Entrance
Chhattisgarh Pattawari Recruitment 2016-17 Examination Held on 15-1-2017 Question Paper with Answer Key
Chhattisgarh Pattawari Recruitment 2016-17
Held on 15-1-2017
1. MIT of USA has recently (2016) developed a new printing technology called
(a) 4D printing
(b) 3D printing
(c) Web printing
(d) None of these
2. In MS-Excel software, a formula is entered into a cell using ….. symbol.
(a) #
(b) @
(c) &
(d) =
3. A file containing relatively permanent data is
(a) Random file
(b) Transaction file
(c) Master file
(d) Sequential file
4. What is an animation?
(a) Picture formation
(b) Provide motion to still pictures
(c) taking out print
(d) Changing pictures into a graph
5. A computer virus developed in 1986 which infects the boot-sector of storage media formatted with MSDOS FAT system
(a) AIDS
(b) Brain
(c) Friday
(d) Sobig
6. Free open source software for website designing is
(a) PHP
(b) C#
(c) Coffeecup
(d) Python
7. In which of the following devices after storing data no alternation or deletion can be done ?
(a) Floppy Disk
(b) Hard Disk
(c) CD Rom
(d) Tape Drive
8. XD-Picture card is a memory card used in digital cameras. What does XD stand for ?
(a) Ex-digital
(b) Extreme digital
(c) Extra digital
(d) None of these
9. In……. frequency spectrum is divided into smaller spectra and is allocated to each user.
(a) TDMA
(b) CDMA
(c) FDMA
(d) FGMA
10. In internet IP address is called
(a) Interned Point
(b) Internet Provider
(c) Internet Procedure
(d) Internet Protocol
11. Which of the following is correct for POS machine ?
(a) Cashless transaction
(b) Point of sale
(c) Digital payment
(d) All of the above
12. It is not an anti-virus software
(a) Quick Heal
(b) Kaspersky
(c) Norton
(d) Python
13. Which one of the following is a free open source operating system software?
(a) Zenix
(b) Windows 7
(c) Unix
(d) Ubuntu
14. Which of the following programs is not a search engine?
(a) Opera
(b) Bing
(c) Google
(d) Yahoo
15. Which of the following printers uses the photocopy technology to print?
(a) Inkjet
(b) Laser printer
(c) Thermal printer
(d) Dot matrix printer
16. Hardware that creates sound from a mathematical representation
(a) Sound synthesiser
(b) Stampers
(c) Speakers
(d) Set top box
17. How many types of page orientation are available in MS-Word software?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
18. Which protocol is used for browsing website?
(a) TCP
(b) HTTP
(c) FTP
(d) TFTP
19. Thermal printer uses
(a) Ribbon
(b) Ink
(c) Powder
(d) None of these
20. 1 terabyte of memory =
(a) 1024 × 1024 bytes
(b) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 bytes
(c) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 × 1024 bytes
(d) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 × 1024 × 1024 bytes
21. Choose the expression in which the preposition ‘On’ is correctly used.
(a) On Christmas morning
(b) On Christmas afternoon
(c) On Christmas evening
(d) None of the above
22. Which word is the correct antonym of the word ‘Preamble’ ?
(a) Epilogue
(b) Exordium
(c) Prolegomenon
(d) Proem
23. ‘The ship was castaway on the coast of Africa’.
In the above sentence ‘Castaway’ means
(a) loitered
(b) extolled
(c) wrecked
(d) anchored
24. Choose the wrongly spelt word in British English
(a) Skillful
(b) Signaling
(c) Distiller
(d) Kidnapper
25. ‘Who taught you French?’ Which of the following is not the correct transformation of the above sentence into passive form?
(a) By whom was French taught to you?
(b) Who were you taught French by?
(c) By whom were you taught French?
(d) French was taught to you by who?
26. She told me, “Don’t bother sending me an invitation.” Choose the correct transformation of the above sentence into indirect speech.
(a) She told me don’t bother sending her an invitation.
(b) She told me not to bother sending her an invitation.
(c) She told me did not bother sending her an invitation.
(d) She told me did not bother to send her an invitation.
27. The plural form of the word, ‘kilo’ is
(a) kiloes
(b) kilos
(c) kilose
(d) kiloce
28. ‘You can dial Rome direct’
In the above sentence the word ‘Direct’ is used as
(a) adjective
(b) preposition
(c) adverb
(d) verb
29. Which of the following word is not a synonym of the word ‘Pouch’?
(a) Satchel
(b) Sac
(c) Sack
(d) Pout
30. ‘All precautions must have been neglected, for the plague spread rapidly’. In the above sentence the word ‘For’ is used as
(a) preposition
(b) conjunction
(c) interjection
(d) adverb
31. If 5 men or 8 women complete a work in 26 days, then 4 men and 4 women together can complete that work in how many days ?
(a) 13
(b) 60
(c)
(d) None of these
32. If a : b = 2 : 3, then (a6 – b6) : (a4 – b4) (a2 + ab + b2) =
(a) 7 : 13
(b) 13 : 7
(c) 1 : 2
(d) None of these
33. The square root of 1391.29 is
(a) 27.3
(b) 37.3
(c) 33.3
(d) 37.03
34. At 5% rate of simple interest, in how many years, interest of Rs. 2000 will be double of the principal?
(a) 4 yr
(b) 40 yr
(c) 20 yr
(d) 2 yr
35.
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
36. If a student increases his speed to 4 km/h, then he reaches his college 20 minutes earlier, whereas if h e slows down his speed by 2 km/h, then he reaches his college 40 minutes late. Then, the original sped of the student will be
(a) 2 km/h
(b) 3 km/h
(c) 4 km/h
(d) 5 km/h
37. 2 – 2 + 2 – 2 + ……. 2017 terms =
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) −2
(d) ∞
38. In courts A, B, C, D and E, the number of pending cases against politicians were respectively 3 thousands, 5 thousands, 2 thousands, 4 thousands and 1 thousand, in which after final decision 50, 20, 10, 40 and 30 politicians respectively were found free of charges. Hence, the average charged politicians per court is
(a) 2500
(b) 2900
(c) 2970
(d) 2570
39. The LCM of two numbers is 131387 and the GCD is 37. If one of the number is 1961, the other number is
(a) 2579
(b) 2369
(c) 2479
(d) 2469
40. In a convocation, average weight of 16 members is 55 kg, average weight of 25 members is 45 kg and average weight of 14 members is 40 kg. Then, average weight of all members in a convocation is
(a) 40.5 kg
(b) 46.5 kg
(c) 44.5 kg
(d) None of these
41. Volume of shaded portion in the following figure is, if
1. radius of base of right circular cone = 6 cm
2. radius of base of cylinder = 3 cm
3. the base of right circular cone and cylinder are concentric
Given that the height of cone is 10 cm.
(a) 47 π cm3
(b) 84 π cm3
(c) 47 cm3
(d) 84 cm3
42. In the following shaped utensil, if one-third is filled of water, then volume of the remaining part is
(a) 750 cm3
(b) 150 cm3
(c) 500 cm3
(d) 250 cm3
43. A person sells 15 things in Rs. 33 and earns 10% profit. If he sells similar 10 things in Rs. 25, then what will be his percentage loss or gain?
(a) 25% profit
(b) 25% loss
(c) 15% profit
(d) 15% loss
44. How much percentage of numbers in 12, 22, 32, …… 20162 are there having
(a) 50%
(b)
(c) 2%
(d) 0%
45. A train of length 300 m is travelling with a speed of 54 km/h. It takes 40 seconds to cross a bridge, then the length of the bridge will be
(a) 250 m
(b) 300 m
(c) 350 m
(d) None of these
46. If then the expression 8xy (x2 + y2) has the value
(a)
(b) 20
(c)
(d) 5
47. If a = 0.002, b = 0.003, then (a + b)2 – (a – b)2 =
(a) 0.006
(b) 0.024
(c) 0.0000024
(d) 0.000024
48. 63 + 9 – 6 × 7 + 6 ÷ 3 – 2 =
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 10
(d) None of these
49. In a shop, it was written that if one takes first jeans then 30%, for second jeans 50%, for third jeans 80% and fourth jeans will be given free of cost. A person chooses first jeans of Rs. 700, second jeans of Rs. 800, third jeans of Rs. 2000 and fourth jeans of Rs. 4000. Then total how much amount he well have to pay?
(a) Rs. 1210
(b) Rs. 1290
(c) Rs. 5290
(d) Rs. 5210
50. If the sum of two natural numbers is 8 and the difference of their reciprocal is then the numbers will be
(a) 3, 5
(b) 2, 6
(c) 1, 7
(d) None of these
51. Which of the following numbers is not a rational number?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
52. If 3a +5b = 8500 and 5a – 3b = 8500, then values of a and b will be respectively.
(a) 500, 2000
(b) 2000, 500
(c) 85, 8
(d) 8, 85
53. In the following parallelogram, ∠BAC –
(a) 50°
(b) 60°
(c) 70°
(d) 80°
54. If area of circular region is 154 cm2, then the total surface area of the cube whose side is equal to its radius, will be
(a) 7
(b) 294
(c) 290
(d) None of these
55. Ram purchases a mobile in Rs. 2000 and sells to Sohan in Rs. 3000. Sohan sells it to Rakesh in Rs. 3500. Then, Rakesh had to pay how many percentage more than Ram?
(a) 50%
(b) 20%
(c) 75%
(d)
56. In the following circle ∠CAD + ∠CBD =
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 120°
(d) 135°
57. At 5% per annum rate of compound interest, what will become the amount Rs. 4000 after 24 months?
(a) Rs. 4100
(b) Rs. 4210
(c) Rs. 4400
(d) Rs. 4410
58. The value of is equal to
(a) 2n
(b) 3n + 3
(c) (27)n
(d) (35)n
59. Sum of three numbers is 116. The ratio of second number and third number is 9 : 16 and the ratio of first and third is 1 : 4. Then the second number is
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 36
60. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 144°, then how many sides are there in that regular polygon?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
61. Study the following figure and give the answer of the question : If rectangle represents artists, the circle represents players and the triangle represents doctors.
How many players are neither artists nor doctors?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 22
(d) 25
62. Find the missing term in the following number series
7, 12, 28, 52, ?
(a) 68
(b) 85
(c) 124
(d) 128
63. In the following letter series some of the letters are missing. Choose the correct alternatives in which the letters are in same order of blanks
_acca_ccca_acccc_aaa
(a) acca
(b) caaa
(c) ccaa
(d) caac
64. If P denotes ‘÷’, Q denotes ‘×’, R denotes ‘+’ and S denotes ‘−’, then the value of 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 is
(a) 28
(b) 53
(c) 55
(d) 80
65. A mouse runs 20 m toward East and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 m and again turns to left, runs 5 m and turns to let,, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now, which direction is the mouse facing?
(a) North
(b) South-East
(c) East
(d) West
66. Study the following figure and given the answer of the question : If rectangle represents artists, the circle represents players and the triangle represents doctors.
How many doctors are neither player nor artists?
(a) 30
(b) 22
(c) 27
(d) 8
67. Select from the alternatives given below to complete the missing portion of the given pattern
68. Choose the diagram in which the following groups of elements fit correctly House, Brick and Bridge
69. If 31 + 72 = 26, 52 + 45 = 32, then what is the value of 47 + 83?
(a) 125
(b) 44
(c) 22
(d) None of these
70. Figure (X) is embedded in one of the following figures (a) (b) (c) and (d) Choose the figure.
71. Find the missing number in the following box.
(a) 49
(b) 121
(c) 169
(d) 144
72. Sameer walks 20 m towards North.
Then he turns right and walks 30 m.
Then he turns right and walks 35 m.
The he turns left and walks 15m. Then he gain turns left and walks 15m.
In which direction and how many meters away is he from his original position?
(a) 35 m, West
(b) 30 m, East
(c) 45 m, East
(d) 30 m, South
73. Choose the numeral pair which his different from others :
(a) 70-80
(b) 54-62
(c) 28-32
(d) 21-24
74. Choose the missing term from the following alternatives :
3F, 6G, 11I, 18L, ?
(a) 21O
(b) 25N
(c) 27P
(d) 29P
75. Following are given four group of letters. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(a) ALMZ
(b) BTUY
(c) CPQX
(d) DEFY
76. Which is not the objective of scrapping the Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 notes ?
(a) To abolish black money
(b) To eliminate corruption
(c) To accelerate the economic growth
(d) None of the above
77. Which sector has more growth rate to accelerate the industrial growth of India in 2015-16?
(a) Mining and Quarrying
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Electricity
(d) Construction
78. Which State has least population in India as per 2011 census?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Goa
(d) Mizoram
79. Which of the following is not included in the term ‘State’ as defined in the Article-12 of the Constitution?
1. Parliament 2. State Legislature
2. Union Judiciary
3. State Judiciary (High Court)
4. Union Executive 6. State Executive
5. All local authorities of India
6. All local authorities under the control of government of India
(a) 1, 2
(b) 3, 4
(c) 5, 6
(d) 7, 8
80. In which of the following years the Non-cooperation movement was suspended by Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) 1921
(b) 1922
(c) 1923
(d) 1924
81. How many parts are there in the Constitution?
(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 24
(d) 25
82. A important cash crop of Punjab is
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Manila Hemp
(d) Bajra
83. What type of air pressure is found at the centre of cyclone?
(a) Low
(b) High
(c) Manila Hemp
(d) Bajra
84. Which of the following Governor-General Promulgated the policy of ‘Subsidiary Alliance’?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Dalhousie
85. The second battle of Panipat in AD 1556, was fought between whom of the following?
(a) Akbar and Rana Pratap
(b) Akbar and Hemu
(c) Akbar and Rana Sanga
(d) Akbar and Durgavati
86. Who can remove the members of State Public Service Commission?
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Supreme Court
(d) State Legislature
87. The filament of a bulb is made of
(a) copper
(b) tungsten
(c) aluminium
(d) lead
88. The human eye forms the image of an object at its
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) pupil
(d) retina
89. What is correct about Appropriation Bill?
1. It is introduced by Finance Minister.
2. It is introduced in Lok Sabha.
3. It can be amended by Lok Sabha.
4. It is presigned by President.
5. It gives the legal power to the government for expenditure.
6. Cut motion can be introduced by the opposition.
(a) 1, 4, 6
(b) 2, 4, 5
(c) 2, 3, 5
(d) 1, 2, 5
90. Who of the following was the first Home Minister of Independent India?
(a) Sardar Patel
(b) Govind Ballabh Pant
(c) Jagjivan Ram
(d) Maulana Azad
91. Which Five Year Plan will be end in 2016-17 in India?
(a) 13th Five Year Plan
(b) 11th Five Year Plan
(c) 12th Five Year Plan
(d) None of the above
92. Which of the following includes the term ‘Office of the Profit’ in the context of membership of Parliament?
(a) Whether government has power of appointment.
(b) Whether government has the right to remove the holder of office.
(c) Whether government pays the remuneration to the holder of office.
(d) All of the above
93. A citizen, who was declared disqualified to contest election by the supreme Court of India, even then she was appointed Chief Minister by the Governor and State.
(a) Mayawati/Romesh Bhandari/Uttar Pradesh
(b) Mamta Banerjee/NN/Vora/West Bengal
(c) Jayalalitha/Fatima Ali/Tamil Nadu
(d) Sheela Dixit/Najeeb Jung/Delhi
94. Mauryan emperor Bindusara was the follower of which of the following religion?
(a) Vedic religion
(b) Buddhism
(c) Jainism
(d) Ajivika religion
95. Which is not included in allied sectors of agriculture in India?
(a) Crops
(b) Livestock products
(c) Forestry
(d) Fisheries
96. In which natural region, maximum diurnal range of temperature occurs?
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Western European region
(c) Mediterranean region
(d) Hot desert region
97. The gas used in fire extinguisher is
(a) nitrogen
(b) sulphur dioxide
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) hydrogen
98. Which type of wind belongs to loo?
(a) Permanent wind
(b) Periodic wind
(c) Local wind
(d) None of these
99. Diphtheria is caused by following organism
(a) Fungus
(b) Virus
(c) Bacteria
(d) Worm
100. On which latitude is the sun vertically located on June 21?
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Tropic of Capricorn
(d) North Pole
101. Gujarat is one of the chief producer of which of the following crop?
(a) Wheat
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Bajra
(d) Coconut
102. A remote of a television is related to
(a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) Infrared signals
(d) None of these
103. What is correct about Finance Bill?
1. It is presigned by the President.
2. It can be introduced in Rajya Sabha.
3. It can be introduced in Lock Sabha only.
4. Rajya Sabha can refuse to assent the Bill.
5. In the position of deadlock President can summon for joint session of Parliament.
6. President can’t refuse to sign on the Bill.
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5
(d) 2, 4, 5, 6
104. The weight of a body is measured maximum in
(a) air
(b) water
(c) hydrogen
(d) nitrogen
105. Which is the most appropriate criteria to measure the economic development of a nation?
(a) Increase in Gross Domestic Product
(b) Increase in Net National Income
(c) Increase in Per Capita Income
(d) Improvement in Human Development Index
106. Lime water contain
(a) calcium hydroxide
(b) sodium hydroxide
(c) calcium chloride
(d) None of these
107. In which of the following sessions in 1929, the Indian National Congress passes the resolution of ‘Poorna Swaraj’?
(a) Amritsar Session
(b) Karachi Session
(c) Lahore Session
(d) Nagpur Session
108. In which side of the continent, the Hot deserts are located?
(a) Eastern
(b) Western
(c) Anywhere
(d) Middle
109. What is the loan limit of Kishor Bucket under Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana?
(a) Rs. 50000
(b) Rs. 50000 to 5 lakh
(c) Rs. 5 lakh to 10 lkh
(d) None of the above
110. Which of the following Vedas contains the famous Gayatri Mantra?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
111. Elected President of America, Donald Trump was candidate of which party?
(a) Democratic party
(b) Republican party
(c) Green party
(d) Constitution party
112. Which University of this State is associated with Management Technology ?
(a) Maharishi University
(b) OP Jindal University
(c) Ayush University
(d) Guru Ghasidas University
113. Which is the 5th country inducted in BRICS Nations?
(a) Brazil
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) South Africa
114. Who is the present Chief Justice of India?
(a) YV Chandrachud
(b) HL Dattu
(c) TS Thakur
(d) Jabgdish Singh Khehar
115. Area wise, what is the rank of Chhattisgarh State, in the country?
(a) 6th
(b) 9th
(c) 10th
(d) 11th
116. World’s longest tunnel Gotthard base is located in
(a) France
(b) Italy
(c) Switzerland
(d) Germany
117. Which of the following player hit three centuries in a calendar year?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Ricky Ponting
(c) Brendon McCullam
(d) All of the above
118. Marwa thermal power plant is located in the which district of this State?
(a) Janjgir Champa
(b) Raigarh
(c) Bilaspur
(d) Korba
119. Which religion is associated with Losar festival?
(a) Jain
(b) Buddha
(c) Sikh
(d) Hindu
120. ‘Ghumura’ dance is a folk dance of which State?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Odisha
121. Sports to which Harjit Singh is associated with and he got fame from
(a) Athletics – Olympics
(b) Swimming – Olympics
(c) Hockey – Junior World Cup
(d) Hockey – Asia Cup
122. The country with which Seventh joint military exercise Ekuverin was done by India.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Maldives
(d) China
123. How many countries have participated in 2016 Kabaddi World Cup?
(a) 06
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 08
124. Match the Following list a :
List-I
(Archaeological Excavation Sites) |
List-II
(District) |
A. Pachrahi
B. Sirpur C. Maheshpur D. Madkudeep |
1. Sarguja
2. Kabeerdham 3. Baloda Bazar 4. Mahasamund |
(a) A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1
(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
(c) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
(d) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4
125. In this State under the Saur Sujala Scheme, farmers will be given which of the following in subsidesed rate?
(a) Solar cooker
(b) Pump for irrigation
(c) Gas cylinder
(d) All of these
126. The fort situated in which place of this State is known as ‘Gaj Kila’?
(a) Jashpur
(b) Sarguja
(c) Bastar
(d) Ratanpur
127. At which of the following places in this State, the largest deposit of iron are exists?
(a) Ravghat
(b) Chhote Dongar
(c) Bailadila
(d) Rajhara
128. Which of the following raillines does not exist in this State?
(a) Mumbai-Howrah
(b) Raipur-Vishakhapatnam
(c) Bilaspur-Katni
(d) Raigarh-Puri
129. Which is called as ‘Jogi Bithai’ ini Bastar Dassahara?
(a) Establishment of idol
(b) Establishment of flag in chariot
(c) Appointment of Pujari
(d) Establishment of Kalash in the temple
130. Which of the following was the first Maratha ruler in this State after the end of Kalchrui rule?
(a) Bhaskar Pant
(b) Raghuji Bhosla
(c) Bimbaji Bhosla
(d) Keshav Dinkar
131. The main occupation of which tribe of this State is ‘Bamboo craft’?
(a) Halba
(b) Kandara
(c) Kathiya
(d) Jhariya
132. Which of the following was involved in the Raipur Conspiracy Case of 1942 in this State?
(a) Maulana Abdul Rauf
(b) Ramgopal Tiwari
(c) Parasram Soni
(d) Ratnakar Jha
133. In which of the following years, the British territories of this State were incorporated into a division of the Central Provinces?
(a) 1858
(b) 1862
(c) 1870
(d) 1872
134. In which of the following years Raipur was made the capital of this State?
(a) 1818
(b) 1825
(c) 1858
(d) None of these
135. Which of the following dynasties was the earliest during ancient period in this State?
(a) Rajarshitulya Kula
(b) Sharabhpuriya
(c) Pandu
(d) Nala
136. To which of the following Zamindaris, the first martyr of this State Narayan Singh belonged?
(a) Bilaigarh
(b) Pendra
(c) Gundardehi
(d) Sonakhan
137. Which of the following is the principal river of the Bastar Plateau in this State?
(a) Indravati
(b) Shivanth
(c) Hasdo
(d) Kanhar
138.Who was one of the leader of this state imprisoned at the time of Raipur District Political Conference in March, 1922?
(a) Pt. Sundarlal Sharma
(b) Rauf Khan
(c) Pt. Ravishankar Shukla
(d) Pt. Ramanand Dubey
139. On which of the following rivers in this State, Ravishankar Sagar Project has been situated?
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Shivanth
(c) Hasdo
(d) Indravati
140. ‘Sarhul’ is the festival of which tribe of this State?
(a) Uraon
(b) Gond
(c) Pradhan
(d) Kanwar
Odisha Staff Selection Commission JDEO (Home) Examination Held on 16-4-2017 Computer Fundamental Test Question Paper
Odisha Staff Selection Commission Examination
Held on 16-4-2017
JDEO (Home) – 2015 – Set – 1
Computer Fundamental Test
1. In MS-Power Point you have customized a design template in one presentation and you want to use it in another presentation. What is the best way to do this ?
(1) Use the browse feature in the slide design task pane to find the file that has your design template and apply it to the current file
(2) Copy and paste the slide with the design template you want to include the new presentation; inserted slide will inherit the design
(3) Save the presentation that has the design template with a new name and then use a new file to your presentation
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
2. Which of the following font effect is not available in Power Point Font dialog box ?
(1) Underline
(2) Shadow
(3) Emboss
(4) Strikethrough
(5) None of the above
3. In MS-Power Point the difference between Slide Design and Auto Content Wizard is
(1) Both same
(2) Auto content wizard is just the wizard version of Slid Design
(3) Slide Design does not provide sample content but Auto Content Wizard provides sample content tool
(4) Slide Design asks your choice in steps but Auto Content Wizard does not let you make choices
(5) None of the above
4. In MS-Power Point which of the following pane is not available in Task Pane ?
(1) Getting Started
(2) Clip Art
(3) Word Art
(4) Search Results
(5) None of the above
5. What happens when you delete text box object from a slide in Power Point Presentation?
(1) The object is deleted but text box and the text inside is left on the slide
(2) The text box is deleted and the text is pasted on the slide
(3) The text box and text both are deleted
(4) The entire slide is deleted
(5) None of the above
6. If you need to remove only the formatting done in a range (numbers and formula typed there should not be removed) in MS-Excel, you must:
(1) From Edit menu choose clear and then formats
(2) From Edit menu choose Delete
(3) Click on Remove Formatting tool on Standard Toolbar
(4) Double click the format Painter and then press Esc key in keyboard
(5) None of the above
7. In MS-Excel how to restrict the values of a cell so that only whole numbers between 9 and 99 can be entered in a cell:
(1) The Settings tab under the menu Format -> cells
(2) The Setting tab under the menu data -> Validation
(3) The Setting tab under the menu Data-> Filter-> Advanced Filter
(4) The Settings tab under the menu Format -> Conditional Formatting
(5) None of the above
8. How to remove the unwanted action from recorded macro without recording the whole macro again in MS-Excel ?
(1) By using the Find and Edit Action Option
(2) By clicking o the refresh button in the Macro toolbar
(3) By edit the macro in the Visual Basic Editor
(4) Macro cannot be edited
(5) None of the above
9. How to fit long texts in a single cell with multiple lines in MS-Excel ?
(1) Start typing in the cell and press the Enter key to start another line
(2) Use the Wrap Text option in the Format -> Alignment menu
(3) Use the Shrink to Fit option in the Format -> Cells -> Alignment menu
(4) By using the Find and Edit Action Option
(5) None of the above
10. Without using the mouse or the arrow keys, what is the fastest way of getting to cell A1 in a spreadsheet in MS-Excel ?
(1) Press Ctrl + Home
(2) Press Home
(3) Press Shift + Home
(4) Press Alt + Home
(5) None of the above
11. Which of the following is not true regarding conditional formatting in MS-Excel ?
(1) You can add more than one condition to check
(2) You can set condition to look for Bold and apply Italics on them
(3) You can apply Font, border and pattern formats that meet the specified conditions
(4) You can delete any condition from Conditional Formatting dialog box if it is not required
(5) None of the above
12. In MS-Excel, a smart tag will be removed from a cell when:
(1) The cell is moved
(2) The cell is hidden
(3) The data in the cells is changed or deleted
(4) The formatting of the cells is changed
(5) None of the above
13. The short cut key Ctrl + R is used in Excel to:
(1) Right align the content of cell
(2) Remove the cell contents of selected cells
(3) Fill the selection with active cells to the right
(4) To hide the cell
(5) None of the above
14. When a row of data is to be converted into columns in MS-Excel ?
(1) Copy the cells in row, select the same number of cells in row and paste
(2) Copy the cells in column then choose Edit >> Paste Special, then click Transpose and OK
(3) Copy the cells then go to Format >> Cells then on Alignment tab click Transpose check box and click OK
(4) Select the cells then place the cell pointer on new cell and choose Edit >> Paste Special, mark Transpose check box and click OK
(5) None of the above
15. To copy formatting from one area in a worksheet and apply it to another area you would use :
(1) The Edit > Copy Format and Edit > Paste Format commands from the menu
(2) The Copy and Apply Formatting dialog box, located under the Format>Copy and Apply menu
(3) There is no way to Copy and Apply Formatting in Excel – you have to do it manually
(4) The Format Painter button on the standard toolbar
(5) None of the above
16. Which of the following is not one of the three ‘Mail Merge Helper’ steps in MS-Word ?
(1) Merge the two files
(2) Create the main document
(3) Set the mailing list parameters
(4) Create the data source
(5) None of the above
17. MS-Word automatically moves the text to the next line when it reaches the right edge of the screen and is called ?
(1) Carriage Return
(2) Enter
(3) Word Wrap
(4) End
(5) None of the above
18. On which toolbar can you find Format Painter tool in MS-Word ?
(1) Standard Tool Bar
(2) Formatting Tool Bar
(3) Drawing Tool Bar
(4) Picture Tool Bar
(5) None of the above
19. Thesaurus tool in MS-Word is used for:
(1) Grammar options
(2) Spelling suggestions
(3) Synonyms and Antonyms words
(4) To draw pictures
(5) None of the above
20. Which key do your press to force a page break in Ms Word ?
(1) Ctrl + Alt
(2) Ctrl + Break
(3) Ctrl + Enter
(4) Ctrl + Backspace
(5) None of the above
21. The feature of Word that automatically adjusts the amount of space between certain combinations of characters so that an entire word looks more evenly spaced. What is that feature called ?
(1) Spacing
(2) Kerning
(3) Positioning
(4) Scaling
(5) None of the above
22. In MS-Word, Ctrl + H is used to :
(1) Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Replace Tab
(2) Open Format Dialog box activating Insert Hyper Link tab
(3) Open Insert Dialog box activating Insert Hyper Link tab
(4) Open Insert Hyper Link Dialog box
(5) None of the above
23. What is gutter margin in MS-Word ?
(1) Margin that is added to the left margin when printing
(2) Margin that is added to right margin when printing
(3) Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing
(4) Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing
(5) None of the above
24. When inserting Page number in footer it appeared 1 but you wish to show a. How can you do that ?
(1) From Insert menu choose Page Number and specify necessary setting
(2) From format menu choose bullets and Numbering and configure necessary setting
(3) Click on Page number Format tool and specify required setting
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
25. On three horizontal ruler, an upside down T indicates a _______ tab stop.
(1) Left-aligned
(2) Right-aligned
(3) Decimal-aligned
(4) Centered
(5) None of the above
26. The result of an arithmetic and logical operations are stored in:
(1) Accumulator
(2) Instructions register
(3) Cache memory
(4) ROM
(5) None of the above
27. Connecting different computers in an organized manner within an office building can be termed as :
(1) MAN
(2) WAN
(3) LAN
(4) ANN
(5) None of the above
28. ________ means that the data contained in the database is both accurate and consistent?
(1) Data Binding
(2) Data Mining
(3) Data Checking
(4) Data Integrity
(5) None of the above
29. The time taken by the computer to respond to the processing request is called :
(1) Time sharing
(2) Batch processing
(3) Response time
(4) Splash time
(5) None of the above
30. A computer program that converts the program into machine language line by line is called :
(1) Interpreter
(2) Compiler
(3) Translator
(4) Linker
(5) None of the above
31. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connect in the internet ?
(1) DHCP
(2) RPC
(3) IP
(4) HTTP
(5) None of the above
32. Which one of the following statements is correct for the term URL ?
(1) It is a type of programming object.
(2) It is a computer software program.
(3) It is the address of page on World Wide Web.
(4) It is an acronym for unlimited resource for learning.
(5) None of the above
33. A simple protocol used for fetching e-mail from a mailbox is
(1) POP2
(2) POP3
(3) IMAP
(4) HTTP
(5) None of the above
34. SMTP stands for :
(1) Short Mail Transmission Protocol
(2) Small Mail Transmission Protocol
(3) Server Mail Transfer Protocol
(4) Small Main Transfer Protocol
(5) None of the above
35. Full form of HTML is :
(1) Hyper Text Markup Language
(2) Hyper Text Manipulation Language
(3) Hyper Text Managing Links
(4) Hyper Text Manipulating Links
(5) None of the above
36. All system setting in WINDOWS are stored in :
(1) MAIN.INI
(2) CONTROL.INI
(3) SYSTEM.INI
(4) SETTING.INI
(5) None of the above
37. WINDOWS can work in which of the following modes ?
(1) Expanded
(2) Extended
(3) Enhanced and Standard
(4) Compressed
(5) None of the above
38. The technique, which stores a program on a disk and then, transfers the program into main memory, as and when they are needed, is known as:
(1) Thrashing
(2) Swapping
(3) Spooling
(4) Copying
(5) None of the above
39. A bootstrap is :
(1) Hardware of computer used to check memory
(2) A program to start up a computer
(3) Memory device
(4) An Assembler
(5) None of the above
40. The operating system is the most common type of ______ software.
(1) Communication
(2) Application
(3) System
(4) Word processing software
(5) None of the above
Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET) Analytical and Logical Reasoning Question Paper and Answer Key
Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET)
Question Paper
Analytical and Logical Reasoning
Directions (Qs. 1 & 2) : Read the information given below and then answer the questions that follow.
There is a family of six persons A< B, C, D, E and F. Their professions are Software Engineer, Doctor, Trainer, Salesman, Make-up Artist and Lawyer.
(i) There are two married couples in the family
(ii) The Make-up artist is the grandfather of F, who is a Software Engineer
(iii) C, the Salesman, is married to the lady Trainer
(iv) B is the mother of E and F.
(v) The Doctor, ,D is married to the Make-up artist.
1. How many male members are there the family ?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) four
(d) Data inadequate
2. What is the profession of A ?
(a) Lawyer
(b) Trainer
(c) Make-p artist
(d) None of these
3. If A + B means A is the son of B, A – B means A is the husband of B, A * B means A is the sister of B, then which of the following shows the relation that Q is the maternal uncle of P ?
(a) P + B – R * Q
(b) P – B = R * Q
(c) P = B * R – Q
(d) None of the above.
Directions (Qs. 4 & 5): Choose the correct statement for the following questions .
4. How far is Pune from Delhi ?
Statement I :
Pune is 200 kms from Mumbai.
Statement II :
Mumbai is 500 Kms from Delhi and is between Pune and Delhi.
(a) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question but statement I is not.
(b) If both statements I and II are together sufficient to answer the question although neither statement suffices by itself.
(c) If statement I and statement I are sufficient to answer the question independently and separately.
(d) If the two statements are not sufficient but still more data is needed to answer the question.
5. Are some books smart phones ?
Statement I :
All smart phones are books.
Statement II :
Only smart phones are books.
(a) If only statement II is sufficient to answer the question but statement I is not.
(b) If both statements I and II are together sufficient to answer the question although neither statement suffices by itself.
(c) If statement I and statement I are sufficient to answer the question independently and separately.
(d) If the two statements are not sufficient but still more data is needed to answer the question.
Directions (Qs. 6 & 7) : In each of the following questions, (A) is taken as true. Based on this information, determine the truth value of (B) as a – True, b – False, c – Uncertain, d – Can’t be determined.
6. (A) All that glitters is not gold.
(B) Some glittering objects are not gold.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Uncertain
(d) Cannot be determined
7. (A) Some students are not intelligent.
(B) Some intelligent persons are not students.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Uncertain
(d) Cannot be determined
8. S is older than R and M is younger than K. P is younger than M but older than S. Who is the youngest ?
(a) S
(b) R
(c) P
(d) M
Directions (Qs. 9 and 10) : Choose the correct option.
9. Event A : There is hardly any visible activity in the city and shop are close.
Event B : Curfew has been declared in the city.
(a) If Event A is the effect Event B is its immediate and principal cause
(b) If Event A is the immediate and principal cause and Event B
(c) If Event A is an effect but Event B is not its immediate and principal cause.
(d) If Event B is an effect but Event A is not its immediate and principal cause.
10. Event A : There is a lot of political uncertainty in the country.
Event B : The country faces its worst economic crisis of the decade.
(a) If Event A is the effect Event B is its immediate and principal cause
(b) If Event A is the immediate and principal cause and Event B
(c) If Event A is an effect but Event B is not its immediate and principal cause.
(d) If Event B is an effect but Event A is not its immediate and principal cause.
11. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as DNNOVSFQ, which word be written as CQBHO ?
(a) BROD
(b) DPCGP
(c) BRADN
(d) BLADE
12. In a certain code, BOXER is written as AQWGQ. How is VISIT written in that code ?
(a) UKRKU
(b) UKRKS
(c) WKRKU
(d) WKRKS
Directions (Qs. 13 & 14) : Choose the correct option.
13. Statement :
Some rooms are stones.
All stones are radios.
Conclusion I:
Some rooms are radios.
Conclusion II:
Some stones are rooms.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If neither I nor II follows.
(d) If both I and II follow.
14. Statement:
All birds are trees.
Some hens are birds.
Conclusion I:
Some birds are hens.
Conclusion II:
All hens are trees.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If neither I nor II follow.
(d) If both I and II follow.
15. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
16. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Women, Mothers and Engineers ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Directions (Qs. 17 to 19) : Pick the odd man out from the options.
17. (a) Copper
(b) Tin
(c) Brass
(d) Platinum
18. (a) Mermaid
(b) Sphinx
(c) Unicorn
(d) Dinosaur
19. (a) 81 : 243
(b) 16 : 64
(c) 64 : 19
(d) 25 : 75
Directions (Qs. 20 & 21) : Choose the correct options.
20. Breeze : Cyclone : : Drizzle : ?
(a) Tsunami
(b) Storm
(c) Flood
(d) Downpour
21. Reading : Knowledge : : Work ?
(a) Experience
(b) Expense
(c) Employment
(d) Experiment
22. A goes for her morning walk at 6 O’clock towards sun for 2 km, then she turns to her right and walks 3 km. She again turns to her left and walks 2 km, finally she turns to her left to walk another 6 km. In which direction is she moving and at what distance from the last turn, she is standing ?
(a) 6 Km, East
(b) 9Km, East
(c) 6Km, North
(d) 9Km, North
Directions (Qs. 23 & 24) : Use the figure given below to answer these questions :
23. How many rectangles are there in this figure ?
(a) 60
(b) 55
(c) 50
(d) 42
24. How many triangles will be formed if diagonal AC is joined ?
(a) 30
(b) 27
(c) 20
(d) 42
Directions (Qs. 25) : This question consists of 6 statements (A, B, C, D, E & F) followed by options consisting of 3 statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument, i.e. the 3rd statement is a conclusion drawn from the earlier 2 statements.
25. A. Bricks are not green
B. Some bricks are red
C. All green things are hard
D. Some bricks are not hard
E. No brick is hard
F. Some green are red
(a) CEA
(b) BDC
(c) CBA
(d) EAC
Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET) General Awareness Question Paper and Answer Key
Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET)
Question Paper
General Awareness
1. What does ISRO’s MOM stands for ?
(a) Mars Orbiter Mission
(b) Mars Orderly Mission
(c) Mars Orbit Movement
(d) Mars Orbiter Motion
2. What is the full form of NASDAQ?
(a) National Association for Stock Dealing and Authorised Quotations
(b) National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations
(c) National Association for Stock Dealing and Automated Quotations
(d) None of the above
3. Bharatanatyam of Tamil Nadu in southern India has grown out of the art of dancers dedicated to temples, and was earlier known as
(a) Dasi Attam
(b) Natya Attam
(c) Shastra Attam
(d) None of the above
4. Jagoi and cholom are the two main divsions in which dance-the one gentle and the other vigorous, corresponding to the lasya and tandava elements described in Sanskrit literature?
(a) Manipuri
(b) Kathak
(c) Kathakali
(d) Rajasthani
5. Which of the following dance forms means ‘story play’ ?
(a) Manipuri
(b) Kathak
(c) Kathakali
(d) Rajasthani
6. Who received the Padma Vibhushan in 2012 for this contribution as an art cartoonist ?
(a) Late Mario de Miranda
(b) Late (Dr.) Bhupen Hazarika
(c) Dr. Kantilal Hastimal Sancheti
(d) Shri KG. Subramanyam
7. ____years was the age of Rudyard Kipling, best known for The Jungle Book, when he became the youngest Literature laureate ever.
(a) 42
(b) 44
(c) 45
(d) 56
8. Which of the following companies acquired Myntra, an Indian e-commerce firm ?
(a) Facebook
(b) Amazon
(c) Flipkart
(d) None of the above
9. Narendra Modi is the ____ Prime Minister of India.
(a) Eighteenth
(b) Twentieth
(c) Ninth
(d) Seventeenth
10. The Reserve Bank of India was established on
(a) April 1, 1935
(b) April 1, 1934
(c) April 1, 1933
(d) April 1, 1936
11. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act was passed in which year in India ?
(a) 2009
(b) 2010
(c) 2011
(d) 2008
12. Who wrote “Taxonomy of Educational Objectives” ?
(a) Benjamin Bloom
(b) R. H. Dave
(c) R. Paul
(d) None of the above
13. Which car manufacturing company’s logo features the circular design with the name of the company at the top of the outer ring. The inner quadrants featured the Bavarian Free State colors-but in the opposite order-as it was illegal to use national symbols in a commercial trademark ?
(a) Mercedes
(b) BMW
(c) Maruti Suzuki
(d) Audi
14. The National Flag of India was designed by
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Pingali Venkayyaa
15. Which colour in India’s tricolor national flag represents fertility, growth and auspiciousness of the land ?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Saffron
(d) White
16. Which of the following is considered as the World Environment Day ?
(a) June 5th
(b) July 5th
(c) August 5th
(d) September 5th
17. How often are the Olympic. Games held ?
(a) Every ten years
(b) Every four years
(c) Every six years
(d) Every twelve years
18. One of the world’s smallest countries, ____is a chain of some 1,200 small coral islands in the Indian Ocean southwest of India.
(a) Andaman
(b) Maldives
(c) Nicobar
(d) Sri Lanka
19. In what country did the Battle of Waterloo take place ?
(a) Belgium
(b) France
(c) Netherlands
(d) German
20. According to the Constitution of India, India, also known as ____, is a Union of States.
(a) Bharat
(b) Hindustan
(c) Hind
(d) India
21. Who is considered the Greek Goddess of Love ?
(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Aphrodite
(d) Moon
22. Fortuna is the ____ goddess of luck.
(a) Roman
(b) Greek
(c) Egyptian
(d) Indian
23. The Scottish Referendum No Vote happened during which of following UK Prime Minister’s office ?
(a) David Cameron
(b) Margarer Thatcher
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) Tony Blair
24. “Once, a legendary time ago, Lord Brahmna, the Creator of the Hindu Trinity, had flown over this land. Three petals had fallen from the lotus he carried and touched three places on the earth below. Miraculously, three lakes had appeared. Ever since then, people have gathered here in their thousands to bathe and worship on the anniversary of the Creator’s sacrifice.” Which place is being discussed here ?
(a) Pushkar
(b) Ujjain
(c) Kashi
(d) Nashik
25. Before he became the Vice President of India, Mohammad Hamid Ansari was
(a) A Diplomat
(b) An Academic
(c) Neither a. nor b.
(d) Both a. and b.
26. In what sport would one find an Albion round ?
(a) Tennis
(b) Polo
(c) Archery
(d) Badminton
27. Who invented flexible photographic film ?
(a) Linda Eastman
(b) George Eastman
(c) Louis Daguerre
(d) None of the above
28. In which country is Swahili widely spoken ?
(a) Libya
(b) Belgium
(c) Kenya
(d) Angola
29. Name the Geopolitical alliance formed by four large newly industrialized countries, namely Brazil, South Africa, India and China.
(a) East Asia Summit
(b) BASIC
(c) ASEAN + 3
(d) None of the above
30. Which of the following cities have most number of historical monuments ?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Kolkata
31. Bharat Ratna is the civilian award of Republic of India. It was recently conferred on
(a) Mr. Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Mr. Sourav Ganguly
(c) Mr. Virendra Sehwag
(d) None of the above
32. Name the party whose vote share has been lowest since Independence but has successfully achieved an absolute majority required to form the Government at the Centre :
(a) Indian Congress Party
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Bharatiya Janta Party
(d) All of the above
33. Diesel prices in India have seen deregulated, this resulted in reduction in price of diesel. This is the first price cut after
(a) January 2008
(b) January 2010
(c) January 2009
(d) None of the above
34. HDI is
(a) It is composite statistics of life expectancy, education and income indices used to rank countries.
(b) Index to rank countries on their inequalities in income
(c) Index to rank the countries on their education only
(d) All of the above
35.
The above picture is a National Emblem of
(a) USA
(b) USSR
(c) UK
(d) France
36. The Ozone layer protects us from harmful effects of ultra violet rays from Sun and is depleting. This is caused b y
(a) Man
(b) Pollution
(c) Nitrogen oxide
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons
37. The National Anthem for Bangladesh was composed by
(a) Bimal Guha
(b) Helal Hafiz
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) None of the above
38. ‘Jai Hind” the famous greeting was started by
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Subash Chandra Bose
39. What is the colour of black Flight Recorder ?
(a) Orange
(b) White
(c) Yellow
(d) Black
40. The Comptroller & Auditor General of India is appointed by the
(a) President of India
(b) Union Public Service
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Finance Commission
XLRI Entrance XAT 2016 Verbal and Logically Ability Question Paper and Answer Key
XAT (XLRI Entrance Test)
2016 Question Paper (Fully Solved)
XLRI Jamshedpur, School of Management
Verbal and Logically Ability
1. “Assumptions are analogous to the basic ingredients in a gourmet recipe. Only the final product of the recipe dictat3es whether the ingredients suffice …..”
Which of the following is ANALOGOUS to the statement above?
(A) Good wine needs no advertisement
(B) The apple never falls far from the tree!
(C) All is well that ends well!
(D) As you sow, so shall you reap!
(E) The proof of the pudding is in the eating!
2. Read the following poem and answer the question that follow :
I sought a soul in the sea
And found a coral there
Beneath the foam for me
An ocean was all laid bare,
Into my heart’s night
Along a narrow way
I groped; and lo! the light,
An infinite land of day.
Which of the following would best capture the ESSENCE of the poem above?
(A) What lies ‘outside’ is always deceptive.
(B) Pursue the narrow path and avoid the broadways.
(C) External search is futile; explore the inner space for answers.
(D) Heart’s pathways are broad and clear to find the destination.
(E) Light offers sight and insight.
3. Which of the following options best captures the relationship similar to INSPECT : VIVISECT?
(A) Enquire : Observe
(B) Inquire : Explore
(C) Investigate : Interrogate
(D) Query : Survey
(E) Question : Respond
4. The subject of this book is knavery, skullduggery, cheating, betrayal, unfairness, crime, sneakiness, malingering, cutting corner, immorality, dishonesty, betrayal, graft, wickedness, and sin.
Which of the following options best captures ALL the italicized words above?
(A) Aggressive behaviours
(B) Illegal behaviours
(C) Deviant behaviours
(D) Banned behaviours
(E) Vetoed behaviours
5. Read the following conversation OINOS: I can comprehend you thus far – that certain operations of what we term Nature, or the natural laws, will under certain conditions, give rise to that which has all the appearance of creation. Shortly before the final overthrow of the earth, there were, I well remember many very successful experiments in what some philosophers were weak enough to denominate the creation of
AGATHOS: The cases of which you speak were, in fact, instances of the secondary creation – and of the only species of creation which has ever been, since the first word spoke into existence the first law.
Which of the following options CANNOT be DEFINITELY inferred based on the above conversation?
(A) Agathos was explaining something related to creation to Oinos.
(B) At the time of conversation there was nothing called Earth.
(C) The creation of animalculae is a natural law.
(D) Natural laws are creations of philosophers.
(E) Law is a spoken word.
6. Consider the two related statements below :
Statement I:
Offices and positions for the marginalized sections should be open to those with greater savings among them.
Statement II:
Offices and positions must be open to everyone based on the principle of fair opportunity.
(A) Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections are incapable of saving.
(B) Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally exposed to all opportunities
(C) Statement II contradicts meritocracy.
(D) Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally intelligent.
(E) Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections always depend on subsidies.
7. This season will pass. The prime Minister may not win Lok Sabha elections, or she may; she may not continue as Prime Minister, or she may not continue as Prime Minister, or she may, The country will survive whatever the texture of politics in this decade or the next.
Which of the following, IF TRUE, will BEST reinforce the author’s view?
(A) The survival of any Prime Minister is dependent on the country’s economic growth.
(B) The country has a vibrant young working population.
(C) The survival of the country depends on a dynamic, growth-oriented Prime Minister, not on the texture of politics.
(D) The previous season had also witnessed similar political uncertainty.
(E) The survival of the Prime Minister is dependent on the political texture of the country.
8. …there is a degree of convergence in the definition of trust which can be summarized as follows: Trust is a particular level of the subjective probability with which an agent assesses that another agent or group of agents will perform a particular action. When we say we trust someone or that someone is trustyworthy, we implicitly mean that the probability that he will perform an action that is beneficial to us..
Which of the following statements BEST COMPLETES the passage above?
(A) is high enough for us to find out if he will cheat us.
(B) is high enough for us to consider engaging in some form of cooperation with him.
(C) is low enough for him not to engage in negative behavior against us.
(D) is high enough for us not to build defences against his possible aggression.
(E) is low enough for us to attack him.
9. The FIRST and the LAST sentences of the paragraph are numbered 1 & 6. The others, labeled as P< Q, R and S are given below :
1. Suppose I know someone, Smith.
P. One day you come to me and say: “Smith is in Cambridge.”
Q. I inquire, and find you stood at Guildhall and saw at the other end a man and said: “That was Smith”.
R. I’d say: “Listen. This isn’t sufficient evidence.”
S. I’ve heard that he has been killed in a battle in this war.
6. If we had a fair amount of evidence he was killed I would try to make you say that you’re being credulous.
Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?
(A) 1SPQR6
(B) 1RSPQ6
(C) 1PRSQ6
(D) 1QSRP6
(E) 1RQPS6
10. The FIRST and the LAST sentences of the paragraph are numbered 1 & 6. The others, labeled as P, Q, R and S are given below:
1. The word “symmetry” is used here with a special meaning, and therefore needs to be defined.
P. For instance, if we look at a vase that is left and right symmetrical, then turn it 180° around the vertical axis, it looks the same.
Q. When we have a picture symmetrical, one side is somehow the same as the other side.
R. When is a thing symmetrical-how can we define it?
S. Professor Herman Weyl has given this definition of symmetry: a thing is symmetrical if one can subject it to a certain operation and it appears exactly the same after operation.
6. She shall adopt the definition of symmetry in Weyl’s more general form, and in that form we shall discuss symmetry of physical laws.
Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?
(A) 1PQRS6
(B) 1QRRSP6
(C) 1RQPS6
(D) 1RQSP6
(E) 1SPQR6
11. In recent past, Indian football team has lost most of the matches in international football tournaments. The most successful coaches in Indian club football tournaments are form Latin American countries. In most of the Latin American countries, football is more popular sport than cricket.
From the passage above, choose the correct option :
(A) It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “In India” cr3icket is more popular than football”
(B) It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “Most Latin American countries are successful at football”.
(C) It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “in recent past, coaches of Indian football teams are not from Latin America”.
(D) It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “European football coaches are less successful than their Latin American counterparts for Indian national team.”
(E) It cannot be DEFINITELY concluded that “The more popular a sport the better the chance of producing a successful coach in that sport.”
12. Choose the best pronunciation of the word, Sobriquet, from the following options:
(A) soh-bri-key
(B) sub-rry-ka
(C) sob-bee-ri-kwet
(D) soub-rick-kaat
(E) sob-rik-kwet
Directions (Qs. 13 to 15) : Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for these questions.
Advances in economic theory in the 1970s and 1980s illuminated the limits of markets; they showed that unfettered markets do not lead to economic efficiency whenever information is imperfect or markets are missing (for instance, good insurance markets to cover the key risks confronting individuals). And information is always imperfect and markets are always incomplete. Nor3 do markets, by themselves, necessarily lead to economic efficiency when the task of a country is to absorb new technology, to close the “knowledge gap”: a central feature of development. Today, most academic economists agree that markets, by themselves, do not lead to efficiency; the question is whether government can improve matters.
While it is difficult for economists to perform experiments to rest their theories, as a chemist or a physicist might, the world provides a vast array of natural experiments as dozens of countries try different strategies. Unfortunately, because each country differs in its history and circumstances and in the myriad of details in the policies-and details do matter-it is often difficult to get a clear interpretation. What is clear, however, is that there have been marked differences in performance, that the most successful countries have been those in Asia, and that in most of the Asian countries, government played a very active role. As we look more carefully at the effects of particular policies, these conclusions are reinforced: there is a remarkable congruence between what economic theory says government should do and what the East Asian governments actually did. By the same token, the economic theories based on imperfect information and incomplete risk markets that predicted that the free flow of shorter capital-a key feature of markets fundamentalist policies – would produce not growth but instability have also been borne out.
13. “… whether government can improve matters”. Here ‘matters’ indicates
(A) Economic efficiency
(B) Information imperfectness
(C) Knowledge gaps
(D) Good insurance markets
(E) Incomplete risk markets
14. Which of the following options CANNOT be inferred from the above passage ?
(A) Free flow of short-term capital might fail to ensure economic growth.
(B) Insurance market is a proof that ‘markets, by themselves, do not lead to efficiency’.
(C) It is difficult to interpret the success of economic policies of Asian countries.
(D) Technology can impede market efficiency.
(E) State intervention and imperfect information can never go hand-in-hand.
15. Which of the following statements BEST captures the ESSENCE of the two paragraphs in the above passage?
(A) Paragraph I and Paragraph II are parallel arguments that are unrelated.
(B) Paragraph I describes markets in general whereas Paragraph II describes market failures in Asian economics in particular.
(C) Paragraph I explains why markets fail. Paragraph II spells out why market-based economic theories fail to explain success of Asian economics.
(D) Paragraph I raises question and Paragraph II answers it.
(E) Paragraph I states an economic theory and Paragraph II cites a natural experiment to disprove it.
Directions (Qs. 16 to 19) : Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for these questions :
An effective way of describing what interpersonal communication is or is not, is perhaps to capture the underlying beliefs using specific game analogies.
Communication as Bowling: The bowling model of message delivery is probably the most widely held view of communication. I think that’s unfortunate. This model sees the bowler as the sender, who delivers the ball, which is the message. As it rolls down the lane (the channel), clutter on the boards (noise) may deflect the ball (the message). Yet if it is aimed well, the ball strikes the passive pins (the target audience) with a predictable effect. In this one-way model of communication, the speaker (bowler) must take care to select a precisely crafted message (ball) and practice diligently to deliver it the same way every time,. Of course, that makes sense only if target listeners are interchangeable, static pins waiting to be bowled over by our words-which they aren’t.
This has led some observes to propose an interactive model of interpersonal communication.
Communication as Ping-Pong: Unlike bowling, Ping-Pong is not a solo game. This fact alone makes it a better analogy for interpersonal communication. One party puts the conversational b al in play, and the other gets into position to receive. It takes more concentration and skill to receive than to serve because while the speaker (server) knows where the message is going, the listener (receiver) doesn’t. Like a verbal or nonverbal message, the ball may appear straightforward yet have a deceptive spin.
Ping-Pong is a back-and-forth game; players switch roles continuously. One moment the person holding the paddle is an initiator; the next second the same player is a responder, gauging the effectiveness of his or her shot by the way the ball comes back. The repeated adjustment essential for good play closely parallels the feedback process described in a number of interpersonal communication theories.
Communication as Dumb Charades. The game of charades best captures the simultaneous and collaborative nature of interpersonal communication. A charade is neither in action, like bowling a strike, nor an interaction, lie a rally in Ping-Pong. It’s a transaction.
Charades is a mutual game; the actual play is cooperative. One member draws a title or slogan from a batch of possibilities and then tries to act it out visually for teammates in a silent mini drama. The goal is to get at least one partner to say the exact words that are on the slip of paper. Of course, the actor is prohibited from talking out loud.
Suppose you drew the saying “God helps those who help themselves.” For God you might try folding your hands and gazing upward. For helps you could act out offering a helping hand or giving a leg-up boost over a fence. By pointing at a number of real or imaginary people you may elicit a response of them, and by this point a partner may shout out, “God helps those who help themselves.” Success.
Like charades, interpersonal communication is a mutual, on-going process of sending, receiving, and adapting verbal and nonverbal messages with another person to create and alter the images in both of our minds. Communication between us begins when there is some overlap between two images, and is effective to the extent that overlap increases. But even if our mental pictures are congruent, communication will be partial as long as we interpret them differently. The idea that “God helps those who help themselves” could strike one person as a hollow promise, while the other might regard it as a divine stamp of approval for hard work.
Dumb Charade goes beyond the simplistic analogy of bowing and ping-pong. It views interpersonal communications as a complex transaction in which overlapping message simultaneously affect and are affected by the other person and multiple other factors.
16. The meaning CLOSEST to ‘interchangeable’ in the ‘Communication as Bowling’ paragraph is:
(A) Complementary
(B) Contiguous
(C) Conforming
(D) Compatible
(E) Comparable
17. Which of the following options is the CLOSEST to the necessary condition of communication.
(A) Threshold overlap of shared images
(B) Simultaneous exchange
(C) Ability to stimulate effect
(D) Ability to enact a drama
(E) Ability to elicit a response
18. The two inherent LIMITATIONS of Ping-Pong as a metaphor for communication are:
(A) It is governed by conventions with possibility for appeal; it has clear rules.
(B) The operating model in win-lose because only one individual or team can win; the receiver can always predict the spin.
(C) The number of players is limited as very few can be meaningfully engaged at a time; the rules of the game are fixed by the regulators.
(D) It demands more skills of the receiver than of the speaker; it is as passive as bowling.
(E) Real life communications is like Dumb Charade wish multiple players; there are multiple balls used in Dumb Charade.
19. Action, interaction and transaction is CLOSEST to:
(A) Advertising, Buyer negotiating with a seller, Bidding for a player in Indian Premier League.
(B) Preparing an election manifesto, Addressing a public gathering, Engaging in door-to-door canvassing.
(C) Preparing for MBA entrance exam, Writing the MBA entrance exam, Facing an interview for business school.
(D) Applying for learner licence, Negotiating with a driving school, driving a car.
(E) Negotiating overseas posting, Applying for visa, Undertaking a journey.
Directions (Qs. 20 to 22): Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for these questions :
Each piece, or part, of the whole of nature is always merely an approximation to the complete truth, or the complete truth so far as we know it. In fact, everything we know is only some kind of approximation, because we know that we do not know all the laws as yet. Therefore, things must be learned only to be unlearned again or, more likely, to be corrected.
The principle of science, the definition, almost, is the following: The test of all knowledge is experiment. Experiment is the sole judge of scientific “truth”. But what is the source of knowledge? Where do the laws that are to be tested come from? Experiment, itself, helps to produce these laws, in the sense that it gives us hints. But also needed is imagination to create from these hints the great generalizations- to guess at the wonderful, simple, but very strange patterns beneath them all, and then to experiment to check again whether we have made the right guess. This imagining process is so difficult that the4re is a division of labour in physics: there are theoretical physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess at new laws, but do not experiment; and then there are experimental physicists who experiment, imagine, deduce, and guess.
We said that the laws of nature are approximate: that we first find the “wrong” ones, and then we find the “right” ones. Now, how can an experiment be “wrong”? First, in a trivial way: the apparatus can be faulty and you did no notice. But these things are easily fixed and checked back and forth. So without snatching at such minor things, how can the results of an experiment be wrong? Only by being inaccurate. For example, the mass of an object never seems to change; a spinning top has the same weight as a still one. So a “law” was invented: mass is constant, independent of speed. That “law” is now found to be incorrect. Mass is found to increase with velocity, but appreciable increase requires velocities near that of light. A true law is: if an object moves with a speed of less than one hundred miles a second the mass is constant to within one part in a million. In some such approximate form this is a correct law. So in practice one might think that the new law makes no significant difference. Well, yes and n. For ordinary speeds we can certainly forget it and use the simple constant mass law as a good approximation. But for high speeds we are wrong, and the higher the speed, the more wrong we are.
Finally, and most interesting, philosophically we are completely wrong with the approximate law. Our entire picture of the world has to be altered even though the mass changes only by a little bit. This is a very peculiar thing about the philosophy, or the ides, behind the laws. Even a very small effect sometimes requires profound changes to our ideas.
20. Which of the following options is DEFINITELY NOT an approximation to the complete truth ?
(A) I know that I know.
(B) I know that I do not know.
(C) I know what I know.
(D) I know what I do not know.
(E) I know that others do not know.
21. Consider the two statements from the passage:
Statement I:
The mass of an object never seems to change.
Statement II:
Mass is found to increase with velocity. Which of the following options CANNOT be concluded from the above passage?
(A) Both statements I and II are approximation to the complete truth.
(B) Both statements I and II are complete truth so far as we now.
(C) Statement I is an approximation to the complete truth but Statement II is complete truth.
(D) Statement I reveals that experimental physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess are philosophically wrong.
(E) Statement II shows that theoretical physicists can pinpoint the shortcomings of experimental physicists.
22. ‘Big Bang’ is a popular theory related to the origin of the universe. It states that the universe was the outcome of a big bang that released enormous energy.
Which of the following is the MOST PROBABLE inference about the big bang theory?
(A) Big Bang Theory was first proposed by experimental physicists.
(B) Bi9g Bang Theory was first proposed by theoretical physicists.
(C) Big Bang Theory was first proposed by experimental physicists and then deuced by theoretical physicists.
(D) Philosophers got the Big Bang theory wrong.
(E) Big Bang theory is not an approximation of the complete truth.
Directions (Qs. 23 to 26): Analyze the following passage and provide appropriate answers for these questions :
The base of Objectivism according to Ayan Rand is explicit : “Existence exists-and the act of grasping that statement implies two corollary axioms: that something exists which one perceives and that one exists possessing consciousness, consciousness being the faculty of perceiving that which exists.”
Existence and consciousness are facts implicit in every perception. They are the base of all knowledge (and the precondition of proof): knowledge presupposes something to know and someone to know it. They are absolutes which cannot be questioned or escaped: every human utterance, including the denial of these axioms, implies their use and acceptance.
The third axiom at the base of knowledge- an axiom true in Aristotle’s words of “being qua being”-is the Law of Identity. This law defines the essence of existence: to be is to be something, a thing is what it is; and leads to the fundamental principle of all actions, the law of causality. The law of causality states that a thing’s actions are determined not by chance, but by its nature, i.e. by what it is.
It is important to observe the interrelation of these three axioms. Existence is the first axiom. The universe exists independent of consciousness. Man is able to adapt his background to his own requirements, but “Nature to be commanded, must b e obeyed” (Francis Bacon). There is no mental process that can change the laws of nature or erase facts. The function of consciousness is not to create reality but to apprehend it. “Existence is Identity, Consciousness is Identification.”
23. Which of the following is DEFINETELY CORRECT according to the passage.
(A) Only what can be perceived exists.
(B) What exists is perceived.
(C) All that exists does not have consciousness.
(D) Consciousness makes perception of being possible.
(E) Something to be known and someone to know are the condition sime qua non for existence.
24. Which of the following is the ESSENCE of ‘The Law of Causality’?
(A) To be is to be something ‘being qua being’.
(B) Wishing to become something else denies the nature of that being.
(C) The law of identity is the same as the law of causality.
(D) Essence of existence.
(E) Actions of a being are determined by its nature.
25. Which of the following can be best captured as ‘Identity’ and “Identification” ?
(A) College as identity; perception of cultural events as identification.
(B) Twitter as identity; perception of Twitter as identification.
(C) Government as identity; perception of taxation of citizens as identifications.
(D) Marriage as identity; perception of children as identification.
(E) MBA as identity; perception of campus placement as identification.
26. The author would interpret Francis Bacon’s “Nature to be commanded, must be obeyed” as :
(A) Reality should not be modified or escaped but faced.
(B) Man’s existence depends on nature’s whims.
(C) Essentially and objectively nature is superior to humans.
(D) Obstacles are better circumvented than confronted.
(E) Before channeling nature one must first comply with it.
Reproduction of Change.org Petition for Regulating Entrance Exam Fees
The Petition at Change.org for regulating Govt and Private University Engineering, medical and other entrance exam fees is reproduced below:
Regulate and Control Private University and Govt. Entrance Exam Fees
A recent article in Times of India titled “Multiple entrance tests exhaust students, fill university coffers” by Dean of a reputed South Indian University is eye opener and if not acted upon will disrupt socio-economic fabric and increase inequality in the education system of our country.
After 10+2, students of our country writes many exams conducted by either CBSE or Private Universities. Examples of such examinations are:
Engineering Category: JEE Main, JEE Advanced, BITSAT, VITEEE, SRMJEEE, AMRITA EE, MANIPAL EE and many state level university entrance tests.
Medical Category: NEET UG, JIPMER, AIIIMS, SRM ME, MANIPAL ME, AMRITA ME and many state level University medical entrance.
Other Entrance Tests: NEST by NISER, IISER for IIIT admission, CLAT Law Entrance for Law graduation, ICAR Agriculture Course Entrance and many more.
While each of these tests demands minimum Rs.500 (Govt.) upto 2000 (Govt and Private) as entrance exam fees, a student has to incur a cost of 15,000 to 20,000 for attending various entrance tests across our country. Some Universities with less than 1000 seats to offer gets more than 2 lacs entrance application collecting 20 Crores in examination fee. They spend few lakhs in online test system by engaging Small private companies having 50/60 computers and inadequate testing environment. Some universities continues their test for 15 to 20 days continuously in these test centres for accomodating large number of students in small testing centres.
Some Private Universities charging Rs.2000/- for Engineering Admission with 3 to 4 campuses in India. The fees are not justified based on the number of seats they offer and the expenses incurred by them. This is a practice to get more money from entrance test rather than admission and teaching.
Even Government Organisations partnering with Private Software Companies charge hefty amount for national level entrance tests. For example CBSE NEET charges Rs.1400/- for GEN/OBC and Rs.750/- for SC / ST/ PH candidates for an one sitting exam of three hours.
Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) conducted by National Law Universities in India charges Rs.4000/- from one candidate to appear the entrance test. Is this high amount justified?
Many poor and middle class families in smaller towns and rural areas even can not afford these multiple entrance tests conducted by Government organisations whereas only affluent students can afford to pay the fees of multiple tests.
My appeal to Honourable MHRD Minister Shri. Prakash Javadekar to look into the issue and regulate either the number of entrance tests or maximum fees chargeable to students by any University.
To Support the petition, please sign it at Change.org
This petition will be delivered to:
- MHRD Minister Shri. Prakash Javadekar
- Ministry of Human Resource Development, India
MHRD
Uttarakhand P.S.C Forest Range Officer Examination 2015 General Studies Question Paper and Answer Key
Uttarakhand P.S.C Forest Range Officer Exam., 2015
General Studies
1. Viren Dagwal was awarded Sahitya Academy Award for his book –
(A) Syahi Tai
(B) Isi Duniya Mein
(C) Dushchakra Mein Srishta
(D) Kal Ki Baat
2. Environmental Conservation Programme launched by the Government of Uttarakhand, during the Harela Festival-2015, is known as –
(A) Hamara Paudha, Hamara Paisa
(B) Hariyali
(C) Ped Bachao
(D) Hamara Ped, Hamara Dhan
3. In which of the following State of America, is the Silicon Valley situated ?
(A) Florida
(B) California
(C) Texas
(D) Colorado
4. ‘Hamari Dharohar’ scheme in India is introduced to-
(A) promote survival, protection and education of girl child
(B) provide day care services to children of working women
(C) improve language development by creating interest in reading and writing
(D) preserve rich heritage of minority communities of India
5. The golden rule of fiscal policy is that the governments are expected to borrow over the cycle to finance –
(A) Current expenditure
(B) Old loans
(C) Investments
(D) Imported consumer goods
6. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends minimum support prices at national level for –
(A) 20 crops
(B) 22 crops
(C) 23 crops
(D) 25 crops
7. Which metals is found at the following places-Hutti, Kolar and Ramgiri in India ?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Copper
(C) Silver
(D) Gold
8. Agricultural credit flow target b y Government of India for 2014-15 has been fixed at –
(A) Rs. 6,00,000 crore
(B) Rs. 8,00,000 crore
(C) Rs. 7,00,000 crore
(D) Rs. 9,00, 000 crore
9. Which of the following is dubbed as a ‘living fossil’ ?
(A) Sphenodon
(B) Toad
(C) Echidna
(D) Crocodile
10. Which of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the President of India ?
(A) Returning back an ordinary bill for reconsideration
(B) Returning back a money bill for reconsideration
(C) Dissolution of Lok Sabha
(D) Summoning of the session of the Rajya Sabha
11. Upto what age, can the judges of Supreme Court serve ?
(A) 62 years
(B) 68 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 70 years
12. What is the normal tenure of a Panchayat ?
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 2 years
(D) 5 years
13. Economically the most important rocks in India are –
(A) Gondwana rocks
(B) Dharwar rocks
(C) Vindhyan rocks
(D) Cuddpha rocks
14. Gandak river is associated with one of the following river systems –
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Indus
(C) Ganga
(D) None of the above
15. At what altitude are Alpine forests found ?
(A) 1800-2000 m
(B) 900-1800 m
(C) 2000-2500 m
(D) 2900-3500 m
16. Where is the First Biosphere Reserve of India is located ?
(A) Nilgiri
(B) Nanda Devi
(C) Sunder van
(D) Great Nicobar
17. The maximum rainfall in India is received from-
(A) South-West monsoon
(B) Retreating monsoon
(C) North-Eastern monsoon
(D) Cyclones
18. Integral coach factory is located at-
(A) Varanasi
(B) Chitranjan
(C) Gorakhpur
(D) Permabur
19. Who among the following deciphered the Mauryan Brahmi for the first time ?
(A) William Jones
(B) James Princep
(C) Alexander Cunningham
(D) John Marshall
20. Which Indian National Park is famous for Rhinoceros population ?
(A) Kaziranga
(B) Jim Corbett
(C) Ranthambor
(D) Bannerghatta
21. Which of the following term was not mentioned in Rig Veda ?
(A) Jana
(B) Janapada
(C) Samgrama
(D) Gram
22. Bhimbetaka is famous for –
(A) Pre-historic paintings
(B) Stupas
(C) Sculptures
(D) Temples
23. The copper coin called Jital was issued by –
(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Balban
(D) Iltutmish
24. Who wrote Jahangir Chandrika ?
(A) Keshava Das
(B) Kishandas
(C) Rammanohar Lal
(D) Jadrup Gusain
25. During the Mughal period Mansabdari system was related to-
(A) Justice
(B) Trade
(C) Military administration
(D) Religious affairs
26. Shivaji’s administration had –
(A) Asht Adhayaksha
(B) Asht Sachiva
(C) Asht Pramukha
(D) Asht Pradhana
27. Mahalwari system was related to-
(A) Education
(B) Land revenue
(C) Community system
(D) Trade
28. In which of the following session of the Round Table Conference, did Indian National Congress participate ?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) First and third
(D) Third
29. The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) was set up in the year –
(A) 1973 A.D.
(B) 1930 A.D.
(C) 1920 A.D.
(D) 1927 A.D.
30. Who founded the Indian Natal Congress ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) B.G. Tilak
(D) Motilal Nehru
31. Which party declared 16th August, 1946 A.D. as the Direct Action Day ?
(A) Swaraj Party
(B) Indian National Congress
(C) Muslim League
(D) None of the above
32. Which of the following statements about the Simon Commission are false ?
1. The Commission had five members.
2. The Commission had seven members.
3. Liberal Federation supported the Commission.
4. Hindu Mahasabha opposed the Commission.
(A) 1 and 3
(B) Only 2
(C) 2 and 4
(D) Only 3
33. Which of the following Act made a provision for setting up a Public Service Commission in India ?
(A) Act of 1909 C.E.
(B) Act of 1935 C.E.
(C) Act of 1942 C.E.
(D) Act of 1947 C.E.
34. In which year was the ‘All India Women Conference’ established ?
(A) 1905 C.E.
(B) 1920 C.E.
(C) 1927 C.E.
(D) 1930 C.E.
35. Which of the following sub-caste is not based on place name ?
(A) Dobhal
(B) Naithani
(C) Gururani
(D) Joshi
36. Which of the following Rajput sub-caste is considered as a Suryavanshi ?
(A) Rautela
(B) Pal
(C) Chand
(D) Panwar
37. In the temple of a local deity of Uttarakhand, people appeal for justice through letters. Which is that deity ?
(A) Golu Dev
(B) Bokhnag
(C) Haruheet
(D) Manibhadra
38. Which local deity in Garhwal region is known as ‘Chalanda’ (wandering) ?
(A) Badrinath
(B) Mahasu
(C) Harjyu
(D) Sirgul
39. Who composed the ‘Gadrajya-vanshaka Itihas ?
(A) Mola Ram
(B) Ratankavi
(C) Swami Shashidhar
(D) Gumani Pant
40. Which of the following is not a folk-dance song ?
(A) Tandi
(B) Thadya
(C) Chaufula
(D) Khuderh
41. Generally the time-span of the Kumbh-mela in Hardwar, is considered to be –
(A) Basant Panchmi to Ganga Dushera
(B) Makarsankranti to Vaishakhi
(C) Mahashivratri to Ganga Dushera
(D) Maghpurnima to Akshaya Tritiya
42. Who is the central character of Hiljatra folk play ?
(A) Lakhiyabhuta
(B) Shiva
(C) Gaura
(D) Ranbhuta
43. Which of the following is more famous for skiing ?
(A) Mussoorie
(B) Nainital
(C) Pindari
(D) Auli
44. Which thype of musical instruments are ‘Turi’ and ‘Ransinga’ ?
(A) Avananddha Vadya
(B) Sushirvadya
(C) Ghanvadya
(D) Tatvadya
45. The prevalent term for ‘Alpana’, a folk art of Uttarakhand, is
(A) Aipan
(B) Rangoli
(C) Thapa
(D) Jyunti
46. In which year the publication of ‘Garhwal Samachar’ did start ?
(A) 1900 A.D.
(B) 1902 A.D.
(C) 1908 A.D.
(D) 1918 A.D.
47. Which place of Kumaon is famous for ‘Rangwali-Pichhaurhi’ ?
(A) Almora
(B) Haldwani
(C) Rudrapur
(D) Kashipur
48. To whom is the Devbhumi Dronacharya Award given ?
(A) Player
(B) Coach
(C) Referee
(D) Captain of the team
49. Himalayan mountain system originated out of the following geosynclines –
(A) Ural geosyncline
(B) Rocky geosyncline
(C) Tethese geosynclines
(D) None of the above
50. In how many districts of Uttarakhand the greater Himalaya is spread over ?
(A) 3 districts
(B) 4 districts
(C) 6 districts
(D) 5 districts
51. Which one of the following is not a tributary of river Alaknanda ?
(A) Bhilangana
(B) Pinder
(C) Mandakini
(D) Nandakini
52. Which part of the Uttarakhand does receive maximum rain during rainy season ?
(A) Sub-Himalaya
(B) Outer Himalaya
(C) Bhavar
(D) Tarai
53. Which one of the following is a major cash crop of Uttarakhand ?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Tobacco
54. Out of the following crops which one occupies the major part of the net sown area in Uttarakhand ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Pulses
55. Which one of the following combinations of the districts, shows the correct sequence of magnesite deposits in Uttarakhand ?
(A) Bagheshwar, Pithoragarh, Chamoli
(B) Dehradun, Tehri Garhwal, Bageshwar
(C) Uttarakashi, Rudraprayang, Nainital
(D) Champawat, Udham Singh Nagar, Pauri Garhwal
56. The natural disaster that took place in Uttarakashi on 20th October, 1991 was due to
(A) Landslide
(B) Flood
(C) Earthquake
(D) Cloud-burst
57. The system of Chattis Rakam Battis Kalam was abolished by –
(A) The Chand rulers
(B) The Gorkha rulers
(C) The British administrators
(D) None of the above
58. Tarai district was formed in –
(A) 1842 A.D.
(B) 1839 A.D.
(C) 1892 A.D.
(D) 1857 A.D.
59. Tenth settlement report of Garhwal district was prepared by –
(A) V. A. Stowell
(B) E. K. Pauw
(C) H. G. Walton
(D) J.J. Martin
60. The share of Zamindar in the harvested crop in Tehri state was known as –
(A) Sawani ser
(B) Rahdari
(C) Prabhu Seva
(D) Tihar
61. Who has the control over civil forests in Uttarakhand ?
(A) District Magistrate
(B) District Forest Officer
(C) Commissioner
(D) None of the above
62. Which of the following posts was hereditary ?
(A) Peshkar
(B) Padhan
(C) Tahsildar
(D) None of the above
63. Which of the following is a Kharif Crop ?
(A) Manduwa
(B) Paddy
(C) Jhangora
(D) All of the above
64. Which of the following tribe of Uttarakhand is mainly involved in the sheep rearing ?
(A) Bhotiya
(B) Raji
(C) Tharu
(D) Boksha
65. G. B. Plant University of Agriculture and Technology was named in the memory of Govind Ballabh Pant ?
(A) 1970 A.D.
(B) 1970 A.D.
(C) 1965 A.D.
(D) 1967 A.D.
66. The wide scale movement for the abolition of Coolie-Begar pratha on 13th January, 1921 A.D. took place at-
(A) Karnaprayag
(B) Dwarhat
(C) Ranibagh
(D) Bageshwar
67. What is ‘Patha’ ?
(A) A traditional pot to measure the length
(B) A traditional pot to drink water
(C) A traditional pot to measure the quantity of again.
(D) A traditional pot to measure the wool
68. The term Mutthi is a unit to measure the-
(A) Oil
(B) Land
(C) Cloth
(D) None of the above
69. Who was the Speaker of the First Elected Legislative Assembly of Uttarakhand ?
(A) Prakash Pant
(B) Harbansh Kapur
(C) Govind Singh Kunjwal
(D) Yashpal Arya
70. In which district of Uttarakhand is Gairsain situated ?
(A) Almora
(B) Bageshwar
(C) Chamoli
(D) Rudaprayag
71. The President of India, who granted his consent, to the Bill of Creation of Uttarakhand State was
(A) R. Venkatraman
(B) K. R. Narayanan
(C) Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
72. On the basis of formation, Uttarakhand is the-
(A) 27th State of Indian Union
(B) 26th State of Indian Union
(C) 28th State of Indian Union
(D) 29th State of Indian Union
73. The Chief Justice of Uttarakhand who also became the Chief Justice of India-
(A) Justice Ashok A. Desai
(B) Justice P.C. Verma
(C) Justice Barin Ghosh
(D) Justice S.H. Kapadia
74. The number of Rajya Sabha members from Uttarakhand is-
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) five
75. ‘Ganga Gai Mahila Dairy’ scheme was launched in Uttarakhand by-
(A) B.C. Khanduri
(B) B.S. Koshiyari
(C) N.D. Tiwari
(D) Harish Rawat
76. Who was the first Chairman of the Uttarakhand Public Service Commission ?
(A) N.P. Navani
(B) S.K. Das
(C) Lt. Gen. G.S. Negi
(D) Lt. Gen. M.C. Bhandari
77. Who is the propounder of the ‘Green School’ concept ?
(A) Sachidanand Bharti
(B) Virendra Rawat
(C) Jeet Singh Negi
(D) Govind Lal Shah
78. Tiladi massacre took place on-
(A) 30th May, 1930 C.E.
(B) 20th May, 1932 C.E.
(C) 30th May, 1931 C.E.
(D) 30th May, 1929 C.E.
79. Which sect did not register its entry at all in Uttarakhand ?
(A) Kabeer Panth
(B) Satynath Panth
(C) Vairagi Panth
(D) Nastik Panth
80. Which of the following combinations is not correct ?
(A) Srinagar – Ajaipal
(B) Tehri – Sudarshan Shah
(C) Almora – Kanakpal
(D) Chandpurgarhi – Bhanupratap
81. Where did the Mughal Prince Suleman Shikoh take shelter out of the followings ?
(A) Garhwal
(B) Kumaun
(C) Nepal
(D) Himachal
82. The King of Garhwal who was killed after being defeated by Gorkhas was-
(A) Sudarshan Shah
(B) Pradyumna Shah
(C) Pradeep Shah
(D) Fatehpati Shah
83. Paun-Tuti was-
(A) An idol
(B) A coin
(C) A tax
(D) A building
84. Who among the following was not a freedom fighter ?
(A) Gaura Devi
(B) Mahaveer Tyagi
(C) Govind Ballabh Pant
(D) H.N. Bahuguna
85. Which of the following combinations is not correctly matched ?
(A) Lansdowne – Garhwal Rifles
(B) Ranikhet – Gorkha Regiment
(C) Dehradun – Indian Military Academy
(D) Chamba – Gabar Singh Memorial Monument
86. Which of the following places is a famous Muslim religious place ?
(A) Kailapeer – Budha Kedar
(B) Peergaddi – Devalgarh
(C) Peeran Kaliar – Roorkee
(D) Sidh Bali – Kotdwar
87. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?
(A) Jim Corbett – Politician
(B) B.D. Pande – Historian
(C) E.T. Atkinson – Artist
(D) Mohan Upreti – Engineer
88. Tenth World Hindi Conference was held at –
(A) New Delhi
(B) Bhopal
(C) Wardha
(D) Raipur
89. ‘SAI’ is related to-
(A) Space
(B) Science
(C) Defence
(D) Sports
90. The software, which allows you to view the webpage, is called –
(A) Website
(B) Web Browser
(C) Interpreter
(D) Operating System
91. Which of the following is not an output device ?
(A) Plotter
(B) Printer
(C) Monitor
(D) Scanner
92. In fiber-optics, the signal source is-
(A) Light waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) α-rays
(D) Cosmic rays
93. In processing cheques which of the following I/O techniques to the banks, generally, follow ?
(A) OCR
(B) MICR
(C) Barcode
(D) VRT
94. Which of the following is not scalar quantity ?
(A) Time
(B) Volume
(C) Density
(D) Momentum
95. Polio is caused by-
(A) Fungus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Virus with single stranded RNA
(D) Virus with single stranded DNA
96. The gases, responsible for the acid rain are-
(A) SO2 and NO2
(B) Ne and Argon
(C) Ne and He
(D) H2 and He
97. The metal present in Vitamin B12 is-
(A) Cobalt
(B) Magnesium
(C) Iron
(D) Copper
98. The first commercial product produced through genetic engineering is-
(A) Paracetamol
(B) Aspirin
(C) Insulin
(D) None of the above
99. Which of the following terms is related to rearing of honey-bees ?
(A) Sericulture
(B) Pisciculture
(C) Tissue culture
(D) Apiculture
100. According to Urban Development Ministry of Government of India which city has been declared the Cleanest City of India for the year 2014-15 ?
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Mysore
(C) Shimla
(D) Dharamshala
S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level Tier-I Examination Held on 2-9-2016 General Awareness & General Intelligence Question Paper and Answer Key
S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level Tier-I Exam., 2016
Held on 2-9-2016
General Awareness
1. Which of the following is known as the Manchester of South India ?
(A) Kochi
(B) Vishakapatnam
(C) Coimbatore
(D) Bangalore
2. Who was the flag bearer of India at Rio Olympics 2016 ?
(A) P.V. Sindhu
(B) Jwala Gutta
(C) Yogeshwar Dutt
(D) Abhinav Bindra
3. Which of the following is the first cricketer to score 1000 runs in an innings ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Vinod Kamble
(C) Pranav Dhanawade
(D) Virat Kholi
4. Which of the following is the largest irrigation plan in India ?
(A) Buckingham Canal
(B) Indira Gandhi Canal
(C) Upper Ganges Canal
(D) Tajewala Canal
5. The soil of Kerala is rich in which of the following soils ?
(A) Alluvial Soil
(B) Laterite Soil
(C) Sandy Soil
(D) Loamy Soil
6. Which of the process is known as nitrification ?
(A) Reaction of Nitrogen Monoxide with oxygen to form nitric acid
(B) Reaction of nitrogen dioxide with water to form nitric acid
(C) Conversion of ammonia to nitrites
(D) Conversion of nitrite to nitric oxide
7. Asbestos is found maximum in which of the following countries ?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Africa
(D) Russia
8. Which country announces the imposition of a three-month state emergency after failed coup ?
(A) Turkey
(B) Syria
(C) Sudan
(D) Iran
9. Beighton Cup is related to which of the following sport ?
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Cricket
10. Sun temple is situate in which of the following states ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Gujarat
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
11. The growth of bacteria is measured by –
(A) hemacytometer
(B) spectrophotometer
(C) calorimeter
(D) auxanometer
12. The sideways erosion which widens the river valley called ?
(A) Lateral Corrosion
(B) Vertical Corrosion
(C) Side Corrosion
(D) Mean Corrosion
13. The Constitution-
(A) is silent on the President’s re-election to the office
(B) allows re-election of a person to the President’s post
(C) restricts a person to remain President for only two terms
(D) has been amended to allow a person only one term as President
14. Smooth muscles are likely to be found in-
(A) muscles of legs
(B) muscles of arms
(C) stomach
(D) heart
15. Synagogue is the place of worship of-
(A) Zoroastrianism
(B) Taoism
(C) Judaism
(D) Shintoism
16. The civilian airport of highest altitude is in-
(A) Tibet
(B) Nepal
(C) India
(D) China
17. The branch of biology which deals with extinct organisms is called-
(A) Palynology
(B) Phylogeny
(C) Palaeobotany
(D) Palaentology
18. The least distance of distinct vision is-
(A) 35 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 45 cm
(D) 15 cm
19. When will demand become a grant ?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the budget session is closed
20. Summer rains in Australia broadly decreases from-
(A) east to west
(B) west to east
(C) north to south
(D) south to north
21. The blue revolution is related with-
(A) Fish production
(B) Food grain production
(C) Oil seed production
(D) Milk Production
22. Which is post-harvest folk dance in Assam ?
(A) Ankia Nat
(B) Bihu
(C) Raut Nacha
(D) Namgen
23. The substrate of photorespiration is-
(A) Fructose
(B) Pyruvic acid
(C) Glycolate
(D) Glucose
24. The UNIX operating system is suitable of-
(A) Multi user
(B) Real-Time Processing
(C) Distributed Processing
(D) Single user
25. Sink hole is a phenomenon of-
(A) Plain
(B) Desert
(C) Tundra
(D) Karst
General Intelligence
Directions- (Q. 1 to 3) Find the odd words/letters/numbers from the given alternative.
1. (A) AEFJ
(B) KOPT
(C) UYZD
(D) EHIL
2. (A) 81: 243
(B) 16 : 64
(C) 64 : 192
(D) 25 : 75
3. (A) Distinguish
(B) Scatter
(C) Differentiate
(D) Classification
4. Arrange the following words as per the English dictionary and find the last word-
(A) Root
(B) Fruit
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf
5. How many triangles are there in the given figure ?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
6. In a certain code language, APPROACH is coded as CHOAPRAP. How will RESTRICT be coded ?
(A) CTRISTER
(B) ERTSIRTC
(C) CTRISTRE
(D) TCIRSTRE
7. Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternative series –
Apes : Gibber : : Camels : ?
(A) Grunt
(B) Cheep
(C) Bleat
(D) Whine
8. TSR : FED : : WVU : ?
(A) CAB
(B) MLK
(C) PQS
(D) GFH
9. 7 : 32 : : 28 : ?
(A) 126
(B) 136
(C) 116
(D) 128
10. John, in the morning, started walking towards North and then turn towards opposite side of the sun. He then turn left again and stops. Which direction is he facing now ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
11. If 64 + 7 = 460
43 + 8 = ?
25 + 8 = 212
(A) 360
(B) 376
(C) 332
(D) 356
12. In a village there are landlords of which some are literate. Which of the following best expresses the relationship between them ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) None of these
13. Which one of the given figure completes the given figure ?
14. What is the mirror image of the following figure ?
15. If the given words are arranged in descending order then which of the following be last ?
Sapling Tree Plant Seed
(A) Sapling
(B) Plant
(C) Seed
(D) Tree
16. Which one is wrong number in the given series ?
7 56 447 3584 28672
(A) 3584
(B) 56
(C) 7
(D) 447
17. In this question, a statement is followed by assumption I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the following assumptions logically follows from the given statement.
Statement : Only good singers are invited in the conference. No one without sweet vice is a good singer.
Assumption :
I. All invited singers in the conference have sweet voice.
II. Those singers who do not have sweet vice are not invited in the conference.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Neither I nor II follow
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) Only II follows
18. If ‘+’ mean ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘−’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’ then find the value of the following equation –
6 + 64 – 8 ÷ 45 × 8
(A) 85
(B) 76
(C) 87
(D) 75
19. Which of the following has the given figure embedded in it ?
20. Find the missing number from the given alternative-
1 4 2 3 2 ?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 4
21. Find the missing number from the given alternative –
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 19
Directions – (Q. 22 and 23) Find the missing number/letter/from the given alternative.
22. AEN MQZ CGP ?
(A) OSB
(B) PUE
(C) MPX
(D) OTC
23. 0 4 18 48 ? 180
(A) 58
(B) 68
(C) 84
(D) 100
24. Select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word –
SEGREGATION
(A) EAGER
(B) SEA
(C) GATE
(D) NATION
25. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets by two matrices given below. The columns and row of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column. Ex : ‘U’ can be represented by 03, 14, 32 etc. and ‘O’ can be represented by 56, 67, 75 etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word given in the question.
(A) 69, 14, 04, 98
(B) 34, 76, 31, 79
(C) 04, 32, 87, 59
(D) 69, 99, 31, 00