IBPS Bank PO
Deepak Sibal
Hon’ble Mr. Justice Deepak Sibal
Born in a family of lawyers, after having been designated as a Senior Advocate by the Punjab and Haryana High Court, was elevated as Additional Judge of the same Court on 25.09.2014. Thereafter, on 23.05.2016, was administered oath as Permanent Judge
Ritu Bahri
Hon’ble Ms. Justice Ritu Bahri
Her Lordship was born on October 11, 1962 at Jalandhar. She belongs to a family of illustrious Lawyers. Her great grand-father Late Shri Karam Chand Bahri was a well known Lawyer of his times on the civil side. Her grand-father Late Shri Som Dutt Bahri also practiced Law on the civil side and was also Member Legislative Assembly, Punjab, from 1952 to 1957. Her father Hon’ble Mr. Justice Amrit Lal Bahri retired as Judge of Punjab & Haryana High Court in the year 1994. Her Lordship did her schooling from Carmel Convent School, Chandigarh, and graduation in Economics (Hons.) from Government College for Women, Chandigarh in the year 1982 in Ist Division. Thereafter, she did her Law from Punjab University, Chandigarh, in the year 1985 in Ist Divison. She was enrolled as an Advocate in the year 1986 with Bar Council of Punjab & Haryana and started practice in Punjab & Haryana High Court. She was appointed as Assistant Advocate General, Haryana, in March 1992. Thereafter, she was appointed as Deputy Advocate General, Haryana, in August 1999 and Senior Advocate General, Haryana, in December 2009. While reprsenting the State of Haryana, she handled several cases relating to Service matters, land Acquisition, Taxation, Revenue, Labour cases and MACT cases. She was elevated as Judge of the Punjab & Haryana High Court on August 16, 2010
IBPS CWE-VI PO/MT Preliminary Online Examination Held on October 23, 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
IBPS CWE-VI PO/MT Preliminary Online Examination Held on October 23, 2016
Part I Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In the following questions, relationships between different element is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
a. if only conclusions II is true
b. if only conclusion I is true
c. if both conclusions are true
d. if either conclusion I or II is true
e. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
1. Statements S ≤ L ≤ I = P ≥ E > R; L > Q
Conclusions I. P ≥ S II. I > R
2. Statements G > R ≤ E = A ≤T ≤ S; D ≤ A ≤ J
Conclusions I. T ≥ D II. R > S
3. Statements A ≥ B > C ≤ D ≤ E < F
Conclusions I. A ≥ E II. C < F
4. Statements G > R ≥ E = A ≤ T ≤ S; D ≤ A ≤ J
Conclusions I. J > G II. J = G
5. Statements S ≤ L ≤ I = P ≥ E > R; L > Q
Conclusions I. L < R II. E ≥ Q
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions based on it.
A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are sitting is a circle. (But not necessary in the same order) there faces are on the centre. W is sitting third to the left of Y. The person, who is from Dwarka is to the immediate right of W and W is not from Okhla. B is sitting fourth to the right of Z. Z is not the neighbour of Y. Neither B nor Z is an immediate neighbour of W. X is from Chanakyapuri and is sitting third to the right of the person from Dwarka. The person from Mehrauli is sitting second to the left of person from Chanakyapuri. The persons from Rohini is sitting second to the left of W. A, who is from Lajpat Nagar, is sitting exactly between X and Z. The person from Saket is sitting second to the right of the person from Lajpat Nagar, C is sitting third to the left of X.
6. Who amongst the following persons belongs to Okhla?
(a) Y
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) Z
7. What is A’s position with respect to B?
(a) Third to the right
(b) Second to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the right
8. How many people are sitting between Z and C when counted in an anticlockwise direction From C?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
9. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and, so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) B – Rohini
(b) Z – Mehrauli
(c) D – Okhla
(d) Y – Saket
(e) X – Dwarka
10. Which of the following statements is false according to the mentioned arrangement?
(a) C is to the immediate right of the person from Karol Bagh.
(b) The person from Lajpat Nagar is third to the right of the person from Mehrauli.
(c) The person from Dwarka is sitting exactly between the person from Karol Bagh and the person from Saket.
(d) D is neither from Chanakyapuri nor from Karol Bagh.
(e) There are only three people between A and C.
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Given answer
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. if both conclusions I and II follow
11. Statements All circles are triangles.
Some triangles are rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.
Conclusions I. All rectangles being triangles is possibility.
II. All circles being square is a possibility.
12. Statements Some chairs are tables.
Some bed are tables.
No furniture is bed.
Conclusions I. All chairs being furniture is a possibility.
II. Some tables are not bed is possibility.
13. Statements All circles are triangles.
Some triangles are rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.
Conclusions I. Some triangles are not rectangles.
II. No square is a circle.
14. Statements All arts are theatre.
Some arts are drama.
Conclusions I. All drama being theatre is a possibility
II. Some dramas are theatre.
15. Statements Some chairs are table.
Some bed are tables.
Conclusions I. Some tables are not furniture.
II. All tables being furniture is a possibility.
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18) Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Point B is 25 m South of point A. Point C is 10 m East of point B. Point D is 30 m North of point C. Point E is 7 m East of point D. Point X is 18 m South of point E. Point M is 12 m South of point X. Point C is 7 m West of point M.
16. B is in which direction from point D?
(a) South
(b) South-West
(c) North-West
(d) South-East
(e) North
17. If point W is 3 m to the North of point A, then what is the distance between point B and point W?
(a) 28 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 22 m
(d) 24 m
(e) 17 m
18. What is distance between point B and point M?
(a) 17 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 21 m
(d) 19 m
(e) 13 m
Directions (Q. Nos. 19-23) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Some of them are facing South While some are facing North.
S faces North. Only two people sit to the right of S. T sits third to the left of S. Only one person sits between T and X. X sits to the immediate right of W. Only one person sits between W and Z. Both the immediate neighbours of T face the same direction. U sits fourth to the left of X. T faces the opposite direction as S. Y does not sit at any of the extremes ends of the line. V faces the same direction as W. Both Y and U face the opposite direction of Z.
19. How many person in the given arrangement are facing North?
(a) More than four
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) Two
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) W, X
(b) Z, Y
(c) T, S
(d) T, Y
(e) V, U
21. What is the position of X with respect to Z?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Fifth to the right
(e) Second to the right
22. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Z and W?
(a) T
(b) Y
(c) X
(d) W
(e) U
23. Who is sitting 2nd to the right of T?
(a) Z
(b) V
(c) X
(d) W
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-26) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
D is daughter of N. E is wife of N. G is sister of D. C is married to G. N has no son. K is m other of E. Q is only daughter of C.
24. How Q is related to D?
(a) Daughter
(b) Cousin
(c) Niece
(d) Sister in law
(e) Cannot be determined
25. How N is related to K?
(a) Brother-in-law
(b) Cousin
(c) Son-in-law
(d) Sister
(e) Brother
26. How many daughter N have?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-29) Study the following information and answer the given question.
There are six wires in an extension box A, B, C, D E and F they have different length, but not necessarily in the same order. E is greater than C, but less than D and B. A is greater than D and B. A is not longest wire. F is 13 cm long E is 4 cm long.
27. If D is 5 cm less than F what would be the length of D?
(a) 7 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
28. Which wire has least length?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) C
(d) E
(e) None of these
29. If A is 10 cm length and B carry 5 cm length, then what would be the length of C?
(a) 6 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) 9 cm
(e) None of these
Direction (Q. Nos. 30-35) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are seven people live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them have different income i.e. Rs. 3500, Rs. 15000, Rs. 7500, Rs. 9000, Rs. 11000, Rs. 13500 and Rs. 5000. (But not necessarily in the same order.) M lives on an odd numbered floor, but not on the floor numbered 3.
The one, how has income of Rs. 11000 lives immediately above M. only two people live between M and the one who has income of 7500. The one, who has income of Rs. 15000, lives on one of the odd numbered floors above P. Only three people live between O and the one who has income of Rs. 3500. The one who has income of 7500 lives immediately above O. The one who has income of Rs. 3500 lives immediately above the one who has income of Rs. 5000. S lives on an odd numbered floor. Only one person lives between N and Q. N lives on the one of the floors above Q. Neither O nor M has income of Rs.9000. Q does not has income of Rs. 7500.
30. How much income M has?
(a) Rs. 13500
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 7500
(d) Rs. 15000
(e) Rs. 3500
31. Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) Rs. 3500-O
(b) Rs. 15000-R
(c) Rs. 5000-S
(d) Rs. 11000-P
(e) Rs. 9000-N
32. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged?
(a) Four
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) Three
33. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) The one who has income of 5000 lives immediately below M.
(b) R has income of 15000.
(c) None of the given options is true.
(d) Only four people live between P and S.
(e) S lives immediately below Q.
34. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered 2?
(a) N
(b) The one who has income of Rs. 3500.
(c) The one who has income of Rs. 5000.
(d) P
(e) R
35. How much income R has?
(a) Rs.13500
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 7500
(d) Rs. 15000
(e) Rs. 3500
Part II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-39) Study the table carefully and answer the given questions.
36. If the male population above poverty line for State R is 1.9 million, then, what is the total population of State R?
(a) 4.5 million
(b) 4.85 million
(c) 5.35 million
(d) 6.25 million
(e) 6 million
37. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the State S if it is known that the population of State S is 7 million?
(a) 3 million
(b) 2.13 million
(c) 1.33 million
(d) 5.7 million
(e) 4 million
38. What is the male population above poverty line for State P, if the female population below poverty line for State P is 2.1 million?
(a) 2.1 million
(b) 2.7 million
(c) 3.3 million
(d) 2.3 million
(e) 3 million
39. If the population of males below poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for State T is 6 million, then what is the respective ratio of the total population of State Q and T?
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 2 : 5
(c) 3 : 7
(d) 4 : 9
(e) 3 : 9
40. Average runs of a cricketer in 10 innings is 60. How many runs should he make in 11th innings that his average runs would be 62?
(a) 80
(b) 81
(c) 82
(d) 83
(e) 84
41. Find the probability that a number from 1 to 300 is divisible by 3 or 7?
(a) 37/75
(b) 32/75
(c) 36/75
(d) 28/75
(e) 26/75
42. 14 men can do a work in 18 days, 15 women can do a work in 24 days. If 14 men work for first 3 days and 10 women work after that for 3 days, find the part of work left after that?
(a) 3/4
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/6
(e) 1/5
43. Perimeter of a rectangle is x and circumference of a circle is 8 more than the perimeter of the rectangle. Ratio of radius of circle and length of the rectangle is 1 : 2 and ratio of length and breadth of rectangle is 7 : 3. Find the length of the rectangle?
(a) 14
(b) 21
(c) 28
(d) 35
(e) 7
44. A invest on some scheme at 5% and B at 3% for two year. If the total sum invested by A and B is Rs. 4000 and the simple interest received by both is same then find the amount invested by A?
(a) Rs. 1300
(b) Rs. 1500
(c) Rs. 2500
(d) Rs. 2700
(e) Rs. 2100
45. Two trains crosses each other in 14 seconds when they are moving in opposite direction, and when they are moving in same direction, they crosses each other in 3 minute 2 seconds. Find the speed of the faster train by what percent more than the speed of the slower train?
(a) 16.67%
(b) 17.33%
(c) 16.33%
(d) 17.67%
(e) 18.33%
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) What will come in place of the question marks in the following number series?
46. 11 20 38 74
(a) 146
(b) 154
(c) 128
(d) 132
(e) 136
47. 15 21 38 65 101 ?
(a) 124
(b) 145
(c) 136
(d) 158
(e) 162
48. 24 28 19 35 10 ?
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 16
(d) 46
(e) 15
49. 7 16 45 184 915 ?
(a) 2092
(b) 5496
(c) 1048
(d) 4038
(e) 3268
50. 12 19 35 59 90 ?
(a) 134
(b) 127
(c) 132
(d) 98
(e) 114
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow.
51. The incomes of company X and Y in 2010 were in the ratio of 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their expenditure in 2010?
(a) 7 : 22
(b) 14 : 19
(c) 15 : 22
(d) 27 : 35
(e) 35 : 49
52. If the expenditure of company Y in 2007 was Rs. 220 crore, what was its income in 2007?
(a) Rs. 312 crore
(b) Rs. 297 crore
(c) Rs. 283 crore
(d) Rs. 275 crore
(e) Rs. 250 crore
53. If the expenditures of company X and Y in 2006 were equal and the total income of the total companies in 2006 was Rs. 342 crore, what was the total profit of two companies together in 2006?
(Profit = Income – Expenditure)
(a) Rs. 240 crore
(b) Rs. 171 crore
(c) Rs. 120 crore
(d) Rs. 102 crore
(e) Rs. 150 crore
54. The expenditure of company X in the year 2008 was Rs. 200 crore and the income of company X in 2008 was the same as it expenditure in 2011. What is the income of company X in 2011?
(a) Rs. 385 crore
(b) Rs. 465 crore
(c) Rs. 335 crore
(d) Rs. 295 crore
(e) Rs. 250 crore
55. If the incomes of two companies were equal in 2009, then what was the ratio of expenditure of company X to that of company Y in 2009?
(a) 6 : 5
(b) 5 : 6
(c) 11 : 6
(d) 16 : 15
(e) 20 : 11
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In each of these questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
a. if x > y b. if x ≥ y c. d=if x < y
d. if x ≤ y
e. if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established
56. I. 3x2 – 22x + 7 = 0 II. y2 – 15y + 56 = 0
57. I. 2x2 – 17x + 36 = 0 II. 2y2 – 19y + 44 = 0
58. 
II. y2 – 169 = 0
59. I. 3x2 + 20x + 25 = 0 II. 3y2 + 14y + 8 = 0
60. I. 3x2 + 5x + 2 = 0 II. 3y2 + 18y + 24 = 0
61. A seller mark the price 50% above the cost price and given 10% discount on an item. While selling, the cheats customer by giving 20% less in weight. Find his overall profit percent (approximate)?
(a) 26%
(b) 35%
(c) 68%
(d) 72%
(e) 76%
62. There are 81 L pure milk in container. One-third of milk is replaced by water in the container. Again one-third of mixture is extracted and equal amount of water is added. What is the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 4 : 5
(e) None of these
63. A is 2 years older than B while B is 3 year younger than C. The ratio of age of A, 6 years hence and B, 2 years ago is 5 : 3. What was age of C, 6 years ago?
(a) 12 yr
(b) 19 yr
(c) 15 yr
(d) 14 yr
(e) 21 yr
64. A, B and C started a business with their investments in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4. After 6 month A invested the half amount more as before and B invested same the amount as before while C withdrew 1/4th of his investment. Find the ratio of their profits at the end of the year.
(a) 5 : 12 : 13
(b) 5 : 11 : 14
(c) 5 : 12 : 14
(d) 5 : 12 : 10
(e) None of these
65. The average marks in Science subject of a class of 20 students is 68. If the marks of two students were misread as 48 and 65 of the actual marks 72 and 61 respectively, then what would be the correct average?
(a) 68.5
(b) 69
(c) 69.5
(d) 70
(e) 66
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What should come in the place of question mark in the given questions?
66. 40% of 265 + 35% of 180 = 50% of ? + ?% of 80
(a) 80
(b) 95.5
(c) 130
(d) 125.5
(e) 115
67. 
(a) 31.4
(b) 28.6
(c) 27.6
(d) 24.2
(e) 22.4
68. 
(a) 576
(b) 676
(c) 784
(d) 1024
(e) 1156
69. (682% of 682) ÷ 856 = ?
(a) 4.50
(b) 10.65
(c) 2.55
(d) 8.75
(e) 6.25
70. 5% of 850 + 24.8% of 650 = ?
(a) 295
(b) 330
(c) 270
(d) 375
(e) 220
Part III English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-77) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Governments looking for easy popularity have frequently been tempted into announcing give-a-ways all sorts; free electricity, virtually free water, subsidised food, cloth at half price, and so on. The subsidy culture has gone to extremes. The richest farmers in the country get subsidised fertilisers, University education, typically accessed by the wealthier sections, is charged at a fraction of cost. Postal services are subsidised, and so are railway services. Bus fares cannot be raised to economical levels because there will be violent protest, so bus travel is subsidised too. In the past, price control on a variety of times, from steel to scent, meant that industrial consumer of these items got them at less than actual cost, while the losses of the public sector companies that produced them were borne by the taxpayer! A study done a few years ago, came to the conclusion that subsidies in the Indian economy total as much as 14.5% of gross domestic product. At today’s level, that would work out to about Rs. 150000 crore.
And who pay the bill? The theory-and the political fiction on the basis of which it is sold to unsuspecting voters-is that subsidies go the poor, and are paid for by the rich. The fact is that most subsidies go the ‘rich’ (defined in the Indian context as those who are above the poverty line), and much of the table goes indirectly to the poor. Because the hefty subsidy bill results in fiscal deficits, which in turn push up rates of inflation-which, as everyone knows, hits the poor the hardest of all. That is why taxmen call inflation the most regressive form of taxation.
The entire subsidy system is built on the thesis that people cannot help themselves, therefore governments must do so. That people cannot afford to pay for variety of goods and services, and therefore the government must step in. This thesis has been applied not just in the poor countries, but in the rich ones as well; hence the birth of the welfare State in the West, and an almost Utopian social security system; free medical care, food aid, old age security, et.al. But with the passage of time, most of the wealthy nations have discovered that their economies cannot sustain this social safety net, which in fact reduces the desire among people to pay their own way, and takes away some of the incentive to work, in short, the bill was unaffordable, and their societies were simply not willing to pay. To the regret of many, but because of the laws of economies are harsh, most Western societies have been busy pruning the welfare bill.
In India, the lessons of this experience over several decades, and in many countries-do not seem to have been learnt or they are simply ignored in the pursuit of immediate votes. People who are promised cheap food or clothing do not in most cases look beyond the gift horses-to the question of who picks up the tab. The uproar over higher petrol, diesel and cooking gas prices ignored this basic question; if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its cost, who should pay? Diesel in the country is subsidies, and if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its full cost, who does he or she think should pay the balance of the cost? It is a simple question, nevertheless if remains unasked.
The Deva Gowda government has shown some courage in biting the bullet when it comes to the price of petroleum products. But it has been bitten by much bigger subsidy bug. It wants to offer food at half its cost to everyone below the poverty line, supposedly estimated at some 380 million people.
What will be the cost? And of course, who will pick up the tab? The Andhra Pradesh government has been bankrupted by selling rice as Rs. 2 per kg. Should the Central government be bankrupted too, before facing up to the question of what is affordable and what is not? Already, India is perennially short of power because the subsidy on electricity has bankrupted most electricity boards, and made private investment wary unless it gets all manner of State guarantees. Delhi’s subsidized bus fares have bankrupted the Delhi Transport Corporation, whose buses have slowly disappeared from the capital’s streets. It is easy to be soft and sentimental, by looking at programmes that will be popular. After all, who does’ not like a free lunch? But the evidence is surely mounting that the lunch isn’t free at all. Somebody is paying the bill. And if you want to know who, take at the country’s poor economic performance over the years.
71. Which of the following should not be subsidised over the years?
(a) University education
(b) Postal services
(c) Steel
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) All of the above options
72. The statement that ‘subsidies are paid by the rich and go to the poor’ is
(a) fiction
(b) fact
(c) fact, according to the author
(d) fiction, according to the author
(e) Other than those given as options
73. Why do you think that the author calls the western social security system Utopian?
(a) The countries belief in the efficacy of the system was bound to turn out to be false.
(b) The system followed by these countries is the best available in the present context.
(c) Everything under this system was supposed to be free, but people were charging money for them.
(d) The theory of system followed by these countries was devised by Dr. Utopia.
(e) Al the options are responsible.
74. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
(a) believes that people can help themselves and do not need the government.
(b) believes that the theory of helping with subsidy is very destructive.
(c) believes in democracy and free speech.
(d) is not a successful politician.
(e) believes that subsidies are the best way to help poor.
75. Which of the following is not a victim of extreme subsidies?
(a) The poor
(b) The Delhi-Transport Corporation
(c) The Andhra Pradesh government
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) The rich
76. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Where subsidies are concerned, the poor ultimately pay the tab.
(b) Inflation is caused by too much subsidies.
(c) Experts call subsides the most regressive form of taxation.
(d) Fiscal deficits are caused due to heavy subsidy bills.
(e) None of the following is true in the context of the passage.
77. A suitable title to the passage would be :
(a) There’s No Such Thing as a Free Lunch
(b) The Economic Overview
(c) Deva Gowda’s Government and its Follies
(d) It takes Two to Tango
(e) The Rich and The Poor: Extreme Partiality
Directions (Q. Nos. 78-82) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. It is the only country in the world that is carbon negative, which means, it produces more oxygen than it consumes.
B. Bhutan, sandwiched between the two most populous nations on Earth, suffers for their sins.
C. So far, so good. But then, two things happened.
D. Carbon sinks, 70% forest cover, powered almost entirely by mountain streams-Bhutan is a poster child for green living.
E. Glaciers are beginning to melt, flash floods and heavy rains – and even droughts – are common, and temperatures are climbing.
F. One, India and China got richer.
78. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) A
79. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
80. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) E
81. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) B
(d) E
(e) D
82. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) A
(d) C
(e) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 83-90) In the following passage, you have a brief passage. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Big ideas come from tackling (83) problems. When one is confronted with an overwhelming task, it’s pieces. Business jargon is full of phrases about that, like “pilot projects” and “low-hanging fruit.” They have their place, but in the repertory of management (84), they should share their place with bold approaches to big challenges. Much of today’s most valuable management knowledge came from wrestling with such issues. The most complicated workplace in the middle of the last century was the automobile assembly plant. Drawn to its complexity where Peter F. Drucker, W. Edwards Deming, and Taiichi Ohno, among others, the work they and their disciples did, applied in industry after industry, is the basis of the best that we know about operations, managing people, innovation, organizational design, and much more. The most complex workplaces are tertiary care hospitals. These vast (85) employ tens of thousands of people who, under one roof, do everything from neurosurgery to laundry, Each patient – that is to say, each “job” – calls on a different set of people with a different constellation of (86); eve when the tow patients have the same diagnosis, success may be (87) differently. This is complexity of an order of magnitude greater than automobile assembly, and anyone, who (88) hospitalised knows that management has thus far been unequal to the scope of task. The workers, managers, consultants, and scholars (89) crack this nut will reshape industries and institutions just as (90) as Drucker, Deming, and Ohno Did.
83. (a) small
(b) big
(c) irrelevant
(d) buildings
(e) minor
84. (a) weakness
(b) strength
(c) power
(d) practice
(e) symptom
85. (a) houses
(b) institute
(c) demagogue
(d) forts
(e) enterprises
86. (a) barbarity
(b) talent
(c) skills
(d) unskilled
(e) barbaric
87. (a) managed
(b) officious
(c) delivered
(d) measured
(e) postponed
88. (a) are been
(b) have being
(c) have been
(d) has been
(e) is be
89. (a) who
(b) whom
(c) whose
(d) which
(e) whomsoever
90. (a) profoundly
(b) gradually
(c) superficially
(d) speciously
(e) earnest
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Identify the error in the sentences given below, if there is no error, choose option (e).
91. (a) The need to set-up
(b) a good library in the locality
(c) has been in the minds of people
(d) for some time now
(e) No error
92. (a) Most people would have
(b) attended the union meeting
(c) if they had
(d) had longer notice of it
(e) No error
93. (a) He took to
(b) reading times
(c) for better knowledge
(d) of the facts
(e) No error
94. (a) When children have difficulty understanding
(b) a certain mathematical process, it is often because
(c) their teachers do not understand it conceptually
(d) themselves and do not present it in a way that children can understand
(e) No error
95. (a) Studies show that the lives of millions of mothers
(b) and their children could be saved if countries would
(c) invest in programmes that ensures a healthy pregnancy
(d) and safe childbirth
(e) No error
96. (a) Film viewers claim that
(b) the number of scenes depicting alcohol consumption
(c) have increased dramatically over
(d) the last decade
(e) No error
97. (a) Forty percent of the people alive today have
(b) never made a phone call, but
(c) thirty percent still have no electricity connections
(d) to their homes
(e) No error
98. (a) Workers with less
(b) personal problems are
(c) likely to be
(d) more productive in their work
(e) No error
99. (a) Everyone who visits Singapore
(b) is impressed by its cleanliness
(c) which is mainly a result of rigorous implementation
(d) of their strict laws
(e) No error
100. (a) The bridal dress was
(b) most unique: the prince
(c) designed it and his
(d) mother provided the lace fabric
(e) No error
IBPS Specialist Officer (Marketing) Examination Held on 1-2-2016 Professional Knowledge Question Paper with Answer Key
IBPS Specialist Officer (Marketing) Exam., 2015
(Held on 1-2-2016)
Professional Knowledge
1. A tangible product that the consumer feels comfortable purchasing without gathering additional information and then actually buys with minimum of effort is termed a(n)-
(A) Shopping good
(B) Convenience good
(C) Business product
(D) Specially good
(E) Unsought good
2. The process of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who have different needs, characteristics or behaviours and who might require separate products or marketing programs is called –
(A) Market segmentation
(B) Market positioning
(C) Market differentiation
(D) Market targeting
(E) Marketing mix
3. …………. is not a stage of product life cycle in marketing.
(A) introduction
(B) maturity
(C) Growth
(D) Decline
(E) Planning
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic important in influencing an innovator’s rate of adoption ?
(A) Organization type of the innovator
(B) Compatibility
(C) Divisibility
(D) Communicability
(E) Complexity
5. The financial contracts whose values are obtained from the values of underlying assets are…..
(A) mortgage
(B) Commercial papers
(C) Stocks
(D) Derivatives
(E) Bonds
6. All of the following are considered to be broad market follower strategies EXCEPT-
(A) innovator
(B) imitator
(C) cloner
(D) counterteller
(E) adapter
7. A company has four choices when it comes to developing brands. Which one of the following is not one among them ?
(A) New brands
(B) Multi brands
(C) Brand extension
(D) Line extension
(E) Brand sponsoring
8. ……….. is a demand state where consumer may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing model ?
(A) declining demand
(B) irregular demand
(C) negative demand
(D) non-existent demand
(E) latent demand
9. …….. is the development, design and implementation of marketing programme, processes and activities that recognises the breadth and interdependencies of today’s marketing environment.
(A) Niche marketing
(B) Supply chain marketing
(C) Holistic marketing
(D) Relationship marketing
(E) Demand-centred marketing
10. The ………. holds that marketing strategy should deliver value to customers in a way that maintain or improve both the consumer’s society’s well-being.
(A) Societal marketing concept
(B) Society centered marketing
(C) Customer-centered marketing
(D) Focused business model
(E) Production centered business
11. Major oil producers carry an oil exploration, oil drilling, oil refining, chemical manufacture and service-station operation. When an organization does all of these separate tasks distribution channel they can be said to have achieved what is called –
(A) parallel marketing
(B) horizontal integration
(C) vertical integration
(D) concentric integration
(E) conglomerate marketing
12. Which of the following describes the tendency of people to interpret information in a way that will support what they already believe ?
(A) Selective creativity
(B) Selective distortion
(C) Selective matching
(D) Selective attraction
(E) Selective attribute
13. The ……… stage of a product is characterized as being one where there is period of rapid climb in sales and substantial profit improvement.
(A) introduction
(B) decline
(C) maturity
(D) saturation
(E) growth
14. The discomfort caused by post purchase conflict is called –
(A) Dissatisfaction
(B) Cognitive Dissonance
(C) Post purchase behaviour
(D) Buyer’s remorse
(E) Comparative tension
15. ……… is the study of how individuals, groups and organizations select, buy, use and dispose of goods, services, ideals or experiences tot satisfy their needs and wants.
(A) Psychology
(B) Product differentiation
(C) Psychographic segmentation
(D) Target marketing
(E) Consumer behaviour
16. Mutual Funds are regulated in the country by-
(A) IRDA
(B) Association of Mutual Funds of India (AMFI)
(C) NABARD
(D) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(E) Reserve Bank of India
17. Situation in which a firm introduces new products to stimulate sales but the profit comes at the expense of other products sold by that firm is called –
(A) Repositioning
(B) Push marketing
(C) Differentiated marketing
(D) Cannibalization
(E) Cartelization
18. Cultivating opinion leaders and getting them to spread information about a product or service to others in their communities is –
(A) Buzz Marketing
(B) Leader Marketing
(C) Niche Marketing
(D) Complex Marketing
(E) Selective Marketing
19. Marketing management is defined as-
(A) Monitoring the profitability of the company’s products and services
(B) The art and science of choosing target markets and building profitable relationship with them
(C) Managing the market process
(D) Developing marketing strategies to move the company forward
(E) Selecting target markets to deploy marketers
20. The measure of the brand’s ability to capture consumer performance and loyalty is termed –
(A) Brand superiority
(B) Brand equity
(C) Brand version
(D) Brand loyalty
(E) Brand preference
21. Mission statements are at their best when they reflect a ……. an almost impossible dream that provides direction for the next 10 to 30 years.
(A) Market
(B) Strength
(C) Competency
(D) Vision
(E) Value
22. A strategy in which the initial price of the product is set low in relation to the target market’s range of expected price is termed –
(A) Market Skimming Pricing
(B) Old Pricing
(C) Discount market pricing
(D) Market Penetration Pricing
(E) Special market Pricing
23. A group of tradition bound consumers who are the tool to adapt an innovation is called –
(A) Challengers
(B) Leaders
(C) Innovators
(D) Laggards
(E) Loyal agents
24. Low prices on products for which you have accurate price knowledge lets you know that the product has to be a bargain. This type of pricing is termed-
(A) Reference pricing
(B) Psychological pricing
(C) Volume pricing
(D) Promotional pricing
(E) Signpost pricing
25. The want satisfying power of product is called its –
(A) Price
(B) Utility
(C) Bond
(D) Purpose
(E) Goal
26. Based on the rates firms play in the target market in a specific industry, they are classified as following except in a-
(A) Market challenger
(B) Market plotter
(C) Market leader
(D) Market nicher
(E) Market follower
27. TQM approach in which all the people of the company are involved in constantly improving the performance of products, services and business processes. TQM stands for-
(A) Tata Quality Management
(B) Total Quality Marketing
(C) Total Quantity Management
(D) Total Queries Management
(E) Total Quality Manipulation
28. When backed by buying power, wants become-
(A) self-esteem needs
(B) demands
(C) exchanges
(D) physical needs
(E) social needs
29. The philosophy of product centered concept is……….
(A) Right products for the customers
(B) Make and sell
(C) Make what the market wants
(D) Sense and respond
(E) Selling on product benefits
30. The customer’s evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a market offering relative to those of competing offers is called –
(A) Customer perceived value
(B) Customer expectation
(C) Customer satisfaction
(D) Customer Loyalty
(E) Customer relationship
31. Button market is where ………
(A) capital is disposed
(B) gold is purchased and sold
(C) shares are purchased
(D) production of silver takes place
(E) investments are made
32. Especially in large firms, a sales force frequently is specialized in some organizational fashion. Which of the following is not one of such specializations ?
(A) Customer specialization
(B) Major accounts specialization
(C) Product specialization
(D) Geographic specialization
(E) Economic order specialization
33. Greater consumer control means that, in building customer relationships, companies can no longer rely on marketing by intrusion. The most practice marketing is-
(A) Conversion
(B) Delivery
(C) Retention
(D) Attraction
(E) Attention
34. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, sense of belonging is grouped in-
(A) Esteem needs
(B) Social needs
(C) Safety needs
(D) Physiological needs
35. Michael Porter has identified five forces that determine the intrinsic long-run attractiveness of market segment. Which of the following would not be among Porter’s Five forces
(A) Threat of buyer’s growing bargaining power
(B) Threat of substitute products
(C) Threat of technological partners
(D) Threat of intense segment rivalry
(E) Threat of new entrants
36. The unplanned static or distortion during the communication process, which results in the receivers’ getting a different message then the one that the sender sent is the-
(A) Response
(B) Feedback
(C) Noise
(D) Decoding
37. If a MNC like Nestle varied the elements of the marketing mix to suit the countries in which it sold its products, which type of strategy would it be following ?
(A) Differentiated
(B) undifferentiated
(C) Standardized
(D) Adapted
(E) Concentrated
38. Under which of the following company orientations towards the market place would we expect to get ‘better economical’ talacy?
(A) Marketing concept
(B) Holistic marketing concept
(C) Production concept
(D) Selling concept
(E) Product concept
39. If a company focuses only one or a few market segments instead of small share of a large market, the same is-
(A) Segment marketing
(B) Conceptual marketing
(C) Mass Marketing
(D) Micro Marketing
(E) Niche Marketing
40. An estimate the total financial value of the brand is-
(A) Brand valuation
(B) Brand tracking
(C) Brand auditing
(D) Brand partitioning
(E) Brand equity
41. The total combined customer value of all the company’s current and potential customers is called –
(A) Customer share
(B) Customer delight
(C) Customer loyalty
(D) Customer orientation
(E) Customer equity
42. We can say that a………… has three characteristics. (1) It is source of competitive advantage in that it makes a significant contribution to perceived customer benefits; (2) It has application in a wide variety of markets, and (3) It is difficult for competitors to imitate.
(A) Strategic business unit
(B) Core competency
(C) Business strategy
(D) Winning strategy
(E) Core technology
43. Which demographic segmentation divides buyers into different groups based on social class, lifestyle or personality characteristics ?
(A) Age and life cycle segmentation
(B) Gender segmentation
(C) Age segmentation
(D) Psychographic segmentation
(E) Income segmentation
44. The internet version of word of mouth marketing is termed –
(A) Viral marketing
(B) Web marketing
(C) Channel marketing
(D) Network marketing
(E) Virtual marketing
45. ……….. is the development, interpretation and communication of decision oriented information to be used in all phases of marketing process.
(A) Marketing forecast
(B) Market intelligence
(C) Market Planning
(D) Marketing research
(E) Marketing information system
46. GATT is more than 60 years old treaty designed to promote world trade by reducing tariff and other international trade barriers. GATT stands for-
(A) General Aspects on Tariff and Trade
(B) General Agreement on Traffic and Trade
(C) Geneva Agreement on Trade and Tariff
(D) General Allowance for Trade and Tariff
(E) Geneva Agreement on Traffic or Trade
47. People differ greatly in their readiness to try new products. Which of the following do not belong to the adapter categorization on the basis of relation time of adopter of innovators ?
(A) Innovators
(B) Laggards
(C) Early Majority
(D) Late Majority
(E) Super Majority
48. As per BCG Matrix of classification of SBUs of an organization, Cash cows are SBUs that typically generate-
(A) Large Awareness levels but few sales
(B) Problems for product managers often
(C) High industry growth
(D) More cash than that can be invested profitably in its own business
(E) Paper losses in the long run
49. A strategy of ……… pricing involves using prick in a competitive weapon in order to push competitors out of market or eliminate competitors.
(A) Bargain
(B) Psychological
(C) Premium
(D) Advanced
(E) Predatory
50. Behavioural basis of market segmentation includes-
(A) Loyalty or brand loyalty
(B) Attitude
(C) Buying occasions
(D) All of these
I.B.P.S. Bank Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination, 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key
I.B.P.S. Bank Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination, 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key
I.B.P.S. Bank Probationary Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2015
Held on 3-10-2015
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions – (Q. 1- 5) Study the table and answer the given questions :
Note – Few values are missing in the table (indicated by). A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, If it is required to answer the given question on the basis of given data and information.
1. Out of the number of qualified candidates from Sate P in 2008, the respective ratio of male and female candidates is 11 : 7. If the number of female qualified candidates from State P in 2008 is 126, what is the number of appeared candidates (both male and female) from the state P in 2008?
(A) 630
(B) 510
(C) 570
(D) 690
(E) 540
2. Number of appeared candidates from state Q increased by 100% from 2006 to 2007. If the total number of qualified candidates from State Q in 2006 and 2007 together is 408, what is the number of appeared candidates from State Q in 2006?
(A) 380
(B) 360
(C) 340
(D) 320
(E) 300
3. What is the difference between number of qualified candidates from State P in 2006 and that in 2007?
(A) 12
(B) 22
(C) 14
(D) 24
(E) 16
4. If the average number of qualified candidates from State Q in 2008, 2009 and 2010 is 210, what is the number of qualified candidates from State Q in 2010 ?
(A) 191
(B) 195
(C) 183
(D) 187
(E) 179
5. If the respective ratio between number of qualified candidates from State P in 2009 and 2010 is 14 : 9, what is the number of qualified candidates from State P in 2010?
(A) 252
(B) 207
(C) 216
(D) 234
(E) 198
6. 
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 4
(E) 12
7. 012 – 19.982 – ? = 21.812
(A) 49
(B) 50
(C) 30
(D) 39
(E) 41
8. 15 + 2379.85 + 140.01 × 4.99 = ?
(A) 4400
(B) 3900
(C) 3000
(D) 4000
(E) 4300
9. 97% of 649.8 ÷ 13.05 = 45.12 – ?
(A) 40
(B) 15
(C) 25
(D) 10
(E) 30
10. (674.87 + 59.98) ÷02 = ?
(A) 29
(B) 27
(C) 19
(D) 21
(E) 11
Directions (Q. 11-15) : Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
11. The number of people who travelled by Train B on Friday is 20% more than the people who travelled by the same train on Thursday. What is the respective ratio between the number of people who travelled on Friday and those who travelled on Saturday by the same train ?
(A) 4 : 5
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 5 : 6
(D) 3 : 5
(E) 1 : 4
12. What is the difference between the total number of people who travelled by Train B on Monday and Tuesday together and the total number of people who travelled by Train A on Saturday and Sunday together?
(A) 200
(B) 230
(C) 210
(D) 250
(E) 240
13. What is the average number of people travelling by Train A on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday ?
(A) 220
(B) 190
(C) 205
(D) 195
(E) 210
14. The number of people who travelled by Train A decreased by what per cent from Saturday to Tuesday ?
(A) 35
(B) 40
(C) 30
(D) 42
(E) 33
15. The total number of people who travelled by both the given trains together on Sunday is approximately what per cent more than the total number of people who travelled by both the given trains together on Wednesday?
(A) 128
(B) 123
(C) 142
(D) 118
(E) 135
16. 6,100 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually) for 2 years and partly in Scheme B at 10% p.a. simple interest for 4 years. Both schemes equal interests. How much was invested in Scheme A ?
(A) Rs. 3,750
(B) Rs. 4,500
(C) Rs. 4,000
(D) Rs. 3,250
(E) Rs. 5,000
17. ‘A’ bought a certain quantity of oranges at total cost of Rs. 1200. He sold 1/3rd of those oranges at 20% loss. If A earns an overall profit of 10%, at what per cent profit did A set the rest of the oranges ?
(A) 16%
(B) 15%
(C) 22%
(D) 25%
(E) 20%
18. Present ages of Kiran and Shyam are in the ratio of 5 : Three years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Shyam’s present age in years ?
(A) 28
(B) 27
(C) 26
(D) 24
(E) 30
Directions – (Q. 19-23) In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the questions and mark the appropriate option.
19. 2x2 + 19x + 45 = 0
2y2 + 11y + 12 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y
(D) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(E) x ≤ y
20. 3x2 – 13x + 12 = 0
2y2 – 15y + 28 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y
(D) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(E) x ≤ y
21. x2 = 16
2y2 – 17y + 36 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y
(D) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(E) x ≤ y
22. 6x2 + 19x + 15 = 0
3y2 + 11y + 10 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y
(D) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(E) x ≤ y
23. 2x2 – 11x + 15 = 0
2y2 – 11y + 14 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y
(D) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(E) x ≤ y
24. A started a business. After 4 months from the start of the business, B and C joined. The respective ratio between the investments of A, B and C was 4 : 6 : 5. If A’s share in annual profit was Rs. 250 more than C’s share, what was the total annual profit earned ?
(A) Rs. 3740
(B) Rs. 3910
(C) Rs. 4250
(D) Rs. 5000
(E) None of these
25. A person has to travel from point A to point B in certain time. Travelling at a speed of 5 kmph he reaches 48 minutes late and while travelling at a speed of 8 kmph he reaches 15 minutes early. What is the distance from point A to B?
(A) 15 km
(B) 9 km
(C) 12 km
(D) 18 km
(E) 14 km
26. 28 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days and 15 women can complete the same piece of work in 24 days. What is the respective ratio between the amount of work done by 30 men in 1 day and the amount of work done by 18 women in 1 day?
(A) 10 : 7
(B) 3 : 7
(C) 4 : 5
(D) 5 : 4
(E) 4 : 1
27. 18 litres of pure water was added to a vessel containing 80 litres of pure milk. 49 litres of the resultant mixture was then sold and some more quantity of pure milk and pure water was added to the vessel in the respective ratio of 2 : 1. If the resultant respective ratio of milk and water in the vessel was 4 : 1, what was the quantity of pure milk added in the vessel ? (in litres).
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) 2
28. A certain sum is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A gets Rs. 40 more than the 1/2 of the sum. B get Rs. 120 less than 3/8th of the sum and C gas Rs. 200. What is the total sum.
(A) Rs. 1100
(B) Rs. 850
(C) Rs. 960
(D) Rs. 1200
(E) Rs. 1600
Directions-(Q. 29-33) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series ?
29. 123 140 106 55 – 13 ?
(A) 214
(B) 139
(C) −98
(D) −69
(E) −74
30. 190 94 46 22 ? 4
(A) 19
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 8
(E) 16
31. 320 320 314 290 230 ?
(A) 114
(B) 110
(C) 50
(D) 98
(E) 142
32. 3 4 9 28 113 ?
(A) 782
(B) 424
(C) 646
(D) 384
(E) 566
33. 8 4 6 15 ? 25
(A) 64.5
(B) 84
(C) 52.5
(D) 36
(E) 46
34. The respective ratio of curved surface area and total surface area of a cylinder is 4 : 5. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 1232 cm2, what is the height ? (in cm)
(A) 28
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 18
(E) 19
35. A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 yellow balls and 7 pink balls. If one ball is drawn at random from the bag, what is the probability that it is other pink or red ?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
IBPS PO Exam Results
IBPS PO 2015 Main exam results are to be declared soon:
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) was established in the year 1975 as the Personal Selection Services (PSS) whose recruitment takes place either two tier or three tier process.
IBPS RRB and SO recruitment is a two tier process whereas IBPS PO & Clerk consists of three stages such as Common Written Examination (CWE) followed by an interview and final placement.
About Institute of Banking Personnel Selection:
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection is an autonomous body which was set up to implement world class assessment and selection of personnel for various client organizations. It provides its services to many public sector banks like SBI, RBI, NABARD, SIDBI, few co-operative banks, public sector undertakings of non-financial sectors, state owned companies, Government departments and so on.
IBPS exam has become one of the famous tests in the country for being a successful “Personnel Selection Test Conducting Agency”. Its strength and ability lies in conducting multiple choices of objective tests for Lakhs and Lakhs of students across 200 test centres in India and also in few foreign locations.
Also, few major Universities and reputed management institutes engage IBPS regularly for conducting their Admission tests.
About IBPSPO exam:
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection has conducted preliminary examination on October 3rd, 4th, 10th and 11th, 2015 for the selection of Probationary officer (PO) or Management Trainee (MT) positions.
This was an online computer based test and consisted of multiple choices of questions. The duration of preliminary exam was one hour and total number of questions in the question paper was 100.
The results of the preliminary examination were declared on October 17th 2015.
The results of preliminary examination only serve to shortlist the candidates for the final IBPS PO main examination.
Following this preliminary exam, IBPS PO main exam was conducted on October 31st, 2015. The results of the main exam are expected to be declared soon at the official website of IBPS. Thus, students who wish to check their results please be ready with required details and then click on “IBPS PO/MT Results” which will direct you to the respective page showing your results. Candidates please take a print out of this page for future reference.
The examination pattern for IBPS PO 2015 main comprised of 200 objective types of questions based on Reasoning, Quantitative aptitude, and English language, General awareness with special reference to the banking industry and computer knowledge. Candidates will be finally shortlisted on the basis of the performance in preliminary exam, main exam and personal interview.
The official site of IBPS is http://www.ibps.in