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SBI Probationary Officer Recruitment Preliminary Examination Held on July 3, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021December 1, 2017 by suresh84

SBI Probationary Officer Recruitment Preliminary Examination Held on July 3, 2016

Part I English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequences as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. Apart from these, the care provided in these facilities is also not up to the mark.

B. For instance, in 2015, there was one government hospital bed for every 1833 people compared with 2336 persons in decade earlier which is a good sign.

C. India has made strides in the expansion of public services.

D. For example, six out of every then hospitals in the less developed States did not provide intensive care and a quarter of them struggled with issues like sanitation and drainage.

E. For instance, there is one government hospital bed for every 614 people in Goa compared with one every 8789 people In Bihar.

F. However, as Lancet points out, this availability of beds has been inequitably distributed within the country.

1. Which of the following should be the First sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) C

(d) F

(e) E

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following should be the Fifth sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) D

(d) F

(e) C

Answer: (a)

3. Which of the following should be the Second sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) D

(e) E

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) B

(d) F

(e) D

Answer: (a)

5. Which of the following should be the Sixth (Last) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) B

(d) D

(e) F

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Most of the declarations of the fourth World Conference on Women in Beijing in 1995 have faded from memory. But the linkage made there between women’s rights and poverty and the assumption that discrimination actually impedes progress-has survived.

Since then the promotion of equal rights has become a central economic priority for international aid agencies. The World Bank has declared the enfranchisement of women the single most important issue for effective development. A sweeping statement, perhaps, but since 1805 the bank has lent billions of dollars on programmes that encourage girls’ education, better maternal health and on micro-credit initiatives that funnel money directly into the hands of women. This is a substantial sum dedicated to women. If not, most developing countries, women produce more food than men and bear primary responsibility for feeding, sheltering and educating the young. But lack of education coupled with social customs which treat women as second-class citizens restrict their participation in the economy.

The figures are starting. Globally those women who do work are concentrated at the bottom end of the labour market and receive far less p ay. A significant proportion of the world’s illiterate are women and women account for half of all refugees. Anything that helps women catch up with men should be welcome on grounds of equity alone. But fairer treatment of women is also one of the most effective ways to improve an economy’s efficiency as well. It is widely recognized educating more women in developing countries and specifically making education available to men and women equally, is likely to raise the productive potential of an economy significantly. As education levels rise, so do household incomes.

In Sub-Saharan Africa, for instance, 70% of young children, whose mothers have secondary information receive their vaccinations, as opposed to just 30% of those, whose mothers have no formal schooling at all. A cross-country analysis concluded that gains in women’s education made the single largest contribution to declines in malnutrition in 13 countries between 1970 and 1995. Some researchers reckon that, if female farmers in places like Cameroon or Kenya were afforded the same schooling and other opportunities as male farmers, crop yields would rise quite hefty.

One economic analysis estimates that, if countries in South Asia. Africa and the middle-East had closed the gender gap in schooling at the same rate as East Asia after 1960, income per head could have grown substantially over the actual growth rates achieved. But one country’s gender bias is another’s ancient tradition, entrenched in laws and institutions. Some South American countries, like Bolivia and Guatemala restrict wives employment outside the home, in South African nations like Botswana, women have no independent right to manage of own land but now girls are offered stipends for secondary education, a long standing programme now holstered by multilateral aid.

Elsewhere in Africa in Ghana, peripatetic bankers act as lenders and financial advisors, often helping women as particular to set-up small businesses. Part of the rationale for micro-finance (small icons) that caters to women is the some studies have shown women tend to spend money more prudently on vital goods and services that benefit families, men often squander it. This finding may seem implausible to many men. Not any women would be surprised.

6. Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?

(a) Enabling Asia-The long Road Ahead

(b) Catching Lip with Africa

(d) Poverty-A Matter of Geography

(e) Gender Fairness Equals Economic Development

Answer: (e)

7. Which of the following is/are (a) hindrance(s) in the economic development of the countries mentioned in the passage?

A. Time-honoured traditions in these countries.

B. Women’s limited access to education.

C. Population explosion in the 1960s.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) A and C

(e) A and B

Answer: (e)

8. What do the statistics in the passage indicate?

(a) The female infanticide rate in African countries has dropped significantly.

(b) Maternal health and life expectancy of women has improved since 1995.

(d) Much of the World Bank aid for health has been utilized effectively.

(e) Economic development in Africa is on the rise.

Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following best describes the author’s opinion regarding international aid efforts?

(a) These have been ineffective on account of rampant corruption in aided countries.

(b) Aid will soon dry up as donors are facing economic troubles of their own.

(d) The goals are unrealistic as many of aided countries are facing political conflicts.

(e) These are generous, but effectiveness is hampered by prevailing local factors.

Answer: (e)

10. Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Faded’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a) Tainted

(b) Disappeared

(d) Drooped

(e) Deepened

Answer: (b)

11. Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Funnel’ is given in bold as used in the passage?

(a) Cooked

(b) Available

(d) Pampers

(e) Plans

Answer: (b)

12. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a) Women in Asia & Africa have access to primary, but not higher education.

(b) International conferences on gender equality have not resulted in any concrete aid and action.

(d) Over half the women in Sub-Saharan Africa are illiterate.

(e) All of the given statements are true in the context of the passage.

Answer: (c)

13. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Fairer’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Dimmer

(b) Mysterious

(d) Biased

(e) Dusty

Answer: (d)

14. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Implausible’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Questionable

(b) Open

(d) Credible

(e) Fake

Answer: (d)

15. According to the passage, what can be said with regard to Africa?

(a) It is struggling to improve the situation with regard to discrimination against women.

(b) While cultural attitudes are changing fast, gender equal policies lag behind.

(d) Micro-credit programmes here have not enjoyed the same success as they did in Asia.

(e) None of the given options can be said.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks, which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. There is no clear ………. as to why so many companies start at the same time with broadly the ………. ideas.

(a) signal; aloof

(b) indication; same

(d) clues; equal

(e) prove; like

Answer: (b)

17. Everything from our plastic water bottles and cosmetics to our non-stick frying pans, ………..

(a) has; stays

(b) contains; accumulate

(d) have; dilute

(e) comprises; harm

Answer: (b)

18. Doctors-in training …………… a lot about the workings of the human body ………. medical school and residency.

(a) acquire; while

(b) receives; throughout

(d) trained; from

(e) learn; during

Answer: (e)

19. There is a common ……… that runs …………. many of these ventures.

(a) fiber; on

(b) cord; by

(d) stand; next

(e) thread; through

Answer: (e)

20. World economic growth, which was anyway …….. will be further dampened ……. to Brexit.

(a) stumbling; thank

(b) gloom; owing

(d) sputtering; due

(e) slowed; now

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Read each sentences to find. Out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as y our answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

21. The progress of the South-West monsoon/is relatively slow as it is/not getting as favourable system/for move forward.

(a) The progress of the South-West monsoon

(b) is relatively slow as it is

(d) for move forward

(e) No error

Answer: (d)

22. Authorities have/denied requests/for private hospital care/to the accuse.

(a) Authorities have

(b) denied requests

(d) to the accuse

(e) No error

Answer: (d)

23. The drive intended to creating/an awareness of/the perks of riding two wheelers/without a helmet.

(a) The drive intended to creating

(b) an awareness of

(d) without a helmet

(e) No error

Answer: (a)

24. Gold continued its rising streak/for the fourth straight session/to reclaim the/psychologically significant thirty thousand mark.

(a) Gold continued its rising streak

(b) for the fourth straight session

(d) psychologically significant thirty thousand mark

(e) No error

Answer: (e)

25. The system, which keeps/a record for personal and professional details/of all community members/was hacked.

(a) The system, which keeps

(b) a record for personal and professional details

(d) was hacked

(e) No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Technology is the technical (26) people use to (27) their surroundings. It also means knowledge of using tools and machines to do tasks (28). We use technology to control the world in which we live. Technology is people using knowledge, tools, and systems to make their fives easier and better. People use technology to refines their ability to do work. (29) technology, people communicates better. Technology allows them to make more and better products. Our buildings are better through the use of technology. We travel in more comfort and speed as a (30) of technology. Yes, technology is everywhere and can make life better.

26.

(a) data

(b) manpower

(d) humans

(e) means

Answer: (e)

27.

(a) relate

(b) capture

(d) grow

(e) built

Answer: (c)

28.

(a) locally

(b) centrally

(d) deeply

(e) vaguely

Answer: (c)

29.

(a) Through

(b) Without

(d) Help

(e) Although

Answer: (d)

30.

(a) source

(b) result

(d) precursor

(e) fortune

Answer: (b)

Part II Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement(s) and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer

a. if only I is true b. if only II is true

b. if both are true d. if both are false

c. if either I or II is true

31. Statements G ≥ R > O ≥ S; Y < O ≤ F

Conclusion I. G > Y II S ≤ F

Answer: (a)

32. Statement W ≥ I = P > E ≥ S

Conclusions I. S < W II. S = W

Answer: (c)

33. Statement R ≤ C ≤ J = T ≤ P > Q ≥ H

Conclusions I. R < P II. P = R

Answer: (c)

34. Statements R ≤ O < A ≤ M; L = D ≥ A

Conclusions I. R < L II. D > O

Answer: (d)

35. Statement R ≤ C ≤ J = T ≤ P > Q ≥ H

Conclusions I. H > T II. C ≤ Q

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-41) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Seven people, namely C, D, E, F, G, H and I like different cities namely, Surat, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Mumbai, Ranchi, Delhi and Pune. Each of them studies in either of three schools viz. DAS, RIS and VCS with at least two of them in a school.

(Note : None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)

F studies with the one who likes Bengaluru in RIS. The one who likes Delhi studies only with H. H does not like Bengaluru. C studies with those who like Surat and Pune. C does not study with F. E studies with the one who likes Mumbai. The one who like Mumbai does not study with the one likes Delhi. More than one person studies with D. D does not like Pune. Both I and the one who likes Ranchi study in the same school, but not in DAS. H does not like Ranchi.

36. Which of the following combinations represents the school in which E studies and the city the likes?

(a) DAS-Bengaluru

(b) RIS-Bengaluru

(d) VCS-Pune

(e) RIS-Delhi

Answer: (d)

37. Which of the following cities does G like?

(a) Pune

(b) Ranchi

(d) Delhi

(e) Surat

Answer: (d)

38. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(a) DE

(b) CI

(d) FE

(e) HI

Answer: (b)

39. Who amongst the following likes Kolkata?

(a) F

(b) H

(d) C

(e) D

Answer: (b)

40. Which of the following combinations represents the combination of people studying in VCS?

(a) The one who likes Delhi and Bengaluru.

(b) The one who likes Ranchi and Mumbai.

(d) The one who likes Pune, Surat and Mumbai.

(e) The one who likes Surat, Pune and Ranchi.

Answer: (d)

41. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) F studies in the same school in which I studies.

(b) Both D and C study in the same school.

(d) C likes Ranchi.

(e) All of the given statements are true.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-44) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

D is the mother of S. S is the sister of T. T is the mother of R. R is the only son of J. J is the father of U. U is married to K.

42. How is J related to D?

(a) Brother-in-law

(b) Son-in-law

(d) Son

(e) Nephew

Answer: (b)

43. If R is the father of X, then how is K related to X?

(a) Father

(b) Aunt

(d) Father-in-law

(e) Mother

Answer: (c)

44. How is S related to R?

(a) Sister-in-law

(b) Mother-in-law

(d) Aunt

(e) Mother

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Seven boxes J, K,, L, M, N, O and P are kept one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different elements – Cookies, Pencils, Spoons, Diaries, Colours, Jewellery and Watches, but not necessarily in the same order.

Only two boxes are kept between M and N. The Pencil box is kept immediately below M. Only two boxes are kept between the Pencil box and the Watch box. N is kept above the Watch box. The Diary box is kept immediately below the Watch box.

Only three boxes are kept between the Diary box and J. The Jewellery box is kept immediately above the J. O is kept immediately above K. O is not Pencil box. P is kept immediately below the Cookies box. Only one box is kept between the P and the Spoon box.

45. Which of the following boxes is kept immediately above M?

(a) P

(b) O

(d) Diary box

(e) Jewellery box

Answer: (d)

46. What is the position of O in the given stack of boxes?

(a) First from top

(b) Second from top

(d) Fifth from bottom

(e) Fourth from top

Answer: (b)

47. Which of the following boxes contains Spoons?

(a) Other than those given as options

(b) K

(d) N

(e) L

Answer: (a)

48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

(a) N-Diaries

(b) P-Spoons

(d) K-Pencils

(e) M-Jewellery

Answer: (c)

49. How many boxes are kept between K and the Watch box?

(a) More than three

(b) None

(d) One

(e) Two

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-54) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Eight friends A, B, C, D, L, M, N and O are seated in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing North while some are facing South. Only three people sit to the left of N. B sits second to the right of N. C cists third to the left of O. O is not an immediate neighbour of B. O does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. C and O face same direction (i.e. if C faces North then O also faces North and vice-versa.) Both the immediate neighbours of D face North. D does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. Person sitting at extreme ends face opposite directions (i.e. if one person faces North then the other faces South and vice-versa.) Both the immediate neighbours of N face same directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces North then the other also faces North and vice-versa.) A sits second to the left of L. D faces a direction opposite to L. (i.e. if L faces North then D faces South and vice-versa.)

50. How many people sit exactly between B and O?

(a) More than four

(b) One

(d) Four

(e) Three

Answer: (e)

51. Who among the following represent the immediate neighbours of the persons sitting extreme ends of the line?

(a) D, O

(b) C, D

(d) A, L

(e) A, M

Answer: (a)

52. Who amongst the following faces North?

(a) A

(b) L

(d) N

(e) C

Answer: (d)

53. Which of the following is true based on the given arrangement?

(a) B and C face the same directions.

(b) None of the given options is true.

(d) Only three people face South.

(e) M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

Answer: (e)

54. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of C?

(a) A

(b) No one as only person sits to the right of C.

(d) B

(e) L

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 55-56) Read the following information and answer the given questions.

Point J is 20 m to the North of Point G. Point G is 10 m to the West of Point K is 15 m to the South of Point L. Ashish is standing at Point T which is 30 m to the East of Point L. He starts walking towards South and walks for 35 m. He takes a right turn and stops at Point M after walking for 40 m.

55. How far and in, which direction is Point G with respect to Point M?

(a) 15 m towards South

(b) 15 m towards West

(d) 15 m towards North

(e) 20 m towards North

Answer: (e)

56. If Ashish walks for 10 m towards North from his final position to reach Point D, how much distance will he have to cover in order to reach Point J?

(a) 10 m

(b) 35 m

(d) 20 m

(e) 30 m

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 57-59) Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Each of the six friends, I, J, K, L, M and N working in an office handles different number of projects in a month. I handled the second lowest number of projects. K handles more projects than L and M, but less than J. J did not handle the maximum number of projects. L did not handle the minimum number of projects. The one who handle the third highest number of projects handled 31 projects. L handled 12 projects.

57. How many projects did J possibly handle?

(a) 28

(b) 10

(d) 9

(e) 15

Answer: (c)

58. If the number of projects handled by I + M is only three more than number of projects handled by L, how many projects were handled by I?

(a) 22

(b) 14

(d) 9

(e) 32

Answer: (d)

59. Which of the following is true regarding the number of projects handled by N?

(a) No one handled more projects than N.

(b) Only J handled more number of projects than N.

(d) N handled more number of projects than only three people.

(e) The difference between projects handled by N and L is less than 18.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 60-65) Study the following information and answer the questions.

Seven people, namely K, L, M, N, O, P and Q have to attend a concert, but not necessarily in the same order, on seven different months (of the same year) namely January, February, April, May, June, September and November. Each of them also likes a different movie namely X-Men, Transformers, Frozen, Minions, Shrek, Tangled and Rio, but not necessarily in the same order.

M will attend a concert in a month, which has 31 days. Only two people will attend a concert between M and the one who likes Frozen. The one who likes Frozen will attend a concert on one of the months after M. Only two people will attend a concert between the one who likes Frozen and the one who likes Transformers. The one who likes Transformers will attend a concert in a month which has 31 days. K will attend a concert immediately after M. Only three people will attend a concert between K and the one who likes Tangled. Only one person will attend a concert between the one who likes Tangled and L. Only two people will attend a concert between L and the one who like Rio. The one who likes X-Men will attend a concert immediately before the one who likes Shrek. Only one person will attend a concert between the one who likes Shrek and P. Only three people will attend a concert between Q and O. Q will not attend a concert in a month which has 30 days.

60. Who amongst the following likes X-Men?

(a) M

(b) K

(d) L

(e) Q

Answer: (d)

61. How many people will attend a concert after M?

(a) More than three

(b) One

(d) Two

(e) Three

Answer: (a)

62. Which of the following represents the people who will attend a concert immediately before and immediately after O?

(a) M, N

(b) K, L

(d) P, N

(e) N, M

Answer: (b)

63. As per the given arrangement January is related to Q and May is related to K following a certain pattern, which of the following is April related to following the same pattern?

(a) P

(b) O

(d) L

(e) N

Answer: (d)

64. Which of the following represents the month in which K will attend a concert?

(a) September

(b) June

(d) April

(e) Cannot be determined

Answer: (b)

65. Who amongst the following likes Minions?

(a) M

(b) L

(d) Other than those given as options

(e) K

Answer: (c)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

66. The cost price of item B is Rs 150 more than the cost price of item A, A was sold at a profit of 10% and item B was sold at a loss of 20%. If the respective ratio of selling price of items A and B is 11 : 12, what is the cost price of item B?

(a) Rs 450

(b) Rs 420

(d) Rs 350

(e) Rs 480

Answer: (a)

67. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 10 : 3. Twenty-six litres of this mixture was taken out and replaced with 10 L of water. If the resultant respective ratio of milk and water in the mixture was 5 : 2, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel?

(a) 143 L

(b) 182 L

(d) 156 L

(e) 130 L

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 68-72) What approximate value will come in place of the questions marks in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)

68. ?% of 750.11 ×90 + 6.995 = 30000

(a) 100

(b) 80

(d) 75

(e) 60

Answer: (a)

69. 002 + 29.98 – 53.998 + 3.01² = ?

(a) 800

(b) 880

(d) 900

(e) 750

Answer: (a)

70. 1% of 360.2 + 58.98% of ? = 1244

(a) 1800

(b) 1840

(d) 1870

(e) 1900

Answer: (c)

71. 894 + 33.002 + 15.02 × 7.99 = ?

(a) 180

(b) 123

(d) 250

(e) 170

Answer: (d)

72. (42.11 ×006) – √17 × 15.08 = ?

(a) 250

(b) 150

(d) 200

(e) 125

Answer: (b)

73. There are 6 consecutive odd numbers. The difference between the square of the average of last three numbers and the first three numbers is 288. What is the lass odd number?

(a) 31

(b) 27

(d) 25

(e) 33

Answer: (c)

74. In a bag there are 6 red balls and 9 green balls. Two balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that at least one of the balls drawn is red?

(a) 29/35

(b) 7/15

(d) 17/35

(e) 19/35

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 75-77) Refer to the bar graph and answer the given questions.

75. What is the difference between average number of students enrolled in institute A in 2009 and 2010 and that in institute B in 2011 and 2012?

(a) 20

(b) 40

(d) 10

(e) 60

Answer: (b)

76. If the number of enrolled students in institute A in 2013 is 25% less than that in 2014, how m any students were enrolled in institute A in 2014?

(a) 450

(b) 480

(d) 430

(e) 415

Answer: (c)

77. In 2009, 65% of students enrolled in institute B were male. If the respective ratio between number of male students enrolled in institutes A and B in 2009 was 3 : 4, what was the number of male students enrolled in institute A in the same year?

(a) 111

(b) 117

(d) 114

(e) 105

Answer: (b)

78. Number of students enrolled in institute A in 2011 is, what percent of that enrolled in institute B in the same year?

(a) 50.75%

(b) 60.25%

(d) 54.75%

(e) 56.25%

Answer: (e)

79. Number of students enrolled in institute B decreased by what percent from 2010 to 2013?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Answer: (a)

80. A is thrice as efficient as B. A started working and after 4 days he was replaced by B. B then worked for 15 days and left. If A and B together finished 75% of the total work, in how many days B alone can finish the whole work?

(a) 27 days

(b) 45 days

(d) 36 days

(e) 42 days

Answer: (d)

81. Raman invested Rs P for 2 years in scheme A which offered 20% per annum compound interest (compounded annually). He lent the interest earned from scheme A to Shubh, at the rate of 7.5% per annum simple. If at the end of 2 years, Shubh gave Rs 3036 to Raman and thereby repaid the whole amount (actual loan + interest), what is the value of P?

(a) Rs 6000

(b) Rs 5800

(d) Rs 5400

(e) Rs 6400

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-86) Study the following table carefully and Answer the given questions.

82. What is the respective ratio between total number of students who have enrolled for coaching institutes A and C together from school P and the total number of students who have enrolled for the same coaching institutes together from school Q?

(a) 9 : 4

(b) 3 : 1

(d) 3 : 2

(e) 7 : 2

Answer: (d)

83. In coaching institute B, the total number of students who have enrolled from schools P and R together is, what percent less than the total number of students enrolled from schools Q and S together?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Answer: (c)

84. What is the average number of students who have enrolled in coaching institutes A, C and D from school R?

(a) 32

(b) 33

(d) 31

(e) 30

Answer: (a)

85. What is the difference between the total number of students who have enrolled from coaching institute A from schools P and S together and the total number students who have enrolled for coaching institute C from the same school together?

(a) 78

(b) 64

(d) 74

(e) 67

Answer: (d)

86. In coaching institute D, 42% are females. If 20% of the total females are from school Q, what is the number of male students from school Q who have enrolled from coaching institute D?

(a) 5

(b) 7

(d) 3

(e) 4

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 87-91) In these questions, two equations numbered I and II given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.

Give answer

a. if x > y b. if x < y

c. if x ≥ y d. if x ≤ y

e. if x = y or relation between x and y cannot be established

87 I. x² – 11x + 30 = 0 II. 2y² – 9y + 10 = 0

Answer: (a)

88. I. 15x² + 8x + 1 = 0 II. 3y² + 14y + 8 = 0

Answer: (a)

89. I. 4x² – 17x + 18 = 0 II. 2y² – 21y + 40 = 0

Answer: (b)

90. I. 6x² – 25x + 14 = 0 II. 9y² – 9y + 2 = 0

Answer: (c)

91. I. 8x² + 25x + 3 = 0 II. 2y² + 17y + 30 = 0

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 92-96) What will be come in the place of question marks in the following numbers series?

92. 250 235 205 160 ? 25

(a) 110

(b) 150

(d) 100

(e) 120

Answer: (d)

93. 20 ? 29 40 58 85

(a) 23

(b) 25

(d) 31

(e) 24

Answer: (a)

94. 5 7 17 55 225 ?

(a) 971

(b) 1131

(d) 1435

(e) 956

Answer: (b)

95. 10 6 8 15 34 ?

(a) 95

(b) 80

(d) 75

(e) 85

Answer: (c)

96. 85 53 33 22 17 ?

(a) 5

(b) 9

(d) 8

(e) 15

Answer: (e)

97. A started a business by investing Rs 25000. At the end of 4th month from the start of the business B joined with Rs 15000 and at the end of 6th month from the start of the business, C joined with Rs 20000. If the A’s share in profit at the end of year was Rs 7750, what was the total profit received?

(a) Rs 13950

(b) Rs 13810

(d) Rs 12780

(e) Rs 14040

Answer: (a)

98. The respective ratio of radii of two right circular cylinders (A & B) is 2 : 3. The respective ratio of volumes of cylinders A and B is 9 : 7, then what are the ratio of heights of cylinders A and B?

(a) 8 : 5

(b) 81 : 28

(d) 5 : 4

(e) 6 : 5

Answer: (b)

99. Suri gave 25% of her monthly salary to her mother. From the remaining salary, she paid 15% towards rent and 25%, she kept aside for her monthly expenses. The remaining amount she kept in bank account. The sum of the amount she kept in bank and that she gave to her mother was Rs 42000. What was her monthly salary?

(a) Rs 50000

(b) Rs 60000

(d) Rs 64000

(e) Rs 72000

Answer: (b)

100. At present, Ami’s age is twice Rio’s age and Cami is two years older than Ami. Two years ago, the respective ratio between Rio’s age at that time and Cami’s age at that time was 4 : 9. What will be Ami’s age after four years?

(a) 40 yr

(b) 30 yr

(d) 36 yr

(e) 48 yr

Answer: (a)

SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Main Examination Held on June 25, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021November 30, 2017 by suresh84

SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment Main Examination Held on June 25, 2016

Part I Reasoning Ability and Computer Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) In the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read them carefully and mark the appropriate answer.

Given answer

a. if either conclusion I or II follows

b. if neither conclusion I nor II follows

c. if only conclusion II follows

d. if both conclusions follow.

e. if only conclusion I follows

1. Statements Y < J = P ≥ R > I

Conclusions I. J > I II. Y < R

Answer: (e)

2. Statements V ≥ K > M = N; M > 5; T < K

Conclusions I. T < N II. V = 5

Answer: (b)

3. Statements G ≥ H = I < J; J > K; G < L

Conclusions I. K < H II. L > I

Answer: (c)

4. Which of the following expressions is wrong, if the expression ‘G = B < C = D ≥ E’ is definitely true?

(a) G < C

(b) Other than those given as options

(d) G < D

(e) B = D

Answer: (e)

5. Anil walks 4 m towards the East, takes a right turn and walks 3 m. He then takes a left turn and walks 5 m before taking a final left turn and walking 3 m. Towards which direction and how far should Anil walk to reach the point from where he initially started walking?

(a) 9 m towards West

(b) 8 m towards East

(d) 9 m towards West

(e) 9 m towards East

Answer: (d)

6. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

One of the main reasons behind the lack of applicants for teachers’ training/degree programmes is that teachers have not experienced any improvement in working conditions and their salaries have not kept pace with salaries in other professions.

Which of the following cab be inferred from the given paragraph?

(a) No direct relationship can be established between the work conditions of a particular profession and preference for it amongst the qualified candidates.

(b) Number of applicants for teachers’ training progreammes will improve, if the salaries in other professions are reduced.

(d) Very high entrance exam is also one of the reasons behind plunging number of applicants for teachers training programmes.

(e) In the years to come, the schools would face a crunch in terms of availability of qualified teachers, if the salaries and working conditions of teachers’ do not improve.

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are of different heights. Only two people are taller than C. B is taller than both A and E but not the tallest. F is taller than A and E but not as tall as C. Only one person is shorter than A. The one, who is second tallest is 165 cm and the one, who is the third shortest is 155 cm.

7. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(a) B’s height is definitely 165 cm.

(b) F is taller than both D and A.

(d) A’s height is possibly 157 cm.

(e) All the given statements are true.

Answer: (a)

8. Who amongst the following is shortest among them?

(a) A

(b) F

(d) E

(e) B

Answer: (d)

9. Who amongst the following is possibly 170 cm?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) F

(e) D

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 10-14) Each question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide, whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark the appropriate answer.

Give answer

a. if the data even in both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

b. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

c. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

d. if the in both statements together are necessary to answer the question.

e. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.

10. How many sisters does Madhu have?

Statements

I. Madhu’s parents have four children.

II. Madhu has three brothers.

Answer: (d)

11. Is R the granddaughter of C?

Statements

I. The only sister of A is the mother of R’s brother, B.

II. C, the mother of A has only one grandson, B.

Answer: (d)

12. Four friends A, B, C and D are seated in circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Is anyone seated exactly between C and D, when counted from the left of C?

Statements

I. B is seated to the immediate right of C.

II. B is seated to the immediate left of A. D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

Answer: (e)

13. Among five friends M, N, O, P and Q (each earning a different amount), who earns the least?

Statements

I. M earns more than O, P and N.

II. P earns more than only O.

Answer: (a)

14. Among A, B, C, D and E, seated in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same order, facing North, who sits exactly in the middle of the line?

Statements

I. A sits third to left of D. B sits to the immediate right of C.

II. B sits second to right of A. E is not an immediate neighbour of D.

Answer: (d)

15. How many meaningful English words, starting with P, can be formed with the letters ETPS using each letter only once in each word?

(a) More than three

(b) One

(d) None

(e) Three

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-21) In each question below, two/three statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

a. if either conclusion I or II follows

b. if neither conclusion I nor II follows

c. if only conclusion II follows

d. if both conclusions follow

e. if only conclusion I follows

16. Statements All trains are buses.

All buses are jeeps.

All jeeps are aeroplanes.

Conclusions I. Some buses are not aeroplanes.

II. All jeeps are trains.

Answer: (b)

17. Statements Some parties are celebrations.

All celebrations are occasions.

No occasion is a festival.

Conclusions I. No celebration is a festival.

II. Some occasions are parties.

Answer: (d)

18. Statements Some pens are erasers.

All erasers are staplers.

Conclusions

I. At least some staplers are pens.

II. There is a possibility that some erasers are neither staplers nor pens.

Answer: (d)

19. Statements No red is black.

Some black are yellow.

Conclusions I. No yellow is red.

II. All red being yellow is a possibility.

Answer: (c)

20. Statements All shores are beaches.

Some beaches are coasts.

All banks are coasts.

Conclusions I. Some banks are beaches.

II. No bank is a shore.

Answer: (b)

21. Statements All benches are parks.

No park is a tree.

All trees are swings.

Conclusions

I.All benches being swings is a possibility.

II. No tree is a bench.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-26) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code,

‘for profit order now’ is written as ‘ho ja ye ga’

‘right now for him’ is written as ‘ga ve ja se’

‘place order for profit’ is written as ‘ga bi ho ye’

‘only in right order’ is written as ‘ve du ye zo’

(All codes are two-letters codes only)

22. What is the code for ‘him’ in the given code language?

(a) Cannot be determined

(b) ga

(d) aj

(e) se

Answer: (e)

23. Which of the following may represents ‘only for now’ in the given code language?

(a) zo ga ja

(b) zo ga ye

(d) du bl ja

(e) du zo ga

Answer: (a)

24. What is the code for ‘profit’ in the given code language?

(a) ye

(b) ho

(d) ja

(e) bl

Answer: (b)

25. ‘fo ve du’ could be a code for which of the following in the given code language?

(a) only in profit

(b) order only him

(d) in right spirits

(e) order only now

Answer: (d)

26. What does ‘bl’ stand for in the given code language?

(a) profit

(b) for

(d) order

(e) now

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-28) In each question below, a statement is given followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.. A course of action is a practicable and feasible step or administrative decision to be taken for follow-up, improvement, or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide, which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

a. Only II follows b. Both I and II follow

b. Only follows d. Neither I nor II follows

e. Either I or II follows

27. Statement There is no motivation among today’s generation to join the armed forces owing to frequent transfers to risky areas. Perhaps they are not aware of the good side of it.

Courses of Action

I. Short term internship should be introduced at high school level to give students a peek into the adventurous life of the forces and provide a more realistic job purview.

II. The salary level of the defence forces should be increased with immediate effect.

Answer: (c)

28. Statement People see tax as a burden and thus devise ways to underpay or avoid it altogether.

Course of Action

I. Government should educate and inform citizens about the ways in which taxes help in development of the nation.

II. Tax rates should be increased so that the under-recovery in collection is compensated.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 29-34) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z, out of whom one is a Pilot, Professor, Businessman, Doctor, Lawyer, Banker, Cricketer or an Architect (but not necessarily in the same order), are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. S, who is a banker sits third to the right of Z. The professor and the architect are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither the professor nor the architect is an immediate neighbour of either Z or S. The one, who is a professor sits second to the right of T, who is a lawyer. V, who is a cricketer, is not an immediate neighbour or the banker. Cricketer and the pilot are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither Z nor W is a pilot. Only R sits between the professor and the doctor. P sits third to the right of the pilot.

29. Who amongst the following sits exactly between T and Q?

(a) Doctor

(b) Banker

(d) Cricketer

(e) Architect

Answer: (b)

30. Who sits third to the right of the professor?

(a) Q

(b) The Lawyer

(d) S

(e) The Cricketer

Answer: (e)

31. Which of the following is true regarding R?

(a) He is an immediate neighbour of the professor.

(b) He is a doctor.

(d) He is an immediate neighbour of the pilot.

(e) R sits exactly between Q and T when counted from the right of Q.

Answer: (a)

32. What is the position of the businessman with respect to the pilot?

(a) Third to the left

(b) Second to the left

(d) Fourth to the right

(e) Second to the right

Answer: (a)

33. What is the profession of Z?

(a) Doctor

(b) Other than those given as options

(d) Professor

(e) Architect

Answer: (a)

34. How many people sit between the ‘banker’ and ‘W’ when counted in anti-clockwise direction from banker?

(a) Three

(b) Four

(d) None

(e) Two

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-39) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven friends T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line facing North but not necessarily in the same order. W sits fifth to the right of T. W does not sit at any of the extreme ends. Two people sit between Z and X. Y sits third to the left of U. Y sits exactly in the middle. Z is not an immediate neighbour of Y.

35. What is Z’s position with respect to W?

(a) Fourth to the left

(b) Second to the left

(d) Third to the right

(e) Third to the left

Answer: (a)

36. Who is second to the right of T?

(a) Other than those given as options

(b) Y

(d) V

(e) U

Answer: (d)

37. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(a) WX

(b) ZT

(d) UW

(e) XV

Answer: (e)

38. Who sit at the extreme ends of the line?

(a) VX

(b) XT

(d) YZ

(e) XZ

Answer: (c)

39. If all the seven friends are made to sit alphabetically from right to left, positions of how many will remain unchanged?

(a) Three

(b) Two

(d) One

(e) None

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-44) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G work in three departments of an organization viz, Finance, Marketing and HR. Not less than two and not more than three work in each department. Each of them likes a different colour-red, blue, green, white, yellow, pink and black, but not necessarily in the same order. E does not work in the HR department and likes Yellow. The one, who likes pink, works in the Marketing department. C works in the Finance department only with G. B likes red and works in the same department as D and F. No one working in the HR department likes blue or green. C does not like green and D does not like black.

40. Which of the following represents the friends working in Marketing department?

(a) A, E

(b) B, F

(d) A, C

(e) E, D

Answer: (a)

41. Which colour does G like?

(a) White

(b) Blue

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) Green

Answer: (e)

42. Which colour does A like?

(a) Cannot be determined

(b) Black

(d) White

(e) Pink

Answer: (e)

43. Who likes the colour black?

(a) D

(b) A

(d) F

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

44. Which of the following combinations of person-department-colour is correct?

(a) F-HR-White

(b) A-HR-Pink

(d) None is correct

(e) E-Marketing-Red

Answer: (d)

45. The position of first and the fourth letters of the word PRICED are interchanged, similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabets, which are at the extreme ends?

(a) Three

(b) Five

(d) Two

(e) Four

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

Input gate 20 86 just not 71 for 67 38 bake sun 55

Step I bake gate 20 just not 71 for 67 38 sun 55 86

Step II for bake 20 just no 67 38 sun 55 86 71

Step III gate for bake 20 just not 38 sun 55 86 71 67

Step IV just gate for bake 20 not 38 sun 86 71 67 55

Step V not just gate for bake 20 sun 86 71 67 55 38

Step VI sun not just gate for bake 86 71 67 55 38 20

Step VII is the last step of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input 31 rise gem 15 92 47 aim big 25 does 56 not 85 63 with moon

46. How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a) Eight

(b) Six

(d) Five

(e) Nine

Answer: (a)

47. Which word/number would be at seventh position from the left of step IV?

(a) rise

(b) aim

(d) 15

(e) does

Answer: (d)

48. Which step number is the following output?

Rise not moon gem does big aim 15 with 92 85 63 56 47 31 25

(a) Step V

(b) Step VII

(d) Step VIII

(e) Step III

Answer: (b)

49. Which of the following represents the position of ‘92’ in step VI?

(a) Ninth from the left

(b) Fifth from the right

(d) Ninth from the right

(e) Seventh from the left

Answer: (c)

50. Which word/number would be at fifth position from the right in the last step?

(a) gem

(b) 63

(d) 85

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

Part II Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the table and answer the given questions.

The following table gives percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination. The maximum marks in each subject is written in parenthesis.

51. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics?

(a) 77.26

(b) 89.14

(d) 96.11

(e) 103.21

Answer: (b)

52. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by B in all the six subjects?

(a) 409

(b) 419

(d) 439

(e) 466

Answer: (e)

53. What is the overall percentage secured by D?

(a) 52.5%

(b) 55%

(d) 73.42%

(e) 64.5%

Answer: (d)

54. The number of students, who obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjects is

(a) none

(b) four

(d) three

(e) two

Answer: (e)

55. In which of the following subjects, the overall percentage of the students is best?

(a) History

(b) Maths

(d) Chemistry

(e) Geography

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Five different companies A, B, C, D and E make two items I and II. The total number of items produced by these five companies is Rs 80000. The cost of production of each item is Rs 5000. The distribution of the total production by these companies is given in the following pie-chart and the table shows the ratio of production of Item I to that Item II and the percentage profit earned by these companies on each of these items.

56. What is the profit earned by Company C on Item II?

(a) Rs 57.6 lakh

(b) Rs 55.4 lakh

(d) Rs 54 lakh

(e) None of these

Answer: (a)

57. What is the total cost of production of Item I by companies A and B together?

(a) Rs 5 crore

(b) Rs 6 crore

(d) Rs 9 crore

(e) None of these

Answer: (c)

58. What is the total of the profit earned by Company E on production of Item I and the profit of Company D on production of Item II?

(a) Rs 1.56 crore

(b) Rs 2.2 crore

(d) Rs 2.6 crore

(e) None of these

Answer: (a)

59. What is the ratio of the cost production of Item II by Company A to the cost of production of Item I by Company E?

(a) 17 : 12

(b) 4 : 5

(d) 15 : 8

(e) 1 : 2

Answer: (d)

60. The cost of production of Item II for Company E is what percent of the cost of production of Item I for Company A?

(a) 80%

(b) 20%

(d) 75%

(e) 40%

Answer: (b)

61. Train A crosses a pole in 25 seconds and another Train B crosses a pole in 1 minute and 15 second. Length of Train A is half length of Train B. What is the respective ratio between speed of Train A and Train B?

(a) 3 : 2

(b) 3 : 4

(d) 2 : 5

(e) 4 : 3

Answer: (a)

62. Amit and Roshan, two shopkeepers, buy article for Rs 1000 and Rs 2000 respectively. Roshan marks his article up by 2x% and offers a discount of x%, while Amit marks his article up by x%. If both make the same profit, what is the value of x?

(a) 40%

(b) 37.5%

(d) 25%

(e) 50%

Answer: (d)

63. A man was assigned to find the average age of a class of 13 students. By mistake, the included the 35 years old teacher as well and hence the average went up by 2 years. Find the actual average age of the class.

(a) 8 yr

(b) 7 yr

(d) 11 yr

(e) 9 yr

Answer: (b)

64. The length and breadth of a rectangular plot are in the ratio of 9 : 7. If the cost of fencing the plot @ 27.75 per meter is Rs 3552, what is the area of the plot?

(a) 1236 sq m

(b) 1008 sq m

(d) 1288 sq m

(e) 1056 sq m

Answer: (b)

65. How many kg of salt of 42 paise per kg must man mix with 25 kg of salt at 24 paise per kg,, so that he may, on selling the mixture at 40 paise per k g gain 25% on the outlay?

(a) 15 kg

(b) 18 kg

(d) 24 kg

(e) 26 kg

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What value will come in place of question marks in the given equations?

66. 003 × 37.998 – 309.010 = ?

(a) 685

(b) 695

(d) 679

(e) 675

Answer: (d)

67. 009 – 519.999 – 94.989 = ?

(a) 7270

(b) 7300

(d) 7220

(e) 7340

Answer: (a)

68.

(a) 290

(b) 390

(d) 590

(e) 590

Answer: (a)

69. 30² – 117 = 24.5² + ?

(a) 127.70

(b) 127.65

(d) 172.05

(e) 165.28

Answer: (c)

70.

(a) 105

(b) 95

(d) 125

(e) 135

Answer: (c)

71. A bag contains 20 tickets numbered from 1 to 20. Two tickets are drawn n at random. What is the probability that both numbers are prime?

(a) 8/20

(b) 14/95

(d) 21/190

(e) 21/95

Answer: (a)

72. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?

(a) 20 h

(b) 25 h

(d) 40 h

(e) 30 h

Answer: (c)

73. A certain amount of money is to be divided among P, Q and R in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the amount received by R is Rs 4000 more than the amount received by Q, what will be the total amount received by P and Q together?

(a) Rs 8000

(b) Rs 12000

(d) Rs 16000

(e) Rs 20000

Answer: (d)

74. A number when divided by 627 leaves a remainder 43. By dividing the same number by 19, the remainder will be

(a) 24

(b) 43

(d) 5

(e) 7

Answer: (a)

75. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then what is the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects?

(a) 40%

(b) 42%

(d) 46%

(e) 48%

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) What value will come in place of question marks in the given numbers series?

76. 15 365 587 717 785 815 ?

(a) 825

(b) 835

(d) 832

(e) 838

Answer: (a)

77. 1297 2117 3137 4357 5777 ?

(a) 7897

(b) 7367

(d) 7837

(e) 7547

Answer: (c)

78. 8 288 968 2048 3528 5408 ?

(a) 7288

(b) 7388

(d) 7688

(e) 7588

Answer: (d)

79. 18 43 204 1145 8190 ?

(a) 73915

(b) 73925

(d) 73945

(e) 73955

Answer: (c)

80. 12 93 730 5097 30570 ?

(a) 152835

(b) 152837

(d) 152841

(e) 152833

Answer: (c)

81. A and B enter into a partnership by making investments in the ratio 1 : 2, 5% of the total profit goes to charity. If B’s share is Rs 760, then what is the total profit earned?

(a) Rs 1200

(b) Rs 1800

(d) Rs 1560

(e) Rs 2000

Answer: (a)

82. The simple interest on a certain sum for 8 months at 4% per annum is Rs 129 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 15 months at 5% per annum. What is the sum?

(a) Rs 2580

(b) Rs 2400

(d) Rs 3600

(e) Rs 2900

Answer: (d)

83. If the ratio of radius of two cylinders A and B are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their heights in the ratio 10 : 9 respectively, then what is the ratio of volumes of their cylinders?

(a) 5 : 2

(b) 5 : 3

(d) 2 : 5

(e) 4 : 7

Answer: (d)

84. A boat can travel with a speed of 16 km/h in still water. If the rate of stream is 5 km/h, then what is the time taken by the boat to cover distance of 84 km downstream?

(a) 4 h

(b) 5 h

(d) 7 h

(e) 8 h

Answer: (a)

85. A can build up structure in 8 days and B can break it in 3 days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining part of the structure?

(a) 10

(b) 9

(d) 8

(e) 7

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) What value will co me in place of question marks in the following equations?

86. 8 * 13.5 * 16.2 * ? = 2340.09

(a) 0.15

(b) 0.25

(d) 0.75

(e) 1

Answer: (b)

87. 8¹² ÷ 16² of 32³ × √256 = 2^?

(a) 17

(b) 18

(d) 20

(e) 15

Answer: (a)

88.

(a) 373

(b) 375

(d) 381

(e) 370

Answer: (c)

89. 486 ÷ ? * 7392 ÷ 66 = 1008

(a) 54

(b) 55

(d) 53

(e) 51

Answer: (a)

90. 81% of ? = 427.2 * 8.4% of 135

(a) 21784

(b) 24378

(d) 28120

(e) 25315

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, there are two equations. You have to solve both equations.

Given answer

a. if x > y b. if x ≥ y c. if x < y d. if x ≤ y

e. if x = y or relation cannot be established

91. I. 2x² – 13x – 24 = 0 II. 3y² + 17y + 24 = 0

Answer: (a)

92. I. 3x² + 23x + 30 = 0 II. 6y² + 13y + 5 = 0

Answer: (d)

93. I. 5x² – 44x + 63 = 0 II. 15y² – 37y + 18 = 0

Answer: (b)

94. I. x² = 1296

Answer: (e)

95. I. 12x² – 8x – 7 = 0 II. 10y² + 23y + 12 = 0

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Each question below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You are to decide, whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and given answer

a. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

b. it the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

c. If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

d. if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

e. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

96. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?

I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days.

II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days.

Answer: (c)

97. What is the monthly salary of Praveen?

I. Praveen gets 15% more than Sumit while Sumit gets 10% less than Lokesh.

II. Lokesh’s monthly salary is Rs 2500

Answer: (e)

98. How many people are there in the plane?

I. 25% passengers are women and 35% are children.

II. There are 24 men in the plane.

Answer: (e)

99. What is the distance between city P and city Q?

I. Two persons started simultaneously from P to Q, with their speeds in the ratio 4 : 5.

II. B reaches P one hour earlier than A to Q. The difference between speeds of A and B is 20 km/h.

Answer: (d)

100. What is the Vani’s present age?

I. Vani is three years older than Ami.

II. The ratio between Ami and Sammy’s age is 3 : 4.

Answer: (d)

Part III General English

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-105) Read the following sentence to find out, whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’ (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

101. The tourist industry of the State/feels that the facility of visa-on-arrival/should be made available/to keeping the industry vibrant.

(a) The tourist industry of the State

(b) feels that the facility of visa-on-arrival

(d) to keeping the industry vibrant

(e) No error

Answer: (d)

102. Even a newly-recruited teacher/in a government high school gets/ more than what/ a former principal gets as pension.

(a) Even a newly-recruited teacher

(b) in a government high school gets

(d) a former principal gets as pension

(e) No error

Answer: (e)

103. Six people fainted/ on board in an international flight/ promptly the emergency crew to check/ the plane for hazardous materials.

(a) Six people fainted

(b) on board in an international flight

(d) the plane for hazardous materials

(e) No error

Answer: (c)

104. To be short-listed for the competition/the children have to fill up/ a contest firm that their/ respective schools will provide.

(a) To be short-listed for the competition

(b) the children have to fill up

(d) respective schools will provide

(e) No error

Answer: (c)

105. The students of the school/ would be send to the zoo/ on a study tour/ to gain first-hand experience.

(a) The students of the school

(b) would be send to the zoo

(d) to gain first-hand experience

(e) No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 106-112) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The residents of Kotobuki live not far from the glitzy shops and upscale restaurants of Yokohama. Japan’s second biggest city, adjoining Tokyo, the capital. Yet Kotobuki is an altogether different word, a squalid district, it is a pit stop for local Japanese on their way to destitution. Men living here in cheap hostels have lost jobs and families. Some survive on casual day work, but many have no work at all, A 250-bed, bed shelter dominates the centre of Kotobuki, part of a public network of around 40 built in the past decade. Though these have helped to take 18000 people off Japan’s streets, it has been harder to check the creeping poverty that put many of them there in the first place.

Last year, the Japanese government recorded relative poverty rates at 16%- defined as the share of the population living on less than half the national median income.

That is the highest on record. Poverty levels have been growing at a rate of 1.3% a y ear since the mid-1980s. On the same definition, a study by the OECD in 2011 ranked Japan sixth from the bottom among its 34 mostly rich members. Book shops advertise a slew of bestsellers on how to survive on an income of under ¥ 2 m ($ 16700), a poverty line below which millions of Japanese now live.

The country has long prided itself on ensuring that one of its citizens falls between the social cracks. Japan’s orderly, slum-free neighbourhoods seem to confirm that, street crime’, even in Kotobuki, is minuscule. Unemployment is below 4% and jobs are being generated as the Prime Minister attempts to boost the economy through monetary easing. Yet the poor quality of new jobs in compounding the problem of the working poor.

Since late 2012, the number of irregular workers-often earning less than half the pay of the full-time counterparts with permanent employment contracts – has jumped over 1.5 m. Casual and part-time employees number n early 20 m, almost 40% of the Japanese workforce.

The effects of this shift to irregular work have not always been visible. One reason is parents’ benevolence. Millions of young workers remain living at home, rent-free. But o ne the older generation that drove Japan’s post-war boom goes, underlying poverty will become more evident. The present situation may look grim, but there is hope as long, as the present government continues to do something about it.

106. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a) Youngsters in Japan, leave their parents’ house the minute they get an employment offer.

(b) According to the OECD ranking of 2011, Japan stands among some of the poor nations.

(d) Yokohama is the second biggest poor city in the country.

(e) None of the given statements is true.

Answer: (b)

107. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word ‘Confirm’ as used in the passage?

(a) Strengthen

(b) Remove

(d) Contradict

(e) Adopt

Answer: (a)

108. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Grim as used in the passage?

(a) Interesting

(b) Trim

(d) Foul

(e) Unfavourable

Answer: (e)

109. Which of the following can be said about Kotobuki in the context to the passage?

A. Crime rate is very high.

B. It’s a place that provides shelter to people having minimum or no source of income.

C. More than 50% of the poor in the country have found their homes in this place.

(a) Only A

(b) Both A and C

(d) Both B and C

(e) Only C

Answer: (c)

110. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, ‘none of its citizens falls between the social cracks’ as used in the passage?

(a) Preventing the citizens from becoming poor.

(b) Providing a luxurious lifestyle with plush amenities.

(d) Taking everyone out of Kotobuki to other neighbourhoods

(e) Reducing corruption.

Answer: (a)

111. As mentioned in the passage, despite generating jobs, the problem of unemployment persists because

A. these are either irregular in nature or of poor quality.

B. people are not willing to take up poor quality jobs.

C. prevailing corruption prevents people from taking up these jobs.

(a) Only A

(b) Both A and C

(d) Both B and C

(e) Only C

Answer: (c)

112. Which of the following can be a suitable title of the passage?

(a) Exploring the Role of the Government in Supporting Japan’s Economy

(b) Japan and Poverty-A Synonym for Each Other

(d) The Beginning of the Rise of the Dragon

(e) Exploring Benefits of Working Part-Time

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 113-120) Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Some time ago, there lived a king. The King should have been contented with his life, given all the riches and luxuries he had. However, this was not the case, the King always found himself wondering why he just never seemed contented with his life.

Sure, he had the attention of everyone wherever he went, attended fancy dinners and parties, but somehow, he still felt something was lacking and he couldn’t put his finger on it. One day, the King had woken up earlier than usual to stroll around his palace. He entered his huge living room and came to a stop when he heard someone happily singing away. Following his singing, he saw that one of the servants was singing and had a very contented look on his face.

This fascinated the King and he summoned this man to his chambers. The man entered the King’s chambers as ordered. The King asked why he was so happy. To this the man replied, “Your Majesty, I am nothing but a servant, but I make enough of a living to keep my wife and children happy. We don’t need too much, a roof over our heads and warm food to fill our tummy. My wife and children are inspiration; they are content with whatever little I bring home. I am happy because my family is happy. “Hearing this, he King dismissed the servant and summoned his Personal Assistant to his chambers.

The King related his personal anguish about this feelings and then related the story of the servant to his Personal Assistant, hoping that somehow, he will be able to come up with some reasoning that here was a King, who could have anything he wished for at a snap of his fingers and yet was not contented, whereas his servant, having so little, was extremely contented. Personal Assistant listened attentively and come to a conclusion. He said, “Your Majesty, I believe that the servant has not been made part of The 99 Club.”

“The 99 Club? And what exactly is that?” The King inquired.

To which is Assistant replied, “Your Majesty, to truly known what The 99 Club is , you will have to do the following: Place 99 gold coins in a bag and leave it at the servant’s doorstep. You will then understand what. The 99 Club is.” That very same evening, the King arranged for 99 gold coins to be placed in a bag at the servant’s doorstep.

Although, he was slightly hesitant and the thought he should have put 100 gold coins into the bag, yet since h is assistant had advised him to put 99, that is what he did.

The servant was just stepping out of his house, when he saw a bag his doorstep, Wondering about its contents, he took it into his house and opened the bag. When he opened the bag, he let out a great big shout of joy, “Gold coins. So many of them.” He could hardly believe it. He called his wife to show her the coins.

He then took the bag to a table and emptied it out and began to count the coins. Doing so, he realized that there were 99 coins and he thought it was an odd number, so he counted again and again only to come to the same conclusion-99 gold coins.

He began to wonder, what could have happened to that last one coin? For no one would leave 99 coins. He began to search is entire house, looked around his backyard for houses, not wanting to lose out that one coin. Finally, exhausted, he decided that he would work harder than ever to make up for that one gold coin to make his entire collection an even 100 gold coins.

He got up the next morning in an extremely horrible mood, shouting at the children and his wife for his delay, not realizing that he had spent most of the night conjuring ways of working hard, so that he had enough money to buy himself that gold coin. He went to work as usual – but not in his usual best mood, singing happily – as he grumpily did his dally errands.

Seeing the man’s attitude change so drastically, the King was puzzled. He promptly summoned his Assistant to his chambers. The King related his thoughts about the servant and once again, his Assistant listened. The King could not believe that the servant who until yesterday had been singing away and was happy and contented with his life had taken a sudden change of a attitude, even though he should have been happier after receiving the gold coins.

To this the Assistant replied, “Ah! But your Majesty, the servant has now officially joined The 99 Club.” He explained: “The 99 Club is just a name given to those people, who have everything but yet are never contented, therefore they are always working hard and striving for t hat extra one to round it out to 100.

We have so much to be thankful for and we can live with very little in our lives, but the minute we are given something bigger and better, we want even more! We are not the happy contented person we used to be. We want more and m ore and by wanting more and more we don’t realize the price we pay for it. We lose our sleep, our happiness; we hurt the people around us just as price to pay for our growing needs and desires. That is what joining. The 99 Club is all about. “Hearing this, the King decided that from that day onwards, he was going to start appreciating all the little things in life.

Striving for more is always good, but let’s not strive so hard and for so much that we lose all those near and dear to our hearts. We shouldn’t compromise our happiness for moments of luxuries?

113. Why did the King summon the servant?

(a) Because the servant was singing a sad song.

(b) Because he was fascinated by the happiness of the servant

(d) Because the servant was also assigned the job of a spy.

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

114. What was/were the reason for the servant’s happiness?

A. He was not a part of The 99 Club.

B. He was too poor to look after his family.

C. His family was happy.

(a) A and B

(b) B and C

(d) All of these

(e) Only B

Answer: (c)

115. What was not the effect of placing the bag containing 99 gold coins at the servant’s doorstep?

(a) The servant became overjoyed to find the bag containing gold coins.

(b) He counted the gold coins again and again to confirm whether they were just ninety nine or a hundred.

(d) Finally, he could find the last one coin in his backyard.

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

116. What happened to the servant, when he became part of the 99 Club?

(a) He got up the next morning in a horrible mood.

(b) He rebuked the members of his family.

(d) He did his work grumpily.

(e) All of the above

Answer: (e)

117. In the context of the passage, what do you mean by The 99 Club?

(a) The 99 Club is a group of rich people.

(b) It is the club of dissatisfied people.

(d) It is the club of people.

(e) Other than those given as options.

Answer: (b)

118. Choose the word, which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Fascinated’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Bored

(b) Attracted

(d) Exhausted

(e) Irritated

Answer: (b)

119. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Stroll’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Excursion

(b) Lazy walk

(d) Breath

(e) Run

Answer: (b)

120. Choose the word, which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Drastically’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a) Vehemently

(b) Effectively

(d) Compulsively

(e) Emphatically

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. The full extent and impact of the forest fires in Uttarakhand can be assessed only after they have abated with better weather conditions, but the furious blaze that has swept the hill State drives home, the truth that governments are yet to find scientific ways to tackle the phenomenon.

B. Some of the studies reported by organizations affiliated to the Union Environment Ministry point to the effective intervention of community-led ‘Van Panchayats’ forest councils in preventing fires.

C. Progress can be made also by providing environmental education to local residents and officials.

D. Significantly, the use of biomass alternatives including cooking gas, has had a beneficial impact on fire risk and his must be expanded.

E. The Uttarakhand government should learn from the severity of the experience, and involved its large rural communities in preparing for the future.

F. It is possible that the changing patterns of climate may be exacerbating the problem; more research is required to conclude whether the EI Nino that set in last year, marked by a lack of pre-monsoon showers, also played a part in intensifying the fires.

121. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) B

(d) A

(e) C

Answer: (b)

122. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) B

(d) A

(e) C

Answer: (a)

123. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) E

(d) B

(e) F

Answer: (c)

124. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) D

(d) A

(e) C

Answer: (b)

125. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) C

(d) A

(e) B

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-130) In each questions below, two sentences I and II are given. Each sentence I and II has a blank in it. Against the question, five options are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both places in the context of each sentence. Mark that option as your answer.

126. I. I didn’t mean to ………. my heart out to you, but I guess I had to talk to someone.

II. She went to kitchen to ……….. herself a big glass of orange juice.

(a) make

(b) prepare

(d) cry

(e) pour

Answer: (e)

127. I. As Sheela’s motives were found to the harmless, no disciplinary ………. will be taken against her.

II. I imitated his ……….. even wearing his spectacles, thinking they might help solve the mystery.

(a) trick

(b) sentence

(d) deed

(e) action

Answer: (e)

128. I. The plush residential complex will fulfill your wish of living in a ……… location.

II. Both the ……… Minister and our Ambassador in Vienna knew him and valued his contribution.

(a) home

(b) posh

(d) prime

(e) aloof

Answer: (d)

129. I. If you are trying to make a ………. impression on your audience, you cannot do so by being ambiguous.

II. The crane is a large and ………. bird.

(a) intense

(b) strong

(d) broken

(e) agile

Answer: (b)

130. I. Police searched her father’s bag against his…………

II. My father excluded my siblings from his ……….

(a) will

(b) property

(d) list

(e) consent

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 131-140) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered in bold. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which best fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

“Even after609 years of Independence, it is disgraceful that we are yet to put our infrastructure in (131). There are two types of infrastructure in the country. One is the basic infrastructure, such as water supply, drainage, education etc. The other is for comfort, such as excellent roads, high speed trains etc. We have not (132) on either. What is the problem? Is it lack of money or funds? It may not (133) be so. We simply do not know how to go about things. What we have done is that we have (134) a number of layers of decision making authorities and too (135) agencies and regulations. We must get a number of (136) to get anything done. We need leadership not only in politics but also in administration. We need definition of our objectives, such as what we need, why we need, and when we need it. (137) important point is clarity of ideology. Lastly and most importantly identification of a right person for the job is (138). What we need is systematic change. Leadership and commitment make all the (139) in getting things done. There has to be an appreciation that (140) in infrastructure delivers a force multiplier for the economy.”

131.

(a) organize

(b) place

(d) commitment

(e) duty

Answer: (b)

132.

(a) accomplished

(b) attained

(d) qualified

(e) delivered

Answer: (a)

133.

(a) quietly

(b) inevitably

(d) necessarily

(e) voluntarily

Answer: (d)

134.

(a) created

(b) resulted

(d) invented

(e) influenced

Answer: (a)

135.

(a) great

(b) abundant

(d) much

(e) manifold

Answer: (c)

136.

(a) hardships

(b) attempt

(d) clearances

(e) skill

Answer: (e)

137.

(a) another

(b) different

(d) moreover

(e) distinctly

Answer: (a)

138.

(a) expected

(b) dependent

(d) inherent

(e) essential

Answer: (e)

139.

(a) basics

(b) similarity

(d) rigidity

(e) modesty

Answer: (c)

140.

(a) building

(b) investment

(d) generating

(e) modifying

Answer: (b)

Part IV General Awareness

141. According to the current provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the BRI can issue banknotes in the denomination not more than

(a) Rs 5000

(b) Rs 1000

(d) Rs 10000

(e) Rs 50000

Answer: (d)

142. The Valmiki National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following States in India?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Assam

(e) Bihar

Answer: (e)

143. The low-cost train with Wi-Fi, entertainment screens and vending machines for passengers, recently announced by Indian Railways is

(a) Humsafar Express

(b) Antyodaya Express

(d) Deen Dayalu Express

(e) UDAY Express

Answer: (c)

144. In Shishu category of Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, the maximum loan which can be availed, is

(a) Rs 500000

(b) Rs 100000

(d) Rs 50000

(e) Rs 10000

Answer: (d)

145. Which of the following States’ capital declare its own mascot?

(a) Assam

(b) Karnataka

(d) Andhra Pradesh

(e) Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (a)

146. ‘NACH’ has been implemented by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) for banks, financial institutions, corporate and government. The full form of NACH is

(a) National Automation Cleansing House

(b) National Automated Clearing House

(d) National Automate Cleansing House

(e) National Automatic Cash House

Answer: (b)

147. ‘Wings of Fire’ is an autobiography of which of the following?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Dr. BR Ambedkar

(d) Pranab Mukherjee

(e) APJ Abdul Kalam

Answer: (e)

148. The CRR and SLR are reserved in which form with the bank?

(a) Cash and liquidity

(b) Liquidity and cash

(d) Both are reserved as liquidity

(e) Both are reserved in other forms

Answer: (a)

149. The 11-digit alphanumeric code used to make all electronic money transactions across India is known as

(a) MICR code

(b) IFSC code

(d) ESC code

(e) Demat account number

Answer: (b)

150. India recently (January, 2016) exports first batch of ‘Made in India’ metro coaches to Australia manufactured in

(a) Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh)

(b) Ludhiana (Punjab)

(d) Baroda (Gujarat)

(e) Jaipur (Rajasthan)

Answer: (d)

151. What is the current reverse repo rate in India?

(a) 21%

(b) 6.50%

(d) 7%

(e) 15%

Answer: (c)

152. The Ahmedabad City is located on the banks of

(a) Narmada river

(b) Sabarmati river

(d) Godavari river

(e) Tapti river

Answer: (b)

153. The currency of the Republic of Israel is

(a) Peso

(b) New Shekel

(d) Egyptian Pound

(e) Lira

Answer: (b)

154. Recently, an Indian sportsman Neeraj Chopra clinches silver medal in Warsaw (Poland). With which sport he is associated with?

(a) Boxing

(b) Javelin throw

(d) Judo

(e) Chess

Answer: (b)

155. The RIDF was set-up by the government in 1995-96 for financing ongoing rural infrastructure projects. The term ‘I’ in RIDF stands for

(a) Industry

(b) India

(d) Instruction

(e) International

Answer: (c)

156. The India’s first Defence Industrial Park is located in

(a) Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)

(b) Mangalore (Karnataka)

(d) Surat (Gujarat)

(e) Nagpur (Maharashtra)

Answer: (c)

157. The Gobi is large desert region in Asia. The desert is located in

(a) India

(b) Russia

(d) Nepal

(e) Iran

Answer: (c)

158. Recently (May 25, 2016) the Kerala was given a new Chief Minister named

(a) Oommen Chandy

(b) VS Achuthanandan

(d) K. Chandrashekhar Rao

(e) N. Chandrababu Naidu

Answer: (c)

159. Anant Geete, represents which of the following constituents in Lok Sabha?

(a) Raigad (Maharashtra)

(b) Maval (Maharashtra)

(d) Tikamgarh (Madhya Pradesh)

(e) Dharwad (Karnataka)

Answer: (a)

160. HPCA Stadium is a cricket stadium located in the city of

(a) Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)

(b) New Delhi

(d) Surat (Gujarat)

(e) Dharmashala (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: (e)

161. The ECGC Limited provides export credit insurance support to Indian exporters and is controlled by the Ministry of Commerce. The term ‘G’; in abbreviation ECGC stands for

(a) Global

(b) Guide

(d) Guarantee

(e) Guest

Answer: (d)

162. Bank of India is headquartered in

(a) New Delhi

(b) Chennai

(d) Mumbai

(e) Kokata

Answer: (d)

163. The Atomic Power Plant with largest capacity (540 MWe) is located in

(a) Kaiga Generating System (Karnataka)

(b) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (Rajasthan)

(d) Madras Atomic Power Station (Tamil Nadu)

(e) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (Gujarat)

Answer: (c)

164. Recently (June, 2016), India pulling all stops to raise funds for Chabahar Port. The port is located in

(a) Iraq

(b) Bangladesh

(d) Iran

(e) Pakistan

Answer: (d)

165. Piyush Goyal, who recently (June, 2016) launched Surya Mitra Mobile App, is a

(a) Minister of State for Petroleum and Natural Gas

(b) Minister of State for Civil Aviation

(d) Minister of State for Culture and Tourism

(e) Minister of State for Power, Coal and New Renewable Energy

Answer: (e)

166. July 28 is observed as the

(a) World Hepatitis Day

(b) International Yoga Day

(d) World Population Day

(e) World Environment Day

Answer: (a)

167. Which country recently (June, 2016) returned to India over 200 stolen cultural artifacts, some dating back 2000 years?

(a) United Kingdom

(b) United States of America

(d) UAE

(e) South Africa

Answer: (b)

168. Wular Lake, one of the largest fresh water lake in Asia, is in the Indian State of

(a) Sikkim

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Jammu and Kashmir

(e) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (d)

169. Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited is India’s first …………… founded in August, 2000.

(a) debit information company

(b) credit insurance company

(d) credit information company

(e) credit stabilizing corporation

Answer: (d)

170. In the context of banking, the term ‘L’ in MCLR stands for

(a) Lending

(b) Loss

(d) Lender

(e) Limited

Answer: (a)

171. Nairobi is the capital city of

(a) Sudan

(b) Kenya

(d) Egypt

(e) Algeria

Answer: (b)

172. The International Development Association (IDA) is an international financial institution, which offers concessional loans and grants to the world’s poorest developing countries. IT is headquartered in

(a) Washington DC (USA)

(b) Vienna (Austria)

(d) New Delhi (India)

(e) Berlin (Germany)

Answer: (a)

173. The Federal Reserve System, also known as the Federal Reserve or simply as the Fed, is the central banking system of

(a) the UK

(b) Russia

(d) the USA

(e) France

Answer: (d)

174. KSE is a Stock Exchange Index of which of the following countries?

(a) Pakistan

(b) India

(d) Russia

(e) The USA

Answer: (a)

175. Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, formerly known as Borjhar Airport, is situated at

(a) Amravati (Andhra Pradesh)

(b) Hyderabad (Telangana)

(d) Guwahati (Assam)

(e) Kolkata (West Bengal)

Answer: (d)

176. Which of the following is not a motivational model?

(a) Economic model

(b) Learning model

(d) Organizational model

(e) All of these

Answer: (e)

177. The regulatory authority for Regional Rural Bank (RRB) is of

(a) sponsor bank

(b) State government

(d) RBI and NABARD

(e) SEBI

Answer: (d)

178. The private sector bank, which recently allowed children above 10 years to open savings bank accounts after the SBI is

(a) IDBI Bank

(b) HDFC Bank

(d) Axis Bank

(e) Kotak Mahindra Bank

Answer: (c)

179. A cheque, which is payable to any person, who presents it for payment at the bank counter, is called

(a) Cross cheque

(b) Bearer cheque

(d) Close cheque

(e) Lender cheque

Answer: (b)

180. Which one of the following is not method of selling prices?

(a) Cost plus pricing method

(b) Marginal cost pricing method

(d) First-in-first-out cost method

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

181. Bancassurance is a relationship between bank and

(a) education

(b) insurance company

(d) customer

(e) NABARD

Answer: (b)

182. Marketing Strategy means

(a) to introduce in sales promotion scheme

(b) population

(d) demands

(e) networth

Answer: (a)

183. Marketing should be resorted

(a) only among rich person

(b) depends on income

(d) depends on the product

(e) only among the poor

Answer: (d)

184. The incumbent Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is

(a) Arundhati Bhattacharya

(b) Raghuram Rajan

(d) D. Subbarao

(e) YV Reddy

Answer: (b)

185. To survive in the growing competition banks need to implement

(a) free schemes

(b) service orientation

(d) core banking

(e) low interest rates

Answer: (c)

186. The process of gathering information about customers or market is known as

(a) Customer inspection

(b) Checking market area

(d) Market research

(e) Checking customers demand

Answer: (d)

187. When costs are accumulated for an organizational unit or department, it is called

(a) a cost centre

(b) a cost benefit

(d) a cost of production

(e) unit

Answer: (a)

188. Developing and spreading persuasive communications about an offer or product is known as

(a) Promotion

(b) Information

(d) Distribution

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

189. PMFBY, a scheme launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in January, 2016, is related to

(a) health insurance

(b) bank insurance

(d) accident insurance

(e) business insurance

Answer: (c)

190. Which State government’s business is not transacted by the RBI?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Bihar

(d) Assam

(e) Sikkim

Answer: (e)

SBI Central Recruitment & Promotion Department PO Examination 2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021November 30, 2017 by suresh84

SBI Central Recruitment & Promotion Department PO Examination 2015

Directions (Qs. 1 to 6): Study the given information and answer the questions. When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line or words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers).

Input : 14 36 methodology 21 of research 59 crucial 98 very 62 is

Step I : 98 14 36 methodology 21 of research 59 crucial very is 62

Step II : 98 very 14 36 methodology 21 of 59 crucial is research 62

Step III : 59 98 very 14 methodology 21 of crucial is research 62 36

Step IV : 59 98 very of 14 21 crucial is methodology research 62 36

Step V : 21 59 98 very of crucial is methodology research 62 36 14

Step VI : 21 59 98 very of is crucial methodology research 62 36 14

Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input : 65 work in 23 to be 13 89 managed 48 97 load 34 healthy 55 style

1. Which element is exactly between ‘style’ and ‘be’ in second last step of the given arrangement?

(a) work

(b) healthy

(d) load

(e) be

Answer: (d)

2. What is the position of 48 from the right end in the third step?

(a) sixth

(b) seventh

(d) eighth

(e) ninth

Answer: (d)

3. Which of the following is fifth step of the arrangement based on the given input?

(a) 46 65 97 to managed in 23 be 13 load healthy style work 89 55 34

(b) 46 work 65 style 97 in 23 be 13 load healthy 89 managed 55 to 34

(d) 34 46 55 65 89 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to

(e) 89 55 34 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 46 65 97

Answer: (c)

4. In which step are the elements ‘be 13 healthy in’ found in the same order ?

(a) third

(b) sixth

(d) the given order of elements is not found in any step

(e) fifth

Answer: (b)

5. How many steps will be required to complete the given arrangement based on the given input ?

(a) eight

(b) ten

(d) nine

(e) six

Answer: (a)

6. Which element is eighth to left of the element which is twelfth from the left end of the third last step?

(a) 97

(b) 23

(d) style

(e) to

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 7-11) : Each question below consists of a question and two statements I & II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.

7. All are the five friends F, G, H, I and J, sitting in a straight line facing north?

I. F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between F and H. J sits to immediate left of H. G and J are immediate neighbours of each other.

II. J faces north and sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between J and I. H sits seconds to the right of I, H sits to immediate left of G.

(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (a)

8. All are the five friends A, B, C, D and E who are sitting around the circular table facing the centre.

I. D sits to immediate right of E. E faces the centre. C sits second to the left of the D. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.

II. B sits to immediate right of C. A sits to immediate left of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of B. E faces the centre. D is not an immediate neighbour of C.

(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

9. Is C the mother of B?

I. P is the father of A and B. R has only one brother P. C is sister-in-law of R. R is unmarried. F is the mother of R. F has only two children.

II. H has only two children P and R. P is the father of A. B is the only brother of A. R is unmarried. H is the father-in-law of C.

(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

10. Five movies P, Q, R, S and T are scheduled to be screened from Monday to Friday of the same week. Which move will be screened on Friday?

I. Movie P will be screened on Tuesday. Only two movies will be screened between movies R and S. R will be screened before S.

II. Movie Q will be screened on Wednesday. Only one movie will be screened between movies Q and R. S will be screened immediately before movie T.

(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (e)

11. How far is point R from point P?

I. A person starts from Point P, walks 15 metres to the south, takes right turn and walks 4 meteres. he then takes left turn and walks 7 metres. He takes left turn again, walks for 4 m and reaches point Q. If the person takes left turn and walks 7 m, he will reach point R.

II. A person starts from Point P, walks 14 m towards the east, takes a left turn and walks 3 m. He then takes a left turn again and walks for 14 m to reach point N. If he takes a right turn from point N and walks 5 m, he will be 27 m away from point R.

(a) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to the answer the question while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) The data in both statements I and II together are unnecessary to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 12-17) : Study the information carefully and answer these questions.

Eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T sitting around a circular table are at equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people are facing the centre while some face outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the centre).

Note: Facing the same direction means if one faces the centre then the other also faces the centre and vice versa. Facing opposite direction means if one person faces center then the other faces outside and vice versa.

S sits second to the right of P. P faces the centre. T sits second to the left of S. T is an immediate neighbour of both O and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. M sits second to the left of R. T sits second to the left of N. M sits second to the left of O. T faces the same direction as Q. N sits third to the right of M.

12. Who sits exactly between S and T, when counted from the left of S?

(a) M

(b) Q

(d) O

(e) N

Answer: (d)

13. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre?

(a) One

(b) Three

(d) Two

(e) Four

Answer: (b)

14. Who sits second to the right of N?

(a) R

(b) P

(d) S

(e) O

Answer: (b)

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) R

(b) S

(d) O

(e) M

Answer: (c)

16. Which of the following is true regarding T as per the given sitting arrangements ?

(a) T faces the centre

(b) Only two people sit between N & T

(d) S sits second to the left of T

(e) Only one persons sits between T and R

Answer: (c)

17. What is M’s position with respect to T?

(a) Second to the left

(b) Fifth to the right

(d) Third to the left

(e) Fourth to the right

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 18-23) : In each questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements :

Some prices are costs.

Some costs are amounts.

All amounts are expenses.

Conclusion I :

At least some amounts are prices.

Conclusion II :

All amounts being prices is a possibility.

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (d)

19. Statements :

All invitations are rejections.

Some invitations are celebrations.

No rejection is an attraction.

Conclusion I :

Some celebrations are rejections.

Conclusion II :

All celebrations are rejections.

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (a)

20. Statements :

All grades are scales.

All scales are categories.

Conclusion I :

All grades are categories.

Conclusion II :

All categories are scales.

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (e)

21. Statements :

Some metals are papers.

All papers are alloys.

No alloy is a wood.

Conclusion I :

All woods being metals is a possibility

Conclusion II :

All metals being woods is a possibility.

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (c)

22. Statements :

Some metals are papers.

All papers are alloys.

No alloys is a wood.

Conclusion I :

No paper is a wood.

Conclusion II :

At least some metals are alloys.

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (b)

23. Statements :

Some prices are costs.

Some costs are amounts.

All amounts are expenses.

Conclusion I :

No expense is a cost.

Conclusion II:

At least some expenses are prices.

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (e)

24. A statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II given below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for improvements, follow-up or further action in regard to the problems, policy etc. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows from the given statements.

Statement: There have been structural shifts from agriculture to industry in country Z. While industries contribute to 67% of the country’s GDP, it is leading to steady and undesirable decline in the participation of labour force in agriculture.

I.The government should curtail number of industries growing up in the country in order to promote the agriculture.

II. Incentives for working in agriculture should be made competitive with that of other sectors.

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 25-27) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Each of the six people U, V, W, X, Y and Z stayed for a different number of day in India. X stayed for less number of days than only V, Y stayed for more number of days then only two people. U did not stay less than Y. W did not stay for the minimum number of days. The one who stayed for the second lowest number of days stayed for eight days. U stayed for 17 days in India.

25. The one who stayed for the maximum number of days stayed for 15 more days than W. Which of the following is possibly the number of days for which it stayed in India?

(a) 5

(b) 32

(d) 20

(e) 17

Answer: (c)

26. Which of the following is true with respect to Z as per the given information?

(a) The possible number of days for which Z stayed in India is 14 days

(b) Z stayed for the minimum number of days

(d) Only two peoples stayed for more number of days than Z.

(e) Z definitely stayed for more number days than Y.

Answer: (b)

27. Which of the following may be the possible number of days for which Y stayed in India?

(a) 11

(b) 8

(d) 5

(e) 22

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 28-32) : Study the given information carefully and answer these questions.

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons in row-I, J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing north and in row-II P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all are facing south (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also likes different flowers namely Gazania, Plumeria, Tulip, Orchids, Lily, Rose, Daffodil, Daisy, Peony and Dahlia (but not necessarily in the same order).

N sits exactly in the center of the row and faces the one who likes orchids. Only one person sits between N and the one who likes Lily. S faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes Lily. Only one person sits between P and the one who likes Orchids. P is not an immediate neighbour of S. P faces on e of the immediate neighbour of L. M is neither an immediate neighbour of L nor faces S. Q is not an immediate neighbour of S and faces the one who likes Plumeria. M does not face R. M faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes rose. Only one person sits between the one who likes Rose and the one who likes Gazania. The one who likes Peony and the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only two people sit between the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only two people sit between the one who likes Daisy and the one who likes Daffodila. J does not like Daffodil. The one who likes Dahlia sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Peony.

28. Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Peony ?

(a) The one who likes Rose

(b) The one who likes Lily

(d) K

(e) T

Answer: (c)

29. Which of the following flowers does S like?

(a) Lily

(b) Gazania

(d) Orchids

(e) Daffodila

Answer: (c)

30. Which of the following is definitely true as per the given arrangement?

(a) L faces R

(b) Q is an immediate neighbour of P

(d) Q likes Daffodila

(e) The one who likes Dahlia faces N

Answer: (b)

31. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting at the extreme end of the two rows?

(a) P, J

(b) Q, L

(d) S, K

(e) S, L

Answer: (a)

32. Who amongst the following likes Tulip?

(a) N

(b) P

(d) Q

(e) J

Answer: (a)

33. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:

As per a recent survey 85% of the work force today is either actively looking for a job or open to talking to recruiters and relevant opportunities; the ones who are satisfied with their job.

Which of the following many be a reason for the above mentioned results of the survey.

(a) As there is the wide array of opportunity today and head hunters are always seeking for professionals, people are not willing. to let go off an opportunity to do something new and challenging

(b) As per a recent survey more than 40% people today are dissatisfied with their jobs as there is the wide gap between what they study in the class room as compared to the actual work they do

(c) Some people in the country take education loan for completing higher education and are expected to repay the loans themselves after they start working

(d) As employees today are of different age group and back-grounds it becomes difficult for the HR department to organize employment engagement activities to improve the job satisfaction of employees

(e) Only a few people study for high specialized courses in the country and they are always in demand as there is high scale gap in many organizations.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 34 & 35) : Each of the questions consists of a statement followed by two Reasons I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements numbered I and II weakens or strengthens the statement and mark the appropriate answer.

34. Statement :

The world should move towards using bio-fuels in the future as these are more environment friendly as compared to regular fossil-fuels.

Reasons:

I. While bio-fuels are cleaner to burn, the process to produce the fuel, including the necessary machinery leads to very-high carbon emission.

II. As bio-fuels are manufactured from materials such as crop waste, manure and other by-products, these, unlike fossil-fuels, are easily renewable.

(a) Reason I weakens the information while reason II is a natural statement.

(b) Both reasons I and II weaken the given statement.

(d) Reason I weakens the information while reason II strengthens the statement.

(e) Both reasons I and II strengthen the given statements.

Answer: (d)

35. Statement :

Always remain in an air conditioned environment for better health and well-being.

Reasons :

I. Filters in the air-conditioners lower exposure to allergy creating pollen and other outdoor allergies.

II. Spending too much time in an air-conditioned environment result in gradual intolerance of body towards natural temperatures.

(a) Reason I weakens the information while reason II is a natural statement.

(b) Both reasons I and II weaken the information

(d) Reason I weakens the information while reason II strengthens the statement.

(e) Both reasons I and II strengthen the information.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 36 to 41) : In each of these questions a statement is followed by two conclusions I and II. Select the correct option.

36. Statements :

B ≤ A = N > K ≥ S

Conclusion I :

A > S

Conclusion II :

B ≤ K

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (e)

37. Statement :

B ≤ A = N > K ≥ S

Conclusion I :

B ≤ N

Conclusion II :

S < N

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (b)

38. Statement :

K ≥ L = M ≥ N = O ≤ P

Conclusion I

K ≤ N

Conclusion II :

L = O

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (c)

39. Statement :

K ≥ L = M ≥ N = O ≤ P

Conclusion I :

K < P

Conclusion II :

M ≥ O

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (d)

40. Statement :

X < Y ≤ Z = W, K ≥ J > Z

Conclusion I:

Z < K

Conclusion II :

Y ≤ W

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (b)

41. Statement :

X < Y ≤ Z = W, K ≥ J > Z

Conclusion I:

X ≥ J

Conclusion II:

K > Y

(a) Either conclusion I or II is true

(b) Both conclusions I and II are true

(d) Only conclusion II is true

(e) Only conclusion I is true

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 42 to 44) : Study the following information and answer the given questions.

A and Y are brothers of K. Y is the son of P and S. P is the daughter of X. M is the father-in-law of S. Q is the son of X.

42. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q.

(a) Uncle

(b) Nephew

(d) Brother-in-law

(e) Son-in-law

Answer: (a)

43. How is Y related to M?

(a) Nephew

(b) Father

(d) Grandson

(e) Brother

Answer: (d)

44. How is K related to Q?

(a) Cannot be determined

(b) Niece

(d) Nephew

(e) Son-in-law

Answer: (a)

45. Read the given information carefully and answer the given question.

Five fisherman from Country X were sentenced to imprisonment by the High Court of Country Y on charges of smuggling narcotics from Country X to Country Y.

Which of the following supports the legal action taken by country Y?

(i) Country X had given details of a new fisherman that had no record of involvement in drug-related activities.

(ii) The naval authorities of both the countries X and Y have found traces of narcotics in the fish boxes that were shipped from Country X to Country Y by these fisherman.

(iii) All the fish boxes that are shipped between countries undergo a strict process of checking.

(iv) It was found that two of the five fisherman who were sentenced to death penalty were earlier imprisoned for the same reason a few years back.

(a) Both (ii) and (iii)

(b) Both (ii) and (v)

(d) None of the given statements

(e) Only (ii)

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 46-50) : Read the given information and answer the given questions.

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on separate floors of an 8-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the top most floor is numbered 8.

C lives on floor No. 3. Only one person lives between C and F. Only one person lives between C and G.

E lives immediately above B.

H lives immediately above F. H lives on any of the floors below D.

Only one person lives between D and A. D lives above A.

46. Who lives on the floor immediately below D?

(a) Other than those given as options

(b) H

(d) G

(e) C

Answer: (d)

47. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(a) Only one person lives between E and G

(b) A lives on an even numbered floor

(d) F lives on floor No. 5

(e) A lives immediately above H.

Answer: (b)

48. How many people live between the floors on which D and C live?

(a) One

(b) More than three

(d) Two

(e) No more

Answer: (d)

49. Who amongst the following lives between B and G?

(a) No one

(b) C

(d) H

(e) D

Answer: (e)

50. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5?

(a) A

(b) G

(d) D

(e) H

Answer: (b)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) : In these questions, a sentence has two blanks, each blank indicates that something has been confined. Choose the word that best fits in the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. _______ Dinasours are believed to be the ancestors of modern birds, The discovery of soft issue in Dinasour fossils containing proteins found only in birds is very _______.

(a) Though – Unfortunate

(b) Recently – Common

(d) Perhaps – Remarkable

(e) Moreover – Welcome

Answer: (c)

2. The van Allon belts which are _____ between 13000to 60000 KM above the earth’s surface were discovered in 1958 and contain electrons which play ______ with electronic systems on satellites.

(a) Somewhere – damages

(b) Located – Havoc

(d) Situated – Part

(e) Vicinity – Confusion

Answer: (b)

3. Rice farmers use ________ methods of farming and old equipments making the cost of price ______ twice as much as it is in other countries.

(a) Obsolete – Economical

(b) Modern – Expensive

(d) Antiquated – Almost

(e) Sustainable – Approximate

Answer: (d)

4. Some experts believe that the best ______ to reduce the number of accidents caused by drivers using their mobile phones to create an app/_______ communications when the vehicle is in motion and unblocking them when the vehicle reaches its destination.

(a) Tactic – Block

(b) Strategy – Disabling

(d) Decision – Expediting

(e) Method – Further

Answer: (a)

5. Services provided by money transfer companies are _______ for people who don’t have bank accounts or who are working far from home and are helpful to _______ trade and disperse wealth.

(a) Fundamental – Compute

(b) Prerequisite – Invigorating

(d) Essentially – Bolster

(e) Inherent – Foster

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) : Rearrange the given six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

(A) She follows in the footsteps of other renowned female politicians like Chile’s Michelle Bachelet and Germany’s Angela Merkel.

(B) Women are also rising to the forefront in other parts of the Government.

(C) And this leadership can be seen in the growing number of women who are becoming political leaders and the most recent being Dilma Rousseff who look over as Brazil’s first women President.

(D) It is defined as the ability to influence or lead through persuasion or attraction by co-opting people rather than coercing them.

(E) The leadership of women in politics, business and society is becoming evident across the globe.

(F) These trends represent the growing needs for ‘soft power’ in today’s world.

6. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) F

(e) E

Answer: (a)

7. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) B

(d) D

(e) E

Answer: (d)

8. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) D

(d) A

(e) F

Answer: (e)

9. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) D

(d) F

(e) C

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) C

(d) F

(e) E

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 11-20) : Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The evolution of Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)trend has been as profound as it has been rapid. It represents the more visible sign that the boundaries between personal life and work life are blurring. The 9 am – 5 pm model of working solely from office has become archaic and increasingly people are working extended hours from a range of locations. At the very heart of this evolution is the ability to access enterprise networks from anywhere and anytime. The concept of cloud computing serves effectively to extend the office out of office. The much heralded benefit of BYOD is greater productivity. However, recent research has suggested that this is the greatest myth of BYOD and the reality is that BYOD in practice poses new challenges that may outweigh the benefits. A worldwide survey commissioned by Fortinet chose to look at attitudes towards BYOD and security from the users point of view instead of the IT managers. Specifically the survey was conducted in 15 territories on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties because they represent the first generation to enter the workplace with an expectation of own device use. Moreover, they also represent tomorrow’s influencer and decision makers. The survey findings reveal that for financial organizations, the decision to embrace BYOD is extremely dangerous. Larger organizations will have mature IT strategies and policies in place. But what about smaller financial business? They might not have such well-developed strategies to protect confidential data.

Crucially, within younger employee group, 55% of the people share on expectation that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes. With this expectation comes the very real risk that employees may consider contravening company policy banning the use of own devices. The threats posed by this level of subversion cannot be overstated. The survey casts doubt on the idea of BYOD leading to greater productivity by revealing the real reason people want to use their own devices. Only 26% of people in this age group cite efficiency as the reason they want to use their own devices, while 63% admit that the main reason is so they have access to their favourite applications. But with personal applications so close to hand, the risks to the business must surely include distraction and time wasting. To support this assumption 46% of people polled acknowledged time wasting as the greatest threat to the organization, while 42% citing greater exposure to theft or loss of confidential data. Clearly, from a user perspective there is great deal of contradiction surrounding BYOD and there exists an undercurrent of selfishness where users expect to use their own devices, but mostly for personal interest. They recognize the risks to the organization but are adamant that those risks are worth taking.

11. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons did Fortinet conduct the survey on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties?

(A) As this group represents the future decision makers

(B) As this group represents the first generation who entered the workforce with a better understanding of sophisticated gadgets.

(C) As this group represents the first generation to enter the workplace expecting that they can use their own devices for work purpose

(a) All (A), (B) & (C)

(b) Only (C)

(d) Only (A)

(e) Only (B)

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following is not true about BYOD?

(a) BYOD enables employees to access enterprise network from anywhere and anytime

(b) Due to evolution of BYOD trend the 9 am – 5 pm model of working solely from office has become outdated

(d) The concept of cloud computing facilitates the BYOD trend

(e) All the given facts are true

Answer: (c)

13. According to the passage, why would the decision to embrace BYOD prove dangerous to smaller financial businesses?

(a) Their employees have poor knowledge about their devices which in turn pose a threat to the confidential data of the organization

(b) Their employees are more vulnerable to misplacement of devices

(d) They cannot afford to deal with damage liability issues of employee-owned devices

(e) Their employees have a tendency to change jobs frequently

Answer: (c)

14. According to the passage, the expectation of younger employees that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace, entails which of the following risks ?

(A) Younger employees may deliberately transfer confidential data of their companies to rivals if they are not allowed to use their own devices for work purpose.

(B) Younger employees may strongly fell like leaving the company if it prevents usage of own device and join some other company that does not have such stringent policies.

(C) Younger employees may consider flouting company policy prohibiting usage of their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes.

(a) Only (C)

(b) Only (B)

(d) Only (A)

(e) All (A), (B) & (C)

Answer: (a)

15. According to the findings of the survey conducted by Fortinet, why do majority of employees prefer using their own devices for work purpose ?

(a) As they often find t hat the devices provided by the company lack quality

(b) As they have access to their favourite applications while working

(d) As handling data from their own devices reinforces their sense of responsibility

(e) As it helps them create a brand of their own

Answer: (b)

16. What is/are the author’s main objective(s) in writing the passage ?

(A) To break the myth that BYOD promotes employee efficiency and organizational productivity

(B) To suggest ways to control subversion across levels of corporate chain of command

(C) To throw light upon the fact that employees even after knowing the risks involved, prefer to use their own devices for work purpose mostly for personal benefits

(a) Both (A) & (C)

(b) All (A), (B) & (C)

(d) Only (A)

(e) Only (B)

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 17 & 18) : Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

17. Heralded

(a) Suspected

(b) Publicised

(d) Objective

(e) Benefit

Answer: (b)

18. Outweigh

(a) Control

(b) Venture

(d) Determine

(e) Surpass

Answer: (e)

Direction (Qs. 19 & 20) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Embrace

(a) Contradict

(b) Disobey

(d) Reject

(e) Obscure

Answer: (d)

20. Subversion

(a) Compliance

(b) Sanity

(d) Destabilization

(e) Clarity

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 21 to 25) : Which of the phrase given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is given as it is given and no correction is required, mark ‘No correction’ required i.e. (e) as the answer.

21. Getting tax refunds is a problematic not only for the common man but also senior officials.

(a) are problems

(b) is a problem

(d) is problem

(e) No correction required

Answer: (b)

22. The World Bank represents a particularly difficult case of organization cultural changes.

(a) represent

(b) representing

(d) have representing

(e) No correction required

Answer: (e)

23. Big companies are hiking stipends for summer internships by 40%, sending out a strong signal that they expects the economy to new up.

(a) them expecting

(b) they expect

(d) expect these

(e) No correction required

Answer: (b)

24. Declining crude prices have raise hopes of interest of rate cuts.

(a) have rise

(b) have rising

(d) has risen

(e) No correction required

Answer: (c)

25. India continue to be on the top of the global consumer confidence this year as well.

(a) continue to being

(b) continuing to be

(d) continues to be

(e) No correction required

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistakes/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ i.e. (e) as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

26. After the cash-strapped corporation/ expressed its inability to provide funds / for various developmental works, the office-bearers of the civic body started / lobbying at special financial and from state governments.

(a) After the cash-strapped corporation

(b) expressed its inability to provide funds

(d) lobbying at special financial and from state governments

(e) No error

Answer: (d)

27. Three things are / essential for a start-up to succeed, / a product that is in demand, / a good team and as well as a minimum expenditure.

(a) Three things are

(b) essential for a start-up to succeed,

(d) a good team and as well as a minimum expenditure.

(e) No error

Answer: (d)

28. We all have at / some point in our lives / wondered if we are actually / being too nice to someone.

(a) We all have at

(b) some point in our lives

(d) being too nice to someone

(e) No error

Answer: (e)

29. Anticipating a foggy winter, / the railway authorities have / decided to / cancel thirty trains.

(a) Anticipating a foggy winter,

(b) the railway authorities have

(d) cancel thirty trains.

(e) No error

Answer: (e)

30. New businesses today / are increasing focusing on / introducing various perks and motivation programmes / to help retain employees.

(a) New businesses today

(b) are increasing focusing on

(d) to help retain employees.

(e) No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 31 to 40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In our day and age, technology is omnipresent and integral part of our lives. However, although the main purpose of technology is to make our lives easier, the reactions on opinions and technology are very diverse. This year, various sessions at the Women’s Forum covered the influence of new technologies in our daily life. It is worthwhile analyzing two contrasting perspectives in depth, to understand how broad this debate is.

On the one hand, technology and digital media can be a great help to reach out to other people and spread your message to a very large platform. The session “How to be a digital influencer” was analyzing exactly this question, and introduced various platforms and strategies on how to use the digital world to your advantage. Social media removes all distances : Geographic, social and hierarchical. You can reach, at any time, and communicate in real time. Thus, a permanent link for communication has been created.

Today, everyone has the ability to transmit knowledge and thus credibility of the creator of knowledge is more important than even before. Technology has taken the universal communication method of storytelling and transformed it, in a way that now more stories can reach more people through social media platforms than ever before. People should find their digital media voice, tell sharable stories and drive engagement. Also, it is very important to be authentic and truly about the message you are trying to convey through the digital media.

Another session, the very same day, analyzed how exactly the opposite is true and how new technologies the opposite is true and how new technologies actually cause stress and suffering, because of a concept referred to as “infobesity”. During this session, it was argued that due to the acceleration of our lives led by the acceleration of our lives led by the acceleration of technology, we have changed the way we consume and generate information. People are trying to live ten lives at once and a lot of stress and anxiety occurs from that. Thus, we are suffering from digital bulimia, meaning that we take in a lot of information at once, without really processing it for ourselves, and in turn create a lot of new information. We are at the same time creators and victims of information overload. Thus, it is obvious that technological advancement has failed in its mission of making everybody’s life easier, as many people are reacting negatively to it.

31. According to the passage, which of the following is not true about the characteristics of ‘infobesity’?

(a) The pace of our lives have increased significantly due to technology

(b) With the help of technology, people try to do multiple things at the same time, leading to stress.

(d) Due to technology, each individual is bombarded with excess information

(e) All the options are rue according to the passage

Answer: (c)

32. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word given as bold as used in the passage?

DIVERSE

(a) similar

(b) separate

(d) simultaneous

(e) together

Answer: (a)

33. Which of the following can be said about the invention of the car?

(A) More than being a boon, this invention has become an inconvenience tous.

(B) It has invoked in us the desire to travel to places that we would not have otherwise gone to.

(a) Only A and C

(b) Only B and C

(d) All A, B and C

(e) Only B

Answer: (d)

34. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(a) The Paradox of Technological Advance

(b) The Different Types of Technology Available

(d) Technology and Gainful Insight

(e) Technological Progress Across the Continents

Answer: (a)

35. According to the author, which of the following can be said about reaching to people through the medium of technology?

(A) Today’s digital age has made it essential for an individual to send a message that is genuine in nature.

(B) The ability to impact many people through a message is solely dependent on the number of times the same message goes out, regardless of its authenticity.

(a) Only C

(b) All A, B and C

(d) Only A and B

(e) Only B

Answer: (c)

36. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(A) It is in our own interest that we keep check on the amount of digital information that we generate.

(B) The promise on which technology was designed was that it should make our lives simpler

(a) Only A and B

(b) All A, B and C

(d) Only A

(e) Only B

Answer: (a)

37. According to the passage, which of the following is author’s opinion/ statement about technology?

(a) Beware! Technology can only bring doom if allowed to proliferate.

(b) Take responsibility for how you let technology impact your life

(d) What the future of technology holds for us is unknown, wait and watch

(e) Other than those given as options.

Answer: (e)

38. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?

ENGAGEMENT

(a) Appointment

(b) Involvement

(d) Rendezvous

(e) Date

Answer: (b)

39. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?

DESIGNED

(a) Calculated

(b) Deliberated

(d) Created

(e) Patterned

Answer: (d)

40. Which of the following is the most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

SPREAD

(a) Collect

(b) Take

(d) Join

(e) Multiply

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Changing an organization’s culture is one of the most difficult leadership challenges. That’s because an organization’s culture ….(41)…. interlocking set of goals, roles, processes, values communications practices, attitudes and assumptions. These elements …..(42)…. together as a mutually reinforcing system and combine to prevent any ….(43)… to change it. That is why single-fix challenges, such as the introduction of teams. Of lean, or agile, or scrum or knowledge management or some new process, may ….(44)…to make progress for a while, but …(45)… the interlocking elements of the organizational culture …(46)…. over and the change is inexorably drawn …(47)… into the existing organizational culture.

Changing a culture is large scale undertaking and eventually all of the organizational focus for changing minds will need to be put in play. However, the ….(48)… in which they are deployed has a critical …(49)… on the …(50)… of success.

41.

(a) less

(b) embraces

(d) makes

(e) composes

Answer: (c)

42.

(a) amalgamate

(b) conjoin

(d) stands

(e) attach

Answer: (a)

43.

(a) attempt

(b) energy

(d) power

(e) tries

Answer: (a)

44.

(a) look

(b) appear

(d) suspect

(e) seek

Answer: (b)

45.

(a) especially

(b) presently

(d) eventually

(e) lately

Answer: (d)

46.

(a) bounce

(b) throw

(d) jump

(e) take

Answer: (e)

47.

(a) forth

(b) ahead

(d) set

(e) back

Answer: (e)

48.

(a) order

(b) succession

(d) step

(e) label

Answer: (a)

49.

(a) affect

(b) impact

(d) jolt

(e) shake

Answer: (b)

50.

(a) change

(b) odd

(d) likelihood

(e) option

Answer: (d)

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Qs. 1 to 6): In each of these questions a number series is given. After the series a number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e). You have to complete the series starting with the given number following the sequence of original series and answer these questions.

1. 48 24 36 90 315 5

20 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (d)?

(a) 131.25

(b) 133.75

(d) 140

(e) 142.25

Answer: (a)

2. 2 11 52 183 430 555

4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (b)?

(a) 92

(b) 98

(d) 88

(e) 96

Answer: (a)

3. 7 9 21 67 273 1371

6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (b)?

(a) 19

(b) 22

(d) 20

(e) 17

Answer: (a)

4. 9 8 12 27 92 435

7 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (c)?

(a) 19

(b) 12

(d) 15

(e) 16

Answer: (d)

5. 8 9 21 68 279 1404

5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (d)?

(a) 106

(b) 169

(d) 184

(e) 174

Answer: (b)

6. 4 7 19 73 381 2161

8 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (c)?

(a) 106

(b) 169

(d) 184

(e) 174

Answer: (b)

Directions (Qs. 7 to 12) : Study the following table to answer these questions.

Details of manpower deployed at different levels by a company in different departments

7. Total number of female employees (manager and officers) in Procurement Department is by what percent more than their male counterpart? (rounded off to the nearest integers)

(a) 11

(b) 12

(d) 14

(e) 13

Answer: (a)

8. What is the difference between total number of male officers in Advertising and Public Relations Departments and the total number of female managers in these two departments.

(a) 240

(b) 180

(d) 200

(e) 220

Answer: (d)

9. What is the respective ratio between total number of female managers from Operations and Finance Departments and the total numbers of male officers from these two departments?

(a) 4 : 5

(b) 3 : 5

(d) 3: 4

(e) 2 : 3

Answer: (d)

10. Total number of male officers in Advertising and Sales Department is what percent of the total number of officers in these two department?

(a) 52

(b) 54

(d) 58

(e) 65

Answer: (b)

11. Total number of female managers in Finance Department is what percent of the total number of male employees in Sales Department.

(a) 39.4

(b) 36.25

(d) 41.75

(e) 44.5

Answer: (a)

12. What is the ratio between total number of managers in Public Relations, Finance and Sales, and Operation Departments and the total number of officers in Advertising. Sales and Procurement Departments respectively.

(a) 7 : 8

(b) 11 : 13

(d) 13 : 15

(e) 13 : 16

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 13 to 17) : Each of these questions consist of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.

13. What is the speed of the train? (in kmph)

(I) The car takes 2 hours more than the train to cover a distance of 264 km.

(II) The train moves 22 kmph faster than the car.

(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

14. How many students are there in the class?

(I) The average weight of the class is 52 kg.

(II) If two students weighing 44 kg and 52 kg leave the class and are replaced by two students weighing 64 kg and 56 kg, the average weight of the class increases by 1.2 kg.

(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

15. Cedric mixed two types of rice for selling the mixtures in his shop. What is the quantity (in kg) of first type of rice in the mixture?

(I) The price of the first type of rice is Rs. 36 per kg. Cedric earned a profit of 20% by selling the mixture @ Rs. 57.60 per kg.

(II) The price of the second type of rice is Rs. 50 per kg. The difference between the quantity of first type of price and second type of price in the mixture is 3 kg.

(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

16. What was the percentages of discount given on the marked price of the table?

(I) 15% profit was earned by selling the table for Rs. 14490. If there were not discount, percent profit would have been 20%.

(II) Cost price of table is Rs. 12600.

(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (d)

17. What is area of the circle? (in sq. cm.)

(I) The diameter of the circle is 90 cm less than its circumference.

(II) The radius of the circle is equal to the length of a rectangle whose perimeter is 77 cm.

(a) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement two alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) If the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Qs. 18-20) : Study the following information and answer the given questions.

A bag contains four blue shirts, five red shirts and six yellow shirts.

18. Three shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that exactly one of them is blue?

(a) 36/91

(b) 40/91

(d) 48/91

(e) 31/91

Answer: (c)

19. One shirt is drawn randomly. What is the probability that is either red or yellow?

(a) 4/15

(b) 7/15

(d) 8/15

(e) 13/15

Answer: (c)

20. Two shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that both of them are blue?

(a) 3/35

(b) 1/35

(d) 5/35

(e) 6/35

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 21-25) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

As a part of renovation of an office flooring, painting and carpeting of a hall is to be undertaken. The hall has length 16 metres, breadth 12 m and height 5 m. Cost of flooring is Rs. 750 per m² and cost of carpeting is Rs. 850 per m².

21. What will be the cost of carpeting the hall leaving aside the area of 1.8 m ×5 m for the wooden cabinet?

(a) Rs. 164200

(b) Rs. 162660

(d) Rs. 162200

(e) Rs. 166645

Answer: (c)

22. What will be the total cost of flooring the hall and painting the ceiling?

(a) Rs. 560000

(b) Rs. 576000

(d) Rs. 580000

(e) Rs. 564000

Answer: (b)

23. What will be the cost of painting the four wall of the hall if it has a door of 1.6 m ×5 m and a window of 0.8 m × 1.5 m?

(a) Rs. 190900

(b) Rs. 208000

(d) Rs. 198600

(e) Rs. 206100

Answer: (e)

24. What will be the cost of flooring the hall if the contractor offered 12% discount on the total cost?

(a) Rs. 380160

(b) Rs. 336440

(d) Rs. 342320

(e) Rs. 360350

Answer: (a)

25. While painting the hall it was noticed that one wall on length side having no door or window required plastering which will cost Rs. 320 per m². What will be the cost of plastering and painting that particular wall?

(a) Rs. 85600

(b) Rs. 84400

(d) Rs. 86400

(e) Rs. 85200

Answer: (a)

Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions :

26. In which city is the difference between the cost of one kg of apple and cost of one kg of guava second lowest?

(a) Jalandhar

(b) Delhi

(d) Hoshiarpur

(e) Ropar

Answer: (b)

27. Cost of one kg. of guava in Jalandhar is approximately what percent of the cost of two kgs. of grapes in Chandigarh?

(a) 66

(b) 24

(d) 34

(e) 58

Answer: (d)

28. What total amount will Ram pay to the shopkeeper for purchasing 3 kgs. of apples and 2 kgs. of guavas in Delhi?

(a) Rs. 530

(b) Rs. 450

(d) Rs. 620

(e) Rs. 490

Answer: (c)

29. Ravinder had to purchase 45 kgs. of grapes from Hoshiarpur. Shopkeeper gave him discount of 4% per kg. What amount did he pay to the shopkeeper after the discount?

(a) Rs. 8,208

(b) Rs. 8,104

(d) Rs. 8,550

(e) Rs. 8,410

Answer: (a)

30. What is the respective ratio between the cost of one kg. of apples from Ropar and the cost of one kg. of grapes from Chandigarh?

(a) 3 : 2

(b) 2 : 3

(d) 4² : 9²

(e) 9² : 4²

Answer: (c)

Directions (Qs. 31 to 35) : Study the following radar graph carefully and answer these questions :

31. What was the difference between the number of students in university-1 in the year 2010 and the number of students in university-2 in the year 2012?

(a) Zero

(b) 5,000

(d) 10,000

(e) 1,000

Answer: (a)

32. What is the sum of number of students in university-1 in the year 2007 and the number of students in university-2 in the year 2011 together?

(a) 50000

(b) 55000

(d) 57000

(e) 40000

Answer: (e)

33. If 25% of the students in university-2 in the year 2010 were females, what was the number of male students in the university-2 in the same year ?

(a) 11250

(b) 12350

(d) 11500

(e) 11750

Answer: (a)

34. What was the percent increase in the number of students in university-1 in the year 2011 as compared to the previous year?

(a) 135

(b) 15

(d) 25

(e) 35

Answer: (d)

35. In which year was the difference between the number of students in university-1 and the number of students in university-2 highest?

(a) 2008

(b) 2009

(d) 2011

(e) 2012

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 36 to 40) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.

36. What is the total number of players participating in hockey from all the five schools together?

(a) 324

(b) 288

(d) 284

(e) 248

Answer: (b)

37. What is the respective ratio between number of players participating in basketball from school-1 and the number of players participating in Kho-Kho from school-3?

(a) 5 : 7

(b) 7 : 9

(d) 9 : 7

(e) 5 : 8

Answer: (c)

38. In which school is the number of players participating in hockey and basket ball together second highest?

(a) School-1

(b) School-2

(d) School-4

(e) School-5

Answer: (b)

39. Number of players participating in Kho-Kho from School-4 is what percent of number of players participating in hockey from School-2?

(a) 42

(b) 48

(d) 40

(e) 60

Answer: (d)

40. 25% of the number of the players participating in hockey from School-5 are females. What is the number of the hockey players who are males in School-5?

(a) 15

(b) 18

(d) 21

(e) 27

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 41 to 45) : Study the following bar-graph carefully and answer these questions

41. What is Gita’s average earnings over all the days together?

(a) Rs. 285

(b) Rs. 290

(d) Rs. 310

(e) Rs. 315

Answer: (b)

42. What is the total amount earned by Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday and Thursday together?

(a) Rs. 1,040

(b) Rs. 1,020

(d) Rs. 940

(e) Rs. 860

Answer: (d)

43. Gita donated her earnings of Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveen’s total earnings on Wednesday after Gita’s donation?

(a) Rs. 520

(b) Rs. 550

(d) Rs. 560

(e) Rs. 620

Answer: (c)

44. What is the difference between Rahul’s earnings on Monday and Gita’s earnings on Tuesday?

(a) Rs. 40

(b) Rs. 20

(d) Rs. 30

(e) Rs. 10

Answer: (a)

45. What is the respective ratio between Naveen’s earnings on Monday, Wednesday and Thursday ?

(a) 7 : 3 : 5

(b) 8 : 6 : 5

(d) 9 : 5 : 4

(e) 9 : 3 : 4

Answer: (e)

Directions (Qs. 46 to 50) : Study the following pie-chart and answer these questions.

46. What is the difference between the total number of employees in Teaching and Medical profession together and the number of employees in Management profession?

(a) 6770

(b) 7700

(d) 7770

(e) 7670

Answer: (c)

47. In Management profession three-fourth of the number of employees are female. What is the number of male employees in Management profession?

(a) 1239

(b) 1143

(d) 1289

(e) 1139

Answer: (e)

48. 25% of employees from Film Production profession went on a strike. What is the number of employees from Film Production who have not participated in the strike?

(a) 3271

(b) 3819

(d) 1273

(e) 1246

Answer: (b)

49. What is the total number of employees in Engineering profession and Industries together?

(a) 5698

(b) 5884

(d) 5896

(e) 5487

Answer: (d)

50. In Teaching profession if three-fifths of the teachers are not permanent, what is the number of permanent teachers in the Teaching profession?

(a) 1608

(b) 1640

(d) 1704

(e) 1686

Answer: (a)

Associate Banks of State Bank of India PO Examination Held on 29-11-2014 General Awareness, Marketing and Computer Knowledge Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021November 2, 2017 by suresh84

Associate Banks of State Bank of India PO Examination

Held on 29-11-2014

General Awareness, Marketing and Computer Knowledge

1. Pathways that support communication among the various electronic components on the system board are called-

(A) Network Lines

(B) Processors

(D) Bus Lines

(E) Gateway

Answer: (D)

2. The abbreviation ‘CD’ stands for-

(A) Commercial Demand

(B) Certificate of Deposit

(D) Commercial Deposit

(E) Commercial Deposit

Answer: (B)

3. India recently won re-election to UN Human Rights council for 2015-2017 along with which three other countries of Asia-Pacific Group ?

(A) Bangladesh, Qatar and Indonesia

(B) Kuwait, Cambodia and Philippines

(D) Bangladesh, Thailand and Kuwait

(E) Other than those given as options

Answer: (A)

4. What is the present RBI’s Bank Rate ?

(A) 6.50%

(B) 9%

(D) 7%

(E) 8%

Answer: (B)

5. Which of the following terms is not covered under General insurance ?

(A) Marine Insurance

(B) Fine Insurance

(D) Health Insurance

(E) Life Insurance

Answer: (E)

6. Investors buy and sell shares in publicly leaded companies in-

(A) Money Market

(B) Forex Market

(D) Spot Market

(E) Bond Market

Answer: (C)

7. Tata Group’s Land Rover Jaguar’ will be having its first car manufacturing plant out of Britain, in-

(A) Mauritius

(B) other than those given as options

(D) China

(E) India

Answer: (E)

8. Who is the present CEO of the Microsoft Corporation, an international American Organization ?

(A) Mr. Satya Nadela

(B) other than those given as options

(D) Ms. Indira Nooyi

(E) Mr. Bill Gates

Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following Bank is ‘not’ a Public Sector Bank ?

(A) IDBI Bank

(B) State Bank of India

(D) HDFC Bank

(E) Bharatiya Mahila Bank

Answer: (D)

10. Individuals invest in insurance policy for-

(A) Risk Protection only

(B) Easy liquidity

(D) Tax Benefit and Risk Protection

(E) High Return

Answer: (D)

11. Which stage in product the cycle focuses on expanding marketing and creating product awareness ?

(A) Introducing Stage

(B) Declining Stage

(D) Expansion Stage

(E) Growth Stage

Answer: (A)

12. The committee constituted in India to study the pattern of exclusion in India which for the first time gave a working distribution of the term ‘Financial Inclusion’ was headed by-

(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan

(D) Shri M. Narasimha

(E) Dr. Bimal Jalan

Answer: (C)

13. Who among the following is the Director General of Sports Authority of India (SAI) ?

(A) Sandeep Patil

(B) other than those given as options

(D) Lalit Modi

(E) N. Srinivasan

Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following is correct sequence of smallest to largest unit of storage size ?

(A) Petabyte, Kilobyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte, Terabyte

(B) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Terabyte, Petabyte, Gigabyte

(D) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Petabyte, Terabyte, Gigabyte

(E) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte, Terabyte, Petabyte

Answer: (E)

15. Ketan Methta’s Hindi movie ‘Rang Rasia’ is based on the life of one of India’s most celebrated ?

(A) Raja Ravi Varma

(B) Choreographer Saroj Khan

(D) Painter Maqbool Fida hussain

(E) Dancer Uday Shankar

Answer: (A)

16. When consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing product, it is known as-

(A) Non-Existing Demand

(B) Latent Demand

(D) Declining Demand

(E) Negative Demand

Answer: (B)

17. As per RBI guidelines the maximum amount of penalty that Public Sector Banks can levy for non maintenance of minimum balance in inoperative accounts of customers is-

(A) Rs 500 per year

(B) Rs 100 per half year

(D) Rs 100 per quarter

(E) Rs 20 per month

Answer: (C)

18. In computer terminology ‘CAD’ stands for-

(A) Computer Applied Design

(B) Computer Algorithm and Design

(D) Computer Aided Design

(E) Other than those given as options

Answer: (D)

19. As per the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India Banks classify as Non-Performing Asset (NPA) only if the interest due and during any quarter is not serviced fully within-

(A) 90days from the end of the quarter

(B) 60 days from the end of the quarter

(D) 30 days from the end of the quarter

(E) 30 days from the beginning of the quarter

Answer: (A)

20. MS-DOS is a ………… operating system.

(A) User Friendly Graphical

(B) Graphical User Interface

(D) Point and Check

(E) Command Line Interface

Answer: (E)

21. Those entities whose failure can threaten the survival of other institutions which in turn can possibly lead to a financial crisis are known as-

(A) Systematically Meaningful Financial Institutions

(B) Systemically Financial Important Institutions

(D) Systematically Capricious Financial Institutions

(E) Systematically Toxic Financial Institutions

Answer: (B)

22. ………. is a tax saving mutual fund.

(A) ELSS

(B) Balanced Fund

(D) Oil Fund

(E) Gold Funds

Answer: (A)

23. ………. is central to any definition of marketing.

(A) Advertising

(B) Making Profit

(D) Customer Relationship

(E) Demand Management

Answer: (D)

24. The term CRM used in business strategy development means-

(A) Channel Root Market

(B) Customer Retention Manager

(D) Customer Relationship Management

(E) Customer’s Relative Meet

Answer: (D)

25. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) is a-

(A) Statutory Body

(B) Constitutional Body

(D) Advisory Body

(E) Consultative Body

Answer: (A)

26. Effective from February, 7 2015, statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is-

(A) 21.5%

(B) 22%

(D) 23.0%

(E) 23.5%

Answer: (A)

27. Which of the following is a process of dividing the potential market into sub-markets with common needs ?

(A) Arrangements

(B) Positioning

(D) Target Marketing

(E) Market Segmentation

Answer: (E)

28. …………. is a social device for eliminating or reducing the loss of society from certain risk.

(A) Contract

(B) Premium

(D) Bond

(E) Insurance

Answer: (E)

29. Which of the following financial markets facilitates issue of new securities ?

(A) Secondary Market

(B) Spot Market

(D) Forex Market

(E) Primary Market

Answer: (E)

30. You will find baseline, head line and sub head line in-

(A) Radio ad

(B) Online ad

(D) Print ad

(E) other than those given as options

Answer: (D)

31. In a work sheet in MS Excel what is the shortcut key to hide entire row ?

(A) Ctrl + 2

(B) Ctrl + 9

(D) Ctrl + e

(E) Ctrl + R

Answer: (B)

32. The third generation computers were made with-

(A) Bio Chips

(B) Transistors

(D) Vacuum Tubes

(E) Discrete Components

Answer: (C)

33. Which of the following is a symbol or a design or a combination that identifies the marker of a product or service ?

(A) Company Name

(B) Brand

(D) Advertisement

(E) Product Features

Answer: (B)

34. To undo the last work, we have to use which of the following windows shortcut key ?

(A) Ctrl + P

(B) Ctrl + U

(D) Ctrl + Z

(E) Ctrl + W

Answer: ()

35. A ……….. is approximately a million

(A) Gigabyte

(B) Kilobyte

(D) Terabyte

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

36. ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have

(A) a boot record

(B) a file allocation table

(D) A Virtual memory

(E) All of these

Answer: (D)

37. Who is the Grand Old Man of India ?

(A) Rajendra Prasad

(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D) Lala Lajpat Rai

(E) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (C)

38. Tehri Dam is located in-

(A) Odisha

(B) Punjab

(D) Jammu & Kashmir

(E) Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (C)

39. Shortcut key to go to last line the document-

(A) Ctrl + last

(B) Ctrl + L

(D) Altr + End

(E) Altr + L

Answer: (C)

40. Which of the following is not a computer language ?

(A) BASIC

(B) COBOL

(D) FORTRAN

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

41. Innovation in marketing is same as-

(A) Motivation

(B) Inspiration

(D) Creativity

(E) Team Work

Answer: (D)

42. The main target group for SIP Schemes are-

(A) All HNIs

(B) All NRIs

(D) All agriculturists

(E) All students

Answer: (C)

43. Which Cup/Trophy is associate with the game of Hockey ?

(A) Dhyanchand Trophy

(B) Davis Cup

(D) Wimbledon Trophy

(E) Santhos Trophy

Answer: (A)

44. Niche marketing can be done for-

(A) Readymade garments

(B) Ballpoint pens

(D) Golf clubs

(E) None of these

Answer: (D)

45. The key to competitive advantage is ………… differentiation.

(A) position

(B) product

(D) customer Consulting

(E) None of these

Answer: (D)

46. Which among the following is not a function for marketing channel ?

(A) Buying

(B) Selling

(D) Promoting

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

47. Market segmentation is useful for-

(A) targeting existing clients

(B) identifying prospects

(D) internal marketing

(E) All of these

Answer: (E)

48. The term Banking is defined in which act ?

(A) Banking Regulation Act 1949

(B) Banking Regulation Act 1951

(D) Banking Regulation Act 1959

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

49. Name the fourth layer of OSI model-

(A) application layer

(B) data link layer

(D) session layer

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

50. Marketing is influenced by-

(A) public taste

(B) buyer behaviour

(D) brand image

(E) All of these

Answer: (E)

SBI Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination Held on 2-7-2016 Reasoning Ability Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021November 1, 2017 by suresh84

SBI Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination

Held on 2-7-2016

Reasoning Ability

Directions-(Q. 1-5) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark answer :

(A) If only conclusions I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

1. Statement :

A > B ≤ C = D ≤ E, C ≥ F = G > H

Conclusions :

I. G ≤ H II. A > H

Answer: (D)

2. Statement :

H ≥ T > S ≤ Q, T ≥ U = V > B

Conclusions :

I. V > S II. B ≤ H

Answer: (D)

3. Statements : F > K ≥ L, R > K

Conclusions :

I. R > L II. R > F

Answer: (A)

4. Statements :

N ≥ P > K = L, P ≤ Q < Z, T > K

Conclusions :

I. N > Q II. Z < T

Answer: (D)

5. Statements :

P < H = O, E > H < S

Conclusions :

I. H ≥ P II. S > P

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 6-10) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

J, K, L, M, N, O and P seven different boxes of different colours, i.e., Brown, Orange, Silver, Pink, Yellow, White and Green but not necessarily in the same order. Box which is of brown colour is immediately above J. There are only two box between M and the box which is of Brown colour. Box which is of Silver colour is above M but not immediately above M. Only three box are between L and the box which is of Silver colour. The box which is of Green colour is immediately above L. The box which is of Pink colour is immediately above the box O. Only one box is there between K and N. Box K is above N. Neither box K nor J is of Yellow colour. J is not of Orange colour.

6. How many box is/are there between M and O ?

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) Four

(E) None of the above

Answer: (B)

7. What is colour of ‘O’?

(A) Green

(B) Brown

(D) Pink

(E) Can’t be determined

Answer: (B)

8. Find the pair of colour and boxes which is not correct ?

(A) K-Pink

(B) P-Silver

(D) O-Brown

(E) None of the above

Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following condition is correct regarding yellow colour with respect to N ?

(A) There are one box between N and yellow colour

(B) N is immediately above of yellow colour

(D) All of the above is true

(E) None of the above is true

Answer: (C)

10. Which of the following colour is belong to ‘J’?

(A) Brown

(B) Pink

(D) Orange

(E) None of the above

Answer: (E)

Directions (Q. 11-13) Study the following information and answer the given question.

• T is the sister of D.

• D is married to P.

• P is the son of M.

• T is the mother of J.

• Y is the father of U.

• Y has only one son and only one daughter.

• U is the daughter of T.

• Q is the son of D.

11. How is P related to T?

(A) Brother

(B) cannot be determined

(D) Cousin brother

(E) Uncle

Answer: (C)

12. How is J related to D?

(A) Son

(B) Niece

(D) Nephew

(E) Daughter

Answer: (D)

13. If M is wife of W then how is Q related to W ?

(A) Son-in-law

(B) Grandson

(D) Son

(E) Cannot be determined

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 14 and 15) Read the given information carefully and answer the given question P is 9 m to the south of K. K is 5 m to the east of H. H is 4 m to the north of B. L is 3 m west of B. D is 7 m south of L. G is 8 m east of D.

14. If point Z is 5 m to the west of point P, then what is t he distance between B and Z ?

(A) 8 m

(B) 9 m

(D) 2 m

(E) 6 m

Answer: (C)

15. How far and in which direction is point K from pint G ?

(A) 11 m to the south

(B) 7 m to the north

(D) 9 m to the south

(E) 9 m to the north

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 16-20) Study the following information to answer the given questions :

S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other (but not necessarily in the same order) some of them are facing south while some are facing north.

[Note : Facing the same direction means, if one is facing north than the other also faces north and vice-versa. Facing the opposite directions means, if one is facing north then the other faces south and vice-versa). S faces north. Only two people sit to the right of S. T sits third to the left of S. Only one person sits between T and X. X sits to the immediate right of W. Only one person sits between W and Z. Both the immediate neighbour of T faces same directions. U sits third to the left of X. T faces the opposite direction as S. Y does not sit at any of the extremes ends of the line. V faces the same direction as W. Both Y and U face the opposite direction of Z.

16. How many persons in the given arrangement are facing North ?

(A) More than four

(B) Four

(D) Three

(E) Two

Answer: (B)

17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

(A) W, X

(B) Z, Y

(D) T, Y

(E) V, U

Answer: (D)

18. What is the position of X with respect to Z ?

(A) Second to the left

(B) Third to the right

(D) Fifth to the right

(E) Second to the right

Answer: (B)

19. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Z and W ?

(A) T

(B) Y

(D) W

(E) U

Answer: (A)

20. Who is sitting second to the right of T ?

(A) Z

(B) V

(D) W

(E) None of the above

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 21-27) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions is W, X, Y, Z, M, N and O are belongs to three different department R and D, marketing and HR with at least two of them in any of these department. Each of them has a favourite colours such viz., Green, Blue, Red, Pink, Black, Violet and Purple. X works in Marketing Department with M. M’s favourite colour is Purple. Those who work in department R and D do not like Green and Pink. The one who likes Blue works only with O in the department HR. The one whose favourite Colour is Black does not works in the same department with either M or O. W does not works in department Marketing. W like violet, Z and N are works in the same department. N does not like Red. The one whose favourite colour is Pink does not work in department of Marketing.

21. In which department W, Z and N work ?

(A) Cannot be determined

(B) R & D

(D) HR

(E) None of the above

Answer: (B)

22. Whose favourite colour is Green ?

(A) X

(B) W

(D) Z

(E) None of the above

Answer: (A)

23. What is M’s favourite colour ?

(A) Violet

(B) Pink

(D) Black

(E) None of the above

Answer: (C)

24. Which of the following combination is right ?

(A) W-HR : Blue

(B) O-R & D : Black

(D) N-R & D : Black

(E) All are correct

Answer: (D)

25. Y works in which department ?

(A) R & D

(B) Marketing

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of the above

Answer: (C)

26. Whose favourite colour is Pink ?

(A) X

(B) W

(D) Z

(E) None of the above

Answer: (C)

27. In which department M works ?

(A) Cannot be determined

(B) R & D

(D) HR

(E) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 28-32) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are going to attend marriage ceremony but not necessarily in the same order in seven different months (of the same year) namely January, February, March, June, August, October and December. Each of them also likes a different fruit namely Banana, Grapes, Papaya, Orange, Mango, Litchi and Apple but not necessarily in the same order. R is going to attend marriage in a month which has less than 31 days. Only two persons are going to attend marriage ceremony between the month in which R and S attends marriage ceremony. The one who likes Banana is going to attend marriage ceremony immediately before T. Only one persons attends ceremony before the one who likes papaya. Q attends ceremony immediately after the one who likes papaya. Only three persons attends marriage ceremony between Q and the one who likes Mango. T likes neither Mango nor Papaya. P attends ceremony immediately before T. V likes Apple. The one who likes Grapes attends ceremony in the month, which has less than 31 days. The one who attends ceremony in March does not like Orange.

28. Which of the following represents the month in which S attends marriage ceremony?

(A) January

(B) Cannot be determined

(D) December

(E) June

Answer: (D)

29. Which of the following represents the people who attends ceremony in January and June respectively ?

(A) V, S

(B) U, S

(D) U, R

(E) V, R

Answer: (E)

30. How many persons attends ceremony between the months in which V and R attend ceremony ?

(A) None

(B) Three

(D) One

(E) More than three

Answer: (C)

31. As per the given arrangement, R is related to Banana and P is related to Orange following a certain pattern, which of the following is U related to following the same pattern ?

(A) Mango

(B) Litchi

(D) Papaya

(E) Grapes

Answer: (B)

32. Which of the following fruits, does U like ?

(A) Papaya

(B) Mango

(D) Grapes

(E) Orange

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. 33-35) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions.

Among six books, i.e., A, B, C, D, E and F kept in library shelf of different size. Book A is kept at that shelf which is only less in size than shelf in which booked D is kept. Only three shelfs are less in size than shelf in which book C is kept. Shelf in which F is kept is less in size than shelf in which E is kept. Book F is not kept at the lowest shelf.

33. Who amongst the following book is kept at lowest shelf ?

(A) B

(B) A

(D) C

(E) None of the above

Answer: (A)

34. If size of self in which book E is kept is 16 cm², then which of the following may be the size of the shelf in which book B is kept ?

(A) 19 cm²

(B) 22 cm²

(D) 17 cm²

(E) 12 cm²

Answer: (E)

35. How many shelf are less in size than shelf in which book E is kept ?

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) Four

(E) More than four

Answer: (B)

SBI Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination (2nd Shift) Held on 9-7-2016 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021October 9, 2017 by suresh84

SBI Probationary Officers (Pre.) Examination (2nd Shift)

Held on 9-7-2016

Reasoning

Directions (Q. 1-3) Read the given information carefully and answer the questions.

Each of the six translators, L, M, N, O, P and Q translates different number of books in a year. O translated more books than only two people and M is one of them. N translated more books than P but less than L. L did not translate the highest number of books. P translated more books than M. The one who translated second highest number of books translated 32 books. P translated 15 books.

1. Who is translated the highest number of books ?

(A) P

(B) L

(D) O

(E) M

Answer: (B)

2. Which of the following is true regarding the number of books translated by Q ?

(A) No other translator has translated less books than Q

(B) Q has translated less number of books than N

(D) Q possibly translated 45 books

(E) The difference between number of books translated by P and Q is less than 17

Answer: (D)

3. How many books has M possibly translated ?

(A) 30

(B) 10

(D) 36

(E) 32

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 4 and 5) Read the following information and answer the given questions.

Gauri starts walking from Point M and walks 20 m towards the south. She then takes a right turn and walks for 30 m. She takes a left turn and stops at Point O after walking for 15 m.

Point R is 10 m to the east Point O. Point J is 35 m to the north of Point R. Point S is 5 m to the west of Point J.

4. If Pooja is standing at Point W which is 10 m to the north of Point S, in which direction will she have to walk in order to reach Point O ?

(A) North-east

(B) West

(D) South

(E) South-east

Answer: (C)

5. How far and in which direction is Point S with respect to Point M ?

(A) 25 m towards West

(B) 20 m towards East

(D) 20 m towards West

(E) 25 m towards North

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 6-11) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Seven people, namely J, K, L, M, N, O and P like seven different cartoon characters namely, Tweety, WIene, Superman, Garfield, Jerry, Ariel and Popeye. Each of them studies in either of the three standards viz. IV, VIII, XI with atleast two of them in a standard.

(Note : None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)

Only one person studies with M in Xi standard. K studies with the one who likes Ariel. M does not like Ariel. P studies with only the one who likes Garfield. Neither K n or M likes Garfield. J likes Popeye. J does not study with K. The one who likes tweety studies with J. N studies with the one who likes Jerry. N does not study in IV standard. Neither K nor O likes Jerry. The one who likes Superman studies with N.

6. Who amongst the following likes Wiene ?

(A) N

(B) O

(D) P

(E) K

Answer: (D)

7. Which of the following cartoon characters does L like ?

(A) Superman

(B) Ariel

(D) Jerry

(E) Garfield

Answer: (D)

8. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Both M and J study in the same standard.

(B) K studies in IV standard.

(D) More than two people study in the standard in which O studies,.

(E) None of the given statements is true.

Answer: (A)

9. Which one of the following combinations represents the combination of people studying in VIII standard ?

(A) N and the one who likes Wiene

(B) J, O

(D) K and the one who likes Tweety

(E) None of these

Answer: (C)

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

(A) PM

(B) LK

(D) LN

(E) OP

Answer: (A)

11. Which one of the following combinations represents the standard in which O studies and the cartoon character he likes ?

(A) VIII-Garfield

(B) VIII-Superman

(D) IV-Ariel

(E) IV-Garfield

Answer: (E)

Directions (Q. 12-17) Study the following information and answer the questions.

Seven people, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have a meeting but not necessarily in the same order on seven different months (of the same year) namely January, February, April, May, July, August and September. Each of them also likes a different fitness activity namely Yoga, Gym Training, Zumba, Mountaineering, Bicycle, Running and Surfing but not necessarily in the same order.

The one who likes Gym training has a meeting on one of the months before May. The one who likes Gym training has a meeting in the month which has less than 31 days. Only three people have a meeting between the one who likes Gym training and T. Only two people have a meeting between T and the one who likes running. The one who likes Mountaineering has a meeting on one of the months after the one who likes running. The one who likes. Mountaineering has a meeting in the month which has only 30 days. V has a meeting on one of the months before the one who likes Gym training. V does not have a meeting in the month which has least number of days. More than three people have a meeting between V and R. Only two people have a meeting between R and Q. The one who likes Yoga has a meeting immediately before U. U does not have a meeting in a month which has 31 days. Only one person has a meeting between the one who likes Surfing and S. S has a meeting after the one who likes surfing. R does not like Zumba.

12. In the given arrangement Yoga is related to February and Zim Training is related to May following a certain pattern, which of the following is Zumba related to following the same pattern ?

(A) July

(B) September

(D) August

(E) January

Answer: (D)

13. Who amongst the following has a meeting immediately before the one who has a meeting in July ?

(A) The one who likes Zumba

(B) The one who likes Surfing

(D) R

(E) O

Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following combination is correct ?

(A) S-Zumba

(B) V-Yoga

(D) T-Bicycling

(E) U-Gym Training

Answer: (B)

15. Who amongst the following likes Surfing ?

(A) U

(B) Q

(D) T

(E) Other than those given as options

Answer: (A)

16. How many people have a meeting between the one who has a meeting in February and R ?

(A) More than three

(B) None

(D) Two

(E) Three

Answer: (E)

17. In which of the following pairs, both the persons have a meeting in the months which has less than 31 days ?

(A) R, S

(B) R, Q

(D) T, P

(E) S, U

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 18-21) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight friends, C, D, E, F, K, L, M and N are seated in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing north while some are facing south.

• Only one person sits to the left of K. E sits third to the right of K.

• C sits second to the left of E. C is not an immediate neighbour of K.

• C faces a direction opposite to that of E (i.e., if E faces north then C faces south and vice –versa.)

• Both the immediate neighbours of D face south. D is not at any of the extreme ends of the line.

• F sits third to the right of N.

• Both the immediate neighbours of C face north. L is not an immediate neighbour of E.

• Immediate neighbours of K face opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbour faces north then the other faces south and vice-versa.)

18. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of L ?

(A) C

(B) N

(D) M

(E) No one as less than two people sit to the right of L

Answer: (D)

19. Which of the following is true, based on the given arrangement ?

(A) M and E face opposite directions.

(B) M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

(D) None of the given options is true.

(E) K faces north.

Answer: (C)

20. Who among the following represents the persons sitting at extreme ends of the line ?

(A) L, N

(B) L, M

(D) M, N

(E) F, N

Answer: (A)

21. How many people sit between C and K ?

(A) Four

(B) Three

(D) Two

(E) One

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. 22-25) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

L is the sister of D. D is the mother of U. U is married to T. T is the only son of Z. Z is the son of R. R is the husband of Q.

22. How is Q related to U ?

(A) Grandfather

(B) Grandmother

(D) Brother

(E) Mother

Answer: (B)

23. If Z is t he father of X, then how X related to U ?

(A) Brother

(B) Sister-in-law

(D) Brother-in-law

(E) Sister

Answer: (B)

24. How is U related to L?

(A) Son-in-law

(B) Daughter

(D) Niece

(E) Nephew

Answer: (D)

25. How is Q related to T ?

(A) Sister-in-law

(B) Mother-in-law

(D) Mother

(E) Aunt

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 26-30) In this questions, statements and their conclusion are given. You have to decide which of the conclusions follows the given statements and give answers :

(A) Only conclusion I follows.

(B) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(D) Both conclusions I and II follow.

(E) Only conclusion II follows.

26. Statements :

M ≤ J ≤ B = L< T > P ≤ S

Conclusions : I. J < T

II. L > S

Answer: (A)

27. Statements :

D ≤ R ≤ I ≤ L; I ≤ F < S

Conclusions : I. D ≤F

II. S > R

Answer: (D)

28. Statements :

R ≥ I > S ≥ K; V ≥ O > S

Conclusions : I. O < R

II. K ≥ V

Answer: (B)

29. Statements :

M ≤ J ≤ B = L < T > P ≤ S

Conclusions : I. B > P

II. M ≤ L

Answer: (E)

30. Statements :

D ≥ R > A < F ≤ T

Conclusions : I. R < T

II. D ≥ F

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 31-35) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

Seven boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are kept one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box is of a different shape. Square, Triangular, Rectangular, Hexagonal, Conical, Pentagonal and Octagonal, but not necessarily in the same order.

The Hexagonal box is kept immediately below M. Only two boxes kept between the Hexagonal box and the square box. More than two boxes are kept above the square box. Only one box is kept between the square box and R. O is kept immediately above R. Neither O nor S is a Hexagonal box. S is kept immediately above the Pentagonal box. S is not a square box. N is kept immediately above Q. Only one box is kept between the N and the Triangular box. N is kept above t he Triangular box. N is kept above the Triangular box. Only two boxes are kept between the Triangular and the Octagonal box. The Rectangular box is kept neither at the top nor at the bottom of the stack.

31. Which of the following is kept immediately below R ?

(A) S

(B) The Triangular Box

(D) N

(E) The Conical Box

Answer: (D)

32. Which of the following boxes rectangular in shape ?

(A) R

(B) N

(D) O

(E) Other than those given as options

Answer: (B)

33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

(A) M-Triangular

(B) M-Hexagonal

(D) S-Square

(E) S-Conical

Answer: (E)

34. What is the position of S in the given stack of boxes ?

(A) Second from the top

(B) Fourth from the top

(D) Third from the top

(E) Second from the bottom

Answer: (C)

35. How many boxes are kept between the P and the Square box ?

(A) More than three

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) Two

Answer: (E)

SBI PO Preliminary Online Examination Held on April 30, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021August 31, 2017 by suresh84

SBI PO Preliminary Online Examination Held on April 30, 2017

Part I English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

1. The presence of new players on the basketball team is to additionally attract for the audience.

(a) with add attraction

(b) for addition attractive

(d) of adding attraction

(e) No correction required

Answer: (c)

2. The dire need of amusement to escape boredom made him cultivate various hobbies.

(a) escape boredom

(b) as escaping boredom

(d) for escape being bored

(e) No correction required

Answer: (e)

3. We were credibly informed that the conman has gave himself to the police.

(a) given over

(b) given himself in

(d) given himself up

(e) No correction required

Answer: (b)

4. We tempted Karen with many promises but nothing would worked her up.

(a) working with her

(b) worked her over

(d) work on her

(e) No correction required

Answer: (d)

5. The soil of India saw growths of one of the oldest culture in the world that is the Harappan Civilisation.

(a) seen the growth

(b) saw the growth

(d) see the growths

(e) No correction required

Answer: (b)

6. A renowned organization has recent appointed a highly acclaimed scientist to head new research and development assistant.

(a) recently appointed

(b) a recent appointed

(d) to recently appointed an

(e) No correction required

Answer: (a)

7. The serene lush green slope of the hill station make it up ideal venue for the meditation camp.

(a) making so ideal

(b) is ideal for

(d) as of ideal

(e) No correction required

Answer: (e)

8. Taking good care of yourself is paramount for succession of your goals.

(a) about being a success

(b) to the success

(d) to succeed

(e) No correction required

Answer: (b)

9. The tambourine to gain popularity in the mid 18th century in Western Europe as an orchestral instrument.

(a) was been popular

(b) have popularity

(d) gained popularity

(e) No correction required

Answer: (d)

10. Varun advised Aman that give off wrong pleasure is not self-sacrifice but self-culture.

(a) gave up

(b) gives away

(d) giving up

(e) No correction required

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

There is a market failure in cyber security. Solutions being suggested or tried include increasing transparency about data losses, helping consumers and firms to make more informed decisions about cyber-security; shedding more light on how Internet-Service Providers (ISPs) tackle malware infections, they spot on customers’ computers; and using liability laws to force software companies to produce safer code. On transparency, America has led the way. Almost all American States now have data-breach laws that require firms to reveal any loss of sensitive customer information. In Europe, telecom firms have been obliged to notify customers of breaches for some time now, and there are plans to extend reporting to a wider range of industries.

Breach laws have encourage insurance companies to offer coverage against potential losses. This is helpful because they are in a position together and share information about best practice across a wide range of companies. A cyber-insurer advises companies on defensive tactics, and also on how to minimize the damage if something goes wrong. The American government should create a cyber-equivalent of the National Transportation Safety Board, which investigates serious accidents and shares information about them. Such a body could look into all breaches that cost over, $ 50 m and make sure the lessons are shared widely. But insurers are likely to remain wary of taking on broader risks because the costs associated with a serious cyber-incident could be astronomic. Insurers can deal with acts of God, but not acts of Anonymous (hacking groups or acts of state sponsored hacking). This explains why the overall cyber-insurance market is still small.

Governments are weighing in, too, not least by supporting private-sector efforts to clean up ‘botnets’, or networks of compromised computers controlled by hackers. These networks, which are prevalent in countries, such as America and China, can be used to launch attacks and spread malware. In Germany, an initiative called Bot-Frei, which helps people clean up their infected computer, received government support to get started, though it is now self-financing. The American government has also worked closely with private firms to bring down large botnets. Another strategy involves issuing standards to encourage improved security. America’s National Institute of standards and Technology published a set of voluntary guidelines for companies in critical-infrastructure sectors, such as energy and transport. Britain has also launched a scheme called ‘cyber-essentials’ under which firms can apply for a certificate showing they comply with certain minimum security standards. Applicants undergo an external audit and, if successful, are awarded a badge which they can use on marketing materials. Whether governments are best placed to set minimum standards is debatable, but they have certainly raised awareness of cyber-security as an issue that needs attention.

They could also help to get more information into the public domain. Researchers have argued persuasively that collecting and publishing data about the quantity of spam and other bad traffic handled by ISPs could encourage the worst performers to do more to tackle the problem, thus improving overall security. Another debate has revolved around getting software companies to produce code with fewer flaws in it. One idea is to make them liable for damage caused when, say, hackers exploit a weakness in a software program. Most software companies currently insist costumers accept end-user licensing agreements that specifically protect firms from legal claims unless local laws prohibit such exclusions. The snag is that imposing blanket liability could have a chilling effect on innovation.

Companies that are selling millions of copies of programmes might take fright at the potential exposure and leave the business. Strict liability be applied only to firms which produce software that cannot be patched if a security flaw i s found. There is quite a lot of that sort of code around.

11. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘Broader’ as used in the passage?

(a) Spacious

(b) Subtle

(d) Comprehensive

(e) Approximate

Answer: (d)

12. Which of the following is/are the argument(s) in favour of cyber-essentials?

A. It boosts transparency and promotion of firms.

B. The certification is given by hackers which makes it authentic.

C. Firms benefit from paying attention to cyber-security and so do users.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) B and C

(e) All of these

Answer: (c)

13. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘Tried’ as used in the passage?

(a) Convicted

(b) Accused

(d) Exasperated

(e) None of the given options

Answer: (c)

14. Which of the following is the opposite of the word ‘Serious’ as used in the passage?

(a) genuine

(b) witty

(d) insignificant

(e) irresistible

Answer: (d)

15. Which of the following is the opposite of the word ‘Chilling’ as used in the passage?

(a) Promoting

(b) Reassuring

(d) Fostering

(e) All the given options

Answer: (d)

16. Which of the following best describes the author’s view of liability laws?

(a) These will act as incentives for computer firms to produce more secure software.

(b) These are pointless as they cannot be uniformly or strictly implemented.

(d) These are not an appropriate approach to cyber security.

(e) None of the given options

Answer: (b)

17. Which of the following can be said about government efforts with regard to cyber security ?

A. Government efforts have been coupled with private sector cooperation.

B. Government efforts have been focused on destroying botnet infrastructure.

C. These are not worthwhile and too small in magnitude.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) B and C

(e) A and B

Answer: (a)

18. Why has the author mentioned the National Transportation Security Board in the passage?

A. To urge America to set-up a body to share data in cyber-related instances.

B. To monitor cyber security episodes whose losses are over a certain sum.

C. To publish and enforce standards for cyber-security for sectors like energy.

(a) Only A

(b) A and B

(d) B and C

(e) All of these

Answer: (b)

19. Which of the following is/are theme(s) of t h e passage?

(a) Holding cyber firms accountable for flaws in their products.

(b) Cyber-crime infrastructure in certain countries.

(d) Limits of cyber-insurance

(e) All t he given options are themes.

Answer: (d)

20. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage?

(a) Breach laws can be helpful for organizations.

(b) America is leading the way in terms of laws for disclosure of cyber-breaches.

(d) Varied efforts are being made to create a market which values cyber-security.

(e) All the given options are true in the context to the passage.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) In the given passage there are words/groups of words highlighted in bold and underlined. You have to decide if the word/group of words given is correct (in terms of grammar and context). If not, find out the appropriate word/group of words from the given options. In case, the suggested word/group of words is correct mark the option ‘The given word(s) is/are correct’ as your answer.

Every knows that (21) Sustenance brainboxes is good for an economy. In Thailand, school reforms have an extra incentive to narrow (22) contrasting between rich people in cities and their poorer rural cousins, which have (23) fulfilled to a decade of political tension and occasional eruptions of violence. For years shoddy teaching has favoured urban children whose parents can afford to send them to cramming schools or to study abroad. Dismal instruction in the countryside has made it easier for city slickers from posh colleges to paint their political opponents as pliable bumpkins.

The dangerous social divide is all the more reason is (24) worry about Thailand’s poor rating in an educational league table published in December. Thailand limped into the bottom quarter of 70 countries whose pupils participated in the mathematics, reading and science tests organized under the Programme for International Student-Assessment (PISA). Its scores (25) been crushed since a pervious assessment in 2012, when researchers found that almost one-third of the country’s 15-year-olds were ‘functionally illiterate’, including almost half of those studying in rural schools.

Thailand’s (26) error performance is not dramatically out of step with countries of similar incomes. But it is strange given its unusually generous (27) allocation of on education, which in some years has hovered up more than a quarter of the budget. Rote learning is common. There is a shortage of maths and science teachers, but a 28 overflow of physical-education instructors. Many head teachers lack the authority to hire or fire their own staff. A big problem is that Thailand spends too much money propping up small schools, where teaching is the poorest. Almost half of Thai schools have fewer than 120 students, and most of those have less than one teacher per class. Opening lots of village schools once helped Thailand (29) achieve impressive attendance rates, but road-building and other improvements in infrastructure mean most schools are now within 20 minutes of another. Over the next ten years falling birth rates will reduce school rolls by more than 1 m, making it even more (30) fulfilled for tiny institutions to provide adequate instructions at a reasonable cost.

21.

(a) diluting

(b) nurturing

(d) ornamental

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (b)

22.

(a) contracts

(b) characteristic

(d) differences

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (d)

23.

(a) preceded

(b) managed

(d) led

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (d)

24.

(a) concern

(b) apprehension

(d) distress

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (d)

25.

(a) deteriorated

(b) sink

(d) declining

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (a)

26.

(a) extreme

(b) cheerful

(d) inauspicious

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (c)

27.

(a) employed

(b) investing

(d) setting

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (c)

28.

(a) satiety

(b) surplus with

(d) surfeit

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (d)

29.

(a) complete

(b) conclude

(d) adhere

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (e)

30.

(a) difficult

(b) ambition

(d) doubtful

(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.

Answer: (a)

Part II Reasoning Ability

31. Five movies-D, E, F, G and H are released on five different days of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Friday, but not necessarily in the same order. F is released on one of the days before Thursday. Only two movies are released between F and G. H is released immediately before G. D is released on one of the days after H. Which movie was released on Wednesday?

(a) E

(b) Either G or D

(d) H

(e) D

Answer: (d)

32. Four cartons-A , B, Y and Z are placed above one another, but not necessarily in the same order. Each carton contains a different drink-Pepsi, Coffee, ,Frooti and Milkshake, but not necessarily in the same order. Only carton B is kept between the cartons of Pepsi and Frooti. Carton of Coffee is kept immediately below carton of Frooti. Carton of Coffee is kept at one of the position is below Z. What is the position of the carton of Milkshake in the stack?

(a) Cannot be determined

(b) Immediately below the carton of Frooti

(d) Second from the top

(e) First from the top

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 33-35) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Each of the six stores P, Q, R, S, T and U sold different number of books in one day. Only three stores sold less books than U. P sold more books than R. T did not sell the highest number of books. S sold more books than R and P but less than U. The store which sold the second highest number of books sold 72 books.

33. How many books did Q probably sell?

(a) 43

(b) 58

(d) 65

(e) 89

Answer: (e)

34. Which of the following stores sold the second lowest number of books

(a) T

(b) P

(d) R

(e) Q

Answer: (b)

35. If the total number of books sold by P and T is 125, then how many books did P sell?

(a) 51

(b) 76

(d) 45

(e) 53

Answer: (e)

36. In a vertical queue of 13 people, all facing North, K stands exactly at the centre of the queue. No one stands between K and W. Only five people stand between W and P. L stands at one of the positions before P, but not at the beginning of the queue. How many people stood after W?

(a) Three

(b) None

(d) Seven

(e) Nine

Answer: (d)

37. In which of the given expressions, does the expression ‘C < P’ definitely holds false?

(a) P ≥ A ≥ L ≤; C ≥ L ≥ O > N

(b) P < A ≤ L ≥ E; C ≥ L ≤ O < N

(d) P > A > L > E; C < L < O < N

(e) P = A ≥ L < E; C < L ≤ O ≥ N

Answer: (b)

38. A person stars from Point A, walks 30 m towards South and reaches Point B. He then takes a right, walks 7 m, followed by a right turn, and walks for 6 m. He then takes a right turn and walks 7 m. He takes a final left turn, walks a certain distance and reaches Point R. Point R is 17 m to the North of Point B. What is the distance between Point A and Point R?

(a) 18 m

(b) 23 m

(d) 27 m

(e) 13 m

Answer: (e)

39. S is the only son of V. V is married to R. M is the daughter of R. R is the grandmother of A. How is S definitely related to A?

(a) Uncle

(b) Cannot be determined

(d) Brother

(e) Sister

Answer: (c)

40. What should come in place of $ and # respectively in the expression:

P ≥A $ R ≤ O < T; S < L ≤ A # M, so that the expression T > M definitely holds true?

(a) >, ≤

(b) ≤, =

(d) ≤, ≤

(e) ≥, ≥

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

C, D, E, F, W, X, Y, and Z have to attend a wedding in January, April, September and December months of the same year. In each month the wedding on either the 11th or the 24th of the month. Not more than two of the given people have to attend a wedding in the same month. W has to attend a wedding on the 11th of the month which has only 30 days. Only three people have to attend a wedding between W and Y. C and Y have to attend a wedding neither on the same date nor in the same month. C does not have to attend a wedding in April. Only two people have to attend a wedding between C and F. X and F have to attend a wedding on the same date. D has to attend a wedding on one of the days before X. Only one person has to attend a wedding between D and E. Less than four people have to attend a wedding between E and Z.

41. How many people have to attend a wedding between F and Z?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(d) More than three

(e) One

Answer: (c)

42. When does X have to attend a wedding?

(a) April 24

(b) Cannot be determined

(d) September 24

(e) December 11

Answer: (b)

43. If all the people are made to attend the wedding in alphabetical order starting from January 11 and ending on December 24, the schedule of how many people will remain unchanged?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) None

(e) Three

Answer: (a)

44. Who among the following has to attend a wedding before Y?

(a) C and X

(b) Only W

(d) F and W

(e) Only F

Answer: (d)

45. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

(a) W

(b) F

(d) Y

(e) E

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-48) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(e) if both conclusion are true.

46. Statements M < O ≤ U ≤ R ≥ T; P ≥ R ≤ I ≤ C < L

Conclusion I. L > M II O ≤ C

Answer: (e)

47. Statements C < L = I ≤ N < G; I < M ≥ O > R > T

Conclusions I. C < O II. G > T

Answer: (a)

48. Statements M < O ≤ U ≤ R ≥ T; P ≥ R ≤ I ≤ C < L

Conclusions I. P > T II. P = T

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 49-53) Read the given information to answer the given questions.

Eight people viz, X, G, T, C, P, J, A and M live on different floors of a building. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. All of them can perform a different form of dance viz. Kathak, Garba, Dandiya, Bhangra, Lavani, Odissi, Mohiniyattam and Sattriya.

(Note None of the given information in necessarily in the same order.)

T lives on an even numbered floor below floor number five. Only three people live between T and the one who performs Garba. As many people live between T and C as above the one who performs Lavani and sattrita. Number of people living between the one who performs Garba and Odissi, is equal to the number of people living between C and P. C lives on an even numbered floor below P. Neither C nor P performs Garba or Lavani. The one who performs Kathak lives on an odd numbered floor below floor number four. P does not perform Kathak. The number of people between T and the one who performs Kathak is same as the number of people living between C and the one who performs Lavani. X lives on one of the floors below the one who performs Lavani. Number of people living between C and X is equal to the number of people living between C and X is equal to the number of people living between C and M. The one who performs Odissi lives on an odd numbered floor immediately above the one who performs Bhangra. Only one people live between G and J. G lives on one of the floors above J. The one who performs Bhangra lives immediately above the one who performs Kathak.

49. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(a) C performs Odissi

(b) The one who performs Garba lives on floor number six

(d) None of the given statements is true

(e) Only to people live between M and G

Answer: (b)

50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a) T-Bhangra

(b) C-Dandiya

(d) G-Floor number eight

(e) J-Floor number six

Answer: (c)

51. How many people live between the one who performs Lavani and Bhangra?

(a) More than three

(b) Three

(d) One

(e) Two

Answer: (e)

52. Who performs Sattriya?

(a) G

(b) A

(d) T

(e) C

Answer: (c)

53. Which dance M performs?

(a) Bhangra

(b) Lavani

(d) Mohiniyattam

(e) Kathak

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 54-58) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F G and H were born in different years, viz. 1961, 1970, 1974, 1980, 1983, 1987, 1996 and 2000 but not necessarily in the same order.

D was born after 1983 but not in the year 2000. The sum of the present ages of A and D is 64. The difference between the present ages A and G is equal to 6. B was born in an odd numbered year. B was born in an odd numbered year. B is older than G. The sum of present ages of F and C is 64. F is younger than C. H is not the youngest.

Note

A. All calculations are done with respect to the present year, 2017 assuming the month and date to be same as that of the years of birth as mentioned above.

B. Each person is assumed to born on the same date and same month of the respective years.

54. Four of the following give are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) F

(e) G

Answer: (b)

55. How many persons is/are younger than E?

(a) Two

(b) More than three

(d) Three

(e) One

Answer: (a)

56. Who amongst the following was born in the year 1996?

(a) E

(b) C

(d) G

(e) D

Answer: (e)

57. If A’s uncle is 21 years older than A, then how old is A’s uncle at present?

(a) 77 yr

(b) 68 yr

(d) 64 yr

(e) 85 yr

Answer: (d)

58. Which of the following represents the difference between the present ages of B and H?

(a) 22 yr

(b) 9 yr

(d) 32 yr

(e) 13 yr

Answer: (a)

59. In the number 76534218, each digit is replaced by the next digit i.e, ‘1’ is replaced by ‘2’, ‘2’ is replaced by ‘3’ and so on and then the digit are arranged in ascending order from left to right, which digit will fifth from the left end?

(a) None

(b) 7

(d) 5

(e) 4

Answer: (c)

60. In a certain code language, ‘job requires expertise’ is written as ‘la nu si’. ‘expertise in area’ is written as ‘li bo la’ and ‘requires area inspection’ is written as ‘si dm bo’. How is ‘inspection’ written in that code language? (All the given codes are two letter codes only)

(a) si

(b) Either ‘nu’ or ‘si’

(d) dm

(e) bo

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Eight persons F, G, H, I, O, P, Q and R are seated in a straight line facing North. Each of them works on different floors of an office building viz. 7th 16th, 18th, 23rd, 31st, 35th, 44th, 47th. None of the given information in necessarily in the same order.

• O sits fourth to the right of the one who works on the 31st floor. The one who works on the 23rd floor sits second to the right of O.

• Q sits third to the left of I. I is not an immediate neighbour of O. Q does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

• Only two people sit between Q and P. The one who works on the 44th floor sits to the immediate right of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of P .

• The difference between the numerical values of floor numbers in which P and one to the immediate right of P work is 13.

• Only one person sits between F and the one who works on the 35th floor. F is not an immediate neighbour of I.

• More than two people sit between R and the one who works on the 18th floor. O does not work on the 16th floor.

• H works on a floor lower than O.

61. Which of the following pairs represents the persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?

(a) G and the one working on the 7th floor.

(b) I, R

(d) I and the one working on 35th floor

(e) R and P

Answer: (d)

62. What is the difference between the floor numbers in which P and R work?

(a) 31

(b) 4

(d) 16

(e) 15

Answer: (e)

63. F is related to the one working on the 47th floor following a certain pattern based on the given arrangement. In the same pattern, P is related to the one working on the 44th floor. To who amongst the following is H related to following the same pattern?

(a) The one working on the 35th floor

(b) The one to the immediate left of R

(d) The one working on the 16th floor

(e) O

Answer: (d)

64. Fill in the blanks (respectively in the same order in order to make the statement correct based on the given arrangement.

G …………… and O………..

(a) works on the 35th floor, sits to the immediate left of R

(b) works on one of the floors above H; works on one of the floors below F

(d) sits second to the right of Q; work three floors above Q

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

65. How many people sit to the left of the one working on the 35th floor?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

(e) Three

Answer: (c)

Part III Numerical Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What Approximate value will come in place of question marks in the given equations?

(You are not expected to calculated the exact value)

66. ?² – 137.99 ÷6 = 21.99 ×01

(a) 23

(b) 50

(d) 29

(e) 35

Answer: (a)

67. ? % of 400.02 + 12.93² = 285

(a) 18

(b) 15

(d) 34

(e) 29

Answer: (e)

68. (3327.99 – 27.93) ÷ ? = 110 ×999

(a) 9

(b) 1

(d) 15

(e) 5

Answer: (e)

69.

(a) 350

(b) 550

(d) 450

(e) 250

Answer: (b)

70. 01 + 40 ÷ (16.5 ÷ 33) = ?

(a) 310

(b) 290

(d) 350

(e) 240

Answer: (e)

Directions (71-75) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.

71. Number of students who opted for Course B in 2013 was, what percent more than that who opted for Course A in 2013?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Answer: (c)

72. What is the difference between the total number of students who opted for Courses A and B together in 2012 and that who opted for both courses together in 2014?

(a) 50

(b) 30

(d) 40

(e) 20

Answer: (d)

73. In 2014, if ‘X’ students passed Courses A and B each and the ratio of number of students that failed Courses A and B respectively was 5 : 2, what is the value of ‘X’?

(a) 190

(b) 220

(d) 150

(e) 180

Answer: (b)

74. What is the average number of students who opted for Course A in 2010, 2011 and 2012?

(a) 225

(b) 250

(d) 240

(e) 260

Answer: (d)

75. The number of students who opted for Courses A and B in 2011 was respectively 25% more and 35% less than that in 2009. What was the total number of students who opted for Courses A and B together in 2009?

(a) 600

(b) 540

(d) 560

(e) 584

Answer: (d)

76. The respective ratio between numerical values of curved surface area and volume of right circular cylinder is 1 : 7. If the respective ratio between the diameter and height of the cylinder is 7 : 5, what is the total surface area of the cylinder?

(a) 2992 m²

(b) 3172 m²

(d) 3576 m²

(e) 3992 m²

Answer: (a)

77. The time taken by the boat to cover a distance of ‘D-56’ km upstream is half of that taken by it to cover a distance of ‘D’ km downstream. The respective ratio between the speed of the boat downstream and that upstream is 5:3. If the time taken to cover ‘D-32’ km upstream is 4 hours, what is the speed of water current?

(a) 5 km/h

(b) 3 km/h

(d) 16 km/h

(e) 8 km/h

Answer: (c)

78. Poonam invests Rs 4200 in Scheme A which offers 12% per annum simple interest. She also invests Rs 4200-P in scheme B offering 10% per annum compound interest (compounded annually). The difference between the interests Poonam earns from both the schemes at the end of 2 years is Rs 294, what is the value of P?

(a) 1500

(b) 800

(d) 1000

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

79. A man sold two articles-A (at a profit of 40%) and B (at a loss of 20%). He incurred a total profit of Rs 18 in the whole deal. If article-A costs Rs 140 less than article-B, what is the price of article-B?

(a) Rs 380

(b) Rs 280

(d) Rs 370

(e) Rs 300

Answer: (d)

80. A is eighteen years older to B. The respective ratio of B’s age six years hence and C’s present age is 3 : 2. If at present A’s age is twice the age of C, what was B’s age four years ago?

(a) 24 yr

(b) 28 yr

(d) 20 yr

(e) 26 yr

Answer: (e)

81. Time taken by A alone to finish a piece of work is 60% more than that taken by A and B together to finish the same piece of work. C is twice as efficient as B. If B and C together can complete the same piece of work in in how many days can A alone finish the same piece of work?

(a) 36

(b) 24

(d) 28

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

82. Out of her monthly salary, Ridhi spends 34% various expenses. From the remaining, she gives one-sixth to her brother, two-third to her sister and the remaining she keeps as savings. If the difference between the amounts she gave to her sister and brother was Rs 10560, what was Ridhi’s savings?

(a) Rs 3740

(b) Rs 3520

(d) Rs 3230

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

83. A bag contains 63 cards (numbered 1, 2, 3 ……., 63). Two cards are picked at random from the bag (one after another and without replacement), what is the probability that the sum of numbers of both the cards drawn is even?

(a) 11/21

(b) 34/63

(d) 11/63

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (e)

84. Car M takers 5 hours to travel from point A to B. It would have taken 6 hours, if the same car had travelled the same distance at a speed which was 15 km/h less than its original speed, what in the distance between point A and B?

(a) 350 km

(b) 300 km

(d) 420 km

(e) 400 km

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 85-89) In these questions,, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and

Given answer

a. if x > y b. if x ≥ y

c. x < y d. if x ≤ y

e. if x = y or relationship cannot be established

85. 3x² – 4x + 1 = 0 II. 15y² – 8y + 1

Answer: (b)

86. x² + 14x + 45 = 0 II. y² + 19y + 88 = 0

Answer: (e)

87. x² – 2x – 8 = 0 II. y² + 15y + 54 = 0

Answer: (a)

88. 2x² – 9x + 9 = 0 II. y² – 7y + 12 = 0

Answer: (d)

89. x² = 121 II. y² – 23y + 132 = 0

Answer: (d)

90. A jar contains mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 3 : 1. 24 L of the mixture is taken out and 24 L of water was added to it. If the resultant ratio between milk and water in the jar was 2 : 1, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the jar?

(a) 160 L

(b) 180 L

(d) 250 L

(e) 216 L

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) What will come in place of questions mark in the given number series?

91. 17 9 10 5 ? 90

(a) 44

(b) 35

(d) 38

(e) 33

Answer: (b)

92. 7 6 10 27 ? 515

(a) 112

(b) 104

(d) 96

(e) 108

Answer: (b)

93. 33 40 29 42 25 ?

(a) 40

(b) 44

(d) 48

(e) 46

Answer: (b)

94. 316 307 282 233 152 ?

(a) 35

(b) 25

(d) 41

(e) 47

Answer: (c)

95. 5 9 33 72 121 ?

(a) 169

(b) 163

(d) 184

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Stud the table and answer the given questions.

96. What is the average number of people who voted at Centres, B, D and E?

(a) 1700

(b) 1880

(d) 1640

(e) 1560

Answer: (d)

97. What percent of the total number of registered voters cast invalid votes at Centre D, if the number of invalid votes cast at Centre D was 10% of the number of votes cast?

(a) 5.5%

(b) 8.5%

(d) 6.5%

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

98. At Centre F, the total number of registered voters was 25% less than that at Centre C. At Centre F, number of people who voted was 450 less than that at Centre C and 150 votes cast were declared invalid. What was the respective ratio between the number of valid votes cast and the total number of registered voters at Centre F?

(a) 4 : 5

(b) 3 : 4

(d) 6 : 1

(e) 5 : 8

Answer: (c)

99. Number of people who did not vote at Centre D was what percent more than that who did not vote at Centre A?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (e)

100. What is the difference between the total number of people who did not vote at Centres A and B together and that who did not vote at Centres D and E together?

(a) 80

(b) 60

(d) 106

(e) 118

Answer: (d)

State Bank of India Probationary Officers (Pre) Examination Held on 10-7-2016 Numerical Ability Question Paper with Answer Key

January 6, 2021April 22, 2017 by suresh84

State Bank of India Probationary Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2016

(Held on 10-7-2016)

Numerical Ability

Directions – (Q. 1-5) There are five companies P, Q, R , S and T and we have given the no. of employees working in different companies. In the table we have also given the percentage of male and female employees of HR and Marketing department.

1. The ratio of female employee in HR dept. of company S and T together to male employees of Marketing department in company P and Q together ?

(A) 41 : 55

(B) 43 : 39

(D) 39 : 3

(E) None of the above

Ans: (D)

2. Difference between male employees of Marketing dept. in all companies together (excluding company T) and the female employees of HR dept. in all companies together (excluding company Q and T) ?

(A) 21

(B) 26

(D) 36

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

3. Total number of Marketing employees of company Q and S is what % more than the total no. of Marketing employee in company R ?

(A) 536.76%

(B) 526.67%

(D) 546.67%

(E) 545.545%

Ans: (E)

4. If 40% of the employees of company T in HR department have graduation degree and 60% of the employees of the same company in the Marketing dept. have graduation degree, then how many employees have graduation in degree in company T in both dept. together.

(A) 75

(B) 108

(D) 92

(E) 66

Ans: (A)

5. The ratio of female employees of company P and Q in HR dept. to male employee of company S and R in Marketing dept. ?

(A) 41 : 13

(B) 74 : 29

(D) 29 : 74

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

6. Eight liters are drawn from a cask full of wine and the cask is filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in case to that of water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask hold originally ?

(A) 18 litres

(B) 24 litres

(D) 42 litres

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

7. A and B can complete a piece of work in 80 days and 120 days respectively. They started working together, but A left after 20 days. After another 12 days C joined B and they completed the work in 28 more days. In how many days can C alone complete the work ?

(A) 110 days

(B) 112 days

(D) 120 days

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

8. A man sets out on cycle from Delhi to Faridabad, and at the same time another man starts from Faridabad on cycle for Delhi. After passing each other they complete their journeys in hours respectively. At what rate does the second man cycle if the first man cycles at 14 kmph ?

(A) 10 kmph

(B) 5 kmph

(D) 8 kmph

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

9. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 8,400 at the rate 5% per annum at the end 3 years ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal).

(A) Rs. 4,205.62

(B) Rs. 2,584.16

(D) Rs. 3,820.14

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

10. The average age of all the 100 employees in an office is 29 years, where 2/5 employees are ladies and the ratio of average age of men to women is 5 : 7. The average age of female employees is-

(A) 18 years

(B) 35 years

(D) 30 years

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

Directions – (Q. 11-15) Two equations (I) and (II) are given in each question. On the basis of these equations, you have to decide the relation between x and y and give answer.

(A) if x > y (B) if x < y

(E) if x = y, or no relation can be established between x and y

11. I. 5x² – 87x + 378 = 0

II. 3y² – 49y + 200 = 0

Ans: (A)

12. I. 10x² – x – 24 = 0

II. y² – 2y = 0

Ans: (E)

13. I. x² – 5x + 6 = 0

II. 2y² – 15y + 27 = 0

14. I. 3x + 2y = 301

II. 7x – 5y = 74

Ans: (B)

15. I. 14x² – 37x + 24 = 0

II. 28y² – 53y + 24 = 0

Ans: (C)

Directions – (Q. 16-20) In the Bar-chart, total members enrolled in different years from 1990 to 1994 in two gymnasium A and B. Based on this Bar-chart solve the following questions.

16. The total members enrolled in gymnasium B from 1991 to 1994 together is approximate what per cent more than the total members enrolled in gymnasium A in 1993 and 1994 together ?

(A) 175%

(B) 180%

(D) 75%

(E) 185%

Ans: (B)

17. In the year 1989 to 1990, 25% increase in total number of members enrolled of both gymnasium, then find the total no. of members enrolled in 1989 ?

(A) 332

(B) 296

(D) 286

(E) 319

Ans: (A)

18. The ratio between total members of both gymnasium in 1992 to total members in 1993 of both gymnasium is-

(A) 11 : 16

(B) 21 : 11

(D) 25 : 13

(E) 27 : 22

Ans: (A)

19. The number of members of gymnasium A in 1993 is what % of the no. of members of gymnasium B in 1990 ?

(A) 60.98%

(B) 55.75%

(D) 93.85%

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

20. Total members enrolled in gymnasium A in 1991, 1992 and 1994 together is what % less than m embers enrolled in gymnasium Bin 1990, and 1993 together ?

(A) 30%

(B) 35%

(D) 31.5%

(E) 38.77%

Ans: (E)

Directions – (Q. 21-25) What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in each of the following series ?

21. 17, 52, 158, 477, ? 4310

(A) 1433

(B) 1432

(D) 1434

Ans: (C)

22. 3, 22, ?, 673, 2696, 8093

(A) 133

(B) 155

(D) 134

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

23. 6, 13, 38, ?, 532, 2675

(A) 129

(B) 123

(D) 164

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

24. 286, 142, ? 34, 16, 7

(A) 66

(B) 72

(D) 74

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)

25. 17, 9, ?, 16.5, 35, 90

(A) 5

(B) 15

(D) 20

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

26. A man sells two pipes at Rs. 12 each. He gains 20% on one and loses 20% on the other. In the whole transaction, there is-

(A) Neither loss nor gain

(B) Profit of Rs. 1

(D) Profit of Rs. 2

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

27. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. A student attempted all the 200 questions and scored in all 200 marks. The number of question, he answered correctly was –

(A) 82

(B) 80

(D) 60

(E) None of these

Ans: (*)

28. A copper wire is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle and has area If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area (in cm²) enclosed by the wire is

(A) 364.5

(B) 693.5

(D) 639.5

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

29. What will be the ratio of petrol and kerosene in the final solution formed by mixing petrol and kerosene that are present in three identical vessels in the ratio 4 : 1, 5 : 2 and 6 : 1 respectively ?

(A) 166 : 22

(B) 83 : 22

(D) 78 : 55

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

30. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary, i.e., Rs. 4,428 in Mutual Funds. Later she invests 18% of her monthly salary on Pension Policies also she invests another 9% of her salary on Insurance Policies. What is the total monthly amount invested by Mrs. Sharma ?

(A) Rs. 13,356.8

(B) Rs. 12,398.4

(D) Can’t be determined

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

Directions – (Q. 31-35) What approximate value should come in place question-mark (?) in the following questions ?

31. 999 × 9.004 × 16.997 = ?

(A) 3200

(B) 4100

(D) 3700

(E) 4500

Ans: (D)

32.

(A) 490

(B) 590

(D) 460

Ans: (A)

33. 5940 ÷ 28 ÷ 6 = ?

(A) 40

(B) 35

(D) 52

(E) 27

Ans: (B)

34. 15.5% of 850 + 24.8% of 650 = ?

(A) 295

(B) 330

(D) 375

(E) 220

Ans: (A)

35.

(A) 54

(B) 59

(D) 37

(E) 47

Ans: (E)

SBI Assistant Manager System (ITSO) Examination 2015 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper with Answer Key

January 6, 2021April 20, 2017 by suresh84

SBI Assistant Manager System (ITSO) Exam., 2015

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions – (Q. No. 1-5) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given you have to solve both the questions and given answer. It-

(A) x > y

(B) x ≥ y

(D) x ≤ y

(E) x = y or relationship cannot be established

1. I. x² + 5x + 6 = 0

II. 2y² + 7y + 6 = 0

Ans : (D)

2. I. x² – 13x + 40 = 0

II. y² – 11y + 28 = 0

Ans : (E)

3. I. x² – 10x + 24 = 0

II. 3y² – 19y + 28 = 0

Ans : (B)

4. I. 14 x² – 13x + 3 = 0

II. 99y² – 62y + 8 = 0

Ans : (E)

5. I. 2x² – 15x + 28 = 0

II. 2y² – 21y + 54 = 0

Ans : (C)

6. There are two bags A and B. Bag A contains 6 red balls and 10 green balls and Bag B contains 4 red balls and 6 green balls. One bag is selected at random. From the selected bag one bal is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is red ?

(A) 27/80

(B) 31/80

(D) 29/80

(E) 33/80

Ans : (B)

7. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. What is the ratio of their speeds.

(A) 1 : 3

(B) 3 : 2

(D) 1 : 2

(E) 2 : 1

Ans : (B)

Directions (Q. 8-13) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?

8. 1 2 6 21 ? 445

(A) 150

(B) 185

(D) 292

(E) 88

Ans : (E)

9. 15 19 83 119 631 ?

(A) 731

(B) 693

(D) 683

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

10. ? 6 3 3 6 24 192

(A) 12

(B) 3

(D) 24

(E) 16

Ans : (D)

11. 43 69 58 84 73 ?

(A) 62

(B) 98

(D) 63

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

12. 3 3 6.4 11.5 18.3 ?

(A) 21.8

(B) 25.6

(D) 32.3

(E) 26.8

Ans : (E)

13. 16 18 28 54 ? 186

(A) 112

(B) 104

(D) 82

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

14. A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs. 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of a year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is how much ?

(A) Rs. 120

(B) Rs. 121

(D) Rs. 122

(E) Rs. 119

Ans : (B)

15. Fifty-three per cent of number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three fourth of 23 per cent of that number ?

(A) 101

(B) 109.5

(D) 103.5

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

Directions – (Q. 16-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question ?

16. (8)⁷⁵ × (4096)^0.25 ÷ (64)⁻¹ = (8) ?

(A) 2.25

(B) 3.0

(D) 3.50

(E) 3.75

Ans : (E)

17.

(A) 36

(B) 39

(D) 45

(E) 48

Ans : (B)

18. 8% of 550 – 3.2% of 750 = ?

(A) 5.4

(B) 4.8

(D) 3.6

(E) 2.4

Ans : (E)

19.

(A) 476

(B) 676

(D) 1024

(E) 1156

Ans : (B)

20. 5% of 8924.19 + 22% of 5324.42 = ?

(A) 6278

(B) 6128

(D) 5624

(E) 6838

Ans : (E)

21. How many ways are there in selecting 5 members from 6 males and 5 females, consisting 3 males and 2 females ?

(A) 200

(B) 300

(D) 500

(E) 550

Ans : (A)

Directions- (Q. 22-27) Data regarding number of boys and girls studying is standard X of five different schools.

22. What is difference between total number of boys studying in schools B and C together and the total number of girls in the same schools together ?

(A) 350

(B) 200

(D) 309

(E) 370

Ans : (A)

23. The number of students (boys and girls together) studying in school B are what per cent less than that in school D ?

(A) 20

(B) 15

(D) 25

(E) 30

Ans : (E)

24. Number of students (boys and girls together) in standard V of school E is 20% less than those in standard X of the same school. How many students study in standard V in the same school ?

(A) 506

(B) 472

(D) 464

(E) 524

Ans : (B)

25. Number of boys studying in school E is what per cent more than the number of boys studying in school A ?

(A) 48

(B) 52

(D) 45

(E) 64

Ans : (B)

26. What is the respective ratio between the number of students (boys and girls together) studying in school A and that in school C ?

(A) 7 : 11

(B) 25 : 27

(D) 21 : 22

(E) 27 : 25

Ans : (C)

27. What is the average number of girls studying in schools C, D and E

(A) 180

(B) 150

(D) 205

(E) 210

Ans : (E)

Directions – (Q. No. 28-33) Study the following table carefully and answer the question given.

Note – Faculty Members consist of only Professors and Associate Professors in the given Universities.

28. The number of male Associate Professors in University A is what per cent of the number of female Associate Professors in the same university ?

(A) 26

(B) 28

(D) 15

(E) 25

Ans : (E)

29. What is the average number of Associate Professor in Universities C and D together ?

(A) 54

(B) 50

(D) 48

(E) 46

Ans : (D)

30. The total number of Professors in Universities A and C together is approximately what per cent less than the total number of Associate Professors in the same Universities together ?

(A) 37

(B) 58

(D) 42

(E) 28

Ans : (D)

31. What is the respective ratio between the number of female professors in University B and that in University D ?

(A) 17 : 11

(B) 13 : 11

(D) 17 : 12

(E) 13 : 12

Ans : (E)

32. What percentage of the total number of faculty members in Universities A and B together are male Associate Professors ?

(A) 12

(B) 14.5

(D) 13

(E) 16.5

Ans : (C)

33. What is difference between the total number of male faculty members in Universities B and D together and the total number of female faculty members in Universities A and C together ?

(A) 60

(B) 69

(D) 72

(E) 70

Ans : (E)

34. The cylinder of radius 8 m and height 10 m is melted down and all the metal is used to recast a new solid cylinder with radius 12 m. What is the height of the new cylinder ? (in m)

(A)

(B) 6

(D)

(E)

Ans : (A)

35. The cost prices of two tables are same. One is sold at a profit of 20% and the other for Rs. 340 more than the first one. If the overall profit earned after selling the tables is 24%, what is the cost price of each table ?

(A) Rs. 4400

(B) Rs. 3500

(D) Rs. 4250

(E) Rs. 3820

Ans : (D)