Born on 10.03.1964 in originally agriculturist family from Ludhiana district in Punjab . Father retired as Chief Engineer ,Punjab PWD (B&R) in 1981. Late maternal grandfather retired as IAS officer in 1956. Did schooling from St.John’s High School, Chandigarh and ISC-12 in 1982 from Yadavindra Public School, Patiala . Thereafter, completed his graduation in B.A. honours (History) in 1985 and postgraduation in M.A. (History) in 1987 from St.Stephen’s College, Delhi. Completed his LL.B. in 1992 from University of Delhi. Started his practice in 1992 at Punjab & Haryana High Court. Appointed as Assistant Advocate General ,Punjab from 10.03.1995 to 21.04.1997; then as Deputy Advocate General from 13.06.1997 till his re-designation as Senior Deputy Advocate General on 16.04.2002 and worked as such till 07.09.2005 , Additional Advocate General, Punjab from 07.09.2005 till elevation. Argued important cases pertaining to Civil, Constitutional, Criminal, Service, Land Acquisition, Public Interest Litigation, for over 19 years on behalf of State of Punjab. Appointed as Central Government Counsel in November, 2007 for conducting cases before Punjab & Haryana High Court and appeared in important cases for Union of India including LPAs, CEA, Arbitration cases, writ petitions challenging orders of CAT. Appointed as Senior Panel Counsel for conducting Central Government cases in the High Court of Punjab & Haryana w.e.f 30th November 2009 and continued till elevation. Conducted matters pertaining to Public Interest Litigation, Writs challenging vires of Central Acts and other important litigation for the Union of India . Appointed Amicus Curaie by Punjab and Haryana High Court in several important cases including the matter where effect of judicial officer pronouncing orders/judgments without signing or detailing reasons was in question, titled as “ Court on its own motion vs State of Punjab and others”, reported as (2007) 4 RCR 731. Conducted cases before other forums including AAFIR, CAT and Arbitration Tribunals. Represented the Punjab State in Cooch Behar Trophy ( Board of Control For Cricket in India ) Tournaments (1978-82). Had the best round in Juris Cup Golf ( All India Tournament for Lawyers & Judges) in 2002, 2004, 2005 and 2008. Elevated on 25.09.2014 as an Additional Judge at Punjab & Haryana High Court. Transferred to Rajasthan High Court on 19.12.2014 and sworn in as a permanent Judge on 20.05.2016. Transferred to Punjab & Haryana High Court and assumed charge on 05.10.2016
Born in a family of lawyers, after having been designated as a Senior Advocate by the Punjab and Haryana High Court, was elevated as Additional Judge of the same Court on 25.09.2014. Thereafter, on 23.05.2016, was administered oath as Permanent Judge
His Lordship was born in small agriculurist family on 18.10.1955 at village Ugra Kheri, near Panipat, District Karnal (now District Panipat), Haryana. His Lordship did his schooling from the village school and S.D. Higher Seconday School, Panipat. His Lordship did his graduation from Arya College, Panipat. His Lordship did his L.L.B. from University of Rajasthan, Jaipur in the year 1982. His Lordship got enrolled with the Bar Council of Punjab and Haryana on 8th June, 1982 and started his practice in the Punjab and Haryana High Court, Chandigarh in July 1982. His Lordship practiced mainly in the Punjab and Haryana High Court. His Lordship held Fellowship of Bar Council of India during the year 1985-86. His Lordship was unanimously elected as Executive Member of the Punjab and Haryana High Court Bar Association during the year 1985-86. His Lordship mainly practiced in Civil, Constitutional, Labour and Service matters. His Lordship had been on the panel of Advocates in the Punjab and Haryana High Court for various Government/Statutory Authorities/Public Undertakings including Haryana Minerals Limited, Municipal Councils/Corporations, Pollution Control Board, Universities and Improvement Trusts. His Lordship was appointed as Aditional Advocate General, Haryana, in May, 2005 and continued till 12th September 2011. His Lordship, while working as Additional Advocate General, Haryana also remained the First Appellate Authority under the Right to Information Act, 2005. His Lordship was elevated to the Bench of Punjab and Haryana High Court on 30.09.2011.
Her Lordship was born on October 11, 1962 at Jalandhar. She belongs to a family of illustrious Lawyers. Her great grand-father Late Shri Karam Chand Bahri was a well known Lawyer of his times on the civil side. Her grand-father Late Shri Som Dutt Bahri also practiced Law on the civil side and was also Member Legislative Assembly, Punjab, from 1952 to 1957. Her father Hon’ble Mr. Justice Amrit Lal Bahri retired as Judge of Punjab & Haryana High Court in the year 1994. Her Lordship did her schooling from Carmel Convent School, Chandigarh, and graduation in Economics (Hons.) from Government College for Women, Chandigarh in the year 1982 in Ist Division. Thereafter, she did her Law from Punjab University, Chandigarh, in the year 1985 in Ist Divison. She was enrolled as an Advocate in the year 1986 with Bar Council of Punjab & Haryana and started practice in Punjab & Haryana High Court. She was appointed as Assistant Advocate General, Haryana, in March 1992. Thereafter, she was appointed as Deputy Advocate General, Haryana, in August 1999 and Senior Advocate General, Haryana, in December 2009. While reprsenting the State of Haryana, she handled several cases relating to Service matters, land Acquisition, Taxation, Revenue, Labour cases and MACT cases. She was elevated as Judge of the Punjab & Haryana High Court on August 16, 2010
IBPS RRBs-V Officer (Scale I) Common Recruitment Process Preliminary Online Examination Held on November 4, 2016
IBPS RRBs-V Officer (Scale I) Common Recruitment Process Preliminary Online Examination
Held on November 4, 2016
Part I Reasoning Ability
1. If only one meaningful English word can be made with the first, the fourth, the ninth and the tenth letters of the word CORRUPTION, using each letter only once, then which of the first letter of the word from the left. If no such word can be formed then your answer is X. If more than one such word can be formed then your answer is Z?
(a) X
(b) Z
(c) R
(d) O
(e) C
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 2-6) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate option.
a. if only conclusion I is true
b. if only conclusion II is true
c. if both conclusions are true
d. if none of the conclusions is true
e. if either conclusion I or II is true
2. Statements P < E < T ≤ R; T ≥ K
Conclusions I. K > P II. R ≥ K
Ans: (b)
3. Statements X < W; A > C ≥ H = W
Conclusions I. C > X II. B < W
Ans: (c)
4. Statements B ≤ N < D; K = R < D ≤ W
Conclusions I. N = R II. B < W
Ans: (b)
5. Statements J ≤ L < B ≤ S > Y < M
Conclusions I. J < M II. L ≥ Y
Ans: (d)
6. Statements B ≤ N < D; K = R < D ≤ W
Conclusions I. W > K II. N ≥ W
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people- A< B, C, D, M, N, O and P are sitting around a square table (but not necessarily in the same order) in such a way that four of them sit at four corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing the centre and the ones sitting at the corners are facing outside (i.e., opposite to the centre)
A sits in the middle of one of the sides. Only one person sits between AA and M. A sits third to the right of B. Only three people sit between B and N. C sits second to the right of N. O and C face the same direction. M is not an immediate neighbour of O. P sits second to the right of D.
7. Who is to the immediate left of M?
(a) N
(b) B
(c) D
(d) P
(e) C
Ans: (e)
8. What is the position of O with respect to P?
(a) Fourth to the left
(b) Third to the left
(c) Third to the right
(d) Immediate right
(e) Immediate left
Ans: (b)
9. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) None of the given statements is true.
(b) Only three people sit between O and D.
(c) D sits third to the left of A.
(d) M sits at one of the corners of the table.
(e) M is an immediate neighbour of P.
Ans: (a)
10. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) D
(b) O
(c) P
(d) A
(e) M
Ans: (b)
11. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the one who sits to the immediate right of N, when counted from the left of B?
(a) O, D
(b) M, P
(c) C, P
(d) M, C
(e) A, C
Ans: (c)
12. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 67594138 (both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them as in the arithmetic series?
(a) Two
(b) None
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Ans: (e)
13. In a queue of fifteen people facing North, Rahul’s position is ningth from the end of the queue. Only four people are standing between Rahul and Tom, karan is standing immediately after Tom. Bharti is standing exactly between Karan and Rahul. Sonali is standing before Bharti, but after Tom. What is position of Sonali from the beginning of the queue? (Note : All people are standing one behind the other)
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Seventh
(c) Eleventh
(d) Fourth
(e) Sixth
Ans: (d)
14. The following series is based on the English alphabets. Which one of the following will come in place of the question mark in th given alphabetical series?
XBF UDK RFO OHR ?
(a) LKU
(b) MKS
(c) LJT
(d) MJS
(e) LJV
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
S is 11 m East of N. S is 8 m North of P. P is 4 m West of O. Point O is the midpoint of points P and R, such that P, O and R form a straight line. Q is 13 m South of R.
15. If L is 7 m East of R and J is 5 m South of L, then what is the distance between L and S?
(a) 6 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 17 m
(d) 5 m
(e) 3 m
Ans: (c)
16. In which direction is N with respect to Q?
(a) North-West
(b) West
(c) East
(d) North-East
(e) South-West
Ans: (a)
17. Hiten walks 2 m towards North form point P, takes a right turn and walks for 8 m. How far will he be from point Q?
(a) 13 m
(b) 7 m
(c) 17 m
(d) 8 m
(e) 15 m
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-22) Study the following information to answer the given questions. Nine persons, E, F, G, H, K, I, L, M, N, and O are seated in a straight line facing North, with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order.
Only two people sit between E and the one sitting at extreme ends of the line. K sits second to the right of E. H sits fourth to the left of M. M does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. M is not an immediate neighbour of E. The number of people sitting between H and K is double than that between M and O. More than two people sit between G and E. G is not an immediate neighbour o M. F is an immediate neighbour of L, but not H.
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) N, E
(b) M, H
(c) K, L
(d) O, N
(e) F, O
Ans: (d)
19. Which of the following is true with respect to N as per the given arrangement?
(a) N is an immediate neighbour of H.
(b) N sits second to the left of M.
(c) N sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(d) More than two people sit between N and G.
(e) None of the given options is true.
Ans: (e)
20. Who sits second to the left of H?
(a) N
(b) K
(c) F
(d) E
(e) No one as H sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
Ans: (c)
21. Who amongst the following sit exactly between N and O?
(a) H, L
(b) F, O
(c) F, E
(d) M, K
(e) K, O
Ans: (d)
22. In which of the given pairs of people, is even number of people sitting between them?
(a) G, E
(b) K, L
(c) F, M
(d) O, M
(e) K, N
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 23-27) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Sagar sells mobiles of seven different companies viz. Samsung, HTC, Lenovo, Intex, Micromax, Nokia and Oppo starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.
Sagar sold HTC on Monday. He sold only three mobiles between HTC and Samsung. He does not sell any mobile between the day he sold Samsung and Lenovo. He sold only two mobiles between Lenovo and Oppo. He sold Micromax mobiles the day immediately before the day he sold Oppo mobiles. He sold Intex on one of the days after Oppo, but not on Sunday.
23. On which day Sagar sold Micromax?
(a) Thursday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday
(e) Wednesday
Ans: (b)
24. How many mobiles did Sagar sell between HTC and Lenovo?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
(e) Three
Ans: (a)
25. Which of the following is not true as per the given arrangement?
(a) Sagar sells mobiles of anyone company between Samsung and Nokia.
(b) Sagar sells Intex on Thursday.
(c) Sagar did not sell mobile of any other company between Oppo and Intex.
(d) All the given statements are true.
(e) Sagar sells Lenovo on Friday.
Ans: (e)
26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Nokia-Friday
(b) Samsung-Thursday
(c) Micromax-Monday
(d) Intex-Wednesday
(e) Oppo-Tuesday
Ans: (a)
27. Which mobile did Sagar sell on Sunday?
(a) Nokia
(b) Lenovo
(c) Micromax
(d) None of those given as options
(e) Oppo
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 28-32) In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows disregarding commonly known facts.
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I or II follows
e. if both conclusions I and II follow
28. Statements All copies are book.
No book is a pencil.
All pencils are rubbers.
Conclusions
I. No rubber is a book.
II. Some copies are rubbers.
Ans: (d)
29. Statements Some drinks are eatables.
All eatables are sweets.
Conclusions
I. At least some sweets are drinks.
II. All drinks are sweets.
Ans: (a)
30. Statements All copies are book.
No book is a pencil.
All pencils are rubbers.
Conclusions
I. No copy is a pencil.
II. Some books are rubbers.
Ans: (a)
31. Statements Some mobiles are calculators.
Some calculators are pens.
Some pens are scales.
Conclusions
I. No calculator is a scale.
II. At least some calculators are scales.
Ans: (c)
32. Statements Some mobiles are calculators.
Some calculators are pens.
Some pens are scales.
Conclusions
I. Some mobiles are sales.
II. All pens being calculators is a possibility.
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37) Study the following information and answer the questions.
Nine friends-A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I live on nine different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and, so on till the topmost floor is numbered nine. I lives on floor numbered six.
E lives on an odd numbered floor above, I. Only three people live between E and G. A lives on an even numbered floor immediately below D, but not on the floor numbered eight. Only one person lives between A and F. C lives on one of the floors below F. The number of people living above C is equal to the number of people living below H.
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) HB
(b) FC
(c) DE
(d) EI
(e) AG
Ans: (c)
34. How many persons live between A and the person living on the floor numbered seven?
(a) More than three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
(e) Three
Ans: (b)
35. H lives on which of the following floor numbers?
(a) Eight
(b) One
(c) Five
(d) Nine
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (d)
36. Which of the following is not true about B as per the given arrangement?
(a) B lives on an even numbered floor.
(b) All the given statements are true.
(c) Only one person lives between B and E
(d) H lives immediately above B.
(e) Only one person lives above B.
Ans: (c)
37. In which of the given pairs of people, is even number of people living between them?
(a) G, C
(b) H, E
(c) E, D
(d) I, H
(e) B, I
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
S is the husband of Q. A is the brother of D. A is the only son of B. D is the sister of Q. R is married to D. M is the father of R. N is the daughter of Q.
38. If V is the grandfather of N, then how is B related to R?
(a) Uncle
(b) Mother-in-law
(c) Grandmother
(d) Aunt
(e) Father-in-law
Ans: (e)
39. How is S related to A?
(a) Father
(b) Grandfather
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Uncle
(e) Nephew
Ans: (c)
40. How is D related to N?
(a) Mother
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Cousin
(d) Mother-in-law
(e) Aunt
Ans: (e)
Part II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) What approximate value will come in place of question marks in the given equations?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
41. 9 ÷ 4.02 + 13.04 × 28.978 = ?
(a) 1430
(b) 1470
(c) 1410
(d) 1490
(e) 1240
Ans: (*)
42. ?% of (767 ÷ 6) = 7.8892
(a) 25
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) 75
Ans: (d)
43. 89 – 15.03 ÷ 3.693 = 1039.88 ÷ ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 2
(e) 12
Ans: (c)
44. 99 × 4.98 + 129.992 – 75.05 = ?
(a) 540
(b) 780
(c) 680
(d) 620
(e) 760
Ans: (c)
45.
(a) 35
(b) 510
(c) 25
(d) 15
(e) 20
Ans: (c)
46. Jar A contains 78 L of milk and water in the respective ratio of 6 : 7. 26 L of the mixture was taken out from jar A. What quantity of milk should be added to jar A, so that water constitutes 40% of the resultant mixture in jar A?
(a) 8 L
(b) 361 L
(c) 12 L
(d) 14 L
(e) 18 L
Ans: (e)
47. At its usual speed, a 150 m long train crosses a platform of length L m in 24 seconds. At 75% of its usual speed, the train crosses a vertical pole in 12 seconds. What is the value of L ?
(a) 250
(b) 225
(c) 240
(d) 260
(e) 280
Ans: (a)
48. In a class, the respective ratio between the number of boys and the number of girls is 3 : 1. A test was conducted, where in the average score of the boys was 73, while that of the entire class was 71. What was the average score of the girls?
(a) 68
(b) 71
(c) 67
(d) 65
(e) 63
Ans: (d)
49. Two years ago, A’s age was 1/2 of B’s age at that time. A’s age four years hence will be 22 years less than B’s age eight years hence. What is B’s present age?
(a) 30 yr
(b) 24 yr
(c) 36 yr
(d) 42 yr
(e) 38 yr
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-54) In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and choose the appropriate option.
a. x > y b. x , y c. x ≥ y
d. x ≤ y e. x = y or cannot be determined
50. I. 3x2 + 14x + 15 = 0 II. 2y2 + 19y + 44 = 0
Ans: (a)
51. I. x2 = 196 II. y2 + 2y – 48 = 0
Ans: (e)
52. I. 2x2 + 17x + 36 = 0 II. 3y2 + 20y + 33 = 0
Ans: (b)
53. I. x2 + 12x + 35 = 0 II. 3y2 + 19y + 20 = 0
Ans: (d)
54. I. x2 – 7x + 10 = 0 II. y2 – 5y + 6 = 0
Ans: (c)
55. When 9 is subtracted from a two digit number, the number so formed is reverse of the original number. Also, the average of the digits of the original number. Also, the average of the digits of the original number is 7.5. What is definitely the original number?
(a) 87
(b) 92
(c) 90
(d) 69
(e) 96
Ans: (a)
56. A, B and C have a certain amount of money with themselves. C has 3/4 of what A has and B has Rs. 50 less than C. If A, B and C together have Rs. 250, then how much does A alone have?
(a) Rs. 75
(b) Rs. 160
(c) Rs. 80
(d) Rs. 120
(e) Rs. 140
Ans: (d)
57. A boat takes six hours to travel a certain distance downstream and five hours to travel a certain distance upstream. The distance travelled upstream is half of the travelled downstream. If the speed of the current is 4 km/h, what is the speed of the boat in still water?
(a) 16 km/h
(b) 20 km/h
(c) 24 km/h
(d) 10 km/h
(e) 18 km/h
Ans: (a)
58. It takes Rs. 3159 to plant synthetic grass in a square lawn, 1/4 of which is paved (and thus does not require grass.) If each side of this lawn measures 18m, what is the rate that the gardener charges for planting synthetic grass?
(a) Rs. 18 m2
(b) Rs. 11 m2
(c) Rs. 16 m2
(d) Rs. 15 m2
(e) Rs. 13 m2
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-63) Refer to the pie charge and answer the given questions.
59. What is the difference between the total number of tickets sold by theatres A and D together and then sold by theatres B and C together?
(a) 82
(b) 78
(c) 55
(d) 75
(e) 85
Ans: (e)
60. The number of tickets sold by theatre B, on Saturday, was 32 more than the number of tickets sold on Friday. The number of tickets sold by theatre E, on Saturday, was 59 more than the number of tickets sold on Friday. What was the respective ratio between the number of tickets sold by theatres B and E on Saturday?
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 7 : 6
(c) 11 : 6
(d) 7 : 5
(e) 11 : 5
Ans: (b)
61. If the total number of tickets sold by all the theatres together on Friday was 70% more than that sold on Thursday, what was the total number of tickets sold by all the theatres together on Thursday?
(a) 400
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 300
(e) 550
Ans: (c)
62. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of tickets sold by theatre B?
(a) 56.8°
(b) 57.6°
(c) 58.5°
(d) 55.6°
(e) 54.2°
Ans: (b)
63. Out of the number of tickets sold by theatre C, 5/12 were purchased by females and out of the total number of tickets sold by theatre D, 1/17 were purchased by females. What was the total number of tickets purchased by females from theatres C and D together?
(a) 100
(b) 108
(c) 110
(d) 120
(e) 104
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 64-67) Based on the following table, answer the given questions.
Note The institutes offer classes for French and Spanish languages only.
64. The number of male students, who have enrolled for French classes in institute R is what percent of the total number of students (male and female) who have enrolled for both the classes in institute T?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans: (e)
65. In institutes S, the percentage of male students, who have enrolled for Spanish class, is 70% of the total number of students (Male and female both) who have enrolled for Spanish class. What is the total number of male students, who have enrolled for both the classes together in institute S?
(a) 413
(b) 419
(c) 405
(d) 423
(e) 428
Ans: (*)
66. The number of male students, who have enrolled for French class in institute S is approximately, what percent more than the number of female students, who have enrolled for the same class in institute U?
(a) 25%
(b) 44%
(c) 38%
(d) 51%
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (d)
67. What is the respective ratio between number of students (both male and female) who have enrolled for Spanish class in institute R and those enrolled for the same classes in institute U?
(a) 11 : 9
(b) 16 : 7
(c) 15 : 4
(d) 18 : 7
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
68. A bag contains 20 tickets numbered from 1 to 20. Two tickets are drawn at random. What is probability that both numbers are prime?
(a) 8/20
(b) 14/95
(c) 7/20
(d) 21/190
(e) 21/25
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 69-73) What will come in place of question mark in the given number series?
69. 10 11 15 24 40 ?
(a) 90
(b) 87
(c) 114
(d) 95
(e) 65
Ans: (e)
70. 25 35 49 67 89 ?
(a) 24
(b) 81
(c) 115
(d) 107
(e) 93
Ans: (c)
71. 11 9 15 41 159
(a) 740
(b) 607
(c) 751
(d) 709
(e) 789
Ans: (e)
72. 5 10.5 16.5 28.5 48.5 ?
(a) 57.5
(b) 78.5
(c) 93.5
(d) 64.5
(e) 85.5
Ans: (b)
73. 18 9 9 18 72 ?
(a) 460
(b) 372
(c) 576
(d) 484
(e) 380
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 74-78) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
74. What is the respective ratio between total number of shirts sold by store B in January and February together and that by the same store in April and May together?
(a) 10 : 9
(b) 7 : 5
(c) 5 : 3
(d) 3 : 2
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
75. What is the average number of shirts sold by store A in January, April and May?
(a) 270
(b) 220
(c) 260
(d) 240
(e) 230
Ans: (d)
76. Number of shirts sold by store A increased by what percent from February to May?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans: (b)
77. If the total number of shirts sold by store A and B together in June is 120 more than that sold in March, what was the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B together in June?
(a) 680
(b) 690
(c) 650
(d) 670
(e) 660
Ans: (d)
78. If the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B together in December is 25% less than that in April, what is the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B together in December?
(a) 415
(b) 400
(c) 405
(d) 395
(e) 425
Ans: (c)
79. A starts a business with Rs. 2500. After one month from the start of the business, B joined with Rs. 4500 and A withdrew completely after eleven months from the start of the business. If the difference between A’s and B’s respective shares in the annual profit was Rs. 4800, what was the annual profit earned?
(a) Rs. 14800
(b) Rs. 15800
(c) Rs. 14400
(d) Rs. 11400
(e) Rs. 15600
Ans: (c)
80. A completes 5/6th of a given task in 10 days and is then replaced by B. The entire task is completed in 13 days. What is the respective ratio of the number of days in which A and B independently can complete the entire task?
IBPS CWE-VI PO/MT Preliminary Online Examination Held on October 23, 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
IBPS CWE-VI PO/MT Preliminary Online Examination Held on October 23, 2016
Part I Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In the following questions, relationships between different element is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
a. if only conclusions II is true
b. if only conclusion I is true
c. if both conclusions are true
d. if either conclusion I or II is true
e. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
1. Statements S ≤ L ≤ I = P ≥ E > R; L > Q
Conclusions I. P ≥ S II. I > R
Ans: (c)
2. Statements G > R ≤ E = A ≤T ≤ S; D ≤ A ≤ J
Conclusions I. T ≥ D II. R > S
Ans: (b)
3. Statements A ≥ B > C ≤ D ≤ E < F
Conclusions I. A ≥ E II. C < F
Ans: (a)
4. Statements G > R ≥ E = A ≤ T ≤ S; D ≤ A ≤ J
Conclusions I. J > G II. J = G
Ans: (e)
5. Statements S ≤ L ≤ I = P ≥ E > R; L > Q
Conclusions I. L < R II. E ≥ Q
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions based on it.
A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are sitting is a circle. (But not necessary in the same order) there faces are on the centre. W is sitting third to the left of Y. The person, who is from Dwarka is to the immediate right of W and W is not from Okhla. B is sitting fourth to the right of Z. Z is not the neighbour of Y. Neither B nor Z is an immediate neighbour of W. X is from Chanakyapuri and is sitting third to the right of the person from Dwarka. The person from Mehrauli is sitting second to the left of person from Chanakyapuri. The persons from Rohini is sitting second to the left of W. A, who is from Lajpat Nagar, is sitting exactly between X and Z. The person from Saket is sitting second to the right of the person from Lajpat Nagar, C is sitting third to the left of X.
6. Who amongst the following persons belongs to Okhla?
(a) Y
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) Z
Ans: (a)
7. What is A’s position with respect to B?
(a) Third to the right
(b) Second to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the right
Ans: (a)
8. How many people are sitting between Z and C when counted in an anticlockwise direction From C?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans: (d)
9. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and, so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) B – Rohini
(b) Z – Mehrauli
(c) D – Okhla
(d) Y – Saket
(e) X – Dwarka
Ans: (e)
10. Which of the following statements is false according to the mentioned arrangement?
(a) C is to the immediate right of the person from Karol Bagh.
(b) The person from Lajpat Nagar is third to the right of the person from Mehrauli.
(c) The person from Dwarka is sitting exactly between the person from Karol Bagh and the person from Saket.
(d) D is neither from Chanakyapuri nor from Karol Bagh.
(e) There are only three people between A and C.
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Given answer
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. if both conclusions I and II follow
11. Statements All circles are triangles.
Some triangles are rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.
Conclusions I. All rectangles being triangles is possibility.
II. All circles being square is a possibility.
Ans: (d)
12. Statements Some chairs are tables.
Some bed are tables.
No furniture is bed.
Conclusions I. All chairs being furniture is a possibility.
II. Some tables are not bed is possibility.
Ans: (b)
13. Statements All circles are triangles.
Some triangles are rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.
Conclusions I. Some triangles are not rectangles.
II. No square is a circle.
Ans: (e)
14. Statements All arts are theatre.
Some arts are drama.
Conclusions I. All drama being theatre is a possibility
II. Some dramas are theatre.
Ans: (b)
15. Statements Some chairs are table.
Some bed are tables.
Conclusions I. Some tables are not furniture.
II. All tables being furniture is a possibility.
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18) Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Point B is 25 m South of point A. Point C is 10 m East of point B. Point D is 30 m North of point C. Point E is 7 m East of point D. Point X is 18 m South of point E. Point M is 12 m South of point X. Point C is 7 m West of point M.
16. B is in which direction from point D?
(a) South
(b) South-West
(c) North-West
(d) South-East
(e) North
Ans: (b)
17. If point W is 3 m to the North of point A, then what is the distance between point B and point W?
(a) 28 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 22 m
(d) 24 m
(e) 17 m
Ans: (a)
18. What is distance between point B and point M?
(a) 17 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 21 m
(d) 19 m
(e) 13 m
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 19-23) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Some of them are facing South While some are facing North.
S faces North. Only two people sit to the right of S. T sits third to the left of S. Only one person sits between T and X. X sits to the immediate right of W. Only one person sits between W and Z. Both the immediate neighbours of T face the same direction. U sits fourth to the left of X. T faces the opposite direction as S. Y does not sit at any of the extremes ends of the line. V faces the same direction as W. Both Y and U face the opposite direction of Z.
19. How many person in the given arrangement are facing North?
(a) More than four
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) Two
Ans: (d)
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) W, X
(b) Z, Y
(c) T, S
(d) T, Y
(e) V, U
Ans: (a)
21. What is the position of X with respect to Z?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Fifth to the right
(e) Second to the right
Ans: (b)
22. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Z and W?
(a) T
(b) Y
(c) X
(d) W
(e) U
Ans: (a)
23. Who is sitting 2nd to the right of T?
(a) Z
(b) V
(c) X
(d) W
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-26) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
D is daughter of N. E is wife of N. G is sister of D. C is married to G. N has no son. K is m other of E. Q is only daughter of C.
24. How Q is related to D?
(a) Daughter
(b) Cousin
(c) Niece
(d) Sister in law
(e) Cannot be determined
Ans: (c)
25. How N is related to K?
(a) Brother-in-law
(b) Cousin
(c) Son-in-law
(d) Sister
(e) Brother
Ans: (c)
26. How many daughter N have?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-29) Study the following information and answer the given question.
There are six wires in an extension box A, B, C, D E and F they have different length, but not necessarily in the same order. E is greater than C, but less than D and B. A is greater than D and B. A is not longest wire. F is 13 cm long E is 4 cm long.
27. If D is 5 cm less than F what would be the length of D?
(a) 7 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Ans: (b)
28. Which wire has least length?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) C
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)
29. If A is 10 cm length and B carry 5 cm length, then what would be the length of C?
(a) 6 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) 9 cm
(e) None of these
Ans: (b)
Direction (Q. Nos. 30-35) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are seven people live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them have different income i.e. Rs. 3500, Rs. 15000, Rs. 7500, Rs. 9000, Rs. 11000, Rs. 13500 and Rs. 5000. (But not necessarily in the same order.) M lives on an odd numbered floor, but not on the floor numbered 3.
The one, how has income of Rs. 11000 lives immediately above M. only two people live between M and the one who has income of 7500. The one, who has income of Rs. 15000, lives on one of the odd numbered floors above P. Only three people live between O and the one who has income of Rs. 3500. The one who has income of 7500 lives immediately above O. The one who has income of Rs. 3500 lives immediately above the one who has income of Rs. 5000. S lives on an odd numbered floor. Only one person lives between N and Q. N lives on the one of the floors above Q. Neither O nor M has income of Rs.9000. Q does not has income of Rs. 7500.
30. How much income M has?
(a) Rs. 13500
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 7500
(d) Rs. 15000
(e) Rs. 3500
Ans: (e)
31. Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) Rs. 3500-O
(b) Rs. 15000-R
(c) Rs. 5000-S
(d) Rs. 11000-P
(e) Rs. 9000-N
Ans: (b)
32. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged?
(a) Four
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) Three
Ans: (d)
33. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) The one who has income of 5000 lives immediately below M.
(b) R has income of 15000.
(c) None of the given options is true.
(d) Only four people live between P and S.
(e) S lives immediately below Q.
Ans: (e)
34. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered 2?
(a) N
(b) The one who has income of Rs. 3500.
(c) The one who has income of Rs. 5000.
(d) P
(e) R
Ans: (d)
35. How much income R has?
(a) Rs.13500
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 7500
(d) Rs. 15000
(e) Rs. 3500
Ans: (d)
Part II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-39) Study the table carefully and answer the given questions.
36. If the male population above poverty line for State R is 1.9 million, then, what is the total population of State R?
(a) 4.5 million
(b) 4.85 million
(c) 5.35 million
(d) 6.25 million
(e) 6 million
Ans: (d)
37. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the State S if it is known that the population of State S is 7 million?
(a) 3 million
(b) 2.13 million
(c) 1.33 million
(d) 5.7 million
(e) 4 million
Ans: (b)
38. What is the male population above poverty line for State P, if the female population below poverty line for State P is 2.1 million?
(a) 2.1 million
(b) 2.7 million
(c) 3.3 million
(d) 2.3 million
(e) 3 million
Ans: (c)
39. If the population of males below poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for State T is 6 million, then what is the respective ratio of the total population of State Q and T?
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 2 : 5
(c) 3 : 7
(d) 4 : 9
(e) 3 : 9
Ans: (b)
40. Average runs of a cricketer in 10 innings is 60. How many runs should he make in 11th innings that his average runs would be 62?
(a) 80
(b) 81
(c) 82
(d) 83
(e) 84
Ans: (c)
41. Find the probability that a number from 1 to 300 is divisible by 3 or 7?
(a) 37/75
(b) 32/75
(c) 36/75
(d) 28/75
(e) 26/75
Ans: (b)
42. 14 men can do a work in 18 days, 15 women can do a work in 24 days. If 14 men work for first 3 days and 10 women work after that for 3 days, find the part of work left after that?
(a) 3/4
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/6
(e) 1/5
Ans: (a)
43. Perimeter of a rectangle is x and circumference of a circle is 8 more than the perimeter of the rectangle. Ratio of radius of circle and length of the rectangle is 1 : 2 and ratio of length and breadth of rectangle is 7 : 3. Find the length of the rectangle?
(a) 14
(b) 21
(c) 28
(d) 35
(e) 7
Ans: (c)
44. A invest on some scheme at 5% and B at 3% for two year. If the total sum invested by A and B is Rs. 4000 and the simple interest received by both is same then find the amount invested by A?
(a) Rs. 1300
(b) Rs. 1500
(c) Rs. 2500
(d) Rs. 2700
(e) Rs. 2100
Ans: (b)
45. Two trains crosses each other in 14 seconds when they are moving in opposite direction, and when they are moving in same direction, they crosses each other in 3 minute 2 seconds. Find the speed of the faster train by what percent more than the speed of the slower train?
(a) 16.67%
(b) 17.33%
(c) 16.33%
(d) 17.67%
(e) 18.33%
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) What will come in place of the question marks in the following number series?
46. 11 20 38 74
(a) 146
(b) 154
(c) 128
(d) 132
(e) 136
Ans: (a)
47. 15 21 38 65 101 ?
(a) 124
(b) 145
(c) 136
(d) 158
(e) 162
Ans: (b)
48. 24 28 19 35 10 ?
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 16
(d) 46
(e) 15
Ans: (d)
49. 7 16 45 184 915 ?
(a) 2092
(b) 5496
(c) 1048
(d) 4038
(e) 3268
Ans: (b)
50. 12 19 35 59 90 ?
(a) 134
(b) 127
(c) 132
(d) 98
(e) 114
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow.
51. The incomes of company X and Y in 2010 were in the ratio of 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their expenditure in 2010?
(a) 7 : 22
(b) 14 : 19
(c) 15 : 22
(d) 27 : 35
(e) 35 : 49
Ans: (c)
52. If the expenditure of company Y in 2007 was Rs. 220 crore, what was its income in 2007?
(a) Rs. 312 crore
(b) Rs. 297 crore
(c) Rs. 283 crore
(d) Rs. 275 crore
(e) Rs. 250 crore
Ans: (b)
53. If the expenditures of company X and Y in 2006 were equal and the total income of the total companies in 2006 was Rs. 342 crore, what was the total profit of two companies together in 2006?
(Profit = Income – Expenditure)
(a) Rs. 240 crore
(b) Rs. 171 crore
(c) Rs. 120 crore
(d) Rs. 102 crore
(e) Rs. 150 crore
Ans: (d)
54. The expenditure of company X in the year 2008 was Rs. 200 crore and the income of company X in 2008 was the same as it expenditure in 2011. What is the income of company X in 2011?
(a) Rs. 385 crore
(b) Rs. 465 crore
(c) Rs. 335 crore
(d) Rs. 295 crore
(e) Rs. 250 crore
Ans: (b)
55. If the incomes of two companies were equal in 2009, then what was the ratio of expenditure of company X to that of company Y in 2009?
(a) 6 : 5
(b) 5 : 6
(c) 11 : 6
(d) 16 : 15
(e) 20 : 11
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In each of these questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
a. if x > y b. if x ≥ y c. d=if x < y
d. if x ≤ y
e. if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established
56. I. 3x2 – 22x + 7 = 0 II. y2 – 15y + 56 = 0
Ans: (d)
57. I. 2x2 – 17x + 36 = 0 II. 2y2 – 19y + 44 = 0
Ans: (d)
58. II. y2 – 169 = 0
Ans: (e)
59. I. 3x2 + 20x + 25 = 0 II. 3y2 + 14y + 8 = 0
Ans: (c)
60. I. 3x2 + 5x + 2 = 0 II. 3y2 + 18y + 24 = 0
Ans: (a)
61. A seller mark the price 50% above the cost price and given 10% discount on an item. While selling, the cheats customer by giving 20% less in weight. Find his overall profit percent (approximate)?
(a) 26%
(b) 35%
(c) 68%
(d) 72%
(e) 76%
Ans: (b)
62. There are 81 L pure milk in container. One-third of milk is replaced by water in the container. Again one-third of mixture is extracted and equal amount of water is added. What is the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 4 : 5
(e) None of these
Ans: (d)
63. A is 2 years older than B while B is 3 year younger than C. The ratio of age of A, 6 years hence and B, 2 years ago is 5 : 3. What was age of C, 6 years ago?
(a) 12 yr
(b) 19 yr
(c) 15 yr
(d) 14 yr
(e) 21 yr
Ans: (c)
64. A, B and C started a business with their investments in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4. After 6 month A invested the half amount more as before and B invested same the amount as before while C withdrew 1/4th of his investment. Find the ratio of their profits at the end of the year.
(a) 5 : 12 : 13
(b) 5 : 11 : 14
(c) 5 : 12 : 14
(d) 5 : 12 : 10
(e) None of these
Ans: (e)
65. The average marks in Science subject of a class of 20 students is 68. If the marks of two students were misread as 48 and 65 of the actual marks 72 and 61 respectively, then what would be the correct average?
(a) 68.5
(b) 69
(c) 69.5
(d) 70
(e) 66
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What should come in the place of question mark in the given questions?
66. 40% of 265 + 35% of 180 = 50% of ? + ?% of 80
(a) 80
(b) 95.5
(c) 130
(d) 125.5
(e) 115
Ans: (c)
67.
(a) 31.4
(b) 28.6
(c) 27.6
(d) 24.2
(e) 22.4
Ans: (a)
68.
(a) 576
(b) 676
(c) 784
(d) 1024
(e) 1156
Ans: (b)
69. (682% of 682) ÷ 856 = ?
(a) 4.50
(b) 10.65
(c) 2.55
(d) 8.75
(e) 6.25
Ans: (e)
70. 5% of 850 + 24.8% of 650 = ?
(a) 295
(b) 330
(c) 270
(d) 375
(e) 220
Ans: (a)
Part III English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-77) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Governments looking for easy popularity have frequently been tempted into announcing give-a-ways all sorts; free electricity, virtually free water, subsidised food, cloth at half price, and so on. The subsidy culture has gone to extremes. The richest farmers in the country get subsidised fertilisers, University education, typically accessed by the wealthier sections, is charged at a fraction of cost. Postal services are subsidised, and so are railway services. Bus fares cannot be raised to economical levels because there will be violent protest, so bus travel is subsidised too. In the past, price control on a variety of times, from steel to scent, meant that industrial consumer of these items got them at less than actual cost, while the losses of the public sector companies that produced them were borne by the taxpayer! A study done a few years ago, came to the conclusion that subsidies in the Indian economy total as much as 14.5% of gross domestic product. At today’s level, that would work out to about Rs. 150000 crore.
And who pay the bill? The theory-and the political fiction on the basis of which it is sold to unsuspecting voters-is that subsidies go the poor, and are paid for by the rich. The fact is that most subsidies go the ‘rich’ (defined in the Indian context as those who are above the poverty line), and much of the table goes indirectly to the poor. Because the hefty subsidy bill results in fiscal deficits, which in turn push up rates of inflation-which, as everyone knows, hits the poor the hardest of all. That is why taxmen call inflation the most regressive form of taxation.
The entire subsidy system is built on the thesis that people cannot help themselves, therefore governments must do so. That people cannot afford to pay for variety of goods and services, and therefore the government must step in. This thesis has been applied not just in the poor countries, but in the rich ones as well; hence the birth of the welfare State in the West, and an almost Utopian social security system; free medical care, food aid, old age security, et.al. But with the passage of time, most of the wealthy nations have discovered that their economies cannot sustain this social safety net, which in fact reduces the desire among people to pay their own way, and takes away some of the incentive to work, in short, the bill was unaffordable, and their societies were simply not willing to pay. To the regret of many, but because of the laws of economies are harsh, most Western societies have been busy pruning the welfare bill.
In India, the lessons of this experience over several decades, and in many countries-do not seem to have been learnt or they are simply ignored in the pursuit of immediate votes. People who are promised cheap food or clothing do not in most cases look beyond the gift horses-to the question of who picks up the tab. The uproar over higher petrol, diesel and cooking gas prices ignored this basic question; if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its cost, who should pay? Diesel in the country is subsidies, and if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its full cost, who does he or she think should pay the balance of the cost? It is a simple question, nevertheless if remains unasked.
The Deva Gowda government has shown some courage in biting the bullet when it comes to the price of petroleum products. But it has been bitten by much bigger subsidy bug. It wants to offer food at half its cost to everyone below the poverty line, supposedly estimated at some 380 million people.
What will be the cost? And of course, who will pick up the tab? The Andhra Pradesh government has been bankrupted by selling rice as Rs. 2 per kg. Should the Central government be bankrupted too, before facing up to the question of what is affordable and what is not? Already, India is perennially short of power because the subsidy on electricity has bankrupted most electricity boards, and made private investment wary unless it gets all manner of State guarantees. Delhi’s subsidized bus fares have bankrupted the Delhi Transport Corporation, whose buses have slowly disappeared from the capital’s streets. It is easy to be soft and sentimental, by looking at programmes that will be popular. After all, who does’ not like a free lunch? But the evidence is surely mounting that the lunch isn’t free at all. Somebody is paying the bill. And if you want to know who, take at the country’s poor economic performance over the years.
71. Which of the following should not be subsidised over the years?
(a) University education
(b) Postal services
(c) Steel
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) All of the above options
Ans: (d)
72. The statement that ‘subsidies are paid by the rich and go to the poor’ is
(a) fiction
(b) fact
(c) fact, according to the author
(d) fiction, according to the author
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (d)
73. Why do you think that the author calls the western social security system Utopian?
(a) The countries belief in the efficacy of the system was bound to turn out to be false.
(b) The system followed by these countries is the best available in the present context.
(c) Everything under this system was supposed to be free, but people were charging money for them.
(d) The theory of system followed by these countries was devised by Dr. Utopia.
(e) Al the options are responsible.
Ans: (c)
74. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
(a) believes that people can help themselves and do not need the government.
(b) believes that the theory of helping with subsidy is very destructive.
(c) believes in democracy and free speech.
(d) is not a successful politician.
(e) believes that subsidies are the best way to help poor.
Ans: (b)
75. Which of the following is not a victim of extreme subsidies?
(a) The poor
(b) The Delhi-Transport Corporation
(c) The Andhra Pradesh government
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) The rich
Ans: (e)
76. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Where subsidies are concerned, the poor ultimately pay the tab.
(b) Inflation is caused by too much subsidies.
(c) Experts call subsides the most regressive form of taxation.
(d) Fiscal deficits are caused due to heavy subsidy bills.
(e) None of the following is true in the context of the passage.
Ans: (a)
77. A suitable title to the passage would be :
(a) There’s No Such Thing as a Free Lunch
(b) The Economic Overview
(c) Deva Gowda’s Government and its Follies
(d) It takes Two to Tango
(e) The Rich and The Poor: Extreme Partiality
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 78-82) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. It is the only country in the world that is carbon negative, which means, it produces more oxygen than it consumes.
B. Bhutan, sandwiched between the two most populous nations on Earth, suffers for their sins.
C. So far, so good. But then, two things happened.
D. Carbon sinks, 70% forest cover, powered almost entirely by mountain streams-Bhutan is a poster child for green living.
E. Glaciers are beginning to melt, flash floods and heavy rains – and even droughts – are common, and temperatures are climbing.
F. One, India and China got richer.
78. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) A
Ans: (b)
79. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans: (c)
80. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) E
Ans: (e)
81. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) B
(d) E
(e) D
Ans: (a)
82. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) A
(d) C
(e) E
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 83-90) In the following passage, you have a brief passage. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Big ideas come from tackling (83) problems. When one is confronted with an overwhelming task, it’s pieces. Business jargon is full of phrases about that, like “pilot projects” and “low-hanging fruit.” They have their place, but in the repertory of management (84), they should share their place with bold approaches to big challenges. Much of today’s most valuable management knowledge came from wrestling with such issues. The most complicated workplace in the middle of the last century was the automobile assembly plant. Drawn to its complexity where Peter F. Drucker, W. Edwards Deming, and Taiichi Ohno, among others, the work they and their disciples did, applied in industry after industry, is the basis of the best that we know about operations, managing people, innovation, organizational design, and much more. The most complex workplaces are tertiary care hospitals. These vast (85) employ tens of thousands of people who, under one roof, do everything from neurosurgery to laundry, Each patient – that is to say, each “job” – calls on a different set of people with a different constellation of (86); eve when the tow patients have the same diagnosis, success may be (87) differently. This is complexity of an order of magnitude greater than automobile assembly, and anyone, who (88) hospitalised knows that management has thus far been unequal to the scope of task. The workers, managers, consultants, and scholars (89) crack this nut will reshape industries and institutions just as (90) as Drucker, Deming, and Ohno Did.
83. (a) small
(b) big
(c) irrelevant
(d) buildings
(e) minor
Ans: (b)
84. (a) weakness
(b) strength
(c) power
(d) practice
(e) symptom
Ans: (b)
85. (a) houses
(b) institute
(c) demagogue
(d) forts
(e) enterprises
Ans: (e)
86. (a) barbarity
(b) talent
(c) skills
(d) unskilled
(e) barbaric
Ans: (c)
87. (a) managed
(b) officious
(c) delivered
(d) measured
(e) postponed
Ans: (d)
88. (a) are been
(b) have being
(c) have been
(d) has been
(e) is be
Ans: (d)
89. (a) who
(b) whom
(c) whose
(d) which
(e) whomsoever
Ans: (a)
90. (a) profoundly
(b) gradually
(c) superficially
(d) speciously
(e) earnest
Ans: (*)
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Identify the error in the sentences given below, if there is no error, choose option (e).
91. (a) The need to set-up
(b) a good library in the locality
(c) has been in the minds of people
(d) for some time now
(e) No error
Ans: (a)
92. (a) Most people would have
(b) attended the union meeting
(c) if they had
(d) had longer notice of it
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
93. (a) He took to
(b) reading times
(c) for better knowledge
(d) of the facts
(e) No error
Ans: (c)
94. (a) When children have difficulty understanding
(b) a certain mathematical process, it is often because
(c) their teachers do not understand it conceptually
(d) themselves and do not present it in a way that children can understand
(e) No error
Ans: (e)
95. (a) Studies show that the lives of millions of mothers
(b) and their children could be saved if countries would
(c) invest in programmes that ensures a healthy pregnancy
(d) and safe childbirth
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
96. (a) Film viewers claim that
(b) the number of scenes depicting alcohol consumption
(c) have increased dramatically over
(d) the last decade
(e) No error
Ans: (c)
97. (a) Forty percent of the people alive today have
(b) never made a phone call, but
(c) thirty percent still have no electricity connections
(d) to their homes
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
98. (a) Workers with less
(b) personal problems are
(c) likely to be
(d) more productive in their work
(e) No error
Ans: (a)
99. (a) Everyone who visits Singapore
(b) is impressed by its cleanliness
(c) which is mainly a result of rigorous implementation
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
1. This company has been/served a legal notice for/using banned substances in/ the manufacture of its products.
(a) This company has been
(b) Served a legal notice for
(c) using banned substances in
(d) the manufacture of its products
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
2. All coastal villages have/been evacuated to proven/ any loss of life due/ to the incoming cyclone.
(a) All coastal villages have
(b) been evacuated to prevent
(c) any loss of life due
(d) to the incoming cyclone
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
3. The reporter was arrested and/ his camera seized by the police,/ after he entered the prohibited/ zone and started taken photos.
(a) The reporter was arrested and
(b) his camera seized by the police
(c) after he entered the prohibited
(d) zone and started taken photos
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
4. After been caught drinking/ in their hostel room, the/ students were suspended from/ the college for a week.
(a) After been caught drinking
(b) in their hostel room, the
(c) students were suspended from
(d) the college for a week
(e) No error
Ans: (a)
5. Once the party ended, we/ realized that it was/ midnight and that there was/ no way we could return home.
(a) Once the party ended, we
(b) realized that it was
(c) midnight and that there was
(d) no way we could return home
(e) No error
Ans: (a)
6. There has been a/ shortage in the supply of/ water in the city/ due for lack of rainfall.
(a) There has been a
(b) shortage in the supply of
(c) water in the city
(d) due for a lack of rainfall
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
7. This move has resulted/ in bringing commodity/ prices down and uplift/ the country’s economy.
(a) This move has resulted
(b) in bringing commodity
(c) prices down and uplift
(d) the country’s economy
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
8. Raj could not take the/call as he have put his cell/ phone on ‘silent’ mode and thus/ could not hear it ringing.
(a) Raj could not take the
(b) calls as he have put his cell
(c) phone an ‘silent’ mode and thus
(d) could not hear it ringing
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
9. He has a passion/ for climbing mountains and/ is contemplates to scale/ Everest next year.
(a) He has a passion
(b) for climbing mountains and
(c) is contemplates to scale
(d) Everest next year
(e) No error
Ans: (c)
10. In their statement, the/ official have blamed/ their supervisors for/having mismanaged the situation.
(a) In their statement, the official have blamed
(b) official have blamed
(c) their supervisors for
(d) having mismanaged the situation
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) Read the following story carefully and answer the questions given below. Certain word/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Duanji was a magistrate who lived a hundred years ago. He was famed or the fairness of his judgements. One day, while the magistrate was walking through the market, he saw a crowd outside a poultry shop. On inquiring what the matter was, he learnt that a peasant had accidentally dropped a heavy sack on a chicken, crushing it to death.
The chicken was small, worthy only about five coins, but the owner of the shop had caught the peasant by his throat and was demanding a hundred. His argument was that the chicken would have grown into a plump bird in another two y ears and then it would have fetched him the amount he was asking for.
Somebody recognized the magistrate and everybody made way for him. “Judge our case, MY lord”, said the owner of the chicken, letting go of the peasant and bowing obsequiously to the magistrate. “This man, through his carelessness has caused the death of a chicken that would have fetched me a hundred coins in another two years!”
Pest had made the peasant’s speech incoherent. Nobody could understand what he was saying. “The price put on the chicken is hundred coins”, said the magistrate, to the peasant. “I advise you to pay.” There was a gasp from the crowd.
Everybody had expected the magistrate to rule in the peasant’s favour as he was penniless. The owner of the chicken was overjoyed. “They said you were fair in your judgements. My Lord,” He said, nibbling his hands in glee, “now I can say there is no one fairer than you”.
“The law is always fair”, smiled the magistrate. “Tell me, how much Grain does a chicken eat in a year.” “About half a sack”, said the poultry shop owner. “So in two years the chicken who died would have whole sack of grain,” said Duanji. “Please give the sack of grain you have saved to this man”.
The owner turned pale. A sack of grain would cost more than hundred cons. Cowed by the jeers of the crowd, he declared he would not take any money from the peasant, and retreated into the safety of h is shop.
11. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Overjoyed’ as used in the story?
(a) Depressed
(b) Charmed
(c) Overburdened
(d) Dreamy
(e) Thrilled
Ans: (e)
12. Which of the following is mot nearly the opposite in meaning to the word ‘Incoherent’ as used in the story?
(a) Illegible
(b) Identified
(c) Clear
(d) Confused
(e) loud
Ans: (c)
13. As mentioned in the story, everyone was disappointed when Duanji informed the peasant that he had to pay a price to the poultry shop owner, because
1. they know the peasant could not afford to p ay the fine
2.they were expecting him to protect the peasant
3. they know it was not a fair decision
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3
(e) All of these
Ans: (e)
14. Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the story?
1. The poultry shop owner and the peasant became friends eventually.
2. Duanji subsequently fulfilled the expectations of the crowd by taking the right decision.
3. The peasant decided to give half the money to the poultry shop owner.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1 and 3
(e) All the given options are not true.
Ans: (d)
15. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase ‘Made way for him’ as used in the story?
(a) Did not allow him to move ahead
(b) Gave him his best place to sit
(c) Succeeded
(d) Moved carefully
(e) Move aside
Ans: (e)
16. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the phrase ‘Turned pale’ as used in the story?
(a) Was shaken
(b) Confident
(c) Annoyed
(d) Haunted
(e) Feeling rosy
Ans: (a)
17. Which of the following can be said about the poultry shop owner?
(a) He was forgiving.
(b) He was annoying.
(c) He was charming.
(d) He was devious.
(e) He was patient.
Ans: (d)
18. As mentioned in the story, the poultry shop owner decided not to take money from-the peasant because
(a) he was afraid of the crowd
(b) he realised he would be at a loss
(c) he respected the magistrate’s decision
(d) he decided to forgive the peasant
(e) he decided to take it later on from his relatives
Ans: (b)
19. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Fair’ as used in the story?
(a) Function
(b) Indecisive
(c) Unacceptable
(d) Expected
(e) Biased
Ans: (e)
20. Which of the following can be a suitable title for the story?
(a) The peasant who lost his chicken
(b) The faithful chicken
(c) The poor poultry shop owner
(d) The final verdict
(e) The rich magistrate
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) In the given passage, there blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words/group of words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/group of words in each case.
The old man was sitting under a tree. ‘Sit’ his voice rang out. ‘Close your eyes and listen the story will serve you will.’
There was a handsome prince whose best friend as a washerman’s son. The king’s father believed that everyone was equal whether born in a palace or a hut. (21) his son to school with the other children- if the school was good enough for them. It was good enough for his son. Now the prince grew up to be good and kind and (22) a girl from the kingdom.
But the king had reservations, Ruling the kingdom required a great strength of character. Was the prince (23) this responsibility? But he served his son and agreed to the marriage. The marriage ceremony was a grand affair and the reception (24). In all the merriment and joy there was no unhappiness. Time went on and the prince and his bride were happy.
The one night, the royal party (25) to the palace when it was attacked by thieves. There was a fierce battle in which the prince (26). The prince was beheaded and the leader of the gang too. The princess prayed fervently for help and Goddess of protection defeated the wicked thieves. She was (27) the princess’ tears that she granted her a boon. The princess immediately asked for the life of her husband.
There was a (28) thunder and the prince was restored to life. But then the Goddess realized that in bringing him back to life she had attached his head as that of the thief. It could not be (29). When they returned to the palace, the king, his ministers and all who encountered them from (30). The princess said to them, ‘It is the head which controls the body which determines character. This is your prince.
21. (a) So he sent
(b) He refused
(c) Instead
(d) Then he put
(e) Therefore
Ans: (a)
22. (a) married
(b) decided to marry
(c) choose his bride
(d) prefer to marry
(e) fixed
Ans: (b)
23. (a) capable
(b) handle
(c) worthy of
(d) accomplish
(e) deal with
Ans: (c)
24. (a) held
(b) not held
(c) well
(d) even grander
(e) still impressive
Ans: (d)
25. (a) arriving at
(b) was returning
(c) leaving
(d) visited
(e) lack
Ans: (b)
26. (a) fall down
(b) injured
(c) was slain
(d) killed
(e) murdered
Ans: (c)
27. (a) so moved by
(b) heard by
(c) troubled
(d) so unhappy
(e) crying
Ans: (a)
28. (a) sounded
(b) noisy
(c) sudden
(d) loud clap of
(e) lightning
Ans: (d)
29. (a) ruined
(b) reverse
(c) incomplete
(d) change
(e) undone
Ans: (e)
30. (a) upset
(b) taken shock
(c) were thrilled
(d) were shocked
(e) alarmed
Ans: (d)
Part II Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following arrangement of letters numbers and symbols carefully to answer the given questions.
31. As per the given arrangement , four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) UHQ
(b) 9D7
(c) @G*
(d) &1R
(e) KAW
Ans: (a)
32. Which of the following will be the seventh to the right of the thirteenth element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) R
(b) V
(c) L
(d) 6
(e) &
Ans: (a)
33. How many letters are there between the seventh element from the left end and the fourteenth element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Seven
(d) Six
(e) Five
Ans: (a)
34. What will be the sum of all the numbers between the tenth element from the left end and the eighth element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) 22
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 20
(e) 19
Ans: (a)
35. If all the letters from the given arrangement are deleted, then which of the following will represent the third element to the left of 4 and fifth element to the right of Ω respectively?
36. If in the word FRACTION, first all the consonants are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then all the vowels are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following is the fifth letter from the right?
(a) F
(b) N
(c) T
(d) R
(e) A
Ans: (d)
37. If all the digits of the number ‘6379452’, are arranged in ascending order from left to right, what will be the sum of the fourth digit from the left and second digit from the right after rearrangement?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 13
(e) 11
Ans: (b)
38. The position of the first and the fifth letters of the word HERITAGE are interchanged, similarly, the position of second and sixth letters and third and seventh letters and fourth and eight letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letters which is fourth from the left and first from the right in the English alphabetical series.
(a) Two
(b) None
(c) More than three
(d) Three
(e) One
Ans: (d)
39. Point D is 7 m to the West of Point R. Anand starts walking form Point R towards East. He walks for 3 m and takes a right turn. He further walks for 4 m takes another right turn. He walks for 5 m and turns to his right. He further walks for 4 m and stops at Point T. In which direction is Point T with respect to Point D?
(a) South
(b) West
(c) East
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) North
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 40-44) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed b y two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement (s) and select the appropriate answer.
Given answer
a. if either conclusion I or ii is true
b. if both conclusions I and II are true
c. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
d. if only conclusion II is true
e. if only conclusion I is true
40.Statements : F < W = J ≥ K; W ≤ D
Conclusions: I. D > K II. K = D
Ans: (a)
41. Statements: V ≤ E = U ≤ X > A
Conclusions: I. X ≥V II. E > A
Ans: (e)
42. Statements: O = M ≥ G; M ≤ P; S > M
Conclusions: I. S > G II. O ≤ P
Ans: (b)
43. Statements: X ≥ W < D = U ≥ R
Conclusions:I. X < U II. R > W
Ans: (c)
44. Statements: N > H = R ≥ B; R ≤C
Conclusions: I. C < H II. H > B
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) These questions are based on five words given below
ROD ITS MUG RAY SEW
45. If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, in how many words thus formed will an alphabet appear twice?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) None
Ans: (a)
46. If the third letter in each of the words becomes the first letter, the first becomes the second and the second becomes the third letter, which of the following will form meaningful English words?
(a) Both MUG and RAY
(b) None of the given options will form a meaningful English word.
(c) Both ROD and SEW
(d) Only RAY
(e) Only ITS
Ans: (e)
47. Which of the following represent the letters immediately following, (in the English alphabetical order) the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words? (the counting is done from left to right)
(a) H, U
(b) F, R
(c) R, H
(d) K, N
(e) Y, T
Ans: (a)
48. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in the dictionary from left to right, the position of which of the following will not change when compared to the given positions?
(a) Both ITS and RAY
(b) The positions of all the given words would change.
(c) Only MUG
(d) Only SEW
(e) Only ROD
Ans: (d)
49. If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to the previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, how many words thus formed will have at least one vowel?
(a) More than three
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) One
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-54) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows, containing four people in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, M, N, O and P are seated and all of them are facing North and in row-2, W, X, Y and Z are seated and all are facing South (but not necessarily in the same order.)
Thus, in the given arrangement each person seated in a row faces another person of the other row. O sits second to the right of one who sits at an extreme ends of the line. O faces an immediate neighbour of W, X sits to the immediate right of W. The one who faces X sits at one of the positions to the left of P. P does not face W. M sits to the immediate left of the one who faces Z.
50. Which of the following represents the immediate neighbours of the one who faces Z?
(a) Only O
(b) N and M
(c) Only N
(d) Only M
(e) M and P
Ans: (e)
51. Which of the following represents the people sitting to the immediate right of O and immediate right of Z respectively?
(a) P, W
(b) N, W
(c) N, Y
(d) P, X
(e) M, W
Ans: (a)
52. Who sits to the immediate right of the one who faces an immediate enighbour of W?
(a) Only P
(b) P and N
(c) Only M
(d) Only O
(e) M and P
Ans: (e)
53. Which of the following represents the correct position of N?
(a) Immediate left of the one who faces V
(b) Second to the right of O
(c) Immediate left of P
(d) Second to the left of the one who faces Z
(e) None of the given options
Ans: (d)
54. Who amongst the following faces P?
(a) Either Z or W
(b) X
(c) Z
(d) Y
(e) W
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 55-59) Read the following passage and sovle the question based on it.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of a family standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing a particular direction. C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them. D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E. A and D are neighbours and F and C are neighbours. B is the neighbour of E.
55. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) A is 3rd to the left of F.
(b) D is 3 rd to the left of E.
(c) F is 3rd to the right of A.
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C.
(e) C is 3rd to the left of F.
Ans: (d)
56. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) C and E are neighbours
(b) E is to the immediate left of F.
(c) C is to the immediate left of D.
(d) A is the immediate left of D.
(e) None of the above
Ans: (d)
57. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) G
(b) B
(c) E
(d) Data Inadequate
(e) F
Ans: (b)
58. Which of the following gives two pairs of neighbours?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)
59. Who sits immediate right of F?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) G
(d) A
(e) B
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 60-64) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight people- J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Q sits to the immediate left of N. Only four persons sit between Q and L. P sits second to the right of M. M is not an immediate neighbour of L. Only three people sit between O and K. K is neither an immediate neighbour of M nor Q.
60. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given arrangement?
(a) P sits third to the left of K.
(b) All the given statements are true.
(c) Both M and L are immediate neighbours of J.
(d) Only three people sit between N and P
(e) K sits to the immediate left of L.
Ans: (d)
61. As per the given arrangement, J : L in the same way as K : N. Following the same pattern, Q:_?
(a) J
(b) M
(c) K
(d) P
(e) O
Ans: (d)
62. What is Q’s position with respect to J?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Fourth to the left
(c) Second to the right
(d) Immediate right
(e) Third to the right
Ans: (b)
63. Who sits exactly between the one who is to the immediate right of P and K when counted from the left of K?
(a) N
(b) O
(c) J
(d) K
(e) Q
Ans: (a)
64. In the given arrangement, if O interchanges its position with N and P interchanges its position with K, then how many persons will sit between P and N, when counted from the right of P?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) More than three
(d) Three
(e) None
Ans: (d)
65. The following series is based on the English alphabets and numbers, which of the following will come in place of the question mark in the given series?
XW2TS6PO10LK14
(a) HG18
(b) JI18
(c) HG16
(d) IH18
(e) JG12
Ans: (a)
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
66. The respective ratio between two positive numbers (X and Y) is 3 : 5. When 2 is added to both the numbers, the ratio between X and Y becomes 5 : 8. What is the difference between both the numbers?
(a) 2
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 6
(e) 3
Ans: (b)
67.
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 11
(e) 9
Ans: (a)
68. ? % of 750 = 75% of 600
(a) 60
(b) 75
(c) 80
(d) 20
(e) 40
Ans: (a)
69. 3720 ÷ 20 = 508 + ?
(a) 454
(b) 422
(c) −322
(d) 444
(e) 452
Ans: (c)
70. 60% of (? + 173.5 + 157.5) = 21 × 12
(a) 83
(b) 109
(c) 89
(d) 79
(e) 99
Ans: (c)
71. (154 × 2.5 ÷ 0.5) ÷ ? = 192.5
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 18
Ans: (d)
72.
(a) 429
(b) 411
(c) 423
(d) 413
(e) 417
Ans: (e)
73. 60% of 725 = 174 × ?
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.9
(c) 2.5
(d) 0.8
(e) 0.3
Ans: (c)
74.
(a) 372
(b) 324
(c) 354
(d) 328
(e) 347
Ans: (a)
75.
(a) 2
(b) 2.4
(c) 0.8
(d) 1.6
(e) 4.8
Ans: (b)
76. ? – (0.6)2 = (0.7)2 ÷35
(a) 1.54
(b) 1.32
(c) 1.92
(d) 1.62
(e) 1.76
Ans: (e)
77. 68% of 320 + 30 ÷8 = ?
(a) 254.4
(b) 258.2
(c) 260.2
(d) 252.7
(e) 255.1
Ans: (e)
78.
(a) 1158
(b) 784
(c) 578
(d) 1024
(e) 484
Ans: (d)
79.
(a) 17
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 19
(e) 11
Ans: (d)
80.
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 2
(e) 3
Ans: (b)
81. ?2 × 8 – 250 = 395
(a) 6
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) 3
(e) 9
Ans: (e)
82. Jim invested Rs. 1700 and Rs. 2300 in schemes A and B respectively for 3 years. If schemes A and B offer simple interest @ 6 percent per annum and @ 9 percent per annum respectively, what is the total interest earned by Jim from both the schemes together after 3 years?
(a) Rs. 927
(b) Rs. 933
(c) Rs. 949
(d) Rs. 935
(e) Rs. 945
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 83-87) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?
83. 5 9 25 89 ? 1369
(a) 343
(b) 355
(c) 349
(d) 341
(e) 345
Ans: (e)
84. 6 17 50 149 ? 1337
(a) 454
(b) 446
(c) 442
(d) 452
(e) 432
Ans: (b)
85. 61 62 54 81 17 ?
(a) 142
(b) 145
(c) 138
(d) 144
(e) 140
Ans: (a)
86. 6 11 18 29 46 ?
(a) 60
(b) 75
(c) 69
(d) 71
(e) 79
Ans: (d)
87. 26 13 13 5 ? 97.5
(a) 39
(b) 45
(c) 48
(d) 41
(e) 35
Ans: (a)
88. In 2003, the total population of a village was 4800, out of which 40% were females. In 2004, the total population increased by 10% as compared to the previous year. If the number of females remained the same in 2004, what was the percentage increase in the number of males in 2004 as compared to 2003?
(a)
(b) 20%
(c) 15%
(d)
(e)
Ans: (d)
89. A boat can travel 114.4 km downstream in 32 minutes. If the speed of the current is 3 km per hour, how much time the boat will take to travel 84 km upstream?
(a) 12 h
(b) 8 h
(c) 4 h
(d) 3 h 30 min
(e) 7 h
Ans: (c)
90. A and B both start a business. Amount invested by B is one-third of that invested by A. Three months from the start of the business, A withdrew one-third of his investment and B tripled his investments. If from the total annual profit earned, A receives Rs. 1800 as his share from the profit, what was the total annual profit earned?
(a) Rs. 2850
(b) Rs. 4750
(c) Rs. 3800
(d) Rs. 3600
(e) Rs. 5400
Ans: (c)
91. A tank (of capacity 160 L) has one inlet, A and one outlet B. Inlet A, alone can fill the empty tank in 6 hours and outlet B alone can empty the full tank in 24 hours. In how many hours will inlet A fill 16 L water in the tank when outlet B is also open?
(a) 1
(b) 4/5
(c) 11/5
(d)
(e) 1/5
Ans: (b)
92. The respective ratio between length and breadth of a rectangle is 8 : 5 and its perimeter is 208 cm. If the side of the square is 40% less than the breadth of the rectangle, what is the perimeter of the square?
(a) 54 cm
(b) 68 cm
(c) 88 cm
(d) 96 cm
(e) 92 cm
Ans: (d)
93. The respective ratio of cost price of articles A and B is 7 : 9. Article A was sold at a profit of 40% and article B was sold at a profit of 10%. If the total profit earned after selling both the articles (A and B) is Rs. 148, what is the difference between cost price of articles A and B?
(a) Rs. 120
(b) Rs. 160
(c) Rs. 200
(d) Rs. 80
(e) Rs. 40
Ans: (d)
94. Two years hence, the respective ratio between A’s age at that time and B’s age at that time will be 6 : 5, A’s age thirteen years ago was half of B’s present age. What is A’s present age?
(a) 16 yr
(b) 40 yr
(c) 28 yr
(d) 22 yr
(e) 34 yr
Ans: (d)
95. Ranu’s monthly salary is four-fifth of Ali’s monthly salary. Ranu and Ali save one-fourth and two-fifth amount from their respective monthly salary. If the difference between the amount save by Ranu and that saved by Ali is Rs. 7000, what is Ranu’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs. 30000
(b) Rs. 35600
(c) Rs. 35000
(d) Rs. 28000
(e) Rs. 21000
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Study the table and answer the given questions.
96. What is the average number of muffins sold by bakery T in March, April and July?
(a) 179
(b) 177
(c) 176
(d) 172
(e) 174
Ans: (b)
97. What is the respective ratio between the total number of muffins sold by bakeries Q and S together in May and the total number of muffins sold by bakeries R and T together in the same month?
(a) 21 : 23
(b) 45 : 88
(c) 19 : 23
(d) 20 : 23
(e) 22 : 29
Ans: (b)
98. If the number of muffins sold by bakery T in August was 70% more than that sold by the same bakery in June, what was the number of muffins sold by the bakery T in August?
(a) 255
(b) 221
(c) 323
(d) 238
(e) 306
Ans: (e)
99. The total number of muffins sold by bakeries Q and S together in June is, what percent more than the number of muffins sold by bakery P in March?
(a) 70%
(b) 74%
(c) 72%
(d) 73%
(e) 75%
Ans: (c)
100. What is the difference between the total number of muffins sold by bakeries P and Q together in April and the total number of muffins sold by bakeries R and S together in July?
1. 15 men and 16 women together can complete a piece of work in 6 days. If 12 women can complete the same project in 32 days, in how many days will 10 men complete the same project ?
(A) 12
(B) 20
(C) 16
(D) 8
(E) 14
Ans: (A)
2. The interest earned when Rs. ‘P’ is invested for four years in a scheme offering 9% p.a. simple interest is more than the interest earned when the same sum (Rs. P) is invested for two Years in another scheme offering 12% p. a. simple interest, by Rs. 360. What is the value of P ?
(A) 2000
(B) 3500
(C) 2500
(D) 4000
(E) 3000
Ans: (E)
Directions – (Q. 3 – 8) Refer to the pie charge and answer the given questions.
Percentage of employees in different departments of branch ‘LMN’ in the year 2014
3. In 2014, there were 30% post graduate employees in department B. In 2015, 20 employees of the same department were shifted to branch ‘PQR’. If in 2015, the percentage of post graduate employees in department B were the same, how many post graduate employees were shifted to branch ‘PQR’ ?
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 6
(E) 8
Ans: (D)
4. The number of employees in Department D is what percent less than the total number of employees in Department A and F together ?
(A) 50
(B) 80
(C) 75
(D) 25
(E) 85
Ans: (C)
5. In department C, the respective ratio between the number of female employees and male employees was 5 : 6. There were equal number of unmarried males and unmarried females in department C. If the respective ratio between married females and married males was 4 : 5, what is the number of unmarried females ?
(A) 20
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) 16
Ans: (D)
6. In 2014, the number of female employees in department E has 5/11 of the total number of employees in the same department. If the number of female employees in department D was 16 less than that in Department E, what is the number of male employees in Department D ?
(A) 32
(B) 31
(C) 28
(D) 20
(E) 24
Ans: (D)
7. What is the average number of employees in Departments C, E and F ?
(A) 89
(B) 87
(C) 97
(D) 109
(E) 99
Ans: (E)
8. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of employees in Department F ? (in Degrees)
(A) 55.9
(B) 56.5
(C) 50.4
(D) 52.8
(E) 51.6
Ans: (C)
9. Four years ago, the respective ratio between the age of Ram and that of Sonu, was 4 : 9. Tina is ten y ears older to Ram. Tina is ten years younger to Sonu. What is Tina’s present age ?
(A) 40 years
(B) 36 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 20 years
(E) 42 years
Ans: (C)
10. A jar has 60 It milk. From the jar, 12 lts of m ilk was taken out and replaced by an equal amount of water. If 12 lts of the newly formed mixture is taken out of the jar, what is the final quantity of milk left in the jar ?
(A) 38.4 lts
(B) 40 lts
(C) 36 lts
(D) 28.6 lts
(E) 36.5 lts
Ans: (A)
Directions – (Q. 11-16) Refer to the graph and answer the given question.
Data regarding number of tourists in two cities – A and B in five different months in the year 2005. Data are given in hundreds
11. Number of tourists in City B in April are what percent more than that in City A in the same month ?
(A) 25
(B) 35
(C) 20
(D) 30
(E) 45
Ans: (E)
12. In the month of December of the previous year (2004), the total number of tourists in both the cities together were 25% more than that in January 2005. What was the number of tourists in both the cities together in December 2004
(A) 57,500
(B) 52,000
(C) 60,500
(D) 54,250
(E) 60,000
Ans: (A)
13. What is the difference between total number of tourists in cities A and B together in January and that in February ?
(A) 2, 500
(B) 2,200
(C) 1,000
(D) 1,500
(E) 2,000
Ans: (E)
14. What is the average number of tourists in city A in February and March ?
(A) 25,000
(B) 28,000
(C) 27,000
(D) 26,000
(E) 28,500
Ans: (C)
15. What is the respective ratio between the total number of tourist in city A in April and May together and that in City Bin the same month together ?
(A) 7 : 16
(B) 7 : 12
(C) 5 : 12
(D) 8 : 13
(E) 7 : 8
Ans: (B)
16. The number of tourists in City B in March is what percent less than that in the same city in May ?
(A) 25
(B) 20
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ans: (C)
Directions – (Q. 17-21) What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
17. √? = (1346.92 + 46.94) ÷ 99.9 – 6.98
(A) 121
(B) 441
(C) 1024
(D) 49
(E) 196
Ans: (D)
18. 012 × 5121/3 × 33.992 ÷ (29 × 16.972) = 2?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) 10
(E) 6
Ans: (E)
19. (14.99% of 4799.995) ÷ ? = (170% of 7.111)2
(A) 150
(B) 25
(C) 100
(D) 50
(E) 5
Ans: (E)
20. 3/20 of 239 = ? ÷ (1.6 ×499)
(A) 30
(B) 300
(C) 600
(D) 120
(E) 80
Ans: (A)
21.
(A) 80
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 120
(E) 40
Ans: (E)
22. In the year 2013, the population of a village A was 30% more than the population of village B. The population of village A in 2014 increased by 20% as compared to the previous year. If the population of Village A in 2014 was 7176, what was the population of village B in 2013 ?
(A) 4000
(B) 5000
(C) 4800
(D) 4600
(E) 5200
Ans: (D)
23. Tom gave 20% of a certain amount of money to Ali. From the money Ali received, he spent 25% on school fees and 35% on buying school uniform. After the mentioned expenses, Ali had Rs. 2800 remaining with him. How much money did Tom have initially ?
(A) Rs. 21,000
(B) Rs. 35,000
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 27,000
(E) Rs. 28,000
Ans: (B)
24. A and B started a business with an investment of Rs. 3500 and Rs. 2500 respectively. After 4 months C joined with Rs. 6000. If the difference between C’s share and B’s share in the annual profit was Rs. 1977, what was the total annual profit ?
(A) Rs. 15,620
(B) Rs. 16,240
(C) Rs. 14,490
(D) Rs. 12,770
(E) Rs. 13,180
Ans: (E)
Directions – (Q. 25-31) Study the table and answer the given questions.
Data regarding number of books sold in either hard bounds or paperback editions and also the categories of books sold in fiction and non-fiction category by four different shops, in a particular month (February 2015).
Book
Shops
Respective ratio between number of hard bounds sold and number of paperbacks sold
Number of paperbacks sold out of total
%of fictions (hard-bound + paperback) sold out of total books sold
A
B
C
D
2 : 3
1 : 5
1 : 3
3 : 5
1200
1000
600
675
60
65
70
75
Note – (i) Total books sold = number of hard bounds + number of paperbacks sold
25. Number of hard bound editions sold by shop C is what percent less than that sold by shop A ?
(A) 90
(B) 50
(C) 75
(D) 70
(E) 80
Ans: (C)
26. Number of non-fictions sold by shop B is what percent of number of non-fictions sold by shop A ?
(A) 52.5
(B) 64.75
(C) 50
(D) 40
(E) 60
Ans: (A)
27. Total number of books sold by shop B is what percent more than that sold by shop D ?
(A)
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 10
(E)
Ans: (E)
28. What is the average number of fictions sold by shops A and B ?
(A) 900
(B) 720
(C) 880
(D) 1100
(E) 990
Ans: (E)
29. In March 2015, the number of paperback editions sold by shop D was 20% more than the same sold by the same shop in the previous month. The number of paperback editions sold in March 2015 by shop D constituted 50% of the total number of books sold by shop D in March 2015. What was the total number of books sold in March 2015 by shop D ?
(A) 1860
(B) 1240
(C) 1861
(D) 1600
(E) 1620
Ans: (E)
30. What is the respective ratio between the number of non-fictions sold by shop C and number of non-fictions sod by shop D ?
(A) 7 : 9
(B) 8 : 9
(C) 6 : 7
(D) 8 : 11
(E) 3 : 5
Ans: (B)
31. The distance between two places A and B is 140 kms. 1st scooter departs from place A to B, at a speed of 50 kmph at 10 a.m. 2nd scooter departs from place B to A at a speed of 30 kmph at 12 pm. At what time will both the scooters meet each other ?
(A) 12 : 30 pm
(B) 01 : 50 pm
(C) 1 : 00 pm
(D) 12 : 50 pm
(E) 1 : 30 pm
Ans: (A)
32. Two mobile phones were purchased at the same price. One was sold at a profit of 30% and the second was sold at a price which was Rs. 2500 less than the price at which the first was sold. If the overall profit earned by selling both the mobile phones was 5%, what was the cost price of one mobile phone ?
(A) Rs. 8000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 4500
(E) Rs. 5500
Ans: (B)
Directions (Q. 33-38) In these questions two equation numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.
33. I. 2x2 – 21x + 52 = 0
II. 2y – 11y + 12 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≤ y
(C) x ≥ y
(D) x < y
(E) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Ans: (C)
34. I. 3x2 – 13x + 14 = 0
II. 2y2 – 5y + 3 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≤ y
(C) x ≥ y
(D) x < y
(E) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Ans: (A)
35. I. 4x2 – 8x + 3 = 0
II. 4y2 – 15y + 14 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≤ y
(C) x ≥ y
(D) x < y
(E) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Ans: (D)
36. I. 2x2 – 9x + 9 = 0
II. y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≤ y
(C) x ≥ y
(D) x < y
(E) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Ans: (B)
37. I. 4x2 + 19x + 22 = 0
II. 2y2 + 11y + 15 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≤ y
(C) x ≥ y
(D) x < y
(E) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Ans: (E)
38. I. x2 + 8x + 15 = 0
II. y2 + 3y + 2 = 0
(A) x > y
(B) x ≤ y
(C) x ≥ y
(D) x < y
(E) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Ans: (D)
Directions – (Q. 39-44) What will come in place of (?) in the given number series ?
39. 606 201 66 21 6 ?
(A) 0.5
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) 3
Ans: (D)
40. 19 10 11 18 38 ?
(A) 97.5
(B) 110
(C) 115
(D) 124.5
(E) 99.5
Ans: (A)
41. 6 4 5 11 ? 189
(A) 44
(B) 39
(C) 65
(D) 96
(E) 62
Ans: (B)
42. 24 26 20 32 12 ?
(A) 42
(B) 54
(C) 56
(D) 46
(E) 64
Ans: (A)
43. 18 19 24 37 66 ?
(A) 158
(B) 224
(C) 219
(D) 192
(E) 127
Ans: (E)
44. 19 6 20.8 23.2 28 ?
(A) 35.7
(B) 37.6
(C) 31.8
(D) 39.8
(E) 38.2
Ans: (B)
Directions – (Q. 45-49) These questions consists of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read the both the statements and choose the appropriate option.
(A) if statement I alone in sufficient to answer the question.
(B) if statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(C) if both statement I and II are needed to answer the question.
(D) If the given data is not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) Either statement I or statement II in needed to answer the question.
45. What is the curved surface area of the right circular cylinder ?
I. Area of the base of the cylinder is 154 cm2.
II. Volume of the cylinder is 1232 cm2.
Ans: (C)
46. What is the area of the circular field ?
I. Area of the largest square that can be inscribed in the given square field is 2450 cm2.
II. Are of the smallest square in which the given circular field can be inscribed is 4900 cm2.
Ans: (B)
47. In how many days can ‘B’ alone complete the work ?
I. A , B and C together can complete the work in days, A and B together can complete the work in days, B and C together can complete it in
II. A, B and C together can complete the piece of work in days, A and C together can complete the work in
Ans: (E)
48. What was the initial quantity of mixture of juice and water ?
I. Juice and water were in the ratio of 8 : 3 respectively in the mixture initially.
II. When 11 litres of mixture is taken out and 6 litres of juice is added, the ratio between juice and water becomes 10 : 3 respectively.
Ans: (C)
49. How much money did Mr. Rajesh receive as retirement funds ?
I. Out of the total money received Mr. Rajesh invested 51% in various schemes, gave 35% of the total money received to his wife and remaining money he spent on miscellaneous items.
II. Out of the total money received, Mr. Rajesh spent 5% on son’s wedding and gave 35% to his wife. Out of the remaining, he invested 28% in insurance policies, 22% in pension fund scheme, 35% in share market and remaining Rs. 4,500,000 he spent on furnishing the house.
Ans: (B)
50. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h and the speed of the current is 3 km/h. The distance travelled by the boat from point A to point B downstream is 24 km more than the distance covered by the same boat from point B to point C upstream in the same time. How much time will the boat take to travel from C to B downstream ?
IBPS PO 2015 Main exam results are to be declared soon:
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) was established in the year 1975 as the Personal Selection Services (PSS) whose recruitment takes place either two tier or three tier process.
IBPS RRB and SO recruitment is a two tier process whereas IBPS PO & Clerk consists of three stages such as Common Written Examination (CWE) followed by an interview and final placement.
About Institute of Banking Personnel Selection:
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection is an autonomous body which was set up to implement world class assessment and selection of personnel for various client organizations. It provides its services to many public sector banks like SBI, RBI, NABARD, SIDBI, few co-operative banks, public sector undertakings of non-financial sectors, state owned companies, Government departments and so on.
IBPS exam has become one of the famous tests in the country for being a successful “Personnel Selection Test Conducting Agency”. Its strength and ability lies in conducting multiple choices of objective tests for Lakhs and Lakhs of students across 200 test centres in India and also in few foreign locations.
Also, few major Universities and reputed management institutes engage IBPS regularly for conducting their Admission tests.
About IBPSPO exam:
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection has conducted preliminary examination on October 3rd, 4th, 10th and 11th, 2015 for the selection of Probationary officer (PO) or Management Trainee (MT) positions.
This was an online computer based test and consisted of multiple choices of questions. The duration of preliminary exam was one hour and total number of questions in the question paper was 100.
The results of the preliminary examination were declared on October 17th 2015.
The results of preliminary examination only serve to shortlist the candidates for the final IBPS PO main examination.
Following this preliminary exam, IBPS PO main exam was conducted on October 31st, 2015. The results of the main exam are expected to be declared soon at the official website of IBPS. Thus, students who wish to check their results please be ready with required details and then click on “IBPS PO/MT Results” which will direct you to the respective page showing your results. Candidates please take a print out of this page for future reference.
The examination pattern for IBPS PO 2015 main comprised of 200 objective types of questions based on Reasoning, Quantitative aptitude, and English language, General awareness with special reference to the banking industry and computer knowledge. Candidates will be finally shortlisted on the basis of the performance in preliminary exam, main exam and personal interview.
II. y2 – 169 = 0
days, A and B together can complete the work in 
days, B and C together can complete it in 
days, A and C together can complete the work in 