Maharashtra Public Service Commission (MPSC) State Services Pre. Examination Held on April 8, 2018
General Studies
1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the options given.
(a) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4
(b) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1
(c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1
(d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2
2. Examine the following statements and identify the correct statement (s)
Statement A Within 24 hours the Earth rotates in 360° longitudes.
Statement B The Earth requires four minutes to cross the 1° longitude.
(a) Statement ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct.
(b) Statement ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect.
(c) Statement ‘A’ is correct, but statement ‘B’ is incorrect.
(d) Statement ‘A’ is incorrect, but statement ‘B’ is correct.
3. Which of the following relief features is not an effect of internal forces of the Earth?
(a) Graben
(b) Horst
(c) Residual Mountain
(d) Rift Valley
4. Select the proper option from the following figures of ‘Relief Features’ created by volcanic eruption :
5. Find out the correct sequence of planetary winds found from the equator to pole.
(a) Westerlies, Trade winds, Polar winds
(b) Trade winds, Westerlies, Polar winds
(c) Trade winds, Polar winds, Westerlies
(d) Polar winds, Westerlies, Trade winds
6. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the following options:
Assertion (A) Oceanic salinity is low in the equatorial region.
Reason (R) Equatorial region is characterized by heavy rainfall, cloudiness and humidity.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
7. Which of the following is not a type of chemical weathering?
(a) Solution
(b) Oxidation
(c) Carbonation
(d) Corrosion
8. Identify the correct statement (s) from the following:
Statement A The weight of water vapour per unit volume of air in specific temperature is called relative humidity.
Statement B Specific humidity is the ratio of air water vapour content to its water vapour capacity at a given temperature.
(a) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are correct.
(b) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are incorrect.
(c) Statement ‘A’ is correct, but statement ‘B’ is incorrect.
(d) Statement ‘A’ is incorrect, but statement ‘B is correct.
9. Identify of the correct statement(S) from the following:
Assertion (A) The isotherm lines remains almost parallel to one another and parallel to latitudes on oceanic surfaces.
Reason (R) Temperatures at maritime locations are free from effect of elevation.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
10. Consider the following statements and select the correct option from the following:
(1) Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide.
(2) Fishing activity is well developed in warm tropical waters.
(3) Mixing of warm and cold currents brings plant nutrients for fish.
(4) Inland fisheries are more significant than other types in India.
(a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
(c) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
11. In developing countries the population pyramid has a
(a) narrow base and wide top
(b) wide base and wide top
(c) wide base and narrow top
(d) narrow base and narrow top
12. Examine the following statements and select the following correct option:
Statement A Some land area of India is situated in the Northern hemisphere and some in the Southern hemisphere
Statement B The extension of India from North to South is approximately more than 7500 km.
(a) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are correct.
(b) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are incorrect.
(c) Statements ‘A’ is correct, but statements ‘B’ is incorrect.
(d) Statements ‘A’ is incorrect, but statement ‘B’ is correct.
13. Examine the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement A Himalayan rivers cross many Himalayan ranges and the Shivalik hills and enter into the plain area.
Statement B Peninsular rivers flow through the Rift valleys created by faults.
(a) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are correct.
(b) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are incorrect.
(c) Statements ‘A’ is correct, but statements ‘B’ is incorrect.
(d) Statements ‘A’ is incorrect, but statement ‘B’ is correct.
14. The rain fed and rain shadow areas are the characteristics of
(a) cyclonic rainfall
(b) conventional rainfall
(c) orographic rainfall
(d) thermal rainfall
15. Which region has the following characteristics?
(1) Useful for water transport
(2) Production of coconut is taken up
(3) Favourable for fishing
(4) Attraction for tourists
(a) North-India Plain Region
(b) Peninsular Plateau
(c) Coastal Plains
(d) Himalayan Region
16. Match the following Pollutants and their Mediums as per the UNEP documents
(a) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(b) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(c) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2
(d) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4
17. Which of the following days is designated as World Ozone Day the UN General Assembly?
(a) June 1
(b) June 5
(c) September 1
(d) September 16
18. Which of the following greenhouse gases is entirely produced by human activities?
(a) Methane
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Chloroflurocarbons
19. The transitional area between two living organisms is known as
(a) Ecozone
(b) Ecophos
(c) Ecotone
(d) Ecotype
20. The impact of humans of global climate has been induced by which of the following?
(1) Deforestation since 8000 years
(2) Use of fire and overgrazing
(3) Wet paddy cultivation since 5000 years
(4) Industrial revolution
(a) Only 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of these
21. At which of the following places was an iron steel factory not started during the Second Five Year Plan?
(1) Rourkela (Odisha)
(2) Bhilai (Chhattisgarh)
(3) Durgapur (West Bengal)
(4) Bokaro (Jharkhand)
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 4
(d) 1 and 2
22. Which of the following is/are not the supply-side factor(s) responsible for inflation?
(1) Increase in export
(2) Store
(3) Increase in credit creation
(4) Famine
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 3
23. Which of the following factors are not responsible for poverty?
(1) Inflation
(2) Increase in government expenditure
(3) Deficit Financing
(4) Short savings and Capital formation
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
24. ‘Absence of minimum income to get the minimum needs of life’ is concerned with which of the following types of poverty?
(a) Absolute poverty
(b) Relative poverty
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
25. Identify the correct statement(s) in context of the Food Security Act, 2013.
(1) It gives legal entitlement of food security to 75% rural and 50% urban population.
(2) A beneficiary will be entitled rice, coarse cereals and wheat at Rs 3, Rs 2 and Rs 1 per kg month respectively.
(a) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Both 1and 2 are incorrect.
(c) Only 1 is correct.
(d) Only 2 is correct.
26. What is the percentage of Indian population in the population of the world according to the Indian Census Report 2011?
(a) 16.5%
(b) 17.3%
(c) 17.5%
(d) 17.7%
27. Which of the following population policies decided the minimum marriage age as 21 years for males and 18 years for females?
(a) National Population Policy 1976
(b) National Population Policy 1977
(c) National Population Policy 2000
(d) Population Projections (2001-2006)
28. Which of the following programmes is/are started by the government of India for the purpose of ‘Social Security’
(1) Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana
(2) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
(3) National Social Assistance Programme
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these
29. Which of the following factors is/are concerned in the calculation of Green National Income (GNI)?
(1) National Income
(2) Depletion of Natural Resources
(3) Environmental Degradation
(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of the above
30. Which of the following are measured in Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?
(1) Poverty and Hunger
(2) Women’s Empowerment
(3) Environmental Sustainability
(4) Global Partnership for Development
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
31. Which of the following schemes are included in Women and Child Development Schemes?
(1) Anganwadi Services Scheme
(2) Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Scheme
(3) National Nutrition Mission
(4) Child Protection Scheme
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
32. In any poverty reduction strategy there is need to incorporate both self-employment and wage employment, because
(1) Self-employment is a major form of employment is rural areas.
(2) Dependence on wage employment will lead to total dependence on the employer.
(3) Otherwise it will increase the gap between the rich and the poor.
(4) It will strengthen the asset base of the rich
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
33. The concept of Human Poverty Index (HPI) was introduced in the
(a) Human Development Report 1990
(b) Human Development Report 199
(c) Human Development Report 2001
(d) Human Development Report 2014
34. The phenomenal growth of ‘census towns’ is a challenge as these towns
(1) Do not have urban governance structure
(2) Do not have the requisite urban infrastructure
(3) Result out of rapid population growth
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
35. Which of the following was the aim of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-17)?
(a) To achieve economic growth and stable development
(b) To achieve faster growth and development
(c) To achieve faster and more inclusive growth
(d) To achieve faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth
36. Which of the following describes the Geostationary Orbit (GEO) correctly?
(a) Altitude of 20000 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 12 hours.
(b) Altitude of 36000 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 24 hours.
(c) Altitude of 400 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 90 minutes.
(d) None of the above
37. In Fresnel’s Biprism, the value of wavelength (λ) depends upon
(a) the distance between two coherent sources
(b) the fringe-width
(c) the distance between slit and eyepiece of telescope
(d) All of the above
38. What focal length should the spectacles have for a person for whom the least distance of distinct vision is 50 cm?
(a) 50 cm, concave
(b) 50 cm, convex
(c) 25 cm, concave
(d) 25 cm, convex
39. A resistor of 10 Ω connected across a cell of emf 12 V, draws the current of 1.1 A. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
(a) 10 Ω
(b) 0.1 Ω
(c) 10.9 Ω
(d) 0.91 Ω
40. Two parallel slits 1 mm apart are placed 1 m away from the screen. What is the fringe separation due to interference effect, when a beam of wavelength 500 nanometres is incident on them?
(a) 5.0 mm
(b) 0.5 mm
(c) 5.0 cm
(d) 0.05 mm
41. A steam engine delivers 5.4 × 108 J of work per minute by taking 3.6 × 109 J of heat from its source. What is the efficiency of the engine?
(a) 15%
(b) 12.5%
(c) 85%
(d) 87.5%
42. In some trees, copper deficiency may cause blisters and deep slits in the bark from which exudes gum. This disease is known as
(a) Exanthema
(b) White bud
(c) Dieback
(d) Necrosis
43. The maximum yield of ATP from the complete oxidation of sucrose via aerobic respiration is
(a) 37
(b) 44
(c) 60
(d) 50
44. The binomial system of classification was given by
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Bentham and Hooker
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Hutchinson
45. According to Sir JC Bose, an Indian scientist, ascent of sap takes place due to the …….. of living cells of the innermost cortical layer.
(a) pulsatory activity
(b) transpiration pull theory
(c) cohesion theory
(d) root pressure theory
46. Which of the following theories are related to evolution of life?
(1) The theory of natural selection
(2) Mutation theory of evolution
(3) Theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics
(4) Theory of segregation
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of these
47. Which of the following are hormones of the pituitary gland?
(1) TSH (2) STH
(3) HCG (4) ADH
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
48. The skeletal system performs which of the following functions?
(1) Protection
(2) Hematopoiesis
(3) Movement facilitation
(4) Mineral storage
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of these
49. Gregor Mendel is often referred to as the Father of Genetics, since he first enunciated the principles of heredity. His experimental material was
(a) Fruit fly
(b) Bread mould
(c) Pea plant
(d) Rhesus monkey
50. The element M in the Dobereiner triad Ca, M and Ba is
(a) Be
(b) Mg
(c) Sr
(d) I
51. Wood grain alcohol is nothing but
(a) Methanol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Benzyl alcohol
(d) Isopropyl alcohol
52. Water is often treated with chlorine to
(a) increase oxygen content
(b) kill germs
(c) remove sedimentation
(d) remove insoluble impurities
53. Corrosion takes place as a result of
(a) Only physical reactions
(b) Only chemical reactions
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
54. Natural gas mainly consist of
(a) Butane
(b) Propane
(c) Methane
(d) Ethane
55. Fats and oils belong to the naturally occurring group of compounds called
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Lipids
(c) Proteins
(d) Terpenes
56. On November 26, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of Indian came into effect?
(1) Citizenship
(2) Elections (Article-324)
(3) Provisional Parliament
(4) Fundamental Rights
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
57. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India pronounce the verdict that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament?
(a) Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India
(b) Golaknath Vs State of Punjab
(c) Kesavananda Bharti Vs State of Kerala
(d) Minerava Mills Limited Vs Union of India
58. Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is incorrect?
(1) The electoral college for election to this office consists of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament.
(2) He can hold the office of the President for a period not exceeding six months in the absence of the President.
(3) For election to this office a candidate’s nomination paper must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None of these
59. Consider the following statements:
(1) Zonal Councils are the constitutional bodies.
(2) The Prime Minister acts as the Chairman of all Zonal Councils.
(3) Each Chief Minister acts as the Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council by rotation.
(4) Joint meetings of two or more Zonal Councils are presided over by the Union Home Minister.
(a) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(b) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) Statements 1, 3 and 4 correct.
(d) Statements 3 and 4 are correct.
60. Recommendations of the Sixth Report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission on Local government are
(1) Set-up unified metropolitan transport authority in all cities of one million plus population.
(2) Constitute a local body ombudsman.
(3) Direct election of the Mayors.
(4) Set-up District Councils and the Collector would work as the Chief Secretary.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
61. Which of the following Directive Principles did not form part of the original Constitution and were added through constitutional amendments?
(1) To minimize inequality in income.
(2) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.
(3) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
(4) To ensure equal justice and free legal aid to the poor.
(5) To secure adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 4
62. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Parliament can increase a tax.
(2) Parliament cannot reduce a tax.
(3) Parliament can abolish a tax.
(4) Parliament cannot increase a tax.
(5) Parliament can reduce a tax.
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3 and 4
63. Which of the following statements regarding Zero Hour are correct?
(1) Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in the field of Parliamentary Procedure.
(2) The time gap between the question hour and the agenda of house is known as Zero Hour.
(3) This device has been in existence since 1962.
(4) It is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
64. Consider the following statements:
(1) The provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth Schedule Areas.
(2) At present seven States have Fifth Schedule Areas.
(3) The Parliament has enacted the PESA Act in 1996 for such areas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 1
(d) All of these
65. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it many become the ‘Lingua Franca’ of the composite culture of India?
(a) Article-343
(b) Article-348
(c) Article-350
(d) Article-351
66. The Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution mentions salary, allowances and other privileges of certain officials. Which one of the following is not amongst those officials?
(a) The Deputy Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(b) The Deputy Chairman of Legislative Council
(c) The Attorney General of India
(d) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
67. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Only the Rajya Sabha and not Lok Sabha can have nominated members.
(2) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian Community to the Rajya Sabha.
(3) There is no constitutional bar for nominated members to be appointed as Union Ministers.
(4) A nominated member can vote both in Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3
68. Select the correct statement(s) :
(1) Some democratic countries are republics.
(2) Some democratic countries are not republics.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. Select the correct statement(s) :
(1) A citizen enjoys all the civil rights in the State.
(2) A citizen enjoys all the political rights in the State.
(3) An alien enjoys all the civil rights in the State.
(4) An alien enjoys all the political rights in the State.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 3 and 4
70. Arrange the appropriate order (formation of the States):
(1) Mizoram (2) Nagaland
(3) Meghalaya (4) Maharashtra
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1
(d) 4, 2, 1, 3
71. Out of the following statements about the regulatory body in the field of higher education, which is not correct?
(a) National Knowledge Commission under the leadership of Sam Pitroda in 2005 had proposed independent regulatory authority for higher education institutions.
(b) Yashpal Committee recommended single independent regulating authority for higher education institutions.
(c) Central government has proposed to replace present regulatory bodies in the field of higher education with a single regulatory body called Higher Education Empowerment Regulating Agency (HEERA).
(d) University Grants Commission (UGC) is the only existing regulatory body in higher education at present.
72. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following :
(1) India has less than one doctor per thousand population.
(2) The World Health Organization prescribes a minimum doctor – population ratio of 3 : 1000. (3 doctors for 1000 people)
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
73. Which of the following statements is incorrect about India’s Act East Policy?
(a) This policy focuses on the extended neighbourhood in Asia-Pacific region.
(b) This policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative.
(c) This policy promotes enhanced connectivity to Asia-Pacific region through North-Eastern Region.
(d) This policy promotes proactive diplomacy with political and military intervention to curb insurgency in the Asia-Pacific and Indian Ocean Region.
74. Consider the following statements about ‘Jnanpith (Gyanpith)’ Awards:
(1) Sponsored by the government of India since 1952.
(2) Prior to 1982 it was given for single work of a writer.
(3) Now it is given for lifetime contribution of the writer.
(4) Award for the year 2017 has been declared to Krishna Sobti.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) All of these
75. Who is the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission?
(a) NK Singh
(b) NK Mishra
(c) NK Rajan
(d) NK Tyagi
76. Which of the following statements about Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) is false?
(a) Chief Minister is the Chairman of this authority.
(b) This agency was established in the year 1975.
(c) Metropolitan Commissioner is an appointee by the government of India.
(d) This agency brings about improvements in sectors like transport, housing, water supply and environment in the region.
77. Dhirendra Pal Singh was recently in the news. Which is not true about him?
(a) He was the director of National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC).
(b) He was the Vice-Chancellor of Banars Hindu University.
(c) He was the Director of Indian Institute of Science.
(d) He has been appointed as the Chairman of UGC.
78. In Maharashtra, Dr. Abdul Kalam Amrut Ahar Yojana is related with
(a) providing square meal in higher education institutes in the tribal areas.
(b) providing square meal to the needy students in the secondary schools in the tribal areas.
(c) providing square meal to the pregmant and lactating mothers in the tribal areas.
(d) providing square meal to Agnganwadi Sevikas.
79. Match the pairs
(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(b) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1
(c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
80. Kazuo Ishiguro is awarded with Nobel Prize in literature in 2017. Which of the following are not in his works?
(1) The Remains of the Day
(2) A Pale View of Hills
(3) Norwegian Wood
(4) Kafka on The Shore
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) 4 and 5
81. Select the incorrect statements.
(1) The first Global Conference on Cyber Space was held in London in 2011.
(2) The fourth Global Conference on Cyber Space was held in Budapest in 2015.
(3) The fifth Global Conference on Cyber Space was the held in Delhi in 2017.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None of these
82. Choose the incorrect statements :
(1) The World Mental Health Day is observed on October 10 every year.
(2) The theme of 2017 World Mental Health Day was ‘Mental Health at the Workplace.
(3) The World Health Day is celebrated on April 7 every year.
(4) The theme of 2017 World Health Day was ‘Depression’.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) None of these
83. From October 5-25, 2017, the period of 21 days was celebrated by the government of India as
(a) Paryatan Parv
(b) Swachhata Pakhwada
(c) National Integration Parv
(d) Mental Health Awareness Abhiyan
84. ‘Bharat Net’ is a flagship programme of the government of India
(a) To provide broadband services in rural and remote areas in India.
(b) To provide broadband services in all higher educational institutes in India.
(c) To provide broadband services in all railway stations in India.
(d) To provide broadband services to all government hospitals in India.
85. Government of Maharashtra’s Sumatibai Sukalikar Udyogini Mahila Sakshamikaran Yojana is related
(a) Interest subvention to eligible women Self Helf Groups
(b) Loan facilities to women entrepreneurs to buy land
(c) Tax waivers for women entrepreneurs in Mumbai and Nagpur
(d) Loan with 4% interest to women Self Help Groups in Maharashtra
86. Who from the following Gupta kings took the title of Mahendradiyta?
(a) Chandragupta II
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Kumaragupta
(d) Skandagupta
87. Match the following :
(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
(c) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
88. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer option:
(1) The relics of Chalcolithic civilization were found at Jorwe, Nevasa, Daimabad, Chandoli, Songaon, Inamagon, Prakashe, Nasik, etc. in Maharashtra.
(2) The relics of Chalcolithic civilization were found at Ahar and Gilund in Rajasthan and Malwa, Kayatha, Eran, etc. in Madhya Pradesh.
(a) Both the statements are correct.
(b) Both the statements are incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is correct, but statements 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is incorrect.
89. Dasharadnya Yuddha (war) was fought between whom from the following?
(a) Purohit and Vishwamitra
(b) Vishwamitra and Bharat tribe
(c) Sudas and Vasishtha
(d) Puru and Vishwamitra
90. Which of the following edicts have information about Samrat Ashoka’s Dhamma?
(a) Minor edict
(b) Bhabru edicts
(c) Kalinga edicts
(d) Fourteen edicts
91. Match the four provinces in Chandragupta Maurya’s kingdom with their capitals:
(a) A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1
(b) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3
(c) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2
(d) A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1
92. Identify the person from the following description:
(1) Founder of a great empire.
(2) Cultured, scholar and a poet.
(3) The famous poet Harisena was his court poet and Buddhist scholar Vasubandhu was in his court.
(4) Vincent Smith praises him as the ‘Indian Napoleon’.
(a) Harisena
(b) Kanishka
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Chandragupta Maurya
93. Identify the person from the description given below:
(1) He destroyed the dominance of Ulemas in the State.
(2) He was mighty warrior and a successful general.
(3) He was supposed to be the first Sultan to attack the Southern kingdoms.
(4) The famous poet Amir Khusro was in his court.
(a) Altamash
(b) Muhamad Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Qutubuddin Aibak
94. Identify the person from the description given below:
(1) He was given the title Andhra Bhoj.
(2) There were eight famous Telugu poets in his court.
(3) He established the city called ‘Nagalapuram’.
(4) He was the only Hindu king to conquer the capitals of the Muslim kingdoms of Bidar and Gulbarga.
(a) Rama Deva Raya
(b) Pulakeshi I
(c) Parantaka I
(d) Krishnadeva Raya
95. Which one of the following provisions was not involved in the treaty of Shrirangapttana between Tipu Sultan and the British?
(a) Tipu should give the war expenditure worth three and half crore rupees to the British.
(b) Tipu should give half of the State to the British.
(c) Tipu’s two sons will be hostages of the British.
(d) Tipu should accept Subsidiary Alliance.
96. ………. had also founded ‘Free Indian Centres’ in Rome and Paris.
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Madam Cama
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Shyamji Krishna Varma
97. Who is described in the following sentences?
(1) She was Ganadhji’s staunch disciple.
(2) She was the daughter of a British admiral.
(3) She was popularly known as Mir Behn.
(a) Sister Nivedita
(b) Miss Carpenter
(c) Miss Slade
(d) Miss Nightingale
98. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer option :
(1) The new variety of activity in India therefore called for the transformation of a traditionally and mentally subject society into one receptive to democratic ideas and responding to the call for agitation.
(2) It was an arduous and stupendous task.
(a) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Neither of the statements is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(d) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
99. Name the social reformer described in the following sentences :
(1) His family believed in the teachings of Kabir who condemned the caste system.
(2) His father served in the army and retired as a Subedar-Major.
(3) His satchel was untouchable for the lady peon in his school.
(4) He could not study Sanskrit because he was an untouchable.
(a) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
(b) Javalkar
(c) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) Gholap
100. Name the social reformer described in the following sentence:
(1) He was the recipient of the American Unitarian Association Scholarship.
(2) He had been to England for two years for the comparative study of many religions.
(3) He attended the conference on religions at Amsterdam.
(4) He used to write for Subodh Patrika.
(a) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(b) Vitthal Ramji Shinde
(c) Bhaurao Patil
(d) Baburao Jedhe
MPS Examination
