2. Earliest congential malformation that may be detected on USG is
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Hydrocephalous
(C) Anencephaly
(D) Sacral Agenesis
Answer: (C)
3. Earliest sign of fetal life is best detected by
(A) X-Ray
(B) Feto scopy
(C) Real time USG
(D) Doppler
Answer: (D)
4. Acoustic shadow in USG is due to
(A) Artefact
(B) Absorption
(C) Reflection
(D) Refraction
Answer: ()
5. Half life of I131 is
(A) 4 hours
(B) 8 days
(C) 4 days
(D) 10 days
Answer: (B)
6. Best view for visualizing sella turcica on X-Ray
(A) A P View
(B) Town’s view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Open mouth view
Answer: (C)
7. Investigation of choice in parathyroid pathology is
(A) CT Scan
(B) Gallium Scan
(C) Thallium Scan
(D) Tc-Thallium substraction scan
Answer: (D)
8. Renal GFR is estimated by
(A) TC⁹⁹ DMCA
(B) TC⁹⁹ DMSA
(C) Tc⁹⁹ DTPA
(D) Tc⁹⁹ – Gallium
Answer: (C)
9. Right side of mediastinum shadow is not formed by
(A) Superior venacava
(B) Right innominates
(C) Right atrium
(D) Right ventricle
Answer: (D)
10. Tc labeled RBC’s are used for
(A) Biliary tree
(B) Renal disease
(C) Pulmonary embolism
(D) Spleenic disease
Answer: (D)
11. Earliest evidence of healing in rickets is provided by
(A) S. Ca⁺⁺
(B) S.PO43−
(C) Radiological examination of growing bone ends
(D) S. Alkaline Phosphate level
Answer: (C)
12. Neural tube defect is best detected by
(A) USG
(B) Chromosomal analysis
(C) Aminocentesis
(D) Placentography
Answer: (A)
13. Investigation of choice in aortic dissection is
(A) USG
(B) CT Scan
(C) MRI
(D) Digital substraction Angiography
Answer: (C)
14. Chain of lakes appearance in ERCP is seen is
(A) Acute Pancreatitis
(B) Chronic Pancreatitis
(C) Carcinoma Pancreas
(D) Ductal Adenoma
Answer: (B)
15. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by
(A) USG
(B) X -Ray Chest
(C)Ventilation – Perfusion Scan
(D) CT Scan
Answer: (D)
16. Most Radio sensitive stage
(A) S₂ phase
(B) G₁ phase
(C) G₂ phase
(D) G₂M phase
Answer: (D)
17. Maximum scattering in X Ray plate occurs in
(A) Carbon
(B) Mercury
(C) H⁺
(D) Ca⁺⁺
Answer: (C)
18. Principle used in radiotherapy is
(A) Cytoplasmic coagulation
(B) Ionization of molecules
(C) DNA damage
(D) Necrosis of tissue
Answer: (B)
19. In MRI the field used is :
(A) .05 tesla
(B) 1.1 tesla
(C) 5 tesla
(D) 11 tesla
Answer: (B)
20. Ion which scatters X-ray most is :
(A) H⁺
(B) Ca⁺⁺
(C) Hg
(D) Pb
Answer: (A)
21. Most common presentation of radiation carditis is
(A) Pericardial effusion
(B) Atheromatous plaques
(C) Myocardial fibrosis
(D) Pyogenic pericarditis
Answer: (A)
22. Most important investigation for pericardial effusion is :
(A) Cardiac catheterisation
(B) Ultrasound
(C) Echocardiograph
(D) Lateral view of X-ray chest
Answer: (C)
23. Investigation of choice in obstructive jaundice is :
(A) ERCP
(B) Ultrasound
(C) Cholecystography
(D) X-ray
Answer: (B)
24. Popcorn calcification is characteristically seen in :
(A) Pulmonary hemartoma
(B) Fungal infection
(C) Metastasis
(D) Tuberculosis
Answer: (A)
25. Which investigation should not be done in a patient suspected of brain tumor :
(A) CT Scan
(B) Lumbar puncture
(C) MRI
(D) X ray-skull
Answer: (B)
26. Most common skin manifestation seen after 2 days of radiation therapy is :
(A) Erythema
(B) Atopy
(C) Hyperpigmentation
(D) Dermatitis
Answer: (A)
27. Ionization radiation acts on tissues leading to :
(A) Linear acceleration injury
(B) Excitation of electron form orbit
(C) Formation at pyrimidine diamers
(D) Thermal injury
Answer: (B)
28. Most sensitive stage for radiotherapy is :
(A) S
(B) S1
(C) G2
(D)G2M
Answer: (D)
29. Investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism is :
(A) CT-scan
(B) MRI
(C) Contrast-MRI
(D) Ventilation perfusion scan
Answer: (A)
30. ‘Hot spot’ in acute myocardial infarction is :
(A) Thallium
(B) Stroncium
(C) Tc⁹⁹ stronicum-pyrophosphate
(D) Gallium-citrate
Answer: (C)
31. Investigation of choice for acute subarachnoid haemorrhage is :
(A) MRI
(B) Enhanced MRI
(C) CT-scan
(D) Angiography
Answer: (C)
32. In X-ray’ right border of mediastinum is formed by all except :
(A) SVC
(B) Right atrium
(C) Right ventricle
(D) Right branchiocephalic vein
Answer: (C)
33. NMR based on the principle of :
(A) Proton beam
(B) Electron beam
(C) Neutron beam
(D) Magnetic field
Answer: (A)
34. Impaired renal function is assessed by :
(A) DTPA
(B) DMSA scan
(C) Iodohippurate
(D) MAGS
Answer: (A)
35. A patient presented with ARF with complete anuria, but a normal ultrasound. Next investigation is :
(A) IVP
(B) Antegrade pyelography
(C) Retrograde pyelography
(D) Radio renogram
Answer: (D)
36. Most common complication of myelography is :
(A) Allergic reaction
(B) Headache
(C) Focal Neurological deficite
(D) Arachanoiditis
Answer: (B)
37. In cerebral angiography the dye is injected through :
(A) Femoral-artery
(B) Brachial artery
(C) Axillary artery
(D) Radial artery
Answer: (A)
38. Most sensitive investigation for air embolism is :
(A) Decrease tidal volume of CO₂
(B) Decrease tidal volume of NO₂
(C)Doppler ultrasound
(D) Central venous pressure
Answer: (C)
39. All may be used in interstitial brachytherapy except :
(A) Co⁶⁰
(B) Ir1⁹²
(C) Au¹⁹⁸
(D) Cs¹³⁷
Answer: (A)
40. Cardiotoxicity caused by radiotherapy & chemotherapy is best detected by
(A) ECHO
(B) Endomyocardial biopsy
(C) BCG
(D) Radionucleide scan
Answer: (B)
41. Ultrasonography of umbilical artery is done to know about
(A) Heart beat
(B) Gastational age
(C) Fetal weight
(D) Fetal maturity
Answer: (A)
42. Which one is non-ionising radition:
(A) MRI
(B) CT scan
(C) X-ray
(D) position emission scintigraphy
Answer: (A)
43. In rt. sided hemithorax on chest X-ray PA view what can be excluded:
(A) CCF
(B) TB
(C) Pulmonary infarct
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
44. In lung X-ray heterogenous shadow is due to:
(A) Haemangioma
(B) Pulmonary infarction
(C) Metastatic lesion
(D) TB
Answer: (C)
45. Curie is unit of:
(A) Radiation exposure
(B) Radiation absorption
(C) Radioactivity
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
46. Best method to diagnose pulmonary embolism:
(A) Pulmonary angiography
(B) Scintillation perfusion scan
(C) CT scan
(D) X-ray chest
Answer: (A)
47. Lytic lesion in skull are seen in following except:
(A) Multiple myeloma
(B) Metastasis ca bronchus
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Ca prostate
Answer: (D)
48. Tumor responding best to radiation include following:
(A) Melanoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Teratoma
(D) Choriocarcinoma
Answer: ()
49. Functional analysis of kidney is best done by:
(A) Radionuclide scanning
(B) IVP
(C) Ultrasound
(D) MRI
Answer: (A)
50. Cell phase susceptible to radiotherapy:
(A) Cell phase susceptible to radiotherapy:G₁ phase
(B) G₂ phase
(C) S phase
(D) G₂M
Answer: (D)
51. Finding in meningioma are all except:
(A) Vascular markings around falx cerebri
(B) Calcification
(C) Erosion
(D) Osteoscelrosis
Answer: (C)
52. Contrast material used in the diagnosis of esophageal atresia is
(A) Gastrograffin
(B) Conray 420
(C) Dianosil
(D) Myodil
Answer: (C)
53. True about chest X-ray is all except:
(A) Left hilum is higher
(B) Left dome is higher
(C) All fissures are clearly seen on lateral film
(D) None
Answer: (B)
54. Spring water cyst is another name for:
(A) Hydatid cyst of lung
(B) Lung amoebic cyst
(C) Pleuro pericardial cyst
(D) Enterogenous cyst
Answer: (D)
55. Periventricular calcification is often due to:
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Cytomegalic infection
(C) Congenital syphilis
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
56. Parameters used to estimate gestational age in last trimester:
(A) CR length
(B)Abdominal circumference
(C) BPD
(D) Femur length
Answer: (B)
57. USG done at 1820 weeks mainly to:
(A) Detect fetal abnormality
(B) Determine sex
(C) Estimate liquor
(D) Determine maturity
Answer: (A)
58. Best for unruptured ectopic pregnancy is:
(A) Per abdominal US
(B) HCG
(C) Trans vaginal US
(D) Amniocentesis
Answer: (C)
59. Flask shaped heart is seen in following except:
(A) Ebstein anomaly
(B) Pericardial effusion
(C) TOF
(D) TAPVC
Answer: (D)
60. Gold standard for diagnosting pulm embolism:
(A) X-ray chest
(B) Ventilation perfusion scan
(C) Blood gas analysis
(D) Doppler
Answer: (B)
61. Ion used both in brachy and teletherapy is:
(A) Iridium
(B) Chromium
(C) Selenium
(D) Cobalt
Answer: (D)
62. Most harmful to individual cell :
(A) X-rays
(B) α Particles
(C) B Particles
(D) X-rays (gamma rays)
Answer: (B)
63. Best view to diagnose pneumothorax :
(A) Lateral oblique
(B) PA view in full expiration
(C) PA view in full inspiration
(D) AP view in full expiration
Answer: (B)
64. First sign of hydrocephalus in children is :
(A) Post clinoid erosion
(B) Large head
(C) Sutural diastasis
(D) Thinned out vault
Answer: (C)
65. Prophylactic intracranial irradiations are given in:
(A) Small cell Ca of lung
(B) Testicular Ca
(C) Ca breast
(D) Ca stomach
Answer: (A)
66. Uremic lung most often results due to :
(A) Pulmonary edema
(B) Fibrosis
(C) Alveolar injury
(D) CVC liver
Answer: (A)
67. The intensity of colour in Doppler is determined by:
(A) Direction flow
(B) Velocity of flow
(C) Strength of returning echo
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
68. Schober’s sign is for :
(A) Flexion of lumbar spine
(B) Chest expansion
(C) Pain with motion of hip
(D) Neck pain and stiffness
Answer: (A)
69. Invertogram to be done in a new born:
(A) Immediately
(B) After 2 hours
(C) After 4 hours
(D) After 6 hours
Answer: (D)
70. Piezoelectric crystals are made use of in:
(A) MRI
(B) US
(C) CT
(D) All
Answer: (B)
71. In X-ray loops of bowel on left side of hemithorax and shift of heart shadow:
(A) Eventration of diaphragm
(B) Foraman of bochdalek hernia
(C) Morganian hernia
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (B)
72. Spider leg appearance is found in :
(A) Polycystic kidney
(B) Pyelonephritis
(C) Hydronephrosis
(D) Renal artery stenosis
Answer: (A)
73. Splaying and cupping of the metaphysic is seen in :
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Paget’s disease
(D) Lead poisoning
Answer: (A)
74. Bulging fissures in lungs is seen in :
(A) Klebsiella pneumonia
(B) Staph, pneumonia
(C) Pulmonary oedema
(D) Pneumoconiosis
Answer: (A)
75. Slice of tissue X-rays is :
(A) Tomography
(B) Mammography
(C) Contrast studies
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
76. Feathery appearance in jejunum is due to :
(A) Valvulae conniventes
(B) Haustrations
(C) Luminal gas
(D) Vascular network
Answer: (A)
77. Radiological findings of scurvy are A/E:
(A) Epiphyseal widening
(B) Metaphyseal porosis
(C) Metapyseal infarction
(D) Pelkan spur
Answer: (A)
78. In radiation therapy rays used are:
(A) α, β
(B) α, χ
(C) β, χ
(D) γ, α, β
Answer: (D)
79. Calcification around the joint is seen in:
(A) Pseudogout
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Rh. arthritis
(D) Gout
Answer: (A)
80. X-ray finding of ostemyelitis within 8 days is:
(A) Cystic swelling
(B) Soft tissue swelling
(C) New bone formation
(D) Sequesterum formation
Answer: (B)
81. Miliary shadow in chest X-ray is seen in A/E:
(A) TB
(B) Loeffler’s pneumonia
(C) Klebsiella
(D) Varicella pneumonia
Answer: (C)
82. Contrast used in CT :
(A) Gadolinium
(B) Technitium
(C) Iodine
(D) Chromium
Answer: (C)
83. Hpertranslucency of lung unilaterally is seen on all except :
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Resection of mammary gland
(C) Pulm art. obstruction
(D) Pneumonectomy
Answer: (C)
84. Enhancement in MRI in basal ganglia & thalamus is seen in :
(A) Rabies
(B) Herpes simplex encephalitis
(C) Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
(D) Creutz feldt Jakob disease
Answer: (D)
85. Basal skull view (submentovertical view) X-ray is best to visualize :
(A) Ethmoid sinus
(B) Frontal sinus
(C) Sphenoid sinus
(D) Maxillary sinus
Answer: (A)
86. Investigation to diagnose stage-I carcinoma breast :
(A) B/L mammogram
(B) X-ray chest
(C) Bone scan
(D) Liver scan
Answer: (A)
87. Contrast used for MRI :
(A) Iodine
(B) Gadolinium
(C) Metrazamide
(D) omnipaque
Answer: (B)
88. ERCP in pancreatitis is done to know about :
(A) Gall stones
(B) Associated cholangitis
(C) Ascites
(D) Pancreatic divisum
Answer: (D)
89. What is atomic number :
(A) Proton
(B) Electrons + protons
(C) Protons + neutrons
(D) Protons + protons
Answer: (A)
90. Ultrasound frequency used for diagnostic purposes in obstetrics :
(A) 1-20 MHz
(B) 20-40 MHz
(C) 40-60 MHz
(D) 60-80 MHz
Answer: (A)
91. Most sensitive structure in cell for radiotherapy is :
(A) Cell membrane
(B) Mitochondrial membrane
(C) DNA
(D) Enzymes
Answer: (C)
92. The investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis is :
(A) USG
(B) HIDA-scan
(C) CT-scan
(D) OCG
Answer: (A)
93. Looser’s zones is seen in :
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Hyperparathyrodism
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Multiple myeloma
Answer: (C)
94. X-ray feature of spondylisthesis :
(A) Sunbrust appearance
(B) ‘Scot’ dog
(C) ‘Napolian hat’
(D) Hairy rope sign
Answer: (B)
95. Local cerebral lesion with ring on CT scan is caused by :
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Intracranial halmorphage
(C) Cysts
(D) Hamartoma
Answer: (A)
96. In cerebral angiography the due is injected through:
(A) Femoral Artery
(B) Brachial Artery
(C) Axillary Artery
(D) Radial Artery
Answer: (A)
97. Which artery is dissected most frequently following arteriography by femoral route:
(A) Celica trunk
(B) Superior mesenteric artery
(C) Inferior mesenteric artery
(D) Gastroduodenal artery
Answer: (C)
98. Which of the following contrast agent is non iodinated:
(A) Iohexol
(B) Diatrizoate
(C) Gadolinium
(D) Visipaque
Answer: (C)
99. Contrast used in CT:
(A) Gadolinium
(B) Technitium
(C) Iodine
(D) Chromium
Answer: (C)
100. Contrast used for MRI:
(A) Iodine
(B) Gadolinium
(C) Metavazamide
(D) Omnipaque
Answer: (B)
101. Which of the following statements about contrast in radiography is true:
(A) Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per particles in solution
(B) Osmolar contrast agents may be ionic or non ionic
(C) Gadolinum may cross the blood brain barrier
(D) Iohexol is a high osmolar contrast media
Answer: (A)
102. Contrast material used in the diagnosis of esophageal artresia is
(A) Gastrograffin
(B) Conray 420
(C) Dianosil
(D) Myodii
Answer: (C)
103. Contrast media of choice for myelogram is
(A) Urografin 75%
(B) Conray 470
(C) Iohexol
(D) Biligrafin
Answer: (C)
104. Most common complication of myelography is
(A) Allergic reaction
(B) Headache
(C) Focal neurological deficit
(D) Arachanoiditis
Answer: (B)
105. Radio-contrast is contraindicated in all except-
(A) Renal failure
(B) Patient on metformin
(C) Dehydration
(D) Obesity
Answer: (D)
106. Which of the following contrast agents is preferred in a patient with decreased renal function to avoid contrast nephropathy:
(A) Acetylcystine
(B) Fenoldapam
(C) Mannitol
(D) Low osmolar contrast
Answer: (D)
107. Excretory urography should be cautiously performed in
(A) Bone 2°
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Neuroblastoma
(D) Leukemia
Answer: (B)
108. True about OCG is:
(A) First done by Graham Cole in 1942
(B) Dye ingested at rate of 1 ml/kg
(C) USG has replaced it
(D) Dye used is telepaque
Answer: (C, D)
109. Which is Not required for visualization of gall bladder in oral cholecystography:
(A) Functioning liver
(B) Motor mechanisms of gall bladder
(C) Patency of cystic duct
(D) Ability to absorb water
Answer: (B)
110. Contrasts used in USG:
(A) Urograffin
(B) Ultragraffin
(C) Sonvavist
(D) Conray
(E) Barium
Answer: (C)
111. Which of the following techniques piezoelectric crystals?
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) X-ray diffraction
(C) NMR imaging
(D) Xeroradiography
Answer: (A)
112. Radiation hazard is absent in:
(A) MRI
(B) Doppler USG
(C) Digital substraction Angiography
(D) Tc 99 scan
Answer: (A, B)
113. Acoustic shadow in USG is due to
(A) Artefact
(B) Absorption
(C) Reflection
(D) Refraction
Answer: (C)
114. Ultrasound frequency used for diagnostic purposes in obstetrics :
(A) 1-20 MHz
(B) 20-40MHz
(C) 40-60 MHz
(D) 60-80 MHz
(E) 80-100 MHz
Answer: (A)
115. USG is sensitive in
(A) Ureteric colic
(B) Gall stone
(C) Blunt abdominal trauma
(D) Appendicitis
(E) Pancreatic pathology
Answer: (B, C & D)
116. Piezoelectric crystals are made use of in which modality that is safe from radiation also:
(A) MRI
(B) US
(C) CT
(D) All
Answer: (B)
117. The intensity of colour in Doppler is determined by:
(A) Direction flow
(B) Velocity of flow
(C) Strength of returning echo
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
118. All of them use non-ionizing radiation except:
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) Thermography
(C) MRI
(D) Radiography
Answer: (D)
119. Radiation exposure occurs in all except
(A) CT scan, PET scan
(B) MRI
(C) Fluroscopy
(D) Plain X-ray
Answer: (B)
120. NMR based in the principle of –
(A) Electron beam
(B) Proton beam
(C) Magnetic field
(D) Neutron beam
Answer: (B)
121. In MRI, images are produced due to
(A) H+ (proton)
(B) CO2
(C) N2O
(D) K+
Answer: (A)
122. In MRI the field used is
(A) 0.05 tesla
(B) 100 tesla
(C) 1.1 tesla
(D) 11 tesla
Answer: (C)
123. MRI is not better than CT for detection of :
(A) Ligament injury
(B) Soft tissue tumors
(C) Meningeal pathology
(D) Calcified lesions
Answer: (D)
124. All of the following about MRI are correct except:
(A) MRI is contraindicated in patients with pacemakers
(B) MRI is useful for evaluating bone marrow
(C) MRI is better for calcified lesions
(D) MRI is useful for localizing small lesion of the brain
Answer: (C)
125. An absolute contraindication of MRI is:
(A) Pacemaker wires
(B) Intravascular stents
(C) Prosthetic cardiac valves
(D) Severe hypertension
Answer: (A)
126. Absolute C/I of MRI is-
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Pregnancy at 1st trimester
(C) Aneurysmal clip
(D) Phobia
Answer: (A, C)
127. Patient with a metallic foreign body in eye, which investigation is not done.
(A) MRI
(B) USG
(C) X-ray
(D) CT
Answer: (A)
128. The EEG cabins should be completely shielded by a continuous sheet of wire mesh of copper to avoid the picking of noise from external electromagnetic disturbances. Such a shielding is called as :
(A) Maxwell cage
(B) Edison’s cage
(C) Faraday cage
(D) Ohm’s cage
Answer: (C)
129. MRI rooms are shielded completely by a continuous sheet or wire mesh of copper or aluminum to shield the imager from external electromagnetic radiations, etc. It is called
(A) Maxwell cage
(B) Faraday cage
(C) Edison’s cage
(D) Ohms cage
Answer: (B)
130. Hounsfield Units depends on:
(A) Electron density
(B) Mass density
(C) Effective atomic number
(D) Attenuation coefficient
Answer: (D)
131. In computed tomography (CT), the attenuation value are measured in Hounsfield units (HU). An attenuation value of ‘0’ (zero) HV corresponds to:
(A) Water
(B) Very dense bone structure
(C) AIR
(D) Fat
Answer: (A)
132. Attenuation Value (Hounsfield Unit) of < Zero (I.e. negative) on CT is seen in :
(A) Muscle
(B) Bone
(C) Fat
(D) Air
Answer: (C, D)
133. Walls of the CT scanner room are coated with:
(A) Lead
(B) Glass
(C) Tungsten
(D) Iron
Answer: (A)
134. High – resolution CT of lung is a specialized CT technique for greater detail of lung parenchyma and it utilizes:
(A) Special lung filters
(B) Thick collimation
(C) Bone algorithm for image reconstruction
(D) Large filed of view
Answer: (C)
135. Slice of tissue X-rays is
(A) Tomography
(B) Mammography
(C) Contrast studies
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
136. CT dose index, True is:
(A) By reducing KVP by 50% radiation dose is reduced to half
(B) In pediatric patients dose should be reduced
(C) CT dose index is not useful for control exposure in multi-slice CT
(D) KV has no control over CT dose index
Answer: (B)
137. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
(A) Chest X-ray
(B) MRI
(C) CT scan
(D) Bone scan
Answer: (C)
138. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating:
(A) Pleural effusion
(B) Interstitial lung disease
(C) Lung mass
(D) Mediastinaladenopathy
Answer: (B)
139. True about virtual colonscopy
(A) Provide endoluminal view
(B) Biopsy can be taken
(C) CT and MRI use
(D) Used even when conventional colonoscopy fails
(E) Used for screening of ca colon
Answer: (A)
140. PACS in medical imaging stands for :
(A) Portal Archiving Common System
(B) Photo Archiving Computerized System
(C) Picture archieving communication system
(D) Pianning archiving communication scheme
Answer: (C)
141. Insult during neuronal migration results in delayed neuronal migration and organization, which results in certain disorders. The least likely possibility is:
(A) Polymicrogyria
(B) Schizencephaly
(C) Lissencephaly
(D) Focal cortical dysplasia without balloon cells.
Answer: (D)
142. J-shaped sella is/are seen in:
(A) Mucopolysaccharidoses
(B) Achondroplasia
(C) Optic chiasm glioma
(D) Hydrocephalus
Answer: (ALL)
143. A middle aged man presents with progressive atrophy & weakness of hand & forearms. On examination he is found to have slight spasticity of the leg, generalized hyperreflexia and increased signal in the cortico-spinal tracts on T2 weighted MRI. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Multiple Sclerosis
(B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
(C) Subacute combined degeneration
(D) Progressive spinal muscular atrophy
Answer: (B)
144. All/except are true about MS
(A) Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic
(B) Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation
145. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in:
(A) White matter
(B) Grey matter
(C) Thalamus
(D) Basal ganglia
Answer: (A)
146. A child presented with clinical features of demyelination. The chances of progression to MS is least with which of the following:
(A) Absent oligoclonal band
(B) Bilateral visual loss
(C) Poor recovery
(D) Cord complete transaction
Answer: (A)
147. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with bilateral hyperdense thalami on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is virtually diagnostic of:
(A) Alexander’s disease
(B) Krabbe’s disease
(C) Canavan’s disease
(D) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Answer: (B)
148. Which of the following is not a MRI feature of Mesial temporal sclerosis?
(A) Atrophy of mammillary body
(B) Atrophy of fornix
(C) Blurring of Grey white matter junction of ipsilateral temporal lobe
(D) Atrophy of hippocampus
Answer: (C)
149. A new born presents with congestive heart failure resistant to treatment, on examination has bulging anterior fontanelle with a bruit on auscultation. Transfontanellar USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dialted lateral ventricles. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Encephalocele
(B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Arachnoid cyst
(D) Vein of Galen malformation
Answer: (D)
150. All are the characteristics of raised ICT on a plain radiology except:
(A) Erosion of dorsum sellae
(B) Ballooning of sella
(C) Increased convolutions
(D) Sutural diastasis
Answer: (B)
151. A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT shows no midline shift, but basal cisterns were full (compressed) with multiple small haemorrhage. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Brain contusion
(B) Diffuse axonal injury
(C) Subdural hemorrhage
(D) Multiple infarct
Answer: (B)
152. A 15 year old boy had 10-12 partial complex seizures per day in spite of adequate 4 drug antiepileptic regime. He had history of repeated high grade fever in childhood. MRI for epilepsy protocol revealed normal brain scan. What should be the best non-invasive strategy to make a definite diagnosis so that he can be prepared to undergo epilepsy surgery.
(A) Interictal scalp EEG
(B) Video EEG
(C) Interictal 18F-FDg PET
(D) Video EEG with Ictal 99m Tc-HMPAO Brain SPECT.
Answer: (D)
153. Investigation which should not be done in a patient with brain tumor:
(A) CT scan
(B) Lumber Puncture
(C) MRI
(D) X – Ray
Answer: (B)
154. Basal exudates, infarcts and hydrocephalus on computed tomography are seen in:
(A) Tuberculosis meningitis
(B) Viral meningitis
(C) Herpes simplex encephalitis
(D) Cerebral malaria / Neurocysticerocosis
Answer: (A)
155. Local cerebral lesion with ring on CT scan is caused by
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Intracranial haemorrhage
(C) Cysts
(D) Hamartoma
Answer: (A)
156. Epidermoids can be differentiated from arachnoid cyst on MRI by:
(A) Contrast enhancement
(B) Smooth margins
(C) Restricted diffusion
(D) CSF signal on FLAIR
Answer: (C)
157. Physiological calcification of Skull in X ray is seen in:
(A) Pineal gland
(B) Choroid plexus
(C) Red nucleus
(D) Basal ganglion
Answer: (A, B)
158. Which one of the following tumor shows calcification on CT Scan:
(A) Ependymoma
(B) Meduloblastoma
(C) Meningioma
(D) CNS lymphoma
Answer: (C, A)
159. Periventricular calcification is often due to
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Cytomegalic infection
(C) Congenital syphilis
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
160. Intracranial calcification with cystic lesion in plain X-Ray skull is seen in
(A) Meningioma
(B) Glioma
(C) Craniopharyngioma
(D) Meduloblastoma
Answer: (C)
161. Suprasellar calcification is characteristic of:
(A) Toxoplasmosis, CMV, Cysticercosis
(B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Craniopharyngioma
(D) Meningioma
(E) Ependymoma
Answer: (C)
162. Bracket calcification in skull X-ray is seen in:
(A) Meningioma
(B) Lipoma of carpus callosum
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Sturge weber syndrome
Answer: (B)
163. Calcification of basal ganglia is seen in A/E:
(A) Berry’s aneurysm
(B) Cysticercosis
(C) Idiopathic hyperparathroidism
(D) Wilson’s disease
Answer: (D)
164. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except:
(A) Hypoparathyroidism
(B) Wilson’s disease
(C) Perinatal hypoxia
(D) Fahr’s syndrome
Answer: (B)
165. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in
(A) Hyperparathyrodism
(B) Hyperthyroidism
(C) Hypoparathroidism
(D) Hypothyroidism
(E) Acromegaly
Answer: (A, C, D)
166. Suprasellar calcification with growth retardation is seen in
(A) Pineal body tumor
(B) Pituitory tumor
(C) Thalmic tumor
(D) Craniopharyngioma
Answer: (D)
167. Commonest calcifying brain tumor in a child is:
(A) Medulloblastoma
(B) Craniopharyngioma
(C) Glioma
(D) Meningioma
Answer: (B)
168. Which of the following is the most common cause of a mixed cystic and solid suprasellar mass seen on cranial MR scan of a 10 years old child:
(A) Pituitary Adenoma
(B) Craniopharyngioma
(C) Optic chiasma glioma
(D) Germinoma
Answer: (B)
169. A 6 year old boy has been complaining of headache ignoring to see the object on the side for 4 months. On Examination, he is not mentally retarded, his grades at school are good & visual acuity is diminished in both the eyes, visual charting showed significant field defect. CT scan of the head showed supraselllar mass with calcification. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
(A) Astrocytoma
(B) Craniopharyngioma
(C) Pituitary adenoma
(D) Meningioma
Answer: (B)
170. Intracranial calcification with cystic lesion in plain X-Ray skull is seen in
(A) Meningioma
(B) Glioma
(C) Craniopharyngioma
(D) Meduloblastoma
Answer: (C)
171. Cavernous hemangioma is characterized by:
(A) Reticulated popcorn like configuration
(B) Well defined nidus
(C) Well defined arterial feeder
(D) Phlebectasis
Answer: (A)
172. A 40-years-old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Meningioma
(B) Glioma
(C) Schwannoma
(D) Pituitary adenoma
Answer: (A)
173. A 45 year old female presented with progressive lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy and middorsal (thoracic) extra axial, dural based, intradural enhancing mass in MRI. What is the diagnosis-
(A) Intradural lipoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Dermoid cyst
(D) Neuroepithelial cyst.
Answer: (B)
174. A 48 ye old woman comes with b/1 progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity & mild impairment of respiratory movements. MRI shows an intradural middorsal midline enhancing lesion. What is the likely diagnosis
(A) Intradural lipoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Neuroenteric cyst
(D) Dermoid cyst
Answer: (B)
175. Finding in meningioma are all except:
(A) Vascular markings around falx
(B) Calcification
(C) Erosion
(D) Osteosclerosis
Answer: (C)
176. Meningioma on plain radiography reveals:
(A) Calcification
(B) Erosion
(C) Sutural diastasis
(D) Osteosclerosis
(E) Vascular erosion
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
177. A 20 yr female come with a mass in the cavernous sinus & 6th cranial nerve palsy. In T2W MRI Hyperintense shadow is present which shows homogenous contrast enhancement. Diagnosis is
(A) Schwannoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Astrocytoma
(D) Cavernous sinus hemangioma
Answer: (B)
178. Tumor associated with extracranial spread
(A) Ependymoma
(B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Glioblastoma multiformae
(D) Choroid plexus papilloma
Answer: (B)
179. In 7 year old posterior fossa mass with cyst formation, hypodense on CT, hyper intense on T2WI and showing post gadolinium nodule enhancement is
(A) Medulloblastoma
(B) Ependymoma
(C) Astrocytoma
(D) Cysticercous
Answer: (C)
180. 35 years old patients presents with complaints of headache, vomiting (raised ICT) and ataxia. MRI findings are well – demarcated cysric lesion with a mural nodule in the right cerebellar hemisphere with homogenous contrast enhancement. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Ependymoma
(B) Hemangioblastoma
(C) Pilocytic-Astrocytoma
(D) Medulloblastoma
Answer: (B)
181. Which of the following tumor is typically a/w VLH:
(A) Hemangioblastoma
(B) Hemangioendothelioma
(C) Neurofibroma
(D) Glioma
Answer: (A)
182. Al is true about von Hippel Lindau syndrome except:
(A) Hemangioblastomas seen in craniospinal axis
(B) Multiple tumors common
(C) Tumors of Schwann cells are common
(D) Supratentorial lesions are uncommon
Answer: (C)
183. A child presents with raised ICT. On CT scan a lesion is seen around foramen of monro with multiple periventricular calcific foci. What could be probable diagnosis:
(A) Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (SGCA)
(B) Subependymoma or Ependymoma
(C) Pilocytic astrocytoma
(D) Neurocytoma
Answer: (A)
184. Investigation of choice for meningeal carcinomatosis in CNS:
(A) NE-CT
(B) PET
(C) SPECT
(D) Gd-MRI
Answer: (D)
185. Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone:
(A) CT
(B) MRI
(C) USG
(D) Plain X-ray
Answer: (A)
186. Wide neuralformina is associated with:
(A) Neurofibromatosis type 1
(B) Sturge-Weber syndrome
(C) Von Hipple Lindaue disease
(D) Tuberous sclerosis
Answer: (A)
187. True about MRI/CT appearance of lateral meningocele:
(A) Solid dural masses
(B) Usually outside the spinal canal
(C) Widened neural foramen
(D) Generally there is no spinal cord compression & deformity
Answer: (C)
188. Mesencephalo-oculo-facial-angiomatosis is seen in:
(A) KTW syndrome
(B) NF-1 & 2
(C) Sturge-Weber syndrome
(D) Wyburn-Mason syndrome
Answer: (D)
189. Tram track appearance on CT scan of head is seen in
(A) Sturge Weber Syndrome
(B) Von Hipple Lindaue Syndrome
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Neurofibroma
Answer: (A)
190. For renal stone, diagnosis is not done by:
(A) IVP
(B) MRI
(C) PET-Scan
(D) CT scan
Answer: (B, C)
191. The most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosis of Ureteric stones in a patient with acute colic is:
(A) X-ray KUB region.
(B) Ultrasonogram.
(C) Non contrast CT scan of the abdomen
(D) Contrast enhanced CT scan of the abdomen
Answer: (C)
192. Calcification is best detected by
(A) X-ray
(B) USG
(C) CT Scan
(D) MRI
(E) PET Scan
Answer: (C)
193. Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive (investigation of choice) to detect early renal tuberculosis.
(A) Intravenous urography
(B) Ultrasound
(C) Computed tomography
(D) Magnetic resonance imaging
Answer: (A)
194. Most important investigation for posterior urethralvalve is
(A) Urethroscopy
(B) IVP
(C) Retrograde cystogram
(D) Micturating cystogram (MCU)
Answer: (D)
195. The posterior urethra is best visualized by-
(A) Static cystogram
(B) Retrograde urethrogram
(C) Voiding cystogram
(D) CT cystogram
Answer: (C)
196. Investigation of choice to demonstrate vesico ureteral reflux
(A) Isotope cystogram
(B) Contrast Micturating Cysto Urethrogram
(C) IVP
(D) Cystoscopy
Answer: (B)
197. Radiation exposure is the least in the following procedure:
(A) Micturating cystourethrogram
(B) IVP
(C) Bilateral nephrostogram
(D) Spiral CT for stones
Answer: (C)
198. Al of the following from radiolucent stones except:
(A) Xanthine
(B) Cysteine
(C) Allopurinol
(D) Orotic acid
Answer: (B)
199. A dense persistent nephrogram may be seen in all of the following except:
(A) Acute ureteral obstruction
(B) Systemic hypertension
(C) Severe hydronephrosis
(D) Dehydration
Answer: (B)
200. Non-visualisation of kidney in excretory urogram is seen in
(A) Duplication
(B) Renal vein thrombosis
(C) Hydronephrosis
(D) Hypoplasia
(E) Amyloidosis
Answer: (B)
201. A dense renogram is obtained by
(A) Dehydrating the patient
(B) Increasing the dose of contrast media
(C) Rapid (Bolus) injection of dye
(D) Using non ionic media
Answer: (C)
202. Papillary necrosis features are all except:
(A) Egg in cup
(B) Hyperdense nephrogram
(C) Calyceal horns
(D) “Ring shadows”
Answer: (B)
203. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is:
(A) A percentage diameter stenosis > 70%
(B) Presence of collaterals
(C) A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mmHg across the lesion
(D) Post stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
Answer: (B)
204. Most sensitive and specific investigation for screening of Renovascular hypertension
(A) MRI
(B) Captopril enhanced radionuclide scan
(C) Spiral CT angiography (CTA)
(D) Duplex – Doppler flow study
Answer: (C)
205. Abdominal Ultra-sonography in a 3 year old boy show a solid circumscribed hypoechnoic renal mass. Most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Wilm’s tumor
(B) Renal cell carcinoma
(C) Mesoblastic nephroma
(D) Onceocytoma
Answer: (A)
206. Which of the following is not an appropriate investigation for anterior urethral stricture?
(A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(B) Retrograde urethrogram
(C) Micturating cystourethrogram
(D) High frequency ultrasound
Answer: (A)
207. Teardrop bladder are seen in:
(A) Pelvic hematoma
(B) Pelvic lipomatoma
(C) T. B
(D) Neurogenic bladder
(E) Intraperitoneal bladder rupture
Answer: (A, B)
208. Causes of bladder calcification are:
(A) Schistosmosis
(B) Urethral cell
(C) TB
(D) Carcinoma
Answer: (A, C, D)
209. Transrectal ultrasonography in carcinoma prostate is most useful for
(A) Guided prostatic biopsies
(B) Seminal vesicle involvement
(C) Measurement of prostatic volume
(D) To detect hypoechoic area
Answer: (A)
210. Hypoechoic lesion within prostate in USG seen in-
(A) Adeno CA
(B) Normal prostate tissue
(C) Infertility
(D) Urethral obstruction
(E) BPH
Answer: (A, B, E)
211. Bare orbit is/are seen in:
(A) Metastasis
(B) Neuroblastoma
(C) Optic nerve glioma
(D) NF-1
(E) Pseudotumorcerebri
Answer: (A, D)
212. All are X-ray findings of retinoblastoma except:
(A) Widening of optic canal
(B) Intra cerebral calcification
(C) Intraocular calcification
(D) Secondaries in carnial bones
Answer: (B)
213. True about chest X-ray:
(A) 40% ling tissue seen obscured by bony structure & mediastinum
(B) 60% lung tissue seen obscured by bony structure & mediastinum
(C) Right dome higher than left dome
(D) Right dome pushed up by liver
(E) Should be taken n expiration
Answer: (A, C)
214. Normal hilar shadow in X-ray chest is produced by all except
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Bronchus
(C) Lower lobe veins
(D) Upper lobe veins
Answer: (C)
215. True about chest X-ray is all except:
(A) Left hilum is higher
(B) Left dome is higher
(C) All fissures are clearly seen on lateral film
(D) None
Answer: (B)
216. A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first:
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Bronchial artery
(C) Pulmonary vein
(D) Superior vena cava
Answer: (B)
217. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. Most probable cause would be.
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Bronchial artery
(C) Pulmonary vein
(D) Superior vena cava
Answer: (B)
218. A young patient of 30 yrs male presents with recurrent hemoptysis. On X-Ray no abnormality is seen. Next investigation is.
(A) HRCT
(B) Spiral CT
(C) Helical CT
(D) Bronchoscopy
Answer: (D)
219. A 40 years old man presents with a recurrent hemoptysis and purulent cough. X-ray was found to be normal. To next investigation done to aid in diagnosis is:
(A) MRI
(B) Bronchoscopy
(C) HRCT
(D) CT guided biopsy
Answer: (B)
220. All of the following produce cavitating nodules in the lung except
(A) Sqamous cell CA
(B) Caplan’s syndrome
(C) Hamartoma
(D) Silicosis
Answer: (C)
221. What does not make diagnosis of solitary pulmonary nodule
(A) Tuberculoma
(B) Bronchial adenoma
(C) Hamartoma
(D) Neurofibroma
Answer: (D)
222. A patient presents with a solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN) on x-ray. The best investigation to come to a diagnosis is would be:
(A) MRI
(B) CT Scan
(C) USG
(D) Image guided biopsy
Answer: (D)
223. “Millary shadow” on chest X-ray is seen in
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Rheumatoid Arthritis
(C) Pneumoconiosis
(D) COPD
(E) Metastasis
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
224. Miliary mottling seen in
(A) T.B.
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Silicosis
(D) P. Carinii pneumonia
Answer: (A, B)
225. Miliary mottling found in:
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) TB
(C) Pneumucystiscariniipenumonia
(D) Congestive heart failure
(E) Pulmonary edema
Answer: (A, B, E)
226. Millary mottling on X-ray chest is seen in:
(A) Histoplasmosis
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Secondaries from Ca. colon
(D) Gonococal pneumonia
Answer: (A, B, C)
227. All show military shadow o chest X-ray except
(A) Pneumoconiasis
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) MS
(D) Staphylococcal Pneumonia
Answer: (D)
228. Miliary shadow in chest X-ray is seen in A/E:
(A) TB
(B) Loeffler’s pneumonia
(C) Klebsiella
(D) Varicella pneumonia
Answer: (C)
229. Bulging fissures in lungs is seen in:
(A) Klebsiella pneumonia
(B) Staph pneumonia
(C) Pulmonary oedema
(D) Pneumoconiosis
Answer: (A)
230. Honey combing of lung in C.X.R. is seen in
(A) R.A.
(B) T.B.
(C) Scleroderma
(D) Carcinoma
(E) Interstitial lung disease
Answer: (A, C, E)
231. Increased radiolucency of one sided hemithorax may be caused by all except
(A) Obstructive Emphysema
(B) Pneumothorax
(C) Expiratory film
(D) Patient rotation
Answer: (C)
232. Hyperinflation of ling in CXR is seen in-
(A) CCF
(B) Congenital lobar emphysema
(C) Diaphragmatic hernia
(D) Foreign body
(E) Mucoviscidosis
Answer: (B)
233. Hypertranslucency of lung unilaterally is seen on all except:
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Resection of mammary gland
(C) Pulm art. obstruction
(D) Pneumonectomy
Answer: (D)
234. In rt. sided hemithorax on chest X-ray PA view what can be excluded:
(A) CCF
(B) TB
(C) Pulmonary infarct
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
235. All are true regarding emphysema finding in X-Ray except:
(A) Low flat diaphragm – Tarrace pattern
(B) Tubular heart
(C) Decreased inter costal space
(D) Increased radiolucence
Answer: (C)
236. Ground glass appearance is not seen in
(A) Hyline membrane disease
(B) Left to right shunts
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Obstructive TAPVC
Answer: (B)
237. Uremic lung most often results due to :
(A) Pulmonary edema
(B) Fibrosis
(C) Alveolar injury
(D) CVC liver
Answer: (A)
238. All of the following are true about loculated pleural effusion except-
(A) It makes an obtuse angle with the chest wall
(B) The margins are diffuse when viewed end on
(C) Not confined to any bronchopulmonary segment
(D) Air bronchograms are seen within the opacity
Answer: (D)
239. A patient presented with minimal Rt. sided pleural effusion. The best metjhod to detect this would be
(A) Rt. lateral
(B) Left Lateral
(C) Left lateral decubitus
(D) Right lateral decubitus
Answer: (D)
240. Extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of:
(A) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
(B) Asbestosis
(C) Silicosis
(D) Siderosis
Answer: (B)
241. The most likely diagnosis in a newborn who had a radiopaque shadow with an air fluid level in the chest along with hemivertebrae of the 6th thoracic vertebra on plain X-ray is:
(A) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(B) Oesophageal duplication cyst
(C) Bronchogenic cyst
(D) Staphylococcal pneumonia
Answer: (B)
242. A child has respiratory distress, chest X-ray shows multiple air filled space, the differential diagnosis is all except.
(A) Congenital lung cyst
(B) Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia
(C) Congenital lobar aplasia of lung
(D) Congenital adenomatous malformation
Answer: (C)
243. A new born baby with acute respiratory distress on day 1. X Ray chest PA view showed neumerous gas luscencies in entire left hemithorax, most likely diagnosis is
(A) Congenital lobar Emphysema
(B) Pneumatocoel hernia
(C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(D) Congenital lung cyst
Answer: (C)
244. Pappu 2 yrs old boy presents in the causality with H/O sudden onset of respiratory difficulty & strider on auscultation ↓ed breath sound & wheeze on the RT side. The X-Ray shows RT opaque hemithorex what will be diagnosis-
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Acute epiglottitis
(C) Massive plural effusion
(D) Foreign body aspiration
Answer: (D)
245. A child with acute respiratory distress showing hyperinflation of unilateral lung in X-ray is due to-
(A) Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia
(B) Aspiration pneumonia
(C) Congenital lobar emphysema
(D) Foreign body aspiration
Answer: (D)
246. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic air filled lesions in the chest. Most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Congenital Lung Cyst
(C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(D) Congenital lobar Emphysema
Answer: (C)
247. Apgar scores were 3, and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes. At 10 minutes child shows features of breathlessness on CXR – mediastinal shift was there, possible causes:
(A) Bilateral choanal atresia
(B) Pneumothorax
(C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(D) Hyaline Membrane disease
Answer: (B, C)
248. In X-ray, loops of bowel on left side of hemithorax and shift of heart shadow :
(A) Eventration of diaphragm
(B) Foraman of bochdalek hernia
(C) Morganian hernia
(D) Any of the above
Answer: (D)
249. A 3 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe. Your next investigation would be:
(A) Bronchoscopy
(B) Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
(C) T scan of the chest
(D) Allergen sensitivity test
Answer: (C)
250. A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complain of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest x-ray is normal. The next step in investigation should be
(A) Lung ventilation – perfusion scan
(B) Pulmonary arteriography
(C) Pulmonary venous wedge angiography
(D) Echocardiography
Answer: (A)
251. A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness. The chest X-ray shows hampton’s hump. The next investigation should be :
(A) Lung ventilation-perfusion scan
(B) Pulmonary arteriography
(C) Pulmonary venous angiography
(D) Echocardiography
Answer: (A)
252. In pulmonary embolism, findings in perfusion scan is:
(A) Perfusion segmental defect
(B) Perfusion defect with normal lung scan & radiography
(C) Tenting of diaphragm
(D) Normal chest scan
Answer: (A, B)
253. Hamptom hump is feature of?
(A) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(B) Pulmonary embolism
(C) Pulmonary hemorrhage
(D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Answer: (B)
254. Best method to diagnose pulmonary embolism:
(A) Pulmonary angiography
(B) Scintillation perfusion scan
(C) CT scan
(D) X-ray chest
Answer: (A)
255. Gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism:
(A) X-ray chest
(B) Ventilation perfusion scan
(C) Blood gas analysis
(D) Doppler
Answer: (B)
256. A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enhanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Silicosis
Answer: (B)
257. A 25-year-old man presented with fever and cough for two months. CT chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrosis and mediastinal enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Silicosis
Answer: (B)
258. A patient suffering from AIDS presents with history of dyspnea and non-productive cough x-ray shows bilateral perihilaropacitics without pleural effusion and lymphaden-opathy. Most probable etiological agent is:
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) CMV
(C) Kaposis sarcoma
(D) Pneumocystis carinil
Answer: (D)
259. A bone marrow transplant recipient patient, developed chest infection. On chest X-ray Tree in Bud appearance is present. The cause of this is:
(A) Klebsiella
(B) Pneumocystis
(C) TB
(D) RSV
Answer: (D)
260. A 48 years old man, resident of Baroda outskirts near a textile mill presents to his family physician with respiratory symptoms. Doctor advices X Ray chest which showed – find reticular & nodular pattern in lower zone with loss of clarity of diaphragm & cardiac shadows. He also doubts about the presence of small pleural effusion. The probable diagnosis is?
(A) Stannosis
(B) Asbestosis
(C) Silicosis
(D) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
Answer: (B)
261. A 35 yrs old with a history of asbestos exposure presents with chest pain. X-ray shows a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right lower zone. CECT reveals an enhancing nodule adjoining the right lower costal pleura with comet tail sign and adjacent pleura with comet tail sign and adjacent pleural thickening. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Mesothelioma
(B) Round atelectasis
(C) Pulmonary sequestration
(D) Adenocarcinoma
Answer: (B)
262. Which of the following organs should always be imaged in a suspected case of bronchogenic carcinoma.
(A) Adrenals
(B) Spleen
(C) Kidney
(D) Pancreas
Answer: (A)
263. In lung X-ray, heterogenous shadow is due to:
(A) Haemangiorma
(B) Pulmonary infarction
(C) Metastatic lesion
(D) TB
Answer: (C)
264. Lt border of the heart in C.X.R. is formed by:
(A) Pul. artery
(B) Pul. vein
(C) Abdominal aorta
(D) Arch of aorta
(E) Rt ventricles
Answer: (A, D)
265. Left border of heart on chest X-ray is formed by:
(A) Aortic arch
(B) Left Pulmonary artery
(C) Right atrium
(D) Left ventricle
(E) Right ventricle
Answer: (A, D, B)
266. Left sided cardiac bulge seen on chest X-ray is/are d/t:
(A) Enlargement of left atrial appendage
(B) Azygous vein enlargement
(C) Coronary artery aneurysm
(D) Pulmonary edema
(E) Right atrial hypertrophy
Answer: (A)
267. All are seen on right side of cardiac shadow in X-ray chest PA view except
(A) Superior vena cava
(B) Rt. atrium
(C) Ascending Aorta
(D) Inferior vena cava
Answer: (C)
268. Structure forming right border of heart
(A) SVC
(B) IVC
(C) Rt. atrium
(D) Lt. atrium appendage
(E) Pulmonary vessels
Answer: (A, B, C)
269. Right side of mediastinum shadow is not formed by:
(A) Superior vena cava
(B) Right innominates
(C) Right atrium
(D) Right ventricle
Answer: (D)
270. Right border of the heart in CXR is formed by
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Superior vena cava
(C) Rt atrium
(D) Rt ventricle
Answer: (B)
271. In X-Ray right border of mediastinum is formed by all except:
(A) SVC
(B) Right Atrium
(C) Right Ventricle
(D) Right Brachiocephalic Vein
Answer: (C)
272. Earliest CXR feature of left atrial enlargement is
(A) Elevation of the left main bronchus
(B) Double cardiac shadow
(C) Widening of carina
(D) Pericardial effusion
Answer: (A)
273. Posterior marking on Ba column in Ba swallow study is caused by?
(A) Aortic knuckle
(B) Left atrium
(C) Aberrant right subclavin artery
(D) Pulmonary artery sling
Answer: (C)
274. Base of heart is formed by
(A) Rt. ventricle
(B) LV
(C) LV + RV
(D) RA + RV
(E) RA + LA
Answer: (E)
275. All are true about thymus swelling except:
(A) Widening of mediastinum on X-ray
(B) Sharp border with shall like
(C) Steroid administration reduces size of swelling
(D) Shift of trachea on X-ray
Answer: (D)
276. Soft tissue mass in chest with rib erosion in X-ray is seen in all except:
(A) Leukemia
(B) Ewing’s sarcoma
(C) Multiple myeloma
(D) Osteosarcoma
Answer: (D)
277. The following is not the differential diagnosis of an anterior mediastinal mass.
(A) Teratoma
(B) Neurogenic tumor
(C) Thymoma
(D) Lymphoma
Answer: (B)
278. Characteristic X Ray finding in ASD is:
(A) Enlarged left ventricle
(B) Enlarged left atria
(C) Pulmonary pletheora
(D) PAH
.
Answer: (C)
279. X-ray picture of VSD :
(A) Small Lt. ventricle
(B) Small Rt. Ventricle
(C) Dilated Lt. atrium
(D) Dilated pulmonary veins
(E) Dilated pulmonary arteries
Answer: (C, D, E)
280. How to differentiate ASD from VSD in X-ray:
(A) Enlarged LA
(B) Normal LA
(C) Pulmonary Congestion
(D) Aortic shadow
Answer: (B)
281. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
(B) Redistribution of blood vessels to apex (increased flow in upper lobe veins)
(C) Oligemic lung field (pulmonary oligemia)
(D) Cardiomegaly
Answer: (C)
283. Chest X-ray picture in CCF-
(A) Cardiomegaly
(B) Thick interlobar septum
(C) Superior mediastinal widening
(D) Multinodular parenchymal lesion
Answer: (A, B)
284. All are seen in congestive cardiac failure except:
(A) Kerly B lines
(B) Prominent lower lobe vessel
(C) Pleural Effusions
(D) Cardiomegaly
Answer: (B)
285. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?
(A) Diameter of the main pulmonary artery > 16 mm
(B) Diameter of left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
(C) Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery 16 mm
(D) Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
Answer: (C)
286. Pruning of Pulmonary arteries is seen in:
(A) Pulmonary hypertension
(B) Chronic Bronchitis
(C) Pulmonary infections
(D) Pulmonary transplant
Answer: (A)
287. Features of pulmonary venous hyper tension are A/E
(A) Perihilar haze
(B) Peribroncheal cuffing
(C) Upper lobar diversion
(D) Uniformly branching lines parallel to pleura
(E) Pulmonary ossicles& fine nodular pattern
Answer: (D)
288. Earliest feature of pulmonary venous hypertension
(A) Kerley B lines
(B) Upper lobar diversion of vessels
(C) Left atrial enlargement
(D) Pleural effusion
Answer: (B)
289. Radiological feature of Mitral stenosis is are
(A) Double contour of right heart border
(B) Straightening of left heart border
(C) Splaying of carinal angle
(D) Prominent aortic knuckle
(E) Kerley lines
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
290. A patient is having Mitral stenosis. His x-ray will show of the following finding except
(A) Lifting up of left bronchus
(B) Double atrial shadow
(C) Obliteration of retrosternal shadow on lateral x-rays
(D) Posterior displacement of esophagus on barium swallow.
Answer: (C)
291. All are radiological features of Mitral stenosis except
(A) Straight left border of heart
(B) Oligemia of upper lung fields
(C) Pulmonary hemosiderosis
(D) Lifting of left bronchus
Answer: (B)
292. Left cardiac border bulge can be seen in all, except
(A) Enlarge azygous vein
(B) Left appendicular overgrowth
(C) Coronary artery aneurysm
(D) Pericardial defect
Answer: (A)
293. In all of the following increased cardiac silhouette sing is seen except:
(A) Tetralogy of Fallot’s
(B) Pericardial effusion
(C) Aortic regurgitation
(D) Ebstein anomaly
Answer: (A)
294. Which of the following is virtually diagnostic of aortitis on chest X-ray?
(A) Calcification in descending aorta
(B) Calcification in ascending aorta
(C) Calcification of pulmonary artery
(D) Focal oligemia
Answer: (B)
295. Oblitration of left cardiac shadow on PA view is due to:
(A) Lingular lesion
(B) Left hilarlymphadenopthy
(C) Left lower lobe lesion
(D) Left upper apical lobe lesion
Answer: (A)
296. If the right cardiac silhouette is obliterated, it means the pathology involves:
(A) Right lower lobe
(B) Right atrium
(C) Right middle lobe
(D) Right ventricle
Answer: (C)
297. Consolidation of which portion of the lung is likely to obliterate the Aortic knuckle on X-ray chest:
(A) Left Lingula
(B) Right Upper lobe
(C) Apex of lower lobe
(D) Left upper lobe (posterior part)
Answer: (D)
298. The patho-physiological phenomenon that occurs during atheromatous plaque formation and is used for screening of ‘asymptomatic coronary plaques’ on CT scan is:
(A) Increased outer diameter of coronary artery
(B) Decreased inner diameter of coronary artery
(C) Calcium deposition in the atheromatous plaque
(D) Lipoid degeneration in the plaque.
Answer: (C)
299. To visualize vascular sling causing tracheal/external airway compression which of the following would you best prefer?
(A) Catheter angiography of aorta and pulmonary artery
(B) MRI
(C) T
(D) PET-CT
Answer: (B)
300. Which of the following is not true:
(A) Hibernating myocardium can be detected by Low dose butamine scar
(B) rest reinjection thallium scan is used in hibernating myocardium
(C) A kinetic areas does not benefit from revascularization
(D) Late Gd MRI enhancement is suggestive of scar but Gd scan in snot used for hibernating myocardium detection.
Answer: (C)
301. Drug used to perform stress ECHO:
(A) Thallium
(B) Dobutamine
(C) Adrenaline
(D) Adenosine
Answer: (B)
302. The most recent advance in noninvasive cardiac output monitoring is use of:
(A) PA catheter
(B) Thermodilution technique
(C) Echocardiography
(D) Electrical impedance cardiography technology
Answer: (D)
303. About diagnosing air embolism with transesophageal echocardiography, which of the following is false:
(A) It can quantify the volume of air embolised
(B) It is a very sensitive investigation
(C) Continuous monitoring is needed to detect venous embolism
(D) Interferes with Doppler when used together
Answer: (D)
304. Best investigation for cardiac temponade is
(A) 2-D Echocardiography
(B) M-Mode Echocardiography
(C) Real time echocardiography
(D) USG
Answer: (A)
305. Which of the following is the best view for detecting minimal pneumoperitoneum?
(A) Erect view of abdomen
(B) AP view of abdomen
(C) Right lateral decubitis abdominal x-ray with horizontal beam
(D) Left lateral decubitus abdominal x-ray with horizontal beam
Answer: (D)
306. Investigation of choice for Zenker’sdivertculum is
(A) Barium swallow
(B) Endoscopy
(C) Esophageal Menometry
(D) CT
Answer: (A)
307. What is least useful as diagnostic procedure in case of acute haemetemesis
(A) Barium meal
(B) Endoscopy
(C) Gastric content aspiration
(D) Angiography
Answer: (C)
308. Diffuse esophageal dilatation on barium swallow is seen in:
(A) Achlasia
(B) Trypanosomiasis
(C) Etidronate therapy
(D) Scleroderma
Answer: (A, B)
309. Al correlates with USG findings of congenital pyloric stenosis except:
(A) >95% accuracy
(B) Segment length > 16 mm
(C) Thickness > 4 mm
(D) High gastric residues
Answer: (D)
310. Following are common features of malignant gastric ulcer on Barium meal, EXCEPT
(A) Location on the greater curvature
(B) Carman’s meniscus sign
(C) Radiating folds which do not reach the edge of the ulcer
(D) Lesser curvature ulcer with a nodular rim
Answer: (D)
311. Radiological finding in ileal atresia:
(A) Microcolon on Ba enema
(B) Double bubble sign
(C) Coil spring appearance in Ba-Enema
(D) Obstruction in Ba meal
Answer: (A, D)
312. All of the following are diagnostic barium follow through features of ileocecal tuberculosis EXCEPT
(A) Apple – core appearance
(B) Pulled up contracted cecum
(C) Widening of ileocecal angle
(D) Strictures involving terminal ileum
Answer: (A)
313. Ileocecal tuberculosis presents with all except
(A) Rapid emptying of narrowed terminal ileum
(B) Inverted umbrella sign
(C) Stellate ulcer with elevated margins
(D) Longitudinal ulcers are more common
(E) Napkin ring stenosis
Answer: (D)
314. Investigation for small intestine includes all except:
(A) Enteroclysis
(B) Radionucleidescan
(C) MRI enteroclysis
(D) CT enteroclysis
(E) USG enteroclysis
Answer: (E)
315. After taking a drug a patient developed some abdominal problem for which he consulted a physician, who adviced X-ray. X ay findings was radiopacity in bowel Probable he might have taken A/E.
(A) Salicylate
(B) Iron
(C) Phenothiazine
(D) Corticosteroid
Answer: (D)
316. Gasless abdomen is a feature of:
(A) High obstruction
(B) Acute pancreatitis
(C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(D) All
Answer: (D)
317. DD for Rt. upper quadrant calcification:
(A) Gallstone
(B) Renal stone
(C) Calcification in vessels
(D) Hepatic hemangioma
Answer: (ALL)
318. A patient complains of epigastric pain, radiating to back off and on. The investigation of choice is:
(A) MRI
(B) CT Scan
(C) USG
(D) Radio nucleotide scan
Answer: (B)
319. Widening of C loop of duodenum is a feature of:
(A) Pancreatic head growth
(B) Carcinoma stomach
(C) Splenic involvement
(D) Involvement of upper rt renal pole
Answer: (A)
320. ERCP in pancreatitis is done to know about:
(A) Gall stones
(B) Associated cholangitis
(C) Ascites
(D) Pancreatic divisum
(E) Annular pancreas
Answer: (A, D, E)
321. According Couinaud’s classification of functional segments of liver, which of the following is Segment IV of liver?
(A) Left lobe
(B) Right lobe
(C) Caudate lobe
(D) Quadrate lobe
Answer: (D)
322. Solitary hypoechoic lesion of the liver without septate or debris is most likely to be-
(A) Hydatid cyst
(B) Caroli’s disease
(C) Liver abscess
(D) Simple cyst
Answer: (D)
323. Hyperchoice hepatic metastases on USG are seen in which of the following malignancies:
(A) CA ovary
(B) CA colon (Mucinous adenocarcinoma)
(C) Urinary bladder
(D) Mucinous Cystadenoma
Answer: (B)
324. Which of the following hepatic lesions can be diagnosed with high accuracy by using nuclear imaging?
(A) Hepatocellular carcinoma
(B) Hepatic adenoma
(C) Focal nodular hyperplacia
(D) Cholangiocarcinoma
Answer: (C)
325. A 22 year old man resents with a solitary 2 cm space occupying lesion of mixed echogenicity in the right lobe of liver on ultrasound examination. The rest of the liver is normal. Which of the following tests should be done next:
(A) Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lesion
(B) Hepatic Scintigraphy
(C) Hepatic angiography
(D) Contrast enhanced CT scan of the liver
Answer: (B)
326. True about are MRCP:
(A) MRI is used to obtain the image
(B) CT is used for the images
(C) It shows the biliary tree
(D) Dye has to be injected endoscoically
(E) It is invasive procedure
Answer: (A, C)
327. Al of the following modalities can be used for in-situ ablation of liver secondaries, except
(A) Ultrasonic waves
(B) Cryotherapy
(C) Alcohol
(D) Radio frequency
Answer: (A)
328. X-ray appearance of CBD stone on cholangiography is:
(A) Meniscus appearance
(B) Sudden cut off
(C) Smooth tapering
(D) Eccentric occlusion
Answer: (A)
329. Air in biliary tract is seen in all except:
(A) Gal stone ileus
(B) Sclerosing cholangitis
(C) Carcinoma gall bladder
(D) Edoscopicpapillotomy
Answer: (B)
330. Thickened gall bladder wall in USG seen in-
(A) Acute cholecystitis
(B) Mucosal thickening
(C) Cholesterosis
(D) Ascites
(E) AIDS cholangitis
Answer: (A)
331. True about features of cholecystitis on USG:
(A) Thick fibrosed gallbladder wall
(B) Stone impacted at neck of gall bladder
(C) Perigallbladder halo
(D) Increased vascularity
Answer: (A, B, C)
332. Computed Tomography (CT scan) is least accurate for diagnosis of:
(A) 1 cm size Aneurysm in the Hepatic Artery
(B) 1 cm size Lymph node in the para-aortic region
(C) 1 cm size Mass in the tail of pancreas
(D) 1 cm size Gall stones
Answer: (D)
333. Focal and diffuse thickening of gall bladder wall with high amplitude reflections and ‘comet tail’ artifacts on USG suggest the diagnosis of:
(A) Xanthogranulomatouscholecysitis
(B) Carcinoma of gall bladder
(C) Adenomyomatosis
(D) Cholesterolosis
Answer: (C)
334. A newborn baby not passed meconium for 48 hours since birth, presents with vomiting and distension of abdomen. The most appropriate investigation for evaluation would be?
(A) Barium enema study
(B) Manometry
(C) Rectal biopsy
(D) Fecal fat estimation
Answer: (A)
335. A newborn baby has not passed meconium for 48 hours since birth. She has vomiting and distension of abdomen. The most appropriate investigation for evaluation would be
(A) Anorectalmanometry
(B) Rectal biopsy
(C) Lower GI contrast study
(D) Trypsin estimation
Answer: (C)
336. A 40 year old male female patient on long term steroid therapy presents with recent onset of severe pain in the right hip. Imaginf modality of choice for this problem is:
(A) CT scan
(B) Bone scan
(C) MRI
(D) Plain X-ray
Answer: (C)
337. Heberden’s nodes are found in:
(A) PIP joints in osteoarthritis
(B) DIP joints in osteoarthritis
(C) PIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis
(D) DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: (B)
338. Tufting of distal phalanx is characteristically seen in
(A) Gout
(B) Psoriatic arthropathy
(C) Hypoparathyroidism
(D) Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: (B)
339. Chondrocalcinosis is seen with
(A) Gout
(B) Osteoarthritis
(C) Pseudogout
(D) Septic arthritis
Answer: (C)
340. Calcification of intervertebral disc is seen in
(A) T. B. spine
(B) Prolapse of intervertebral disc (PID)
(C) Non rheumatic ankylosis
(D) Rheumatic ankylosis
Answer: (C)
341. Calcification of intervertebral Disc is seen in
(A) Gout
(B) Rheumatoid
(C) Alkaptonuria
(D) Psoriasis
Answer: (C)
342. Calcification of meniscal cartilage is feature of:
(A) Achondroplasia
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Gaucher’s ds.
(D) Pseudogout
Answer: (D)
343. Calcification around the joint is seen in:
(A) Pseudogout
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Rh. arthritis
(D) Gout
Answer: (A)
344. Which one of the following is a recognized X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
(A) Juxta-articular osteosclerosis
(B) Sacroilitis
(C) Bone erosions
(D) Peri-articular calcification
Answer: (C)
345. Radiological features of scleroderma are A/E:
(A) Diffuse periosteal reaction
(B) Esophageal dysmotality
(C) Erosion of tip of phalynx
(D) Lung nodules
Answer: (A)
346. All are radiological sign of Vit C deficiency except
(A) White line of Frenkel
(B) Wimberger line
(C) Osteoporosis of bone
(D) Widening of epiphysis
Answer: (D)
347. In scurvy all the following radiological signs are seen except:
(A) Pelican spur
(B) Soap bubble appearance
(C) Zone of demarcation near epiphysis
(D) Frenkel’s line
Answer: (B)
348. Radiological findings of scurvy are A/E:
(A) Epiphyseal widening
(B) Metaphysealporosis
(C) Metapyseal infarction
(D) Pelkanspur
Answer: (A)
349. Earliest evidence of healing in rickets is provided by
(A) S, Ca++
(B) S.PO43−
(C) Radiological examination of growing bone ends
(D) S. Alkaline Phosphate level
Answer: (C)
350. Radiological features of rickets include:
(A) Narrowing of epiphysis
(B) Cupping of metaphysis
(C) Ricketic rosary
(D) Pelikan’s spur
Answer: (B, C)
351. Splaying and cupping of the ‘metaphysis is seen in :
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Paget’s disease
(D) Lead poisoning
Answer: (A)
352. Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in a child does not occur in:
(A) Rickets
(B) Lead poisoning
(C) Metaphyseal dysplasia
(D) Hypophosphatasia
Answer: (B)
353.Looser’s zones is seen in:
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Hyperparathyrodism
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Multiple myelorna
(E) Paget’s disease
Answer: (C)
354. Flaring of anterior ends of the ribs is characteristically seen in
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Scurvy
(C) Rickets
(D) Hypothyroidism
Answer: (C)
355. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphyseal dysgenesis?
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Cushings syndrome
(C) Addison’s disease
(D) Hypoparathyroidism
Answer: (A)
356. 76 year old man presents with lytic lesion in the vertbrae. X-ray skull showed multiple punched out lesions. The diagnosis is
(A) Metastasis
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: (B)
357. A lady Dimple has a lytic lesion in X-ray of upper end of humerus. The diagnosis is,
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Oseochondroma
(C) Unicarmel bone cyst
(D) Osteoclastoma
Answer: (C)
358. A classical expansive lytic lesion in the transverse process of a vertebra is seen in:
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Aneurysmal bone cyst
(C) Osteobalstoma
(D) Metastasis
Answer: (B)
359. X-ray shows soap bubble appearance at lower end of radius, treatment of choice is
(A) Local excision
(B) Excision & Bone grafting
(C) Amputation
(D) RT
Answer: (B)
360. Radiological feature of osteosarcoma is:
(A) New bone formation
(B) Sunray appearance
(C) Cotton wool app.
(D) Osteoid formation
Answer: (B)
361. Dense calcification is seen in
(A) Chondroblatoma
(B) Chondrosarcoma
(C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Fibrosarcoma
Answer: (B)
362. Expansible pulsating secondary meatstasis is a feature of
(A) Basal cell carcinoma
(B) Renal cell carcinoma
(C) Osteogenic sarcoma
(D) Carcinoma prostate
Answer: (B)
363. Lytic lesion in skull are seen in following except:
(A) Multiple myeloma
(B) Meastasisca bronchus
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Ca prostate
Answer: (D)
364. X-ray finding of osteomyelitis within 8 day is:
(A) Cystic swelling
(B) Soft tissue swelling
(C) New bone formation
(D) Seyuestrum formation
Answer: (B)
365. Sonographic finding of Spina bifida
(A) Ventriculomegaly
(B) Obliteration of cisterna magna
(C) Small BPD
(D) Abnormal curvature of cerebellum
(E) Club foot
Answer: (A, B, D)
366. An eight year old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Histiocytosis
(D) Metastasis
Answer: (C)
367. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
(A) Myelodysplasia
(B) Myelomalacia
(C) Myeloschisis
(D) Cord tumors
Answer: (B)
368. Which of the following is not true regarding Ossified Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL)?
(A) Most commonly involves thoracic spine
(B) Gradient echo MR sequence may overestimate the canal stenosis
(C) MRI is best for diagnosis
(D) Low signal intensity on al MR sequences
Answer: (A)
369. Mamographic abnormality seen in CA breast is-
(A) Change in density
(B) Microcalcification
(C) Change in architecture
(D) All
Answer: (D)
370. On mammogram all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except:
(A) Spiculation
(B) Microcalcification
(C) Macrocalcification
(D) Irregular mass
Answer: (C)
371. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy
(A) Well defined lesion
(B) A mass of decreased density
(C) Areas of speculated microcalcifications
(D) Smooth borders
Answer: (C)
372. Investigation to diagnose stage-I carcinoma breast:
(A) B/L mamogram
(B) X-ray chest
(C) Bone scan
(D) Liver scan
Answer: (A)
373. The sensitivity of Mammography is low in young females because?
(A) Less glandular tissue and more fat
(B) Young females are less cooperative
(C) Young breast have dense tissue
(D) Because of less fat content
Answer: (C)
374. Triple assessment for carcinoma breast includes:
375. Which of the following does not contain Fat on mammography?
(A) Post-traumatic cyst
(B) Hamartoma
(C) Seborrhic keratosis
(D) Galactocele
Answer: (C)
376. The most sensitive investigation for DCIS (Ductal carcinoma in-situ) of breast?
(A) Mammography
(B) Ultrasound
(C) MRI
(D) PET scan
Answer: (A)
377. X-ray of which bone (s) would be diagnostic in hyperparathyroidism :
(A) Skull
(B) Phalanges
(C) Long bones
(D) Scapula
(E) Spine
Answer: (A, B)
378. Pathognomic feature of hyperparathyroidism:
(A) Osteopenia
(B) Loss of Lamina dura
(C) Brown’s tumor
(D) Sub periosteal resoption of phalynges
Answer: (D)
379. The diagnostic procedure not done in case of pheochromocytoma.
(A) CT scan
(B) MRI
(C) FNAC
(D) MIBG scan
Answer: (C)
380. Which one of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive for evaluation of extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma.
(A) Ultrasound
(B) CT
(C) MRI
(D) MIBG scan
Answer: (D)
381. Post irradiation thyroid tumor is:
(A) Follicular CA
(B) Papillary CA
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Hurthel cell tumor
Answer: (B)
382. Radio iodine is used in treatment of
(A) Papillary CA thyroid
(B) Medullary CA thyroid
(C) Follicular CA thyroid
(D) Anaplastic CA thyroid
Answer: (C)
383. Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on Ultrasongram is not suggestive of malignancy?
(A) Hyperechogenisity
(B) Hypoechogenisity
(C) Nonhomogenous
(D) Microcalcification
Answer: (A)
384. Which of the following is not a CT feature of Adrenal adenoma?
(A) Low attenuation
(B) Homogenous density and well defined borders (regular margins)
(C) Contrast is taken up early (enhances rapidly), contrast stays in it for a relatively longer time and washes out late (slowly)
(D) Calcification is are
Answer: (C)
385. Which one of the following is the earliest radiographic manifestation of childhood leukemia?
(A) Radioleucent transverse metaphyseal band
(B) Diffuse demineralization of bones
(C) Osteoblastic lesions in skull
(D) Parenchymal pulmonary lesion on chest films
Answer: (A)
386. A 2 yr old by suffering from leukemia following are the x-ray finding
(A) Osteolytic lesion in flat bones
(B) Metaphysial osteoporosis
(C) Periostial new bone formation
(D) Osteosclerosis of ling bone
(E) Transverse line of dark band below the growth plate
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
387. “Hair-on end” appearance is seen in:
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Hemochromatosis
(D) Megaloblastic anemia
Answer: (A)
388. Wide diploic space of skull with brush borer (hair on end) appearance is characteristic of
(A) Congenital haemolyticanaemia
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Raised intracranial tension
(D) Meningioma
Answer: (A)
389. All are radiological features of sickle cell anemia except:
(A) Vertebra plana
(B) Floating teeth
(C) Bone infarct
(D) Marrow hyperplasia
(E) Secondary ostocomyelitis
Answer: (B)
390. Investigation of choice for temporal bone injury:
(A) CT scan
(B) MRI
(C) Angiography
(D) Plain x-ray
Answer: (A)
391. Suduralhaematoma most commonly results from
(A) Rupture of intracranial aneurysm
(B) Rupture of cerebral AVM
(C) Injury to cortical bridging veins
(D) Hemophilia
Answer: (C)
392. Characteristic of subdural hematoma is
(A) Convex hyperdensity
(B) Concavo convex Hyperdense
(C) Biconvex hyperdense
(D) Concavo convex hypodense
Answer: (B)
393. Which of the following is classic CT appearance of an acute Subdural hematoma:
(A) Lentiform-shaped hyperdense lesion
(B) Cresent-shaped hypodense lesion
(C) Cresent-shaped hyperdense lesion
(D) Leniform-shaped hypodense lesion
Answer: (C)
394. Investigation of choice for acute subarachnoid haemorrage
(A) Angiography
(B) CT-scan
(C) MRI
(D) Enhanced MRI
Answer: (B)
395. CT scan of a patient with history of head injury shows a biconvex hyperdense lesion displacing the grey-white matter interface. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Subdural hematoma
(B) Diffuse axonal injury
(C) Extradural hematoma
(D) Hemorrhagic contusion
Answer: (C)
396. The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be:
(A) Non-contrast computed tomography
(B) CSF examination
(C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(D) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography
Answer: (A)
397. Best test to determine etiology of SAH
(A) Enhanced CT
(B) Unenhanced CT
(C) Intra arterial digital Substraction Angiography
(D) MRI
Answer: (C)
398. Splenic injury is diagnosed on X-ray by:
(A) Half stomach shadow
(B) Obliteration of splenic shadow
(C) Rib fracture
(D) Gas under diaphragm
Answer: (B)
399. In a patient with abdominal trauma who is hemodynamically stable, what would be the investigation of choice?
(A) FAST
(B) DPL
(C) Barium meal
(D) Erect x-ray abdomen
Answer: (A)
400. Investigation of choice of diagnosis of splenic rupture
(A) Peritoneal lavage
(B) Ultrasound
(C) CT scan
(D) MRI
Answer: (C)
401. For the evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma, which of the following imaging modalities is ideal?
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) Computed tomography
(C) Nuclear scintigraphy
(D) Magnetic resonance imaging
Answer: (B)
402. True about antental Doppler analysis is all except
(A) Reduction in end diastolic flow is associated with poor out come
(B) Reduction in EDF is associated with IUGR
(C) In normal gestation placental resistance is high
(D) S/D ratio is high in IUGR
(E) Investigation of choice in pregnancy
Answer: (C)
403. Which one of the following regarding antenatal assessment of umbilical arteries by Color Doppler study is TRUE?
(A) There is decreased S/D ratio in smoker and nicotine abusing pregnant females
(B) The reduced diastolic flow at term indicates good prognosis
(C) The flow velocities and the S/D ratio are useful to evaluate high risk pregnancies.
(D) In otherwise normal in smoking females
Answer: (C)
404. USG can detect gestation sac earliest at:
(A) 5-6 weeks of gestation
(B) 7-8 weeks of gestation
(C) 10 weeks of gestation
(D) 12 weeks of gestation
Answer: (A)
405. Earliest sign of fetal life is best detected by
(A) X-ray
(B) Fetoscopy
(C) Real time USG
(D) Doppler
Answer: (D)
406. Ultrasonogrsphy of umbilical artery is done to know about:
(A) Heart beat
(B) Gestational age
(C) Fetal weight
(D) Fetal maturity
Answer: (A)
407. Parameters used to estimate gestational age in last
(A) CR length
(B) Abdominal circumference
(C) BPD
(D) Femurlength
Answer: (B, C, D)
408. USG done at 18-20 weeks mainly to:
(A) Detect fetal abnormality
(B) Determine sex
(C) Estimate liquor
(D) Determine maturity
Answer: (A)
409. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
(A) Anencephaly
(B) Inencephaly
(C) Microcephaly
(D) Holoprosencephaly
Answer: (A)
410. Anencephaly can be diagnosed by USG at
(A) 10-12 weeks of gestation
(B) 14-18 weeks of gestation
(C) 20-24 weeks of gestation
(D) 24-28 weeks of gestation
Answer: (A)
411. Best for unruptured ectopic pregnancy is
(A) Per abdominal US
(B) HCG
(C) Trans vaginal US
(D) Amniocentesis
Answer: (C)
412. The investigation of choice for an ectopic pregnancy is:
(A) CT scan
(B) Transvaginal USG
(C) Serum HCG levels
(D) MRI
Answer: (B)
413. All are signs/features of ectopic pregnancy on USG except
(A) Pseudo sac
(B) Hyprechoic ring
(C) Adenexal mass
(D) Echogenic mass with multicystic spaces within endometrial cavity
(E) Doughnut sign
Answer: (D)
414. Ectopic pregnancy, characteristic finding in USG is:
(A) Absence of gestational sac in uterus
(B) Complex adenexal mass
(C) Resistance in coloured Doppler
(D) Free fluid in peritoneal cavity
Answer: (A)
415. Most accurate assessment of gestational age by USG is done by
(A) Femur length
(B) Gestational sac size
(C) Menstrual history
(D) Crown rump length
Answer: (D)
416. USG an diagnose all except:
(A) Anencephaly
(B) Gestational sac size
(C) Menstrual history
(D) Crown rump length
Answer: (D)
417. On USG finding of cystic hygroma in fetus is suggestive of
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Marphan’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome
(D) Klinfelter’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
418. Missed IUD (IUCD) is recognized by
(A) X-ray
(B) USG
(C) Barium meal
(D) CT Scan
Answer: (B)
419. The method to diagnosis misplaced intra uterine device is
(A) Ultrasound
(B) X-ray abdomen (Erect view)
(C) Uterine sound & Hysteroscopy
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
420. Radiological investigation of female of reproductive age group is restricted to
(A) Menstrual Period
(B) First 10 days of Menstrual Cycle
(C) 10-20 days of M.C.
(D) Last 10 days of M.C.
Answer: (B)
421. Maximum radio opaque shadow in ovary is seen in
(A) Teratoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Mucinous cystadenoma
(D) Granulosa cell tumor
Answer: (A)
422. Invertogram to be done in a new born:
(A) Immediately
(B) After 2 hours
(C) After 4 hours
(D) After 6 hours
Answer: (D)
423. First sign of hydrocephalus in children is:
(A) Post clinoid erosion
(B) Large head
(C) Sutural diastasis
(D) Thinned out vault
Answer: (C)
424. William’s syndrome is associated with
(A) Congenital Supravalvular Aortic stenosis
(B) Congenital Subvalvular Aortic stenosis
(C) VSD
(D) ASD
Answer: (A)
425. Radiological findings of battered baby syndrome is
(A) Multiple Injuries not explained by one cause
(B) Multiple fractures in different stage of healing
(C) Excessive callus formation
(D) All
Answer: (D)
426. Geographic lytic lesions in vault of skull with beveled edges are seen with
(A) Multiple myeloma
(B) Eosinophilic granuloma
(C) Hyperparathyroidism
(D) Reticular cell CA
Answer: (B)
427. Multiple Punched out lesions on skull X-Ray is found in:
(A) Down’s
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Multiple Myeloma
(D) All
Answer: (C)
428. Vertebral plana is seen in-
(A) Eosinophilic granuloma
(B) Trauma
(C) Paget’s disease
(D) Malingnancy
Answer: (A, D)
429. Schober’s sign is for:
(A) Flexion of lumbar spine
(B) Chest expansion
(C) Pain with motion of hip
(D) Neck pain and stiffness
Answer: (A)
430. Epiphyseal enlargement is seen in
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Spondo-epiphyseal dysgenesis
(D) Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
Answer: (D)
431. Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in a child does not occur in:
(A) Rickets
(B) Led poisoning
(C) Metaphyseal dysplasia
(D) Hypophosphatasia
Answer: (B)
432. Dense metaphyseal band is seen on:
(A) Hypervitamininosis A
(B) Hypervitaminosis B
(C) Scurvy
(D) Hypervitaminosis D
Answer: (D)
433. Wind Swept deformity is seen in:
(A) Ankylosing spondylitis
(B) Scurvy
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis
(D) Rickets
Answer: (C)
434. Trident hand is seen in:
(A) Achondroplasia
(B) Mucopolysacchoroidosis
(C) Diphysealachlasia
(D) Cleidcarnialdystosis
Answer: (A)
435. Champagne glass pelvis is seen in
(A) CDH
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Cetinism
(D) Achondroplasia
Answer: (D)
436. Bone within bone appearance is seen in-
(A) CML
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Osteopetrosis
(D) Bone infarct
Answer: (C)
437. Scottish terrier sign is seen in-
(A) AP view
(B) PA view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Oblique view
Answer: (D)
438. Beheaded Scottish terrier sign is-
(A) Spondylosis
(B) Spondylolisthesis
(C) Lumbar anal stenosis
(D) Slipped Disc
Answer: (B)
439. In spondolysthesis following radiological features seen:
(A) Scotty dog
(B) Scotty dog wearing a collar
(C) Beheaded Scotty dog terrier sign
(D) Nepolean sign
Answer: (C, D)
440. Least useful for diagnosing spondylolisthesis
(A) MRI
(B) CT
(C) X ray spine lateral view
(D) X ray spine AP view
Answer: (D)
441. Pesudo fracture of looser’s zone is seen in
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Osteopetrosis
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Scurvy
Answer: (C)
442. Looser’s zones is seen in:
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Hyperparathyrodism
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Renal osteodystrophy
(E) Paget’s disease
Answer: (C)
443. Radiographic appearance of Pindborg’s tumor is:
(A) Onion – peel appearance
(B) Sun burst appearance
(C) Cherry – blossom appearance
(D) Driven – snow appearance
Answer: (D)
444. “Sunray appearance” on X-rays is suggestive of:
(A) A chondrosarcoma
(B) A metastatic tumour in the bone
(C) An Osteogenic sarcoma
(D) An Ewing’s sarcoma
Answer: (C)
445. Sun ray appearance is seen in:
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Ewing sarcoma
(C) Osteoclastoma
(D) Multiple myeloma
Answer: (A, B)
446. All are the about Kerley B line except:
(A) Horizontal
(B) Runs from hilar area to peripheral area
(C) Due to thickening of septa
(D) Due to pulmonary venous hypertension
Answer: (B)
447. Kerley B lines seen in:
(A) Pleural effusion
(B) Mitral stenosis
(C) Pericardial effusion
(D) Interstitial edema
(E) Lymphangitiscarcinomatosis
Answer: (B, D, E)
448. Kerley’s B lines are found in:
(A) Interstitial edema
(B) Pulmonary venous congestion
(C) Pericardial effusion
(D) Mitral stenosis
Answer: (A, B, D)
449. Floating water-lily sign is feature of:
(A) Lung Hydatid
(B) Bronchial adenoma
(C) Lung abscess
(D) Aspergilloma
Answer: (A)
450. Water lilly sign is seen in chest X-ray or:
(A) Pulmonary hypoplasia
(B) Echinococcus
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Sarcoidosis
Answer: (B)
451. Popcorn calcification is characteristically seen in
(A) TB
(B) Metastasis
(C) Pulmonary hamartoma
(D) Fungal invagination
Answer: (C)
452. Egg shell calcification is seen in all except
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Silicosis
(C) Post irradiation lymphoma
(D) Bronchogenic CA
Answer: (D)
453. Egg shell calcification is seen in
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Silicosis
(C) Lung Ca& bronchiolitis
(D) Pneumoconiosis
(E) Lymphoma following radiation treatment
Answer: (A, B, D, E)
454. Egg shell calcification are seen:
(A) Silicosis
(B) T.B.
(C) Carcinoma metastatic to Lymphonode
(D) Lymphoma
(E) Sarcoidosis
Answer: (A, B, E)
455. Egg-shell calcification in hilar lymph nodes is seen in:
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Histoplasmosis
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Carcinoma lung
(E) Silicosis
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
456. Spring water cyst is another name for:
(A) Hydatid cyst of lung
(B) Lug amoebic cyst
(C) Pleuro pericardial cyst
(D) Entergenous cyst
Answer: (C)
457. Following can cause rib notching except:
(A) Blalock Taussig shunt
(B) Waterston Cooley’s shunt
(C) Pulmonary atresia with large VSD
(D) Aorta disruption
Answer: (B)
458. Superior rib notching is/are caused by:
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Poliomyelitis
(C) Blalock Tausing shunt
(D) Marfan syndrome
(E) Caorctation of aorta
Answer: (A, B, D)
459. Rib notching is found in:
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Lymphangiomyomatosis
(C) Aortic aneurysm
(D) Taussig-Bing operation
(E) Aortic obstruction
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
460. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph?
(A) Bidirectional Glem shunt
(B) Modified Blalock-Taussing shunt
(C) IVC occlusion
(D) Coarctation of aorta
Answer: (D)
461. True regarding radiological picture of coaritation of aorta A/E
(A) Involvement of upper two ribs
(B) Bilateral
(C) Inferior rib notching
(D) Usually before years of age
(E) ‘3’ sign
Answer: (A, D)
462. Inferior rib notching is seen in
(A) Coarctation of aorta
(B) Rickets
(C) ASD
(D) Multiple myeloma
Answer: (A)
463. In which of he following a ‘Coeur en Sabot’ shape of the heart is seen:
(A) Tricuspid atresia
(B) Ventricular septal defect
(C) Transportation of great arteries
(D) Tetralogy of fallot
Answer: (D)
464. Snowman appearance is seen in:
(A) Total anomalous pulmonary venous Connection
(B) Ebstein anomaly
(C) Tetralogy of fallot
(D) VSD
(E) Transposition of great vessel
Answer: (A)
465. “Snowman” sign is seen in:
(A) TGV
(B) TOF
(C) TAPVC
(D) Aortic dissection
Answer: (C)
466. Figure of 8 in chest X ray s seen in
(A) Ebstein Anomaly
(B) Total Anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC)
(C) Tetrology of fallot (TOF)
(D) Transposition of great vessels (TGA)
Answer: (B)
467. Flask shaped heart is seen in following except:
(A) Ebstein anomaly
(B) Pericardial effusion
(C) TOF
(D) TAPVC
Answer: (D)
468. Egg on side appearance is seen in:
(A) TAPVC
(B) Ebstein anomaly
(C) TGA
(D) TOF
(E) VSD
Answer: (C)
469. “Egg on-side” appearance is seen in:
(A) TOF
(B) Uncorrected TGV
(C) TAPVC
(D) Constricted pericarditis /TA
Answer: (B)
470. “Thumb print’ sign see in:
(A) Candida
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Thrrmomyces
(D) Epiglotis
Answer: (D)
471. Double bubble sign is seen in A/E
(A) Lad’s band
(B) Annular pancreas
(C) Pancreatic pseudocyst
(D) Duodenal atresia
(E) Diaphragmatic hernia
Answer: (E)
472. Double bubble sign seen in:
(A) Duodenal atresia
(B) Ileal atresia
(C) Pyloric stenosis
(D) Pancreatic divisum
(E) Volvulus
Answer: (A)
473. Double bubble sign on X-ray is seen in:
(A) Duodenal atresia
(B) Oesophageal atresia
(C) Colonic atresia/Hirschprung’s disease
(D) Pyloric stenosis
Answer: (A)
474. X-ray feature of pyloric stenosis is
(A) Single bubble appearance
(B) Double bubble appearance
(C) Triple bubble appearance
(D) Multiple air fluid levels
Answer: (A)
475. Radiological signs of crohn’s disease:
(A) String sign of Kantor
(B) Pipestem appearance
(C) Pseudo polyp
(D) Back wash ileitis
Answer: (A)
476. Radiological feature of ischemic colitis is
(A) Saw toothing
(B) Craggy popcorn appearance
(C) Thumb printing
(D) Cobble stone appearance
Answer: (C)
477. Lead pipe appearance is seen in
(A) Chron’s disease
(B) Ulcerative colitis
(C) Schistosomiasis
(D) Carcinoma colon
Answer: (B)
478. String of Kantor is seen in
(A) Chron’s disease
(B) Ulcerative colitis
(C) TB
(D) Carcinoma
Answer: (A)
479. Soap Bubble appearance in X-ray is seen in
(A) Multiple cystic Kidney
(B) Neuroblastoma
(C) Cystic lymhagiectasis
(D) Meconium ileus
Answer: (D)
480. Radiological sign of ischemic colitis is
(A) Popcorn appearance
(B) Thumb print appearance
(C) Cobrahead app
(D) Inverted 3 sign
Answer: (B)
481. String sign is suggestive of:
(A) Toxic Megacolon
(B) Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis(HPS)
(C) Ulcerative Colitis
(D) IBS
Answer: (B)
482. A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed on abdominal X-ray, multiple air fluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be-
(A) Pyloric obstruction
(B) Duodenal atresia
(C) Illeal atresia
(D) Ladd/s bands
Answer: (A)
483. Feathery appearance in jejunum is due to:
(A) Valvulaeconniventes
(B) Haustrations
(C) Luminal gas
(D) Vascular network
Answer: (A)
484. X-ray appearance of CBD stone on cholangiograhy is:
(A) Meniscus appearance
(B) Sudden cut off
(C) Smooth tapering
(D) Eccentric occlusion
Answer: (A)
485. Chain of lakes appearance in ERCP is seen is
(A) Acute Pancreatitis
(B) Chronic Pancreatitis
(C) Carcinoma Pancreas
(D) Ductal Adenoma
Answer: (B)
486. Central dot sign is seen in:
(A) Caroli’s disease
(B) Primary sclerosing cholangitis
(C) Polycytic liver disease
(D) Liver hamartoma
Answer: (A)
487. “Spongy appearance” with central sunburst calcification is seen in
(A) pancreatic adenocarcinoma
(B) Mucinous cyst adenocarcinoma
(C) Somatostatinoma
(D) Serous cyst adenoma
Answer: (D)
488. A 45 yrs female presents with recurrent epigastric abdominal pain and jaundice. USG shows clausters of cysts, cysts are having lobulated margins, in the head to pancreas. MR reveals a multicystic mass with a bunch of grapes appearance and a grossly dialated pancreatic duct. The most probable diagnosis is:
494. Investigation of choice for juvenile nasoangiiofibroma
(A) X-ray
(B) Angiography
(C) USG
(D) CT Scan – contrast enhanced
Answer: (D)
495. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) Computed tomography
(C) Magnetic resonance imaging
(D) Arteriography
Answer: (D)
496. The best investigation to diagnose a case of acoustic neuroma is
(A) Gadolinium enhanced MRI
(B) CT scan
(C) Audimetric analysis
(D) PET scan
Answer: (A)
497. A patient is suspected to have vestibular Shwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is:
(A) Contrast enhanced CT scan
(B) Gadolinum enhanced MRI
(C) SPECT
(D) PET scan
Answer: (B)
498. Which of the following is the best choice to evaluate radiologically a posterior fossa tumor?
(A) CT scan
(B) MRI
(C) Angiography
(D) Myelography
Answer: (B)
499. Ideal imaging method for diagnosis of hydrocephalous in infant is
(A) X-ray
(B) CT Scan
(C) USG
(D) MRI
Answer: (C)
500. ParameningealRhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by-
(A) MRI
(B) CT Scan
(C) SPECT
(D) PET
Answer: (A)
501. The best X Ray view for minimal pleural effusion
(A) A – P
(B) PA
(C) Lateral
(D) Lateral decubitus
Answer: (D)
502. Decubitus view is useful in diagnosing:
(A) Pleural effusion
(B) Pleural effusion with dependent hemithorax
(C) Pericardial effusion
(D) Middle lobe consolidation
Answer: (A, B)
503. Best view for right pleural effusion in X-ray chest
(A) Supine
(B) Prone
(C) Right lateral decubitus
(D) Left lateral decubitus
Answer: (C)
504. The following will be most helpful radiological investigation in a patient suspected of left pleural effusion
(A) Right lateral decubitus
(B) Left lateral decubitus
(C) Left lateral erect
(D) Right lateral erect
Answer: (B)
505. Inter lobar pleural effusion can be detected in best way in
(A) Lateral decubitus
(B) Reverse lardotic
(C) Lateral oblique
(D) Posterior oblique
Answer: (B)
506. Right anterior oblique view of chest X-ray true is/are:
(A) Cassette near right shoulder
(B) Cassette near left shoulder
(C) Arch of Aorta best seen
(D) Left atrial enlargement can be diagnosed
(E) Mitral & Tricuspid valves better seen
Answer: (A, C, D)
507. X-Ray view for supra orbital fissure
(A) Towne’s
(B) AP
(C) Cald well
(D) Basal
Answer: (C)
508. Tracheal bifurcation on X-ray corresponds to
(A) T5T6
(B) T4T5
(C) Sternal angle
(D) Thoracic inlet
Answer: (A, C)
509. Best view for visualizing sellaturcica on X-ray:
(A) A P view
(B) Town’s view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Open mouth view
Answer: (C)
510. Caldwell lac view (occipito-frontal) can visualize:
(A) Sphenoid sinus
(B) Nasal bone
(C) Maxillary bone
(D) Ethmoid
(E) Frontal sinus
Answer: (B, C, D, E)
511. Basal skull view (submentovertical view) X-ray is best to visualize:
(A) Ethmoid sinus
(B) Frontal sinus
(C) Sphenoid sinus
(D) Maxillary sinus
(E) Nasopharynx
Answer: (C)
512. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
(A) MRI of the sinuses
(B) Non-Contrast CT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
(C) Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
(D) Inferior meatus puncture
Answer: (B)
513. Test of choice for Reversible Myocardial Ischemia?
(A) Thallium scan
(B) MUGA scan
(C) Resting ECHO
(D) Coronary angiography
Answer: (A)
514. In a Down’s syndrome patient posted for surgery, the necessary preoperative investigation to be done is –
(A) CT Brain
(B) Echocardiography
(C) Ultrasound Abdomen
(D) X-ray cervical spine
Answer: (B)
515. Investigation of choice for Aortic Dissection is
(A) Aortography
(B) CT scan
(C) MRI
(D) X-Ray chest
Answer: (C)
516. Investigation of choice in aortic dissection is
(A) USG
(B) CT Scan
(C) MRI
(D) Digital substraction Angiography
Answer: (C)
517. Investigation of choice for pericardial effusion is
(A) CT Scan
(B) MRI
(C) Echocardiography
(D) X Ray chest
Answer: (C)
518. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
(A) Multislice CT
(B) Echocardiography
(C) Nuclear scan
(D) MRI
Answer: (B)
519. Cardiotoxicity caused by radiotherapy & chemotherapy is best detected by
(A) ECHO
(B) ECG
(C) Radionucletide Scan
(D) Endomyocardial Biopsy
Answer: (D)
520. Investigation of choice for detection & characterization of interstitial lung disease is
(A) MRI
(B) Chest X-ray
(C) High Resolution CT scan
(D) Ventilation perfusion scan
Answer: (C)
521. Investigation of choice in Bronchiectasis is
(A) X-ray
(B) Bronchoscopy
(C) Bronchography
(D) USG
Answer: (C)
522. Best diagnostic aid for broncheitasis is:
(A) Bronchoscopy
(B) X-Ray
(C) Bronchography
(D) CT Scan
Answer: (D)
523. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating
(A) Pleural effusion
(B) Interstitial lung disease
(C) Lung mass
(D) Mediastinaladenopathy
Answer: (B)
524. Most sensitive investigation for air embolism is
(A) Decreased tidal volume of CO2
(B) Decreased tidal volume of NO2
(C) Doppler ultrasound
(D) Central Venous Pressure
Answer: (C)
525. In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?
(A) D-dimer
(B) CT angiography
(C) Catheter angiography
(D) Color Doppler
Answer: (B)
526. Investigation of choice for pulmonary embolism
(A) CT Scan
(B) Contrast CT
(C) Ventilation – Perfusion Scan
(D) MRI
Answer: (B)
527. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by
(A) USG
(B) X Ray Chest
(C) Ventilation – Perfusion Scan
(D) CT Scan
Answer: (D)
528. Best method for detecting minimal Bronchiectasis
(A) Bronchogram
(B) CT Scan
(C) Radio nucleotide scan
(D) Chest X Ray
Answer: (B)
529. Best view to diagnose pneumothorax:
(A) Lateral oblique
(B) PA view in full expiration
(C) PA view in full inspiration
(D) AP view in full expiration
Answer: (B)
530. In Renal cell carcinoma investigation of choice to evaluate inferior vencava& renal vein for thrombus
(A) IVP
(B) Coloured Doppler
(C) USG
(D) CT scan
Answer: (B)
531. Functional analysis of kidney is best done by
(A) Radionuclide scanning
(B) IVP
(C) Ultrasound
(D) MRI
Answer: (A)
532. Investigation of choice for studying Renal Cortical mass
(A) 99 Tc DTPA
(B) 53 Cr Study
(C) 99 Tc DMSA
(D) 99 Tc Pyrophosphate
Answer: (C)
533. Investigation of choice in diffuse esophageal spasm is
536. Investigation of choice in obstructive jaundice is
(A) ERCP
(B) USG
(C) Cholecystography
(D) Laproscopy
Answer: (B)
537. Most common investigation done for obstructive jaundice
(A) CT Scan
(B) USG
(C) X-Ray
(D) ERCP
Answer: (B)
538. Minimal Ascites can be best detected by:
(A) USG
(B) Plain X-ray abdomen
(C) MRI
(D) CT scan
Answer: (A)
539. The investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis is:
(A) USG
(B) HIDA-Scan
(C) CT-Scan
(D) OCG
(E) X-Ray
Answer: (A)
540. Best investigation for acute cholecystitis is
(A) ERCP
(B) Oral cholecystography (OCG)
(C) HIDA scan
(D) IV cholangiography
Answer: (C)
541. Investigation of choice for recurrent GIST:
(A) MIBG
(B) PET
(C) MRI
(D) CECT
Answer: (B, D)
542. Best radiographic view for fracture of C1, C2 vertebrae is
(A) AP view
(B) Odontoid view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Oblique view
Answer: (B)
543. Best investigation for Traumatic paraplegia
(A) CT Scan
(B) Routine Tomography (MRI)
(C) X Ray spine
(D) Myelography
Answer: (B)
544. The gold standard for assessing bone mineral density (BMD) & diagnosis of osteoporosis is:
(A) Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
(B) Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
(C) Ultrasound
(D) Quantitative computed tomography
Answer: (A)
545. Neural tube defect is best detected by
(A) USG
(B) Chromosomal analysis
(C) Amniocentesis
(D) Placentography
Answer: (C)
546. Earliest congenital malformation that may be detected on USG is
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Hydrocephalous
(C) Anencephaly
(D) Sacral Agenesis
Answer: (C)
547. Which of the following statements best describes ‘Background Radiation’
(A) Radiation in the background of nuclear reactors
(B) Radiation in the background during radiological investigations
(C) Radiation present constantly from natural sources
(D) Radiation from nuclear fall out
Answer: (C)
548. At t = 0 there are 6 × 1023 radioactive atoms of a substance, which decay with a disintegration constant (λ) equal to 0.01/sec. What would be the initial decay rate?
(A) 6 × 1023
(B) 6 × 1022
(C) 6 × 1021
(D) 6 × 1020
Answer: (C)
549. The major difference between X-Rays and Light is:
(A) Energy
(B) Mass
(C) Speed
(D) Type of wave
Answer: (A)
550. Photon transferring some of its energy to electron is
(A) Photoelectric effect
(B) Bremsstrahlung effect
(C) Compton effect
(D) Ionization
Answer: (C)
551. Photoelectric effect is
(A) Interaction between high energy incident photon and the inner shell electron
(B) Interaction between incident photon and the outer shell electron
(C) Interaction of the incident photon with the nucleus
(D) Interaction between a photon and electric current
Answer: (A)
552. True about Electromagnetic radiation:
(A) Pair product occur for low energy
(B) Infrared is a EM radiation
(C) Compton scattering occur for intermediate energy
(D) X-ray is EM radiation
Answer: (B, C, D)
553. Maximum scattering in X Ray plate occurs in
(A) Carbon
(B) Mercury
(C) H+
(D) Ca++
Answer: (C)
554. Which of the following best estimates the amount of radiation delivered to an organ the radiation field:
(A) Absorbed dose
(B) Equivalent dose
(C) Effective dose
(D) Exposure dose
Answer: (A)
555. All are feature of radiation except
(A) Biological
(B) Photographic
(C) Fluorescent
(D) Non penetrating
Answer: (D)
556. Which of the following is the most ionizing radiation:
(A) Alpha
(B) Beta
(C) X-ray
(D) Gamma
Answer: (A)
557. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
(A) Electron
(B) Proton
(C) Helium ion
(D) Gamma (γ) – photon
Answer: (C)
558. Which of the following has most penetrating power?
(A) α-particle
(B) β-particle
(C) γ-radiation
(D) Electron beam
Answer: (C)
559. Which of the following is the most penetrating beam?
(A) Electron beam
(B) 8 MV photons
(C) 18 MV photons
(D) Proton beam
Answer: (C)
560. Ionization radiation acts on tissue leading to
(A) Linear acceleration injury
(B) Excitation of electron from orbit
(C) Formation of pyramidine dimer
(D) Thermal injury
Answer: (B)
561. Principle used in radiotherapy is
(A) Cytoplasmic coagulation
(B) Ionization of molecule
(C) DNA damage
(D) Necrosis of tissue
Answer: (B)
562. Functional basis of ionizing radiation depends on :
(A) Pyramidine base pairing
(B) Removal of orbital electron
(C) Linear energy transfer
(D) Adding orbital electron
Answer: (B)
563. Principles used in Radio Therapy is :
(A) Infrared rays
(B) Ionizing molecules
(C) Charring of nucleoprotein
(D) Ultrasonic effect
Answer: (B)
564. Radiation produces its effect on tissue by
(A) Coagulation of cytoplasm
(B) Increasing the temperature
(C) Charring of nucleoprotein
(D) Hydrolysis
Answer: (C)
565. Which is not a deep heat therapy.
(A) Short wave diathermy
(B) Infra Red
(C) USG
(D) Microwave
Answer: (B)
566. What is atomic number :
(A) Proton
(B) Electrons + protons
(C) Protons + neutrons
(D) Protons + protons
Answer: (A)
567. Gray equals
(A) 100 rad
(B) 1000 rad
(C) 10000 rad
Answer: (A)
568. Curie is unit of :
(A) Radiation exposure
(B) Radiation absorption
(C) Radioactivity
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
569. 1 becquerel is equal (Disinegration/sec) to:
(A) 3.7 × 1010
(B) 2.7 × 1010
(C) 1.7 × 1010
(D) 3.7 × 10−2
(E) 1
Answer: (E)
570. Regarding particle interaction true is
(A) Bragg peak observed with light mass electrons
(B) Bremsstrahlung photons produced by αparticles
(C) Electron scatter less than protons
(D) Electrons stop sooner in low atomic number (than higher Z) materials
(E) X-ray production increase with high energy electrons
Answer: (D, E)
571. X-rays are produced when:
(A) Electron beam strike the nucleus of the atom
(B) Electron beam strikes the anode
(C) Electron beam reacts with the electromagnetic field.
(D) Electron beam strikes the cathode
Answer: (B)
572. Which is provided by linear accelerator
(A) Electron
(B) Neutron
(C) Proton
(D) Infrared rays
Answer: (A)
573. ↑ energy linear acceleration used in
(A) X-ray
(B) Cathode rays
(C) Photon rays
(D) α-rays
(E) γ-rays
Answer: (A)
574. High energy accelerator produces:
(A) X-ray
(B) Electron beam
(C) Gamma rays
(D) Neutron
(E) Proton
Answer: (A, B, D, E)
575. Principles of Linear accelerators is used in
(A) X-rays
(B) Gamma-rays
(C) Alpha rays
(D) Infrared rays
(E) Alpha particles
Answer: (A)
576. Radioactive emissions used in radiotherapy are
(A) α-Particles
(B) β-Particles
(C) γ-rays
(D) X-ray
(E) Infrared rays
Answer: (C, D, A, B)
577. Most common used rays for radiotherapy:
(A) X rays
(B) γ rays
(C) α rays
(D) β rays (electrons)
Answer: (B, A)
578. Beams can be used for cancer treatment are
(A) γ-rays
(B) α-rays
(C) Neutrons
(D) Protons
(E) X-rays
Answer: (ALL)
579. In radiation therapy rays used are :
(A) α, β
(B) α, γ
(C) β, γ
(D) γ, α, β
Answer: (D)
580. Most harmful to individual cell:
(A) X-rays
(B) α-particles
(C) β-particles
(D) X-rays (gamma rays)
Answer: (B)
581. Whole body electron therapy is useful in Mx of
(A) NHL
(B) Sezary syndrome
(C) Mycosis fungoides
(D) Hodgkin’s disease
Answer: (C)
582. What contrast is needed for proper radiographic image in a heavy bony built person?
(A) ↑ed ma
(B) ↑kvp
(C) ↑ed exposure time
(D) ↑ed developing time
Answer: (A)
583. For teletherapy, isotopes commonly used are
(A) I-123
(B) Cs-137
(C) Co-60
(D) Tc-99
(E) Ir-191
Answer: (C, B)
584. Which of the following is obsolete in modern day clinical use?
(A) Ra226
(B) Co60
(C) Ir192
(D) Cs137
Answer: (A)
585. Which of the following radioisotopes is commonly used as a source for external beam radiotherapy in the treatment of cancer patients
(A) Strontium-89
(B) Radium-226
(C) Cobalt-59
(D) Cobalt-60
Answer: (D)
586. In Teletherapy setup all are used except
(A) Irrridium-191
(B) Co-60
(C) Simulator
(D) Computer
Answer: (A)
587. Radionucleotide (s) used in external beam therapy:
(A) Iodine-131
(B) Co-60
(C) Cs-137
(D) Ra-226
(E) Ir192
Answer: (B, C, E)
588. Advantage of brachytherapy
(A) Non-invasive
(B) Less radiation hazard to normal tissue
(C) Max. radiation to diseased tissue
(D) Can be given in all malignancies
(E) Doesn’t require trained personnel
Answer: (B, C)
589. Features of interstitial therapy are all except :
(A) Only used in head & neck
(B) ↓Damage to normal tissue
(C) Temporary or permanent
(D) Only iridium used
(E) Used for easily accessible organ
Answer: (A, D, E)
590. Which of the following radioactive isotopes is not used for brachytherapy:
(A) Iodine-125
(B) Iodine-131
(C) Cobalt-60
(D) Iridium-192
Answer: (B)
591. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant:
(A) Iodine-125
(B) Palladium-103
(C) Gold-198
(D) Caseium-137
Answer: (D)
592. All may be used in interstitial brachytherapy except
(A) Cs137
(B) Au198
(C) Ir192
(D) Co60
Answer: (D)
593. Isotope (s) used in high brachytherapy:
(A) Ir192
(B) Co-60
(C) Cs133
(D) Ra226
(E) Pd103
Answer: (A, B)
594. Radioactive isotopes that are used in treatment of cancer are
(A) Cesium
(B) Cobalt
(C) Carbon
(D) Technetium
(E) Nitrogen
Answer: (A, B)
595. Which is used in teletherapy& Brachytherapy with
(A) Iridium 127
(B) Cobalt 60
(C) Pallidium
(D) Iodine 131
Answer: (B)
596. Which is/are false about T1/2 of radioisotopes:
(A) Ra-226: 1626 years
(B) I-131: 60 years
(C) Co-60 : 5.26 tears
(D) Cs-137: 30years
Answer: (B)
597. Longest half life is seen in
(A) Radon
(B) Radium
(C) Uranium
(D) Cobalt
Answer: (B)
598. The half life of Cobalt-60 is
(A) 3.4 years
(B) 5.2 years
(C) 1.2 years
(D) 2.3 years
Answer: (B)
599. Half life of I131 is
(A) 4 hours
(B) 8 days
(C) 4 days
(D) 10 days
Answer: (B)
600. Half life of Technetium is
(A) 6 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) 26 hours
Answer: (A)
601. Artificial radioisotopes:
(A) Radium
(B) Uranium
(C) Plutonium
(D) Iridium
(E) Cobalt
Answer: (D)
602. Radium emits which of the following radiations:
(A) Alpha rays
(B) Beta rays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) X-rays
(E) Neutrons
Answer: (A, B, C)
603. Phosphorous-32 emits:
(A) Beta particles
(B) Alfa particles
(C) Neutrons
(D) X-rays
Answer: (A)
604. Radiation emits by Ir-192:
(A) 0.5 Mev
(B) 0.6 Mev
(C) 0.66 Mev
(D) 0.666 Mev
(E) 0.47 Mev
Answer: (E)
605. True about Cobalt 60 is A/E :
(A) Natural radioactive agent
(B) At. wt. 59
(C) Emits β and γ-rays
(D) Half life is 5.3 yrs
(E) Used in both brachy&teletherapy
Answer: (A)
606. All are pure beta emitters except :
(A) Ytrrium-90
(B) Phosphrous-32
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Samarium-153
Answer: (D)
607. Isotope used in RAIU
(A) I131
(B) I123
(C) I125
(D) I127
Answer: (B)
608. Most suitable radioisotope of Iodine for treating hyperthyroidism is:
(A) I123
(B) I125
(C) I131
(D) I132
Answer: (C)
609. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques except :
(A) Mass spectroscopy
(B) RIA
(C) ELISA
(D) Sequencing of nucleic acid
Answer: (C)
610. Maximum dose of radiation per year in a human which is safe
(A) 1 rads
(B) 5 rads
(C) 10 rads
(D) 20 rads
Answer: (B)
611. Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is:
(A) 0.5 rad.
(B) 1.0 rad.
(C) 1.5 rad.
(D) rad.
Answer: (A)
612. Most sensitive tissue to Radiation is
(A) Liver
(B) Gonads
(C) Spleen
(D) Skin
Answer: (B)
613. Organs sensitive to radiation are
(A) Gonad
(B) Bone marrow
(C) Liver
(D) Fat
(E) Nervous tissue
Answer: (A, B)
614. The cell most sensitive to RT:
(A) Neutrophill
(B) Lymphocyte
(C) Basophill
(D) Platelett
Answer: (B)
615. The radiation tolerance of whole liver as:
(A) 15 Gy
(B) 30 Gy
(C) 40 Gy
(D) 45 Gy
Answer: (C)
616. Most sensitive structure in cell for radiotherapy is:
(A) Cellmembrane
(B) Mitochondrial membrane
(C) DNA
(D) Enzymes
(E) ER
Answer: (C)
617. Ionoising radiation most sensitive in-
(A) Hypoxia
(B) S phage
(C) G2M phage
(D) Activating cell
Answer: (C, D)
618. Most Radio sensitive stage
(A) S phase
(B) G1 phase
(C) G2 phase
(D) G2M phase
Answer: (D)
619. The phase of Cell cycle, most sensitive to radiation is/are:
(A) M phase
(B) G2 phase
(C) S phase
(D) Early G1 phase
Answer: (A, B)
620. Most radiosensitive stage of cell cycle
(A) G1
(B) G2M interphase
(C) Early S phase
(D) Late S phase
(E) M phase
Answer: (B)
621. What is radioresistant
(A) Cartilage
(B) Seminoma
(C) Ewings sarcoma
(D) GI epithelium
Answer: (A)
622. Which of these tumors is least radiosensitive
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma
(B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Wilm’s tumor
(D) Neuroblastoma
Answer: (B)
623. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive tumour?
(A) Ewing Tumour
(B) Hodgkin’s disease
(C) Carcinoma cervix
(D) Carcinoma cervix
(E) Malignant fibrous histocytoma
Answer: (A)
624. Radiosensitive tumors are
(A) Seminoma
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Sarcoma
(D) Ewing’s sarcoma
(E) Leukemia
Answer: (A, B, D)
625. Most radiosensitive ovarian tumor is
(A) Sercuscystadenoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Dermoid cyst
(D) Teratoma
Answer: (B)
626. Most Radiosensitive tumor
(A) Brenner’s tumor
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Mucinous cystadenoma
(D) Teratoma
Answer: (B)
627. All are highly radiosensitive except :
(A) Osteogenic sarcoma
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Ewing’s sarcoma
(D) Seminoma
Answer: (A)
628. Most Radiosensitive testicular tumor is
(A) Yolk Sack Tumor
(B) Embryonal cell tumor
(C) Teratoma
(D) Seminoma
Answer: (D)
629. The most radiosensitive tumour among the following is:
(A) Bronchogenic carcinoma
(B) Carcinoma partoid
(C) Dysgerminoma
(D) Osteogenic sarcoma
Answer: (C)
630. Tumor(s) most responding to radiotherapy
(A) Sarcoma
(B) Seminoma
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Eukaemia
Answer: (B, C)
631. Tumor responding best to radiation include following:
(A) Melanoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Teratoma
(D) Horiocarcinoma
Answer: (B)
632. Most radiosensitive brain tumor is
(A) Astrocytoma
(B) Ependymoma
(C) Medulloblastoma
(D) Craniopharyngeoma
Answer: (C)
633. Most Radiosensitive lung CA is
(A) Sqamous cell
(B) Small cell
(C) Adeno
(D) Large cell
Answer: (B)
634. Which of the following malignant tumors is radio resistant?
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Neuroblastoma
Answer: (C)
635. Most Radiosensitive tumor of the following is:
(A) Ca Kidney
(B) Ca Colon
(C) Ca Pancreas
(D) Ca Cervix
Answer: (D)
636. Tumors that are sensitive to chemotherapy
(A) Lymphoma
(B) Germ cell tumor
(C) Leukaemia
(D) Choricarcinoma
Answer: (A,B, C)
637. Poor wound Healing is seen in
(A) Adriamycin
(B) 5-FU
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Nitrogen mustard
Answer: (D)
638. Chemotherapeutic agent of choice of CA pancreas
(A) Mitomycin
(B) 5-FU
(C) Streptozocin
(D) Adriamycin
Answer: (B)
639. All are Chemosensitive except
(A) Small Cell CA
(B) Ca Cervix
(C) Ewing’s tumor
(D) Malignant melanoma
Answer: (D)
640. Radiation therapy to hypoxic tissues may be potentiated by the treatment with :
(A) Mycostatin
(B) Metronidazole
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Melphalan
Answer: (B)
641. All are radiosensitizer except
(A) 5-Fu
(B) BUDR
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) Hydroxyurea
Answer: (C)
642. A patient with cancer received extreme degree of radiation toxicity. Further history revealed that the dose adjustment of a particular drug was missed during the course of radiotherapy. Which of the following drugs required a dose adjustment in that patient during radiotherapy in order to prevent radiation toxicity
(A) Vincristine
(B) Dactinomycin
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) 6-Mercaptopurine
Answer: (B)
643. Radioprotective drug is
(A) Paclitaxem
(B) Vincristine
(C) Amifostine
(D) Etoposide
Answer: (C)
644. Amifostine, protects all of the following except:
(A) CNS
(B) Salivary glands
(C) Kidneys
(D) GIT
Answer: (A)
645. The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as:
(A) Arc technique
(B) Modulation
(C) Gating
(D) Shunting
Answer: (C)
646. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma
(A) Breast
(B) Melanoma
(C) Thyroid
(D) Lung
Answer: (C)
647. Least amenable to screening is
(A) Breast CA
(B) Cervix CA
(C) Lung CA
(D) Oral cavity CA
Answer: (C)
648. Craniospinal irradiation is used in the Treatment of-
(A) Oligodendroglioma
(B) Pilocytic astrocytoma
(C) Mixed oigoastrocytoma
(D) Meduloblastoma
Answer: (D)
649. Prophylactic cranial irradiation not indicated in treatment of-
(A) Small cell Ca of lung
(B) ALL
(C) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(D) NHL
Answer: (C)
650. Prophylactic intracranial irradiations are given in :
(A) Small cell Ca of lung
(B) Testicular Ca
(C) Ca breast
(D) Ca stomach
Answer: (A)
651. Prophylactic intracranial irradiations are given in:
(A) Small cell Ca of lung
(B) Testicular Ca
(C) Ca breast
(D) Ca stomach
Answer: (A)
652. Stereotactic Radio-surgery is a form of :
(A) Radiotherapy
(B) Radioiodine therapy
(C) Robotic surgery
(D) Cryo surgery
Answer: (B)
653. Gamma knife
(A) Inoperable lung tumor stage-1
(B) Base of tonge carcinoma with enlarged lymph nodes
(C) Lymphangiocarcinomatosis
(D) Miliary lung metastasis
Answer: (A)
654. Which of the following is not an indication of RT in Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid:
(A) Involvement of deep lobe
(B) 2nd histologically benign recurrence
(C) Microscopically positive margins
(D) Malignant transformation
Answer: (D)
655. For mobile tumor of vocal cord treatment of choice is:
(A) Surgery
(B) Chemotherapy
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) None
Answer: (C)
656. What dose of radiation therapy is recommended of pain relief in bone metastases
(A) 8 Gy in one fraction
(B) 20 Gy in 5 fractions
(C) 30 Gy in 10 fractions
(D) Above 70 Gy
Answer: (A)
657. Al of the following radioisotopes are used an systemic radionucleide, except :
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Strontium-89
(C) Iridium-192
(D) Samarium-153
Answer: (C)
658. Isotopes used in relief of metastatic bone pain includes:
(A) Strontium-89
(B) I-131
(C) Gold-198
(D) P-32
(E) Rhenium-186
Answer: (A, D, E)
659. Radiotherapy is used for which stage-I cancer
(A) Colon
(B) Larynx
(C) Anterior 2/3 of tongue
(D) Lung
(E) Stomach
Answer: (B, C)
660. Radiotherapy is Rx of choice for:
(A) Nasophryngeal Carcinoma T3N1
(B) Supraglottic Carcinoma T3NO
(C) Glottic Carcinoma T3N1
(D) Subglottic Carcinoma T3NO
Answer: (A)
661. Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer?
(A) 131I
(B) 99Tc
(C) 32P
(D) 131I-MIBG
Answer: (A)
662. Which one of the following therapeutic mode is commonly employed in intra-operative radiotherapy?
(A) Electron
(B) Photon
(C) X-ray
(D) Gamma rays
Answer: (C)
663. Intraoperative RT is given in
(A) Ca Cervix
(B) Ca Breast
(C) Ca Pancreas
(D) Ca Thyroid
Answer: (C)
664. For the treatment of deep seated tumors, the following rays are used.
(A) X-rays and Gamma-rays
(B) Proton beam therapy
(C) Electrons and positrons
(D) High power laser beams
Answer: (B, A)
665. In which malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is minimally used?
(A) Head and neck
(B) Stomach
(C) Colon
(D) Soft tissue sarcomas
Answer: (B)
666. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for WilmsTumour after surgery is
(A) Within 10 days
(B) Within 2 weeks
(C) Within 3 weeks
(D) Any time after surgery
Answer: (A)
667. Intercavitatory radiotherapy is treatment modality for
(A) Ca Cervix
(B) CaOesophagus
(C) Ca Stomach
(D) Renal cell CA
Answer: (A)
668. Point B in treatment of Ca cervix corresponds to
(A) Mackenordts ligament
(B) Obturator Lymph node
(C) Isheal tuberosity
(D) Round ligament
Answer: (B)
669. Emergency radiotherapy is given in-
(A) Superior vena cava syndrome
(B) Pericardial temponade
(C) Increased ICP
(D) Spinal cord compression
Answer: (ALL)
670. Long term effect of RT for CNS tumor in children are al except
(A) Reduce IQ and learning
(B) Endocrine dysfunction
(C) Musculoskeletal problems
(D) Neuropsychological effects are independent of radiation dose.
Answer: (D)
671. True about effects of RT on a child’s brain
(A) IQ not significantly affected
(B) Behaviour changes are common
(C) Recurrent seizure common
(D) Non memory loss
Answer: (B)
672. Most common hormone deficiency seen after intracranial radiation therapy-
(A) Prolactin
(B) Gonadotropins
(C) ACTH
(D) Growth hormone
Answer: (D)
673. MC cancer due to Radiation:
(A) Leukaemia
(B) Bronchogenic Ca
(C) Thyroid Ca
(D) Breast cancer
(E) Bone tumour
Answer: (A)
674. Most common presentation of radiation carditis is:
(A) Pyogenic Pericarditis
(B) Pericardial Effusion
(C) Myocardial Fibrosis
(D) Atheromatous Plaque
Answer: (B)
675. Late effects of radiation therapy:
(A) Mucositis
(B) Entertisi
(C) Nausea and vomiting
(D) Pnueumonia
(E) Somatic mutations
Answer: (A, B, D, E)
676. Most common skin manifestation seen after 2 days of radiation therapy is-
(A) Erythema
(B) Atopy
(C) Hyperpigmentation
(D) Dermatitis
Answer: (A)
677. Which of the following statements about ‘Stochastic effects’ of radiation is true
(A) Severity of effect is a function of dose
(B) Probability of effect is a function of dose
(C) It has a threshold
(D) Erythema and cataract are common examples
Answer: (B)
678. For which malignancy, Intensity, Modulated Radiotherapy (IMRT) is the most suitable:
(A) Lung
(B) Prostate
(C) Leukemias
(D) Stomach
Answer: (B)
679. Low dose radiation cause
(A) Lung cancer
(B) AML
(C) Cervical cancer
(D) Glioma
(E) Meningioma
Answer: (ALL)
680. Dose of radiation during whole body exposure that leads to haematological syndrome is
1. Schizophrenia with late onset and good prognosis
(a) Simple SZP
(b) Hebephrenic
(c) Catatonic SZP
(d) Paranoid SZP
Answer: (c)
2. Side effects of fluoxetine are A/E
(a) Weight gain
(b) Sweating
(c) Urinary retention
(d) Diarrhoea
Answer: (a)
3. Drug of choice in OCD is
(a) Doxapin
(b) Clomipramine
(c) Haloperidol
(d) Dothipin
Answer: (b)
4. Morbid Jealousy is seen with
(a) Alcohol
(b) Opium
(c) Cannabis
(d) Amphetamine
Answer: (a)
5. True about dementia is A/E
(a) Often irreversible
(b) Hallucination are not common
(c) Clouding of consciousness is common
(d) Nootropics have limited role
Answer: (c)
6. Hypochondriasis is
(a) Normal pre occupation with abnormal body function
(b) Abnormal pre occupation with abnormal body function
(c) Normal pre occupation with normal body function
(d) Abnormal preoccupation with normal body function
Answer: (d)
7. Prophylactic maintenance serum level of lithium is
(a) 0.2 – 0.8 meq/L
(b) 0.7 – 1.2 meq/L
(c) 1.2 – 2.0 meq/L
(d) 2.0 – 2.5 meq/L
Answer: (b)
8. Akathesia is treated by A/E
(a) Trihexyphenidyl
(b) Diazepam
(c) Haloperidol
(d) Promethazine
Answer: (c)
9. Psycho-somatic illness can be differentiated from hysteria by
(a) Altered Sensorium
(b) Autonomic disturbance
(c) Involuntary movements
(d) Skeletol muscles atrophy
Answer: (b)
10. Abnormal thought possession is found in
(a) Organic Brain syndrome
(b) Hysteria
(c) Obsessive compulsive disorder
(d) Neuroasthenia
Answer: (c)
11. The difference between malingering and hysteria is
(a) Hypnosis
(b) Malingering has poor prognosis
(c) Hysteria is more common in females
(d) Consciousmotive in malingering
Answer: (d)
12. The presence of delusion, hallucination and disturbed cognitive functions indicate.
(a) Paranoid Psychosis
(b) OCD
(c) Organic Brain Syndrome
(d) Dissociative disorder
Answer: (c)
13. Treatment of choice in depression with suicidal tendencies
(a) TCA
(b) MAO-Inhibitiors
(c) Fluoxetine + TCA + MAO – Inhibitor
(d) Electro convulsive therapy
Answer: (d)
14. True about obsession – compulsive disorder are A/E
(a) Ego-alien
(b) Patient tries to resist against
(c) Ego syntonic
(d) Insight is present
Answer: (c)
15. Drug of choice in Delirium tremens is
(a) Diazepalm
(b) Phenytoin
(c) Chlordiazepoxide
(d) Morphine
Answer: (c)
16. Drug of choice in OCD
(a) CPZ
(b) Clomazine
(c) Clomipramine
(d) Li
Answer: (c)
17. Reversible cause of dementia is
(a) Multi infarct
(b) Senile Dementia
(c) Post Encephalitis
(d) Hutington’s chorea
Answer: (c)
18. Neurotransmittors involved in depression are
(a) GABA and Dopamine
(b) Serotonin and Norepineprine
(c) Serotonin and Dopamine
(d) Norepinerphrine and GABA
Answer: (b)
19. Basic difference between neurosis and psychosis is
(a) Severity
(b) Insight
(c) Clinical features
(d) Duration
Answer: (b)
20. Drug not used in prophayaxis for MDP
(a) Carbamzepine
(b) Valproate
(c) Lithium
(d) CPZ
Answer: (d)
21. Drug of choice for obscessive compulsive neurosis
(a) Imipramine
(b) Clomipramine
(c) Chlorpromazine
(d) Chlordiazepoxide
Answer: (b)
22. Drug of choice in depression in old person is
(a) Fluoxetine
(b) Buspirone
(c) Amitryptyline
(d) Imipramine
Answer: (a)
23. All of the following are risk factors for suicidal tendency in patients with depression except:
(a) Females : age<40; unmarried, divorced or widowed
(b) Written or verbal communication of suicidal intent
(c) Early stage of depression
(d) Recovering stage of depression
Answer: (a)
24. In Schizophrenia early onset with poor prognosis is seen in
(a) Simple
(b) Hebephrenic
(c) Catatonic
(d) Paranoid
Answer: (a)
25. Treatment is not required in withdrawl of
(a) Cannabis
(b) Alcohol
(c) Amphetamine
(d) LSD
Answer: (d)
26. In Prophylaxic of Manic
(a) Lithium carbonate
(b) Carbamazepine
(c) Valproate
(d) Haloperidol
Answer: (a)
27. In Dissociative Disorder all are seen except
(a) Fuge
(b) Amnesia
(c) Multiple Personality
(d) Hypochondriasis
Answer: (d)
28. Regarding Ganser’s syndrome true is:
(a) Repeated lying
(b) Approximate answers
(c) Unconscious episodes
(d) Feigning illness
Answer: (b)
29. Labella indifference is seen in :
(a) Conversion reaction
(b) Schizophrenia
(c) Manic depressive episode
(d) Depression
Answer: (a)
30. Cognition is :
(a) Perception
(b) Thought
(c) Behavior
(d) Feeling
Answer: (b)
31. A patient of schizophrenia treated for 5 years developed perioral movements. Likely diagnosis is :
(a) Tardive dyskinesia
(b) Muscular dystonia
(c) Akathisia
(d) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
Answer: (a)
32. A patient presents with a one month history of abnormal hallucination, and delusion. The patient lacks insight to his changed behavior and symptoms. Likely diagnosis is :
(a) Psychosis
(b) Schizophrenia
(c) Paronia
(d) Depression
Answer: (a)
33. Delusions of nihilism and early morning insominia are characteristic features of :
(a) Major depression
(b) Schizophrenia
(c) Mania
(d) Personality disorder
Answer: (a)
34. All of the following agents are antidepresents except :
(a) Trazodone
(b) Amitriptyline
(c) Fluoxitine
(d) Pimozide
Answer: (d)
35. Treatment of choice for phobic disorder is
(a) Behaviour therapy
(b) Benzodiasepines
(c) Psychotherapy
(d) 5-HT reuptake inhibitors
Answer: (a)
36. A young female presented with halo’s, abdominal pain and amnesia, she is likely to be suffering from :
(a) Conversion disorder
(b) Dissociative disorder
(c) Depersonalization disorder
(d) Psychogenic pain disorder
Answer: (b)
37. Operant condition where paradigm pain stimulous are given to a child for decreasing a certain undesired behavior can be classified as :
(a) Positive reinforcement
(b) Negative reinforcement
(c) Punishment
(d) Negotiation
Answer: (c)
38. All of the following statements about clozapine are true except :
(a) It is used in schizophrenia
(b) May precipitate seizures
(c) May cause Agranulocytosis
(d) Extrapyramidal side effects may be seen
Answer: (d)
39. arbamazepine may be used in all of the following conditions except :
(a) Mania
(b) Alcohol withdrawl
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) Trigeminal neuralgia
Answer: (c)
40. False perception without external stimulous is :
(a) Illusion
(b) Hallucination
(c) Delirium
(d) Delusion
Answer: (b)
41. Features of alcohol withdrawal are all except :
(a) Hypersomnolence
(b) Epileptic seizure
(c) Restlessness
(d) Hallucination
Answer: (a)
42. Symptomatic treatment is not required well in withdrawal syndrome caused by :
(a) Cannabis
(b) Morphine
(c) Alcohol
(d) Cocaine
Answer: (a)
43. ‘First order’ symptoms of schneides’ schizophrenia include all except :
(a) Deparsonilization
(b) Running commentery of ones thoughts
(c) Primary delusion
(d) Somatic passivity
Answer: (a)
44. Drug of choice in obscessive compulsive neurosis is :
(a) Imipramine
(b) Carbamazapine
(c) Chlorpramazine
(d) Clomipramine
Answer: (d)
45. Phobia is :
(a) Psychosis
(b) Fear of animal
(c) Anxiety
(d) Neurosis
Answer: (d)
46. Most common age for depression is :
(a) Middle age men
(b) Middle age female
(c) Young girl
(d) Children
Answer: (b)
47. Post traumatic stress syndrome is due to :
(a) Head injury
(b) Minor stress
(c) Major life threatening events
(d) Vascular accidents
Answer: (c)
48. In schizophrenia, characteristic feature is:
(a) Formal thought disorder
(b) Delusion
(c) Hallucination
(d) Apathy
Answer: (a)
49. A person has different multiple personality is suffering from
(a) Mania
(b) Personality disorder
(c) Paranoid schizophrenia
(d) Dissociative disorder
Answer: (d)
50. ECT is most useful in:
(a) Mania
(b) Depression
(c) OCD
(d) Schizophrenia
Answer: (b)
51. Delusions of control, persecution and self reference are seen in
(a) Paranoia
(b) Paranoid schizophrenia
(c) Mania
(d) OCD
Answer: (b)
52. In alcohol withdrawal, drug of choice is:
(a) TFP
(b) Chlormethazole
(c) Chlordiazepoxide
(d) Buspirone
Answer: (c)
53. Morbid jealously is found in abuse of:
(a) Alcohol
(b) Cannabis
(c) Opiate
(d) Cocaine
Answer: (a)
54. Pin-point pupil is seen in:
(a) Pontine haemorrhage
(b) Barbiturate poisoning
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Congential cataract
Answer: (a)
55. Pseudo dementia is seen in:
(a) Alcoholism
(b) Depression
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) Mania
Answer: (b)
56. Emotion is controlled by:
(a) Limbic system
(b) Temporal lobe
(c) Mania
(d) Occipital lobe
Answer: (a)
57. Tricyclic antidepresents have all of the following actions except:
(a) Anti cholinergic action
(b) Anti MAOI action
(c) Blocks 5 HT or NE reuptake
(d) Causes sedation
Answer: (b)
58. α-rhythm is seen in:
(a) α-rhythm is seen in:
(b) Mental activity
(c) Awake with eyes open
(d) REM sleep
Answer: (a)
59. Impaired insight is found in:
(a) Traumatic psychosis
(b) Schizophrenia
(c) Anxiety neurosis
(d) Obsessive compulsive neurosis
Answer: (b)
60. Not a defence mechanism:
(a) Derailment
(b) Repression
(c) Distortion
(d) Undoing
Answer: (a)
61. Following are correctly matched except :
(a) Schizophrenia-Audiory hallucination
(b) OCD – infidelity
(c) Alcoholism-Auditory hallucination
(d) Depression – guilt feeling
Answer: (b)
62. Delusion that someone from high socio economic status is loving you is in :
(a) Othello syndrome
(b) Capgras syndrome
(c) De Clerambault syndrome
(d) Franklin syndrome
Answer: (c)
63. ECT is mainly used in :
(a) Mania
(b) Schizophrenia
(c) Depression with suicidal intention
(d) OCD
Answer: (c)
64. Not a schneider’s first rank symptom :
(a) Depresonalisation
(b) Auditory hallucination
(c) Thought disorder
(d) Somatic passivity
Answer: (a)
65. Person preoccupied by worries about ill health is:
(a) Hypochondriac
(b) Maniac
(c) Depressed
(d) Delirium
Answer: (a)
66. Slow waves in EEG activity seen in :
(a) Depression
(b) Delirium
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) Mania
Answer: (b)
67. Adverse effect of clozapine:
(a) Hypertension
(b) Sialorrhea
(c) Extrapyramidal S/E
(d) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: (b)
68. DOC of night terrors:
(a) Meprobamate
(b) Triccyclic antidepressant
(c) Clonazepam
(d) Diazepam
Answer: (d)
69. Tardive dyskinesia is produced by following except :
(a) Fluphenazine
(b) Haloperidol
(c) Chlorpromazine
(d) Clozapine
Answer: (b)
70. Rorscharch test measures :
(a) Intelligence
(b) Creativity
(c) Personality
(d) Neuraticism
Answer: (c)
71. ECT in depressive phase of MDP is useful because it :
(a) Produces recurrence
(b) Reduces recurrence
(c) Shortens duration
(d) Increases drug effects
Answer: (c)
72. Not a feature of paradoxical sleep is :
(a) Decreased muscle tone
(b) Rapid eye movements
(c) Brain shows increased metabolism
(d) EEG shows decreased activity
Answer: (d)
73. Folie a deux is seen in :
(a) Hysteria
(b) Paranoid
(c) OCD
(d) Neurasthenia
Answer: (b)
74. The Halstead Reitan battery involves all except :
(a) Finger oscillation
(b) Construction praxis
(c) Rhythm
(d) Tactual performance
Answer: (b)
75. Which is not an ego defence mechanism :
(a) Rationalization
(b) Repression
(c) Identification
(d) Obsession
Answer: (d)
76. Which of the following is a stage of intuitive thought appearance in jean-Piaget scheme :
(a) Senosorimotor
(b) Concrete
(c) Preoperational stage
(d) Formal operations stage
Answer: (c)
77. A patient on antidepressant therapy developed sudden hypertension on consuming cheese. The antidepressant is possibly.
(a) Amitryptiline
(b) Tranylcypromine
(c) Fluoxetine
(d) Sertraline
Answer: (b)
78. Most common type of post puerperal psychosis is:
(a) Depression
(b) Anxiety
(c) Mania
(d) Suicide
Answer: (a)
79. Antisocial personality is seen with :
(a) Drug abuse
(b) Paranoid schizophrenia
(c) OCN
(d) None
Answer: (a)
80. Which is more appropriate in a case of schizophrenia :
(a) Low socioeconomic group
(b) Seen in adolescents
(c) Common in primitive societies
(d) Affluent society influences the incidence
Answer: (b)
81. Neurofibrillary tangles with senile plaques are seen in :
(a) Parkinson’s disease
(b) Alzheimer’s disease
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) Tuberous sclerosis
Answer: (b)
82. Post traumatic stress-disorder is associated with all except :
(a) Flash back
(b) Severe traumatic injury
(c) Re-experiencing stressful events
(d) It doesn’t develop after 6 months of stress
Answer: (d)
83. Suicidal tendencies are most common in :
(a) Involutional depression
(b) Reactive depression
(c) Psychotic depression
(d) Childhood depression
Answer: (c)
84. Formed visual hallucinations are seen in which lesion :
(a) Frontal
(b) Occipital
(c) Temporal
(d) Parietal
Answer: (c)
85. Wernicke’s encephalopathy involves which part of CNS :
(a) Mamilary body
(b) Thalamus
(c) Frontal lobe
(d) Arcuate fasciculus
Answer: (a)
86. X-linked disease leading to mental retardation is :
(a) Myotonic dystrophy
(b) Fragile – X syndrome
(c) Tuberous sclerosis
(d) Phenylketonuria
Answer: (b)
87. Autism is
(a) Neurodevelopmental disorder
(b) Social and language communication problem
(c)Metabolic disease
(d) Mainly due to hypothalamus damage
Answer: (b)
88. Antipsychotic drug with least extrapyramidal effects is :
(a) Clozapine
(b) Risperidone
(c) Thioridazine
(d) Chlorpromazine
Answer: (a)
89. Schizophrenia and depression both have A/E
(a) Formal thought disorder
(b) Social withdrawal
(c) Poor personal care
(d) Decreased interest in sex
Answer: (a)
90. A patient seen a rope and fears like a snake. It is called :
(a) Illusion
(b) Hallucination
(c) Delusion
(d) Depresonalization
Answer: (a)
91. Most accurate treatment of erectly dysfunction :
93. The following is suggestive of an organic cause of the behavioural symptoms
(A) Formal thought disorder
(B) Auditory hallucinations
(C) Delusion of fruit
(D) Prominent visual hallucination
Answer: (D)
94. Difference between neurosis and psychosis is
(A) Severity
(B) Insight
(C) Clinical features
(D) Duration
Answer: (B)
95. Differentiating features b/w neurosis and psychosis:
(A) Insight is preserved
(B) Lack of insight
(C) Personality and behavior preserved
(D) None
Answer: (B)
96. Differentiating features b/w neurosis and psychosis:
(A) Panic disorder
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Mania
(D) Reactive Psychosis
Answer: (A)
97. Impaired insight is evident in
(A) Psychosomatic disorder
(B) Anxiety neurosis
(C) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (D)
98. Impaired insight is found in:
(A) Traumatic psychosis
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Anxiety neurosis
(D) Obsessive compulsive neurosis
Answer: (B, A)
99. Ambivalence is most commonly seen in
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Hysteria
(C) Mania
(D) OCN
Answer: (A)
100. C. psychological features of AIDS is
(A) Mania
(B) Depression
(C) Suicidal Tendency
(D) Violence
Answer: (B)
101. Visual analogue scale (VAS) most widely used to measure
(A) Sleep
(B) Sedation
(C) Pain intensity
(D) Depth of Anaesthesia
Answer: (C)
102. Allodynia is
(A) Feeling pain without stimulus
(B) Feeling pain to a normal non painful stimulus
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer: (B)
103. Incidence of suicide is-
(A) 8-10/100 population
(B) 8-10/1000 population
(C) 8-10/1 lac population
(D) 8-10/10 lac population
(E) 8-10/1 billion population
Answer: (C)
104. Mutism and akinesis in a person who appears awake and even alert, is best described as:
(A) Twilight state
(B) Oneroid state
(C) Stupor
(D) Delirium
Answer: (C)
105. Emotion is controlled by:
(A) Limbic system
(B) Frontal lobe
(C) Temporal lobe
(D) Occipital lobe
Answer: (B)
106. A person who laughs one minute and cries the next without any clear stimulus is said to have
(A) Incongruent effect
(B) Euphoria
(C) Labile affect
(D) “Spilt personality”
Answer: (C)
107. A 25 year old woman complains of intense depressed mood for 6 months with inability to enjoy previously pleasurable activities This symptom is known as:
(A) Anhedonia
(B) Avolition
(C) Apathy
(D) Amotivation
Answer: (A)
108. Alexithymia is:
(A) A feeling of intense rapture
(B) Pathological sadness
(C) Affective flattening
(D) Inability to recognize and describe feelings
(E) Inbappropriate mood
Answer: (D)
109. A patient says that he feels as if the people he meet are lifeless two dimensional card bord figure: He feels detached, emotionless, but highly unpleasant morbid experiences. Diagnosis is
(A) Delusional ideas
(B) Hallucination
(C) Depersonalization
(D) Synthesia
Answer: (C)
110. Hallucination is disorder of
(A) Thought
(B) Perception
(C) Memory
(D) Intelligence
Answer: (B)
111. A patient seen a rope and fears like a snake. It is called:
(A) Illusion
(B) Hallucination
(C) Delusion
(D) Depersonalization
(E) Deprealization
Answer: (A)
112. Altered (bizarre) perception/interpretation of real objects is most appropriately known as:
(A) Illusion
(B) Delusion
(C) Hallucination
(D) Delirium
Answer: (A)
113. A 8 year old child after a tonsillectomy sees a bear in her room. She screams in fright. A nurse who rushes in switches on the light, finds a rug wrapped on a armchair. She pacificies the child what the child experienced was a
(A) Delusion
(B) Illusion
(C) Hallucination
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
114. False sense of perception without any external object or stimulus is kwon as
(A) Illusions
(B) Impulse
(C) Hallucination
(D) Phobia
Answer: (C)
115. Perception without stumuli is
(A) Delusion
(B) Illusion
(C) Hallucination
(D) Delirium
Answer: (C)
116. Hallucination are
(A) Feeling of familiarity with unfamiliar thing
(B) Alteration of perception of ones reality
(C) Misinterpretation of stimuli
(D) Perception occurring without external stimulation
Answer: (D)
117. Which is not true about hallucination
(A) It is as vivid as normal stimulus
(B) It occurs in inner subjective space
(C) It is independent of will of observer
(D) It occurs in absence of perceptual stimuli
Answer: (B)
118. All of the following feature of hallucination EXCEPT-
(A) Depends on will of observer and is under voluntary control
(B) Occur in inner subjective
(C) It is vivid as sensory perception
(D) It occurs in absence of perceptual stimuli
Answer: (A)
119. All of the following are features of hallucinations, except:
(A) It is independent of the will of the observer
(B) Sensory organs are not involved
(C) It is as vivid as that in a true sense perception
(D) It occurs in the absence of a perceptual stimulus.
Answer: (B)
120. Formed visual hallucinations are seen in lesions of:
(A) Frontal
(B) Occipital
(C) Temporal
(D) Arcuate fasciculus
(E) Dentate nucleus
Answer: (C)
121. What is hypnopampic phenomenon?
(A) If experienced while falling asleep
(B) If experienced while awakening
(C) After head trauma
(D) After convulsion
Answer: (B)
122. Hallucinations which occur at the ‘start’ of sleep is:
(A) Hypnagogic hallucinations
(B) Hypnopompic hallucinations
(C) Jactationocturnacapitis
(D) Non – specific hallucination
Answer: (A)
123. Hallucination are seen in All Except –
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Seizure due to Intracerebral space occupying lesions
(C) LSD
(D) Anxiety
Answer: (D)
124. Visual hallucination is seen in:
(A) Alcoholism
(B) Mania
(C) Depression
(D) Phobia
Answer: (A)
125. Auditory hallucinations not seen in:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Mania
(C) Hysteria
(D) Amphetamine toxicity
Answer: (C)
126. Olfactory hallucinations are seen in:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Alzheimer’s disease
(C) Mesial temporal sclerosis
(D) Body dysmorphia
(E) Temporal lobe epilepsy
Answer: (C, E, B, A)
127. Visual hallucinations are seen in:
(A) Hebeprenic schizophrenia
(B) Residual schizophrenia
(C) Simple schzophrnia
(D) Delirium
(E) Temporal lobe epilepsy
Answer: (D, E, A)
128. Reflex hallucination is a morbid variety of
(A) Kinesthesia
(B) Parasthesia
(C) Hypersthesia
(D) Synanaesthesia
Answer: (D)
129. Cognition is
(A) Perception
(B) Thought
(C) Action
(D) Feeling
Answer: (B)
130. Delusion is a disorder of
(A) Thought
(B) Perception
(C) Insight
(D) Cognition
Answer: (A)
131. Delusion is disorder of
(A) Perception
(B) Memory
(C) Thinking
(D) Intelligence
Answer: (C)
132. The primary delusion are disorder of
(A) Thought
(B) Perception
(C) Loosening of association
(D) Memory
Answer: (A)
133. Healthy thinking includes all except:
(A) Continuity
(B) Constancy
(C) Organization
(D) Clarity
Answer: (B)
134. Persistent belief in something which is not a fact is:
(A) Illusion
(B) Hallucination
(C) Delusion
(D) Delirium
Answer: (C)
135. Delusion is:
(A) Comprehensible
(B) Reasonable
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer: (D)
136. A false belief unexplained by reality, shared by a number of people is:
(A) Superstition
(B) Illusion
(C) Delusion
(D) Obsession
Answer: (A)
137. Delusion of grandiosity seen in:
(A) Hypomania
(B) Schizoaffective mania
(C) Paranoid schizophrenia
(D) Kleptomania/Pyrmania
(E) Cyclothymia
Answer: (B, C)
138. Delusions are not likely to be seen in:
(A) Dementia
(B) Depression
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Conversion disorder
Answer: (D)
139. Nihilistic ideas are seen in:
(A) Simple schizophrenia
(B) Paranoid schizophrenia
(C) Cotard’s syndrome
(D) Depression
(E) Body Dysmorphic Disorder
Answer: (C, D)
140. Delusion of infidelity of part of the sexual partner is known as:
(A) De Clerambault’s syndrome
(B) Couvade syndrome
(C) Othello syndrome
(D) Ekbim’s syndrome
Answer: (C)
141. A 25 year old university student had a fight with the neighboring boy. On the next day while out, he started feeling that two men in police uniform were observing this movements. When he reached home in the evening he was frightened. He expressed that police was after him and would arrest him. His symptoms represent:
(A) Delusion of persecution
(B) Ideas of reference
(C) Passivity
(D) Thought insertion
Answer: (A)
142. A man hits his neighbor. Next day he feels that police is behind him and his brain is being controlled by radio waves by his neighbor. The probable diagnosis is:
(A) Thought insertion
(B) Passivity feeling
(C) Delusion of persecution
(D) Obscessive Compulsive Disorder
Answer: (C)
143. Delusion of persecution occur in:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Paranoid psychosis
(C) Manic episode
(D) Melanocholia
Answer: (A, D, C)
144. Delusion is not present in
(A) Delirium
(B) Mania
(C) Depression
(D) Compulsive disorder
Answer: (D)
145. Delusions are seen in all the following except:
(A) Obsessive compulsive disorder
(B) Depression
(C) Mania
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (A)
146. Delusion is not seen in:
(A) Depression
(B) Anxiety
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Mania
Answer: (B)
147. Following are correctly matched except
(A) Schizophrenia – Audiory hallucination
(B) OCD – infidelity
(C) Alcoholism – auditory hallucination
(D) Depression – guilt feeling
Answer: (B)
148. All are examples of form of thought disorder except
(A) Obsessive compulsive Neurosis
(B) Delusion
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Loosening of association
Answer: (B)
149. True about thought is A/E
(A) Preservation is out of context repetition
(B) Circumstantiality is over inclusion of irrelevant details eventually getting back to original point.
(C) Verbigeration is senseless repetition
(D) Vorbiereden is skirting around end point but never reaching it.
(E) Loosening of association is logically connected loss of goal directedness.
Answer: (E)
150. Perseveration is:
(A) Persistent and inappropriate repetition of the same thoughts.
(B) When a patient feels very distressed about it.
(C) Characteristic of schizophrenia
(D) Characteristic of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
Answer: (A)
151. In schizophrenia, characteristic feature is:
(A) Formal thought disorder
(B) Delusion
(C) Hallucination
(D) Apathy
Answer: (A)
152. Loosening of association is an example of:
(A) Formal thought disorder
(B) Schneider’s first symptoms
(C) Perseveration
(D) Concrete thinking
Answer: (A)
153. Schizophrenia and depression both have A/E
(A) Formal thought disorder
(B) Social withdrawal
(C) Poor personal care
(D) Decreased interest in sex
(E) Suicidal tendency
Answer: (A)
154. Schizophrenia is a disorder of :
(A) Thought
(B) Belief
(C) Memory
(D) Perception
Answer: (A)
155. Not a disorder of form of thought is:
(A) Tangentiality
(B) Derailment
(C) Thought Block
(D) Loosening of association
Answer: (C)
156. Most specific of psychosis
(A) Neologism
(B) Incoherence
(C) Pressure of speech
(D) Perseveration
Answer: (A)
157. Echolalia is a recognized feature of :
(A) Catatonic schizophrenia
(B) Anorexia nervosa
(C) Alzheimer’s disease
(D) Childhood autism
(E) Petit mal epilepsy
Answer: (A)
158. Mutism is a recognized feature of:
(A) Alcohol withdrawal
(B) Conversion hysteria
(C) Catatonic Schizophrenia
(D) Ganser states
Answer: (B, C, D)
159. Preservation is:
(A) Persistent repetition of words
(B) Found in depression
(C) After panic attack
(D) None
Answer: (A)
160. Corpralalia is seen in:
(A) Delirium
(B) Alcoholic intoxication
(C) Mania
(D) Tourette’s syndrome
Answer: (D)
161. Confabulation is defect of
(A) Memory
(B) Intelligence
(C) Attention
(D) Concentration
Answer: (A)
162. Confabulation is a disorder of :
(A) Perception
(B) Thought
(C) Memory
(D) Mood
Answer: (C)
163. True about confabulation :
(A) A memory disorder
(B) Synonymous with false memory syndrome
(C) It is congenital
(D) It is age related disease
Answer: (B)
164. Confabulation is:
(A) A state of confusion where patient is not able to describe the details
(B) Purposefully fabricating stories to project a certain image
(C) Filling up to gaps by fabrication to cover lapses in memory
(D) Seen in delirium
Answer: (C)
165. Confabulation means
(A) Misinterpretation of stimuli
(B) Perception in absence of stimuli
(C) Making stories to cheat some one
(D) Making stories to fill gaps in memory loss
Answer: (D)
166. Pseudo dementia is seen in:
(A) Alcoholism
(B) Depression
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Mania
Answer: (B)
167. Deja vu is seen in:
(A) Temporal lobe epilepsy
(B) Normal person
(C) Psychosis
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
168. Unfamiliarity of familiar things is seen in:
(A) Deja vu
(B) Jamais vu
(C) Dejaentendu
(D) Deja pence
Answer: (B)
169. Apraxia is a disorder of:
(A) Cerebellum
(B) Sensory system
(C) Motor system
(D) Initiating and planning movement
Answer: (D)
170. Catatonic features are seen in schizophrenia they are also seen in:
(A) Severe depression
(B) Conversion disorder
(C) Personality disorder
(D) Somatisation disorder
Answer: (A, B)
171. Rorschach inkblot test is:
(A) Projective
(B) Subjective
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer: (A)
172. Best test for diagnosis of organic mental disorder
(A) Sentence completion test
(B) Bender gestalt test
(C) Rorschach test
(D) Thematic Appreciation Test
Answer: (B)
173. The Halstead Reitan battery involves all except:
(A) Finger oscillation
(B) Constructional parxis
(C) Rhythm
(D) Tactual performance
Answer: (B)
174. Best test for diagnosis of organic mental (Brain) disorder :
(A) Bender Gestalt test
(B) Rorschach test
(C) Thematic apperception
(D) Sentence completion test
Answer: (A)
175. Rorschach test measures :
(A) Intelligence
(B) Creativity
(C) Personality
(D) Neuraticism
Answer: (C)
176. Signs of organic brain damage are evident on :
(A) Bender Gestalt Test
(B) Rorschach Test
(C) Sentence Completion Test
(D) Thematic Apperception Test
Answer: (A)
177. The term ‘id’ was coined by:
(A) Freud
(B) Skinner
(C) Weyker
(D) Blueler
Answer: (A)
178. That part of mind which is working on reality principle is:
(D) Conscious is common component of id, ego & super ego
Answer: (C, D)
182. Wrong statement about psychoanalysis is
(A) A. Paraprexis is meaning
(B) Transference is patient’s feeling for therapist
(C) Counter transference is clinican’s feeling for patient
(D) Unguided communication has no meaning
Answer: (D)
183. A fundamental technique used in psychoanalysis is
(A) Concentration
(B) Hyponsis
(C) Empathy
(D) Free association
Answer: (D)
184. Psychoanalysis was founded by which of the following scientist:
(A) Eysenck
(B) Freud
(C) Jung
(D) Adler
Answer: (B)
185. Life span of Sigmund Freud was
(A) 1856-39 and he passed most his life in Austria
(B) 1859-36 and he passed most of his life in Austria
(C) 1859-36 and he passed most of his life in Germany
(D) 1859-36 and he passed most of his life in France
Answer: (A)
186. The term ‘free association’ is coined by
(A) Freud
(B) Adler
(C) Erikson
(D) Juna
Answer: (A)
187. Counter transference is:
(A) Type of defence mechanism
(B) Psychic connection between patient & disease with transfer of psychic energy from body parts to brain
(C) Implies doctor’s feelings towards patient
(D) Patient’s feeling towards doctor during psychotherapy
Answer: (C)
188. Oedepius complex has been described by:
(A) Plato
(B) Socartes
(C) Freud
(D) Huxley
Answer: (C)
189. Oedipus complex (given by Sigmund freud) is seen in:
(A) Boys of 1 – 3 years of age
(B) Girls of 1 – 3 years of age
(C) Boys of 3 – 5 years of age
(D) Girls of 3 – 5 years of age
Answer: (C)
190. In psychoanalytic terms, obsessive compulsive disorder is fixed at:
(A) Oedipal stage
(B) Genital stage
(C) Oral stage
(D) Anal stage
Answer: (D)
191. Fixation of Hysteria is:
(A) Genital
(B) Anal
(C) Oral
(D) Phallic
Answer: (D)
192. Following name (s) is/are associated with Psychodynamic theory:
(A) Carl Jung
(B) Sigmund Freud
(C) Emil Kraplein
(D) Eugen Bleuler
(E) Kurl Schneider’s
Answer: (B)
193. Who introduced cocaine in psychiatry :
(A) Freud
(B) Jung
(C) Milar
(D) Stanley
Answer: (A)
194. The term “Ambivalence” was coined by :
(A) Hippocrates
(B) Eugen Bleuler
(C) Kraeplin
(D) Sigmund Freud
Answer: (B)
195. Moral treatment of mentally ill patient was first stressed by
(A) Pinel
(B) Morel
(C) Kraeplin
(D) Sigmung Freud
Answer: (A)
196. The eight stage classification of human life is proposed by
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Pavel
(C) Strauss
(D) Erikson
Answer: (D)
197. Which of the following scientist propagated ‘therapeutic – community concept:
(A) J B Watson
(B) Maxwell Jones
(C) Freud
(D) Adler
Answer: (B)
198. Term catatonia was used by:
(A) Karl Kahlbaum
(B) Adolf Meyer
(C) Leo Kanner
(D) Karen Horney
Answer: (A)
199. Which of the following is not a cognitive error/dysfunction:
(A) Catastrophic thinking
(B) Arbitrary inference
(C) Overgeneralization
(D) Thought block
Answer: (D)
200. Cognitive model of depression is given by?
(A) Ellis
(B) Beck
(C) Godfrey
(D) Mecicheinbanon
Answer: (B)
201. Psychodynami theory of mental illness is based on :
(A) Unconscious internal conflict
(B) Maladjusted reinforcement
(C) Organic neurological problem
(D) Focus on teaching patient to restrain absurd thoughts
Answer: (A)
202. Which of the following is a stage of intuitive thought appearance in jean-Piaget scheme :
(A) Senosorimotor
(B) Concrete
(C) Preoperational stage
(D) Formal operations stage
Answer: (C)
203. ‘Reinforcement’ is used in:
(A) Psychoanalysis
(B) Hypnoanalysic
(C) Abreaction
(D) Conditioned learning
Answer: (D)
204. Pavlov’s experiment is an example of:
(A) Operant conditioning
(B) Classical conditioning
(C) Learned helplessness
(D) Modeling
Answer: (B)
205. Patient of contamination phobia was asked by therapist to follow behind and touch everything he touches in patients house Therapist kept talking quietly &calmly all the time. And the patient was asked to repeat the procedure twice daily. The procedure is
(A) Flooding
(B) Modeling
(C) Positive reinforcement
(D) Aversion therapy
Answer: (B)
206. Behaviour therapy to change maladaptive behavior using response as reinforce uses the principles of:
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Modeling
(C) Social learning
(D) Operant conditioning
Answer: (D)
207. Many of our bad habits of day to day life can be removed by:
(A) Positive conditioning
(B) Negative conditioning
(C) Bio feed back
(D) Generalization
Answer: (B)
208. Operant condition where paradigm pain stimulus are given to a child for decreasing a certain undesired behavior can be classified as:
(A) Positive Reinforcement
(B) Negative reinforcement
(C) Punishment
(D) Negotiation
Answer: (C)
209. Systemic de-sensitization therapy is used for
(A) Phobia
(B) Depression/Mania
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Organic brain syndrome
(E) Anxiety
Answer: (A)
210. A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies:
(A) Exposure and response prevention
(B) systematic desensitization
(C) Assertiveness training
(D) Sensate focusing
Answer: (A)
211. All of the following are done in behavior therapy to increase a behavior except:
(A) Punishment
(B) Operant conditioning
(C) Negative reinforcement
(D) Reward
Answer: (A)
212. In which behavior therapy is helpful
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Agoraphobia
(C) Personality Disorder
(D) Neurotic depression
Answer: (B)
213. Behaviour Therapy is not useful in
(A) Phobia
(B) Hysteria
(C) Stuttering
(D) OCD
Answer: (B)
214. Behaviour therapy is useful in:
(A) Psychosis
(B) OCD
(C) Personality disorder
(D) Panic attack
(E) Anxiety
Answer: (B, C, D, E)
215. Cognitive behavior therapy deals with:
(A) Unconscious motive
(B) Maladaptive assumptions
(C) Psuedodynamic conflict
(D) Emotional consciousness of automatic thoughts
Answer: (B, D)
216. Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatment of:
(A) Anorexia Nervosa
(B) Seasonal Affective Disorder
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Obscessive Compulsive Disorder
Answer: (B)
217. Stimulation of which of the nerve leads to elevated mood
(A) Optic
(B) Oflactory
(C) Trochlear
(D) Trigeminal
Answer: (B)
218. All of the following are parts of cognitive behavior change technique except:
(A) Pre-contemplation
(B) Consolidation
(C) Action
(D) Contemplation
Answer: (B)
219. A chronic smoker taking 20 cigarettes per day has developed chronic cough. His family suggested quitting cigarettes. He is ready to quit and thinks about quitting but is reluctant to do so because he is worried that quilting will make him irritable. Which of the following option best describes the stage of behavour change:
(A) Precontemplation and preparation
(B) Contemplation and Cost factor
(C) Contemplation & sickness susceptibility
(D) Belief
Answer: (C)
220. A man taking 20 cigarettes per day, started coughing, his family suggested quitting cigarettes. He is ready to quit but think that quitting will make him irritable, the best health planning model followed
(A) Cost and survival
(B) Persuation
(C) Precontemplation and preparation
(D) Belief
Answer: (C)
221. When information memorized afterwards is interfered by the information learnt earlier, it is called :
(A) Retroactive inhibition
(B) Proactive inhibition
(C) Simple inhibition
(D) Inhibition
Answer: (B)
222. Methods of learning in psychiatry are all except :
(A) Modeling
(B) Catharsis
(C) Exposure
(D) Response prevention
Answer: (B)
223. Which of the following is a mature defence mechanism :
(A) Projection
(B) Reaction formation
(C) Anticipation
(D) Denial
Answer: (C)
224. Mature defence mechanism is seen in:
(A) Altruism
(B) Repression
(C) Regression
(D) None
Answer: (A)
225. Ego’s defence mechanism “Undoing” is typically seen in:
(A) Depression
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Obsessive compulsive neurosis
(D) Hysteria
Answer: (C)
226. One of the important defence mechanism is :
(A) Alienation
(B) Confabulation
(C) Repression
(D) suppression
Answer: (C)
227. Which s not an ego defence mechanism :
(A) Rationalization
(B) Repression
(C) Identification
(D) Obsession
Answer: (D)
228. All of the following are defence mechanisms of ego except :
(A) Projection
(B) Conversion
(C) Reaction formation
(D) Transference
Answer: (D)
229. All are mechanism of defence except :
(A) Repression
(B) Transference
(C) Projection
(D) Anticipation
Answer: (B)
230. Not a defence mechanism :
(A) Derailment
(B) Repression
(C) Distortion
(D) Undoing
Answer: (A)
231. A reluctant child forced to bring suger from a shop sills half of it on the way. This is an example of :
(A) Hysteria
(B) Passive aggression
(C) Disobedience
(D) Active aggression
Answer: (B)
232. Most important cause of neurotic reaction is the excessive use of :
(A) Projection
(B) Regression
(C) Suppression
(D) Sublimation
Answer: (B)
233. Displacement reaction is characteristically seen in :
(A) Mania
(B) Phobia
(C) Conversion disorder
(D) Depression
Answer: (B)
234. A Chronic alcoholic blames the family environment as a cause of his alcoholism. This is phenomenon of
(A) Projection
(B) Denial
(C) Rationalization
(D) Sublimation
Answer: (C)
235. Which of the following excludes painful stimuli from awareness :
(A) Repression
(B) Reaction formation
(C) Projection
(D) Rationalization
Answer: (A)
236. Ross classified five stages of:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Delusion
(C) Death
(D) None
Answer: (C)
237. Visual hallucination without auditory hallucinations is
(A) Organic brain damage
(B) Obsessive compulsive neurosis
(C) Agarophobia
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (A)
238. Disturbed orientation is seen in :
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Neurosis
(C) Paranoid personality
(D) Organic mental disorder
Answer: (D)
239. Which of the following behavioral problems would suggest an organic brain lesion :
(A) Formal thought disorder
(B) Auditory hallucinations
(C) Visual hallucinations
(D) Depression
Answer: (C)
240. Organic Mental Disease is indicated by
(A) Incoherence
(B) Delusion
(C) Flight of idea
(D) Preservation of speech
Answer: (B)
241. Mini mental status is :
(A) Method to investigate common psychiatric problem
(B) 30 point programme to evaluate cognitive function
(C) To evaluate schizophrenia
(D) Instrument to measure delirium
Answer: (B)
242. Cognitive disorders are
(A) Intellictualization
(B) Deprsonalization
(C) Dementia
(D) Hallucination
(E) Secondary gain
Answer: (C, D)
243. Feature (s) suggestive of Schizophrenia rather than organic psychosis is/are:
(A) Third person hallucination
(B) Split personality
(C) Visual hallucination
(D) Altered sensorium
(E) Systemized delusion
Answer: (A, B, E)
244. Disorientation occurs in
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Organic Brain Syndrome
(C) Depression
(D) Mania
Answer: (B)
245. The presence of delusion, hallucination and disturbed cognitive functions indicate :
(A) Paranoid Psychosis
(B) OCD
(C) Organic Brain Syndrome
(D) Dissociative disorder
Answer: (C)
246. Cognitive disorders are
(A) Intellectualization
(B) Depersonilization
(C) Dementia
(D) Delirium
Answer: (C, D)
247. All are features of Delirium except
(A) Confusion
(B) Disorientation
(C) Hyperactivity
(D) Loss of memory
Answer: (D)
248. Illusion with altered sensorium is seen in
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Hysteria
(C) MDP
(D) Delirium
Answer: (D)
249. Slow waves in EEG activity seen in :
(A) Depression
(B) Delirium
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Mania
Answer: (B)
250. Features of delirium :
(A) Deficit of attention (Attention Deficit)
(B) Autonomic instability (dysfunction)
(C) Altered sleep wake pattern
(D) Visual Hallucination & clouding of consciousness
(E) Delirium can not diagnosed clinically
Answer: (A, B, D)
251. All are seen in organic psychosis except :
(A) Disorientation in place, time & person
(B) Clouding of consciousness
(C) Hallucination
(D) Normal common knowledge
(E) Intellectual impairment
Answer: (D)
252.Patient with altered consciousness, tremors and visual hallucinations, the probable diagnosis is:
(A) Delirium tremens
(B) Koarloff’s psychosis
(C) MDP
(D) Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Answer: (A)
253. Delirium and schizophrenia differ from each other by:
(A) Change in mood
(B) Complete consciousness
(C) Tangenital thinking
(D) All
Answer: (B)
254. A patient semiconscious with altered sensorium with visual hallucination and fragmented delusion is suffering from, which of the following disorder :
(A) Delirium
(B) Delusion
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Mania
Answer: (A)
255. A patient with pneumonia for 5 days is admitted to the hospital in altered sensorium. He suddenly ceases to recognize the doctor and staff. He thinks that he is in jail and complains of scorpion attacking him. His probable diagnosis is
(A) Acute Dementia
(B) Acute delirium
(C) Acute schizophrenia
(D) Acute paronia
Answer: (B)
256. Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with
(A) Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors
(B) Features of intoxication due to alcohol
(C) Sixth nerve palsy
(D) Karaskoff psychosis
Answer: (A)
257. All are true about delirium tremons Except
(A) Severe depression
(B) Hallucination
(C) Extreme anxiety
(D) Delusion
Answer: (A)
258. Feature (s) of Alcohol withdrawal delirium is/are all except:
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Visual hallucination
(C) Disorientation
(D) EEG wave slowing
(E) Tactile hallucination
Answer: (A, D)
259. An alcoholic is brought to the Emergency OPD with the complaint or irrelevant talking. He had stopped using alcohol three days back. On examination, he is found to be disoriented to time, place and person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinations. There is no history of head injury. Most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Demetia praecox
(B) Delirium tremens
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Korsakoff’s psychosis
Answer: (B)
260. A 60 year man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 2 days back. Now he started forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis?
(A) Depression
(B) Post traumatic psychosis
(C) Cognitive dysfunction
(D) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: (C)
261. All are true except :
(A) Probabilistic learning is from past experiences
(B) Implicit learning is procedural skill acquirement
(C) Amnestic syndromes lose semantic memory
(D) Anterograde amnesia affects long term memory more
Answer: (C)
262. 1 week before incidence recall is called as
(A) Working memory
(B) Delayed memory
(C) Recent memory
(D) Remote memory
Answer: (C)
263. Anterograde amnesia is seen in:
(A) Head injury
(B) Stroke
(C) Spinal cord injury (Traumatic paraplegia)
(D) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: (A)
264. Not a diagnostic/defining criteria for amnestic disorder
(A) Visual hallucination
(B) Transient delusion
(C) Impaired concentration/attention
(D) Good recall of recent events
(E) Ability to form new memories
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
265. 35 year old male comes with h/o 10 year of alcoholism and past history of ataxia with B/L lateral rectus palsy. He was admitted & treated what changes expected to see :
(A) Progression to korasakoff’s psychosis
(B) Residual ataxia in 50% of patients
(C) Extraoclar palsy disappear in hour
(D) Immediate relief from symptoms
Answer: (B, C)
266. Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be prevented by:
(A) IV saline
(B) Large amounts of glucose
(C) Thiamine supplement
(D) Imipramine
Answer: (C)
267. Karsakoff’s Psychosis is diagnosed by
(A) Peripheral neuropathy
(B) Visual hallucination
(C) Impairment of long term memory
(D) Seizures
Answer: (C)
268. All are the features of Korsakoff’s syndrome except:
(A) Confabulation
(B) Retrograde amnesia
(C) Antegrade amnesia
(D) Defective motor skill
Answer: (D)
269. All are relatively normal in Korsakoff’s psychosis except
(A) Implicit memory
(B) Intelligence
(C) Language
(D) Learning
Answer: (D)
270. Korsakoff’s syndrome true is
(A) Cerebral Cortex is mostly affected
(B) Learning is relatively normal
(C) Retrograde memory is not affected
(D) Cannot be caused by malnutrition
(E) Confabulation may be present
Answer: (E)
271. True statement about Korsakoff’s psychosis is
(A) Severe antegrade + Mild retrograde memory defect
(B) Mild antegrade + severe retrograde memory defect
(C) Only antegrade memory defect
(D) Only retrograde memory defect
Answer: (A)
272. Confabulation is typically seen in :
(A) Mania
(B) Depression
(C) Alcoholism
(D) Delirium
Answer: (C)
273. In korsakoff psychosis all are seen except :
(A) Loss of remote
(B) Loss of intellectual function but preservation of memory
(C) Lack of insight, unable to understand the disability
(D) Reversible state
Answer: (A)
274. Korsakoff’s psychosis is seen in-
(A) CRF
(B) Alcohol withdrawal
(C) Marasmus
(D) Cirrhosis
Answer: (A, C)
275. Not a feature of Wernicke’s Korsakoff’s syndrome
(A) Ataxia
(B) Confusion
(C) Normal pupillary response
(D) Opthalmoplegia
Answer: (C)
276. Not a feature of Korsakoff Psychosis is
(A) Normal sensorium
(B) Loss of recent memory
(C) Loss of long term memory
(D) Confabulation
Answer: (A)
277. The site of lesion of Korsakoff’s psychosis is
(A) Frontal lobe
(B) Corpus striatum
(C) Mammilary Body
(D) Cingulate gyrus
Answer: (C)
278. Not involved in Wernicke – Korsakoff syndrome :
(A) Mammilary body
(B) Thalamus
(C) Periventricular grey matter
(D) Hippocampus
Answer: (C)
279. A patient presented with short lasting episodic behavioural changes which includes agitation & dream like state with thrashing movements of his limbs. He does not recall of these episodes & no precipitating factor is likely. The most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Temporal lobe epilepsy
(C) Panic episodes
(D) Dissociative disorder
Answer: (B)
280. True about dementia is A/E
(A) Often irreversible
(B) Hallucination are not common
(C) Clouding of consciousness is common
(D) Nootropics have limited role
Answer: (C)
281. Biological Amnesia is
(A) Lack of interest
(B) Presenile dementia
(C) Opoid addiction
(D) Hypothyroidism
Answer: (B)
282. Characteristic feature of subcortical dementia is
(A) Memory loss
(B) Aphasia
(C) Dyslexia
(D) Tactile agnosia
Answer: (A)
283. Subcortical dementia is seen in all except :
(A) Parkinsonism
(B) Alzheimer’s disease
(C) Wilsoms disease
(D) Huntingtons Chorea
Answer: (B)
284. Dementia is seen in all except :
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Head injury
(C) Huntington’s chorea
(D) Frontal lobe tumour
Answer: (A)
285. Dementia is seen in all except :
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Alzheimer’s disease
(C) Huntington’s chorea
(D) Pick’s ds.
Answer: (A)
286. All are causes of subcortical dementia except
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Parkinson’s disease
(C) Supranuclear palsy
(D) HIV associated dementia
Answer: (A)
287. All are example of cortical dementia except
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Multiple sclerosis
(C) Creutzfeldt Jacob disease
(D) Pick’s disease
Answer: (B)
288. The following are the psychiatric sequalae after stroke in elderly
(A) Depression
(B) Post traumatic stress disorder
(C) Dementia
Answer: (A, C)
289. Dementia is/are present in all except :
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Pick’s disease
(C) Lewy body
(D) Binswanger’s disease
(E) Ganser syndrome
Answer: (E)
290. Most common cause dementia in adult :
(A) Alzheimer’s
(B) Multiinfrct
(C) Pick disease
(D) Metabolic cause
Answer: (A)
291. One of the following is a reversible cause of dementia :
(A) Toxic dementia
(B) Alzheimer’s ds
(C) Multi – infarct dementia
(D) Pick ds.
Answer: (A)
292. Reversible cause of dementia is
(A) Multi infarct
(B) Senile Dementia
(C) Post Encephalitis
(D) Hutington’s chorea
Answer: (C)
293. Reversible cause of dementia
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Alzheimer’s disease
(C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
(D) Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: (A, C)
294. Treatable causes of dementia are :
(A) Alzheimer’s ds.
(B) Hypothyroidism
(C) Multi-infarct dementia
(D) SDH (subdural h’ge)
(E) Hydrocephalus
Answer: (B, D, E)
295. Vascular dementia is characterized by
(A) Disorientation
(B) Memory deficit
(C) Emotional liability
(D) Visual hallucination
(E) Personality deterioration
Answer: (A, B, C)
296. A 65-year old male is brought to the outpatient clinic with one year illness characterized by marked forgetfulness, visual hallucinations, suspiciousness, personality decline, poor self care and progressive deterioration in his condition. His Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE) Score is 10. His most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Dementia
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Mania
(D) Depression
Answer: (A)
297. Not a feature of dementia is
(A) Loss of sensorium
(B) Wearing of dirty clothes
(C) Forget fullness
(D) Loss of neurons in brain
Answer: (A)
298. Protein involved in Alzheimer’s disease :
(A) Apo E gene
(B) Presel in – II
(C) Amyloid portion
(D) All
Answer: (A)
299. Biochemical etiology of Alzheimer’s disease relates it to :
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) GABA
(C) Serotinin
(D) Dopamine
Answer: (A)
300. Following are predispositions to Alzheimer’s disease except :
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Head trauma
(C) Smoking
(D) Low education group
Answer: (C)
301. In case of above 60 years of age psychiatric disorder in India is mostly due to :
(A) Depression
(B) Dementia
(C) Hysteria
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (B)
302. Donepezil is used in treatment of :
(A) Alzheimer’s dementia
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Anxiety disorder
(D) Depression
Answer: (A)
303. Dementia of Alzheimer’s type is not associated with one of the following :
(A) Depressive symptoms
(B) Delusions
(C) Apraxia and aphasia
(D) Cerebral infarcts
Answer: (D)
304. All the following are featuring Alzheimer’s disease except :
(A) Cerebellar atrophy
(B) Common in 5th and 6th decade
(C) Atrophied gyri widened sulci
(D) Peogressive dementia
Answer: (A)
305. In Alzheimer’s disease (AD) which of the following is not seen :
(A) Aphasia
(B) Acalculia
(C) Agnosia
(D) Apraxia
Answer: (B)
306. False regarding Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is :
(A) Number of senile neural plaques correlates (increases) with age
(B) Presence of tau protein suggest neurodegeneration
(C) Number of neurofibrillary tangles is associated with the severity of dementia
(D) Extracellular inclusions (lesions) can occur in the absence of intracellular inclusions to make
Answer: (D)
307. Area of bran resistant to NFTs in Alzheimer’s disease
(A) Visual association area
(B) Entorhinal cortex
(C) Lateral geniculate body
(D) Cuneal gyrus area VI/temporal lobe
Answer: (C)
308. Regarding Alzheimer’s disease which is/are not true:
(A) Initial loss of long term memory
(B) Delayed loss of short term memory
(C) Step ladder pattern
(D) Cognitive impairment
(E) Judgment impairment
Answer: (A, B, C)
309. A/E are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease.
(A) Gradually progressive
(B) Abrupt onset acute exacerbation
(C) Episodic memory
(D) Fronto temporal disorder
(E) Ubiquitin Lewy bodies
Answer: (B, D, E)
310. Fronto temporal dementias include A/E
(A) Pick’s disease
(B) Nonfluent aphasia
(C) Semantic dementia
(D) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: (D)
311. A 70 yr old man presents with h/o prosopagnosia loss of memory, 3rd person hallucination since 1 month. On examination deep Tendon reflexes are increased, minimental examination score is 20/30. What is most likely diagnosis
(A) Dissociated Dementia
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Alzheimer disease
(D) Psychotic disorder
Answer: (C)
312. Biochemical etiology of Alzheimer’s disease relates to
(A) Serotonin
(B) Dopamine
(C) Acetyl choline
(D) GABA
Answer: (C)
313. Neurofibrillary tangles with senile plaques are seen in:
(A) Parkinson’s disease
(B) Alzheimer’s disease
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Tuberous sclerosis
Answer: (B)
314. Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in the management of:
(A) Depression
(B) Dissociation
(C) Delusion
(D) Dementia
Answer: (D)
315. Not a factor important for substance dependence?
(A) Personality
(B) Family history
(C) Peer pressure
(D) Intelligence
Answer: (D)
316. Treatment is not required in withdrawal of
(A) Cannabis
(B) Alcohol
(C) Amphetamine
(D) LSD
Answer: (D)
317. Symptomatic treatment is not required in withdrawal of
(A) Cannabis
(B) Morphine
(C) Alcohol
(D) Cocaine
Answer: (A)
318. Physical withdrawal symptoms are absent in patients abusing
(A) Alcohol
(B) Cannabis
(C) Opium
(D) Pethidine
Answer: (B)
319. Physical dependence is not seen with
(A) Alcohol
(B) Raw opium
(C) Cannabis
(D) Benzodiazepines
Answer: (C)
320. Flash backs are seen with
(A) LSD
(B) Cocaine
(C) Opiate
(D) Amphetamine
Answer: (A)
321. A 16-year-ld boy suffering from drug abuse presents with cross-over of sensory perceptions, such that, sound can be seen and colors can be heard. Which of the following is the most likely agents responsible for drug abuse:
(A) Cocaine
(B) LSD
(C) Marijuana
(D) PCP
Answer: (B)
322. Paranoid delusions are a/w use of:
(A) Cocaine
(B) Heroine
(C) Cannabis
(D) GHB
Answer: (A)
323. Correct statement about cocaine abuse:
(A) Block uptake of dopamine in CNS
(B) Strong physical dependence
(C) ↑BP
(D) Severe tolerance
(E) Cause impairment of nerve conduction
Answer: (A, C, E)
324. Paranoid psychosis observed with cocaine abuse can be explained by
(A) Tolerance
(B) Intoxication
(C) Reverse tolerance
(D) Withdrawal
Answer: (C)
325. Tactile Hallucinations are seen in
(A) Alcohol
(B) Heroin
(C) Cocaine
(D) Phenargan
Answer: (C)
326. Feeling of creeping insects is seen in
(A) Alcohol withdrawal
(B) Lead Poisoning
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Cocaine abuse
Answer: (D)
327. Formication and delusion of persecution, both are together seen in:
(A) LSD psychosis
(B) Amphetamine psychosis
(C) Cocaine psychosis
(D) Cannabis psychosis
Answer: (C)
328. Active substance in Hashish is
(A) Morphine
(B) LSD
(C) Mescaline
(D) TetralHydrocannabinol
Answer: (D)
329. After use of some drug, a person develops episodes of rage in which he runs about and indiscriminately injures a person who is encountered in way. He is probably addict of
(A) Alcohol
(B) Cannabis
(C) Opium
(D) Cocaine
Answer: (B)
330. Which of the following is not an opioid peptide?
(A) β-Endorphin
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Leu5-enkephalins
(D) Met-enkephalins
Answer: (B)
331. A boy is having diarrhea, rhinorrhea, sweating & lacrimation. What is the most probable diagnosis:
(A) Cocaine withdrawal
(B) Heroin withdrawal
(C) Alcohol withdrawal
(D) Opioid withdrawal
Answer: (B)
332. Yawning is a common feature of
(A) Alcohol withdrawal
(B) Cocaine withdrawal
(C) Cannabis withdrawal
(D) Opioid withdrawal
Answer: (D)
333. The following are opioid withdrawal symptoms except:
(A) Insomnia
(B) Piloerection
(C) Rhinorrhea
(D) Constipation
Answer: (D)
334. Features of opioid withdrawal are all except
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Lacrimation
(C) Miosis
(D) Rhinorrhoea
Answer: (C)
335. Acute opioid withdrawal is characterized by
(A) Rhinorrhoea
(B) Piloerection
(C) Miosis
(D) Insomnia
(E) Constipation
Answer: (A, B, D)
336. Opiate withdrawal is treated with
(A) CPZ
(B) Nalorphine
(C) Pethidine
(D) Methadone
Answer: (D)
337. Drugs used in Heroin withdrawal are A/E
(A) Buprenorphine
(B) Clonidine
(C) Dextropropoxyphene
(D) Haloperidol
Answer: (D)
338. Treatment of opioid dependence includes:
(A) Naloxone
(B) Naltrexone
(C) Acamprostate
(D) Buprenorphine
(E) Topiramate
Answer: (B, D)
339. Not included in definition of substances abuse syndrome
(A) Withdrawal symptom
(B) Use despite knowing physical/mental harm
(C) Intolerance to drug
(D) Recurrent substance abuse
(E) Use despite substance related legal problems
Answer: (C, A)
340. Naltrexone is used in opioid addiction because
(A) To treat withdrawal symptoms
(B) To treat overdose of opioids and present respiratory depression
(C) Prevent relapse
(D) Has addiction potential, used for detoxification of opioid
Answer: (C)
341. All of the following are criteria for substance dependence except :
(A) Repeated unsuccessful attempts to quit the substance
(B) Recurrent substance related legal problems
(C) Characteristic withdrawal symptoms; substance taken to relieve withdrawal
(D) Substance taken in large amount and for longer than intended
Answer: (B)
342. The drug which is used for long term maintenance in opioid addiction:
(A) Naloxone
(B) Nalorphine
(C) Butarphamol
(D) Methadione
Answer: (D)
343. Which of the following is an alternative to methadone for maintenance treatment of opiate dependence?
(A) Diazepam
(B) Chlordiazepoxide
(C) Buprenorphine
(D) Dextropropoxyphene
Answer: (C)
344. Which drug is most commonly used world wide in maintenance treatment for opioid dependence :
(A) Naltrexone
(B) Methadone
(C) Imipramine
(D) Disulfiram
Answer: (B)
345. Which of the following drugs is not used in opioid dependence?
(A) Disulfiram
(B) Clonidine
(C) Lorazepam, Lofexidine
(D) Naltrexone, Buprenorphine
Answer: (A)
346. All are adulterants of Heroin, except:
(A) Chalk powder
(B) Quinine
(C) Charcoal
(D) Fructose
Answer: (C)
347. Most common substance abuse in India is:
(A) Tobacco
(B) Cannabis
(C) Alcohol
(D) Opiuma
Answer: (C)
348. True about alcoholic dependence syndrome :
(A) Tolerance
(B) Withdrawal
(C) CAGE questionnaire
(D) Physical dependence
(E) No psychological dependence
Answer: (A, B, D , C)
349. By which alcohol dependence is best indicated
(A) Black outs
(B) Early morning drinking
(C) Withdrawal symptoms
(D) Physical dependence
Answer: (C)
350. Psychiatric complications of alcohol dependence :
(A) Anxiety
(B) Suicide
(C) Depression
(D) Schizophrenia
(E) Mania
Answer: (A, B, C)
351. Wernicke’s encephalopathy involves which part of CNS:
(A) Mammilary body
(B) Thalamus
(C) Frontal lobe
(D) Arcuate fasciculus
Answer: (A)
352. Morbid Jealousy is seen with
(A) Alcohol
(B) Opium
(C) Cannabis
(D) Amphetamine
Answer: (A)
353. Widmark Formula is used for
(A) Opium
(B) Cannabis
(C) Alcohol
(D) Amphetamine
Answer: (C)
354. Most common symptom of alcohol withdrawal is:
(A) Bodyache
(B) Tremor
(C) Diarrhoea
(D) Rhinorrheo
Answer: (B)
355. Characteristic of alcohol withdrawal?
(A) Hallucination
(B) Illusion
(C) Delusion
(D) Drowsiness
Answer: (A)
356. Features of alcohol withdrawal are all except
(A) Epileptic seizure
(B) Restlessness
(C) Hypersomnolence
(D) Hallucination
Answer: (C)
357. Not a feature of delirium tremens is:
(A) Confusion (clouding of consciousness)
(B) Visual hallucinations
(C) Coarse tremors
(D) Occulomotor nerve palsy (ophthalmoplegia)
Answer: (D)
358. A 30-year old male with history of alcohol abuse for 15 years is brought to the hospital emergency with complaints of fearfulness, mis-recognition, talking to self, aggressive behavior, tremulousness and seeing snakes and reptiles that are not visible to others around him. There is history of drinking alcohol two days prior to the onset of the present complaints. He is most likely suffering from:
(A) Delirium
(B) Alcoholic hallucinosis
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Seizure disorder
Answer: (A)
359. A alcoholics addicted presents in emergency with irrelevant talking & disoriented to time, place and person there is H/O not taking alcohol from last 3 days & no head injury. He also have visual hallucination. The diagnosis-
(A) Dementia praecox
(B) Delirium tremens
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Korsakoff psychosis
Answer: (B)
360. All are associate with Wernicke’s encephalopathy except:
(A) Cog wheel rigidity
(B) Alteration in mental function
(C) VIth nerve palsy
(D) Ataxia
Answer: (A)
361. A 45 year male with a history of alcohol dependence presents with confusion, nystagmus and ataxia. Examination reveals 6th cranial nerve weakness. He is most likely to be suffering from:
(A) Korsakoff’s psychosis
(B) Wernicke encephalopathy
(C) De Clerambault syndrome
(D) Delirium tremens
Answer: (B)
362. True about delirium tremens –
(A) Clouding of consciousness
(B) Coarse tremors
(C) Chronic delirious behaviour
(D) Hallucination
(E) Autonomic dysfunction
Answer: (ALL)
363. A 40 year old male, with history of daily alcohol consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the hospital emergency room with acute onsent of seeing snakes all around him in the room, not recognizing family members, violent behavior and tremulousness for few hours. There is history of his having missed the alcohol drink since 2 days. Examination reveals increased blood pressure, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment and insight. He is most likely to be suffering from:
(A) Alcoholic hallucinosis
(B) Delirium tremens
(C) Wernicke encephalopathy
(D) Korsakoff’s psychosis
Answer: (B)
364. A 40-year old man presents to casualty with history of regular and heavy use of alcohol for ten years and morning drinking for one year. The last alcohol intake was three days back. There is no history of head injury or seizures. On examination, there is no icterus, sign of hepatic encephalopathy or focal neurological sign. The patient had coarse tremors, visual hallucinations and had disorientation to time. Which of the following is the best medicine to be prescribed for such a patient?
(A) Diazepam
(B) Haloperidol
(C) Imipramine
(D) Naltrexone
Answer: (A)
365. In an uncomplicated case of alcohol withdrawal, the drug which can be given safely is
(A) Benzodiazepines
(B) Clonidine
(C) Morphine
(D) Disulfiram
Answer: (A)
366. In alcohol withdrawal drug of choice is
(A) Benzodiazepine
(B) Chlordiazepoxide
(C) Lithium
(D) Haloperidol
Answer: (B)
367. Drug of choice in Delirium tremens is
(A) Diazepam
(B) Phenytoin
(C) Chlordiazepoxide
(D) Morphine
Answer: (C)
368. Which of the following is not used in delirium
(A) Haloperidol
(B) Lethium
(C) Diazepam
(D) Olanzapine
(E) Resperidone
Answer: (A, C, D & E)
369. Drugs used in maintenance of substance dependence :
(A) Naloxone
(B) Acamprosate
(C) Disulfiram
(D) Clonidine
Answer: (B)
370. All of the following agents are used in the treatment of alcohol dependence except:
(A) Flumazenil
(B) Acomprostate
(C) Naltrexone
(D) Disulfiram
Answer: (A)
371. In patients of substance-abuse, drugs used are:
(A) Naltrexone
(B) Naloxone
(C) Clonidine
(D) Lithium
(E) Disulfiram
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
372. Which ones are used for long term alcohol withdrawal
(A) Acamprostate
(B) Disulfirm
(C) Naltrexone
(D) Monosulfiram
Answer: (A, B, D)
373. All are anti craving agent for alcohol except:
(A) Lorazepam
(B) Naltrexone
(C) Topiramate
(D) Acamprosate
Answer: (A)
374. The term “Dementia precox” was coined by
(A) Freud
(B) Bleuler
(C) Kraepelin
(D) Schneider
Answer: (C)
375. Biochemical abnormalities in schizophrenia pathology is
(A) In. ed. Dopamine
(B) In. ed. dopamine and in. ed. serotonin
(C) Dec. ed. Dopamine
(D) In. ed. Dopamine and Dec. Serotonin
Answer: (A, B)
376. Neurotransmitter related to schizophrenia pathology is
(A) Ach
(B) Dopamine
(C) Serotonin
(D) NA
Answer: (B, C, D)
377. Blood of 45 yrs old male shows ↑ This pt is most likely to show:
(A) PCC
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Depression
(D) Parkinson’s ds
Answer: (B)
378. Drugs abuse with symptoms similar like paranoid schizophrenia are seen in
(A) LSD
(B) Cannabis
(C) Heroin/Cocaine
(D) Amphetamine
Answer: (D)
379. One of the following drug abuse produce a psychosis closely resembling paranoid schizophrenia :
(A) Barbiturates
(B) Amphetamines
(C) Opioids
(D) Benzodiazepines
(E) L. Dopa
Answer: (B)
380. Maximum heritability is seen in
(A) Depression
(B) Mania
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Panic Disorder
Answer: (C)
381. Percentage of monozygotic twins with Schizophrenia is:
(A) 0.1%
(B) 1%
(C) 10%
(D) 50%
Answer: (D)
382. Incidence of schizophrenia in India :
(A) 1-5 per 1000
(B) 0.15-0.5 per 1000
(C) 5-10 per 1000
(D) 10-15 per 1000
Answer: (A)
383. The following is a Schneider’s first rank symptom :
(A) Persecutory delusion
(B) Voices commenting on actions
(C) Delusion of guilt
(D) Incoherence
Answer: (B)
384. Bleuler’s Critaria for Schizophrenia includes all except
(A) Ambivalence
(B) Loosening of association
(C) Automatism
(D) Inappropriate Affect
Answer: (C)
385. Bleur’s symptoms of schizophrenia include A/E :
(A) Autism
(B) Automatism
(C) Affect disturbance
(D) Loosening of association
(E) Ambivalence
Answer: (B)
386. First rank symptom of Schizophrenia are all except
(A) Depersonalization
(B) Running commentary
(C) Primary Delusion
(D) Somatic Passivity
Answer: (A)
387. Which is not classical 4 A’s of Schizophrenia
(A) Ambivalence
(B) Autism
(C) Affect
(D) Automatism
Answer: (D)
388. Schneider’s Ist rank symptoms seen in:
(A) Delusion
(B) Hallucination
(C) Schizoid personality
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (D)
389. Schneider’s first rank symptoms in schizophrenia include :
(A) Audible thoughts
(B) Somatic passivity
(C) Derealization
(D) Depersonalization
(E) Hallucinations
Answer: (A, B, E)
390. Ambivalence is most commonly associated with:
(A) Depression
(B) Generalized anxiety disorder
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) OCD
Answer: (C)
391. Somatic passivity is a feature of:
(A) Paranoid schizophrenia
(B) B. Hypochondriasis
(C) C. Depression
(D) D. Body dismorphic disorder
Answer: (A)
392. Schneiderian First rank symptoms are found in:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Organic delusional disorder
(C) Schizoaffective disorder
(D) Mood disorders
(E) Delusional disorder
Answer: (A)
393. The primary disturbance in schizophrenia is
(A) Hallucination
(B) Illusion
(C) Psychomotor Retardation
(D) Formal Thought Disorder
Answer: (D)
394. Delusions are characteristically seen in
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Delirium
(C) Dementia
(D) Depression
Answer: (A)
395. All the following are characteristic of schizophrenia except :
(A) Third person hallucination
(B) Inappropriate emotions
(C) Intermittent mood changes
(D) Formal thought disorder
Answer: (C)
396. Schizophrenia is characterized by A/E
(A) Delusion of reference
(B) Delusion of control
(C) Waxy flexibility
(D) Altered sensorium
Answer: (D)
397. Schizophrenia is characterized by A/E
(A) Delusion
(B) Auditory Hallucination
(C) Elation
(D) Catatonia
Answer: (C)
398. is characterized by:
(A) Formal through disorder
(B) Hallucination
(C) Delusion
(D) All
Answer: (D)
399. 18 years old male hears voices discussing him in 3rd person has
(A) Obsession
(B) Depression
(C) Mania
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (D)
400. 1st Symptom to go with treatment of schizophrenia
(A) Apathy
(B) Anhedonia
(C) Auditory hallucination
(D) Paucity of thoughts
Answer: (C)
401. Characteristic clinical manifestation of Schizophrenia is:
(A) Confusion
(B) Anxiety
(C) Auditory hallucinations
(D) Visual hallucinations
Answer: (C)
402. Which of the following hallucinations is pathognomonic of schizophrenia:
(A) Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient
405. Characteristic symptoms of catatonic schizophrenia is
(A) Stuptor
(B) Rigidity
(C) Negativism
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
406. Grimacing and Mannerism is:
(A) Simple Schizophrenia
(B) Catatonic Schizophrenia
(C) Hebephrenic Schizophrenia
(D) Phobia
Answer: (B)
407. All are features of catatonia except:
(A) Automatic obedience
(B) Cataplexy
(C) Catalepsy
(D) Negativism
Answer: (B)
408. Following are feature of catatonic schizophrenia, except:
(A) Mutism
(B) Echolalia
(C) Waxy flexibility
(D) Deep tendon reflexes are increased
Answer: (D)
409. Features like increased psychomotor activity, waxy flexinbility at time are seen classically in:
(A) Simple schizophrenia
(B) Hebephrenic schizophrenia
(C) Catatonic schizophrenia
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
410. In which type of Schizophrenia is grimacing a feature of:
(A) Juvenile
(B) Hebephrenic
(C) paranoid
(D) Catatonic
Answer: (D)
411. In catatonic schizophrenia, all are seen except:
(A) Mannerism
(B) Negativism
(C) Echolalia
(D) Flight of ideas
Answer: (D)
412. In catatonic schizophrenia which is not found:
(A) Waxy flexibility
(B) Automatic Obedience
(C) Somatic passivity
(D) Gegenhalten
(E) Hallucination
Answer: (D)
413. Early onset and bag prognosis is seen in
(A) Catatonic
(B) Hebephrenic
(C) Paranoid
(D) Schizo affective
Answer: (B)
414. Schizophrenia with late onset and good prognosis
(A) Simple SZP
(B) Hebephrenic
(C) Catatonic SZP
(D) Paranoid SZP
Answer: (C)
415. In Schizophrenia early onset with poor prognosis is seen in
(A) Simple
(B) Hebephrenic
(C) Catatonic
(D) Paranoid
Answer: (B)
416. Most common type of schizophrenia
(A) Simple
(B) Hebephrenic
(C) Catatonic
(D) Paranoid
Answer: (D)
417. Van Gogh Syndrome is seen in
(A) Mania
(B) Depression
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) OCD
Answer: (C)
418. Defect of conation is typically seen in:
(A) Simple schizophrenia
(B) Hebephrenia schizophrenia
(C) Catatonic schizophrenia
(D) Paranoid schizophrenia
Answer: (C)
419. Which subtypes of Schizophrenia carries the best prognosis:
(A) Undifferentiated
(B) Catatonic
(C) Paranoid
(D) Hebephrenic
Answer: (B, C)
420. Grossly disorganized, severe personality deterioration and worst prognosis is seen is:
(A) Hebephrenic
(B) Catatonic
(C) Simple
(D) Paranoid
Answer: (A)
421. All of the following are true about paranoid schizophrenia except:
(A) Most common type of schizophrenia
(B) Onset in 3rd / 4th decade
(C) Delusions of grandeur
(D) Rapid deterioration of personality
Answer: (D)
422. Waxy flexibility is characteristic of:
(A) Excitatory catatonia
(B) Stuporous catatonia
(C) OCD
(D) All
Answer: (B)
423. Which of the following is associated with bad prognosis :
(A) Catatonic schizophrenia
(B) Hebephrenic schizophrenia
(C) Paranoid schizophrenia
(D) Undifferentiated
Answer: (B)
424. Type two schizophrenia is characterized by all except
(A) Negative symptoms
(B) Poor response to TT
(C) Disorganized behaviour
(D) CT scan abnormal
Answer: (C)
425. Delusions of control, persecution and self reference are seen in:
(A) Paranoia
(B) Paranoid schizophrenia
(C) Mania
(D) OCD
Answer: (B)
426. All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia except:
(A) Late onset
(B) Married
(C) Negative symptoms
(D) Acute onset
Answer: (C)
427. Schizophrenia is associated ……..personalities :
(A) Atheletic
(B) Psthesis
(C) Asthenic
(D) All
Answer: (C)
428. Bad prognostic indicator of Schizophrenia is
(A) Late onset
(B) Family history of Schizophrenia
(C) Positive precipitating factors
(D) Prominent affective symptoms
Answer: (B)
429. Bad Prognostic factor for Schizophrenia is
(A) Late onset of disease
(B) Catatonia
(C) Presence of depression
(D) Absence of family history
Answer: (A)
430. Good prognosis is schizophrenia is indicated by :
(A) Soft neurological Signs
(B) Affective symptoms
(C) Emotional blun ting
(D) Insidious onset
Answer: (B)
431. Schizophrenia mostly occurs ins :
(A) Adolescents
(B) Children
(C) Middle age
(D) Old age
Answer: (A)
432. Which is more appropriate in a case of schizophrenia :
(A) Low socioeconomic group
(B) Seen in adolescents
(C) Common in primitive societies
(D) Affluent society influences the incidence
Answer: (B, A)
433. Which symptom of schizophrenia respond earliest to treatment
(A) Negatavism
(B) Paranoid delusions
(C) Auditory hallucinations
(D) Apathy
Answer: (C)
434.The following symptoms of schizophrenia responds quickly to treatment with medication
(A) Apathy
(B) Auditory Hallucinations
(C) Poverty of thought content
(D) Anhedonia
Answer: (B)
435. Schizophrenia with early onset and poor prognosis is
(A) Catatonic
(B) Hebephrenic
(C) Paranoid
(D) Schizoaffective
Answer: (B)
436. True about late onset schizophrenia :
(A) Onset after 45 yrs
(B) Onset between 25-30 yrs
(C) Prognosis is poor
(D) Olfactory hallucinations are common
Answer: (A)
437. Loss of insight is seen
(A) Hysteria
(B) Anxiety
(C) OCN
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (D)
438. True about schizophrenia
(A) Thought broadcasting
(B) Third person hallucination
(C) Makes violence
(D) Elated mood
(E) Takes good self care
Answer: (A, B, C)
439. A 23 year old engineering student is brought by his family to the hospital with history of gradual onset of suspiciousness, muttering and smiling without clear reason, decreased socialization, violent outbursts, and lack of interest in studies for 8j months. Mental status examination revealed a blunt affect, thought broadcast, as relatively preserve cognition, impaired judgment and insight. He is most likely to be suffering from
(A) Delusional disorder
(B) Depression
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Anxiety disorder
Answer: (C)
440. A patient is brought with 6 month history of odd behavior. There is history of a family member having disappeared some years He seems to be talking to himself and sometimes muttering to himself loudly. The likely diagnosis is
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Conversion disorder
(C) Major depression
(D) Delusion
Answer: (A)
441. A 60 year old male suffering from auditory hallucination says that people staying upwards are talking about him and conspiring against him. He dropped a police compliant against them but the allegations were proved to be wrong. The diagnosis is:
(A) Depression
(B) Dementia
(C) Delusional disorder
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (D)
442. Lallo 40 years has recently started writing books. But the matter in this book could not be understood by anybody since it contained words which were never there in any dictionary and the theme was very disjoint. Now a days he has become very shy and self absorbed. When he addresses people he speaks about metaphilosophical ideas. What is likely diagnosis
(A) Mania
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) A genius writer
(D) Delusional disorder
Answer: (B)
443. Kallu a 24 year old occasional alcoholic had got a change in behavior. He has become suspicious that people are trying to conspire against him, thought his father states that there is no reason for his fears. He is getting hallucinations of voices commenting on his actions what is most probable diagnosis.
(A) Delirium tremens
(B) Alcohol induced psychosis
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Delusional disorder
Answer: (C)
444. A patient complains that people living upstairs are always talking about him and conspires against him. His son complains about his weird behavior like keeping shoes in Fridge and wearing vest over shirt. The likely diagnosis is:
(A) Depression
(B) Delusional disorder
(C) Dementia
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (D)
445. A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of the fear of being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his classmates laugh at and talk about him. He is even scared of going out to the market. He is most likely suffering from :
(A) Anxiety neurosis
(B) Manic Depressive Psychosis
(C) Adjustment reaction
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (D)
446. A 70 year old male, Babulal was brought to the hospital with the history of auditory hallucinations with third person hallucinations. He has no history of similar problems previously. The diagnosis is most likely to be
(A) Dementia
(B) Delusional disorders
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Acute psychosis
Answer: (C)
447. A 60 year old man is brought to a psychiatrist with a 10 year history, that he suspects his neighbours and he feels that whenever he passes by they sneeze and plan against behind his back. He feels that his wife has be replaced by a double and cells police for help. He is quite well groomed alert, occasionally consumes alcohol, likely diagnosis is
(A) Paranoid personality
(B) Paranoid schizophrenia
(C) Alcohol withdrawal
(D) Conversion disorder
Answer: (B)
448. A patient of Schizophrenia on neurolepts, his psychotic symptoms gets relieved but developed sadness, talks less to others, remain on bed, all of following are likely causes except:
(A) Parkinsonism
(B) Major depression
(C) Negative symptoms are still persisting
(D) He is reacting to external stimuli
Answer: (D)
449. Drug treatment of schizophrenic are:
(A) Chlodiazepoxide
(B) Trifluperazine
(C) Clozapine
(D) Rivastigmine
(E) Haloperidol
Answer: (B, C, E)
450. Drugs used in schizophrenia include :
(A) Chlorpromazine
(B) Haloperidol
(C) Olanzapine
(D) Imipramine
(E) Risperidone
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
451. Drug of therapeutic benefits in Schizophrenia is
(A) Lithium
(B) Doxepin
(C) Imipramine
(D) Fluphenazine
Answer: (D)
452. Which of the following is the most common cause of premature death in schizophrenia :
(A) Homicide
(B) Suicide
(C) Toxicity of antipsychotic drug
(D) Hospital acquired infection
Answer: (B)
453. Alcoholic Paranoia is associated with:
(A) Fixed delusions
(B) Hallucinations
(C) Drowsiness
(D) Impulse Agitation
Answer: (A)
454. A 30 year old man since 2 months suspects that his wife is having an affair with his boss. He thinks his friend is also involved from abroad and is providing technology support. He thinks people talk ill about him. His friends tried to convince him but he is not convinced at all. Otherwise he is normal, he doesn’t have any thought disorder or any other inappropriate behavior. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Paranoid Personality disorder
(B) Persistent delusion disorder
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Acute and Transient psychosis
Answer: (B)
455. Which of the following feature is included in psychosis:
(A) Panic attack
(B) Delusion
(C) Hallucination
(D) Hypochondriasis
(E) Emotional withdrawal
Answer: (B, C)
456. A 30 year old unmarried woman of average socio-economic background believes that her boss s in secretly love with her. She rings him up at odd hours and writes love letter to him despite his serous warning not to do so. She holds this belief despite contradiction from family members & his denial. However she is able to manage her daily activities before. She is most likely to be suffering from :
(A) Depression
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Delusional disorder
(D) No psychatric ailment
Answer: (C)
457. A 20 year old boy c/o hearing of voices, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. When asked to his family, the say that he has been muttering to self and gesticulating. There is no h/o of psychiatric illness. Likely diagnosis is:
(A) Dementia
(B) Acute psychosis
(C) Delirium
(D) Delusional disorder
Answer: (B)
458. Ramu, a 22 year old single unmarried man is suffering from sudden onset of 3rd person hallucination for the past 2 weeks. He is suspicious of his family members and had decreased sleep and appetite. The diagnosis is:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Acute Psychosis
(C) Acute mania
(D) Acute delirium
Answer: (B)
459. A patient came with complaints of having a deformed nose and also complained that nobody takes him seriously because of the deformity of his nose. He has visited several cosmetic surgeons but they have sent him back saying that there is nothing wrong with his nose. He is probably suffering from
(A) Hypochondriasis
(B) Somatization
(C) Delusional Disorder
(D) OCD
Answer: (C)
460. A person of 35 years is having firm belief about infidelity involving the spouse. And he never allow her to go out of home alone. He often locks his house, while going office. Inspite of all this he is persistently suspicious about her character. The probable diagnosis is-
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Delusional parasitosis
(C) Clerambault’s syndrome
(D) Othello syndrome
Answer: (D)
461. Delusion of doubles is found in
(A) Schizo affective Disorder
(B) Capgras Syndrome
(C) Reactive Psychosis
(D) Paranoid Schizophrenia
Answer: (B)
462. Delusion that someone from high socio economic status is loving you is in:
(A) Othello syndrome
(B) Capgras syndrome
(C) De Clerambault syndrome
(D) Franklin syndrome
Answer: (C)
463. The content of thought in delusional paranomia is:
(A) Erotic
(B) Infedelity
(C) Love
(D) Foul odour
Answer: (D)
464. Infedelity & jealousy involving souse is the thought content of which disorder:
(A) Capgras syndrome
(B) Othello syndrome
(C) Hypochondrial paranomia
(D) Declerambault’s syndrome
Answer: (B)
465. The characteristic symptom of organic psychosis is
(A) Hallucination
(B) Depression
(C) Transient Delusion
(D) Anxiety
Answer: (C)
466. Characteristic Symptom in induced psychotic disorder is
(A) Insomnia
(B) Profound mood disturbance
(C) Accepting delusions of other person
(D) Suicidal ideation
Answer: (C)
467. Folie a deux is seen in
(A) Hysteria
(B) Paranoid
(C) OCD
(D) Neurasthenia
Answer: (B)
468. A patient presents with one month history of abnormal hallucination and delusion. The patient lacks insight to his changed behavior. Likely diagnosis is
(A) Paronia
(B) Depression
(C) Psychosis
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (C)
469. A man hits his neighbor next day he feels that police is behind him and his brain is being controlled by radio waves by his neighbor. The probable diagnosis is:
(A) Personality disorder
(B) Passivity feeling
(C) Delusion of persecution
(D) Organic brain syndrome
Answer: (C)
470. Basanti 27 years old female thinks her nose is ugly. Her idea is fixed and not shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home she hides her face. She visits a surgeon for plastic surgery. Next step would be
(A) Investigate & then operate
(B) Reassure the patient
(C) Immediate operation
(D) Refer to psychiatrist
Answer: (D)
471. A 41 year old woman working as an Executive Director is convinced that the management has denied her promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and have forged her signature on sensitive documents so as to convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and request for security. Despite all this she attends to her work and manages the household. She is suffering from :
(A) Paranoid Schizophrenia
(B) Late onset Psychosis
(C) Persistent Delusional Disorder
(D) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Answer: (C)
472. A 30 year old unmarried woman form a low socio-economic status family believes that a rich boy staying in her neighborhood is in deep love with her. The boy clearly denies his love towards this lady. Still the lady insists that his denial is a secret affirmationof his love towards. her. She makes desperate4 attempts to meet the boy despite resistance from her family She also develops sadness at times when her effort to meet the boy does not materialize. She is able to maintain her daily routine. She however, remains preoccupied with the thoughts of this boy. She is likely to be suffering from:
(A) Delusional disorder
(B) Depression
(C) Mania
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (A)
473. A 25 year old housewife came to the Psychiatry Out Patient Department (OPD) complaining that her nose was longer than usual. She felt that her husband did not like her because of the deformity and had developed relationship with the neighbouring girl. Further she complained that people made fun of her. It was not possible to convince her that there was no deformity. Her symptoms include
(A) Delusion
(B) Depersonalization
(C) Depression
(D) Hallucination
Answer: (A)
474. Which of the following features is not included in psychosis
(A) Panic attack
(B) Delusion
(C) Hallucination
(D) Hypochondriasis
Answer: (A)
475. True about Major depressive disorder:
(A) Abnormally diminished activity in prefrontal cortex
(B) Lesion of corticospinal tract
(C) Monoaminergic system disturbances
(D) Genetic predisposition is present
Answer: (A, C, D)
476.Most common psychiatry disorder is
(A) Dementia
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Depression
(D) Paronia
Answer: (C)
477. Most common age for depression is
(A) Middle age men
(B) Middle age female
(C) Young girl
(D) Children
Answer: (B)
478. The Psychological disorder most commonly associated with myxedema
(A) Mania
(B) Depression
(C) Phobia
(D) Paronia
Answer: (B)
479. Most common type of post puerperal psychosis is:
(A) Depression
(B) Anxiety
(C) Maia
(D) Suicide
Answer: (A)
480. Chromosome associated with bipolar disease-
(A) Chromosome 16
(B) Chromosome 13
(C) Chromosome 18
(D) Chromosome 11
(E) Chromosome 23
Answer: (C, B)
481. Neurotransmittors involved in depression are
(A) GABA and Dopamine
(B) Serotonin and Norepineprine
(C) Serotonin and Dopamine
(D) Norepinephrine and GABA
Answer: (B)
482. True about major depressive disorder
(A) Commonly seen in female
(B) Recovery is complete after treatment
(C) Associated with hypothyroidism
(D) Family H/O major depression
Answer: (A, C, D)
483. Otto Veraguth sign is found in
(A) Mania
(B) Anxiety
(C) OCD
(D) Depression
Answer: (D)
484. Delusion of Nihilism and Early morning insomnia are characteristic features of
(A) Mania
(B) Major depression
(C) Personality disorder
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (B)
485. “Nihilistic delusions” are seen in:
(A) Endogenous depression
(B) Double depression
(C) Depression in invoiutional stage
(D) Cyclothymia
(E) Dysthymia
Answer: (A, B)
486. Endogenous Depression is characterized by A/E
(A) Loss of Self esteem
(B) Guilt psychosis
(C) Third person hallucination
(D) Paranoid feeling
Answer: (C)
487. True about psychotic feature is depression –
(A) Found in severe depression
(B) Found in moderate depression
(C) Mood incongruent psychotic feature
(D) Cyclothermia
(E) Dysthymia
Answer: (A, C)
488. Suicide risk is common with which type of depression :
(A) Reactive depression
(B) Endogenous depression
(C) Childhood depression
(D) Depression in involution
Answer: (B, D)
489. Suicidal tendencies are most common in:
(A) Involutional depression
(B) Reactive depression
(C) Psychotic depression
(D) Childhood depression
Answer: (D)
490. Most common mental disorder as a cause of suicide
(A) Mania
(B) Depression
(C) Alcohol dependence
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (B)
491. Suicidal tendencies seen in:
(A) Depression
(B) Posttraumatic stress disorder
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Substances abuse
(E) Anxiety
Answer: (A, C, D)
492. A 41 year old woman presented with a history of aches and pains all over the body and generalized weakness for four years. She cannot sleep because of the illness and has lost her appetite as well. She has lack of interest in work and doesn’t like to meet friends are relatives. She denies feelings of sadness. Her most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Somatoform pain disorder
(B) Major depression
(C) Somatization disorder
(D) Dissociative
Answer: (B)
493. A 34 year old housewife reports a three month history f feeling low, lack of interest in activities, lethargy, multiple body-aches, ideas of worthlessness, decreased appetite and disturbed sleep with early morning awakening. he is likely to benefit form:
(A) Anti-psychotics
(B) Anti-depressants
(C) Anxiolytics
(D) Hypno-sedatives
Answer: (B)
494. An 18 year old student complains of lack of interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his parents and has frequent headaches. The most appropriate clinical approach would be:
(A) Leave him as normal adolescent problem.
(B) Rule out depression.
(C) Rule out migraine.
(D) Rule out an oppositional defiant disorder.
Answer: (B)
495. Intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of:
(A) Involutional melancholia
(B) Atypical depression
(C) Somatized depression
(D) Depressive stupor
Answer: (A)
496. Which I s not a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
(A) Paroxetine
(B) Mirtazapine
(C) Escitalopram
(D) Venlafaxine
Answer: (A)
497. A 50 year old man has presented with pain in back, lack of interest in recreational activities, low mood, lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite for two months. There was no history suggestive of delusions or hallucinations. He did not suffer from any chronic medical illness. There was no family history of psychiatric illness. Routine investigations including haemogram, renal function tests, liver function tests, electrocardiogram did not reveal any abnormality. This patient should be treated with:
(A) Haloparidol
(B) Sertraline
(C) Alprazolam
(D) Olanzapine
Answer: (B)
498. A middle aged man presented with pain in back, lack of interest in recreational activities, low mood, lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite for two months. There was no history suggestive of delusions of hallucinations. He did not suffer from any chronic medical illness. There was no family history of psychiatric illness.
Routine investigations including haemogram, renal function tests, liver function tests electrocardiogram did not reveal any abnormality. This patient should be treated with:
(A) Haloperidol
(B) Sertraline
(C) Alprazolam
(D) Olanzapine
Answer: (B)
499. Drug of choice in depression in old person is
(A) Fluoxetine
(B) Buspirone
(C) Amitryptyline
(D) Imipramine
Answer: (A)
500. A 40 yr old female patient present with history of depressed mood, loos of appetite insomnia and no interest in surroundings for the past 1 yr. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 yr back. Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient:
(A) No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss
(B) SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs
(C) Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the drugs
(D) Combination therapy of 2 antidepressant drugs
Answer: (C)
501. Drugs used for recurrant depressive episode :
(A) Imipramine
(B) Carbazepine
(C) Fluoxetine
(D) Na valproate
Answer: (A, C)
502. Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) which is approved by USFDA for the treatment of:
(A) Resistant schizophrenia
(B) Obsessive compulsive disorder
(C) Acute psychosis
(D) Depressive disorder
Answer: (D)
503. A 60 year male is brought by his wife. He thinks that he had committed sins all through his life. He is very much depressed and has considered committing suicide but has not through hot do go about it. He had also attached sessions with a spiritual guru. He is not convinced by his wife that he has lead a pious life. He does not want to hear anything on the contrary. How will you treat him?
(A) Antipsychotic + Anti depressant
(B) Antidepressant with congnitivebehavioural therapy
(C) Guidance &recounselling with guru + Anti depressant
(D) Anti depressant alone
Answer: (A)
504. Rathi, 26 years old female diagnosed to be suffering from depression. Now for the past 2 days had suicidal tendency thought & ideas. The best treatment is
(A) Amitryptiline
(B) Selegidine
(C) Haloperidol + CPZ
(D) ECT
Answer: (D)
505. A patient comes in stupor condition patient’s parents give history of being continually sad and suicidal attempts not eating and sleeping most of the time. The treatment is
(A) ECT
(B) Antidepressant
(C) Antipsychotic
(D) Sedatives
Answer: (A)
506. Treatment of choice in depression with suicidal tendencies
(A) TC
(B) MAO-Inhibitors
(C) Fluoxetine + TCA + MAO-Inhibitor
(D) Electro convulsive therapy
Answer: (D)
507. The neurotransmitter that is associated with suicidal tendencies is:
(A) Serotonin
(B) GABA
(C) Nor-epinephrine
(D) Acetylcholine
Answer: (A)
508. Suicidal tendency seen in:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) PTSD
(C) Depression
(D) OCD
(E) Anxiety disorder
Answer: (C, A)
509. A patient presents to the emergency department with self harm and indicates suicidal intent. Which of the following conditions does not warrant an immediate specialist assessment
(A) Formal thought disorder
(B) Acute Alcohol intoxication
(C) Chronic Severe physical illness
(D) Social isolation
Answer: (B)
510. A 50 year old male presents with a 3 year history of irritability, low mod, lack of interest in Surroundings and general dissatisfaction with everything. There is no significant disruption in his sleep or appetite. He is likely to be suffering from:
(A) Major depression
(B) No psychiatric disorder
(C) Dysthymia
(D) Chronic fatigue syndrome
Answer: (C)
511. The clinical features of mania include :
(A) Anhedonia
(B) Elated mood
(C) Avolition
(D) Delusion of grandiosity
(E) Distractibility
Answer: (B, D, E)
512. Which of the following is not seen in mania
(A) Hypersexuality
(B) Hyperactivity
(C) Decreased sleep
(D) Clouding of consciousness
Answer: (D)
513. Not a feature of mania
(A) Elation
(B) Disorientation
(C) Pressure of speech
(D) Delusion of grandeur
Answer: (B)
514. Flight of idea is seen in
(A) Mania
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Depression
(D) Delirium
(E) Neurosis
Answer: (A)
515. Kallu a 22 years old male suffers from decreased sleep, increased sexual activity, excitement and spending excessive money for last 8 days. The diagnosis is:
(A) Confusion
(B) Disorientation
(C) Hyperactivity
(D) Loss of memory
Answer: (C)
516. A 20-year old man has presented with increased alcohol consumption and sexual indulgence, irritability, lack of sleep, and not feeling fatigued even on prolonged periods of activity. All these changes have seen present for 3 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Alcohol dependence
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Mania
(D) Impulsive control disorder
Answer: (C)
517. True about mania:
(A) Anhedonia
(B) Elated mood
(C) Avolition
(D) Delusion of grandiosity
(E) Distractability
Answer: (B, D, E)
518. Mania is characterized by:
(A) Paranoid delusion
(B) Loss of orientation
(C) High self esteem
(D) Loss of insight
Answer: (C, D)
519. A 67 – year old lady is brought in by her 6 children saying that she has gone senile. Six months after he husband’s death she has become more religious, spiritual and gives lot of money in donation. She is occupied in too many activities and sleeps less. She now believes that she has a goal to change the society. She does not like being brought to the hospital and is argumentative on being questioned on her doings. The diagnosis is
(A) Acute manic excitement
(B) Delusion
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Depression
Answer: (A)
520. Lithium is not used in treatment of which of the following?
(A) Major depression
(B) Vascular headache
(C) Neutropenia
(D) Generalized Anxiety disorder
Answer: (D)
521. Drug of choice for prophylaxis of Mania is
(A) Diazepam
(B) Lithium
(C) Haloperidol
(D) Fluoxetin
Answer: (B)
522. All of the following are included in diagnosis of Bipolar disorder except:
(A) Mania alone
(B) Depression alone
(C) Mania and depression
(D) Mania and anxiety
Answer: (B)
523. Bipolar type II disorder includes combination of
(A) Hypomania & dysthymia
(B) Hypomania &subsyndromal depression
(C) Hypomania & depression
(D) Mania &sybsyndromal depression
Answer: (C)
524. The period of normalsy is seen between two psychosis. the diagnosis is:
(A) Cyclothymic disorder
(B) Dysthemia
(C) Single manic episode
(D) Major depression & hypomania
Answer: (D)
525. True about bipolar disorder type II is-
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Manic Depressive Psyhosis (MDP
(C) Alcoholism
(D) Depression
Answer: (B)
526. True about bipolar disorder type II is –
(A) Recurrent depression
(B) Recurrent mania
(C) Repetitive depression & mania
(D) Repetitive mania & hypomania
(E) Repetitive depression & hypomania
Answer: (E)
527. BPAD includes :
(A) Recurrent depressive episodes
(B) Recurrent manic episodes
(C) Depressive episodes and hypomanic episodes
(D) Manic episodes and dysthymia
(E) Manic episodes and depressive episodes
Answer: (B, C)
528. Which of the following is/are included in bipolar disease:
(A) Hypomania
(B) Cyclothymia
(C) Paranoid disorder
(D) Hyperthymia
(E) Kleptomania
Answer: (A, B, C)
529. Normal Lithium therapeutic level is
(A) 0.5-0.7 mEq/L
(B) 0.7-1.1 mEq/L
(C) 0.1-0.3 mEq/L
(D) 1.5-2 mEq/L
(E) 2.5-3 mEq/L
Answer: (B)
530. True about Lithium treatment in mania:
(A) Commonest side effect is tremor
(B) Toxic level is <1.5 mg/dl serum level
(C) Amiloride is DOC for Li induced diabetes insipidus
(D) Lithium is 90% protein bound
(E) Tremor is treated with propanolol
Answer: (A, C, E)
531. Drug not used in prophylaxis of MDP:
(A) Haloperidol/CP2
(B) Lithium
(C) Carbamazepine
(D) Valporate
Answer: (A)
532. For maintenance of Manic Depressive Psychosis (MDP) following drug is given:
(A) Haloperidol
(B) Ketamine
(C) Carbamazepine
(D) Chlorpromazine
Answer: (C)
533. Drugs used for prophylaxis in BPD:
(A) Chlorpromazine
(B) Lithium
(C) Carbamazepine
(D) Zolpidem
(E) Sodium valproate
Answer: (B, C, E)
534. According to USFDA, not given in prophylaxis of BPD:
(A) Lithium
(B) Olanzapine
(C) Valproate
(D) Lamotrigine
(E) Carbamazepine
Answer: (C, E)
535. Drug used for maintance for Bipolar disorder:
(A) Li
(B) Venlaflaxine
(C) Imipramine
(D) Carbamazepine
(E) Divalproex
Answer: (A, D, E)
536. In Prophylaxic of Manic Depressive Psychosis drug used is:
(A) Lithium carbonate
(B) Carbamazepine
(C) Valproate
(D) Haloperidol
Answer: (A)
537. Lithium is used in prophylaxis of:
(A) Recurrent Phobia
(B) Alcohol dependence
(C) Paranoid Schizophrenia
(D) Recurrent Manic Depressive Attacks
Answer: (D)
538. Prophylactic blood level of Li is:
(A) 0.3 mEq/L
(B) 0.6 mEq/L
(C) 0.9 mEq/L
(D) 1.2 mEq/L
(E) 1.5 mEq/L
Answer: (B, C, D)
539. Prophylactic maintenance serum level of lithium is
(A) 0.2 – 0.8 meq/L
(B) 0.7 – 1.2 meq/L
(C) 1.2 – 2.0 meq/L
(D) 2.0 – 2.5 meq/L
Answer: (B)
540. Lithium levels → Normal therapeutic
(A) 0.5 to 0.7 mEq/lit
(B) 0.7 to 1.1 mEq/lit
(C) 0.1 to 0.3 mEq/lit
(D) 1.5 to 2 mEq/lit
(E) 2.5 to 3 mEq/lit
Answer: (B)
541. Congenital Anomaly produced by lithium therapy is
(A) Limb shortening
(B) Anencephaly
(C) Heart Block
(D) Renal Agenesis
Answer: (C)
542. A patient is brought to the casualty in the state of altered sensorium. He was on Lithium treatment for affective disorder and has suffered through an attack of epileptic fits. on examination he has worsening tremors, increased DTR’s and incontinence of urine. He has also undergone and episode of severe gastroenteritis 2 days ago. The serum Lithium was found to be 1.95 meq/Lit. The probable cause for his present state is:
(A) Lithium toxicity
(B) Dehydration
(C) Manic Episode
(D) Depressive Stupor
Answer: (A)
543. Li is best used in:
(A) MDP – Bipolar
(B) MDP – Unipolar
(C) MDP – Rapid cycles
(D) Depression
Answer: (A)
544. Lithium is treatment of choice for
(A) Unipolar MDP prophylaxis
(B) Bipolar MDP prophylaxis
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Acute mania
Answer: (B)
545. Disulfiram acts by
(A) Inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase
(B) Inhibiting Aldehyde dehydrogenase
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer: (B)
546. Treatment of Bipolar disorder includes:
(A) Anti-depressant drugs
(B) Aversion therapy
(C) ECT
(D) Lithium carbonate
Answer: (A, C, D)
547. Drug(s) used in bipolar disorder is/are:
(A) LiCO3
(B) Na valproate
(C) Phenytoin
(D) Lamotigene
(E) Carbamazepine
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
548. Not an indication for use of anticonvulsants:
(A) Chronic pain
(B) Bipolar Disorder
(C) Anxiety disorder
(D) Migraine prophylaxis
(E) Diabetic neuropathy
Answer: (E)
549. A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of:
(A) Antipsychotic and antidepressants
(B) Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
(C) Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers
(D) Antidepressants and benzodiazepines
Answer: (B)
550. DOC for rapid cycling MDP
(A) Li
(B) Valproate
(C) Calcium Channel Blocker
(D) Carbamazepine
Answer: (B, D)
551. Drug of choice for rapid cycling MDP is
(A) Lithium
(B) Carbamazepine
(C) sodiumvalporate
(D) Haloperidol
Answer: (C)
552. A man coming from mountain whose wife died 6 months prior says that his wife appeared to him and asked him to join her. The diagnosis is
(A) Normal grief
(B) Grief psychosis
(C) Berevement reaction
(D) Supernatural phenomenon
Answer: (B)
553. An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly of Myocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone for almost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About a week after the death she heard his voice clearly talking to her as he would in a routine manner from the next room. She went to check but saw nothing. Subsequently she often heard his voice conversing with her and she would also discuss her daily matters with him. This however, provoked anxiety and sadness of mood when she was preoccupied with his thought. She should be treated with:
(A) Clomipramine
(B) Alprazolam
(C) Electroconvulsive therapy
(D) Haloperidol
Answer: (D)
554. GAS (General Adaptation Syndrome) I seen in:
(A) Panic attacks
(B) Depression
(C) Anxiety
(D) Stressfull situations
Answer: (D)
555. GAS relates to:
(A) How we achieve homeostasis
(B) How well we adapt to new situations
(C) Pattern followed by physiological response to stress
(D) Path of stress ANS (autonomic nervous system) when we are aroused by a stressful situation
Answer: (D)
556. A 25 year old lady presented with sadness, palpitation, loss of appetite and insomnia. There is not complaint of hopelessness, suicidal thoughts and there is not past history of any precipitating event. She is remarkably well in other areas of life. She is doing her office job normally and her social life is also normal. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?
(A) GAD
(B) Mixed anxiety depression
(C) Adjustment disorder
(D) Mild depressive episode
Answer: (A)
557. Panic attack is associated with a disturbance in all of the following neurotransmitters except:
(A) Serotonin
(B) GABA
(C) Glutamate
(D) Dopamine, CCK, pentagastrin
Answer: (C)
558. A 30 year old lady c/o sudden onset breathlessness, anxiety, palpitation & feeling of impending doom. Physical examination is normal. What is the diagnosis:
(A) Panic attack
(B) Anxiety disorder
(C) Conversion disorder
(D) Acute psychosis
Answer: (A)
559. Lack of insight is not a feature of:
(A) Panic disorder
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Mania
(D) Reactive Psychosis
Answer: (A)
560. Baby 20 year old female complains of sudden onset palpitation and apprehension. She is sweating for last 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis is
(A) Hysteria
(B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
(C) Cystic fibrosis
(D) Pannic Attack
Answer: (D)
561. A patient presented in casualty with a history of sudden palpitation, sensation of impending doom and constriction in his chest. This lasted for about 10-15 minutes after which he became all right. The diagnosis is likely to be:
(A) Phobia
(B) Personality disorder
(C) Generalized Anxiety disorder
(D) Pannic attack
Answer: (D)
562. Most appropriate treatment of panic disorder is
(A) Buspirone + Benzodiazepine
(B) Benzodiazepine + Supprotive therapy
(C) Short term benzodiazepine +SSRI + CBT
(D) Long term BDZ + Venalafexine
Answer: (C)
563. Drugs used in Generalized anxiety disorder
(A) Alprazolam
(B) Paroxetine
(C) Venlafaxine
(D) Burpirone
(E) Carbamazepine
Answer: (A, D, B, C)
564. Differential diagnosis of panic disorder
(A) Pheochromocytoma
(B) Myocardial infarction
(C) Mitral valve prolapse
(D) Depression
(E) Carcinoid syndrome
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
565. Male with symptoms mimicking heart disease with normal ECG & X-Ray, the diagnosis is
(A) Angina pectoris
(B) Panic attack
(C) ANS instability
(D) Vasovagal attack
Answer: (B)
566. Drug of choice for Panic Disorder
(A) Fluoxetine
(B) Lithium
(C) Diazepam
(D) Chlorpramazine
Answer: (A)
567. Phobia is
(A) Psychosis
(B) Anxiety
(C) Fear of animal
(D) Neurosis
Answer: (D)
568. Agoraphobia is:
(A) Getting caught in places from where escape would be difficult
(B) Fear of heights
(C) Fear of animals
(D) Fear of closed spaces
Answer: (A)
569. Thanatophobia is fear of
(A) Closed spaces
(B) Flights
(C) High places
(D) Death
Answer: (D)
570. Claustrophobia meAnswer:
(A) Fear of heights
(B) Fear of lizards
(C) Fear of closed spaces
(D) Fear of open spaces
Answer: (C)
571. True about social phobia is:
(A) Fear of closed spaces
(B) Irrational fear of situation
(C) Irrational fear of activities
(D) Irrational fear of specified objects
Answer: (C)
572. Acrophobia is
(A) Getting caught in places from where escape would be difficult
(B) Fear of heights
(C) Fear of animals
(D) Fear of closed spaces
Answer: (B)
573. Agoraphobia is:
(A) Fear of open spaces
(B) Fear of closed spaces
(C) Fear of heights
(D) Fear of crowded places
Answer: (A, D)
574. A middle aged person reported to Psychiatric OPD with the complaints of fear of leaving home, fear of travelling alone and fear of being in a crowd. He develops marked anxiety with palpitations and swelling if he is in these situations. He often avoids public transport to go his place of work. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Generalized anxiety disorder
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Personality disorder
(D) Agorphobia
Answer: (D)
575. A fifty year old male feels uncomfortable in using lift, being in crowded places and traveling. The most appropriate line of treatment is:
(A) Counseling
(B) Relaxation therapy
(C) Exposure and response prevention
(D) Convert sensitization
Answer: (C)
576. Definitive treatment of all types of phobias
(A) Behaviour therapy
(B) Social therapy
(C) Avoidance
(D) Drug therapy
Answer: (A)
577. Treatment of Choice in Phobic disorder
(A) Psychotherapy
(B) Benzodiazepines
(C) Behaviour Therapy
(D) 5-HT reuptake inhibitor
Answer: (C)
578. Treatment of choice for phobic disorder is
(A) Psychotherapy
(B) Behaviour Therapy
(C) SSRI
(D) Benzodiazepam
Answer: (B)
579. Agoraphobia treated with
(A) Systemic desensitization
(B) Psychodynamic therapy
(C) Exposure therapy
(D) Relaxation therapy
(E) Behaviour therapy
Answer: (A, B, C, D, E)
580. A 35 year old man with an obsessive compulsive personality disorder is likely to exhibit all of the following features, except:
(A) Perfectionism interfering with performance
(B) Compulsive checking behaviour
(C) Preoccupation with rule
(D) Indecisiveness
Answer: (D)
581. The features of OCD are A/E
(A) Irrationale thought
(B) Egosyntonic
(C) Resisting the idea
(D) Peristence of idea
Answer: (B)
582. Abnormal thought possession is found in
(A) Organic Brain syndrome
(B) Hysteria
(C) Obsessive compulsive disorder
(D) Neuroasthenia
Answer: (C)
583. A 15 year old boy feels that the dirt has hung onto him whenever he passes through the dirty street. This repetitive thought causes much distress and anxiety. He knows that there is actually no such thing after he has cleaned once but he is not satisfied and is compelled to think so. This has led to social withdrawal. He spends much of his time thinking about the dirt and contamination. This has affected his studies also. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Obsessive compulsive disorder
(B) Conduct disorder
(C) Agoraphobia
(D) Adjustment disorder
Answer: (A)
584. Defence mechanism in OCD
(A) Repression
(B) Undoing
(C) Rationalization
(D) Sublimate
(E) Displacement
Answer: (A, B, E)
585. True statements about obsession
(A) It is the repetitive thoughts or images
(B) The patient thought that the images or thoughts are imposed by other’s
(C) Content about sex or God.
(D) The patient gets disturbed when unable to remove the ideas or thoughts
Answer: (A, D)
586. Features of obsessive-compulsive neurosis are
(A) Repetitiveness
(B) Irresistibility
(C) Unpleasantness
(D) Poor personal care
Answer: (A, B, C)
587. True about obsessive compulsive disorder is/are :
(A) Irresistible desire to do a thing repeatedly
(B) Is a dissociative disorder
(C) Denial is the defense mechanism against O.C.D
(D) Patient is conscious about the disorder
(E) Can cause severe distress
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
588. Which of the following statements differentiates the obsessional idea from delusions
(A) The idea is not a conventional belief
(B) The idea is held inspite of contrary evidence
(C) The idea is regarded as senseless by patient
(D) The idea is held on inadequate ground
Answer: (C)
589. A person going to temple gets irresistible sense of idea to abuse. God which can’t be resisted. Likely diagnosis is
(A) Mania
(B) Obscessive-Compulsive disorder
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Delusion
Answer: (B)
590. Transmitters mainly involve in OCN is
(A) GABA
(B) NE
(C) Dopamine
(D) Serotonin
Answer: (D)
591. An obsessive compulsive neurosis patient is likely to develop
(A) Hallucination
(B) Depression
(C) Delusion
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (B)
592. Obsessive Compulsive Neurosis is likely to progress into
(A) Paronia
(B) Edogenous Depression
(C) Secondary Depression
(D) Dissociation
Answer: (C)
593. True about obsession – compulsive disorder are A/E
(A) Ego-alien
(B) Patient tries to resist against
(C) Ego syntonic
(D) Insight is present
Answer: (C)
594. Treatment of obscessive-compulsive disorder includes:
(A) Exposure & response prevention
(B) Flooding
(C) Psychoanalytic therapy
(D) Supportive psychotherapy involving family members
(E) Systemic desensitization
Answer: (ALL)
595. Treatment of choice for OCD :
(A) Behavior therapy
(B) Drug therapy
(C) Psychosurgery
(D) Combination of behavior and drug therapy
Answer: (D)
596. In obsessive – compulsive disorder, which is not given :
(A) Cloimipramine
(B) Haloperidol
(C) Sertaline
(D) Cabamazepine
Answer: (B)
597. In OCD treatment is based on:
(A) Serotonergic receptor
(B) Dopaminergic receptor
(C) NA receptor
(D) Glutamate receptor
Answer: (A)
598. For severe intractable obsessional neurosis the psychosurgery of choice is
(A) Bifrontaltractotomy
(B) Cingulotomy
(C) Amygdalotomy
(D) Temporal lobe lesion
Answer: (B)
599. Drug of choice for Obscssive Compulsive Disorder
(A) Imipramine
(B) Flouxetine
(C) Nor tryptiline
(D) Clomipramine
Answer: (B)
600. Drug of choice for Obscessive Compulsive Neurosis is
(A) Imipramine
(B) CPZ
(C) Carbamazapine
(D) Clomipramine
Answer: (D)
601. All drugs are used for treatment of COD except:
(A) Carbamazapine
(B) Lithium
(C) Fluoxetine
(D) Diazepam
Answer: (D)
602. All are treatment modalities of OCD except:
(A) Exposure & response prevention
(B) Psychoanalytic psychotherapy
(C) Clomipramine
(D) MAO inhibitors
Answer: (D)
603. The drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder
(A) Imipramine
(B) Fluoxetine
(C) Chlopromazine
(D) Benzodiazepine
Answer: (B)
604. A 35 years female has been diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder and she washes her hands many times a day. Which would be the best CBT technique for her treatment?
(A) Thought stopping
(B) Response prevention
(C) Relaxation
(D) Exposure
Answer: (B)
605. Three years back a woman suffered during an earthquake and she was successfully saved. After recovery she has nightmares about the episode and she also gets up in the night and feels terrified. The most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Major depression
(B) Post-traumatic stress disorder
(C) Mania
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (B)
606. A lady while driving a car meet with an accident. She was admitte3d in an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged, she often gets up in night and feels terrified and has fear to sit in car again. The diagnosis is:
(A) Pannic Attack
(B) Phobia
(C) Conversion Disorder
(D) Post Traumatic stress Disorder
Answer: (D)
607. A lady while driving a car meets with an accident. She was admitted in an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged she often gets up in night and feels terrified. She is a afraid to sit in a car again. The diagnosis is
(A) Anxiety disorder
(B) Phobia
(C) Conversion disorder
(D) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
Answer: (D)
608. Post Traumatic stress syndrome is due to
(A) Head Injury
(B) CVD
(C) Minor Stress
(D) Major Life threatening events
Answer: (D)
609. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
(A) Flashbacks
(B) Hyperarousal
(C) Hallucinations
(D) Emotional numbing
Answer: (D)
610. Post traumatic stress-disorder is associated with all except:
(A) Flash back
(B) Severe traumatic injury
(C) Re-experiencing stressful events
(D) Anhedonia
(E) It doesn’t develop after 6 months of stress
Answer: (E)
611. All are true for PTSD except
(A) Hippocampus & amygdala
(B) Anhedonia
(C) Depression and quilt
(D) Insomnia & poor concentration
(E) Anxiolytic is treatment of choice
Answer: (E)
612. True for PTSD are all except
(A) Past h/o psychiatric illness
(B) Women are more predisposed
(C) Occur in intelectuals
(D) Numbness
(E) Detachment
Answer: (C)
613. True about posttraumatic stress disorder:
(A) Recall of traumatic events
(B) Associated with major trauma like pelvic #
(C) Treatment is ECT
(D) Disturbed sleep
Answer: (A, B, D)
614. Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is differentiated from all other disorders by:
(A) Nightmares about events
(B) Autonomic arousal and anxiety
(C) Recall of events and avoidance of similar experiences in PTSD
(D) Depression
Answer: (C)
615. SSRI is first line treatment for :
(A) OCD
(B) Panic disorder
(C) Social phobia
(D) Post traumatic stress disorder
(E) Adjustment disorder
Answer: (A, B, C, D)
616. MS. B, a 27 year old nurse had extracurricular interest in trekking and painting. She broke up relationship with her boy friend. Two months later she lost interest in her hobbies and was convinced that she would not be able to work again. She thought life was not worth living and has consumed 60 tablets of phenobarbitone to end her life. She is most likely suffering from:
(A) Adjustment disorder
(B) Acute stress disorder
(C) Depressive disorder
(D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Answer: (A)
617. Two months after knowing that his son was suffering from leukemia, a 45-year-old father presents with sleep deprivation, lethargy, headache, and low mood. He interacts reasonably well with others, but has absented himself from work. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Depression
(B) Psychogenic headache
(C) Adjustment disorder
(D) Somatization disorder
Answer: (C)
618. Which of the following is not a specific somatoform disorder:
(A) Somatisation disorder
(B) Chronic fatigue syndrome
(C) Irritable bowel syndrome
(D) Fibromyalgia
Answer: (A)
619. All are features of somatization disorder except:
(A) Frequently changing pain sites
(B) Sexual symptoms
(C) Paresthesia
(D) Professional patients
Answer: (D)
620. All are true regarding somatization disorder except:
(A) Maintain sick role
(B) 4-Pain symptoms
(C) 1-Sexual symptom
(D) 1-Pseudo neurological symptom
Answer: (A)
621. A female presented with history of episodes of altered sensorium, involuntary movements, memory deficits and headache since the last 6 months. 4 episodes occurred during the day and 2 during sleep. She has been married since 1 year. Most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Epilepsy
(B) Somatization disorder
(C) Somatoform disorder
(D) Hypochondriasis
Answer: (A)
622. All are true for conversion reaction except
(A) Secondary gain
(B) Onset inlate age
(C) Patient does not consciously produce symptoms
(D) Relation with stress
Answer: (B)
623. 45 years old Chandu is always preoccupied with feeling of illness. The diagnosis is
(A) Somatoform disorder
(B) Hypochondriasis
(C) Munchausen syndrome
(D) Dissociative disorder
Answer: (B)
624. Lalu Prasad 45 yrs old male presents to OPD with complaining the continuous non-progressive headache from last 7 days. He believes that he has brain tumor of that there is he consulting many neurologists in past even all of investigation have been with in normal limits. Pt requested for other investigation to revealed that he has brain tumor. Psychiatric evaluation to revealed that he has brain tumor. Psychiatric evaluation shows the disease on the background of normal investigation. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Hypochondriasis
(B) Somatization disorder
(C) Somatoform pain disorder
(D) Conversion disorder
Answer: (A)
625. One of the following usually differentiates hysterical symptoms form hypochondrial symptoms:
(A) Symptoms do not normally reflect understandable physiological or pathological mechanism.
(B) Physical symptoms are prominent which are not explained by organic factors.
(C) Personality traits are significant
(D) Symptoms run a chronic course
Answer: (A)
626. A 45 year old male presents with history of headache, and vague body pains, off & on diarrhoea & constipation, impotence and tingling and parasthesia in glove stocking pattern. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Hypochondriasis
(B) Somatization disorder
(C) Conversion disorder
(D) Factitious disorder
Answer: (B)
627. A 40-yearold male is admitted with complaints of abdominal pain and headache. General physical examination revealed six scars on the abdomen from pervious surgeries. He seems to maintain a sick role and seeks attention from the nurses. He demands multiple diagnostic tests including a liver biopsy. The treating team failed to diagnose any major physical illness in the patient. His mental status examination did not reveal any major psychopathology. One of the treating staff recognized him to have appeared in several other hospital with abdominal pain and some other vague complaints. He is most likely suffering from:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Malingering
(C) Somatization disorder
(D) Factitious disorder
Answer: (D)
628. Maintaining stick role by any means is a characteristic feature of :
(A) Hypochondriasis
(B) Somatization disorder
(C) Conversion disorder
(D) Factitious disorder
Answer: (D)
629. A 28 year old male admitted in the hospital with a history of vague pains. His examination revealed may scars of previous surgeries. He was very curious about knowing his diagnosis and was persistently asking for various diagnostic procedures and biopsy. He gave the past history of gall stone & appendicitis pain diagnosed by previous doctors, but he history regarding this was inappropriate and semed to be manipulative. There were no previous records suggesting this diagnosis. The probable diagnosis is:
(A) Hypochondriasis
(B) Somatization disorder
(C) Conversion disorder
(D) Factitious disorder
Answer: (D)
630. A young 20 yrs old girl presents with complaints of pain in legs, intermittent vomiting, and headache since 2 months. Her physical examination was normal. What is the most possible diagnosis?
(A) Generalized anxiety disorder
(B) Conversion disorder
(C) Somatoform pain disorder
(D) Somatization disorder
Answer: (C)
631. La belle indifference is seen in
(A) Conversion Reaction
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Mania
(D) Depression
Answer: (A)
632. Hysteria is characterized by
(A) Flight of ideas
(B) Pressure on speech
(C) Indifference to suffering
(D) Autistic Thinking
Answer: (C)
633. The difference between malingering and hysteria is
(A) Hypnosis
(B) Malingering has poor prognosis
(C) Hysteria is more common in females
(D) Consciousmotive in malingering
Answer: (D)
634. Psychosomatic illness can be differentiated from hysteria by
(A) Altered Senosrium
(B) Autnomi disturbance
(C) Involuntary movements
(D) Skeletol muscles atrophy
Answer: (B)
635. Hypochondriasis is
(A) Normal pre occupation with abnormal body function
(B) Abnormal pre occupation with abnormal body function
(C) Normal pre occupation with normal body function
(D) Abnormal preoccupation with normal body function
Answer: (D)
636. A 41- year old married female presented with headache for the last 6 months. She had several consultations. All her investigations were found to be within normal limits. She still insists that there is something wrong is her head and seeks another consultation. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Phobia
(B) Psychogenic headache
(C) Hypochondriasis
(D) Depression
Answer: (C)
637. Hypochondriasis is
(A) Fear of fatal disease
(B) To much concern of own health & misin-terpretation of normal body function.
(C) Marked mental and Physical fatigue
(D) Repeated hospitalization
Answer: (B)
638. Person preoccupied by worries about ill health is :
(A) Hypochondriac
(B) Maniac
(C) Depressed
(D) Delirium
Answer: (A)
639. A 35 years old male, with pre-morbid anxious traits & heavy smoker, believes that he has been suffering from ‘lung carcinoma’ for a year, No significant clinical finding is detected on examination and relevant investigation. He continues to stick to his belief despite evidence to the contrary. In the process, he has spent a huge amount of money, time and energy in getting himself unduly investigated. He is most likely suffering from:
(A) Carcinoma lung
(B) Hypochondrical disorder
(C) Delusional disorder
(D) Malingering
Answer: (B)
640. Differential diagnosis of premenstrual tension includes all of the following except:
(A) Psychiatric depressive disorder
(B) Panic disorder
(C) General anxiety disorder
(D) Chronic fatigue syndrome
Answer: (D)
641. All are Dissociative Disorders except:
(A) Multiple personality
(B) Fugue
(C) Amnesia
(D) Deafness (Psychogenic)
Answer: (D)
642. Following are included in Dissociative disorder
(A) Multiple personality disorder
(B) Fugue
(C) Hypochondriasis
(D) Obscession
(E) Borderline personality
Answer: (A, B)
643. A person missing from home is found wandering purposefully. He is well groomed and denies of having any amnesia. Most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Dementia
(B) Dissociative amnesia
(C) Dissociative fugue
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (C)
644. A person has different multiple personality is suffering from :
(A) Mania
(B) Personality disorder
(C) Paranoid schizophrenia
(D) Dissociative disorder
Answer: (D)
645. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by
(A) Antegrade Amnesia
(B) Retrograde Amnesia
(C) Both with confabulation
(D) Patchy impairment of Personal memories
Answer: (D)
646. Amnesia is found in
(A) Head injury
(B) Mania
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Psychiatric state
Answer: (A)
647. A young female presented with halo’s abdominal pain and amnesia she is likely to be suffering from
(A) Conversion disorder
(B) Dissociative disorder
(C) Depersonalization disorder
(D) Mania
Answer: (B)
648. An 18 year old boy came to the Psychiatry OPD with a complaint of feeling changed from inside. He described himself as feeling strange as if he is different from his normal self. He was very tense and anxious yet could not point out the precise change in him. This phenomena is best called as:
(A) Delusional mood
(B) Depersonalization
(C) Autochthonous delusion
(D) Over valued idea.
Answer: (B)
649. Regarding Ganser’s syndrome true is
(A) Repeated lying
(B) Approximate answers
(C) Unconscious episodes
(D) Malingering
Answer: (B)
650. All are true about Ganser’s syndrome except
(A) Approximate answer
(B) Apparent clouding of consciousness
(C) Only found in prisoners
(D) Hallucinations
Answer: (C)
651. Excessive sexual desire in males is known as :
(A) Nymphomania
(B) Satyriasis
(C) Triabadism
(D) Sadism
Answer: (B)
652. Squeeze Technique is sued for:
(A) Impotence
(B) Premature ejaculation
(C) Infertility
(D) Priaprism
Answer: (B)
653. Most accurate treatment of erectile dysfunction:
(A) Sildenafil
(B) Master and Johnson technique
(C) B-blockers
(D) Papaverine
Answer: (A)
654. A homosexual person feels that he is imposed by a female body & persistent discomfort with his sex, diagnosis is
(A) Gender identity disorder
(B) Transvestism
(C) Voyerism
(D) Paraphillias
Answer: (A)
655. 20 years old girl Nelu enjoys wearing male clothes. Wearing male clothes gives her feeling of more confidence and after these episodes she is an absolutely normal girl. The likely diagnosis is –
(A) Transsexualism
(B) Fertishism
(C) Dual role Transvestism
(D) Fetishistic Transvestism
Answer: (C)
656. Which of the following is not a common features of Anorexia Nervosa?
(A) Binge eating
(B) Ammenorrhoea
(C) Self perception of being fat’
(D) Under weight
Answer: (A)
657. Anorexia nervosa can be differentiated from bulimia by
(A) Intense fear of wt gain
(B) Disturbance of body image
(C) Adolescent age
(D) Peculiars patterns of food handing
Answer: (D)
658. With regard to anorexia nervosa the following is true except:
(A) Phobic avoidance of normal weight
(B) Overperception of body image
(C) Self induced vomiting
(D) Menorrhagia
(E) Excessive exercise
Answer: (D)
659. Which of the following conditions characterized by episodes of excessive and uncontrolled eating:
(A) Anorexia nervosa
(B) Bulimia nervosa
(C) Body dysmorphobia
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B)
660. In Bulemia which is seen in A/E
(A) Parotitis
(B) Menorrhagia
(C) Oligomenorrhea
(D) Caries Teeth
Answer: (B)
661. False regarding Anorexia Nervosa :
(A) Evident psychosis
(B) Vigor exceeding physical ill being
(C) Weight loss
(D) Decreased appetite
Answer: (D)
662. A young lady is present with H/O repeated episode of over eating (binge) followed by purging using laxatives, she probably suffering from-
(A) Bulimia nervosa
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Anorexia nervosa
(D) Benign eating disorders
Answer: (A)
663. Not a feature of paradoxical sleep is:
(A) Decreased muscle tone
(B) Rapid eye movements
(C) Brain shows increased metabolism
(D) EEG shows decreased activity
Answer: (D)
664. α-rhythm is seen in:
(A) Sleep with eyes closed with mind wandering
(B) Mental activity
(C) Awake with eyes open
(D) REM sleep
Answer: (D)
665. Which one of the following phenomenon is loosely associated with slow wave sleep
(A) Dreaming
(B) Sleep walking
(C) Atonia
(D) Irregular heart rate
Answer: (B)
666. Not true about nocturnal penile tumerscence is
(A) Total about 100 min / night
(B) Normal phenomenon
(C) Occurs in NREM sleep
(D) Can be used to distinguish between psychological or organic impotence.
Answer: (C)
667. The Non-REM (NREM) sleep is commonly associated with:
(A) Frequent dreaming
(B) Frequent penile erections
(C) Increased blood pressure
(D) Night terrors
Answer: (D)
668. Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal enuresis is:
(A) Imipramine
(B) Fluoxetine
(C) Trazdone
(D) Sertaline
Answer: (A)
669. True about treatment of nocturnal enuresis-
(A) Imipramine
(B) CPZ
(C) Alprazolam
(D) Haloperidol
Answer: (A)
670. Most useful drug in Enuresis is
(A) Haloperiodol
(B) Diazepam
(C) Trimipramine
(D) Chlorpromazine
Answer: (C)
671. DOC of night terrors:
(A) Meprobamate
(B) Tricyclic antidepressant
(C) Clonazepam
(D) Diazepam
Answer: (D)
672. True about narcolepsy :
(A) Sleep sudden
(B) Long duration > (>3 hrs) of sleep
(C) Cataplexy
(D) Presents in IInd decade
Answer: (A)
673. Modafinil is approved by FDA for treatment of all except:
(A) Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)
(B) Shift work syndrome (SWS)
(C) Narcolepsy
(D) Lethargy in depression
Answer: (D)
674. Kleptomania is
(A) Delusional disorder
(B) Obsession
(C) Impulse disorder
(D) Compulsion seclusion
(E) Hallucination
Answer: (C)
675. Kleptomania means
(A) Irresistable desire to set fire
(B) Irresistable desire to steal things
(C) Compulsive hair pulling
(D) Pathological gambling
Answer: (B)
676. Oniomania is a disorder of compulsive
(A) Buying
(B) Cellular phone use
(C) Internet use
(D) Self mutation
Answer: (A)
677. All of the following are impulse control disorder except:
(A) Pyromania
(B) Trichotillomania
(C) Kleptomania
(D) Capgras syndrome
Answer: (D)
678. Not a personality trait?
(A) Sensation seeking
(B) Neuroticism
(C) Open to experience
(D) Problem solving
Answer: (D)
679. False regarding type A personality
(A) Hostile
(B) Time pressure
(C) Competitiveness
(D) Mood fluctuations
Answer: (D)
680. Type D personality are recently found to be at risk of developing :
(A) Coronary artery disease
(B) Depression
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Mania
Answer: (A)
681. True about personality disorder
(A) Onset in early childhood & adolescent
(B) Matures around adult hood
(C) Not associated to social norms
(D) Direct result of disease or damage
Answer: (A, B, C)
682. True about personality disorder (PD) :
(A) Typically onset at early childhood & adolescent
(B) Matured around age 30 – 40 yrs
(C) Egodystonic
(D) Dramatic, emotional and arratic behavior in paranoid PD
(E) Pervasive and maladaptive behaviour
Answer: (A, B, E)
683. True about treatment of personality disorder :
(A) Antipsychotic drugs are used
(B) SSRI used in treatment
(C) Behaviour therapy
(D) No need of treatment
Answer: (A, B, C)
684. All are cluster B disorders of personality except
(A) Antisocial
(B) Narcissistic
(C) Avoidank
(D) Borderline
Answer: (C)
685. A person has poor performance in front of his seniors in public place, has tachycardia when he has to deliver a lecture, voids going to parties. The diagnosis is
(A) Panic disorder
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Social Phobia
(D) Avoidant Personality
Answer: (C)
686. A person having the habit of repeated self inflicted injuries, what is the type of personality
(A) Borderline personality disorder
(B) Schizoid personality disorder
(C) Histrionic personality disorder
(D) Narcissistic personality disorder
(E) Depressive disorder
Answer: (A)
687. Oddities of speech, mannerism and clothing with magical thinking is seen in which type of personality disorder
(A) Schizoid
(B) Paranoid
(C) Schizotype
(D) Border line
Answer: (C)
688. Markedly inappropriate sensitivity, self importance and suspiciousness are clinical features of
(A) Antisocial
(B) Historic
(C) Schizoid
(D) Paranoid
Answer: (D)
689. Which personality disorder of DSM-IV is not classified as PD & is placed with schizophrenia is ICD 10
(A) Schizoid
(B) Paranoid
(C) Narcissistic
(D) Schizotype
Answer: (D)
690. True about personality disorder:
(A) It arises during childhood
(B) It matures during adulthood
(C) Suspiciousness is seen in paranoid personality disorder.
(D) Excessive preoccupation with fantasy seen in schizoid personality disorder
Answer: (ALL)
691. Characteristic feature of Schizoid personality is
(A) Conversion reaction
(B) Not concerned with disease
(C) Checks details of all things
(D) Emotional coldness
Answer: (D)
692. Antisocial personality is seen with :
(A) Drug abuse
(B) Paranoid schizophrenia
(C) OCN
(D) None
Answer: (A)
693. A 16 year old girl was brought to the psychiatric emergency after she slashed her wrist in an attempt commit suicide. On enquiry her father revealed that she had made several such attempts of wrist slashing in the past, mostly in response to trivial fights in her house. Further she had marked fluctuations in her mod with a pervasive pattern of unable interpersonal relationship. The most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Borderline personality disorder
(B) Major depression
(C) Histrionic personality disorder
(D) Adjustment disorder
Answer: (A)
694. A female presents with the history of slashed wrists and attempted suicide, now presents with similar history. The diagnosis is:
(A) Borderline personality
(B) OCD
(C) Conversion Reaction
(D) Histirionic Personality
Answer: (A)
695. A young lady was admitted after taking overdose of diazepam after broken affair. She has history of slitting her wrist previously. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Narcisstic Personality Disorder
(B) Dependent P.D.
(C) Borderline P.D.
(D) Histirionic P.D.
Answer: (C)
696. A 9 year old child disturbs other people, is destructive, interferes when two people are talking, does not follow instructions and cannot wait for his turn while playing a game. He is likely to be suffering from:
(A) Emotional disorders
(B) Behavioural problems
(C) No disorder
(D) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Answer: (D)
697. Which of the following is not seen in hyperkinetic child
(A) Aggressive outburst
(B) Decreased attention span
(C) Left to right disorientation
(D) Soft neurological signs
Answer: (C)
698. An eleven month old boy is all the time so restless that the rest of the class is unable to concentrate. He is hardly ever in his seat but roams around the hall. He has difficulty playing quietly. The most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
(B) Conduct disorder
(C) Depressive disorder
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (A)
699. ADHD in childhood can lead to what in future:
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Alcoholism
(C) Intellectual changes
(D) Antisocial behaviour
Answer: (D, B, C)
700. A 9 yr old child is restless. He is hyperactive and his teacher complains that he does not listen to the teachings. Disturbs other students he also shows less interest in playing.
The likely diagnosis is:
(A) Cerebral palsy
(B) Attention deficit hyperkinetic child
(C) Delirium
(D) Mania
Answer: (B)
701. A child 10 yrs old present with hyperactivity, in attention. Parents are extremely worried, what would you say to the parents?
(A) Normal behavior
(B) Behavioral problem and behavior therapy
(C) Serious problem and medical therapy
(D) Change in environment
Answer: (C)
702. Drug(s) used in treatment of Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder:
(A) Atomoxetine
(B) Methylphenidate
(C) Dexmethylphenidate
(D) Quetiapine
(E) Dextraamphetamine
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
703. Treatment of hyperkinetic syndrome include:
(A) Imipramine
(B) Methyl phenidate
(C) Haloperidol
(D) Clozapine
(E) Amphetamine
Answer: (B, E)
704. The treatment of choice in Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is :
(A) Haloperidol
(B) Imipramine
(C) Methylphenidate
(D) Alprazolam
Answer: (C)
705. Treatment of hyperkinetic child is with :
(A) Amphetamines
(B) Haloperidol
(C) Methyl phenidate
(D) Clozpine
(E) Imipramine
Answer: (A, C)
706. A 3 year old child with normal developmental milestones except delayed language development (poor speech development). He has difficulty in concentration, communication, and making friends (i.e. he has no friends) and spends time seeing his own hands. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Autism
(B) ADHD
(C) Specific learning disability
(D) Mental retardation
Answer: (A)
707. True about Autism :
(A) Persistent delusion
(B) Persistent hallucination
(C) Incordinate social interaction
(D) Defective reciprocal interaction
(E) Onset after 5 year
Answer: (C, D)
708. Infantile autism is characterized by-
(A) Impaired vision
(B) Impaired neurobehavioral development
(C) Impaired folate level
(D) A socioeconomic hazard
(E) Parenting
Answer: (B, D)
709. Autism is :
(A) Neurodevelopmental disorder
(B) Social and language communication problem
(C) Metabolic disease
(D) Mainly due to hypothalamus damage
Answer: (B)
710. Autism is :
(A) Biological causation
(B) Pervasive social and language communication problem
(C) Metabolic disease
(D) Mainly due to hypothalamus damage
(E) Onset after 23 yrs. Usually
Answer: (A, B)
711. A 6 year old child has history of birth asphyxia does not communicate well has slow mental and physical growth, does not mix with people, has limited intersects gets widely agitated if disturbed. Diagnosis is:
(A) Hyperkinetic child
(B) Autistic Disorder
(C) Attention deficit Disorder
(D) Mixed Receptive-Expressive Language Disorder
Answer: (B)
712. A two years old girl child is brought to the out patient with features of hand wringing stereotype movements, impaired language and communication development, breath holding spells, poor social skills and deceleration of head growth after six months of age. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Asperger syndrome
(B) Rett’s syndrome
(C) Fragile X syndrome
(D) Cottard syndrome
Answer: (B)
713. A 3 year old child presents with normal development milestones except delayed speech and poor concentration. He has difficulty in communication and relating to others and also difficulty in making friends but plays with himself. The likely diagnosis is:
(A) Autism
(B) ADHD
(C) Specific learning disability
(D) Mental retardation
Answer: (A)
714. Autistic disorder is characterized by all of the following Except
(A) Visual impairment
(B) Lack of Social Interaction
(C) Delayed development of Speech
(D) Stereotypic movements
Answer: (A)
715. According to disabilities ACT 1995. Seventh disability is usually referred to as?
(A) Neurological abnormality
(B) Mental illness
(C) Substance abuse
(D) Disability due to road traffic accident
Answer: (B)
716. A 16 year old male is found to have a mental age of 9 years on I.Q. testing. He has :
(A) Mild Mental Retardation
(B) Moderate Mental Retardation
(C) Severe Mental Retardation
(D) Profound Mental Retardation
Answer: (A)
717. X-linked disease leading to mental retardation is:
(A) Myotonic dystrophy
(B) Fragile-X syndrome
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Phenylketonuria
Answer: (B)
718. Patient with IQ of 60 has
(A) Mild Mental Retardation
(B) Moderate M.R.
(C) Severe M.R.
(D) Profound M.R.
Answer: (A)
719. True about Mental retardation :
(A) More common in female than male
(B) Severe MR is IQ < 20
(C) Antenatal factor can cause mental retardation
(D) Common in Down syndrome
(E) Life long inability to learn & progress
Answer: (C, D)
720. In a child if IQ 50, which of the following is true:
(A) Can look after himself independently
(B) Can study upto 8’h standard
(C) Can follow simple verbal commands
(D) Can handle money
(E) Recognize family members
Answer: (A, C, D, E)
721. All of the following statements about ‘Imbecile’ are true, Except:
(A) IQ is 50-60
(B) Intellectual capacity equivalent to a child of 3-7 year of age
(C) Impaired sell care
(D) Condition usually congenital or acquired at an early age
Answer: (A)
722. Patients suffering from which of the following disease as per ICD/DSM criteria are eligible for disability benefit s per National Trust Act?
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Bipolar disorder
(C) Dementia
(D) Mental retardation
Answer: (D)
723. Best therapy suited to teach daily life skill to a mentally challenged child.
(A) CBT (Cognitive Behaviour Therapy)
(B) Contigency
(C) Cognitive reconstruction
(D) Self instruction
Answer: (B)
724. Lack of development of speech in a child can be due to:
(A) Tongue tie
(B) Deafness
(C) Mental subnormality
(D) Laryngomalacia
(E) Psychosocial
Answer: (B, C)
725. A 14 year old boy has difficulty in expressing himself in writing and makes frequent spelling mistakes. He passé his examination with poor marks. However his mathematical ability & social adjustment are appropriate for his age. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Mental Retardation
(B) Specific learning disability
(C) Lack of interest in studies
(D) Examination anxiety
Answer: (B)
726. Poor scholastic performances is not associated with:
(A) SLD
(B) ADHD
(C) PICA
(D) Anxiety
Answer: (C)
727. Conduct disorder in a child manifests with
(A) Disregard for right of others
(B) Doesn’t care for authority
(C) Backward in studies
(D) Decreased head circumference
(E) Steals things
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
728. All of the following is are serotonin-dopamine antagonist except:
(A) Zotepine
(B) Loxapine
(C) Sertindole
(D) Amisulpride
Answer: (B, D)
729. Atypical (Second generation or newer) antipsychotics are:
(A) Aripiprazole
(B) Risperidone
(C) Pimozide
(D) Penfulridol
(E) Olanzapine
Answer: (A, B, E)
730. The following is not an atypical antipsychotic
(A) Thioridazine
(B) Clozapine
(C) Olanzapine
(D) Riseperidone
Answer: (A)
731. Depot preparations are available for:
(A) Haloperidol
(B) Risperdone
(C) Olanazepine
(D) Imipramine
(E) Fluphenazine
Answer: (ALL)
732. Antipsychotic drug available as a depot preparation :
(A) Aripiprazole
(B) Fluphenazinedecanoate
(C) Trifluperazine
(D) Fluphenazine
Answer: (B)
733. Least Extrapyrimidal S/E are seen in
(A) Halo peridol
(B) Thioridazine
(C) Clozapine
(D) CPZ
Answer: (C)
734. Antipsychotic drug with prolonged action
(A) Trifluperazine
(B) Thioridazine
(C) Penfluridol
(D) Fluphenazine
Answer: (D)
735. All the following statement about clozapine are true except
(A) It is used in schizophrenia
(B) May precipitate seizure
(C) May cause agranulocytosis
(D) Extrapyrimidal side effects are seen
Answer: (D)
736. Not true about clozapine is:
(A) Should be discontinued if WBC (leukocyte) count <3000/mm3
(B) Blood level should be maintained <350 ng/ml to avoid agnanulocytosis
(C) Should not be used along with carbamazepine
(D) The action is more on D4 receptors than D2 receptors
Answer: (B)
737. A patient of schizophrenia on CPZ (chlorpromazine) develops auditory hallucination again. The next drug to be given is
(A) Haloperidol
(B) Clozapine
(C) Sulpride
(D) Tianeptin
Answer: (B)
738. A patient of depression is getting chlorpromazine, but his auditory hallucination are not controlled. The next drug given is
(A) Haloperidol
(B) Clozapine
(C) Sulpride
(D) Tianeptin
Answer: (B)
739. Antipsychotic drug with least extrapyramidal effects is :
(A) Clozapine
(B) Risperidone
(C) Thioridazine
(D) Chlorpromazine
(E) Haloperidol
Answer: (A)
740. Adverse effect of clozapine :
(A) Hypertension
(B) Sialorrhea
(C) Extrapyramidal S/E
(D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: (B)
741. Tardive dyskinesia is produced by following except :
(A) Fluphenazine
(B) Haloperidol
(C) Chlorpromazine
(D) Clozapine
Answer: (D)
742. Irresistable urge to move about with inner restlessness is called.
(A) Akinesia
(B) Hyperkinesia
(C) Dyskinesia
(D) Akathisia
Answer: (D)
743. A 30 year old manic patient was prescribed Haloperidol one week back. For the last two days he has become restless and kept pacing in the room for a day. On examination he was found to have tremors of hand. He is most likely suffering from
(A) Anhedonia
(B) Dystonia
(C) Restless leg syndrome
(D) Akathesia
Answer: (D)
744. A 19 year old boy suffering from chronic schizophrenia is put on haloperidol in the dose of 20 mg/day. A week after the initiation of medication the patient shows be restlessness, fidgety, irritability and cannot sit still at one place. The most appropriate treatment strategy is
(A) Increase in the dose of haloperidol
(B) Addition of anticholinergic drug
(C) Addition of betablocker
(D) Adding another antipsychotic drug
Answer: (C)
745. A 25-year old man with a psychotic illness, was treated with haloperidol 30 mg/day. On the third day he developed pacing, and inability to sit still at one place. The medication likely to be helpful is:
(A) Phenytoin
(B) Propranolol
(C) Methylphenidate
(D) Trihexyphenedyl
Answer: (B)
746. Akathesia is treated by A/E
(A) Trihexyphenidyl
(B) Diazepam
(C) Haloperidol
(D) Promethazine
Answer: (C)
747. Vasanti 45 years, was brought to casualty with abnormal movements which induced persistent deviation of neck to right side. One day before she was prescribed Haloperidol 5 mg three times daily from the psychiatry OPD. She also had an alternation with her husband recently. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms.
(A) Conversion reaction
(B) Acute psychosis
(C) Acute drug dystonia
(D) CVA
Answer: (C)
748. A patient with acute psychosis, who is on haloperidol 20 mg/day for last 2 days, has an episode characterized by tongue protrusion, oculogyric crisis, stiffness and abnormal posture of limbs and trunk without loss of consciousness for last 20 minutes before presenting to casualty. This improved with in a few minutes after administration of diphenhydramine HCl. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Acute dystonia
(B) Akathisia
(C) Tardive dyskinesia
(D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: (A)
749. An elderly woman suffering from schizophrenia is on antipsychotic medication. She developed purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of cheeks. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be involved in this side effect:
(A) Halperidol
(B) Clozapine
(C) Fluphenazine
(D) Loxapine
Answer: (B)
750. True about neurolept malignant syndrome:
(A) General antipsychotics are more associated
(B) Symptoms include rigidity, fever and palpitation
(C) Dantrolene improves symptoms
(D) Bromocriptine can be used
Answer: (A, B, C ,D)
751. A 30-year-old man who was recently started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, akinesia, mutism, sweating, tachycardia and increased blood pressure. The investigations showed increased WBC count, increased creatinine phosphokinase. There is no history of any other drug intake or any signs of infection. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Drug overdose
(B) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(C) Drug induce Parkinsonism
(D) Tardive dyskinesia
Answer: (B)
752. A 31 year old male, with mood disorder, on 30 mg of haloperidol and 100 m of lithium, is brought to the hospital emergency room with history of acute onset of fever,, excessive, sweating, confusion, rigidity of limbs and decreased communication for a day. Examination reveals tachycardia and labile blood pressure and investigations reveal increased CPK enzyme levels and lecocytosis. He is likely to have developed.
(A) Lithium toxicity
(B) Tardive dyskinesia
(C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(D) Hypertensive encephalopathy
Answer: (C)
753. A patient was on treatment with trifluperazine for some time. He presents with complaint of hyperthermia, lethargy and sweating, Needed investigations are
(A) CT Scan brain &hemogrm
(B) Hemogram, Electrolyte level and creatinine
(C) ECG, Chest X-ray and Hemogram
(D) Hemogram, CPK and Renal Function Test
Answer: (D)
754. A patient on antipsychotic for past 4 weeks is brought to the emergency with complaint of acute onset of fever excessive sweating confusion, rigidity of limbs and decreased communication. Examination reveals Temperature of 104℉; P/R – 120/min BP-150/100 with disorientation. What is the most probable diagnosis :
(A) Lithium toxicity
(B) Aggrevation of psychosis
(C) Dystonia
(D) Nuerolept malignant syndrome
(E) Akathesia
Answer: (D)
755. Malignant neurolept hyperthermia (NMS) seen in all except :
(A) Haloperidol
(B) Metoclopramide
(C) Domperidone
(D) Amantadine
Answer: (D)
756. Carbamazepine may be used in all except
(A) Mania
(B) Alcohol withdrawal
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Trigeminal Neuralgia
Answer: (C)
757. A patient of Schizophrenia treated for 5 years developed perioral movements Likely diagnosis is:
(A) Tardive dyskinesia
(B) Muscular dystonia
(C) Akathasia
(D) Malignant neurolept syndrome
Answer: (A)
758. HIAA is a metabolite of :
(A) Serotonin
(B) Dopamine
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Histamine
Answer: (A)
759. A patient on antidepressant therapy developed sudden hypertension on consuming cheese. The antidepressant is possibly :
(A) Amitryptiline
(B) Tranylcypromine
(C) Fluoxetine
(D) Sertraline
Answer: (B)
760. Tricyclic antidepresents have all of the following actions except :
(A) Anti cholinergic action
(B) Anti MAOI action
(C) Blocks 5 HT or NE reuptake
(D) Causes sedation
Answer: (B)
761. A patient was treated with Amytryptilline for depression, developed urinary retention, constipation & blurring of vision. Most likely cause is
(A) Symptoms of depression perisisting
(B) Anti cholinergic side effects
(C) Depression medicamentosa
(D) Any of above
Answer: (B)
762. A patient on t/t for psychiatric disorder takes overdose of a drug, develops bradycardia, hypotension, decreased sweating and salivation. The likely drug is
(A) Amitryptilline
(B) Lithium
(C) Selegiline
(D) Amphetamine
Answer: (A)
763. TriyclicAnti depressant are contraindicated in
(A) Glucoma
(B) Brain Tumor
(C) Bronchial Asthma
(D) Hypertension
Answer: (A)
764. A 60 year old male comes to casualty with acute retention of urine since 12 hours. On examination there was distended bladder. his son gives a history of taking some drug by the patient. Since2 days as he is suffering from depression. The most likely drug is
(A) CPZ
(B) Amitryptiline
(C) Haloperidol
(D) Pimozide
Answer: (B)
765. Non sedating Antidepressant is
(A) Fluoxetine
(B) Mianserine
(C) Amoxaprine
(D) Imipramine
Answer: (A)
766. The newest Antidepressant is
(A) Buspirone
(B) Fluoxetine
(C) Penfluridol
(D) Clozapine
Answer: (B)
767. Following drugs have abuse liability except
(A) Buprenorphine
(B) Alprazolam
(C) Fluoxetine
(D) Dextropropoxyphene
Answer: (C)
768. Mode of action of fluoxetine is
(A) GABA inhibition
(B) Adrenergic neuron blocking action
(C) Inhibition of axonal uptake of 5HT
(D) Adrenergic stimulation
Answer: (C)
769. Tianeptine acts by
(A) MAO inhibitor
(B) Serotonin uptake inhibitor
(C) Serotonin uptake inhancer
(D) 5-HT agonist
Answer: (C)
770. Drug of choice for OCD
(A) Fluoxetine
(B) Imipramine
(C) Diazepam
(D) Haloperidol
Answer: (A)
771. Side effect of SSRI
(A) Nausea
(B) Diarrhea
(C) Weight gain
(D) Rash
(E) Sexual dysfunction
Answer: (A, B, C, E)
772. The common side effect with fluoxetine therapy is :
(A) Seizure
(B) Anxiety
(C) Hypotension
(D) Loose stools
Answer: (B, D)
773. Side effects of fluoxetine are A/E
(A) Weight gain
(B) Sweating
(C) Urinary retention
(D) Diarrhoea
Answer: (C)
774. Features of serotonin syndrome associated with SSRI & MAOIs are :
(A) Tremors
(B) Agitation
(C) Cardiovascular collapse
(D) Hypothermia
(E) Suicidal tendency
Answer: (A, B, C)
775. Not true regarding serotonin syndrome is :
(A) It is predictable and not idiosyncractic
(B) SSRIs & MAOIs cause it
(C) IV dantrolene is the treatment of choice
(D) Hypertension, hyperthermia and hyper reflexia
Answer: (C)
776. All are Antidepressants except
(A) Trazodone
(B) Amitryptyline
(C) Fluoxitine
(D) Pimozide
Answer: (D)
777. Select the true statements :
(A) Imipramine is used in treatment of endogenous depression
(B) Fluoxetine causes weight gain
(C) Thioridazine cause les anticholinergic effects
(D) BZD’s have same abuse potential as barbiturates
(E) Codeine is an effective antitussive
Answer: (A, E)
778. Which drugs acts through alpha subunit of GABA receptor?
(A) Benzodiazepine
(B) Barbiturate
(C) Haloperidol
(D) TCA
Answer: (A)
779. β Blockers are indicated in
(A) Phobia
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Anxiety
(D) Mania
Answer: (C)
780. All are Anxiolytic Except
(A) Buspirone
(B) Fluoxetine
(C) Diazepam
(D) Nitrazepam
Answer: (B)
781. Best marker for electro convulsive therapy :
(A) CSF 5 HIAA
(B) CSF serotonin
(C) Brain derived growth factor
(D) CSF dopamine
Answer: (C)
782. Indications for ECT are :
(A) Paranoid schizophrenia
(B) Depression with suicidal tendency
(C) Catatonic schizophrenia
(D) Neurotic depression
(E) Depression in involutional stage
Answer: (B, C)
ECT is indicated in
783. (A) Neurotic Depression
(B) Auditory hallucination
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Delusional Depression
Answer: (D)
784. ECT is useful in
(A) Mani (Acute)
(B) Chronic Schizophrenia
(C) Acute Depression
(D) Pannic Disorder
Answer: (C)
785. ECT is not useful in treatment of
(A) Chronic Schizophrenia
(B) Catatonic Schizophrenia
(C) Endogenous depression
(D) Acute psychosis
Answer: (A)
786. ECT in depressive phase of MDP is useful because it :
(A) Produces recurrence
(B) Reduces recurrence
(C) Shortens duration
(D) Increases drug effects
Answer: (C)
787. ECT is most useful in:
(A) Mania
(B) Depression
(C) OCD
(D) Schizophrenia
Answer: (B)
788. Maximum benefit of Electro Convulsive Therapy is in
6.All are Anterior relations of the Right kidney except
(a) Suprarenal gland
(b) Hepatic flexure of the colon
(c) Third part of the duodenum
(d)Liver
Answer: (d)
7. The danger area of the face is so called because of the connection of the facial veins to the cavernous sinus through the
(a) Transverse facial vein
(b) Superior ophthalmic vein
(c) Maxillary vein
(d) Ethmoidal vein
Answer: (b)
8.The parotid duct can be palpated when
(a) Angle of the mandible is depressed
(b) Anterior margin of the masseter is tensed
(c) Posterior margin of the masseter is relaxed
(d) Through the buccal mucosa
Answer: (b)
9. All are branches of the maxillary artery except
(a) Anterior tympanic artery
(b) Posterior ethmoidal artery
(c) Middle meningeal artery
(d) Infraorbital artery
Answer: (b)
10. All the following branches of the Vth nerve supply the Duramater except
(a) Anterior ethmoidal
(b) Posterior ethmoidal
(c) Auriculotemporal
(d) Mandibular
Answer: (c)
11. The Glossopharyngeal nerve supplied the posterior part of the tongue because it develops from the
(a)Hyoid arch
(b) Tuberculum impar
(c) Mandibular arch
(d) Hypobranchial eminence
Answer: (d)
12. The subarachnoid space ends at
(a)L1
(b) L2
(c) L5
(d) S2
Answer: (d)
13. Implantation occurs at the stage of
(a) Zygote
(b) Morula
(c) Blastocyst
(d) Primary villi
Answer: (c)
14. All the Muscles are used to abduct the shoulder except
(a) Deltoid
(b) Supraspinatus
(c) Serratus anterior
(d) Pectoralis major
Answer: (d)
15. The structure found in a cross-section of the thorax at T4 vertebra is :
(a) Azygos vein
(b) Brachiocephalic artery
(c) Arch of the aorta
(d) Left Subclavian artery
Answer: (c)
16. The lymphatic drainage of the glans penis is
(a) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
(b) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
(c) Para-aortic lymph nodes
(d) Internal iliac lymph nodes
Answer: (b)
17. The inguinal canal is NOT bounded posteriorly by
(a) Transversalis fascia
(b) Internal oblique tendon
(c) Conjoint tendon
(d) Lacunar ligament
Answer: (d)
18. The toughest layer of the esophagus is the
(a) Mucosa
(b) Submucosa
(c) Muscularis
(d) Adventitia
Answer: (c)
19. Following are lateral rotators of thigh except
(a) Piriformis
(b) Quadratus femoris
(c) Gluteus medius
(d) Obturator internus
Answer: (c)
20. The right suprarenal vein drains into the
(a) Inferior vena cava
(b) Right renal vein
(c) Right Gonadal vein
(d) Left Renal vein
Answer: (a)
21. All of the following are supplied by mandibular nerve except
(a) Masseter
(b) Tensor tympani
(c) Tensor palati
(d) Buccinator
Answer: (d)
22. Horner’s syndrome occurs due to pressure on the
(a) Stellate ganglion
(b) Celiac ganglion
(c) Spinal cord
(d) Parasympathetic ganglion
Answer: (a)
23. Nerve supply of the tympanic membrane is by the
(a) Auriculotemporal
(b) Lesser occipital
(c) Greater occipital
(d) Parasympathetic ganglion
Answer: (a)
24. Sensory nerve supply of the middle ear cavity is provided by
(a) Facial
(b) Glossopharyngeal
(c) Trigeminal
(d) Vagus
Answer: (b)
25. Which of the following is concerned with the auditory pathway
(a) Trapezoid body
(b) Lateral geniculate body
(c) Genu of internal capsule
(d) Lateral lemniscus
Answer: (a)
26. The spinal cord in infants ends at the level of
(a) L1
(b)L2
(c)L3
(d)L4
Answer: ()
27. Inverse supinator jerk is
(a) C₅, C₆
(b) C₆, C₇
(c) L₅, S₁
(d) L₄, S₁
Answer: (a)
28. The right costo-phrenic recess extends up to the level of the which rib in the mid-axillary line
(a) 6th
(b) 10th
(c) 8th
(d) 12th
Answer: (b)
29. The hilum of the right lung is arched by
(a) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
(b) Azygos vein
(c) Thoracic duct
(d) Vagus nerve
Answer: (b)
30. Porto-caval anastomosis is seen between
(a) In the rectum: superior rectal vein and inferior rectal vein
(b) At the umbilicus: portal vein and accessory hemiazygos
(c) At the esophagus: left gastric vein and paraumbilical
(d) At the liver: portal vein and renal azygos vein
Answer: (a)
31. Bochdalek hernia occurs in
(a) Anterolateral part of diaphragm
(b) Posterolateral part of diaphragm
(c) Retrosternal area
(d) Posterior to diaphragm
Answer: (b)
32. Lacrimal secretion is diminished when which site of nerve is damaged
(a) Parotid nerve
(b) Gasserian ganglia
(c) Ciliary ganglia
(d) Pterygopalatine Ganglion
Answer: (d)
33. Cranial part of spinal accessory nerve supplies
(a) Sternocleidomastoid
(b) Levator scapulae
(c) Superior constrictor
(d) Styloglossus
Answer: (c)
34. Most common nerve involved in an intracranial aneurysm is
(a) Trochlear
(b) VII
(c) VIII
(d) Oculomotor
Answer: (d)
35. In an adult, the spinal cord ends at
(a) T₁₂-L₁
(b) L₁-L₂
(c) L₃-L₄
(d) S₁-S₂
Answer: (b)
36. At the end of 8th month, testes descend into
(a) Superficial inguinal ring
(b) Inguinal canal
(c) Scrotum
(d) Deep inguinal ring
Answer: (c)
37. Musculocutaneous nerve is injured at the lateral cord of brachial plexus, positive clinical findings would be :
(a) Loss of flexion at shoulder
(b) Sensory loss on the radial side of the forearm
(c) Loss of extension of forearm
(d) Loss of extension of the wrist
Answer: (b)
38. Median nerve injury at wrist, is commonly tested by:
(a) Contraction of abductor pollicis brevis
(b) Contraction of flexor pollicis brevis
(c) Loss of sensation of palm
(d) Loss of sensation on ring finger
Answer: (a)
39. “Trendelenburg sign” is positive in damage of the following nerve:
(a) Inferior gluteal nerve
(b) Pudendal nerve
(c) Superior gluteal nerve
(d) Posterior tibial nerve
Answer: (c)
40. Which of the following ligaments prevent hyperextension of hip:
(a) Iliofemoral ligament
(b) Pubo-ischial ligament
(c) Pectofemoral ligament
(d) Pubo-ischial ligament
Answer: (a)
41. All of the following are branches coeliac artery except:
(a) Right gastric artery
(b) Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
(c) Cystic artery
(d) Left gastroepiploic artery
Answer: (b)
42. All of the following statements about suprarenal glands are true except:
(a) IVC & liver from anterior relations of R-1 suprarenal gland
(b) Medial border is related to left inferior phrenicartery
(c) Both glands art drain into renal vein
(d) Middle suprarenal artery is branch of abdominal aorta.
Answer: (c)
43. ‘Obstruction of Inferior vena cava’ presents:
(a) Paraumblical dilatation
(b) Thoraco-epigastric dilatation
(c) Oesophagus varies
(d) Haemorrhoides
Answer: (d)
44. Hemiplegia is most often caused by thrombosis of :
(a) Anterior cerebral artery
(b) Middle cerebral artery
(c) Posterior cerebral artery
(d) Basilar artery
Answer: (b)
45. Amnion is present on :
(a) Decidua basalis
(b) Fetal surface
(c) Maternal surface
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
46. Defect in any of the following may result in renal agenesis except:
(a) Nephrogenic bud
(b) Uretericbud
(c) Blastema of nephrogenic tissue
(d) Failure of descent of nephrilogenic tissue to lumbar area
Answer: (d)
47. All of the following are features of musculocutaneous nerve injury all axilla except :
(a) Loss of flexion of shoulder
(b) Loss of flexion at elbow
(c) Loss of supination of forearm
(d) Loss of sensation on radial side of forearm
Answer: (a)
48. IInd constriction in oesophagus is seen at the following site :
(a) Where it crosses left main bronchus
(b) Crossing of aorta
(c) At pharyngoesophageal junction
(d) Where it pierces the diaphragm
Answer: (b)
49. Downward displacement of enlarged spleen is prevented by :
(a) Leinorenal ligament
(b) Phrenicolic ligament
(c) Upper pole of right kidney
(d) Sigmoid colon
Answer: (b)
50. True statement about upper halfanal canal is
(a) Insensitive to pain
(b) Drained by superficial inguinal lymph node
(c) Lined by squamous epithelium
(d) Supplied by superior mesentric artery
Answer: (a)
51. Bochdolek hernia occurs through :
(a) Anteromedial part of diaphragm
(b) Posterolateral part of diaphragm
(c) Central tendon of diaphragm
(d) Hiatus hernia
Answer: (b)
52. Lesion of Cranial part of XI nerve cause paralysis of
(a) Sternocleidomastiod muscle
(b) Trapezius muscle
(c) Stylopharyngeus muscle
(d) Pharyngeal constrictors
Answer: (d)
53. Lacrimal secreation are decreased when facial nerve injury occurs at the following site :
(a) Middle ear
(b) Mastoid foramen
(c) Geniculate ganglion
(d) Sphenopalatine ganglion
Answer: (c)
54. Mucous secreting glands are absent in :
(a) Cervix
(b) Vagina
(c) Duodenum
(d) Oesophagus
Answer: (b)
55. All of the following are mesodermal in origin except :
(a) Dilators of iris
(b) Iris stroma
(c) Ciliary body
(d) Choroid
Answer: (a)
56. Most common site for avascular necrosis of femur is :
(a) Subcapital #
(b) Transcervical #
(c) Trochanteric #
(d) Basal #
Answer: (a)
57. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of :
(a) Rhomboides
(b) Trapezius
(c) L. dorsi
(d) Serratus-anterior
Answer: (d)
58. Median nerve supplies all muscles of the thumb except :
(a) Abductor-pollicis-brevis
(b) Flexor-pollicis brevis
(c) Opponens pollicis
(d) Abductor pollicis
Answer: (d)
59. A patient is brought to the emergency with history of trauma to his right upper limb. Extension of metacarpophalangeal is lost. There is not wrist drop and extension of IP joint is normal. The most likely nerve involved is :
(a) Ulnar nerve
(b) Median nerve
(c) Radial nerve
(d) Posterior-interosseous nerve
Answer: (d)
60. All of the following are branches of subclavian artery except :
(a) Vertebral artery
(b) Thyrocervical trunk
(c) Subscapular artery
(d) Internal thoracic artery
Answer: (c)
61. Oesophagus receives supply from all of the following except:
(a) Bronchial artery
(b) Internal mammary artery
(c) Inferior phrenic artery
(d) Inferior thyroid artery
Answer: (b)
62. Left – gonodal vein drains into :
(a) Left renal vein
(b) Inferior-ven-cava
(c) Azygous-vein
(d) Iliac vein
Answer: (a)
63. Shortest part of male urethra is :
(a) Prostatic
(b) Membranous
(c) Bulbar
(d) Penile
Answer: (b)
64. Mandibular nerve passes through following foramen :
(a) F. ovale
(b) F. rotundum
(c) F. spinosum
(d) F. lacerum
Answer: (a)
65. All of the following nerves pass through Jugular foramen except :
(a) 9th
(b) 10th
(c) 11th
(d) 12th
Answer: (d)
66. The cranial nerve with the largest intra-cranial course is:
(a) Abducens-nerve
(b) Trochlear nerve
(c) Optic nerve
(d) Trigeminal nerve
Answer: (b)
67. Basal ganglia consist of all of the following except :
(a) Caudate nucleus
(b) Putamen
(c) Thalamus
(d) Globus-pallidus
Answer: (c)
68. Which of the following are unpaired vessel in CNS:
(a) Anterior-cerebral artery
(b) Basilar artery
(c) Posterior-cerebellar artery
(d) Posterior-communicating artery
Answer: (b)
69. All of the following structures may be compressed during flexion and abduction of shoulder joint except :
(a) Suprascapular nerve
(b) Long had of biceps tendon
(c) Supraspinatus tendon
(d) Subacromial-bursa
Answer: (a)
70. Lesser momentum has following contents except:
(a) Hepatic vein
(b) Hepatic artery
(c) Portal vein
(d) Bile duct
Answer: (a)
71. Inversion and eversion occurs at which joint:
(a) Subtalar and midtarsal
(b) Calcaneo navicular
(c) Midtarsal
(d) Calcaneocuboid only
Answer: (a)
72. Inferior mesenteric vein drains into vein:
(a) Splenic
(b) Hepatic
(c) Portal
(d) Inf. vena cava
Answer: (a)
73. Ipsilateral deviation of tongue is due to unaltered action of:
(a) Genioglossus
(b) Medial pterygoid
(c) Hyoglossus
(d) Lateral pterygoid
Answer: (a)
74. Middlemeningealartery is a branch of artery:
(a) Maxillary
(b) Posterior cerebellar
(c) ECA
(d) Vertebral
Answer: (a)
75. In deltoid paralysis, which nerve is involved:
(a) Circumflex N
(b) Musculocutaneous N
(c) Axillary N
(d) Radial N
Answer: (c)
76. Ulnar nerve injury at wrist spares which muscle
(a) Opponens pollicis
(b) Palmar interossei
(c) Dorsal interossei
(d) Adductor pollicis
Answer: (a)
77. Superior orbital fissure contains following except:
(a) Ophthalamic artery
(b) Trochlear nerve
(c) Occulomotor nerve
(d) Abducens nerve
Answer: (a)
78. Structure passing along the aorta in the diaphragmatic opening :
(a) Thoracic duct
(b) Sympathetic chain
(c) Greater splanchnic nerve
(d) Lesser splanchnic nerve
Answer: (a)
79. Rupture of supraspinatus manifests as :
(a) Painful movements
(b) Flat shoulders
(c) Difficulty in initiation of abduction
(d) Difficult in abduction after 90°
Answer: (c)
80. Fibres which pass through genu of internal capsule are :
(a) Cortico nuclear fibres
(b) Rubral fibers
(c) Fibres of upper limb
(d) Fibres of lower limb
Answer: (a)
81. Nerve of laterjet of vagus is seen in
(a) Thorax
(b) Neck
(c) Stomach
(d) Heart
Answer: (c)
82. Artery/arteries supplying occipital cortex is
(a) PCA
(b) MCA
(c) MCA + PCA
(d) ACA
Answer: (c)
83. True about foramen of bochdalek is
(a) Posterolateral gap in diaphragm
(b) Anterolateral gapin diaphragm
(c) Pleuro-pericardial gap
(d) Gap in the muscle fibres
Answer: (a)
84. Great vein of Galen is formed by fusion of:
(a) Internal cerebral veins
(b) Inf. sagittal sinus with straight sinus
(c) Straight sinus and inferior petrosal sinus
(d) Superior cerebral vein and straight sinus
Answer: (a)
85. Superior cerebral vein and straight sinus
(a) Ponto cerebellar pathway
(b) Tectospinal pathway
(c) Spinocerebellar pathway
(d) Olivo cerebellar pathway
Answer: (a)
86. Muscles attached to hook of hamate is :
(a) Flexor carpi ulnaris
(b) Flexor retinaculum
(c) Flexor hallucis longus
(d) Flexor digitorum longus
Answer: (b)
87. Which one of these muscles is not cut in postero lateral thoracotomy :
(a) Serratus anterior
(b) Pectoralis major
(c) Latissimus dorsi
(d) Intercostals
Answer: (b)
88. Lesion of medial temporal lobe is associated with:
(a) Auditory amnesia
(b) Agnosia
(c) Visual amnesia
(d) Alexia
Answer: (a)
89. Auditory pathway passes through:
(a) Medial geniculate body
(b) Lateral geniculate body
(c) Reticular formation
(d) Cerebellar fornix
Answer: (a)
90. Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :
(a) Posterior rami of L₅-S₁
(b) Posterior rami of S₂S₃S₄
(c) Anterior rami of L₅S₁S₂
(d) Anterior rami of S₂S₃S₄
Answer: (d)
91. Pain felt between great toe and II toe is due to involvement of which nerve root:
(a) L₅
(b) S₂
(c) S₁
(d) S₃
Answer: (a)
92. All the statements are true about ileum except:
(a) LN in mesentery
(b) 3-6 arcades in continuation
(c) Smaller diameter than jejunum
(d) Large circular mucosal folds
Answer: (d)
93. Rectus adominis is inserted into:
(a) Xiphoid process
(b) Median raphae
(c) Linea alba
(d) 1-4 ribs
Answer: (a)
94. Anterior compartment of leg contains all muscle except :
(a) Peroneus brevis
(b) Peroneus tertius
(c) Extensor hallucis longus
(d) Tibialis anterior
Answer: (a)
95. Relation of caudate lobe of liver is:
(a) Posterior to portal vein
(b) Anterior to rt. inferior phrenic artery
(c) posterior to ligamentum teres
(d) Posterior to ligamentum venosum
Answer: (b)
96. Optic tract is related to:
(a) Olivary mucleus
(b) Lat. geniculate body
(c) Medial geniculate body
(d) Trapezoid body
Answer: (b)
97. Great vein of Galen is formed by:
(a) Superior saggital sinus with straight line
(b) Inf. sagital sinus with straight sinus
(c) Internal cerebral veins
(d) Basilar vein
Answer: (c)
98. Aortic opening in diaphragm transmits :
(a) Oesophagus
(b) Thoracic duct
(c) Gastric nerve
(d) IVC
Answer: (b)
99. Ulnar nerve injury at wrist involves following except :
(a) Palmar interossei
(b) Opponerns pollicis
(c) Dorsal interossei
(d) Adductor pollicis
Answer: (b)
100. Following are derived from II arch except :
(a) Malleus/Incus
(b) Stylohyoid ligament
(c) Stapes
(d) Smaller cornu of hyoid
Answer: (a)
101. Finger by which all the muscles in the hand can be tested :
(a) Index
(b) Ring
(c) Thumb
(d) Middle
Answer: (c)
102. Following are fibrous joints :
(a) Pubic symphysis
(b) Fronto parietal suture
(c) Manubrio sterna joint
(d) Inf. radio ulnar joint
Answer: (b)
103. Not true about the anal canal is :
(a) Completely lined by stratified squamous epithelium
(b) Supplied by pudendal nerve
(c) Drained by veins forming portosystemic anastomosis
(d) Part below pectinate line is supplied by inf. rectal artery
Answer: (a)
104. Paraxial mesoderm develops into :
(a) Somites
(b) Mesonephric duct
(c) Notochord
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
105. The commonest site of surgical uretero-vaginal fistula is :
(a) Below infudibuloperlvic ligament
(b) Below uterine artery in the mackenrodts ligament
(c) Vaginal angle
(d) Above uterine artery
Answer: (b)
106. Dorello’s canal transmits in tip of temporal bone to en route to cavernous sinus :
(a) Middle meningeal artery
(b) Mandibular nerve
(c) Superior alveolar branch of maxillary
(d) Abducent nerve
Answer: (d)
107. Vein draining to IVC is :
(a) Left testicular vein
(b) Rt suprarenal vein
(c) Lt. ovarian vein
(d) Lt. suprarenal vein
Answer: (b)
108. Esophagus enters through :
(a) Central tendon of diaphragm
(b) Along aortic opening
(c) Muscular part of diaphragm
(d) Rt. crus
Answer: (c)
109. Abductor of vocal cord is :
(a) Posterior cricoarytenoid
(b) Vocalis
(c) Cricothyroid
(d) Thyroepiglotticus
Answer: (a)
110. First branch of facial nerve is :
(a) Chorda tympani
(b) Nerve to stapedius
(c) Lesser superficial petrosal N
(d) Greater superficial petrosal N
Answer: (d)
111. Isthmus of thyroid is at the level of :
(a) 3rd and 4th tracheal ring
(b) 5 and 6th ring
(c) 1 and 2nd ring
(d) 2nd and 3rd ring
Answer: (d)
112. Arterial supply of latistimus dorsi is :
(a) Subscapular A
(b) Circumflex humeral A
(c) Thoracodorsal A
(d) Lateral thoracic A
Answer: (a)
113. Nasolacrimal duct opens into :
(a) Inferior meatus
(b) Ant. part of middle meatus
(c) Superior meatus
(d) Posterior part of middle meatus
Answer: (a)
114. Which is the direct branch of coeliac trunk :
(a) Rt. gastric
(b) Lt. gastric
(c) Gastroduodenal
(d) Rt gastroepiploic artery
Answer: (b)
115. Wining of scapula is due to paralysis of ……… nerve :
(a) Long thoracic
(b) Axillary
(c) Radial
(d) Median
Answer: (a)
116. Ext branch of Sup. laryngeal N.supply :
(a) Cricothyroid
(b) Thyroarytenoid
(c) Post cricoarytenoid
(d) Cricoarytenoid
Answer: (a)
117. Following are the T.M. Joint ligaments except :
(a) Stylomandibular
(b) Temporomandibular
(c) Tympanomandibular
(d) Sphenomandibular
Answer: (c)
118. Parts of left lower lobe of lung except :
(a) Superior
(b) Anteromedial Basal
(c) Post. basal
(d) Medial basal
Answer: (b)
119. In a female child at birth oocyte is in a stage of :
(a) Anaphase 2nd meoitic
(b) Prophase 1st meiotic
(c) Oogony
(d) Maturation
Answer: (b)
120. Intercalated disc is present in :
(a) Cardiac muscle
(b) Smooth muscle
(c) Skeletal muscle
(d) All
Answer: (a)
121. Branchial Sinus passes between :
(a) Two carotids
(b) IJV & Carotid
(c) Superficial to ECA
(d) Post. mediastinum
Answer: (a)
122. Nerve damaged due to lunate dislocation (in carpal tunnel) :
(a) Median & ulnar
(b) Median
(c) Ulnar
(d) Radial
Answer: (b)
123. Adduction of hand at wrist is done by :
(a) Flexor carpi radialis
(b) Flexor carpi longus
(c) Flexor digitorum profundus
(d) Extensor carpi ulnaris
Answer: (d)
124. True about boundaries of lesser Sac :
(a) Posteriorly stomach
(b) Crus of diaphragm
(c) Spleen
(d) Greater omentum
Answer: (d)
125. Parafollicular ‘C’ cells develop from :
(a) second branchial pouch
(b) Second branchial cleft
(c) Ultimobranchial body
(d) Third branchial pouch
Answer: (c)
126. Superior rectus is suppled by which cranial nerve :
(a) Superior division of 3rd nerve
(b) Inferior div. or 3rd nerve
(c) Abducent nerve
(d) Trochlear nerve
Answer: (a)
127. Cremasteric muscle is supplied by :
(a) Ilioinguinal nerve
(b) Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
(c) Obturator nerve
(d) Popliteal nerve
Answer: (b)
128. Cystic artery arises from :
(a) Right hepatic artery
(b) Left hepatic artery
(c) Common hepatic artery
(d) Gastroduodenal artery
Answer: (a)
129. Lateral border of cubital fossa is formed by :
(a) Pronator teres
(b) Brachioradialis
(c) Supinator
(d) Brachialis
Answer: (b)
130. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the trachea :
(a) During deep inspiration, the tracheal bifurcation may descend to T₆ level
(b) The left bronchus is wider and shorter
(c) The arch of the aorta lies over the right bronchus and is anterior to it
(d) The sensory supply of trachea is by the vagus
Answer: (d)
131. Functions of basal ganglia include :
(a) Planning and voluntary movements
(b) Sensory integration
(c) Short term memory
(d) Coordination of motor functions
Answer: (a)
132. Cremasteric muscle is supplied is to :
(a) Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
(b) Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
(c) Lateral femoral nerve
(d) Ilio-inguinal nerve
Answer: (a)
133. Branch of basilar artery include :
(a) Posterior inferior cerebellar
(b) Posterior cerebral
(c) Middle cerebral
(d) Post. communicating
Answer: (b)
134. All of these are derivating of neural crest except :
2. A man can not able to do abduction & internal rotation of arm. Which of the following muscle is responsible for the both movement?
(a) Pectoralis major
(b) Subscapularis
(c) Deltoid
(d) Supraspinatus
(e) Teres major
Ans: (c)
3. There is loss of sensation of lateral 3 & 1/2 finger. The likely nerve injured is/are:
(a) Only median nerve
(b) Median nerve plus ulnar nerve only
(c) Median nerve plus radial nerve only
(d) Ulnar & radial nerve only
(e) Median, radial & ulnar nerve
Ans: (e)
4. Finding of trigeminal nerve injury include:
(a) Pupillary dilation
(b) Loss of blinking reflex of eye
(c) Loss of jaw reflex
(d) Ptosis
(e) Weakness of muscle of mastication
Ans: (b, c, e)
Physiology
5. Testosterone is/are secreted by:
(a) Leydig cell
(b) Sertoli cell
(c) Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex
(d) Zona glomerulosa
(e) Interstitial cells of Leydig
Ans: (a, c, e)
6. Nitric oxide is synthesized from:
(a) Smooth muscle cell
(b) Endothelial cells
(c) Platelet
(d) Subendothelial connective tissue
Ans: (c)
7. Alpha unit is/are found in:
(a) TSH
(b) FSH
(c) hCG
(d) Prolactin
(e) LH
Ans: (a, b, e)
Biochemistry
8. All are true about galactosemia except:
(a) Deficiency of galactokinase
(b) Disease manifest only at adolescence
(c) Accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate
(d) Accumulation of galactitol
(e) Deficiency of enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
Ans: (b)
9. Which of the following are true about vitamin A:
(a) Most common form to be taken daily is retinoic acid
(b) It is fat soluble
(c) It is stored mainly in the retinal pigment epithelium
(d) Deficiency cause dry eye due to decreased production of the aqueous
Ans: (b)
Immunogenetics & Molecular Biology
10. Glycosated Hb estimated by:
(a) HPLC
(b) ELISA
(c) PCR
(d) Spectrometry
Ans: (a)
11. True about Transposons:
(a) It has no effect on gene expression
(b) Also called jumping genes
(c) Mediated by enzyme transposase
(d) It is called retrotransposon when it involves an RNA intermediate
Ans: (b, c, d)
Pathology
12. Which of the following is/are features of IgA nephropathy:
(a) Mesangial proliferation
(b) Episodic hematuria
(c) Crescent formation is characteristic
(d) Mesangial deposition of IgA
Ans: (a, b, d)
13. Features of apoptosis are:
(a) Shrinking of cell
(b) Plasma membrane disruption
(c) Nucleus fragmentation
(d) Chromatic condensation
(e) Phagocytosis by macrophages
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
14. Which is not autosomal recessive disease:
(a) Sickle cell anemia
(b) Marfan syndrome
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Huntington disease
(e) Alkaptonuria
Ans: (b, d)
15. Ulceration of lymph node is/are seen in:
(a) LGV
(b) Primary syphillis
(c) Plague
(d) Chancroid
(e) Granuloma inguinale
Ans: (a, c, d)
16. True about Fe deficiency anaemia:
(a) ↓TIBC
(b) ↓Serum Fe
(c) ↓Serum ferritin
(d) ↑Reticulocyte count
(e) ↑Percent saturation
Ans: (b, c)
17. Which of the following is/are true after splenectomy:
(a) Heinz bodies found in RBC
(b) Thrombocytopenia
(c) Risk of pneumococcus infection
(d) Malaria is more common
(e) Penicillin is given for prophylaxis, especially in children
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
18. True about familial adenopathy:
(a) Defined clinically by the presence of more than 100 colorectal adenomas
(b) Inherited as an autosomal recessive condition
(c) Patient develops colorectal cancer only after 60 year
(d) Epidermoid cyst may be associated
Ans: (a, c, d)
19. Uniparental disomy is/are seen in all except:
(a) Prader-Willi syndrome
(b) Russel silver syndrome
(c) Angelman’s syndrome
(d) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
(e) Noonann syndrome
Ans: (e)
20. Philadelphia chromosome is/are seen in
(a) CML
(b) AML
(c) ALL
(d) Chronic myelo-monocytic leukaemia
Ans: (a, c)
21. Which of the following is/are true about Wilsons disease:
(a) Underlying defect is chromosome 13
(b) Mutation in ATP7B gene
(c) The normal gene codes for transmembrane coper-transporting ATPase
(d) Occur due to defect in copper zinc cotransporter
(e) The main defect lies transportation of copper from intestine to liver
Ans: (a, b, c)
22. Eosinophilia is/are seen in:
(a) Visceral leishmaniasis
(b) Churg-Strauss syndrome
(c) Visceral larva migrans
(d) Drug allergy
(e) Parasitic infestations
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
Pharmacology
23. Which of the following is/are true about Zero Order kinetics:
(a) Rate of elimination remains constant irrespective of drug concentration
(b) Constant amount of drug is excreted
(c) T1/2 decreases with dose
(d) Clearance decreases with increase in concentration
(e) Clearance remain constant
Ans: (a, b, d)
24. Which of the following is/are small molecule tyrosine kinase inhibitor:
(a) Sirolimus
(b) Imatinib
(c) Erlotinib
(d) Nilotinib
(e) BEvaclizumab
Ans: (a, c, d)
25. Acetylcholine esterase inhibitors are:
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Atropine
(c) Edrophonium
(d) Methacholine
(e) Malathion
Ans: (a, c, e)
26. Drugs, which are enzyme inducers:
(a) Rifampicin
(b) Ketoconazole
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Griseofilvin
Ans: (a, c, d)
27. Drug used in MRSA are all except:
(a) Vancomycin
(b) 3rd generation cephalosporin
(c) Amphotericin B
(d) Meropenam
(e) Linezolid
Ans: (b, c, d)
28. Which of the following is not atypical antipsychotic:
(a) Aripiprazole
(b) Amoxapine
(c) Clozapine
(d) Zotepine
(e) Asenapine
Ans: (b)
29. Hypkalemia occurs in use of:
(a) Thiazide
(b) ACE inhibitor
(c) Amphotericin B
(d) Heparin
(e) Insulin
Ans: (a, c, e)
Microbiology
30. Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are seen in:
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Good pasture syndrome
(c) Sarcoidosis
(d) Blood transfusion reactions
Ans: (a, b, d)
31. Napier’s Aldehyde test is done for:
(a) Kala-azar
(b) Malaria
(c) Acanthamoeba
(d) Entamoeba
Ans: (a)
32. A patient presented with pneumonia. On microscopic examination it showed capsulated diplococcus. On Indian ink preparation, it shows clear halo. Which of the following is true regarding this bacteria:
(a) Optochin sensitive
(b) Bile soluble
(c) Catalase positive
Ans: (a, b)
33. Feature of congenital syphilis is/are:
(a) Osteochondritis
(b) Tabes dorsalis
(c) Ulceration on genitalia
(d) Hutchinson’s teeth
Ans: (a, d)
34. Glander’s disease is caused by:
(a) Caused by pseudomallei
(b) Burkholderia pseudomallei
(c) Pseudomonas mallei
(d) Burkholderia mallei
(e) Burkhorlderia cepacia
Ans: (c, d)
35. True about virions:
(a) May contains DNA
(b) May contains RNA
(c) Contains both RNA & DNA
(d) Have well developed enzymes for protein & nucleic acid synthesis
Ans: (a, b)
Forensic Medicine
36. Which of the following is/are features of typical hanging rather than strangulation:
(a) Most common hyoid bone #
(b) Dropping of saliva
(c) Ruptur of carotid
(d) Congestion of face
Ans: (a, b, c)
37. Which of the following sexual perversions/unnatural sex is correctly matched:
(a) Fetishism: Infliction of pain to sexual partner
(b) Frotteurism- contact with another person in order to obtain sexual satisfaction
(c) Sadism: Desire to watch sexual intercourse or to observe genitals of others
(d) Bestiality: It is the sexual intercourse by a human being with a lower animal
(e) Masochism- Sexual gratification by fingering
Ans: (b, d)
38. Feature(s) of drowning:
(a) Hypoklemia
(b) Swollen eye
(c) Swollen lungs
(d) Paultoff haemorrhage
(e) Hyponatremia
Ans: (c, d)
39. In acute arsenic poisoning which of the following are seen:
(a) Seizure
(b) Garlic odour in breath
(c) Vomiting
(d) Bloody diarrhoea
(e) Hypertension
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
40. Activated charcoal are used in:
(a) Paracetamol poisoning
(b) Salicylate toxicity
(c) Ferrous overdosage
(d) Lithium overdoasge
(e) Ethyl alcohol
Ans: (a, b)
41. Which of the following is/are finger printing pattern:
(a) Whorls
(b) Ringh
(c) Loop
(d) Composite
(e) Arches
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
SPM
42. Criteria for drinking water quality recommended by WHO includes:
(a) Chloride 200 mg/litre
(b) pH +6.5-8.5
(c) Fe-3 mg/l
(d) Manganese – 1 mg/l
Ans: (a, b)
43. Viral heamorragic fevers found in India are:
(a) Dengue fever
(b) Crimean Congo fever
(c) Kyasnur forest disease
(d) Lassa fever
(e) Yellow fever
Ans: (a, c)
44. If the prevalence of a disease increases, what will be seen:
(a) Increase sensitivity
(b) Decrease specificity
(c) Increase positive predictive value
(d) Decrease positive predictive value
(e) None of the above
Ans: (c)
45. Which of the following is/are true regarding tuberculosis in HIV patients:
(a) Adverse effects of AT is more pronounced in HIV-infected patients
(b) Rifampicin should be avoided
(c) ATT should be started first, then ART
(d) Drug resistance for ATT is more common
(e) Rifampicin increases serum level of many ART-drugs
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
46. CNS manifestations in HIV patients is/are:
(a) Myopathy
(b) Aseptic meningitis
(c) Primary CNS lymphoma
(d) Myelopathy
Ans: (b, c, d)
47. Health promotion includes:
(a) PAS smear
(b) Mass treatment
(c) Immunization
(d) Health education
Ans: (d)
Ophthalmology
48. Causes of epiphora:
(a) Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
(b) Facial nerve palsy
(c) Allergic conjunctivitis
(d) Lower ectropian
Ans: (a, c, d)
49. Which of the following are not cycloplegic drugs:
(a) Atropine
(b) Phenylephrine
(c) Tropicamide
(d) Pilocarpine
(e) Cyclopentolate
Ans: (d)
50. Action of superior oblique muscle:
(a) Adduction
(b) Intorsion
(c) Elevation
(d) Extorsion
(e) Depression
Ans: (b, e)
ENT
51. True about allergic fungal sinusitis:
(a) Aspergillus niger & aspergillus flavum may be present in mucin
(b) Amphotericin B used in treatment
(c) Surgical clearance is mainstay of treatment
(d) Invasion of the sinus mucosa with fungus
Ans: (a, d)
52. True are about vocal nodule except:
(a) Also called as screamer node
(b) Commonly seen in teachers
(c) Microscopic surgery is done
(d) Voice therapy is used for treatment
(e) Most commonly seen at junction of anterior 2/3 & posterior 1/3
Ans: (e)
53. True about Gradenigo syndrome:
(a) Retro-orbital pain
(b) Conductive hearing los
(c) Abscess of petrous apex
(d) V and VII nerve involvement
(e) Ear discharge
Ans: (a, d, e)
54. True about nverted papilloma:
(a) Common in children
(b) Bleeding common
(c) Arises from middle meatus
(d) Arises from lateral wall of nose
Ans: (b, d)
55. All are true about nasopharyngeal angiofibroma except:
(a) Seen exclusively in age group of 10-20 years
(b) Seen exclusively in males
(c) Recurrent bleeding is most common presentation
(d) X-ray is IOC
(e) Surgery is TOC
Ans: (d)
56. A persons has Ca tongue with B/L lymphadenoapthy, size 5 cms with no metastasis. The staging is:
(a) T1 N1 M0
(b) T2 N2 M0
(c) T3 N3 M1
(d) T1 N2 M1
(e) T2 N3 M0
Ans: (b)
Medicine
57. All are features of Sipple’s syndrome except:
(a) Medullary carcinoma thyroid
(b) Parathyroid adenoma
(c) Also called as MEN 2A
(d) Islet cell tumor
(e) Pheochromocytoma
Ans: (d)
58. True about Prothrombin time:
(a) Used to measure severity of live disease
(b) Evaluate intrinsic pathway
(c) Evaluate extrinsic pathway
(d) Evaluate common pathway
(e) ↓ in oral anticoagulant therapy
Ans: (a, c, d)
59. Which of the following is/are feature of cerebellar lesion:
(a) Dysmetria
(b) Dysarthria
(c) Dysphonia
(d) Intention tremors
(e) Static tremor
Ans: (e)
60. A 45 year old male smoker has elevated BP. He has previous history of 1 episode of angina & also has family history of IHD. Which of the following would you advice him:
(a) Regular exercise
(b) Consumption of alcohol
(c) Start statins
(d) Stop smoking
(e) Start antihypertensive
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
61. Feature (s) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is/are:
(a) Chest pain
(b) Sudden death
(c) Arrhythamias
(d) Valsalva maneuver decreases murmur intensity
(e) Symmetrical hypertrophy of septum
Ans: (a, b, c)
62. True about COPD:
(a) ↑RV
(b) ↑ FRC
(c) ↑ TLC
(d) Quitting of smoking is advisable
(e) ↑FEV1/FVC
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
63. True about cystic fibrosis:
(a) AD inheritance
(b) Involves chromosome 7
(c) Around 10% patients have associated rectal polyp
(d) Absence of phenylalanine at amino acid position ∆F508
(e) CFTR Mutation
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
64. Prolonged QT interval is/are seen in:
(a) Some congenital anomalies
(b) Hypercalcemia
(c) Amiodarone
(d) Erythromycin
(e) Hypokalemia
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
65. Low SAAG ratio is/are seen in:
(a) Budd Chiari syndrome
(b) Portal hypertension
(c) Cirrhosis
(d) Heart failure
(e) Nephrotic syndrome
Ans: (e)
Surgery
66. True about carcinoma caecum:
(a) Right hemicolectomy is done
(b) Presents as colicy pain in right iliac fosaa
(c) Presents as occult bleeding
(d) MC site of colon cancer
Ans: (a, c)
67. Not true about Hischprung’s disease:
(a) More common in girls than boys
(b) Absence of auerobachs plexus
(c) Surgery is Duhamel’s procedure
(d) Barium enema is helpful
(e) Common in rectosigmoid region
Ans: (a)
68. Cullen’s is/sign are seen:
(a) Peritonitis
(b) Chronic pancreatitis
(c) Pancreatic cancer
(d) Acute pancreatitis
Ans: (b)
69. Cullen’s is/sign are seen:
(a) Peritonitis
(b) Chronic pancreatitis
(c) Pancreatic cancer
(d) Acute pancreatitis
Ans: (d)
70. Features of thrombophelebitis obliterans is/are:
(a) Smoking is risk factor
(b) More common in upper limbs
(c) Large vessel are commonly involved
(d) More common in male
(e) Segmental involvement of vessel
Ans: (a, d, e)
71. True about cleft lip & palate:
(a) C. lip results from abnormal fusion frontal & nasal process
(b) C. lip results from abnormal development of the median nasal & maxillary process
(c) Cleft palate results form a failure of fusion of the two palatine process
(d) Cleft lip repair is commonly performed between three and six months of age
Ans: (b, c, d)
72. True about appendicitis:
(a) Pain start in periumbilical region
(b) May be caused due to bacterial or viral infection
(c) Pain at right iliac fossa due to coughing
(d) Appendectomy is treatment of choice
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
73. True about papillary carcinoma thyroid:
(a) MC metastasis to lymph node
(b) RAS gene is involved in carinogenesis
(c) There is BRCA gene mutation
(d) Irradiation is a risk factor
Ans: (a, b, d)
74. A 60 Yr female diagnosed to have Ca breast with T2N2M1 stage. Which of the following is/are true regarding his tumour status:
(a) Spread to 1-3 axillay L.N
(b) Spread to ipsilateral supraclavicular nodes
(c) Size <2 cm
(d) T2 Tumor > 2 cm but ≤ 5 cm
Ans: (b, d)
Obstetrics & Gyanecology
75. Breech presentation is predisoposed by:
(a) Nulliparity
(b) Preamturity
(c) Aneuploidy
(d) Face presentation
Ans: (b, c)
76. In carcinoma cervix management includes:
(a) Radiotherapy
(b) Wertheim’s hysterectomy
(c) Pap smear
(d) CT abdomen
(e) Cervical biopsy
Ans: (all)
77. In mullerian agenesis there is absence of:
(a) Vagina
(b) Cervix
(c) Ovary
(d) Fallopian tube
(e) Uterus
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
78. A woman has one child with Down syndrome. She has now pregnancy in 2nd What screening method should be used for the pregnancy to screen the fetus fir Down syndrome:
(a) Amnicentesis
(b) Biophysical profile
(c) Triple test
(d) Chorionic villus sampling
(e) Ultrasonography
Ans: (c, e)
79. Triple test includes:
(a) hCG
(b) Human placental lactogen
(c) Unconjugated estradiol
(d) Lactate dehydrogenase
(e) Alpha fetoprotein
Ans: (a, c, e)
80. Which of the following is/are features of PCOD:
(a) ↑LH
(b) ↑FSH
(c) ↓Oestrone
(d) ↑Insulin
(e) ↑Androgen
Ans: (a, d, e)
81. Which parameters do not changes during pregnancy:
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Vital capacity
(c) Residual volume
(d) Respiratory rate
(e) Heart rate
Ans: (b, d)
82. Antihypertensive drugs used in pregnancy:
(a) Methyldopa
(b) ACE inhibitor
(c) Non selective β blockers
(d) Nifedipine
(e) Labetalol
Ans: (a, d, e)
83. Cause of Postpartum hemorrhage is/are:
(a) Uterine atony
(b) Twin pregnancy
(c) Nulliparity
(d) Placenta praevia
(e) Placenta accrete
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
84. Drugs used for Hormone Replacement Therapy are:
(a) Estrogen
(b) Corticosteroid
(c) Calcitonin
(d) Biphosphonate
(e) Clomiphene citrate
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
Paediatrics
85. Which are the common vaccine recommended by both IAP and WHO:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Rotavirus
(c) MMR
(d) Yellow fever
Ans: (a, b, c)
86. A child of 3 yr can do which of following:
(a) Can build tower of 15-20 cubes
(b) Has vocabulary of around 10-15 words only
(c) Know name and gender
(d) Can draw square
(e) Can differentiate right & left
Ans: (c)
87. Which of the following is correctly matched about Apgar score:
(a) Blue colour of body-1
(b) Heart rate slow-0
(c) Active movement-2
(d) Weak cry-1
Ans: (c, d)
Orthopaedics
88. True about Frozen shoulder:
(a) May occur after myocardial infarction
(b) Seen following colle’s fracture
(c) Less commonly seen in diabetes
(d) Improves after intraarticular steroid injection
Ans: (d)
89. True about Smith fracture:
(a) May occur with wrist injury
(b) Distal fragment displaces dorsally
(c) Dinner-fork deformity occurs
(d) Treated with manipulation and immobilization in plaster cast
(e) Distal fragment is tilted anteriorly
Ans: (a, d, e)
90. Neurological complication(s) of supracondylar fracture of humerus:
(a) Ulnar never
(b) Anterior interosseous branch of medial nerve
(c) Radial nerve
(d) Median nerve
(e) Musculocutaneous nerve
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
91. All are true about clavicle fracture except:
(a) MC site junction of middle & outer-third of clavicle
(b) Reduction of the fragment is always needed
(c) Outer fragment displaces medially & downward
(d) Malunion is a late complication
(e) Neurological dysfunction may occur
Ans: (b)
Skin
92. Treatment of scabies consists of:
(a) 1% permethrin cream
(b) 5% permethrin cream
(c) Ivermectin single oral dose
(d) 25% BHC
Ans: (b, c)
93. Tinea ungum involves:
(a) Hands
(b) Nails
(c) Palm
(d) Foot
Ans: (b)
94. Which of the following is true:
(a) Portwine-present at birth
(b) Salmon patch-persists throughout life
(c) Cavernous heamngioma-Involute with time
(d) Strawberry angioma-not present at birth
Ans: (a)
Anaesthesia
95. True about intercostals analgesia:
(a) Performed for postoperative analgesia
(b) Usually performed in anterior axillary line
(c) Drug usually given at superior border of rib
(d) Penumothorax may occur as a complication
Ans: (a, d)
96. Characteristics of isoflurane is/are:
(a) Very smooth induction
(b) It is the inhalational agent of choice for controlled hypotension
(c) Good analgesia
(d) Cardiac stable agent
Ans: (b, d)
97. Not true about procedure of cricoids pressure:
(a) Neck is extended
(b) Direction of pressure should be backward & upward
(c) Preoxygenation with 100% oxygenation for 3-4 minute is mandatory
(d) In case of emergency 4 deep breaths with 100% oxygen can b e used as an alternative to preoxygenation
(e) Cricoid pressure is released only once cuff is inflated & the position of ETT is confirmed
Ans: (b, c)
Psychiatry
98. Which of the following is type of psychotherapy:
(a) Psychodrama
(b) Family counseling
(c) Psychanalytic psychotherapy
(d) Cognitive therapy
Ans: (a, c, d)
99. Which is not 1st rank symptom Schizophrenia:
(a) Audible thoughts
(b) Voices commenting
(c) Perplexity
(d) Thought broadcasting
Ans: (c)
Radiology
100. Minimum lethal dose of radiation is:
(a) 12 Gy
(b) 2 Gray
(c) 2-5 Gray
(d) 5-10 Gray
(e) > 15 Gray
Ans: (c)
101. Highly radiosensitive tumors are:
(a) Ewing sarcoma
(b) Osteosarcoma
(c) Seminoma
(d) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(e) Melanoma
Ans: (a, c, d)
102. Sterotactic surgery is/are done in:
(a) Ca breast
(b) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(c) Cervivcal cancer
(d) Meningioma
(e) AV malformation
Ans: (d, e)
103. Which of the following is used in radiotherapy:
(a) Co-60
(b) Gamma knife
(c) Gamma camera
(d) LINAC
Ans: (a, b, d)
104. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding acute EDH:
(a) Biconvex haematoma on CT scan
(b) Concavo-covex haematoma on CT scan
(c) Bleeding mainly from middle meingaeal artery
(d) Bleeding mainly from veins
(e) Bleeding mainly from veins
Ans: (a, c)
105. Right boundary of heart on X-ray PA view is/are formed by:
(a) SVC
(b) IVC
(c) Right atrium appendages
(d) Right carotid artery Aortic arch
(e) Right brachiocephalic vein main pulmonary trunk
Ans: (a, b, c)
106. Which of the following is/are feature(s) of MRI in comparison to CT scan:
1. During a thyroid operation, a nerve coursing along with the superior thyroid artery is injured. What can be the possible consequence(s):
(a) Loss of sensation above vocal cord
(b) Loss of sensation below vocal cord
(c) paralysis of lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
(d) Paralysis of cricothyroid muscle
(e) Loss of sensation in pyriform fossa
Ans: (d)
2. Nerve of Wrisberg contain(s):
(a) Motor fibers
(b) Sensory fibers
(c) Secretory fibers
(d) Parasympathetic fibers
(e) Sympathetic fibers
Ans: (b, d)
3. Causes of facial palsy include(s):
(a) Lacunar infarct
(b) Parotid tumour surgery
(c) Bell’s palsy
(d) GBS
(e) Melkersson syndrome
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
4. Roof of Inguinal canal is/are formed by:
(a) Internal oblique muscle
(b) Fascia transversalis
(c) Transversus abdominis muscles
(d) 344 oblique muscle
(e) Conjoint tendon
Ans: (a, c)
5. After surgery on right side of neck, a person could not raise his arm above head and also could not shrug the shoulder. What is the possible causes:
(a) Damage to spinal accessory nerve
(b) Paralysis of trapezius muscle
(c) Injury to axillary nerve
(d) Paralysis of latissimus dorsi
(e) Paralysis of deltoid muscles
Ans: (a, b)
6. An person in unable to dorsiflex the foot and there is loss of sensations on dorsal foot. Possible nerve injury is:
(a) Damage to common peroneal nerve at neck of fibla
(b) Damage to common peroneal at medial malleolus
(c) Compression of anterior tibial nerve at ankle
(d) Damage to superficial peroneal nerve
(e) Damage of deep peroneal nerve
Ans: (a)
7. A person having difficulty in opening in mouth but not in closing the mouth. Which of the following statement is correct about concerned muscle:
(a) Origin from lateral pterygoid plate
(b) Origin from medial pterygoid plate
(c) Insertion to anterior margin in articular disc
(d) Supplied by mandibular nerve
(e) Depress mandible while opening it
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
8. Cranial nerve passing through internal auditory meatus:
(a) 7th cranial nerve
(b) 9th cranial nerve
(c) 10th cranial nerve
(d) 11th cranial nerve
(e) 12th cranial nerve
Ans: (a)
9. A person can not able to adduct this thumb. The nerve involved is characterized by:
(a) Having C7 8 T1 root value
(b) Arise from medial cord of brachial plexus
(c) Arise from lateral cord of brachial plexus
(d) Arise from posterior cord of brachial plexus
(e) Supplies 1st two lumbricals
Ans: (a, b)
10. True about anatomy of lateral wall of nose:
(a) Superior turbinate is a separate bone
(b) Ethmoid bone forms an important part of the lateral wall
(c) Middle turbinate is formed by medial process of the ethmoidal layrinth
(d) Opening of inferior meatus is present
Ans: (b, c, d)
Physiology
11. Not found in seminal fluid:
(a) Fructose
(b) Prostaglandins
(c) Spermine
(d) Citric acid
(e) Inositol
Ans: (e)
12. Which of the following sugar is/are found in aminotic fluid:
(a) Mannose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Glucose
(d) Fructose
(e) Galactose
Ans: (c)
13. True about Shear stress on vessel:
(a) Parallel to the long axis of blood vessel
(b) Perpendicular to long axis of blood vessel
(c) Increases with increase in axial velocity of fluid
(d) Poiseuille-Hagen equation correlate flow with viscosity
(e) Depend upon viscosity
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
14. Carbon monoxide transfer factor is/are increased in:
(a) Polycythemia
(b) Anaemia
(c) L→R shunt
(d) R→L shunt
(e) Pulmonary embolism
Ans: (a, c)
15. Which hormone regulate(s) serum calcium level:
(a) PTH calcitonin
(b) Adrenaline
(c) 1, 25-Dihydroxy-cholecalciferol
(d) Procalcitonin
Ans: (a, b, d)
16. True statement regarding arterial BP:
(a) Diurnal variation present
(b) Low when taken with small cuff
(c) Standing increases both SBP & DBP
(d) Should be measured in both arms
(e) Exercise increases both SBP & DBP
Ans: (a, d, e)
17. Features of ECF as compared to ICF:
(a) High K
(b) High Na
(c) High proteins
(d) High Cl
(e) Nearly equal osmolarity in both fluid
Ans: (b, d, e)
18. Calcium sensing receptors is/are present at:
(a) PCT
(b) DCT
(c) Loop of Henle
(d) Apical brush-border membrane of the intestinal
(e) Epithelium of intestine
Ans: (all)
Biochemistry
19. Which of the following is/are not sphingolipidosis:
(a) Tay Sach’s disease
(b) Sandhoff’s disease
(c) Krabbe’s disease
(d) Fabry’s disease
(e) Wolman disease
Ans: (b, e)
20. Disease of branched chain amino acid includes
(a) Phenylketonuria
(b) Maple syrup disease
(c) Tayscah’s disease
(d) Isovaleric acidemia
(e) Niemann-Pick disease
Ans: (b, d)
21. True about gluconeogenesis:
(a) Prevent hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting
(b) Occur in both muscle and liver
(c) Fructose2, 6- biphosphate stimulate it
(d) Excess of acetyl CoA cause stimulation
(e) Carbon skeleton of amino acid is involved in gluconeogenesis
Ans: (a, d, e)
22. Essential fatty acid is/are:
(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Linoleic acid
(c) Linolenic acid
(d) Oleic acid
(e) Free fatty acid
Ans: (b, c)
23. Which substrate is/are used to provide energy for body:
(a) Ketone bodies
(b) Glucose
(c) Free fatty acids
(d) Creatine phosphate
(e) Collagen
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
24. Correct combination of Urine odour in various metabolic disorders:
(a) Phenylketonuria-Mousy odour
(b) Tyrosinemia-Rotten cabbage
(c) Hawkinsuria-Potato smell
(d) Maple syrup disease-Rotten tomato
(e) Alkaptonuria-Rotten egg
Ans: (a, b)
25. Which group of amino acid is responsible for peptide bond:
(a) Amino group
(b) Carboxyl group
(c) Side chain
(d) Aldehyde group
(e) Amide group
Ans: (a, b)
Immunogenetics & Molecular Biology
26. In a sample of DNA, if Adenine is 23%. What will be amount of guanine present:
(a) 23%
(b) 25%
(c) 46%
(d) 27%
(e) 54%
Ans: (d)
27. True about DNA polymerase used in PCR:
(a) Obtained from virus
(b) Obtained from bacteria
(c) Used for joining the two strands
(d) It is heat stable
(e) Add nucleotide
Ans: (b, d, e)
28. Post transcriptional modification includes:
(a) All RNA undergo post transcriptional modification
(b) Capping of the pre-mRNA involves the addition of 7-methylgunaosine to the 5’ end
(c) Poly A tailing occur at 3’ end
(d) Intron excision by spliceosome
(e) Primarily occur in cytoplasm
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
29. True about prokaryotic DNA replication:
(a) Conservative
(b) Semi conservative
(c) Unidirectional
(d) Bidirectional
(e) Semidiscontinuous
Ans: (b, d, e)
30. Immunoflorescent probes are used in:
(a) FRET
(b) Microarray
(c) RIA
(d) Recombinant DNA
(e) ELISA
Ans: (a, c, e)
Pathology
31. Which of the following gene combination is/are found in sarcoma:
(a) EWS-ETV1
(b) EWS-ERG
(c) EWS-CHN
(d) EWS-ATF1
(e) EWS-WT1
Ans: (all)
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about pilocytic astrocytoma:
(a) Slow growing
(b) Increase in vascularity
(c) Most commonly involve cerebellum
(d) Mostly cystic in nature
(e) Mostly malignant
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
33. Human Papilloma Virus does not causes:
(a) Oropharyngeal carcinoma
(b) Cervical carcinoma
(c) Oesophageal carcinoma
(d) Cutaneous carinoma
(e) Burkitt’s lymphoma
Ans: (e)
34. True about cholelithiasis:
(a) Cholesterol stones are most common
(b) 90% of gallstone are radio-opaque
(c) Mirrizi syndrome is due to impaction of stone in hartmann’s pouch
(d) Hemolytic anaemia cause black colored stone
(e) Carcinoma is not a risk associated with gallstone
Ans: (a, c, d)
35. All are true about ascending cholangitis except:
(a) Most commonly caused by gram positive organisms
(b) In severe cases collapse can occur
(c) Urgent removal of stone by ERCP can be done
(d) Cholecystectomy is also done
(e) Commonly caused by obstruction of bile duct by stone
Ans: (a)
36. Not true about von Willebrand disease:
(a) aPTT is normal
(b) Bleeding time is normal
(c) Most common pattern of inheritance is autosomal recessive
(d) Bleeding from mucosa in oral cavity may present
(e) Normal platelet count
Ans: (a, b, c)
37. True about Peutz-jeghers syndrome:
(a) Pigmentary changes in skin an mucous membrane around mouth
(b) Adenomatous polyp in intestine
(c) Most common of pattern inheritance is autosomal recessive
(d) 20-30% premalignant
(e) May presents as anemia in children
Ans: (a, e)
38. All are true about Mantle cell lymphoma except:
(a) Associated with an (11:14) translocation
(b) Overexpression of the BCL protein
(c) CD 5 positive
(d) CD 23 positive
(e) Centroblasts frequently seen
Ans: (d, e)
39. Which of the following statement is true about Congenital nephritic syndrome caused by Nephrin protein mutation:
(a) Cause steroid resistant nephritic syndrome
(b) Nephrin is a key component of the slit diaphragm
(c) Coded by NPHS1 gene
(d) Symptom occur only after 1st month of age
(e) Autosomal dominant pattern
Ans: (a, b, c)
40. Reed Sternberg like cell are seen in:
(a) Adult T cell lymphoma
(b) Extranodal NK/T-Cell Lymphoma
(c) Marginal zone lymphoma
(d) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
(e) Infectious mononucleosis
Ans: (a, d, e)
41. If a patient has bilirubin 20 mg/dl, AST=313, ALT=103 & GGT=44 IU/L. Most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Viral hepatitis
(b) Alcoholic hepatitis
(c) Billiary atresia
(d) Drugs
(e) Autoimmune hepatitis
Ans: (b)
42. Not raised in liver disorder:
(a) Lipase
(b) Urease
(c) ALP
(d) AST
(e) ALT
Ans: (a, b)
43. Presentation of antiphospholipid syndrome includes:
(a) Recurrent abortion
(b) Fetal death
(c) Both arterial and venous thrombosis
(d) Prolonged aPTT
(e) Prolonged PT
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
44. Feature of Goodpasture syndrome is/are:
(a) Antibody to α chain of Type IV collagen (COL-4A)
(b) Basement membrane involvement
(c) Pulmonary haemorrhage
(d) Crescent formation
(e) Subendothelial deposits
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
45. Which of the following disease is caused by point mutation:
(a) Colon cancer
(b) Diabetes mellitus type II
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Sickle cell
(e) Gauchers disease
Ans: (c, d)
46. True about protooncogene:
(a) Regulate cell growth and expression
(b) Found in normal cells
(c) Induced by virus
(d) Inactivated by virus
(e) May convert to oncogene
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
47. True about beta thalassemia:
(a) Common in India
(b) Change in globin gene
(c) Microcytosis
(d) HbF
(e) Secondary hemochromatosis may occur
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
48. Mitochondrial inheritance:
(a) Mothers transmit their mtDNA to both their sons and daughters
(b) Both parents can transmit their mtDNA to both their children
(c) Mitochondrial DNA codes for 37 genes
(d) Mitochondrial disease commonly affect neuromuscular system
(e) Mutation cause Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
49. True about serum AFP level:
(a) Raised in testicular tumor
(b) Raise in 70% cases of HCC
(c) Correlation between tumor recurrence after surgery in HCC.
(d) Correlation with HCC size
(e) Upper limit normal in the serum is 200 ng/mL
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
50. Maternal serum AFP raised in:
(a) Gestational Trophoblastic disease
(b) Down syndrome
(c) Omphalocoele
(d) Sacrococcygeal tetatoma
(e) Neural tube defect
Ans: (c, d, e)
51. True about Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA):
(a) Used for monitoring of recurrence of colon cancer
(b) Specific for colon cancer
(c) Increased in smokers
(d) Increased in colon cancer
Ans: (a, c, d)
52. True about CA125:
(a) Glycoprotein
(b) It is a specific marker
(c) Increased in colon carcinoma
(d) Normal range in pre menopausal females is 200 U/ml
(e) May elevated in Pelvic inflammatory disease
Ans: (a, c, e)
Pharmacology
53. Which of the following drug is/are contraindicated/warning the sulphonamide allergy
(a) Brinzolamide
(b) Levobunolol
(c) Bumetanide
(d) Nitrate
(e) Acetazolamie
Ans: (a, c, e)
54. Isoniazid metabolised in body by:
(a) Acetylation
(b) Sulfation
(c) Hydroxylation
(d) Methylation
(e) First metabolized in liver and then excreted in urine
Ans: (a, e)
55. ATT drug which is not bacteriostatic:
(a) INH
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Pyrazinamide
(d) PAS
(e) Ethambutol
Ans: (a, b, c)
56. Regarding drug transport which of the following is/are true except:
(a) Active transport: it is energy dependent
(b) Passive diffusion: Most common method of drug transport
57. Beta blocker with no α, antagonastic property:
(a) Labetalol
(b) Carvedilol
(c) Atenolol
(d) Nebivolol
(e) Betaxolol
Ans: (c, d, e)
58. True statement about essential medicines:
(a) Emergency medicine
(b) Costly but necessary
(c) Drug listed in pharmacopoeia
(d) Need for society
(e) Should be available at all times
Ans: (b, d, e)
59. Adrenergic receptor effects includes:
(a) Piloerection
(b) Urine retention
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Pupillary dilation
(e) Bronchodilation
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
60. Antibiotics acting through cell wall inhibition:
(a) Cephalosporin
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Aminoglycosides
(e) Sulfonamides
Ans: (a, b, c)
61. Antagonistic drug combination(s) is/are:
(a) Penicillin + Aminoglycosides
(b) Penicillin + Tetracyclin
(c) Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone
(d) Ceftriaxone + Tazobactam
(e) Amphotericin B + Flucytosine
Ans: (b)
62. KD constant of drug-receptor interactions is:
(a) Concentration of drug at which half the receptors are bound
(b) Concentration of drug at which maximal response is seen
(c) Concentration at which antagonist is able to bind to half of the receptors
(d) Concentration of drug at which half of the maximal response is seen
Ans: (d)
Microbiology
63. Antibodies present in person with O blood group:
(a) Anti-A antibody only
(b) Anti-B antibody only
(c) Both Anti-A & Anti-B antibody
(d) No antibody
(e) Anti-O antibody
Ans: (c)
64. According to drug and cosmetic act which is not mandatory for screening of donated blood:
(a) HIV
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Hepatitis C
(d) West Nile virus
(e) CMV
Ans: (d, e)
65. All vaccines developed from embryonated eggs except:
(a) Influenza
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Rabies
(e) CMV
Ans: (b, e)
66. True about gas gangrene:
(a) Underlying skin and muscle are normal
(b) Caused by tetanospasmin toxin
(c) Muscle rigidity & spasm are characteristic
(d) Most common organism implicated is Cl. perfringes
(e) Passive immunization does not help
Ans: (d)
67. Urine dipstick is /are useful for detection of:
(a) Microalbunemia
(b) RBC detection
(c) WBC detection
(d) Bence-Jones protein
Ans: (a, b, c)
68. Disorders of phagocytosis are all except:
(a) Job’s syndrome
(b) Chediak-Hegashi syndrome
(c) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
(d) Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
(e) Tuftsin deficiency
Ans: (d)
69. Which of the following are used for sterilization of surgical instrument:
(a) Ethylene oxide
(b) Gamma radiation
(c) Autoclaving
(d) Glutaraldehyde
(e) Hot air oven
Ans: (c, d, e)
70. True about H.influnzae:
(a) Also called as Pfeiffer’s bacilli
(b) In acute infections capsulated strains are often isolated
(c) Gram negative motile bacilli
(d) Easily stainable
(e) VP Test positive
Ans: (a, b)
71. Which is used in digestion and decontamination of sputum in smear preparation:
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) NaCl
(d) KCl
(e) N-acetyl-L-cysteine
Ans: (a, e)
72. Heterophile agglutination is/are used in all test except:
(a) Widal test
(b) Weil-Felix reaction
(c) Paul-Bunnel test
(d) ELISA
(e) Cold agglutination test
Ans: (a, d)
73. Active immunity can be induced by:
(a) Toxoids
(b) Subclinical infection
(c) Antitoxin
(d) Immunoglobulins
(e) Antigen exposure
Ans: (a, b, e)
74. True about passive immunity:
(a) Can not be given with active immunity
(b) Last for 4-5 days only
(c) It can be given before disease occurrence
(d) Can be transferred by antibodies from another host
(e) Takes long time to develop
Ans: (c, d)
75. Anaphylaxis is mediated by:
(a) 5-hydroxytryptamine
(b) Heparin
(c) Prostaglandin
(d) Anaphylotoxins from complement activation
(e) Platelet activating factor
Ans: (all)
76. True statement about Enteroviruses:
(a) Composed of segmented RNA genome
(b) Stable at pH 4
(c) Cause pleurodynia
(d) Cause encephalitis
(e) Cause meningitis
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
77. True about dengue fever:
(a) Caused by 4 serotypes
(b) Effective vaccine is available
(c) Presents with fever and joint pain
(d) Virus belongs to flavivirus genus
(e) Contain segmented RNA
Ans: (a, c, d)
78. A stool examination was carried out which showed organism with darting motility. Which of the following organism maybe in stool:
(a) V.cholerae
(b) Shigella
(c) Salmonella
(d) Camplyobacter jejuni
(e) E.coli
Ans: (a, d)
79. True about Vibrio alginolyticus:
(a) Non-halophilic
(b) Voges Proskauer (VP) positive
(c) Swarming
(d) Cause sea borne auricular infections
(e) Does not grow in 10% NaCl
Ans: (b, c, d)
80. Not a cause of epidemic encephalitis:
(a) Herpes simplex virus
(b) Rabies
(c) West Nile virus
(d) Nipah virus
(e) Japanese encephalitis virus
Ans: (a, b)
81. True about Visceral leishmaniasis:
(a) Neutropenia
(b) Eosinophilia
(c) Hypergammaglobulinemia
(d) Lymphadenopathy
(e) Skin hyperpigmentation
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
82. True about antibody:
(a) IgM is produced in primary response
(b) IgD protects mucosa
(c) IgE is main antibody in secondary response
(d) IgG is main antibody in secondary response
(e) IgA protects body surface
Ans: (a, d, e)
83. True about Yaws:
(a) Sexually transmitted disease
(b) Transmitted by fomites
(c) Mother-chi9ld transmission
(d) Periostitis occurs
(e) Caused by T. pallidum subspecies endemicum
Ans: (b, d)
84. True about mechanism of bacterial toxins:
(a) Cholera toxin acts by inhibition of guanyl cyclase
(b) Botulinum toxin inhibits Ach release
(c) Shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae act by inhibiting protein synthesis
(d) Diphtheria toxin act by inhibiting protein synthesis
Ans: (b, c, d)
Forensic Medicine
85. True statement about Adipocere:
(a) Offensive smell
(b) Seen if body is buried in moist soil
(c) Also called saponification
(d) In widespread adipocere body become dry
(e) Formation of wax-like substance
Ans: (all)
86. Various names of post mortem colour change in dependant parts of the body are:
(a) Post mortem lividity
(b) Livor mortis
(c) Cadaveric lividity
(d) Suggilations
(e) Vibices
Ans: (all)
87. Abrasion collar seen in:
(a) Firearm entry wound
(b) Firearm exit wound
(c) Rail track accident
(d) Lathi injury
(e) Incised wound
Ans: (a)
88. Confiramatory test for blood stain is
(a) Benzidine test
(b) Spectroscopic test
(c) Ortho-tolidine test
(d) Microscopic test
(e) Precipitin test
Ans: (b)
SPM
89. Quadrivalent vaccine for HPV contains all except:
(a) Type 7
(b) Type 11
(c) Type 16
(d) Type 26
(e) Type 18
Ans: (a, d)
90. Which of the following is Millenium development Goals in India for 2015:
(a) Have haited by 2015 and begun to reverse the spread HIV/AIDS
(b) Have halted by 2015 and begun to reverse the incidence
(c) Reduce the maternal mortality ratio by two-third
(d) Reduce the under-fie mortality rate by half
(e) Half the extreme poverty & hunger
Ans: (a, b, e)
91. Outbreak of avian influenza epidemic in china in 2013 is caused due to stain:
(a) H1N1
(b) H3N2
(c) H5N1
(d) H7N7
(e) H7N9
Ans: (e)
92. Feature of case control study is/are:
(a) Can be used for rare disease
(b) Error is high
(c) Study multiple potential causes of disease
(d) Association seen in terms of relative risk
(e) Large sample required
Ans: (a, b, c)
93. Xpert MTB/RIF test is/are used for:
(a) For assessing resistance of isonized
(b) For assessing multi drug resistant TB
(c) For assessing rifampicin resistance
(d) Monitoring drug response in MDR TB
(e) Diagnosis of TB
Ans: (c, e)
94. Which of the following statement is true about Women empowerment:
(a) Power over resources
(b) Involvement in Political decision making
(c) Involvement in economic decision making
(d) Improved standard of living
(e) Increased life expectancy
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
95. Criteria of drinking water quality recommended by WHO includes:
(a) Colour > 15 TCU
(b) pH 6.5-8.5
(c) Chloride 200-600 mg/l
(d) Turbdity 5< NTU
(e) Turbidity 15 < NTU
Ans: (b, c, d)
96. Criteria for diagnosing multibacillary leprosy include(s):
(a) ≥ 6 skin lesion
(b) Skin smear 1+
(c) Skin smear 2+
(d) Deformity ±
(e) Eye lesion +
Ans: (a, b, c)
97. One has following data regarding village: population on july 1=500, total birth throughout year=40, total death = 20, emigration = 15 & immigration = 10. Calculate crude birth rate of the village:
(a) 13.33 per thousand
(b) 42 per thousand
(c) 44 per thousand
(d) 38 per thousand
(e) 49 per thousand
Ans: (a)
98. A city have population of 10000 with 500 diabetic patients. A new diagnostic test gives true positive result in 350 patients and false positive result in 1900 patients. Which of the following is true regarding the test:
(a) Prevalence is 5%
(b) Sensitivity is 70%
(c) Specificity is 80%
(d) Sensitivity is 80%
(e) Specificity is 70%
Ans: (a, b, c)
99. True about tuberculin test:
(a) Patients with sarcoidosis show energy
(b) TB pericarditis patient may have positive test
(c) Milliary TB may comes out as negative test
(d) Tuberculin test is the only way to diagnose pulmonary TB if sputum smear and microscopy is negative
(e) Used for measuring the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
Ophthalmology
100. Ectopia lentis is/are seen in:
(a) Maple syrup disease
(b) Homocystinuria
(c) Ehler Danlos syndrome
(d) Myotonic dystrophy
(e) Sulfite oxidase deficiency
Ans: (b, c, e)
101. True statement about accommodation:
(a) Mainly occur due to change in curvature of posterior surface of lens
(b) Helps to improve steriopsis
(c) It is abolished by sympathomimetic drugs
(d) Produced due to an increase in curvature of the anterior surface of the lens
(e) Elasticity of capsule has bearing on accommodation
Ans: (d, e )
102. True about ciliary body:
(a) Located 10 mm from corneoscleral junction
(b) Consists of pars plana and pars plicata
(c) Contraction of ciliary body helps on accomodation
(d) Secretes aqueous humour
(e) Derives its blood supply from the short posterior ciliary arteries
Ans: (b, c, d)
103. Which of the following is/are caused by bacterial infection:
(a) Phlyctenularconjunctivitis
(b) Marginal keratitis
(c) Morren ulcer
(d) Vogt-Koyanagi –Harada syndrome
(e) Hypopyon ulcer
Ans: (e)
104. Which of following is the feature of papilloedema:
(a) Normal blind spot
(b) Normal visual acuity even at last stage
(c) Los of venous pulsation at disc
(d) Sluggish papillary reaction from early stage
(e) Normal colour vision
Ans: (c, e)
105. Anterior uveitis is/are caused by:
(a) Sarcoidosis
(b) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
(c) Juvenile chronic arthritis
(d) Juvenile xanthogranuloma
(e) T.B
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
106. Most common site of congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction is:
(a) Upper canaliculus
(b) Lower canalicus
(c) Common canaliculus
(d) Valve of Hassner
(e) Middle turbinate near canthus
Ans: (d)
107. Least affected cranial nerve in retro-orbital block:
(a) 1 CN
(b) 2 CN
(c) 3 CN
(d) 4 CN
(e) 6 CN
Ans: (a, d)
108. Select the correct match:
(a) Wilson disease-sunflower cataract
(b) Alport syndrome-posterior lenticonus
(c) Amiodarone-anterior subcapsular cataract
(d) Myotonic dystrophy-Christmas tree
(e) Down syndrome: Cortical cataract
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
ENT
109. Method of speech communication after laryngectomy include:
(a) Electrolarynx
(b) Oesophageal speech
(c) Tracheo-oesophageal speech
(d) Tracheal speech
(e) Transoral pneumatic device
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
110. Most common site of laryngeal papilloma in adult:
(a) Anterior commissure
(b) Posterior commissure
(c) Anterior half of vocal cord
(d) Middle of vocal cord
(e) False vocal cords
Ans: (a, c)
111. Most common site of vocal nodule of larynx:
(a) Anterior part of epiglottis
(b) False vocal folds
(c) Anterior commisure
(d) Posterior commisure
(e) On true vocal cord at junction A 1/3 with P 2/3
Ans: (e)
112. True about benign paroxysmal positional vertigo:
(a) Hearing loss is often present
(b) Most commonly seen in 2nd decade
(c) Hallpike manoevuvre is not helpful in diagnosis
(d) Epley maneuver is used for treatment
(e) Disorder of posterior semicircular canal
Ans: (d, e)
113. Most common cause of B/L Recurrent laryngeal paralysis:
(a) Thyroid surgery
(b) Cancer cervical oesophagus
(c) Blow from nasal cavity
(d) Thyroid cancer
(e) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Ans: (a)
114. True about otosclerosis:
(a) Most common site is footplate of stapes
(b) More common in female
(c) Schwartz sign indicated active focus
(d) Autosomal recessive
(e) Corhort note become –ive after successful stapedectomy
Ans: (b, e, e)
115. Most common location of nasal hemangioma:
(a) Nasal Septum
(b) Inferior turbinate
(c) Vestibule
(d) Uncinate process
(e) Nasopharynx
Ans: (a)
116. Veins not involved in spreading infection to cavernous sinus from danger area of face:
(a) Lingual vein
(b) Pterygoid plexus
(c) Facial vein
(d) Opthalmic vein
(e) Cephalic vein
Ans: (a, e)
Medicine
117. All are true about Berger disease except:
(a) Mesangial proliferation
(b) Increased polyclonal IgA
(c) IgA, C3 & IgG deposits in the mesangium
(d) Heamturia may be gross or microscopic
(e) Absence of proteinuria is pathognomonic
Ans: (e)
118. True about acute pancreatitis:
(a) Amylse has prognostic value
(b) CT is the best imaging study for initial evaluation
(c) Nasojejunal feeding is better than total parenteral nutrition
(d) ERCP is better than CT
(e) Ultrasound confirms the diagnosis in most cases
Ans: (b, c)
119. True about Enteric nutrition:
(a) Given early in Post-op period to prevent mucosal atrophy
(b) More change of spread of infection than total parenteral nutrition
(c) It must be given in all post-operative patients
(d) Enterocutaneous fistula is indication of parenteral nutrition
(e) Stimulates the production of immunoglobulins in the gut
Ans: (a, d, e)
120. True about esophageal adenocarcinoma:
(a) Majority of cases arise in Barret’s oesophagus
(b) Common in upper part oesophagus
(c) Commonly arise in the distal esophagus
(d) Tobacco exposure and obesity are risk factors
(e) Incidence is increasing
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
121. All are true about systemic sclerosis except:
(a) Skin involvement occur
(b) Generalized blood vessel involvement
(c) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
(d) Belomycin may cause systemic sclerosis like illness
(e) Raynaud’s phenomenon precedes skin involvement diffuse cutaneous form
Ans: (e)
122. All are true about Acute Intermittent Porphyria except:
(a) Occur due to HMB-synthase enxyme deficiency
(b) Increased amount of prophobilinongen in the urine during an acute attack
(c) Neurovisceral symptoms occurs
(d) Cutaneous photosensitivity is always p resent
(e) Intermittent abdominal pain may occur
Ans: (d)
123. Drug used to relive facial flushing associated with niacin toxicity:
(a) Fometidine
(b) Foxafenadine
(c) Ranitidine
(d) Laropiprant
Ans: (d)
124. True about Wernicke encephalopathy:
(a) Cerebellar involvement occur
(b) Occur due to VIt B1 deficiency
(c) Bilateral frontal lobe atrophy
(d) Persistent seizure
(e) Ophthalmoplegia
Ans: (a, b, e)
125. True about subarachnoid hemorrhage:
(a) CT scan has 95% sensitivity if done within 72 hours
(b) Lumbar puncture shows xanthochromia
(c) 10% of SAH are caused by ruptured AV malformation
(d) 20% risk of re-bleeding within first 2 week
(e) Rupture of secular aneurysm is most common cause
Ans: (a, b, d)
126. Pulmonary-renal syndrome is/are seen in:
(a) G. B Syndrome
(b) HSP
(c) Good pasture syndrome
(d) Hanta virus infection
(e) Microscopic polyangitis
Ans: (c, d, e)
127. All drugs are used in management of psoariatic arthritis expect:
(a) Methotrexate
(b) Leflunomide
(c) Chloroquine
(d) Alefacept
(e) Infliximab
Ans: (c)
128. Orally used direct thrombin inhibitor(s) is/are:
(a) Argatroban
(b) Bivalirudin
(c) Lepirudin
(d) Dabigatran etexilate
(e) Rivaroxaban
Ans: (d)
129. Causes of reversed splitting of the Second Heart Sound:
(a) ASD
(b) MPW syndrome
(c) Pulmonary hypertension
(d) Pulmonary stenosis
(e) Patent ductus arterious
Ans: (b, e)
130. Cause of diarrhea include(s):
(a) Hyperparathyroidism
(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Hyperthyroidism
(d) Carcinoid syndrome
(e) Diabetes mellitus
Ans: (c, d, e)
131. Which finding favours diagnosis of MR rather than MS:
(a) Loud S1
(b) Third heart sound
(c) Tapping apex
(d) Displaced apex beat
(e) Left ventricular hypertrophy
Ans: (b, d, e)
132. All are features of psuedohypoparathyriosim except:
(a) Hypocalcemia
(b) Hypercalcemia
(c) Resistance to parathyroid hormone
(d) Raised levels of PTH
(e) Defect in PTH receptor
Ans: (b)
133. Feature(s) of Duchenne muscular dystrophy includes:
(a) Defective gene is dystrophin
(b) Ragged red fibres
(c) Autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
(d) Anticentromere antibody present
(e) Seurm CK levels are raised
Ans: (a, e)
134. True about ankylosing spondylitis:
(a) Presents with backache and joint stiffness
(b) Associated with HLA B27
(c) Inflammation of ligament and tendon at attachment to bones
(d) Foot joint involvement
(e) Spin involvement
Ans: (all)
135. Eosinophilia is/are seen in:
(a) Visceral leishmania
(b) Churg-Strauss syndrome
(c) Visceral larva migrans
(d) Drug reaction
(e) Parasitic infestations
Ans: (d, e)
136. Clubbing is/are seen in:
(a) Lung carcinoma
(b) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
(c) COPD
(d) Tuberculosis
(e) Lung abscess
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
Surgery
137. Which is seen after total gastrectomy:
(a) Anaemia due to iron deficiency
(b) Anaemia due to folate deficiency
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Collapse after taking meals
(e) Post-prandial hypoglycemia
Ans: (all)
138. True about cryptorchidism:
(a) Occur in 10% of newborns
(b) It has malignant potential
(c) Sterility can occur
(d) Laproscopy has a role in diagnosis & treatment
(e) Orchidopexy done at 5 yr of age to prevent cancer
Ans: (b, c, d)
139. Which of the following dyads is/are correct for Glasgocoma scale:
(a) E2: Eye opening to pain
(b) V2: Incomprehensible sounds
(c) M3: Withdrawl to pain
(d) V3: Confused in Verbal Response
(e) M2: Abnormal extension
Ans: ()
140. True about epigastric hernia:
(a) Caused by defect in linea alba
(b) Caused by defective healing of surgical wound
(c) Multiple in 20% of cases
(d) More common in males
(e) Incidence increases in pregnancy
Ans: (a, c, d)
141. True about varicocele:
(a) More common in right side
(b) May lead to infertility
(c) Aneurysmal dilatation of testicular artery
(d) May be associated with left sided renal cell carcinoma
(e) Surgery always required
Ans: (b, d)
142. Bladder cancer not associated with:
(a) Occupation exposure in indstralised countries
(b) Schistosomiasis
(c) Smoking
(d) Alcohol
(e) Bladder catheterization
Ans: (d, e)
143. Absorbable suture(s) is/are:
(a) Polyglyconate
(b) Polydioxanone
(c) Polyamide
(d) Polyester
(e) Polyglactin
Ans: (a, b, e)
144. Risk factors of breast carcinoma include(s):
(a) Alcohol
(b) Late menarche
(c) Late pregnancy
(d) Late menopause
(e) Early menopause
Ans: (a, c, d)
145. Complication of craniofacial surgery:
(a) Sudden death
(b) Convulsion
(c) Encephalitis
(d) CSF leak
(e) Meningitis
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
146. Anterior triangle neck mass is/are:
(a) Thyroglossal cyst
(b) Carotid body tumor
(c) Supraclavicular nodes
(d) Branchial cyst
(e) Submandibular gland
Ans: (b, d, e)
147. True about arterial ulcer:
(a) Punched out margin
(b) Painless
(c) Usually at the tip of toe
(d) Almost all arterial ulcers have surrounding lipodermatosclerosis
(e) Characteistically develops in the skin of the gaiter region
Ans: (a, c)
148. True about Kasabach-Merrit syndrome:
(a) Thromocytopenia
(b) Large haemangioma
(c) Hypofirbogenmia
(d) Massive splenomegaly always present
(e) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
149. Common presentation of carcinoma of right colon:
(a) Presents as mass in RIF
(b) Bleed per rectum
(c) Change in blwel habits
(d) Obstruction
(e) Anaemia
Ans: (a, e)
150. Medullary thyroid carcinoma has:
(a) Arise from parafollicular cell or C cell
(b) Amyloid deposit
(c) Orphan-Annie nuclei
(d) Secrete calcitonin
(e) Psammoma body
Ans: (a, b, d)
151. True about acute appendicitis:
(a) Pain migrates from RIF to umbilical area
(b) Pain occur only after vomiting
(c) USG is useful for making diagnosis
(d) Faecolith can cause this
(e) Treatment is appendectomy
Ans: (c, d, e)
152. True about abscess:
(a) Infective endocarditis can cause microabscess in other part of body
(b) Hematogenous spread is common
(c) Type of drainage depends on size of abscess & location
(d) Needle aspiration and antibiotics can be given for breast abscess
Ans: (all)
153. Angiodysplasia mainly affects:
(a) Duodenum
(b) Jejunum
(c) Caecum
(d) Ascending colon
(e) Rectum
Ans: (c, d)
154. True about Hirshsprung:
(a) Absence of ganglion in auerbach plexus
(b) Increased acetylcholinesterase in affected tissue
(c) Dilation of aganglionic segment
(d) In 10% of cases rectum & sigmoid region is involved
(e) May presents with delayed passage of meconium in the neonatal period
Ans: (a, b, e)
155. True about Haemorrhoid:
(a) Internal haemorrhoid is dilation of superior rectal artery
(c) External haemorrhoid line by – Squamous & transitional epithelium
(d) Internal haemorrhoid is classified on basis of prolpase
(e) Seen in portal hypertension
Ans: (d)
156. True about Firbcystic disease of breast:
(a) Most common age group of presentation is 35-45 year
(b) Common in post-menopausal period
(c) Predispose to carcinoma
(d) Pain occur after menstruation
Ans: (a, c)
157. True about post-splenectomy complication:
(a) Pneumococcal vaccination indicated
(b) Penicillin prophylaxis is to be given for three weeks
(c) Malaria protection is given when travelling to endemic area
(d) Heinz bodies are seen in RBC
Ans: (a, c, d)
158. True about acute peritonitis:
(a) Colicky pain
(b) Pain initially located over area of inflammation
(c) Patient prefers t lie still
(d) Patient tosses in bed
(e) USG diagnostic
Ans: (b, c, e)
Obstetrics & Gynaecology
159. All are features of Turner’ syndrome except:
(a) Karyotype is 46 XO
(b) Normal breast
(c) Uunderdeveloped uterus
(d) Normal secondary sexual characters
(e) Primary amenorrhoea
Ans: (b, d)
160. Indications for termination of pregnancy includes:
(a) Aortic stenosis
(b) Eisenmengers syndrome
(c) Triscuspid stenosis
(d) Severe mitral stenosis + NYHA grade II
(e) NYHA grade 4 heart disease with history of decompensation in the previous pregnancy
Ans: (b, e)
161. All statement(s) is/are about use of magnesium sulphate except:
(a) Therapeutic level is 4-7 mEq/L
(b) Used in spinal anesthesia
(c) Used in seizure prophylaxis
(d) Decrease neuromuscular blockage
(e) Used in Pre-emptive analgesia
Ans: (d)
162. HIV transmission from mother to child can be prevented by:
(a) Elective LSCS
(b) Breast feeding
(c) Vaginal delivery
(d) Antiretroviral therapy
(e) Formula feed
Ans: (a, d, e)
163. Abnormal uterine bleeding is/are:
(a) Blood loss of more than 80 ml.
(b) Cycle duration is more than 35 days or less than 21 days
(c) Bleeding period lasting 7 days or more
(d) Irregular bleeding during a regular cycle
Ans: (all)
164. Minimum criteria to diagnose PID include(s):
(a) Lower abdominal pain
(b) Fever
(c) Andexal tenderness
(d) Leucocytosis
Ans: (a, c, d)
165. Most important investigation for ectopic pregnancy:
(a) TVS
(b) Serial βhCG levels
(c) Doppler USG
(d) Progesterone
(e) Culdocentesis
Ans: (a)
166. True statement about symmetrical IUGR with respect to assymetrical IUGR:
(a) Worse prognosis
(b) Neurological defects
(c) Head larger than abdomen
(d) Less common
(e) Total number of cell is normal
Ans: (a, d)
167. True about timing of LH surge:
(a) Occur 12 hr before ovulation
(b) Occur 24 hr before ovulation
(c) Occur 12 hr after ovulation
(d) Occur 24 hr after ovulation
(e) Occur at time of ovulation
Ans: (a, b)
168. Regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome, which statement is/are true:
(a) Genotype is 46 XX
(b) Scanty pubic hair
(c) Well developed female external genitalia
(d) Uterus absent
(e) Breast development is adequate
Ans: (b, d, e)
169. Which of the following are used for prevention & treatment of post-partum haemorrhage:
(a) Misoprostol
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Ergometrine
(d) Carbiprost
(e) Mifepristone
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
170. Complications of diabetes in pregnancy includes all except:
(a) Macrosomia
(b) Shoulder dystocia
(c) Hyper glycemia in newborn
(d) IUGR
(e) Caudal regression
Ans: (c)
171. Site of placement of tension free vaginal tapes in stress urinary incontinence:
(a) At ureterovaginal junction
(b) At urethrovaginal junction
(c) AT upper apart of urethera
(d) At middle part of urethera
(e) At lower part of urethera
Ans: (d)
172. 2nd trimester USG is/are done for detection of:
(a) Sex determination
(b) No. of fetus
(c) Aminocentesis
(d) Gestational age estimation
(e) Congenital defect
Ans: (all)
Paediatrics
173. Indication of kidney biopsy in Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis in a child is/are:
(a) Presence of nephritic syndrome
(b) Presence of microscopic hematuria
(c) Low complement level in first week
(d) Acute renal failure
(e) Absence of evidence of streptococcal infection
Ans: (a, d, e)
174. Feature of scurvy in children include(s):
(a) Bleeding from gums
(b) Tibial edema
(c) Costochondral junction become angular
(d) Windswept hip deformity in children with cerebral palsy
(e) Splaying & cupping of metaphysic
Ans: (a, b, c)
175. Use of IV magnetism in children includes:
(a) Carpopedal spasm in calcium deficiency
(b) Vit. D resistant rickets
(c) Torsaded de pointes
(d) 20 AV heart block
(e) Sever hypmagnesimea
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
176. True statement regarding children:
(a) BMI more than 95 percentile for age as obesity
(b) BMI more than 85 percentile for age as overweight
(c) Weight more than 95 percentile for age as obesity
(d) Weight more than 85 percentile for age as overweight
(e) BMI is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the height in meters square (kg/m2).
Ans: (a , b, e)
177. True about autism:
(a) More common in girls
(b) Concordance in monozygotic twins is 60-90%
(c) MMR vaccine increases the risk
(d) Child may have mental retardation
Ans: (b, d)
178. Poor prognostic factor in bacterial meningitis in children include(s):
(a) Age less than 6 months
(b) Seizures occurring more than 4 days into therapy
(c) Neck regidity
(d) Focal neurological deficits
(e) High concentrations of bacteria in CSF
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
179. Hypercalcemia in children is/are seen in all of the following combinations except:
(a) Wolfram syndrome and MEN II syndrome
(b) William syndrome and thiazide diuretics
(c) MEN I and hypervitaminosis D
(d) Thyrotoxicosis and Hypervitaminosis A
(e) Hypervitaminosis C
Ans: (a, e)
180. Constipation in child is/are caused by:
(a) Stool consistency matters, not frequency
(b) Milk of magnesia
(c) Defect in auerbach plexus as occur in Hirschsprung disease
(d) In majority of infant organic cause is present
(e) Hypothyroidism
Ans: (c, e)
181. True regarding classical Tetralogy of Fallot:
(a) Right to left shunt
(b) Left to right shunt
(c) Severe pulmonary valvular stenosis
(d) Subvalvular pulmonary stenosis may be severe
(e) VSD is small
Ans: (a, c, d)
182. Most common cause of acute tracheitis in children is:
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) H. influenzae
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes
(d) Moraxella catarrhalis
(e) Mycoplasma
Ans: (a)
183. All of the following are the causes of neonatal cholestasis except:
(a) Extrahepatic Biliary atreisa
(b) Alagille syndrome
(c) Gilbert syndrome
(d) Rotor syndrome
(e) Gaucher’s disease
Ans: (c)
184. Causes of unconjugated bilirubinemia:
(a) Dubin Johnson syndrome
(b) Gilber syndrome
(c) Neoinatal hepatitis
(d) Rotor syndrome
(e) Crigler-Najjar’s syndrome
Ans: (b, e)
185. Which of the following match is correct regarding milestones(child can do):
(a) 4 month: recognize mother
(b) 2 yr: Can make tower of blocks 15-20 cubes
(c) 6 Month: Coos
(d) 1yr: Standing without support
(e) 2 yr- sentence of 2-3 words
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
Orthopaedics
186. A person with closed spiral fracture of shaft of humerus presents in emergency room with radial nerve palsy. Fracture was reduced and splinted. Radial nerve palsy still persists. What should be done in next line of management:
(a) Only wait & watch
(b) Wait for 1-3 months for recovery, do EMG & if needed then do surgery
(c) Explore immediately & do surgery
(d) Redo the cast & do nerve conduction velocity study and then surgery
Ans: (b)
187. True about Giant cell tumor:
(a) Treatment is extended curettage
(b) Seen before skeletal maturity
(c) Involve RNAK/RNAKL signaling pathway
(d) Affected most commonly in bones around knee
(e) Often erodes subchondral plate
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
188. Most common route of spread of septic arthritis in children:
(a) Hematogenous
(b) Direct invasion
(c) Bone involvement
(d) Lymphatic spread
(e) Latrogenic
Ans: (a)
189. Causes of avascular necrosis of head of femur includes all except:
(a) Gaucher’s disease
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Perthe’s disease
(d) Smoking
(e) Alcohol
Ans: (d)
190. True about Ewing sarcoma:
(a) Arise from diaphysis
(b) Arise from medullary cavity of tubular bones
(c) Radioresistance tumor
(d) N-myc chromosome expression
(e) t(11;22) translocation in involve in 5% cases
Ans: (a, b, e)
191. Below knee amputation:
(a) 5 cm below tibial tuberosity
(b) 10 cm below tibial tuberosity
(c) 15 cm below tibial tuberosity
(d) 5 cm below patella
(e) 10 cm below patella
Ans: (c)
192. Bullous/Blistering distal dactylitis is/are cause by:
(a) Staph. aureus
(b) Pseudomonas
(c) Streptococcus epidermidis
(d) Pneumococcus
(e) Meningococcus
Ans: (a)
193. Planter calcanera spur is/are not seen in:
(a) Reiter’s disease
(b) Scleroderma
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Psoriatic arthritis
(e) Ankylosing pondylitis
Ans: (b, c, d)
Anaesthesia
194. Acronym AMBU stands for:
(a) Automated Manual Breathing Unit
(b) Artificial Manual Breathing Unit
(c) Artificial Mechanical Breathing unit
(d) Automated Mechanical Breathing Unit
(e) Artificial Mechanical Baloon Unit
Ans: (b)
195. Important factor(s) deciding reduced dose of anesthetic drug in pregnancy:
(a) Mechanical factor of gravid uterus
(b) Hormonal factors
(c) Altered pharmacokinetic of drugs
(d) Alteration in CSF pH
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
196. True statement related to used of Hydroxyethyl starch:
(a) Cause coagulation abnormality due to factor X deficiency
(b) It is amylopectin etherfied with hydroxyethyl groups
(c) Hypersensitivity similar to gelatin
(d) Obtained from fermentation of gelatin
Ans: (a, b, c)
197. Which of the following local anesthetic is/are not used for surface analgesia:
(a) Benzocaine
(b) Prilocaine
(c) Mepivacaine
(d) Legnocaine
(e) Bupivacaine
Ans: (c, e)
198. Surgery done to prevent aspiration:
(a) Tracheostomy
(b) Tracehoseophageal division
(c) Total laryngectomy
(d) Feeding gastrostomy
(e) Feeding jejunostomy
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
199. Which of the increases change of malignant hyperthermia:
(a) Diazepam
(b) Halothane
(c) Suxamethonium
(d) Nitrous oxide
(e) Ketamine
Ans: (b, c)
Skin
200. Which of the following is/are not the cutaneous manifestation of diabetes mellitus:
(a) Necrobiosis lipodica
(b) Diabetic bulla
(c) Shin spots
(d) Calcinosis cutis
(e) Angiokeratoma
Ans: (d, e)
201. Microabscess is/are seen in:
(a) Psoriasis
(b) Lichen planus
(c) Pitryiasis versicolor
(d) Pitriasis roseas
(e) Mycosis fungoides
Ans: (a, e)
202. Drug used for pediculosis is/are:
(a) Malathion
(b) Permethrin
(c) Ivermectin
(d) Diethylcarbazine
(e) Nitrate
Ans: (a, b)
203. Causative factor of acne include(s):
(a) Hypersecretion of sebum
(b) ↑IgE level
(c) Follicular duct hypercornification
(d) ↑ Colonisation of Propionobacterium acnes
(e) IGF-I
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
Psychiatry
204. Feature of narcolepsy include(s) all except:
(a) Disorder of REM sleep regulation
(b) Disorder of NREM sleep regulation
(c) Hypnagogic hallucination
(d) Hypnopompic hallucinations
(e) Cataplexy
Ans: (b)
205. Usual sign of morphine withdrawal are all except:
(a) Dryness of secretion
(b) Constipation
(c) Miosis
(d) Lacrimation
(e) Generally occur after 6-8 hour of last
Ans: (a, b)
206. All are mood stabilizing drug in bipolar disorder except:
(a) Lithium
(b) Valproate
(c) Carbamazepine
(d) Clonazepam
(e) Lamotrigine
Ans: (none)
207. Not a feature of Alzheimer’s disease:
(a) Hirano bodies
(b) Amyloid angiopathy
(c) Granulo-vacuolar degeneration of neurons
(d) Senile plaque
(e) Cerebellar atrophy
Ans: (e)
208. Cause of organic amnestic syndrome include(s):
(a) Multiple sclerosis
(b) Hypoglycemia
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Hypoxia
(e) Hypercapnia
Ans: (a, b, d)
209. Psychosurgery not indicated in:
(a) Intractable seizures
(b) Suicidal depression
(c) Severe depression not responding to medical treatment
(d) Dysthymia
(e) Psychotic depression
Ans: (b, d, e)
210. Drug used for long term treatment of OCD includes:
(a) Clomipramine
(b) Fluoxetine
(c) Fluvoxamine
(d) Citalopram
(e) Trifluperidol
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
Radiology
211. Colour Doppler is/are used in diagnosis of:
(a) Peripheral vascular disease
(b) Deep vein thrombosis
(c) Pulmonary embolism
(d) Bone tumors
(e) Fetal abnormality
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
212. True about FDG-PET scan:
(a) FDG is analogue of glucose
(b) Malignant cells shows high uptake due to increased metabolism
(c) It cannot be used to detect brain metastasis
(d) Used to detect tumor recurrence in patient who have undergone surgery for brain tumors
(e) Helpful in investigating brain lesion
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
213. MRI is better than CT scan to detect lesion located in:
(a) Head and neck tumour
(b) Extremity
(c) Thorax
(d) Retroperitoneum
(e) It is equally effective for all above
Ans: (a, b)
214. Metallic foreign body in eye can be detected by:
(a) X-ray
(b) CT
(c) MRI
(d) Color Doppler
(e) USG
Ans: (a, b, e)
215. Radiation exposure can be measured by:
(a) TLD badge
(b) Gamma camera
(c) Auger emission
(d) Linear accelerator
(e) Film badge
Ans: (a, e)
216. Most radioresistant tumour among following is:
(a) Ewing carcinoma
(b) Osteosarcoma
(c) Cervical ca
(d) Lymphoma
(e) Rhabdomyosarcoma
Ans: (b)
217. Which does not form right border of heart on X-ray:
(a) Superior vena cava
(b) Inferior vena cava
(c) Right atrium appendages
(d) Main pulmonary trunk
(e) Aortic arch
Ans: (d, e)
218. Most commonly uses radiation(s) in modern radiation therapy:
(a) X-ray
(b) Gamma ray
(c) Alpha beam
(d) Electron beam
(e) Proton beam
Ans: (a, b)
219. Which of the following is true about Gray(g):
1. Which of the following structure (s) pass through adductor magnus:
(a) Femoral vessel
(b) Femoral nerve
(c) Femoral sheath
(d) Saphenous nerve
(e) Tibial nerve
Ans: (a)
2. Which of the following statement (s) is true regarding axillary artery?
(a) Start from upper border of clavicle
(b) Ulnar nerve lies medially to distal 1/3 or artery
(c) Radial nerve lies posteriorly distal 1/3 of artery
(d) Axillary vein lies laterally to proximal 1/3 of the artery
(e) End at lower border of pectoralis minor
Ans: (b, c)
3. Facial development takes place b/w:
(a) 4-8 week
(b) 8-10 week
(c) 12-14 week
(d) 18-20 week
(e) 6-10 week
Ans: (a)
4. Muscle having double nerve supply:
(a) Digastric muscle
(b) Omohyoid muscle
(c) Trapezius
(d) Thyrohyoid muscle
(e) Adductor magnus
Ans: (a, e)
5. Which of the following is true regarind vertebral column curvature:
(a) Primary curves are concave forward
(b) Lumbar curve is primary
(c) Thoracic curve develop when infant start walking
(d) Cervical appear when the infant starts supporting its head
(e) Lumbar curve appears when the child assumes the upright posture
Ans: (a, d, e)
Physiology
6. Pepsinogen, the inactive form of pepsin, is secreted by:
(a) Interstitial cell of Cajal
(b) Chief cell
(c) Paneth cell
(d) Goblet cell
(e) Zymogen cells
Ans: (b, e)
7. Type IIB muscle fibers are different from type I fiber with having:
(a) Small diameter
(b) Calcium release by sarcoplasmic reticulum is low
(c) Fast fatigable
(d) Color pink
(e) Faster acting
Ans: (c, e)
8. Which of the following is true regarding renal handling of substances:
(a) Bicarbonate is completely reabsorbed
(b) Amount of Na+ absorb is in excess than secreted
(c) Percentage reabsorption of Na+ is more excreted than K+
(d) In absolute term (in meq) Na+ is more excreted than K+
(e) Total amount of urea filtered is completely excreted
Ans: (a, c, d)
9. Vasomotor inputs to rostral nuclesus of ventromedial medulla is/are from:
(a) Inhibitory input from caudal ventrolateral medulla
(b) Excitatory inputs from cerebral cortex via hypothalamus
(c) Inhibitory inputs from cerebral cortex via hypothalamus
(d) Inhibitory inputs from brain stem reticular formation
(e) Inhibitory inputs pain pathway
Ans: (a, b, c)
10. Parasympathetic stimulation results in:
(a) Miosis
(b) Decreased GIT motility
(c) Detrusor muscle relaxation
(d) Mydriasis
(e) Contraction of bronchial muscle
Ans: (a, e)
11. Which of the following are feature of blood-brain barrier:
(a) Thick basement membrane
(b) Podocyte
(c) Closely associated layer of astrocyte
(d) Tight junction
(e) Decreased vesicles in endothelial cells
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
12. For Growth hormone testing, which of the following stimulate the secretions of Growth hormone:
(a) Glucagon
(b) Insulin
(c) Cortisol
(d) Water deprivation
(e) Arginine
Ans: (a, e)
13. Which of the following is true about myoglobin:
(a) Bind 1 mol of oxygen per mole of myoglobin
(b) Dissociation curve is a rectangular hyperbola
(c) Its curve lies right of the hemoglobin curve
(d) Bind oxygen at low PO2 pressure
(e) Show Bohr effect
Ans: (a, b, d)
Biochemistry
14. Mucopolysacchidosis, which is a lysosomal storage disease, occurs due to abnormality in :
(a) Hydrolase enzyme
(b) Dehydrogenase enzyme
(c) Lipase enzyme
(d) Phosphatase
(e) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Ans: (a)
15. Sulphur of cystein are not used/utilized in body for the following process/product:
(a) Help in conversion of cyanide to thiocyante
(b) Thiosulphate formation
(c) Introduction of sulphur atom in methionine
(d) Disulfide bond formation b/w two adjacent peptide
Ans: (c)
16. Which one of the following statements about protein structure is correct:
(a) Proteins consisting of one polypeptide can have quaternary structure
(b) The formation of a disulfide bond in protein requires that the two participating cysteine residues be adjacent to each other in the primary sequence of the protein
(c) The stability of quaternary structure in proteins is mainly a result of covalent bonds among the subunits
(d) The denaturation of proteins always leads to irreversible loss of secondary and tertiary structure
(e) The information required for the correct folding of a protein is contained in the specific sequence of amino acids along the polypeptide chain
Ans: (e)
17. True about retinol:
(a) Form part of rhodopsin
(b) Transported from intestine to liver by via chylomicrons
(c) Actively take part in visual cycle
(d) Implicated in growth & differentiation of tissue
(e) Not formed by retinoic acid
Ans: (b, d, e)
18. In prolong fasting glycerol is formed from triglyceride. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding glycerol:
(a) Used in synthesis of chylomicron
(b) It is directly used by tissues for energy needs
(c) It is formed due to increased activity of lipoprotein lipase
(d) It is formed due to increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase
(e) Glycerol acts as a substrate for gluconeogenesis in the liver
Ans: (d, e)
19. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex uses following co-enzymes/cofactors:
(a) Biotin
(b) Lipoic acid
(c) NAD
(d) FMN
(e) TPP
Ans: (b, c, e)
20. In conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA & CO2, which of the following coenzyme is used:
(a) Biotin
(b) Lipoic acid
(c) TPP
(d) Pyridoxal phosphate
(e) Tetrahydrofolate
Ans: (b, c)
21. True about urea cycle:
(a) Nitrogen of th urea comes from alanine & ammonia
(b) Uses ATP during conversion of arginosuccinate to arginine
(c) On consumption of high amount of protein, excess of urea formed
(d) occur mainly in cytoplasm
(e) Synthesis of arginusuccinate consumes energy
Ans: (c, d, e)
22. Gangliosides contains:
(a) Phosphate
(b) Galactose
(c) Sulphate
(d) Serine
(e) Sailic acid
Ans: (b, e)
Immunogenetics & Molecular Biology
23. All are true about structure of DNA except:
(a) Right-handed helix
(b) Left-handed helix
(c) Phosphate form backbone
(d) Deoxyribose forms backbone
(e) Nitrogen bases form backbone
Ans: (e)
24. Which of the following is false:
(a) Ratio of A: T & G : C is approximately equal to 1 : 1
(b) Ratio of A:G is approximately equal to 1:1
(c) A+T=G+C
(d) A+C = G+T
(e) A+G = C+T
Ans: (b, c)
25. True about restriction enzyme:
(a) Also k/a restriction endonuclease
(b) Produce sticky ends
(c) Can detect mutations
(d) obtained from virus
(e) Breaks at sugar-phosphate bond
Ans: (a, b, e)
26. Which of the following is/are true about PCR except:
(a) Uses heat labile DNA polymerase
(b) Uses heat stable DNA polymerase
(c) In technique for DNA amplification
(d) Used to yield multiple copies of DNA
(e) Reverse transcriptase- PCR is used for quantitification of RNA
Ans: (a)
27. Which of the following techniques are used for detection of mutation:
(a) RT-PCR
(b) Microarray
(c) Allele-specific olignonucleotide (ASO)
(d) Western blot
(e) DNA sequencing
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
28. Which of the following is/are most severe/dangerous change in gene:
(a) Deletion
(b) Insertion
(c) Mutation
(d) Translocation
(e) Duplication
Ans: (a, b)
29. Which of the following technique is/are used in quantitification of viral nucleic acid:
(a) MALDI-TOF MS
(b) Branched-chain DNA (bDNA)
(c) PCR
(d) Gas-liquid Chromatography
(e) Biochemical phenotyping
Ans: (b, c)
30. Genes in CpP island is inactivated by:
(a) Methylation
(b) Metrylation
(c) Ubiquitisation
(d) Acetylation
Ans: (a)
31. Which of the following is true regarding transcription except:
(a) mRNA forms
(b) DNA polymerase enzyme is used
(c) RNA Polymerase enzyme is used
(d) Eukaryotes posses 3 different types of RNA polymerase
Ans: (b)
32. Which of the following RNA contains unusal bases:
(a) mRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) tRNA
(d) 30 S RNA
(e) 50s RNA
Ans: (c)
Pathology
33. True about follicular lymphoma:
(a) Lymphadenopathy is the most common presentation
(b) BCL-1 positive
(c) CD5 positive
(d) more common in males than females
Ans: (a)
34. True about Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia:
(a) Most common leukemia in adult
(b) Proliferation center is pathogonomonic
(c) Massive splenomegaly
(d) Radiotherapy & chemotherapy are given in treatment
Ans: (a, b, c)
35. True about mitochondrial DNA:
(a) Linear
(b) Circular
(c) Transmitted by mother only
(d) Transmitted by both parents
(e) Contains less gene than nuclear DNA
Ans: (b, c, e)
36. True about autosomal dominant type of inheritance:
(a) 25% affected & 50% carrier if one parent affected
(b) 50% affected & 75% carrier if both parent affected
(c) 75% affected if both parent affected
(d) 50% affected if one p aren’t affected
(e) All carrier irrespective of either one parent affected or both parent affected
Ans: (d)
37. In α-thalassemia, Hb Barts is said when number of gene loci affected is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) None
Ans: (d)
38. Which of the following cellular component gives publish blue color with H & E reagent:
(a) Reticulum
(b) Elastin
(c) P-selectin
(d) Collagen
(e) Heterochromatin
Ans: (a, e)
39. Which of the following is true about glutathione & glutathione peroxidase:
(a) Act as scavenger of free radicle
(b) Glutathione has anti-oxidant property
(c) Reduced glutathione can chemically detoxify H2O2
(d) Oxidized glutathione can chemically detoxify H2O2
Ans: (a, b, c)
40. Histological finding of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy includes:
(a) Myocyte disaary
(b) Interstitial fibrosis
(c) Amyloid deposition in muscle
(d) Myocyte hypertrophy
(e) Myocardial fibers are arranged in parallel pattern
Ans: (a, b, d)
41. True about bcI-2:
(a) ↑ Apoptosis
(b) ↓ Apoptosis
(c) ↑ Resistance of tumour to treatment
(d) Only associated with follicular lymphoma
(e) Cause meningioma
Ans: (b, c)
42. True about thrombus formation:
(a) Arterial thrombus grow in direction toward heart
(b) Venous thrombus grow in direction toward heart
(c) Venous thrombus form chicken fat
(d) Line of Zahn is seen microscopically in red thrombi
Ans: (b, d)
43. Red infarct occur in:
(a) In tissues with dual circulations
(b) Occur only when both arterial & venous obstruction occurs simultaneously
(c) Organs which are previously congested
(d) Organs with loose tissue
Ans: (a, c, d)
44. Spindle shaped cells is/are seen in which sarcoma:
(a) Osteosarcoma
(b) Chndromyosarcoma
(c) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
(d) Leiomyosarcoma
(e) Fibrosarcoma
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
45. Which of the following dyads are correct:
(a) WBC cast – Acute pyelonephritis
(b) Broad cast -CRF
(c) Eosinophilic cast-interstitial nephritis
(d) RBC cast-Glomerulonephritis
(e) Broad cast: chronic pyelonephritis
Ans: (a, b, d)
46. Alpha feto protein is/are increased
(a) Yolk sac tumour
(b) Seminoma
(c) Dysgerminoma
(d) Non-seminoma
(e) Hepatocellular carcinoma
Ans: (a, d, e)
True about hemophilia B:
(a) Factor 8 deficiency
(b) Factor 9 deficiency
(c) X-linked disorder
(d) Clinically indistinguishable from hemophilia A
(e) Fresh frozen plasma given for treatment
Ans: (b, c, d)
48. True about primary biliary cirhhosis:
(a) More common in female
(b) Periportal fibrosis
(c) May be associated with Rehumatoid arthritis & crohn’s disease
(d) Jaundice may be present
Ans: (a, b, d)
49. Finding the histopathology of brain in rabies includes:
(a) Negri body
(b) Nodule
(c) Neuronophagia
(d) Vacuolar degernerative changes
(e) Inflammatory cell
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
50. True about hyperacute rejection in renal transplant:
(a) Occur within few days of transplant
(b) T cell involvement
(c) Blood vessel thrombosis
(d) Eosinophilic infiltration
(e) B cell infiltration
Ans: (c)
51. True about gluten sensitive enteropahty:
(a) Diet should exclude barley, wheat & rye
(b) Intestinal biopsy is diagnostic
(c) Anti IgA endomycial antibody is specific
(d) Mucosal hyperplasia
Ans: (a, c)
Pharmacology
52. Mechanism of action of gabapentin is/are:
(a) Enhances GABA release
(b) Agonist at GABAA receptor
(c) Act on NMDA receptor
(d) Prolongation of Na+ Channel Inactivation
(e) Inhibition of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Ans: (a, e)
53. Which of the following is/are true regarding muscarianic action except:
(a) Miosis
(b) Detrusor muscle contraction
(c) Dicylomine is antimuscuranic drug used for smooth muscle relaxation
(d) Cardiac muscruanic receptors are predominantly M 3 type
(e) ↓ salivary gland secretion
Ans: (d, e)
54. Disease modifying drug (s) used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis:
(a) Neproxen
(b) Nabumetone
(c) Abatacept
(d) Monoclonal antibodies
(e) Methotrexate
Ans: (c, d, e)
55. Levetiracetam is commonly used for
(a) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
(b) Absence seizure
(c) Generalised Tonic clonic seizure
(d) Complex partial seizure
(e) Act through GABA
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
56. Pencillinase resistant penicillin is/are:
(a) Methicillin
(b) Cloxacillin
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Dicloxacillin
(e) Vancomycin
Ans: (a, b, d)
57. True about Jarisch – Hexheimer reaction:
(a) Occur within hours after giving penicillin
(b) Develop only after 1 week of Penicillin therapy
(c) Aggravation of signs and symptoms of syphilis
(d) It occur due to allergy to penicillin
(e) Most common in secondary syphilis
Ans: (a, c, e)
58. For which of the following drug bacteria acquire drug resistance by inactivation or degradation by enzyme:
(a) Quninolones
(b) Aminoglycosides
(c) Vancomycin
(d) Ampicillin
(e) Chloramphenicol
Ans: (b, e)
59. Which of the followings are features of benzodiazepine withdrawal except:
(a) Anxiety
(b) Increased appetite
(c) Hypersomnia
(d) Bad dreams
(e) Tremor
Ans: (b, c)
60. Which of the following drug is mainly excreted by kidney:
(a) Tetracyclines
(b) Doxycyclines
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Acyclovir
(e) Rifampicin
Ans: (a, c, d)
51. All are true about acyclovir except:
(a) Gunanosine analogue
(b) Inhibit viral DNA gyrase
(c) Inhibit viral DNA polymerase
(d) Requires phosphorylation for activation
(e) Excreted mainly in urine
Ans: (b)
62. S/E of clofaziamine includes
(a) Icthyosis
(b) Thrombocytosis
(c) Skin pigmentation
(d) Gastrointestinal disturbances
(e) Weight gain
Ans: (a, c, d)
63. A person was on chemotherapy for 2 week for some mediastinal tumour. Now he develops high frequency hearing loss. Most probable cause of this condition is use of:
(a) Cisplatin
(b) Etoposite
(c) Doxorubicin
(d) Methotrexate
Ans: (a)
64. In comparison to haloperidol, clozapine causes:
(a) Weight gain
(b) Agranulocytosis
(c) Sedation
(d) Severe extrapyramidal symptoms
(e) Less eliptogenic potential
Ans: (a, b, c)
65. Which of the following condition increase chance of hyponatremia in patient treated with antidepressant:
(a) Old age
(b) Low weight
(c) Cold climate
(d) Obesity
(e) Female sex
Ans: (a)
66. Desmopressin is/are used in:
(a) Diabetes insipidus
(b) Esophageal varices
(c) Haemophilia A
(d) Von Willebrand disease
(e) Hemophila B
Ans: (a, c, d)
67. Which of the following is/are teratogens:
(a) Artemisinin
(b) Aminoglycoside
(c) Carbamezapine
(d) Retinoic acid
(e) Phenytoin
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
68. Which of the following is/are features of Triamcilone with respect to hydrocortisone:
(a) Florinated at carbon atom 9
(b) Not used in oral form
(c) Mineralocorticoid activity present
(d) More potent than hydrocortisone
(e) Glucocorticoid activity is 5 times of hydrocortisone
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
Microbiology
69. Burkdholeria cepacia infection is/are typically associated with:
(a) Cystic fibrosis
(b) Chronic bronchitis
(c) Chronic granulomatous disease
(d) Multiple myeloma
(e) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
Ans: (a, c)
70. saginata is differentiated from T.solium by presence of:
(a) Hooks in scolex(head)
(b) 4 large pigmented sucker
(c) Uterus is thin & dichotomous
(d) Short neck
(e) Egg is not infective to man
Ans: (b, c, e)
71. True about gas gangrene:
(a) α-toxin in main cause of the toxaemia associated with gas gangrene
(b) Caused by mainly Clostridium intestinale
(c) Low oxygen tension in tissue is important precondition
(d) Devitalized tissue predisposes to gas gangrene
(e) Not occur if dead tissue is not present
Ans: (a, c)
72. True about Botulinum toxin:
(a) Interfere with adrenergic transmission
(b) Interfere with Cholinergic transmission
(c) Increase release of synaptic vesicles
(d) Inhibit release from synaptic vesicles
(e) Act also on CNS
Ans: (b, d, e)
73. Which of the following is/are true about HIV-2:
(a) HIV-2 first detected in West Africa in 1986
(b) Donated blood is only screened for HIV-1, not HIV-2.
(c) More virulent than HIV-1
(d) More closely related to simian immunodeficiency virus than HIV 1
(e) Mode of transmission is like HIV1
Ans: (a, d, e)
74. Features of stage III HIV infection is/are:
(a) Fever > 38 0C
(b) Oral hairy leukoplakia
(c) Candidiasis
(d) Diarrhoea of > 20 day duration
(e) > 26% CD4 count in adults
Ans: (b, c)
75. Microbiological organism can be recovered from:
(a) Sulphur granules of actinomycetes
(b) Streptococci from Valve leaflet lesion rheumatic valviulilis
(c) Petechial purpura for Meningococci
(d) Corynebacterium in pseudomembrane in throat
Ans: (a, c, d)
76. All are the feature(s) of chancorid except:
(a) Ulcer bleed easily B.
(b) Painful
(c) Bubo formation
(d) Typically indurated
(e) Caused by H.ducreyi
Ans: (d)
77. True about plague:
(a) Seasonal spread
(b) Non Vaccine is available
(c) Tetracycline is used both for chemoprophylaxis & treatment
(d) Caused by gram negative motile bacteria
(e) All ages are equally affected
Ans: (a, c, e)
78. Which of the following is picornaviridae:
(a) Polio virus
(b) Coxasackie virus
(c) Rhinovirus
(d) Cornona virus
(e) Reovirus
Ans: (a, b, c)
79. All are true about severe combined immunodeficiency except:
(a) B & T cell deficiency
(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency may occur
(c) Affected child can survives beyond adolescence without treatment
(d) Can transmit either as X-linked or autosomal recessive defect
(e) Person susceptible to recurrent & severe infections.
Ans: (c)
80. True statement regarding NK cells are all except:
(a) Also called as Large granular lymphocyte
(b) Can kill viral infected cell
(c) Forms first line of defence
(d) Can kill tumour cell
(e) No role cell mediated immunity
Ans: (e)
81. True about Swine flu:
(a) Older bird influenza vaccine is equally effective in swine flu
(b) Ostelmavir is effective in prevention
(c) Zanamavir can be used for treatment
(d) Influenza vaccine provides immunity just after vaccination
Ans: (b, c)
82. Laboratory finding(s) of a patient having chronic hepatitis B infection with low viral load:
(a) HBsAg
(b) Anti-HBs
(c) Anti-HBe
(d) Anti-HBc IgG
(e) HBeAg
Ans: (a, c, d)
Forensic Medicine
83. Death in hanging occurs due to all except:
(a) Asphyxia
(b) Vagal inhibition
(c) Vagal stimulation
(d) Cerebral ischemia
(e) Venous congestion
Ans: (c)
84. Grease collar is formed by:
(a) Railway injury
(b) Gutter fracture
(c) Bullet exit wound
(d) Bullet entry wound
Ans: (d)
85. Which of the following is/are type of abrasion:
(a) Pattern
(b) Imprint
(c) Graze
(d) Stretch
(e) Scratch
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
86. P.C Section dealing with punishment for voluntary causing grievous injury:
(a) 321 I.P.C
(b) 322 I.P.C
(c) 323 I.P.C
(d) 324 I.P.C
(e) 325 I.P.C
Ans: (e)
87. Post-mortem caloricity is/are seen in:
(a) Drowning
(b) Elderly
(c) Strychnine poisoning
(d) Sunstroke
(e) Cholera
Ans: (c, d, e)
88. Mummification is/are favoured by:
(a) Dry air
(b) Humid air
(c) Cold environment
(d) Drowning
(e) Warm air
Ans: (a, e)
89. Which of the following toxic agent is removed by hemodialysis, but not by gut detoxication through activated charcoal:
(a) Theophylline
(b) Benzodiazepines
(c) Phenobarbitone
(d) Ethylemne glycol
(e) Ethanol
Ans: (e)
90. All are true about eruption of teeth except:
(a) First deciduous teeth erupt in 6 month
(b) First permanent teeth erupt after 9 year
(c) Cannine teeth erupt earlier than molar teeth
(d) Cannine erupt after 2nd molar
(e) Central incisor erupts earlier than lateral incisor
Ans: (b, c, d)
SPM
91. Which of the following vaccine is C/I in pregnancy:
(a) BCG
(b) Oral polio vaccine
(c) Measles
(d) Tetanus
(e) Hepatitis B
Ans: (a, b, c)
92. Which of the following vaccine is C/I in symptomatic AIDS patient:
(a) Measles
(b) BCG
(c) Rubella
(d) Yellow fever
(e) Hepatitis B
Ans: (e)
93. Which of the following is/are true regarding reference man & woman except:
(a) Reference man is aged b/w 18-29 years & weighs 60 kg
(b) Reference man is aged b/w 18-29 years & weighs 55 kg
(c) Reference man: he is engaged in 8 hours of occupation which usually involves moderate activity
(d) Reference woman is aged b/w 18-29 years & weighs 50 kg
(e) Reference woman: height of 1.61 meter & a BMI of 21.2
Ans: (b, d)
94. All of the following are true regarding water supply except:
(a) Earlier recommended target of supply norm for rural area was 40 lpcd
(b) 150-200 liters per capita is considered as an adequate supply to meet the needs for all urban domestic purpose
(c) In 8th 5-yr plan target set was 200 lpcd & accessibility of source of water < 200 meter for rural areas
(d) For metro cities with populations > 10 lac, target is 150 lpcd
(e) For municipality with population b/w 1-10 lac, target is 100-135 lpcd
Ans: (c)
95. Deprivation index includes:
(a) Education
(b) Income
(c) Working child
(d) Drop out of child from school
(e) Physical disability
Ans: (a, b, e)
96. Which of the most common cancer in Indian women according to latest data of ICMR:Tra
(a) Cervix
(b) Vagina
(c) Breast
(d) Ovary
(e) Oral cavity
Ans: (c)
97. Which of the following dyads are corrects:
(a) Child sex ratio is 914 according to 2011 census
(b) CBR-21.3 in 2012
(c) General fertility rate 88.6 in 2012
(d) CDR- 7 in 2012
(e) 8yr- age of marriage
Ans: (a, d, e)
98. Positive predictive value:
(a) Numerator contains positive result by screening test
(b) Denominator contains positive result by screening test
(c) Numerator contains positive result by diagnostic test
(d) Denominator contains positive result by diagnostic test
(e) Numerator contains positive result by screening test & diagnostic test both
Ans: (b, d)
99. Incubatory carriers are:
(a) Polio
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Anthrax
(d) Pertussis
(e) Hepatitis B
Ans: (b, c, e)
100. Which of the following disease have carrier stage:
(a) Staph. aureus
(b) Group B Streptococcus
(c) Hepatitis B
(d) Typhoid
(e) Hemophilus influenza
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
101. True about silicosis:
(a) Birefringent particles are seen under polarized light in lung nodule
(b) Fibrosis of lung
(c) Stopping the exposure reverse the progression
(d) Impairment of total lung capacity
(e) Notifiable disease
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
Which of the following is not zoonosis:
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) Pertussis
(c) Anthrax
(d) Brucella
(e) Salmonella paratyphi B
Ans: (a, b)
Ophthalmology
103. Periosteum of orbit is strongly attached to to:
(a) Medial wall of orbit
(b) Lateral wall of orbit
(c) Floor of orbit
(d) Roof of orbit
(e) Sutures lines
Ans: (e)
104. Poor prognostic factor for retinoblastoma includes:
(a) > 4 mm size of tumour
(b) > 2 mm size of tumor
(c) Associated glaucoma
(d) Undifferentiated tumour cells
(e) Sclera involvement
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
105. A-V pattern heterotropia squint:
(a) The terms ‘A’ or ‘V’ pattern squint are labeled when the amount of deviation in squinting eye varies by more than 10° and 15°, respectively, between upward and downward gaze.
(b) The terms ‘A’ or ‘V’ pattern squint are labeled when the amount of deviation squinting eye varies by more than 20° and 25°, respectively, between upward and downward gaze.
(c) Usually, overaction of the inferior oblique or weakness of superior oblique leads to A pattern & overaction of the superior oblique or weakness of inferior oblique to an V pattern
(d) Usually, overaction o the interior oblique or weakness of superior oblique leads to a V pattern & overaction of the superior oblique or weakness of inferior oblique to an A pattern
(e) Oblique muscle dysfunction is the commonest cause of AV pattern.
Ans: (a, d, e)
106. True about congenital esotropia:
(a) Onset is only after 1 year of age
(b) Amblyopia may develop
(c) Angle of deviation is usually fixed & large
(d) Surgery should done after 2 years
Ans: (b, c)
107. True about lens:
(a) Avascular
(b) Growth takes place throughout life
(c) Derive its nutrition from aqueous humour
(d) Transparent
(e) Ectodermal in origin
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
108. Features of ocular ischemic syndrome includes all except:
(a) Microaneurysm
(b) Dot & blot haemorrhage
(c) More common in elderly women than men
(d) Disc edema
(e) Amaurosis fugax
Ans: (c, d)
109. All are ocular emergency except:
(a) Eye injury
(b) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
(c) Retinal artery occlusion
(d) CRVO
(e) Bacterial endophthalmitis
Ans: (d)
110. All are true regarding cornea except:
(a) Endothelium help in maintain dehydrated state
(b) Oxygen is mostly derived by epithelium directly from the air through tear film
(c) Glucose supply for corneal metabolism is mainly derived from the aqueous
(d) Corneal thickness is more at center than periphery
(e) Richly vascular
Ans: (d, e)
ENT
111. True about grommet insertion:
(a) Small plastic tube aerating middle ear
(b) Maximum duration of grommet insertion is 5 month
(c) Healing occurs more quickly after extrusion than after removal
(d) It is placed anteriorly on tympanic membrane
(e) Surgery is always needed to remove it
Ans: (a, c, d)
112. True about Vasomotor rhinitis:
(a) It is type of allergic reaction
(b) Clinically simulate nasal allergy
(c) Nsal mucosa generally congested & hypertrophic
(d) Hypertrophy of inferior turbinate is commonly present
(e) Anti-histaminics & oral nasal decongestant are used in treatment
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
113. Structures preserved in radical neck dissection
(a) Internal jugular vein
(b) Carotid Artery
(c) Accessory nerve
(d) Brachial plexus
(e) Sternocleidomastiod muscle
Ans: (b, d)
114. Feature of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis:
(a) Nasal polyp
(b) Perforated Nasal septum
(c) Persistant sinus
(d) crusting of nasal mucosa
(e) Collapse of nasal bridge
Ans: (b, c, d)
115. True about vestibular schwanomma:
(a) U/l hearing loss is common presentation
(b) Mostly malignant
(c) Most common tumour of CP angle
(d) Sensorineural deafness
(e) Uncapsulated
Ans: (a, c, d)
116. Tensor of vocal cord includes:
(a) Arytenoid
(b) Thyroarytenoid
(c) Interaytenoid
(d) Posterior cricoarytenoid
(e) Cricothyroid
Ans: (e)
117. All are true about vocal cord nodule except:
(a) Caused by phonotrauma
(b) Commonly occur at Junction of middle & posterior 1/3
(c) Common at junction of A 1/3 with P 2/3
(d) Common in teachers
(e) Treatment is speech therapy
Ans: (b)
118. True about allergic fungal sinusitis:
(a) Fungal hyphae is p resent in allergic mucin which is pathological hallmark
(b) Invasion of the sinus mucosa with fungus
(c) Allergic reaction to fungus
(d) Antifungal treatment lead to improvement of symptom
(e) Surgical clearance is mainstay of treatment
Ans: (a, c, e)
119. True about conductive hearing loss:
(a) Presbycusis
(b) Cholestetoma
(c) Acoustic neuroma
(d) Perforation of tympanic membrane
(e) Serous otitis media
Ans: (b, d, e)
120. True about Andy Gump deformity:
(a) Occurs due defect of the anterior mandibular arch
(b) Hemimandibulecotmy can cause
(c) Marginal mandibulectomy can cause
(d) Treatment is adequate reconstruction of anterior mandibular arch with plate & graft
Ans: (a, b, d)
121. Foreign body in trachea & bronchus can cause:
(a) Bronchiectasis
(b) Atelectasis
(c) Subcutaneous emphysema
(d) Pneumothorax
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
Medicine
122. Pulmonary blood flow increased in all except:
(a) ASD
(b) VSD
(c) TOF
(d) Transposition of great arteries (TGA)
(e) PDA
Ans: (c)
123. Cauda equine is differentiated from conus medullar is by presence of:
(a) Ankle jerk may lost
(b) Knee jerk may lost
(c) Motor changes
(d) Bladder & bowel involvement as initial presentation
(e) Root pain
Ans: (b, c, e)
124. Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of headache due to increase in intracranial pressure:
(a) Increase on supine position
(b) Most commonly presents as severe acute headache
(c) Pulsatile in nature
(d) Throbbing character
(e) Analgesics are not very helpful
Ans: (a, e)
125. Early diastolic murmur is/are seen in:
(a) VSD
(b) ASD
(c) Mitral stenosis
(d) AR
(e) PR
Ans: (d, e)
126. All are about used of triptans in migraine except:
(a) Used in prophylaxis of migraine
(b) Efficacy increased with concomitant use of ergot
(c) Can be given for long term where NSAIDS is not effective
(d) Given when NSAIDS is not effective
Ans: (a, b, c)
127. All are true about renal artery stenosis except:
(a) ACE inhibitors can be used in bilateral renal artery stenosis
(b) ACE inhibitors can be used in unilateral renal artery stenosis
(c) ACE inhibitors are best drug to control DM associated hypertension
(d) Excision & Grafting is treatment of choice
(e) Angioplasty with or without stenting, and surgical bypass used only in refractory cases
Ans: (a, d)
128. Which of the following causes glomerular proteinuria:
(a) DM
(b) Amyloidosis
(c) Multiple myeloma
(d) ACE inhibitors decreases proteinuria
Ans: (a, b, d)
129. All are true about Chylous pleural effusion except:
(a) Stain positive with sudan III
(b) Cutoff level of triglyceride for chylous effusion is > 150 mg/dl
(c) Cutoff level of triglyceride for chylous effusion is > 50 mg/dl
(d) Milky colour disappears with alkali
(e) Milky colour disappears with ether
Ans: (b, c)
130. Chylous pleural effusion occur in:
(a) T.B
(b) Malignancy
(c) SLE
(d) Thoracic duct injury
(e) Congestive heart failure
Ans: (a, b, d)
131. Feature of parkinsonism includes all except:
(a) Mask face
(b) Rigidity
(c) Intention tremor
(d) Resting tremor
(e) Falccidity
Ans: (c)
132. Which of the following causes massive splenomegaly:
134. Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar state (HHS) is characterized by:
(a) Hyperglycemia
(b) Acidosis
(c) Dehydration
(d) Coma
Ans: (a, c, d)
135. Which of the following is true about Pheochromocytoma:
(a) Sestabimi scan is done before surgery
(b) Mostly are malignant
(c) Surgery is mainstay of treatment
(d) Prior α blocker is given
(e) Prior β blocker is given
Ans: (c, d, e)
136. Treatment of crohn’s disease includes:
(a) Steroid
(b) 5-Aminosalicylic acid agents
(c) Azathioprine
(d) Daclizumab
(e) Adalimumab
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
137. Energy selection of CPR according to AHA 2010 guideline is/are:
(a) Monophasic 120-200J, Biphasic 360J
(b) Monophasic 200 J, Biphasic 360J
(c) Monophasic 120 J, Biphasic200J
(d) Monophasic 360 J, Biphasic 120-200 J
(e) Monophasic 360J, Biphasic 220 J
Ans: (d)
138. Which of the following lesion represent tertiary syphilis:
(a) Coondylomata lata
(b) Matted lymph node
(c) Condylomata acuminata
(d) Tabes dorsalis
(e) Gumma formation
Ans: (d, e)
139. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding syphilis in pregnancy & congenital syphilis::
(a) Foetus has more chance of infection in 3rd T.M
(b) Syphilis can be prevented by giving penicillin in nenonate
(c) If infant showing signs of syphilis, he/she should be given single dose of crystalline penicillin
(d) If infant does not have any signs of syphilis, he/she should be given benzathine penicillin
(e) Foetus is most likely affected if mother is suffering from primary or secondary syphilis than late syphilis
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
140. Ascitic fluid with ↑ SAAG & ↑albumin is/are found in:
(a) T.B
(b) CHF
(c) Cirrhosis
(d) Pancreatitis
(e) Nephrotic syndrome
Ans: (b)
141. Which of the following dyads are correct:
(a) Pulsus paradoxus-Aortic regurgitation
(b) Pulsus bisferiens-Aortic stenosis
(c) Water-Hammer pulse-Aortic regurgitation
(d) Pulsus parvus rt tardus-Aortic stenosis
(e) Collapsing pulse-Aortic regurgitation
Ans: (c, d, e)
142. For cancer pain, ladder 2 step in WHO’s pain step ladder includes:
(a) Oral morphine
(b) Injectable morphine
(c) Codeine
(d) Fentanyl
(e) Tramadol
Ans: (c, e)
143. True about peptic ulcer:
(a) H.pylori causes peptic ulcer
(b) Eradication therapy better than PPI therapy
(c) Eradication therapy also contain PPI
(d) Dudoenum ulcer is more commonly associated with H. pylori than gastric ucler
(e) Gastric ulcer is more commonly associated with H.pylori than duodenal ulcer
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
144. Features of Constrictive pericarditis which differentiate with restrictive cardiomyopathy:
(a) Prominent y descent more common
(b) Pericardial knock
(c) Third hear sound
(d) Thickened pericardium
(e) Right ventricular hypertrophy
Ans: (a, b, d)
145. CURB-65 criteria for severe pneumonia includes:
(a) Confusion
(b) Uremia
(c) Respiratory rate ≥ 30/min
(d) Systolic blood pressure ≤ 80 mm Hg
(e) Diastolic blood pressure, systolic ≤ 50 mmHg
Ans: (a, b, c)
146. Which of the following feature favours emphysema rather than interstitial fibrosis:
(a) ↑FEV1
(b) ↓FEV1/FEV6
(c) ↑RV
(d) ↑TLC
(e) ↓Peak expiratory flow
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
147. True about kaposi sarcoma:
(a) Vascular tumor
(b) Associated with HIV
(c) Anti-retroviral therapy is given in AIDS associated KS
(d) Associated with Human herpes virus-B
(e) Radiotherapy may be used in treatment
Ans: (all)
148. Hypomagnesemia may lead to:
(a) Hypotension
(b) Bradycardia
(c) Torsade de pointers
(d) Tetany
(e) Calcium should also be used in its treatment
Ans: (c, d, e)
149. Feature of unstable angina:
(a) ↑ Troponin
(b) Transient elevation of ST segment
(c) Depression of ST segment
(d) Q wave
(e) T wave inversion
Ans: (b, c, e)
150. All are true about rheumatoid factor except:
(a) Also found in Sjogren syndrome
(b) May also present normally
(c) It is basically IgM
(d) Its presence is diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: (a, b, c)
Surgery
151.Which of the following is the feature(s) of posterior cranial fossa fracture:
(a) Bleeding from ear
(b) Discolouration of skin & collection of blood occur in the region of mastoid process
(c) Boggy swelling in the nape of the neck
(d) Bleeding from nose
(e) CSF rhinorrhoea
Ans: (b, c)
152. Symptom of overactive bladder are:
(a) Increased day time frequency
(b) Nocturia
(c) Hesitancy
(d) Dysuria
(e) Urgency
Ans: (b, e)
153. All are true about undescended testis except:
(a) Poses risk for malignancy
(b) Treatment is manually repositioning testes into scrotum
(c) At 1yr. about 1% children have undescended testis
(d) Infertility may occur due to defect in spermatogenesis
(e) Orchidectomy is treatment of choice
Ans: (e)
154. True about Psoas abscess:
(a) Hip extension increases pain
(b) Staphylococcus is most common cause
(c) Presented with back pain
(d) T. B scan cause
(e) Causes referred pain to the hip & groin
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
155.True about caludication:
(a) Always B/l
(b) Commonly present with pain in calf muscle
(c) Pain increases with walking
(d) Pain relieves with rest
(e) Most commonly occurs due to neurological cause
Ans: (b, c, d)
156. True about abdominal aneurysm:
(a) Size >4.5 cm is indication for repair
(b) Most common above renal artery
(c) Typical triad of ruptured abdominal aneurysm is found in less than 50% case
(d) Associated peripheral aneurysm is also commonly present
(e) Treatment with shunt/graft
Ans: (c, e)
157. True about incisional hernia:
(a) Incidence is about 10-15% of all abdominal wall hernia
(b) Less change in obese person
(c) More common in woman
(d) Commonly caused by lower abdominal surgery
(e) May occur due to improper healing of abdominal incision
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
158. Which of the following is/are true in accordance to revised gastric carcinoma staging:
(a) All gastric tumours whose epicenter is within 5 cm of the gastrooesophageal junction and extend into the oesophagus are now classified according to the revised gastric staging
(b) 5 Node involvement-N2
(c) T1N2M0- Stage II
(d) Peritoneal spread is M0
(e) Any tumour that perforates the serosa is now classified as T4 disease
Ans: (b, c, e)
159. All are true about dumping syndrome except
(a) Treatment consists of small meal at short interval
(b) PPI is very useful in treatment
(c) Watery & carbohydrate rich food are precipitating factors
(d) May occur after gastrectomy or vagotomy and drainage operations
(e) Rapid gastric emptying is common feature of both early & late dumping syndrome
Ans: (b)
160. Which of the following is/are true Boerhaave syndrome:
(a) Occur duet o increase in thoracic esophageal pressure
(b) More common on left lateral wall of the esophagus
(c) Caused by severe vomiting
(d) Causes hudro-pnemothorax as complication
(e) May be misdiagnosed as myocardial infarction
Ans: (all)
161. Features of Reidel thyroiditis are:
(a) Presents as a goitre
(b) Painful
(c) Associated with IgG4 related systemic diseases
(d) Fibrosis of interstitial thyroid stroma
(e) Present with hypothyroidism
Ans: (a, c, d)
162. True about Sick euthyroid syndrome:
(a) Normal TSH
(b) T4 to T3 conversion impaired
(c) High TSH
(d) T4 high
(e) Increased reverse T3
Ans: (a, b, e)
163. All are true about salivary gland tumor except:
(a) Parotid gland is most common site of involvement
(b) Warthin tumour almost always found in the parotid gland
(c) Minor gland tumours are mostly malignant
(d) Parotid tumours are mostly malignant
(e) Superficial parotidectomy is done in pleomorphic adenoma
Ans: (d)
164.Which of the following is/are true regarding surgical shunt for esophageal varies in portal hypertension:
(a) Prevention esophageal bleed
(b) Main indication of surgical shunt is a patient with Child’s grade A cirrhosis, in whom the initial bleed has been controlled by sclerotherapy
(c) Reduce the pressure in the portal circulation by diverting the blood into the low-pressure systemic circulation
(d) Distal splenorenal shunt preserve blood flow to the liver
Ans: (a, b, c)
165. True about cleft lip:
(a) Occurs d/t defect in fusion of frontal & nasal process
(b) Only bilateral cases are associated with cleft plate
(c) Repaired in neonatal period
(d) Unilateral cases are more common in left side
Ans: (d)
166. Which of the following is/are true regarding management of a trauma presenting with shock:
(a) Transfusion Of PCV: FPP: Platelet should be in 1:1:1 ratio
(b) First hemodynamic stabilize the patient, then go for CT scan
(c) First go for CT scan, then stabilize the patient
(d) CVP line should be placed
Ans: (b, d)
167. All are true about acute appendicitis except:
(a) Clinically indifferent from Meckel diverticulum in children
(b) Lymphoid hyperplasia may causes acute appedicitis
(c) Pain shift to right iliac fossa
(d) Ultrasound is more diagnostic than CT scan
Ans: (d)
168. Which of the following is true about esophageal adenocarcinoma:
(a) Obesity is a risk factor
(b) Most common in middle & lower 1/3
(c) ↑Incidence in Barrett’s oesophagus
(d) Squamous metaplasia
(e) Chronic gastroesophageal reflux an etiology of adenocarcinoma
Ans: (a, d, e)
169. True about intestinal pseudo-obstruction
(a) May be caused by hypokalemia
(b) Bezoars can cause pseudo-obstruction
(c) Neostigmine used in treatment
(d) May be associated with diverticulosis
(e) Colonoscopy is contraindicated
Ans: (a, c)
170. True about sigmoid volvulus:
(a) Most common spontaneous type in adult
(b) Less fiber diet is a risk factor
(c) Treatment include resuscitation & decompression
(d) Most common type of colonic volvulus
(e) Low recurrence after conservative management
Ans: (a, c, d)
171. True about diverticular disease of colon:
(a) Right side more common
(b) Sign & symptoms indistinguishable from irritable bowel syndrome
(c) Profuse & painless bleeding
(d) Sigmoid is most common site
Ans: (b, d)
172. Which of the following is true about primary lymphoedema:
(a) May be congenital
(b) Lymphoedema congenital more commonly occur bilaterally
(c) Condition improves with massage
(d) Lymphatic hyperplasia
Ans: (a, b, c)
173. All are true about thymoma except:
(a) MC tumor in anterior mediastinum
(b) Treatment is thymectomy
(c) Symptomatic cases p resent as endocrine abnormalities
(d) May b e associated with myasthenia gravis
(e) Associated with thyroiditis
Ans: (c)
174. True about invasive thymoma:
(a) Benign in nature
(b) May be associated with EBV
(c) Malignant in nature
(d) Epithelial cells are most commonly of the cortical variety
Ans: (a, b, d)
175. True about cystosarcoma phylloides:
(a) Usually bilateral
(b) Usually occur in female over age of 40
(c) Not involve nipple-areola complex
(d) Treatment is mastectomy of malignant lesions
(e) All are benign in nature
Ans: (b, d)
176. True about anorectal abscess:
(a) ischiorectal is most common type
(b) Primary modality of treatment is antibiotic without drain
(c) Rupture can cause fistula formation
(d) Common in diabetics
(e) Drainage of pus with antibiotics is mainstay of treatment
Ans: (c, d, e)
177. Which of the following indicate poor prognosis in both Ranson & Glasgow scale of acute pancreatitis:
(a) Albumin
(b) Alanine aminotransferase
(c) Asparatate aminotransferase
(d) Lactate dehydrogenase
(e) Base deficit
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
Obstetrics & Gynaecology
178. All are true about polycystic ovarian disease (PCOD) except:
(a) Testosterone > 2 ng/ml
(b) Infertility
(c) High FSH/LH ratio
(d) ↑ Insulin level
(e) ↑E2/oestrone(E1) ratio
Ans: (c, e)
179. Not true about Endometriosis:
(a) Sampson gave implantation theory
(b) Cause infertility
(c) Laproscopy is gold standard for diagnosis
(d) Common in low socio-economic group
Ans: (d)
180. A young lady can be counseled for sterilization operation in all except:
(a) A woman having no or few children may undergo sterilization
(b) Woman with HIV either taking or not taking ART can go for sterilization
(c) Husband consent is present
(d) Young lactating women more than 25 years can go for sterilization
(e) If the couple has 3 or more living children, the lower limit of age of the husband or wife may be relaxed at the discretion of the operating system
Ans: (a)
181. Nulliparous women have high risk of following cancer:
(a) Cervical cancer
(b) Vaginal cancer
(c) Breast cancer
(d) Ovarian cancer
(e) Endometrial Ca
Ans: (c, d, e)
182. Aneuploid in 1st Trimester is detected by:
(a) Nuchal transluency
(b) MSAFP level
(c) PAPP-A
(d) Unconjugated estriol
(e) β-hCG
Ans: (b, d, e)
183. True about testosterone in female:
(a) > 50% testosterone secreted from ovary
(b) > 80% testosterone secreted from ovary
(c) ~ 0.5 ng/ml is plasma concentration
(d) Slight decrease in the secretion at time of ovulation
(e) Daily production of testosterone is 0.2-0.3% mg
Ans: (a, c, e)
184. True about Nonoxynol-9:
(a) Decrease risk of HIV
(b) Prevent STD infection
(c) Remain effective for 1-2 hr after application
(d) Spermicidal action
(e) Causes itching vagina in female & itching of penis in male
Ans: (c, d, e)
185. Feature of false labor:
(a) Steady intensity of pain
(b) Cervical dilation
(c) Discomfort is in the back and abdomen
(d) Interval remain long
(e) Discomfort usually is relieved by sedation
Ans: (a, d)
186. Which of the following is true about Partial mole:
(a) Karyotype is 69 XXY or 69XYY
(b) High malignant potential
(c) βHCG level is <50,000
(d) Thecan lutein cysts common
(e) Immunostaining (p57KIP2) positive
Ans: (a, c, e)
187. Which of the following is lower segment vertical incision:
(a) Simon
(b) Selheim
(c) Kronig
(d) Kerr
(e) None
Ans: (b, c)
188. Appropriate time of IUCD insertion is/are:
(a) Immediately after delivery
(b) 1 week after delivery
(c) Post-puerperal period
(d) Before menstruation
(e) Any time during lactation period
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
189. True about combined oral contraceptive:
(a) Pelvic examination is mandatory before prescribing COC
(b) Pregnancy resumes soon after discontinuation of pill
(c) Protect from endometrial cancer, cervical & ovarian cancer
(d) HIV antiviral drugs reduce effectiveness of COC
(e) Pregnancy rate equal to non-hormonal contraceptive after discontinuation
Ans: (a, d)
190. True abot implanon:
(a) releases > 67 μg/day of drug prevent STD
(b) Life span is 3 years
(c) Contain LNG
(d) Has 6 implants
Ans: (c)
191. True about progestogen only pill:
(a) Weight gain occurs
(b) Cause irregular bleeding
(c) it can be given to lactating mother
(d) Should not b e given to women over 35 years
(e) Protect from breast cancer
Ans: (a, b, c)
192. True about Dysgerminoma:
(a) Rare tumor in pregnancy
(b) Always b/l
(c) Total abdominal hysterectomy is usually done
(d) Unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is generally done
(e) Constitute 30% of all malignant germ cell tumour
Ans: (d, e)
193. True about placental abruption:
(a) Pre-eclampsia is a risk factor
(b) Common in multigravida
(c) Common in primigravida
(d) Premature separation of normal implanted placentae
(e) Character of bleeding is bright red blood
Ans: (a, b, d)
194. Diagnosis of Endometrial carcinoma can b e made from:
(a) Papnicolaou smear
(b) Fractional curettage
(c) Aspiration cytology from uterine
(d) Hysteroscopy & biospy
(e) Colposcopy
Ans: (b, c, d)
195. True about Klinefelter syndrome:
(a) Leg are more in length than trunk
(b) Intrauterine fertilization can not be successful even with TESA & ICSI
(c) Gynaecomastia
(d) FSH and luteinzing hormone (LH) are decreased
Ans: (a, c)
Paediatrics
196. Which of the following causes neonatal jaundice:
(a) Sickel cell anaemia
(b) β-Thalassemia
(c) Meningitis
(d) G6PD deficiency
(e) Rh incompatibility
Ans: (b, d, e)
197. Which of the following milestone is developed by child b/w 6 to 9 month:
(a) Can point something with index finger
(b) Swap some object from one palm to another
(c) Can hold object with thumb & index finger
(d) Can voluntary drop object
(e) Can extend arm
Ans: (b, c, d)
198. True about osteum primum defect
(a) It is found in ASD
(b) More commonly associated with ASD than VSD
(c) May be associated with down syndrome
(d) Osteum primum ASD is more common than osteum secondum ASD
Ans: (a, b, c)
199. True about minimal change disease:
(a) Peak incidence is between 2 and 4 years of age
(b) Renal failure occur in adolescent
(c) Steroid not very effective
(d) Selective proteinuria
Ans: (a, d)
200. Vesico-ureteric reflex is commonly diagnosed by:
(a) Micturating cystography
(b) Radioisotope renography
(c) IVU
(d) CT Scan
Ans: (a, b)
201. True about Tanner stage II:
(a) Penis increases in length
(b) Penis increases in width
(c) Scanty hair at base of penis
(d) Darkening of scrotum
(e) More growth occur in boys than girls
Ans: (a, c)
Orthopaedics
202. True about Locking compression plate:
(a) In steoporotic patients, it should not be used
(b) Can be used as buttress plate
(c) Usually cause perosteal injury
(d) Mechanically superior to conventional plate
(e) Can not be used as compression plate
Ans: (b, d)
203. Osteosclerotic metastases is/are common in cancer of:
(a) Prostate
(b) Breast
(c) Lung
(d) Malignant melanoma
(e) Renal cell carcinoma
Ans: (a, b)
204. Following are immediate complications of fracture:
(a) Vascular ischemia
(b) Neuronal injury
(c) Malunion
(d) Compartment syndrome
(e) Avascular necrosis
Ans: (a, b)
205. Which of the following cause malunion except:
(a) Open #
(b) Infection
(c) Bone grafting
(d) Soft tissue interposition
(e) Proper alignment of fracture
Ans: (c, e)
206. True about Atypical CTEV:
(a) Foot is flexed downward
(b) Sole crease are not found
(c) Difficult to treat than typical variety
(d) May occur duet neurological disorder
(e) May be associated with Meningomyelocele
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
207. In young person most common cancer among following is
(a) Giant cell
(b) Osteosarcoma
(c) Chondrosarcoma
(d) Ewing sarcoma
Ans: (b)
208. All are true about septic arthritis except:
(a) Staph. Aurreus is most common causative organism.
(b) Common in children
(c) Affect growth plate
(d) E.coli is the commonest causative organism
(e) Aspiration of join fluid is used for diagnosis
Ans: (d)
209. Features of fat embolism:
(a) Bradycardia
(b) Hypoxia
(c) Hypotension
(d) Tachypnoea
(e) Petechial rash
Ans: (b, d, e)
210. Straight leg raising test is/are positive in:
(a) Spinal stenosis
(b) Spinal abscess
(c) Also called as trendelenburg test
(d) Prolapsed intervertebral disc
(e) Sciatica
Ans: (d, e)
211. Which of the following is/are true about the gait in sensory deficit:
(a) Antalgic gait
(b) Apraxic
(c) Tredelenburg
(d) Positive Romberg sign
(e) Apraxic gait
Ans: (d)
Anaesthesia
212. Which of the following is/are true regarding anaesthetic gas:
(a) N2O- increases efficacy of other inhalational agents
(b) Halothane- agent of choice in children
(c) Sevoflurane is agent of choice in children
(d) Isoflurane- smooth induction
Ans: (a, c)
213. All are true about malignant hyperthermia except:
(a) Occurs due to defect in ryanodine receptor
(b) Caffeine –halothane test on muscle fiber is used for diagnosis
(c) Halothane precipitates
(d) Thiopentone triggers
(e) Usually AD in heritance
Ans: (d)
214. True about Endotracheal tube:
(a) Most common used size for adult male is 8-8.5
(b) Most common used size for adult female is 7-7.5
(c) PVC tube is reusable by cleaning
(d) In children cuffed tube is not used
(e) Cuff is for aspiration of secretions
Ans: (a, b, d)
215. True about subarachnoid block (spinal anesthesia):
(a) Cannot be used in infant &children
(b) Can be given by unskilled doctor
(c) May be used when I.V access is not possible for intravenous drugs
(d) Hypotension is most common side-effect
Ans: (d)
216. Indication of CVP line is/are:
(a) CVP monitoring in shock patient
(b) Prior to major surgery
(c) For administering inotropics through CVP line in shock patients
(d) In every case of caesarean section
(e) For given blood in patient with severe haemorrhage
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
Skin
217. True about acute paronychia:
(a) Fungal infection of nail pulp
(b) Fungal infection of nail bed
(c) Bacterial infection
(d) Allergic reaction
(e) Usually involve nail folds
Ans: (c, e)
218. True about Campbell de Morgan spots:
(a) Benign
(b) Malignant
(c) Proliferation of blood vessel
(d) Very painful
(e) Cherry red in color
Ans: (a, c, e)
219. Which of the following disease is associated with hepatitis C infection:
(a) Lichen planus
(b) Psoariasis
(c) Sjogren’s syndrome
(d) HUS
(e) HSP
Ans: (a, c)
220. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Scabies:
(a) Number of lesion correspondent to number mite
(b) Ivermectin not used for treatment
(c) Itching worsen at night
(d) Not involve face in children
Ans: (c)
221. All are true about Pitrylasis rosea except:
(a) Usually self limiting
(b) Drug induced
(c) Herald patch precedes eruptions by 1-2 weeks
(d) Caused by HHV 3 % 4
Ans: (b, d)
Psychiatry
222. Expousre & response prevention technique is/are used in:
(a) Schizophrenia
(b) OCD
(c) Phobia
(d) Mania
(e) Depression
Ans: (b, c)
223. Most common disorder(s) after trauma is:
(a) Major depression
(b) Mania
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) PTSD
(e) Acute stress reaction
Ans: (d, e)
224. A woman has mild depression after few days of delivery & disappeared after 2 week in postpartum period. It may be due to:
(a) Post-partum blue
(b) Mania
(c) Post-partum depression
(d) Mild depression
(e) Postpartum psychosis
Ans: (a)
Radiology
225. Water lily sign is seen in:
(a) Hydatid cyst of lung
(b) Aspergilloma lung
(c) T.B
(d) Silicosis
(e) Hemartoma lung
Ans: (a)
226. Which of the following do not use radiation:
(a) MRI
(b) CT
(c) USG
(d) SPECT
(e) PET
Ans: (a, c)
227. Which of the following is non-ionising radiation:
(a) X-ray
(b) β-rays
(c) α-rays
(d) Microwave
(e) γ rays
Ans: (d)
228. On x-ray small bowel can be differentiated by large bowel by having:
(a) String of beads sign
(b) Haustarions
(c) Peripherally placed concave coil of intestine
(d) Air fluid level
(e) Valvulae conniventes
Ans: (a, d, e)
229. For radiotherapy an isotope is paced in or around cancer site. it is called as
(a) Brachytherapy
(b) Teletherapy
(c) External beam therapy
(d) External beam therapy
(e) Intensity Medulated radiotherapy
Ans: (a)
230. Normal brain calcification is/are present in:
70. A Patient presented in emergency room with severe malaria. He was given artusunate at 0 hr, 12 hr, 24 hr & then once a day till day. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding further management of the patient:
(a) Patient may later switched to oral drug if patient able to tolerate
(b) dextrose drip should be started
(c) Artesunate should never be given singly
(d) Steroid is beneficial
Ans: (a, b, c)
71. Which of the following is/are true regarding plasma concentration time curve of a drug:
(a) Peak concentration determine bioavailability
(b) Intramuscular administration have curve different from oral administration
(c) Area under curve determine therapeutic response
(d) Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the area under curve after oral & after i.v. administration
(e) Changes in the rate of absorption and extent of bioavailability can influence both the duration of action and the effectiveness of the same total dose of a drug administered in different formulations
Ans: (b, d, e)
72. Not indicated for anaerobic colitis treatment:
(a) Metronidazole
(b) Aminoglycoside
(c) Amikacin
(d) Piperacillin-tazobactam
(e) Imipnenem
Ans: (b)
Microbiology
73. True about Ebola virus:
(a) Belongs to family filoviridae
(b) Transmission may occur from dead bodies
(c) Transmitted by sexual contact
(d) Incubation period is less than 48 hr
(e) Contains single-stranded RNA
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
74. All are true about Toxopolasma infection except:
(a) May occur due to ingestionof oocyst from cat’s faeces
(b) May spread by organ transplantation
(c) Toxoplasmosis is usually symptomatic in immunocompetent person
(d) Infection is severe & progressive in immunocompromised host
(e) Human infection is dead end for parasite
Ans: (c)
75. Which of the following disease(s) is/are not toxin mediated:
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Tetanus
(c) Pertussis
(d) Anthrax
(e) Syphilis
Ans: (e)
76. Commonly used stain(s) for indentifying fungus include(s):
(a) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain
(b) Von Kossa stain
(c) Muramine silver stain
(d) Gomori’s methenamine silver
(e) GIemsa stain
Ans: (a, d)
77. Non-treponemal test includes:
(a) RPR
(b) VDRL
(c) FTA-ABS
(d) TPHA
(e) TPI
Ans: (a, b)
78. Which of the following Culture media combination is/are true except:
(e) Mac Conkey’s agar: Non lactose fermenters form colourless colonies
Ans: (d)
79. All of the following are true regarding legionella except:
(a) Cause pontaic fever
(b) Aerobic gram negative bacilli
(c) Can grow on simple medium
(d) Grow on BCYE agar
(e) Communicable from infected patients to others
Ans: (c, e)
80. All are true about gonorrhea except:
(a) Gonorrhoea means flow of seed
(b) Discharge may contain neutrophill
(c) Initially discharge is scanty & mucoid in urtheritis
(d) Caused by gram positive cocci
(e) Symptom is more severe in female than males
Ans: (d, e)
81. All are true about H.pylori except:
(a) Spiral rod in shape & flagellated
(b) Gram –ve bacillus
(c) Urease activity is essential for colonization in gastric mucosa
(d) Grow under microaerophilic conditions
(e) Culture of endoscopic biopsy material is gold standard
Ans: (e)
82. All statements are true about mycetoma except:
(a) Eumycetoma is caused by bacteria
(b) Surgery is important component of treatment
(c) Usually painless
(d) Diagnosis can be made by examination of lesion
(e) Can effect lower & upper extremities
Ans: (a)
83. Stain used for mycobacterium:
(a) Siehl-Neelsen stain
(b) Kinyoun stain
(c) Auramine – rhodamine
(d) Gomori methenamine silver stain
Ans: (a, b, c)
84. True about non-industrial anthrax:
(a) May occur in butcher
(b) Animal hair is a source of infection
(c) Commonly occurs in factory worker
(d) Stomoxys calcitrans insect may transmit the infection
(e) It is a zoonosis
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
85. Zoonotic diseases are all except:
(a) Leptospirosis
(b) Guniea worm
(c) Rabies
(d) Plague
(e) Japanense encephalitis
Ans: (b)
86. All of the following is/are true regarding candidiasis:
(a) Commonly involve mucosa & skin
(b) Not involve nails
(c) Caused by yeast like fungus
(d) Diabetes is most important risk factor
(e) Causes meningitis in immunocompromised persons
Ans: (b)
87. Feature(s) of Taenia capitis is/are all except:
(a) May presents as a boggy swelling
(b) Most commonly occurs in elderly
(c) May present as black dot
(d) Caused by trichophyton & microsporum but not by peidermophyton
(e) Scutulum formation
Ans: (b)
88. Which of the following is/are true about pasteurerlla multiocuda:
(a) May cause meningitis
(b) Transmitted by unpasteurized milk
(c) Cause disease exclusively in human
(d) Gram-negative coccobacillus
Ans: (a, d)
89. Which of the following has incubation period of < day:
(a) Salmonella typhi
(b) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
(c) Campylobacter jejuni
(d) Shigella dyseneteriae
(e) Yersinia pestis
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
90. Verruga peruana is caused by
(a) B. Bacilliformis
(b) B. Henselae
(c) B. Quintana
(d) B. Elizabethae
(e) B. Grahamil
Ans: (a)
91. Which of the following statement is/are true bout Staphylococcus aureus:
(a) Contains nuc gene
(b) Causes community acquired pneumonia
(c) Expression of methicillin resistance increase when it is incubated at 37℃ on blood agar
(d) Coagulase enzyme is a virulence factor
(e) Causes food poisoning
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
Forensic Medicine
92. Gun shot injury may cause(s)
(a) Abrasion collar
(b) Gutter fracture
(c) Rail track injury
(d) Incised like injury
(e) Lacerated like injury
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
93. Not characteristics of poisonous snake:
(a) Small scales on head
(b) Large scales on belly & over entire breadth
(c) Short & solid fangs
(d) Compressed tail
(e) Usually nocturnal in habit
Ans: (c)
94. Which of the following is not component of typical embalaming agent:
(a) Na citrate
(b) Na borate
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Glycerine
Ans: (none)
95. True about Pugilistic attitude:
(a) Flexion of hip & knee
(b) Occur due to coagulation of protein by burning
(c) Extension of elbow
(d) Flexion of fingers
Ans: (a, b, d)
96. Which of the following can be ground for divorce:
(a) Sterile female
(b) Impotent man
(c) Diabetes
(d) Premature ejaculation
(e) Pre-existing incurable mental disorder
Ans: (b, e)
97. Not rue regarding Voyeurism:
(a) 354 define punishment
(b) For first offence imprisonment of 1-3 year with fine
(c) For repeat offence imprisonment may extend to 5-10 year
(d) Cognizable offence
(e) Repeat offence is considered as non-bailable offence
Ans: (c)
SPM
98. Which of the following viral exanthema combination is/are correct except:
(a) Varicella- no relation of rash with fever
(b) Rubella- palatal petetchiae may occur
(c) Roseola- rash appear after fever subsides
(d) Measles- rash occurs behind the ears along h air line
(e) Chickenpox- pleomorphic rashes occur
Ans: (a)
99. Which of the following act is/are passed after independence:
(a) ESI act
(b) Factory act
(c) MTP act
(d) Epidemic disease act
(e) SARDA act
Ans: (a, b, c)
100. Which of the following is/are true about leprosy:
(a) Positive skin smear at any site is considered multibacillary leprosy
(b) Grenz zone is seen in lepromatous spectrum
(c) It is eradicated from India in 2000
(d) 12 month of MDT is recommended for multibacillary leprosy
(e) Multi-drug
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
101. Which of the following is/are features of septic tank:
(a) Minimum capacity should be 500 gallons
(b) Water tight seal
(c) Recommended for large communities
(d) Seeded with ripe sludge drawn from another septic tank
(e) Anaerobic process takes place
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
102. True about Standard deviation:
(a) 1 SD covers 95% population
(b) Normal standard deviate deviation from the mean in a normal distribution
(c) Represent measurement of dispersions
(d) It is better indicator variability than range
Ans: (b, c, d)
103. Wild polio is still endemic in:
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Bangladesh
(e) Nigeria
Ans: (b, c, e)
104. True about census in India:
(a) Firs census conducted in 1851
(b) Director General of Health Services of India (DGHS) is supreme officer for conducting census
(c) Literacy rate is also included in census
(d) Conducted in accordance to Census act, 1948
(e) Conducted in Mid year
Ans: (b, c, e)
105. Which of the following carcinoma is caused by asbestos:
(a) Mesothelioma
(b) Bronchial carcinoma
(c) Laryngeal carcinoma
(d) Breast cancer
Ans: (c, d)
Ophthalmology
106. Lateral wall of orbit is/are formed by:
(a) Lesser wing of sphenoid
(b) Frontal process of zygomatic bone
(c) Greater wing of sphenoid
(d) Lacrimal bone
(e) Maxilla
Ans: (a, b, c)
107. True about Leber optic neuropathy:
(a) X-linked disease
(b) Primarily affects male
(c) Disc become pale & atrophic
(d) Transmitted from mother to child
(e) Mitochondrial inheritance
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
108. Risk factor for cystoids macular edema include(s) all except:
(a) Hypertensive retinopathy
(b) Vitreous loss
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Cataract surgery is an important cause
(e) Lower incidence with intracapsular cataract extraction than extracapsular cataract extraction
Ans: (e)
109. All are true regarding congenital ptosis except:
(a) Levator palpebrae superioris dystrophy may present
(b) Associated with diplopia
(c) Lid crease is decreased
(d) Amblyopia can occur
Ans: (b)
110. Feature(s) of Infantile glaucoma is/are except:
(a) Aniridia may be associated
(b) Treatment includes trabeculotomy
(c) Buphthalmos can occur
(d) Cornea is thin & clear
(e) May be associated with Sturge-weber syndrome
Ans: (d)
111. True about Arcus senilis:
(a) Fatty infiltration
(b) Axial corneal degeneration
(c) Deposition occur in stroma of peripheral cornea
(d) Amyloid deposit
(e) Involve limbus
Ans: (a, c)
112. True about moderate flare uveitis:
(a) Categorised as grade 1+
(b) Categorised as grade 2+
(c) Categorised as grade 3+
(d) Hazy cornea
(e) Clear iris detail
Ans: (b, e)
113. Not true about Ectopia lentis in marfan syndrome:
(a) Inferior nasal displacement of lens
(b) Lens is displaced down and outward
(c) Lens displaced upwards and temporally
(d) Anterior dislocation of the lens into the pupil or anterior chamber may cause papillary block with acute glaucoma
(e) Posterior dislocation can cause harmful vitreous traction on the retina
Ans: (a, b)
ENT
114. True about croup:
(a) Caused by H.influenzae
(b) X-ray PA view shows steeple sign of subglottic narrowing
(c) Stridor is present
(d) Supraglottic edema is present
(e) Commonly present in 6 month-3 year age group
Ans: (b, c, e)
115. True about Mobius syndrome:
(a) 10th CN involvement
(b) 7th CN involvement
(c) Abduction defect
(d) Esotropia
(e) 6th CN involvement
Ans: (b, c, d e)
116. All are true about nasopharyngeal fibroma except:
(a) Most common age of presentation is 20-50 yr
(b) Radiorestant tumour
(c) Highly vascular
(d) Benign in nature
(e) Surgery is treatment of choice
Ans: (a, b)
117. Which of the following feature(s) of rhinoscleroma is/are true except:
(a) Atrophy of nasal mucosa
(b) Caused by fungus
(c) Treatment by antifungal drug
(d) Caused by bacteria
(e) Causative organism may be cultured from biopsy material
Ans: (b, c)
118. True about choanal atresia:
(a) Unilateral atresia should be operated within 6 month of age
(b) Occur d/t persistence of bucconasal membrane
(c) Bi/l atresia usually presents with respiratory difficulties
(d) Bilateral atresia may cause cyanosis
(e) Diagnosed by failure to pass a catheter from nose to pharynx
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
119. Which of the following is true regarding mandibular fracture:
(a) Inferior alveolar nerve damage may occur
(b) Panorex radiograph is very helpful in management
(c) Ramus is the most common site of fracture
(d) Condylar fracture heals spontaneously & require no active intervention
(e) Condylar fracture is most common site
Ans: (a, b, e)
120. Complication of modified radical mastoidectomy include(s):
(a) Conductive hearing loss
(b) Facial nerve injury
(c) Change in taste sensation
(d) sensory hearing loss
Ans: (all)
121. True about Ethmoidal sinus:
(a) Fully developed by 25 yr
(b) Consists of 3-18 sinus on each side
(c) Absent at birth
(d) Lamina papyracea separate from orbit
(e) Anterior ethmodal group cells- open into superior meatus
Ans: (b, d)
122. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about labyrinthitis:
(a) Initially quick component of nystagmus occur toward diseased ear but in later stage shift toward healthy ear
(b) May occur as a complication of chronic suppurative ottitis media
(c) Resolve spontaneously in 1-6 wk
(d) Medical treatment alone is sufficient
(e) Vertigo may be present
Ans: (a, b, e)
123. Not self retaining hand held retractor(s) is/are:
(a) Mollison’s mastoid retractor
(b) Jansen’s mastoid retractor
(c) Lempert’s endaural retractor
(d) Davis Retractor
Ans: (d)
Medicine
124. Feature(s) of ↑ICT include:
(a) Constricted pupil
(b) Tachycardia
(c) Bradycardia
(d) Hypertension
(e) Respiratory depression
Ans: (c, d, e)
125. Which of the following is/are true regarding Asthma & COPD:
(a) COPD shows loess reversibility to bronchodilators while asthma shows significant improvement
(b) Asthma has a gradual progression of dyspnea on exertion, punctuated by acute exacerbations of shortness of breath. While most COPD patients have normal breathing the majority of the time
(c) COPD patients may have acute exaberations while asthmatic patients have recurrent episode
(d) Steroid therapy is more beneficial to asthma patients then COPD patients
(e) Neutrophils have primary a role in pathogenesis of asthma & eosinophils have primary role is COPD
Ans: (a, c, d)
126. Which of the following is/are true about Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH):
(a) Saccular aneurysm is most common a use of SAH after head trauma
(b) Severe headache may present
(c) CT angiography help in localizing aneurysm
(d) CT scan in investigation of choice for acute SAH
(e) Digital subtraction angiography is better than CT angiography for SAH
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
127. All are true about Granulomatosis with Polyangitis except:
(a) Kidney involvement
(b) Lung involvement
(c) Mainly involve small & medium sized vessel
(d) Good prognosis
(e) More common in female
Ans: (c, d, e)
128. Al are true regarding renal artery stenosis except:
(a) Most common cause in atherosclerosis
(b) Arterioles in the involved kidney show more significant arteriolosclerosis than uninvolved kidney
(c) Fibromuscular dysplasia is common in young women
(d) Involved kidney may become contracted
(e) Show elevated plasma rennin level
Ans: (b)
129. ECG change (s) in pulmonary embolism may includes:
(a) ST elevation in V1 & aVR
(b) T wave inversion in V1 to V4
(c) S1Q3T3 pattern
(d) Left axis deviation
(e) Right bundle branch block
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
130. A patient has short h/o increased jugular venous pressure, weak peripheral pulse & low B.P. Likely condition(s) may be:
(a) Tension pneumothorax
(b) Venous gas embolism
(c) Pulmonary embolism
(d) Cardiac temponade
(e) Septic shock
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
131. All are rue about insulinoma except:
(a) Symptomatic hypoglycemia may be present
(b) Most common endocrine tumor of pancreas
(c) Associated with MEN 2
(d) Benign lesion with no malignant potential
(e) More common in head of pancreas
Ans: (c, d, e)
132. Which of the following is true regarding pseudobulbar palsy:
(a) Dysphagia
(b) Jaw jerk brisk
(c) Absent gag reflex
(d) Tongue fasciculation present
(e) Planar reflex is extensor
Ans: (a, b, e)
133. A patient presented with high pH, low arterial CO2 & low plasma HCO3 Which of the following statement is true regarding the presentation o & various causes:
(a) Compensated respiratory alkalosis
(b) Chronic renal failure
(c) Persistent vomiting
(d) Cerebro-vascular accident
(e) Hepatic failure
Ans: (a, d, e)
134. Which of the following is true about treatment of asthma:
(a) Long acting β2 agonist for acute attack
(b) Long acting β2 agonist for long term treatment
(c) Short acting β2 agonist for acute attack
(d) I.V Steroid for severe asthma exacerbation
(e) Inhaled steroid for persistent asthma
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
135. Side-effect (s) of inhalational steroid is/are all except:
(a) Adrenal suppression
(b) Cataract
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Hypoglycemia
(e) Skin thinning
Ans: (d)
136. All are true about true about syncope except:
(a) Consciusness is lost
(b) More common in standing than lying position
(c) Vasovagal type is common
(d) Return of consciousness is slow & take hours
(e) Short duration
Ans: (d)
137. Feature(s) of factor VII deficiency:
(a) X linked recessive inheritance
(b) ↑Clotting time
(c) ↑ Bleeding time
(d) Intrinsic pathway affected
(e) ↑aPTT
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
138. Unequal pulse in upper & lower extremeties (i.e radio-femoral delay) is/are seen in:
(a) Aortic dissection
(b) Post-ductal coarctation of aorta
(c) Supra-valvular Aortic stenosis
(d) Sub-valvular Aortic stenosis
(e) Takayasu’s syndrome
Ans: (b)
139. Drug(s) given in thyroid crisis:
(a) Esmolo
(b) Iodine
(c) Hydrocortisone
(d) Aspirin
(e) Propylthiouracil
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
140. Which of the following dyads of disease-neurotansmitter is correct:
141. All are true about Menetrier’s disease except:
(a) Increased gastric acid secretion
(b) Protein-losing gastropathy
(c) Mainly affects body & fundus
(d) No malignant potential
(e) Trnasforming growth factor-α is overexpressed
Ans: (d)
142. According to Surviving Sepsis Guidelines 2013, which of the following is/are correct regarding sepsis & septic shock treatment guideline:
(a) Urine output should be > 2 ml/kg
(b) Mean arterial pressure goal should be ≥ 65 mm Hg
(c) Dopamine as the first choice vasopressor
(d) Colloid is initial fluid of choice in the resuscitation
(e) Administration of effective intravenous antimicrobials within the first hour of recognition
Ans: (b, e)
143. Brain death can be assessed by:
(a) Apnoea test
(b) CT scan
(c) MRI scan
(d) Cerebral angiography
(e) Transcranial Doppler
Ans: (a, d, e)
144. Presentation(s) of Bechet syndrome may include:
(a) Erosive arthritis
(b) Recurrent aphthous ulcers of the mouth
(c) Uveitis
(d) Genital ulcer
(e) Pathergy test
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
145. All are true about pheochromocytoma except:
(a) 90% malignant
(b) Surgery is definitive treatment
(c) Highly vascular
(d) Needle biopsy should be avoided
(e) Increased urinary excretion of metanephrines
Ans: (a)
146. MIBG (metaiodobenzyle guanithidine) is analogue to:
(a) Epinephrine
(b) Adenine
(c) Norepinephrine
(d) Guanine
(e) Phenylephrine
Ans: (c)
147. Which of the following is true regarding adrenocortical carcinomas:
(a) Increased urinary excretion of VMA
(b) Does not cause metastasis
(c) Surgery is mainstay treatment
(d) Associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Ans: (c, d)
148. A 40 year old lady from Himachal Pradesh has fever & eschar on body. Blood investigation revealed: Hb = 12% gm%, TLC=9800/μl, Platelet 8000. Which of the following drug(s) may be used in her treatment:
(a) Oral Docycycline
(b) Meropenem
(c) Azithromycin
(d) Tetracycline
(e) Chloramphenicol
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
149. All are true about “a” wave except:
(a) It is often the largest positive wave visible
(b) Giant wave in atrial fibrillation
(c) Tricuspid stenosis produces giant wave
(d) Heart block diminish magnitude of a wave
(e) Produced by right atrial contraction
Ans: (b, d)
150. Which of the condition cause pericarditis due to hypersensitivity:
(a) SLE
(b) Rheumatic fever
(c) Dressler syndrome
(d) Uraemia
(e) Myxedema
Ans: (a, b, c)
151. All are true about acute radiation pneumonitis except:
(a) Fever not present
(b) Steroid is beneficial
(c) X-ray chest finding correlates poorly with symptom
(d) Develop immediately after radiotherapy
Ans: (a, d)
152. True about Kallman syndrome
(a) Amenorrhoea
(b) Hypergonadotrophic state
(c) Anosmia
(d) Failure of secondary sexual development
Ans: (a, c, d)
Surgery
153. Glasgow coma scale E3M4V5 represents:
(a) Spontaneous eye opening
(b) Eye opening with pain stimulus
(c) Incomprehensible sound
(d) Oriented conversation
(e) Decorticate posturing
Ans: (d)
154. Complication (s) of Salivary gland operation:
(a) Subcutaneous fistula
(b) Opposite gland compensatory hypertrophy
(c) Gustatory sweating
(d) Facial Nerve damage
Ans: (a, c, d)
155. Punched out ulcer is/are seen in:
(a) Arterial ulcer
(b) Venous ulcer
(c) Tubercular ulcer
(d) Basal cell carcinoma
(e) Gummatous ulcer
Ans: (a, e)
156. Which of the following is/are true regarding renal transplantation except:
(a) Curvilinear incision is made in lower quadrant
(b) Transplanted kidney is placed in retropoeritoneal position
(c) Recipients kidney is first removed from renal fossa to make space for donor kidney
(d) Anastomosis of external iliac artery with renal artery
(e) Donor renal vein is anastomosed with external iliac vein
Ans: (c)
157. Which of the following plan of management is/are correct with regard to Cleft lip & cleft palate in children:
(a) Unilateral lip only-1 year of age
(b) Bilateral lip-1 year of age
(c) Bilateral lip should be repaired at 5 month
(d) Both soft & hard plate at 1 year in one setting
(e) Cleft lip and soft palate at 5-6 months & hard plate at 15-18 months of age
Ans: (c, e)
158. Suture number 2-0 corresponds to diameter of:
(a) .21 mm
(b) .24 mm
(c) .27 mm
(d) .30 mm
(e) .33 mm
Ans: (d)
159. Which of the following is/are correct regarding eczema of breast & Paget’s disease of nipple:
(a) Generally eczema is unilateral whereas paget’s disease is bilateral
(b) Eczema may be associated with lactation
(c) Nipple may be destroyed in Paget’ disease while it normally intact in eczema
(d) Inversion of nipple may occur in Paget’s disease
(e) Associated with breast lump in eczema
Ans: (b, c, d)
160. Correct combination(s) of Hernia with their content:
(a) Littre hernia: Meckle’s diverticulum
(b) Richter’s hernia-small intestine
(c) Pantaloon- hernial sac on either side of inferior gastric artery
(d) Hernia-en-glissade- urinary bladder
(e) Maydl’s hernia-intestine
Ans: (all)
161. Which of the following is true about esophagus except:
(a) Serosa not present
(b) Middle & lower third made up of striated muscle
(c) Lower oesophageal sphincter is a zone of relatively high pressure
(d) In achalia cardia LOS tone is increased so that food can not pass below
(e) It has side to side & antero-posterior curvatures
Ans: (b)
162. Which of the following is true about rectal prolapse:
(a) Sumucous type is more common in adult
(b) Submucous type is more common in children
(c) Prolapse is often full thickness in adult
(d) Operation is generally required in complete prolapsed
Ans: (b, c, d)
163. True about Hypospadias:
(a) Glandular & coronal variety is most common
(b) Circumcision should be avoided
(c) In distal type chordee frequently occurs
(d) Curvature of penis is normal in all types
(e) More proximal hypospadias is corrected for mainly
Ans: (a, b)
164. All are true about BPH except:
(a) Submucosal gland hyperplasia iin transition zone
(b) Penile uretha elongation
(c) Prostatic urethra may be compressed
(d) Less than 20ml/second peak flow rate is strong indication of TURP
(e) BPH occur due to growth in peripheral zone of prostate
Ans: (b, d, e)
165. True statement(s) about laproscopic cholecystectomy:
(a) Cosmetically better
(b) Bleeding is more common in open chloecystectomy than laproscopic cholecystectomy
(c) Veress neddle is used in closed technique
(d) Lalproscope with attached video camera i inserted thorugh umbilical port
(e) Previous abdominal surgery is absolute contraindication
Ans: (a, c, d)
166. Which of the following is true about digital rectal examination:
(a) Index finger is used
(b) In BPH retal mucosa is free whereas in prostate cancer mucosa of rectum is adhered
(c) Puborectalis is felt anteriorly
(d) Anal sphincter length can not be assessed
Ans: (a, b)
167. Which of the following increases risk of urinary stones:
(a) Increased urinary citrate
(b) ↑ Calcium level in blood
(c) Hypervitaminosis A
(d) Hypoparathyroidism
(e) Decrease in urinary colloid
Ans: (b, c, e)
168. True about duodenal diverticula:
(a) Most common of the GIT diverticula
(b) Commonly occur on medial border
(c) Often present in periampullary region
(d) It should be treated aggressively due to high malignant potential
(e) It can cause pancreatitis by producing obstruction at the opening of the duct
Ans: (b, c, e)
169. Psammoma bodies is/are seen in:
(a) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
(b) EPendymoma
(c) Papillary carcinoma thyroid
(d) Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
(e) Meningioma
Ans: (c, e)
170. Which of the following is/are true about primary hyperparathyroidism:
(a) Associated with MEN I & II
(b) Increase risk of renal stone
(c) About 50 gram of gland tissue can be left during surgery to prevent hypocalcemia
(d) Cause benign hypertension
(e) Mc sporadic cause is hyperplasia
Ans: (a, b, c)
171. Which of the following is/are features of Testicular torsion which is not present in epididymo-orchitis:
(a) Redness of skin
(b) Elevation of testis worsen pain
(c) Doppler ultrasound scan show absence of the blood supply to the affected testis
(d) Fever
(e) Dysuria
Ans: (b, c)
172. True about Typhoid ulcer:
(a) Perforation is common in 2nd & 3rd week after onset of typhoid fever
(b) Perforation may present at multiple site
(c) Commonly involve jejunum
(d) Commonly involve ileum
(e) Peritoneal lavage is contraindicated for perforated ulcer
Ans: (a, b, d)
173. Feature of 30 burn:
(a) Pain present
(b) Transudation of fluid present
(c) Whole dermis destroyed
(d) Eryhtematous in appearance
(e) Blister formed
Ans: (c)
174. A patient has h/o hypertension & diabetes. The mechanism of higher change o ulcer in this atient is due to:
(a) Hyperglycemia suppress immunity
(b) Vascular insufficiency
(c) Atherosclerotic changes
(d) Venous stasis
(e) Trophic skin changes
Ans: (a, b, c, e)
Obstertics & Gynaecology
175. Cause(s) of still birth:
(a) Prematurity
(b) Syphilis
(c) Abruptio placentae
(d) Diabetes
Ans: (all)
176. Which of the following is true about endometrial carcinoma:
(a) Less aggressive in post menopausal women
(b) More common in diabetes
(c) Common after 40 yr of age
(d) Associated with PCOD
(e) Associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC)
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
177. High level of hCG found in:
(a) Twin
(b) Down syndrome
(c) Choriocarinoma
(d) Colon carcinoma
(e) Ectopic pregnancy
Ans: (a, b, c)
178. All of the following is true about Abruption placentae except:
(a) Premature separation of normal attached placentae
(b) Bright red blood
(c) Risk of recurrence is about 15% with previous abruption
(d) More common in multigravida
(e) Pre-eclampsia is a risk factor
Ans: (b)
179. True about Trcihomonas vaginitis:
(a) Important cause of recurrent abortion
(b) T.vaginalis is a flagellated protozoa
(c) Methronidazole is used for treatment
(d) Strawberry cervix
(e) Curdy discharge
Ans: (b, c, d)
180. True about Mirena:
(a) Effective life is 2yr
(b) LNG containing IUD
(c) Cause endometrial hyperblasia
(d) Suppression of endometrium
(e) Non significant effect on ovaries
Ans: (b, d, e)
181. All are true about LNG except:
(a) Cause Endometrial suppression
(b) Can be used in emergency contraception
(c) Can not be given to lactating women
(d) Devoid of estrogenic side-effects
Ans: (c)
182. True about amniotic fluid:
(a) Same concentration of plasma throughout pregnancy
(b) Forms from transudation of plasma through fetus skin before 20 wk of gestation
(c) Fetus swallows amniotic fluid
(d) Protects fetus from injury
(e) Main channel for gaseous exchange
Ans: (b, c, d)
183. True about obstetrical outlet:
(a) Posterior wall is deficient
(b) Bounded above by the plane of least pelvic dimensions
(c) Anterior wall is formed by ischial bones
(d) Minimum obstetric diameter
(e) Its plane is plane of least pelvic
Ans: (b, e)
184. Which of the following is/are criteria for the expectant management in preeclampssia except:
(a) Platelet count <100000
(b) B.P > 140/90
(c) Urine output < 400 ml/day
(d) Persistent headache
(e) Visual disturbances
Ans: (b)
185. IUCD is absolutely contraindicated in:
(a) HIV positive women
(b) Previous ectopic tubal pregnancy
(c) Mild anaemia
(d) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
Ans: (b, d)
186. True statement regarding use of ACE inhibitors in pregnancy:
(a) Cause polyhydramnios
(b) Cause renal agenesis
(c) Cause pulmonary hypoplasia
(d) Use during first 3 month is safe
(e) Safe is last trimester
Ans: (b, c)
187. True about ovulation & menstruation:
(a) Temperature decrease at time of ovulation
(b) Estrogen have a role in proliferative phase
(c) LH surge occurs before ovulation
(d) 100 ml blood loss is normal
Ans: (b, c, d)
Paediatrics
188. Preterm babies have increased change of:
(a) Heart disease
(b) Respiratory distress syndrome
(c) Necrotising colitis
(d) Meconium aspiration syndrome
Ans: (a, b, c)
189. Which of the following can presents with cyanosis at birth
(a) Tetralogy of Fallot
(b) TGA
(c) PDA
(d) VSD
(e) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Ans: ()
190. Which of the following is/are true regarding development of child during 6 to 12 yr of age:
(a) Weight increases by 1-2 kg/yr
(b) Head grow at the rate of 2-3 cm/yr
(c) Growth occur continuously
(d) Growth occur in spurts
(e) Height increases at rate of 6-7 cm/yr
Ans: (d, e)
191. True about Asperger syndrome:
(a) More common in girl
(b) Repetitive activity pattern
(c) Subnormal intelligence is consistent feature
(d) Severe language impairments is characteristic
Ans: (b)
192. True about Autistic disorder:
(a) Quality decrease in social interaction
(b) All affected children have subnormal intelligence
(c) Treatment should targeted toward Speech development
(d) Seen only after 3 yr of age
(e) Stereotyped patterns of behavior
Ans: (a, c, e)
193. True about HIV infection in infants:
(a) Mainly occur through horizontal transmission
(b) HIV DNA PCR positive at 2 month confirms diagnosis
(c) Positive antibody test for IgG antibody at 3 month confirm infected infant
(d) Passive transfer of maternal body generally persists for 12 month
Ans: (b, d)
194. Common feature of marfan syndrome & Homocystinuria:
137. All are true about squamous cell carcinoma of skin except:
(a) It is called marjolin ulcer when develops in scar
(b) Radiotherapy may be used in treatment
(c) Hematogenous spread is common & occur early
(d) May develop in chronic ulcer
Ans: (c)
138. Indication of circumcision includes:
(a) Hypospadias
(b) Epispadias
(c) Phimosis
(d) Balanitis
(e) Balanoposthitis
Ans: (c, d, e)
139. Inguinal hernia surgery may be complicated by:
(a) Testicular atrophy
(b) Urinary retention
(c) Impotence
(d) Constipation
(e) Pain
Ans: (a, b, e)
140. True about physiological hernia
(a) Herniation of Foregut
(b) Herniation of Foregut + midgut
(c) Herniation of Midgut
(d) Goes back around 4 week after herniation
(e) Goes back around 10 week of fetus age
Ans: (c, d, e)
141. Burn involving one lower limbs in adult correspondence to area:
(a) 4.5%
(b) 9%
(c) 13.5%
(d) 18%
(e) 27%
Ans: (d)
142. True about thyroid tumor:
(a) Follicular – lymphatic metastasis more common than papillary
(b) Papillary- blood metastasis more common than follicular
(c) Hurthle- lymphatic spread is common
(d) Hurthle-less aggressive than follicular carcinoma
(e) Follicular-invasion of capsule & vascular spaces in capsular region
Ans: (d, e)
143. Common tumour (s) found in anterior mediastinum:
(a) Teratoma
(b) Cervical thymoma
(c) Lymphoma
(d) Schwannoma
(e) Thyroid carcinoma
Ans: (a, b, c)
144. True about Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis
(a) Bilous vomiting never occurs
(b) No palpable mass
(c) Surgery treatment of choice
(d) Hypochloremic alkalosis occurs
Ans: (a, c, d)
145. Bilateral parotid swelling is/are seen in all except:
(a) Mump
(b) Epstein-Barr virus
(c) Sarcoidosis
(d) Brucella
(e) Sjogren syndrome
Ans: (d)
Obstetrics & Gynaecology
146. True about Down syndrome:
(a) Maternal serum AFP is increased
(b) Trisomy 21
(c) ↑Unconjugated estradiol
(d) Quadruple test contains – PPP,MSAFP, Estrdiol & hCG
(e) Ideal timing for CV sampling carried out trascervically is 13-16 week
Ans: (b)
147. Which of the following is/are true regarding changes in pregnancy at term:
(a) Systemic vascular resistance decreases
(b) 40-50% increase in cardiac output
(c) Heart rate decreases
(d) Vital capacity increases
(e) Respiratory rate increases
Ans: (a, b )
148. In Pregnancy, which of the following decreases
(a) Serum ALT
(b) S. Alkaline phosphatase
(c) Serum AST
(d) S. Urea
(e) S. Creatitine
Ans: (d, e)
149. All are true about PCOD except:
(a) Metformin is used for treatment
(b) Acanthosis nigra may associated
(c) Occur in postmenopausal women only
(d) Associated with obesity
(e) Infertility may be present
Ans: (c)
150. True about cervical cancer screening in female:
(a) Start from 21 yr of age irrespective of sexual activity
(b) Start from 21 yr of age in sexually active women
(c) After 30 yr, screening is done every 2-3 years if 3 previous PAP negative smear
(d) In 70 plus age group, if previous PAP smear is negative-then annual survey
(e) Risk group should be screened through HPV DNA testing combined with cytology
Ans: (b, c, e)
151. On cervical cancer screening, a CIN-II lesion detected. Which of the following can be included in management:
(a) Hysterectomy
(b) Colposcopy
(c) Conization
(d) Always keep under observation with HPV testing
Ans: (a, b, c)
152. Which of the following is/are true about locked twins:
(a) First fetus-breech presentation & second fetus cephalic presentation
(b) First fetus- cephalic presentation & second fetus breech presentation
(c) Decapitation of head can be done, if the fetus is dead
(d) Caesarean delivery is TOC
(e) Usually delivered by vaginal route
Ans: (a, c, d)
153. True about female pelvis:
(a) Obstetric conjugate is 2 cm less than Diagonal conjugate
(b) Obesetrical conjugate is the distance b/w the midpoint of the sacral promontory to prominent bony projection in the midline on the inner surface of the symphysis pubis
(c) Intertuberous diameter is 8 cm
(d) Bispinous diameter is 10.5 cm
Ans: (a, b, d)
154. Feature(s) of chronic hypertension in pregnancy:
(a) Hypertension occurring after 20 week of pregnancy
(b) Hypertension occurring before 20 week of pregnancy
(c) > 10 times common in obese women
(d) Hypertension before onset of pregancy
(e) Hypertension occur upto 12 week postpartum
Ans: (b, d)
155. In a primi female, Differential diagnosis of shock includes:
(a) Uterine inversion
(b) Postpatrum massive haemorrhage
(c) Amniotic fluid embolism
(d) Pospatrum eclampsia
Ans: (a, b, c)
156.In pregancy, counseling for therapeutic termination is generally done in case of:
(a) Eisenmenger syndrome
(b) Multi valvular disease
(c) Congenital heart disease
(d) Marfan syndrome
(e) Primary pulmonary hypertension
Ans: (a, d, e)
157. OCP is absolutely contraindicated in :
(a) Age > 40 year with smoking
(b) Carcinoma breast & genitalia
(c) H/o Epilepsy
(d) Thrombophlebitis
(e) Hyperlipidemia
Ans: (a, d)
158. Infertility is defined as:
(a) If a couple fails to achieve pregnancy after 18 month of unprotected & regular intercourse
(b) If a couple fails to achieve pregnancy after 15 month of unprotected & regular intercourse, it is an indication to investigate the couple
(c) If a couple fails to achieve pregnancy after 1 year of unprotected & regular intercourse
(d) Termed primary if conception has never occurred
(e) It is termed secondary if conception has never occurred
Ans: (c, d)
159. Which of the following is/are true regarding management of ectopic pregnancy:
(a) Intrauterine sac may be visible by TVS when the βhCG levels is > 1000 mIU/ml
(b) Hemoperitoneum is indication for medical treatment
(c) Methotrexate is drug of choice
(d) Laproscopy can be used for diagnosis
Ans: (a, c, d)
160. Most common site of CIN is:
(a) Squamo-columnar junction
(b) Ectocervix
(c) Endocervix
(d) Nabothain gland
Ans: (a)
161. True about Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster –Hauser syndrome
(a) 46 XY
(b) Upper 2/3 vagina absent
(c) Ovary atrohic
(d) Uterus abnormality
(e) Amenorrhoea
Ans: (b, d, e)
Paediatrics
162. All are true about Down syndrome except:
(a) Duodenal atresia
(b) Trisomy 21
(c) Simian crease
(d) Hypoplasia of middle phalanx of 1st finger
(e) Epicanthic fold
Ans: (d)
163. True about ventricular septal defect:
(a) MC congenital heart anomaly
(b) Presentation depends on size of lesion
(c) Membranous type closes early than muscular type
(d) Mid-diastolic murmur
(e) CHF never develops
Ans: (a, b)
Orthopaedics
164. A 65 year old male presented with femur neck fracture. he was managed with closed reduction + cancellous screw. 6 month later X-ray was done in lateral vies. X-ray shows non-union & leg shorting. Now, appropriated management options is/are:
(a) Unipolar hemiarthroplasty
(b) Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
(c) Subtrochanteric osteotomy
(d) Osteosynthesis
(e) Total hip arthroplasty
Ans: (a, b, e)
165. Carpal tunnel syndrome is associated with all except:
(a) Dupuytren’s contracture
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Idiopathic
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis
(e) Acromegaly
Ans: (a)
166. Which of the following is/are not feature(s) of rheumatoid arthritis:
(a) Pannus formation in joint
(b) Osteoscelrosis osteocalstic activity in underlying bone
(c) Erosoin of cartilage
(d) Osteophyte
(e) Plasma cell infiltration of synovial stroma
Ans: (d)
167. True about fracture neck Talus:
(a) Avascular necrosis of body is common complication
(b) Lateral view X-ray is important for diagnosis
(c) Displaced fracture require below knee plaster only
(d) Displaced fracture require open reduction & internal fixation
Ans: (a, b, d)
168. True about acute osteomyelitis:
(a) Secondary osteomyelitis associated with compound fracture is more common than primary type
(b) Can not detected on X-ray before 2 wk
(c) Present with severe pain
(d) Only after > 2 wk, bone scan can detect
Ans: (c)
169. True about osteoclastoma
(a) Mostly malignant
(b) Most common site-mandible & vertebrae
(c) Recurrence is common after excision
(d) Located at epiphysis
Ans: (c, d)
170. Fracture site of Monteggia fracture is:
(a) Proximal ulna
(b) Distal end of radius
(c) Distal radius
(d) Dislocation of radial head
(e) Lower ratio-ulnar joint dislocation
Ans: (a, d)
Anaesthesia
171. All are true regarding Laryngeal Mask Airway except:
(a) Big oral tumor is contraindication for its use
(b) May be used when intubation with ET is not possible
(c) Can be used in child’s eye surgery
(d) May be used in CPR
Ans: (none)
172. Which of the following circuit is preferred in child for spontaneous respiration:
(a) Mapleson A
(b) Jackson & Rees circuit
(c) Mapleson C
(d) Mapleson E
(e) Mapleson F
Ans: (a)
173. Weaning is generally done by:
(a) SIMV
(b) Controlled mode ventilation (CMV)
(c) CPAP
(d) Pressure controlled Ventilation
(e) Assisted controlled Ventilation
Ans: (a, c)
174. A child on immediate postoperative, is complaining of nausea & vomiting after squint surgery. Which of the following drugs may be not used during operation in controlling this symptom:
(a) Propofol
(b) Ketamine
(c) Dexamethasone
(d) Ondansetron
(e) Palonosetron
Ans: (a c, d)
175. Which of the following fluid used in perioperative period is isotonic:
(a) RL
(b) DNS
(c) 5% Dextrose
(d) HES
(e) NS
Ans: (a, c, d, e)
Skin
176. True about P. Versicolor:
(a) Previously called taenia versicolor
(b) Also called Dobhi itch
(c) Also called Joke itch
(d) Caused by dermatophyte
(e) Caused by malasseia furtur
Ans: (a, e)
177. True about Impetigocontagiosa:
(a) Asboe- hausen sign
(b) Honey coloured crust
(c) Caused by staph. aureus
(d) Contagious
(e) Bullous disorder
Ans: (b, c, d, e)
178. Dermatitis herpetiformis:
(a) Caused by herpes
(b) Affect mainly flexor surface
(c) Associated with gluten sensitive enteropathy
(d) Dapsone is used in treatment
Ans: (c, d)
179. Maculopapular rashs are seen in all except
(a) Scarlet fever
(b) Measles
(c) Exanthemsubitum
(d) Infectious mononucleosis
(e) German measles
Ans: (a)
180. Androgenic alopecia in female is caused by:
(a) Myxedema
(b) Cushing disease
(c) Stein-Leventhal syndrome
(d) Addison’s disease
Ans: (c)
181. Findings in psoarisis includes:
(a) Parakeratosis
(b) Involving almost 100% of Basal cell in multiplication
(c) Micro-munro abscess
(d) Autoimmune disease with T-cell involvement
(e) Frequently involving mucosal surface
Ans: (a, b, c, d)
182. True about bullous pemphigoid:
(a) Nikolsky sign positive
(b) Bulla spread sign positive
(c) Common in children
(d) Darier sign
(e) Itching is common
Ans: (e)
183. All are true about lichen planus except:
(a) Not associated with oral ulcer
(b) Wikham’s striae present
(c) Colloid body on histology
(d) Morphology can be represented by 5 ‘P’
(e) Koebner’s or isomorphic phenomenon may be present
Ans: (a)
184. Which is caused by bacteria:
(a) Anal wart
(b) Lymphogranuloma venereum
(c) Molluscumcontagiosum
(d) Condylomatalattum
Ans: (b, d)
Psychiatry
185. Which of the following is rue regarding catatonia
(a) Prominent sensory symptom
(b) Prominent motor symptom
(c) ECT is TOC for life threatening catatonia
(d) May be associated with CNS disease
Ans: (b, c, d)
186. All are true about narcolepsy except:
(a) Day dreaming
(b) Hypnagogic hallucinations
(c) Cataplexy
(d) Sudden sleep
(e) Decreased REM latency
Ans: (a)
187. Which of the following is true about OCD:
(a) Anxiety
(b) Compulsion
(c) Hallucination
(d) Obscession
(e) Egoalien
Ans: (a, b, d, e)
188. Features of Mania includes:
(a) Cheerfulness
(b) Anhedonia
(c) Cataonia
(d) Delusion of grandeur
(e) Negative thinking
Ans: (a, d)
Radiology
189. 18-FDG stands for:
(a) 18-Fluorodeoxy glucose
(b) 18-Fluorodioxy glucose
(c) 18-Fluorodioxy galactose
(d) 18-Fluorodioxy galactose
(e) 18-Fluorodeoxy glycogen
Ans: (a)
190. Half-life of radius is:
(a) 14 da
(b) 27 day
(c) 1626 years
(d) 5.25 yr
Ans: (c)
191. 1 curie is equivalent to:
(a) 1.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
(b) 2.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
(c) 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
(d) 4.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
(e) 5.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
Ans: (c)
192. Radiation not emitted by Co-60:
(a) α rays
(b) β rays
(c) γ rays
(d) Positron
(e) δ rays
Ans: (a, d, e)
193. Which of the following areas are not examined in FAST:
2. Pressure on hook of hamate when hand is hyperextended will damage
(a) Ulnar nerve
(b) Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
(c) Median nerve
(d) Musculoctuaneous nerve
Ans: (a)
3. Wrist is more adducted than to be abducted because
(a) Ulnar styloind process extends far more distally
(b) Radial styloid process extends far more distally
(c) Radial styloid process is bulky and prevents muscle action
(d) Ulnar styloid process is thin and moves more medially
Ans: (b)
4. Major branches of popliateal artery are
(a) Genicular, anterior tibial and deep femoral arteries
(b) Genicular artery only
(c) Genicular, anterior and posterior tibial artery
(d) Genicular and circumbflex tibial artery
Ans: (c)
5. Cruciate ligament of knee prevents
(a) Gliding of femur on tibia during flexion
(b) Locking of knee
(c) Extension of knee joint
(d) Rotational movements of knee joint
Ans: (a)
6. A patient with recurrent chest infections presents to the emergency department. He was ordered for an X ray. The patient says that he has an “azygos lobe” diagnosed few years back. What is the location of azygos lobe?
(a) Right upper lobe
(b) Left upper lobe
(c) Right lower lobe
(d) Left lower lobe
Ans: (a)
7. A patient present with hematemesis. On oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy, bleeding in lesser curvature was noted. The artery of bleed is
(a) Right gastric artery
(b) Left gastro omental artery
(c) Anterior gastric artery
(d) Posterior gastric artery
Ans: (a)
8. Not a tributary of portal vein
(a) Inferior phrenic vein
(b) Splenic vein
(c) Cystic vein
(d) Superior mesenteric vein
Ans: (a)
9. The major support for the liver to be held in position is
(a) Peritoneal ligaments
(b) Pressure exerted by the abdominal muscles and their tone
(c) Attachment of hepatic vein to inferior vena cava
(d) Suction force given by the diaphragm
Ans: (c > b)
10. True regarding biliary anatomy
(a) Normal diameter of common bile duct is 10 mm.
(b) Gall bladder is innervated sympathetic nerve
(c) 1-2 litres of bile is secreted by the liver daily and it is 10 fold concentrated by bladder
(d) Right and left hepatic ducts join to form common bile duct
Ans: (b)
11. Root of mesentery crosses all except
(a) Second part of duodenum
(b) IVC
(c) Abdominal aorta
(d) Right ureter
Ans: (a)
12. Pleura that continues into the necks as cervical pleura is
(a) Costal pleura
(b) Diaphragmatic pleura
(c) Visceral pleura
(d) Mediastinal pleura
Ans: (a)
13. Deep inguinal ring is a defect in
(a) Fascia transversalis
(b) Rectus sheath
(c) External oblique aponeurosis
(d) Pelvic fascia
Ans: (a)
14. The ligament that maintains the stability of atlanto axial joint is
(a) Alar ligament
(b) Apical ligament
(c) Transverse ligament
(d) Tectorial ligament
Ans: (c)
15. Gray rami communicans appears gray because
(a) Post ganglionic sympathetic fibers are nonmyelinated
(b) Pre gnaglionic sympathetic fibers are nonmyelinated
(c) Post ganglionic sympathetic fibers are myelinated
(d) Post ganglionic parasympathetic fibers are nonmyelinated
Ans: (a)
PHYSIOLOGY
16. Action of nor adrenaline in sympathetic nerve endings are terminated by
(a) Oxidative deamination by monoamine oxidase
(b) Reuptake by axonal terminals
(c) Enzymatic inactivation by catecholamine-O Methyl transferase
(d) Removal by circulation of blood
Ans: (b)
17. Lateral spinothalamic tract of spinal cord
(a) Transmits contralateral light touch
(b) Crosses to opposite side in medial lemniscus
(c) Carries pain sensation from same side
(d) Crosses from the thalamus to the contralateral parietal lobe
Ans: (d)
18. Not a component of electrical cardiac conduction pathway
(a) SA node
(b) Bundle of His
(c) Purkinje Fibres
(d) Sarcomere
Ans: (d)
19. According to Starling’s law of heart, the force of contraction of ventricle is proportional to
(a) Afterload
(b) End systolic volume
(c) End diastolic volume
(d) Heart rate
Ans: (c)
20. Following is a lecture on cardiovascular physiology, you consultant asks you during a ward rounds to calculate how much blood (in ml) Mr. X’s ventricle ejects every time his heart beats. He gives you the following values; Age of X : 42 years, BP: 136/90 mmHg. Cardiac Output-5L/min, Heart rate- 72 /min, Urine output-5 ml/kg/hr.
(a) 70 ml
(b) 20 ml
(c) 50 ml
(d) 130 ml
Ans: (a)
21. Measurable index of preload and afterload is
(a) End systolic pressure – volume relation ship
(b) Ejection fraction
(c) Stroke volume
(d) Cardiac output
Ans: (b)
22. A patient met with motor vehicle accident is shifted in an ambulance to the emergency department. Primary survey reveals open fracture of right femur with bleeding profusely in cardiovascular physiological terms, the most likely response to blood loss is
(a) Stroke volume decreases due to hypovolemia
(b) Total peripheral resistance increases due to decreased sympathetic output.
(c) Increased cardiac output due to increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
(d) Heart rate increases due to increased vagal stimulation
Ans: (a)
23. Feature seen immediately after lying down
(a) Increased cerebral blood flow
(b) Immediate increase in venous return to the heart
(c) Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex
(d) No change in heart rate
Ans: (b)
24. Fenestrated capillaries are seen in
(a) Skeletal muscle
(b) CNS
(c) Skin
(d) Small intestine
Ans: (d)
25. The carbohydrate determining the blood group substance is
(a) Xylose
(b) Xylulose
(c) Fucose
(d) Arabinose
Ans: (c)
26. Pulmonary vascular system differs from systemic circulation in that the pulmonary system has
(a) Low pressure, low flow rate
(b) Low pressure, high flow rate, high compliance vessels
(c) High pressure, high flow rate, high compliance vessels
(d) Low pressure, high flow rate, high compliance vessels
Ans: (d)
27. In an acclimatized individuals,
(a) Periodic breathing occurs
(b) Increase in mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
(c) Increased airway resistance
(d) Increased pulmonary artery pressure
Ans: (d)
28. A 30 year old male presents with indigestion for past 4 months. Five years back, he had duodenal ulcer. Fasting gastric values are- 120p mol/L. (NORMAL LEVELS 10-20 pmol/L). True regarding gastrin is
(a) Produced by parietal cells of stomach
(b) Produced by alpha cells of pancreas
(c) Inhibits bicarbonate secretion in a phased manner
(d) Release is stimulated by presence of gastric luminal peptides.
Ans: (d)
29. Enterohepatic circulation occurs in
(a) Rectosigmoid junction
(b) Terminal ileum
(c) Jejunum
(d) Pancreas
Ans: (b)
30. Oxygen requiring metabolic reactions occur in which cells of liver
(a) Zone-1 cells
(b) Zone-2 cells
(c) Zone-3 cells
(d) Kupffer cells
Ans: (a)
31. True regarding GLP-1
(a) Acts t the satiety centre
(b) Inhibits glucose induced insulin secretion
(c) Secreted by alpha cells of pancreas
(d) Release is inhibited by the presence of fatty acids
Ans: (a)
32. Insulin independent glucose uptake occurs in
(a) Liver
(b) Skeletal muscle
(c) Heart
(d) Adipose tissue
Ans: (a)
BIOCHEMISTRY
33. A patient have acquired syndrome associated with defective breakdown and disposal of intracellular fatty acids. Which intra cellular organelle is concerned with this mechanism?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Peroxisomes
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Ans: (b)
34. Function of golgi apparatus
(a) Packs and sorts proteins
(b) Synthesis of ATPs
(c) Steroid synthesis
(d) DNA replication
Ans: (a)
35. Pyridoxine is a co enzyme of
(a) Carboxylation
(b) Transamination
(c) Oxidation
(d) Reduction
Ans: (b)
36. The vitamin whose RDA is related to protein intake is
(a) Pantothenate
(b) Niacin
(c) Pyriodxine
(d) Thiamine
Ans: (b)
37. 55 year old presents with bleeding gums. He is an alcoholic, has petechia. The vitamin deficiency associated with this condition is
(a) Vitamin B1
(b) Vitamin B 12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin E
Ans: (c)
38. The common polymorphism in the gene for methylene-tetrahydro folate reductase appears to influence the sensitivity of homocysteine levels to deficiency of
(a) Vitamin B12
(b) Folic acid
(c) Vitamin A & D
(d) Vitamin B6
Ans: (b)
39. True regarding metabolic acidosis
(a) Body shunts more glutamine from liver to kidneys
(b) Less ammonia is excreted in urine
(c) Urea synthesis is increased
(d) Liver glutaminase activity increases
Ans: (a)
40. True regarding gamma glutamyl transferase
(a) Synthesized only in liver.
(b) Levels are increased in fatty acid
(c) Better indicator of infectious hepatitis than for cholestasis
(d) Isolated increase of GGT in patients with prostatic carcinoma indicates hepatic metastasis.
Ans: (b)
41. Impaired glucose tolerance is seen in deficiency of
(a) Selenium
(b) Chromium
(c) Manganese
(d) Molybdenum
Ans: (b)
42. Divalent zinc ion is essential for
(a) Catalase
(b) Pancreatic lipase
(c) Alkaline phosphatase
(d) Salivary amylase
Ans: (c)
43. Mucopolysaccharide not containing uronic acid is
(a) Heparin
(b) Heparan sulphate
(c) Keratan sulphate
(d) Chondroitin sulphate
Ans: (c)
44. Enzyme involved in the synthesis of both cholesterol as well as ketone bodies is
(a) HMG CoA reductase
(b) HMG CoA synthase
(c) HMG CoA lyase
(d) Acetyl CoA synthetase
Ans: (b)
45. Enzyme action increased in fed state
(a) Carbomyl phosphate-I transferase
(b) Pyruvate carboxylase
(c) HMG coA lyase
(d) Acetyl COA carboxylase
Ans: (d)
46. Lipoprotein-A is in structural homology to
(a) Albumin
(b) Prothrombin
(c) Collagen
(d) Plasminogen
Ans: (d)
47. Injections of heparin releases
(a) Lipoprotein lipase
(b) Insulin
(c) Alkaline phosphatase
(d) Nitric oxide
Ans: (a)
48. The rate limiting enzyme of de novo purine biosynthesis pathway
(a) Phosphoribosylpyrophosphate synthetase
(b) Phosphoribosylpyrophosphate amidotransferase
(c) Adenylosuccinate lyase
(d) Formyltransferase
Ans: (b)
49. Function of pseudouridine arm of tRNA is
(a) Terminates translation
(b) Binding of tRNA to ribosomes
(c) Recognition of specific tRNA to add with specific amino acid
(d) Recognition of specific amino acid to be attached to the amino acid arm.
Ans: (b)
50. Polymerase chain reaction is used to amplify a small fragments of DNA for further analysis. To do this, DNA double helix must be split. This is done by
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Centrifuge
(c) Alkali
(d) Heating around 100℃
Ans: (d)
51. Northern blot detects
(a) RNA
(b) DNA
(c) Protein
(d) Antigens
Ans: (a)
PHARMACOLOGY
52. A new drug is being studied to find the most appropriate dose in dose response study. Small does results in linear increase in serum drug concentration. At high doses there is exponential increase in serum levels. This is called as
(a) Saturations kinetics
(b) First passes effect
(c) Zero order kinetics
(d) First order kinetics
Ans: (d)
53. 72 years old male patient presents with fast atrial fibrillation on treatment with digoxin. Inadequate dosage was suspected. Blood sample was drawn after 6 hours of last dose of digoxin to estimate the plasma concentration of digoxin. Why to wait for 6 hours after the last dose of digoxin?
(a) Rate of elimination
(b) Rate of clearance
(c) Rate of absorption
(d) Rate of distribution
Ans: (d)
54. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in liver cell is increased in people using lipid soluble drugs, because
(a) SER packs drugs away from the cells
(b) Produces protein against the drug
(c) Detoxify the drug
(d) Converts lipid soluble drugs to proteins
Ans: (c)
55. True regarding leukotrienes
(a) Synthesised from COX pathway
(b) Increases mucus secretion
(c) Synthesised by fibroblasts
(d) LT D4 is Slow Reactive Substance-A which causes bronchial wall smooth muscle relaxation
Ans: (b)
56. Bradycardia is most common in
(a) Midazolam
(b) Succinyl choline
(c) Isoprenaline
(d) Dopamine
Ans: (b)
57. N-Acetyl Cysteine replenish
(a) Glutathione
(b) Cytochrome p450
(c) Glucuronyl transferase
(d) Sulfatase
Ans: (a)
58. Am 85 year old female presents with bilateral osteoarthritis. There was no history of any gastro intestinal symptoms. The most appropriate drug that can be recommended is
(a) Dihydrocodeine
(b) Celecoxib
(c) Naproxen
(d) Paracetamol
Ans: (c)
59. The most potent anti-emetic agent in pre-operative period is
(a) Ondansetron
(b) Metochlopramide
(c) Perchlorperazine
(d) Chlorpromazine
Ans: (a)
60. A patient was on lithium therapy for bipolar disorder. Initiation of hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension can cause
(a) Failure of hydrochlorothiazide therapy
(b) Increased hepatic clearance of lithium
(c) Increased renal clearance of lithium
(d) Increase in serum lithium levels
Ans: (d)
61. Drugs decreasing mortality in ischemic heart disease are all except
(a) Statins
(b) ACE inhibitors
(c) Nitrates
(d) Aspirin
Ans: (c)
62. A 70 years old female presents with H/O pancreatitis, persistent diarrhea and osteoporosis. DVT is present. Drug least effective if given after she takes cholestyramine to relieve the intolerable itching is
(a) Warfarin
(b) Thiamine
(c) Vitamin-D
(d) Aspirin
Ans: (a)
63. True regarding insulin is
(a) Interacts with nuclear membrane
(b) Increases glucose – protein transport in ER
(c) Has similar mechanism of action of steroid receptors
(d) Not detected in lymph
Ans: (b)
64. A 35 year old female with 2+ glycosuria with a body mass index of 35, fasting blood sugar-132mgs/dl. The best measure to decrease the insulin resistance is
(a) Repaglinide therapy
(b) Insulin therapy
(c) Metformin therapy
(d) Weight loss and exercise
Ans: (d)
65. 82 years ld female presents with history of fall on the ground and diagnosed as Colle’s Fracture. She was started with alendronate. The mechanism of action of alendronate in this condition is that it
(a) Inhibits the osteoblastic activity
(b) Inhibits the osteoclastic activity
(c) Increases the osteoblastic activity
(d) Increased bone turn over
Ans: (b)
66. You are developing a new long acting antagonist for the treatment of SIADH. Where will this drug act?
(a) Aquaporin-1 channels
(b) V1 receptors
(c) Aquaporin-2 channels
(d) V2 receptors
Ans: (d)
67. The first drug increases the pharmacological action of the second drug, when given concomitantly is
(a) Erythromycin: theophylline
(b) Ranitidine: corticosteroids
(c) Phenytoin: ethinyl estradiol
(d) Rifampicin: warfarin
Ans: (a)
68. True for poisoning or overdose
(a) Clomethiazole- causes hypertension and hyperthermia
(b) Aspirin-causes acidosis due to hypoventilation
(c) Methanol causes metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
(d) Phenobarbitone causes metabolic acidosis.
Ans: (c)
69. Not a cause of drug induced hepatitis
(a) Isoniazid
(b) Ethambutol
(c) Pyrazinamide
(d) Methyldopa
Ans: (b)
70. Mechanism of action of gentamicin when given synergistically with benzyl penicillin in the treatment of infective endocarditis of streptococcus viridians is
(a) Interfere with DNA replication
(b) Inhibit protein synthesis (translocation)
(c) Inhibit protein synthesis (transcription)
(d) Cell wall inhibition
Ans: (b)
71. The anti-retroviral drug which acts as a function inhibitor
(a) Atazanavir
(b) Emtricitabine
(c) Enfuvirtide
(d) Elvitegravir
Ans: (c)
72. A 16 year old male presents with recurrent acne not responding to oral antibiotics. To start with oral isotretinoin, which of the following investigations has to be done before and during the oral administration of isotretinoin?
(a) Liver function test with fasting lipid profile
(b) Electrolytes with fasting lipid profile
(c) Liver function test with Electrolytes
(d) Liver function test with platelet count
Ans: (a)
73. A 30 years old male is on methotrexate 7.5 mg weekly. His wife is fit and well and is not on any medication except for oral contraceptive pills. They are keen to start family and want to know about continued contraception and whether to stop methotrexate. The appropriate advice is
(a) Should continue adequate contraception atleast 3 months after stopping methotrexate.
(b) Should continue adequate contraception atleast for 4 weeks after stopping methotrexate.
(c) Should continue adequate contraception atleast for 1 year after stopping methotrexate.
(d) Dispense with contraception now but husband should stop methotrexate.
Ans: (a)
74. Lenalidomide increases the risk of thromboembolic events when combined with
(a) Barbiturates
(b) Anti-psychotics
(c) Alcohol
(d) Glucocorticoids
Ans: (d)
MICROBIOLOGY
75. Which of the following is not a feature of exotoxin?
(a) High antigenicity
(b) Neutralised by antibodies
(c) Heat stable
(d) Protein in nature
Ans: (c)
76. Mechanism of development of resistance to penicillin in Streptococcus pneumonia is
(a) Production of Beta lactamase
(b) Mutations in the penicillin binding proteins on the bacterial surface
(c) Changes in the membrane permeability to penicillin
(d) Production of an alternative penicillin binding protein
Ans: (b)
77. A new agent was developed to increase the recognition of foreign antigens by Antigen presenting cells. True regarding the physiological aspects of APC’s
(a) Antigen is presented via MCH-I complexes
(b) APC’s are required before a response to viruses are generated
(c) Direct antibody stimulation still requires APC’s
(d) Antigen processed by APC are recognised by CD4+ T cells
Ans: (d)
78. True regarding thymus is
(a) Mature thymocytes express CD 4 and CD 8
(b) Thymocytes whose T cell receptor binds with high affinity to self-antigens and MHC complexes are clonally detected
(c) Mature thymocytes express surface IgM & IgD
(d) CD 4 & CD 8 double positive cells are eliminated by a process of negative selection
Ans: (d)
79. A 16 years old male patient presents with head ache, fever and neck stiffness for the past 24 h ours. Similar history was present one year back. CSF analysis shows WBC’s-400/ml, with 90% neutrophils. Gram staining shows gram negative diplococcic. The immune system affected in t his condition is
(a) B lymphocytes
(b) T lymphocytes
(c) Immunoglobulins
(d) Complement system
Ans: (d)
80. All the following are true about Staphylococcus aureus except
(a) Coagulase positive
(b) Catalase negative
(c) DNAse positive
(d) Indole negative
Ans: (b)
81. There was a sudden outbreak of MRSA infection in generall ward. The best method for reducing the MRSA outbreak in the ward and to reduce the transmission is
(a) Encourage regular hand wash
(b) Clean the walls and floors with chlorhexidine
(c) Screen the ward staff using nasal swabs and exclude those with positive culture for MRSA
(d) Close the ward for 1 month
Ans: (a)
82. 37 year old person, poorly controlled case to type-1 DM presents with painful, red, swollen middle finger with redness extending to metacarpophalangeal joint. A diagnosis of cellulitis is made and rerated with antibiotics. What is the organism causing this condition?
(a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) Klebsiella penumoniae
(c) MRSA
(d) Streptococcus pyogenes
Ans: (d)
83. 19 years old male patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of urthral discharge, 1 week after having unprotected sex. Gram staining reveals numerous neutrophils, some gram negative intracellular diplococcic. He was treated with ceftriaxone 250 mg i.m. 5 days later he returns with the same complaints. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Chlamydia trachomatis
(b) Penicillin resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) Reinfection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(d) Ureaplasma urealyticum
Ans: (c)
84. A strain of E.coli isolated from urine is resistant to third generation cephalosporins. The mechanism of development of resistance is
(a) Extended spectrum β-Lactamases
(b) Decrased permeability
(c) Active efflux of β-Lactam agents
(d) Alteration of PBPs
Ans: (a)
85. Infection that can be acquired in laboratories
(a) Brucellosis
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Pertusssis
(d) Melioidosis
Ans: (a)
86. A child presents with tuberculosis. Steroids are not indicated in
(a) Tuberculoma
(b) Endobronchial tuberculosis
(c) Pleural effusion
(d) Progressive primary pulmonary disease
Ans: (d)
87. Agent used in interferon gamma release assay for diagnosing latent tuberculosis is
(a) MPT 64
(b) Mycolic acid
(c) Lipoarabinomannan
(d) ESAT-6
Ans: (d)
88. 45 years old female patient presents with duodenal ulcer. The most sensitive test for the detection of H.Pylori is
(a) Urea breath test
(b) Serology
(c) Biopsy & Culture
(d) Stool antigen test
Ans: (a)
89. Channel activated by cholera toxin
(a) Adenylate cyclase
(b) Guanyl cyclase
(c) ABC transport channel
(d) Ion transport channel
Ans: (a)
90. A 25 years old male presents with 2 months history of loose stools and weight loss. Laboratory diagnostic tests are positive for HIV. Presence of which of the following disease is most likely in diagnosing HIV/AIDS?
(a) Lyme disease
(b) Glandular fever
(c) Orpharyngeal candidiasis
(d) Pulmonary TB
Ans: (c)
91. Parotid enlargement in a HIV infected child is characterised in which stage of AIDS according to WHO?
(a) Stage 1
(b) Stage 2
(c) Stage 3
(d) Stage 4
Ans: (b)
92. Indication for varicella immunoglobulin is
(a) A pregnant woman non-immune to Varicella Zoster, exposed to a child with chicken pox 12 days ago
(b) A pregnant woman non-immune to Varicella Zoster, exposed to mother with shingles
(c) A pregnant woman with no history of chicken pox develops shingles
(d) A pregnant woman previously treated with varicella immunoglobulin 10 days ago, but re-exposed to a case of chicken pox
Ans: (b)
93. Negri bodies are pathological inclusions seen in some pathological conditions. They are seen in all the following areas except
(a) Pyramidal neurons of hippocampus
(b) Subcortical white matter
(c) Basal ganglia
(d) Purkinje cells of cerebellum
Ans: (b)
94. Modality not employed in the diagnosis of respiratory viruses in laboratory
(a) ELISA
(b) Immunofluorescence
(c) Single Radial hemolysis (SRH)
(d) Hemagglutination
Ans: (none)
95. Morphological appearance of Pneumocystis jeroveci infection of lung is best characterized by
(a) Hemorrhagic and necrotizing pneumonia
(b) ARDS with wide spread hyaline membrane formation
(c) Interstitial pneumonitis with foamy intra alveolar exudates
(d) Broncho pulmonary absecess formation
Ans: (c)
PATHLOGY
96.Apoptosis in initiated by
(a) Caspases
(b) DNA
(c) Antibodies
(d) MAP kinase
Ans: (a)
97. All the following inflammatory mediators are derived from the cells except
(a) Kinins
(b) Cytokines
(c) Histamine
(d) Leukotrienes
Ans: (a)
98. 17 years old pregnant woman h as scattered small, raised lesions on trunk and axillary freckles. The mode of inheritance of this condition
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) X-linked dominant
(d) X-linked recessive
Ans: (a)
99. The following condition is not a single gene disorder
(a) Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cadiomyopathy
(b) Hypertorphic cardiomyopathy
(c) Dilated cardiomyopathy
(d) Mitral valve prolapsed
Ans: (c)
100. A 17 y ear old female with von Willebrand disease presents for dental extraction. She had history of simi9lar dental extraction 2 years back with increased bleeding and two units of plasma was transfused. Now appropriate prior line of management includes
(a) Cryoprecipitate
(b) FFP
(c) Recombinant factor VIII
(d) Desmopressin (DDAVP)
Ans: (d)
101. Most accurate statement regarding DIC is
(a) Removal of the underlying cause leads to complete resolution.
(b) Associated with increased serum fibrinogen levels
(c) Normal clotting parameters excludes DIC
(d) DIC is associated with increased levels of D-dimer
Ans: (d)
102. 42 years old female presents with tiredness. There was no H/O smoking, drug abuse or alcohol consumption. Hb 78 g/L, MCV-72 fL, WBC – 7 × 109/μL, platelet count 3, 50, 000/μ Serum ferritin levels – 8 μg/L (15-300 μg/L). She was started on oral iron therapy and her Hb condition during review was 80 g/L. The cause for failure of treatment is
(a) Acquired sideroblastic anemia
(b) Inadequate iron dosage
(c) Poor compliance to oral iron
(d) Folate deficiency
Ans: (c)
103. True regarding abnormal hemoglobins are
(a) HbS is caused by single base mutation
(b) In thalassemia, persistence of HbF indicates bad prognosis
(c) Alpha thalassemia is due to deficiency of Bea chain production
(d) Genes for alpha & beta chains are present in the same chromosome
Ans: (a)
104. Severe Hereditary spherocytosis is seen due to the defect of the following protein
(a) Spectrin
(b) Ankyrin
(c) Band 3
(d) Band 4.2
Ans: (a)
105. Reagent used in A:t test
(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Sodium acetate
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: (a)
106. A 65 years old smoker presents with chronic cough, hemoptysis and loss of weight. X ray chest shows cavitatory lesion. The most appropriate diagnosis is
(a) Unidifferentiated large cell carcinoma
(b) Small cell carcinoma
(c) Adeno carcinoma
(d) Squamous cell carcinoma
Ans: (d)
107. Carcinoid tumors of lung arises from
(a) Type-II pneumocytes
(b) Kulchitsky (K) cells
(c) Mucus (goblet) cells
(d) Clara cells
Ans: (b)
108. True in a child with post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is
(a) Microscopic haematuria decreases within 4 weeks
(b) Serum triglyceride levels increase
(c) Severe renal dysfunction is an indication for biopsy
(d) Serum C3 levels are normal
Ans: (c)
109. A 50 years old male patient develops cardiogenic shock following acute myocardial infarction. The urine output decreases in next few days. Urea levels – 90 mg/dl, creatinine. 4.5 mg/dl. Urine analysis reveals no glycosuria or proteinuria, traces of blood present and numerous hyaline casts is present. Later he develops polyuria and the urea and creatinine levels fall. The pathological finding coinciding with the above situation is
(a) patchy tubular necrosis
(b) Glomerular crescents
(c) Mesangial immune complex deposition
(d) Hyperlastic arteriosclerosis
Ans: (a)
110. Mutation of STK II/LKB I gene results in
(a) Peutz Jegher’s syndrome
(b) Cowden syndrome
(c) Familial adnomatous polyposis
(d) Herediatary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
Ans: (a)
FORENSIC MEDICINE
111. First internal sing of putrefaction is seen in
(a) Under surface of liver
(b) Under surface of spleen
(c) Over the region of Caecum
(d) Over the region of pancreas
Ans: (a)
112. Magistrate inquest in India is conducted for all the following conditions except
(a) Exhumation
(b) Custody death
(c) Homicide
(d) Dowry death
Ans: (c)
113. Not a characteristic feature of male hip bone
(a) Preauricular sulcus
(b) Broad and round pelvic cavity
(c) Wide and shallow geater sciatic notch
(d) Everted ischial tuberosity
Ans: (a)
114. A pedestrian was hit by fast moving vehicle on leg and thrown away. He hit the road divider and fell down on the road and sustained head injuries. He was run over by a car moving on the opposite direction. The head injuries sustained by the patient are example of
(a) Primary impact injuries
(b) Primary injuries
(c) Secondary impact injuries
(d) Secondary injuries
Ans: (d)
115. A child sustained burns in front and back of both thighs and buttocks, face and scalp with singeing of hair. Calculate the percentage of burns
(a) 27
(b) 32
(c) 34
(d) 45
Ans: (b)
116. Dribbling of saliva is common in
(a) Post-mortem hanging
(b) Ante mortem hanging
(c) Homicidal hanging
(d) Suicidal hanging
Ans: (a)
117. Hanging injuries
(a) Trachea
(b) Oesophagus
(c) Vertebral artery
(d) Carotid artery
Ans: (d)
118. Identify the true pair in the management of poisoning
(a) N-acetyl cysteine- Paraquat
(b) Methylene blue – Cyanide
(c) Ethanol – Isopropyl alcohol
(d) Pralidoxime – Sarin (nerve gas)
Ans: (d)
119. A farmer with H/O depression is admitted for treatment with over dosage. He has bradycardia, hypotension, disorientation, hypersalivation and small pupils. The causative substance is
(a) Organophosphates
(b) Paracetamol
(c) Tricyclic anti-depressants
(d) Cyanide
Ans: (a)
120. According to MTP act, medial termination of pregnancy can be done upto
(a) 28 weeks
(b) 22 weeks
(c) 20 weeks
(d) Before period of viability
Ans: (c)
ENT
121. A 6 year old boy was referred by his school teacher for a suspected hearing loss. On examination, a middle ear effusion (MEE) was diagnosed. The usual range of hearing loss associated with MEE is
(a) 10-20 dB
(b) 21-30 dB
(c) 31-40 dB
(d) 41-50 dB
Ans: (b)
122. Diplopia on looking to left side in a cased of bilateral CSOM is due to
(a) Right lateral sinus thrmbophlebitis with cerebellar abscess
(b) Left lateral sinus thrombophlebitis with cerebellar abscess
(c) Right petrositis affecting abducent nerve
(d) Left petrositis affecting abducent nerve
Ans: (d)
123. A child with adenoidal hypertrophy with persistent ET dysfunction can develop into
(a) Primary acquired cholesteatoma
(b) Secondary acquired cholesteatoma
(c) Osteitis and granulation tissue
(d) Microcholesteatoma
Ans: (a)
124. A case of Meniere’s disease has failed all medical treatment. But still has a serviceable hearing. All can be done except
(a) Intratympanic gentamicin
(b) Endolymphatic sac decompression
(c) Vestibular neurectomy
(d) Labyrinthectomy
Ans: (d)
125. 8 years old child presents with a preauricular sinus, not associated with any discharge. The sinus opening is visualized clearly. The mother has same H/O preauricular sinus and was operated 30 years b ack. Now, next line of management is
(a) HRCT of temporal bone
(b) Sinogram with a radio-opaque dye
(c) Regular follow up
(d) MRI to exclude cyst
Ans: (b)
126. A case of Lower motor neuron facial palsy with intact lacrimation on Schirmer’s test and loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3rd The level of lesion
(a) At the level of stylomastoid foramen
(b) At the level of geniculate ganglion
(c) At the internal acoustic canal
(d) At the horizontal tympanic canal
Ans: (d)
127. Deep and lower voice in males is due to
(a) Inferior placement of larynx
(b) Longer vocal cord
(c) More vocal vibration due to flaccidity
(d) Larger arytenoids cartilage
Ans: (b)
128. A school teacher complains of easy fatiguability of voice following upper respiratory tract infection. Indirect laryngoscopy shows key hole appearance of glottis. The next line of management is
(a) There is weakness of thyroarytenoid and interarytenoid, can be cured by type-I thyroplasty and arrytenoid adduction
(b) There is weakness of thyroarytenoid and interarytenoid, can be cured by vocal hygiene and voice rest
(c) There is weakness of thyroarytenoid and interarytenoid, can be cured by type-I thyroplasty
(d) Thee is early vocal nodule, can be cured by voice rest and microlaryngeal surgery
Ans: (b)
OPHTHALMOLOGY
129. The ideal rehabi9ilitation for aphakia is
(a) ACIOL
(b) PCIOL
(c) Spectacle
(d) Contact lens
Ans: (b)
130. Pathognomonic retinal change is seen in
(a) Wilson disease
(b) Infective endocarditis
(c) Polycythemia rubra vera
(d) Sickle cell anemia
Ans: (d)
131. A 52 year old male on regular diclofenac medication for back pain presents with deteriorating vision. His BP is 142/82 mmGh, PR-72/min, regular respiration. There is bilateral loss of visual acuity and colour vision. There were no other abnormal neurological findings. Diagnosis
(a) Cataract
(b) Optic neuritis
(c) Primary open angle glaucoma
(d) Primary angle closure glaucoma
Ans: (b)
132. 22 year sold female with one month hisotry of episodic, brief visual loss in the right eye. There was H/O weight gain for last 1 year. Now BMI is 35. Fundus examination shows bilateral optic disc swelling more on right with small retinal Diagnosis
(a) Optic neuritis
(b) Craniopharyngioma
(c) Sagittal sinus thrombosis
(d) Idiopahtic intracranial hypertension
Ans: (d)
133. 28 years old female presents with complains of her right pupil larger than left after developing Shingles. On examination right pupil is larger than the left, reacts poorly to light, normal near reflex. Diagnosis is
(a) Third nerve palsy
(b) Holme-Adie’s pupil
(c) Argyll Robertson pupil
(d) Horner syndrome
Ans: (b)
PREVENTIVE & SOCIAL MEDICINE
134. The appropriate level of prevention for preventing childhood obesity
(a) Primordial prevention
(b) Primary prevention
(c) Secondary prevention
(d) Rehabilitation
Ans: (a)
135. Meta-zoonosis among the following is
(a) Rabies
(b) Brucellosis
(c) Plaque
(d) Taeniasis
Ans: (c)
136. A new publisher devices a test for tuberculosis. You want to know that proportion of patients with tuberculosis would be confidently identified this test. Which measure will you use?
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Specificity
(c) Negative predictive value
(d) Positive predictive value
Ans: (a)
137. The fifth millennium development goals for 2015aims at bringing down the MMR by
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.75
(d) 1
Ans: (d)
138. The colour code for the bag for collecting waste sharps
(a) Blue/White
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Yellow
Ans: (a)
139. In a study of correlation between serum insulin levels (μU/ml) and waist circumference (cm), 100 patients were recruited. They found that the correlation coefficient was 0.5. The true statement is
(a) Change in unit of insulin will change the correlation coefficient
(b) Correlation is weak
(c) For every cm increase in waist circumference, insulin levels increased by 0.3 μU/mL
(d) 95% confident interval should be considered for correlation coefficient.
Ans: (d)
140. Not a feature of systematic review
(a) Meta-analysis always performed
(b) Search for literature is compulsory using explicit search strategy
(c) Critical appraisal is always criterion based
(d) Research question is always focused
Ans: (a)
141. True about meta-analysis is all except
(a) A statistical technique for combining the findings from several independent studies on a specific topic
(b) Its purpose is not to identify risk factors
(c) Its purpose is o increase statistical power by increasing the sample size
(d) The validity does not depend on the quality of thee systematic review
Ans: (d)
MEDICINE
142. Right sided heart sound that decreases in intensity during inspiration is
(a) Systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation
(b) Systolic murmur of pulmonary stenosis
(c) Right ventricular S3
(d) Pulmonary ejection sound
Ans: (d)
143. Treatment of choice in ST segment elevated myocardial ischemia is
(a) Thrombolysis with streptokinase
(b) Thrombolysis with alteplase
(c) Primary percutaneous coronary intervention
(d) Aspirin with low molecular weight heparin
Ans: (c)
144. Test to detect reversible Myocardial ischemia
(a) Resting echo
(b) Multi gated acquisition (MUGA) scan
(c) Thallium scan
(d) Cornoary angiogram
Ans: (c)
145. A 41 year old male presents with infective endocarditis. Condition associated with best prognosis is
(a) Streptococcus viridans
(b) IV drug abusers
(c) Prosthetic valve infections
(d) Staphylococcus aureus infections
Ans: (a)
146. True regarding the diagnosis of infective endocarditis is
(a) Failure to detect vegetations does not exclude the diagnosis.
(b) Sensitivity of transthoracic echocardiogram is 95%
(c) Transthoracic echo is as good as transesophageal echo
(d) Transthoracic echo can detect vegetations less than 2 mm.
Ans: (a)
147. A staff nurse of cardiology unit measures the blood pressure of a 61 years old male and records as 183/100 on sitting and 190/105 mmHg on standing. The heart rate is 81/min. irregularly irregular. On auscultation, no mumurs but there was bilateral basilar crackles, the most appropriate differential diagnosis is
(a) Left atrial myxoma
(b) Mitral regurgitation
(c) Cor pulmonale
(d) Left ventricular hypertrophy
Ans: (c)
148. A 24 years old female patient in operation theatre for excision of sebaceous cyst has a pulse rate of 220/min, BP- 70/50 mmHg, Respiratory rate- 32/min. Patient is wake, alert, oriented but feel dizzy. ECG shows a regular rhythm with a QRS width of 0.11 secs. The immediate line of management is
(a) Adenosine 6mg/6mg/12mg
(b) Amiodarone 300 mg
(c) Direct current cardioversion
(d) Atenolol 50mg
Ans: (a)
149. 18 years old female presents to the emergency department with cyanosis. There are no other notable clinical signs or symptoms. The presence of cyanosis was known to her from her neighbours. The most appropriate cause for her cyanosis would be
(a) Lead poisoning
(b) Severe anemia
(c) Drinking water contaminated with nitrates
(d) Carbon monoxide poisoning
Ans: (c)
150. Right internal carotid artery stenosis is associated with all except
(a) Dysphasia
(b) Drop attacks
(c) Contralateral hemi sensory loss
(d) Contralalteral hemiplegia
Ans: (b)
151. 66 years old male presents to the emergency department with ataxia, vomiting, head ache with increasing drowsiness. The most appropriate diagnosis is
(a) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
(b) Acute subdural haemorrhage
(c) Acute cerebellar haemorrhage
(d) Transient ischemic attack
Ans: (c)
152. A 73 years old male patient presents with abrupt onset of double vision with left leg weakness, right facial weakness affecting upper and lower parts of face with left hemipareiss. All these clinical features can occur, if the lesion is at the level of
(a) Left frontal lobe
(b) Right mid brain
(c) Left lateral medulla
(d) Right pons
Ans: (d)
153. An 18 year old male presents with history of head ache for past 6 months in the frontal area, occasionally associated with nausea. He is on paracetamol 3g/day, Aspirin 300 mgtds, Codeine 40 mg tds. It provides only temporary relief. He had a history of depression 2 years back and was on treatment with paroxetine. No abnormalities were detected on clinical examination. The exact diagnosis is
(a) Medication overuse head ache
(b) Migraine
(c) Cluster head ache
(d) Head ache due to depression
Ans: (a)
154. A 22 years old female presents with distress, shortness of breath with respiratory rate 35/min, pulse rate-120/min, BP- 110/70 mmHg, Oxygen saturation of 90% and peak expiratory flow less than 50%. Salbutamol 5 mg was given twice and face mask O2 was given, the next line of management is
(a) Prednisolone 40 mg
(b) Intensive care referral
(c) Arterial blood gas analysis
(d) Salbutamol 5 mg + ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg
Ans: (a)
155. 80 years old coal miner who stopped working 16 years back develops dyspnoea. FEV1- 1.4 L(predicted value – 2.5 L), FVC – 2.8L(Predicated value – 3.0 L) Diagnosis
(a) Silicosis
(b) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
(c) COPD
(d) Hypersensitive pneumonitis.
Ans: (c)
156. A 26 years old patient was brought to the emergency department with severe shortness of breath with BP 80/50 mmHG, tachypnea. On examination he is apyrexial. The oxygen saturation is 74%. ON clinical examination JVP was increased, trachea was shifted to left side. The next step in management include
(a) Insert a large bore needle in the right side
(b) Insert a large bore needle in the left side
(c) Order for an urgent portable Chest X ray and administer high levels of oxygen
(d) Aspirate the left side of chest with wide bore cannula
Ans: (a)
157. A patient posted for surgery for squamous cell carcinoma of lung. He suddenly develops. Left hemothroax. The next line of management is
(a) Tranexamic acid
(b) Bronchial embolization
(c) Throacostomy tube
(d) Radiotherapy
Ans: (c)
158. 18 years old female presents with a red tender lump on shin and arthralgia. Chest X rays shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with clear lung fields. She is diagnosed to be having sarcoidosis. The most appropriate management plan is
(a) 24 hours urinary calcium levels measurement
(b) Follow up with chest X ray after 3 months
(c) Mediastinoscopy with lymph node biopsy
(d) Thoracic CT-scan
Ans: (c)
159. Cavitatory lesion on chest X ray is seen in
(a) Klebsiella pneumonia
(b) Pneumococcal pneumonia
(c) Sarcoidosis
(d) Leginnaire’s disease
Ans: (a)
160. Conglomerate nodules in chest X ray is seen in
(a) Silicosis
(b) Sarcoidosis
(c) Lobar pneumonia
(d) Hypersensitive pneumonitis
Ans: (a)
161. Identify the true association
(a) Broncho pulmonary aspergillosis + wheezing
(b) Pulmonary embolism + LBBB
(c) Lung carcinoid + pulmonary embolism
(d) Pneumoconiosis + clubbing
Ans: (a)
162. 40 years old male patient presents with pulmonary embolism to the emergency department. A ventilation perfusion san is ordered. All the following are true regarding V/P scan except
(a) Contraindicated in pregnancy
(b) a normal perfusion scan excludes the diagnosis of clinically significant pulmonary embolism
(c) An abnormal ventilation with perfusion defects points towards a diagnosis other than pulmonary embolism
(d) Two or more segmental perfusion defects in the presence of normal ventilation indicates high probability of pulmonary embolism
Ans: (a)
163. A 29 years old female with 30 weeks of pregnancy is receiving subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin for pulmonary embolism. Now she is developing bruises. BP in left lateral position is 125/75 mmHg. Next immediate step is
(a) Platelet count
(b) Factor X-a levels
(c) Aptt
(d) Serum albumin levels
Ans: (b)
164. 35 years old female with history of 2 previous episodes of DVT now presents with further DVT. Lupus anti-coagulant is positive. The treatment is
(a) LMW heparin
(b) Aspirin and warfarin
(c) Warfarin life long
(d) Warfarin for 6 months.
Ans: (c)
165. A 30 years primi with no previous significant medical history has a sister suffering from deep vein thrombosis in her second pregnancy. Thrombophilia screening shows she is heterozygous for factor-V (Leiden) The appropriate next line of management is
(a) Treat her with 75 mg aspirin daily
(b) Advise her to come for treatment if she develops calf swelling or pain
(c) Give warfarin
(d) Start her on prophylactic LMWH
Ans: (d)
166. 30 years old male patient develops heamturia in operation table 15 minutes following blood transfusion. His pulse rate is 120/min, BP- 70/40 mmgHG. Identify the cause
(a) DIC
(b) Anaphylaxis to anaesthetic agents
(c) ABO incompatibility
(d) Graft versus host disease
Ans: (c)
167. Even after screening of blood before transfusion, post transfusion hepatitis is common because
(a) Most cases of post transfusion hepatitis are caused by hepatitis C virus
(b) Most hepatitis B carriers do not have detectable HbS antigen in serum
(c) Available tests are not sensitive to detect HbS antigen
(d) Most cases of post transfusion hepatitis are cause by CMV
Ans: (b)
168. Number connection test is done in
(a) Alzheimer’s disease
(b) Parkinson’s disease
(c) Dementia
(d) Hepatic encephalopathy
Ans: (d)
169. True regarding spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is
(a) Occurs due to intestinal perforation
(b) Diagnosed by culture of ascetic fluid
(c) Treatment of choice is gentamicin
(d) Usually caused by aerobic bacteria
Ans: (d)
170. A 65 years old female presents with one month history of malaise, weight loss and right sided pain around the eye with head ache. Intermittent diplopia was present. She underwent mastectomy for breast carcinoma five years back. Temperature now is 37.5 C. Tenderness of scalp on right forehead and temple was present. Some minor weakness of abduction of right eye was present, ESR is 55 mm/hr. Diagnosis
(a) Meningeal metastatic disease
(b) Giant cell arteritis
(c) Frontal sinusitis
(d) Posterior cerebral artery aneurysm
Ans: (b)
171. 53 years old male presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss for 3 months. Presence of one of the following in this patient is diagnostic of Diabetes mellitus
(a) Urine dipstick test 3+ glucose
(b) Fasting plasma glucose 135 mgs/dl
(c) Fasting plasma glucose 117 mgs/dl
(d) Two-hour plasma glucose 180 mgs during an oral glucose tolerance test
Ans: (b)
172. Feature of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is
(a) Cerebral arterio venous malformations
(b) Responds to oestrogen
(c) Telangiectasia of mucus membranes and not skin
(d) Gastrointestinal haemorrhage is usually starts in the prepubertal age group
Ans: (a)
173. 56 years old male patient in septic shock, fully ventilated is on veno-venous hemofiltration on Noradrenaline, vancomycin and ciprofloxacin, Mean arterial pressure is 60 mmHg, not improving after changing on or adrenaline to adrenaline. No myocardial dysfunction. Next step in the management is
(a) ACTH stimulation test
(b) Hydrocortisone
(c) Activated protein C
(d) Change of inotropes
Ans: (b)
174. Hallmark of uncompensated shock in a child is imbalance between O2 delivery and O2 consumption. This is manifested by all except
(a) High anion gap metabolic acidosis
(b) Increased lactic acid production
(c) Decreased oxygen extraction in the tissues
(d) Low mixed venous oxygen saturation
Ans: (a)
175. 42 years old female presents with diazepam and alcohol overdose. Patient is unconscious, temperature 34.5℃, BP 100/80 mmHg, creatinine 242 μmol/L, AST 500 U/L, Gamma glutamyl transferase 35 IU, urine analysis is unremarkable, urine dipstick test shows 3+ blood. USG abdomen was normal. Identify the cause
(a) Hypothermia
(b) Dehydration
(c) Rhabdomyolysis
(d) Associated paracetamol over dosage
Ans: (c)
176. An 11 year child with failure to thrive, metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap. Not true regarding the differential diagnosis
(a) Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
(b) Chronic renal failure
(c) Renal tubular acidosis
(d) Inborn errors of metabolism
Ans: (c)
177. Not an indication to administer anti-snake venom to a child at early morning 4 am is
(a) Local swelling with fang marks
(b) Severe abdominal pain without fang marks
(c) Gum bleeding or prolonged 20 minutes whole blood clotting time (WBCT)
(d) External ophthalmoplegia with inability to lift the head.
Ans: (a)
178. 45 year old male presents with facial swelling, breathlessness to the emergency department. Urgent chest X-ray shows paral tracheal lymphadenopathy. The most appropriate statement favouring SVC obstruction is
(a) Most common cause is squamous cell carcinoma of lung
(b) Associated with hoarseness of voice
(c) Associated with Kussmaul’s sign
(d) Commonest symptom is stridor
Ans: (b)
SURGERY
179. Most common organ involved in blunt trauma in children
(a) Spleen
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Small intestine
Ans: (a)
180. IN case of abdominal trauma, if the patient is hemodynamically unstable, investigation of choice is
(a) Chest X ray erect
(b) Barium Meal
(c) FAST (Focussed Abdominal Sonar for Trauma)
(d) Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Ans: (c)
181. True regarding reflux of gastric contents into oesophagus
(a) Neutralised by the bicarbonate secretion by oesophageal mucosa
(b) Condition can be improved by eradication of H. Pylori
(c) Diagnosis is excluded by normal appearing oesophagus at endoscopy
(d) Occurs during transient relaxation of Lower oesophageal sphincter
Ans: (d)
182. 55 years old male presents with dysphagia is diagnosed to be a case of achalasia cardia. Management of choice is
(a) Nifedipine
(b) Buscopan
(c) Omeprazole
(d) Surgical cardiomyotomy
Ans: (d)
183. A coin is loaded in the oesophagus of an asymptomatic 3 years female child. Treatment is
(a) Endoscopic removal within 24 hours
(b) Immediate endoscopic removal
(c) Wait for 48 hours
(d) Dislodge the coin to the stomach
Ans: (a)
184. A child with upper gastro intestinal bleed due to varices. Line of management is
(a) Octreotide is reserved for situations where immediate endoscopy is not available
(b) Sengstaken Blackmore tube is preferred than pharamcotherapy
(c) Lavage is given in room temperature
(d) Target of haemoglobin for blood transfusion is 10g/dl
Ans: (c)
185. 52 years old male presents with heamtemesis and melena. icterus, confusion and flapping tremors. He is a case of chronic liver disease with a pulse rate 110/min and a BP of 100/70 mmHg. Ascites present. Endoscopy reveals small esophageal varcies without evidence of bleeding and an oozing portal hypertensive gastropathy. Treatment is evidence of bleeding an an oozing portal gastropathy. Treatment is
(a) IV Terlipressin
(b) Endoscopic injection of ethanolamine
(c) IV vitamin K
(d) Endoscopic banding
Ans: (a)
186. Invertogram in a new born with imperforate anus is done
(a) After 2 hours
(b) After 4 hours
(c) After 6 hours
(d) Immediately
Ans: (c)
187. Intussusception is caused by
(a) Submucous lipoma
(b) Subfascial lipoma
(c) Subserous lipoma
(d) Intramural lipoma
Ans: (a)
188. A 29 years old male presents with anemia, bleeding, diarrhea, abdominal pain. ON examination, mass is felt in right lower quadrant with skin tags. The most appropriate diagnosis is
(a) Ulcerative colitis
(b) Crohn’s disease
(c) Intestinal lymphoma
(d) Coeliac disease
Ans: (b)
189. Commonest cause of symptomatic ischemia of gastro intestinal tract
(a) Superior mesenteric artery thrombosis
(b) Inferior mesenteric artery thrombosis
(c) Hepatic artery thrombosis
(d) Coeliac artery thrombosis
Ans: (a)
190. All the following are features of acute pancreatitis except
(a) Increased amylase
(b) Hypocalcemia
(c) Hypoglycemia
(d) Leucocytosis
Ans: (c)
191. Nerve affected in sentinel node biopsy in breast cancer
(a) Intercostobrachial nerve
(b) Long thoracic nerve
(c) Nerve to Latissimus dorsi
(d) Lateral pectroal nerve
Ans: (a)
192. Thyrotoxicosis is characterised by all except
(a) Palpitation
(b) Hair loss
(c) Diarrhea
(d) Hyper activity
Ans: (c)
193. In an asthma clinic, a 30 years female complains of appearance of a mole. Suspicion for development of malignant melanoma should arise if
(a) Size of lesion > 6 mm
(b) Lesion in face
(c) Lesion with regular outline
(d) Deeply pigmented lesions
Ans: (a)
PEDIATRICS
194. The normal gain in length in a full term baby, at first 6 months of life is
(a) 6 cm
(b) 9 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 24 cm
Ans: (c)
195. Bed wetting is normal upto what age in girls and boys respectively?
(a) 3 years and 4 years
(b) 4 years and 5 years
(c) 5 years and 5 years
(d) 5 years and 6 years
Ans: (c)
196. Molar ratio of Sodium & Glucose in WHO ORS is
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 1:4
(d) 2:1
Ans: (a)
197. According to WHO, severe acute malnutrition in children is defined as
(a) Weight for height Z score < −3
(b) Weight for height Z score < −2
(c) Weight for height Z score < −1
(d) Weight for height Z score between −2 and −3
Ans: (a)
198. To prevent acute rheumatic fever, acute pharyngitis due to group A streptococci should be treated with antibiotics before
(a) 7 days of illness
(b) 8 days of illness
(c) 9 days of illness
(d) 10 days of illness
Ans: (c)
199. Not a typical localizing sign indicative of involvement of intrathoracic extra pulmonary site in children with respiratory infections
(a) Stridor
(b) Wheezing
(c) Tachypnoea
(d) Chest retraction
Ans: (b)
200. Neonatal liver failure is uncommonly associated with
(a) Hereditary fructose intolerance
(b) Congenital hepatic fibrosis
(c) Galactosemia
(d) Hemophagocytic lympho histiocytosis
Ans: (b)
201. Phenylketonuria – true statement
(a) Urine phenyl alanine metabolites are increased
(b) Deficiency of tyrosine hydroxylase
(c) Serum tyrosine levels are decreased
(d) Mental retardation does not occur if patient is advised to have phenyl alanine free diet
Ans: (d)
202. Component of initial impression in Pediatric Advanced Life Support(PALS)-2010 are all except
(a) Airway
(b) Breathing
(c) Color
(d) Consciousness
Ans: (a)
OBSTETRICS
203. USG is 18-20 weeks is done to
(a) Detect maturity
(b) Detect anomalies
(c) Detect the sex of the fetus
(d) Estimate the liquor
Ans: (b)
204. Diabetes mellitus in 32 y ears old female with 16 weeks pregnancy. BMI is 22. On oral glucose tolerance test with 75 mg glucose reveals, 0 hour-108, 2 hours-225 mgs/dl. The next step in the management of this case is
(a) Repeat Oral glucose tolerance test after 4 weeks
(b) Low calorie diet with exercise
(c) Insulin therapy
(d) Metformin therapy
Ans: (c)
205. Medical termination for a 11 weeks of unwanted pregnancy is done by
(a) Menstrual regulation
(b) Manual evacuation
(c) Misoprostol + Mifepristone
(d) Dilatation and curettage
Ans: (d)
206. The drug of choice for preventing pre-term labor is
(a) Ritodrine
(b) Progesterone
(c) Nifedipine
(d) Oestrogen
Ans: (c)
207. Cardiac condition which does not increases the risk during pregnancy
(a) Pulmonary hypertension
(b) Cyanotic heart disease
(c) Ebstein’s anomaly
(d) Marfan’s syndrome
Ans: (c)
208. A 30 year old female with 12 weeks of pregnancy is diagnosed to be a case of systemic lupus erythematosus. With reference to SLE in pregnancy, true statement is
(a) Risk of pulmonary embolism is same that of general population
(b) Stop hydroxychloroquine during breast feeding
(c) Azathioprine is contraindicated in pregnancy
(d) In anti-Ro and Anti-la are negative, there is increased risk of congenital heart block.
Ans: (a)
209. Drug of choice for a pregnant woman with Chlamydia trachomatis infection is
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Cefazolin
(d) Azithromycin
Ans: (a)
GYNECOLOGY
210. 17 years old female patient presents with 3 days history of vaginal discharge associated with pruritis. Recently she received treatment for UTI. Identify the causative organism.
(a) Gradenella vaginalis
(b) Candida albicans
(c) Chlamydia trachomatis
(d) Trichomonas vaginalis.
Ans: (d)
211. An 18 years old female patient with H/o irregular period was diagnosed as polycystic ovaries and started Metformin therapy. The mechanism of action of metoforming in this condition is
(a) Increases the levels of LH
(b) Increased peripheral glucose uptake
(c) Increases estradiol level
(d) Increases the insulin level.
Ans: (b)
212. A 22-year-old woman consults you for treatment of hirsutism. She is obese and has facial acne and hirsutism on her face and periareolar regions and a male escutcheon. Serum LH level is 35 mIU/mL and FSH is 9 mIU/L. Androstenedione and testosterone levels are mildly elevated, but serum DHEAS is normal .The patient does not wish to conceive at this time. Which of the following single agents is the most appropriate treatment of her condition?
(a) Oral contraceptives
(b) Corticosteroids
(c) GnRH
(d) Wedge resection
Ans: (a)
213. 23 years old female patient comes to gynaecological OPD with H/O irregular cycles for the past two years and is anxious to conceive. Her BMI is 29. There are features of hirsutism. On USG, her ovarian volumes were high. You have to educate her regarding her life style modification as she is more prone for the risk of developing which of the following carcinoma?
(a) Cervical Ca
(b) Endometrial Ca
(c) Breast Ca
(d) Ovarian Ca
Ans: (b)
214. 40 years old multiparous woman shows CIN-2 on Pap smear. Next line of management
(a) Hysterectomy
(b) Conisation
(c) Colposcopy
(d) Cryotherapy
Ans: (c)
ORTHOPEDICS
215. Light bulb sign in anteroposterior view of X ray shoulder is due to
(a) Fracture humerus with dislocation of glenohumeral joint
(b) Fracture scapula
(c) Anterior dislocation of shoulder
(d) Posterior dislocation of shoulder
Ans: (d)
216. Pointing index in a case of supracondylar fracture humerus in children occurs due to involvement of
(a) Radial nerve
(b) Anterior interosseous nerve
(c) Musculo cutaneous nerve
(d) Ulnar nerve
Ans: (b)
217. The most appropriate term in bone growth is
(a) Apposition
(b) Enlargement
(c) Hypertrophy
(d) Hyperplasia
Ans: (a)
218. Features of hemophilic knee joint are all except
(a) Squaring of patella
(b) Widening of intercondylar notch
(c) Sub chondral cyst formation
(d) Juxta articular osteosclerosis.
Ans: (d)
219. History of twisting strain and locking of knee joint occurs due to
(a) Tear of Anterior cruciate ligament
(b) Tear of Medial cruciate ligament
(c) Meniscal tear
(d) Patellar fractures
Ans: (c)
220. Conditions requiring open reduction in children is
(a) Intercondylar fracture femur
(b) Fracture both bones of forearm
(c) Lateral condylar fracture of humerus
(d) Epiphyseal separation of tibia
Ans: (c)
221. Recognizing feature of achondroplasia
(a) AR inheritance
(b) Diagnosed radiologically at birth
(c) Increased liability for fractures
(d) Short spine
Ans: (d)
222. 58 years old female patient presents with one year history of anterior knee pain on climbing stairs. On examination crepitus was present. There was severe restriction of movements beyond 110 degrees. Examination of hip and back was normal. Diagnosis is
(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Psoriatic arthritis
(c) Osteonecrosis
(d) Gout
Ans: (a)
223. Degree of angulation acceptable after reducing tibial fracture is
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
Ans: (a)
224. Open fracture is best treated by
(a) Internal fixation
(b) External fixation
(c) Debridement
(d) Tourniquet
Ans: (c)
225. Treatment of club foot in a new born is
(a) Manipulation and corrective splint
(b) Corrective splint
(c) Manipulation alone
(d) Observe till 6 months of age
Ans: (a)
ANESTHESIA
226. Delivery of high concentration of oxygen (more than 90%) is delivered via
(a) Partial rebreathing mask
(b) Nasal cannula with oxygen flow at 5 L/min
(c) Simple face mask
(d) Non rebreathing face mask with oxygen reservoir
Ans: (d)
227. A patient on epidural anesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5% lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery develops hypotension and respiratory depression three minutes. Most common cause for this clinical condition is
(a) Systemic toxicity of anesthetic agents
(b) Drug allergy
(c) Vaso vagal shock
(d) Drug entering into sub archnoid space
Ans: (d)
228. A 20 year old male patient met with motor vehicle accident and sustained head injuries. BP- 90/60 mmHg, Pulse rate – 150/min. All the following anesthetic agents are avoided for induction except
(a) Thiopentone
(b) Halothane
(c) Succinylcholine
(d) Ketamine
Ans: (a)
229. A child with intestinal obstruction and deranged LFT. Anesthetic agent of choice is
(a) Halothane
(b) Enflurane
(c) Isoflurane
(d) Sevoflurane
Ans: (d)
230. A 25 years old primi with mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation wants a normal delivery. The appropriate analgesia is
(a) Inhalational analgesia
(b) Spinal anesthesia
(c) Neuro axial block analgesia
(d) IV opioids
Ans: (c)
231. True regarding hypothermia during anesthesia
(a) Body may lose heat by conduction
(b) Beneficial to patients in some conditions
(c) Always occur irrespective of the type of anaesthesia
(d) Prevented by given warm fluids
Ans: (b)
RADIODIAGNOSIS & RADIOTHERAPY
Principle used in radiotherapy
(a) Double-stranded breaks of nuclear DNA
(b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
(c) Inhibition of peroxisomes
(d) Activation of caspases
Ans: (a)
233. Gamma camera is used in radiotherapy to
(a) Monitor surface contamination
(b) Measures radioactivity
(c) Organ imaging
(d) Radio immune assay
Ans: (b)
234. A patient presents with a tumor of 4 cms in his left parietal lobe. Patient underwent surgery and radiotherapy. After 2 months, he develops headache and vomiting. The investigation of choice for this condition is
(b) Digital Subtraction Angiography with dual source CT
(c) Gadolinium enhanced MRI
(d) 18-FDG PET scan
Ans: (d)
235. A patient with Hodgkin’s disease undergoes mantle field radio therapy. Several months later he complains that on flexion or extension of neck, an electric shock phenomenon is felt down the back and limbs. This is called as
(a) Uthoff’s sign
(b) Cervical arthritis
(c) Malignant spinal cord compression
(d) Lhermitte’s sign
Ans: (d)
236. Bone scan in multiple myeloma shows
(a) Cold nodule
(b) Hot nodule
(c) Diffusely increased uptake
(d) Diffusely decreased uptake
Ans: (a)
237. Stereo tactic radio surgery is form of
(a) Cryotherapy
(b) Radiotherapy
(c) Robotic therapy
(d) Radio iodine Therapy
Ans: (b)
238. 68 years old male patient referred by a general practitioner with detoriated hypertension and renal function. His serum creatanine is 4.5, mild proteinuria +. Renal USG shows left kidney 9 cm and right kidney 7 cm in length (normal length 10 cm). There was no obstruction. Investigation is
(a) MR angiography
(b) Isotope renogram
(c) Intravenous renography
(d) Retrograde pyelography
Ans: (b)
239. Radiological features indicating increased pulmonary blood flow are all except
(a) Kerley B lines
(b) Pulmonary artery diameter more than 6mm
(c) Diameter of two peripheral arteries greater than accompanying bronchi
(d) More than 6 blood vessels in outer 1/3rd
Ans: (c)
DERMATOLOGY
240. The peculiar hue of Mongolian spots in new born is due to dermal location of melanin containing melanocytes that are presumably arrested in their migration from neural crest to epidermis. The arrest occurs at the level of
(a) Neural crest to melanocytosis
(b) Low dermal melanocytosis
(c) High dermal melanocytosis
(d) Mid dermal melanocytosis
Ans: (b)
241. Syndromic management of urethral discharge includes the treatment of
(a) Syphilis and chancroid
(b) Neisseria gonorrhea and herpes geniatalis
(c) Nesseria gonorrhea and chlaymdia trachomatis
(d) Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis
Ans: (c)
242. A 16 year old male in dermatology OPD presents with a history of hair loss on scalp. His past medical history includes atopic eczema and he has a number of depigmented areas on the hands. Diagnosis is
(a) Hypothyrodism
(b) SLE
(c) Seborrheic dermatitis
(d) Alpecia areata
Ans: (d)
PSYCHIATRY
243. Perception in the absence of external stimulus is called as
(a) Illusion
(b) Delusion
(c) Hallucination
(d) Malingering
Ans: (c)
244. Intentional production of symptoms by a patient for obvious and tangible goals is seen in
(a) Malingering
(b) Conversion disorder
(c) Adjustment disorder
(d) Factitious disorder
Ans: (a)
245. True regarding pathological grief reaction is
(a) No psychiatric treatment is required
(b) Normal response to los of loved ones
(c) Universal phenomenon
(d) Lasts more than six months
Ans: (d)
246. True regarding puerperal psychosis
(a) Begins 2nd week of postpartum
(b) Recurrence in subsequent pregnancies
(c) Good prognosis
(d) Insidious onset
Ans: (b)
247. Strong urge to u se a drug in a person with substance misuse disorder is
1. The collecting duct of permanent kidneys develop from
(a) Mesonnephros
(b) Metanephros
(c) Pronephros
(d) Urteric acid
Ans: (d)
2. True regarding epithelial cells
(a) The lining cells of urinary tract has goblet cells
(b) Gives rise to sebaceous glands of the scalp
(c) Lining the respiratory tract are keratinized
(d) Surrounded by a single layer of membranes
Ans: (d)
3. Actual arterial anastomosis are seen in all except
(a) Labial branches of facial artery
(b) Intercostal arteries
(c) Cortical branches of cerebral arteries
(d) Uterine and ovarian artery anastomosis
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Ans: (c)
4. Cells of Claudius is seen in
(a) Parenchyma of parathyroid
(b) Canal of schleiim
(c) Organ of Corti
(d) Alveolar duct of lungs
Ans: (c)
5. Part of large intestine with smallest diameter is
(a) Ascending colon
(b) Descending colon
(c) Transverse colon
(d) Sigmoid colon
Ans: (b)
6. True regarding ligament of Treitz are all except
(a) Part of dorsal mesogastrium
(b) Is an important radiological landmark for intestinal malrotation
(c) Dudenojejunal flexure is suspended here
(d) Contain suspensory muscle of duodenum
Ans: (a)
7. Mesorectum contains all except
(a) Branch of inferior mesenteric plexus
(b) Inferior rectal artery
(c) Middle rectal vein
(d) Para rectal lymph nodes
Ans: (b)
8. Fibres traversing through H2 band of Forel
(a) Ansa lenticularis
(b) Thalamic fasciculus
(c) Subthalamic fasciculus
(d) Fasciculus lenticularis
Ans: (d)
9. 5th cranial nerve-true are all except
(a) Parasympathetic innervations to salivary glands
(b) Sensory supply to whole face
(c) Arises from midbrain
(d) Innervates the muscles of mastication
Ans: (a)
10. Abductor of vocal cord is
(a) Posterior cricoarytenoid
(b) Criconthyroid
(c) Interarytenoid
(d) Lateral criarytenoid
Ans: (a)
11. Extraocular muscles supplied by oculomotor nerve are all except
(a) Inferior oblique
(b) Inferior rectus
(c) Superior rectus
(d) Superior oblique
Ans: (d)
12. Inferior tympani artery is a branch of
(a) Stylomastoid artery
(b) Posterior auricular artery
(c) Ascending pharyngeal artery
(d) Middle meningeal artery
Ans: (c)
PHYSIOLOGY
13. Normal plasma osmolality in terms of mmHG
(a) 285-295
(b) 310-340
(c) 260-275
(d) 270-285
Ans: (a)
14. Electrical synapse among the following is
(a) Gap junctions
(b) Tight junction
(c) Anchoring junction
(d) Neuromuscular junction
Ans: (a)
15. Proprioception is carried by
(a) Aα
(b) Aβ
(c) Aγ
(d) Aδ
Ans: (a)
16. Neuropraxia is defined as
(a) Physical blockade of conduction
(b) Complete division of nerve trunk
(c) Axonal interruption
(d) Partial division of nerve trunk
Ans: (a)
17. Blood nerve barrier is formed by
(a) Endoneurium
(b) Epineurium
(c) Perineurium
(d) Cytoplasm of Schwann cells
Ans: (c)
18. Lateral spinothalamic tract of spinal cord
(a) Transmits contralateral light touch
(b) Stratifies form fibres of lower spinal region innermost
(c) Carries pain sensation from same side
(d) Crosses from the thalamus to the contralateral parietal lobe
Ans: (b)
19. True regarding receptors are all except
(a) Meissner’s corpuscles are present in hairy skin
(b) Merkel’s disc is involved in localization of touch
(c) Hair end organs detect the movement of objects in body surface
(d) Pacinian corpuscles adapt quickly
Ans: (a)
20. Identify the true statement regarding haemoglobin:
(a) One molecule of Hb binds with 2 molecules of 2, 3 BPG
(b) Carboxyhemoglobin shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right
(c) Affinity of oxygen fro haemoglobin decreases as the saturation increases
(d) Affinity for oxygen remains same if BhA and HbF are sripped of 2, 3BPG
Ans: (d)
21. Partial pressure of carbondioxide in expired air
(a) 32 mmHg
(b) 46 mmHg
(c) 40 mmHg
(d) 50 mmHg
Ans: (a)
22. Partial pressure of carbondioxide is least in
(a) Capillary blood
(b) Alveolar air
(c) Arterial blood
(d) Expired blood
Ans: (d)
23. Insulin secretion is stimulated by all except
(a) Amino acids
(b) Glucagon
(c) Hypokalemia
(d) Ketoacids
Ans: (c)
24. Insulin independent glucose uptake occurs in
(a) Liver
(b) Skeletal muscle
(c) Heart
(d) Adipose tissue
Ans: (a)
25. Basal metabolic rate is increased by all except
(a) Hypothyroidism
(b) Cold
(c) Fever
(d) Pregnancy
Ans: (a)
26. Most common metabolite of progesterone excreted in urine
(a) Pregnenolone
(b) Pregnanediol
(c) Pregnanetriol
(d) 17 hydroxy pregnenolone
Ans: (b)
27. Feature seen immediately after lying down
(a) Increased cerebral blood flow
(b) Immediate increase in venous return to the heart
(c) Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex
(d) No change in heart rate
Ans: (b)
BIOCHEMISTRY
28. Correct statement regarding enzyme kinetics
(a) Non competitive inhibition results in decreased Km
(b) Non competitive inhibition results in increased Km
(c) High Km value reflects high substrate affinity
(d) Low Km value reflects high substrate affinity
Ans: (d)
29. Identify the ligase among the following
(a) Enolase
(b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Fatty acid coA synthase
(d) Acetyl coA carboxylase
Ans: (d)
30. True regarding mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation system- are all except
(a) Oligomycin inhibits the H+ channel
(b) Aspirin uncouples the oxidation from phosphorylation
(c) Cyanide inhibits electron flow but not the ATP synthesis
(d) Atractyloside depletes intramitochondrial ADP pool
Ans: (c)
31. Enzymes involved in substrate level phosphorylation are all except
(a) Phosphofructokinase
(b) Pyruvate kinase
(c) Phosphoglycerate kinase
(d) Succinate thiokinase
Ans: (a)
32. Enzyme absent in muscles
(a) Enolase-B
(b) Thioporase
(c) Glycogen phosphorylase
(d) Glucose-6 phosphatase
Ans: (d)
33. Ketone bodies are utilized by all except
(a) RBCs
(b) Brain
(c) Liver
(d) Heart
Ans: (c)
34. Lipoprotein-A is in structural homology to
(a) Albumin
(b) Prothrombin
(c) Collagen
(d) Plasminogen
Ans: (d)
35. Injection of heparin releases
(a) Lipoprotein lipase
(b) Insulin
(c) Alkaline phosphatase
(d) Nitric oxide
Ans: (a)
36. Reverse transcriptase among the following is
(a) Telomerase
(b) RNA polymerase-II
(c) DNA polymerase α
(d) Topoisomerase
Ans: (a)
37. True regarding telomerase
(a) Not expressed in stem cells
(b) Used by DNA templates for nucleotide addition
(c) Cleaves RNA at 5’ end
(d) Acts as a reverse transcriptase
Ans: (d)
PHARMACOLOGY
38. Aim of loading dose is to achieve
(a) Target concentration rapidly
(b) Attain supramaximal effect
(c) Maximum receptor stimulation
(d) Drug delivery at the site of action
Ans: (a)
39. Drug crossing blood brain barrier are all except
(a) Atropine
(b) Glycopyrrolate
(c) Hyoscine butyl bromide
(d) Hyoscine hydroxyl bromide
Ans: (b)
40. Betablocker with membrane stabilizing activity
(a) Atenolol
(b) Metoprolol
(c) Esmolol
(d) Sotalol
Ans: (b)
41. Betablocker with additional antioxidant property
(a) Celiprolol
(b) Carvedilol
(c) Bisaprolol
(d) Betaxolol
Ans: (b)
42. The cornerstone pharmacological therapy in heart failure includes all except
(a) Antiplatelet agents
(b) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
(c) Diuretics
(d) Beta blockers
Ans: (a)
43. Anti-arrhythmic agent of choice during resuscitation of a cardiac arrest, ventricular fibrillation and initial unsuccessful defibrillation is
(a) Amiodarone
(b) Procainamide
(c) Lignocaine
(d) Verpamil
Ans: (a)
44. The pleiotropic effects of stains are all except
(a) Stability of plaques
(b) Anti-inflammatory effects
(c) Improvement in endothelial function
(d) Decreased LDL levels
Ans: (d)
45. 8 year old child presenting with heterozygous familial cholesterolemia. Drug of choice is
(a) Simvastatin
(b) Atorvastatin
(c) Pravastatin
(d) Lovastatin
Ans: (c)
46. The antiplatelet drug which is not a prodrug
(a) Clopidogrel
(b) Ticlopidine
(c) Prasugrel
(d) Ticagrelor
Ans: (d)
47. Capillary leak syndrome occurs as an adverse effect in treatment with
(a) G-CSF
(b) GM-CSF
(c) Filgrastim
(d) Pegfilgrastim
Ans: (b)
48. Thiazide diuretic ineffective at GFT<30-40 ml/min are all except
(a) Metolazone
(b) Bendroflumethiazide
(c) Chlorthiazide
(d) Chlrothalidone
Ans: (a)
49. Alkalinsation of urine is the treatment of choice for poisoning with
(a) Morphine
(b) Digoxin
(c) Amphetamines
(d) Phenobarbitone
Ans: (d)
50. A 70 year old female patient on treatment with alendronate for osteoporosis develops pain in right thigh. Investigation of choice is
(a) X ray
(b) DEXA scan
(c) Serum alkaline phosphatase
(d) Serum vitamin D levels
Ans: (b)
51. Hypothyroidism is caused by
(a) Propranalol
(b) Propafenone
(c) Amiodarone
(d) Quinine
Ans: (c)
52. Replacement drug for valproate in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy to be given as monotherapy
(a) Lacosamide
(b) Levetiracetam
(c) Carbmazepine
(d) Phenytoin
Ans: (b)
53. A patient on disulfiram therapy consumes alcohol. All the features are seen except
(a) Nausea
(b) Vomiting
(c) Flushing
(d) Hypertension
Ans: (d)
54. Pharmacotherapy decreasing mortality in COPD
(a) Oxygen
(b) Beta agonist
(c) Theophylline
(d) Oral glucocorticoids
Ans: (a)
55. Drug that has toxic side effect on the retina
(a) Hydroxychloroquine
(b) Vigabatrin
(c) Terbinafine
(d) Aceclofenac
Ans: (a)
56. The antifungal drug flucanozole acts by inhibiting the
(a) Mycolic acid
(b) Peptidoglycan
(c) Ergosterol
(d) Microtubules
Ans: (c)
57. The anti retroviral drug which acts as a fusion inhibitor
(a) Atazanavir
(b) Emtricitabiine
(c) Enfuvirtide
(d) Elvitegravir
Ans: (c)
58. Aseptic meningitis is caused by
(a) Doxorubicin
(b) Cisplatin
(c) Intrathecal dexamethasone
(d) Intratheacal methotrexate
Ans: (d)
59. Lenalidomide increased the risk of thrombeoembolic events when combined with
(a) Barbiturates
(b) Anti psychotics
(c) Alcohol
(d) Glucocorticoids
Ans: (d)
60. The chelating agent used in chelating aluminium for hemo dialysis patients
(a) Succimer
(b) Desferrioxamine
(c) Dimercaprol
(d) Penicillamine
Ans: (b)
61. True regarding iodine therapy are all except
(a) Contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
(b) Inhibits thyroxine release
(c) Can lead to iodism
(d) Inhibits the synthesis of iodotyrosine ad iodothyronine
Ans: (a)
MICROBIOLOGY
62. All are Koch’s postulates except
(a) A micro-organism should be constantly associated with the lesion of the disease
(b) It should be possible to isolate the bacterium in pure culture from the lesions
(c) Inoculation of such pure culture into laboratory animals should reproduce the lesions
(d) Administration of broad spectrum antimicrobial agent dependably eradicates the organism and cures the diseases
Ans: (d)
63. All the following are true regarding exotoxin except:
(a) Highly antigenic
(b) Heat stable
(c) Neutralized by antibody
(d) Active in very minute doses
Ans: (b)
64. Movement of DNA from one bacteria to another through connectin tube or pilus is called
(a) Transformation
(b) Transduction
(c) Conjugation
(d) Lysogenic conversion
Ans: (c)
65. Endoscopes are sterilized by
(a) Gluteraldehyde
(b) Formaldehyde
(c) Iodine
(d) Phenol
Ans: (a)
66. Craigie’s tube method is used to differentiate
(a) Motile and nonmotile strains
(b) Virulent and avirulent strains
(c) Capsulated and noncapsulated strains
(d) Rough and smooth strains
Ans: (a)
67. The Ig which activates alternative complement pathway
(a) IgG
(b) IgE
(c) IgA
(d) IgM
Ans: (c)
68. The following is not a live vaccine
(a) Measles
(b) BCG
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Salk’s vaccine
Ans: (d)
69. Null cells that lack characteristics of B or T cells constitute what percentage of peripheral lymphocytes
(a) 0-1
(b) 2-3
(c) 5-10
(d) 15-20
Ans: (c)
70. An adult develops swelling of tongue and neck after ingestion of peanut, Diagnosis
(a) Angioneurotic edema
(b) Foreign body larynx
(c) Parapharyngeal abscess
(d) Foreign body nose
Ans: (a)
71. Type II lepra reaction is an example hypersensitivity type
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Ans: (c)
72. Allograft rejection is an example of
(a) GVHD
(b) Delayed (cell mediated) hypersensitivity
(c) Immediate hypersensitivity
(d) Acute rejection
Ans: (b)
73. All the following are true about Staphylococcus aureus except
(a) Coagulase positive
(b) Catalase negative
(c) DNAse positive
(d) Indole negative
Ans: (b)
74. Infection that can be acquired in laboratories
(a) Brucellosis
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Pertusssis
(d) Melioidosis
Ans: (a)
75. All the following bacteria are motile except
(a) Salmonella
(b) Klebsiella
(c) Citrobacter
(d) Escherichia
Ans: (b)
76. All are true Salmonella typhi except
(a) Indole negative
(b) Produce H2S
(c) Produce acid and gas from glucose
(d) Citrate positive
Ans: (c)
77. Frie’s test is done for
(a) LGV
(b) Donovanosis
(c) Syphilis
(d) Herpes simplex
Ans: (a)
78. HIV affects
(a) B cells
(b) Helper T cell
(c) Suppressor T cells
(d) Cytotoxic T Cells
Ans: (b)
79. Which part of brain is not commonly affected in HIV encephalitis?
(a) Hippocampus
(b) Subcortical white matter
(c) Diencephalon
(d) Brainstem
Ans: (a)
80. Burkitt lymphoma is caused by
(a) EBV
(b) HPV
(c) CMV
(d) VZV
Ans: (a)
81. Infectious mononucleosis affects
(a) T cells
(b) B cells
(c) NK cells
(d) Macrophages
Ans: (b)
82. A 2 year old child presents with maculopapular rash 24 hours after the onset of mild fever. There was prominent Erythema over the cheek. The causative organism also causes
(a) CML
(b) ALL
(c) DIC
(d) Pure red cell aplasia
Ans: (d)
83. Negri bodies are abundant in the following cells of CNS except
(a) Subcortical white matter
(b) Purkinje cells of cerebellum
(c) Hippocampus
(d) Basal ganglia
Ans: (a)
84. Mansonoides mosquito is a vector for
(a) Chikungunya fever
(b) Dengue fever
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Bancroftian filariasis
Ans: (a)
85. The following disease is not caused by fungi
(a) Kerion
(b) Favus
(c) Mycosis fungoides
(d) Pityrosporum folliclulitis
Ans: (c)
86. Espundia is due to
(a) Leishmaniasis
(b) Lymphogranuloma venerum
(c) Endemic syphilis
(d) Dnonvanosis
Ans: (a)
PATHOLOGY
87. The following is not an adhesion molecule
(a) Spectrin
(b) Integrins
(c) Selectin
(d) Cadherin
Ans: (a)
88.The following chemical mediator of inflammation is not cell derived
(a) Leukotriences
(b) Kinins
(c) Cytokines
(d) Prostaglandins
Ans: (b)
89. Synovial aspiration from a patient with arthritis shows many lymphocytes, plasma cells and few histiocytes. Diagnosis
(a) Acute inflammation
(b) Chronic inflammation
(c) Granulomatous inflammation
(d) Suppurative inflammation
Ans: (b)
90. A patient with nephritic syndrome presents with ascites and pitting edema of legs. The mechanism by which fluid accumulates in the peritoneum and legs
(a) Lymphatic obstruction
(b) Increased hydrostatic pressure
(c) Increased vascular permeability
(d) Decreased plasma osmotic pressure
Ans: (d)
91.True statement about Autosomal dominant inheritance
(a) New mutations seem to occur in the germ cells of relatively older males
(b) Complete penetrance seen
(c) Manifestations early in life
(d) New mutations occur in germ cells rarely
Ans: (a)
92. Globoid cells in the parenchyma around blood vessels is characteristic of
(a) Krabbe’s
(b) Canavan disease
(c) Adrenoleukodystrophy
(d) Sandhoff’s disease
Ans: (a)
93. In a patient with lead positing, bone marrow contains
(a) Ringed sideroblasts
(b) Giant metamyelocytes
(c) Dwarf megakaryocytes
(d) Fibrotic changes
Ans: (a)
94. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is differentiated from Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) by
(a) Presence of Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
(b) Presence of renal failure
(c) Absence of neurologic symptoms
(d) Absence of fever
Ans: (d)
95. Maternal blood and fetal blood in a sample can be differentiated b y
(a) Osmotic fragility test
(b) Kleihauer Betke test
(c) APT test
(d) Bubble test
Ans: (c)
96. Reagent used in Apt test
(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Sodium acetate
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: (a)
97. Severe Hereditary spherocytosis is seen due to the defect of the following protein
(a) Spectrin
(b) Ankyrin
(c) Band 3
(d) Band 4.2
Ans: (a)
98. A patient presents with bone pain. X ray shows destructive bone lesions. Laboratory examination shows hypercalcemia. Serum electrophoresis shows M spike. 35% cellularity fo marrow is constituted by plasma cells. Diagnosis
(a) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
(b) Smouldering myeloma
(c) Multiple myeloma
(d) Plasma cell leukemia
Ans: (c)
99. In bronchial asthma, bronchi and bronchioles are occluded with shed epithelium forming a thick mucus called
(a) Curschmann spirals
(b) Council man bodies
(c) Creola bodies
(d) Charcot-Leyden crystals
Ans: (a)
100. Which of the following is not a skin manifestation of Sarcoidosis
(a) Lupus perinio
(b) Erythema nodosum
(c) Urticaria pigmentosa
(d) Keloid formation
Ans: (c)
101. A hyperplastic mass containing Neuroendocrine cells in an area of chronic inflammation and scared tissue of lung
(a) Carcinoid
(b) Tumorlet
(c) Hamartoma
(d) Teratoma
Ans: (b)
102. Good pasture syndrome, an autoimmune disease, presenting with hemorrhage in lungs and renal disease is due to autoantibodies against
(a) Collagen type I
(b) Collagen type II
(c) Collagen type III
(d) Collagen type IV
Ans: (d)
103. The following is not a marker of melanoma
(a) S-100
(b) MITF
(c) CK-20
(d) Vimentin
Ans: (c)
104. Immunohistochemical marker of rhabdomyocsarcoma
(a) Desmin
(b) Vimentin
(c) Cytokeratin
(d) Neurofilament
Ans: (a)
FORENSIC MEDICINE
105. Magistrate inquest in India is conducted for all the following conditions except
(a) Exhumation
(b) Custody death
(c) Homicide
(d) Dowry death
Ans: (c)
106. Tattoo mark was described by immediate relatives of a deceased. But it is not found on autopsy. The evidence of the tattoo mark can be obtained from
(a) Adjacent subcutaneous tissues
(b) Adjacent fat tissues
(c) Adjacent lymph nodes
(d) Underlying muscles
Ans: (c)
107. Which of the following organ decomposes late
(a) Brain
(b) Heart
(c) Prostate
(d) Liver
Ans: (c)
108. A child sustained burns in front and back of both thighs and buttocks, face and scalp with singeing of hair. Calculate the percentage of burns
(a) 27
(b) 32
(c) 34
(d) 45
Ans: (b)
109. A pedestrian was hit by fast moving vehicle on leg and thrown away. He hit the road divider and fell down on the road and sustained head injuries. He was run over by a car moving on the opposite direction. The head injuries sustained b y the patient are example of
(a) Primary impact injuries
(b) Primary injuries
(c) Secondary impact injuries
(d) Secondary injuries
Ans: (d)
110. Which bone is involved in Hinge fracture?
(a) Skull
(b) Femur
(c) Vertebrae
(d) Pelvis
Ans: (a)
111. In India, Medical termination of pregnancy is permitted upto
(a) 20 weeks
(b) 22 weeks
(c) 28 weeks
(d) Before viability of the fetus
Ans: (a)
112. Bitten fruit from the scene of crime is preserved in
(a) Saline
(b) 10% Formalin
(c) Glacial acetic acid
(d) Metabisulfite solutions
Ans: (d)
113. Red velvety appearance of stomach is seen in the following poisoning
(a) Arsenic
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Organophosphate
(d) Datura fastuosa
Ans: (a)
114. Extract from the following poison resembles viper venom
(a) Abrus precatorius
(b) Semecarpus anacardium
(c) Plumbago rosea
(d) Croton tiglium
Ans: (a)
115. Not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy
(a) Tinnitus
(b) Global confusion
(c) Ataxia
(d) Ophthalmoplegia
Ans: (a)
ENT
116. The opening of auditory tube is present in which part of middle ear
(a) Anterior wall
(b) Posterior wall
(c) Medial wall
(d) Lateral wall
Ans: (a)
117. The threshold for the frequencies 500, 1000 and 2000 in PTA is 45 dB. The degree of hearing loss is
(a) Mild
(b) Moderate
(c) Severe
(d) No hearing loss
Ans: (b)
118. A Pregnant woman presents with complaints of deafness. What type of curve will be obtained in Impedance audiometry (Tympanometry)?
(a) Ad
(b) As
(c) B
(d) C
Ans: (b)
119. Minimum gestational period after which the auditory evoke potential is significant
(a) 16
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 28
Ans: (d)
120. Sinuses that are present at birth
(a) Maxillary and Frontal
(b) Maxillary and Ethmoid
(c) Maxillary and Sphenoid
(d) Ethmoid and Sphenoid
Ans: (b)
121. The following structure is not a part of ethmoid bone
(a) Uncinate process
(b) Inferior turbinate
(c) Agar nasi
(d) Bulla ethmoidalis
Ans: (b)
122. An elderly female presents with nasal block, nasal discharge, diplopia and facial swelling. On examination, there was blackish discharge from the nasal cavity with necrosis of nasal mucosa, palate and fixation of right globe. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated blood sugar levels and urine ketones. Drug of choice
(a) III generation cephalosporins
(b) Ketoconazole
(c) Itraconazole
(d) Amphotericin-B
Ans: (d)
123. Retropharyngeal space extends from
(a) Skull base to tracheal bifurcation (T4)
(b) Skull base to diaphragm
(c) Skull base to hyoid bone
(d) Skull base to C6 vertebrae
Ans: (a)
124. Find the false statement about tonsillectomy
(a) Extracapsular tonsillectomy is done with cold knife
(b) Enlarged adenoids can be removed along with tonsillectomy
(c) Grisel syndrome is common
(d) Enlarged tonsils even without symptoms should be removed because it may occlude airway and cause apnea
Ans: (c, d)
125. Stage of glottis cancer confined to larynx with vocal cord fixation
(a) T1
(b) T2
(c) T3
(d) T4
Ans: (c)
OPTHALMOLOGY
126. Angle of the anterior chamber is measured by
(a) Gonioscopy
(b) Skiascopy
(c) Tonometry
(d) Ophthalmoscopy
Ans: (a)
127. Soft contact lens is made of
(a) Poly-methyl methacrylate
(b) hydroxyl-ethylmethacrylate
(c) Methylcellulose
(d) Silicone
Ans: (b)
128. Vertically oval pupil is seen in
(a) Uveitis
(b) Primary open angle glaucoma
(c) Acute angle closure glaucoma
(d) Neovascular glaucoma
Ans: (c)
129. Rosette cataract is seen in
(a) Ocular trauma
(b) Wilson’s disease
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Steroid therapy
Ans: (a)
130. Iridotomy is done using
(a) CO2 laser
(b) Argon laser
(c) Nd: YAG laser
(d) Excimer laser
Ans: (c)
131. The following is not a feature of vitreous hemorrhage
(a) Sudden loss of vision
(b) Floaters
(c) Metamorphopsia
(d) Absence of fundal glow
Ans: (d)
132. Retinal tamponade is done by which gas
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Ethylene oxide
(d) Sulfur hexafluoride
Ans: (d)
133. Vision is not affected in
(a) Berlin’s edema
(b) Uveitis
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Papilledema
Ans: (d)
PREVENTIVE & SOCIAL MEDICINE
134. All are true about point source epidemic except:
(a) All cases in occur within a single incubation period
(b) Clustering of cases
(c) Rapid rise and gradual fall of epidemic curve
(d) No secondary curves
Ans: (c)
135. Prevention of childhood obesity is an example of
(a) Primordial prevention
(b) Primary prevention
(c) Secondary prevention
(d) Tertiary prevention
Ans: (a)
136. The following is an example of metazoonoses
(a) Rabies
(b) Taeniasis
(c) Plague
(d) Brucellosis
Ans: (c)
137. True statement about Case control study
(a) Proceeds from cause to effect
(b) To study rare disease
(c) High cost
(d) Involves large number of individuals
Ans: (b)
138. Recruitment of ASHA in NRHM is an example of
(a) Intersectoral coordination
(b) Community participation
(c) Appropriate technology
(d) Equitable distribution
Ans: (b)
139. The best criteria to assess quality of protein
(a) Biological value
(b) Net protein utilization
(c) Digestability co-efficient
(d) Protein-Energy ratio
Ans: (b)
140. Most abundant element in nature
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Calcium
(c) Iodine
(d) Fluorine
Ans: (d)
141. RDA of iron during lactation (milligrams/day)
(a) 17
(b) 21
(c) 27
(d) 35
Ans: (b)
142. International food standard are based on
(a) AGMARK standards
(b) Codex alimentarius
(c) Bureau of Indian standards
(d) PFA standards
Ans: (b)
143. Wastes sharps are disposed in what colour bin
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) Black
(d) Blue
Ans: (d)
144. All the following are tests of significance except
(a) Standard error of mean
(b) Standard error of proportion
(c) Standard deviation
(d) Chi square test
Ans: (c)
145. The 5 the Millennium developmental goals (2015) aims to reduce MMR to
(a) 50 per 10000 live births
(b) 80 per 10000 live births
(c) 110per 10000 live births
(d) 125 per 10000 live births
Ans: (c)
MEDICINE
146. Earliest serum biomarker to increase after MI
(a) Creatine kinase
(b) Troponin I
(c) Troponin T
(d) Myoglobin
Ans: (d)
147. All the following features increase the risk of sudden death in HOCM except
(a) Left ventricular wall thickness > 30 mm
(b) History of syncope
(c) Spontaneous sustained VT
(d) Triple apical impulse
Ans: (d)
148. The following is not a feature of benign cardiac murmur
(a) Systolic murmur
(b) Diastolic murmur
(c) Soft quality
(d) Position dependent
Ans: () answer is not found
149. Not an ECG feature in Hyperkalemia
(a) Widened QRS complex
(b) Peaked T waves
(c) Absent P waves
(d) Prominent U waves
Ans: (d)
150. All the following are ECG features in Ventricular Tachycardia except
(a) Capture beats
(b) AV dissociation
(c) Extreme right axis deviation
(d) Very broad QRS complex
Ans: (c)
151. Vocal resonance is increased in
(a) Empymea thoracis
(b) Fibrosing alveolitis
(c) Primary tuberculosis
(d) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Ans: (c)
152. A 55 year old male, a chronic smoker, with obesity and diabetes with BP 180/100 was on smoking cessation. He had more than 5 apnes/hypoapnea in 1 hour. The next appropriate step in the management
(a) Uvulopalatopharyngeoplasty
(b) CPAP
(c) Diet and weight reduction
(d) Mandibular splint
Ans: (b)
153. Protein accumulated in the brain of Alzheimer’s disease patients
(a) Tau
(b) Alph synuclein
(c) Beta amyloid
(d) PrPSC
Ans: (a)
154. Expected feature in Horner’s syndrome
(a) Complete ptosis
(b) Excessive facial sweating
(c) Pupillary constriction
(d) Exophthalmos
Ans: (c)
155. Palpable purpura is seen in all except
(a) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
(b) Drug induced vasculitis
(c) Giant cell arteritis
(d) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Ans: (c)
156. Most common artery involved in Takayasu arteritis
(a) Subclavian
(b) Carotid
(c) Renal
(d) Abdominal aorta
Ans: (a)
157. Hypocalcemia is seen due to all the following conditions except
(a) Hypoparathyroidism
(b) Prolonged tourniquet application before drawing blood
(c) Collection of blood in EDTA vials
(d) Alkalosis
Ans: (b)
158. All the following cause high anion gap acidosis except
(a) Diarrhea
(b) Lactic acidosis
(c) Salicylate poisoning
(d) Renal failure
Ans: (a)
159. Even after screening of blood before transfusion, post transfusion hepatitis is common because
(a) Most cases of post transfusion hepatitis are caused by hepatitis C virus
(b) Most hepatitis B carriers do not have detectable HbS antigen in serum
(c) Available tests are not sensitive to detect HbS antigen
(d) Most cases of post transfusion hepatitis are caused by CMV
Ans: (b)
SURGERY
160. Nerve affected in sentinel node biopsy in breast cancer
(a) Intercostobrachial nerve
(b) Long thoracic nerve
(c) Nerve to Latissimus dorsi
(d) Lateral pectoral nerve
Ans: (a)
161. All the following are features of thyrotoxicosis except
(a) Hyperactivity
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Hair loss
(d) Palpitations
Ans: (c)
162. True statement about follicular carcinoma of thyroid
(a) Hemtaogenous spread
(b) Multi focal
(c) Readily diagnosed by FNAC
(d) Most common tumor of thyroid
Ans: (c)
163. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
(a) Most cases are familial
(b) Arise from C cells
(c) Secretes high levels of calcitonin
(d) TSH independent
Ans: (a)
164. Hot spot in Tc99 scan is seen in the parotid tumor
(a) Adenocarcinoma
(b) Adenolymphoma
(c) Adenocystic carcinoma
(d) Acinar cell carcinoma
Ans: (b)
165. Investigation of choice for H type Tracheo-esophageal fistula
(a) Tracheobronchoscopy
(b) Oesophagoscopy
(c) CT scan
(d) X-ray
Ans: (d)
166. Most common benign tumor of esophagus
(a) Squamous papilloma
(b) Hyperplastic polyp
(c) Leiomyoma
(d) Hemangioma
Ans: (c)
167. The neoadjuvant chemotherapeutic agent used in oesophageal cancer
(a) Mitomycin
(b) Doxorubicin
(c) Cisplatin
(d) 5-Flurouracil
Ans: (c)
168. All the following are true regarding H pylori gastritis except
(a) Intraepithelial neutrophilic infiltration
(b) Subepithelial plasma cell infiltration
(c) Intestinal metoplasia
(d) H.pylori commonly found in the region of gastric intestinal metaplasia
Ans: (d)
169. Intussusception is caused by
(a) Submucous lipoma
(b) Subfacial lipoma
(c) Subserous lipoma
(d) Any of the above
Ans: (a)
170. True regarding management of Crohn’s disease
(a) Glucocorticoids should not be given in acute phase
(b) Antibiotics should be avoided as much as possible
(c) Sulfasalazine decreases risk of acute intestinal obstruction
(d) Cholestyramine decreases diarrhea but increases steatorrhea
Ans: (d)
171. Most common immediate complication of ileostomy
(a) Necrosis
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Prolapse
(d) Obstruction
Ans: (a)
172. All the following are features of acute pancreatitis except
(a) Increased amylase
(b) Hypocalcemia
(c) Hypoglycemia
(d) Leukocytosis
Ans: (c)
173. A patient presents with desmoids tumor. He should be screened for
(a) Lung cancer
(b) Breast cancer
(c) Pancreatic cancer
(d) Colonic polyps
Ans: (d)
174. Asymptomatic bacteriuria need not be treated in the following patient
(a) Patient with urinary catheter
(b) Patient undergoing urologic surgery
(c) Pregnant woman
(d) Renal transplant recipients
Ans: (a)
175. Not an USG feature of acute Pyelonephritis
(a) Increased vascularity
(b) Focal area of hypo-echogenicity
(c) Perinephric collection (pus in perinephric space)
(d) Enlarged kidney
Ans: (a)
176. An elderly male presents with a solitary lymph node enlargement measuring 4-5 cm on the lateral side of neck. Biopsy reveals a squamous cell carcinoma. Immunohistochemistry cannot reveal the primary tumor suggesting, carcinoma of unknown primary. The staging of this tumor is
(a) TX N2 M1
(b) T0 N2 MX
(c) T0 N2 M1
(d) T1 N2 MX
Ans: (b)
177. Most common organ involved in blunt trauma in children
(a) Spleen
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Small intestine
Ans: (b)
178. A patient brought with H/O road traffic accident with low PO2m with injury to chest and ribs. Mode USG showed stratosphere sign. Diagnosis
(a) Pulmonary embolism
(b) Pneumothorax
(c) Cardiac tamponade
(d) Hemothorax
Ans: (b)
179. Damage control surgery is
(a) Maximum intervention done during the first attempt
(b) Controlling damage during surgery
(c) Minimal intervention done first followed by full procedure after the patient is hemodynamically stable
(d) Can lead to further injury
Ans: (c)
180. MC type of malignant melanoma
(a) Superficial spreading melanoma
(b) Lentigo maligna
(c) Nodular melanoma
(d) Acral lentiginous melanoma
Ans: (a)
181. Not a complication of total parenteral nutrition
(a) Hyperammonemia
(b) Hyperphosphatemia
(c) Hypercholesterolemia
(d) Neutrophil dysfunction
Ans: (d)
PEDIATRICS
182 Percentage of sucrose fro analgesia in newborns
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 50
Ans: (c)
183. A child searching for a hidden object persistently (Lack of object permanence) at the age of
(a) 2 months
(b) 5 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 12 months
Ans: (a)
184. The most important finding in a child presenting with respiratory infection
(a) Grunting
(b) Tachypnea
(c) Stridor
(d) Chest indrawing
Ans: (d)
185. 18 month old child was brought with history of low grade fever and cough for 2 days and noisy breathing since few hours. ON examination, the child was irritable, nontoxic, inspiratory stridor was present. Oxygen saturation 88% Respiratory rate 50/min. Next step in management
(a) With the child in mothers lap, the most comfortable position, give adrenaline nebulization and O2
(b) The child is put in the bed and adrenaline nebulization and O2 is given
(c) Refer the child immediately because it is irritable due to hypoxia
(d) Observe the child carefully, if any complication arises, then refer
Ans: (a)
186. A child presents with frontal bossing, widened metaphyses, lethargy and bow legs. Diagnosis
(a) Osteomalacia
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Rickets
(d) Scurvy
Ans: (c)
187. A 14 year old boy presented with abnormal movements. MRI showing involvement of bilateral stratum, thalamus, pons and centrum semi ovale and asymmetrical diffuse white matter involvement. Diagnosis
(a) Wilsons disease
(b) Parkinsonism
(c) Nigrostriatal degeneration
(d) Hallervorden-Spatz disease
Ans: (a)
188. A 8 y ears old mentally retarded child presents with left sided flank pain. USG shows hyperechoic lesion in right kidney and multiple lesions in the liver. CT abdomen shows 50-60 HU dense lesion. Diagnosis is
(a) ADPKD
(b) Tuberous sclerosis
(c) VHL disease
(d) Familial angio-myolipoma syndrome
Ans: (b)
189. Breast feeding is resumed after how many weeks of completion of ATT
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: (none)
190. A 3 month old child was bought apneic. RR was irregular (5/min). HR was 54/min. best way to stabilize the child
(a) Maintain open airway, start BMV, chest compression, give O2, give IV/IO adrenaline
(b) Insert ETT 3.5 mm, start BMV, chest compression, give adrenaline via ETT
(c) Insert LMA, start BMV, chest compressions, given adrenaline via LMA
(d) Chest compressions, Maintain oper airway, start BMV, give O2, give IV/IO adrenaline
Ans: (a)
191. Dose of epinephrine to be administered IV/10 in pediatric cardiac arrest is
(a) One ampoule
(b) 0.01 mg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10,000 solution)
(c) 0.5 mg/kg (0.5 ml/kg 1 in 10,000 solution)
(d) 0.1 mg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 1000 solution)
Ans: (b)
192. A 2 years old unresponsive child brought with history of fall from a height, responsive to verbal stimuli intermittently, breathing rate-30/min, oxygen saturation 94%, heart rate-130/min, peripheral pulses felt,, blood pressure of 104/60 mmHg. Immediate line of management is
(a) Observe the child carefully and shift if necessary
(b) Transfer immediately to a tertiary centre for CT brain and further management
(c) Start oxygen by facemask, immobilise “C” spine and transfer to tertiary care.
(d) Start oxygen b y facemask, immobilise “C” spine, administer 1 ml/kg of Nacl 3% and transfer to tertiary care accompanied by a doctor
Ans: (d)
193. All are true regarding ischemic stroke in children except
(d) Spontaneous hemorrhages can occur in the parenchyma
Ans: (b)
OBSTETRICS
194. A pregnancy of 6 weeks can be accurately diagnosed by
(a) Urine HCG
(b) USG – fetal cardiac activity
(c) Uterine size
(d) Doppler scan
Ans: (b)
195. First trimester screening (FTS) for Down’s syndrome involves the measurement of
(a) Pregnancy associated plasma protein
(b) Inhibin-A
(c) Oestradiol
(d) Acetyl cholinesterase
Ans: (a)
196. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio is used to assess the maturity of
(a) Lungs
(b) Kidneys
(c) Heart
(d) Brain
Ans: (a)
197. Medical termination for a 11 weeks of unwanted pregnancy is done by all except
(a) Menstrual regulation
(b) Manual evacuation
(c) Misoprostol + Mifepristone
(d) Carboprost
Ans: (d)
198. According to WHO recommendations, drug used for active management of third stage labor in a primary health centre is
(a) Intramuscular oxytocin 10 units
(b) Intramuscular prostaglandin PGF2α
(c) Dinoprostone 800 μg tablet rectally
(d) IV methylergometrine 0.2 mg
Ans: (a)
GYNECOLOGY
199. True regarding anatomy of uterus are all except
(a) Size of cervix and uterus are same at puberty
(b) Size of cervix is twice that of uterus in children
(c) Just lateral to cervix, uterine artery pass below the ureter
(d) Lymph from fundus drain paraaortic lymph nodes
Ans: (d)
200. Secretory changes in endometrium is produce dby
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) Prolactin
(d) Testosterone
Ans: (b)
201. Whiff test is done to diagnose
(a) Bacterial vaginosis
(b) Candidiasis
(c) Syphilis
(d) Genital tuberculosis
Ans: (a)
202. 40 years old female presents with dysmenorrheal and menorrhagia. On examination uterus is 14 weeks size and tender, Diagnosis is
(a) Endometrial hyperplasia
(b) Adenomyosis
(c) Intramural fibroids
(d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Ans: (b)
203. Hormone replacement therapy is not given for
(a) Vasomotor symptoms
(b) Prevention of CAD
(c) Urogenital atrophy
(d) Prevention of osteoporosis
Ans: (b)
204. Advantages of laparoscopic sterilization over minilap are all except
(a) Easily reversible
(b) Less failure rate
(c) Less operating time
(d) Less hospital stay
Ans: (b)
205. 40 years old multiparous woman shows CIN-2 on pap smear. Next line of management
(a) Hysterectomy
(b) Conisation
(c) Colposcopy
(d) Cryotherapy
Ans: (c)
206. Maximum radiation dose to be given at Point-A for early and advanced carcinoma cervix is
(a) 70-75 and 75-80gy
(b) 80-85 and 85-90gy
(c) 75-80 and 80-85gy
(d) 85-90 and 90-95gy
Ans: (b)
207. Monteggia fracture dislocation is
(a) Fracture of atlas
(b) Fracture of radial styloid
(c) Fracture of proximal 1/3 of ulna with dislocation of proximal radioulnar joint
(d) Fracture of distal 1/3 of radius with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint
Ans: (c)
208. Mallet finger is avulsion of
(a) Stenosing tenosynovitis of flexor tendon
(b) Stenosing tenosynovitis of extensor tendon
(c) Avulsion of flexor digitorum tendon at the DIP
(d) Avulsion of extensor digitorum tendon at the DIP
Ans: (d)
209. A large posterolateral defect in humeral head in recurrent anterior of shoulder is called as
(a) Bankart’s lesion
(b) Hill sach’s lesion
(c) Putti Plat lesion
(d) SLAP lesion
Ans: (b)
210. Symptomatic spinal injury without radiological evidence is most commonly seen in
(a) Children
(b) Teenagers
(c) Adults
(d) Elderly
Ans: (a)
211. Light bulb sing in anteroposterior view of X ray shoulder is due to
(a) Fracture humerus with dislocation of glenohumeral joint
(b) Fracture scapula
(c) Anterior dislocation of shoulder
(d) Posterior dislocation of shoulder
Ans: (d)
212. Most common type of abnormality in a children with lateral epicondyle fracture of humerus
(a) Cubitus varus
(b) Cubitus valgus
(c) Malunion
(d) Tardy ulnar nerve pasly
Ans: (a)
213. Pointing index in a case of supracondylar fracture humerus occurs due to involvement of
(a) Radial nerve
(b) Anterior cutaneous nerve
(c) Median nerve
(d) Ulnar nerve
Ans: (c)
214. March fracture is
(a) Stress fracture of shaft of second or third metatarsal
(b) Avulsion # of base of fifth metatarsal
(c) Bimalleolar ankle #
(d) Complete extra articular # across the base of the first metacarpal
Ans: (a)
215. Wandering acetabulum is seen in
(a) Ankylosing spoondylitis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Gout
Ans: (c)
216. Tom smith’s arthritis is
(a) Sequelae of tuberculous arthritis of hip in children
(b) Sequelae of tuberculous arthritis of hip in adults
(c) Sequelae of acute osteomyelitis of femur in children
(d) Sequelae of septic arthritis of hip in infants
Ans: (d)
217. Meralgia paraesthetica is sue to the involvement of
(a) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
(b) Plantar nerve
(c) Tibial nerve
(d) Perneal nerve
Ans: (a)
218. Pathogenesis of osteogenesis imperfect is a defect in
(a) Calcium deposition and osteoid formation
(b) Synthesis and deposition of type-I collagen
(c) Renal absorption of calcium
(d) Excretion of phosphate in renal tubules.
Ans: (a)
219. A patient presents with L4, L5 disc prolapse with weakness of extensor halluces longus and extensor digitorum longus. The site of compression
(a) L3
(b) L4
(c) L5
(d) S1
Ans: (c)
220. Maffuci Syndrome is
(a) Multiple hyperostosis
(b) Multiple enchondromas
(c) Multiple bone secondaries
(d) Multiple osteolytic lesions
Ans: (b)
221. The most characteristic histological feature in osteosarcoma is
(a) Giant cells in matrix
(b) Sheets of spindle cells
(c) Codman’s triangle
(d) Chicken wire calcification
Ans: (c)
222. Proliferation of malignant cells producing osteoid is characteristic of
(a) Osteosarcoma
(b) Osteochondroma
(c) Osteobalstoma
(d) Chondroblastoma
Ans: (a)
223. 14 year old obese boy referred from an endocrinologist for painful of hip. The investigation which is least useful in this setting is
(a) USG
(b) MRI
(c) CT
(d) X ray of both hips
Ans: (a)
ANESTHESIA
224. Delivery of high concentration of oxygen (more than 90%) is delivered via
(a) Partial rebreathing mask
(b) Nasal cannula with oxygen flow at 5L/min
(c) Simple face mask
(d) Non rebreathing face mask with oxygen reservoir
Ans: (b)
225. A breathing system with maximum efficiency is spontaneous ventilation
(a) Mapleson A
(b) Mapleson B
(c) Mapleson C
(d) Mapleson D
Ans: (a)
226. The inhalational anaesthetic agent which is maximally metabolized
(a) Desflurane
(b) Halothane
(c) Enflurane
(d) Isoflurane
Ans: (b)
227. The intravenous anaesthetic agent contraindicated in epilepsy
(a) Propofol
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Ketamine
(d) Etomidate
Ans: (d)
228. The intravenous anaesthetic agent that increases both the cerebral metabolic rate and cerebral blood flow
(a) Propofol
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Ketamine
(d) Etomidate
Ans: (c)
229. Muscle relaxant associated with hyperkalemia
(a) Mivacurium
(b) Atracurium
(c) Vecuronium
(d) Succinyl choline
Ans: (d)
230. Muscle(s) least sensitive to non depolarizing muscle relaxant
(a) Muscles of arm and legs
(b) Diaphragm
(c) Abdominal muscles
(d) Muscles of face, head and neck
Ans: (b)
231. Most potent local anesthetic agent
(a) Procaine
(b) Chlorprocaine
(c) Bupivacaine
(d) Dibuciane
Ans: (c)
232. Most anaesthesia (Spinal + epidural) is not contraindicated in
(a) Clopidogrel
(b) Platelet less than 50000
(c) Anti hypertensive therapy
(d) Local infection
Ans: (c)
233. Lithium should be stopped how many days before anesthesia?
(a) 1 day
(b) 2 days
(c) 3 days
(d) 4 days
Ans: (b)
234. Post lumbar puncture headache can be prevented by
(a) Supplementation of fluids
(b) Small diameter of needle
(c) Keep the style inside and remove the needle
(d) Atraumatic needle
Ans: (c)
235. True regarding hypothermia during anaesthesia are all except
(a) Body may lose heat by conduction
(b) Beneficial to patients in some conditions
(c) Always occur irrespective of the type of anaesthesia
(d) Prevented by giving warm fluids
Ans: (c)
236. A patient undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy suddenly develops wheezing. Appropriate level of management
(a) Deepen the general anaesthesia
(b) IV ketamine
(c) IV lignocaine
(d) Beta-2 agonist
Ans: (c)
237. True regarding celiac plexus block
(a) Most common side effect is diarrhea and hypotension
(b) Usually in lower abdominal painful conditions
(c) Usually done unilaterally
(d) Done retroperitoneally at the level of L3
Ans: (a)
RADIODIAGNOSIS & RADIOTHERAPY
238. Photoelectric effect is
(a) Interaction between high energy incident photon and inner shell electron
(b) Interaction between low energy incident photon and outer shell electron
(c) Interaction between incident photon and inner shell electron
(d) Interaction between high energy incident photon and nucleus
Ans: (c)
239. Predominant osteoblastic metastasis is seen in
(a) Renal cell carcinoma
(b) Breast cancer
(c) Prostate cancer
(d) Non small cell cancer of lung
Ans: (c)
240. Radiograph contrast induced nephropathy is best indicated by
(a) Increased bilirubin
(b) Decreased bilirubin
(c) Decreased urine output
(d) Increased serum creatinine levels
Ans: (d)
241. Radiological features indicating increased pulmonary blood flow ae all except
(a) Kerley B lines
(b) Pulmonary artery diameter more than 6 mm
(c) Diameter of two peripheral arteries greater than accompanying bronchi
(d) More than 6 blood vessels in outer 1/3rd
Ans: (c)
242. A 14 year old obese child is referred from an endocrinologist for painful limping of hip. Which of the following investigation is least useful in this clinical setting:
(a) CT
(b) USG
(c) MRI
(d) X-ray
Ans: (b)
DERMATOLOGY
243. Tinea capitis is mostly caused by
(a) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
(b) Trichophyton schoenleinii
(c) Trichophyton violaceum
(d) Trichophyton tonsurans
Ans: (d)
244. The best treatment for acute dermatitis
(a) Ointments
(b) Pastes
(c) Creams
(d) Moist compressions
Ans: (d)
245. 24 years old female presents with a 3 × 4 cm painless ulcer with everted margin in the lateral margin of labia majora. The causative organism is
(a) Chlamydia
(b) HPV
(c) H.ducreyi
(d) Treponema Pallidum
Ans: (d)
PSYCHIATRY
246. The term psychiatry is coined by
(a) Jasper
(b) Esquinol
(c) Reil
(d) Pinel
Ans: (c)
247. According to WHO-ICD-10, mental disorders are represented as
(a) Q
(b) G
(c) B
(d) F
Ans: (d)
248. Mini mental scale examination (MMSE) is done to diagnose
(a) Dementia
(b) Obsessive compulsion disorder
(c) Panic disorder
(d) Bipolar disorder
Ans: (a)
249. A state in which a person is alert but not able to speak or move is
(a) Stupor
(b) Coma
(c) Delirium
(d) Hysteria
Ans: (a)
250. A state of low grade, chronic depression lasting for more than 2 years
(b) Myosin-ADP-Pi complex has low affinity for calcium
(c) ATP hydrolysis to ADP + Pi in resting muscle
(d) Myosin detaches from actin when ATP levels decreases.
Ans: (c)
24. Not a RBC membrane protein
(a) Spectrin
(b) Ankyrin
(c) Nebulin
(d) Glycophorin
Ans: (c)
25. Platelet aggregation is promoted b y all except
(a) Thrombospondin
(b) Prostacyclin
(c) Plasmin
(d) Platelet activating factor
Ans: (b)
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26. Bile acids are all except
(a) Lithocholic acid
(b) Taurocholic acid
(c) Deoxy cholic acid
(d) Chenodexycholic acid
Ans: (b)
27. Glomerular filtration rate is decreased by all except
(a) Decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure
(b) Increased tubular hydrostatic pressure
(c) Decreased effective filtration surface area
(d) decreased plasma protein levels
Ans: (d)
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28. True regarding insulin
(a) Made of 2 chains linked by 3 disulphide bonds
(b) Synthesized by alpha cells of islet fo Langerhans
(c) Elimination half life is 60 mins after subcutaneous injection
(d) Circulated in blood by binding with globulin
Ans: (a)
29. True about potassium- All except
(a) Mostly concentrated inside the cells
(b) Plasma concentration increases at time of metabolic acidosis
(c) Leaves the cell in the presence of insulin
(d) Ingestion of acetazolamide results in potassium loss
Ans: (c)
30. Effects of corticosteroids are all except
(a) Decreases the amount of lymphatic cells in spleen and lymph nodes
(b) Inhibits the peripheral utilization of glucose
(c) Promotes breakdown of proteins
(d) Decreases the catabolism of immunoglobulins
Ans: (d)
31. Androgen not secreted by testis
(a) Dehydroepiandrostenedione
(b) Dihydrotestosterone
(c) Testosterone
(d) Androstenedione
Ans: (b)
32. The cardiovascular parameter which is a best indicator off vagal tone?
(a) Ejection fraction
(b) Stroke volume
(c) Heart rate
(d) Diastolic blood pressure
Ans: (c)
33. False regarding ECG
(a) QRS is due to ventricular repolarization
(b) In normal conditions, QRS is < 0.12 seconds
(c) T wave is due to ventricular repolarization
(d) Prolonged PR interval is seen in second degree heart block
Ans: (a)
34. The shift of the oxygen dissociation curve to the left is facilitated by all except
(a) Decrease in temperature
(b) Decrease in pH
(c) Decrease in 2, 3DPG
(d) Fetal hemoglobin
Ans: (b)
35. The major role of 2, 3 DPG in RBC is
(a) Acid base balance
(b) Reversal of glycolysis
(c) Release of O2
(d) Binding of O2
Ans: (c)
36. Carbondioxide in venous blood
(a) Is carried by hemoglobin
(b) Converted to bicarbonate by carbonic anhydrase in plasma
(c) Transported mainly in the form of bicarbonate
(d) Carbondioxide does not cross the blood brain barrier.
Ans: (c)
37. Myelination has all functions except
(a) Increases speed of conduction
(b) Decreases energy expenditure
(c) Provides protective covering for the axon
(d) Decreases the release of neurotransmitter from the nerve endings
Ans: (d)
38. Cerebellar white matter is well myelinated at
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months
Ans: (1)
39. Not true regarding withdrawal (flexion) reflex
(a) Polysynaptic reflex
(b) Has long latency
(c) Afferents are Ia fibers
(d) Response is non linear and usually widespread
Ans: (c)
40. Sympathetic stimulation causes
(a) Pupillary constriction
(b) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction
(c) Vasoconstriction of skin and mucus membranes
(d) Contractions of bladder detrusor
Ans: (c)
41. Increased neutrophil in acute exercise is due to
(a) Increased secretion of colony stimulating factors
(b) Disruption of margination of leucocytes
(c) Hemoconcentration
(d) Hypoxia induced by exercise
Ans: (b)
BIOCHEMISTRY
42. Peptidyl transferase is an example for
(a) Enzyme
(b) Catalyst
(c) Ribozyme
(d) Elongation factor
Ans: (c)
43. Fatty liver in kwashiorkor in children is due to
(a) High fat content in the diet
(b) Lack of substrates fro protein synthesis in liver
(c) Lack of substrates for gluconeogenesis in liver
(d) High carbohydrate content
Ans: (b)
44. The autocatalytic cleavage enzyme among the following is
(a) Proelastase
(b) Procarboxylase
(c) Pepsinogen
(d) Chymotrypsinogen
Ans: (c)
45. False regarding cytochrome p450
(a) Found in bone marrow
(b) Responsible for converting lipophilic molecules to hydrophilic molecules
(c) Involved in first pass metabolism
(d) Essential for analgesic effect of codeine
Ans: (a)
46. Phase-II metabolic reactions are characterized by all except
(a) Involved conjugation reactions
(b) Decreases water solubility
(c) Underdeveloped in neonates
(d) Results in drug excretion by the kidneys or liver
Ans: (b)
47. All are seen after 24 hours of fasting except
(a) Lipolysis
(b) Muscle break down
(c) Hepatic gluconeogenesis
(d) Blood glucose concentration is maintained
Ans: (d)
48. The characteristic feature following acute ingestion of alcohol is
(a) Activation of fatty acid oxidation
(b) Lactic acidosis
(c) Inhibition of ketogenesis
(d) Increase in gluconeogenesis
Ans: (b)
49. Patient with abetalipoproteinemia frequently manifests with delayed blood clotting. This is due to inability to
(a) Produce chylomicrons
(b) Produce VLDL
(c) Synthesize clotting factors
(d) Synthesize fatty acids
Ans: ()
50. Most common inherited defect of urea cycle
(a) Ornithine transcarbomylase
(b) Arginase
(c) Arginosuccinate Lyase
(d) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase
Ans: (a)
51. Northern blotting – true all except
(a) Used to detect DNA molecules
(b) Involves electrophoresis
(c) Requires hybridization probes
(d) Requires restriction endonucleases
Ans: (a)
PHARMACOLOGY
52. True regarding drug metabolism
(a) Lipid soluble beta antagonists cause bad dreams when compared to water soluble beta antagonists.
(b) Drugs with high affinity for plasma proteins have larger volume of distribution
(c) Converts water soluble drugs to lipid soluble drugs
(d) Renal failure significantly increases the plasma protein binding.
Ans: (a)
53. Histamine casues
(a) Bronchodilatation
(b) Increases gastric acid secretion
(c) Vasoconstriction
(d) Negative chronotropic effect
Ans: (b)
54. All are true regarding prostaglandins
(a) Made of 20 carbon unsaturated fatty acids
(b) Thromboxane A2 is involved in vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation
(c) Causes pain when applied directly on nerve endings
(d) Leukotrienes cause vasoconstriction and increases vascular permeability
Ans: (c)
55. Prostaglandin analogue used to treat postpartum hemorrhage that is not responding to conventional methods is
(a) Alprostadil
(b) Carboprost
(c) Isoprost
(d) Lantanoprost
Ans: (b)
56. True regarding β-blockers
(a) Negatively ionotropic and chronotropic
(b) Commonly indicated for postural hypotension
(c) Decreases glucagon secretion
(d) Those with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity are less likely to cause bradycardia.
Ans: (b)
57. The anti cholinergic agent used for overactive bladder treatment which is associated with increased incidence of xerostomia is
(a) Trospium
(b) Tolterodine
(c) Oxybutynin
(d) Solifenacin
Ans: (c)
58. Proton pump inhibitors decreases the antiplatelet action of which of the following anti platelet agents when co administered together?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Ticlopidine
(c) Clopidogrel
(d) Prasugrel
Ans: (c)
59. GI motility is inhibited by all except
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Verapamil
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Botulinum toxin
Ans: (c)
60. Glucagon hydrochloride is used as a antidote in the poisoning of
(a) Calcium channel blockers
(b) Sodium channel blockers
(c) Cardiac glycosides
(d) Beta blockers
Ans: (d)
61. Fentanyl at a dose of 50-150mcg/kg causes
(a) Potent cardiac depression
(b) Ciliary body contraction
(c) Causes paralysis of iris dilator muscle
(d) Decreases sweating
Ans: (d)
62. False regarding cocaine
(a) Causes tachycardia and hypertension
(b) Does not cause muscle rigidity
(c) Elimination half life is more than 3 hours
(d) Not enough to relieve stress response to surgery
Ans: (c)
63. Enthanol is used in ethylene glycol poisoning because ethanol is a
(a) Competitive inhibitor of NADPH oxidase
(b) Competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase
(c) Competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase
(d) Non competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase
Ans: (b)
64. The drug used in the Rx of both type-I & type-II diabetes mellitus is
(a) Exenatide
(b) Liraglutide
(c) Pioglitazone
(d) Pramlintide
Ans: (d)
65. Action of antibiotics are all except
(a) Sulphonamides interfere with folic acid synthesis
(b) Metronidazole interferes with DNA synthesis
(c) Chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis
(d) Tetracyclines inhibit cell wall synthesis
Ans: (d)
66. The antimicrobial agent that potentiates the effect of neuro muscular blocker as like curare is
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Clindamycin
(c) Daptomycin
(d) Vancomycin
Ans: (b)
MICROBIOLOGY
67. In Gram’s staining, all are used except
(a) Congo red
(b) Iodine
(c) Crystal violet
(d) Alcohol
Ans: (a)
68. Wrong statement regarding culture media in microbiology
(a) Blood sugar is best for anaerobic organism
(b) Chocolate agar is best for hemophilic organism
(c) Lowenstein-Jenson media is best for mycobacteria
(d) McConkey agar is best for gram negative enteric pathogens
Ans: (a)
69. All are live vaccines except
(a) Measles vaccine
(b) BCG vaccine
(c) Salk’s vaccine
(d) Yellow fever vaccine
Ans: (c)
70. Macrophages – false statement
(a) Derived from blood monocytes
(b) Can harbor mycobacteria
(c) Involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions
(d) Produce Tumor necrosis factor and interleukins
Ans: (c)
71. Antibody that is produced rapidly and in high amounts during secondary response
(a) IgM
(b) IgG
(c) IgA
(d) IgM and IgG
Ans: (b)
72. Cells that are identified by the presence of immunoglobulins on the surface are
(a) Neutrophils
(b) B cells
(c) Nk cells
(d) Monocytes
Ans: (b)
73. Not true regarding NK cells
(a) Active against malignant cells
(b) Involve MHC antigen for killing microorganisms
(c) First line defence against viral infections
(d) No prior sensitization required
Ans: (b)
74. Class II MHC protein is expressed in all except
(a) Activated T cells
(b) Dendritic cells
(c) Langerhan’s cells
(d) Neutrophils
Ans: (d)
75. Type 2 lepra reaction is an example of
(a) Type I Hypersensitivity
(b) Type II Hypersensitivity
(c) Type III Hypersensitivity
(d) Type IV Hypersensitivity
Ans: (c)
76. Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(a) Causes deeper infections more frequently than skin & soft tissue infections
(b) Transmitted via the air-conditioning system
(c) Pulse field gel electrophoresis is useful in the investigation of an outbreak
(d) Resistant to iodine solution
Ans: (c)
77. Non motile bacteria
(a) Salmonella
(b) Klebsiella
(c) Citrobacter
(d) Escherichia
Ans: (b)
78. Aerogenic variants of Shigella are seen in the biotypes of
(a) Shigella dysentriae
(b) Shigell flexneri
(c) Shigella sonnei
(d) Shigella boydii
Ans: (b)
79. In tuberculosis, the cytokine playing major role in the conversion of tissue macrophages into epithelioid cells
(a) Interferon γ
(b) Tumor necrosis factor
(c) Interleukin 12
(d) Macrophage chemoattractant protein
Ans: (a)
80. Exclusive skin pathogen among Mycobacteria
(a) M. xenopi
(b) M. fortuitum
(c) M. szulgai
(d) M. marinum
Ans: (d)
81. Not a feature of Hutchinson’s triad
(a) Interstitial keratitis
(b) Notched incisors
(c) Deafness
(d) Cataract
Ans: (d)
82. All are true regarding CMV except
(a) Double stranded DNA virus
(b) Rarely causes problems inn immunecompetent persons
(c) Foscarnet can eliminate CMV
(d) Retinitis rare when CD4 countd > 200/mm3
Ans: (c)
83. The following viruses are transmitted via blood transfusion except
(a) Parvovirus B-19
(b) Dengue virus
(c) CMV
(d) Hepatitis G virus
Ans: (b)
84. Pathogenic cryptococci differ from non pathogenic strains by all the following criteria except
(a) Produces urease
(b) Grow at 37℃
(c) Pathogenic for mice
(d) Ferment carbohydrates
Ans: (d)
PATHOLOGY
85. Apoptosis- all are true except
(a) Normal physiological process of programmed cell death
(b) Results in products that are removed by phagocytosis
(c) Plasma membrane undergoes zeiosis
(d) Causes inflammation that damage the surrounding cells
Ans: (d)
86. Caspases are involved in
(a) Necrosis
(b) Apoptosis
(c) Cell injury
(d) Phagocytosis
Ans: (b)
87. The following mediators of acute inflammation are derived from cells except
(a) Kinins
(b) Leukotriene
(c) Cytokine
(d) Histamine
Ans: (a)
88. Inheritance of familial hypercholesterolemia is
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) X-linked dominant
(d) X-linked recessive
Ans: (a)
89. Genetic conditions with increased risk for cancers are all except
(a) Neurofibromatosis 1
(b) Turner syndrome
(c) Down syndrome
(d) Chromosome 13 deletion
Ans: (none)
90. Pathogenetic mechanism of HPV in cervical carcinoma
(a) Downregulation of p16INK4 protein
(b) Degradation of cylcin D1
(c) Genomic instability of E6 an dE7
(d) UP regulation of BCL2
Ans: (c)
91. Paraneoplastic syndrome not associated with any kind of antibody
(a) Limbic encephalopathy
(b) Necrotizing myelopathy
(c) Eaton Lambert syndrome
(d) Stiff Pearson syndrome
Ans: (b)
92. Amyloidosis – false statement
(a) Extracellular eosinophilic hyaline material
(b) Made of calcified proteins
(c) Apple green birefringence in polarized light
(d) Complication of chronic infections
Ans: (b)
93. The following are used in the treatment of Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura a/e
(a) Plasmapheresis
(b) Corticosteroids
(c) Immunotherapy
(d) Platelet transfusion
Ans: (d)
94. Lymphoma associated with translocation of c-myc gene on chromosome 8 is
(a) Burkitt lymphoma
(b) Follicular lymphoma
(c) Mantle cell lymphoma
(d) Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Ans: (a)
95. The following are good prognostic factors for childhood ALL except
(a) Hyperdiploidy
(b) Female sex
(c) Pre B cell ALL
(d) +(12:21) translocation
Ans: (c)
96. Multiple myeloma – all are true except
(a) Proteinuria
(b) Visual disturbances
(c) Bleeding tendency
(d) Dystrophic calcification
Ans: (d)
97. Bence-Jones proteins are derived from
(a) Alpha globulins
(b) Beta globulins
(c) Gamma globulins
(d) Delta Globulins
Ans: (c)
98. Malignancy associated with Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
(a) Mycosis fungoides
(b) Smouldering myeloma
(c) Primary effusion lymphoma
(d) Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
Ans: (d)
99. Mac Callam plaques in rheumatic heart disease are seen in
(a) Right atrium
(b) Right ventricle
(c) Left atrium
(d) Left ventricle
Ans: (c)
100. Typical histological change in benign hypertension
(a) Intimal proliferation and hyalinization of muscular media of medium sized arteries/arterioles
(b) Fibrinoid necrosis of small sized arteries/arterioles
(c) Loss of endothelial cells of arterioles
(d) Formation of new vessels
Ans: (a)
101. Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of lung cancer in females and in nonsmokers. The immunohistochemical marker used for detection adenocarcinoma of lung is
(a) Thyroid transcription factor
(b) Glial fibrillary acidic protein
(c) Progesterone receptor
(d) Alpha fetoprotein
Ans: (a)
102. Paraneoplastic syndromes are most commonly associated with
(a) Bronchial adenocarcinoma
(b) Broncho-alveolar carcinoma
(c) Small cell carcinoma
(d) Bronchial carcinoid
Ans: (c)
103. Glomerulonephritis which is least likely to cause chronic renal failure
(a) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
(b) Membranous glomerulonephritis
(c) Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis
(d) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Ans: (a)
104. Demonstration of the following histological finding in the resected kidney indicate the presence of Wilms tumor in the contralateral kidney
(a) Blastemal component
(b) Nephrogenic rests
(c) Skeletal muscle differentiation
(d) Abnormal mitotic figures
Ans: (b)
FORNESIC MEDICINE
105. As per MCI regulations, a medical practitioner should maintain the records of in patients for a minimum period of
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
Ans: (b)
106. Florence test for seminal stains tests for the presence of
(a) Spermine
(b) Choline
(c) Inositol
(d) Aluminium molybdate
Ans: (b)
107. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue line on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and loss of appetite. Diagnosis
(a) Arsenic poisoning
(b) Lead poisoning
(c) Mercury poisoning
(d) Phosphorus poisoning
Ans: (c)
108. Drug used for Narcoanalysis
(a) Atropine
(b) Pethidine
(c) Phenobarbitone
(d) Scopolamine
Ans: (d)
ENT
109. In Tympanometry, tone used is _____ Hz
(a) 220
(b) 320
(c) 120
(d) 256
Ans: (a)
110. The artery which is not a part of Kiesselbach plexus
(a) Superior labial
(b) Anterior ethmoidal
(c) Greater palatine
(d) Infraorbital
Ans: (d)
111. Osteomas are most commonly seen in
(a) Maxillary sinus
(b) Frontal sinus
(c) Sphenoid sinus
(d) Ethmoid sinus
Ans: (b)
112. Extent of retropharyngeal space
(a) Base of skull to diaphragm
(b) Base of skull to thoracic inlet
(c) Base of skull to bifurcation of trachea
(d) Base of skull to post cricoids cartilage
Ans: (c)
113. Mouse nibbled appearance of vocal cords is seen in
(a) Malignancy
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Syphilis
(d) Rhinoscleroma
Ans: (b)
114. Mid tracheostomy is done through the ______ tracheal rings
(a) 1st and 2nd
(b) 2nd and 3rd
(c) 3rd and 4th
(d) 5th and 6th
Ans: (b)
OPHTHALMOLOGY
115. Laser in situ keratomilieusis (LASIK) uses
(a) Ns-YAG laser
(b) Excimer laser
(c) CO2 laser
(d) Frequency doubled YAG laser
Ans: ()
116. Posterior staphyloma is associated with
(a) Closed angle glaucoma
(b) Uveoscleritis
(c) Pseudocornea
(d) Pathological myopia
Ans: (d)
117. Giant papillary conjunctivitis is usually due to
(a) Rigid gas permeable contact lens
(b) Soft hydrophilic contact lens
(c) Acrylic ball implants
(d) Pegged implants
Ans: (b)
118. Goniotomy is most effective in
(a) Juvenile primary open angle glaucoma
(b) Adult primary open angle glaucoma
(c) Congenital glaucoma
(d) Adult primary closed angle glaucoma
Ans: (c)
119. In diabetic retinopathy
(a) Thinning of capillary basement membrane
(b) Increased number of pericytes
(c) Lipofuscin in retinal pigment epithelium
(d) Macroaneurysm in the areas of ischemia
Ans: (c)
120. Gas used for tamponading retina
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Sulfur heaxfluoride
(d) Ethylene oxide
Ans: (c)
121. Harmonious diplopia is a feature of
(a) Exotropia
(b) Hypertropia
(c) Hypotropia
(d) Esotropia
Ans: (d)
122. Dalen Fuch’s nodule is pathognomic of
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Sarcoidosis
(c) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
(d) Retinitis pigmentosa
Ans: (c)
PREVENTIVE & SOCIAL MEDICINE
123. Human development index includes all except
(a) Adult literacy rate
(b) Life expectancy at birth
(c) Per capita income
(d) Infant mortality rate
Ans: (d)
124. Infectivity of an organism is measured by
(a) Incidence rate
(b) Prevalence rate
(c) Secondary attack rate
(d) Case fatality rate
Ans: (a)
125. In cyclo-propagative transmission, the disease agent undergoes
(a) Only development
(b) Only multiplication
(c) Change in form and numbers
(d) No change
Ans: (c)
126. Measure of risk calculated from case control study is
(a) Odds ratio
(b) Relative risk
(c) Attributable risk
(d) Population attributable risk
Ans: (a)
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127. Positive predictive value of a screening test is measured by
128. Most cost effective approach for the prevention of non communicable disease
(a) Primary prevention
(b) Secondary prevention
(c) Specific protection
(d) Primordial prevention
Ans: (d)
129. Target for case finding under RNTCP is
(a) 60%
(b) 70%
(c) 85%
(d) 95%
Ans: (b)
130. Low birth weight baby is the one with birth weight less than
(a) 1000 grams
(b) 1500 grams
(c) 2000 grams
(d) 2500 grams
Ans: (d)
131. All are major causes of early neonatal mortality in India except
(a) Prematurity
(b) Asphyxia
(c) Low birth weight
(d) Diarrhea
Ans: (d)
132. Protein content of breast milk
(a) 0.55 gm/100mL
(b) 1.10 gm/100mL
(c) 2.20 gm/100mL
(d) 3.30 gm/100mL
Ans: (b)
133. Recommended content of iodine in salt of consumer level
(a) 25 ppm
(b) 20 ppm
(c) 15 ppm
(d) 10 ppm
Ans: (c)
134. Most extensively used insecticide for ultra low volume (ULV) fogging
(a) DDT
(b) Malathion
(c) Pyrethroids
(d) Abate
Ans: (b)
135. Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine in drinking water at the end of 1 hour is
(a) 0.1 mg/L
(b) 0.5 mg/L
(c) 1.0 mg/L
(d) 1.5 mg/L
Ans: (b)
136. Wastes that are not to be incinerated
(a) With high heating volume
(b) Content of combustible matter > 60%
(c) Content of non combustible matter < 5%
(d) Moisture content < 30%
Ans: (a)
137. Under ESI, the duration not sickness benefit arising out of confinement is for
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 42 days
(d) 60 days
Ans: (b)
138. Method of sampling when the population is not homogenous
(a) Simple random sampling
(b) Systemic random sampling
(c) Stratified random sampling
(d) Cluster sampling
Ans: (c)
MEDICINE
Giant a wave in JVP is seen in
(a) Junctional rhythm
(b) Pulmonary hypertension
(c) Tricuspid regurgitation
(d) Complete heart block
Ans: (b)
140. Exercise testing is absolutely contraindicated
(a) One week after MI
(b) Unstable angina
(c) Aortic stenosis
(d) Peripheral vascular disease
Ans: (c)
141. Aneurysms- false statement
(a) True aneurysm contains all the 3 layers
(b) Saccular aneurysm involves the entire circumference
(c) In dissecting aneurysms media is defective
(d) Charcot Bouchard aneurysms are seen in brain
Ans: (b)
142. Rasmussen’s aneurysm arises from
(a) Bronchial artery
(b) Pulmonary artery
(c) Vertebral artery
(d) Posterior intercostals artery
Ans: (b)
143. Pulmonary embolism – true statement
(a) Known risk factors include gastric cancer, AIDS
(b) Prompt heparin therapy will dissolve thrombi
(c) Most patients manifest dyspnea, pain, hemoptysis
(d) Free floating ileofemoral thrombi are an indication for a caval filter
Ans: (a)
144. Feature of restrictive lung disease
(a) ↓FEV1/FVC and ↑ compliance
(b) ↑FEV1/FVC and ↓ compliance
(c) ↓ FEV1/FVC and ↓ compliance
(d) ↑FEV1/FVC and ↑Compliance
Ans: (b)
145. All are seen in ARDS except
(a) Pulmonary edema
(b) Hypercapnea
(c) Hypoxemia
(d) Decreased tidal volume
Ans: (b)
146. The following parameter is consistent with pleural transudate
(a) RBC – 1000/mm3
(b) WB – 1500/ mm3
(c) Specific gravity – 1.120
(d) Protein – 3.5 gram/dl
Ans: (a)
147. In morbidly obese patients obstructive sleep often results in all the following except
(a) Right ventricular failure
(b) Hypoxemia
(c) Hypercapnea
(d) Left ventricular failure
Ans: (none)
148. All the following signs are seen in thalamic hemorrhage except
(a) Hemianopia
(b) Gaze palsy
(c) Miosis
(d) Ocular bobbing
Ans: (d)
149. Xanthochromia of CSF is seen in all except
(a) Traumatic or bloody tap
(b) Hyperbilirubinemia
(c) Carotinemia
(d) Markedly elevated CSF proteins
Ans: (a)
150. All the following cause proximal muscle weakness except
(a) Duchene muscular dystrophy
(b) Myotonic dystrophy
(c) Polymyositis
(d) Becker muscular dystrophy
Ans: (b)
151. In Cushing’s disease
(a) ↑ACTH and ↓ Cortisol
(b) ↑ ACTH and ↑ Cortisol
(c) ↑ ADH
(d) ↑ urinary catecholamines
Ans: (b)
152. Joint erosion is not a feature of
(a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Psoriatic arthritis
(d) Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
Ans: (a)
153. Defective function of the following enzyme results in gout
(a) PRPP synthetase
(b) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
(c) Glucose 6 phosphatase
(d) Purine nucleotide phosphorylase
Ans: (c)
154. Not a feature of APLA (Anti-Phospholipid Antibody) syndrome
(a) Bleeding disorder
(b) Thrombotic disorder
(c) Coagulation disorder
(d) Recurrent fetal loss
Ans: (a)
155. All are seen in Kawasaki’s disease except
(a) Pedal edema
(b) Cervical lymphadenopathy
(c) Strawberry tongue
(d) Exudative conjunctivitis
Ans: (d)
156. Metabolic alkalosis with hypertension is seen in all the following conditions except
(a) Cushing’s syndrome
(b) Liddle’s syndrome
(c) Fanconi syndrome
(d) Adrenal hyperplasia
Ans: (c)
157. A 70 kg man with pyloric stenosis resulting from ulcer disease is admitted for resuscitation after 1 week of prolonged vomiting. The metabolic disturbance seen is
(a) During an operation, functional ECF volume is directly related to the volume lost to suction
(b) In healthy persons, upto 500 ml of blood loss is tolerated without need for replacement
(c) Functional ECF losses should be replaced with plasma
(d) Administration of albumin plays an important role in replacement of ECF losses
Ans: (b)
PEDIATRICS
179. Risk factors for pulmonary hemorrhage are all except
(a) PDA
(b) Exogenous surfactant
(c) Diaphragmatic hernia
(d) Sepsis
Ans: (c)
180. Enuresis is diagnosed in a child after the age of
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
Ans: (d)
181. Severe dehydration in an older child occurs when the fluid loss is
(a) 1% of body weight
(b) 4% of body weight
(c) 6% of body weight
(d) 9% of weight
Ans: (d)
182. One month old body is referred for failure to thrive. On examination there are features of congestive cardiac failure. Femoral pulses are feeble compared to brachial pulses. Likely diagnosis
(a) Congenital aortic stenosis
(b) Patent ductus arteriosus
(c) Coarctation of aorta
(d) Congenital aorta-iliac disease
Ans: (c)
183. A child having nocturnal asthmatic attacks 2 times in a week, day time attacks 3 times or more is categorized to be having
(a) Severe persistent asthma
(b) Moderate persistent asthma
(c) Mild intermittent asthma
(d) Mild persistent asthma
Ans: (b)
184. A new born baby is brought with seizures refractory to treatment and a continuous bruit through the anterior fontanelles. CT scan showed a midline lesion with hypoechogenicity and dilated lateral ventricles. Diagnosis
(a) Teratomas
(b) Vein of Galen malformation
(c) Arachnoid cyst
(d) Encephalocele
Ans: (b)
185. Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism
(a) Defective hormone synthesis
(b) Thyroid dysgenesis
(c) Antithyroid drugs
(d) Excessive iodine consumption
Ans: (b)
186. A new born infant is diagnosed with phenylketonuria. The enzyme that is deficient is
(a) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(b) Phenylalanine oxidase
(c) Dihydropteridine reductase
(d) Tyrosine hydroxylase
Ans: (a)
187. Non immune hydrops fetalis is caused by
(a) CMV
(b) Parvovirus B19
(c) HSV
(d) HIV
Ans: (b)
188. The following is not a radiological feature of scurvy
(a) Pencil line cortex
(b) Whit line of Frankel
(c) Cupping of bone ends
(d) Zone of rarefaction
Ans: (c)
OBSTERTICS
189. Gonadal differentiation is completed by what weeks of gestation?
(a) 9 weeks
(b) 12 weeks
(c) 16 weeks
(d) 20 weeks
Ans: (b)
190. Longest diameter of fetal skull is
(a) Submento bregmatic
(b) Mentovertical
(c) Sub occipito frontal
(d) Occipito fronta
Ans: (b)
191. Deep transverse arrest is most commonly encountered in
(a) Android pelvis
(b) Gynecoid pelvis
(c) Anthropoid pelvis
(d) Platypelloid pelvis
Ans: (a)
192. For Down’s syndrome, 2nd trimester quadruple test includes all except
(a) Alfa fetal protein
(b) HCG
(c) Inhibin-A
(d) PAPP
Ans: (d)
193. Drug of choice for chalmydia infection in pregnancy
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Azithromycin
Ans: (c)
194. Maneuvrs done for shoulders dystocia area all except
(a) Wood’s corkscrew maneuver
(b) McRobert’s maneuver
(c) Suprapubic pressure
(d) Mauriceau Smellie VEit maneuver
Ans: (d)
195. Most important factor that affects the outcome of twin gestation is
(a) Lie of first twin
(b) Lie of second twin
(c) Lie of second twin
(d) Placental position
Ans: (a)
196. Least chance for cord prolapsed among the following is
(a) Frank breech
(b) Complete breech
(c) Footing breech
(d) Knee presentation
Ans: (a)
197. The type of placenta in which vessels separate before reaching the margin is
(a) Battledore placenta
(b) Velamentous placenta
(c) Circumvallate placenta
(d) Placenta marginata
Ans: (b)
GYNECOLOGY
198. Snow storm appearance is seen in
(a) Abdominal pregnancy
(b) Tubal pregnancy
(c) Hydatidiform mole
(d) Multiple fibroids
Ans: (c)
199. Whiff test is done to diagnose
(a) Bacterial vaginosis
(b) Candidiasis
(c) Syphilis
(d) Genital tuberculosis
Ans: (a)
200. Primary amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breast and scant pubic hair is seen in
(a) Meyer Rokitansky Kuster Houser syndrome
(b) Turner syndrome
(c) Noonan syndrome
(d) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Ans: (d)
201. Hirsutism is caused by all except
(a) Testicular feminization syndrome
(b) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
(c) Cushing’s disease
(d) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Ans: (a)
202. In Halban’s disease, the type of defect in endomerium is
(a) Proliferative phase
(b) Cystoglanudular hyperplasia
(c) Irregular ripening
(d) Irregular shedding
Ans: (d)
203. Barrier method of contraception includes
(a) IUCD
(b) Combined oral pills
(c) Spermicidal agents
(d) Symptothermal methods
Ans: (a)
204. The IUCD, Mirena is effective for
(a) 1 year
(b) 3 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years
Ans: (c)
205. Contraception of choice in a recently delivered lactating women
(a) Oral contraceptive pills
(b) Depot provera
(c) Copper-T
(d) Safe period
Ans: (b)
206. Virus most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix is
(a) HPV 16
(b) HPV 19
(c) HPV 33
(d) HPV 35
Ans: (a)
207. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful in the following gynecological malignancy
(a) Endometrial cancer
(b) Cervical cancer
(c) Ovarain cancer
(d) Vulval cancer
Ans: (d)
208. Carcinoma endometrium is associated with all except
(a) Fibromyoma
(b) Endometrial hyperplasia
(c) Dysgerminoma
(d) Granulosa cell tumor
Ans: (c)
209. Schiller Duval bodies are seen in
(a) Dysgerminoma
(b) Seminoma
(c) Teratoma
(d) Endodermal sinus tumor
Ans: (d)
ORTHOPEDICS
210. Anterior shoulder dislocation is caused by vigorous
(a) Flexion and internal rotation
(b) Flexion and external rotation
(c) Abduction and external rotation
(d) Abduction and internal rotation
Ans: (c)
211. Inferior shoulder dislocation results in the damage of
(a) Axillary nerve
(b) Median nerve
(c) Radial nerve
(d) Ulnar nerve
Ans: (a)
212. Cause of gunstock deformity is
(a) Supracondylar fracture
(b) Fracture both bones of forearm
(c) Fracture surgical head of humerus
(d) Fracture fibula
Ans: (a)
213. Causes for carpal tunnel syndrome are all except
(a) Pregnancy
(b) Acromegaly
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Tuberculosis
Ans: (d)
214. Siffer Kart sign is seen in
(a) Legg Calve Perthe’s disease
(b) Blount’s disease
(c) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(d) Pulled elbow
Ans: (b)
ANESTHESIA
215. Local anesthetics
(a) Inhibit sodium pump
(b) Are weak acids
(c) Degraded by plasma cholinesterases
(d) Becomes less potent if combined with sodium bicarbonate
Ans: (a)
216. In spinal anesthesia, the drug is deposited between
(a) Dura & Pia mater
(b) Pia mater & archnoid
(c) Dura mater & ventricle
(d) Epidural space
Ans: (b)
217. The most cardiotoxic local anesthetic agent is
(a) Lignocaine
(b) Bupivacaine
(c) Prilocaine
(d) Procaine
Ans: (b)
218. The concentration of adrenaline used with lidocaine in local anesthesia is
(a) 1 : 200
(b) 1:2000
(c) 1:20000
(d) 1:200000
Ans: (d)
219. The muscle relaxant that exhibits phase-II blockade after prolonged administration is
(a) Atracurium
(b) Vecuronium
(c) Recuronium
(d) Succinyl choline
Ans: (d)
220. The intravenous agent causing temporary inhibition is steroid system is
(a) Propofol
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Etomidate
(d) Midazolam
Ans: (c)
221. Anesthetic agent that does not suppress cerebral metabolic rate
(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Sevoflurane
(d) Isoflurane
Ans: (a)
222. Increased intracranial tension is a feature of
(a) Ketamine
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Etomidate
(d) Propofol
Ans: (a)
223. Magnitude of carbon monoxide production is least with
(a) Sevoflurane
(b) Isoflurane
(c) Desflurane
(d) Enflurane
Ans: (a)
224. The inhalational agent that is maximally metabolized is
(a) Xenon
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Desflurane
(d) Halothane
Ans: (d)
225. The intravenous induction agent suitable for day care surgery is
(a) Morphine
(b) Ketamine
(c) Propofol
(d) Diazepam
Ans: (c)
226. Mendelson’s syndrome is due to
(a) Increased sensitivity to anesthetic agent
(b) Gastric aspiration
(c) Faulty intubation
(d) Asphyxia due to tracheal intubation
Ans: (b)
227. Agent causing malignant hyperthermia is
(a) Succinyl choline
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Ether
(d) Verapamil
Ans: (a)
RADIODIAGNOSIS & RADIOTHERAPY
228. Bragg’s peak occurs in
(a) X-ray
(b) Gamma ray
(c) Proton beam therapy
(d) Electron beam therapy
Ans: (c)
229. Bamboo spine is seen in
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Ochronosis
(d) Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans: (d)
230. Predominant osteoblastic metastasis is seen in
(a) Renal cell carcinoma
(b) Breast cancer
(c) Prostate cancer
(d) Non small cell cancer of lung
Ans: (c)
231. Cold lesion in bone scan in suggestive of
(a) Osteomyelitis
(b) Fracture
(c) Sequestrum
(d) Purely lytic metastasis
Ans: (d)
232. Pneumoperitoneum –best investigation is
(a) X ray -left lateral decubitus view
(b) Plain X ray abdomen- erect
(c) CT abdomen
(d) Plain X ray chest- erect
Ans: (a)
233. Retro cardiac shadow showing air fluid level is seen in
(a) Pleural effusion
(b) Pericardial effusion
(c) Hiatus hernia
(d) Ca. Colon
Ans: (c)
234. Drooping Lily water sign is seen in
(a) Splenic tumor
(b) Liver tumor
(c) Supra renal mass
(d) Upper pole renal mass
Ans: (d)
235. Earliest sign of increased intracranial tension is
(a) Erosion of dorsal sella
(b) Pineal displacement
(c) Widening of sella
(d) Copper beaten appearance
Ans: (a)
236. Technitium-99 tagged RBC’s are used in all except
(a) To assess Left ventricular function
(b) To assess GI bleed
(c) Diagnosis of liver heamngiomas
(d) Diagnosis of Hepatoma
Ans: (d)
237. The tracer that best assesses effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) is
(a) 131I-Hippuran
(b) 99mTc-MAG-3
(c) 99mTc-DTPA
(d) 14C-Inulin
Ans: (a)
238. The imaging modality continued to be gold standard for assessing myocardial viability is
(a) 201- Th perfusion SPECT
(b) 99m Tc M1B1 perfusion SPECT
(c) Dobutamine ECHO
(d) 18 F-FDG PET-CT
Ans: (d)
DERMATOLOGY
239. Wickham’s straie are white lines seen on papules of the following dermatosis
(a) Lichen planus
(b) Lichen Amyloidosis
(c) Lichen simplex chronicus
(d) Prurigo nodularis
Ans: (a)
240. Keratoderma blenorrhagica is a feature of
(a) Reiter’s syndrome
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Ptyrus rubrapilaris
(d) Atopic dermatitis
Ans: (a)
241. Not true regarding tinea versicolor is
(a) Causative agent is malasezzia furfur
(b) KOH mount shows meat ball and spaghetti appearance
(c) Wood lamp shows yellow fluorescence
(d) Drug of choice is griseofulvin
Ans: (d)
242. Denovan bodies are seen in the smear taken from genital region of a person suffering from
(a) LGV
(b) Syphilis
(c) Granuloma inguinale
(d) Herpes genitalis
Ans: (c)
PSYCHIATRY
243. A culture bound characterized by “a brief period of brooding, followed by outburst of violent & homicidal behavior” is called as
(a) Boufee delirante
(b) Amok
(c) Dhat syndrome
(d) Qi-Gong psychosis
Ans: (b)
244. Post traumatic stress disorder
(a) Repeated recollection such as night mares
(b) Firm belief that a group of people are trying to kill
(c) Sustained sad mood for more than 2 weeks
(d) Motor hyperactivity and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities.
Ans: (a)
245. Not true regarding kleptomania is
(a) Recurrent impulse to steal
(b) Feels tense before committing the theft
(c) Object stolen are usually expensive
(d) Most common in women
Ans: (c)
246. Cataplexy is
(a) Complex partial epilepsy
(b) Modified form of electro convulsive therapy
(c) Sudden brief loss of muscle tone
(d) Tendency to maintain unusual posture.
Ans: (c)
247. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is definitely indicated in
(a) Chronic, low grade depression for more than 2 years
1. Skull Photo (Color Plate 1: Foramen Ovale). Which of the following structures doesn’t pass through the area marked in the diagram:
(a) Lesser Petrosal nerve
(b) Maxillary nerve
(c) Motor root of trigeminal nerve
(d) Sensory branch of mandibular nerve
Ans: (b)
2. “Trukish Saddle” refers to
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Amygdaloid body
(d) Uncus
Ans: (b)
3. During pronation of foot, the axes of which two joints become parallel?
(a) Talocrural and subtalar
(b) Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid
(c) Talonavicular and subtalar
(d) Midtarsal and tarsometatarsal
Ans: (b)
4. Most common site of Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
(a) Duodenum
(b) Jejunum
(c) Ileum
(d) Stomach
Ans: (c)
5. All are true about sphincter urethrae except
(a) Voluntary
(b) Supplied by Pudendal nerve
(c) Originates from the ischiopubic rami
(d) Located at bladder neck
Ans: (d)
6. Dense regular collagen is found in all except
(a) Ligament
(b) Periosteum
(c) Aponeurosis
(d) Tendon
Ans: (b)
7. Panniculus Adiposus is seen in
(a) Scrotum
(b) Orbit
(c) Eyelid
(d) Penis
Ans: (b)
8. Membrana tectoria is derived from
(a) Anterior atlanto occipital membrane
(b) Posterior atlanto occipital membrane
(c) Anterior longitudinal ligament
(d) Posterior longitudinal ligament
Ans: (d)
9. All of the following are true about cavernous sinus thrombosis except
(a) Loss of Jaw Jerk
(b) Infection can spread to cavernous sinus from danger area of ace via inferior ophthalmic vein
(c) Most common cause in ethmoidal sinusitis
(d) Loss of sensation around the eye
Ans: (a)
10. Which of the following is not carried by dorsal column?
(a) Pain
(b) Proprioception
(c) Vibration
(d) Touch
Ans: (a)
11. Which cranial nerve nucleus underlies the facial colliculus?
(a) Sixth
(b) Seventh
(c) Eighth
(d) Fifth
Ans: (a)
PHYSIOLOGY
12. Which of the following techniques is used to study the current flow across a single ion channel?
(a) Voltage clamp technique
(b) Patch clamp technique
(c) Lontophoresis
(d) Galvanometry
Ans: (b)
13. K complexs and sleep spindles area seen in which stage of sleep
(a) REM
(b) Stage 1 NREM
(c) Stage 2 NREM
(d) Stage 3 NREM
Ans: (c)
14. Free nerve endings carrying nociceptive fibres area seen in which of the followings
(a) Intestine
(b) Mesentery
(c) Spleen
(d) Liver
Ans: (b)
15. Attention and concentration are functions of which of the following brain areas:
(a) Frontal Lobe
(b) Parietal Lobe
(c) Hypohalamus
(d) Basal Ganglia
Ans: (a)
16. You are testing knee jerk reflex in a patient. The afferents in deep tendon reflexes are carried by:
(a) Nuclear bag and chain fibres
(b) Golgi tendon organ
(c) Nuclear bag and static chain fibres
(d) Dynamic Intrafusal fibres
Ans: (d)
17. Which of the following is not a component of counter current mechanism?
(a) Thick ascending limb of henle
(b) Collecting duct
(c) Descending limb of henle
(d) Vasa recta
Ans: (b)
18. The traid of bradycardia, hypertension and irregular respiration is called as:
(a) Cushings reflex
(b) Bezold Jarisch reflex
(c) Bainbridge reflex
(d) Herrings reflex
Ans: (a)
19. A short duration high frequency stimulation with 5 Hz of perforant pathway in hippocampus leads to
(a) Long term potentiation
(b) Habituation
(c) Long term depression
(d) Post titanic potentiation
Ans: (a)
BIOCHEMISTRY
20. In traumatic brain injury, changes in brain metabolism are seen. All are True except:
(a) There is shut down of pyruvate dehydrogenase activity
(b) there is accumulation of lactate in brain
(c) there is increased lactate uptake from circulation
(d) increased CSF lactate is associated with good prognosis
Ans: (d)
21. Which technique is used to study structure of molecules?
(a) X ray crystallography
(b) Electron microscopy
(c) Ion exchange chromatography
(d) Agarose gel electrophoresis
Ans: (a)
22. A child suffered from a viral illness for which he took aspirin. 3 days later the child presented to the emergency with altered sensorium and icterus. What is the underlying biochemical defect?
(a) Beta oxidation of fatty acids
(b) Glucose- 6 phosphatase deficiency
(c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
(d) Urea cycle defect
Ans: (a)
23. All of the following amino acids are components of collagen except:
(a) Glycine
(b) Proline
(c) Lysine
(d) Desmosine
Ans: (d)
PATHOLOGY
24. Identify the disease shown in the karyotype (Color Plate 2):
(a) Bloom Syndrome
(b) Cri-du-chat syndrome
(c) PraderWilli syndrome
(d) Downs Syndrome
Ans: (b)
25. A 17 year old female underwent a fine needle aspiration cytology (FN AC) for a lump im the breast which was well defined, nontender and mobile. The diagnosis of a benign lesion can be considered by which of the following pathological features:
(a) Dyscohesive ducatal epithelial cell without cellular fragments
(b) Tightly arranged ductal epithelial cell with dyschohesive bare nuclei
(c) Stromal predominance with hyperplasia of spindle cells
(d) Polymorphism with single or arranged ductal epithelial cells
Ans: (b)
26. Which of the following is seen in Schwannoma?
(a) Storiform pattern
(b) Spindle cells
(c) Antoni A and B
(d) Target Cells
Ans: (c)
27. A 27 year old female with right sided thyroid nodule was operated. A 2 * 2 cm thyroid nodule was resected and the following histology was found. What is your diagnosis? (Color plate 3)
(a) Papillary carcinoma thyroid
(b) Adenomatous Goitre
(c) Follicular Adenoma
(d) Graves disease
Ans: (a)
28. A patient with a history of recurrent ureteric stones presented with fever. Right sided nephrectomy was done. What is your diagnosis. (Color plate 4)
(a) Adult polycytic kidney disease
(b) Renal Cell Carcinoma
(c) Cystic Dysplastic Kidney
(d) Hydronephrosis with chronic pyelonephritis
Ans: (d)
29. Which of the following induces apoptosis in a cell?
(a) Oleic acid
(b) Glucocorticoids
(c) Isoprenoids
(d) Myristic acid
Ans: (b)
30. A 65 year old chronic smoker presented with a central lung mass with distal bronchiectasis and recurrent pneumonia. A grayish white tumor was resected. Which of the following histopathological finding is most likely to be seen?
(a) Small cells with sacant cytoplasm, ill defined cell borders and hyperchromatic nuclei with nuclear moulding
(b) Derivatives of all three germ layers are seen
(c) Tall columnar cells with cytoplasmic and intra alveolar mucin
(d) Palisading or rosette-like arrangements of cells separated bhy abundant fibrovascular stroma
Ans: (a)
31. About Gastrointestinal Stromal tumour (GIST) all are true except:
(a) Most common site is stomach
(b) Originates from interstitial cells of Cajal
(c) Size plays a role in Prognosis
(d) ALK mutation is seen in most cases
Ans: (d)
32. Which of the following changes is commonly seen in cancers:
(a) Hypomethylation of Oncogenes
(b) Methylation of Tumor Suppressor genes
(c) Loss of Heterozygosity
(d) Mutation of introns
Ans: (b)
33. Molecular classification of breast cancer is based on:
(a) Gene Expression profiling
(b) Expression of hormone receptors (ER/PR)
(c) Serum hormone levels
(d) In-vitro response to chemotherapeutic agents
Ans: (a)
34. An Afroamerican boy of 6 years of age presented with abdominal pain, chronic hemolysis and abnormal RBC shape on peripheral smear. Most likely disorder responsible for this condition:
(a) Trinucleotide repeat
(b) Point mutation
(c) Antiboides against RBC membrane
(d) Genetic imprinting
Ans: (b)
35. Which of the following is incorrect regarding tumor markers?
(a) Desmin-Carcinoma
(b) Cytokeratin-Carcinoma
(c) S100-Melanoma
(d) Common leukocyte antigen-Lymphoma
Ans: (a)
36. Epigenetics deals with genetic modification that do not alter the sequence of DNA. All of the following can detect epigenetic modification except:
(a) CHIP on Chip
(b) Bisulphite method
(c) HPLC
(d) Methylation Specific PCR
Ans: (c)
37. In a 70 years old man who was working in asbestos factory for 10-15 years. On routine X-ray, a mass was seen in right apical region of the lung. Biopsy was taken from the mass. Which of the following is seen on electron microscopic examination?
(a) Numerous long, slender microvilli
(b) Melanosomes
(c) Desmosomes
(d) Neurosecretory granules in the cytoplasm
Ans: (a)
38. A patient is on treatment with penicillin he developed pallor but there was no shortness of breath, urticaria or wheezing. On investigation antibodies against penicillin were found in his blood. What is the type of hypersensitivity reaction that most likely occurred in this patient?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Ans: (b)
PHARMACOLOGY
39. Dexmeditomedine is a :
(a) Centrally acting alpha 2 agonist
(b) Centrally acting alpha 2 antagonist
(c) Peripherally acting alpha 2 antagonist
(d) Centrally peripherally acting alpha 2 agonist and antagonist
Ans: (a)
40. PPI can cause all except
(a) Hypothyroidism
(b) Community acquired penumonia
(c) Clostridium difficile infection
(d) Osteoporosis leading to hip fracture
Ans: (a)
41. Edema is side effect of all except:
(a) Digoxin
(b) Cyclosporine
(c) Amlodipine
(d) Estrogen
Ans: (a)
42. All are true about Rituximab except:
(a) Has dose independent pharmacokinetics
(b) Most common side effect is infusion reaction
(c) First FDA drug approved for resistant lymphomas
(d) Chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD-20 B cell antigen
Ans: (a)
43. Which of the following drug is Class B: Adequate studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a fetal risk?
(a) Brimonidine
(b) Latanoprost
(c) Dorzolamide
(d) Pilocarpine
Ans: (a)
44. Time dependent killing and prolonged postantibiotic effect is seen with:
(a) Fluoroquinolones
(b) Beta lactam antibiotics
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Erythromycin
Ans: (c) AIIMs Nov 2013, May 2013 repeat
45. In which of the following condition, cholinomimetics are not used?
(a) Glaucome
(b) Postsurgical ileus/atony
(c) Myasthenia gravis
(d) Bradycardia
Ans: (d) AIIMS Nov 2013 repeat
46. Which of the following antibiotics can be used in the treatment of fungal keratomycosis?
(a) Linezolid
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Silver sulphadiazine
(d) Doxycycline
Ans: (c)
47. Which of the following third generation cephalosporin has activity against MRSA (methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus)?
(a) Ceftobiprole
(b) Ceftraixone
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Aztreonam
Ans: (a)
48. Which of the following is not a tertiary amine derivative?
(a) Scopolamine
(b) Hyoscine
(c) Glycopyrrolate
(d) Atropine
Ans: (c)
49. A person has been consuming 200 ml alcohol per day for last 20 years. Which of the following drugs should avoided in this patient?
(a) Disulfiram
(b) Acamprosate
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Naltrexone
Ans: (a)
50. Following serum levels are suggestive of lithium toxicity:
(a) 2 mEq/L
(b) 4 mEq/L
(c) 6 mEq/L
(d) 8 mEq/L
Ans: (a)
51. Which of the following is incorrect about NSAIDs?
(a) decrease the anti-hypertensive action of Diuretics
(b) used in Neuropathic pain
(c) should be avoided in renal failure
(d) can be used topically
Ans: (b)
52. Which of the following drugs is not active against Hepatitis B?
(a) Telbivudine
(b) lamivudine
(c) Zydovudine
(d) Interferon
Ans: (c)
53. Which of the following is true about Penicillin G?
(a) It is effective orally
(b) It has a wide spectrum
(c) It is used in rat bite fever
(d) Probenecid given along with PnG decreases it duration of action
Ans: (c)
54. Which of the following is the drug of choice for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
(a) Oral Vancomycin
(b) Cephalexin
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Penicillin
Ans: (a)
55. Which is not true about Paclitaxel?
(a) It stabilizes the microtubules
(b) It is obtained from E.Coli
(c) It is used in Ca ovary, breast and Cervix
(d) It most commonly causes myelosuppression and alopecia
Ans: (b)
56. Which of the following drugs is useful against Pseudomonas?
(a) Piperacillin-tazobactam
(b) Cefotaxime
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Cephalexin
Ans: (a)
MICROBIOLOGY
57. Not used by Non typable Hib?
(a) Meningitis
(b) Otitis media
(c) Pueperal Sepsis
(d) Exacerbation of COPD
Ans: (a)
58. The role played by major histocompatibility complex 1 and 2 is to:
(a) Transduce the signal to Tcells following antigen recognition
(b) Mediate immunogenic class switching
(c) Present antigens for recognition by T cell antigen receptors
(d) Enhance secretion of cytokines
Ans: (c)
59. A cystic fibrosis patient presented with an episode of pneumonia. On sputum culture, mucoid colonies of pseudomonas were seen. What does this indicate?
(a) It formed a biofilm on bronchial walls.
(b) It underwent a mutation
(c) It is resistant to most of the antibiotics
(d) There is a mistake with the culture technique
Ans: (a)
60. A child has Neonatal Meningitis. CSF examination showed small gram positive bacilli. Which is the likely causative organism?
(a) Hemophilus
(b) Strep
(c) Neisseria
(d) Listeria
Ans: (d)
61. Enterohemorrhagic, enterotoxic and enteroinvasive are types of:
(a) E. Coli
(b) Klebsiella
(c) Shigella
(d) Streptococcus penumoniae
Ans: (a)
62. What is true regarding viral antibodies?
(a) Appear before interferon
(b) They are formed against viral surface proteins
(c) They are formed against viral nucleic acid
(d) Maximum levels are seen within 1 week
Ans: (b)
63. Regarding Amoebic liver abscess all are true except:
(a) Trophozoite in stool are essential for clinical diagnosis
(b) Mostly asymptomatic
(c) More common in male than females
(d) It rarely affects brain, eye and skin
Ans: (a)
FORENSIC
64. Harakiri is death by:
(a) stab in the neck
(b) stab in the thorax
(c) stab in the abdomen
(d) stab in the wrist plus neck
Ans: (c)
65. A case of suspected homicide comes to a doctor. He is supposed to inform to police under section…..of CRPC (Criminal penal code).
(a) 174
(b) 39
(c) 37
(d) 176
Ans: (b)
66. A female with suspected child abuse comes to the casualty with severe bleeding from perineum. What will the first step in management?
(a) Airway
(b) Blood Transfusion
(c) First inform the police
(d) Internal Iliac Artery ligation
Ans: (a)
67. Fatal Dose of Arsenic in adults:
(a) 40-60 mg
(b) 20-30 mg
(c) 60-80 mg
(d) 100-200 mg
Ans: (d)
68. Calibre is defined as:
(a) Distance between two diametrically opposite grooves
(b) Distance between two diametrically opposite lands
(c) Distance between opposite land and groove
(d) Ratio of the length and width of the barrel
Ans: (b)
69. According the Galstaun method Iliac crest fuses in fameless at the age of:
(a) 13-15 years
(b) 15-17 years
(c) 17-19 years
(d) 19-20 years
Ans: (c)
70. What is the most common cause of parasuicide?
(a) hanging
(b) drugs
(c) wrist cutting
(d) firearms
Ans: (b)
ENT
71. A child has a disc battery in the nose. What is the most important consideration in management?
(a) Refer the child to specialist for removal.
(b) The battery may leak and cause tissue damage
(c) It can lead to tetanus
(d) Instill Nasal Drops
Ans: (b)
72. Post-adenoidectomy not seen is:
(a) Velopharyngeal insufficiency
(b) Hyponsality
(c) Retropharyngeal abscess
(d) Base of skull fracture/atlanto-axial subluxation/Griesel syndrome
Ans: (b)
73. An elderly male presents with T3N0 laryngeal carcinoma. What would be the management?
(a) Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy
(b) Concurrent Chemoradiotherapy
(c) Radical radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
(d) Radical radiotherapy without chemotherapy
Ans: (b)
74. A patient of head trauma presents with clear nasal discharge. NCCT brain was done which revealed non operable injury to frontobasal area. What is the most appropriate management?
(a) Wait and watch for 4-5 days to allow spontaneous healing
(b) Do an MRI to localise the leak and control the discharge endoscopically
(c) Put a dural catheter to control CSF leak
(d) Approach transcranially to repair the damaged frontobasal region
Ans: (a)
75. All are true about malignant otitis externa except?
(a) ESR is used for follow up after treatment
(b) Granulations are seen on superior wall of external auditory canal
(c) Severe hearing loss is the chief presenting complaint
(d) Pseudomonas is the most common cause
Ans: (c)
76. Topical steroids are not recommended in:
(a) Antrochoanal polyp
(b) Ethomoidal polyps
(c) Allergic fungal sinusitis
(d) Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Ans: (a) Direct repeat from AIIMS Nov 2013
77. Most common cause of vocal cord palsy:
(a) Surgical
(b) Inflammatory
(c) Trauma
(d) Malignancy
Ans: (a)
78. What is true about meniere’s disease?
(a) Semont’s smanoeuvre is used for treatment
(b) Electrocochleography is the gold standard for diagnosis
(c) surgery is the manstay of treatment
(d) V shaped audiogram is seen
Ans: (b)
OPHTHALMOLOGY
79. Gene commonly indicated in congenital cataract:
(a) CRYGS3
(b) PAX6
(c) PITX3
(d) LMX1B
Ans: (a)
80. Normal value of arden index:
(a) 1
(b) 1.5
(c) less than 185%
(d) more than 185%
Ans: (d)
81. There is a retained intraocular iron foreign body. What is the best investigation for monitoring vision?
(a) ERG
(b) Arden Index
(c) Dark adaptometry
(d) Serial Evoke Potentials
Ans: (a)
82. Which diagnostic procedure is not done in a dilated pupil?
(a) Fundus Examination
(b) Gonioscopy
(c) Laser Inferometry
(d) Electroretinography
Ans: (b)
83. Which is not feature of fungal corneal ulcer?
(a) fixed hypopyon
(b) ulcer with solughing margins
(c) symptoms are more pronounced than signs
(d) hyphae are seen on KOH mount
Ans: (c)
84. Laser Trabeculoplasty is indicated in which of the following?
(a) NeovascularGlaucoma
(b) Chronic Angle closure glaucoma
(c) Pseudoexfoliative glaucoma
(d) Uveitic Glaucoma
Ans: (c)
85. A patient presents with painless red eye with an IOP of 600 mm Hg. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Acute anterior uveitis
(b) Glaucomatocyclitic crisis
(c) Angle closure glaucoma
(d) Chronic Papilledema
Ans: (b)
86. A Distortion increases in both direction on wearing a lens. Which of the following is not true about this?
(a) It is a type of Aniseikonia
(b) It is called as Pin Cushion effect
(c) Seen on wearing a convex lenses
(d) Cylindrical lenses increases the distortion
Ans: (d)
87. Which is not an absolute contraindication of corneal transplantation?
(a) TB Meningitis
(b) Rabies
(c) SSPE
(d) Death due to unknown cause
Ans: (a)
88. Which of the following is used as a self tonometer?
(a) Perkins
(b) Diaton
(c) Rebound
(d) Dynamic Contour
Ans: (c)
89. Subretinal Demarcation lies (high water marks) indicate:
(a) Fresh rhegmatogenous RD
(b) Old rhegmatogneous RD
(c) Retinopathy of prematurity
(d) Retinitis Pigmentosa
Ans: (b)
90. Which is not true about rhegmatonenous RD?
(a) It is caused due to fibrous bands in the vitrous
(b) Presents as floaters
(c) Surgery is the primary treatment
(d) Can extend upto ora serrata
Ans: (a)
91. Corneal edema is due to accumulation of:
(a) Lactate
(b) Pyruvate
(c) Glycogen
(d) Carbon Dioxide
Ans: (a)
PSM
92. Population attributable risk is defined as the difference between:
(a) incidence is exposed and incidence in non exposed compared with incidence in non-exposed
(b) incidence in population and incidence in exposed compared with incidence in population
(c) incidence in population and incidence in non exposed compared with incidence in population
(d) incidence in population and incidence in exposed compared with incidence in non-exposed
Ans: (c)
93. A pandemic of H1N1 is suspected when:
(a) Cases are spread over 5 or more cities
(b) 25 or more people are affected
(c) Cases occur within 2 weeks period
(d) Atleast one or more laboratory confirmed H1N1 case
Ans: (a)
94. H5N1 Avian Influenza has not become an epidemic till now. What is the most important reason for this?
(a) Seen only in wild birds and not in domestic poultry
(b) It has avian influenza genes
(c) Human to Human transmission is rare
(d) It causes serious illness leading to death of the patient
Ans: (c)
95. School closure is recommended during an outbreak of swine flu. All of the following support this except?
(a) Closure of school will not lead to reduction in contact between children
(b) children are the most common affected population by swine flu
(c) Increased rates of transmission due to more opportunities for contact
(d) Playing together of students increases transmission
Ans: (a)
96. Which is incorrect about inertization?
(a) Relatively inexpensive
(b) It is done for pharmaceutical waste
(c) It involves mixing the waste the cement before disposal
(d) It causes water pollution
Ans: (d)
97. Which of the following is not a type of VDPV?
(a) mVDPV
(b) aVDPV
(c) iVDPV
(d) cVDPV
Ans: (a)
98. Which is Output indicator of NPCB?
(a) No of cataract surgeries leading to sight restoration
(b) Decrease in prevalence of Blindness
(c) No of school children provided glasses for refraction correction
(d) Number of Eye surgeons trained
Ans: (a)
99. Who is the chairman of District Blindness Control Society?
(a) District Collector
(b) District Health Officer
(c) District Eye Surgeon
(d) Programmer Manager
Ans: (a)
100. Which of the following is not true about cataract surgery rate?
(a) Cataract surgery rate is defined as total number of cataract surgeries performed per one million population
(b) A target cataract surgery rate of 3000 per million
(c) CSR is a true rate
(d) It is an indicator of success of blindness control programmes.
Ans: (c)
101. Which of the following is used to compare two data sets taken on two different scales of measurement?
(a) Coefficient of variation
(b) Standard deviation
(c) Standard error
(d) Variance
Ans: (a)
102. According to ICDS, supplements given to a pregnant woman are:
(a) 200 kcal and 10 g protein
(b) 250 kcal and 12 g protein
(c) 300 kcal and 15 g protein
(d) 330 kcal and 15 g protein
Ans: (None of these) (Ans should be 600 kcal and 20 g protein)
103. A study has been done to establish the relationship between smoking and lung cancer. It was found that the association was more in people who exercise less and less in people who exercise more. In this situation, exercise is a
(a) Confounding factor
(b) Effect modifier
(c) Colinear factor
(d) Bias
Ans: (b)
104. Most efficient larval control method to prevent transmission of urban malaria.
(a) Covering overhead tanks
(b) Cleaning of drains
(c) Filling of ditches and cesspools
(d) Uprooting of plants
Ans: (b)
105. You are doctor. You visit a village and want to make a quick estimate of the Infant population of the area. Which of the following measures can you use?
(a) No. of TT injections in last one year
(b) No. of folifer tablets consumed in one year
(c) Female population in reproductive age group
(d) Literacy Rate
Ans: (b)
106. Chandler Index is an important tool in epidemiology. Which of the following is its least likely use?
(a) Determining case severity and prognosis
(b) Impact of control programme
(c) Endemicity
(d) Load of infection in the community
Ans: (a)
107. All are true about dengue expect:
(a) Aedes Aegypti is the vector
(b) Caused by a flavivirus
(c) Malnutrition is protective
(d) Lamivudine is the drug of choice
Ans: (d)
108. In a sampling technique, every 10th unit of population is chosen. What is tthis type of sampling technique called?
(a) Systematic Random Sampling
(b) Systematic Sampling
(c) Simple random sampling
(d) Cluster Sampling
Ans: (a)
109. Which of the following is true about ESI act?
(a) Funeral benefit is upto Rs 50, 000
(b) The state government’s share of expenditure on medical care is 1/8; the ESI corporation’s share of expenditure on medical care is 7/8 of total cost
(c) Person with daily wages of Rs 70 has to contribute Rs 300 towards ESI
(d) Employee has to contribute 4.75 and employer contributes 8.75%
Ans: (b)
110. Screening under RNTCP emphasizes on :
(a) Chest X-ray
(b) Sputum Microscopy
(c) Sputum Culture
(d) PCR
Ans: (b)
111. Indicator used in RNTCP to measure the impact of the control measures is:
(a) Annual infection rate
(b) Incidence of new cases
(c) Prevalence of infection
(d) Number of people having access to DOTS
Ans: (a)
ORTHOPEDICS
112. Bone Dysplasia is invariably seen in:
(a) Hyperparathyroidism
(b) Osteosarcoma
(c) Developmental Defect
(d) Osteomalacia
Ans: (c)
113. A 10 year child presented with a mid tibial swelling which on X-ray reveled a lytic lesion with sclerotic margins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Osteoid Osteoma
(b) Eosinophilic granuloma
(c) Fibrocortical Defect
(d) Fibrous Dysplasia
Ans: (a)
114. A child is diagnosed with Osteosarcoma based on Sunray appearance seen on X-ray. This is because of:
(a) Calcification along the periosteum
(b) Calcification along the blood vessels
(c) Periosteal reaction
(d) Soft tissue invasion
Ans: (b)
115. Which of the following displacement is not seen in Colles fracture?
(a) Dorsal Displacement
(b) Supination
(c) Volar Tilt
(d) Radial Tilt
Ans: (c)
116. A person is hemiplegic and bed ridden for one year. Changes in bone mineral density are first seen in:
(a) Distal radius
(b) Lumbar spine
(c) Proximal femur
(d) Proximal humerus
Ans: (d)
117. A child is spinned around by his father holding his hand. Suddenly the child started crying and did not allow his father to touch his elbow. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Supracondyfar fracture
(b) Pulled Elbow
(c) Fracture Olecranon Process
(d) Radial Head dislocation
Ans: (b)
118. A 40 year old female presents with multiple lytic bone lesions, fracture calvicle, periosteal resorption of 2nd and 3rd What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Renal osteodystrophy
(b) Osteomalacia
(c) Hyperparathyroidism
(d) Hyperthyroidism
Ans: (c)
119. A 40 year old man presented with acute onset pain and swelling of left great toe. On X-ray, a punched out lytic lesion is seen on phalanx with sclerotic margins and overhanging bony edges. The likely diagnosis is:
(a) Gout
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Psoriatic arthritis
(d) Reiters syndrome
Ans: (a)
MEDICINE
120. Which of the following is true about Non specific intesrstital Pneumonia?
(a) common in elderly age group
(b) good prognosis
(c) early honeycombing
(d) males are affected more commonly then females
Ans: (b)
121. True about Obstructive sleep apnea are all except:
(a) Females affected more than males
(b) Commonly associated with hypertension
(c) Day time sleepiness is seen
(d) >5 episodes of apnea per hour
Ans: (a)
122. A person starts seizing on a railway station while waiting for a train. A wrist band was found showing he is a patient of epilepsy and has a medicine in his pocket. What will you do next?
(a) Put a handkerchief in his mouth and restrain him by holding hands and legs
(b) Take him away from the train, give him medicine with small sips of water and wait for seizure to resolve
(c) Take him away from the train, give him medicine with small sips of water, raise his legs and wait for seizure to resolve
(d) Take him away from the train, make him lie down and refer to the hospital
Ans: (d)
123. High calcium uptake leads to:
(a) Milk Alkali Syndrome
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Osteopetrosis
(d) Cardiomyopathy
Ans: (a)
124. A female in her twenties presents with complaints pain abdomen, abdominal distension and vomiting. On examination she was found to have alopecia and a crepitus in the epigastrium. What is your diagnosis?
(a) Trichobezoar
(b) Carcinoma Pyloric Antrum
(c) Intestinal Tuberculosis
(d) Rectus Sheath Hematoma
Ans: (a)
125. A 70 year old female suffered from an attack of influenza but refused to take the vaccine. She subsequently developed pneumonia and died in 5 days. What is the most common cause of post influenza pneumonia?
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) CMV
(c) Measles
(d) Legionella
Ans: (a)
126. A 15 year old boy came back to this village after a vacation to his relatives. He developed severe headache and purulent nasal discharge and was diagnosed as acute bacterial meningitis. He died 5 days later. Which is the most likely etiological agent?
(a) Plasmodium falciparum
(b) Toxoplasma
(c) Naegleria fowleri
(d) Entamoeba Histolytica
Ans: (c)
127. In which of the following diseases decrease in levels of single of neurotransmitter was first indentified?
(a) Alzheimer’s disease
(b) Parkinson’s disease
(c) Huntington disease
(d) Schizophrenia
Ans: (b)
128. In which of the following chronic conditions, degenerative changes in the brain area seen which are not a part of normal ageing?
(a) Dementia
(b) Pseudodementia
(c) Amnestic Syndrome
(d) Delirium
Ans: (c)
129. Which of the following is the most effective treatment of severe malaria?
(a) Artenusate
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Primaquine
(d) Doxycycline
Ans: (a)
130. Which of the following inflammatory condition has 90% association with HLA-B27?
(a) Ankylosing Spondylitis
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Reiters
(d) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ans: (a)
131. Which of the following is usually not seen in Rheumatic Heart Disease?
(a) PS
(b) MS
(c) TS
(d) As
Ans: (a)
132. A patient has Angina, Dyspnea and syncope. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Aortic Stonosis
(b) Aortic Regurgitation
(c) ASD
(d) VSD
Ans: (a)
133. All are seen in chronic MS except:
(a) Mid Distolic Murmur
(b) Opening Snap
(c) S3
(d) Loud S1
Ans: (c)
134. Abatacept, a new drug inhibiting costimulation is used for:
(a) SLE
(b) Scleroderma
(c) Rehumatoid Arthritis
(d) Sjogren Syndrome
Ans: (c)
135. A known case of bronchial asthma presents with respiratory distress, a respiratory rate of 48/min and can barely speak 2 words. Nebulised Salbutamol was given and pt could speak a sentence but there was fall in SpO2 from 95% to 85%. What could be the possible explanation?
(a) Ventilation Perfusion mismatch because of increased dead space ventilation
(b) Intrathoracic shunting
(c) Due to salbutamol
(d) Faulty oximeter
Ans: (a)
136. Which of the following is diagnostic of Acute Hepatitis B infections?
(a) IgM Anti Hbc
(b) IgG Anti Hbc
(c) Anti HbS
(d) IgM Angi Hbe
Ans: (a)
137. A Nurse has been found to be seropositive for both HbsAg and HBeAg. She is suffering from:
(a) Concurrent Hep B and Hep E infection
(b) Acute infectious Hepatitis B
(c) Chronic Hepatitis B infection
(d) Past Hepatitis B infection
Ans: (b)
138. Inability to perform physical activity without discomfort falls under:
(a) NYHA Class 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: (d)
139. Which of the following is not an indicator of Chronic Congestive heart failure
(a) Brain natriuretic Peptide
(b) Troponin
(c) C-reactive protein
(d) Sirtuin
Ans: (d)
140. Which of the following pulmonary symptoms don’t have the corresponding non pulmonary association?
(a) Cyanosis-Anxiety
(b) Wheesing-CHF
(c) Tachypnoea-Acidosis
(d) Chest pain-Pericarditis
Ans: (a)
141. A 30 year old man presents to the emergency with complaints of muscle weakness, nausea, vomiting and fatigue. ECG showed tall peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, wide QRS and absent P. Which of the following drugs is not used in management?
(a) Beta antagonist
(b) Calcium Gluconate
(c) Insulin
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: (a)
142. H-reflex is done in:
(a) L2 radiculopathy
(b) L3
(c) L4
(d) S1
Ans: (d)
143. What is the emergent management of tension pneumothorax?
(a) Chest X-ray
(b) Emergency room thoracotomy if unstable
(c) Immediate needle throacostomy in 2nd intercostals space
(d) Tube thoracostomy in 5th ICS
Ans: (c)
144. A man presented with bilateral crepitations in the base of ht lungs and signs of pneumonitis with a history of exposure to pigeon faeces. What is true about this condition?
(a) Diagnosis can be made on the basis of history
(b) CT Scan is the Investigation of choice
(c) Chest X-ray will reveal characteristic changes
(d) It is a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
Ans: (a)
145. Which of the following is not a components of SIRS
(a) Urine ouput < 1 kl/kg/hr
(b) Temperature >38℃
(c) RR > 24/min
(d) SBP < 90 mmhg
Ans: (a)
SURGERY
146. In case of ascites, Le Veen shunt is done between peritoneum and
(a) SVC
(b) Cisterna Chyli
(c) Gall Bladder
(d) Renal Pelvis
Ans: (a)
147. Which of the following drugs is useful for treatment of advanced prostate cancer?
(a) Ganirelix
(b) Cetrorelix
(c) Abarelix
(d) Goserelin
Ans: (d)
148. All of the following are premalignant except?
(a) Peutz Jeghers syndrome
(b) Ulcerative colitis
(c) Crohn’s disease
(d) Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
Ans: (a)
149. A 65 year man presented with an episode of syncope. He said he felt dizzy during defecation and noticed gross bleeding in the pan. Fecal occult blood test done 3 months ago as a part of routine screening for colon cancer was negative. There is no history of recent weight loss. What is the likely colonoscopic finding?
(a) Microscopic colitis
(b) Dilated mucosal and submucosal vein in colon
(c) Early colonic carcinoma
(d) Sigmoid diverticulitis
Ans: (b)
150. A 58 year old female complains of dull aching pain in right iliac fossa. On examination, gross pallor was found and a mass was palpable in the right liliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Appendiceal mass
(b) Carcinoma ascending colon
(c) Ileocaecal TB
(d) Diverticulitis
Ans: (b)
151. FNAC cannot detect which of the following?
(a) Follicular Carcinoma
(b) Colloid Goitre
(c) Papillary Carcinoma
(d) Hashimoto Thyroiditis
Ans: (a)
152. A 13 year old girl with soft painful swelling on posterior aspect of thigh. Color Doppler showed multiple venous channels without any major arterial feeder. All of the following are liquid embolizing agents except.
(a) Absolute alcohol
(b) Polyvinyl alcohol
(c) Sodiumtetradecyl sulphate
(d) Cyanoacrylate
Ans: (b)
153. You are a surgeon posted at CHC. A patient of head injury comes to you with rapidly deteriorating sensorium and progressive dilation and fixation of pupil. No neurosurgeon/CT scan is available. You decide to make a burr hole to emergently relieve the intracranial pressure. Which of the following sites will you choose:
(a) In the temporal region contralateral to the side of papillary dilatation
(b) In the midline if both pupils are equal or it is not known which side dilated first
(c) In the left temporal region if no localizing sign in found
(d) Refer to a higher centre of both pupils are equal or its is not known which side dilated first
Ans: (c)
154. A couple presents with infertility. On investigating, the husband is found to have azoospermia on semen analysis. Vas was not palpable on PerRectal examination. Semen had low volume, high viscosity and fructose was present. What will you do next?
(a) CFTR gene mutation analysis
(b) Karyotype
(c) PSA
(d) Trans Rectal Ultrasound
Ans: (a)
155. Which of the following is the ideal time for repair of cleft palate?
(a) 9-12 months
(b) 18-24 months
(c) 2-3 years
(d) 5-6 years
Ans: (a)
PEDIATRICS
156. A child with cyanosis and choking on feeding at birth was diagnosed as TEF and had underwent a corrective surgery. He comes to you with complaints of barking cough and expiratory wheeze. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Bronchial Asthma
(b) Croup
(c) Tracheomalacia
(d) Subglottic stenosis
Ans: (c)
157. A child complains of fluid coming out of umbilicus on straining. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Patent Vitellointestinal duct
(b) Urachal Fistula
(c) Umbilical Hernia
(d) Gastroschisis
Ans: (b)
158. A neonate presents with respiratory distress with enlargement of left upper lobe of lung and mediastinal shift towards the right. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Cong lobar emphysema
(b) Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Cystic Fibrosis
Ans: (a)
159. A 10 month child weighing 5 kg and 65 cm presents with cough and cold. He was found to have a respiratory rate of 48 per minute with no retractions, grunting, cyanosis. There is no history of convulsions. Which is true?
(a) No pneumonia, only cough and cold
(b) Child has Pneumonia
(c) Severe Pneumonia
(d) Very Severe disease
Ans: (a)
160. A female girl child came with complaints of involuntary movements was diagnosed as a case of Sydenham chorea suggestive of a diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever. There is no complaints of carditis or arthritis. Throat culture is negative. Which of the following will most likely suggest recent streptococcal infection?
(a) Antistreptolysin S
(b) ASLO
(c) PCR for M protein
(d) Antihyaluronidase
Ans: (b)
161. A neonate at 48 hours of birth with a history of non-passage of meconium. Next step in evaluation will be?
(a) Lower GI study
(b) Manometry
(c) Sweat Chloride levels
(d) CFTR mutation analysis
Ans: (a)
162. Which of the following is not seen in adults?
(a) Kawasaki disease
(b) Henoch Schonlein Purpura
(c) Susac Syndrome
(d) Takayasu Arteritis
Ans: (a)
163. A 60 month child presents with episodes of vomiting after ingesting fruit juice. Which of following enzyme deficiency is likely?
(a) Aldolase B
(b) Fructokinase
(c) Glucose 6 phosphatase
(d) Hexokinase
Ans: (a)
164. A month child woke up in right crying with abdominal pain which got relieved on passing red stools. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Meckel’s diverticulum
(b) Intusussception
(c) Malrotation
(d) Intestinal Obstruction
Ans: (b)
165. A child presents with pellagra like dermatitis and aminoaciduria. Two siblings have the condition and it is absent in two siblings while it is absent in both parents. Which of the following condition is most likely?
(a) Hartnup’s disease
(b) Alkaptonuria
(c) Phenylketonuria
(d) Von Gierke’s disease
Ans: (a)
166. Which is not seen in tuberous sclerosis?
(a) Astrocytoma
(b) Ependymoma
(c) White matter lesions
(d) Subependymal nodules
Ans: (b)
167. Which of the following if seen on Day 10 on life, is worrisome?
(a) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
(b) Dolls Eye Relfex
(c) No weight gain
(d) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Ans: (a)
168. A child with Nephrotic syndrome following an episode of diarrohea presented with acute kidney injury with a creatinine of 4.5. All of the following are possible reasons except?
(a) Renal vein thrombosis
(b) Diarrohoea water depletion
(c) Frusemide
(d) Steroid induced diabetes
Ans: (d)
OBG
169. All of the following are used for screening cancers in females except:
170. All of the following are true about of agumentation of labour except:
(a) Twin pregnancy precludes the use of oxytocin
(b) Amniotomy decreases the need for oxytocin use
(c) Methods of agumentation does not increase the risk of operational management
(d) Associated with a risk of uterine hyperstimulation
Ans: (a)
171. Studies have shown that complications of prematurity, IUGR are not affected by the timing of caesarean section. What is the recommended timing of caesarean section?
(a) 37 weeks
(b) 38 weeks
(c) 39 weeks
(d) 40 weeks
Ans: (c)
172. Which of the following is not a ligation technique?
(a) Irving
(b) Parkland
(c) Pomeroy
(d) Essure
Ans: (d)
173. A girl with normal stature and minimal or absent pubertal development is seen in :
(a) Kallman syndrome
(b) Testicular feminization sundrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Pure gonadal dysgenesis
Ans: (a)
174. Which of the following drug is not a first line treatment for an ovulatory abnormal uterine bleeding in a 13 year old?
(a) Progesterone
(b) Estrogen plus progesterone
(c) Tranexamic Acid
(d) Mefenamic Acid
Ans: (d)
175. In a patient with Anti Phospholipid antibody syndrome, what treatment is used to prevent further abortions?
(a) Aspirin + LMWH
(b) Steroids
(c) Aspirin
(d) LMWH
Ans: (a)
176. Which is not true about Expected date of delivery?
(a) less then 5% deliver on the expected date of delivery
(b) 50% deliver within 1 week
(c) 80% deliver within 2 weeks
(d) standard deviation around expected date of delivery is 3 weeks
Ans: (d)
177. All the followings factors have been shown to improve fertility except:
(a) Vegetarian diet
(b) Loss of weight
(c) Gain of weight
(d) Less exercise
Ans: (a)
SKIN
178. Itchy tense blisters are seen on normal looking sin as well as urticarial plaques, as seen in the figure. What is the diagnosis? (Color Plate 6)
(a) Bullous pemphigoid
(b) IgA pemphigus
(c) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(d) Pemphigus Vulgaris
Ans: (a)
179. A 25 year old girl presented with erythematous papules on the face as seen in the figure. The lesions were exacerbated on excessive sweating, sun exposure and emotional disturbance. What is the diagnosis? (Color plate 7)
(a) SLE
(b) Rosacea
(c) Acne Vulagris
(d) Photodermatitis
Ans: (b)
180. A patient presented with the lesion as shown in the picture. What is the next best investigation? (Color plate 8)
(a) Grattage Test
(b) KOH amount
(c) Skin Sensation testing
(d) Patch test
Ans: (b)
181. A female patient comes after a holiday with vulvovaginal discharge and dysuria. Which of the following is the most sensitive diagnostic test?
(a) Nucleic Acid Amplification Test
(b) Wet mount
(c) Gram Stain
(d) Blood Culture
Ans: (a)
182. Which of the following is not a type of Lichen Planus?
(a) Lichen planopilaris
(b) Lichen pigmentosa
(c) Lichen hypertrophica
(d) Lichen scrofulosorum
Ans: (d)
183. A 24 year old female presented with complains of acne. On examination multiple nodules. cystsand intercommunicating sinuses were seen. How will you treat her?
(a) Oral Isotretinoin
(b) Tazarotene
(c) Acitretin
(d) Doxycycline
Ans: (a) Direct repeat AIIMS May 2014
184. A 23 year old male complains of recurrent scaly lesion on the glans penis. It always occurred at the same site and healed with slight hypergig mentation. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Syphilis
(b) Fixed Drug Eruption
(c) Chlamydia
(d) Gonorrhoea
Ans: (b)
ANESTHESIA
185. Which of the following agent is used in Day Care Surgery?
(a) Propofol
(b) Ketamine
(c) Diazepam
(d) Thiopentone
Ans: (a)
186. The names Bethune and Brethren are associated with which of the following monitoring devices?
(a) Plethysmography
(b) End Tidal Capnography
(c) Transesophageal echo
(d) Precordial Doppler
Ans: (b)
187. An eye surgery was performed using propofol as the intravenous anaesthetic agent and Succinylcholine as the muscle relaxant. Recovery from anaesthesia was uneventful. However the patient complains of pain in the muscles. Which of the following is the likely reason for this?
(a) Propofol
(b) Succinylcholine
(c) Muscle Infraction
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
188. Which of the following is a plasma expander similar to albumin, has a MW30,000 and causes less hypersensitivity reactions but should be used with caution?
(a) Dextran
(b) HES
(c) Polygeline
(d) Polypyrrrolidone
Ans: (c)
189. Which of the following is the Circuit of choice for Spontaneous Ventilation?
(a) Mapleson B
(b) Mapleson C
(c) Mapleson D
(d) Mapleson A
Ans: (d)
190. All of the followings are methods for improving oxygenation using a ventilator, except:
(a) ECMO
(b) Low Tidal Volume High PEEP
(c) Prone Ventilation
(d) High frequency ventilation
Ans: (d)
RADIO
191. A neonate presented on day 1 of life, with bilious vomiting. What investigation will you do?
(a) Ultrasound
(b) Babygram
(c) Chest Skiagram
(d) CT Scan
Ans: (b)
192. Investigation of choice for acute appendicitis in children?
(a) USG
(b) MRI
(c) CT Scan
(d) X-ray
Ans: (a)
193. A person has a injury in the forefinger with glass and it is suspected that he has retained piece of glass in this finger. Which is the first investigation you will do?
(a) Plane radiograph
(b) Ultrasound
(c) CT Scan
(d) MRI
Ans: (a)
194. What is the investigation of choice in a patient with acute head injury?
(a) Non Contrast CT
(b) CECT
(c) MRI
(d) PET
Ans: (a)
195. A 3 month old baby presented with clay coloured stools and dark yellow urine. On further investigation he was found to have direct bilirubin of 6 mg%. Which is the most sensitive investigation to diagnose the above condition?
(a) HIDA Scan
(b) USG
(c) Liver Function tests
(d) CT Abdomen
Ans: (a)
196. Investigation of choice for bronchiectasis.
(a) HRCT
(b) Chest X-ray
(c) Bronchoscopy
(d) MRI
Ans: (a)
PSYCHI
197. A patient was diagnosed with schizophrenia and was started on haloperidol 5 mg. On 3rd day he presented with uprolling of eyes. A comlete neurological examination revealed no spasticity or any other abnormalities except uprolling of eyeballs. Visual acuity was found to be normal. What is your likely diagnosis?
(a) Seizure
(b) Acute Dystonia
(c) Malingering
(d) Akathesia
Ans: (b)
198. Which of the following is not an objectives of mental health act 1987?
(a) Minimal mental health care for all
(b) Application of mental health knowledge in general health care
(c) Promote community participation
(d) Human rights for the mentally ill
Ans: (d)
199. Which of the following is the most effective treatment modality for post traumatic stress disorder?
2. All of the following are parts of ethmoid bone, except:
(a) Unicinate process
(b) Inferior concha
(c) Middle concha
(d) Crista galli
Answer:(b)
3. Part of the fallopian tube that acts as functional/anatomical sphincter:
(a) Intramural
(b) Isthmus
(c) Amphulla
(d) Infundibulum
Answer:(a)
4. Most important blood supply to stomach is:
(a) Left gastric artery
(b) Short gastric arteries
(c) Left gastro epiploic artery
(d) Right gastro epiploic artery
Answer:(a)
5. The term “ Dynamic stabilizer of shoulder joint” is used for
(a) Rotator cuff
(b) Glenoid labrum
(c) Coracohumeral ligament
(d) Glenohumeral ligament
Answer:(a)
6. Which of the following is not a derivative of neural ectoderm?
(a) Sphincter pupillae
(b) Dilatoir pupillae
(c) Ciliary muscle
(d) Retina
Answer:(c)
7. Anatomically a muscle of upper limb, but functionally related to the trunk is:
(a) Rhomboideus major
(b) Latissimus dorsi
(c) Trapezius
(d) Levator scapulae
Answer:(b)
8. Which of the following does not supply medulla oblongata?
(a) Anterior spinal artery
(b) Posterior spinal artery
(c) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
(d) Superior cerebellar artery
Answer:(d)
9. External and sphincter is innervated by:
(a) L4, L5
(b) L5, S1
(c) S1, S2, S3
(d) S2, S3, S4
Answer:(d)
10. Dermatome in the thumb and index finger region is supplied by
(a) C5, C6
(b) C6, C7
(c) C7, C8
(d) C8, T1
Answer:(b)
11. A patient woke up from sleep with difficulty in extending fingers. He can make a grip and hold a pen. Wrist extension was possible. No sensory disturbance was found. Injury could be at:
(a) C8, T1
(b) Posterior interosseous nerve
(c) Lower part of brachial plexus
(d) Hand area in motor cortex
Answer:(b)
12. Regular vein, artery and nerve (“VAN”) arrangement is not presented in:
(a) First inercostal space
(b) Second intercostal space
(c) Third intercostals space
(d) Eleventh intercostals space
Answer:(a)
13. Contents of mesorectum are all except
(a) Inferior rectal vein
(b) Superior rectal vein
(c) Paraectal node
(d) Inferior mesenteric plexus
Answer:(a)
14. In which of the following, parallel and uniform spaced collagen is present?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Cornea
(c) Basement membrane
(d) Tympanic membrane
Answer:(b)
15. Both mutagenic and morphogenic is ?
(a) IGF1
(b) FGF
(c) PDGF
(d) Bone morphogenic protein
Answer:(a)
PHYSIOLOGY
16. Sympathetic stimulation decreases blood flow to all except:
(a) Skin
(b) Coronary circulation
(c) Cerebral
(d) Renal
Answer:(b)
17. All of the following are true about excitation contraction coupling except:
(a) Acetylcholine is related at the nerve terminal
(b) Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum during relaxation.
(c) Calcium is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum during contraction.
(d) Calcium binds to tropomyosin to initiate muscle contraction.
Answer:(d)
18. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is based on:
(a) Central pain
(b) Referred pain
(c) Gate controlled theory of pain
(d) Allodynia
Answer:(c)
19. Peripheral resistance is best indicated by:
(a) Diastolic blood pressure
(b) Pulse pressure
(c) Systolic resistance in aorta as increases in its length
(d) Mean arterial pressure
Answer:(d)
BIOCHEMISTRY
20. Which of the following is a suicidal enzyme?
(a) Lipoxygenase
(b) Cyclooxygenase
(c) 5’ Nucleotidase
(d) Thromboxane synthase
Answer:(b)
21. Which method is used to locate a known gene locus?
(a) FISH
(b) CGH
(c) Chromosome painting
(d) RT-PCR
Answer:(a)
22. Real time PC is used for:
(a) Multiplication of RNA
(b) Multiplication of specific segments of DNA
(c) Multiplication of proteins
(d) To know how much amplification of DNA has occurred
Answer:(d, b)
23. True about ribozyme:
(a) Peptidyl transferase activity
(b) Cuts DNA at specific sites
(c) Participate in DNA synthesis
(d) GTPase activity
Answer:(a)
24. All of the following are examples of uniparental disomy except:
(a) Russell Silver syndrome
(b) Prader Willi syndrome
(c) Angelman syndrome
(d) Bloom syndrome
Answer:(d)
25. In karyotyping chromosomes are visualized through light microscope with resolution of:
(a) 5 Kb
(b) 500Kb
(c) 5 Mb
(d) 50Mb
Answer:(c)
26. Which of the following is not a component of fatty acid synthase complex?
(a) Ketoacyl synthase
(b) Acetyl transacylase
(c) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
(d) Enoyl reductase
Answer:(c)
27. Which of the following is most common metabolite of progesterone excreted in urine?
(a) Pregnanelone
(b) Pregnanetriol
(c) 17-hydroxy pregnenolone
(d) Pregnanediol
Answer:(d)
28. Low insulin/glucagon levels leads to increase in the activity of:
(a) Hexokinase
(b) Glucokinase
(c) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(d) Pyruvate kinase
Answer:(c)
29. Factors responsible for ketosis in a patient of Von Gierke’s disease are all, except:
(a) Hypoglycemia
(b) Impaired gluconeogenesis
(c) Impaired glycogenolysis
(d) Low fat mobilization
Answer:(d)
30. All of the following statements are true about NADPH, except:
(a) Produces ATP in RBCs
(b) Stabilizes the RBC plasma membrane
(c) Glucose-6phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes decreased NADPH production
(d) Required for reductive biosynthesis
Answer:(a)
PATHOLOGY
31. The most common subtype of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma in India is:
(a) Diffuse small cell lymphocytic lymphoma
(b) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
(c) Follicular lymphoma
(d) Burkitt’s lymphoma
Answer:(b)
32. Which of the following does not indicate megaloblastic anemia?
(a) Increased regiculocyte count
(b) Raised billirubin
(c) Mild splenomegaly
(d) Nucleated RBC
Answer:(a)
33. Platelet adhesion to collageon occurs via:
(a) Factor VII
(b) Factor IX
(c) Von-Willebrand factor
(d) Fibronectin
Answer:(c)
34. Markers of acute kidney injury include all of the following except:
(a) Microi RNA-122
(b) Cystatin C
(c) N-gal
(d) Kim-1
Answer:(a)
35. In a 70 years old man who was working in asbestos factory for 10-15 years, on routine X-ray, a mass was seen in right apical region of the lung. Biopsy was taken from the mass. Which of the following is seen on electron microscopic examination?
(a) Numerous long, slender fibres
(b) Melanosomes
(c) Desmosomes
(d) Nurosecretary granules in the cytoplasm
Answer:(a)
36. Which of the following induces apoptosis in a cell?
(a) Oleic acid
(b) Glucocorticoids
(c) Isoprenoids
(d) Myristic acid
Answer:(b)
37. A 45 years old female patient presented painless supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. Biopsy revealed blinucleated acidophilic owl eye appearance with floating lymphocytes in empty space, which was CD 15, CD 30 positive, what is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Lymphocytic predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
(b) Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma
(c) Mixed cellularity Hodgkin lymphoma
(d) Lymphocytic depleted lymphoma
Answer:(b)
MICROBIOLOGY
38. The role played by major histocompatibiity complex 1 and 2 is to:
(a) Transduce the signal to T cells following antigen recognition
(b) Mediate immunogenic class switching
(c) Present antigens for recognition by T cell antigen receptors
(d) Enhance the secretion of cytokines
Answer:(c)
PHARMACOLOGY
39. Which of the following is a Rho kinase inhibitor?
(a) Fasudil
(b) Ranolazine
(c) Amiloride
(d) Nicornadil
Answer:(a)
40. All of the following are true about uses of iodine except:
(a) It inhibits release of thyroid hormones.
(b) It causes acute inhibition of iodotyrosine and iodothyronine synthesis.
(c) It can cause iodism.
(d) Its use is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism.
Answer:(d)
41. Duration of action of flumazenil:
(a) 10 minutes
(b) 20 minutes
(c) 30 minutes
(d) 40 minutes
Answer:(d)
42. Drug having both alpha and beta agonist property:
(a) Fenoldopam
(b) Dopamine
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Phenylephrine
Answer:(c)
43. Which of the following drugs can be stopped abruptly without any withdrawal symptoms?
(a) Escitalopram
(b) Fluoxetine
(c) Fluvoxamine
(d) Sertaline
Answer:(b)
44. Ability of body to eliminate the drug from body is called as:
(a) Volume of distribution
(b) Clearance
(c) Steady state
(d) Rate of elimination
Answer:(b)
45. Which of the following is true abut carbamazepine?
(a) Not associated with agranulocytosis
(b) Has been known to cause Steven-Johnson’s syndrome
(c) Causes serious nephrogenic toxicity
(d) Drug monitoring is not required
Answer:(b)
46. Tricylic anti-depressants produce side-effects like dry mouth, urinary retention due to action on
(a) Muscarinic receptors
(b) Nicotinic receptors
(c) Adrenergic receptors
(d) Serotonergic receptors
Answer:(a)
47. In which of the following conditions cholinomimetic is not used?
(a) Glaucoma
(b) Post-surgical ileus/atony
(c) Myasthenia gravis
(d) Partial heart block
Answer:(d)
48. Which of the following antichloinergic agen doesn’t cross the blood brain barrier?
(a) Glycopyrrolate
(b) Atropine
(c) Hyoscine butylbromide
(d) Hyoscine hydrobromide
Answer:(a)
49. Compared to unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight haprin (LMWH) has reliable anticoagulant action because:
(a) It interferes with thrombin and antithrombin simultaneously.
(b) It is less protein bound.
(c) It is given subcutaneously.
(d) It is cleared by macrophages.
Answer:(b)
50. All of the following are true about methanol poisoning except:
(a) Fomepizole is a competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase.
(b) Minimum lethal dose of methanol is 1.25 ml/kg body weight
(c) Formic acid is mainly responsible for toxicity
(d) Methanol causes snow field vision.
Answer:(a)
FORENSIC MEDICINE & TOXICOLOGY
51. Non-disclosure of the identity of the rape is covered under.
(a) Sec 228A IPC
(b) Sec 222A IPC
(c) Sec 224A IPC
(d) Sec 226A IPC
Answer:(c)
52. Lateral traction test is done in unnatural sexual offences in:
(a) Habitual active agent
(b) Paedophilia active agent
(c) Beastility active agent
(d) Habitual passive agent
Answer:(d)
53. According to “Delhi Anatomy Act 1957”, a person died in a road traffic accident, the body can be said to be unclaimed after.
(a) 24 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 72 hours
(d) 96 hours
Answer:(d)
54. Embalming without issuing death certificate is punishable under:
(a) Sec 201 IPC
(b) Sec 297 IPC
(c) Sec 299 IPC
(d) Sec 498 IPC
Answer:(a)
55. Illegal abortion of a woman with her consent is punishable under:
(a) Sec 310 IPC
(b) Sec 312 IPC
(c) Sec 313 IPC
(d) Sec 314 IPC
Answer:(a)
56. In which of the following rigor mortis is not seen?
(a) Well built male
(b) Well built female
(c) Old patient > 80 years
(d) Fetus < 7 months
Answer:(d)
PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE
57. Which vaccine causes ITP as an adverse effect?
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Black
Answer:(a)
58. Which of the following is true about RSBY (Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana)?
(a) Applies to BPL families only
(b) Rupees, 30,000 per family member
(c) Both inpatient and outpatient charges included
(d) Patient first then it is reimbursed by government.
Answer:(a)
59. Recommended daily intake of iodine in pregnancy:
(a) 90 microgram
(b) 120 microgram
(c) 150 microgram
(d) 250 microgram
Answer:(d)
60. Public/General government expenditure on health as proportion of GDP in India:
(a) 0.012
(b) 0.12
(c) 0.05
(d) 0.005
Answer:(a)
61. Highly toxic insecticide, according to Insecticides Rules, are coded as:
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Blue
Answer:(c)
62. Extremely toxic insecticide, according to Insecticides Rules are coded as:
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Blue
Answer:(a)
63. Which of the following vaccines are given according to National Immunization Schedule at 5 years of age?
(a) Pentavalent vaccine, vitamin A
(b) DT booster
(c) PT booster, OPV, vitamin A
(d) DPT booster, vitamin A
Answer:(d)
64. All of the following are true about screw-feed technology except:
(a) Reduces weight by 30%
(b) Reduces volume by 80%
(c) Ideal for pathological waste
(d) Non-burn heat sterilization technique
Answer:(c)
65. Indoor air pollution does not contribute to:
(a) Chronic lung disease
(b) Impaired neurological development
(c) Adverse pregnancy outcome
(d) Pneumonia in child
Answer:(b)
66. All of the following are common causes of epidemic after a disaster except:
(a) Leptospirosis
(b) Rickettsia
(c) Leishmaniasis
(d) Acute respiratory infections
Answer:(c)
67. Which of the following is true about ESI act?
(a) Funeral benefit is up to Rs. 50,000
(b) The State Government’s share of expenditure on medical care is 1/8th of the total cost of medical care; rest is shared by the ESI Corporation.
(c) Employees getting daily wage Rs. 70 has to contribute Rs .300 towards ESI
(d) Employee contributes 4.75% and employer contributes 8.75 of total wage bill.
Answer:(b)
68. Area under normal curve within ±1 SD(Standard deviation):
(a) 0.68
(b) 0.17
(c) 0.12
(d) 0.34
Answer:(a)
69. Proportion of area from middle of curve to +1 standard deviation:
(a) 0.68
(b) 0.17
(c) 0.12
(d) 0.34
Answer:(d)
70. A study was done in a population of 2000 individuals. Mean value of hemoglobin is 13.5 grams and the distribution follows normal distribution curve. What percentage of people will be having hemoglobin level more than 13.5 gram?
(a) 5%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
Answer:(c)
71. In calculating the literacy rate, which parameter is taken into account?
(a) Age above 7 years
(b) Schooling upto 10th class
(c) Schooling upto 15 years
(d) Whole population
Answer:(a)
72. Which of the following is true about polio?
(a) Last case of wild polio virus was found on January 13, 2011
(b) Last case of vaccine-borne polio was reported in 2012
(c) India is the only country, which is not polio endemic
(d) India is currently using IPV
Answer:(a)
73. Statistical “Q” test is used for
(a) To determine outliers
(b) To determine normal distribution
(c) Comparing the means of 2 groups
(d) Comparing the means of more than 2 groups.
Answer:(a)
74. Roll back malaria includes all except:
(a) Insecticide nets
(b) Strengthening health system
(c) Develop new insecticide
(d) Training health workers
Answer:(None)
75. To evaluate post-operative vision effects after cataract extraction surgery under NPCB, which of the following used?
(a) Active surveillance
(b) Sentinel surveillance
(c) Passive surveillance
(d) Routine check-up of all operated cases
Answer:(d)
76. What is the number of under-five deaths globally in 2010?
(a) 6 million
(b) 8 million
(c) 10 million
(d) 12 million
Answer:(None)
77. All of the following are true about folic acid except?
(a) Fortification of wheat products (flour) is done with folic acid India as well as in USA.
(b) It is present in the green leafy vegetables
(c) It is proven to decrease the occurrence of neural tube defects when taken before conception
(d) Methyl-folate trap is because of methionine synthase defect.
Answer:(a)
78. Measles vaccination to all 9 months-14 years children is a part of which WHO strategy?
(a) Mop up
(b) Catch u p
(c) Keep up
(d) Follow up
Answer:(b)
OPTHALMOLOGY
79. Children with germline retinoblastoma are more likely to develop other primary malignancies in their later lifetime course. Which of the following malignancies can occur in such patients?
(a) Osteosarcoma of lower limbs
(b) Thyroid carcinoma
(c) Seminoma
(d) Renal cell carcinoma
Answer:(a)
80. Which of the following is true about degenerative myopia?
(a) More common in males as compared to females
(b) Myopic degeneration can lead to retinal detachment
(c) It is seen in <-6 diopters myopia
(d) Retianl tear is less common and it’s a late complication.
Answer:(b)
81. Most common cause of bilateral proptosis in children:
(a) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(b) PNET
(c) Retinoblastoma
(d) Neuroblastoma
Answer:(d)
82. Optic atropy is not seen in:
(a) Retinitis pigmentosa
(b) Methanol poisoning
(c) Central retinal arterial occlusion (CRAO)
(d) Polypoidal chroidal vasculopathy
Answer:(d)
83. Band shaped keratopathy is formed due to deposition of:
(a) Calcium
(b) Amyloid
(c) Iron
(d) Melanin
Answer:(a)
84. Cells most commonly affected in glaucomatous optic atrophy:
(a) Amacrine cells
(b) Bipolar cells
(c) Ganglion cells
(d) Rods and cones
Answer:(c)
85. Which of the following is false about indirect ophthalmoscopy?
(a) Convex lens is used
(b) Image is virtual and erect
(c) Magnification is 4-5 times
(d) It is so bright that regular haziness is penetrated.
Answer:(b)
86. A 36 years old female on prone dark room test develops pain in eyes. Which of the following drugs should be avoided?
(a) Acetaolamide
(b) Piocarpine
(c) Atropine
(d) Timolol
Answer:(c)
87. Concentration of tropicamide:
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Answer:(a)
88. Which of the following is true regarding concentration of proteins in senile cataract?
(a) More insoluble protein, less soluble protein
(b) More soluble protein, les insoluble protein
(c) Equal concentration of soluble and insoluble protein
(d) None of the above
Answer:(a)
89. Changes seen in conjunctiva after vitamin A deficiency:
(a) Actinic degeneration
(b) Hyperplasia of goblet cells
(c) Hyperkeratosis of squamous epithelium
(d) Stromal infiltration
Answer:(c)
90. Which is of the following drugs should not be given to patient of narrow angle glaucoma?
(a) Phenylephrine
(b) Timodol
(c) Acetozolamide
(d) Homatropine
Answer:(d)
91. Which of the following is true about pterygium?
(a) Probe can be passed underneath the pterygium at the limbus
(b) Associated with exposure to infrared radiation
(c) Bare sclera technique has 30-80% recurrence
(d) Elastotic degeneration with distortion of Descemet’s membrane
Answer:(c)
ENT
92. Topical steroids are not used in:
(a) Post surgery for antrochoanal polyps
(b) Post surgery for ethmoidal plyps
(c) Post surgery for chronic rhinosinusitis
(d) Post surgery for allergic fungal sinusitis
Answer:(a)
93. All of the following are true regarding tonsillectomy in children except one of the following:
(a) Extracapsular approach is best for cold approach
(b) Sleep apnea is an indication
(c) Adenoids should also be removed if significantly involved
(d) Cricothyroid region is high and anterior in children than adults.
Answer:(a)
94. What is placed inside the ear during surgery for cochlear implant?
(a) Microphone
(b) Speech processor
(c) Transmitting coil
(d) Receiver stimulator
Answer:(d)
95. Patient gives history of peanut consumption and presented in the ER with laryngeal edema, stridor, hoarseness of voice and swelling to tongue. Probable diagnosis is:
(a) Angioneurotic edema
(b) Pharyngeal abscess
(c) Foreign body larynx
(d) Foreign body bronchus
Answer:(a)
96. A 36 years old obese man was suffering from hypertension and snoring. Patient was a known smoker. In sleep test, there were 5 apnea /hyperapnoes episodes per hour. He was given antihypertensives and advised to quit smoking. Next line management is:
(a) Uvuloplatopharyngeoplasty
(b) Weight reduction and diet plan
(c) Nasal CPAP
(d) Mandibular repositioning sling
Answer:(b)
97. A 35 years old pregnant female complaining of hearing loss, which aggravated ruing pregnancy, was sent for tympanometry. Which of the following graphs will be seen?
(a) As
(b) Ad
(c) B
(d) C
Answer:(a)
GENERAL MEDICINE
98. In Glasgow coma scale, withdrawal to pain stimulus comes under:
(a) M4
(b) M3
(c) M2
(d) M5
Answer:(a)
99. Given EEG is suggestive of Polyspike and wave
(a) Bifrontal spike and wave
(b) Movement artifact
(c) Polyspike and wave
(d) Generalized slow spike and wave
Answer:(c)
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100. A 55 year old diabetic patient presents with transient obscuration in vision for 2-3 days followed by sudden loss of vision. Which of the following would be the best test to evaluate his symptoms?
(a) Serum ACE levels
(b) Quantiferon-Gold TB test
(c) Elevated homocysteine levels
(d) Serum creatinine levels
Answer:(d)
101. A female patient of childbearing age is on valproate for JME. Which drug should be used to replace valproate and can be prescribed as monotherapy?
(a) Levetiracetam
(b) Zonisamide
(c) Carbamazepine
(d) Phenytoin
Answer:(a)
102. A patient on amphotericin B develops hypokalmeia of 2.3 mE/gl. K+ supplementation require:
(a) 40 mEq over 24 h ours
(b) 60 mEq over 24 hours
(c) 80 mEq over 24 hours
(d) 120-160 mEq over 24 hours
Answer:(a)
103. A patient with tubercular meningitis was taking ATT regularly. At end of 1 month of regular intake of drugs, deterioration in sensorium is noted in condition of the patient despite good compliance for drugs. Which of the following investigations is not required on emergency evaluation?
(a) MRI
(b) NCCT
(c) CSF examination
(d) Liver function tests
Answer:(c)
104. Recently approved drug by FDA for treatment of Lennox Gestaut syndrome:
(a) Lacosamide
(b) Vigabatrin
(c) Zonisamide
(d) Reuffinamide
Answer:(d)
105. A patient with native aortic valve disease came with right hemiparesis. What will you do to prevent further stroke?
(a) Antiplatelet only
(b) Anticoagulant only
(c) Both antiplatelet and anticoagulant
(d) One dose of low molecular weight heparin subcutaneously followed by dual antiplatelet therapy
Answer:(a)
106. Which of the following is true about CML in children?
(a) Translocation between long arm of chromosome 9 and short arm of chromosome.22
(b) Protein tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in treatment
(c) Commonly presents as blast crisis
(d) 2nd most common leukemia in children
Answer:(b)
107. Coarse tremors of tongue are seen in all except:
(a) Parkinsonism
(b) Alcohol
(c) Thyrotoxicosis
(d) General paresis
Answer:(c)
108. A lady developed breathlessness, pruritus, urticaria 1 hour after eating NSAIDs for headache. Chest examination was remarkable for rales with BP-80/50 mmHg. All of the following can be used for initial management except:
(a) Crystalloids infusion
(b) Steroids
(c) Early respiratory support and Oxygenation
(d) Adrenaline
Answer:(b)
109. A 50 years old patient presented with progressive jaundice. Liver function test was done in which conjugated serum bilirubin – 6.7% and total bilirubin-8.8%, alkaline phosphatase-550 IU, SGOT-50, SGPT-65. Most probable diagnosis is :
(a) Jaundice due to choledocholithiasis
(b) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
(c) Viral hepatitis
(d) Malignant obstructive jaundice
Answer:(a)
110. A 60 years old male with alcoholic liver disease presented to emergency with a history of hematemesis. Which of the following is false regarding his management?
(a) Somatosttatin infusion is indicated
(b) Negative nasogastric aspirate does not exclude variceal bleed
(c) Nasogastric tube insertion can provoke variceal bleeding
(d) Upper GI endoscopy is done initially
Answer:(c)
111. A 50 years old male patient came to emergency with right hemiparesis and loss of speech for 2.5 hours. BP is 180/100. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
(a) Give antitypertensive to control BP
(b) Aspirin 300 mg and anticoagulants
(c) Administer t-Plasinogen activator
(d) Go for NCCT
Answer:(d)
112. A 32 years old Bengali women and fever since 48 years with history of irrelevant talk and 2 episodes of tonic clonic seizures on succession on the way to hospital. She was previously alright. Which of the following drug can be given while rest of the investigations were being carried out?
(a) IV mannitol
(b) IV amphotericin B
(c) IV penicillin
(d) IV acyclovir
Answer:(d)
113. A 14 years old male child presented with abnormal body movements with MRI showing signal changes in corpus straitum, thalami, pons, medulla, centrum semiovale and asymmetric diffuse white matter involvement. Most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Parkinsonism
(b) Nigrostraital degeneration
(c) Wilson’s disease
(d) Hallervorden-Spatz disease
Answer:(c)
114. In which one of the following glucocorticoid is used?
(a) E. Coli spepticemia
(b) Severe typhoid
(c) Cerebral malaria
(d) Leishmaniasis
Answer:(b)
115. True about critical illness myoneuropathy? (Asked twice in the exam)
(a) Neurological recovery is complete
(b) Sequential nerve demyelination followed by inflammatory myopathy during course of disease
(c) Cranial nerves are involved more commonly than peripheral nerve
(d) Diaphragmatic atony due to prolonged intubation may cause it.
Answer:(d)
116. A patient developed sudden severe headache two hours ago and becomes unconscious. Upon regaining conscious, patient developed photophobia and neck rigidity. What is the next line of management?
(a) Non-contrast CT scan
(b) IV antibiotics
(c) Lumbar puncture
(d) IV mannitol
Answer:(a)
117. All of the following are true about aspiration pneumonia except:
(a) Aspiration of 20-30 mL of contents of pH <2.5 is required
(b) Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumonia
(c) Posterior segment of the right upper lobe is most commonly affected in the recumbent position
(d) Aspiration responsible for 5-15% of community acquired pneumonia.
Answer:(b)
118. Which of the following is false about hemoptysis?
(a) Massive hemoptysis is bleeding >600 ml in 24 hours
(b) In 90% cases, bleeding rom bronchia arteries
(c) CT chest is the first investigation done
(d) In an unstable patient, rigid bronchoscopy is done to identify the lesion.
Answer:(c)
119. Acquired cause of pure red cell aplasia are all except:
(a) ABO incompatibility in bone marrow transplantation
(b) Lymphoma
(c) Drug induced – NSAIDs
(d) Chromosome 5q deletion syndrome (5q monosomy)
Answer:(c)
120. All of the following are criteria for admission in upper GI bleed except:
(a) Shock index ? 1.5
(b) Hematocrit > 40%
(c) Frank blood in nasogastric aspirate
(d) BP < 100 mm Hg
Answer:(b)
121. All of the following are true about iron deficiency anemia except:
(a) Transferrin saturation > 16%
(b) Detected by serum ferritin levels even in earlier states
(c) Mostly presents without any symptoms with abnormal laboratory findings
(d) Latent anemia is most prevalent in India.
Answer:(c)
122. Which of the following drugs can be given in patients of primary pulmonary hypertension?
(a) Icatibant
(b) Bosentan
(c) Labetolol
(d) Sodium nitroprusside
Answer:(b)
123. A 50 years old female on junk food diet presented with point hemorrhages in scalp, bleeding in joints and erythemataous lesions in the skin. X-ray of knees joint was suggestive of hemarthrosis. Problem lies with:
(a) Hydroxylation of proline and lysine
(b) Carboxylation of glutamic acid
(c) Carboxylation of coagulation factors
(d) Platelet aggregation defect
Answer:(a)
124. All of the following are true about severe malaria except:
(a) Hypoglycemia, blood sugar level less than 40 mg
(b) Creatinine more than 3 mg /dL
(c) LDH > 750 U/L
(d) Hematocrit more than 15
Answer:(d)
125. An elderly; hypertensive patient presented with sudden onset headache, vomiting, neck rigidity without focal neurological deficit. Diagnosis:
(a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
(b) Ischemic stroke
(c) Subdural hemorrhage
(d) Meningitis
Answer:(a)
SURGERYC
126. In which of the following, neo-adjuvant chemotherapy is not used?
(a) Osteosarcoma
(b) Chest wall PNET
(c) Breast cancer stage 2
(d) Ovarian cancer stage 3
Answer:(c)
127. Mortality associated with emergency abdominal arotic surgery is:
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.4%
(d) >50%
Answer:(d)
128. A 35 years old lactating mother presented with a painful breast lump. Out of the following, which is the first investigation to be done?
(a) Mammography
(b) USG
(c) MRI
(d) X-ray
Answer:(b)
129. Which is the commonest site of curling’s ulcer?
(a) 1st part of duodenum
(b) 2nd part of duodenum
(c) 3rd part of duodenum
(d) Junction between 2nd and 3rd part of duodenum
Answer:(a)
130. Which of the following investigations is used to confirm anorchia?
(a) PET
(b) MRI
(c) Laparoscopy
(d) USG
Answer:(c)
131. Infertile couple for past four years, female partner is normal. Male partner has 0.8 ml semen volume per ejaculate on two repeated samples and absent fructose, with no sperms on examination under microscope. What is the next line of management?
(a) Per-rectal examination to check ejaculatory duct obstruction
(b) Give antioxidants
(c) Testicular biopsy
(d) Transrectal ultrasound to detect duct obstruction
Answer:(d)
132. A patient with spine, chest and abdominal injury in road traffic accident developed hypotension and bradycardia. Most likely reason is:
(a) Hypovolemic shock
(b) Hypovolemic + neurogenic shock
(c) Hypovolemic + septicemic
(d) Neurogenic shock
Answer:(d)
133. Following RTA, on patient presented with respiratory distress and fractured ribs. On examination hyper resonant right hemithorax and absent breath sound over same side were found. What is the first line of management?
(a) Insert wide bore needle in 2nd intercostals space
(b) Immediate chest X-ray
(c) CT scan
(d) Emergency thoracotomy
Answer:(a)
134. A 60 years old male presented with fever, chills and dysuria. Patient was hospitalized in emergency for 5 days. PSA level was 7.4. Next best step in this patient:
(a) Repeat PSA
(b) TURP
(c) TRUS guided biopsy
(d) Antibiotics and admit
Answer:(d)
135. Best management of contaminated wound with necrotic material:
(a) Debridement
(b) Tetanus toxoid
(c) Gas gangrene serum
(d) Broad spectrum antibiotics
Answer:(a)
136. Which of the following is false regarding endemic bladder stones?
(a) Always associated with recurrence
(b) High incidence in cereal based diet
(c) Peak incidence in 3 years old children in India
(d) Most common type is ammonium urate or calcium oxalate
Answer:(a)
137. Tumor marker for seminoma:
(a) PLAP
(b) LDH
(c) AFP
(d) HCG
Answer:(a)
138. A 60 years old man presents to the emergency department with history of RTA, in unconscious state and gains consciousness in between but again becomes unconscious. The time when he became conscious is called as:
(a) Lucid interval
(b) Locked in
(c) Coma
(d) Oneiroid state
Answer:(a)
139. A young healthy male patient presents with abdominal pain and history of altered bowel habits from the last 6 months. On CECT< there was dilated distal part of ileum, thickened ileoceacal junction with thickened cecum with presence of sacculations on the antimesenteric border. The vascularity of adjoining mesentery is also increased and there is surrounding mesentery fat. Which of the following is not differential diagnosis?
(a) Ulcerative colitis
(b) Crohn’s disease
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Ischemic bowel disease
Answer:(d)
140. Tensile strength of sound after laparoscopic cholecystetomy in a 30 years old woman depends upon:
(a) replacement of type 3 collagen
(b) Extensive crosslinking of procollagen
(c) Macrophage activity/invasion
(d) Granulation tissue
Answer:(b)
PEDIATRICS
141. Neonatal sepsis is not caused by:
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) E. Coli
(c) Group B streptococci
(d) Acintobacter
Answer:(d)
142. An 8 year old boy complains of increasing muscle weakness. ON examination, his calves are bulky and show muscle tightening. His serum creatine kinase levels are increasing with age. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Hereditary sensorimotor neuropathy
(b) Myelin deficiency
(c) Dystrophin deficiency
(d) Congenital myopathy
Answer:(c)
143. A 2 days old premature neonate develops GTCS. What is the investigation done to diagnose the pathology?
(a) Transcranial ultrasound
(b) CT head
(c) MRI brain
(d) X-ray
Answer:(a)
144. A paediatrician in a district hospital with specialized neonatal care unit calls an ophthalmologist for consultation for which of the following?
(a) A newborn with respiratory distress
(b) A baby born at 28 weeks of gestation
(c) Newborn with jaundice
(d) A newborn with birth weight 2300 grams
Answer:(b)
145. An Afro-American kid of 6 years of age presented with abdominal pain, chronic hemolysis and abnormal RBC shape on peripheral smear. Most likely disorder responsible for this condition:
(a) Trinucleotide repeat
(b) Point mutation
(c) Antibodies against RBC membrane
(d) Genetic imprinting
Answer:(b)
146. Which of the following is not given in the treatment of cyanotic spells in a patient of TOF?
(a) Phenylephrine
(b) Propranolol
(c) Calcium chloride
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
Answer:(c)
147. A newborn who has frothing of mouth. Cyanosis is present on day one. The most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Lung hypoplasia
(b) Lung cyst
(c) Diaphragmatic hernia
(d) Esophageal atresia
Answer:(d)
148. A 6 weeks old baby presents with cough and cold for the last three days. Respiratory rate is 48/min. Patient febrile, there are no chest retractions but wheezing is present. Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) Antibiotics are not required
(b) Child is suffering from pneumonia
(c) Treat only wheezing
(d) Treat only fever
Answer:(b)
149. Efficacy of phototherapy is not affected by:
(a) Skin pigmentation
(b) Type of light used
(c) Spectral irradiation by incident light
(d) Initial concentration of bilirubin
Answer:(a)
150. To establish the diagnosis of H-type trachea-esophageal fistula, which if the following is required?
(a) Chest X-ray
(b) Tracheo-bronchoscopy
(c) CT scan
(d) Esophagoscopy
Answer:(b)
151. A 3 days old baby is admitted with intraventricular hemorrhage. Baby develops abdominal distention. The X-ray abdomen showed pneumatosis portalis. Stage the necrotizing enterocolitis:
(a) 1B
(b) 2a
(c) 2b
(d) 3a
Answer:(c)
152. A 4 years old girl presented with abdominal lump. Bone scan is needed in:
(a) Wilms’ tumor
(b) Neuroblastoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(d) PNET
Answer:(b)
OBSTERICS AND GYNECOLOGY
153. Which of the following is seen in pregnancy with heart disease, which ois not seen in normal pregnancy?
(a) Distended neck veins
(b) Exertional dyspnea
(c) Pedal edema
(d) Supine hypotension
Answer:(a)
154. All of the following complication are more common in ventouse assisted delivery than forceps except:
(a) Subgaleal hemorrhage
(b) Cephalhematoma
(c) Intracranial hemorrhage
(d) Transient lateral rectus palsy
Answer:(c)
155. All of the following are risk factors of cervical cancer except:
(a) Low parity
(b) Multiple partners
(c) Early sexual intercourse
(d) Smoking
Answer:(a)
156. Fertilized ovum reaches the uterine cavity by:
(a) 6-7 days
(b) 5-6 days
(c) 7-8 days
(d) 4-5 days
Answer:(d)
157. A 16 years old girl came for evaluation of hirsutism, irregular bleeding and infertility, diagnosed as PCOS. Which of the following drugs should not be given?
(a) Spironolactone
(b) Tamoxifen
(c) OCPs
(d) Clomiphene citrate
Answer:(All the four drugs can be used in PCOS)
158. Maximum cardiac output is seen in which week of pregnancy?
(a) 24 weeks
(b) 20 weeks
(c) 28 weeks
(d) 22 weeks
Answer:(c)
159. A woman with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with bleeding per vaginum. On speculum examination, the os is open but not products have come out. The most likely diagnosis is
(a) Incomplete abortion
(b) Complete abortion
(c) Inevitable abortion
(d) Missed abortion
Answer:(c)
160. If untreated, percentage of mother to child transmission of HIV during delivery without intervention in a non-breast fed child is:
(a) 40-50%
(b) 10-15%
(c) 15-30%
(d) 5%
Answer:(c)
161. Dose of radiation for early and locally advanced cancer cervix at point A during brachytherapy:
(a) 70-75 Gray and 75-80 Gray
(b) 75-80 Gray and 80-85 Gray
(c) 80-85 Gray and 85-90 Gray
(d) 85-90 Gray and 90-95 Gray
Answer:(c)
162. Which of the following is not true about latent phase of labor?
(a) According to ACOG it starts after 3-4 cm cervical dilatation but they are planning to increase it to 5 cm
(b) Active phase begins at the end of latent phase and is a part of 1st stage of labor
(c) Patient may present with false labor due to mild cramps
(d) Starts with contractions of the uterus
Answer:(a)
163. A 16-year old female presents with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH level. On examination, her height was 58 inches. What would be histopathological finding in the ovary?
(a) Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (stream ovaries)
(b) Mucinous cystadenoma
(c) Psammoma bodies
(d) Hemorrhagic corpus luteum
Answer:(a)
164. Most accurate and safest method to diagnose viable pregnancy at 6 weeks:
(a) Doppler assessment of fetal cardiac activity
(b) USG for fetal cardiac activity
(c) Urinary Beta – hCG determination
(d) Per vaginal examination of uterine size corresponding to 6 weeks gestation
Answer:(b)
165. Most common site of primary for intraocular metastasis is form:
(a) Breast cancer
(b) Ovary
(c) Cervix
(d) Endometrium
Answer:(a)
167. Which of the following is correct order of Lochia?
(a) Serosa, alba, rubra
(b) Alba, rubra, serosa
(c) Rubra, serosa, alba
(d) Rubra alba, serosa
Answer:(c)
All of the following are used for screening of cancers in females except:
(a) CA-125: Ovarian cancer
(b) Mammography: Breast cancer
(c) Pap smear: Cervical cancer
(d) Endometrial aspirate: Endometrial carcinoma
Answer:(d)
168. Which type of the abnormality in sexual development has best prognosis?
(a) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
(b) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
(c) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
(d) True hermaphroditism
Answer:(a)
169. A 26 years healthy female got pregnant for 1st time and LSCS was done for fetal distress. Mild hypertension was present during pregnancy. Two days after delivery she had headache and seizures but proteinuria was not seen. CT scan shown 2 × 3 cm parasagittal hematoma. Diagnosis is:
(a) Eclampsia
(b) Hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage
(c) Sagittal sinus thrombosis
(d) Pituitary apoplexy
Answer:(c)
RADIOLOGY
170 FAST stands for:
(a) Focused assessment with solnography for trauma
(b) Focused abdominal sonography for trauma
(c) Fast assessment with sonography for trauma
(d) Fast assignment with sonography and tomography (computed)
Answer:(a)
171. A 70 years old female is on treatment with Alendronate for 7 years for osteoporosis. How she complains of pain in right thigh. What is the next investigation to be performed?
(a) DEXA scan
(b) X-ray
(c) Serum vitamin D levels
(d) Serum alkaline phosphate levels
Answer:(b)
172. Symptomatic spinal injury without any radiological evidence most commonly found in:
(a) Children
(b) Elderly
(c) Teenagers
(d) Young adults
Answer:(a)
173. Radiologically, increased pulmonary blood flow is indicated by all of the following except:
(a) Descending pulmonary artery diameter > 16 mm
(b) Kerley B lines
(c) Diameter of 2 peripheral arteries > accompanying bronchiole
(d) More than 6 blood vessels in outer 1/3rd
Answer:(c)
174. A patient of RTA with injury over chest and limbs has low SPO2. M-mode ultrasound of right upper chest shows stratosphere sign. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Hemothorax
(b) Pneumothorax
(c) Cardiac tamponade
(d) Pulmonary embolism
Answer:(b)
175. A 12 years old obese boy, referred from endocrinology department with complain of pain in hip joint with limping. Which of the following tests is not useful/least useful?
(a) X-ray pelvis
(b) USG pelvis
(c) MRI pelvis
(d) CT pelvis
Answer:(b)
ANESTHESIA
176. Among the following anesthetic drugs/inducing agents which should be avoided in a patient with history of epilepsy:
185. A 24 year old college student while playing hockey injured his right knee. This patient presents after 3 months with instability of knee joint in full extension without instability at 90 degree of flexion. The structure most commonly damaged is
(a) Posterolateral bundle of anterior cruciate ligament
188. A 7 years old child comes with fever and tibial swelling exhibits on X-ray exhibits periosteal reaction. Laboratory results show raised ESR and TLC. What is the next step in diagnosis of the patient?
190. A 40 years old man presented with acute onset pain and swelling of left greate toe. On X-ray, punched out lytic lesion is seen on phalanx with sclerotic margins and overhanging bony edges. Diagnosis is:
1. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new resistance will be
(a) R/n
(b) n2R
(c) R/n2
(d) nR
Answer: (b)
2. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is
(a) 20 seconds
(b) 5 seconds
(c) 1/5 seconds
(d) 40 seconds
Answer: (b)
3. Which of the following is the correct lens formula?
(a)
(b)
(c) v – u = f
(d) v + u = f
Answer: (a)
4. The magnetic field at a point due to a current carrying conductor is directly proportional to
(a) resistance of the conductor
(b) thickness of the conductor
(c) current flowing through the conductor
(d) distance from the conductor
Answer: (c)
5. A metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The line of force follow the path (s) shown in the figure as
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (d)
6. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelength λ1 : λ2 emitted in the two cases is
(a) 7/5
(b) 27/20
(c) 27/5
(d) 20/7
Answer: (c)
7. In a common emitter transistor amplifier β = 60, Ro = 5000 Ω and internal resistance of a transistor is 500 Ω. The voltage amplification of amplifier will be
(a) 500
(b) 460
(c) 600
(d) 560
Answer: (c)
8. A machine gun has a mass 5 kg. It fires 50 gram bullets at the rate of 30 bullets per minute at a speed of 400 ms−1. What force is required to keep the gun in position?
(a) 10 N
(b) 5 N
(c) 15 N
(d) 30 N
Answer: (a)
9. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750 counts per minute at t = 0 and as 975 counts per minute at t = 5 minutes. The decay constant is approximately.
(a) 0.922 per minute
(b) 0.691 per minute
(c) 0.461 per minute
(d) 0.230 per minute
Answer: (c)
10. The equivalent capacitance between a and b for the combination of capacitors shown in figure where all capacitances are in microfarad is
(a) 6.0 μF
(b) 4.0 μF
(c) 2.0 μF
(d) 3.0 μF
Answer: (a)
11. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according to equation I = I0 sin ωt, where I0 = 10A and ω = 100 π radian/sec. The maximum value of e.m.f. in the second coil is
(a) 2 π
(b) 5 π
(c) π
(d) 4 π
Answer: (b)
12. In Young’s double slit experiment intensity at a point is (1/4) of the maximum intensity. Angular position of this point is (separation between slits is d)
(a) sin−1 (λ/d)
(b) sin−1 (λ/2d)
(c) sin−1 (λ/3d)
(d) sin−1 (λ/4d)
Answer: (c)
13. Two batteries of emf 4 V and 8 V with internal resistance 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in a circuit with a resistance of 9 Ω as shown in figure.
The current and potential difference between the points P and Q are
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
14. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is 3.6 × 10−5 tesla where the dip angle is 60°. The magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field is
(a) 2.8 × 10−4 tesla
(b) 2.1 × 10−4 tesla
(c) 7.2 × 10−45tesla
(d) 3.6 × 10−5 tesla
Answer: (c)
15. The velocity of water in a river is 18 km/hr near the surface. If the river is 5 m deep, find the shearing stress between the horizontal layers of water. The co-efficient of viscosity of water = 10−2
(a) 10−1 N/m2
(b) 10−2 N/m2
(c) 10−3 N/m2
(d) 10−4 N/m2
Answer: (b)
16. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of electric field strength is
(a) 3 V/m
(b) 6 V/m
(c) 9 V/m
(d) 12 V/m
Answer: (b)
17. The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure.
The ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance is :
(a) 10
(b) 10−6
(c) 106
(d) 100
Answer: (b)
18. The principle of conservation of linear momentum can be strictly applied during a collision between two particles provided the time of impact
(a) is extremely small
(b) is moderately small
(c) is extremely large
(d) depends on particular case
Answer: (a)
19. The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends on
(a) the number of turns in the coil
(b) moment of inertia of the coil
(c) current sent through galvanometer
(d) eddy current in Al frame
Answer: (a)
20. The length of elastic string, obeying Hooke’s law is ℓ1 metres when the tension 4 N and ℓ2 metres when the tension is 5N. The length in metres when the tension is 9 N is-
(a) 5 ℓ1 – 4 ℓ2
(b) 5 ℓ2 – 4 ℓ1
(c) 9 ℓ1 – 8 ℓ2
(d) 9 ℓ2 – 8 ℓ1
Answer: (b)
21. A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current I1 at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience
(a) a net repulsive force away from the conductor
(b) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane
(c) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane
(d) a net attractive force towards the conductor
Answer: (d)
22. The temperature of equal masses the three different liquids A, B and C are 12°C, 19°C and 28°C respectively. The temperature when A and B are mixed is 16°C and when B and C are mixed is 23° The temperature when A and C are mixed is
(a) 18.2°C
(b) 22°C
(c) 20.2°C
(d) 25.2°C
Answer: (c)
23. An alternating voltage of 220 V, 50 Hz frequency is applied across a capacitor of capacitance 2 μ The impedence of the circuit is
(a) π/5000
(b) 1000/π
(c) 500 π
(d) 5000/π
Answer: (d)
24. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv, respectively. If γ = Cp/Cv and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c) γR
(d)
Answer: (a)
25. The ratio of radii of the first three Bohr orbits is
(a) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3
(b) 1 : 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 4 : 9
(d) 1: 8 : 27
Answer: (c)
26. The given electrical network is equivalent to :
(a) OR gate
(b) NOR gate
(c) NOT gate
(d) AND gate
Answer: (b)
27. A large number of liquid drops each of radius r coalesce to from a single drop of radius R. The energy released in the process is converted into kinetic energy of the big drop so formed. The speed of the big drop is (given, surface tension of liquid T, density ρ)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (d)
28. Find the magnetic field at P due to the arrangement shown
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
29. The Binding energy per nucleon of nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively.
In the nuclear reaction the value of energy Q released is :
(a) 19.6 MeV
(b) −2.4 MeV
(c) 8.4 MeV
(d) 17.3 MeV
Answer: (d)
30. A ray PQ incident on the refracting face BA is refracted in the prism BAC as shown in the figure and emerges from the other refracting face AC as RS such that AQ = AR. If the angle of prism A = 60° and the refractive index of the material of prism is √3, then the angle of deviation of the ray is
(a) 60°
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
31. Ina photoelectric effect measurement, the stopping potential for a given metal is found to be V0 volt when radiation of wavelength λ0 is used. If radiation of wavelength 2λ0 is used with the same metal then the stopping potential (in volt) will be
(a) V0/2
(b) 2 V0
(c)
(d)
Answer: (d)
32. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances, For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500 Ω and R = 100 Ω the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of VB is:
(a) 4 V
(b) 2 V
(c) 12 V
(d) 6 V
Answer: (b)
33. A steel wire of length ℓ has a magnetic moment M. It is then bent into a semicircular arc. The new magnetic moment is
(a) M/π
(b) 2M/π
(c) 3M/π
(d) 4M/π
Answer: (b)
34. A running man has half the kinetic energy of that of body of half of his mass. The man speeds up by 1 m/s so as to have same K.E. as that of the boy. The original speed of the man will be
(a) √2 m/s
(b) (√2 – 1) m/s
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
35. In Young’s double slit experiment the two slits are illuminated by light of wavelength 5890Å and the distance between the fringes obtained on the screen is 0.2°. If the whole apparatus is immersed in water then the angular fringe width will be, if the refractive index of water is 4/3.
(a) 0.30°
(b) 0.15°
(c) 15°
(d) 90°
Answer: (b)
36. Four point charges –Q, −q, 2q and 2Q are placed one at each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is
(a) Q = −q
(b) Q = −1/q
(c) Q = q
(d) Q = 1/q
Answer: (a)
37. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volt each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively
(a) 150 V and 2.2 A
(b) 220 V and 2.2 A
(c) 220 V and 2.0 A
(d) 100 V and 2.0 A
Answer: (b)
38. A body cools from 50.0°C to 49.9°C in 5s. How long will it take to cool from 40. 0°C to 39.9°C? Assume the temperature of surroundings to be 30.0°C and Newton’s law of cooling to be valid
(a) 2.5 s
(b) 10 s
(c) 20 s
(d) 5 s
Answer: (b)
39. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is
(a) 0 A
(b) 10−2 A
(c) 10−1 A
(d) 10−3 A
Answer: (b)
40. A metal disc of radius 100 cm is rotated at a constant angular speed of 60 rad/s in a plane at right angles to an external field of magnetic induction 0.05 Wb/m2. The emf induced between the centre and a point on the rim will be
(a) 3 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 6 V
(d) 9 V
Answer: (b)
PART – II (CHEMISTRY)
41. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10−18 J atom−1. The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of Li2+ is
(a) 4.41 × 10−16 J atom−1
(b) −4.41 × 10−17 J atom−1
(c) −2.2 × 10−15 J atom−1
(d) 8.8 × 10−17 J atom−1
Answer: (b)
42. The chirality of the compound
(a) R
(b) S
(c) E
(d) Z
Answer: (a)
43. Which of the following compounds is formed when a mixture of K2Cr2O7 and NaCl is heated with conc. H2SO4?
(a) CrO2Cl2
(b) CrCl3
(c) Cr2(SO4)3
(d) Na2CrO4
Answer: (a)
44. For the process H2O(l) (1 bar, 373 K) → H2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of thermodynamic parameter is
(a) ∆G = 0, ∆S = +ve
(b) ∆G = 0, ∆S = −ve
(c) ∆G = +ve, ∆S = 0
(d) ∆G = −ve, ∆S = +ve
Answer: (a)
45. Compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C4H10O on treatment with Lucas reagent at room temperature gives compound ‘B’. When compound ‘B’ is heated with alcoholic KOH, it gives isobutene. Compound ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively
(a) 2-methyl-2 propanaol and 2-methyl-2-chloropropane
(b) 2-methyl-1 propanol and 1-chloro-2-methylpropane
(c) 2-methyl-1-propanol and 2-methyl-2-chloropropane
(d) butan-2-ol and 2-chlorobutane
Answer: (a)
46. The reagent(s) which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from benzophenone is (are)
(a) 2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
(b) aqueous solution of NaHSO3
(c) benedict reagent
(d) I2 and Na2CO3
Answer: (d)
47. In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the Bessemer converter due to the reaction:
(a) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2
(b) Cu2S → 2Cu +S
(c) Fe + Cu2O → 2Cu + FeO
(d) 2Cu2O → 4Cu + O2
Answer: (d)
48. For which one of the following systems at equilibrium, at constant temperature will the doubling of the volume cause a shift to the right?
(a) H2(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ 2HCl(g)
(b) 2CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2CO2(g)
(c) Fe + Cu2O → 2Cu + FeO
(d) 2Cu2O → 4Cu + O2
Answer: (d)
49. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane,
How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogens is replaced by a chlorine atom?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 7
Answer: (b)
50. Calculate enthalpy change for the change 85(g) → S8(g), given that
H2S2(g) → 2H(g) + 2S(g), ∆H = 239.0 k cal mol−1
H2S(g) → 2H(g) + S(g), ∆H = 175.0 k cal mol−1
(a) +512.0 k cal
(b) −512.0 k cal
(c) 508.0 k cal
(d) −508.0 k cal
Answer: (b)
51. Which of the following is best method for reducing 3-bromopropanal to 1-bromopropane-
(a) Wolf-Kishner reduction
(b) Clemmenson reduction
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Stephen’s reduction
Answer: (b)
52. Which one of the following has an optical isomer?
(a) [Zn(en) (NH3)2]2+
(b) [Co(en)3]3+
(c) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+
(d) [Zn(en)2]2+
Answer: (b)
53. An element occurring in the bcc structure has 12.08 × 1023 unit cells. The total number of atoms of the element in these cells will be
(a) 24.16 × 1023
(b) 36.18 × 1023
(c) 6.04 × 1023
(d) 12.08× 1023
Answer: (a)
54. Te major product of the following reaction is
(a) a hemiacetal
(b) an acetal
(c) an ether
(d) an ester
Answer: (b)
55. Standard cell voltage for the cell Pb |Pb2+|| Sn2+| Sn is – 0.01 V. If the cell is to exhibit Ecell = 0, the value of [Sn2+]/[Pb2+] should be antilog of-
(a) +0.3
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.5
(d) −0.5
Answer: (a)
56. HBr reacts with CH2 = CH – OCH3 under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give
(a) BrCH2 – CH2 – OCH3
(b) H3C – CHBr – OCH3
(c) CH3CHO and CH3Br
(d) BrCH2CHO and CH3OH
Answer: (b)
57. Acetic anhydride reacts with diethyl ether in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give:
(a) CH3CH2COOH
(b) CH3CH2COOH2H5
(c) CH3COOCH3
(d) CH3COOC2H5
Answer: (d)
58. The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found to be 220 ohm at 298 K using a conductivity cell with a cell constant of 0.88 cm−1. The value of equivalent conductance of solution is-
(a) 400 mho cm2 g eq−1
(b) 295 mho cm2 g eq−1
(c) 419 mho cm2 g eq−1
(d) 425 mho cm2 g eq−1
Answer: (a)
59. p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give the compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to form, the compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
60. The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La = 57) is 1.06Å. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the radius of Lu3+ (Atomic number of Lu = 71)?
(a) 1.40 Å
(b) 1.06 Å
(c) 0.85 Å
(d) 1.60 Å
Answer: (c)
61. In a compound, atoms of element Y from ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be
(a) X4Y3
(b) X2Y3
(c) X2Y
(d) X3Y4
Answer: (a)
62. An organic compound (C3H9N) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A).
(a)
(b) CH3CH2 – NH – CH3
(c)
(d) CH3CH2CH2 – NH2
Answer: (a)
63. For the reaction 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2, rate and rate constant are 1.02 × 10−4 mol lit−1 sec−1 and 3.4 × 10−5 sec−1 respectively then concentration of N2O5 at that time will be
(a) 1.732 M
(b) 3 M
(c) 3.4 × 105M
(d) 1.02 × 10−4 M
Answer: (b)
64. The complex showing a spin-only magnetic moment of 2.82 B.M. is :
(a) Ni(CO)4
(b) [NiCl4]2−
(c) Ni(PPh3)4
(d) [Ni(CN)4]2−
Answer: (b)
65. What is order with respect to A, B, C, respectively
[A] [B] [C] rate (M/sec)
0.2 0.1 0.02 8.08 × 10−3
0.1 0.2 0.02 2.01× 10−3
0.1 1.8 0.18 6.03 × 10−3
0.2 0.1 0.08 6.464 × 10−2
(a) −1, 1, 3/2
(b) −1, 1, 1/2
(c) 1, 3/2, −1
(d) 1, −1, 3/2
Answer: (d)
66. In the silver plating of copper, K[Ag(CN)2] is used instead of AgNO3. The reason is
(a) a thin layer of Ag is formed on Cu
(b) more voltage is required
(c) Ag+ ions are completely removed from solution
(d) less availability of Ag+ ions, as Cu cannot displace Ag from [Ag(CN)2]− ion
Answer: (d)
67. Nitrosoamines (R2N – N = 0) are soluble in water. On heating them with concentrated H2SO4, they give secondary amines. This reaction is called
(a) Perkin reaction
(b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(c) Fitting reaction
(d) Liebermann nitroso reaction
Answer: (d)
68. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV, respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e., λ1 and λ2 will be
(a) λ1 = λ2
(b) λ1 = 2λ2
(c) λ1 = 4λ2
(d)
Answer: (b)
69. In the reaction:
(a) SiC
(b) H2SO4
(c) KMnO4
(d) Fe + HCl
Answer: (d)
70. Nucleotide in DNA are linked by-
(a) hydrogen bond
(b) 3’-5’ phosphodiester bond
(c) glycosidic bond
(d) peptide bond
Answer: (b)
71. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides (H – X) is
(a) HI > HCl < HF < HBr
(b) HCl < HF > HBr < HI
(c) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(d) HI < HBr > HCl < HF
Answer: (c)
72. The values of ∆H and ∆S for the reaction, C(graphite) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and spontaneous at
(a) 910 K
(b) 1110 K
(c) 510 K
(d) 710 K
Answer: (b)
73. The following carbohydrate is
(a) a ketohexose
(b) an aldohexose
(c) an α-furnaose
(d) an α-pyranose
Answer: (b)
74. Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at the same temperature?
(a) 1.8 × 10−3
(b) 3.6 × 10−3
(c) 6.0 × 10−2
(d) 1.3 × 10−5
Answer: (c)
75. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) All amino acids except lysine are optically active
(b) All amino acids are optically active
(c) All amino acids except glycine are optically active
(d) All amino acids except glutamic acids are optically active
Answer: (c)
76. In case of nitrogen, NCl3 is possible but not NCl5 while in case of phosphorus, PCl3 as well as PCl5 are possible. It is due to
(a) availability of vacant d orbitals in P but not in N
(b) lower electronegativity of P than N
(c) lower tendency of H-bond formation in P than N
(d) occurrence of P in solid while N in gaseous state at room temperature.
Answer: (a)
77. For the reaction :
2BaO2(s) ⇌ 2BaO(s) + O2(g);
∆H = +ve. In equilibrium condition, pressure of O2 is dependent on
(a) mass of BaO2
(b) mass of BaO
(c) temperature of equilibrium
(d) mass of BaO2 and BaO both
Answer: (c)
78. In the series of reaction
X and Y are respectively
(a) C6H5 – N = N – C6H5, C6H5N2⨁Cl⊝
(b) C6H5N2⨁Cl−, C6H5 – N = N – C6H5
(c) C6H5N2⨁Cl−, C6H5NO2
(d) C6H5NO2, C6H6
Answer: (c)
79. In XeF2, XeF4, XeF6 the number of lone pairs on Xe are respectively
(a) 2, 3, 1
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 4, 1, 2
(d) 3, 2, 1
Answer: (c)
80. In Wiliamson synthesis if tertiary alkyl halide is used than
(a) ether is obtained in good yield
(b) ether is obtained in poor yield
(c) alkene is the only reaction product
(d) a mixture of alkene as a major product and ether as a minor product forms.
Answer: (c)
PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
81. If 12 cot2θ – 31 cosec θ + 32 = 0, then the value of sin θ is
(a) 3/5 or 1
(b) 2/3 or −2/3
(c) 4/5 or 3/4
(d) ±1/2
Answer: (c)
82. Amplitude of is:
(a) π/6
(b) π/4
(c) π/3
(d) π/2
Answer: (c)
83. The value of is
(a) 1
(b) −2
(c) 2
(d) 0
Answer: (c)
84. The connective in the statement :
“ 2 + 7 > 9 or 2 + 7 < 9” is
(a) and
(b) or
(c) >
(d) <
Answer: (b)
85. The number of ways in which 3 prizes can be distributed to 4 children, so that no child gets all the three prizes, are
(a) 64
(b) 62
(c) 60
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
86. If A and B are events such that P(A) = 0.42, P(B) = 0.48 and P(A and B) = 0.16. then,
(I) P(not A) = 0.58
(II) P(not B) = 0.52
(III) P(A or B) = 0.47
(a) Only I and II are correct.
(b) Only II and III are correct.
(c) Only I and III are true.
(d) All three statements are correct.
Answer: (a)
87. The focus of the curve y2 + 4x – 6y + 13 = 0 is
(a) (2, 3)
(b) (–2, 3)
(c) (2, –3)
(d) (–2, –3)
Answer: (b)
88. If the parabola y2 = 4ax passes through the point (1, –2), then the tangent at this point is
(a) x + y – 1 = 0
(b) x – y – 1 = 0
(c) x + y + 1 = 0
(d) x – y – 1 = 0
Answer: (c)
89. The no. of points of discontinuity of the function f(x) = x – [x] in the interval (0, 7) are
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer: (c)
90. A football is inflated by pumping air in it. When it acquires spherical shape its radius increases at the rate of 0.02 cm/s. The rate of increase of its volume when the radius is 10 cm is_______ π cm/s
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer: (c)
91. The interval in which the function is decreasing is :
(a) (−1/2, 1/2)
(b) [−1/2, 1/2]
(c) (−1, 1)
(d) [−1, 1]
Answer: (a)
92. The eccentricity of the ellipse whose major axis is three times the minor axis is:
(a) √2/3
(b) √3/2
(c) 2√2/3
(d) 2/√3
Answer: (c)
93. The equation of the hyperbola with vertices (3, 0), (−3, 0) and semi-latus rectum 4 is given by:
(a) 4x2 – 3y2 + 36 = 0
(b) 4x2 – 3y2 + 12 = 0
(c) 4x2 – 3y2 – 36 = 0
(d) 4x2 + 3y2 – 25 = 0
Answer: (c)
94. at x = 0 is
(a) continuous as well as differentiable
(b) differentiable but not continuous
(c) continuous but not differentiable
(d) neither continuous nor differentiable
Answer: (c)
95. If then the value of B is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer: (d)
96. The vector equation of the symmetrical form of equation of straight line is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (d)
97. Let the line lie in the plane x + 3y – αz + β = 0. Then (α, β) equals
(a) (−6, 7)
(b) (5, −15)
(c) (−5, 5)
(d) (6, −17)
Answer: (a)
98. The principal value of
(a) −5π/3
(b) 5π/3
(c) −π/3
(d) 4π/3
Answer: (c)
99. If then x is
(a) −1/2
(b) 1/2
(c) 1
(d) −1
Answer: (b)
100. If then which statement is true?
(a) AAT = I
(b) BBT = I
(c) AB ≠ BA
(d) (AB)T = I
Answer: (d)
101. The value of c in Rolle’s Theorem for the function
f(x) = ex sin x, x ∈ [0, π] is
(a) π/6
(b) π/4
(c) π/2
(d) 3π/4
Answer: (d)
102. The area of the region bounded by the curve x = 2y + 3 and lines y = 1 and y = −1 is
(a) 4 sq. units
(b) 3/2 sq. units
(c) 6 sq. units
(d) 8 sq. units
Answer: (c)
103. A signal which can be green or red with probability 4/5 and 1/5 respectively, is received by station A and then transmitted to station B. The probability of each station receiving the signal correctly is 3/4. If the signal received at station B is given, then the probability that the original signal is green, is
(a) 3/5
(b) 6/7
(c) 20/23
(d) 9/20
Answer: (c)
104. The value of the determinant is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer: (c)
105. If the equation x + ay – z = 0, 2x – y + az = 0, ax + y + 2z = 0 have non-trivial solutions, then a =
(a) 2
(b) −2
(c) √3
(d) −√3
Answer: (b)
106. If the I.F. of the differential equation then A=
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer: (d)
107. What is the length of the projection of on the xy-plane?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer: (b)
108. The radius of the sphere
x2 + y2 + z2 = 49, 2x + 3y – z – 5√14 = 0 is
(a) √6
(b) 2√6
(c) 4√6
(d) 6√6
Answer: (b)
109. One of the values of is
(a)
(b) −i
(c) i
(d) −√3 + i
Answer: (a)
110. The value of does the line y = x + λ touches the ellipse 9x2 + 16y2 = 144 is/are
(a) ±2√2
(b) 2 ± √3
(c) ±5
(d) 5 ± √2
Answer: (c)
111. The combined equation of the asymptotes of the hyperbola 2x2 + 5xy + 2y2 + 4x + 5y = 0 is-
(a) 2x2 + 5xy + 2y2 + 4x + 5y + 2 = 0
(b) 2x2 + 5xy + 2y2 + 4x + 5y − 2 = 0
(c) 2x2 + 5xy + 2y2 = 0
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
112. The two curves x3 – 3xy2 + 2 = 0 and 3x2y – y3 – 2 = 0 intersect at an angle of
(a) π/4
(b) π/3
(c) π/2
(d) π/6
Answer: (c)
113. If at x = 1, the function x−4 – 62x2 + ax + 9 attains its maximum value on the interval [0, 2], then the value of a is
(a) 110
(b) 10
(c) 55
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
114. The value of (where [.] denotes greatest integer function) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
115. The correct evaluation of is
(a) 8π/3
(b) 2π/3
(c) 4π/3
(d) 3π/8
Answer: (d)
116. The order and degree of the differential equation whose solution is y = cx + c2 – 3c3/2 + 2, where c is parameter, is
(a) order = 4, degree = 4
(b) order = 4, degree = 1
(c) order = 1,degree = 4
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
117. The solution of is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
118. A unit vector perpendicular to the plane formed by the points (1, 0, 1), (0, 2, 2) and (3, 3, 0) is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
119. If then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
120. The mean and variance of a random variable X having binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then P(X = 1) is
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/32
(c) 1/16
(d) 1/8
Answer: (a)
PART-IV (ENGLISH)
Directions (Qs. 121-123): Study the paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
Judiciary has become the centre of controversy, in the percent past, on account of the sudden ‘Me’ in the level of judicial intervention. The area of judicial intervention has been steadily expanding through the device of public interest litigation. The judiciary has shed its pro-status-quo approach and taken upon itself the duty to enforce the basic rights of the poor and vulnerable sections of society, by progressive interpretation and positive action. The Supreme Court has developed new methods of dispensing justice to the masses through the public interest litigation. Former Chief Justice PN. Bhagwat, under whose leadership public interest litigation attained a new dimension comments that “the Supreme Court has developed several new commitments. It has carried forward participative justice.”
121. The steady expansion of judicial intervention is the result of
(a) excessive laws
(b) public interest litigation
(c) Supreme Court’s new methods of dispensing justice
(d) new commitments of Supreme Court
Answer: (b)
122. According to the author, judiciary has become the center of controversy because of
(a) problems arising in dispensing justice in the recent past
(b) public interest litigation
(c) sudden ‘Me’ in the level of judicial intervention
(d) Supreme Court’s supremacy
Answer: (c)
123. According to Justice PN. Bhagwat, Supreme Court has developed
(a) judicial intervention
(b) various new commitments
(c) participative judicial approach to dispense justice
(d) public interest litigation
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. 124) : In the questions below, a sentence is given, a part of which is printed in bold and underline. his part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by phrases a, b, c and d. Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold/underline to correct the error, if there is any to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct.
124. Recent incidents of tigers straying have brought to focus the lack of proper regulatory mechanism
and powers with the forest department to take action against the resorts mushroom in forest fringes.
(a) and powers with the forest department to taking action against the resorts mushroom in forest fringes.
(b) and powers with the forest departments to take action against the resorts mushroom in forest fringes.
(c) and powers with the forest department to take action for the resorts mushroom in forest fringes.
(d) and powers with the forest department to take action against the resorts mushrooming in forest fringes.
Answer: (d)
125. Choose the best pronunciation of the word ‘Mischievous’ from the following options.
of nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively.
the value of energy Q released is :
X and Y are respectively
is:
is
is decreasing is :
at x = 0 is
then the value of B is
is
lie in the plane x + 3y – αz + β = 0. Then (α, β) equals
then x is
then which statement is true?
is
then A=
on the xy-plane?
is
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function) is
is
is
then
