AFCAT Previous Year Question Papers

Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2012

Directions (Qs. 1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Pablo Picasso showed his truly exceptional talent from a very young age. His first word was lapis (Spanish for pencil) and he  learnt to draw before he could talk. He was the only son in the family and very good-looking, so he was thoroughly spoilt. He hated school and often refused to go unless his doting parents allowed him to take one of his father’s pet pigeons with him.

   Apart from pigeons, his great love was art and when in 1891 his father, who was an amateur artist, got a job as a drawing teacher at a college, Pablo went with him to the college. He often watched his father paint and sometimes was allowed to help. One evening his father was painting a picture of their pigeons when he had to leave the room. He returned to find that Pablo had completed and picture, and it was so amazingly beautiful and lifelike that he gave his son his own palette and brushes and never painted again. Pablo was just thirteen.

1. As a boy Pablo Picasso was

(A)  Ordinary looking but talented.

(B)  Handsome and talented.

(C)  Handsome and studious.

(D)  Handsome and hardworking.

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2. He was spoilt mostly because he was

(A)  A smart boy.

(B)  Loved by one and all.

(C)  The only son in the family.

(D)  Always surrounded by notorious boys.

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3. Picasso went to school only when

(A)  His friends accompanied him.

(B)  His father went with him.

(C)  He was allowed to paint at school.

(D)  He was allowed to carry a pet with him.

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4. When his father painted in the college, Pablo

(A)  Occasionally helped him.

(B)  Rarely helped him.

(C)  Always helped him.

(D)  Invariably helped him.

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5. Pablo’s father gave up painting because he

(A)  Did not like the job.

(B)  Retired from the college.

(C)  Was impressed by his son’s talent.

(D)  Lost interest in painting.

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Directions (Qs. 6-10): In each of the following questions, find out which part has an error.

6. The boss was irritated (A)/by him neglecting (B)/the duties and (C)/ not listening to his advice (D).

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7. Each of the three (A)/beggars were (B)/asking for more (C)/ food to eat (D).

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8. My brother sent (A)/two pairs (B)/of shoe (C)/from America (D).

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9. The young boy said (A)/that he (B)/neither liked me (C)/nor my wife (D).

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10. He was (A)/congratulated for (B)/ his success in (C)/ the 100 m race (D).

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Directions (Qs. 11-15): Pick up the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. Sanjay was _____ with divine vision to see the great battle.

(A)  Demure

(B)  Authorized

(C)  Endowed

(D)  Uttered

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12. There was so much _____ material in the essay that it was difficult to get the author’s message.

(A)  Variegated

(B)  Superficial

(C)  Extraneous

(D)  Exemplary

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13. The world is so constructed that if you wish to enjoy its pleasures, you must also _____ its pains.

(A)  Deny

(B)  Neglect

(C)  Ignore

(D)  Endure

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14. Indian press did not give _____ to the British publicity.

(A)  Credence

(B)  Scion

(C)  Augury

(D)  Opportunity

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15. Travellers _______ their reservations well in advance if they want to travel during the Diwali holidays.

(A)  has better to get

(B)  has better get

(C)  has to get better

(D)  had better got

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Directions (Qs. 16-18): In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.

16. EMANCIPATE

(A)  Set free

(B)  Exist

(C)  Correct morally

(D)  Restrain

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17. DECEIT

(A)  Simplicity

(B)  Gentility

(C)  Sincerity

(D)  Dishonesty

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18. ADMONITION

(A)  Thrash

(B)  Hindrance

(C)  Warning

(D)  Exhort

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Directions (Qs. 19-20): In each of the following, choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.

19. VOCIFEROUS

(A)  Laudable

(B)  Quiet

(C)  Dangerous

(D)  Powerful

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20. IMPLICATE

(A)  Involve

(B)  Exonerate

(C)  Corrupt

(D)  Accuse

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Directions (Qs. 21-40): Choose the correct answer.

21. The person who is regarded as the greatest law giver of ancient India is

(A)  Panini

(B)  Kautilya

(C)  Manu

(D)  Patanjali

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22. The immortal fame of Ashoka largely rests upon

(A)  His conversion to Buddhism and its propagation.

(B)  His policy for the welfare of his subjects.

(C)  His work in the sphere of politics and moral teaching.

(D)  His extensive conquests.

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23. Gandhiji started Dandi March

(A)  The demonstrate against the British Empire.

(B)  To break the salt law.

(C)  To boycott foreign goods.

(D)  None of the above

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24. The first war of Indian Independence began on 10 May 1857 at

(A)  Meerut

(B)  Jhansi

(C)  Barrackpore

(D)  Delhi

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25. The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh two hours before it does in Dwaraka in Gujarat. This is because the former is

(A)  Higher in elevation than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(B)  Situated further North than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(C)  Situated further East (about 30° Longitude) than Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

(D)  Situated about 30° East of Dwaraka and the earth rotates from West to East.

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26. Srinagar is situated on the banks of the river

(A)  Ravi

(B)  Sutlej

(C)  Jhelum

(D)  Chenab

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27. The areas in India that receive approximately an average of more than 200 cms of rainfall annually are

(A)  Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh.

(B)  Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra

(C)  Meghalaya, Assam, Rajasthan, Jammu & Kashmir

(D)  Meghalaya, Delhi, Punjab, Rajasthan

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28. Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on a map which connect places of equal

(A)  Atmospheric pressure

(B)  Humidity

(C)  Rainfall

(D)  Temperature

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29. Jim Corbett National Park is situated in which state?

(A)  Arunachal Pradesh

(B)  Himachal Pradesh

(C)  Andhra Pradesh

(D)  Uttarakhand

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30. Which one of the following statement regarding the sun is correct?

(A)  The sun is composed mainly of hydrogen.

(B)  Its energy is generated by nuclear collision in its interior.

(C)  It is calculated that the sun consumes about a trillion pounds of hydrogen every second.

(D)  All of the above

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31. Supersonic speed is speed greater than the speed of sound (in air at sea level) that is to say around ______ miles/hour.

(A)  760

(B)  860

(C)  960

(D)  1060

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32. Yoga Sutra was written by

(A)  Vatsyayana

(B)  Patanjali

(C)  Bhratrihari

(D)  Maharshi Mahesh

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33. The National Institute of Oceanography is located at

(A)  Trivandrum

(B)  Panaji

(C)  Cochin

(D)  Mangalore

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34. An aeroplance rises because

(A)  Of upward reaction of air.

(B)  The density of air above the plane is less than below it.

(C)  The pressure above its wings is less than the pressure below them.

(D)  Its nose points upwards.

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35. Rocks formed on the solidification of molten matter are called

(A)  Metamorphic rocks

(B)  Sedimentary rocks

(C)  Volcanic rocks

(D)  Igneous rocks

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36. The pioneer of Atomic energy in India is

(A)  Homi J. Bhabha

(B)  Vikram Sarabhai

(C)  C. V. Raman

(D)  C. K. Naidu

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37. Which one of the following statements regarding FIFA World Cup 2010 is not correct?

(A)  South Africa became the first host nation to fail to qualify for the tournament’s second round.

(B)  The tournament was the culmination of a qualification process that began in August 2007.

(C)  This is the first time that the tournament was hosted by an African nation.

(D)  Zakumi, the official mascot for the FIFA World Cup, 2010 is an African bush elephant.

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38. The first Indian to win the World Amateur Snooker Championship is

(A)  Om Agarwal

(B)  Geet Sethi

(C)  Michael Ferreira

(D)  Wilson Jones

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39. The first person to win the Arjuna award for badminton is

(A)  Pullela Gopichand

(B)  Prakash Padukone

(C)  Nandu Natekar

(D)  Farook Engineer

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40. The sport which requires the largest field is

(A)  Football

(B)  Cricket

(C)  Hockey

(D)  Polo

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Directions (Qs. 41-45): Find the odd one out.

41.

(A)  Advice

(B)  Counsel

(C)  Direct

(D)  Suggest

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42.

(A)  Tumble

(B)  Topple

(C)  Crumble

(D)  Sprain

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43.

(A)  Sobriquet

(B)  Alias

(C)  Pseudonym

(D)  Anonymous

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44.

(A)  Mumbai

(B)  Goa

(C)  Visakhapatnam

(D)  Thiruvananthapuram

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45.

(A)  Petrol

(B)  Acetone

(C)  Mercury

(D)  Kerosene

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Directions (Qs. 46-55): In the following questions, the words given bear a certain relationship. Your task is to find out from the choices the words with the same relationship.

46. Hope : Despair

(A)  Work : Failure

(B)  Worship : Adore

(C)  Cow : Milk

(D)  Encourage : Dishearten

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47. Army : Logistics

(A)  War : Logic

(B)  Soldiers : Students

(C)  Business : Strategy

(D)  Team : Individual  

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48. Bouquet : Flower

(A)  Skin : Body

(B)  Chain : Link

(C)  Product : Factory

(D)  Page : Book

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49. Revenge : Vendetta

(A)  Sleep : Dream

(B)  Sun: Moon

(C)  Envy : Jealousy

(D)  Heaven : God

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50. Refine : Style

(A)  Retouch : Photograph

(B)  Paint : Wall

(C)  Compose : Song

(D)  Author : Book

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51. Fear : Tremble

(A)  Hand : Shake

(B)  Heat : Perspire

(C)  Distance : Walk

(D)  Evening : Star

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52. Condone : Offence

(A)  Punish : Criminal

(B)  Mitigate : Penitence

(C)  Overlook : Aberration

(D)  Ignore : Loyalty

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53. Plant : Flower

(A)  Face : Eye

(B)  Stem : Tree

(C)  Chair : Sofa

(D)  Blades : Grass

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54. Protoplasm : Cell

(A)  Fibre : Plastic         

(B)  Coin : Money

(C)  Chemistry : Elements

(D)  Chain : Link

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55. Nalanda : Takshshila

(A)  Venus : Mars

(B)  University : College

(C)  Office : Department

(D)  Ship : Cargo

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Directions (Qs. 51-60): In the following questions, the first word is related to the second in the same way as the third word is related to the fourth. Either the third or the fourth word is missing and is left blank. You have to choose the correct word to fill in the blank.

56. Foot is to Man as Hoof is to _______.

(A)  Dog

(B)  Cow

(C)  Cat

(D)  Rabbit

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57. Broad is to Narrow as _______ is to Lane.

(A)  Footpath

(B)  Field

(C)  Pavement

(D)  Road

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58. Back is to Backbone as Belly is to ______.

(A)  Throat

(B)  Ribs

(C)  Heart

(D)  Navel

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59. Ankle is to Knee as Wrist is to ______.

(A)  Elbow

(B)  Finger

(C)  Hand

(D)  Foot

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60. Sting is to Bee as _____ is to Snake.

(A)  Slithering

(B)  Rats

(C)  Poison

(D)  Fangs

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61. Hari’s income is 20% more than Madhu’s income. Madhu’s income is less than Hari’s income by

(A)  15%

(B)  16.66%

(C)  20%

(D)  22.25%

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62. A sum of money lent out at simple interest doubled itself in 20 years. In how many yeas wil it triple itself?

(A)  28  years

(B)  30 years

(C)  40 years

(D)  35 years

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63. Which of the following fractions are in ascending order?

(A)  2/3, 3/5, 7/9, 9/11, 8/9

(B)  3/5, 2/3, 9/11, 7/9, 8/9

(C)  3/5, 2/3, 7/9, 9/11, 8/9

(D)  8/9, 9/11, 7/9, 2/3, 3/5

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64. 337.62 + 8.591 + 34.4 = ?

(A)  370.611

(B)  380.511

(C)  380.611

(D)  426.97

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65. Find the sum of : 

(A)  3/5

(B)  3/2

(C)  3/8

(D)  4/7

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66. Find the average of all the numbers between 6 and 34 which are divisible by five.

(A)  18

(B)  20

(C)  24

(D)  30

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67. The average of first 80 natural numbers is

(A)  40

(B)  41

(C)  40.5

(D)  142

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68. If the sum of a few numbers is 450 and their mean is 50 and if another number 100 is included, the mean would become

(A)  55

(B)  60

(C)  75

(D)  150

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69. ?% of 932 + 30 = 309.6

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  35

(D)  40

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70. The difference between a number and its two-fifth is 510. What is 10% of that number?

(A)  12.75

(B)  85

(C)  204

(D)  None of these

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71. One litre of water is evaporated from 6 litres of a solution containing 5% salt. The percentage of salt in the remaining solution is

(A)  16%

(B)  5%

(C)  4%

(D)  6%

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72. A shopkeeper professes to sell all things at a discount of 10% but increases the Selling Price of each article by 20%. His gain on each article is

(A)  6%

(B)  8%

(C)  10%

(D)  12%

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73. If the selling price of an article is 4/3^rd of its cost price, the profit in transaction is

(A)  16.75%

(B)  20.50%

(C)  25.50%

(D)  33.33%

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74. If the selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit per cent.

(A)  66.66

(B)  100

(C)  105.33

(D)  120

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75. If 4/5^th of an estate is worth Rs 16,800, then the value of 3/7^th of the estate is

(A)  Rs 9000

(B)  Rs 21000

(C)  Rs 72000

(D)  Rs 90000

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76. If  and 8a + 5b = 22, then the value of ‘a’ is

(A)  1

(B)  1/2

(C)  3/2

(D)  3/4

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77. If (a – b) is 6 more than (c + d) and (a + b) is 3 less than (c – d), then the value of (a – c) is

(A)  0.5

(B)  1.0

(C)  1.5

(D)  2.0

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78. Two numbers are in the ratio 7 : 8. If 3 is added to each of them their ratio becomes 8 : 9. The numbers are

(A)  14, 16

(B)  24, 27

(C)  21, 24

(D)  16, 18

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79. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to the second is 2 : 3 and that of the second to the third is 5 : 8, then the second number is

(A)  20

(B)  30

(C)  48

(D)  58

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80. A certain amount was divided between Sita and Gita in the ratio 9 : 8. If Sita’s share was Rs 4500 then the amount is

(A)  Rs 9000

(B)  Rs 8500

(C)  Rs 6750

(D)  Rs 9025

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Directions (Qs. 81-84): Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).

81. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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82. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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83. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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84. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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85. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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Directions (Qs. 86-90): In reach of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

86. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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87. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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88. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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89. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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90. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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Directions (Qs. 91-95): In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains Fig. (X) as its part.

91. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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92. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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93. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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94. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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95. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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Directions (Qs. 96-100): In each of the following questions, find out which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) completes the figures matrix.

96. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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97. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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98. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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99. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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100. 

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

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Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2013

Directions (Qs. 1 to 5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

   We shall go on to the end, we shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with the growing confidence and strength in the air, we shall defend our island whatever the cost may be, we shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills. We shall never surrender, and even if this island or a large part of it were subjugated and starving, then our empire beyond the seas would carry on the struggle, until the New World steps forth to the rescue and the liberation of the Old.

1. On the basis of the passage which of the following statements may be said to be correct?

(A)  The speaker is encouraging his men for the conquest of France

(B)  The speaker is an aggressive and maniacal war-monger

(C)  The speaker is not satisfied with the conquest of the island

(D)  The speaker is a patriot urging the defence of his motherland

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2. The speaker in the passage wants to go on fighting because:

(A)  He is a raving lunatic

(B)  He is in a state of utter despair

(C)  He expects help from other quarters

(D)  He is the leader of a suicide squad

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3. Which of the following pair of the phrases helps best to bring out the intention of the speaker?

(A)  “Go on the end”, “shall never surrender”

(B)  “Growing confidence”, “subjugated and starving”

(C)  “Subjugated and starving”, “fighting on the landing ground”

(D)  “Fighting in the streets”, subjugated and starving”

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4. The passage consists of repetitive patterns in syntax and vocabulary. The effect of th is style is that it:

(A)  Reveals the speaker’s defects in giving a speech

(B)  Produces the impression of bad poetry

(C)  Conveys the speaker’s helpless situation

(D)  Reinforces the speaker’s basic intention

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5. The tone of the speaker is:

(A)  Pleading and urging

(B)  Inspiring and encouraging

(C)  Discouraging and gloomy

(D)  Menacing and bullying

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Directions (Qs. 6 to 8):  In each of the following, choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.

6. MEDDLE

(A)  Disregard

(B)  Overlook

(C)  Interfere

(D)  Free

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7. ABJURE

(A)  Renounce

(B)  Run off secretly

(C)  Abide

(D)  Discuss

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8. Estrange

(A)  Endanger

(B)  To become puzzling

(C)  Miscalculate

(D)  Alienate

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Directions (Qs. 9 and 10): In each of the following, choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals:

9. DEROGATORY

(A)  Conferred

(B)  Immediate

(C)  Praising

(D)  Private

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10. WANE

(A)  Widen

(B)  Poor

(C)  Swell

(D)  Tight

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Directions (Qs. 11 to 15): In each of the following questions, find out which part has an error.

11. The police has (A)/ arrested the thief (B)/ who broke into my house (C)/ last night (D).

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12. The man who (A)/ they thought to be (B)/ a gentleman turned out (C)/ to be a rogue (D).

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13. I told him on his face (A)/ that he could not hope (B)/ to pass the stringent (C)/ Medical examination of the Services Selection Board (D).

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14. Mohan is one of those boys (A)/ who has expressed (B)/ willingness for joining (C)/ the educational tour (D).

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15. I may spend (A)/this summer vacations (B)/with one of my friends (C)/in the back waters of Kerala (D).

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Directions (Qs. 16 to 20): Pick up the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

16. According to the weather ______ it is going to be cloudy today.

(A)  Announcement

(B)  Indication

(C)  Prediction

(D)  Forecast

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17. The villagers ________ the murder of their leader by burning the police van.

(A)  Protested

(B)  Avenged

(C)  Mourned

(D)  Consoled

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18. While on a routine flight, the aircraft was hit by a missile and _______ into flames.

(A)  Fired

(B)  Burst

(C)  Caught

(D)  Engulfed

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19. Hari got the company car for a ______ price as he was the senior most employee in the company.

(A)  Reduced

(B)  Discounted

(C)  Fixed

(D)  Nominal

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20. The unruly behavior of the soldiers _____ their commander.

(A)  Clashed

(B)  Aggrieved

(C)  Incensed

(D)  Impeached

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21. Who accorded the title ‘Mahatma’ to MK Gandhi?

(A)  Sardar Patel

(B)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(C)  Sarojini Naidu

(D)  Rabindranath Tagore

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22. The Non Co-operation Movement started in which year?

(A)  1900

(B)  1921

(C)  1940

(D)  1935

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23. During the Middle Ages education was confined only to:

(A)  Kshatriyas

(B)  Brahmins

(C)  Peasants

(D)  Shudras

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24. Who among the following was responsible for the spread of Buddhism in Sri Lanka?

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Mahavira

(C)  Parsavanath

(D)  Chandra Gupta Maurya

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25. The elements which have low value of ionization potential are strong:

(A)  Oxidising agents

(B)  Reducing agents

(C)  Oxidising and Reducing agents depending upon the reactants    

(D)  None of these

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26. Wayne Rooney, the famous footballer, hails from which country?

(A)  Italy

(B)  Brazil

(C)  Argentina

(D)  England

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27. The official song ‘WakaWaka’ of FIFA World Cup held in the year 2010 at South Africa was sung by which popular singer?

(A)  Madonna

(B)  Destiny Child

(C)  Shakira

(D)  Rehanna

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28. In the year 2011, the ace badminton player Saina Nehwal was honoured with which sports award?

(A)  Dronacharya Award

(B)  Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

(C)  Arjun Award

(D)  None of these

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29. Term ‘Visible Horizon’ in astronomy is defined as:

(A)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays passing through the meridian of the place.

(B)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays not passing through the meridian of the place.

(C)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays passing through the point of observation.

(D)  The circle of contact of the earth and the cone of visual rays not passing through the point of observation.

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30. NREGA stands for:

(A)  National Revenue Engagement Guarantee Association

(B)  National Revenue Employment Guarantee Act

(C)  National Rural Employment Guarantee Association

(D)  National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

Show Answer

31. River Satluj originates from:

(A)  Northern slopes of the Kailash range

(B)  Spring at Verinag

(C)  Rakas Lake

(D)  Amarkantak plateau

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32. Limonitic ore is the ore of which metal?

(A)  Iron

(B)  Aluminium

(C)  Zinc

(D)  Cobalt

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33. Black revolution relates to which of the following?

(A)  Self-dependence in foodgrains production

(B)  Self-dependence in milk production

(C)  Self-dependence in petroleum/crude oil

(D)  None of these

Show Answer

34. Karrar is the unmanned bomber aircraft of

(A)  Iraq

(B)  Iran

(C)  Turkey

(D)  Pakistan

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35. Who is the author of book ‘Keeping the Faith: Memoirs of a Parliamentarian?

(A)  David Omand        

(B)  Raja Shehadeh

(C)  Raghav Bahl

(D)  Somnath Chatterjee

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36. _______ is a thyroid hormone which controls the balance of calcium in the body.

(A)  Calcitonin

(B)  Thyroxine

(C)  Calmodulin

(D)  All of these

Show Answer

37. The cell wall in plants is interrupted by narrow pores carrying fine strands of cytoplasm which interlink the contents of the cells. These strands are called:

(A)  Plasmahole

(B)  Microvilli

(C)  Plasmodesmata

(D)  Plasmalemma

Show Answer

38. Who is the cricketer bestowed with an honorary commission in the Territorial Army?

(A)  Sachin Tendulkar

(B)  Kapil Dev

(C)  Virendra Sehwag

(D)  Harbhajan Singh

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39. The transport phenomenon occurs only in ______ state of a gas and is ______.

(A)  Non-equilibrium, irreversible

(B)  Non-equilibrium, reversible

(C)  Equilibrium, irreversible

(D)  Equilibrium, reversible

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40. Which of the following compounds form nitrites with nitrous acid?

(A)  Primary amines

(B)  Secondary amines

(C)  Tertiary amines

(D)  All of these

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41. The number whose square is equal to the difference of the squares of 37 and 23 is:

(A)  45.09

(B)  28.98

(C)  47.09

(D)  28

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42. The average age of 8 men is increased by 4 years when one of them whose ages is 30 years is replaced by a new man. What is the age of new man?

(A)  55  years

(B)  62 years

(C)  42 years

(D)  69 years

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43. A vessel, full of water, weighs 24 kg. When the vessel is ¼ full, it weights 9 kg. Find the weight of empty vessel.

(A)  4 kg

(B)  5 kg

(C)  8 kg

(D)  3 kg

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44. If a – b = 4 and ab = 45, find the value of a³ – b³.

(A)  604

(B)  370

(C)  253

(D)  199

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45. If a/(a + b) = 15/21, what is (a + b)/(a – b) equal to?

(A)  13/9

(B)  23/11

(C)  14/5

(D)  21/9

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46. 

(A)  2

(B)  6

(C)  4

(D)  8

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47. A man’s average monthly expenditure for the first four months of the year was Rs 231.25. For the next five months, the average monthly expenditure was Rs 22.75 more than what is was during the first four months. If the person spent Rs 605 in all during the remaining three months of the year, find what percentage of his annual income of Rs 3500 did he save in the year?

(A)  10%

(B)  15%

(C)  20%

(D)  25%

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48. The average age of students of a class is 15.8 years. The average age of boys in the class is 16.4 years and that of the girls is 15.4 years. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in the class is:

(A)  1 : 2

(B)  2 : 3

(C)  3 : 4

(D)  3 : 5

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49. 18 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 18 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of the bucket is 12 litres?

(A)  12

(B)  13.5

(C)  24

(D)  Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

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50. Srinivasan invests two equal amounts in two banks giving 8% and 12% rate of interest respectively. At the end of year, the interest earned is Rs 1500. Find the sum invested in each.

(A)  Rs 8500

(B)  Rs 15000

(C)  Rs 7500

(D)  Rs 17000

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51. The simple interest accrued on a sum of money at the end of four years is 1/5^th of its principal. What is the rate of interest per annum?

(A)  4%

(B)  5%

(C)  6%

(D)  Inadequate data

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52. A sum of Rs 2600 is lent out into parts, one at 9% and another at 7%. If the total annual income is Rs 206, find the money lent at 7%.

(A)  Rs 1400

(B)  Rs 900

(C)  Rs 1600

(D)  Rs 1200

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53. In an election between two candidates, 70% of the voters cast their votes. Out of which 2% of the votes were declared invalid. A candidate got 7203 votes which was 60% of the total valid votes. Find the total number of voters enrolled in that election.

(A)  18050

(B)  17500

(C)  17000

(D)  7203

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54. If the price of kerosene be raised by 11%, find by how much per cent a house holder must reduce his consumption of kerosene so as not to increase his expenditure?

(A)  11%

(B)  9.9%

(C)  11.09%

(D)  8.25%

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55. 75 pupils from a school appeared for an examination and 80% of them passed. Another school entered 10 more pupils than the first school and five pupils less than the first school passed. The pass % of in the second school was:

(A)  75%

(B)  84%

(C)  72%

(D)  64.7%

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56. Divide Rs 80 in the proportion of 3 : 6 : 7.

(A)  Rs 10, Rs 35, Rs 40

(B)  Rs 15, Rs 30, Rs 35           

(C)  Rs 15, Rs 35, Rs 30

(D)  Rs 10, Rs 40, Rs 35

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57. Calculate the amount on Rs 1875 for 2 years at 4% per annum, compounded yearly.

(A)  Rs 676

(B)  Rs 776

(C)  Rs 1778

(D)  Rs 2028

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58. If x varies as y and x = 8 when y = 15, then the value of x when y = 10 is :

(A)  5

(B)  15/8

(C)  8/15

(D)  16/3

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59. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. What amount of water must be added to make the ratio of milk and water as 1 : 2?

(A)  42 Litres

(B)  56 Litres

(C)  60 Litres

(D)  77 Litres

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60. A sum of Rs 10,000 is lent partly at 6% and the remaining at 10% p.a. If the yearly interest on the average is 9.2%, the money lent at 10% is:

(A)  Rs 8000

(B)  Rs 8500

(C)  Rs 5000

(D)  Rs 2000

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 61 to 65): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group

61.

(A)  Garo

(B)  Khasi

(C)  Kangra

(D)  Jayantia

Show Answer

62.

(A)  Vigro

(B)  Pisces

(C)  Cancer

(D)  Orion

Show Answer

63.

(A)  Shoulder

(B)  Foot

(C)  Finger

(D)  Elbow

Show Answer

64.

(A)  Canoe

(B)  Dingy

(C)  Yacht

(D)  Igloo

Show Answer

65.

(A)  Inn

(B)  Club

(C)  Motel

(D)  Hostel

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 66 to 70): The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four alternatives. Select the best alternative that has the same relationship as the original pair of words

66. Liquor : Drink

(A)  Bread : Butter

(B)  Tea : Beverage

(C)  Sniff : Inhale

(D)  Water : Sip

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67. Evaporation : Cloud

(A)  Mountain : Snow

(B)  Book : Pages

(C)  Pressure : Atmosphere

(D)  Tension : Breakdown

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68. Barrel : Vial

(A)  Book : Pamphlet

(B)  Book : Reader

(C)  Brochure : Compiler

(D)  Length : Height

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69. Cream : Cosmetics

(A)  Tiger : Forest

(B)  Mountain : Valley

(C)  Magazine : Editor

(D)  Teak : Wood

Show Answer

70. Carnivore : Herbivore

(A)  Flesh : Plant

(B)  Horse : Lion

(C)  Camel : Giraffe

(D)  Animal : Bird

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 71 to 80): Three words in bold letters are given in each question, which have something in common among themselves. Out of the four given alternatives, choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

71. Hamlet : Macbeth : Faustus

(A)  They were Princes.

(B)  They are plays by Shakespeare.

(C)  They are characters from various dramas.

(D)  They were romantic heroes.

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72. Vesuvius : Etna : Kilimanjaro

(A)  These are sites of volcanoes.

(B)  These are island countries.

(C)  These are hills of Italy.

(D)  These lie in polar region.

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73. Knot : Watt : Fathom

(A)  The terms are used by sailors.

(B)  The terms are used for installing electricity.

(C)  The terms are connected with rope.

(D)  They are units of measurement.

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74. Barauni : Digboi : Ankleshwar

(A)  They are famous for oil fields

(B)  They are famous religious places.

(C)  They are tourist places of South India.

(D)  They are famous for handlooms.

Show Answer

75. Knight : Rook : Bishop

(A)  These are missionaries

(B)  These are churchmen.

(C)  These are chessmen.

(D)  These are ranks of military.

Show Answer

76. Abhi Bhattacharya : Utpal Dutt : Satyajit Ray

(A)  They are character actors.

(B)  They are directors of Bengali movies.

(C)  They are famous poets and writers.

(D)  These personalities belong to Bengal.

Show Answer

77. Voodoo : Sorcery : Necromancy

(A)  They are ancient arts found in sculptures.

(B)  They are terms connected with black magic.

(C)  They are ancient scripts.

(D)  They are means of communication of prehistoric age.

Show Answer

78. Rourkela : Bokaro : Durgapur

(A)  They are steel plants.

(B)  They have coal mines.

(C)  They have atomic power plants.

(D)  They are on the sea coast.

Show Answer

79. Spinach : Fenugreek : Celery

(A)  These are cactus plants.

(B)  These are wild plants.

(C)  These are wild flowers.

(D)  These are leafy vegetables.

Show Answer

80. Yeats : Ghalib : Kabir

(A)  They were social reformers.

(B)  They were famous poets.

(C)  They were saints.

(D)  They were yoga instructors.

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 81 to 85): There are two sets of figures namely the Problem figures containing five figures 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and answer figures A, B, C, D. You have to select one figure from the Answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the Problem figures.

81. 

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82. 

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83. 

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84. 

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85. 

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Directions (Qs. 86 to 90): The following situations involve a cluster of three or more geometrical figures, having one or more dots placed at any point inside the cluster. This cluster is followed by a set of four alternative figures each composed of a cluster of the same type of figures. Now, for each dot we have to observe the region in which it is enclosed i.e., in which of the geometrical figure this region is common.

   From amongst the figures marked A, B, C and D, select the figure which satisfied the same conditions of placement of the dot as in Fig. (X)

86. 

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87. 

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88. 

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89. 

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90. 

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Directions (Qs. 91 to 95): In this portion a figure is given as an original figure (X) followed by four answer figures. The original figure is embedded or hidden in one of the answer figures (A, B, C & D). Select the alternative that carries the correct figure which clearly shows the embedded portion of the original figure.

91. 

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92. 

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93. 

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94. 

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95. 

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Directions (Qs. 96 to 100): In each of the following questions, a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the given options A, B, C or D, the right figure to fit in the missing figure (X).

96. 

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97. 

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98. 

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99. 

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100. 

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Air Force Common Admission Test

(AFCAT) -1/2014

Directions (Qs. 1 to 4): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

   And then Gandhi came. He was like a powerful current of fresh air that made us stretch ourselves and take deep breaths, like a beam of light that pierced the darkness and removed the scales from our eyes, like a whirlwind that upset many things but most of all the working of people’s minds. He did not descend from the top; he seemed to emerge from the millions of India, speaking their language and incessantly drawing attention to them and their appalling condition. Get off the back of these peasants and workers, he told us, all of you who live b their exploitation; get rid of the system that produces this poverty and misery.

1. Gandhi came like a powerful current of fresh air and ……

(A)  awakened us to the plight of the masses in the grip of oppressors

(B)  made us patriotic

(C)  emboldened us to attack and destroy the oppressors

(D)  praised our culture

Show Answer

2. The rise of Gandhi ………

(A)  shocked people

(B)  made India powerful

(C)  made the condemnation of the exploiter final

(D)  made women feel secure

Show Answer

3. Gandhi fought the ………..

(A)  rich

(B)  oppressor

(C)  apathetic masses

(D)  unjust system

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4. The conspicuous role of Gandhi is that of a ……..

(A)  father

(B)  reformer

(C)  teacher

(D)  liberator

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 5 to 10): Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:

   Those living in the slums are 5 and tough because they are totally 6 to the vagaries and hardships of life. The rising sun 7 the day and the setting sun closes the day for them. It is like a drama where the curtain 8 up in the morning and comes down in the evening. They don’t 9 hypertension and heart attacks because there is, after all 10 to worry about.

5.

(A)  Poor

(B)  Sick

(C)  Hardy

(D)  Weak

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6.

(A)  Dependent

(B)  Independent

(C)  Exposed

(D)  Tried

Show Answer

7.

(A)  Heralds

(B)  Herald

(C)  Bring

(D)  Brings

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8.

(A)  Hangs

(B)  Hand

(C)  Goes

(D)  Shines

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9.

(A)  Know

(B)  Get

(C)  Think

(D)  Have

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10.

(A)  Everything

(B)  Something

(C)  Somewhere

(D)  Nothing

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 11 to 12): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word.

11. ‘TRANSGRESSOR’

(A)  Passenger

(B)  Law-breaker

(C)  Protector

(D)  Comrade

Show Answer

12. ‘EGREGIOUS’

(A)  Common

(B)  Social

(C)  Plain

(D)  Atrocious

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 13 to 15): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word.

13. ‘PREDILECTION’

(A)  Oblivion

(B)  Objectivity

(C)  Aversion

(D)  Defeat

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14. ‘CACOPHONOUS’

(A)  Tamed

(B)  Harmonius

(C)  Domestic

(D)  Silent

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15. ‘CALUMNY’

(A)  Apology

(B)  Eulogy

(C)  Enjoyment

(D)  Reservation

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Directions (Qs. 16 to 20): Choose the word that best defines the given phrase.

16. ‘Able to use both hands alike’

(A)  Dexterous

(B)  Ambidextrous

(C)  Skilful

(D)  Expert

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17. ‘A written account of the life of an individual’

(A)  Autobiography

(B)  Epigraph

(C)  Biography

(D)  Novel

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18. ‘The identification of a disease by its symptoms’

(A)  Prescription

(B)  Prognosis

(C)  Diagnosis

(D)  Biopsy

Show Answer

19. ‘Prolonged inability to sleep’

(A)  Amnesia

(B)  Utopia

(C)  Nausea

(D)  Insomnia

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20. ‘A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge’

(A)  Verbose

(B)  Pedantic

(C)  Ornate

(D)  Pompous

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Directions (Qs. 21 to 25): Choose the correctly spelt word.

21. The school alumni gathering put us in a _______ mood.

(A)  Remniscent

(B)  Reminisent

(C)  Reminiscent

(D)  Reminicent

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22. ‘God is a Dead’ is a ________ statement.

(A)  Blasphemus

(B)  Blaphemous           

(C)  Blasphemous

(D)  Blosphemos

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23. The threat of an epidemic caused great alarm and ________.

(A)  Trepidation

(B)  Terpidation

(C)  Trepidition

(D)  Trepidattion

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24. The din caused by the children howling is enough to ______ the dead.

(A)  Ressurect

(B)  Resurrect

(C)  Resurect

(D)  Resurecct

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25. Can you ______ the car into that parking spot?

(A)  Manuer

(B)  Manever

(C)  Manoeuvre

(D)  Manuver

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Directions (Qs. 26 to 47): Choose the appropriate answer.

26. Who was the Governor-General of India during the ‘Sepoy Mutiny’?

(A)  Lord Dalhousie

(B)  Lord Harding

(C)  Lord Canning

(D)  Lord Lytton.

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27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A)  Goa attained full statehood in 1987

(B)  Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat

(C)  Daman & Diu were separated from Goa by the 56^th Amendment of the Constitution of India

(D)  Dadar & Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954.

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28. On which river is Washington DC situated?

(A)  Potomac

(B)  Irrawaddy

(C)  Mississippi

(D)  Hudson

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29. When body is accelerated ………

(A)  Its velocity never changes

(B)  Its speed will always changes

(C)  Its direction always changes

(D)  Its speed may or may not change

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30. Which of the following is not an agency of UN?

(A)  World Bank

(B)  International Atomic Energy Agency

(C)  Universal Postal Union

(D)  None of the above

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31. Which kind of missile of BRAHMOS?

(A)  Medium range ballistic missile

(B)  Supersonic cruise missile

(C)  Short range tactical missile

(D)  Ultrasonic cruise missile

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32. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?

(A)  Calorie

(B)  Joule

(C)  Electron volt

(D)  Watt

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33. Who among the following has been called the ‘Napoleon of India’?

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Samudragupta

(C)  Chandragupta

(D)  Harshavardhana

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34. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old man of India’?

(A)  Dadabhai Naoroji

(B)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(C)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D)  A. O. Hume

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35. Which amongst t he following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?

(A)  Union Cabinet

(B)  Parliament

(C)  Supreme Court

(D)  Law Commission

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36. The Baglihar Hydroelectric power project in J & K is built across the river ……….

(A)  Beas

(B)  Chenab

(C)  Jhelum

(D)  Sutlej

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37. Which Indian sportsperson was appointed ‘Messenger of Peace’ in 2001 by the UN?

(A)  Prakash Padukone

(B)  Vishwanathan Anand

(C)  Sachin Tendulkar

(D)  Vijay Amritraj

Show Answer

38. Indian Women’s hockey team secured which of the following position in Asian Champions Trophy, 2013?

(A)  First

(B)  Second

(C)  Third

(D)  Fourth

Show Answer

39. Which is the longest bone in the human body?

(A)  Fibula

(B)  Radius

(C)  Stapes

(D)  Femur

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40. A US team of scientist has found that the mechanism responsible for the ageing process is located ………..

(A)  Inside the face

(B)  Inside the skin

(C)  Inside the brain

(D)  Inside the heart

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41. The outer most layer of the Sun is known as ……….

(A)  Corona

(B)  Photosphere

(C)  Chromosphere

(D)  Granule

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42. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore was founded by …….

(A)  CV Raman

(B)  Jamshedji Tata

(C)  Vikram Sarabhai

(D)  None of the above

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43. Which among the following is not a gallantry medal?

(A)  Ashoka Chakra

(B)  Arjuna Award

(C)  Param Vir Chakra

(D)  Shaurya Chakra

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44. Which one of the following pairs of water bodies are connected by the Suez Canal?

(A)  Indian Ocean – Pacific Ocean

(B)  Mediterranean Sea – Black Sea

(C)  Mediterranean Sea – Red Sea

(D)  Atlantic Ocean – Pacific Ocean

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45. Kalhana’s ‘Rajatarangini’ is a history of …..

(A)  Kashmir

(B)  Harsha’s reign

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Chandragupta’s reign

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46. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because …….

(A)  This day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929

(B)  This was desired by the farmers of India

(C)  The British did not want to leave India earlier than this date

(D)  It was an auspicious day

Show Answer

47. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A)  Indonesia – Jakarta

(B)  Maldives – Male

(C)  North Korea – Seoul

(D)  Zimbabwe – Harare

Show Answer

Directions (Qs.48 to 50): Complete the seires.

48. A, B, D, G, ?, P

(A)  I

(B)  J

(C)  K

(D)  L

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49. Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, G, ?, ?

(A)  N, D

(B)  N, C

(C)  O, C

(D)  O, D

Show Answer

50. BCD, RQP, LMN, TS?

(A)  U

(B)  V

(C)  R

(D)  T

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Directions (Qs. 51): If A = C, B – D, C = E and so on code the following.

51. ‘STUDENT’

(A)  VWVFGPV

(B)  UUWFGPV

(C)  UVWFGPV

(D)  UVVFGPV

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Directions (Qs. 52): If A = Z, B -= Y and so on, code the following.

52. ‘EDITOR’

(A)  VWRGLI

(B)  VWRGVI

(C)  VWVGLI

(D)  VWRLLI

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 53 to 55): Choose the most appropriate word.

53. ‘RUSTLE’ is to ‘LEAVES’ as ‘PATTER’ is to _______

(A)  Snow

(B)  Wind

(C)  Rain

(D)  Storm

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54. ‘INDISCREET’ is to ‘IMPRUDENT’ as ‘INDISPOSED’ is to _______

(A)  Concerned

(B)  Reluctant

(C)  Crucial

(D)  Clear

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55. ‘ACCIDENT’ is to ‘CAREFULNESS’ as ‘DISEASE’ is to _______

(A)  Sanitation

(B)  Treatment

(C)  Medicine

(D)  Doctor

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 56 to 58): Each of the following questions has four statements. Three are logically correct Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is wrong or doubtful.

56.

(A)  Birds fly in the air. Trees are birds. Therefore, trees fly in the air.

(B)  Some boys steal. All who steal are naughty. All naughty are honest. Therefore, some boys are honest

(C)  All girls like dance. Some girls are Indian. All Indians are artists. Therefore, some artists like dance.

(D)  All liars are not thieves. All thieves are criminals. Therefore, all liars are criminals.

Show Answer

57.

(A)  Ramesh is tall. Ramesh is a boy. Therefore, boys are tall.

(B)  All who can fly are animals. Some birds can fly. Therefore, some birds are animals.

(C)  Men live in houses. Houses grow on trees. Trees float in water. Therefore, men float in water.

(D)  All living things are mobile. Some non-living things are mobile. Therefore, some mobile are living and some non-living.

Show Answer

58.

(A)  All books can read. Some pencils are books. All pencils are clever. Therefore, all clever cannot read.

(B)  Some who fail are stupid. Some criminals are stupid. Therefore, all criminals fail.

(C)  Some liar are thieves. All thieves are criminals. Therefore, some liars are criminals.

(D)  All that is given is black. Trees are green. Therefore, trees are black.

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 59 to 60): Consider the statement and assumptions that follow. Which of these assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

59. Statement: “You won’t get sweets at any cost. I will not let you eat things that are not good for your teeth” – a mother tells her child

Assumptions:

(i) The mother cares for her child.

(ii) Sweets are not good for her child.

(iii) The mother has the authority to decide what her child is to eat.

(A)  (i) & (ii) are implicit.

(B)  (ii) & (iii) are implicit

(C)  (i) & (iii) are implicit

(D)  All are implicit

Show Answer

60. Statement: “Clearly, the judiciary cannot provide all answers. But it seems the public, weary of an inactive Executive, is turning to the Supreme Court as a last resort” – an article.

Assumptions:

(i) The Supreme Court is above the Executive.

(ii) The Supreme Court is more active than the Executive.

(iii) The Executive does not have sufficient powers.

(A)  (i) & (ii) are implicit

(B)  (ii) & (iii) are implicit

(C)  (i) & (iii) are implicit

(D)  Only (ii) is implicit

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 61 to 62): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

61.

(A)  Tsangpo

(B)  Hazaribagh

(C)  Kanha

(D)  Bandipur

Show Answer

62.

(A)  Wheat

(B)  Rice

(C)  Mustard

(D)  Gram

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 63 to 67): The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four alternatives. Select the best alternative that has same relationship as the original pair of words.

63. Creche : Infants

(A)  School : Pupils

(B)  Deck : Sailors

(C)  Cottage : Guests

(D)  Aircraft : Crew

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64. Pesticide : Plant

(A)  Injection : Disease

(B)  Vaccination : Body

(C)  Medicine : Cure

(D)  Teacher : Student

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65. Stare : Glance

(A)  Gulp : Sip

(B)  Confide : tell

(C)  Hunt : Stalk

(D)  Step : Walk

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66. Ecstasy : Pleasure

(A)  Hatred : Affection

(B)  Rage : Anger

(C)  Joy : Grief

(D)  Mumble : Speak

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67. Necromancy : Ghosts

(A)  Romance : Stories

(B)  Magic : Amulets

(C)  Alchemy : Gold

(D)  Sorcery : Spirit

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 68 to 70): There is certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the pair has. Select the best alternative/relationship.

68. Firm : Flabby : : Piquant : ?

(A)  Salty

(B)  Pleasant

(C)  Bland

(D)  Smell

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69. Funk : Vitamins : : Curie : ?

(A)  Uranium

(B)  Radioactivity

(C)  Photography

(D)  Radium

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70. Contamination : Food : : Infection : ?

(A)  Diseases

(B)  Body

(C)  Germs

(D)  Microbes

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 71 to 85): Choose the most appropriate answer.

71. An article costs Rs 50 presently. The rate of inflation is 300%. What will be cost of this article after two years?

(A)  Rs 200

(B)  Rs 600

(C)  Rs 800

(D)  Rs 1000

Show Answer

72. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell his groceries at his cost price, but uses a false weight of 900 grams for each kilogram. Find his again percentage.

(A)  91/9%

(B)  100/9%

(C)  100/11%

(D)  95/9%

Show Answer

73. A man purchased a bullock and a cart for Rs 1800. He sold the bullock at a profit of 20% and the cart at a profit of 30%. His total profit was 155/6 %. Find the cost price of bullock.

(A)  Rs 650

(B)  Rs 750

(C)  Rs 900

(D)  Rs 800

Show Answer

74. There were 35 students in a hostel. If the number of students be increased by 7, the expenditure on food increases by Rs 42 per day while the average expenditure of students is reduced by Rs 1. What was the initial expenditure on food per day?

(A)  Rs 432

(B)  Rs 442

(C)  Rs 420

(D)  Rs 400

Show Answer

75. There were 24 students in a class. One of them, who was 18 years old, left the class and his place was filled up by a new comer. If the average of the class was thereby lowered by 1 month, the ago of new comer is

(A)  14 years

(B)  15 years

(C)  16 years

(D)  17 years

Show Answer

76. Find two natural numbers whose sun is 85 and the least common multiple is 102.

(A)  30 & 55

(B)  17 & 68

(C)  35 & 55

(D)  51 & 34

Show Answer

77. In a fort there was sufficient food for 200 soldiers for 31 days. After 27 days, 120 soldiers left the fort. For how many extra days will the rest of the food last for the remaining soldiers?

(A)  12 days

(B)  10 days

(C)  8 days

(D)  6 days

Show Answer

78. 10 is added to certain number, the sum is multiplied by 7, the product is divided by 5 and 5 is subtracted from the quotient. The remainder left is half of 88. What is the number?

(A)  21

(B)  20

(C)  25

(D)  30

Show Answer

79. 19 persons went to a hotel for a combined dinner party. 13 of them spent Rs 79 ach one their dinner and the rest spent Rs 4 more than the average expenditure of all the 19. What was the total money spent by them?

(A)  1628.4

(B)  1534

(C)  1492

(D)  None of these

Show Answer

80. Two typists of varying skills can do a typing job in 6 minutes if they work together. If the first typist typed alone for 4 minutes and then the second typist typed alone for 6 minutes, they would be left with 1/5 of the whole work. How many minutes would it take the slower typist to complete the typing job working alone?

(A)  10 minutes

(B)  15 minutes

(C)  12 minutes

(D)  20 minutes

Show Answer

81. A bag contains 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 Rs coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total amount in the bag is Rs 160. If there are thrice as many 1 Rs coins as there are 25 paise coins, then what is the number of 50 paise coins?

(A)  60

(B)  40

(C)  120

(D)  80

Show Answer

82. The sum of two numbers is equal to thrice their difference. If the smaller of the numbers is 10 find the other number.

(A)  15

(B)  30

(C)  40

(D)  None of thes

Show Answer

83. If a person repaid Rs 22500 after 10 years of borrowing a loan, at 10% per annum simple interest find out what amount did he take as a loan?

(A)  11,225

(B)  11,250

(C)  10,000

(D)  7,500

Show Answer

84. A sum of money invested at simple interest triples itself in 8 years. How many times will it become in 20 years time?

(A)  8 times

(B)  7 times

(C)  6 times

(D)  9 times

Show Answer

85. 

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  0.216

(D)  0.164

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 86 to 89): In these tests you will find an Incomplete Figure and four Answer Figures. You have to select one diagram from the Answer Figures which fits into the blank column in Incomplete figure in order to complete it:

86. 

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87. 

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88. 

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89. 

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90. 

(A)  LS

(B)  RQ

(C)  LM

(D)  LQ

Show Answer

91. 

(A)  SN

(B)  DZ

(C)  SM

(D)  SZ

Show Answer

92. 

(A)  PR

(B)  JR

(C)  GS

(D)  JK

Show Answer

93. 

(A)  BF

(B)  GB

(C)  BG

(D)  CG

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 94 to 97): In these tests find the odd figure out.

94. 

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95. 

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96. 

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97. 

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. 98 to 100): In these tests Figure X is Hidden in the option figures. Find the Correct option.

98. 

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99. 

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100. 

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Previous Paper

Airforce Common Admission Test

(AFCAT)-1/2015

Directions (Qs. No. 1-4): Which word or words explains the meaning of the following idioms:

1. In a jiffy

(A)  Outstanding

(B)  Suddenly

(C)  In a fix

(D)  Appropriate

Show Answer

2. Upto the hilt

(A)  Completely

(B)  Upto the mark

(C)  Upto the final decision

(D)  None of these

Show Answer

3. Man of Letters

(A)  Who writes too many letters

(B)  An important person

(C)  A politician

(D)  A literary person

Show Answer

4. Sangfroid

(A)  Composure

(B)  Go on leave

(C)  Changed Suddenly

(D)  Make an attempt

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 5-10): Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:

   As home entertainment, television is rapidly becoming more …(5)… than any other form. A news broadcast becomes more immediate when people …(6)… actually see the scene …(7)… question and the movement of the figures. Films could be viewed in the …(8)… of the home and a variety of shows are also available. One of the advantages of travel programmes is the …(9)… of far away places which many viewers would not …()… see.

5.

(A)  interesting

(B)  popular

(C)  powerful

(D)  purposeful

Show Answer

6.

(A)  could

(B)  would

(C)  might

(D)  shall

Show Answer

7.

(A)  of

(B)  with

(C)  as

(D)  in

Show Answer

8.

(A)  surroundings

(B)  assistance

(C)  comfort

(D)  privilege

Show Answer

9.

(A)  glimpses

(B)  image

(C)  portrait

(D)  picture

Show Answer

10.

(A)  possible

(B)  rather

(C)  else

(D)  otherwise

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 11-14): Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word:

11. Sporadic

(A)  Epidemic

(B)  Whirling

(C)  Occasional

(D)  Stagnant

Show Answer

12. Genesis

(A)  Style

(B)  Beginning

(C)  Movement

(D)  Relevant

Show Answer

13. Intransigent

(A)  Authoritative

(B)  Impersonal

(C)  Strenuous

(D)  Unbending

Show Answer

14. Intimidate

(A)  Mislead

(B)  Misplace

(C)  Frighten

(D)  Demoralise

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 15-18): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:

15. Clemency

(A)  Corporal

(B)  Intolerance

(C)  Compromise

(D)  Sensibility

Show Answer

16. Cajole

(A)  Nestle

(B)  Secede

(C)  Bully

(D)  Moisten

Show Answer

17. Malevolent

(A)  Kindly

(B)  Vacuous

(C)  Ambivalent

(D)  Primitive

Show Answer

18. Purgatory

(A)  Reward

(B)  Celestial

(C)  Flawless

(D)  Proximity

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 19-21): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:

   In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three months old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the cubs forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I have only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.

19. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

(I) Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non availability of prey.

(II) Polar bears always give birth no triplets.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are true?

(A)  I only

(B)  II only

(C)  Both I and II

(D)  Neither I nor II

Show Answer

20. Female polar bears given birth during

(A)  Spring

(B)  Summer

(C)  Autumn

(D)  Winter

Show Answer

21. Mother bear

(A)  Takes sides over cubs

(B)  Lets the cubs fend for themselves

(C)  Feeds only their favourites

(D)  Sees that all cubs get an equal share

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 22-25): Choose the word that best defines the given phrases:

22. A Curtain Lecture

(A)  To speak plainly

(B)  Vulgar Ideas

(C)  Private scolding of a husband by his wife

(D)  Hate others

Show Answer

23. Square pegs in round holes

(A)  A genuinely helpful person

(B)  A Clever person

(C)  People in the wrong jobs

(D)  To be perplexed

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24. In weal and woe

(A)  By hook or crook

(B)  During illness

(C)  In prosperity and adversity

(D)  During the operation

Show Answer

25. Globetrotters

(A)  People against global philosophy

(B)  People indulging in treachery

(C)  Intelligent minds

(D)  Travellers around the world

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 26-29): Choose the correctly spelt word:

26.

(A)  Konnoisseur

(B)  Conoisseur

(C)  Connoisseur

(D)  Konoisseur

Show Answer

27.

(A)  Munifisent

(B)  Muneficent

(C)  Munificent

(D)  Munificient

Show Answer

28.

(A)  Equanimity

(B)  Equannimity

(C)  Equanimmisty

(D)  Equinimity

Show Answer

29.

(A)  Vetarinary

(B)  Veteninary

(C)  Veterinary

(D)  Vetniary

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 30-65): Choose the most appropriate answer:

30. A, B and C can do a piece of word in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?

(A)  12 days

(B)  15 days

(C)  16 days

(D)  18 days

Show Answer

31. A man can row  in still water and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current is

(A)    

(B)    

(C)    

(D)   

Show Answer

32. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 kmph. If it can travel 26 km downstream and 14 km upstream in the same time, the speed of the stream is

(A)  2 kmph

(B)  2.5 kmph

(C)  3 kmph

(D)  4 kmph

Show Answer

33. If a sum becomes double in 16 years, how many times will it be in 8 years?

(A)    

(B)   

(C)    

(D)   

Show Answer

34. In how many years will a sum of Rs 800 at 10% per annum compounded semi-annually become Rs 926.10?

(A)    

(B)   

(C)   

(D)    

Show Answer

35. A sells 2 TV sets, one at a loss of 15% and another at a profit of 15%. Find the loss/again percentage in the overall transaction?

(A)  2.25%

(B)  3%

(C)  4%

(D)  No profit, no loss

Show Answer

36. A man travelled from a point A to B at the rate of 25 kmph and walked back at the rate of 4 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hrs 48 minutes, the distance between A and B is

(A)  30 km

(B)  24 km

(C)  20 km

(D)  51.6 km

Show Answer

37. A Train travelling at a uniform speed clears a platform 200 m long in 10 seconds and passes a telegraph post in 5 seconds. The speed of the train is

(A)  36 km/h

(B)  39 km/h

(C)  144 km/h

(D)  78 km/h

Show Answer

38. The price of sugar increases by 20% due to the festive season. By what percentage should a family reduce the consumption of sugar so that there is no change in the expenditure?

(A)  20%

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Show Answer

39. A’s salary is 20% lower than B’s salary, which is 15% lower than C’s salary. By how much per cent is C’s salary more than A’s salary?

(A)  44.05%

(B)  45.05%

(C)  46.05%

(D)  47.05%

Show Answer

40. The average weight of 5 men is increased by 2 kg when one of the men whose weight is 60 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is

(A)  50 kg

(B)  65 kg

(C)  68 kg

(D)  70 kg

Show Answer

41. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days; B and C can do it in 24 days, A and C can do it in 36 days. In how many days B alone can finish the work?

(A)  48 days

(B)  45 days

(C)   

(D)  144 days

Show Answer

42. The opposition party status is accorded to a political party in the Lok Sabha only if it captures at least

(A)  5% Seats

(B)  10% Seats

(C)  15% Seats

(D)  20% Seats

Show Answer

43. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A Bend in the River’?

(A)  Chetan Bhagat

(B)  V. S. Naipaul

(C)  Kiran Desai

(D)  Anita Desai

Show Answer

44. ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is a book written by

(A)  Sonia Gandhi

(B)  L. K. Advani

(C)  Nelson Mandela

(D)  Benazir Bhutto

Show Answer

45. Which sports personality has been awarded the honoarary rank of Group Captain by the IAF?

(A)  Kapil Dev

(B)  Sania Mirza

(C)  Saina Nehwal

(D)  Sachin Tendulkar

Show Answer

46. Which country among the following has been declared Ebola-free by WHO?

(A)  Sierra Leone

(B)  Liberia

(C)  Nigeria

(D)  Guinea

Show Answer

47. How many Gold Medals did India win in the Incheon Asian Games held in October 2014?

(A)  10

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  8

Show Answer

48. Who has been appointed as the new Finance Secretary of India?

(A)  Arvind Mayaram

(B)  Rajiv Mehrishi

(C)  Kaushik Basu

(D)  Dinesh Gupta

Show Answer

49. Which among the following is India’s first long range subsonic cruise missile?

(A)  Agni II

(B)  Prithvi

(C)  Dhanush

(D)  Nirbhay

Show Answer

50. The branch of science that studies cells is called

(A)  Cytology

(B)  Entomology

(C)  Homoplastic

(D)  Hormonology

Show Answer

51. How many Vice Presidents are elected at the start of its each regular session of UN General Assembly?

(A)  Nine

(B)  Fifteen

(C)  Two

(D)  Twenty one

Show Answer

52. The highest civilian award of India ‘Bharat Ratna’ has been awarded to only two foreigners so far. One of them is Nelson Mandela. The other is

(A)  Marshal Tito

(B)  Mikhail Gorbachev

(C)  Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(D)  Abdul Wali Khan

Show Answer

53. Sir C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work connected with which of the following phenomenon of radiation?

(A)  Scattering

(B)  Diffracting

(C)  Interference

(D)  Polarisation

Show Answer

54. In which city is headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?

(A)  Manila

(B)  Singapore

(C)  Bangkok

(D)  Jakarta

Show Answer

55. K-15 missile is

(A)  Submarine launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM)

(B)  Inter Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM)

(C)  Medium Range Ballistic Missile (MRBM)

(D)  Short Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM)

Show Answer

56. India agreed to UN Chief Ban Ki-Moon’s offer to remain as a member of the advisory board of one of the following recently

(A)  UNCCT

(B)  UNICEF

(C)  UNEP

(D)  UNCTAD

Show Answer

57. Kaziranga National Park is famous for

(A)  One-horned Rhinos

(B)  Tigers

(C)  Swamp Dears (Barasingha)

(D)  Elephants

Show Answer

58. Who was the first Indian to win an individual medal in Olympics?

(A)  Milkha Singh

(B)  P. T. Usha

(C)  Karnam Malleshwari

(D)  K. D. Jadhav

Show Answer

59. Who among the following was the Congress President at Madras Session of 1927 when it boycotted the Simon Commission?

(A)  Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(B)  M. A. Ansari

(C)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(D)  Subhash Chandra Bose

Show Answer

60. Why did Kalinga prove to be a turning point in the life of Ashoka?

(A)  Ashoka annexed Kalinga

(B)  It was the starting point of the expansion of his empire

(C)  Ashoka became a zealous Buddhist

(D)  It enabled Mauryan Empire to reach its climax

Show Answer

61. Which of the following wings was not part of the espionage system described by Kautilya?

(A)  Crime Branch

(B)  Special Branch

(C)  Political Branch

(D)  None of these

Show Answer

62. Alauddin Khalji did not build

(A)  Siri fort

(B)  Tomb of Jalauddin

(C)  Hauz-i-Alai

(D)  Jamaat Khana Masjid

Show Answer

63. Which of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion?

(A)  Nanda

(B)  Maurya

(C)  Sunga

(D)  Kanva

Show Answer

64. Which of the following Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) is under development in India?

(A)  Agni-I

(B)  Agni-II

(C)  Agni-IV

(D)  Agni-VI

Show Answer

65. Who among the following was adjudged as the Most Valuable Player of the 17^th Asian Games held at Incheon, South Korea?

(A)  Mary Kom of India

(B)  Kosuke Hagino of Japan

(C)  Ning Zetao of China

(D)  None of these

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 66-70): In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

66. East : Orient :: ? : ?

(A)  North : Polar

(B)  North : Tropic

(C)  South : Capricorn

(D)  West : Occident

Show Answer

67. Ignominy : Disloyalty : : ? : ?

(A)  Death : Victory

(B)  Martyr  : Man

(C)  Fame : Heroism

(D)  Destruction : Victory

Show Answer

68. Loath : Coercion : : ? : ?

(A)  Detest : Caressing

(B)  Irritate : Caressing

(C)  Irate : Antagonism

(D)  Reluctant : Persuasion

Show Answer

69. Trilogy : Novel : : ? : ?

(A)  Rice : Husk

(B)  Milk : Cream

(C)  Serial : Episode

(D)  Gun : Cartridge

Show Answer

70. Wife : Marriage : : ? : ?

(A)  Bank : Money

(B)  Nationality : Citizenship

(C)  Service : Qualification

(D)  Attendance : Register

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 71-75): Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some inter-linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at A, B, C or D. You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.

71. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Doctors, Human Beings and Married People?

Show Answer

72. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Children, Naughty and Studious?

Show Answer

73. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Thief, Criminal and Police?

Show Answer

74. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Man, Worker and Garden?

Show Answer

75. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Males, Cousins and Nephews?

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 76-80): In each of the following questions, select a figure fro amongst the four alternative, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

76. 

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77. 

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78. 

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79. 

      

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80. 

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 81-85): Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked 1, 2, 3 4 and 5 called the Problem Figures followed by four other figures marked A, B, C and D called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

81. 

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82. 

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83. 

       

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84. 

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85. 

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Directions (Qs. No. 86-90): In each of the following questions, four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

86. 

(A)  Othello

(B)  King Lear

(C)  Oliver Twist

(D)  Macbeth

Show Answer

87. 

(A)  Nimitz

(B)  Yamamoto

(C)  Nelson

(D)  Montgomery

Show Answer

88.

(A)  Blaze

(B)  Glint

(C)  Simmer

(D)  Shimmer

Show Answer

89.

(A)  Aravalli hills

(B)  Shivalik hills

(C)  Mole hills

(D)  Satpura hills

Show Answer

90.

(A)  Beaver

(B)  Alpaca

(C)  Walrus

(D)  Koala

Show Answer

Directions (Qs. No. 91-95): In each problem, out of the four figures marked A, B, C and D three are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

91. 

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92. 

 Show Answer

93. 

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94. 

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95. 

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Directions (Qs. No. 96-100): Each of the following questions consist of two sets of figures. Figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 constitute the Problem Set while figures A, B C and D constitute the Answer Set. There is a definite relationship between figures 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 and 4 by selecting a suitable figure from the Answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in fig. 4.

96. 

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97. 

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98.

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99. 

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100. 

Show Answer