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RBI Assistant Preliminary Online Examination Held on December 27, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 23, 2021May 9, 2018 by suresh84

RBI Assistant Preliminary Online Examination Held on December 27, 2017

Part I English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/phrase have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Over the past few days alone, the China’s Central Bank has pumped extra cash into the financial system and cut interest rates. The aim is to free more cash for banks to lend and provide a boost for banks seeking to improve the return on their assets. The official data, though, suggested t hat bad loans make up only 1.4% of their balance sheets. How to explain the discrepancy? One possible answer is that bad loans are a tagging indicator i.e., it is only after the economy has struggled for a while that borrowers began to suffer. Looked at his way, China is trying to anticipate problems, keeping its banks in good health by sustaining growth of nearly 7% year on year. Another more worrying possibility is that bad loans are worse than official data indicate. This does not look to be cause for concern for China’s biggest banks, which are managed conservatively and largely focus on the country’s biggest vale and quality borrowers. But there is mounting evidence that when it comes to smaller banks, especially those yet to list on the stock market, bad loans are piling up. That is important because unlisted lenders account for just over a third of the Chinese banking sector, making them as big as Japan’s entire banking industry.

Although non-performing loans have edged up slowly, the increase in special-mention loans (a category that includes those overdue but not yet classified as impaired loans.) has been much bigger. Special-mention loans are about 2% at most of China’s big listed banks, suggesting that such loans must be much higher at their smaller, unlisted peers.

Many of these loans are simple bad debts which banks have not yet admitted to Another troubling fact is that fifteen years ago, the government created asset-management companies (often referred to as bad banks) to take on the non-performing loans of the lenders. After the initial transfer these companies had little to pay. But, last year, Cinda, the biggest of the bad banks, bought nearly 150 billion Yuan ($ 24 billion) of distressed assets last year, two-thirds more than in 2013. These assets would have raised the bank(s) bad-loans ratio by a few tenths of a percentage point. Although such members do not seem very alarming, experts who reviewed last year’s results for 158 banks, of which only 20 are listed, found that ‘shadow loans’ – loans recorded as investments which may be a disguise for bad loans have – grown to as much as 5.7 billion Yuan, or 5% of the industry’s assets. These are heavily concentrated on the balance sheets of smaller unlisted banks and at the very least, all this points to a need for recapitalization of small banks.

1. Choose the word which is most nearly the Same in meaning as the word ‘Tagging’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a) Delayed

(b) Breaking

(d) Protecting

(e) Tying

Answer: (e)

2. Choose the word which is Opposite in meaning to the word ‘Free’ given in bold as used in the passage?

(a) Expensive

(b) Secret

(d) Restrict

(e) Charged

Answer: (d)

3. According to the passage, which of the following can be said about China’s large banks?

(A) These are cautiously run.

(B) Their clients are mainly high-value.

(a) Only B

(b) Only A

(d) A and C

(e) B and C

Answer: (e)

4. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(a) Small banks should be permitted to become listed on the stock exchange.

(b) The government should do away with assets management companies.

(d) China’s Central Bank has failed out to predict and stop the decline of its b banks.

(e) There is trouble brewing in China’s small unlisted banks.

Answer: (e)

5. Choose the word which is most nearly the Same in meaning as the word ‘Points’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Peaks

(b) Moments

(d) Indicates

(e) Plugs

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a) China has not implemented any resources to help its banking sector in recent times.

(b) Approximately 32% of China’s banking sector is unlisted.

(d) Japan’s banking industry is experiencing a boom unlike that of China.

(e) None of the given options is true in the context of passage.

Answer: (b)

7. What does the example of Cinda convey?

(a) Many of the loans given by China’s banks are in trouble.

(b) Many such large Chinese assets management companies are failing.

(d) China is the ideal destination for small banks to flourish.

(e) Such companies have become obsolete.

Answer: (c)

8. Choose the word which is Opposite in meaning to the word ‘Mounting’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) melting

(b) accumulating

(d) submerging

(e) decreasing

Answer: (e)

9. Which of the following best describes expers findings regarding shadow loans?

(a) Shadow loans have been steadily falling and are negligent at present.

(b) These are growing substantially and indicate the need for reform of small banks.

(d) These loans are inconsequential of the health of banks.

(e) The findings are faulty as there include only a few listed banks.

Answer: (b)

10. What is the author’s view regarding small banks?

(a) These have a better loan portfolio than large banks

(b) These are in good health helping us to sustain economic growth of 7%.

(d) Regulations governing these banks should be relaxed.

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. each of which is indicated by a numbers. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Against the backdrop (11) of the attacks on Indian students in Milan, the External Affairs Ministry has told (12) citizens in Italy not to panic. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj has received a detailed report on the situation even as the students met Indians diplomats. While mobilizing (13) the Indian students of their safety, the Minister said she was overseeing the situation. “I have got the detailed report (on the attacks in Milan). Please do not worry. I am adjudicating (14) the situation personally,” Ms. Swaraj said in a social media message. The Indian Students Association for Polimi (Politechnic University of Milan), said two incidents took place over the past few days in which a group of people beat up a student and scraped (15) his mobile phone and another student was scoured (16) by a gang. Following these incidents, the Consulate General of India (CGI) in Milan on Monday issued a/an induction (17) to Indian nationals and students urging them not to panic. “The Consulate has received reports of the unfortunate incidents of attacks on Indian students in Milan. All Indian students are urged not a panic. The Consulate is taking up this matter with the highest level of law and order authorities in Milan,” the Consulate said in the advisory posted on social media platforms. However, GV Sandeep of the students’ association said the study (18) needs to be completed and avoided describing the attacks as ‘rascit’.

Following the attacks, locals have reached out to us offering to help. Our community is widely targeted (19) in Milan; even the media in the city has enquired and extended all sorts of help to create awareness, So I want to State clearly that Italy remains safe for Indians and Indian students, “Mr. Sandeep said while explaining that the attacks were likely (20) to be part of a racist plot.

11.

(a) rise

(b) evidence

(d) record

(e) No improvement

Answer: (e)

12.

(a) endorsed

(b) urged

(d) reproached

(e) No improvement

Answer: (b)

13.

(a) affirming

(b) securing

(d) assuring

(e) No improvement

Answer: (d)

14.

(a) escalating

(b) monitoring

(d) leading

(e) No improvement

Answer: (b)

15.

(a) plucked

(b) secured

(d) obtained

(e) No improvement

Answer: (c)

16.

(a) pelted

(b) sweeped

(d) assaulted

(e) No improvement

Answer: (d)

17.

(a) checklist

(b) ruling

(d) assistance

(e) No improvement

Answer: (c)

18.

(a) investigation

(b) research

(d) observation

(e) No improvement

Answer: (a)

19.

(a) condemned

(b) appreciated

(d) ignored

(e) No improvement

Answer: (b)

20.

(a) unlikely

(b) thought

(d) sought

(e) No improvement

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of the part is the answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

21. A losts of real estate companies may come up (a)/ with tempting offers and discounts but buyers should (b)/ always keep their eyes open and must check (c)/ whether all approvals are in place or not. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (a)

22. Before investing (a)/ you should look after the (b)/ overall business dynamics of the company (c)/ along with efficient management and good corporate governance. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (b)

23. Unless (a)/ he will not understand (b)/ the concept he will not be (c)/ able to solve the questions. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (b)

24. The objective of facebook might (a)/ be fair but there are (b)/ certain unintended consequences (c)/ of what are disguised as freebies. (d) No error

Answer: (d)

25. This is a strange world (a)/ where each one pursues their (b)/ own golden bubble (c)/ and laughs at others for doing the same. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (b)

26. One of the major problems with (a)/ representative democracy is that (b)/ the business of government has (c)/ become the privilege of few. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (e)

27. If two types of economy exists in the country (a)/ either there should be conflict (b)/ between the two or (c)/ one will overwhelm the other. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (a)

28. India is a the second most populous (a)/ country in the word (b)/ and is espected to (c)/ take over China by 2030. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (e)

29. Though these programmes have proved (a)/ to be extremely (b)/ effective (c)/ they do have certain drawbacks. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (e)

30. Any failure (a)/ to complicit (b)/ which these fundamental (c)/ regulations will result in a fine. (d) No error (e)

Answer: (b)

Part II Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Six departments of a company A, B, C, D, E and F have different number of employees. Only two departments have less employees than C. F has more employees than E but less than B. D does not have the most number of employees. D has more employees than B. The department having second highest number of employees had 18 employees and the one having third lowest number of employees has 12 employees.

31. Which amongst the following departments has less employees than only two departments?

(a) E

(b) B

(d) C

(e) D

Answer: (b)

32. Which amongst the following departments possibly has 8 employees?

(a) A

(b) C

(d) D

(e) Either E or F

Answer: (e)

33. Which of the following is true with respect to B as per the given information?

(a) None of the given statements is true.

(b) The sum of the number of employees of A and B is 25.

(d) B has more employees than C.

(e) B has more employees than A.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 34-36) Read the given information to answer the given questions.

Ratika starts walking towards North from Point A. She walks for a distance of 7 m and reaches Point B. From Point B she further walks for 12 m to reach Point C. From Point C she turns right. After turning right, she walks for 20 m to reach Point D. From Point D she finally turns right. She walks for distance of 14 m and stops at Point E.

Kamal is standing at Point E. He walks 11 m towards South to reach Point R. From Point R he takes a right turn. He walks for a distance of 21 m and reaches Point Q. From Point Q he turns left. He further walks for a distance of 16 m and stops at Point P.

34. In which direction is Point R with respect to Point D?

(a) South-East

(b) South-West

(d) South

(e) North

Answer: (d)

35. If Point S is 7 m West of point D, what is the distance between Point S and Point C?

(a) 20 m

(b) 16 m

(d) 11 m

(e) 13 m

Answer: (e)

36. What is the distance between Point C and Point A?

(a) 20 m

(b) 12 m

(d) 14 m

(e) 19 m

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 37-39) Study the following information and answer the given question. M and R are the daughters of B. Q is the only daughter-in-law of Y. Y is married to B. L is the only grandson of J. J is the mother-in-law of B. S is the only daughter of J. B is the only child of P.

37. How is Y related to P?

(a) Son-in-law

(b) Daughter

(d) Nephew

(e) Son

Answer: (a)

38. How is Q related to M?

(a) Mother-in-law

(b) Daughter

(d) Sister

(e) Daughter-in-law

Answer: (c)

39. If X is married to S, then how is X related to L?

(a) Grandfather

(b) Father-in-law

(d) Father

(e) Uncle

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-44) Study the following information to answer the given question.

Eight houses marked as P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are located around a circle (assuming that all houses are facing the centre of the circle). The houses belong to eight different people viz. Ali, Bharat, Preet, Sam, Veer, Diya, Maya and Rahul, each living in one of these houses. NO two houses appearing consecutively in alphabetical order are located immediately next to each other i.e. House P is not the immediate right or immediate left of House Q, similarly, House Q is not to the immediate right or immediate left of houses P and R and so on.

• Sam’s house is third to the left or R. There is only one house between Sam’s house and S (from either left or right)

• Bharat’s house is second to the right of V. V is not located adjacent to R and S.

• Only three houses are located between W and Preet’s house. Bharat does not live in house W.

• Q is located second to the left of Diya’s house.

• Bharat does not live in house T. T is not located adjacent to Bharat’s house.

• Maya’;s house is third to the right of Ali’s house.

• Rahul does not live in house W.

40. Who amongst the following lives in House T?

(a) Diya

(b) Maya

(d) Sam

(e) Veer

Answer: (b)

41. Which of the following represents Ali’s house?

(a) V

(b) W

(d) U

(e) P

Answer: (e)

42. How many house are located between V and Rahul’s house when counted from the left of V?

(a) None

(b) Three

(d) Five

(e) One

Answer: (e)

43. Which of the following represents the house located to immediate right of Bharat’s house?

(a) R

(b) W

(d) Q

(e) Sam’s house

Answer: (a)

44. Which of the following represents the position of House W with respect to House U?

(a) Second to the right

(b) Immediate right

(d) Fourth to the left

(e) Third to the right

Answer: (e)

45. Study the given information carefully to answer the following question.

In the past few months, the management of company Z has noticed certain unacceptable behavior of many of its employees with respect to three issues-late coming, unachieved individual targets and unequal distribution of work among team members. The company has set certain rules regarding the same.

Which of the following cannot be a rule set by the company for the mentioned issues?

(a) The employees of the Technical department are allowed maximum two ‘late’ marks in a month exceeding which, strict actions shall be taken.

(b) For every 5 unachieved targets, 5% of the yearly incentive will be deducted.

(d) All the targets set for the Research department have mandatorily to be achieved at least 5 days prior to the stipulated ate.

(e) Strict actions will be taken against the team leaders if found favoring any of his/her team members in work distribution.

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V bought houses in different months of the same year-March, April, June, August, September, October and December. Each one of them bought a house in different city-Pune Nashik, Varanasi, Jabalpur, Trivandrum, Vijaywada and Dispur. (None of the given information is necessarily in the same order).

• P bought a house in a month having 30 days, but not in April. Only three people bought a house between P and the one who bought a house in Nashik. P did not buy a house in Varanasi. S bought a house in month immediately after the one who bought a house in Nashik.

• Number of people who bought houses between U and the one who bought a house in Varanashi is same as between P and the one who bought a house in October. U bought a house in one of the months before the one who bought a house in Varansi. The house in Varansi was not bought in October.

• The house in Dispur was bought in a month having 30 days, but not in June. Only three people bought houses between Q and the one who bought in Dispur.

• More than three people bought houses between R and V. R bought a house before V. No one bought a house between T and the one who bought inPune.

• The ho use in Jabalpur was bought in one of the months before T. V did not buy a house in Vijayawada.

46. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a) September-Nashik

(b) P-August

(d) V-October

(e) April-Nasik

Answer: (a)

47. In which month was the house in Varansi bought?

(a) April

(b) August

(d) June

(e) December

Answer: (b)

48. In which city did U buy a house?

(a) Jabalpur

(b) Dispur

(d) Trivandrum

(e) Vijaywada

Answer: (a)

49. How many houses were bought between the houses bought in Jabalpur and Trivandrum?

(a) More than three

(b) None

(d) One

(e) Three

Answer: (e)

50. Who amongst the following bought a house in a month having 31 days?

(a) All of those given as options

(b) R

(d) The one who bought a house in Varanasi

(e) Q

Answer: (a)

51. Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Although the population of City X is less than that of City Y and the number of factories in City X is lower than that in City Y, the emission levels of city X and City Y are the same.

Which of the following may not be a possible reason behind the situation?

(a) City X has on an-average two private vehicles per household whereas City Y has two private vehicles per four households making the number of private vehicles in City X much higher than that in City.

(b) City X, touted as one of the biggest IT hubs in coming years has been undergoing massive infrastructure development programmes on several acres of land.

(c) It is mandatory for all public transport vehicles in City Y to run only on clean fuel which is not yet being followed by any other city in the country.

(d) The forest and agricultural land in City X comprises of 37% of its area while that of City Y comprises of only 30% of its area.

(e) Most of the factories in City X were set-up 15-20 years ago while those in City Y are relatively new with better emission control mechanisms.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 52-57) Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 P, Q, R, S and T are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. In row-2 A, B, C, D and E are seated (not necessarily is the same order) and all of them are facing North. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. The people in each row like one of the movies-Transformers. Oldboy, Aliens, Vertigo, and Wanted (not necessarily in the same order).

D sits third to the right of B. Only one person sits between the one who faces D and the one who likes Oldboy. S is neither an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Oldboy nor faces D. Neither S nor Q likes Oldboy. As many people sit between S and the one who likes Oldboy as between D and the one who likes Wanted. A is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Wanted. Q sits second to the left of the one who likes Aliens. Q faces the one who likes Transformers. C is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Transformers. P sits to the immediate right of the one who faces C. Only two people sit between P and the one who likes Vertigo. The one who likes Aliens sits to the immediate left of the one who likes Oldboy in row-2. T sits second to the left of the one who likes Transformers.

52. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?

(a) B

(b) E

(d) A

(e) P

Answer: (b)

53. Who amongst the following does not sit at an extreme end of the tows?

(a) D

(b) B

(d) The one who likes Transformers in row

(e) The one who faces S

Answer: (b)

54. Which of the given statements is not true with respect to the given information?

(I) Q likes Wanted.

(II) R is an immediate neighbour of P.

(III) D faces the one who likes Vertigo.

(a) Both I and III

(b) Only II

(d) Both II and III

(e) All the given statements are true

Answer: (b)

55. Who sits second to the right or R?

(a) S

(b) Q

(d) P

(e) The one who faces Oldboy

Answer: (c)

56. As per the given arrangement, Q is related to T and E is related to B in a certain way. To which of the following is C related to following the same pattern?

(a) E

(b) The one who faces S

(d) D

(e) The one who likes Transformers is row-2

Answer: (e)

57. Who likes Vertigo in row-2?

(a) The one who faces T

(b) The one who faces R

(d) E

(e) C

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 58-60) In these questions three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(d) if either conclusion I or II is true

(e) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

58. Statements : All frocks are pants.

All shorts are frocks.

Some jackets are paints.

Conclusion

(I) All pants are shorts.

(II) All shorts being jackets is a possibility.

Answer: (e)

59. Statements : All bells are arrows.

No casio is a bell.

All rings are casios.

Conclusion

(I) All bells being rings is a possibility.

(II) No arrow is a casio.

Answer: (b)

60. Statements All frocks are pants.

All shorts are frocks.

Some jackets are pants.

Conclusion

(I) At least some frocks are jackets.

(II) No frock is a jacket.

Answer: (a)

61. In a certain code language ‘lu ja ka hu’ means ‘will you meet us’, ‘lu ka hu pa’ means ‘will you sold us’. Then what is the code of ‘meet’ in this code language?

(a) ja

(b) lu

(d) hu

(e) cannot be determined

Answer: (a)

62. In a certain code language, ‘COMBINE’ is written as ‘XLNYRMV’. How will ‘TOWARDS’ be written in that code language?

(a) FLDZIWJ

(b) GLDZIWH

(d) FLEZIWH

(e) None of these

Answer: (b)

63. 37 girls are standing in a row facing the school building Ayesha is fifteenth from the left end. If she is shifted six places to the right what is his position from the right end?

(a) 16th

(b) 21st

(d) 20th

(e) None of these

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 64-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

P is to the North of Q and S is to the East of P, who is to the South of W. T is to the West of P.

64. Who among the following is towards South of W and North of Q?

(a) P

(b) T

(d) Q

(e) None of these

Answer: (e)

65. W is in which direction with respect to T?

(a) North

(b) North-East

(d) West

(e) None of these

Answer: (c)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What will be come in the place of question marks in the following number series?

66. 15 29 56 108 208 400 ?

(a) 758

(b) 770

(d) 768

(e) 778

Answer: (d)

67. 13-21 34-55 89-144 ?

(a) 233

(b) 255

(d) 266

(e) 222

Answer: (a)

68. 133 183 241 307 381 463 ?

(a) 557

(b) 521

(d) 541

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

69. 1.21 1.44 1.69 1.96 2.25 2.56 ?

(a) 3.61

(b) 2.85

(d) 2.94

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (e)

70. 36 52 70 90 112 136 ?

(a) 150

(b) 152

(d) 140

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

71. Train A which is 320 m long can cross a pole in 16 seconds. If it halts 5 times each time for exactly 18 minutes, how many hours it will take to cover a distance of 576 km?

(a) 8 h

(b) 10^1/2h

(d) 9 h

(e) 9^1/2 h

Answer: (e)

72. Gita, Shweta and Sita invested Rs 4200%, Rs 8400%, and Rs 5400% respectively while staring a business. At the end of the year, they earned a profit of Rs 24000. Sit invested 32% of her share of the profit in a saving scheme. How much amount is left with her?

(a) Rs 5432

(b) Rs 4324

(d) Rs 5966

(e) Rs 4896

Answer: (e)

73. A and B can independently finish a piece of work in 30 days and 40 days respectively. They started working together and after few days B left. After that A could finish the remaining work in 16 days. After how many days of working together B left?

(a) 10

(b) 6

(d) 4

(e) 8

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 74-78) Refer to the graph and answer the given question.

74. What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from city A in 2013 and city E in the same year?

(a) 15 : 14

(b) 11 : 12

(d) 16 : 15

(e) 17 : 16

Answer: (d)

75. What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from all cities together in the year 2012?

(a) 3500000

(b) 3000000

(d) 3800000

(e) 4000000

Answer: (b)

76. The number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from city D in the year 2013 is what percent more than the number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from city C in the same year?

(a) 100/7%

(b) 100/9%

(d) 100/17%

(e) 100/29%

Answer: (c)

77. What is the respective ratio of the number of students appearing for the entrance test from cities B, C and F in the year 2012 to the number of students appearing for the entrance test in the year 2013 from the same cities?

(a) 18 : 19

(b) 15 : 16

(d) 17 : 20

(e) 15 : 19

Answer: (d)

78. If the total number of candidates appearing from all the cities together in year 2014 is 10% more than that in 2013, then what is the total number of candidates in the year 2014?

(a) 36675000

(b) 45000000

(d) 24250000

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (e)

79. A boat can travel 12.6 km upstream in 54 minutes. If the speed of the water current is 1/8th of the speed of the boat in still water, how much distance the boat can travel downstream in 35 minutes?

(a) 9 km

(b) 10.5 km

(d) 11.5 km

(e) 12 km

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 80-84) What will be come in the place of question marks in the following questions

80. 60% of 540 + 45% of ? = 468

(a) 360

(b) 320

(d) 280

(e) 300

Answer: (b)

81. 60 ÷8 × 54 – ? = 1260

(a) 570

(b) 480

(d) 540

(e) 460

Answer: (d)

82.

(a) 14

(b) 12

(d) 10

(e) 8

Answer: (d)

83. (625.75 + 450.5 + ?) × 3/5 = 750

(a) 163.25

(b) 173.75

(d) 176.25

(e) 156.75

Answer: (b)

84.

(a) 5

(b) 6

(d) 4

(e) 2

Answer: (d)

85. The age of Ranjana and Rakhi are in the ratio of 15 : 17 respectively. After 6 years, the ratio between the ages of Ranjana and Rakhi will be 9 : 10. What will be the age of Ranjana after 6 years?

(a) Other than those given as options

(b) 40 yr

(d) 30 yr

(e) 36 yr

Answer: (e)

86. Bhavna decided to donate 12% of her salary to an orphanage. On the day of donation she changed her mind and donated Rs 2400 which was 125% of what she had decided earlier. How much is Bhavna’s salary?

(a) Cannot be determined

(b) Other than those given as options

(d) Rs 18500

(e) Rs 16000

Answer: (e)

87. Gaurav spent Rs 38460 on the renovation of his home Rs 24468 on buying home theatre and the remaining 28% of the total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount?

(a) Cannot be determined

(b) Rs 76500

(d) Rs 92600

(e) Rs 87400

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 88-92) In each of the following questions a pair of equation is given. You have to find out the values of x and y.

Give answer

(a) if x < y (b) if x ≤ y

(e) x = y or relations cannot be establish.

88. (I) x² – x – 56 = 0

(II) y² – 17y + 72 = 0

Answer: (b)

89. (I) 6x² + 23x + 21 = 0

(II) 9y² + 27y + 20 = 0

Answer: (e)

90. (I) x² = 121

(II) y² + 22y + 121 = 0

Answer: (d)

91. (I) 2x² – 23x + 63 = 0

(II) 2y² – 15y + 28 = 0

Answer: (c)

92. (I) x² + 7x + 12 = 0

(II) 4y² + 16y + 15 = 0

Answer: (a)

93. The simple interest (p.a.) accrued on an amount of Rs 17000 at the end of four years is Rs 6800. What would be the compound interest (Compounded annually) accrued on the same amount at the same rate after two years?

(a) Cannot be determined

(b) Other than those given as options

(d) Rs 3260

(e) Rs 3980

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 94-98) Study the table to answer the questions that follow :

94. What is the average number of employees working in Organization C over the given years?

(a) Other than those given as options

(b) 315

(d) 328

(e) 309

Answer: (b)

95. The total number of employees working in organizations A and E together in the year2005 is what percent more than the number of employees working in organization D in the same year?

(rounded off of two integers after decimal)

(a) 79.55%

(b) 80.25%

(d) 76.49%

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

96. What is the respective ratio between the number of employees working in organization A in the year 2006 and the total number of employees working in Organization E in the same year?

(a) 2 : 3

(b) 12 : 19

(d) 25 : 32

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

97. The number of employees working in organization C in the year 2004 is approximately what percent of the total number of employees working in various organization B, D and E together in that year?

(a) 30%

(b) 35%

(d) 23%

(e) 13%

Answer: (a)

98. What is difference between the total number of employees working in organization B over the years 2001, 2002 and 2003 together and the total number of employees working in organization D over the same years together?

(a) 133

(b) 138

(d) 131

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

99. A committee of five members is to be formed out of 3 trainees, 4 professors and 6 research associates. In how many different ways this can be done if the committee should have all the 4 professors and 1 research associated of all 3 trainees and 2 professors?

(a) 15

(b) 18

(d) 12

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (d)

100. The average of X, Y and Z is 24, X : Y = 2 : 3, X + Y = 60, then the value of (X – Z) is

(a) 16

(b) 14

(d) 10

(e) 12

Answer: (e)

RBI Office Assistant Pre (Phase I) Online Examination Held on November 27, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 20, 2021May 7, 2018 by suresh84

RBI Office Assistant Pre (Phase I) Online Examination Held on November 27, 2017

Part I English Language

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-5) In the given sentence there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence five pairs of words have been given. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. The incident has …… severe damage to the …… of the employees.

(a) resulted; optimism

(b) led; emotions

(d) contributed; integrity

(e) caused; orale

Answer: (e)

2. …….. investing in technology, the company has been ………. to complete globally.

(a) For; trying

(b) Despite; gradual

(d) Since; enable

(e) By; able

Answer: (e)

3. The root….. of slow reduction in poverty is …….. of investment in agriculture.

(a) purpose; increase

(b) reason; hike

(d) effect; incidence

(e) consequence; plunge

Answer: (c)

4. You have unfairly ……….. his success to the fact that he is well ……..

(a) reduced; behaved

(b) doubted; adjusted

(d) attributed; connected

(e) rated; known

Answer: (e)

5. To ……. the problems of the region it is ……… to interact with the local people.

(a) discover; necessity

(b) understand; essential

(d) manage; needful

(e) focus; better

Answer: (b)

Direction (Q. Nos. 6-10) In this question, a sentence with four words in bold type is given. One of these four words given in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. That word is your answer. If all the words given in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.

6. The government has permitted foreign direct investment in digitail service providers upto a limit of 50

(a) permitted

(b) digitail

(d) percent

(e) All correct

Answer: (e)

7. A bank gift card is usually a prepaid card which can be used in an ATM to cheque the balance, but one cannot withdraw

(a) usually

(b) prepaid

(d) withdraw

(e) All correct

Answer: (c)

8. He first joinned the Board of Directors two years ago and has expressed his concerns at various global

(a) joinned

(b) ago

(d) global

(e) All correct

Answer: (a)

9. The waste amount of information available today has created a more knowledgeable

(a) waste

(b) amount

(d) public

(e) All correct

Answer: (a)

10. Some of the steps taken over the late few months have made the tax return filing process

(a) steps

(b) late

(d) simpler

(e) All correct

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-18) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The Number of that part is the answer, if there is not error, the answer is (e). (Ignore error of punctuation, if any)

11. The two-part documentary/ is a critique of the education system/ and its impacting/ on upliftment of women.

(a) The two-part documentary

(b) is a critique of the education system

(d) on upliftment of women

(e) No error

Answer: (c)

12. All the Airlines is/ using the increased awareness/ about security to impose a new/ code of conduct among passengers.

(a) All the Airlines is

(b) using the increased awareness

(d) code of conduct among passengers

(e) No error

Answer: (a)

13. They treated themselves/ to ice creams/ and were all set of explore/ the markets of the city.

(a) They treated themselves

(b) to ice creams

(d) the markets of the city

(e) No error

Answer: (c)

14. He used to help his/ friend’s mother cook/ and clean of the house/ at an incredible speed.

(a) He used to help his

(b) friend’s mother cook

(d) at an incredible speed

(e) No error

Answer: (c)

15. One afternoon, the crocodile/ was resting beside a stone near/ the pond, when two fishermen/ stopped there to drinking water.

(a) One afternoon, the crocodile

(b) was resting beside a stone near

(d) stopped there to drinking water

(e) No error

Answer: (d)

16. My brother and I are/ going to tell her that scientists/ are here to take crystals away,/ which is how everyone is crying.

(a) My brother and I are

(b) going to tell her that scientists

(d) which is how everyone is crying

(e) No error

Answer: (d)

17. All of them met after a hour/ at the same spot and were/ counting money spread/ out on a blanket.

(a) All of them met after a hour

(b) at the spot and were

(d) out on a blanket.

(e) No error

Answer: (a)

18. The fishermen took/ the foolish fishes to the/ market and sale/ them for a good profit.

(a) The fishermen took

(b) the foolish fishes to the

(d) them for a good profit

(e) No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 19-30) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrase are given in bold to help you locate them whole answering some of the questions.

There was once a king who died leaving four sons. The other three prices were extremely jealous of the youngest and conspired against him making him leave the palace. The queen went along with him( her beloved son). Now one day they were by the river when they spotted an abandoned boat. The young prince saw it and immediately began to plan a voyage. His mother pleaded. But the young prince was determined to seek his fortune with or without her. So at last time queen got into the boat. They set sail and journeyed for days till the river met the sea. They journeyed on and on till land was no longer visible and came upon a whirlpool. Strange red rocks were floating and disappearing from sight. As their boat drew alongside one such rock they could see it was ruby.

The prince cast a net and drew in a dozen large rubies. As he drew them on board, his mother said, “Perhaps they belong to someone who was shipwrecked and we’ll be taken as thieves”. So the prince threw them overboard, keeping just one which he hid among his clothes from his mother. They sailed on and at last came to a port. When they came ashore they realized it was the capital of a great king. They took some cheap rooms on the city outskirts. Now the prince was still young and longed for company of his age after working for a local merchant all day.

One day he came some youth of the town playing marbles and they Invited him to join them. But he couldn’t join in their game as he had no marbles of his own. On the spur of the movement he used the red ruby. Now it so happened that the princess was passing by and seeing the brilliant ‘marble’ was enchanted. When she reached the palace she told her father that she had never seen such a marble and would like to possess it. The king ordered that the boy and the marble brought to the palace. ‘When the king saw the brilliant stone he realized it was a so rare a gem that he would be the envy of all.

He asked the boy how he had come upon it. The boy said that he had got it from the sea. The king offered a thousand rupees for the marble and the boy not realizing its true value readily parted with it. He took the money to his mother who was a little frightened, wondering if he h ad stolen it for they had nothing of such value to sell. On learning where he had got the money she calmed down. Now at the palace the princess happily put the ruby in her hair but her parrot said, “What princess puts just one ruby in her hair?” The princess went to her father in tears, “Where was he to get another ruby?” But she was adamant.

The king sent for the boy: He was unable to describe exactly where he had found the ruby but volunteered to go in search of more. The king offered the boy a handsome reward for he loved his daughter. The boy went his home and told his mother that he had to set off. She was frightened but nothing could deter him. He set off and finally after many days and getting out several times h e came upon the whirlpool.

This time through he wanted to discover the source of the rubies. He dived into the gap in the middle of the whirlpool and reached a beautiful palace. There he saw a young girl imprisoned and as her tears fell on the beautiful red corral these were transformed into rubies. Seeing the plight of the girl he was moved and picked up one of the golden rods lying outside her prison to break the lock when the rod floated from his hand and touched the bars which melted away.

The girl was astonished to see the boy and the two quickly ran from the palace before, he witch who had imprisoned her there realized. The two made off with some of the rubies and returned to the king who rewarded them. They were married and lived happily ever after and the whirlpool was never found again.

19. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite of the word ‘True’ as used in passage?

(a) Evil

(b) Disloyal

(d) Wrong

(e) All the given options

Answer: (d)

20. Which of the following can be said about the prince’s mother?

(A) She loved her youngest son very much.

(B) She sometimes gave into her son’s wisehs.

(a) Only A

(b) Only C

(d) B and C

(e) All of these

Answer: (e)

21. How did the king react to the princess’ demands?

(a) He himself set off in search of the rubies.

(b) He tried to distract her with other jewels.

(d) He tried to meet them.

(e) Not mentioned in the passage.

Answer: (d)

22. What made the boy pick up the golden rod?

(a) He wanted to take it back to the king and sell it.

(b) To rescue the girl trapped in the palace.

(d) To defend himself from the witch’s vicious attack on him.

(e) Not mentioned in the passage

Answer: (b)

23. Why did the prince dive into the whirlpool?

(a) To discover the source of the rubies.

(b) To rescue the princess.

(d) He enjoyed swimming.

(e) None of the given options.

Answer: (a)

24. Why did the prince leave his palace home?

(a) The king had banished him and the queen.

(b) His elder brothers plotted against him.

(d) He wanted to marry a princess from a distant land.

(e) None of the given options.

Answer: (b)

25. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite of the word ‘Brilliant’ as used in the passage?

(a) dull

(b) unintelligent

(d) unaware

(e) All the given options

Answer: (a)

26. Why did the boy play with the ruby?

(a) He knew the princess was passing by and wanted to impress her.

(b) He wanted to participate in the game the other boys were playing and used it as a plaything.

(d) His mother would not allow him to sell it at any cost.

(e) None of the given options

Answer: (b)

27. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Cast’ as used in the passage?

(a) Actors

(b) Moulded

(d) Threw

(e) Selected

Answer: (a)

28. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the story?

(a) The prince was foolish not to marry the princess.

(b) The rubies were cursed

(d) The young prince was dishonest and untrustworthy.

(e) All the given options are not true in the context of the story.

Answer: (c)

29. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Spotted’ as used in the passage?

(a) Dirty

(b) Multicoloured

(d) Stained

(e) Difficulty

Answer: (c)

30. Which not the following does not describe the princess?

(a) Stubborn

(b) Demanding

(d) Malicious

(e) All the given options

Answer: (d)

Part II Reasoning Ability

31. In the word CITRUS, the letter immediately before each vowel is replaced with the next alphabet (as per the English alphabetical order) and all other remain unchanged. Which of the following letters did not appear in the word thus formed?

(a) I

(b) V

(d) S

(e) D

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-34) In each question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.

The statements are followed by two conclusions I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(d) if both conclusions are true

(e) if none of the conclusion is true

32. Statement G ≤ I = A ≤ N < T

Conclusion I. G < T II. G = T

Answer: (a)

33. Statements B ≤ C = X ≥ Y < Z

Conclusion I. B > Z II. B = Z

Answer: (e)

34. Statements G ≤ H ≤ R ≥ S = T > U

Conclusion I. R ≥ G II. H > U

Answer: (a)

35. In a certain code language, SHOUT is written as *$59# and HATES is written as $4#6*. How will HOUSE be coded in the same code language?

(a) $59#2

(b) 6$295

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) $59*6

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-37) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

A is 8 m West of M. L is 9 m North of A. Q is 3 m West of L. R is 14 m South of Q. W is 15 m East of R.

36. In which direction is M with respect to R?

(a) North-East

(b) North-West

(d) South-East

(e) East

Answer: (a)

37. If C is 5 m North of W, then what will be the distance between A and C?

(a) 12 m

(b) None of the given options

(d) 5 m

(e) 8 m

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38-42) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Six people A, B, C, P, Q and R cleared their promotion exam in different months of the same year – January, March, June, September, November and December. B cleared his exam after the eighth month of the year but before November. Only one person cleared the exam between B and C. As many people cleared their exam before C as after Q. A cleared his exam in one of the months between B and Q. Only two people cleared their exams between A and R.

38. If X cleared his exam in one of the calendar months between those of B and R, then in which month did X clear his exam?

(a) February

(b) Either April or May

(d) None of the given options

(e) Either July or August

Answer: (c)

39. In which month did R clear his exam?

(a) March

(b) December

(d) January

(e) November

Answer: (e)

40. As per the given arrangement, Q is related to P in the same way as B is related to C. Following the same pattern, to whom is A related?

(a) Either R or B

(b) R

(d) Q

(e) B

Answer: (e)

41. How many people have cleared their exam before Q?

(a) Two

(b) More than three

(d) One

(e) Three

Answer: (c)

42. Which of the following statement is/are true with respect to the given arrangement?

(I) C cleared his exam in a month having 31 days.

(II) C cleared his exam on one of the days before R.

(III) No one cleared an exam between B and R.

(a) Both I and II

(b) Only I

(d) Only II

(e) All of these

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-46) In each question, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II, have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(d) if both conclusions are true

(e) if none of the conclusion is true

43. Statements Some sketches are paintings.

All paintings are drawings.

Some drawings are letters.

Conclusions

I. All sketches can never be drawings.

II. No painting is a letter.

Answer: (e)

44. Statements All cubes are spheres.

Some spheres are triangles.

Conclusions

I. No cube is a triangle.

II. All spheres are cubes.

Answer: (e)

45. Statements Some juices are drinks.

All drinks are snacks.

No snack is cookie.

Conclusions

I. All juices can never be cookies.

II. At least some juices are snacks.

Answer: (d)

46. Statements Some juices are drinks.

All drinks are snacks.

No snack is cookie.

Conclusions

I. No drink is a cookie.

II. At least some juices are cookies.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-51) The questions are based on five words given below

CAR BET AIR PIE USE

The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.

47. If the first letter of the second, third and fourth words (from the left) are used to make a meaningful English word, then which word will be formed?

(a) More than one words can be formed.

(b) TUB

(d) RUB

(e) CAP

Answer: (c)

48. If all the letters in each of the given words are rearranged in alphabetical order within the word, in which of the following words will the last alphabet be a vowel?

(a) Only USE

(b) Both BET and AIR

(d) Only CAR

(e) Both AIR and PIE

Answer: (a)

49. If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will all the letters be vowels (same or different vowels)?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

(e) Three

Answer: (a)

50. If the letter ‘F’ is added before each of the given words, how many meaningful English words will be formed?

(a) Two

(b) Four

(d) None

(e) Three

Answer: (a)

51. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in an English dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right?

(a) USE

(b) CAR

(d) PIE

(e) AIR

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 52-54) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Six people A, B, C, D, E and F bought different number of books from a store. C bought more books from only two people. A bought less books than only F. E bought more books than both B and C. B did not buy the least number of books. The one who bought second lowest number of books bought 9 books.

52. If E bought 15 books, then how many books did C possibly buy?

(a) 7

(b) 20

(d) 17

(e) 13

Answer: (e)

53. How many books did B buy?

(a) 16

(b) 7

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) 2

Answer: (c)

54. Who bought the third highest number of books?

(a) None of the given options

(b) D

(d) A

(e) C

Answer: (e)

55. If ‘1’ is added to all even digits of the number 4782659 and ‘2’ is subtracted from all the odd digits, then which of the following digits will appear twice in the new number thus formed?

(a) 7, 2

(b) 1, 5, 9

(d) 1, 9

(e) 5, 3, 7

Answer: (e)

56. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fourth, the fifth and the seventh letters from the left of the word EVACUATION, using all the letters but each letter only once, which would be the second letter of the word from the left end? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer. If no such word can be formed give ‘Y’ as your answer.

(a) Y

(b) Z

(d) T

(e) C

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 57-61) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

V J T & 9 H % # Y 5 @ 7 P ⋆ A 2 π M 4 φ K 6 F + 8 G

57. How many symbols are there between the fifth and the sixteenth elements from the left end?

(a) Five

(b) Two

(d) Three

(e) Four

Answer: (e)

58. If only one meaningful English word can be made using the letters between the seventh and the seventeenth elements from the left end, what will be the last letter of that word?

(a) Y

(b) M

(d) More than one word can be formed using the given letters

(e) H

Answer: (a)

59. If all the symbols are deleted, then which of the following will be the tenth element from the right end?

(a) 5

(b) 7

(d) A

(e) P

Answer: (e)

60. If all letters and symbols are deleted, then what will be the sum of the first, third and fifth elements from the left end?

(a) 17

(b) 10

(d) 14

(e) None of the given options

Answer: (e)

61. Which of the following is the eight element to the right of 7?

(a) φ

(b) F

(d) 6

(e) M

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 62-64) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

B is married to S. G is the brother of B. A is the father of G. R is the only daughter of A. R is the mother of P. G is married to E.

62. How is B related to P?

(a) Uncle

(b) Aunt

(d) Brother-in-law

(e) Sister-in-law

Answer: (e)

63. If Q is the mother-in-law of S, then how is Q related to R?

(a) Sister-in-law

(b) Mother-in-law

(d) Aunt

(e) Mother

Answer: (c)

64. How is A related to E?

(a) Brother

(b) Uncle

(d) Father-in-law

(e) Father

Answer: (d)

65. In a certain code language, MICRO is written as NHDQP and WIDES is written as XHEDT. Then, how STAINS will be written in that code language?

(a) TUBJMR

(b) RUBJMT

(d) TIJSHR

(e) None of these

Answer: (c)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

66. Rs 4800 was invested at 10% per annum compound interest (compounded annually) and a certain sum was invested t 20% per annum compound interest (compounded annually) . After 2 years the total interest accrued from both the schemes was Rs 3472. What was the sum invested at 20% per annum compound interest (compounded annually)?

(a) Rs 6000

(b) Rs 5800

(d) Rs 5200

(e) Rs 6400

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 67-76) What will come in place of question marks in the given equations?

67. 3⁴ × √? ÷ 9⁻² = 3¹¹

(a) 36

(b) 144

(d) 81

(e) 729

Answer: (e)

68.

(a) 60

(b) 36

(d) 30

(e) 20

Answer: (a)

69. 22% of 550 = (? – 54)²

(a) 69

(b) 75

(d) 65

(e) 72

Answer: (d)

70. 958 − ?² + 50 = 684

(a) 20

(b) 24

(d) 16

(e) 18

Answer: (e)

71. ?% of (4.5 × 4 + 24) = 21

(a) 20

(b) 50

(d) 40

(e) 30

Answer: (b)

72. (32.5 – 7.5) × 5 = 50 × ?

(a) 1.5

(b) 2.5

(d) 0.5

(e) 2.4

Answer: (b)

73. ?% of 240 – 23 = 157

(a) 70

(b) 65

(d) 75

(e) 80

Answer: (d)

74.

(a) 1/6

(b) 3/4

(d) 5/8

(e) 1/4

Answer: (b)

75. ? ÷5 × 4 – 121 = 79

(a) 364

(b) 375

(d) 381

(e) 365

Answer: (b)

76.

(a) 21

(b) 42

(d) 14

(e) 28

Answer: (a)

77. Two pipes can fill a tank in 30 hours and 45 hours respectively. A third pipe (Z) can empty the tank in X hours. If all the pipes are opened and function simultaneously, 50% of the tank will be full in 12 6/7 hours. What is the value of X?

(a) 60 h

(b) 75 h

(d) 50 h

(e) 90 h

Answer: (a)

78. A, B and C started a business by investing Rs 8400, Rs 9600, and Rs 14000 respectively. All of them invested for equal period of time. If C’s share of annual profit was Rs 12000 what was the sum of A’s and B’s share of annual profit?

(a) Rs 16200

(b) Rs 16900

(d) Rs 15430

(e) Rs 14300

Answer: (d)

79. Four years hence, Rashmi will be half of Jasmine’s present age. Two years ago, the ratio between Rashmi’s age and Jasmine’s age that time was 1 : 3 respectively. If Jasmine is 12 years elder to Ana, what will be Ana’s age 3 years hence?

(a) 11 yr

(b) 20 yr

(d) 23 yr

(e) 26 yr

Answer: (a)

80. There was 96 litre of pure mil in a vessel. 12 L of pure milk was taken out and replaced with equal quantity of water. Again 16 L of mixture was taken out and replaced with X litre water. After this, respective ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture became 10 : 3. What is the value of X?

(a) 11 L

(b) 12 L

(d) 14 L

(e) 7 L

Answer: (b)

81. Sam invested a certain sum in scheme A for 5 years and in scheme B for 3 years a sum which was double of that invested in scheme A. Both the scheme offer 8% simple interest and the difference between the amounts received from both the schemes was Rs 12960, how much did sam invest in scheme A?

(a) Rs 18000

(b) Rs 12000

(d) Rs 15000

(e) Rs 16000

Answer: (b)

82. The average of 10 numbers is 21.8. The average of last four number is 15. If the average of first five numbers is 23, what is the value of the sixth number?

(a) 32

(b) 43

(d) 38

(e) 42

Answer: (b)

83. The side of a square of area 196 cm² is equal to the breadth of a rectangle of perimeter of 60 cm. What is the area of the rectangle?

(a) 258 cm²

(b) 244 cm²

(d) 216 cm²

(e) 224 cm²

Answer: (e)

84. Item A was sold at 60% profit. If it was marked 100% above its cost price, what was the percent discount offered?

(a) 10%

(b) 12.5%

(d) 20%

(e) 25%

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 85-89) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?

85. 3328 832 208 52 ? 25

(a) 7.5

(b) 11

(d) 15

(e) 10

Answer: (c)

86. 9 22 37 55 77 ?

(a) 105

(b) 97

(d) 99

(e) 104

Answer: (e)

87. 7 6 8 15 44 ?

(a) 146

(b) 152

(d) 150

(e) 154

Answer: (c)

88. 3 8 23 68 ? 608

(a) 198

(b) 203

(d) 199

(e) 215

Answer: (b)

89. 31 58 122 247 463 ?

(a) 796

(b) 806

(d) 792

(e) 824

Answer: (b)

90. The time taken by a boat to cover 84 km downstream is 2 hours 48 minutes. The speed of the boat upstream in 24 km/h. What is the total time taken to cover 60 km upstream and the same distance downstream?

(a) 4 h 20 min

(b) 4 h 30 min

(d) 5 h 30 min

(e) 6 h 30 min

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Study the table and answer the given questions.

91. What was the difference between total number of people who visited Gymnasium C and D together in June and those who visited the same gymnasiums together in August?

(a) 20

(b) 15

(d) 25

(e) 30

Answer: (d)

92. What was the average number of people who visited Gymnasium A, B and D in September?

(a) 216

(b) 195

(d) 210

(e) 205

Answer: (e)

93. What was the respective ratio of number of people who visited Gymnasium C in May to total number of people who visited Gymnasium A in May and June together?

(a) 5 : 6

(b) 7 : 8

(d) 3 : 5

(e) 2 : 3

Answer: (e)

94. Out of total number of people who visited Gymnasium A in August, if 5/9th were females, how many were males?

(a) 84

(b) 96

(d) 100

(e) 128

Answer: (c)

95. Total number of people who visited Gymnasium B in June and July together was what percent more than number of people who visited Gymnasium C in July?

(a) 48%

(b) 56%

(d) 44%

(e) 64%

Answer: (e)

96. The population of a village in 2013 was 3168. It decreased from 2011 to 2012 by 20% and increased from 2012 to 2013 by 10%. If in 2011 the number of females was 1843, what was the respective ratio between the number of females and that of males in 2011?

(a) 25 : 21

(b) 23 : 21

(d) 23 : 22

(e) 25 : 22

Answer: (b)

97. An interest of Rs 1680 is earned when a certain sum is invested for 5 years in Scheme A offering simple interest at 12% per annum. If the same sum was invested for 3 years in Scheme B offering simple interest at 14% per annum, what will be the interest earned?

(a) Rs 1176

(b) Rs 1088

(d) Rs 1512

(e) Rs 1248

Answer: (a)

98. A man covers the first part of his journey by Car A at ‘X’ km/h in ‘X’ minutes and the remaining distance at 85 km/h in 6 hours by Car B. If the total distance covered by him by both cars together was 750 km, what is the total time taken by him to complete the journey?

(a) 8 h

(b) 9 h

(d) 6 h

(e) 5 h

Answer: (a)

99. The average scores of P, Q and R in Test A was 80 marks. In Test A, P scored 4 marks less than Q. In Test B, P got 6 marks less and Q got 4 marks more as compared to their respective scores in Test A; and the sum of P’s and Q’s score was 144 marks. What was the difference between P’s score and R’s score in Test A?

(a) 12 marks

(b) 16 marks

(d) 18 marks

(e) 23 marks

Answer: (e)

100. The population of village A is 20% more than population of village B. Population of village C is 40% more than the population of village A. If the difference between population of village A?

(a) 2100

(b) 1660

(d) 1960

(e) 1920

Answer: (c)

Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officer (Pre.) Examination Held on 17-06-2017 General Awareness Question Paper With Answer Key

January 20, 2021May 5, 2018 by suresh84

Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officer (Pre.) Examination Held on 17-06-2017

General Awareness

1. India’s very own Global Positioning System (GPS) which is set to hit the market for public use in early 2018 is known as the ‘Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System’ (IRNSS). Its operational name is-

(A) NASIK

(B) NASIC

(D) NAVIK

(E) NAVIS

Answer: (C)

2. The ‘Dalong Village’ covering an area of 11.35 sq. km. has recently (May 2017) been declared as Biodiversity Heritage Site under Section 37 (1) of Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The village is situated in the Indian State of-

(A) Manipur

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

(E) Assam

Answer: (A)

3. The Almatti Dam’ is a hydroelectric project on the Krishna River in the Indian State of-

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Karnataka

(E) Telangana

Answer: (D)

4. The first Indian State which has recently launched its official ‘T-wallet’ offering anything anywhere platform for digital payments with an additional charge for the citizens is-

(A) Chhattisgarh

(B) Telangana

(D) Maharashtra

(E) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (B)

5. Which of the following categories of banks are not allowed to accept deposits under ‘Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Deposit Scheme’ (PMGKDS), 2016?

(A) Private Sector Banks

(B) Public Sector Banks

(D) Cooperative Banks

(E) State Bank of India

Answer: (D)

6. A ‘banking outlet’ is one which opens for at least five days a week for at least-

(A) two hours a day

(B) five hours a day

(D) four hours a day

(E) six hours a day

Answer: (D)

7. Which of the following instruments is ‘not’ a debt instrument?

(A) Stocks

(B) Debentures

(D) Mortgages

(E) Promissory Note

Answer: (A)

8. The working and activity of NBFCs are registered by the Reserve Bank of India within the framework of the-

(A) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (Chapter 10-12)

(B) Banking Regulation Act, 1949

(D) Banking Companies Act, 1970 (Chapter No. 4)

(E) Corporate Act, 2001

Answer: (C)

9. The Union Home Minister, Shri Rajnath Singh has recently (May 2017) released the book ‘India 2017 : Yearbook’. The Book is authored by-

(A) Dr. Arvind Panagariya

(B) Shri Rajiv Malhotra

(D) Shri Tanay Pant

(E) Shri Rajiv Mehrishi

Answer: (E)

10. The ‘Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary’ is situated in the Indian State of-

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Tripura

(D) Sikkim

(E) Assam

Answer: (E)

11. The 2017 ‘North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Summit was recently (May 2017) held in-

(A) New York, United States of America

(B) London, United Kingdom

(D) Brussels, Belgium

(E) Rome, Italy

Answer: (D)

12. The ‘CGFMU’ is a Credit Guarantee Fund established for guaranteeing loans sacrificed under the-

(A) PMRY Scheme

(B) PMMY Scheme

(D) PMAY Scheme

(E) PMUY Scheme

Answer: (B)

13. The ‘Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries’ (FICCI) Smart Policing Award for the year 2017 has recently (May 2017) been conferred upon-

(A) Jammu City Police

(B) Pune City Police

(D) Delhi City Police

(E) Mumbai City Police

Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following is an integrated payment system which uses the customer’s Smart or Credit Card by scanning a code of the merchant’s place?

(A) Aadhaar Pay

(B) UPI

(D) Bharat QR

(E) Bhim App

Answer: (D)

15. Disha Microfin Private Limited has recently (May 2017) received the final approval from the Reserve Bank of India to commerce-

(A) Local Area Bank Operation

(B) Universal Banking Operations

(D) Insurance Company

(E) Export License

Answer: (C)

16. With an intention of increasing Digital transactions, the Reserve Bank of India has recently permitted cooperative banks to deploy their own or third party point of sale terminals only, if their net assets are more than-

(A) Rs 15 crore

(B) Rs 25 crore

(D) Rs 10 crore

(E) Rs 35 crore

Answer: (B)

17. ‘Kanwar Pal Singh Gill’ who recently (May 2017) passed away at the age of 82 was a former-

(A) Indian Civil Rights Activist

(B) Indian Police Officer

(D) Indian Football Player

(E) Indian Civil Servant

Answer: (B)

18. The currency of the ‘Republic of Maldives’ is-

(A) Riyal

(B) Rupee

(D) Rufiyaa

(E) Rupiah

Answer: (D)

19. A new cheaper, quicker and pollution-free ‘soil-to-soil technology’ to manufacture ‘biofuel’ has recently (June 2017) been developed by researchers at-

(A) IIT-Gandhinagar

(B) IIT-Jamshedpur

(D) IIT-Kharagpur

(E) IIT-Bhubaneswar

Answer: (D)

20. The ‘European Extremely Large Telescope’ which when completed will be the world’s largest optical telescope is being setup on a 300 meter high mountain in-

(A) Arctic Desert in Canada

(B) Gobi Desert in China

(D) Sahara Desert in Chad

(E) Atacama Desert in Chile

Answer: (E)

21. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) has recently approved a loan of USD 160 million for a power project in the Indian State of-

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Himachal Pradesh

(E) Odisha

Answer: (C)

22. Payment solutions provider ‘Oxigen Services’ and ‘PayU India’ have been granted inprinciple approval from Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to operate as-

(A) Payments Bank

(B) Small Finance Bank

(D) Universal Bank

(E) Bharat Bill Payments Operating Unit

Answer: (E)

23. The archaeological site of the Paleolithic period, the ‘Bhimbetka rock shelters’ is situated in the Indian State of –

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Chhattisgarh

(D) Himachal Pradesh

(E) Odisha

Answer: (C)

24. The ‘Shri Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex’ also known as Balewadi Stadium, is situated in-

(A) Nashik, Maharashtra

(B) Mumbai, Maharashtra

(D) Nagpur, Maharashtra

(E) Pune, Maharashtra

Answer: (E)

25. The ‘Cash and ATM Management Companies’ are now not required to comply with the Private Security Agencies ( Regulation) Act (PSARA). As a result they may not be allowed to attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) up to-

(A) 51 per cent

(B) 28 per cent

(D) 75 per cent

(E) 68 per cent

Answer: (C)

26. At any one time, the minimum balance in a BSBDA Small Account should not exceed-

(A) Rs 40,000

(B) Rs 50,000

(D) Rs 20,000

(E) Rs 1,00,000

Answer: (B)

27. The Union Cabinet has recently approved the public testing of five state-owned general insurance companies and making the government’s stake in them from 100% to-

(A) 75 per cent

(B) 49 per cent

(D) 61 per cent

(E) 68 per cent

Answer: (A)

28. In India the Credit rating agencies are regulated by-

(A) SEBI

(B) RBI

(D) PFRDA

(E) IRDA

Answer: (A)

29. The Dadasaheb Phalke Academy Award in the newly introduced ‘Internationally Acclaimed Actress’ Category has recently been awarded to film actress-

(A) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan

(B) Malika Sherawat

(D) Deepika Padukone

(E) Freida Pinto

Answer: (C)

30. The HCL Asian Junior Tennis Championship 2017 was recently (27th May 2017-3rd June, 2017) held in –

(A) Jakarta, Indonesia

(B) Pune, India

(D) Mumbai, India

(E) Kolkata, India

Answer: (B)

31. The Reserve Bank of India has advised banks to adhere to timelines prescribed for formulation and implementation of the ‘CAP’ by resolution of stressed loans. The alphabet ‘C’ in abbreviation ‘CAP’ stands for

(A) Convertible

(B) Corporate

(D) Corrective

(E) Currency

Answer: (D)

32. The 1,980 MW ‘Ghatampur Thermal Power Project’ is proposed to be set up at an estimated cost of Rs 17,237 crore in the Indian State of-

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Chhattisgarh

(D) Odisha

(E) Uttarakhand

Answer: (A)

33. The city of ‘Abu Dhabi’ is the capital of-

(A) Republic of Turkey

(B) Lebanese Republic

(D) Kingdom of Saudi Arabia

(E) United Arab Emirates

Answer: (E)

34. The ‘Singareni Collieries Company Limited’ (SCCL) is a government-owned coal mining company in India. The company is jointly owned by the Government of India and the-

(A) Government of Madhya Pradesh

(B) Government of Andhra Pradesh

(D) Government of Telangana

(E) Government of Tamil Nadu

Answer: (D)

35. The ‘IRS’ is a liquid financial derivative instrument which can be used to hedge against charges in-

(A) Income streams

(B) Interest rates swap

(D) Exchange Rates

(E) Repo rates

Answer: (B)

36. Punjab National Bank (PNB) has recently (May 2017) received USD 100 million as the first tranche of the USD 500 million multi-tranche finance facility for Solar Rooftop Investment Programme (SRIP) approved in 2016 by-

(A) Asian Development Bank

(B) New Development Bank

(D) International Development Association

(E) International Finance Corporation

Answer: (A)

37. According to the 2011 Census data, the sex ratio of the population in the country in 2011 stood at-

(A) 931 females to 1000 males

(B) 967 females to 1000 males

(D) 943 females to 1000 males

(E) 970 females to 1000 males

Answer: (D)

38. During the recent (May 2017) six-day four nation tour Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited ‘Madrid’ the capital city of-

(A) Slovakia

(B) Spain

(D) Sweden

(E) Swaziland

Answer: (B)

39. According to RBI guidelines, a scheduled commercial bank can own stake in a payments bank to the extent permitted under Section 19(2) of the-

(A) Public Financial Institutions Act, 1956

(B) Banking Regulation Act, 1949

(D) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

(E) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1953

Answer: (B)

40. July 11, every year is observed as the-

(A) World Population Day

(B) World Literacy Day

(D) Malala Day

(E) World Hepatitis Day

Answer: (A)

41. The ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is an index proposed by the-

(A) World Trade Organization

(B) New Development Bank

(D) Asian Development Bank

(E) World Bank Group

Answer: (E)

42. The Reserve Bank of India has been opening the bank license window only periodically. Under the ‘un-top’ mechanism, however an application can be made-

(A) as and when RBI notifies

(B) only for specified corporations

(D) only for specified branches

(E) only for private banks

Answer: (C)

43. In a breakthrough in military aviation technology, its largest indigenously built transport aircraft Y-20, was inducted by-

(A) Russia

(B) Pakistan

(D) France

(E) America

Answer: (C)

44. The two-day ‘G7 Summit 2017’ was recently (May 2017) held in

(A) Italy

(B) United Kingdom

(D) France

(E) Germany

Answer: (A)

45. In order to move towards a cashless economy, the RBI has recently prohibited non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) from disbursing loans against gold for an amount over-

(A) Rs 20,000

(B) Rs 99,000

(D) Rs 15,000

(E) Rs 40,000

Answer: (A)

46. India’s largest bridge, the ‘Dhola Sadiya Bridge’ has recently (May 2017) been inaugurated by PM Shri Narendra Modi. The bridge in the Indian State of Assam is built over the-

(A) Manasa River

(B) Dhansiri River

(D) Teesta River

(E) Dihing River

Answer: (E)

47. The largest of White Label ATM Kiosks under the brand name ‘Indicash’ is owned and operated by-

(A) BTI Payments

(B) Tata Communications Payment Solutions

(D) Prize Payments Solutions Limited

(E) Sun Infra Finance

Answer: (B)

48. The only Indian cricketer of the country to feature in the top 10 of the ICC Player Rankings for ODIs on May 2017?

(A) Virat Kohli

(B) Amit Mishra

(D) M.S. Dhoni

(E) Rohit Sharma

Answer: (A)

49. Based on the UN Habitual Data, the World Economic Forum has recently named two Indian cities as the world’s most crowded cities. The cities are Mumbai and-

(A) New Delhi

(B) Kolkata

(D) Kota

(E) Bengaluru

Answer: (B)

50. ‘LAF’ is a monetary policy instrument which allows banks to borrow money through repurchase agreements. The alphabet ‘L’ in the abbreviation ‘LAF’ stands for-

(A) Leverage

(B) Legitimate

(D) Liability

(E) Local

Answer: (C)

51. ‘Aparna Popat’ is a famous Indian-

(A) Hockey Player

(B) Tennis Player

(D) Badminton Player

(E) Volleyball Player

Answer: (D)

52. A nationwide campaign ‘Darwaza Band’ to promote use and freedom from open defection across the villages of the country has recently (May 2017) been launched by the-

(A) Ministry of Water Resources and River Development

(B) Ministry of AAYUSH

(D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(E) Ministry of Human Resource Development

Answer: (C)

53. The Tarun Ramadorai panel set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been tasked to look at the various facets of the-

(A) Household finance in India

(B) Digital Banking initiatives

(D) Payment Banks

(E) Payment Wallet

Answer: (A)

54. The ‘Bandodkar Gold Trophy’ is associated with the game of-

(A) Basketball

(B) Badminton

(D) Cricket

(E) Tennis

Answer: (C)

55. Which of the following Indian wrestlers clinched a Gold medal in the 65 kg category in the 2017 Asian Wrestling Championships final recently (May 2017)?

(A) Bajrang Punia

(B) Kavita Dalal

(D) Yogeshwar Dutt

(E) Geeta Phogat

Answer: (A)

56. Who has been appointed as the first woman President of Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)?

(A) Preeti Jain

(B) Shobana Kamineni

(D) Vimala Mehta

(E) Shobha Bharatia

Answer: (B)

57. Which state has become the first Indian state to shift to January to December financial year?

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Kerala

(D) Madhya Pradesh

(E) Gujarat

Answer: (D)

58. Which of the following is not a money market instrument?

(A) Certificates of Deposit

(B) Commercial Bills

(D) Trade Bill

(E) Short Term Exempts

Answer: (D)

59. The ‘2017 World Table Tennis Championships was recently (29 May-5 June, 2017) held in which of the following country?

(A) Japan

(B) France

(D) UK

(E) Singapore

Answer: (C)

60. The statutory base for the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) constituted by the Reserve Bank of India is provided by-

(A) Section 21A of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1935

(B) Section 21A of the Banking Companies Act, 1976

(D) Section 26A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949

(E) Section 21A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949

Answer: (D)

61. Which of the following mountaineers is the first Indian to summit Mount Everest a record six times?

(A) Loveraj Singh

(B) Mohan Singh Gunjyal

(D) Harish Kapadia

(E) Jamling Tenzing Norgay

Answer: (A)

62. …….. provide liquidity for global financial system and capital markets make up financial market.

(A) Capital Markets

(B) Derivative Markets

(D) Bullion Market

(E) Share Market

Answer: (C)

63. The India Aspiration Fund (IAF) is a fund of funds that would invest in venture capital funds for meeting the capital requirement of-

(A) Agriculture Sector

(B) Housing Sector

(D) MSME start-ups

(E) Electronics Sector

Answer: (D)

64. The new Index of Industrial Production (IIP) series for India will be calculated on which base year?

(A) 2006-07

(B) 2008-09

(D) 2011-12

(E) 2015-16

Answer: (D)

65. A security whose income payments and hence value are arrived from and assets is known as-

(A) Structured security

(B) Asset backed security

(D) Mutual Fund

(E) Cash Order

Answer: (B)

66. ‘Equity-linked Savings Scheme’ (ELSS) are open-ended diversified equity schemes offered by-

(A) Stock exchanges

(B) Commercial Banks

(D) Mutual Funds

(E) Public

Answer: (D)

67. India’s first Small Finance Bank, the ‘Capital Small Finance Bank’ is headquartered in-

(A) Chennai

(B) Jaipur

(D) Mumbai

(E) Jalandhar

Answer: (E)

68. The alphabet ‘D’ in the abbreviation ‘NSDL’ stands for-

(A) Derivative

(B) Debt

(D) Depository

(E) Demand

Answer: (D)

69. The ‘LTV ratio’ is a financial term commonly used by lenders and building securities to express the ratio of a loan to the value of an asset purchased. The alphabet ‘V’ in the abbreviation ‘LTV’ stands for-

(A) Virtual

(B) Valuation

(D) Value

(E) Visual

Answer: (D)

70. India’s first underwater metro rail tunnel has recently (May 2017) been completed under the-

(A) Yamuna River

(B) Gomati River

(D) Krishna River

(E) Narmada River

Answer: (C)

71. The recently launched ‘Paytm Payments Bank’ is permitted to open savings accounts where in customers shall be able to hold maximum amounts of up to-

(A) Rs 2,00,000

(B) Rs 1,00,000

(D) Rs 5,00,000

(E) Rs 10,00,000

Answer: (B)

72. The ‘External Commercial Borrowing’ (ECB) guidelines and policies are regulated and monitored by the Reserve Bank of India along with-

(A) Department of Economic Affairs

(B) Department of Revenue

(D) Department of Expenditure

(E) Department of Finance

Answer: (A)

73. Which of the following Indian businessman is amongst the Forbes list of annual ’25 Global Game Changers’ 2017 in transforming their industries and changing the lives of billions of people around the globe?

(A) Gautam Adani

(B) Rakesh Jhunjhunwala

(D) Mukesh Ambani

(E) Radhika Prasad

Answer: (D)

74. Under the NEFT system, fund transfers are presently settled at hourly intervals from 8 am to 7 pm on all working days in periodical batches. The RBI has recently announced to raise the number of hourly batches from 12 to-

(A) 24

(B) 25

(D) 21

(E) 22

Answer: (C)

75. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently permitted banks to open ‘banking outlets’ in Tier-1 to Tier-6 centres without having the need to take RBI permission. The rationalism is however not applicable to-

(A) Private Sector Banks

(B) Public Sector Banks

(D) Small Finance Bank

(E) Regional Rural Banks

Answer: (A)

76. The ‘International Fertilizer Industry Association’ (IFIA) having about 500 members, worldwide including 68 countries is based in-

(A) Strasbourg, France

(B) Washington DC, USA

(D) Pairs, France

(E) Frankfurt, Germany

Answer: (D)

77. The author of the book, ‘Mann Ki Baat : A Social Revolution on Radio’ is-

(A) Shri Rajesh Jain

(B) Shri Anand Jain

(D) Shri Kailash Jain

(E) Shri Naveen Jain

Answer: (A)

78. According to the recent data (May 2017) released by the international Stainless Steel Forum (ISSF), the largest producer of Stainless Steel in the world in 2016 was-

(A) Russia

(B) China

(D) USA

(E) UK

Answer: (B)

79. Who from amongst the following has recently been elected as one of the members of ‘Badminton World Federation’ (BWF) Athletes’ Commission?

(A) Saina Nehwal

(B) Jwala Gutta

(D) P. V. Sindhu

(E) Meena Shah

Answer: (D)

80. Mobile Wallets which do not permit cash withdrawal as redemption, but allows customers to buy goods and services at billed merchants and perform financial services at billed locations are known as-

(A) Open Wallets

(B) Closed Wallets

(D) Semi-closed Wallets

(E) Semi-blocked Wallets

Answer: (D)

RBI Officers Grade-B Recruitment Online Examination Held on December 7, 2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

January 20, 2021April 28, 2018 by suresh84

RBI Officers Grade-B Recruitment Online Examination Held on December 7, 2015

Part I General Awareness

1. The ‘Amer Palace’ also known as the ‘Amber Palace’ is located in Amer, a town which is situated close to the Indian city of

(a) Udaipur (Rajasthan)

(b) Jaipur (Rajasthan)

(d) Agra (Uttar Pradesh)

(e) Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh)

Answer: (b)

2. Domestically developed torpedo system dubbed as ‘Valfajr’ has recently been test-fired at

(a) Indonesia

(b) Israel

(d) Iran

(e) Iraq

Answer: (d)

3. Non-banking financial intermedianes that provide services similar to traditional commercial banks outside the regulatory control of the Central banks, known as the

(a) Local area banks

(b) Corporative banks

(d) Private banks

(e) Non-scheduled banks

Answer: (c)

4. According to Census-2011, the total number of working children in the age group of 5-14 years in the country was found to be around

(a) 83.53 lakh

(b) 93.53 lakh

(d) 43.53 lakh

(e) 53.53 lakh

Answer: (d)

5. The ‘Harmandir Sahib’ also known as ‘Darbar Sahib’ is a holy Sikh Gurudwara located in the city of

(a) Nanded (Maharashtra)

(b) Amritsar (Punjab)

(d) Karnal (Haryana)

(e) New Delhi

Answer: (b)

6. The ratio of deposits in current and savings account to total deposits of a bank, is known as

(a) Capital Adequacy Ratio

(b) NPA ratio

(d) CD ratio

(e) CASA ratio

Answer: (e)

7. The ‘Shishu Scheme’ under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) offers maximum loan up to

(a) Rs 100000

(b) Rs 50000

(d) Rs 50000

(e) Rs 75000

Answer: (b)

8. The term SIFT is used in financial world for those entities which are considered ‘Too big to fail’. The alphabet S in the abbreviation SIFT stands for

(a) Systematically

(b) Serious

(d) Sound

(e) Salient

Answer: (a)

9. ‘Malabar 2015’ was a high end war fighting naval exercise which was recently conducted by the navies of India, USA and

(a) Japan

(b) Australia

(d) China

(e) Germany

Answer: (a)

10. ‘Abhishek Verma’ has recently won India’s first world cup in

(a) archery

(b) aquatics

(d) air racing

(e) athletics

Answer: (a)

11. The 2015 Nobel Prize for Economics has been conferred upon

(a) Angus Deaton

(b) Tomas Lindahl

(d) William Campbell

(e) Arthur B. McDonald

Answer: (a)

12. The foundations stone of India’s first dedicated mobile manufactured electronics cluster has recently been laid at

(a) Bengaluru (Karnataka)

(b) Guragoan (Haryana)

(d) Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh)

(e) Pampri (Pune, Maharashtra)

Answer: (d)

13. The winner of the 2015, Denmark Open Badminton women’s singles title is

(a) PV Sindhu (India)

(b) Wang Xiauli (China)

(d) Li Xuerui (China)

(e) Saina Nehwal (India)

Answer: (d)

14. According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, payment banks are not permitted to

(a) set-up branches/ATMs

(b) undertake utility bill payment services

(d) distribute insurance/mutual fund/ pension products

(e) undertake non-banking financial services through subsidies

Answer: (c)

15. The Aadhaar based ‘digital-life certificate’ for pensioners is known as

(a) Jeevan Anand

(b) Jeevan Akshay

(d) Jeevan Tarun

(e) Jeevan Raksha

Answer: (c)

16. IDF is a debt instrument set, set-up by the Finance Ministry in order to channelize long term funds into infrastructure projects which require long-term stable capital investments. The alphabet F in the abbreviation IDF stands for

(a) Fund

(b) Fiscal

(d) Floating

(e) Fixed

Answer: (a)

17. The largest producer of coffee in the world, is

(a) Brazil

(b) Vietnam

(d) the USA

(e) Combodia

Answer: (a)

18. South Asian Rugby 7’s Championship 2016 shall be held in

(a) Nepal

(b) Sri Lanka

(d) Bhutan

(e) Pakistan

Answer: (c)

19. The HRIDAY scheme has been launched by the government of India in January, 2015 with the aim of holistic development of

(a) IT/its outsourcing cities

(b) special economic zones

(d) industrial cities

(e) medical tourism centres

Answer: (c)

20. The interest rates on the Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) for the financial year 2015-16 has been enhanced to

(a) 9.7%

(b) 9.3%

(d) 8.7%

(e) 9.5%

Answer: (b)

21. According to the Regional Rural Banks (Amendment) Act 2015, the cap on authorized capital of RRBs has now been raised from Rs 5 crore to

(a) Rs 2000 crore

(b) Rs 500 crore

(d) Rs 1500 crore

(e) Rs 1000 crore

Answer: (a)

22. The ‘Tansen Sangeet Samaroh is a four-day musical extravaganza organized every year in the mouth of December by the government of Madhya Pradesh in Behal village of

(a) Khandwa district

(b) Ratlam district

(d) Gwalior district

(e) Indore district

Answer: (d)

23. Hindustan Antibiotics Limited (HAL) is the first public sector drug manufacturing company set-up by the government of India in

(a) Hyderabad (Telangana)

(b) Ankaleshwar (Gujarat)

(d) Ghaziabad (Uttar Pradesh)

(e) Pimpri (Maharashtra)

Answer: (e)

24. The term which is used to describe a situation of decrease in the general price of goods and services, is

(a) Staglfation

(b) Stagnation

(d) Other than those given as options

(e) Deflation

Answer: (e)

25. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj recently visited Berlin, the capital of

(a) Germany

(b) Republic of Ireland

(d) France

(e) Portugal

Answer: (a)

26. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is one of the specialized agencies of the United Nations. It is headquartered in

(a) Geneva (Switzerland)

(b) Brussels (Belgium)

(d) Berlin (Germany)

(e) Vienna (Austria)

Answer: (a)

27. The capital of the Indian State of Chhattisgarh, is

(a) Bilaspur

(b) Ranchi

(d) Rajnandgaon

(e) Ratlam

Answer: (c)

28. The ‘Alps’ are the highest and most extensive mountain ranges in Europe. The highest mountain peak in the Alps, is

(a) Mount Ortier

(b) Mount Titis

(d) Mount Jungflau

(e) Mount Elger

Answer: (c)

29. ‘Samvidhan Divas’, the Indian Constitution Day, is observed on

(a) November 26

(b) March 26

(d) January 26

(e) February 26

Answer: (a)

30. Recently, the government of India has declared that ………… will be celebrated as Good Governance Day, every year.

(a) Other than those given as options

(b) July 16

(d) December 25

(e) January 1

Answer: (d)

31. The first ATM was set-up in Mumbai in 1987 by

(a) ICICI Bank

(b) SBI

(d) HSBC Bank

(e) Citibank

Answer: (d)

32. All those persons who are engaged in selling or marketing mutual fund products are required to obtain certification from

(a) NIA

(b) IRDA

(d) RBI

(e) AMFI

Answer: (e)

33. Union Bank of India is one of the major public sector banks in India. It is headquartered in

(a) Mumbai

(b) Bengaluru

(d) Chennai

(e) Kolkata

Answer: (a)

34. Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently (October, 2015) laid the foundation of the new capital city of the Indian State of

(a) Haryana

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Punjab

(e) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (b)

35. Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) has four mints in India. These four government mints are situated in

(a) Mumbai, Dewas, Hoshangabad and Mysore

(b) Mumbai, Nasik, Mysore and Ghaziabad

(d) Mumbai, Pune, Nasik and Hoshangabad

(e) Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad and Noida

Answer: (a)

36. A ‘cover note’ is the first legal document that is issued in lieu of

(a) an insurance policy

(b) a corporate share certificate

(d) a bank fixed deposit

(e) a mutual fund investment

Answer: (a)

37. In order to sign up for your recently launched Digital Locker (DIGI Locker) by government of India, one needs to have a mobile phone number linked to a

(a) Aadhaar number

(b) PAN

(d) safe deposit locker

(e) passport number

Answer: (a)

38. Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh recently inaugurated the ‘Indian Police Foundation (IPF)’ and the ‘Indian Police Institute (IPI)’ in

(a) Lonavla

(b) Jammu

(d) New Delhi

(e) Ambala

Answer: (d)

39. The installation of ‘Talking ATMs’ is aimed at making ATMs friendly for

(a) minors

(b) foreigners

(d) senior citizens

(e) non-customers

Answer: (c)

40. The online fashion portal ‘www.abof.com’ has recently been launched by

(a) Other than those given as options

(b) Aditya Brila Group

(d) Landmark Group

(e) Provogue

Answer: (b)

41. The Harvard Foundation’s 2015 Humanitarian of the Year Award has been conferred upon

(a) Malala Yousufzai

(b) Bill Gates

(d) Mia Farrow

(e) Kailash Satyarthi

Answer: (e)

42. Which of the following is a skill development scheme to help minority youth?

(a) Nai Manzil

(b) Swabhimaan

(d) Jiyo Parsi

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

43. India’s first private Greenfield Airport has recently commenced commercial operations at

(a) Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh)

(b) Kochi (Kerala)

(d) Durgapur (West Bengal)

(e) Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh)

Answer: (d)

44. The host country of the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting 2015 (CHOGM 2015) is

(a) Mali

(b) Myanmar

(d) Maldives

(e) Mauritius

Answer: (c)

45. The author of book ‘The Inheritance of Loss’ which has won a number of awards since its publication in 2006 including the Man Booker Prize, is

(a) Anita Desai

(b) Arundhati Roy

(d) Kiran Desai

(e) Kamal Desai

Answer: (d)

46. The present day Indian State of Karnataka was originally known as the

(a) Madhya Bharat

(b) State of Mangalore

(d) United Province

(e) State of Madras

Answer: (c)

47. Which of the following stock exchanges with a median response time of 6 micro seconds, is now considered as the world’s fastest stock exchange?

(a) New York State Exchange

(b) National Stock Exchange of India

(d) London Stock Exchange Group

(e) Bombay Stock Exchange Limited

Answer: (e)

48. ‘Brijmohan Lall Munjal’ who recently passed away at the age of 92’, was the founder of

(a) Other than those given as opotions

(b) Her MotoCorp

(d) Kinetic Engineering Limited

(e) Essar Limited

Answer: (b)

49. The interdisciplinary research centre ‘National Chemical Laboratory (NCL)’ is a constituent member of the CSIR. It is situated in

(a) Jamnagar (Gujarat)

(b) Solan (Himachal Pradesh)

(d) Bengaluru (Karnataka)

(e) Pune (Maharashtra)

Answer: (e)

50. Pakistan has recently signed a major agreement to build a 1110 km gas pipeline from Lahore of Karachi with an investment $ 2 billion from

(a) Japan

(b) China

(d) the USA

(e) Russia

Answer: (e)

51. The Financial Stability Report is issued on a half-yearly basis by

(a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) World Economic Forum

(d) NITI Aayog

(e) World Bank

Answer: (a)

52. The first individual to have received the ‘Bharat Ratna’ posthumously was

(a) Lal Bahadur Sahstri

(b) Dr. Dhondo Keshav Karve

(d) Madan Mohan Malaviya

(e) Mother Teresa

Answer: (a)

53. The ‘Ravi’ is a transboundary river flowing through North-western India and

(a) Afghanistan

(b) Pakistan

(d) Other than those given as options

(e) Tajikistan

Answer: (b)

54. Who amongst the following is the present captain of the Indian women’s national hockey team?

(a) Ritu Rani

(b) Suraj Lata Devi

(d) Other than those given as options

(e) Mamta Kharab

Answer: (a)

55. The famous ‘Haji Ali Dargah’ is a mosque and Dargah (tomb) located on an inset off the coast in

(a) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Mangalore (Karnataka)

(d) Kandla Port (Gujarat)

(e) Marmagao Port (Goa)

Answer: (c)

56. The Minimum Permissible Investment in the Sovereign Gold Bonds 2015’ is 2 gm and the maximum buying limit is

(a) 50 gm

(b) 250 gm

(d) 150 gm

(e) 500 gm

Answer: (e)

57. Which of the following former Governors of the Reserve bank of India has also served as the Union Finance Minister?

(a) Dr. C. Rangarajan

(b) LK Jha

(d) Dr. IG Patel

(e) CD Deshmukh

Answer: (e)

58. The 7500 tonne guided-missile destroyer ‘INS-Kochi’ packed with weapons and sensors,, was commissioned on September 30, 2015. It was constructed at the

(a) Mazagaon Docks Limited (Mumbai)

(b) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (Vishakhapatnam)

(d) Goa Shipyard Limited (Goa)

(e) Bharati Shipyard Limited (Mumbai)

Answer: (a)

59. The ‘Sunderbans’ is a National Park and a World Heritage Site, situated in the Indian State of

(a) Assam

(b) West Bengal

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

(e) Meghalaya

Answer: (b)

60. According to a recent survey conducted by the World Economic Forum (WEF), the most admired personality globally is

(a) Barack Obama

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(d) Nelson Mandela

(e) Narendra Modi

Answer: (d)

61. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank established in 1966. It is headquartered in

(a) Shanghai (China)

(b) Other than those given as options

(d) Kathmandu (Nepal)

(e) Jakarta (Indonesia)

Answer: (c)

62. Which of the following is the minimum lending rate which the banks can charge their customers?

(a) Reverse repo rate

(b) Other than those given as options

(d) Base rate

(e) Repo rate

Answer: (d)

63. The segment of money market which pertains to day-to-day funds requirements of the bank, is known as

(a) Call Money market

(b) Capital market

(d) Equity funds market

(e) Index funds market

Answer: (a)

64. Telecommunication service provider ‘Reliance Communications (RCOM)’ has recently (November, 2015) announced the takeover of the Indian wireless business of

(a) Virgin Mobile

(b) Uninor

(d) Essar

(e) Aircel

Answer: (c)

65. ‘Rajiv Gandhi International Airport’ serves the metropolis of

(a) Jaipur (Rajasthan)

(b) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)

(d) Hyderabad (Telangana)

(e) Kolkata (West Bengal)

Answer: (d)

66. The ‘Bank rate’ is periodically announced by the

(a) Indian Banks Association (IBA)

(b) State Bank of India (SBI)

(d) Ministry of Finance

(e) Board of the respective banks

Answer: (c)

67. ‘Nuakhar’ or ‘Nuankhal’ is an important agricultural festival mainly observed by people in the Indian State of

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Haryana

(d) Bihar

(e) Odisha

Answer: (e)

68. What is the deadline to achieve all villages electrification under Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY)?

(a) March 31, 2016

(b) October 2, 2016

(d) October 2, 2018

(e) March 31, 2018

Answer: (c)

69. What is the name of the Indian Culture Week launched in China recently?

(a)India in Beijing

(b) India in Shanghai

(d) India in Tianjin

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

70. The newly launched PMKSY scheme with an allocation of Rs 50000 crore spread over a period of five years, aims to achieve a holistic development of

(a) rural housing

(b) village infrastructure

(d) road & rail network

(e) irrigation & potential

Answer: (e)

71. The term ‘Abenomics’ refers to economic policies advocated by Shinzo Abe, the Prime Minister of

(a) China

(b) France

(d) Russia

(e) Singapore

Answer: (c)

72. The Urban Housing Mission ‘ABBAS’ which aims to provide affordable housing to economically weaker section of society by the government of State was recently launched by the Indian State of

(a) Goa

(b) Gujarat

(d) Odisha

(e) West Bengal

Answer: (d)

73. The European Union’s prestigious ‘Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought’ has recently been won by Raif Badami of

(a) Iraq

(b) United Arab Emirates

(d) Iran

(e) Saudi Arabia

Answer: (e)

74. The Annual Insurance Premium (per member) under the PMJJBY, is

(a) Rs 366

(b) Rs 380

(d) Rs 375

(e) Rs 365

Answer: (c)

75. The Indira Sagar Dam’ is a multipurpose project on the ………. river in the Indian State of Madhya Pradehs.

(a) Chambal

(b) Narmada

(d) Other than those given as options

(e) Betwa

Answer: (b)

76. A fraudster calling a customer posing as a bank executive or an official from the Reserve Bank of India for recollecting private information for identity theft, is termed as

(a) Skimming

(b) Stalking

(d) Smishing

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

77. The theme of the 19th International Children’s Film Festival of India 2015 (ICFFI) held in

(a) Social Harmony

(b) Spirit of Unity

(d) Digital India

(e) Green Economy

Answer: (d)

78. The facility wherein account holders name a person to whom the money lying their account should be given in the event of their death, is known as

(a) Entrustment

(b) Designation

(d) Nomination

(e) Registration

Answer: (d)

79. Which of the following taxes has been abolished as per budget 2015?

(a) Customs duty

(b) Wealth tax

(d) Entertainment tax

(e) Service tax

Answer: (b)

80. The mobile wallet services ‘M-Pesa’ has been introduced by Vodafone in partnership with

(a) Visa Inc

(b) Master Card Inc

(d) American Express Co.

(e) NPCI

Answer: (c)

Part 2 English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help locate them white answering some of the questions.

Brazil does not look like an economy on the verge of overheating. The IMF expects it to shrink by 3% this year, and 1% next (The country has not suffered two straight years of contraction since 1930-31). 1.2 million jobs vanished in September, unemployment has reached 7.6% up from 4.9% a year ago. Those still in work are finding it harder to make ends meet real (i.e. adjusted for inflation) wages are down 4.3% year-on-year. Despite the weak economy, inflation is nudging double digits. The Central Bank recently conceded that it will miss its 4.5% inflation target next year. Markets don’t expect it to be met before 2019. If fast-rising prices are simply a passing effect of the Brazilian real (R$) recent fall, which has pushed up the cost of imported goods, then they are not too troubling. But some economists have a more alarming explanation; that Brazil’s budgetary woes are so extreme that they have undermined the Central Bank’s power to fight inflation – a phenomenon known as Fiscal Dominance.

The immediate causes of Brazil’s troubles are external; the weak world economy, and China’s faltering appetite for oil and iron ore in particular, have enfeebled both exports and investment. But much of the country’s pain is self-inflicted. The President could have used the commodity windfall from the first term in 2011-14 to trim the bloated State, which swallows 36% of GDP in taxes despite offering few decent public services in return. Instead handouts, subsidized loans and costly tax breaks for favoured industries were splurged on. These fuelled a consumption boom, and with it inflation, while hiding the economy’s underlying weaknesses; thick red tape, impenetrable taxes, an unskilled workforce and shoddy infrastructure. The government’s profligacy also left the public finances in tatters. The primary balance (before interest payments) went from a surplus of 3.1% of GDP in2011 to forecast deficit of 0.9% this year. In the same period public debt has swollen to 65% of GDP, an increase of 13% points. That is lower than in many rich countries, but Brazil pays much higher interest on its debt. It will spend 8.5% of GDP this year servicing it, more than any other big country. In September it lost its investment-grade credit rating.

Stagflation of the sort Brazil i s experiencing present central bankers with a dilemma. Raising interest rates to quell inflation might push the economy deeper into recession; lowering them to foster growth might send inflation spiraling out of control. Between October last year and July this year, the country’s rate-setters seemed to prioritise price stability, raising the benchmark Selic by 3% points, to 14.25%, where it remains.

The alluring real rates of almost 5% ought to have made the Brazilian real attractive to investors. Instead, the currency has weakened and rising inflation despite higher interest rates, combined with a doubling of debt-servicing costs in the past three years has led to the diagnosis of fiscal dominance.

The cost of servicing Brazil’s debts has become so high, that rates have to be set to keep it manageable rather than to rein in prices. That, in turn, leads to a vicious circle of a falling currency and rising inflation. There is no question, however, that Brazilian monetary policy is at best hobbled. State-owned banks have extended nearly half the country’s credit at low, subsidized rates that bear little relation to the Selic – at a cost of more than 40 billion R$ ($10 billion) a year to the taxpayer. As private banks have cut lending in the past year, public ones have continued to expand their loan books. All this hampers monetary policy and if left unchecked, this spurt of lending may itself threaten price stability.

81. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Passing’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Missing

(b) Superficial

(d) Alive

(e) Incoming

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following best describes the author’s view of Brazil’s banks?

(a) Their practices may add to the country’s economic troubles.

(b) Private banks should be penalized for their unfair and risky lending practices.

(d) They are not being held back by the country’s Central Bank with outdated regulation.

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (a)

83. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Spurt’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Swell

(b) Drop

(d) Leak

(e) Gush

Answer: (b)

84. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Fuelled’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Patrolled

(b) Publicized

(d) Reproduced

(e) Stimulated

Answer: (e)

85. Which of the following describes the global perception of Brazil’s economy?

(a) The economy is strong and in need of more government investments in industries like oil.

(b) The economy is overheating because of a massive commodities boom.

(d) It is a good destination for investment with low interest rates.

(e) None of the given options describes the global perception of Brazil’s economy.

Answer: (e)

86. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(a) Brazil’s Central Bank has managed to control inflation despite the lack of government support.

(b) The State of Brazil’s public finances prevents the Central Bank from implementing sound monetary policy.

(d) A series of innovative and robust financial measures is helping Brazil recover its economic health.

(e) Brazil is in its worst recession since 1930 as it is overexposed to economies like China which are in trouble.

Answer: (b)

87. According to the passage, which of the following is/are a factor(s) that has/have impacted Brazil’s economy?

A. Weakening of Brazil’s currency.

B. Drop in demand for oil.

C. Economic sanctions against it by the IMF.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) A and B

(e) None of these

Answer: (d)

88. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?

(a) Brazil has capitalized on its commodity windfall by raising taxes and strengthening its economy.

(b) Brazil has been unfairly downgraded by investment credit rating agencies.

(d) Lowering interest rates is the only way to stabilize the economy and attract foreign investment.

(e) None of the given options is true in the context of the passage.

Answer: (e)

89. What do the statements regarding Brazil’s GDP, quoted in the passage, convey?

(a) Brazil invests a substantial part of its GDP in infrastructure unnecessarily.

(b) The economy is unbalanced with debt outweighing GDP

(d) Its GDP has been gradually improving despite the government’s policies

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

90. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Conceded’ given in bold as used in the passage.

(a) Imposed penalty

(b) Defeated by

(d) Admitted to

(e) Contributed to

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Read the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuations, if any).

91. The civic body has working/ towards ensuring zero waste dumping / from fish markets by scientifically processing / leftovers from these areas.

(a) The civic body has working

(b) towards ensuring zero waste dumping

(d) leftovers from these areas

(e) No error

Answer: (a)

92. Scientists have created / the blackest material ever made, / which is as dark that it can absorb / almost all light that hits it.

(a) Scientists have created

(b) the blackest material ever made

(d) almost all light that hits it

(e) No error

Answer: (c)

93. The European Union is keen on / seeking cooperation from / Indian universities in order to welcome / more students to tap the resources available abroad.

(a) The European Union is keen on

(b) seeking cooperation from

(d) more students to tap the resources available abroad

(e) No error

Answer: (e)

94. The district police arrested / five students for alleged obtaining / admission to colleges / by producing fake documents.

(a) The district police arrested

(b) five students for alleged obtaining

(d) by producing fake documents

(e) No error

Answer: (b)

95. With the new technique, / one person appears smiling / on another person’s face, even if the second / person is not smilingly at all.

(a) With the new technique

(b) one person appears smiling

(d) person is not smilingly at all

(e) No error

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Rearrange the following seven sentences A, B, C, D, E F and G in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

(A) Furthermore, many cities in China and India are continually modernizing their retail and distribution infrastructures, many market entry less complex than it would be in rural areas.

(B) These companies feel that the capital base of these two countries isn’t sufficient for a credible entry or that their competitive environment is already too tough for new entrants.

(D) Instead, they should ascertain whether building a presence in only a few selected cities is feasible.

(E) But companies shouldn’t these markets outright.

(F) Once, this feasibility is ensured, for specific product categories with low minimum scale requirements, even a limited entry in China or India can yield returns equivalent to countrywide coverage in other emerging economies, or higher.

(G) Some companies have written off China and India as unrealistic expansion opportunities.

96. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) D

(e) G

Answer: (e)

97. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) G

(b) A

(d) B

(e) C

Answer: (d)

98. Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) D

(e) E

Answer: (e)

99. Which of the following should be the last (seventh) sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) G

(d) C

(e) F

Answer: (e)

100. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) G

(b) F

(d) D

(e) C

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-110) In the following passage, there are blanks,, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

We have worked really (101) on helping those at the very bottom, but is that enough? Imagine how different the world would be if the (102) of much aid spending was not “ending $1.25 a day poverty” but “(103) a fairer and more equitable world.” Inequality is about much more than income and that is why it is such a valuable (104). If we took the wealth of the world’s richest and used it to double or even quadruple the incomes of the world’s poorest three billion people would that be enough? It would make a big difference but those people would still be relatively poor and (105) of better, fuller lives.

Inequality, as a focal point for campaigns, (106) us to accept and explain that building a better world is a slow and perennial (107). Delivering a world where the quality of education, healthcare and national infrastructure available to every person is sufficient to bestow on them meaningful hope and ambition is hopefully the aim of ‘development”. It is not possible without (108) inequalities. Goals and targets will help us to keep moving forwards but achieving them will not (109) success, which is why – (110) its important role as an aspiration we shouldn’t be so belligerent about zero poverty and especially about whether aid is the tool to get us there.

101.

(a) lot

(b) much

(d) fortunately

(e) abysmally

Answer: (c)

102.

(a) aiming

(b) limitation

(d) focus

(e) control

Answer: (d)

103.

(a) creating

(b) spreading

(d) heightening

(e) populating

Answer: (a)

104.

(a) frame

(b) resource

(d) dimensions

(e) remark

Answer: (e)

105.

(a) want

(b) desolate

(d) deserving

(e) lamenting

Answer: (e)

106.

(a) lets

(b) makes

(d) pulls

(e) allows

Answer: (e)

107.

(a) account

(b) endeavour

(d) method

(e) wisdom

Answer: (b)

108.

(a) prevailing

(b) current

(d) tying

(e) tackling

Answer: (a)

109.

(a) result

(b) arrest

(d) station

(e) figure

Answer: (e)

110.

(a) as

(b) despite

(d) while

(e) technically

Answer: (b)

Part 3 Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-113) In these questions, a statement is given followed by two sets of conclusions numbered I and II. These statements show relationship between different elements. You have to assume the statement to be true and then decide which of t he given conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(d) Either conclusion I or II follows

(e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

11. Statements B ≤ U > S ≥ G; W ≤ S; W ≥ M

Conclusions I. G ≤ B II. M > S

Answer: (e)

112. Statements K ≥ B = N ≤ U; T ≤ N; P > U

Conclusions I. P > K II. T ≤ K

Answer: (b)

113. Statements B ≤ U > S ≥ G; W ≤ S; W ≥ M

Conclusions I. M < U II. G ≤ W

Answer: (a)

114. In which of the following expressions does the expression ‘Q ≥ Z’ definitely true?

(a) E ≥ Z ≥ R ≥ B = C ≥ Q

(b) N ≥ Q ≥ A = C ≤ I ≥ Z

(d) Z ≤ S = B ≤ L < O ≤ Q

(e) Z = T ≤ D ≤ Y = X ≤ Q

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 115-119) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement

(All the numbers are two-digit numbers).

Input bear 24 binders brave 91 17 but 68 bailer 35

Step I 19 bear 24 binders brave 17 but 68 bailer 35 74 be

Step II 47 19 bear 24 binders brave 17 68 bailer 35 be but

Step III 86 47 19 24 binders brave 17 bailer 35 be but bear

Step IV 53 86 47 19 24 binders 17 bailer be but bear brave

Step V 42 53 86 47 19 binders 17 be but bear brave bailer

Step VI 71 42 53 86 47 19 be but bear brave bailer binders

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input tyre 71 tough 59 tip 82 13 thanks to 68 table 46

115. If in the last step, ‘1’ is added to each of the odd numbers and ‘2’ is subtracted from each of the even numbers, then how many numbers multiple of ‘4’ will be formed/

(a) Two

(b) Three

(d) None

(e) One

Answer: (b)

116. If in step III, ‘28’ interchanges its position with ‘table’ and ‘59’ also interchanges its position with ‘tip’ then which of element will be to the immediate left of ‘46’?

(a) ‘28’

(b) ‘to’

(d) ‘tip’

(e) ‘59’

Answer: (a)

117. Which of the following combinations represents the third and the ninth element in second last step of the given input from the left end?

(a) 95 and tip

(b) table and 86

(d) 86 and tip

(e) tyre and17

Answer: (d)

118. Which element comes exactly between ‘59’ and ‘thanks’ in Step II of the given input?

(a) 13

(b) 46

(d) table

(e) 68

Answer: (a)

119. Which element is third to the right of the one which is eighth from the right end in Step IV?

(a) 13

(b) tip

(d) to

(e) 46

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 120-122) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

If ‘P ⋆ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of ‘Q’.

If ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’.

If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.

If ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’.

If ‘P > Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.

If ‘P < Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’.

120. In the expression ‘A × B + R > S’, how is S related to A?

(a) Daughter-in-law

(b) Daughter

(d) Sister

(e) Cannot be determined

Answer: (c)

121. In the expression ‘P + Q > A – B;, how is P related to B?

(a) Daughter

(b) Son

(d) Nephew

(e) Cannot be determined

Answer: (c)

122. In the expression ‘W > X < Y ⋆ Z’, how is W related to B?

(a) Nephew

(b) Uncle

(d) Brother-in-law

(e) None of these

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 123-127) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight family members S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are females and some are males. All of them are related to each other in the same way or the other. Some of them are facing the centre while some are facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre.)

Only two people sit between T and W. T faces the centre. X sits second to the right of T. W is the wife of S. No females is an immediate neighbour of W.

U is not an immediate neighbour of T. U is the daughter of W. Both the immediate neighbours of U face the centre.

Only three people sit between S and U’s brother. X is not the brother of U. Neither S nor U’s brother is an immediate neighbour of X.

Z, the wife of T, sits to the immediate left of V. Both Y and S face a direction opposite to that of U (i.e. if U faces the centre then both Y and S face outside and vice-versa). U’s husband sits second to the left of Y. T’s father sits to the immediate right of W.

T sits second to the right of S’s father. Both the immediate neighbours of X are females.

123. How many people sit between T and S’s father when counted from the right of T?

(a) Four

(b) Three

(d) One

(e) Two

Answer: (a)

124. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Y and W when counted from the left of Y?

(a) T

(b) X

(d) Z

(e) U

Answer: (d)

125. Which of the following statements regarding T is definitely true?

(a) X and Z are immediate neighbours of T.

(b) T sits second to the left of X.

(d) None of the given options is correct

(e) V is the father of T.

Answer: (c)

126. Who amongst the following faces outside (i.e. opposite to the centre)?

(a) W

(b) V

(d) Z

(e) T

Answer: (c)

127. If it is given that Y is married to X, then what is the position of T with respect to Y’s daughter-in-law?

(a) Third to the right

(b) Second to the right

(d) Second to the left

(e) Third to the left

Answer: (e)

128. Read the given information and answer the question.

Company S has recently rented many apartments in building Y for providing office quarters to its employees. However, although many employees had requested the company to provide accommodation around six months ago, since the announcement of quarters last month, hardly any employee has signed up for the new facility.

Which of the following may not be a reason for the employees’ unwillingness to live in the apartments?

(a) All the employees of company S were informed just two months ago that the company had decided to triple the house rent allowance (HRA) shortly.

(b) The area where the company has rented the apartments does not have a school, college or hospital in its 3 km radius.

(c) The maintenance amount for the apartments, which have been rented by the company is very high and the company has announced that employees would have to pay the amount on their own.

(d) There have been talks about the company changing its current office location and the new office location is very far from the area in, which the apartments have been rented.

(e) Apartments which have been rented by the company are located at an area, which does not have adequate public transport facilities.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 129-131) In each of the followings below, three statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I follows

(b) if only conclusion II follows

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows

(e) if both conclusions follow

129. Statements No hour is a day.

All months are days.

Some hours are calendars.

Conclusions

I. No month is an hour.

II. All calendars being days is a possibility.

Answer: (a)

130. Statements Some comics are books.

All comics are novels.

No novel is an article.

Conclusions

I. Some novels are books.

II. All articles being books is a possibility.

Answer: (e)

131. Statements No liquid is fluid.

All solids are liquids.

All gases are solids.

Conclusions

I. At least some solids are fluids.

II. All gases are liquids.

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 132-134) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Amongst five friends P, Q, R, S and T, each scored different marks in an examination out of a total of 100 marks. S scored more then only T. R scored less than P. Only one person scored more than Q. The one who scored second highest marks scored 87 marks.

132. Who scored the third least marks in the examination?

(a) P

(b) Q

(d) S

(e) T

Answer: (c)

133. Which of the following is true with regard to the given information?

(a) Only one person scored more than P.

(b) No one scored less than T.

(d) Amongst the five friends, S is most likely to have scored 95 marks in the examination.

(e) None is true

Answer: (b)

134. If S scored 23 marks less than the marks scored by Q, which of the following could possibly be R’s score?

(a) 64

(b) 93

(d) 89

(e) 78

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 135-140) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Seven people namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S like seven different genres of music namely – Classical, Hip-Hop, Pop, Jazz, Opera, Rock and Electronica but not necessarily in the same order. Each person also works in the same office but at a different position on the basis of seniority namely Trainee (TE), Assistant Manager (AM), Manager (MG), Senior Manager (SM), Chief Manager (CM), Executive Director (ED) and Director (DR) but not necessarily in the same order. The positions have been given in increasing order of seniority with junior most position whilst DR being the senior most position.)

Only one person is senior than O. The one who is senior than O likes Hip-Hop. Only two people are junior than R. M is junior than R and likes Electronica. M is not the junior most. Q is junior than the CM but senior than the one who likes Opera. The one who likes Opera is not the senior most. S likes Classical. The one who likes pop is senior than Q but not the ED. S does not like Pop.

135. As per the given arrangement, R is related to Opera and Q is related to classical in a certain way. To which of the following is P related to in the same way?

(a) Pop

(b) Jazz

(d) Electronica

(e) Hip-Hop

Answer: (e)

136. Who amongst the following works as a MG?

(a) Q

(b) R

(d) P

(e) Other than those given as options

Answer: (b)

137. Which of the following pairs represents the people who have less experience than R and more experience than Q?

(a) M, S

(b) O, P

(d) M, O

(e) Q, O

Answer: (d)

138. Who amongst the following works as a TE?

(a) P

(b) N

(d) S

(e) O

Answer: (d)

139. Which combination represents the position at which N works and the music genres that he likes?

(a) CM-Rock

(b) CM-Pop

(d) MG-Opera

(e) MG-Jazz

Answer: (b)

140. Which of the following music genres does O like?

(a) Electronica

(b) Pop

(d) Hip-Hop

(e) Jazz

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the questions, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

(d) if the data even in both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question

(e) if the data in both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question

141. How many people are standing between H and U in a straight line of 15 people (All are standing in a straight line facing North)?

I. M stands fifth from the left end of the line. H and K are immediate neighbours of M.

II. B stands third from the right end of the line. Only six people stand between K and B. Only one person stands between H and K. K stands exactly between H and U.

Answer: (b)

142. How is B related to S?

I. N is married to T. B is the sister of N. T has only one daughter K. K is the grand-daughter of S.

II. N is the daughter of S. N is married to T. T is the only child of Z. B is the sister-in-law of T.

Answer: (b)

143. Among people A, B, C, D, E and F, each having a different weight, who is the second highest?

I. C is heavier than only two people. A is heavier than F but lighter than B. D is not the highest.

II. F is lighter than only two people. C is lighter than F but heavier than D. A is lighter than only B.

Answer: (e)

144. How many people are standing in a straight line (All are facing North)?

I. U stands third from the left end of the line. U is an immediate neighbour of P and W. Only one person stands between W and T. Only two people stand to the right of W.

II. S stands at extreme left end of the line. T stands to the extreme right end of the line. Only one person stands between S and U. Only one person stands between T and W.

Answer: (c)

145. How far is point M from point K?

I. Point D is 5 m to the South of Point P. Point M is 8 m to the West of point D. Point S is 2.5 m to the North of point M. Point O is 10 m to the East of Point S. Point K is 2.5 m to the south of point O.

II. Point K is 10 m to the East of point M. Point U is 8 m to the West of Point M. Point D is to the East of M. Point M is the midpoint of the lines formed by joining points U and D.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, live on eight different floors of building (but not necessarily in the same order). The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two, and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Each one of them plays a different game namely. San Andreas, Roadrash, Contra, Castlevania, Resident Evil, Tekken 3, Dragon Quest and Metal Gear (but not necessarily in the same order).

G lives on an even numbered floor above the floor numbered two. Only three people live between G and the one who plays Roadrash. E lives immediately below the one who plays Roadrash.

Only two people live between E and the one who plays Tekken 3. C lives immediately above the one who plays Tekken 3. The one who plays San Andreas lives on an even numbered floor below C.

Only two people live between the one who plays San Andreas and the one who plays Dragon Quest. The one who plays Metal Gear lives immediately below B. B neither lives on the topmost floor nor plays Roadrash.

F lives on odd numbered floor but not the lowermost floor. Only two people live between and the one who plays Resident Evil.

Only one person lives between D and the one who plays Contra. H lives immediately above the one who plays Contra.

146. Which of the following games does D play?

(a) Sand Andreas

(b) Roadrash

(d) Castlevania

(e) Metal Gear

Answer: (e)

147. How many people live between G and the one who plays Tekken3?

(a) None

(b) One

(d) Four

(e) Five

Answer: (b)

148. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information?

(a) G plays Resident Evil.

(b) C lives immediately below the one who plays Contra.

(d) B lives immediately above E.

(e) Only four people live between D and the one who play Roadrash.

Answer: (a)

149. Who amongst the following live exactly between A and the one who plays Contra?

(a) D, the one who plays Resident Evil

(b) C, B

(d) E, the one who plays Tekken 3

(e) F, the one who plays Roadrash

Answer: (e)

150. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a) A-Contra

(b) H-Castlevania

(d) B-Dragon Quest

(e) C-Roadrash

Answer: (c)

151. Read the following information and answer the given question.

“The man behind the revival of SpeedZet Automobiles, the CEO has decided to quit. I believe that the company will soon go into losses due to this decision”. – Statement by a market analyst.

Which of the following statements appears to be the perception of the market analyst?

(a) No other person can run SpeedZet Automobiles as successfully as the present CEO.

(b) SpeedZet Automobiles may decide to shut down the operations due to the CEO’s exist.

(d) The strategies adopted by the CEO of SpeedZet Automobiles were exclusive in the industry.

(e) SpeedZet Automobiles has the highest market share at present.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 152-153) Select the correct conclusion from t he given options.

152. Statements Some flutes are guitars.

No guitar is a piano.

Some pianos are drums.

All drums are violins.

Conclusions

(a) All pianos are violins.

(b) No flute is a piano.

(d) All violins being guitars is a possibility.

(e) All violins being flutes is a possibility.

Answer: (e)

153. Statements All pets are animals.

All animals are reptiles.

No animal is a bird.

Some birds are insects.

Conclusions

(a) No reptile is a pet.

(b) All insects being animals is a possibility

(d) No pet is a bird.

(e) Some birds are reptiles.

Answer: (d)

154. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions which follows :

Bookings for the dream project of ‘Ashiana Builders’ new building are underway. The building for which construction is due to start next month has flats costing a minimum of Rs 80 lakh. Bank B offers 100% loan scheme in which Rs 15 lakh is provided by the bank at the start of construction, Rs 25 lakh after one year of the start of construction work and Rs 10 lakh every subsequent year till the completion of the project.

Which of t he following statements would prove that the bank’s loan disbursement plan may be flawed in its approach?

(A) Cost of construction undertaken by Ashiana builders varies depending on the area and labour cost even within a city.

(B) Ashiana builders take a minimum of three years to complete a project by which time the entire payment must be made by the buyers.

(C) To purchase a flat from Ashiana builders it is mandary to pay 75% of the entire amount before the second year of start of construction.

(D) Many banks do not offer flexibility in payment scheme if construction of a project does not near competition.

(a) All of these

(b) Only A

(d) Only C

(e) B and D

Answer: (a)

155. Which of the following expressions is true if the expression ‘C ≥ R = O ≤ S = T > M’ is

(a) O < M

(b) C > M

(d) C ≥ S

(e) T ≥ R

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 156-160) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Ten persons from different companies viz, Indigo, Biocon, Nokia, Samsung, Havells, Amul, Tata, Vadilal, Flipkart and Cipla are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there i s an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 G, H, I, J and K are seated and all of them are South. In row-2 U, V, W, X and Y are seated and all of them are facing North, Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

K sits third to the left of the person from Biocon. V is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces K. The person from Havells sits to the immediate left of V.

Only two people sit between the person from Nokia and H. The person from Nokia is not an immediate neighbour of K. Only one person sits between the one who faces H and the person from Tata.

X sits second to the right of W. W does not sit at an extreme end of the line. The person from Cipla sits third to the left of t he one who faces W.

U is an immediate neighbour of the person from Samsung. U is not from Tata. Only two people sit between the person from Amul and J. The person from Flipkart is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Amul.

Only one person sits between the one who faces the person from Flipkart and I. Neither I nor U is from Indigo.

156. K is related to the person from Vadilal in the same way as W is related to person from Tata based on the given arrangement. To whom amongst the following is, X related to, following the same pattern?

(a) The person from Amul

(b) The person from Indigo

(d) The person from Havells

(e) The person from Nokia

Answer: (c)

157. Y is from which of the following companies?

(a) Indigo

(b) Tata

(d) Samsung

(e) Biocon

Answer: (a)

158. Who amongst the following faces the person from Vadilal?

(a) The person from Flipkart

(b) V

(d) The person from Nokia

(e) The person from Havells

Answer: (b)

159. Which of the following is true regarding G?

(a) Only one person sits between G and the person from Cipla.

(b) The person from Samsung faces G.

(d) None of the given options is true.

(e) G sits to the immediate left of I.

Answer: (c)

160. Who amongst the following sit at extreme end of the rows?

(a) The persons from Indigo and G

(b) The person from Cipla and X

(d) J and the person from Flipkart

(e) The person from Nokia and U

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 161-165) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code,

‘jo gi la sn’ codes for ‘highest civilian award received’

‘tn la pb jo’ codes for ‘received for highest bravery’

‘dc abs n tn’ codes for ‘bravery award an honour’

‘fq mz dc yd’ codes for ‘an army worth defence’

(All the given codes are two-letter codes only)

161. Which of the following may represents ‘nights for civilian’ in the given code language?

(a) dc pb tn

(b) gl pb dc

(d) gif q pb

(e) pb tn mz

Answer: (c)

162. Code for which of the following cannot be definitely known?

(a) civilian

(b) bravery

(d) for

(e) award

Answer: (c)

163. What does ‘ab’ stand for?

(a) honour

(b) bravery

(d) Either ‘bravery’ or ‘an’

(e) an

Answer: (a)

164. Which of the following is needed to arrive at a code for ‘worth’?

(a) ‘defence worth award’ is coded as ‘mz sn fq’

(b) ‘army best ever’ is coded as ‘af yd rt’

(d) ‘army worth millions’ is coded as xw mz yd’

(e) ‘civilian defence rising’ is coded as ‘ul fq gi’

Answer: (c)

165. If received highest rainfall’ is coded as ‘oa la jo’, then how will ‘rainfall for agriculture’ be possibly coded in the given code language?

(a) ci la oa

(b) oa pb gi

(d) pb oa sn

(e) zs oa dc

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 166-170) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven flights are bound to fly to different cities viz. Dubai, Sydney, London, Paris, Zurich, Madrid and Rome from Monday to Sunday of the same week. Each flight departs at a different time viz. 4 pm, 5 pm, 6 pm, 7 pm, 8 pm, 9 pm and 10 pm in the night on their respective days. None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.

The flight to Dubai departs on Wednesday but neither at 5 nor at 8 pm.

There is only one day between the flight to Dubai and the flight which departs at 10 pm.

There are only three days between the flights which departs at 5 pm and the flight to Rome.

The flight which departs at 5 pm departs before the Rome bound flight.

The flight which departs on Monday neither departs at 5 pm nor does it fly to Sydney.

The flight which departs on Saturday leaves at a time before the flight which departs on Tuesday (i.e. if the Tuesday flight departs at 7 pm then the flight on Saturday departs at 6, 5 or 4 pm.)

The flight to London departs on the day immediately before the day on which the 8 p m flight departs.

The flight to Paris departs at 7 pm.

There is a difference of 2 hours between the Zurich bound flight and the London bound flight (i.e. if a London bound flight departs at 4 pm then the Zurich bound flight departs at either 2 pm or 6 pm on its respective day).

166. Which flight departs on the day immediately after the day on which the Paris bound flight departs?

(a) The flight which departs at 7 pm.

(b) The flight which departs on Thursday.

(d) The flight which departs at 5 pm

(e) The Zurich bound flight

Answer: (e)

167. At what time does the Sydney bound flight depart?

(a) 9 pm

(b) 10 pm

(d) 5 pm

(e) 4 pm

Answer: (d)

168. Which flight departs exactly 1 hour after the Sydney bound flight on its scheduled day?

(a) The flight which departs on Friday

(b) The flight which departs on Tuesday

(d) The London bound flight

(e) The Rome bound flight

Answer: (d)

169. The Dubai bound flight reaches Dubai in 4 hours after it start. If the flight stops over at New Delhi at exactly half the total time, at what time would the flight arrive in New Delhi?

(a) 8 pm

(b) 11 pm

(d) 6 pm

(e) 12 midnight

Answer: (b)

170. Which of the following flights departs at 10 pm?

(a) The flight which departs on Friday

(b) The Zurich bound flight

(d) The Paris bound flight

(e) The flight depending on the day immediately before the Sydney bound flight

Answer: (e)

Part 4 Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 171-175) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Data regarding number of graduates studying various courses in University A and that University B in the year 2001.

(Universities A and B offer courses in six courses only, namely-Commerce, Science, Engineering, Arts, Management and Law.)

• In University A, graduates in Commerce, Science and Engineering together constituted 60% of the total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together). Graduates in Arts, Management and Law were 25% more than that of Engineering graduates. Management graduates were 20% less than that of Science graduates.

•In University B, Commerce graduates were 10% less than the Commerce graduate in University A.

• In University B, Management graduates were 900 and the constituted 12% of the total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together). Also Management graduates were 40% less than that of Science graduates. Total number of graduates in Engineering and Arts together were double the total number of graduates in Management and Law together.

171. What is the difference between the total number of graduates in Management and Law together in University A and that in the same courses together in University B?

(a) 1200

(b) 900

(d) 110

(e) 700

Answer: (b)

172. Three-fourth of the number of Arts graduates in University A were female. If the number of female Arts graduates in University A is less than that in University B by 175, then what is the number of male Arts graduates in University B?

(a) 800

(b) 720

(d) 680

(e) Can’t be determined

Answer: (e)

173. What is the respective ratio between the total number of graduates in engineering and Commerce together in University A and that in the same courses together in University B?

(a) 9 : 8

(b) 5 : 4

(d) 13 : 12

(e) Can’t be determined

Answer: (e)

174. Number of Science graduates in University B is what percent less than that in University A?

(a)

(b) 25%

(d)

(e)

Answer: (a)

175. Total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together) in University A, was what percent more than that in University B?

(a) 10%

(b) 20%

(d) 30%

(e) 15%

Answer: (b)

176. In a village, 70% registered voters cast their votes in the election. Only two candidates (A and B) are contesting the election. A won the election by 400 votes. Had A receive 12.5% less votes, the result would have been different. How many registered voters are there in the village?

(a) 7200

(b) 4500

(d) 4250

(e) 8572

Answer: (e)

177. Area of a rectangle is 96 sq m. When the length of the same rectangle increased by 6 m and the breadth decreased by 3 m, then the area of the rectangle decreases by 30 sq m. What is the perimeter of a square whose sides are equal to the length of rectangle?

(a) 48 m

(b) 60 m

(d) 64 m

(e) 52 m

Answer: (d)

178. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective of 3 : 1. 32 L of mixture was taken out and replaced with the same quantity of milk so that the resultant ratio between quantities of milk and water in the mixture was 4 : 1 respectively. If 10 L of mixture is again taken out from the vessel, what is the resultant quantity of water in the mixture?

(a) 24 L

(b) 30L

(d) 36 L

(e) 32 L

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 179-183) Refer to the table and answer the given questions.

Note

(i) Strike rate = (Total runs scored/Total balls faced) × 100

(ii) All the given batsmen could bat in all the given matches played by them.

(iii) Few values are missing in the table (indicated by−) A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question, on the basis of given data and information.

179. If the runs scored by R in last 3 matches of the tournament are not considered, his average runs scored in the tournament will decrease by 9, If the runs scored by R in the 21st and 22nd match are below are 140 and no two scores among these 3 scores are equal, what is the minimum possible runs scored by R in the 24th match?

(a) 64

(b) 85

(d) 60

(e) 75

Answer: (a)

180. The respectively ratio between total number of balls faced by O and that by Q in the tournament is 5 : 3. Total number of runs scored by Q in the tournament is what percent less than the total number of ru ns scored by O in the tournament?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Answer: (e)

181. Batsman M faced equal number of balls in first 11 matches he played in the tournament and last 11 matches he played in the tournament. If his strike rate in first 11 matches and last 11 matches of the tournament are 83 and 71 respectively, what is the total number of balls faced by him in the tournament?

(a) 1800

(b) 1500

(d) 1600

(e) 1400

Answer: (d)

182. In the tournament, the total number of balls faced by batsman N is 402 less than the total number of runs scored by him. What is the average number of runs scored batsman N in the tournament?

(a) 32

(b) 54

(d) 62

(e) 71

Answer: (c)

183. What is the number of matches played by batsman O in the tournament?

(a) 16

(b) 28

(d) 22

(e) 24

Answer: (d)

184. A, B and C started a business with investments of Rs 1600, Rs 2000 and Rs 1800 respectively. After 6 months from the start of the business, A invested Rs 200 more. After 8 months from the start of the business, B and C invested additional amounts in the respective ratio of 4 : 1. If they received an annual profit of Rs 3560 and A’s share in the profit is Rs 1080, what was the additional amount that C invested?

(a) Rs 250

(b) Rs 300

(d) Rs 800

(e) Rs 100

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 185-189) In these questions, a number series is given. Only one number is wrong which doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number.

185. 10 4 3 5 6 15 41

(a) 3

(b) 15

(d) 6

(e) 3.5

Answer: (b)

186. 5040 720 120 24 6 3 1

(a) 3

(b) 6

(d) 720

(e) 24

Answer: (a)

187. 140 157 193 242 310 395 497

(a) 395

(b) 193

(d) 242

(e) 157

Answer: (b)

188. 150 148 143 133 116 80 53

(a) 133

(b) 116

(d) 148

(e) 53

Answer: (e)

189. 5 4 6 15 56 285 1644

(a) 56

(b) 285

(d) 15

(e) 4

Answer: (b)

190. Three years ago, Raj’s age was equal to the sum of the present ages of his one son and one daughter. Three years ago, the respective ratio between the ages of his daughter and his son that time was 12 : 13. If Raj’s wife is 5 years younger to him and her present age is twice the present age of their daughter, then what is the present age of their son?

(a) 27 years

(b) 24 years

(d) 26 years

(e) 25 years

Answer: (c)

191. A student was asked to measure the length and breadth of a rectangle. By mistake he measured the length 20% less and the breadth 10% more. If its original area is 200 cm², then the area after this measurement is

(a) 176 sq cm

(b) 206 sq cm

(d) 316 sq cm

(e) None of these

Answer: (a)

192. Mohan purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs 100 per ream and the expenditure on transport was Rs 480. He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs 60. What should he charge per ream to gain 40%?

(a) Rs 138

(b) Rs 147

(d) Rs 165

(e) None of these

Answer: (b)

193. The population of a particular area ‘A’ of a city is 5000. It increases by 10% in first year, decreases by 20% in the second year because of some reason. In the third y ear, the population increases by 30%. What will be the population of area ‘A’ at the end of third year?

(a) 5225

(b) 5720

(d) 5560

(e) 5407

Answer: (b)

194. Boat A travels upstream from Point X to Point Y in 2 hours more than the time taken by Boat B to travel downstream from Point Y to Point Z. The distance between X and Y is 40 km and that distance between Y and Z is 24 km. The speed of Boat B in still water is 10 km/h and the speed of Boat B downstream. What is the speed of Boat A in still water? (Consider the speed of the current to be the same.)

(a) 20 km/h

(b) 10 km/h

(d) 14 km/h

(e) 8 km/h

Answer: (c)

195. An equal sum is invested for 7 years in Scheme A offering simple interest at X% per annum and in scheme B for 2 years offering compound interest at 10% per annum (compounded annually). The interest earned from scheme A is thrice of the interest earned from scheme A is thrice of the interest earned from scheme B. Had the rate of interest been X-4% simple interest per annum in scheme A, the difference in the interest earned from both the schemes would have been Rs 700. What was the sum invested in each of the schemes?

(a) Rs 8000

(b) Rs 5000

(d) Rs 4500

(e) Rs 10000

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 196-200) Refer to the pie-charts and answer the given questions.

196. Number of male members in health clubs A and D increased by equal number from 2008 to 2009. If the respective ratio between number of male members in health club A and that in D is 2009 is 17 : 11, what is the number of male numbers in health club D in 2009?

(a) 308

(b) 352

(d) 396

(e) 330

Answer: (b)

197. What is t he average number of female members in health clubs C, D and E?

(a) 374

(b) 376

(d) 392

(e) 384

Answer: (c)

198. Only 50% of the members (both male and female) in health club E have lifetime membership. If the number of females in health club E who have lifetime membership is 44, what percent of male members in health club E have lifetime membership?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Answer: (d)

199. What is the central angle corresponding to number of members (both male and female) in health club B?

(a) 80.4°

(b) 88.8°

(d) 98.2°

(e) 92.6°

Answer: (c)

200. Number of female members in health club A is what percent less than number of male members in health club B?

(a) 52%

(b) 64%

(d) 62%

(e) 54%

Answer: (e)

Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination Held on 4-9-2016 English Language Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021November 28, 2017 by suresh84

Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination Held on 4-9-2016

English Language

Directions – Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

1. The moment which began to help / the commoners fight /

(A) (B)

against the oppressive regime, eventually / turned into a terrorist organization.

No error

(E)

Answer: (A)

2. The new policies that have / been formulated by the government /

(A) (B)

recently aim at bring in / transparency within the system.

No error

(E)

Answer: (C)

3. All the passengers owed their / life to Jacob as he drove them safely /

(A) (B)

through the hilly road to a / halt; when their car broke down. No error

Answer: (B)

4. Neither Maya nor Kaya could / top this time in the /

(A) (B)

exams as they both got beat / by Harsh, the new entrant. No error

Answer: (C)

5. E-pharmacies are now facing serious roadblocks /

(A)

due to lack of proper regulatory framework, /

(B)

understanding of the sector and / opposition from organized drug traders.

No error

(E)

Answer: (D)

Directions – In this question, there are two statements which can be combined into a single statement in a number of different ways without changing their meaning, Below them are given three probable starters (A), (B) and (C) of such a combined sentence. One, two, three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any and mark the option which denotes your answer. If none of the three starters is suitable, mark, ‘None’ as your answer.

6. Shanghai is supposed to the ‘diamond’ on China’ Silk Road Economic Belt – a new metropolis carved out of the mountains in the country’s northwest. It is shaping up to be fool’s gold, a ghost city in the making.

1. Shanghai is supposed to be the.

2. Instead of being the ‘diamond’ on China’s Silk Road Economic Belt.

3. Because Shanghai is shaping up to the fool’s gold.

(A) Only 1

(B) Both 1 and 2

(D) Only 3

(E) None

Answer: (A)

7. A quieter, cleaner future is not that far away, with more automobile buyers gradually taking to electric vehicles. Even with limited driving range, electric vehicles can successfully replace the bulk of personal cars on roads.

1. It’s a myth that electric vehicles can successfully.

2. In addition to limited driving range.

3. Despite limited driving range, electric vehicles can.

(A) Only 2

(B) Both 1 and 2

(D) Only 1

(E) None

Answer: (C)

8. A survey revealed that consumers think smartphone makers are releasing too many new models each year.

Handset devices are one of the most frequently replaced electronic products.

1. Handset devices are one of the most frequently replaced electronic products.

2. Even though handset devices are replaced every year.

3. While consumers think smartphone makers are releasing too many models each year.

(A) Both 1 and 2

(B) Only 3

(D) Only 1

(E) None

Answer: (D)

Directions – Read the following passage carefully and answer the given question.

There is a parallel universe beyond the confines of China’s banking system : shadow banking. This is where borrowers and industries, shunned by banks, look for funding. Regulators look the other way. Until the early 2000s banks accounted for nearly all lending in China, but in the past five years their share has come down to just three-fifths of all new credit. On a conservative estimate, China’s shadow financing now adds upto 40 trillion Yuan, nearly two-thirds of its GDP. Compared with advanced economies, this is modest. America’s shadow-banking sector is 1.5 times the size of its GDP. But China’s shadow assess have increased by more than 30% annually over the past three years compared with less than 10% for the rest of the world, according to the Financial Stability Board. In theory,, shadow banks seek higher returns but also take care to manage risks. In practice, it often does not work out like that. China’s boom in shadow banking had an innocent enough start. In 2010, regulators reined in bank lending after the credit binge that helped lift the economy out of the global financial crisis. Projects from highways to apartment blocks were left half-finished. To see them through to completion, regulators tolerated an expansion in non-bank financial institutions. It was a workaround that seemed to shift risk away from the banks yet kept credit flowing. The most prominent of the shadow lenders were trust companies, versatile institutions that could lend money and take direct stakes. Trusts charged higher rates of loans than banks and also offered higher returns to their wealthy investors (the minimum investment is 1m Yuan). Today, they hold assets of 16 trillion Yuans, more than the insurance sector. Five year ago, Chinese shadow banking was driven mainly by companies that could not get bank loans. Now it is ordinary people looking for higher returns. It is a vicious cycle. Seeing savers’ insatiable appetite for these products banks feel compelled to create yet more and are straying, distant enough from conventional banking to offer higher rates but close enough that their customers still feel reassured Shadow banking far from being a new kind of efficient lending, has spread hidden risks throughout the economy and regulators buying their heads in the sand harms conventional banks.

9. Which of the following can be said about trust companies ?

(A) These are lucrative but high risk ventures

(B) These are the newest shadow banking entities

(D) These are innovative institutions with an array of sale financial products

(E) None of the given statements can be said about trust companies

Answer: (B)

10. Which of the following aptly descries the tone of the passage ?

(A) Sarcastic

(B) Indifferent

(D) Rational

(E) Compassionate

Answer: (D)

11. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage ?

(A) China’s banking system is more transparent today than in the early 2000s

(B) China’s shadow banking sector is highly regulated and repressed and in need of liberalization

(D) China’s large state-owned traditional banks are a model for developed countries

(E) China’s risk laden banking sector is one the verge of creating a global financial crisis

Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following has/have impacted China’s traditional banking sector ?

1. Regulators distancing themselves from the shadow banking sector.

2. Tightened lending regulations for traditional banks.

3. Growth of online finance.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(D) All 1, 2 and 3

(E) Only 1 and 3

Answer: (C)

13. Which of the following can be used to replace the phrase. “It is a vicious cycle ?”

(A) The most vulnerable do not have access to credit and insurance in China.

(B) Regulators discourage shadow banking thereby amplifying the lack of credit problem.

(D) More and more risky financial products and institutions are springing up owing to demand.

(E) None of the given statements.

Answer: (D)

Directions – The sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

14. In its previous budget, the government ……….. at increasing the Gross Domestic Product ………… enhanced expenditure.

(A) achieved, in

(B) aimed, through

(D) picked, at

(E) annulled, over

Answer: (B)

15. Sources indicate that the primary ………. there have been recent outbreaks of new and unknown diseases ……. the world is deforestation.

(A) reason, across

(B) cause, on

(D) effect, over

(E) source, about

Answer: (A)

16. Video conferencing has become the new face of communication …….. various corporate and is believed to be eating ……… the airline industry’s profitability.

(A) between, up

(B) of, on

(D) across, down

(E) in, into

Answer: (E)

17. Recently, we have heard about many …….. that make us believe that viewing smartphones in the dark ………… be harmful to our eyes.

(A) people, will

(B) cases, should

(D) storeys, would

(E) situation, to

Answer: (C)

18. …… losing his first two sets in the game of tennis against the State champion, Sham remained ………… and finally won the match.

(A) Respite, cool

(B) Before, focussed

(D) Despite, calm

(E) For, thirsty

Answer: (D)

Directions – Read the following passage carefully and answer the question :

Economists agree that foreign trade has afforded big benefits to Britain overall. More recently, as countries like Vietnam and China have become manufacturing giants, consumers have enjoyed cheap imported goods. However, a body of Research on the American company shows that import competition from poor countries can depress the incomes of the low skilled, at least in the short run. Britain’s economy is twice as exposed to foreign trade as America’s. For the period 2000-07, British workers industries that suffered from high levels of import exposure to Chinese products earned less. They also spent more time out of employment than those in other industries. Studies also show that a one standard-deviation increase in import competition worsened rates of mental illness by 1.2 percentage points. Unfortunately the pain tends to be concentrated geographically. In the past decade, the number of over-25s unemployed for more than one year has increased much faster in manufacturing hubs-areas where manufacturing make up more than 20% of the local economy than in areas where it makes up less. On the ground, the result is clear to see these manufacturing centres are fading-left out of Britain’s generally healthy economic growth. It does not have to be this way. The large overall gains from free trade mean it should be possible to compensate its losers. That means ‘trade adjustment assistance’ should work. In Germany, the upgrading the skill of the workforce is the norm and is accomplished through a sophisticated system of apprenticeships. But America’s trade adjustment assistance programme which funds training and support for workers displaced by foreign competition and Britain’s preferred programme, are feeble. In Britain it is supposed to provide training and support when there are mass redundancies. But it is a murky operation, there are almost no data on what it does. In 2008, its budget was pitiful £ 6 m($ 8 m). Data from the OECD, a club mostly of rich countries, suggest that even after accounting for Britain’s low unemployment rate, for years it has been a stingy spender on ‘active’ labour-market policies (i.e., those that seek to improve the skills of the (low-skilled) unemployed, not just let them languish). Until this failure to share the proceeds is corrected, don’t expect opposition to globalization to go away any time soon.

19. According to the passage, which of the following is/are (an) outcome(s) of the present “trade adjustment assistance” ?

1. A large number of low skill individuals in Britain are still unable of find employment.

2. The resistance to globalization of trade will continue in countries like America and Britain.

3. Rise in incomes of highly skilled individuals.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2

(D) All (1), (2) and (3)

(E) Only (1) and (3)

Answer: (C)

20. Which of the following is the author’s view of Britain’s manufacturing hubs ?

(A) These have prospered tremendously with globalization

(B) These are holding their own against manufacturing giants like Vietnam

(D) These are detenorating and dying on account of globalization of trade

(E) These have been shielded from globalization by the government’s projectionist policies

Answer: (D)

21. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) Expanded global trade has benefited some Asian economies.

(B) Economists were caught unawareness by Britain’s exit from the European Union

(D) Globalization of trade has reduced the gap between the have and have not’s in developing countries

(E) None of the given statements is true in the context of the passage

Answer: (A)

22. What do the statistics in the passage convey ?

(A) Effort to compensate workers hurt by globalization contribution to the global financial crisis.

(B) Investment in Education has reduced unemployment in developed countries.

(D) Unemployment benefits are sizeable and very effective in all developed countries

(E) The effects of free trade are sever but not enough is being done to mitigate its impact

Answer: (E)

23. Which of the following best describes experts’ view of foreign trade ?

(A) The reports of the ill-effects of foreign trade are grossly exaggerated

(B) Contrary to perception, opening up of trade has done more harm than good in developing countries

(D) OECD countries have benefitted unduly from foreign trade causing a backlash in developed countries

(E) None of the gives options

Answer: (C)

Directions – In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Shanghai, which already boasts 14 subway lines, a high-speed maglev service, two huge modern airports, some twenty expressways and a bullet-train departure every three minutes, is about to add one more piece of infrastructure – the headquarters of the new BRICS development bank. China is setting up the bank together with the four other members of the BRIC club. Fittingly, the bank will focus on infrastructure (24) to poorer countries. China is also pushing to establish another multilateral creditor, the Asian infrastructure Investment Bank, which, as its name suggests, will (25) on the same thing. With these two new banks, China is exporting a central feature of its development model to the rest of the world. It spent 8.5% of its GDP investing infrastructure from 1992 to 2011. That was more than any other country and well (26) the developing country norm of 2.4% of GDP.

Given China’s growth-its economy expanded seven-fold during that time-the wisdom of investing in infrastructure seems self-evident. Research generally turns up a (27) relationship between infrastructure investment and growth, especially in poorer countries. According to a survey, making Latin America’s infrastructure investment and growth, especially in poorer countries According to a survey, making Latin America’s infrastructure as good as East Asia’s would increase annual growth rates by as much as five percentage points in the countries with the worst roads and phones. Yet it is difficult to isolate the precise effect on growth of any given project. Investment normally gives an immediate (28) to GDP, whether it involves a bridge to nowhere or one to a crowded island. What matters is the long-run impact. Over time, infrastructure can gin up growth in two main ways. It can generate a rise in incomes if reduced transaction costs promote trade. And it can raise growth rates if it leads to greater information sharing and thus improved productivity. But these effects are difficult to (29) because infrastructure investment often (30) with economic growth, casting doubt on causality. Did the new roads boost growth or did faster growth increase demand for them?

24.

(A) supplying

(B) providing

(D) lending

(E) settling

Answer: (D)

25.

(A) intensify

(B) revolve

(D) benefit

(E) concentrate

Answer: (E)

26.

(A) farther

(B) likewise

(D) under

(E) more

Answer: (C)

27.

(A) positive

(B) cold

(D) correlation

(E) faint

Answer: (A)

28.

(A) boon

(B) gloat

(D) augment

(E) charge

Answer: (C)

29.

(A) measure

(B) weight

(D) accord

(E) grant

Answer: (A)

30.

(A) tackles

(B) coincides

(D) squares

(E) supplements

Answer: (B)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination Held on 21-12-2015 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021November 2, 2017 by suresh84

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination

Held on 21-12-2015

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions-(Q. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question :

Data regarding number of graduates studying various courses in University A and that in University B in the year 2001.

(Note : Universities A and B offers six courses only, namely – Commerce, Science, Engineering, Arts, Management and Law).

• In University A, graduates in commerce, science and engineering together constituted 60% of the total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together). Graduates in Arts, Management and Law were 1300, 1440 and 860 respectively. Commerce graduates were 25% more than that of engineering graduates. Management graduates were 20% less than that of science graduates.

• In University B, Commerce graduates were 10% less than the Commerce graduates in University A.

• In University B, Management graduates were 900 and they constituted 12% of the total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together). Also management graduates were 40% less than that of science graduates. Total number of graduates in engineering and Arts together were double the total number of graduates in management and law together.

• Total number of graduates in engineering is equal to total number of graduates in arts.

1. What is the difference between the total number of graduates in management and law together in University A and that in the same courses together in University B ?

(A) 1200

(B) 900

(D) 110

(E) 700

Answer: (B)

2. 3/4th of the number of arts graduates in University A were female. If the number of female arts graduates in University B is less than that in University A by 175, what is the number of male arts graduates in University B ?

(A) 800

(B) 720

(D) 680

(E) 700

Answer: (C)

3. What is the respective ratio between the total number of graduates in engineering and commerce together in University A and that in the same courses together in University B ?

(A) 9 : 8

(B) 5 : 4

(D) 13 : 12

(E) 9 : 5

Answer: (A)

4. Number of science graduates in University B is what per cent less than that in University A ?

(A)

(B) 25

(D)

(E)

Answer: (A)

5. Total number of graduates (in all the given six courses together) in University A, was what per cent more than that in University B ?

(A) 10

(B) 20

(D) 30

(E) 15

Answer: (B)

6. In a village, 80% registered voters cast their votes in the election. Only two candidates (A and B) are contesting the election. A won the election by 400 votes. Had A received 12.5% less votes, the result would have been different. How many registered voters are there in the village ?

(A) 4200

(B) 4500

(D) 4250

(E) 3500

Answer: (C)

7. Area of a rectangle is 96 metre sq. When the length of the same rectangle increased by 6 metre and the breadth decreased by 3 metre,, then the area of the rectangle decreases by 30 metre sq. What is the perimeter of a square whose sides are equal to the length of rectangle ?

(A) 48 m

(B) 60 m

(D) 64 m

(E) 52 m

Answer: (D)

8. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio 3 : 1. 32 litres of mixture was taken out and replaced with the same quantity of milk so that the resultant ratio between the quantities of milk and water in the mixture was 4 : 1 respectively. If 10 litres of mixture is again taken out from the vessel, what is the resultant quantity of water in the mixture ? (in litres)

(A) 24

(B) 30

(D) 36

(E) 32

Answer: (B)

Note :

(i) Strike rate = (Total runs scored / Total balls faced) × 100

(ii) All the given batsman could bat in all the given matches played by them.

(iii) Few values are missing in the table (indicate by-). A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question, on the basis of the given data and information.

9. If the runs scored by R in last 3 matches of the tournament are not considered, his average runs scored in the tournament will decrease by 9, if the runs scored by R in the 22nd and 23rd match are below 140 and no two scores among these 3 scores are equal, what is the minimum possible runs scored by R in the 24th match ?

(A) 65

(B) 85

(D) 60

(E) 75

Answer: (A)

10. The respective ratio between total number of balls faced by O and that by Q in the tournament is 5 : 3. Total number of runs scored by Q in the tournament is what per cent less than the total number of runs scored by O in the tournament ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Answer: (E)

11. Batsman M faced equal number of balls in first 11 matches he played in the tournament and last 11 matches he played in the tournament. If his strike rate in first 11 matches and last 11 matches of the tournament are 83 and 71 respectively, what is the total number of balls faces by him in the tournament ?

(A) 1800

(B) 1500

(D) 1600

(E) 1400

Answer: (D)

12. In the tournament, the total number of balls faced by batsmen N is 402 less than the total number of runs scored by him. What is the average number of runs scored by batsman N in the tournament ?

(A) 64

(B) 54

(D) 68

(E) 70

Answer: (A)

13. What is the number of matches played by batsman P in the tournament ?

(A) 16

(B) 28

(D) 21

(E) 24

Answer: (B)

14. A, B and C started a business with investments of Rs 1600, Rs 2000 and Rs 1800 respectively. After 6 months from the start of the business, A invested Rs 200 more. After 8 months from the start of the business, B and C invested additional amounts in the respective of 4 : 1. If they received an annual profit of Rs 3550 and A’s share in the profit is Rs 1020 what was the additional amount that C invested ?

(A) Rs 250

(B) Rs 300

(D) Rs 800

(E) Rs 100

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 15-19) In this question, a number series is given. Only one number is wrong which doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number ?

15. 10 4 3 5 6 15 41

(A) 3

(B) 15

(D) 6

(E) 3.5

Answer: (B)

16. 5040 720 120 24 6 3 1

(A) 3

(B) 6

(D) 720

(E) 24

Answer: (A)

17. 140 157 193 242 310 395 497

(A) 395

(B) 193

(D) 242

(E) 157

Answer: (B)

18. 150 148 143 133 116 80 53

(A) 133

(B) 116

(D) 148

(E) 143

Answer: (C)

19. 5 4 6 15 56 285 1644

(A) 56

(B) 285

(D) 15

(E) 4

Answer: (B)

20. Three years ago, Raj’s age was equal to the sum of present ages of his one son and one daughter. Three years ago, the respective ratio between the ages of his daughter and his son that time was 12 : 13. If Raj’s wife is 5 years younger to him and her present age is twice the present age of their daughter, what is the present age of their son ? (in years)

(A) 27 years

(B) 24 years

(D) 26 years

(E) 25 years

Answer: (C)

21. A car costs a dealer Rs 50,000. The dealer raised the price by Rs 13,000 and then deducted 1/7th of the new price. What percentage of the original cost was the car sold for ?

(A) 108%

(B) 90%

(D) 110%

(E) 115%

Answer: (A)

22. Boat A travels upstream from Point X to Point Y in 2 hours more than the time taken by Boat B to travel downstream from Point Y to Point Z. The distance between X and Y is 40 km and that distance between Y and Z is 24 km. The speed of Boat B in still water is 10 km/h and the speed of Boat A in still water is equal to the speed of Boat B downstream. What is the speed of Boat A still water ? Consider the speed of the current to be the same.

(A) 20 km/h

(B) 10 km/h

(D) 14 km/h

(E) 8 km/h

Answer: (C)

23. An equal sum is invested for seven years in Scheme A offering simple interest at X% p.a. and in scheme B for two years offering compound interest at 10% p.a. (compounded annually). The interest earned from scheme A is thrice of the interest earned from scheme B. Had the rate of interest been X – 4% simple interest per annum in scheme A, the difference in the interest earned from both the schemes would have been Rs 700. What was the sum invested in each of the schemes ?

(A) Rs 8000

(B) Rs 5000

(D) Rs 4500

(E) Rs 10000

Answer: (E)

24. Ganesh, Ram and Sohan together can do a work in 16 days. If Ganesh and Ram together can do the same work in 24 days then, how long will take Sohan alone to do the same work ?

(A) 42 days

(B) 24 days

(D) 48 days

(E) 50 days

Answer: (D)

25. The difference between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the position of the digits is 45. What is the difference between the digits of that number ?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 7

(E) 9

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 26-30) Refer to the pie-chart and answer the given questions.

26. Number of male members in health clubs A and D increased by equal number from 2008 to 2009. If the respective ratio between number of male members in health club A and that in D in 2009 is 17 : 11, what is the number of male members in health club D in 2009 ?

(A) 308

(B) 352

(D) 396

(E) 330

Answer: (B)

27. What is the average number of female members in health clubs C, D and E ?

(A) 374

(B) 376

(D) 392

(E) 384

Answer: (C)

28. Only 50% of the members (both male & female) in health club E have lifetime membership. If the number of females in health club E who have lifetime membership is 44, what per cent of male members, in health club E, have lifetime membership ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Answer: (D)

29. What is the central angle corresponding to number of members (both male & female) in health club B?

(A) 80.4°

(B) 88.8°

(D) 98.2°

(E) 92.6°

Answer: (C)

30. Number of female members in health club A is what per cent less than number of male members in health club B ?

(A) 52

(B) 64

(D) 62

(E) 54

Answer: (E)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination Held on 21-12-2015 General Awareness Question Paper With Answer Key

January 8, 2021November 2, 2017 by suresh84

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination

Held on 21-12-2015

General Awareness

1. The ‘Amer Palace’ also known as the ‘Amber Palace’ is located in Amer, a town which is situated close to the India city of-

(A) Udaipur, Rajasthan

(B) Jaipur, Rajasthan

(D) Agra, Uttar Pradesh

(E) Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (B)

2. Domestically developed torpedo system dubbed as ‘Valfajr’ has recently been test fired at-

(A) Indonesia

(B) Israel

(D) Iran

(E) Iraq

Answer: (D)

3. Non-Banking financial intermedianes that provide services similar to traditional commercial banks outside the regulatory control of the central banks known as the-

(A) Local area banks

(B) Corporative banks

(D) Private banks

(E) Non-schedule banks

Answer: (C)

4. According to Census 2011, the total number for working children in the age group of 5-14 years in the country was found to be around-

(A) 83.53 lacs

(B) 93.53 lacs

(D) 43.53 lacs

(E) 53.53 lacs

Answer: (D)

5. The ‘Harmindar Sahib’ also known as Darbar Sahib is a Holy Sikh Gurudwara located in the city of-

(A) Nanhed, Maharashtra

(B) Amritsar, Punjab

(D) Karnal, Karyana

(E) New Delhi

Answer: (B)

6. The ratio of deposits in current and savings account to total deposits of a bank is known as-

(A) Capital Adequacy ratio

(B) NPA ratio

(D) CD ratio

(E) CASA ratio

Answer: (E)

7. The ‘Shishu Scheme’ under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) offers maximum loan up to-

(A) Rs 1,00,000

(B) Rs 50,000

(D) Rs 5,00,000

(E) Rs 75,000

Answer: (B)

8. The term SIFI is used in financial world for those entities which are considered ‘To big to fail’. The alphabet S in the abbreviation SIFI stands for-

(A) Systematically

(B) Serious

(D) Sound

(E) Salient

Answer: (A)

9. ‘Malabar 2015’ was a high end war fighting navel exercise which was recently conducted by the navies of India, USA and-

(A) Japan

(B) Australia

(D) China

(E) Germany

Answer: (A)

10. ‘Abhishek Verma’ has recently won India’s first world cup in-

(A) Archery

(B) Aquatics

(D) Air Racing

(E) Athletics

Answer: (A)

11. The 2015 Nobel Prize for economics has been conferred upon-

(A) Angus Deaton

(B) Tomas Llndai

(D) William Campbell

(E) Arthur B. Mcdonald

Answer: (A)

12. The foundation stone of India’s first dedicated mobile manufactured electronics cluster has recently been laid at-

(A) Bengaluru, Karnataka

(B) Gurgaon, Haryana

(D) Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh

(E) Pampri Pune, Maharashtra

Answer: (D)

13. The winner of the 2015 Denmark open Badminton women’ single Title is-

(A) PV Sindhu of India

(B) Wang Xiauli of China

(D) Li Xuerui of China

(E) Saina Nehwal of India

Answer: (D)

14. According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, payment banks are not permitted to-

(A) Set up branches/ATMs

(B) Undertake utility bill payment services

(D) Distribute insurance/mutual fund/pension products

(E) Undertake non-banking financial services through subsidies

Answer: (E)

15. The Aadhaar based ‘digital-life certificate’ for pensioners is known as the-

(A) Jeevan Anand

(B) Jeevan Akshay

(D) Jeevan Tarun

(E) Jeevan Raksha

Answer: (C)

16. IDF is a debt instrument set up by the finance ministry in order to channelize long term funds into infrastructure projects which require long-term stable capital investments. The alphabet F in the abbreviation IDF stands for-

(A) Fund

(B) Fiscal

(D) Floating

(E) Fixed

Answer: (A)

17. The largest producer of coffee in the world is-

(A) Brazil

(B) Vietnam

(D) USA

(E) Cambodia

Answer: (A)

18. South Asian Rugby 7’s championship 2016 shall be held in-

(A) Nepal

(B) Sri Lanka

(D) Bhutan

(E) Pakistan

Answer: (C)

19. The HRIDAY scheme has been launched by the government of India in January 2015 with the aim of holistic development of-

(A) IT/Its outsourcing cities

(B) Specials economic zones

(D) Industrial cities

(E) Medical tourism centres

Answer: (C)

20. The interest rates on the Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) for the financial year 2015-16 has been enhanced to-

(A) 9.7 per cent

(B) 9.3 per cent

(D) 8.7 per cent

(E) 9.5 per cent

Answer: (B)

21. According to the regional Rural (amendment) act 2015 the cap on authorized capital of RRBs has now been raised from Rs 5 crore to-

(A) Rs 2000 crore

(B) Rs 500 crore

(D) Rs 1500 crore

(E) Rs 1000 crore

Answer: (A)

22. The ‘Tansen Sangeet Smaroh’ is a four day musical extravaganza organized every year in the month of December by the Government of Madhya Pradesh in Behal village of-

(A) Khandwa district

(B) Ratlam district

(D) Gwalior district

(E) Indore district

Answer: (D)

23. Hindustan Antibiotics Limited (HAL) is the first public sector drug manufacturing company set up by the Government of India in-

(A) Hyderabad, Telangana

(B) Anakleshwar, Gujarat

(D) Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh

(E) Pimpri, Maharashtra

Answer: (E)

24. The term which is used to describe a situation of decrease in the general price of goods and services is-

(A) Stagflation

(B) Stagnation

(D) Other than those given as options

(E) Deflation

Answer: (E)

25. External Affairs Minnister Shrimati Sushma Swaraj recently visited Berlin, the capital of-

(A) Germany

(B) Republic of Ireland

(D) France

(E) Portugal

Answer: (A)

26. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is one of the specialized agencies of the United Nations. Its headquartered in-

(A) Geneva, Switzerland

(B) Brussels, Belgium

(D) Berlin, Germany

(E) Vienna, Austria

Answer: (A)

27. The capital of the Indian state of Chhattisgarh is-

(A) Raipur

(B) Raigarh

(D) Jagdalpur

(E) None of these

Answer: (A)

28. The Harvard Foundation’s 2015 Humanitarian of the Year Award has been conferred upon-

(A) Malala Yousufzai

(B) Bill Gates

(D) Mia Farrow

(E) Kailash Satyarthi

Answer: (A)

29. Which of the following is a skill development scheme to help minority girls ?

(A) Nai Manzil

(B) Swabhimaan

(D) Jiyo Parsi

(E) Other than those given as options

Answer: (A)

30. India’s first private Greenfield Airport has recently commended commercial operations at-

(A) Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh

(B) Kochi, Kerala

(D) Durgapur, West Bengal

(E) Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (D)

31. The host country of the Common wealth Heads of Governments Meeting 2015 (CHOGM 2015) is-

(A) Mali

(B) Myanmar

(D) Maldives

(E) Mauritius

Answer: (C)

32. The author of book ‘The Inheritance of Loss’ which has won a number of awards since its publication in 20036 including the Man Booker Prize is-

(A) Anita Desai

(B) Arundhati Roy

(D) Kiran Desai

(E) Kamal Desai

Answer: (D)

33. The present day Indian State of Karnataka was originally known as the-

(A) Madhya Bharat

(B) State of Mangalore

(D) United Province

(E) State of Madras

Answer: (C)

34. Which of the following stock exchanges with a median response

(A) NYSE (New York State Exchange)

(B) NSE (National Stock Exchange of India)

(D) LSEG (London Stock Exchange Group)

(E) BSE Limited (Bombay Stock Exchange)

Answer: (E)

35. ‘Brijmohan Lall Munjal’ who recently passed away at the age of 92 was the founder of-

(A) Other than those given as options

(B) Hero Motorcorp

(D) Kinetic Engineering Limited

(E) Essar Limited

Answer: (B)

36. The interdisciplinary research centre ‘National Chemical Laboratory’ (NCL) is a constituent member of the CSIR. It is situated in-

(A) Jamnagar, Gujarat

(B) Solan, Himachal Pradesh

(D) Bengaluru, Karnataka

(E) Pune, Maharashtra

Answer: (E)

37. Pakistan has recently signed a major agreement to build a 1, 110km gas pipeline from Lahore to Karachi with an investment of USD 2 Billion from-

(A) Japan

(B) China

(D) USA

(E) Russia

Answer: (E)

38. The ‘Financial Stability Report’ is issued on a half-yearly basis by-

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) World Economic Forum

(D) NITI Aayog

(E) World Bank

Answer: (A)

39. The first individual to have received the ‘Bharat Ratna’ posthumously was-

(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(B) Dr. Dhondo Keshav Karve

(D) Madan Mohan Malaviya

(E) Mother Teresa

Answer: (A)

40. The ‘Ravi’ is a transboundary river flowing through North-western India and-

(A) Afghanistan

(B) Pakistan

(D) Other than those given as options

(E) Tajikistan

Answer: (B)

41. Who amongst the following is the present Captain of the Indian Women’s National Hockey Team ?

(A) Ritu Rani

(B) Suraj Lata Devi

(D) Other than those given as options

(E) Mamta Kharab

Answer: (A)

42. The famous ‘Haji Ali Dargah’ is a mosque and Dargah (tomb) located on an inset off the coast in-

(A) Chennai, Tamil Nadu

(B) Mangalore, Karnataka

(D) Kandla Port, Gujarat

(E) Marmagao Port, Goa

Answer: (C)

43. The Minimum Permissible Investment in the Sovereign Gold Bonds 2015’ is 2 grams and the maximum buying limit is ……. in a year.

(A) 50 grams

(B) 250 grams

(D) 150 grams

(E) 500 grams

Answer: (E)

44. Which of the following former Governors of the Reserve Bank of India has also served as the Finance minister ?

(A) Dr. C. Rangrajan

(B) Shri L. K. Jha

(D) Dr. I. G. Patel

(E) Sir C. D. Deshmukh

Answer: (E)

45. The 7,500 tonne guided-missile destroyer INS Kochi packed with weapons and sensors which was commissioned on September 30, 2015 ?

(A) Mazagaon Docks Limited, Mumbai

(B) Hindustan Shipyard Limited, Vishakhapatnam

(D) Goa Shipyard Limited, Goa

(E) Bharati Shipyard Limited, Mumbai

Answer: (A)

46. The ‘Sunderbans’ is a National Park and a World Heritage Site, is situated in the Indian State of-

(A) Assam

(B) West Bengal

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) Meghalaya

Answer: (B)

47. According to a recent survey conducted by the World Economic Forum (WEF), the most admired personality globally is-

(A) Barack Obama

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Nelson Mandela

(E) Narendra Modi

Answer: (D)

48. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank established in 1966. It is headquartered in-

(A) Shanghai, China

(B) Other than those given as options

(D) Kathmandu, Nepal

(E) Jakarta, Indonesia

Answer: (C)

49. Which of the following is the minimum lending rate which the banks can charge their customers ?

(A) Reverse Repo Rate

(B) Other than those given as options

(D) Base Rate

(E) Repo Rate

Answer: (D)

50. The facility wherein account holders name a person to whom the money lying their account should be given in the event of their death is known as-

(A) Entrustment

(B) Designation

(D) Nomination

(E) Registration

Answer: (D)

51. Which of the following taxes has been abolished as per budget, 2015 ?

(A) Customs Duty

(B) Wealth Tax

(D) Entertainment Tax

(E) Service Tax

Answer: (B)

52. The Mobile Wallet services ‘M-Pesa’ has been introduced by Vodafone in partnership with-

(A) Visa Inc

(B) Master Card Inc

(D) American Express Co.

(E) NPCI

Answer: (C)

RBI Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination Held on 21-11-2015 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021November 1, 2017 by suresh84

RBI Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination Held on 21-11-2015

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions-(Q. 1-5) In this question, a number series is given. Only one number is wrong which doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number.

1. 3 6 10 16 21 28

(A) 16

(B) 10

(D) 28

(E) 21

Answer: (A)

2. 10080 1440 240 48 12 3 2

(A) 240

(B) 3

(D) 48

(E) 12

Answer: (B)

3. 1 2 6 21 88 505 2676

(A) 21

(B) 6

(D) 505

(E) 88

Answer: (D)

4. 18 21 25 35 52 78 115

(A) 25

(B) 21

(D) 35

(E) 52

Answer: (B)

5. 120 137 178 222 290 375 477

(A) 178

(B) 137

(D) 375

(E) 222

Answer: (A)

6. Area of a rectangle is 150 metre sq. When the breadth of the same rectangle is increased by 2 meter and the length decreased by 5 metre, the area of the rectangle decreases by 30 metre square. What is the perimeter of the square whose sides are equal to the length of the rectangle ?

(A) 76 m

(B) 72 m

(D) 80 m

(E) 60 m

Answer: (E)

7. A, B and C started a business with investments of Rs 4200, Rs 3600 and Rs 2400 respectively. After 4 months from the start of the business, A invested Rs 1000 more. After 6 months from the start of the business, B and C invested additional amounts in the respective ratio of 1 : 2. If at the end of 10 months they received a profit of Rs 2820 and A’s share in the profit was Rs 1200, what was the additional amount that B invested?

(A) Rs 800

(B) Rs 200

(D) Rs 600

(E) Rs 400

Answer: (E)

8. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 5 : 1. 24 litres of mixture was taken out and replaced with the same quantity of milk so that the resultant ratio between the quantities of milk and water in the mixture was 13 : 2 respectively. If 15 litres of the mixture is again taken out from the vessel, what is the resultant quantity of milk in the mixture (in litres) ?

(A) 97

(B) 89

(D) 99

(E) 84

Answer: (C)

Directions – (Q. 9-13) Refer to the table and answer the given question.

Note :

(i) Strike rate = (Total runs scored/Total balls faced) × 100

(ii) All the given batsman could bat in all the given matches played by them.

(iii) Few values are missing in the table (indicated by …) A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question, on the basis of the given data and information.

9. The respective ratio between total number of balls faced by D and that by f in the tournament is 3 : 4. Total number of runs scored by F in the tournament is what per cent more than the total runs scored by D in the tournament?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Answer: (A)

10. If the runs scored by E in last 3 matches of the tournament are not considered,, his average runs scored in the tournament will decrease by 9. If the runs scored by E in the 26th and 27th match are below 128 and no two scores among these 3 scores are equal, what are the minimum possible runs scored by E in the 28th match?

(A) 137

(B) 135

(D) 133

(E) 139

Answer: (A)

11. In the tournament, the total number of balls faced by batsman A is 74 less than the total number of runs scored by him. What is the average run scored by batsman A in the tournament?

(A) 42.5

(B) 39.5

(D) 44

(E) 40.5

Answer: (E)

12. Batsman B faced equal number of balls in first 10 matches he played in the tournament and last 10 matches he played in the tournament. If his strike rate in first 10 matches and last 10 matches of the tournament are 120 and 150 respectively, what is the total number of balls faced by him in the tournament?

(A) 1150

(B) 1400

(D) 1000

(E) 1500

Answer: (C)

13. What is the number of matches played by batsman C in the tournament ?

(A) 10

(B) 16

(D) 18

(E) 8

Answer: (C)

14. 10 men can complete a project in 12 days, 12 children can complete the same project in 16 days and 8 women can complete the same project in 20 days. 5 men and 12 children started working on the project. If after 4 days, 8 children were placed by 4 women. In how many days the remaining project was completed?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Answer: (E)

15. In a village, 60% registered voters cast their votes in the election. Only two candidates (A and B) were contesting the election. A won the election by 600 votes. Had B received 40% more votes, the result would have been a tie. How many registered voters are there in the village ?

(A) 4000

(B) 3500

(D) 3250

(E) 3750

Answer: (B)

16. Eight years ago, Poorvi’s age was equal to the sum of the present ages of her one son and one daughter. Five years hence, the respective ratio between the ages of her daughter and her son that time will be 7 : 6. If Poorvi’s husband is 7 years elder to her and his present age is three times the present age of their son, what is the present age of the daughter (in years) ?

(A) 15 years

(B) 23 years

(D) 27 years

(E) 13 years

Answer: (B)

17. Boat A travels downstream from Point X to Point Y in 3 hours less than the time taken by Boat B to travel upstream from Point Y to Point Z. The distance between X and Y is 20 km, which is half of the distance between Y and Z. The speed of Boat B in still water is 10 km/h and the speed of Boat A in still water is equal to the speed of Boat B upstream. What is the speed of Boat A in still water ? (Consider the speed of the current to be the same.) ?

(A) 10 km/h

(B) 16 km/h

(D) 8 km/h

(E) 15 km/h

Answer: (D)

Directions – (Q. 18-22) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions-

Data regarding number of application received for various courses in University A and that in University B in the year 2001.

(Note : Universities A and B offer courses in six courses only, namely – Commerce, Science, Engineering, Arts, Management and Law.)

• In University A, applications received for Commerce, science and engineering together constituted 70% of the total number of applications received (for all the given courses together). Applications received for Arts, management and law were 800, 750 and 400 respectively. Applications received for management were 40% less than that for engineering. Applications received for Commerce were 20% more than that for science.

• In University B, applications received for science were 20% less than that for science in University A.

• In University B, applications received for Arts were 780 and they constituted 15% of the total number of applications received (for all given courses together). Also the applications received for arts were 40% less than that received for commerce. Total number of applications received for engineering and management together, were double the total number of applications received for arts and law together. Applications received for engineering were equal to t hat for management.

18. What is the respective ratio between the total number of applications received for Engineering and science together in University A and that for the same courses together in University B?

(A) 50 : 47

(B) 65 : 53

(D) 55 : 42

(E) 43 : 36

Answer: (D)

19. Number of applications received for only commerce in University B is what per cent less than that in University A ?

(A) 30

(B)

(D) 15

(E)

Answer: (B)

20. 5/8th of the number of applications for Arts in University A were by female applicants for the same course in University B is less than that in University A by 120, what is the number of male applicants for Arts in University B ?

(A) 500

(B) 420

(D) 360

(E) 400

Answer: (E)

21. Total number of applicants (for all the given six sources together) received by University A, was what per cent more than that in University B ?

(A) 25

(B) 10

(D) 25

(E) 30

Answer: (A)

22. What is the difference between the total number of applications received for management and law together in University A and that for same courses together in University B ?

(A) 210

(B) 150

(D) 80

(E) 170

Answer: (C)

Directions – (Q. 23-27) Refer to the pie charts and answer the given questions-

23. Only 25% of the members (both male and female) in health club D have lifetime membership. If the number of females in health club D who have lifetime membership is 126, what per cent of male members in health club D have lifetime membership?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Answer: (D)

24. What is t he average number of female members in health clubs A, B and C ?

(A) 564

(B) 572

(D) 548

(E) 588

Answer: (A)

25. Number of male members in health clubs A and C increased by equal number from 2011 to 2012. If the respective ratio between number of male numbers in health club A and that in C in 2012 is 13 : 10, what is the number of male members in health club C in 2012 ?

(A) 690

(B) 750

(D) 740

(E) 760

Answer: (C)

26. What is the central angle corresponding to number of (both male and female) in health club B ?

(A) 118.8°

(B) 112.6°

(D) 116.4°

(E) 1284°

Answer: (A)

27. Number of female members in health club E is what per cent less than number of male members in health club B ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Answer: (A)

28. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hr. less than Sameer. What is the speed of Abhay ?

(A) 5 kmph

(B) 6 kmph

(D) 7.5 kmph

(E) None of the above

Answer: (A)

29. Ram bought two articles A and B at a total cost of Rs 8000. He sold article A at 20% profit and article B at 12% loss. In the whole deal he made no gain and no loss. At what price should Ram have sold article B to make an overall profit of 25% ?

(A) Rs 5200

(B) Rs 5800

(D) Rs 6200

(E) Rs 4260

Answer: (C)

30. An equal sum is invested for six years in scheme A offering simple interest at X% p.a. and in Scheme B for two years offering compound interest at 10% p.a. (compounded annually). The interest earned from Scheme A is double the interest earned from Scheme B. Had the rate of interest been X + 2% simple interest p.a. in scheme A, the difference in the interests earned from both the schemes would have been Rs 3960, what was the sum invested in each of the scheme?

(A) Rs 10000

(B) Rs 20000

(D) Rs 18000

(E) Rs 15000

Answer: (C)

Reserve Bank of India Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination Held on 4-9-2016 General Awareness Question Paper With Answer Key

January 6, 2021August 9, 2017 by suresh84

Reserve Bank of India Officers Grade ‘B’ Examination-2016

Held on 4-9-2016

General Awareness

1. The Reserve Bank of India has recently set up a committee to study Indian household financing pattern and why they spend large sum of money on gold. he panel is headed by-

(A) Tarun Khanna

(B) Tarun Ramadorai

(D) Tarun Bandopadhyay

(E) Taru Jain

Answer: (B)

2. The ‘Hopman Cup’ is associated with the game of-

(A) Football

(B) Cricket

(D) Hockey

(E) Badminton

Answer: (C)

3. The ‘CGFMU’ is a Credit Guarantee Fund for guaranteeing loans sanctioned under the-

(A) OMJY Scheme

(B) PMGSY Scheme

(D) PMMY Scheme

(E) PMRY Scheme

Answer: (D)

4. ‘Aadiperukku’ commonly known as the ‘Aadi Monson Festival’ is celebrated during months of July/August in the Indian State of-

(A) Karnataka

(B) Tamil Nadu

(D) Telangana

(E) Kerala

Answer: (B)

5. Pandit Lachhu Maharaj who recently (July 2016) dies at the age of 72 in Varanasi was renowned-

(A) Shehnai Ustad

(B) Sarangi Guru

(D) Thumri Exponent

(E) Sarod Player

Answer: (C)

6. ‘Andy Murray’ is associated with the game of-

(A) Hockey

(B) Cricket

(D) Lawn Tennis

(E) Football

Answer: (D)

7. With a view to curb illegal wealth in the economy, the Special Investigation Team (SIT) on black money has recommended ban on cash transactions of-

(A) Rs. 1 lac and above

(B) Rs. 2 lac and above

(D) Rs. 3 lac and above

(E) Rs. 2.5 lac and above

Answer: (D)

8. According to the Census 2011, the Indian State which had the best Sex (male-female) ratio of 1,084 females for 1000 is-

(A) Chhattisgarh

(B) Tamil Nadu

(D) Odisha

(E) Punjab

Answer: (C)

9. The set up of India’s very own GPS has been completed recently (April, 2016) with the launch of the seventh navigation satellite-

(A) IRNSS-1D

(B) IRNSS-1F

(D) IRNSS-1B

(E) IRNSS-1E

Answer: (C)

10. The ‘Atal Pension Yojana’ (APY) is a scheme focused on workers in the unorganized sector. The minimum period of contribution by the subscribers under the scheme is at least-

(A) 22 years

(B) 20 years

(D) 16 years

(E) 18 years

Answer: (E)

11. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently (July, 2016) set up an inter-regulatory working digital banking in India. The group is headed (Chairman) by-

(A) Sudarshan Sen

(B) U.S. Paliwal

(D) MD Patra

(E) D.K. Mohanty

Answer: (A)

12. The 2016 SAARC interior Minister’s conference was recently (August 2016) held in-

(A) Dhaka, Bangladesh

(B) Islamabad, Pakistan

(D) Karachi, Pakistan

(E) New Delhi, India

Answer: (B)

13. The Central Government has approved Rs. 1601 crore skill development initiative ‘Himayat’ to train 1.24 lac youths in vocational courses in the Indian state of-

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) West Bengal

(D) Telangana

(E) Jammu & Kashmir

Answer: (E)

14. The government has constituted a committee to study the feasibility of adopting a new financial year. The committee is headed by-

(A) Ashok Lahiri

(B) Rakesh Mohan

(D) Arvind Varmani

(E) Kaushik Basu

Answer: (C)

15. RBI has asked banks to pay interest on Savings banks account on-

(A) Annual durations

(B) Quarterly or shorter duration

(D) Once in three quarters

(E) Half-yearly basis in June and December

Answer: (B)

16. The ‘2016 Kabaddi World Cup’ shall be hosted by-

(A) Korea

(B) Bangladesh

(D) Pakistan

(E) Kenya

Answer: (C)

17. The Indian celebrity who has recently (July 2016) been named as the face of the ‘City Compost Campaign’ by the Urban Development Ministry is-

(A) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan

(B) Aamir Khan

(D) Ajay Jadeja

(E) Anil Ambani

Answer: (C)

18. State Bank of India (SBI) has recently unveiled a new home loan scheme as ‘SBI Privilege Home Loan’ wherein the loan can be repaid till 75 years of age. The scheme specifically addresses the home loan needs of the-

(A) Government employees

(B) Employees of multinationals

(D) Non-Resident Indians

(E) None of the given as options

Answer: (A)

19. The recently released book ‘Courage and Commitment : An Autobiography’ is written by the former Union Miniser-

(A) Natwar Singh

(B) Margaret Alwa

(D) P. Chidambaram

(E) Sharad Pawar

Answer: (B)

20. The initial plantation drive under the ‘National Green Highway Mission’ (NGHM) was recently (July, 2016) launched by Union Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Goadkari in-

(A) Kolkata

(B) Chennai

(D) Nagpur

(E) Mumbai

Answer: (C)

21. India has recently (July 2016) signed a USD 1 billion deal for purchasing 4 additional P-81 (Poseidon Eight India) long-range maritime patrol aircraft from the aerospace major Boeing based in-

(A) Germany

(B) France

(D) England

(E) Italy

Answer: (C)

22. Since 1980, ‘September 27’, every year is observed as the-

(A) World Literacy Day

(B) World Tourism Day

(D) World Mathematics Day

(E) World Children Day

Answer: (B)

23. The first Indian ‘Union territory that has recently announced formation of ‘Swachh Bal Senas’ to ensure that children functions as watchdogs of cleanliness and prevent elders from littering streets is-

(A) Andaman and Nicobar

(B) NCT of Delhi

(D) Chandigarh

(E) Puducherry

Answer: (E)

24. The ‘Brabourne Cricket Stadium’ is situated in-

(A) Birmingham, England

(B) Mumbai, Maharashtra

(D) Jamaica, West Indies

(E) Adelaide, Australia

Answer: (B)

25. The ‘ease of doing business index’ is an index created by the-

(A) World Health Organization

(B) World Customs Organization

(D) World Bank Group

(E) World Trade Organization

Answer: (D)

26. The 122 Constitutional Amendment Bill was recently approved by the Lok-Sabha with all 443 members voting in favour of the bill. The bill was released-

(A) Goods and Service Tax (GST)

(B) Right to Education (RTE)

(D) Levy of Central Service Tax (CST)

(E) Local Body Taxes (LBT)

Answer: (A)

27. India’s first integrated ‘Water Metro’ transportation project has recently (July, 2016) been launched in the Indian city of-

(A) Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh

(B) Kochi, Kerala

(D) Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh

(E) Haridwar, Uttarkhand

Answer: (B)

28. The theme of 2016 World Hepatitis Day is-

(A) Hepatitis : Think Again

(B) More must be done to stop this silent killer

(D) Prevention of viral hepatitis : Act not

(E) ELIMINATION

Answer: (E)

29. The operation ‘Sankat Mochan’ was undertaken by the Government of India for evacuation of its citizens from-

(A) Syria

(B) Saudi Arabia

(D) South Sudan

(E) Iraq

Answer: (D)

30. In a breakthrough in military aviation technology, its largest indigenously-built transport aircraft Y-20 (July, 2016) has recently been inducted by-

(A) Russia

(B) United Kingdom

(D) France

(E) Pakistan

Answer: (C)

31. The ‘International Court of Justice’, the principal judicial branch of United Nations (UN) is situated in-

(A) Washington DC, USA

(B) Strasbourg, France

(D) Geneva, Switzerland

(E) The Hague, Netherlands

Answer: (E)

32. Under the interest subvention scheme, farmers can get loan a period of one year at concessional Interest rate. The upper limit for such loans however is-

(A) Rs. 3.5 lac

(B) Rs. 4 lac

(D) Rs. 3 lac

(E) Rs. 4.5 lac

Answer: (D)

33. The ‘Niglutrum’ is the currency of-

(A) Kingdom of Thailand

(B) Republic of Nepal

(D) Republic of Myanmar

(E) Malaysia

Answer: (C)

34. The proposed long-distance, fully unreserved, superfast train service, for the common man, to be operated on dense routes shall be known as-

(A) Antyodya Express

(B) Uday Express

(D) Tejas

(E) Udrisht

Answer: (A)

35. Under the 4th tranche of the Gold Bond scheme opened in July 2016, the price for gold has been fixed at Rs. 3,119 per gram and the maximum subscription ceiling is retained at-

(A) 200 gm per person

(B) 300 gm per person

(D) 500 gm per person

(E) 600 gm per person

Answer: (D)

36. The ‘Small Industries Development Bank of India’ (SIDBI) is headquartered in-

(A) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh

(B) Ahmedabad, Gujarat

(D) Hyderabad, Telangana

(E) New Delhi, Delhi

Answer: (A)

37. The high-level committee formed to prepare road map for the restricting of the University Grants Commission (UGC) and All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) is headed by-

(A) Arvind Panagariya

(B) Amitabh Kant

(D) Amit Mitra

(E) Arvind Subramanian

Answer: (A)

38. In a bad to foster curiosity, creativity and imagination among youth innovators, NITI Aayog proposes to set up the Atal Tinkering Labs (ATL). For the first 10 such ATLs, It has recently (July, 2016) signed a two y ear statement of intent (SOI) with tech-giant-

(A) Wipro

(B) Tata Consultancy Service

(D) Intel India

(E) HCL technologies

Answer: (D)

39. The ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India is aimed at-

(A) Linking of all major rivers

(B) Motor able roads all over the country

(D) Full immunization of all children in the country

(E) Round the clock power supply to rural areas

Answer: (D)

40. The microfinance institutions (MFI) registered as Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFC) are presently regulated by-

(A) SEBI

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(D) NABARD

(E) SIDBI

Answer: (B)

41. According to recent (July, 2016) ……. is introducing the facility of ‘Paperless SIP’ (Systematic Investment Plans) that would allow mutual fund investors to make transaction through various modes of payments.

(A) National Commodity and Derivates Exchange of India (NCDEX)

(B) Multi Commodity Exchange of Indian (MCS) Limited

(D) OTC Exchange of India (OTCEI)

(E) National Stock Exchange (NSE) of India Limited

Answer: (C)

42. As a follow up to the budget announcement, the Government of India has recently (April, 2016) set up a committee to prepare a blueprint for doubling farm incomes by 2022. The committee is headed by-

(A) Ashok Mehta

(B) Ashok Lavasa

(D) Ashok Lahiri

(E) Ashok Dalwai

Answer: (E)

43. The ‘Reserve repo’ operations of the RBI are meant to-

(A) Absorb the liquidity of the system

(B) Infuse funds in the consumer market

(D) Strengthen the value of the rupee in the market

(E) Inject liquidity in the system

Answer: (E)

44. SBI Life Insurance Limited is a joint venture life insurance company of State Bank of India (SBI) and-

(A) HDFC Life Insurance Company

(B) Life Insurance Corporation of India

(D) ICICI Prudential Life Insurance Company

(E) General Insurance Corporation of India

Answer: (C)

45. The ‘Bank of Nova Scotia’ operating as ‘Scotiabank’ is head-quartered in-

(A) Toronto, Canada

(B) Stockholm, Sweden

(D) Glasgow, Scotland

(E) Pairs, France

Answer: (A)

46. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has recently (July, 2016) approved setting up of 1,980 mw ‘Ghatampur Thermal Power Project’ at a estimated cost of Rs. 17,237.8 crore in the Indian State of-

(A) Uttarakhand

(B) Punjab

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (D)

47. The proposed India Post Payment Bank (IPPB) is stated to have a total corpus of-

(A) Rs. 200 crore

(B) Rs. 400 crore

(D) Rs. 600 crore

(E) Rs. 800 crore

Answer: (E)

48. The author of the recently released book: “Who Moved My Interest Rate ?” is former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, known by the name-

(A) Dr. C. Rangarajan

(B) Dr. Bimal Jalan

(D) Dr. Y.V. Reddy

(E) S. Veenkitaramanan

Answer: (C)

49. Pursuant to the announcement in the Union Budget 2016-17 regarding reforms in FDI limit for foreign entities in Indian stock exchanges, from 5% to-

(A) 20% on par with domestic institutions

(B) 15% on par with domestic institutions

(D) 18% on par with domestic institutions

(E) 22% on par with domestic institutions

Answer: (B)

50. During his recent (July 2016) four nation Africa tour, Prime Minister, Narendra Modi visited ‘Maputo’, the capital city of-

(A) South Korea

(B) Kenya

(D) Zimbabwe

(E) Mozambique

Answer: (E)

51. Which of the following two banks have recently (July 2016) become first domestic banks to sign up for the Swift’s global payments innovation initiative which aims to enhance cross-border payments?

(A) ICICI Bank and Axis Bank

(B) Yes Bank and Kotak Mahindra Bank

(D) Bandhan Bank and IDFC Bank

(E) IDBI Bank and Indusind Bank

Answer: (A)

52. The alphabet ‘D’ in the abbreviation ‘NDTL’, commonly used in banking world, stands for-

(A) Demand

(B) Debenture

(D) Deposit

(E) Discount

Answer: (A)

53. The ‘Mahabodhi Temple’ a UNESCO World Heritage site is situated in the Indian state of-

(A) Chhattisgarh

(B) Odisha

(D) Jharkhand

(E) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (C)

54. The 750 MW Rewa Ultra-Mega solar power project, the largest single-site solar power project in the world is proposed to be set up in the Indian State of-

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (E)

55. SMERA Limited, a popular body in the financial world, is a full service-

(A) Asset Financing Company

(B) Asset Management Company

(D) Credit Rating Agency

(E) Corporate Counselling Agency

Answer: (D)

56. The seven member working group constituted by the IRDAI to study the scope of introduction of ‘Title Insurance’ in the Indian Market is headed by-

(A) Suresh Mathur

(B) T. S. Vijayan

(D) D.K. Mehrotra

(E) Rajendra Chitale

Answer: (A)

57. The PM Kaushal Viaks Yojana (PMKVY) which aims to impart skill training to ne crore people over the next four years (2016-2020) has a total outlay of-

(A) Rs. 10,000 crore

(B) Rs. 15,000 crore

(D) Rs. 8,500 crore

(E) Rs. 12,000 crore

Answer: (E)

58. The initiative of the HRD Ministry ‘SWAYAM’ is a-

(A) Support programme for the first generation doctors/nurses

(B) Massive Open Online Courses (MOOC) Platform

(D) Self help programme on health and hygiene

(E) Self help group programme for rural forms

Answer: (B)

59. The ‘Desert-Eagle II’ air combat exercise was recently (June 2016) conducted by the Indian Air force with its counterpart in-

(A) United Arab Emirates

(B) United States of America

(D) Afghanistan

(E) United Kingdom

Answer: (A)

60. ‘MobiKwik is the name of a-

(A) Mobile wallet and online payment system

(B) Online shopping portal

(D) Brown Label ATM entity

(E) Online Consumer Finance Company

Answer: (A)

61. The ‘Lakhwar Dam’ is a gravity dam currently under construction on the Yamuna river in-

(A) Haryana

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Madhya Pradesh

(E) Uttarakhand

Answer: (E)

62. The ‘Keibul Lamjao National Park’ is situated in the Indian state of-

(A) Tripura

(B) Sikkim

(D) Manipur

(E) Meghalaya

Answer: (D)

63. ‘Mission Bhagiratha’, the water grid project intended to provide a sustainable and permanent solution to the drinking water woes was recently (August 2016) launched by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi in the Indian State of-

(A) Karnataka

(B) Chhattisgarh

(D) Odisha

(E) Telangana

Answer: (E)

64. The 2016 joint military exercise ‘Maitree’ has been conducted in July 2016 between the Indian contingent and Royal Army of-

(A) Cambodia

(B) South Korea

(D) Singapore

(E) Bangladesh

Answer: (C)

65. The movie ‘The Man Who Knew Infinity’ is a biopic based on the life of Indian mathematician-

(A) Aryabhatta

(B) Srinivasa Ramanujan

(D) Narendra Karmakar

(E) K. S. Chandrasekharan

Answer: (B)

66. Government of India has recently decided to rename the ‘Mhow’ railway station in the Indian State of Madhya Pradesh by-

(A) Ravi Shankar Shukla

(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(D) Vijayaraje Scindia

(E) Chandra Shekhar Azad

Answer: (B)

67. Out of the total sum of Rs. 25,000 crore allocated in the Union budget for the current financial year 2016-17 for re-capitalization of Public Sector Banks by government has in July 2016 released an amount of-

(A) Rs. 22,915 crore for 13 PSBs

(B) Rs. 20,915 crore for 13 PSBs

(D) Rs. 20,315 crore for 13 PSBs

(E) Rs. 23,915 crore for 13 PSBs

Answer: (A)

68. The ‘YES Bank’ limited is leading private sector bank in India. he corporate headquarter of the bank is situated in

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Delhi

(D) Kolkata

(E) Mumbai

Answer: (E)

69. The ‘National Insurance Company Limited’ is a public sector general insurance company in India. It is headquartered in-

(A) Chennai, Tamil Nadu

(B) Hyderabad, Telangana

(D) Mumbai, Maharashtra

(E) Kolkata, West Bengal

Answer: (E)

70. The first green train corridor, which envisages usage of bio-toilets for zero human waste discharge has recently (July 2016) been inaugurated in the Indian state of-

(A) Telangana

(B) Tamil Nadu

(D) Gujarat

(E) Maharashtra

Answer: (B)

71. Which of the following Indian states has become the first state to declare ‘Blue Mormon’ as state butterfly ?

(A) Odisha

(B) Karnataka

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) Tripura

Answer: (C)

72. The Ministry of Finance has recently (August 2016) notified the consumer inflation target of 4% for the next five years with an upper tolerance level of-

(A) Six per cent

(B) Five per cent

(D) Seven per cent

(E) Eight per cent

Answer: (A)

73. The city of ‘Canberra’ is the capital of-

(A) New Zealand

(B) Denmark

(D) Australia

(E) Argentina

Answer: (D)

74. The Yamuna river originates from …………. glacier.

(A) Satopanth

(B) Gangotri

(D) Chemayungdung

(E) Angsi

Answer: (C)

75. The country’s first Aadhaar based ATM is launched by which one of the following banks ?

(A) ICICI Bank

(B) SBI

(D) DCB Bank

(E) YES Bank

Answer: (D)

76. At the ‘2016 Rio Olympics’, the Indian contingent was led by silver medalist-

(A) Saina Nehwal

(B) Abhinav Bindra

(D) P.V. Sindhu

(E) Dipa Karmakar

Answer: (D)

77. Severe tropical typhoon ‘Nida’ recently (August 2016) hit the city of Shenzhen in-

(A) China

(B) Thailand

(D) Indonesia

(E) Korea

Answer: (A)

78. Five new sports that are popular in Japan have been identified to be included to the 2020 Tokyo Olympics. Which of the following is ‘not’ one of them?

(A) Tug of war

(B) Skateboarding

(D) Karate

(E) Basketball/softball

Answer: (A)

79. The Pashudhan Bima Yojana has been launched by which state government of India?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Punjab

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) Maharashtra

Answer: (C)

80. The National Handloom Day is celebrated on which day in India?

(A) August 24

(B) September 7

(D) August 7

(E) September 24

Answer: (D)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Preliminary Online Examination Held on December 24, 2016 Question paper with Answer key

January 6, 2021May 7, 2017 by suresh84

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Preliminary Online Exam 2016 — Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Preliminary Online Examination Held on December 24, 2016 Question paper with Answer key

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Preliminary Exam 2016

Online Exam Held on December 24, 2016

Part I English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Rearrange the given the sentences A, B, C, D and E in a proper sequence, so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. ‘Indeed, this is hell!’ She replied and decided to visit heaven where the situation was no different, but people were laughing, content and joyful.

B. A woman who had worked all her life to bring about good, was granted one wish. “Before I die let me visit both hell and heaven” and here wish was granted.

C. Upon asking the reason for their condition, the escort replied, “Their aims are attached to long chopsticks secured above the elbow which prevents them from bending their elbows, thereby starving them.”

D. She was whisked off to a great banquet hall where the tables were piled high with delicious food and around the tables were miserable, starving people as stretched as could be

E. On being asked the reason for their happiness, the escort calmly replied, “Here people have learned to help one’ another eat.”

1. Which of the following should be the FIFFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) D

(d) A

(e) C

Ans: (a)

2. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) D

(e) E

Ans: (b)

3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) B

(d) A

(e) E

Ans: (a)

4. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) B

(d) D

(e) E

Ans: (d)

5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) B

(d) E

(e) A

Ans: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

6. Since his father was getting old/the son began to get worried/as he had not learned any trade/ to make a living on himself.

(a) Since his father was getting old

(b) the son began to get worried

(d) to make a living on himself

(e) No error

Ans: (d)

7. Teachers open/ the door to enlightenment/but you must be enter it/by yourself.

(a) Teachers open

(b) the door to enlightenment

(d) by yourself

(e) No error

Ans: (c)

8. When Alexander the great appeared/before the Greek leaders,/ they greeted him warm/and paid h um huge compliments.

(a) When Alexander- the great appeared

(b) before the Greek leaders

(d) and paid him huge compliments

(e) No error

Ans: (c)

9. Raising a hue and cry,/ the entire family ran/ after him/ through the garden.

(a) Raising a hue and cry,

(b) the entire family ran

(d) through the garden

(e) No error

Ans: (d)

10. The two emperors sat/down facing with each other,/eating to their/heart’s content.

(a) The two emperors sat

(b) down facing with each other,

(d) heart’s content.

(e) No error

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In each questions, four words are given in bold. One of these words given in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. if all the words given in bold are correctly spelt or appropriate in the context of the sentence, then mark ‘All correct’ as your answer,

11. The State has given a lot of impetus to the households for the use of renewable energy resourses.

(a) given

(b) impetus

(d) resourses

(e) All correct

Ans: (d)

12. Technology can be used in both radicle and conventional ways to invite viewers to arrive at new understandings of the visual world.

(a) radicle

(b) invite

(d) understandings

(e) All correct

Ans: (a)

13. Lakh of buying interest has kept property prices stagnant across all major cities.

(a) Lakh

(b) interest

(d) stagnant

(e) All correct

Ans: (a)

14. The Rupee has been resilient even as the other emerging market currencies depretiated sharply over the past two years.

(a) resilient

(b) currencies

(d) past

(e) All correct

Ans: (c)

15. The creative impatience of an artist as eclectic as him is reflected in his profoundly expressive work.

(a) creative

(b) artist

(d) profoundly

(e) All correct

Ans: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-23) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

An old farmer who had brought to town a pregnant cow to sell, found no barn to put the animal in, so an animal keeper told him he could put it under a shed at the inn and later it to a young farmer’s cart. Lo and behold, the cow gave birth to a calf that night. In the morning, the proud owner of the cow was preparing to lead the animal away when out rushed the owner of the cart, shouting, “The calf is mine”. “What do you mean it is yours? Didn’t my cow give birth last night? The cow was tied to the cart. The cart was mine, so the calf belongs to the owner of the cart.”

A heated quarrel arose and in no time they were fighting. A large crowd gathered around them and then the constables ran up and marched them to the king’s court of justice. It was once the custom of the royal city for the king’s wife also to express her opinion. But it, so happened of late that every time the king gave a judgement the queen somehow opposed it. .Weary of that, the king said to her, “ Do not meddle in state business. Stay out of the court of justice, “ And so it was.

The farmers therefore, appeared before the king alone. After hearing both sides, the king rendered his decision. “The calf goes with cart”. The owner of the cow found the decision too unjust for works, but what could he do? The king’s judgement was final. Seeing the farmer so upset, the innkeeper advised him to go to the queen, who might find a way out. The farmer went to the palace and asked the servant “Could you tell me my good man if I might have a word with the queen!” “That is impossible” replied the servant, “since the king has forbidden her to hear peoples’ cases!” The farmer then went up the garden wall. Spying the queen, he somehow jumped over the wall and burst into tears as he told her just how unjust her husband had been to him. The queen said, ‘My advice is this. The king is going hunting tomorrow in the vicinity of the lake that is always bone dry at this time of the year. One the following hang a fish-dipper on your belt, take a net and go through the motions of fishing.

At the sight of someone fishing in a dry lake, the king will laugh and then ask why you’re fishing where there is not water. You must answer, “Majesty, if a cart can give birth to a calf, maybe I can catch fish in a dry lake.”

The next morning the farmer went off to the dry lake, sat down at the stone, raised his net and everything unfolded as the queen had said. Everything went as per the plan. When the king saw him fishing in a dry lake; he asked why he was doing so. The farmer gave the reply as suggested by the queen. At that reply the king exclaimed, “ My good man you have been talking to the queen!”

The farmer did not deny it and the king awarded him the cart there and then. But the king was angry that is wife had disobeyed him and said, ,”You have been meddling again and I forbade it. Go back to your father and take the thing you like most of all in the palace. “ Humbly the queen said that she would go, but asked to be allowed to leave the next day. She then had the cooks prepare the king’s favorite foods.

The king ate and ate and fell asleep in his armchair. The queen said to the servants. “Pickup the armchair with its contents and follow me.” She left the palace and the city and returned home. When the king awoke the next day he as angry at first finding himself in the queen’s house, but then laughed when the queen said, “Didn’t you tell me Your Majesty to return home with the thing I liked best of all?” From that day on, the king never appeared in the court of justice without his wife.

16. Which of the following can be said about the king?

A. He was unjust and feared by all his subjects.

B. He was fond of fishing.

C. He was willing to change his decision if it was wrong.

(a) Only A

(b) Only C

(d) B and C

(e) All of these

Ans: (c)

17. Which of the following is true in the context of the story?

(a) The queen was respected for hr wisdom.

(b) The king’ servants were disloyal.

(d) The king was greedy and fat.

(e) None of the given options is true in the context of the story.

Ans: (a)

18. Which of the following can replace the word ‘Shed’ as used in the passage?

(a) Peel

(b) Drop

(d) Barn

(e) Scale

Ans: (d)

19. What impact did the old farmer’s encounter with the queen have on his life?

(a) He got justice.

(b) He angered the king and was punished.

(d) He was imprisoned by the guards for breaking into the palace.

(e) None of the above

Ans: (a)

20. Why did the king utter the words, “Stay out of the court of justice”?

(a) He was upset at the commotion that the farmers were causing.

(b) He did not like the fact that the queen did not agree with his decisions.

(d) He punished all those present at court as he was in a foul mood.

(e) None of the given options

Ans: (b)

21. Which of the following describes the queen’s reaction to the king’s decision to banish her from the palace?

(a) She quickly picked up the furniture she had brought with her and left immediately.

(b) She was angry and took a walk in the garden to calm down.

(d) She refused to leave the palace till the king gave up finally and changed his mind.

(e) She gave a farewell dinner at the palace and left without taking anything.

Ans: (c)

22. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite of the word ‘Heated’ as used in the passage?

(a) Angry

(b) Roasted

(d) Air-conditioned

(e) Peaceful

Ans: (e)

23. Why did the constables bring the farmers to the king’s court of justice?

(a) To present the calf to the king as a gift

(b) On the advice of the innkeeper

(d) They were mistreating their cattle.

(e) The old farmer did not pay the younger one for the calf

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 24-30) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words or group of words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the word or group of words in each case.

Meenu was a sweet, lovable and beautiful girl aged six. One day, Meenu’s mother (24) shopping. As they passed the shops, Meenu noted a cute plastic pearl necklace in dazzling pink. She asked her mother to buy her the necklace. Her mother told her that it bfew pennies. She asked her to do some chores, so that for every completed piece of work, Meenu would earn some money and could then buy the pink palace. Meenu (26) her mom with all the chores and when she had enough money, Meenu happily purchased the necklace. She wore it everywhere and just all the time, even while sleeping. Meenu’s father used to tell her bed time stories frequently.

One day, after completing a story, her father asked how much she loved him. Meenu replied, “You know (27) I love you.” Her father asked, “Then give me your pearl necklace please?” Meenu replied, “Please daddy, I love you, so much and please don’t ask for those pearls. I will give you the pink Barbie which (28) a month ago.” He replied, “Fine sweetheart!” This was (29) several times. One day, Meenu slept, while her father was reading her a story. She was holding the necklace in her hands. Her father took the pearl necklace from her hand. The next moment, she woke up and asked, “Dad, what are you doing?” Her father quickly opened a jewel box placed near her bed and handled her a real precious pink pearl necklace. He said. “this is your real necklace. I (30) take away the fake one all this while to give you this real one.” She replied, “Thank you, dad!”

24. (a) took her

(b) went on a

(d) forgot about

(e) was going with

Ans: (b)

25. (a) is expensive

(b) price is high

(d) would been

(e) it is less

Ans: (c)

26. (a) subsist

(b) persist

(d) insisting

(e) assisted

Ans: (e)

27. (a) that well

(b) how much

(d) at the more

(e) many time

Ans: (b)

28. (a) will buy me

(b) was gifted

(d) you bought me

(e) were brought

Ans: (d)

29. (a) revive

(b) iteration

(d) repeal

(e) repeated

Ans: (e)

30. (a) was going

(b) would have

(d) was wont

(e) thought of

Ans: (c)

Part II Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-32) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

S is 10 m South of T. T is 6. West of U. U is 15 m North of V. W is 6 m East of V. X is 5 m North of W.

31. In what direction is X with respect to T?

(a) North-East

(b) South-West

(d) South-East

(e) East

Ans: (d)

32. If V is 16m West of V and Z is 5m North of Y, then what is the distance between Z and S?

(a) 3 m

(b) 20 m

(d) 10 m

(e) 6 m

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven seminars are to be held in seven different cities viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Nagpur, Kota and Imphal, on one of the seven days of the same week which starts on Monday and ends on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.

The seminar in Chennai is scheduled on Thursday. There is only one seminar between the seminars in Delhi and Chennai. Only two seminars are scheduled between the seminars in Kota and Imphal.

Seminar Kota is scheduled after Imphal. As many seminars are scheduled between the seminars in Chennai and Koa as between Nagpur and Mumbai. The seminar in Nagpur is scheduled before Mumbai.

33. On which of the following days is seminar scheduled in Mumbai?

(a) Wednesday

(b) Saturday

(d) Tuesday

(e) Friday

Ans: (c)

34. Seminar in which city is scheduled immediately after the seminar of Kota?

(a) Nagpur

(b) Mumbai

(d) Delhi

(e) Chennai

Ans: (b)

35. Monday is related to Delhi in a certain way based on the given arrangement, in the same way Thursday is related to Nagpur. To which of the following is Saturday related to following the same pattern?

(a) Imphal

(b) Kota

(d) Mumbai

(e) Kolkata

Ans: (d)

36. How many seminars are scheduled before the seminar in Imphal?

(a) Three

(b) One

(d) Two

(e) None

Ans: (d)

37. Seminar in which of the following cities is scheduled on Friday?

(a) Imphal

(b) Kota

(d) Nagpur

(e) Kolkata

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Eight people, J, K, L, M, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only three people sit between K and X, Y is an immediate neighbour of X. M sits second to the left of W. W is not an immediate neighbour of X. Z is an immediate neighbour of K. Only two people sit between Z and L.

38. Who is sitting to the immediate left of K?

(a) M

(b) L

(d) W

(e) J

Ans: (d)

39. Which of the following is true regarding J?

(a) J sits second to right of Z.

(b) None of the given options is true

(d) J sits to immediate right of Y.

(e) J is an immediate neighbour of both K and X.

Ans: (c)

40. How many persons are sitting between L and W when counted from the right of L?

(a) Three

(b) Two

(d) One

(e) None of these

Ans: (e)

41. Who are sitting exactly between L and Z when counted from the right of L?

(a) M, X

(b) J, M

(d) K, W

(e) W, Y

Ans: (d)

42. What is W’s position with respect to the X?

(a) Fourth to the right

(b) Third to the left

(d) Fourth to the left

(e) Third to the right

Ans: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

L is the daughter of K. K is married to D. R is the mother of both D and M. M is the only son of Y. Y is the brother of G.

43. If G is the mother of X, then how is X related to R?

(a) Sister-in-law

(b) Grand-daughter

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) Son

Ans: (d)

44. How is K related to Y?

(a) Father-in-law

(b) Son-in-law

(d) Nephew

(e) Son

Ans: (b)

45. How is L related to M?

(a) Niece

(b) Aunt

(d) Daughter

(e) Daughter-in-law

Ans: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight people- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing North with equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. G sits fourth to the left of D. B sits second to the right of D. Only two people sit between F and H. F sits at one of the positions to the left of D. Neither F nor H sits at an extreme end of the line. A sits at one of the positions to the right of H. More than three people sit between A and C.

46. As per the given arrangement, E : D in the same way as B : A. Following the same pattern, H : …….?

(a) E

(b) B

(d) C

(e) F

Ans: (b)

47. How many persons sit between C and G?

(a) Three

(b) More than three

(d) None of these

(e) One

Ans: (d)

48. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from right to left, the position’s of how many people will remain unchanged?

(a) One

(b) Three

(d) More than three

(e) None of these

Ans: (d)

49. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(a) D sits to the immediate left of E.

(b) None of the given statements is true.

(d) E sits second to the left of G.

(e) A sits at an extreme end of the line.

Ans: (e)

50. Who sits third to the right of E?

(a) D

(b) B

(d) No ones as E sits at an extreme end of the line.

(e) A

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the following arrangement of letters, numbers and symbols carefully to answer the given questions.

51. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

(a) U*9

(b) EL#

(d) 14Y

(e) P86

Ans: (b)

52. If all the numbers from the given arrangement are deleted, then which of the following will represent fifth element to the right of ‘%’ and the fourth element to the left of ‘L’ respectively?

(a) A, E

(b) #, B

(d) A, U

(e) @, M

Ans: (d)

53. Which of the following will be sixth to the right of the fifteenth element from the right end in the given arrangement?

(a) Ω

(b) B

(d) &

(e) Y

Ans: (a)

54. What will be the sum of all the numbers between the eleventh element from the left end and sixth element from the right end of the given arrangement?

(a) 20

(b) 23

(d) 22

(e) 19

Ans: (d)

55. How many letters are there between the ninth element from the right end and the ninth element from the left end of the given arrangement?

(a) Five

(b) Nine

(d) Eight

(e) Six

Ans: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In these question, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

a. If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true

b. If both conclusions are true

c. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

d. If only conclusion II is true

e. If only conclusion I is true

56. Statements: All photos are signatures.

All tubes are signatures.

Conclusions: I. At least some tubes are photos.

II. All photos are tubes.

Ans: (c)

57. Statements: Some paints are cottons.

Some markers are paints.

Conclusions: I. All paints are markers.

II. All cottons are markers.

Ans: (c)

58. Statements: All horses are goats.

No goat is a donkey.

Conclusions: I. No horse is a donkey.

II. At least some goats are horses.

Ans: (b)

59. Statements: Some books are cars.

All books are tarts.

Conclusions: I. Some cars are tarts.

II. All cars are tarts.

Ans: (e)

60. Statements: No ring is a cap.

Some bags are rings.

Conclusions: I. All caps are rings.

II. Some rings are definitely not caps.

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer

a. if either conclusions I or conclusion II is true

b. if both conclusions are true

c. if neither conclusion I nor II is true

d. if only conclusion II is true

e. if only conclusion I is true

61. Statement: B ≥ L ≤ I ≤ S ≤ A > G

Conclusions: I. A > B II. L < G

Ans: (c)

62. Statement: Z ≥ Y ≥ X > W > V < U

Conclusions: I. W < Y II. Z > B

Ans: (b)

63. Statement: P ≤ W ≤ S ≤ N ≤ O

Conclusions: I. P = O II. O < P

Ans: (c)

64. Statement: B ≥ L ≤ I ≤ S ≤ A > G

Conclusions: I. S ≥ L II. II. I = B

Ans: (e)

65. Statement: Z ≥ Y ≥ X > W > V < U

Conclusions: I. Y > U II. X ≤ Z

Ans: (d)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

66. Manu invested Rs. P in scheme A @ 12% per annum and Rs. P/4 in scheme B @ 8% per annum Both the schemes offer simple interest and he invested for a period of 2 years in both the schemes. The difference between the Amounts received from both the schemes was Rs. 7600. How much did Manu invest in scheme A?

(a) Rs. 12000

(b) Rs. 15000

(d) Rs. 8000

(e) Rs. 10000

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 67-71) Study the table and answer the given questions

67. Number of visitors in museum C increased by 15% from Thursday to Saturday and that in museum E decreased by 20% from Thursday to Saturday. What was the total number of visitors in museums C and E together on Saturday?

(a) 305

(b) 325

(d) 335

(e) 300

Ans: (c)

68. What is the average number of visitors in museum B on Monday, Tuesday and Friday?

(a) 129

(b) 114

(d) 118

(e) 112

Ans: (b)

69. What is the respective ratio between total number of visitors in museums B and C together on Wednesday and that in museums D and E together on Friday?

(a) 17 : 11

(b) 19 : 15

(d) 19 : 17

(e) 17 : 13

Ans: (d)

70. Number of visitors in museum A decreased by what percent from Tuesday to Thursday?

(a) 30%

(b) 42.5%

(d) 32.5%

(e) 40%

Ans: (d)

71. What is the difference between the total number of visitors in museums A and D together on Wednesday and that in museums C and E together on Monday?

(a) 70

(b) 110

(d) 80

(e) 90

Ans: (e)

72. A boat takes a total time of 3 hours to travel a distance of 4.8 km upstream and 4.8 km downstream together. If the speed of the boat in still water is 5 km/h, what is the speed of the current?

(a) 6 km/h

(b) 1 km/h

(d) 4 km/h

(e) 2 km/h

Ans: (c)

73. The product of radius and diameter of circle is 392 sq m. If the area of the rectangle is twice the area of circle and the breadth of the rectangle is 28 m, what is the length of the rectangle?

(a) 64 m

(b) 44 m

(d) 32 m

(e) 46 m

Ans: (b)

74. When 25 men work for only 3 days, one-fifth of the work remains unfinished. How much work will remain unfinished, if 15 men work for only 4 days?

(a) 11/12

(b) 9/25

(d) 13/14

(e) 15/16

Ans: (b)

75. In an office, 30% of the employees are females. 49% of the male employees are Science graduates. The number of Science graduate employees is 37% of the total number of employees (both male and female). What percent of female employees are Science graduates?

(a) 45%

(b) 30%

(d) 35%

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (c)

76. Out of their respective monthly salaries, Lucky spends three-fifth and Runa spends three-fifth on various expenses. The salary remaining with Lucky after the expenses is Rs. 4750 more than that of Runa. If Runa’s monthly salary is Rs. 4000 less than that of Lucky, what is Lucky’s monthly salary?

(a) Rs. 23000

(b) Rs. 25000

(d) Rs. 24000

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (b)

77. The compound interest (compounded annually) on Rs. 6800 for 2 years @ R% per annum is Rs. 1425. What would be the simple interest on the same sum of money @ (R + 4)% per annum for 3 years?

(a) Rs. 2856

(b) Rs. 2445

(d) Rs. 2772

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (a)

78. The average of 10 numbers is 22.8. The average of last four numbers is 16. If the average of first five numbers is 24, what sit he value of the sixth number?

(a) 36

(b) 48

(d) 46

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (e)

79. When an article was sold for Rs. 1056, percent profit earned was P%. When the same article was sold for Rs. 1242, percent profit earned was (P + 20)%, what would be the selling price of the article, if it is sold at 60% profit?

(a) Rs. 1494

(b) Rs. 1404

(d) Rs. 1500

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (e)

80. Two pipes A and B ca separately fill a cistern in 60 minutes and 75 minutes, respectively. There is a third pipe in the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all three pipes are simultaneously opened, then the cistern is full in 50 minutes. In how much time the third pipe alone can empty the cistern?

(a) 110 min

(b) 100 min

(d) 90 min

(e) None of these

Ans: (b)

81. At present, A’s age is less than trice of B’s age by 8 years. The respective ratio between A’s age 5 years ago and B’s age 1 year ago was 7 : 3, what is C’s present age if C is 2 years younger than B?

(a) 6 yr

(b) 4 yr

(d) 18 yr

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-91) What will come in place of question marks in the given questions?

82.

(a) 2.5

(b) 3.5

(d) −3.5

(e) 5

Ans: (c)

83.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Ans: (c)

84.

(a) 476

(b) 484

(d) 456

(e) 452

Ans: (b)

85.

(a) 4

(b) 1

(d) 2

(e) 5

Ans: (C)

86.

(a) 0.64

(b) 0.36

(d) 0.16

(e) 0.81

Ans: (a)

87. 290 – 1750 ÷5 – ? × 60

(a) 2.5

(b) 4

(d) 3.5

(e) 1.5

Ans: (a)

88. (0.8)² × 5 = ? – 275 ÷ 22

(a) 12.2

(b) 11.3

(d) 15.7

(e) 13.4

Ans: (d)

89.

(a) 14.2

(b) 15

(d) 17.9

(e) 16.9

Ans: (b)

90. 30% of (339.4 + ?) = (6)³ – 12

(a) 340.6

(b) 360.6

(d) 332.6

(e) 354.6

Ans: (a)

91. (1.4)² ÷ (0.7)² = [(3.6)² ÷ (0.9)²] – ?

(a) 22

(b) 18

(d) 12

(e) 14

Ans: (d)

92. When the length of a rectangle is reduced by 5 cm (keeping the breadth constant), its area reduces by 90 cm² and when the breadth is reduced by 5 cm (keeping the length constant), its area reduces by 105 cm², what is the perimeter of the rectangle?

(a) 74 cm

(b) 78 cm

(d) 84 cm

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (b)

93. Jar A has 4x L milk and Jar B has x L water. 6 L of each milk and water was taken out from the respective jars and then the resultant quantities from both the jars were mixed in Jar C. If the respective ratio between milk and water in Jar C was 6 : 1, what was the initial quantity of milk in jar A?

(a) 200 L

(b) 80 L

(d) 125 L

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (e)

94. A and B started a business with respective investments of Rs. 18000 and Rs. 32000. The number of months for which B invested was 8 less than the number of months for which A invested. If the respective ratio between the total profit and A’s share in profit was 17 : 9, what was the number of months for which B invested in the business?

(a) 8

(b) 2

(d) 4

(e) 1

Ans: (a)

95. Three-fourth of a number (x) is equidistant from 172 and 350. Four-fifth of another number (y) is equidistant from 244 and 116. What is the difference between the two numbers (x and y)?

(a) 142

(b) 157

(d) 155

(e) Other than those given as options

Ans: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?

96. 113 116 107 134 53 ?

(a) 296

(b) 264

(d) 324

(e) 260

Ans: (a)

97. 9 11 20 48 ? 239

(a) 113

(b) 132

(d) 125

(e) 107

Ans: (a)

98. 8 7 12 33 128 ?

(a) 650

(b) 635

(d) 640

(e) 675

Ans: (b)

99. 7 16 30 49 73 ?

(a) 162

(b) 102

(d) 96

(e) 118

Ans: (b)

100. 23 29 17 35 11 ?

(a) 47

(b) 39

(d) 37

(e) 43

Ans: (c)