NABARD Assistant Manager Examination Held on 15-05-2016 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Assistant Manager Examination Held on 15-05-2016
Quantitative Aptitude
1. The numerical value of the perimeter of a rectangular field is less than that of its area by 128. If the breadth of the same field is halved, then the numerical value of the perimeter of the field becomes 40 less than its area. What is the area of the rectangle? (in centimetre square)
(A) 192
(B) 220
(C) 176
(D) 208
(E) 210
Answer: (A)
Solve both eg. and answer as –
(A) x < y
(B) x > y
(C) x = y or cannot be established
(D) x ≤ y
(E) x ≥ y
2. (I) x2 – 19x + 35 = 0
(II) y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
Answer: (E)
3. (I) 6x2 + 5x + 1 = 0
(II) 2y2 + 7y + 5 = 0
Answer: (A)
4. (I) x2 = 9
(II) 3y2 – 8y + 5 = 0
Answer: (A)
5. (I) 2x2 + 15x + 27 = 0
(II) 2y2 + 11y + 15 = 0
Answer: (D)
6. (I) 2x2 – 9x + 10 = 0
(II) 3y2 – 10y + 8 = 0
Answer: (D)
7. Vessel A contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective quantities of 20 litres and 4 litres. Vessel B contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 3 : 1. Mixtures from vessel A and B are both mixed together in Vessel C. If the resultant percentage of water in Vessel C was 20%, what was the initial quantity of mixture in vessel B? (in litres)
(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 12
(D) 24
(E) 28
Answer: (A)
Directions- (Q. 8 to 12) Study the table and answer the given question-
Note:
(i) Number of students who completed the course = Number of students enrolled – Number of students dropped out.
(ii) Only those students who completed the course could appear for job placement.
(iii) Few data are missing (indicated by-) in the table. You are expected to calculate those values based on the given information, if required to answer any of the questions.
8. In city A, 25% of students (M + F) who completed the course got job. What is the number of female students who dropped out of the course in the same city?
(A) 110
(B) 96
(C) 116
(D) 124
(E) 108
Answer: (E)
9. In city E, respective ratio of male and female students who enrolled for the course is 9 : 8 and respective ratio of male and female students who completed the course is 4 : 3. What is the number of students (M + F) who got job from the same city?
(A) 153
(B) 169
(C) 163
(D) 167
(E) 172
Answer: (A)
10. In city D, number of students (M + F) who dropped out is 3/11th of the number of students (M + F) who enrolled for the course. What percent of students (M + F) in city D, who completed the course, got job?
(A) 86.25
(B) 76.5
(C) 72.25
(D) 80.5
(E) 82.5
Answer: (E)
11. In city C, number of male students who completed the course is equal to number of female students who completed it. Only 96 students, i.e., 25% of the students (M + F) who completed the course, got job, how many male students enrolled for the course in the same city?
(A) 244
(B) 218
(C) 212
(D) 220
(E) 240
Answer: (A)
12. In city B, if 40% of students (M + F) who completed the course, got job, how m any students (M + F) got job in city B?
(A) 160
(B) 154
(C) 162
(D) 166
(E) 172
Answer: (D)
13. In village D, the number of eligible voters grew by 20% from the year 2004 to the year 2014. Also in the year 2014, the number of actual registered voters was 75% of the total eligible voters the same year. The number of actual registered voters in village D in the year 2014 was what per cent more than that of the same village in the year 2004?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 30
(E) 70
Answer: (C)
14. If the numbers of actual registered voters are equal in village D and E, what is the respective ratio between the total population of village D and that of village E?
(A) 35 : 24
(B) 41 : 30
(C) 35 : 32
(D) 36 : 25
(E) 5 : 4
Answer: (A)
15. In village A, 75% of the actual registered voters were male. If the difference between the number of actual male registered voters and that of actual female registered voters was 1400, what was the total population of village A?
(A) 5000
(B) 7200
(C) 7500
(D) 6400
(E) 5200
Answer: (A)
16. The village B, the voter’s turnout was 36% of the total population. The voter’s turnout in village B was what per cent of actual registered voters?
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 70
(D) 80
(E) 75
Answer: (E)
17. Total population of village C was 12.500 and the voter’s turnout was 80% of the actual registered voters. What was the voter’s turnout in village C?
(A) 7500
(B) 7200
(C) 6400
(D) 6000
(E) 8000
Answer: (B)
18. A man invests a certain sum Rs X’ for two years in scheme A offering compound interest at 20% p.a. (compounded annually). He also invests ‘Rs.X-1600’ in scheme B for three years offering simple interest at 10% p.a. The interest he received from scheme A was twice the interest he received from scheme B. What is the sum of money, that Aman had invested in scheme B?
(A) Rs 4,400
(B) Rs 4,800
(C) Rs 4,200
(D) Rs 4,600
(E) Rs 4,000
Answer: (A)
19. In year 1998, the number of students in school B was half that of in school A. In year 1999, the number of students were more than that in the previous year by 20% in each of the schools. In the year 2000, the number of students in school B was 1/4th of sum of those in schools A and B together in the year 1999. The number of students in school Bin 2000 was what per cent less than that in the year 1999?
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 10
(D) 1205
(E) 25
Answer: (E)
20. 158 ? 38 18 8
(A) 64
(B) 78
(C) 52
(D) 90
(E) 86
Answer: (B)
21. 85 83 93 63 131 ?
(A) 16
(B) 142
(C) 262
(D) 1
(E) 84
Answer: (D)
22. 5 4 6 15 56 ?
(A) 218
(B) 275
(C) 169
(D) 144
(E) 362
Answer: (B)
Directions – (Q. 23 to 27) Study the following information carefully to answer the question-
Academy ‘XYZ’ offers classes on 4 different dance forms-bharatnatyam, freestyle, bunny-hop and jive, it has three centres in India-Noida, Kolkata and Orissa. Jive classes will always have equal number of male and female students. Only female students have enrolled for bharatnatyam classes. One student can learn only one dance form.
Data for the month of December 2015
• The total number of students in the academy was 300.
• The number of students learning Bharatnayam was 20% of the total number of students in the academy.
• Out of the total number of female students in the academy, 25% were learning freestyle, three-eighth were learning bharatnatyam and 30% were learning bunny-hop.
Data for the month of January 2016
•The number of students (both male and female) learning Jive was 32.
• The number of students learning Bharatnatyam was same as the previous month. Out of the total number of female students in the academy, 4/15 were learning freestyle.
• The number of male students learning freestyle was two times the number of female students learning the same dance form.
23. As compared to the previous month, in January 2016 the number of students (both male and female) in Academy ‘XYZ’ increased by 104. If the students learning freestyle and those learning bunny-hop increased by the same number, what was the number of male students learning bunny-hop?
(A) 82
(B) 104
(C) 112
(D) 120
(E) 96
Answer: (C)
24. In December 2015, the number of students (both male and female) learning freestyle was that per cent more than the number of students (both male and female) learning Bharatnatyam?
(A) 62.5
(B) 55.5
(C) 60
(D) 50
(E) 65
Answer: (C)
25. In December 2015, what was the average number of female students, learning bharatnatyam, jive and bunny-hop?
(A) 40
(B) 42
(C) 45
(D) 44
(E) 40
Answer: (A)
26. In December 2015, out of the total number of male students learning bunny-hop, 4/9 were in Noida centre and 5/18 were in Kolkata centre. What was the difference between the number of male students learning bunny-hop in Noida centre and those learning the dance form in Kolkata centre?
(A) 22
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 14
(E) 18
Answer: (B)
27. In December 2015, equal number of male and female students learning bunny-hop got selected for a competition. If the respective ratio between the number of male students who did not get selected and the number of female students who did not get selected is 5 : 3, what was the number of students (both male and female) who got selected for the competition?
(A) 32
(B) 24
(C) 20
(D) 12
(E) 28
Answer: (B)
28. 15 women can complete a work in 4 days and 32 children can complete in ‘X’ days. 10 women and 20 children work for three days, and then leave. If the remaining work is completed by 3 women in , what is the value of ‘X’?
(A) 25
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 20
(E) 18
Answer: (C)
29. Shyam bought two articles-A and B, the cost prices of which were same. Shyam labelled both the articles at 40% more than its cost price. He then sold article A at 30% discount and article B at Rs 35 more than the selling price of article A. If in the whole deal he earned a profit of 5%, what was the cost price of article A?
(A) Rs 250
(B) Rs 100
(C) Rs 300
(D) Rs 360
(E) Rs 160
Answer: (A)
30. The distance between Point X and Point Y is 80 km. Boat A could travel from point X to Y upstream and Point Y to X downstream in total 30 hours. Boat B could travel from Point X to Y upstream and Point Y to X downstream in total 9 hours. If the speed of boat B in still water is thrice of boat A in still water, what is the speed of Boat B?
(Please not: speed of the current is constant for both)
NABARD Grade ‘A’ Officer Examination Held on 05-08-2017 General Awareness Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Grade ‘A’ Officer Examination Held on 05-08-2017
General Awareness
1. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is headquartered in which of the following countries?
(A) Berlin, Germany
(B) Vienna, Austria
(C) Rome, Italy
(D) New York, USA
(E) London, U.K.
Answer: (C)
2. The G-77 is a coalition of developing nations, designed to promote its members’ collective economic joint negotiating capacity in the UN. What is the venue of 2017 G-77 summit?
(A) Fiji
(B) Bolivia
(C) South Africa
(D) Thailand
(E) Ecuador
Answer: (E)
3. NFSM is a Central Scheme of GOI launched in 2007 for 5 years to increase production and productivity of wheat, rice and pulses on a sustainable basis. What does the abbreviation ‘NFSM’ stands for?
(A) National Feed Social Mission
(B) National Food Security Mission
(C) National Fodder Security Mission
(D) National Fed Social Mission
(E) National Food Straight Mission
Answer: (B)
4. Prime Minister Narendra Modi commemorate the Indian Soldiers martyred during the Battle of Haifa, hailed as one of the bravely-contested battles of World War I. Hafia cemetery is located in
(A) Philippines
(B) Israel
(C) Germany
(D) Malaysia
(E) South Korea
Answer: (B)
5. Dhola-Saidya, Bridge, India’s longest river bridge is located in which of the following Indian States?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Jammu-Kashmir
(D) Assam
(E) Bihar
Answer: (D)
6. The ‘International Union for Conservation of Nature’ is headquartered at-
(A) Geneva, Switzerland
(B) New York, USA
(C) Vienna, Austria
(D) Gland, Switzerland
(E) Brasilia, Brazil
Answer: (D)
7. Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following states?
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Bihar
(E) Karnataka
Answer: (E)
8. Who among the following inaugurated the bicentenary (200th) celebration of Paika Rebellion of Odisha?
(A) Shri Narendra Modi
(B) Shri Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Shri Arun Jaitley
(D) Shri Amit Shah
(E) Shri Naveen Patnaik
Answer: (B)
9. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) has recently approved USD 160 million loan for a power project in Andhra Pradesh, the first credit from the bank for an Indian project. The AIIB is sponsored by-
(A) Japan
(B) Austria
(C) China
(D) South Africa
(E) Brazil
Answer: (C)
10. ‘SAARTHI’ is an app launched by Indian Railways to cater to various passenger requirements, including ticket-booking, inquiry, on-board cleaning and ordering meal on a single In the abbreviation ‘SAARTHI’ ‘s’ stands for-
(A) Suitable
(B) Symmetry
(C) Synergized
(D) Sewa
(E) Simultaneous
Answer: (C)
11. Indian Railways had started its first solar powered diesel electrical multiple unit train from which of the following stations in India?
(A) Rewa, Madhya Pradesh
(B) Kharagpur, West Bengal
(C) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
(D) Ahmedabad, Gujarat
(E) Safdarjung, New Delhi
Answer: (E)
12. Which of the following cities had become the first open-defecation free city in India?
(A) Indore
(B) Gangtok
(C) Beas
(D) Vishakhapatnam
(E) Amritsar
Answer: (B)
13. Nar Bahadur Bhandari, the former CM of which of the following states dies of a cardiac arrest?
(A) Manipur
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Nagaland
(D) Tripura
(E) Sikkim
Answer: (E)
14. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) has received how much amount in the Union Budget 2017?
(A) Rs 10,000 crore
(B) Rs 9,000 crore
(C) Rs 8,000 crore
(D) Rs 5,000 crore
(E) Rs 6,000 crore
Answer: (B)
15. Narsimhan Committee-II was set for which of the following purposes?
(A) Efficiency and Productivity
(B) Banking reform process
(C) Export of IT sector
(D) Fiscal Reform process
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (B)
16. The Union Cabined chaired by whom has given its approval for National Steel Policy (NSP), 2017?
(A) Shri Birender Singh
(B) Shri Arun Jaitley
(C) Shri Rajnath Singh
(D) Shri Narendra Modi
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (D)
17. World telecommunication day is observed on which of the following dates?
(A) July 10
(B) April 22
(C) May 10
(D) May 17
(E) August 23
Answer: (D)
18. Apurvi Chandela is related to which of the following sports?
(A) Tennis
(B) Chess
(C) Shooting
(D) Boxing
(E) Archery
Answer: (C)
19. Ram Nath Kovind has been elected as ………..President of India.
(A) 16th
(B) 15th
(C) 13th
(D) 14th
(E) 12th
Answer: (D)
20. Which state will have eco-friendly bridges over a canal cutting across the tiger corridor linking?
NABARD Officer Grade ‘A’ Examination Held on 5-8-2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Officer Grade ‘A’ Examination Held on 5-8-2017
Quantitative Aptitude
1. A respective ratio between the quantity of milk and water in jar is 5 : 1. If 6 litre of this mixture is removed and 4 litre pure milk and 2 litre water is added to this mixture the quantity of milk become 300% more than that of water in the jar. What was the original quantity of mixture in the jar (in litres) ?
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 14
(E) 15 (*) 30 Ltr.
Answer: (*)
2. 32 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days and 20 women can complete the same piece of work in 18 days. What is the respective ratio between the amount of work done by 24 men in 4 days and amount of work done by 36 women in 5 days?
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 4
(E) 1 : 4
Answer: (A)
3. A and C started a business and B joined after 4 months from the start of the business. the respective ratio between the investment of A, B and C was 3 : 7 : 4. if B share in annual profit was Rs 2000 more than that of A. What is the total amount of Profit earned?
(A) 10,000
(B) 12,000
(C) 14,000
(D) 16,000
(E) 18,000
Answer: (C)
4.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 4
Answer: (B)
5. 1884 ÷89 + 6.99+ (?)2 = 69.09
(A) 4
(B) 9
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
Answer: (D)
6.
(A) 3000
(B) 4700
(C) 4000
(D) 3500
(E) 5600
Answer: (C)
7. 123 + (1.2)2 + (1.02)1 + (1.002)0 =?
(A) 1730
(B) 1720
(C) 1750
(D) 1700
(E) 1680
Answer: (A)
8. (3.2)2 + (9.8)2 + (8.13)2 + (4.24)2 = ?
(A) 180
(B) 190
(C) 198
(D) 206
(E) 184
Answer: (B)
9. 14 A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is how much ?
(A) Rs 120
(B) Rs 121
(C) Rs 123
(D) Rs 122
(E) Rs 119
Answer: (B)
Solve both eg. and answer as –
(A) x < y
(B) x > y
(C) x = y or cannot be established
(D) x ≤ y
(E) x ≥ y
10. (I) x2 – 12x + 40 = 0
(II) y2 – 11y + 28 = 0
Answer: (C)
11. (I) x2 – 10x + 24 = 0
(II) 3y2 – 19y + 28 = 0
Answer: (E)
12. (I) 14x2 – 13x + 3 = 0
(II) 99y2 – 62y + 8 = 0
Answer: (C)
13. Jar A and Jar B both contain mixture of m ilk water. Jar A has 80 litres of mixture out of which 20% is water. The mixture in Jar B has 40% of water. The mixture from both the jars is poured in an empty jar C. The resultant respective ratio between milk and water in the Jar C is 5 : 2. What is the quantity of milk in Jar C ? (in litres)
(A) 105
(B) 120
(C) 110
(D) 100
(E) 130
Answer: (D)
14. A certain sum is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A gets Rs 220 more than 1/6th of the sum, B gets Rs 40 less than 2/5th of the sum of C gets Rs 300. What is the total sum invested ?
(A) Rs 1200
(B) Rs 1108
(C) Rs 1100
(D) Rs 1000
(E) Rs 1300
Answer: (B)
15. A started a business. After 4 months from the start of the business, B and c joined. The respective ratio between The amounts invested by A, B and C was 6 : 11 : 12. If the C’s share in annual profit was Rs 720 more than A’s share. What was the total annual profit earned?
(A) Rs 7,680
(B) Rs 7,480
(C) Rs 7,580
(D) Rs 6,780
(E) Rs 6,500
Answer: (A)
Directions– Study the table and answer the given question.
16. What is the difference between total number of perfume bottles sold by stores A and B together in March and total number of perfume bottles sold by stores D and E in April ?
(A) 85
(B) 79
(C) 89
(D) 87
(E) 93
Answer: (C)
17. What is the respective ratio between total number of perfume bottles sold by stores A and B together in June and total number of perfume bottle sold by stores D and E in the same month ?
(A) 17 : 13
(B) 13 : 11
(C) 15 : 13
(D) 11 : 7
(E) 17 : 11 (*) 103 : 78
Answer: (*)
18. Total number of perfume bottles sold by stores D and E in August was 16% more than the total number of perfume bottles sold by the same stores together in July. What was the total number of perfume bottles sold by stores D and E together in August?
(A) 249
(B) 277
(C) 259
(D) 261
(E) 263
Answer: (D)
19. What is the average number of perfume bottles sold by store C in April, June and July?
(A) 114
(B) 108
(C) 112
(D) 106
(E) 116
Answer: (C)
20. Number of perfume bottles sold by store E in March is what per cent less than the number of perfume bottles sold by store B in May?
NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination Held on 6-8-2017 General Awareness Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination Held on 6-8-2017
General Awareness
1. The 750 MW Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Plant is located in which of the following states?
(A) Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
(B) Nagpur, Maharashtra
(C) Rewa, Madhya Pradesh
(D) Hyderabad, Telangana
(E) Kolkata, West Bengal
Answer: (C)
2. MA Chidambaram Stadium is a stadium with capacity of 50,000 in the Indian State of-
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
(E) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (E)
3. The ‘Malabar’ is a naval exercise between which of the following countries?
(A) China and USA
(B) India and USA
(C) China, Australia and UK
(D) India, Japan and USA
(E) India and China
Answer: (D)
4. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is an apex development financial institution in India, headquartered at-
(A) Pune, Maharashtra
(B) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
(C) Mumbai, Maharashtra
(D) New Delhi, Delhi
(E) Kolkata, West Bengal
Answer: (C)
5. Where is Indian Institute of Rice Research located?
(A) Hyderabad, Telangana
(B) Kolkata, West Bengal
(C) Mumbai, Maharashtra
(D) New Delhi, Delhi
(E) Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (A)
6. Which government had grant residential allotment letters to homeless people in the marked habitation areas of Gram Panchayats?
(A) Telangana Government
(B) Andhra Pradesh Government
(C) West Bengal Government
(D) Rajasthan Government
(E) Haryana Government
Answer: (D)
7. Mixed Economy refers to-
(A) Coexistence of small and large industries
(B) Coexistence of agriculture and industry
(C) Coexistence of public and private sector
(D) Coexistence of domestic and foreign enterprises
Answer: (C)
8. Where is the National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases headquartered?
(A) Arizona, USA
(B) Birmingham, UK
(C) Maryland, USA
(D) Vienna, Austria
(E) Chicago, USA
Answer: (C)
9. Nagpur is situated on the bank of which river ?
(A) Godvari River
(B) Nag River
(C) Betwa
(D) Barak
Answer: (B)
10. The Y-20 aircraft is a large military transport aircraft of which of the following countries?
(A) Japan
(B) India
(C) China
(D) France
(E) USA
Answer: (C)
11. The ‘Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights’ is headquartered in-
(A) Vienna, Austria
(B) Geneva, Switzerland
(C) New York, USA
(D) Tokyo, Japan
(E) Paris, France
Answer: (C)
12. China is establishing its first overseas military base in which of the following African Countries?
(A) Djibouti
(B) Somalia
(C) Uganda
(D) Rwanda
(E) Nigeria
Answer: (A)
13. The 43rd G7 summit was held in which of the following Countries?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) Italy
(E) UK
Answer: (D)
14. Which of the following railway schemes will give wait listed passengers berths in other trains at no extra cost?
(A) Pradhan Mantri Rail Vikas Yojana
(B) Indian Railways Vikalp Yojana
(C) RPT Mitra Yojana
(D) Railways Mobile Laptop Insurance Scheme
Answer: (B)
15. The ‘NAFTA’ is an agreement signed by various countries creating a trilateral trade bloc. What does ‘N’ stand for in ‘NAFTA’?
(A) National
(B) North
(C) Normal
(D) Negotiable
(E) Narrow
Answer: (B)
16. International Youth Day is an awareness day to draw attention to a given set of cultural and legal issues surrounding youth. What is the theme of this year’s ‘International Youth Day’?
(A) Youth and Mental Health
(B) The Road to 2030 : Eradicating Poverty and Achieving Sustainable Consumption and Production
(C) Youth Building Peace
(D) Youth and Civic Engagement
(E) Youth Migration : Moving Development Forward
Answer: (C)
17. Which of the following is the first Indian City to get UNESCO heritage tag?
(A) Gandhinagar
(B) Pune
(C) Bhubaneswar
(D) Ahmedabad
(E) Varanasi
Answer: (D)
18. Which of the following is the first woman cricketer who scored 6000 runs in ODIs?
(A) Harmanpreet Kaur
(B) Jhulan Goswami
(C) Sushma Verma
(D) Mithali Raj
(E) Poonam Raut
Answer: (D)
19. The headquarters of the World Bank is located in-
(A) New York, USA
(B) Geneva, Switzerland
(C) Washington DC, USA
(D) Paris, France
(E) Berlin, Germany
Answer: (C)
20. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is a national wildlife park located in-
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Manipur
(E) West Bengal
Answer: (A)
21. Which of the following is the currency of the Democratic Republic of Congo?
NABARD Assistant Manager (Grade A & B) Examination Held on 1-3-2015 General Awareness Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Assistant Manager (Grade A & B) Examination Held on 1-3-2015
General Awareness
1. World’s first robot-staffed Hotel is set to open in which of the following countries?
(A) China
(B) US
(C) Singapore
(D) Abu Dhabi
(E) Japan
Answer: (E)
2. In which of the following states, the per capita availability of Milk is highest in the country?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Punjab
(E) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (D)
3. In which city is India’s first post office ATM opened?
(A) Ahemdabad
(B) Chennai
(C) New Delhi
(D) Mumbai
(E) Hyderabad
Answer: (B)
4. At present how many credit information companies are operating in India ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Other than those given as options
(D) Four
(E) Five
Answer: (D)
5. SWIFT was founded in which of the following cities ?
(A) London
(B) Brussels
(C) New York
(D) Hong Kong
(E) Mumbai
Answer: (B)
6. Who is the head of the newly formed Expenditure Management Commission ?
(A) Dr. Anand Sinha
(B) Dr. Urjit Patel
(C) Shri Arvind Mayaram
(D) Dr. Subir Gokarn
(E) Dr. Bimal Jalan
Answer: (E)
7. Vistara airline started its operations in India in January 2015. What is the tagline of this airline ?
(A) Fly the New Feelings
(B) Now Everyone Can Fly
(C) Fly at the cheapest rates
(D) World’s most favourite airline
(E) Fly like a king
Answer: (A)
8. The NITI Aayog is headed by-
(A) Minister for Planning
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) RBI Governor
(E) President of India
Answer: (B)
9. According to an order is issued by the Culture Ministry on January 28, 2015. Who among the following has been appointed as the new chairman of Sangeet Natak Academi ?
(A) Leela Samson
(B) Anant Nag
(C) Dr. P. V. Rajamannar
(D) Girish Karnad
(E) Shekhar Sen
Answer: (E)
10. As pert Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, the aim of building a clean India is by which year ?
(A) 2021
(B) 2019
(C) 2018
(D) 2020
(E) 2016
Answer: (B)
11. The first woman officer who led the Guard of honour at Rashtrapati Bhavan on January 26th 2015 is-
(A) Nisha Thakur
(B) Pooja Thakur
(C) Punit Arora
(D) Namrata Thakur
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (B)
12. Paulina Vega, a 22-year-old student won the coveted title of Miss Universe 2015. She is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Colombia
(B) India
(C) Hungary
(D) Honduras
(E) Lithuania
Answer: (A)
13. Who amongst the following is the present Director of Centre for Advanced Financial Research and Leaning (CAFRAL) ?
(A) D. K. Mohanty
(B) P. Vijaya Bhaskar
(C) H. R. Khan
(D) G. Gopalakrishna
(E) Dr. K. C. Chakraborty
Answer: (D)
14. Which of the following is the largest stock exchange in the world ?
(A) New York Stock Exchange
(B) London Stock Exchange
(C) Shanghai Stock Exchange
(D) Tokyo Stock Exchange
(E) NASDAQ OMX
Answer: (A)
15. Which Bank has announced the launched of country’s first’ contactless’ electronic payments without swipping ?
(A) ICICI bank
(B) HDFC bank
(C) Axis bank
(D) Union Bank of India
(E) State Bank of India
Answer: (A)
16. Which of the following state Govt. has recently appointed yoga guru Ramdev as its brand ambassador to promote yoga and ayurveda in a big way ?
(A) Uttarkhand
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (B)
17. Who is the host of ICC Cricket World Cup 2015 ?
(A) Australia and New Zealand
(B) Other than those given as options
(C) India and Sri Lanka
(D) South Africa and Australia
(E) England
Answer: (A)
18. Who is the chairperson of RBI?
(A) Y. V. Reddy
(B) K. L. Mohanti
(C) Raghuram Rajan
(D) Indra Nooyi
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
19. Who amongst the following is the present foreign secretary of India ?
(A) Sujata Singh
(B) Ranjan Mathai
(C) Shivshankar Menon
(D) Nirupama Rao
(E) Subramanyam Jaishankar
Answer: (E)
20. Recently the Government has notified that One Rupee Currency Notes will be put it to circulation again. The new notes will bear the signature of which of the following authorities ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Secretary
(C) Finance Ministry
(D) Governor of RBI
(E) President of India
Answer: (B)
21. RAM mense ?
(A) Randon Access Memory
(B) Read Only Memory
(C) Read Access Memory
(D) Random Auto Memory
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A)
22. What is the minimum paid-up equity capital required for starting a small finance bank ?
(A) Rs 50 Crore
(B) Other than those given as options
(C) Rs 250 Crore
(D) Rs 100 Crore
(E) Rs 500 Crore
Answer: (D)
23. The ‘digital village’ project to provide services ranging from cashless banking to digitized school teaching was recently started at Akodara village of Gujarat at the initiative of-
(A) Aziz Premji Trust
(B) Govt. of Gujarat
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) State Bank of India
(E) Tata Enterprises
Answer: (C)
24. The year 2015 has been declared by the 68th Session of United Nations General Assembly as-
(A) International Year of Fruits
(B) International Year of Food
(C) International Year of Vegetables
(D) International Year of Good Health
(E) International Year of Soils
Answer: (E)
25. Union Government renamed Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme for LPG as-
(A) Other than those given as options
(B) PAHAL
(C) Ajeevika
(D) Direct Transfer Scheme
(E) Money Transfer Scheme
Answer: (B)
26. At the Asian Games held in September-October 2014, which Indian boxer refused to accept the bronze medal in order to protest a controversial decision by the judges?
(A) L. Sarita Devi
(B) Mary Kom
(C) Rolando Bohol
(D) Varghese Johnson
(E) Kavita Goyal
Answer: (A)
27. As per Union Budget, how much capital is required to be infused in banks to meet Basel-III norms by 2018 ?
(A) Rs 2.40 lakh crore
(B) Rs .050 lakh crore
(C) Rs 1.00 lakh crore
(D) Rs .340 lakh crore
(E) Rs 5.00 lakh crore
Answer: (A)
28. Banks borrow money from the RBI at which of the following rates?
(A) Base Rate
(B) Reserve Repo Rate
(C) Bank Rate
(D) CRR
(E) Repo Rate
Answer: (E)
29. Banks will soon be able to offer higher rate of interest on unbreakable fixed deposits. What is the minimum amount that is required to be invested in such a deposit scheme ?
(A) Over Rs 50 lakhs
(B) Upto Rs 5 lakhs
(C) Upto Rs 10 lakhs
(D) Upto Rs 25 lakhs
(E) Upto Rs 100 lakhs
Answer: (E)
30. How many applications have been received by RBI, for starting payments bank?
(A) 112
(B) 65
(C) 41
(D) 72
(E) 113
Answer: (C)
31. Pravasi Bhartiya Divas (PBD)-2015 which was celebrated recently, was organized in which of the following States?
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
(E) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: (B)
32. A small deposit scheme for girl child, as part of the ‘Beti Bachao beti Padhao’ campaign,, was launched by the Govt. recently it is called as-
(A) Balika Shiksha Account
(B) Beti Padhao Deposit Scheme
(C) Suraksha Deposit Scheme
(D) Kanya Jagriti Jyoti Account
(E) Sukanya Samridhi Account
Answer: (E)
33. Under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS) for resident individuals, what is the maximum amount that can be remitted abroad?
(A) $ 250,000
(B) $ 350,000
(C) $ 500,000
(D) $ 150,000
(E) $ 50,000
Answer: (A)
34. Which Indian state has been ranked as the fastest growing stat for the year 2013-14 with GDP growth rate of 11.08% in 2013-14 ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Bihar
Answer: (A)
35. Who among the following is the chairman of the External Advisory Committee (EAC) set up by RBI to evaluate application received for Payment ?
(A) Dr. Nachiket Mor
(B) Smt. Usha Thorat
(C) Shri H. R. Khan
(D) Shri R. Gandhi
(E) Shri S. S. Mundra
Answer: (A)
36. The deadline to exchange pre-2005 currency notes is-
(A) 31-12-2015
(B) 30-06-2015
(C) 31-03-2015
(D) 30-09-2015
(E) 28-02-2015
Answer: (B)
37. ‘Winds of samara’ won the new Age Album Trophy at 57th Grammy Awards recently. The album has been launched by-
(A) A. R. Rahman
(B) Ricky Kej and Wouter Kellerman
(C) Bennet Veetraag
(D) Peter Kater and Zakir Hussain
(E) Paul Avgernios and Peter Kater
Answer: (B)
38. Which of the following books is written by Sanjaya Baru, former media advisor of the former Prime Minister, Manmohan Singh, just before the last Lok Sabha Election ?
(A) The Prime Minister with innovative ideas
(B) The Accidental Prime Minister
(C) The Intelligent Prime Minister
(D) The Different Prime Minister
(E) The Sudden Prime Minister
Answer: (B)
39. The player’s auction for the 8th edition of Indian Premier League was concluded recently in Bengaluru. Which player amongst the following fetched highest amount at the auction ?
(A) Dinesh Karthik
(B) Yuvraj Singh
(C) Darren Sammy
(D) Michael Hussey
(E) Murali Vijay
Answer: (B)
40. Who among the following is the chairman of the recently constituted 7th Pay Commission ?
NABARD Assistant Manager (Grade A & B) Examination Held on 26-10-2014 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Assistant Manager (Grade A & B) Examination Held on 26-10-2014
Reasoning
Directions – (Q. 1-5) Relationship different elements is shown in the statements. Every statement has two conclusions. Select the conclusion which follows the given statement.
1. Statement : B > O ≥ I = L < S; I ≥ R
Conclusion I : O ≥ R
Conclusion II : R < B
(A) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(B) Only conclusion II is true
(C) Either conclusions I or II is true
(D) Both conclusions I and II are true
(E) Only conclusion I is true
Answer: (D)
2. Statement : M > A ≥ L ≤ E = D
Conclusion I : E ≥ L
Conclusion II : L ≤ D
(A) Only conclusion II is true
(B) Only conclusion I is true
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(D) Either conclusion I or II is true
(E) Both conclusion I and II are true
Answer: (E)
3. Statement : M ≥ A ≥ T = I ≤ F ≤ H
Conclusion I : A ≥ H
Conclusion II : T ≤ M
(A) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(B) Only conclusion I is true
(C) Either conclusion I or II is true
(D) Both conclusion I and II are true
(E) Only conclusion II is true
Answer: (E)
4. Statement : B > O ≥ I = L < S; I ≤ R
Conclusion I : B ≥ S
Conclusion II : S > O
(A) Both conclusions I and II are true
(B) Either conclusion I or II is true
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(D) Only conclusion I is true
(E) Only conclusion II is true
Answer: (C)
5. Statement : G < I ≤ A ≥ N > T < S
Conclusion I : G < N
Conclusion II : A > S
(A) Either conclusion I or II is true
(B) Only conclusion I is true
(C) Only conclusion II is true
(D) Both conclusions I and II are true
(E) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Answer: (E)
6. Read the following information carefully to answer the given question.
“If I get my children admitted to a school with a small student population, only then I can expect a versatile development in them.”-Said Mr. Chopra.
Which of the following can be inferred from Mr. Chopra’s statement?
(A) The student population in the one and only factor on which the all-round development of a student depends.
(B) A smaller student population at school gives the children a wider scope of development.
(C) The teachers at over populated schools are not as qualified as the ones at low populated schools.
(D) A child studying in a low-populated school has a better IQ than any other child of his age.
(E) Versatile development completely depends on the school curriculum and not on the home-environment.
Answer: (A)
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) TWZX
(B) PSWT
(C) ILOM
(D) ADGE
(E) KNQO
Answer: (B)
Directions-(Q. 8 and 9) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
R is the brother of M and T. M is the only daughter of P. P is the only child of Q. Z is the son-in-law of Q. B is the daughter of T.
8. Which of the following is definitely true based upon the given relationship?
(A) B is the niece of Q
(B) None of the given options is true
(C) T is the son of P
(D) P is the wife of T
(E) Q is the aunt of R
Answer: (C)
9. Which of the following is/are required to establish that Q is the grandmother of M?
(A) No extra information is required as the relation can be established from the given information
(B) M has only two sons
(C) B is the great granddaughter of Q
(D) Q has only one brother and two sisters
(E) S is the father-in-law of Z
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 10-15) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A,, B, C, D, E and F are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. In row-2 P, Q,, R, S, T and U are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
S sits third to left of T. T does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The one who faces T sits second to left of A. Only two people sit between A and F. Both D and E are immediate neighbours of F. P sits second to right of Q.
B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
Neither A nor D faces R.
10. Who amongst the following sits second to the left of the person who faces T ?
(A) D
(B) C
(C) B
(D) F
(E) E
Answer: (E)
11. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?
(A) D sits exactly between A and F
(B) F faces one of the immediate neighbours of Q
(C) B is an immediate neighbour of C
(D) R faces E
(E) None of the given options is true
Answer: (D)
12. Which of the following groups of people represents the people sitting at extreme ends of both the rows?
(A) C, E, S, R
(B) A, F, Q, S
(C) E, F, Q, R
(D) C, E, S, U
(E) D, E, P, Q
Answer: (A)
13. Who among the following sit second to the left of the person who faces B ?
(A) T
(B) R
(C) S
(D) Q
(E) P
Answer: (C)
14. Who among the following faces P?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) F
Answer: (E)
15. Which of the following is true regarding U?
(A) Both T and P are immediate neighbours of U
(B) E is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces U
(C) None of the given options is true
(D) R sits second to right of U
(E) Only two people sit between U and P
Answer: (E)
Directions – (Q. 16 and 17) The question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
16. Among friends A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight, who is the heaviest?
I. D weighs more than only two people. E weighs more than A but less than B.
II. A weighs more than C but less than E. E is not heavier than B.
(A) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(E) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Answer: (E)
17. How is ‘stage’ coded in the given code language? (Note : All the codes are two letter codes only)
I. In the code language’ stage is ready’ is coded as ‘ne sa ta’ and ‘ready to go’ is coded as ‘ja ta la’.
II. In the code language’ stage it today’ is coded as ‘mu sa ye’ and ‘it will today’ is coded as ‘ru mu ye’.
(A) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(C) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
Answer: (A)
18. If ‘sister’ is coded as 121345 and ‘art’ is coded as ‘653’, how will you encode arrest ?
(A) 655433
(B) 655413
(C) 645413
(D) 655423
(E) None of these
Answer: (B)
Directions – (Q. 19-23) Study the following information to answer the given question.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the top most floor is numbered eight.
B lives on floor numbered six. Only one person lives between B and A. Only two people live between A and H. H lives below A. Both A and F live on an even numbered floor. E lives immediately above F. G lives on the floors below A but not on the lowermost floor. D lives on even numbered floor.
19. Who lives exactly between the floor A and B?
(A) E
(B) G
(C) F
(D) H
(E) No one
Answer: (B)
20. If C and D interchange their places, who will live between C and H?
(A) G
(B) E
(C) F
(D) No one
(E) A
Answer: (D)
21. Who lives on the lowest floor one?
(A) C
(B) Cannot be determined
(C) H
(D) E
(E) D
Answer: (A)
22. Which of the following is true about G?
(A) Only two people live between G and E
(B) Only one person lives between H and G
(C) G lives immediately below B
(D) All the given statements are true
(E) G lives on an even numbered floor
Answer: (B)
23. Four of the following five are alike as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) BE
(B) EC
(C) HF
(D) AH
(E) GD
Answer: (B)
24. Statement : In order to help the textile industry of City A which has been struggling for the past four to five years, an NGO financed 80% of the transportation and marketing cost of ready material from the factories. It was, however, noticed in the following year that extending such help did not prove to be of much use in providing respite to these factories. Which of the following could be one of the factors leading to such a scenario even after the NGO’s intervention?
(A) Export from the textile factories in City A has increased from 12.06% to 12.09% in the past 5 years.
(B) Textile industries in City B which grappled with same problems as that of the City A were able to recover their losses after a similar intervention from the same NGO.
(C) The government has recently increased checks as well as amount of find on transport vehicles which transport textiles without a legal permit.
(D) Transportation and logistics in City A has been dominated by a single player since past several years.
(E) Most of the factories to which this help was extended had outdated machinery leading to low and inferior quality of t he output.
Answer: (E)
Directions- (Q. 25-30) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Seven friends, namely S, T, U, V, W, X and Y attend different hobby classes namely, Singing, Gardening, Knitting, Dancing, Cooking, Yoga and Photography, not necessarily in the same order, from Monday to Sunday (of the same week).
T attends classes on Tuesday. Only two people attend classes between T and S. X attends classes immediately before U. W attends classes immediately after the one who attends knitting classes. neither T nor S attends knitting classes. Only one person attends classes between the one who attends knitting classes and the one who attends photography classes. V attends gardening classes. The one who attends yoga, attends classes immediately before the one who attends singing. X does not attend yoga classes. W does not attend cooking classes.
Knitting – Sunday –Y
Dancing – Saturday – W
Photography – Friday – S
Cooking – Thursday – U
Singing – Wednesday – X
Yoga – Tuesday – T
Gardening – Monday – V
25. On which of the following days does Y attend classes?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Thursday
(D) Friday
(E) Saturday
Answer: (E)
26. Four of the following five form a group based on given arrangement. Which of the following do not in group?
(A) S-Dancing
(B) X-Cooking
(C) T-Photography
(D) V-Yoga
(E) Y-Knitting
Answer: (E)
27. Which of the following pairs represent those who attend classes on Monday and Sunday?
(A) X, W
(B) V, W
(C) X, Y
(D) V, Y
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (B)
28. As per the given arrangement V is related to U in a certain way and T is related to S in the same way. To which of the following is X related to in the same way ?
(A) W
(B) V
(C) Other than those given as options
(D) T
(E) Y
Answer: (E)
29. Who amongst the following attends singing classes?
(A) S
(B) X
(C) Other than those given as options
(D) U
(E) W
Answer: (B)
30. Which of the following classes does U attend?
(A) Other than those given as options
(B) Singing
(C) Cooking
(D) Yoga
(E) Knitting
Answer: (A)
Directions – (Q. 31-36) Study the given information and answer the given question.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers).
Step I : 64 progress 55 to 21 42 methods 15 soon computerized.
Step II : 55 64 progress to 21 42 15 soon computerized methods.
Step III : 42 55 64 to 21 15 soon computerized methods progress.
Step IV : 21 42 55 64 to 15 computerized methods progress soon.
Step V : 15 21 42 55 64 computerized methods progress soon to.
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input : Method 98 12 of 41 evaluation differs 30 57 further now 63.
Step I : 98 method 12 of 41 evaluation 30 57 further now 63 differs.
Step II : 63 98 method 12 of 41 30 57 further now differs evaluation.
Step III : 57 63 98 method 12 of 41 30 now differs evaluation further.
Step IV : 41 57 63 98 12 of 30 now differs evaluation further method.
Step V : 30 41 57 63 98 12 of differs evaluation further method now.
Step VI : 12 30 57 63 98 differs evaluation further method now of.
31. In which step are the elements ’41 30 now differs’ found in the same order?
(A) Fifth
(B) Third
(C) Fourth
(D) The given order of elements is not found in any step
(E) Second
Answer: (B)
32. What is the position of ‘57’ from the right of ‘41’ in the first step?
(A) Seventh
(B) Sixth
(C) Second
(D) Third
(E) Fifth
Answer: (B)
33. Which elements exactly between ‘12’ and ‘differs’ in second last step of the given arrangement?
(A) now
(B) of
(C) evaluation
(D) 30
(E) 98
Answer: (B)
34. Which element is eighth to the left of element which is tenth from the left end of the fourth step ?
(A) of
(B) 63
(C) now
(D) 57
(E) 41
Answer: (D)
35. What is the position of ‘30’ from the left end of the second step ?
(A) Ninth
(B) Eighth
(C) Sixth
(D) Fifth
(E) Seventh
Answer: (E)
36. How many elements are there to the right of evaluation in the last step ?
(A) Eight
(B) Six
(C) Three
(D) Five
(E) Four
Answer: (E)
Direction- Read the given information and answer the question.
Airport Economic Regulatory Authority cleared an 88% reduction in charges at airport in City X and asked the operator to submit fresh rate slabs for approval. With this order, both the landing and parking charges of the planes and the user development fee will come down at the said airport.
37. Which of the following may be an effect of the said reduction in charges at the airport?
(A) All airlines in the country will prefer to move their headquarters to city X.
(B) The number of people in the country travelling by aeroplanes will rise drastically.
(C) Airlines will charge less when travelling to and from city X as compared to other cities.
(D) Aeroplanes flying from city X will be able to accommodate more number of passengers per plane.
(E) People will travel to cit X more often than any other city in the country.
Answer: (C)
Directions- (Q. 38-43) In this question two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
38. Statements : All brinjals are potatoes. All potatoes are carrots.
Conclusion I : All carrots are potatoes.
Conclusion II : All brinjals are carrots.
(A) Only conclusion II follows
(B) Both I and II follow
(C) Only conclusion I follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows
(E) Either I or II follows
Answer: (A)
39. Statements : Some stands are rods. No wood is a rod.
Conclusion I : All woods being stands is a possibility.
Conclusion II : Some rods are definitely not stands.
(A) both I and II follow
(B) neither I nor II follows
(C) only conclusion I follows
(D) either I or II follows
(E) only conclusion II follows
Answer: (E)
40. Statements : Some runs are jugs. All jugs are vessels. No vessel is a plate.
Conclusion I : All plates being urns is a possibility.
Conclusion II : All jugs being urns is a possibility.
(A) Neither I nor II follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Both I and II follow
(E) Only conclusion I follows
Answer: (A)
41. Statements : Some urns are jugs. All jugs are vessels.
No vessel is a plate.
Conclusion I : Some plates are jugs.
Conclusion II : Some urns are definitely vessels.
(A) Either I or II follows
(B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Only conclusion II follows
(E) Only conclusion I follows
Answer: (D)
42. Statements : Some stands are rods. No wood is a rod.
Conclusion I : Some stands are woods.
Conclusion II : No stand is a wood.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Both I and II follow
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Only conclusion II follows
(E) Either I or II follows
Answer: (E)
43. Statements : Some flowers are bouquets. Some bouquets are garlands.
Conclusion I : Some garlands are flowers.
Conclusion II : All garlands are flowers.
(A) Both I and II follow
(B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Only conclusion II follows
(D) Either I or II follows
(E) Only conclusion I follows
Answer: (E)
Directions – (Q. 44-49) Study the information carefully and answer the question.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular area at equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of t hem are facing the centre while some face outside (i.e., in a direction opposite to the centre).
A sits third to left of C. faces the centre. Only one person sits between A and H.
E sits second to right of H.
G sits second to left of F. F is not an immediate neighbour of A.
D is neither an immediate neighbour of A nor C.
Immediate neighbours of A, D as well as C face opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbour faces the centre then the other faces outside and vice-versa.)
A and D face same direction as E (i.e., if E faces the centre then both and D also face the centre and vice-versa.
44. Who sits exactly between E and H when counted from the right hand side of E?
(A) D
(B) G
(C) C
(D) F
(E) B
Answer: (C)
45. Who is sitting to immediate right of H?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) F
(D) C
(E) G
Answer: (D)
46. What is D’s position with respect to A?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Fifth to the right
(E) Second to the right
Answer: (E)
47. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) E
(D) F
(E) A
Answer: (B)
48. Which of the following is true regarding B as per the given seating arrangement?
(A) B sits third to the left of E
(B) None of the given options is true
(C) B faces outside
(D) D is one of the immediate neighbours of B
(E) Only three people sit between B and C
Answer: (C)
49. Who amongst the following are immediate neighbours of F?
(A) C, H
(B) E, H
(C) B, D
(D) D, E
(E) B, C
Answer: (D)
50. If ‘2’ is subtracted from each odd digit and ‘1’ added to each even digit in the number 8423679, which of the following numbers will appear twice in the new number thus formed ?
NABARD Assistant Manager Exam, 2016 Reasoning Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Assistant Manager Exam, 2016
Reasoning
Directions- Study the following information to answer the given question-
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are seated in a straight line, but not necessary in the same order. Some of them are facing north while some face south.
S sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits second to the right of S.
Only two people sit between P and Q.
Both the immediate neighbours of V face south.
R sits third to the left of T. T is an immediate neighbour of Q.
• Immediate neighbours of R face opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbour faces south then the other neighbour faces south and vice-versa.)
• Only two people sit between R and W. R faces a direction opposite to W. (i.e., if W faces north then R faces south and vice-versa.)
Both the immediate neighbours of W face south.
Q faces a direction opposite to W. (i.e., if W faces north then Q faces south and vice-versa.)
1. What is the position of T with respect to U?
(A) Second to the right
(B) Fourth to the right
(C) Second to the left
(D) Third to the right
(E) Fourth to the left
Answer: (C)
2. Who amongst the following sit exactly between R and T?
(A) P, V
(B) Q, U
(C) Q, S
(D) S, V
(E) S, P
Answer: (B)
3. Who amongst the following, sitting at the extreme end of the line, faces South?
(A) P
(B) No one
(C) U
(D) T
(E) S
Answer: (B)
4. In which of the following pairs are both the persons facing north?
(A) T, S
(B) U, W
(C) W, S
(D) Q, R
(E) R, P
Answer: (A)
5. Based on the given arrangement, which of the following is true with respect to P?
(A) Only one person sits between P and T
(B) None of the given option is true
(C) R sits to immediate left of P
(D) No one sits to the left of P
(E) Q is one of the immediate neighborus of P
Answer: (B)
6. Read the following information and answer the question.
Exports of tea by Country X to Country Z, a major importer of tea from country X, were reduced by more than half in the present year as compared to previous year even though the production of tea in Country X was increased by 25% in the said year.
Which of the following statements cannot e a reason for the given problem?
(A) Until last year, tea was exempt from export duty in Country X but this year the Government levied the export duty of Rs 10 per kg.
(B) Country X signed agreement with three new countries which provide good quality tea at comparatively much lower prices than country X.
(C) Many harmful chemicals were reportedly found in the tea of Country X upon being tested by Country Z last year.
(D) The market price of tea was reduced by 5% for consecutive two years by Country X for its foreign buyers.
(E) Tea producers of Country X started using a new type of fertilizer in the last year which promised good production but at the cost of quality.
Answer: (C)
Directions-(Q. 7-10) This question consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) The data in statements II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
7. How many people are sitting in a circle, where all the people are facing the centre?
(i) K ists third to the right of L. M is an immediate neighbour of K. Only three people sit between L and K.
(ii) N sits third to the left of M. Only one person sits between N and K. K is an immediate neighbour of M.
Answer: (E)
8. In a six storey building (consisting of floors numbered 1 to 6, wherein the topmost floor is numbered 6 and the ground floor is numbered 1) each of the six friends namely A, B, C, D, E and F lives on a different floor. On which floor number does E live?
(i) A lives on floor numbered 3. Only one person lives between A and F. E lives on an odd numbered floor below F.
(ii) B lives on floor numbered 4. A lives on one of the floor numbered 1. D lives on even numbered floor above A. C lives immediately above E.
Answer: (E)
9. How is ‘buyer’ definitely coded in the given language?
(i) ‘help find a buyer’ is coded as ‘ni ka po sn’ and ‘a small help given’ is coded as ‘tk sn ru ni’.
(ii) ‘must find small buyer’ is coded as ‘ka hp tk po’ and find a help soon is coded as ‘mj ni sn ka’.
Answer: (E)
10. Read the given information and answer the question-
The M. B. Road near highway has an average of one pothole or patched piece of asphalt for every yards of roads. The primary reason for the condition of the road isn’t age, weather or rush hour traffic. It’s 18-wheeler trucks. These heavy trucks roar down this route that was never meant to carry weights above 40 tonnes. While regular traffic on the road averages 2 tonnes in terms of weight per vehicle, the average weight per 18-wheelewr truck is .35 times this weight.
Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement ?
(1) The highway close to the M. B. Road can definitely carry at least 35 times more number of vehicles than that possible on M.B. road.
(2) 18-wheeler trucks which are 30 tonnes lighter will not cause harm to the mentioned road.
(3) Restricting small vehicles while permitting only 18-wheeler trucks may reduce harm caused to the road.
(4) A road is constructed considering the type of vehicles plying on it.
(A) Only (3)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2) and (4)
(D) Both (1) and (4)
(E) None of these
Answer: (C)
Directions – (Q. 11-15) In this question, relationship between different elements is shown in statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer-
(A) Only conclusion I is true.
(B) Only conclusion II is true.
(C) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) Both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statement : Q ≥ U > I < C = K > L; G < L; C < H
Conclusions : I. I < L
II. C > G
Answer: (B)
12. Statements : M < O = N ≤ K < E ≥ Y = S; D < K ≥
Conclusions I. M < K
II. O > B
Answer: (A)
13. Statements : R < A = I ≥ N; S ≥
Conclusions I. S > N
II. N = S
Answer: (C)
14. Statements : M < O = N ≤ K < E ≥ Y = S; D < K ≥ B
Conclusions I. E > O
II. D < S
Answer: (A)
15. Statements : Q ≥ U > I < C = K > L; G < L; C < H
Conclusions I. Q > K
II. H < U
Answer: (D)
16. Read the given information and answer the question-
Company Z and Company F launched similar high end cars last year. However, six months later it was found that the popularity of car manufactured by company Z sky-rocketed while the sales of the one manufactured by company F did not pick up at all.
Manager X : ‘The only reason our car did not succeed was the price of the car. Had our car been priced at a little lower value, the sales of our cars would also have been as good as the one manufactured by company Z.”
Which of the following weakens the statement of Manager X ?
(A) Experts have suggested that there is always a segment of population which reviews the car after it has been launched and purchases it only after a certain amount of time has passed after the launch.
(B) A few potential buyers had a problem with the fact that the only two airbags while the one manufactured by company F had six.
(C) In the past two years, all cars launched by company F were of mediocre quality and needed frequent repairs and maintenance thus tarnishing the name of the company to a great extent.
(D) The car launched by company F is available in limited colours, although the owners can request for the colour of their choice.
(E) A few other cars launched by company F several years ago had been priced lower than most other cars in the market and they worked very well.
Answer: (B)
Directions- Seven people, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V like seven different fruits namely, Apple, Mango, Banana, Orange, Kiwi, Guava and Strawberry. Each of them works in either of the three companies viz. Samsung, Wipro and ITC with at least two of them in a company.
Note- None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.
R works in Wipro with the one who likes Banana. U does not work with R. P works in ITC with only the one who likes Kiwi. U does not like Apple. T works in Samsung with the one who like Apple. T does not like Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry works with the one who likes Mango but not with R. S works with the one who likes Guava. S does not like Banana. Q does not like Apple.
17. Which of the following combinations represent the combination of people working in Wipro?
(A) S, R
(B) Q, V, R
(C) U, T, R
(D) R, Q
(E) T, R, P
Answer: (D)
18. Which of the following fruits does P like?
(A) Banana
(B) Strawberry
(C) Orange
(D) Guava
(E) Mango
Answer: (D)
19. Which combination represents the company in which V works and the fruit he likes?
(A) Samsung-Apple
(B) Samsung-Banana
(C) Wipro-Guava
(D) ITC-Mango
(E) ITC-Orange
Answer: (A)
20. Which of the following combinations is correct ?
(A) S-Strawberry
(B) Q-Orange
(C) R-Apple
(D) U-Kiwi
(E) T-Mango
Answer: (E)
21. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) R works in the company in which P works
(B) U works with the one who likes Mango
(C) None of the given statements is true
(D) S works in Wipro
(E) Q likes Kiwi
Answer: (B)
Directions – (Q. 22-25) In these question two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statement to be true if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the even statement disregarding common known facts-
(A) Only conclusion I is true.
(B) Only conclusion II is true.
(C) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) Both conclusions I and II are true.
22. Statements : Some roads are houses. Some houses are bungalows. No bungalow is an apartment.
Conclusions :
I. All roads being apartments is a possibility.
II. No apartment is a house.
Answer: (A)
23. Statements : All guests are hosts. Some guests are relatives. All relatives are friends.
Conclusions :
I. All guests are friends.
II. NO host being friend is a possibility
Answer: (D)
24. Statements : Some shops are outlets. Some outlets are factories. All factories are industries.
Conclusions :
I. At least some shops are factories.
II. At least some outlets are industries.
Answer: (B)
25. Statements : Some roads are houses. Some houses are bungalows. No bungalow is an apartment.
Conclusions :
I. Some houses are definitely not apartments.
II. At least some roads are bungalows.
Answer: (D)
26. Statements : All certainties are beliefs. Some beliefs are fears.
Conclusions :
I. At least some fears are certainties.
II. No fear is a certainty.
Answer: (C)
27. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question-
The commerce department of a college allotted its students to different organizations for completing their two month internship starting from 5-2-2016. The students were asked to submit their complete internship reports in a specified format along with the original certificates latest by 10-5-2016, failing which they would not be allowed to write their final exams. Following are given cases of 5 students who did not submit their reports by the stipulated deadline. However, one of these was allowed to write his exam. Identify that student.
(A) Mehvish had to do her internship under two different project guides. Hence, she found it difficult to adequately allot time to both of them.
(B) Sunil Jadhav was absent in the class during which the format of the report was given to the students.
(C) Vaibhav Tripathi, who was allotted to an organization of another city, was given only a provisional certificate by the organization which was not as per the norms of the college.
(D) Akhil Mehta had completed his report before the deadline, but could not submit as it was not written in the specified format.
(E) Rachita Saxena was allotted to renowned NGO where the maximum time for internship was of 75 days.
Answer: (E)
Directions- Study the given information carefully and answer the given question-
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges following a particular line. The following is an illustration of input and arrangement.
28. Which element appears exactly between the fourth element from the left and fifth element from the right in the second last step?
(A) 67
(B) 91
(C) WARDEN
(D) KNIGHT
(E) ABACUS
Answer: (E)
29. Which of the following represent the two consecutive elements to the immediate right of ‘KNIGHT’ in the last step ?
(A) 45, CHANT
(B) 30, SALTY
(C) 18, WARDEN
(D) 91, SALTY
(E) WARDEN, 30
Answer: (C)
30. What is the position of ‘18’ from the left of ‘SALTY’ in step III ?
(A) Third
(B) Second
(C) Fourth
(D) Seventh
(E) Sixth
Answer: (D)
31. In Step III, which element/s appear/s exactly between ‘WARDEN’ and ‘ABACUS’?
(A) Only ‘91’
(B) Both ‘CHANT’ and ‘67’
(C) Both ‘18’ and ‘SALTY’
(D) Only ‘KNIGHT’
(E) Only ‘CHANT’
Answer: (E)
32. In step I ‘ABACUS’ : ‘WARDEN’ in the same way as ‘CHANT’ : ‘91’ in step IV. In the same way, ‘WARDEN’ : ……………. in step V?
(A) CHANT
(B) 91
(C) 18
(D) ABACUS
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (D)
Directions – Study the given information carefully to answer the given question-
Six people – J, K, L, M, N and O are holding a different number of flowers, but not necessarily in the same order. J holds less than L but more than N. M holds less flowers than N but more than O. L does not hold the most number of flowers. M holds 16 flowers.
33. Who amongst the following holds the third highest number of flowers?
(A) N
(B) O
(C) L
(D) J
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (D)
34. How many people hold more flowers than L?
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) None
(D) Four
(E) One
Answer: (E)
35. If the difference between the number of flowers hold by M and J is 12, then how many flowers does O possibly hold ?
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 34
(D) 22
(E) 43
Answer: (B)
Directions – Study the given information carefully and answer the given question-
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them works in a different company viz. Microsoft, Sony, Dell, P&G, HTC, ONGC, Google and Amazon but not necessarily in the same order.
The one who works in Microsoft sits third to the right of V. Only one person sits between the one who works in Microsoft and U.
Only three people sit between T and U. R sits second to the left of U.
Both R and T are immediate neighbours of the one who works in P&G. Only three people sit between the one who works in P&G and S.
S is one of the immediate neighbours of the one who works in Dell. The one who works in ONGC sits second to the left of the one who works in Dell.
W sits third to the left of the one who works in ONGC. P is one of the immediate neighbour of W.
The one who works in Google sits to the immediate left of the one who works in HTC.
Only three people sit between the one who works in Google and the one who works in Sony.
36. V is related to Google in a certain way based on the given arrangement. Following the same pattern, Q is related to Amazon. To which of the following companies is R related to following the same pattern?
(A) Microsoft
(B) HTC
(C) ONGC
(D) Dell
(E) Sony
Answer: (A)
37. O works in which of the following companies ?
(A) HTC
(B) P&G
(C) Google
(D) Sony
(E) Dell
Answer: (B)
38. What is the position of P with respect to Q?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Fourth to the left
(C) Second to the left
(D) Second to the right
(E) Third to the right
Answer: (A)
39. Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(A) T sits second to right of U
(B) Q is an immediate neighbour of the one who works in Google
(C) P and the one who works in Dell are immediate neighbours of each other
(D) S works in ONGC
(E) R sits second to the right of the one who works in HTC
NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination Held on 6-8-2017 Economic & Social Issues Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination Held on 6-8-2017
Economic & Social Issues
1. According to RBI’s latest financial stability report 2017, the GDP of India has increased from 6.75% to-
(A) 7.3%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 7.8%
(D) 7.9%
(E) 7.2%
Answer: (A)
2. GDP is-
(A) nation’s total economic activity
(B) value of all finished goods produced in one year by its nationals
(C) value of goods and services produced in an area, industry or sector of an economy
(D) capital that has been consumed over the year in the form of housing, vehicle or machinery deterioration
(E) growth of various sectors in an economy
Answer: (C)
3. The India Meteorological department is responsible for which of the following?
(A) meteor testing, observations and data handling
(B) research in meteorology and various other planets
(C) meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology
(D) meteorological observations, earth observations and other planets observations
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (C)
4. How much amount of agricultural credit to farmers has been proposed in the Union Budget 2017-18?
(A) 15 lakh crore
(B) 12 lakh crore
(C) 20 lakh crore
(D) 10 lakh crore
(E) 8 lakh crore
Answer: (D)
5. Inflation is measured by which index in India?
(A) WPI (Whole Price Index)
(B) CPI (Consumer Price Index)
(C) GDP (Gross Domestic Product)
(D) IIP (Index of Industrial Production)
(E) NDP (National Domestic Product)
Answer: (B)
6. Which of the following has the highest population density in India?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Kerala
(C) Bihar
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (C)
7. Which of the following is the percentage population in the working age group 15-59 years?
(A) 62.5
(B) 61
(C) 66.6
(D) 62.2
(E) 67
Answer: (B)
8. What are the total number of districts covered under the Socio Economic and Caste Census 2011 ?
(A) 634
(B) 640
(C) 672
(D) 710
(E) 740
Answer: (B)
9. What is the percentage of female labour force employed in India according to World Bank report ?
(A) 27.6
(B) 25.5
(C) Other than those given as options
(D) 22.4
(E) 24.3
Answer: (C)
10. Which of the following is the guaranteed sum which the unemployed Finland people will receive under its Universal Basic Income Scheme?
(A) € 780
(B) € 560
(C) € 670
(D) € 730
(E) € 530
Answer: (B)
11. Which of the following countries topped the World Happiness Report 2017 published by United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network?
(A) India
(B) Denmark
(C) USA
(D) Switzerland
(E) Norway
Answer: (E)
12. Which of the following is a multi level global campaign to spread awareness about importance of girls’ education?
(A) Girl Rising
(B) Most Important Part of Our Life : Girls
(C) Save Girls : Educate Girls
(D) Education of Girls
(E) Rising the girls
Answer: (A)
13. When the of inflation increases-
(A) purchasing power of money increases
(B) purchasing power of money decreases
(C) value of money increases
(D) purchasing power of money remains unaffected
(E) value of money decreases
Answer: (B)
14. ………………. refers to economic condition where economic growth is very slow and prices are rising.
(A) Inflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Stagflation
(D) Hyperinflation
(E) Other than those given options
Answer: (C)
15. Under increasing returns the supply curve is-
(A) positively slopped from left to right
(B) negatively slopped from left to right
(C) parallel to the quantity axis
(D) parallel to the price-axis
(E) other than those given options
Answer: (B)
16. Net National Product is equal to-
(A) Gross National Product + Depreciation
(B) Gross national Product + Exports
(C) Gross National Product – Depreciation
(D) Gross National Product – Export
(E) Other than those given options
Answer: (C)
17. Which of the following is not a method of calculating National Income in India?
(A) Tax Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Production Method
(D) Expenditure Method
(E) None of these
Answer: (A)
18. Which of the following is a micro irrigation fund which will be set up in NABARD to achieve the goal ‘per drop more crop’?
(A) 5,000 crore
(B) 4,000 crore
(C) 2,000 crore
(D) 8,000 crore
(E) 10,000 crore
Answer: (A)
19. Which of the following committee was recently formed bythe government to check the poverty line in the country?
(A) Suresh Tendulkar Committee
(B) Arvind Panagariya Task Force
(C) Lakdawala Formula
(D) YK Algah Committee
(E) Rangrajan Committee
Answer: (B)
20. Which of the following is the current fertility rate for India ?
(A) 2.6
(B) 3.4
(C) 2.7
(D) 4.1
(E) 2.3
Answer: (E)
21. Who is considered as father of industrialization in India?
(A) Ratan Tata
(B) Jamshedji Tata
(C) Aditya Birla
(D) Rahul Sharma
(E) Cyres Mistry
Answer: (B)
22. The process of international integration arising from the interchange of world views, products, ideas and other aspects of culture is known as-
(A) Globalization
(B) Universalization
(C) Planetization
(D) Earthization
(E) Modernization
Answer: (A)
23. The process of developing, pricing, promoting and distributing rural specific goods and services leading to desired exchange with rural customers to satisfy their need is known as-
(A) Urban Marketing
(B) Techy Marketing
(C) Rural Marketing
(D) Nerdy Marketing
(E) Narrow Marketing
Answer: (C)
24. The minimum maturity period of a commercial paper is-
(A) 5 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 10 days
(D) 28 days
(E) 35 days
Answer: (B)
25. Who is the present chief of New Development Bank ?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) Kristalina Georgleva
(C) Antonio Guterres
(D) Irina Bokova
(E) Tedros Adhanom
Answer: (A)
26. Which of the following is not covered in GST Bill?
(A) Luxury Cars
(B) Food
(C) Electricity
(D) Electronics Gadget
(E) Daily Commodities
Answer: (C)
27. Which of the following is the interest rate under Kisan Vikas Patra Scheme?
(A) 8.7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8.2%
(D) 9.4%
(E) 8.5%
Answer: (A)
28. Uncler the NITI Aayog 15 years vision plan, three years’ ‘action agenda’ is created to boost economic growth. The duration of three-year plan is-
(A) 2017-18 to 2019-20
(B) 2018-19 to 2020-21
(C) 2016-17 to 2018-19
(D) 2019-20 to 2021-22
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (A)
29. Under Union Budget 2017-18, ‘Income Tax’ on annual income of 2.5 lakh to 5 lakh has been reduced from 10 per cent to-
(A) 8%
(B) 7%
(C) 7.5%
(D) 6%
(E) 5%
Answer: (E)
30. Second Nationalization of commercial banks in India took place in-
(A) 1949
(B) 1969
(C) 1970
(D) 1980
(E) 1976
Answer: (D)
31. World Economic Outlook is released by-
(A) WEF
(B) World Bank
(C) IBRD
(D) IMF
(E) IFSC
Answer: (D)
32. The policy to deal with taxation and expenditure decision of government is-
(A) Investment policy
(B) Monetary policy
(C) Tax policy
(D) Fiscal policy
(E) Budgetary policy
Answer: (D)
33. IFM is established to solve the problems related to EU investment in India. What does the abbreviation ‘IFM’ stands for?
(A) International Fund Management
(B) Investment Fund Management
(C) Investment Facilitation Mechanism
(D) Indian Fund Management
(E) Other than those given options
Answer: (C)
34. Which of t he following countries has ratified automatic exchange of financial account information with India and 40 other countries ?
(A) United States of America
(B) Singapore
(C) Europe
(D) Britain
(E) Switzerland
Answer: (E)
35. An increase in aggregate demand over the available output leads to a rise in the price level. This Kind of inflation is known as-
(A) Cost push inflation
(B) Demand pull inflation
(C) Credit inflation
(D) Walking inflation
(E) Galloping inflation
Answer: (B)
36. Rejuvenation, Modernization and Technology Upgradation has been renamed as-
(A) Coir Industry Upgradation
(B) Coir Udyami Yojana
(C) Coir Vikas Yojana
(D) Coir Upgradation Scheme
(E) Other than t hose given as options
Answer: (B)
37. Under the housing scheme the EPFO allowed its subscriber to withdraw how much percentage of its EPF accumulations to buy homes?
(A) Upto 69%
(B) Upto 75%
(C) Upto 82%
(D) Upto 90%
(E) Upto 79%
Answer: (D)
38. Which of the following about SEZ is correct ?
(A) It is a duty free enclave to be treated as foreign territory for the trade operations and duties and tarrifs
(B) It does not require license for exports
(C) No manufacturing activities are allowed in SEZ
(D) For SEZ developers there is zero tax and duty on raw material
(E) All the given options are correct
Answer: (A)
39. It is a manned service delivery point which is open for atleast four hours a day and atleast five days a week-
(A) Samadhan Kendra
(B) Banking Ombudsman
(C) Seva Kendra
(D) Nirankarana Kendra
(E) Banking outlet
Answer: (E)
40. According to Swachh Survekshan 2017, which city is declared as cleanest city in India ?
NABARD Assistant Manager (Grade-A) Manager (Grade-B) Preliminary Exam-2015-16 Online Held on May 15, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Assistant Manager (Grade-A) Manager (Grade-B) Preliminary Exam-2015-16 Online Held on May 15, 2016
Part I Agriculture and Rural Awareness
1. One highlight of the Indian approach to curbing emissions as outlined in the Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) is a major scaling up of targets for renewable energy capacity to
(a) 150 GW by 2018-19
(b) 165 GW by 2023-24
(c) 100 GW by 2020-21
(d) 175 GW by 2021-22
(e) 200 GW by 2022-23
Answer: (d)
2. Seeking to bridge the Rural-Urban divide, government of India has decided to set up 300 rural clusters by 2019-20 across the country with an outlay of Rs 5142.08 crore under the
(a) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(c) Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana
(d) Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission
(e) Pradhan Mantri Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
Answer: (d)
3. Financial assistance of Rs 1.20 lakh each is provided for construction of pucca house (in plain areas) to all houseless and households living in dilapidated houses in rural areas under the recently announced
(a) PMAY (Gramin)
(b) PMGSY
(c) PMMY
(d) PMRY
(e) PMKVY
Answer: (a)
4. The third meeting of the SAARC agriculture ministers was recently (April, 2016) held in
(a) Kathmandu (Nepal)
(b) New Delhi (India)
(c) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
(d) Islamabad (Pakistan)
(e) Thimphu (Bhutan)
Answer: (c)
5. Generally, standards in ‘Organic Farming’ are designed to encourage the use of
(a) man-made substances
(b) artificial substances
(c) genetically-modified substances
(d) natural substances
(e) synthetic substances
Answer: (d)
6. A ‘plantation crop; is grown on a large piece of land usually in a tropical or semi-tropical area specifically planted for widespread commercial sale and usually tended by resident labourers. Which of the following crops may be treated as a plantation crop?
(a) Cereals and pulses
(b) Fruits and vegetables
(c) Wheat, rice, maize, millets
(d) Tea, coffee, coconut, rubber
(e) Cotton, jute, sugarcane, tobacco
Answer: (d)
7. In order to raise awareness of its many benefits, the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has announced the year 2016 as the International Year of
(a) Pepper
(b) Peanuts
(c) Potato
(d) Pulses
(e) Palm Oil
Answer: (d)
8. The National Fertilizers Limited (NFL), India’s largest central Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) is a major Indian producer of fertilizers and industrial chemicals. It comes under the administrative control of the
(a) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
(b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(c) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
(e) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
Answer: (c)
9. Under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (SBA), all 6.5 lakh villages will be provided an amount of Rs 20 lakh every year until 2019 by the
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(b) Ministry of Water Resources
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Urban Poverty Alleviation
(e) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Answer: (c)
10. The scientific study the of movement, distribution and quality of water on earth, including water resources and environmental watershed sustainability, is known as
(a) Hydrology
(b) Meteorology
(c) Aerography
(d) Cerography
(e) Metrology
Answer: (a)
11. Which of the following government schemes is launched with an aim to achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level, expand cultivable area and improve on-farm water use efficiency?
(a) PMKKKY
(b) PMKSY
(c) PMVLK
(d) PMJJBY
(e) PMKVY
Answer: (b)
12. According to the revised RBI guidelines, loans to ‘Food and Agro Processing Units’ will now form part of
(a) non priority sector lending
(b) Micro finance
(c) agriculture lending
(d) MSME lending
(e) social infrastructure
Answer: (c)
13. The practice of growing a series of dissimilar or different types of crops in the same area in sequential seasons, is known as
(a) Mixed farming
(b) Cover cropping
(c) Mixed cropping
(d) Crop diversity
(e) Crop rotation
Answer: (e)
14. The recently launched ‘PMFBY’ is a
(a) life insurance scheme
(b) accident insurance scheme
(c) health insurance scheme
(d) equipment insurance scheme
(e) crop insurance scheme
Answer: (e)
15. The practice of raising grazing livestock, such as cattle or sheep for meat or wool, is known as
(a) Silviculture
(b) Permaculture
(c) Ranching
(d) Breeding
(e) Animal Husbandry
Answer: (e)
16. Keeping in with the spirit of ‘Make in India’ drive of the government of India, a Rs 1000 crore ‘Make in India’ fund for MSME has been created by
(a) IFCL
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) NABARD
(d) SIDBI
(e) Exim Bank
Answer: (d)
17. The farming of marine organisms, such as fish, crustaceans, mollusks and marine plants, is known as
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Apiology
(c) Apiculture
(d) Agrology
(e) Agronomy
Answer: (a)
18. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere does not fall under the category of ‘Greenhouse’ gases’?
(a) Water vapour
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Methane
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
19. The government of India has recently (September, 2015) launched the PMKKKY which, will work for welfare of areas and people affected by
(a) mining activities
(b) natural calamities
(c) insurgency
(d) industrial development
(e) urbanization
Answer: (a)
20. As against a target of 4%, the average annual growth rate of Agriculture and allied sector for first four years of the 12th Five Year Plan period (2012-17) was
(a) 3.0%
(b) 1.6%
(c) 3.5%
(d) 2.5%
(e) 2.0%
Answer: (b)
21. ‘Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY)’ is aimed at improving the infrastructure and human development indices of the
(a) farmers and agriculturists
(b) tribal population
(c) senior citizens
(d) weaker sections
(e) women entrepreneurs
Answer: (b)
22. During the year 2014-15, India’s exports of animal products is reported to be over Rs 33128.30 crore. Which of the following forms of meat was the single largest item exported during the period?
(a) Poultry products
(b) Sheep/Goat meat
(c) Processed and other meat
(d) Animal casing
(e) Buffalo meat
Answer: (e)
23. Depending on the area in the South Asian region, the Kharif crops are cultivated and harvested during the months of
(a) April and October
(b) January and April
(c) November and February
(d) October and December
(e) August and November
Answer: (a)
24. ‘Small Farmers’ are those whose landholdings are
(a) above 5 hectare
(b) below 1 hectare
(c) between 4 to 10 hectare
(d) between 1 to 2 hectare
(e) between 2 to 4 hectare
Answer: (d)
25. Yes Bank has announced mobilization of $ 5 billion towards its commitment to climate finance in India by 2020. The bank’s committed target for funding clean energy, is
(a) 1000 MW annually
(b) 1500 MW annually
(c) 500 MW annually
(d) 1500 MW by 2020
(e) 500 MW by 2020
Answer: (e)
Part II Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are seated in a straight line, but not necessary in the same order. Some of them are facing north while some face south. S sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits second to the right of S. Only three people sit between P and Q. Both the immediate neighbours of V face south. R sits third to the left of T. T is an immediate neighbour of Q. Immediate neighbours of R face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces south then the other neighbour faces north and vice-versa.) U faces north. Only three people sit between R and W. R faces a direction opposite to W (i.e. if W faces north then R faces south and vice-versa.) Both the immediate neighbours of W face north. Q faces direction opposite to W. (i.e. if W faces north then Q faces south and vice-versa.)
26. What is the position of T with respect to U?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Fourth to the right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the right
(e) Fourth to the left
Answer: (c)
27. Who amongst the following sit exactly between R and T?
(a) P, V
(b) Q, V
(c) Q, S
(d) S, V
(e) S, P
Answer: (b)
28. Who amongst the following, sitting at the extreme end of the line, faces north?
(a) R
(b) Non one
(c) U
(d) T
(e) S
Answer: (e)
29. In which of the following pairs are both the persons facing south?
(a) T, S
(b) U, W
(c) W, S
(d) Q, R
(e) R, P
Answer: (d)
30. Based on the given arrangement, which of the following is true with respect to P?
(a) Only one person sits between P and T.
(b) None of the given options is true
(c) R sits to immediate right of P.
(d) No one sits to the left of P.
(e) Q is one of the immediate neighbours of P.
Answer: (b)
31. Read the following information and answer the questions:
Exports of tea by Country X to Country Z, a major importer of tea from country X, were reduced by more than half in the present years as compared to previous year even though the production of tea in Country X was increased by 25% in the said year.
Which of the following statements cannot be a reason for the given problem?
(a) Until last year, tea was exempt from export duty in Country X but this year the government levied the export duty of Rs 10 per kg.
(b) Country Z signed agreement with three new countries which provided good quality teat at comparatively much lower prices than country X.
(c) Many harmful chemical were reportedly found in the tea of Country X upon being tested by Country Z last year.
(d) The market price of tea was reduced by 5% for consecutive two years by Country X for its foreign buyers.
(e) Tea producers of Country X started using a new type of fertilizer in the last year which promised good production but at the cost of quality.
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-34) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer
a. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
b. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d. if the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
32. How many people are sitting in a circle, where all the people are facing the centre?
I. K sits third to eh right of L. M is an immediate neighbour of K. Only three people sit between L and M.
II. N sits third to the left of M. Only one person sits between N and K. K is an immediate neighbour of M.
Answer: (e)
33. In a six storey building (consisting of floors numbered 1 to 6, wherein the topmost floor is numbered 6 and the ground floor is numbered 1), each of the six friends namely, A, B, C, D, E and F lives on a different floor. On which floor number doe E live?
I. A lives on floor numbered 3. Only one person lives between A and F. E lives on an odd numbered floor below F.
II. B lives on floor numbered 4. A lives on one of the floors below B but not on floor numbered 1. D lives on even numbered floor above A. C lives immediately above E.
Answer: (c)
34. How is ‘buyer’ definitely coded in the given language?
I. ‘help find a buyer’ is coded as ‘ni ka po sn’ and ‘a small help given’ is coded as ‘tk sn ru ni’.
II. ‘must find small buyer’ is coded as ‘ka hp tk po’ and find a help soon is coded as ‘mj ni sn ka’.
Answer: (e)
Read the given information and answer the question.
The MB Road near highway has an average of one pothole or patched piece of asphalt for every yards of road. The primary reason for the condition of the road isn’t age, weather or rush hour traffic. It’s 18-wheeler trucks. These heavy trucks roar down this route that was never meant to carry weights above 40 tonnes. While regular traffic on the road averages 2 tonnes in terms of weight per vehicle, the average weight per 18-wheeler truck is 35 times this weight.
Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?
A. The highway close to the MB Road can definitely carry at least 35 times more number of vehicles than that possible on MB road.
B. 18-wheeler trucks which are 30 tonnes lighter will not cause harm to the mentioned road.
C. Restricting small vehicles while permitting only 18-wheeler trucks may reduce harm caused to the road.
D. A road is constructed considering the type of vehicles plying on it.
(a) Only C
(b) A and C
(c) B and D
(d) A and D
(e) None of those given as options
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give answer
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if both conclusions follow
d. if none follows
e. if either I or II follows
36. Statements Q ≥ U > I < C = K > L; G < L; C < H
Conclusion I. I < L II. C > G
Answer: (b)
37. Statements M < O = N ≤ K < E ≥ Y = S; D < K ≥ B
Conclusion I. M < K II. O > B
Answer: (a)
38. Statements R < A = I ≥ N: S ≥ A
Conclusion I. S > N II. N = S
Answer: (e)
39. Statements M < O = N ≤ K < E ≤ Y = S; D < K ≥ B
Conclusion I. E > O II. D < S
Answer: (a)
40. Statements Q ≥ U > I < C = K > L; G < L; C < H
Conclusion I. Q > K II. H < U
Answer: (d)
41. Read the given information and answer the question.
Company Z and company F launched similar high end cars last year. However, six months later it was found that the popularity of car manufactured by company Z sky-rocketed whole the sales of the one manufactured by company F did not pick up at all. Manager X: “The only reason our car did not succeed was the price of the car. Had our car been priced at a little lower value, the sales of our cars would also have been as good as the one manufactured by company .”
Which of the following weakens the statements of manager X?
(a) Experts have suggested that there is always a segment of population which reviews the car after it has been launched and purchases it only after a certain amount of time has passed after the launch.
(b) A few potential buyers had a problem with the fact that the only two air bags while the one manufactured by company F had six.
(c) In the past two years, all cars launched by company F were of mediocre quality and needed frequent repairs and maintenance thus tarnishing the name of the company to a great extent.
(d) The car launched by company F is available in limited colours, although the owners can request for the colour of their choice.
(e) A few other cars launched by company F several years ago had been priced lower than most other cars in the market and they worked very well.
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-46) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Seven people namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V like seven different fruits namely, Apple, Mango, Banana, Orange, Kiwi, Guava and Strawberry. Each of them works in either of the three companies viz. Samsung, Wipro and ITC with at least two of them in a company.
(Note None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)
R works in Wipro with the one likes Banana. U does not work with R. P works in ITC with only the one who likes Kiwi. U does not like Apple. T works in Samsung with the one who like Apple. T does not like Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry works with the one who likes Mango but not with R. S works with the one who likes Guava. S does not like Banana. Q does not like Apple.
42. Which of the following combinations represents the combination of people working in Wipro?
(a) S, R
(b) Q, V, R
(c) U, T, R
(d) R, Q
(e) T, R, P
Answer: (d)
43. Which of the following fruits does P like?
(a) Banana
(b) Strawberry
(c) Orange
(d) Guava
(e) Mango
Answer: (b)
44. Which combination represents the company in which V works and the fruit he likes?
(a) Samsung-Apple
(b) Samsung-Banana
(c) Wipro-Guava
(d) ITC-Mango
(e) ITC-Orange
Answer: (d)
45. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) S-Strawberry
(b) Q-Orange
(c) R-Apple
(d) U-Kiwi
(e) T-Mango
Answer: (d)
46. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) R works in the company in which P works.
(b) U works with the one who likes Mango.
(c) None of the given statements is true.
(d) S works in Wipro.
(e) Q likes Kiwi.
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-51) In these questions, three statements followed by two conclusions I and II are given. Take the given statements to be true and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows.
Give answer
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I nor follows
e. if both conclusions follow
47. Statements Some roads are houses.
Some houses are bungalows.
No bungalow is an apartment.
Conclusion I. All roads being apartments is a possibility.
II. No apartment is a house.
Answer: (b)
48. Statements All guests are hosts.
Some guests are relatives.
All relatives are friends.
Conclusion I. All guests are friends.
II. No host being friend is a possibility.
Answer: (d)
49. Statements Some shops are outlets.
Some outlets are factories.
All factories are industries.
Conclusion I. At least some shops are factories.
II. At least some outlets are industries.
Answer: (b)
50. Statements Some roads are houses.
Some houses are bungalows.
No bungalow is an apartment.
Conclusions I. Some houses are definitely not apartments.
II. At least some roads are bungalows.
Answer: (b)
51. Statements All certainties are beliefs.
Some beliefs are fears.
Conclusion I. At least some fears are certainties.
II. No fear is a certainty.
Answer: (a)
52. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
The commerce department of a college allotted its students to different organizations for completing their two-month internship starting from February 5, 2016. The students were asked to submit their complete internship reports in a specified format along with the original certificates latest by May 10, 2016, failing which they would not be allowed to write their final exams. Following are given cases of 5 students who did not submit their reports by the stipulated deadline. However, one of these was allowed to write his exam. Identify that student.
(a) Mehvish had to do her internship under two different project guides. Hence, she found it difficult to adequately allot time to both of them.
(b) Sunil Jadhav was absent in the class during which the format of the report was given to the students.
(c) Vaibhav Tripathi, who was allotted to an organization of another city, was given only a provisional certificate by the organization which was not as per the norms of the college.
(d) Akhil Mehta had completed his report before the deadline, but could not submit as it was not written in the specified format.
(e) Rachita Saxena was allotted to renowned NGO where the maximum time for internship was of 75 days.
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-57) Study the given information carefully and answer t he given question.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges following a particular line. The following is an illustration of input and arrangement.
Step V 84 BEACH 58 HOUND 16 ROAST 29 PARTY 71 EAGLE
Ste V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the given input.
53. Which element appears exactly between the fourth element from the left and fifth element from the right in the second last step?
(a) 67
(b) 91
(c) WARDEN
(d) KNIGHT
(e) ABACUS
Answer: (e)
54. Which of the following represent the two consecutive elements to the immediate right of ‘KNIGHT’ in the last step?
(a) 45, CHANT
(b) 30, SALTY
(c) 18, WARDEN
(d) 91, SALTY
(e) WARDEN, 30
Answer: (c)
55. What is the position of ‘18’ from the left of ‘SALTY’ in step III?
(a) Third
(b) Second
(c) Fourth
(d) Seventh
(e) Sixth
Answer: (d)
56. In step III, which element/s appear/s exactly between ‘WARDEN’ and ‘ABACUS’?
(a) Only 91
(b) Both CHANT and 67
(c) Both 18 and SALTY
(d) Only KNIGHT
(e) Only CHANT
Answer: (e)
57. In step I, ABACUS : WARDEN in the same way as CHANT : 91 in step IV. In the same way, WARDEN : ………….. in step V.
(a) CHANT
(b) 91
(c) 18
(d) ABACUS
(e) Other than those given as options
Answer: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 58-60) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Six people J, K, L, M, N and O are holding a different number of flowers, but not necessarily in the same order. J holds less than L but more than N. M holds less flowers than N but more than O. L does not hold the most number of flowers. M holds 16 flowers.
58. Who amongst the following holds the third highest number of flowers?
(a) N
(b) O
(c) L
(d) J
(e) Other than those given as options
Answer: (d)
59. How many people hold more flowers than L?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) None
(d) Four
(e) One
Answer: (e)
60. If the difference between the number of flowers hold by M and J is 12, then how many flowers does N possibly hold?
(a) 9
(b) 4
(c) 34
(d) 22
(e) 43
Answer: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them works in a different company viz. Microsoft, Sony, Dell, P & G, HTC, ONGC, Google and Amazon but not necessarily in the same order.
The one who works in Microsoft sits third to the right of V. Only one person sits between the one who works in Microsoft and U. Only three people sit between T and U. R sits second to the left of U.
Both R and T are immediate neighbours of the one who works in P & G. Only three people sit between the one who works in P & G and S. S is one of the immediate neighbours of the one who works in Dell. The one who works in ONGC sits second to the left of the one who works in Dell.
W sits third to the left of the one who works in ONGC. P is one of the immediate neighbours of W.
The one who works in Google sits to the immediate left of the one who works in HTC.
Only three people sit between the one who works in Google and the one who works in Sony.
61. V is related to Google in a certain way based on the given arrangement. Following the same pattern, Q is related to Amazon. To which of the following companies is R related to following the same pattern?
(a) Microsoft
(b) HTC
(c) ONGC
(d) Dell
(e) Sony
Answer: (a)
62. Q works in which of the following companies?
(a) HTC
(b) P & G
(c) Google
(d) Sony
(e) Dell
Answer: (b)
63. What is the position of P with respect to Q?
(a) Third to the left
(b) Fourth to the left
(c) Second to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Third to the right
Answer: (a)
64. Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) T sits second to right of U.
(b) Q is an immediate neighbour of the one who works in Google.
(c) P and the one who works in Dell are immediate neighbours of each other.
(d) S works in ONGC
(e) R sits second to the right of the one who works in HTC.
Answer: (e)
65. Who amongst the following works in Amazon?
(a) R
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) T
(d) U
(e) P
Answer: (b)
Part III English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
A. Normally, such a collapse would lead OPEC to pump less oil as the idea is that less oil in the market helps keep prices up.
B. This is evident from the fact that in the middle of 2014, a barrel of crude cost over $ 100 but not it is worth just over $ 30.
C. The price of oil has more than halved over the last year and a half.
D. But despite a historic fall in oil prices, the international oil cartel hasn’t budged: the biggest step it has taken so far is offer to freeze production at its current record levels and production cuts are not on the table.
E. A probable explanation could be that OPEC simply has less control over the oil market than it used to, thanks to the shale gas revolution.
F. The big question is; why such production cuts are not being looked at as plausible solutions?
66. Which of the following should be the first sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) B
(d) C
(e) D
Answer: (d)
67. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) E
(d) C
(e) B
Answer: (a)
68. Which of the following should be the second sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) C
Answer: (b)
69. Which of the following should be the third sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) F
(c) B
(d) D
(e) A
Answer: (d)
70. Which of the following should be the fourth sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore punctuations error)
71. The day after the attack,/the seniors asked their colleagues/ to not turn/ up for work.
(a) The day after the attack
(b) the seniors asked their colleagues
(c) to not turn
(d) up for work
(e) No error
Answer: (c)
72. In the early 90s,/ a noted architect photographed/ the water bodes nestled/ inside the textile mills of Mumbai.
(a) In the early 90s
(b) a noted architect photographed
(c) the water bodes nestled
(d) inside the textile mills of Mumbai
(e) No error
Answer: (b)
73. The Supreme Court passed/ an order for all State governments/ to construct shelters with/ a capacity around 100 persons per one lakh population.
(a) The Supreme Court passed
(b) an order for all State governments
(c) to construct shelters with
(d) a capacity around 100 persons per one lakh population
(e) No error
Answer: (d)
74. The wrestling den is/ almost so large as/ the mud pit in/ which its wrestlers train.
(a) The wrestling den is
(b) almost so large as
(c) the mud pit in
(d) which its wrestlers train
(e) No error
Answer: (b)
75. Have the pressure of crossing over/ to the digital been difficult/ for a firm that ironically democratized the photographic image/ with its low-cost cameras?
(a) Have the pressure of crossing over
(b) to the digital been difficult
(c) for a firm that ironically democratized the photographic image
(d) with its low-cost cameras
(e) No error
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-85) Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.
76. The new move by the regulatory body is aimed at setting cases which are at a time draw into lengthy litigation.
(a) are drawing
(b) drawn out
(c) sometimes drawn
(d) are drawn into
(e) No correction required
Answer: (d)
77. Combine effects of growing populations, rising incomes and expanding cities will see the demand rising exponentially.
(a) Combining an effect
(b) Combined effects of
(c) Combine the effect of
(d) Combination of the effects
(e) No correction required
Answer: (b)
78. Heavily invest in technology has resulted in more than half the transactions taking place online reducing banks dependence on ‘costly’ branches.
(a) Heavy investment in
(b) A heavy investment
(c) If we invest heavily
(d) To invest heavily in
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a)
79. Experts reckon that in the next four years steelmaking capacity has increased to 50% in the Middle East, 20% in Africa and 10% in America.
(a) increasing upto
(b) will have increased by
(c) has been increased
(d) has an increase off
(e) No correction required
Answer: (b)
80. The report stressed the need to broaden access to health, education and has promoting financial inclusion to bring down inequality levels.
(a) as well as promote
(b) promotion of
(c) which is a promotion of
(d) has been promoting
(e) No correction required
Answer: (b)
81. Climate scientists say that meteorological factors are played an important role in the high pollution levels detected in the city.
(a) could have played
(b) will like playing
(c) were played
(d) playing
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a)
82. The bankruptcy code key element in the government’s strategy to rid the financial sector of its bad debt problem.
(a) will be key element
(b) are key elements
(c) will key elements
(d) is a key element
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a)
83. Consumers over 60 are the richest segment of t he population thanks to lower price inflation and generous pensions and their numbers are only growing.
(a) its number grew
(b) whose number is grown
(c) its growth
(d) are being grown
(e) No correction required
Answer: (e)
84. According to the Progressive Policy Institute, the mobile application economy has created 3.3 million jobs in America and Europe but there is no guarantee that the Chabot economy being so successful.
(a) is successfully
(b) is going to be success,
(c) succeed
(d) will be as successful
(e) No correction required
Answer: (d)
85. The global economy has little brighter spots with only America and China adding a substantial amount of global GDP.
(a) brightened spots
(b) no brighter spot
(c) no brighten spots
(d) few brighten spots
(e) No correction required
Answer: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-95) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given question. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A generation ago Medellin was Colombia’s and the world’s most violent city. But a mathematician who served as major in 2003-07 began the task of turning Medillin around. He invested in urban projects designed to bridge the city’s socio-economic divide, such as cable cars connecting shanty towns to the metro and to new public libraries in poorer areas. With a relatively small budget, the concentrated on drawing open security and development plans building “education parks” in each municipality emblematic buildings designed as teacher’s centres but also meant to mobilize communities to improve the quality of schooling.
The problem is that income distribution for Colombia as a whole is among the most unequal in Latin America, behind only Haiti and Honduras. When the government recently carried out the first agricultural census for 45 years, it found that two-third of all farms have less than 5 hectares (12.4 acres) and together occupy less than 5% of all agricultural and grazing land. Still, the proportion of people living in poverty (defined as income per head of $ 4 a day or less in purchasing-power-parity terms) fell from almost 50% in 2002 to 29.5% in 2014, and incomes of the poorest 40% have grown faster than average, according to international aid organizations such as the World Bank.
Many more children now benefit from education, though Colombia still hovers near the bottom of the OCED’s (a club of oil producing countries) PISA rankings that test children in 65 economies for reading, maths and science. There are “three Colombia’s. One, in the main cities, is a sophisticated place with rapid economic growth and first-world social indicators. A second has been social improvements but lack good jobs. A third, made up of 3 million people, lacks even basic services. Not coincidentally, this third Colombia is where conflict has persisted. But three things are still missing. The first is better roads.
The government has embarked on an ambitious infrastructure programme, but it is confined to the main national route. Second, security, though much improved, still needs to get better. Third, if farmers are not to be dependent solely on cocoa, they need credit and technical advice. Local political and state institutions will also need to be strengthened. These suffer “chronic deficiencies” such as corruption and lack of technical competence,, democratic accountability and budget resources, as the Unstated in a report last year. The government is setting up a $ 400 million fund with money from the World Bank and Inter American Development Bank to install drinking water and sewerage in the coast’s four main cities. The rural economy will need more attention too. State agricultural agencies need a complete revamp to be able to expand credit and technical help to small farmers. Together with changes to social policies, this could close the rural-urban development gap within 20 years.
86. Which of the following correctly describes international aid efforts in Colombia?
(a) These are non-existent owing to global economic conditions.
(b) These have further damaged Colombia’s economy.
(c) These are likely to widen the rural-urban divide in Colombia.
(d) It has had an adverse impact on rural agricultural incomes.
(e) None of the given options correctly describes aid efforts in Colombia.
Answer: (e)
87. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘Confined’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Imprisoned
(b) Discharged
(c) Withhold
(d) Extensive
(e) Unlocked
Answer: (d)
88. Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word ‘Emblematic’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Symbolic
(b) Warning
(c) Valuable
(d) Belief
(e) Flagged
Answer: (a)
89. Which of the following correctly explains the phrase ‘These suffer chronic deficiencies’ as used in the passage?
(a) For the past few years crops in Colombia are suffering from chronic diseases.
(b) Water-borne diseases in Colombia are widespread.
(c) Local institutions are plagued by systemic flaws.
(d) Poor Colombians suffer from many vitamin related deficiencies.
(e) It is impossible to correct the agricultural sector which need it complete revamp.
Answer: (c)
90. Which of t he following is the central idea of the passage?
(a) Colombia has split into various blocs, each of which is demanding sovereignty.
(b) Colombia is a poor undeveloped nation on the brink of war.
(c) Agricultural reform is the answer to Colombia’s problems.
(d) Colombia has taken adequate steps to address its infrastructure issues.
(e) Security and development are key if Colombia is to reach its potential.
Answer: (e)
91. Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word ‘Hovers’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Leaves
(b) Flies
(c) Attacks
(d) Remains
(e) Delays
Answer: (d)
92. According to the passage, which of the following is/are (a) factor (s) impacting the situation in Colombia?
A. Tremendous increase in poverty
B. Availability of funds for development programmes
C. Lack of infrastructure
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only B and C
(d) A and C
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
93. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(a) Colombia’s poverty estimates are drastically under-reported.
(b) Haiti and Honduras are the most prosperous Latin American nations.
(c) Colombia’s education system needs reform.
(d) Urban Development projects in Colombia had failed owing to lack of funds.
(e) All the given statements are true in the context of the passage.
Answer: (e)
94. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘Persisted’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Wasted
(b) Grown
(c) Escaped
(d) Advanced
(e) Faded
Answer: (e)
95. What does the author want to convey through the anecdote of Medellin cited in the passage?
(a) Medellin is ripe for social unrest as the gap between in rich and poor is too wide.
(b) Innovative low-cost development schemes have benefited Colombia.
(c) Academics do not make able administrators.
(d) Medellin’s PISA ranking is well deserved.
(e) Other than those given as options
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-105) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.
If the country is going to get (96) about cutting carbon emissions from oil and gas, it will have to (97) ways to scale up its use of renewable energy. (98) wind and solar power into electricity is, in some ways, the easy part. The bigger (99) is developing the infrastructure to transmit that electricity across the country.
In the case of wind, most of t hat power is (100) far from the urban centers that would use it. Transmission would require a new nationwide system of power lines reaching from the widest parts of the country. Such a system could also (101) power suppliers the flexibility to shift supply depending on variations in weather. But residents in those areas do not want power lines (102) their properties. One project, called the Grain Belt Express and the intended to run from Kansas to Illinois, is on (103) after being voted down by the Missouri Public Service Commission. There was considerable (104) from land owners, who worried the lines would be unsightly or interfere with farming. Some residents also (105) to the idea of companies building Missourians land in order to sell power elsewhere.
96.
(a) though
(b) severe
(c) serious
(d) intend
(e) steady
Answer: (c)
97.
(a) look
(b) bargain
(c) catch
(d) find
(e) lose
Answer: (d)
98.
(a) Switching
(b) Putting
(c) Planning
(d) Holding
(e) Converting
Answer: (e)
99.
(a) challenge
(b) issues
(c) trial
(d) contest
(e) threat
Answer: (a)
100.
(a) generated
(b) achieved
(c) provoked
(d) set
(e) prevented
Answer: (a)
101.
(a) deny
(b) allow
(c) hinder
(d) grants
(e) confess
Answer: (a)
102.
(a) without
(b) beyond
(c) crossing
(d) featuring
(e) running
Answer: (c)
103.
(a) grip
(b) stop
(c) line
(d) hold
(e) schedule
Answer: (d)
104.
(a) constraint
(b) neglect
(c) resistant
(d) hostile
(e) opposition
Answer: (a)
105.
(a) protest
(b) objected
(c) welcomed
(d) complaint
(e) endorse
Answer: (b)
Part IV Computer Knowledge
106. Which of the following commands would you choose to move selected text from one place to another?
(a) Cut and Paste
(b) Drag and Paste
(c) Delete and Paste
(d) Copy and Paste
(e) Move and Paste
Answer: (a)
107. Descending order of data hierarchy in data management in computing is
(a) Database-Records-Files-Bytes-Fields-Bit
(b) Database-File-Record-Fields-Byte-Bit
(c) Database-Record-Fields-File-Bytes-Bit
(d) Database-Fields-File-Record Bit-Bytes
(e) Database-File-Record-Fields-Bit-Bytes
Answer: (b)
108. How to specify cell range from A9 to A99 in Excel?
(a) (A9 to A99)
(b) (A9 = A99)
(c) (A9–A99)
(d) (A9, A99)
(e) (A9 : A99)
Answer: (e)
109. Which of the following is not an input device?
(a) VDU
(b) Keyboard
(c) Scanner
(d) Mouse
(e) Joystick
Answer: (a)
110. What is the portion of RAM that a computer microprocessor can access more quickly than it can access regular RAM?
(a) Cache
(b) Processor
(c) Memory Pool
(d) Data Pool
(e) Processor Pool
Answer: (a)
111. The ability to perform ‘what if?’ analysis is key feature of which type of software?
(a) Desktop publishing program
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Presentation
(d) Word processor
(e) e-Mail program
Answer: (b)
112. SQL stands for
(a) Semi Questioning Language
(b) Structured Query Language
(c) Structured Question Language
(d) Sequential Question Language
(e) Sequential Query Language
Answer: (b)
113. VIRUS stands for
(a) Vital Information Resource Under Seizure
(b) Vital Information Resource Under Siege
(c) Vital Information Reason Under Siege
(d) Vital Information Reason Under System
(e) Virus information Recourse Under Siege
Answer: (b)
114. To move to the bottom of a document, press
(a) Home Key
(b) End Key
(c) Ctrl + End
(d) Insert key
(e) Shift key
Answer: (c)
115. Single-word reference to viruses, worms etc. is
(a) killerware
(b) harmware
(c) phish
(d) malware
(e) virus
Answer: (d)
116. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language, is known as
(a) File
(b) Processing
(c) Coding
(d) Folder
(e) Testing
Answer: (c)
117. If you copy and paste a file
(a) the original file remains unchanged and a new file is created
(b) the file gets scanned
(c) the original file is removed and a new file is not created
(d) the original file remains unchanged and a new file is not created
(e) the original file is deleted and a new file is created
Answer: (a)
118. What is the generation of the computers which are built with VLSI technology and microprocessor?
(a) First
(b) Fourth
(c) Third
(d) Second
(e) Other than those given as options
Answer: (b)
119. A function inside another function in Excel, is called
(a) Round function
(b) Sun function
(c) Nested function
(d) Double function
(e) Test function
Answer: (c)
120. Which of the following best describes a private, company wide network, closed to public access?
(a) Intranet
(b) Internet
(c) Virtual Private Network
(d) Cloud Computing
(e) Extranet
Answer: (d)
121. Which one of the following would not be considered as a form of secondary storage?
(a) hard disk
(b) RAM
(c) Optical disk
(d) floppy disk
(e) flash drive
Answer: (b)
122. In computing and electronic system, BCD is abbreviation of
(a) Binary Coded Decimal
(b) Bit Coded Digit
(c) Byte Coded Digit
(d) Bit Coded Decimal
(e) Binary Coded Digit
Answer: (a)
123. HTTP refers to
(a) Home Tex Transaction protocol
(b) Hyper Text Tie Protocol
(c) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
(d) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(e) Home Text Transmission Protocol
Answer: (d)
124. The term ……… designates equipment that might be added to a computer to enhance, its functionality.
(a) System device
(b) Disk pack
(c) Operating device
(d) Digital device
(e) Peripheral device
Answer: (e)
125. A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language, is
(a) Assembler
(b) Intersection
(c) Comparator
(d) Complicate
(e) Converter
Answer: (a)
Part V General Awareness
126. The traditional Indian folk dance “Ghoomar’ was developed in the Indian State of
(a) Haryana
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Gujarat
Answer: (d)
127. As a part of military diplomacy, the fourth edition of the joint military exercise ‘Garuda Shakti’ was recently (March 10-23, 2016) held between armies of India and
(a) Iran
(b) Thailand
(c) Italy
(d) Myanmar
(e) Indonesia
Answer: (e)
128. Which of the following Indian film actors has been nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India in 2016
(a) Shahrukh Khan
(b) Saif Ali Khan
(c) Salman Khan
(d) Salim Khan
(e) None of those given as options
Answer: (e)
129. As per Census 2011, as on March 1, 2011, the rural population of India was
(a) 833.5 million
(b) 928.5 million
(c) 783.1 million
(d) 683.1 million
(e) 733.1 million
Answer: (a)
130. The ‘Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary’ is situated in the Indian State of
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh
(e) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (b)
131. Yamini Krishnamurthi has recently been conferred upon Padma Vibhushan for her contribution to
(a) Art-Cinema
(b) Literature and Education
(c) Spiritualism
(d) Art-Classical Vocal
(e) Art-Classical Dance
Answer: (e)
132. Which of the following Union Minister is an Olympian and veteran shooter?
(a) VK Singh
(b) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
(c) Rao Inderjit Singh
(d) Prakash Javadekar
(e) Rajiv Pratap Reddy
Answer: (b)
133. The National capital and the largest city of Lebanon is
(a) Amman
(b) Beirut
(c) Muscat
(d) Damascus
(e) Baghdad
Answer: (b)
134. The 2020 Summer Olympics are scheduled to be held in
(a) Sochi (Russia)
(b) Tokyo (Japan)
(c) Beijing (China)
(d) Athens (Greece)
(e) Sydney (Australia)
Answer: (b)
135. The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH), which recently caught fire, is situated in
(a) New Delhi
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Kolkata
(d) Visakhapatnam
(e) Mumbai
Answer: (a)
136. The harvest festival ‘Bhogali Bihu’ is majorly celebrated in the Indian State of
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Telangana
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
(e) Sikkim
Answer: (d)
137. India’s first ‘Railway University’ is proposed to be set-up in
(a) Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)
(b) Vijayawada (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh)
(d) Vellore (Tamil Nadu)
(e) Vadodara (Gujarat)
Answer: (e)
138. India’s first ever Aviation Park is proposed to be set-up in the Indian State of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Telangana
(e) Goa
Answer: (a)
139. In a bid to boost grass root level innovations across the country, President, Pranab Mukherjee recently inaugurated the second election of the week-long “Festival of Innovation” at
(a) Indian Institute of Science
(b) IIT-Kanpur
(c) IIT-Bombay
(d) Delhi University
(e) Rashtrapati Bhavan
Answer: (e)
140. The currency of ‘United Arab Emirates’ is
(a) Baht
(b) Dirham
(c) Rupee
(d) Ngultrum
(e) Rouble
Answer: (b)
141. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas recently established Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy (IIPE) at
(a) Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)
(b) Bengaluru (Karnataka)
(c) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
(d) Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh)
(e) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
Answer: (a)
142. ‘Narsingh Yadav’ is associated with the sport of
(a) Water Aerobics
(b) Weightlifting
(c) Water Sliding
(d) Wrestling
(e) Wind Surfing
Answer: (d)
143. May 1, every year is observed as the
(a) International Workers’ Day
(b) World Red Cross Day
(c) None of those given as options
(d) World Press Freedom Day
(e) World AIDS Vaccine Day
Answer: (a)
144. The United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) is United Nations programme, headquartered in
(a) Madrid (Spain)
(b) Geneva (Switzerland)
(c) New York (USA)
(d) London (UK)
(e) Washington DC (USA)
Answer: (c)
145. Which of the following is India’s seventh navigation satellite of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) that was launched by ISRO on April 28, 2016?
(a) IRNSS-1G
(b) IRNSS-1B
(c) IRNSS-1D
(d) IRNSS-1F
(e) IRNSS-1E
Answer: (a)
Part VI Quantitative Aptitude
146. The numerical value of the perimeter of a rectangular field is less than that of its area by 128. If the breadth of the same field is halved, then the numerical value of the perimeter of the field becomes 40 less than its area. What is the area of the rectangular field?
(a) 192 sq cm
(b) 220 sq cm
(c) 176 sq cm
(d) 208 sq cm
(e) 184 sq cm
Answer: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 147-151) In these questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.
Give answer
a. if x > y b. if x < y
c. if x ≥ y d. if x ≤ y
e. if relationship between x and y cannot be determined
147. I. x2 – 12x + 35 = 0 II. y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
Answer: (a)
148. I. 6x2 + 5x + 1 = 0 II. 2y2 + 7y + 5 = 0
Answer: (a)
149. I. x2 = 9 II. 3y2 – 8y + 5 = 0
Answer: (e)
150. I. 2x2 + 15x + 27 = 0 II. 2y2 + 11y + 15 = 0
Answer: (c)
2x2 – 9x + 10 = 0 II. 3y2 – 10y + 8 = 0
Answer: (c)
152. Vessel A contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective quantities of 20 litres and 4 litres. Vessel B contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 3 : 1. Mixtures from vessel A and B are both mixed together in vessel C. If the resultant percentage of water in vessel C was 20%, what was the initial quantity of mixture in vessel B?
(a) 16 L
(b) 20 L
(c) 12 L
(d) 24 L
(e) 28 L
Answer: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 153-157) Study the table and answer the given question.
Note :
I. Number of students who completed the course = Number of students enrolled – Number of students dropped out
II. Only those students who completed the course could appear for job placement.
III. Few data are missing (indicated by -) in the table. You are expected to calculate those values based on the given information, if required to answer any of the questions.
153. In City A, 25% of students (M + F) who completed the course got job. What is the number of female students who dropped out of the course in the same city?
(a) 110
(b) 96
(c) 116
(d) 124
(e) 108
Answer: (e)
154. In City E, respective ratio of male and female student who enrolled for course is 9 : 8 and male to female students who completed the course is 4 : 3. What is the number of students (M + F) who got job from the same city?
(a) 153
(b) 169
(c) 163
(d) 63
(e) 53
Answer: (d)
155. In City D, number of students (M + F) who dropped out is 3/11th of the number of students (M + F) who enrolled for the course. What percent of students (M + F) in City D, who completed the course, got job?
(a) 86.25
(b) 76.5
(c) 72.25
(d) 80.5
(e) 72.72
Answer: (e)
156. In City C, number of male students who completed the course is equal to number of female students who completed it. Only 96students, i.e. 25% of the students (M + F) who completed the course, got job, how many male students enrolled for the course in the same city?
(a) 244
(b) 218
(c) 212
(d) 214
(e) 215
Answer: (a)
157. In City B, if 40% of students (M + F) who completed the course, got job, how many students (M + F) got job in City B?
(a) 160
(b) 154
(c) 162
(d) 166
(e) 127
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 158-162) Study the graph and answer the given questions.
158. In village D, the number of eligible voters grew by 20% from the y ear 2004 to the year 2014. Also in the year 2014, the number of actual registered voters was 75% of the total eligible voters the same year. The number of actual registered voters in village D in the year 2014 was what percent more than that of the same village in the year 2004?
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
(e) 30%
Answer: (b)
159. If the numbers of actual registered voters are equal in village D and E, what is the respective ratio between the total population of village D and that of village E?
(a) 35 : 24
(b) 41 : 30
(c) 35 : 32
(d) 36 : 25
(e) 24 : 35
Answer: (a)
160. In village A, 75% of the actual registered voters were male. If the difference between the number of actual male registered voters and that of actual female registered voters was 1400, what was the total population of village A?
(a) 5000
(b) 7200
(c) 7500
(d) 6400
(e) 5200
Answer: (a)
161. In village B, the voters turnout was 36% of the total population. The voter’s turnout in village B was what percent of actual registered voters?
(a) 60%
(b) 65%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
(e) 75%
Answer: (a)
162. Total population of village C was 12500 and the voter’s turnout was 80% of the actual registered voters. What was the voters’ turnout in village C?
(a) 7500
(b) 7200
(c) 6400
(d) 6000
(e) 8000
Answer: (b)
163. Aman invests a certain sum Rs X for two years in scheme A offering compound interest at 20% per annum (compound annually). He also invests Rs X-1600 in scheme B for three years offering simple interest at 10% per annum. The interest he received from scheme A was twice the interest he received from scheme B. What is the sum of money that Aman had invested in scheme B?
(a) Rs 4400
(b) Rs 4800
(c) Rs 4200
(d) Rs 4600
(e) Rs 4000
Answer: (a)
164. In the year 1998, the number of students in school B was half that of in school A. In the year 1999, the number of students were more than that in the previous year by 20% in each of the schools. In the year 2000, the number of students in school B was one-fourth of sum of those in schools A and B together in the year 1999. The number of students in school B in year 2000 was what percent less than that in the year 1999?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 12.5%
(e) 25%
Answer: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 165-167) What will be come in the place of question marks in the following number series?
165. 158 ? 38 18 8
(a) 64
(b) 78
(c) 52
(d) 90
(e) 86
Answer: (b)
166. 849 282 93 30 9 ?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 8
(e) 2
Answer: (e)
167. 5 4 6 15 56 ?
(a) 218
(b) 275
(c) 169
(d) 144
(e) 362
Answer: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 168-172) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
Academy ‘XYZ’ offers classes on 4 different dance forms- Bharatnatyam, Freestyle, Bunny-hop and Jive, It has three centres in India- Noida, Kolkata and Odisha. Jive classes will always have equal number of male and female students. Only female students have enrolled for Bharatnatyam classes. One student can learn only one dance form.
Data for the month of December, 2015
• The total number of students in academy was 300.
• The number of students learning Bharatnatyam was 20% of the total number of students in the academy.
• Out of the total number of female students in the academy, 25% were learning Bharatnatyam and 30% were learning Bunny-hop.
Data for the month of January, 2016
• The number of students (both male and female. learning Jive was 32.
• The number of students learning Bharatnatyam was same as the previous month. Out of the total number of female students in the academy, 4/15 were l learning Freestyle.
• The number of male students learning Freestyle was two times the number of female students learning the same dance form.
168. As compared to the previous month, in January 2016, the number of students (both male and female. in Academy ‘XYZ’ increased by 104. If the students learning Freestyle and those learning Bunny-hop increased by the same number, what was the number of male students learning Bunny-hop?
(a) 82
(b) 104
(c) 112
(d) 54
(e) 108
Answer: (e)
169. In December, 2015, the number of students (both male and female) learning Freestyle was what percent more than the number of students (both male and female) learning Bharatnatyam?
(a) 62.5%
(b) 55.5%
(c) 60%
(d) 50%
(e) 65%
Answer: (c)
170. In December, 2015, what was the average number of female students learning Bharatnatyam, Jive and Bunny-hop?
(a) 40
(b) 42
(c) 45
(d) 44
(e) 40
Answer: (a)
171. In December, 2015, out of the total number of male students learning Bunny-hop, 4/9 were in Noida centre and 5/18 were in Kolkata centre. What was the difference between the number of male students learning Bunny-hop in Noida centre and those learning same the dance form in Kolkata centre?
(a) 22
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 14
(e) 18
Answer: (a)
172. In December, 2015, equal number of male and female students learning Bunny-hop got selected for a competition. If the respective ratio between the number of male students who did not get selected and the number of female students who did not get selected is 5 : 3, what was the number of students (both male & female). Who got selected for the competition?
(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 12
(e) 28
Answer: (e)
173. 15 women can complete a work in 4 days and 32 children can complete it in ‘X’ days. 10 women and 20 children work for three days, and then leave. If the remaining work is completed by 3 women in what is the value of ‘X’?
(a) 25
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 20
(e) 22
Answer: (c)
174. Shyam bought two articles-A and B, the cost prices of which were same. Shyam labelled both the articles at 40% more than its cost price. He then sold article A at 30% discount and article B at Rs 35 more than the selling price of article A. If in the whole deal he earned a profit of 5%, what was the cost price of article A?
(a) Rs 250
(b) Rs 100
(c) Rs 300
(d) Rs 360
(e) Rs 150
Answer: (a)
175. The distance between Point X and Point Y is 80 km. Boat A could travel from point X to Y upstream and point Y to X downstream in total 30 hours Boat B could travel from Point X to Y upstream and Point Y to X downstream in total 9 hours. If the speed of boat B in still water is thrice of boat A in still water, what is the speed of Boat B? (Please note: speed of the current is constant for both.)
(a) 24 km/h
(b) 27 km/h
(c) 12 km/h
(d) 18 km/h
(e) 21 km/h
Answer: (d)
Part VII Economic and Social Issues
176. According to new ‘Census 2011’ data released recently by the government of India, if all communities are taken together the percentage of country’s population below 20 years, is
(a) 63%
(b) 27%
(c) 28%
(d) 41%
(e) 31%
Answer: (d)
177. The fastest growing State in terms of ‘Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP)’ in the financial year 2014-15 is in the Indian State of
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(e) Kerala
Answer: (b)
178. The situation where the inflation rate falls below zero percent (0%) is described by economists as
(a) Deflation
(b) Dejection
(c) Disinflation
(d) Depreciation
(e) Devaluation
Answer: (a)
179. Which of the following is a rural electrification scheme of the government of India?
(a) PMJJBY
(b) DDUGJY
(c) PRASAD
(d) HRIDAY
(e) DDUGKY
Answer: (b)
180. The ‘International Monetary Fund (IMF)’ is an international organization, headquartered in
(a) New York (USA)
(b) Geneva (Switzerland)
(c) Washington DC (USA)
(d) Paris (France)
(e) Vienna (Austria)
Answer: (c)
181. The Plan period of the Twelfth Five Year Plan of the government of India is
(a) 2012 to 2017
(b) 2014 to 2019
(c) 2011 to 2016
(d) 2013 to 2018
(e) 2015 to 2020
Answer: (a)
182. The ‘Smart Cities Mission’ of the central government is being implemented through the
(a) Union Ministry of Human Resources Development
(b) Union Ministry of Statistics Programme Implementation
(c) Union Ministry of Urban Development
(d) Union Ministry of Rural Development
(e) Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Answer: (c)
183. A monetary policy in which a central bank has an explicit target inflation rate for the medium term and announces this inflation target to the public, is known as
(a) Inflation Plan
(b) Budgeted Inflation
(c) Inflation Targeting
(d) Objective Inflation
(e) Inflation Arrangement
Answer: (c)
184. Which of t he following programme is India’s flagship rural employment programme?
(a) PMAGY
(b) AMRUT
(c) HRIDAY
(d) None of the given options
(e) MGNREGA
Answer: (e)
185. In recent (February, 2016) data released b y the Central Statistics Office (CSO), it was indicated that India’s per capita income during 2015-16 is likely to grow by 6.2% to
(a) Rs 5452.58
(b) Rs 4452.58
(c) Rs 7452.58
(d) Rs 6452.58
(e) Rs 8452.58
Answer: (d)
186. The committee set up by the Human Resource Development headed by the former Cabinet Secretary
(a) Prabhat Kumar
(b) B. K. Chaturvedi
(c) TSR Subramanian
(d) TR Prasad
(e) KM Chandrasekhar
Answer: (c)
187. India is projected as the fastest growing economy in the world in 2016 and 2017 amid volatile global financial conditions in the World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) 2016 report recently released by
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) United Nations Organization
(d) World Economic Forum
(e) None of them given as options
Answer: (c)
188. According to the recent (April, 2016) data released by BSE, the unemployment rate in urban areas in India was of the order of
(a) 12.62%
(b) 11.15%
(c) 12.15%
(d) 9.62%
(e) 11.62%
Answer: (d)
189. In the India context, who amongst the following is regarded as the ‘Lender of the Last Resort’?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Export Import Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Government of India
(e) NABARD
Answer: (a)
190. According to a recent NSSO survey, the literacy rate in ‘urban’ areas in India was found to be around
(a) 67%
(b) 71%
(c) 86%
(d) 89%
(e) 92%
Answer: (c)
191. Under the Nation Food Security Act 2013 (NFSA, 2013) , about 67% of the population is entitled to subsidized food which however does not include
A heat B. Rice C. Coarse cereals
(a) B and C
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) Only B
(e) None of those given as options
Answer: (c)
192. The ‘Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)’ has now been subsumed with the
(a) HRIDAY
(b) AMRUT
(c) MGNREGA
(d) PRASAD
(e) None of those given as options
Answer: (b)
193. Micro Finance Institutions registered as non-banking finance companies are regulated by
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(c) MUDRA Bank
(d) SIDBI
(e) NABARD
Answer: (a)
194. According to the ‘Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, the percentage of rural households having no literate adults above the age 25 was about
(a) 9.5%
(b) 10.5%
(c) 30.5%
(d) 36.5%
(e) 23.5%
Answer: (c)
195. The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a scheme focused on workers in the
(a) financial institutions
(b) government departments
(c) public sector units
(d) unorganized sector
(e) industrial sector
Answer: (d)
196. In the year 2015, the government revised the methodology of calculating the national accounts by revising the base year from 2004-05 to
(a) 2011-12
(b) 2009-10
(c) 2007-08
(d) 2008-09
(e) 2006-07
Answer: (a)
197. According to ‘Economics Survey 2015-16’, in India, the percentage of the earning population in the tax net is around
(a) 4.0%
(b) 7.5%
(c) 8.5%
(d) 5.5%
(e) 9.5%
Answer: (d)
198. The National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation (NSFDC) is a central public sector enterprise under the aegis of the
(a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) Ministry of Human Resources Development
(d) Ministry of Minority Affairs
(e) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
Answer: (b)
199. Seeking to guard investor returns from excessive exchange rate movements, the RBI Governor has recently stated that a move towards an inflation target of 4% will help contain volatility in the
(a) None of the given options
(b) Currency Market
(c) Domestic Debt Market
(d) Domestic Retail Market
(e) Domestic Money Market
Answer: (b)
200. The ‘National Urban livelihood Mission (NULM)’ has now been renamed as ‘Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana-NULM’. The stationary urban local bodes now covered under the
NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination Held on 6-8-2017 Agricultural and Rural Management Question Paper With Answer Key
NABARD Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination Held on 6-8-2017
Agricultural and Rural Management
1. Which of the following States has launched ‘Mukhyamantri Jal Swavalamban Abhiyan Scheme’?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Goa
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (A)
2. The interdisciplinary scientific study of the atmosphere is known as-
(A) Zoology
(B) Neurology
(C) Meteorology
(D) Meteorite
(E) Biology
Answer: (C)
3. National Rural Health Mission has been launched in the country in-
(A) 2003
(B) 2005
(C) 2007
(D) 2009
(E) 2010
Answer: (B)
4. The Panchayati Raj System in India was introduced by which constitutional amendment ?
(A) Constitutional Amendment, 1982
(B) Constitutional Amendment, 1992
(C) Constitutional Amendment, 2002
(D) Constitutional Amendment, 2012
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B)
5. How often under the Mid-day Meal Programme, should the assessment of Percentage of Underweight children at school level be done?
(A) Yearly
(B) Half-yearly
(C) Quarterly
(D) Monthly
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B)
6. Which forest community of Central India sent a petition against stopping of shifting cultivation in 1892?
(A) Muria
(B) Biagas
(C) Bhatra
(D) Maria
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B)
7. The deficiency of which of the following causes poor plant growth and pale green or yellow leaves ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Sulphur
(E) Sodium
Answer: (D)
8. Which of the following is responsible for the whitening of leaves ?
(A) Chlorosis
(B) Transpiration
(C) Respiration
(D) Photosynthesis
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (A)
9. What is the scientific name of cotton plant ?
(A) Ocimum sanctum
(B) Coriandrum sativum
(C) Curcuma longa
(D) Gossypium herbaceum
(E) Allium cepa
Answer: (D)
10. Where is the headquarter of International Fund for Agriculture Development located ?
(A) Vienna, Austria
(B) Rome, Italy
(C) New York, USA
(D) Berlin, Germany
(E) Geneva, Switzerland
Answer: (B)
11. A ‘plantation crop’ is grown on a large piece of land usually in a tropical or semi-tropical area specifically planted for wide-spread commercial sale and usually tended by resident labourers. Which of the following crops may be treated as a plantation crop ?
(A) Cereal and Pulses
(B) Fruits and Vegetables
(C) Wheat, Rice, Maize and Millets
(D) Tea, Coffee, Coconut, Rubber
(E) Cotton, Jute, Sugarcane, Tobacco
Answer: (D)
12. What is the initial fund allocated to the Diary Processing Infrastructure Fund?
(A) Rs 2,000 crore
(B) Rs 4,000 crore
(C) Rs 6,000 crore
(D) Rs 8,000 crore
(E) Rs 10,000 crore
Answer: (D)
13. The Blue Revolution is related with-
(A) Fish production
(B) Meat production
(C) Grains production
(D) Pulses production
(E) Oilseeds production
Answer: (A)
14. The aggregate limit per borrower for loans to corporate farmers engaged in Agriculture and Allied Activities considered as agriculture under priority sector advances is-
(A) Rs 2.1 crore
(B) Rs 2 crore
(C) Rs 6.8 crore
(D) Rs 4.5 crore
(E) Rs 4 crore
Answer: (B)
15. What is the average weight of annual drawn mouldboard plogh ?
(A) 1.2 kg
(B) 4.5 kg
(C) 2.5 kg to 3.8 kg
(D) 5.8 kg to 3.6 kg
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (E)
16. The sugarcane production in the country has exceeded ……. lakh tones for the year 2016-147, as per the estimate of agriculture production by Govt. of India.
(A) 4200
(B) 3700
(C) 3200
(D) 4000
(E) 3060
Answer: (E)
17. Soil Health Card is nationwide program to conduct farm level soil analysis. In which y ear, the Soil Health Card Scheme was launched?
(A) 2013
(B) 2014
(C) 2016
(D) 2012
(E) 2015
Answer: (E)
18. Which of the following becomes the first State to use Automated Weather Stations (AWS) for farmers ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
(E) West Bengal
Answer: (D)
19. SAMPADA is a scheme launched by the Union Government for reducing food wastage and increasing farmer’s income by 2022. What is the full form of SAMPADA?
(A) Scheme for Agro-Marine Produce Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters
(B) Scheme for Agro-Marine Production Processed and Developed Agriculture
(C) Scheme for Agriculture, Marine, Processing and Development Aid
(D) Scheme for Agriculture Mega Processing and Developing Aid
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (A)
20. In which of the following States, City ‘Centre on Integrated Rural Development for Asia and the Pacific’ (CIRDAP) is established?
(A) Chennai
(B) Lucknow
(C) Bhopal
(D) Mumbai
(E) Hyderabad
Answer: (E)
21. The scientific study of the movement, distribution and quality of water on earth, including water resources and environmental watershed sustainability is known as-
(A) Hydrology
(B) Meteorology
(C) Aerography
(D) Cerography
(E) Metrology
Answer: (A)
22. The practice of raising, grazing livestock such as, cattle or sheep for meat or wool is known as-
(A) Silviculture
(B) Permaculture
(C) Ranching
(D) Breeding
(E) Animal Husbandry
Answer: (C)
23. Maximum number of operational land holdings in India is which type of holding?
(A) Small Holdings
(B) Large Holdings
(C) Medium Holdings
(D) Marginal Holdings
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (D)
24. Which of the following Institute has recently developed genetically-modified cotton varieties?
(A) G. B. Pant University of Agriculture and Technology
(B) Punjab Agricultural University
(C) Tamil Nadu Agricultural University
(D) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
(E) University of Agricultural Sciences, Bengaluru, Karnataka
Answer: (B)
25. Sugarcane crops are examples of which type of cropping ?
(A) Ratoon
(B) Multiple
(C) Mixed
(D) Parallel
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (A)
26. India’s first Agriculture University is established in which State?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (C)
27. The Union Ministry of Commerce has launched pilot ‘RISPC’ for protecting growers of plantation crops from twin risks of yield loss. What does ‘R’ in ‘RISPC’ stands for?
(A) Regeneration
(B) Revenue
(C) Rigorous
(D) Raise
(E) Rotational
Answer: (B)
28. Which of the following States has won the best horticulture award organized by Indian Council of Food and Agriculture?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) West Bengal
(E) Tripura
Answer: (C)
29. Which of the following green manure crops contains highest amount of nitrogen ?
(A) Dhaincha
(B) Sunnhemp
(C) Cowpea
(D) Guar
(E) Alfalfa
Answer: (A)
30. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous fertilizer?
(A) Ammonium Sulphate
(B) Urea
(C) Ammonium Nitrate
(D) Super Phosphate
(E) Ammonium Bicarbonate
Answer: (D)
31. The first phase of Saurastra Narmada Avataran Irrigation (SAUNI) Yojana was launched at which of the following Indian States ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
(E) West Bengal
Answer: (D)
32. Asia’s first Rice Technology Park to be established in-
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
(E) Karnataka
Answer: (E)
33. Crop rotation helps to-
(A) lessen use of pesticides
(B) yield more crops
(C) produce a greater choice of plant products
(D) eliminate parasites, which have selective hosts
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (B)
34. Which of t he following Committee has been constituted for doubling farmers’ income by 2022 ?
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) Sachar Committee
(C) Ashok Dalwai Committee
(D) Naresh Chandra Committee
(E) Shah Nawaz Committee
Answer: (C)
35. Which of the following chemical is used for controlling the mites ?
(A) Fungicides
(B) Mematicides
(C) Acaricides
(D) Insecticides
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (C)
36. Parthenocarpy occurs in which of the following ?
(A) Peach
(B) Mango
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Banana
(E) Apple
Answer: (C)
37. At the vegetative growth stage flowering is stopped in food-grain crops known as.
(A) sigmoid growth curve
(B) determinate growth
(C) indeterminate growth
(D) grand growth period
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B)
38. ‘NABARD’ (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural development)-a Apex Banking Institution provides finance for agriculture and rural development, was established on-
(A) 12 July, 1982
(B) 12 July, 1985
(C) 10 August, 1986
(D) 15 September, 1987
(E) Other than those given as options
Answer: (A)
39. Jute cultivation in India is concentrated in delta area of which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Godavari
(E) Kaveri
Answer: (A)
40. What culture should be given priority in groundnut cultivation ?
, what is the value of ‘X’?
what is the value of ‘X’?