SSC Junior Engineer Examination Held on 31-1-2016 General Awareness Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Junior Engineer Examination Held on 31-1-2016
SSC Junior Engineer Examination Held on 31-1-2016 General Awareness Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Junior Engineer Examination Held on 31-1-2016

General Awareness

1. IKE stands for ?

(A)  Information Key Execution

(B)  Infrastructure Key Encryption

(C)  Information Key Exchange

(D)  Internet Key Exchange

Answer: (D)

2. The disadvantage of self-pollination is-

(A)  no wastage of pollengrains

(B)  seeds are less in number

(C)  no dependence of pollinating agents

(D)  mechanism is too simple

Answer: (B)

3. Usain Bolt is famous as-

(A)  An astronaut

(B)  A cricketer

(C)  A boxer

(D)  An athlete

Answer: (D)

4. Root hairs are produced from ?

(A)  Epidermis

(B)  Trichomes

(C)  Trichoblasts

(D)  Rhizodermis

Answer: (C)

5. Name the first Indian women to climb Mount Everest ?

(A)  Leela Seth

(B)  Bachhendri Pal

(C)  Santosh Yadav

(D)  Rita Faria

Answer: (B)

6. Ms Florence Nightingale was associated with-

(A)  Crimean War

(B)  Thirty Years War

(C)  Hundred Years War

(D)  Seven Years War

Answer: (A)

7. Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution deal with-

(A)  Right to Freedom

(B)  Right to Freedom of Religion

(C)  Right against Exploitation

(D)  Right to Education

Answer: (C)

8. A plumb bob is hanging from the ceiling of a car. If the car moves with an acceleration ‘a’, the angle made by the string with the vertical is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

9. Which of the following is the morning ‘Raag’ in music?

(A)  Malhaar

(B)  Sohini

(C)  Sarang

(D)  Bhairavi

Answer: (D)

10. The storage form of glucose is-

(A)  Glucagea

(B)  Fructose

(C)  Insulin

(D)  Glycogen

Answer: (D)

11. Aung San Sui Kyi, a pro democracy campaigner is from which of the following countries ?

(A)  Nepal

(B)  Bangladesh

(C)  China

(D)  Myanmar

Answer: (D)

12. By increasing the intensity of incident light on the surface, the photo electric current-

(A)  Unchanged

(B)  Decreases

(C)  Increases

(D)  Increases initially and then decreases

Answer: (C)

13. Non-bonding valence electrons are-

(A)  Not involved in covalent bond formation

(B)  Involved in both ionic and covalent bond formation

(C)  Involved only in covalent bond formation

(D)  Involved only in ionic bond formation

Answer: (A)

14. The Maratha ruler Shivaji ruled his kingdom with the help of a Council of Ministers called-

(A)  Ashtapradhan

(B)  Mantriparishad

(C)  Ashtadigajas

(D)  Navarathnas

Answer: (A)

15. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is measured using a ?

(A)  Hydrometer

(B)  PH meter

(C)  Barometer

(D)  Thermometer

Answer: (B)

16. The chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by-

(A)  Prime Minister

(B)  Parliament

(C)  President

(D)  Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C)

17. Second Ozone hole was detected over ?

(A)  Sweden

(B)  Northern Hemisphere

(C)  Artica

(D)  Antartica

Answer: (D)

18. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is ?

(A)  Air pollution

(B)  None of the options

(C)  Contamination of ground

(D)  Increased use of Land for landfills

Answer: (D)

19. In which country was paper currency first used ?

(A)  India

(B)  Egypt

(C)  China

(D)  Japan

Answer: (C)

20. Who among the following Gupta emperor was known as ‘Vikramaditya ?

(A)  Samudra Gupta

(B)  Kumara Gupta

(C)  Chandra Gupta I

(D)  Chandra Gupta II

Answer: (D)

21. World ‘No Tobacco Day’ was observed globally as ?

(A)  15 June

(B)  31 May

(C)  2 June

(D)  20 June

Answer: (B)

22. Which IPL Team won the eight edition of the Indian Premier League?

(A)  Mumbai Indians

(B)  Chennai Super Kings

(C)  Kolkata Knight Rider’s

(D)  Delhi Daredeviles

Answer: (A)

23. Thigmotropism is the response of the plant to-

(A)  Gravity

(B)  Water

(C)  Light

(D)  Contact

Answer: (D)

24. When is the World Earth Day celebrated ?

(A)  1 May

(B)  22 April

(C)  4 April

(D)  23 March

Answer: (B)

25. Which Delhi Sultan resorted to price control and rationing ?

(A)  Balban

(B)  Bahlol Lodi

(C)  Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

(D)  Allauddin Khilji

Answer: (D)

26. The Phenomenon of light splits up into seven distinct colours when it panes through Prism is-

(A)  dispersion

(B)  polarization

(C)  oliffraction

(D)  reflection

Answer: (A)

27. When was the first All India Postage Stamp issued ?

(A)  1858

(B)  1850

(C)  1854

(D)  1856

Answer: (C)

28. Nehru Trophy is associated with which sport in India ?

(A)  Cricket

(B)  Hockey

(C)  Football

(D)  None of the options

Answer: (B)

29. Disguised Unemployment means ?

(A)  Marginal Productivity is zero

(B)  Production is less

(C)  Working as Self-employed

(D)  Not working whole day

Answer: (A)

30. In the Presidential system of government, the President is-

(A)  Head of the State

(B)  Head of the Executive

(C)  Head of the State and Head of the Government

(D)  Head of the Government

Answer: (C)

31. Market Gardening comes in this category ?

(A)  Monoculture

(B)  Sericulture

(C)  Subsistence Farming

(D)  Horticulture

Answer: (D)

32. Glycolysis during fermentation results in net gain of ?

(A)  4 ATPs

(B)  3 ATPs

(C)  1 ATP

(D)  2 ATPs

Answer: (D)

33. .com represents ?

(A)  Commercial domain

(B)  Government domain

(C)  Educational domain

(D)  Communication domain

Answer: (A)

34. Name the Cooperative society that provides housing loan facility at reasonable rates ?

(A)  Consumer Cooperatives

(B)  Credit Cooperatives

(C)  Producer’s Cooperatives

(D)  Housing Cooperatives

Answer: (D)

35. Cartel is a part of-

(A)  Perfect Competition

(B)  Mono Poly

(C)  Mon Polistic Competition

(D)  Oligo Poly

Answer: (D)

36. Which of the following is an allied activity of agriculture ?

(A)  Small Scale Industry

(B)  Insurance

(C)  Money lending

(D)  Livestock

Answer: (D)

37. A block placed on an inclined plane of slope angle θ slides down with a constant speed. The coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to ?

(A)  cot θ

(B)  cos θ

(C)  sin θ

(D)  tan θ

Answer: (B)

38. The murder of Archduke Ferdinand and his wife triggered off which of the following events ?

(A)  Crimean War

(B)  First World War

(C)  Balkan War

(D)  Second World War

Answer: (B)

39. The finely, painted cotton fabric made in Golkunda was called ?

(A)  Palampore

(B)  Kalamkari

(C)  Calico

(D)  Muslin

Answer: (B)

40. Who is called the ‘Father of Indian Cinema’ ?

(A)  Mehboob Khan

(B)  Dilip kumar

(C)  Dada Saheb Phalke

(D)  Raj Kapoor

Answer: (C)

41. When salt is added to water, the boiling point of water is ?

(A)  Constant

(B)  Increased

(C)  Lowered

(D)  Unaffected

Answer: (B)

42. The green house gases, otherwise called radioactively active gases includes ?

(A)  CH4

(B)  All of the given options

(C)  N2O

(D)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (D)

43. Which one of the following is First multipurpose project constructed in India?

(A)  Rihand

(B)  Thungabadra

(C)  Farraka Barrage

(D)  Damodar

Answer: (D)

44. The gas dissolved in water that makes it acidic is ?

(A)  Hydrogen

(B)  Nitrogen

(C)  Carbon di oxide

(D)  Ammonia

Answer: (C)

45. Which of the following ideologies aims at the spiritualization of politics ?

(A)  Sarvodaya

(B)  Socialism

(C)  Pluralism

(D)  Marxism

Answer: (A)

46. A deep or trench in the ocean floor is called –

(A)  Trough

(B)  Ridges

(C)  Continental shelf

(D)  Crest

Answer: (A)

47. Name the biggest employer in India ?

(A)  Post & Telecom Department

(B)  Indian Railways

(C)  Steel Authority of India Ltd (SAIL)

(D)  Food Corporation of India (FCI)

Answer: (B)

48. The Election Commission of India is-

(A)  Quasi-judicial body

(B)  Quasi-legislative body

(C)  An independent body

(D)  Executive body

Answer: (C)

49. Which is the best type of cotton grown in the world ?

(A)  Long staple

(B)  Medium staple

(C)  Short staple

(D)  Thick Staple

Answer: (A)

50. What is the symbol of (WWF) World Wild Life Fund ?

(A)  White Tiger

(B)  Bear

(C)  Rhododendron

(D)  Red Panda

Answer: (D)

SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier 1) Examination Held on September 2, 2016 General Intelligence Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier 1) Examination Held on September 2, 2016 General Intelligence
SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier 1) Examination Held on September 2, 2016 General Intelligence Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level (Tier 1) Examination

Held on September 2, 2016

Part A General Intelligence

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Find the odd words/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.

1. 

(a)  AEFJ

(b)  KOPT

(c)  UYZD

(d)  EHIL

Answer: (d)

2.

(a)  81 : 243

(b)  16 : 264

(c)  64 : 192

(d)  25 : 75

Answer: (b)

3.

(a)  Distinguish

(b)  Scatter

(c)  Differentiate

(d)  Classification

Answer: (a)

4. Arrange the following words as per the English dictionary and find the last word.

            Leaf, Lean, Leave, Less

(a)  Lean

(b)  Leave

(c)  Less

(d)  Leaf

Answer: (c)

5. How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  8

(d)  9

Answer: (*)

6. In a certain code language, APPROACH is coded as CHOAPRAP.

How will RESTRICT be coded ?

(a)  CTRISTER

(b)  ERTSIRTC

(c)  CTRISTRE

(d)  TCIRSTRE

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9) Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternative series.

7. Apes : Gibber : : Camels : ?

(a)  Grunt

(b)  Cheep

(c)  Bleat

(d)  Whine

Answer: (a)

8. TSR : FED : WVU ?

(a)  CAB

(b)  MLK

(c)  PQS

(d)  GFH

Answer: (b)

9. 7 : 32 : : 28 : ?

(a)  126

(b)  136

(c)  116

(d)  128

Answer: (c)

10. John, in the morning, started walking towards North and then turn towards opposite side of the Sun. He then turn left again and stops. Which direction is he facing now ?

(a)  North

(b)  West

(c)  South

(d)  East

Answer: (c)

11. If 64 + 7 = 460, and 25 +8 = 212 then, 43 + 8 = ?

(a)  360

(b)  376

(c)  332

(d)  356

Answer: (d)

12. In a village, there are landlords of which some are literate. Which of the following best expresses the relationship between them ?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

13. Which one of the given figure completes the given figure ?

Answer: (d)

14. What is the mirror image of t he following figure ?

Answer: (a)

15. If the given words are arranged in descending order, then which of the following be last ?

Sapling, Tree, Plant, Seed

(a)  Sapling

(b)  Plant

(c)  Seed

(d)  Tree

Answer: (c)

16. Which one is wrong number in the given series ?

7, 56, 447, 3584, 28672

(a)  3584

(b)  56

(c)  7

(d)  447

Answer: (b)

17. In this question, a statement is followed by assumption I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. You have to decide, which of the following assumptions logically follows from the given statement

Statement Only good singers are invited in the conference. No one without sweet voice is a good singer.

Assumption I All invited singers in the conference have sweet voice.

Assumption II Those singers who do not have sweet voice are not invited in the conference.

(a)  Only I follows

(b)  Neither I nor II follows

(c)  Both I and II follow

(d)  Only II follows

Answer: (c)

18. If + mean ‘×’, − means ‘÷’, × means ‘−‘ and ÷ means ‘+’, then find the value of the following equation.

6 + 64 – 8 ÷ 45 × 8

(a)  85

(b)  76

(c)  87

(d)  75

Answer: (a)

19. Which of the following has the given figure embedded in it?

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 20-21) Find the missing number from the given alternatives.

20. 1, 4, 2, 3, 2, ?

(a)  2

(b)  5

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

21. 

(a)  13

(b)  15

(c)  17

(d)  19

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-23) Find the missing number/letter from the given alternatives.

22. AEN, MQZ, CGP, ?

(a)  OSB

(b)  PUE

(c)  MPX

(d)  OTC

Answer: (a)

23. 0, 4, 18, 48, ?, 180

(a)  58

(b)  68

(c)  84

(d)  100

Answer: (d)

24. Select the word, which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word ?

SEGREGATION

(a)  EAGER

(b)  SEA

(c)  GATE

(d)  NATION

Answer: (d)

25. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets by two matrices given below. The columns and row of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first b y its row and next by its column. Ex: ‘U’ can be represented by 03, 14, 32 etc. and ‘O’ can be represented by 56, 67, 75 etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word given in the question.

(a)  69, 14, 04, 98

(b)  34, 76, 31, 79

(c)  04, 32, 87, 59

(d)  69, 99, 31, 01

Answer: (b)

Part B Arithmetic

26. A number when divided by 6 leaves remainder 3. When the square of the same number is divided by 6, the remainder is

(a)  0

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

27. Find the wrong number in the given series.

3, 7, 16, 35, 70, 153

(a)  70

(b)  16

(c)  153

(d)  35

Answer: (a)

28. The averages of runs scrored by a player is 11 innings is 63 and the average of his first six innings is 60 and the average of last six innings is 65. Find the runs scored in sixth inning.

(a)  60

(b)  54

(c)  67

(d)  57

Answer: (d)

29. In a parade of school students, the number of boys and girls are in the ratio of 9 : 7 respectively and the total number of boys and girls are 256. Find the number of girls.

(a)  102

(b)  112

(c)  118

(d)  128

Answer: (b)

30. Two persons ride towards each other from two places 55 km apart, one riding at 12 km/h and the other at 10 km/h. When will they be 11 km apart?

(a)  2 h and 30 min

(b)  1 h and 30 min

(c)  2 h

(d)  2 h and 45 min

Answer: (c)

31. A train 150 m long passes a telegraphic post in 12 seconds. Find the speed of the train.

(a)  50 km/h

(b)  12.5 km/h

(c)  25 km/h

(d)  45 km/h

Answer: (d)

32. At an election, ,a candidate secures 40% of the votes, but is defeated by the other candidate by a majority of 298 votes. Find the total number of votes recorded.

(a)  1580

(b)  1490

(c)  1470

(d)  1530

Answer: (b)

33. If  then what is the value of  ?

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  3

(d)  6

Answer: (d)

34. The ratio between the height of tower and the point at some distance is 5√3 : 5. What will be the angle of elevation ?

(a)  30°

(b)  60°

(c)  90°

(d)  45°

Answer: (b)

35. Successive discount of 20% and 10% is given on an item of Rs 700, find the selling price.

(a)  504

(b)  196

(c)  582

(d)  601

Answer: (a)

36. The population of a State is 20000. It increases by 20% during the first year and 30% during the second year. The population after two years will be

(a)  32000

(b)  40000

(c)  31200

(d)  30000

Answer: (c)

37. A reduction of 20% in the price of rice enable a buyer to buy 5 kg more for Rs 1200. The reduced price per kg of rice will be :

(a)  36

(b)  45

(c)  48

(d)  60

Answer: (c)

38. A man spends 60% of his income in different expenditures. His income is increased by 20% and his expenditure also increased by 10%. Find the percentage decrease in his saving ?

(a)  10%

(b)  15%

(c)  20%

(d)  25%

Answer: (a)

39. The length of side AB and side BC of a scalene triangle ABC are 12 cm and 8 cm respectively. The size of angle C is 59°. Find the length of side AC.

(a)  12

(b)  10

(c)  14

(d)  16

Answer: (b)

40. Find the value of 

(a)  0

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

41. The sum of the age of mother and a mother and her daughter is 60 years. 12 years ago the mother was eight times as old as her daughter. How old is the daughter at present ?

(a)  20 yr

(b)  28 yr

(c)  16 yr

(d)  12 yr

Answer: (c)

42. In one hour, a boat goes 12 km along the stream and 8 km against the stream. The speed of the boat in still water is

(a)  12 km/h

(b)  11 km/h

(c)  10 km/h

(d)  8 km/h

Answer: (c)

43. A shopkeeper buys 80 articles for Rs 2400 and sells them for a profit of 16%. Find the selling price of one article.

(a)  Rs 36.40

(b)  Rs 34.80

(c)  Rs 35.60

(d)  Rs 33.80

Answer: (b)

44. Find the amount which Shyam will get on Rs 4096, if he gave it for 18 months at  per annum, interest being compounded half

(a)  Rs 5813

(b)  Rs 4515

(c)  Rs 4913

(d)  Rs 5713

Answer: (c)

45. A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a piece of work independently in 12 days, then what will be the number of days taken by A and B together to finish to work ?

(a)  4

(b)  6

(c)  8

(d)  18

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-48) Study the graph carefully to answer these questions

46. The foreign exchange reserve in 2012 was how many times that in 2009 ?

(a)  0.7

(b)  1.2

(c)  1.4

(d)  1.5

Answer: (d)

47. What was the percentage increase in the foreign reserves in 2012 over 2008 ?

(a)  100%

(b)  150%

(c)  200%

(d)  620%

Answer: (a)

48. The ratio of the number of years, in which the foreign exchange reserves are above the average reserves, to those in which reserves are below the average reserves is

(a)  2 : 6

(b)  3 : 4

(c)  3 : 5

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (c)

49. A well of diameter 3 m dug 14 m deep. The Earth taken out of it has been spread evenly all around it in the shape of a circular ring of width 4 m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment.

(a)  4.25 m

(b)  2.250 m

(c)  1.125 m

(d)  1.750 m

Answer: (d)

50. If x3 + 1/x3 = 110, then find the value of x + 1/x.

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (d)

Part C English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-52) Choose the word, which is most similar in meaning to the given words.

51. Dishevelled

(a)  Tidy

(b)  Clean

(c)  Neat

(d)  Untidy

Answer: (d)

52. Venerate

(a)  Despise

(b)  Disobey

(c)  Disregard

(d)  Revere

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-54) Choose the word, which is most opposite in meaning to the given words.

53. Congenial

(a)  Accord

(b)  Snug

(c)  Engaging

(d)  Unpleasant

Answer: (d)

54. Abjure

(a)  Renounce

(b)  Relinquish

(c)  Abnegate

(d)  Acquire

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 55-57) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

55. Highly skilled

(a)  Consummate

(b)  Inveterate

(c)  Notorious

(d)  Maladroit

Answer: (a)

56. Identification with the feelings of another

(a)  Sympathy

(b)  Empathy

(c)  Apathy

(d)  Compassion

Answer: (b)

57. Insatiable desire for wealth

(a)  Selfish

(b)  Avarice

(c)  Egoist

(d)  Generosity

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 58-60) In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase given in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

58. Cut the mustard

(a)  To get under expectations

(b)  To score average

(c)  To perform well

(d)  To underperform

Answer: (c)

59. Ac chip off the old block

(a)  Reminds them of one’s father

(b)  To remind one’s sin

(c)  Reminds them of one’s son

(d)  Reminds of previous memories

Answer: (a)

60. To fish in troubled waters

(a)  To indulge in evil conspiracies

(b)  To make a profit out of disturbance

(c)  To aggravate the situation

(d)  To make the most of bad bargain

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-62) In these questions, a part of sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case to improvement is needed, mark ‘No improvement’ as your answer.

61. What you have been doing since the workshop last month ?

(a)  have you done

(b)  you have done

(c)  have you been doing

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (c)

62. Corruption is the most serious problem in India.

(a)  the more serious

(b)  very serious

(c)  serious

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 63-66) Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

63. Sid and Harsh are …….. unable to complete the task.

(a)  neither

(b)  either

(c)  each

(d)  both

Answer: (d)

64. The examinee could guess ……… the answer correctly.

(a)  at

(b)  about

(c)  through

(d)  to

Answer: (a)

65. Be ……….. and always look to the comfort of others.

(a)  considerate

(b)  cautious

(c)  considerable

(d)  consider

Answer: (a)

66. As usual, a lot of people were ……… in the king’s darbar.

(a)  their

(b)  possess

(c)  past

(d)  present

Answer: (d)

67. In t his question, four words are given out of which one is incorrectly spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

(a)  Ommineous

(b)  Omineous

(c)  Ominous

(d)  Omenous

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 68-71) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in parts, out of which a part contains an error. The part with the error is your answer. In case there is no error then your answer is ‘No error’.

68. He ought not/have done such/a filthy thing.

(a)  He ought not

(b)  have done such

(c)  a filthy thing

(d)  No error

Answer: (a)

69. The reason for/his failure is because/he did not work hard.

(a)  The reason for

(b)  his failure is because

(c)  he did not work hard

(d)  No error

Answer: (b)

70. I have reached/the office before/the rain started.

(a)  I have reached

(b)  the office before

(c)  the rain started

(d)  No error

Answer: (a)

71. A large/consignment of books/are expected.

(a)  A large

(b)  consignment of books

(c)  are expected

(d)  No error

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 72-75) Read the following passage carefully and answer questions given below in the context of the passage.

Every profession or trade, every art and every science has its technical vocabulary, the function of which is partly to designate things or processes which have no names in ordinary English and partly to secure greater exactness in nomenclature. Such special dialects or jargons renecessary in technical discussion of any king. Being universally understood by the devotees of the particular science or art, they have the precision of a mathematical formula. Besides, they save time, for it is much more economical to name a process than to describe it. Thousands of these technical terms are very properly included in every large dictionary, yet, as a whole, they are rather on the outskirts of the English language than actually within its borders.

Different occupations, however, differ widely in the character of their special vocabularies. In trades and handicrafts and other vacations like farming and fishing that have occupied great numbers of men from remote times, the technical vocabulary is very old. An average man now uses these in his own vocabulary. The special dialects of law, medicine divinity and philosophy have become familiar to cultivated persons.

72. Special words used in technical discussion

(a)  may become part of common speech never last long

(b)  never last long

(c)  should resemble mathematical formula

(d)  should be confined to scientific fields

Answer: (a)

73. The writer of t his article is

(a)  a scientist

(b)  a politician

(c)  a linguist

(d)  a businessman

Answer: (c)

74. This passage is primarily concerned with

(a)  various occupations and professions

(b)  technical terminology

(c)  scientific undertakings

(d)  a new language

Answer: (b)

75. It is true that

(a)  various occupations and professions often interchange words.

(b)  there is always a non-technical word that may be substituted for the technical word.

(c)  the average man often uses in his own vocabulary what was once technical language not meant for him.

(d)  everyone is interested in scientific findings.

Answer: (c)

Part D General Awareness

76. Which of the following is known as the Manchester of South India ?

(a)  Kochi

(b)  Vishakapatnam

(c)  Coimbatore

(d)  Bengaluru

Answer: (c)

77. Who was the flag bearer of India at Rio Olympics 2016?

(a)  PV Sindhu

(b)  Jwala Gutta

(c)  Yogeshwar Dutt

(d)  Abhinav Bindra

Answer: (d)

78. Which of the following is the first cricketer to score 1000 runs in an innings?

(a)  Sachin Tendulkar

(b)  Vinod Kamble

(c)  Pranav Dhanawade

(d)  Virat Kohli

Answer: (c)

79. Which of the following is the first cricketer to score 1000 runs in an innings?

(a)  Buckingham Canal

(b)  Indira Gandhi Canal

(c)  Upper Ganges Canal

(d)  Tajewala Canal

Answer: (b)

80. The soil of Kerala is rich in which of the followings soils ?

(a)  Alluvial soil

(b)  Laterite soil

(c)  Sandy soil

(d)  Loamy soil

Answer: (b)

81. Which of the process is known as nitrification ?

(a)  Reaction of nitrogen monoxide with oxygen to form nitric acid

(b)  Reaction of nitrogen dioxide with water to form nitric acid

(c)  Conversion of ammonia to nitrites

(d)  Conversion of nitrite to nitric oxide

Answer: (c)

82. Asbestos is found maximum in which of t he following countries?

(a)  Australia

(b)  Canada

(c)  Africa

(d)  Russia

Answer: (d)

83. Which country announces the imposition of a three-month State emergency after failed coup ?

(a)  Turkey

(b)  Syria

(c)  Sudan

(d)  Iran

Answer: (a)

84. Begihton Cup is related to which of the following sports ?

(a)  Football

(b)  Hockey

(c)  Badminton

(d)  Cricket

Answer: (b)

85. Sun temple is situated in which of the following States ?

(a)  Odisha

(b)  Gujarat

(c)  Karnataka

(d)  Tamil Nadu

Answer: (a)

86. The growth of bacteria is measured by

(a)  hemacytometer

(b)  spectrophotometer

(c)  calorimeter

(d)  auxanometer

Answer: (b)

87. The sideways erosion, which widens the river valley, called

(a)  Lateral corrosion

(b)  Vertical corrosion

(c)  Side corrosion

(d)  Mean corrosion

Answer: (a)

88. The Constitution

(a)  is silent on the President’s re-election to the office

(b)  allows re-election of a person to the President’s post

(c)  restricts a person to remain president for only for terms

(d)  has been amended to allow a person only one term as President

Answer: (b)

89. Smooth muscles are likely to be found in

(a)  muscles of legs

(b)  muscles of arms

(c)  stomach

(d)  heart

Answer: (c)

90. Synagogue is the place of worship of

(a)  Zoroastrianism

(b)  Taoism

(c)  Judaism

(d)  Shintoism

Answer: (c)

91. The civilian airport of highest altitude is in

(a)  Tibet

(b)  Nepal

(c)  India

(d)  China

Answer: (a)

92. The branch of biology, which deals with extinct organisms, is called

(a)  Palynology

(b)  Phylogeny

(c)  Palaeobotany

(d)  Palaentology

Answer: (d)

93. The least distance of distinct vision is

(a)  35 cm

(b)  25 cm

(c)  45 cm

(d)  15 cm

Answer: (b)

94. When will demand become a grant?

(a)  When a demand is proposed.

(b)  After the discussion on demand is over.

(c)  After the demand is granted.

(d)  When the budget session is closed.

Answer: (c)

95. Summer rains in Australia broadly decreases from

(a)  East to West

(b)  West to East

(c)  North to South

(d)  South to North

Answer: (c)

96. The blue revolution is related with

(a)  fish production

(b)  foodgrain production

(c)  oilseed production

(d)  milk production

Answer: (a)

97. Which is post-harvest folk dance in Assam?

(a)  Ankia Nat

(b)  Bihu

(c)  Raut Nacha

(d)  Namgen

Answer: (b)

98. The substrate of photorespiration is

(a)  Fructose

(b)  Pyruvic acid

(c)  Glycolate

(d)  Glucose

Answer: (c)

99. The UNIX operating system is suitable for

(a)  multi user

(b)  real-time processing

(c)  distributed  processing

(d)  single user

Answer: (a)

100. Sink hole is a phenomenon of

(a)  plain

(b)  desert

(c)  tundra

(d)  karst

Answer: (d)

SSC CGL Preliminary Examination Held on September 6, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC CGL Preliminary Examination Held on September 6, 2016
SSC CGL Preliminary Examination Held on September 6, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC CGL Preliminary Examination Held on September 6, 2016

1. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: Preamble : Constitution : : ? : ?

(a)  Word : Dictionary

(b)  Contents : Magazine

(c)  Explanation : Poetry

(d)  Preface : Book

Answer: (d)

2. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

EFG : VUT :: KLM : ?

(a)  KJH

(b)  PON

(c)  ZXY

(d)  FDC

Answer: (b)

3. Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

85 : 42 :: 139 : ?

(a)  68

(b)  69

(c)  70

(d)  67

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 4-6) For the following questions find the odd word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

4.

(a)  Geometry

(b)  Trigonometry

(c)  Algebra

(d)  Mathematics

Answer: (d)

5.

(a)  BDGK

(b)  JLOS

(c)  NPSW

(d)  MORU

Answer: (d)

6.

(a)  64

(b)  125

(c)  225

(d)  216

Answer: (c)

7. If the given words are arranged according to English dictionary, which word will be in third place?

(a)  KNOW

(b)  KNACK

(c)  KNIT

(d)  KNOB

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-9) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

8. ELFA, GLHA, IIJA, ?, MLNA

(a)  OLPA

(b)  KLMA

(c)  LLMA

(d)  KLLA

Answer: (d)

9. 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, ?

(a)  49

(b)  51

(c)  52

(d)  53

Answer: (d)

10. Pointing towards a photo, Rakesh said, “She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather.” How is the girl related to Rakesh?

(a)  Sister

(b)  Daughter

(c)  Grand Daughter

(d)  Cousin

Answer: (a)

11. A is mother of B, C is son of A, D is brother of E, E is daughter of B. Who is the grandmother of E?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (a)

12. From the given alternatives words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

COURAGEOUS

(a)  COURSE

(b)  GRACE

(c)  SECURE

(d)  ARGUE

Answer: (c)

13. If ‘THEN’ is written as RLBS, then how may ‘CASE’ be written in that code?

(a)  AEPJ

(b)  APEP

(c)  EPAP

(d)  PAEJ

Answer: (a)

14. If ‘×’ means subtraction; ‘−’ means division, ‘÷’ means addition and ‘%’ means multiplication, then find the value of :

13 ÷ 3 × 6 % 8 – 4 ÷ 14 = ?

(a)  18

(b)  14

(c)  12

(d)  8

Answer: (a)

15. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 3 ⋆ 2 ⋆ 8 ⋆ 4 = 632,

    2 ⋆ 4 ⋆ 4 ⋆ 4 = 816, then

    3 ⋆ 3 ⋆ 5 ⋆ 1 = ?

(a)  95

(b)  45

(c)  315

(d)  184

Answer: (a)

16. Find the missing numbers from the given alternatives

(a)  120

(b)  360

(c)  100

(d)  240

Answer: (d)

17. Rema walked 10 km South and turned right and walked 5 km. Then again she turned right and walked 10 km. Then she turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will Rema have to walk to reach the starting point?

(a)  25 km

(b)  20 km

(c)  5 km

(d)  15 km

Answer: (d)

18. One statement is given followed by two conclusions/assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.

Statements All Hindus are God fearing. No Japanese is a Hindu

Conclusions

I. The Japanese are not God fearing.

II. All God fearing are Hindus.

(a)  Only conclusion I follows

(b)  Only conclusion II follows

(c)  Both conclusion I and II follow

(d)  Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (d)

19. Find the number of triangles in the figure

(a)  8

(b)  9

(c)  11

(d)  13

Answer: (d)

20. Study the following Venn diagram and find the region representing persons who are educated and employed but not confirmed.

(a)  A, C

(b)  A, B, C

(c)  B, D

(d)  A, D, C

Answer: (c)

21. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Answer: ()

22. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded

Answer: (d)

23. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Answer: (c)

24. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Answer: (b)

25. In this question, the sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented. .The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., O can be represented by 03, 14, etc., and ‘K’ can be represented by 56, 65, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘EASE’

(a)  55, 85, 44, 42

(b)  77, 85, 88, 44

(c)  77, 66, 31, 44

(d)  00, 98, 23, 98

Answer: (b)

26. The rate at which RBI gives short term loan to commercial banks is called

(a)  Repo rate

(b)  Reverse Repo rate

(c)  Bank rate

(d)  Cash Reserve rate

Answer: (a)

27. The nationalization of major commercial banks took place in

(a)  1947

(b)  1956

(c)  1969

(d)  1980

Answer: (c)

28. Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct control of

(a)  Ministry of Home Affairs

(b)  Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

(c)  Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d)  President

Answer: (c)

29. Which of the following Act introduced separate electorates (communal representation) for Muslims?

(a)  1892 Act

(b)  Act of 1909

(c)  Reforms of 1919

(d)  Government of India Act of 1935

Answer: (b)

30. Where is the Brihadeshwar temple, built during the Chola period, located?

(a)  Mysore

(b)  Mahabalipuram

(c)  Tanjavur

(d)  Kanyakumari

Answer: (c)

31. The first protocol to ban the emissions of chloroflurocarbons in the atmosphere was made in

(a)  Montreal

(b)  Osaka

(c)  Geneva

(d)  Florida

Answer: (a)

32. Blood group was discovered by

(a)  Alexander Fleming

(b)  William Harvey

(c)  Landsteiner

(d)  Paulov

Answer: (c)

33. Magnetic Meridian is a

(a)  line parallel to the equator of the Earth

(b)  latitude

(c)  line joining the geographic North and geographic South of Earth

(d)  plane passing through the magnetic North and magnetic South of Earth

Answer: (d)

34. Programs that duplicate the functionality of one system on another system is known as

(a)  Emulators

(b)  Simulators

(c)  Evaluators

(d)  PCB

Answer: (a)

35. The manufacturing of iron from iron-ore involves the process of

(a)  Oxidation

(b)  Reduction

(c)  Electrolysis

(d)  Fractional distillation

Answer: (b)

36. In a rainforest, the vegetation that grows under the shade of a canopy, is known as

(a)  Crown

(b)  Canopy

(c)  Understorey

(d)  Forest floor

Answer: (c)

37. The term ‘roll-in’ is used in

(a)  Cricket

(b)  Tennis

(c)  Hockey

(d)  Golf

Answer: (c)

38. Which of the following is the busiest International sea port in India?

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Kolkata

(c)  Kochi

(d)  Tuticorin

Answer: (a)

39. The word ‘Secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which Constitutional Amendment?

(a)  41st Constitutional Amendment

(b)  42nd Constitutional Amendment

(c)  43rd Constitutional Amendment

(d)  44th Constitutional Amendment

Answer: (b)

40. Who coined the slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’?

(a)  Subash Chandra Bose

(b)  Balagangadhar Tilak

(c)  Bhagat Singh

(d)  Sukhdev

Answer: (b)

41. ‘Great Barrier Reef’, the world’s largest Coral reef is located in

(a)  Caribbean Island

(b)  Australia

(c)  Philippines

(d)  Indonesia

Answer: (b)

42. Decoding and interpretation of visual information in brain is associated with

(a)  frontal lobe

(b)  occipital lobe

(c)  temporal lobe

(d)  parietal lobe

Answer: (d)

43. Flemings ‘Left hand Rule’ is associated with the effect of

(a)  electric field on current

(b)  magnetic field on magnet

(c)  electric field on magnet

(d)  magnetic Field on current

Answer: (d)

44. An emulsion is a colloidal solution of

(a)  liquid in  liquid

(b)  solid in liquid

(c)  gas in solid

(d)  solid in solid

Answer: (a)

45. ……… is a byproduct of sewage treatment and can be decomposed to produce bio-gas.

(a)  Sewage

(b)  Sludge

(c)  Sewer

(d)  Scum

Answer: (b)

46. The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB) is headquartered at

(a)  Shanghai

(b)  New Delhi

(c)  Brasilia

(d)  Moscow

Answer: (c)

47. Which one of the following cities of Iraq is located on Tigris river?

(a)  Baghdad

(b)  Mousul

(c)  Krikuk

(d)  Basra

Answer: (a)

48. Human Development Index is prepared by

(a)  UNDP

(b)  WTO

(c)  IMF

(d)  WHO

Answer: (a)

49. Uber Cup is associated with

(a)  Football

(b)  Handball

(c)  Badminton

(d)  Squash

Answer: (c)

50. The food in Onion is stored in the form of

(a)  cellulose

(b)  protein

(c)  starch

(d)  sugar

Answer: (a)

51. If 4/5th of a number exceeds its 3/4th by 8, then the number is

(a)  130

(b)  120

(c)  160

(d)  150

Answer: (c)

52. The rate of discount being given on a shirt, where selling price is Rs 546 after deducting a discount of Rs 109 on its marked price, is

(a)  14%

(b)  18%

(c)  15%

(d)  16%

Answer: (d)

53. If the ratio of two numbers is 1:5 and their product is 320, then the difference between the squares of these two numbers is

(a)  1024

(b)  1256

(c)  1536

(d)  1435

Answer: (c)

54. Numbers of boys and girls are ‘x’ and ‘y’ respectively; ages of a girl and a boy are ‘a’ years and ‘b’ years respectively. The average age (in years) of all boys and girls.

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

55. A man bought 30 defective machines for Rs 1000. He repaired and sold them @ Rs 300 per machine. he got profit of Rs 150 per machine. how much did he spend on repairs?

(a)  Rs 5500

(b)  Rs 4500

(c)  Rs 3500

(d)  Rs 2500

Answer: (c)

56. x is 5 times longer than y. The percentage by which y is less than x is

(a)  50%

(b)  40%

(c)  80%

(d)  70%

Answer: (c)

57. A motor cycle gives an average of 45 km per litre. If the cost of petrol is Rs 20 per litre. The amount required to complete a journey of 540 km is

(a)  Rs 120

(b)  Rs 360

(c)  Rs 200

(d)  Rs 240

Answer: (d)

58. A sum of money amounts to Rs 6655 at the rate of 10% compounded annually for 3 years. The sum of money i s

(a)  Rs 5000

(b)  Rs 5500

(c)  Rs 6000

(d)  Rs 6100

Answer: (a)

59. If x2 – 4x + 1 = 0, then the value of  is

(a)  48

(b)  52

(c)  55

(d)  58

Answer: (b)

60. If then  the value of  is

(a)  7

(b)  11

(c)  23

(d)  27

Answer: (a)

61. If  then x equal to

(a)  1

(b)  13

(c)  27

(d)  25

Answer: (d)

62. If ‘O’ is the incentre of the ∆ If ∠POR = 115°, then value of ∠PQR is

(a)  40°

(b)  65°

(c)  50°

(d)  25°

Answer: (c)

63. The inradius of triangle is 4 cm and its area is 34 sq cm the perimeter of the triangle is

(a)  8.5 cm

(b)  17 cm

(c)  34 cm

(d)  20 cm

Answer: (b)

64. If tan θ + cot θ = 2, then the value of tan nθ + cot nθ is

(a)  2n

(b)  2n/2

(c)  21/2

(d)  2

Answer: (d)

65. A certain number of men can do a piece of work in 60 days. If there were 6 men more, the work can be finished 20 days earlier. The number of men working is

(a)  6

(b)  12

(c)  18

(d)  24

Answer: (b)

66. If a2 = b + c, b2 = c + a, c2 = a + b, then the value of 

(a)  1

(b)  1/3

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

67. The area of a triangle ABC is 10.8 cm2. If CP = PB and 2AQ = QB, then the area of the triangle APQ is

(a)  3.6 cm2

(b)  0.9 cm2

(c)  2.7 cm2

(d)  1.8 cm2

Answer: (d)

68. ABCD is a trapezium in which AD | | BC and AB = DC = 10 m, then the distance of AD from BC is

(a)  10√2 m

(b)  4√2

(c)  5√2 m

(d)  6√2

Answer: (c)

69. From the top of a building 60 m high, the angle of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30° and 60°. The height of the tower in meter is

(a)  40 m

(b)  45 m

(c)  50 m

(d)  55 m

Answer: (a)

70. If a circle of radius 12 cm is divided into two equal parts by one concentric circle, then radius of inner circle is

(a)  6 cm

(b)  4 cm

(c)  6√2 cm

(d)  4√2 cm

Answer: (c)

71. If cos x = sin y and cot (x – 40°) = tan(50° − y), then th value of x and y are

(a)  x = 70°, y = 20°

(b)  x = 75°, y = 15°

(c)  x = 85°, y = 5°

(d)  x = 80°, y = 10°

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 72-75) The bar graph shows the number of males and females (in crores) in India during 1951-91. Read the graph and answer the following questions.

72. What was the approximate percentage of female population in India during 1991?

(a)  48.23%

(b)  48.02%

(c)  48.03%

(d)  48.33%

Answer: (a)

73. What was the approximate number of males in India in 1971 per thousands females?

(a)  913

(b)  1075

(c)  1077

(d)  1175

Answer: (c)

74. What is the ratio of the numbers of females in India in 1961 per thousands males to the number of males in India in 1991 per thousand fefmales?

(a)  943 : 1077

(b)  1077 : 943

(c)  1073 : 913

(d)  913 : 1073

Answer: (d)

75. Assuming that the rate of increase in the total population in India during 1991-2001 remains the same as that was during the period 1981-91, estimate the total population in India in 2001.

(a)  105.62 crore

(b)  106.25 crore

(c)  106.52 crore

(d)  105.26 crore

Answer: (b)

76. In the following question, out of four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Negotiation

(a)  In-Between

(b)  Carelessness

(c)  Bargaining

(d)  Slackness

Answer: (c)

77. In the following question, out of the four alternatives,, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Impromptu

(a)  Punctual

(b)  Prompt

(c)  Prepared

(d)  Profound

Answer: (c)

78. Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(a)  Bureaucracy

(b)  Beureaucracy

(c)  Beureaucracie

(d)  Bureaucracie

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 79-81) In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error, the letter of that part will be the answer. If the sentence has no error, mark (d) as you answers.

79. He told his friend (A) / that he could not be that work (B) / because it is not to his taste. (C) No Error (D)

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (c)

80. The tragedy of Julius Caesar (A) / was written by William Shakespeare (B) / about 1599. (C) No Error (D)

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (c)

81. The writer is (A) / evidently enamoured at (B) / the subject (C) No Error (D)

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-84) The sentence given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative.

82. Nothing is impossible ……….. him.

(a)  in

(b)  about

(c)  for

(d)  on

Answer: (c)

83. My relations ………. him are not friendly.

(a)  between

(b)  with

(c)  to

(d)  for

Answer: (b)

84. George …………. to this country a year ago.

(a)  was coming

(b)  came

(c)  is coming

(d)  comes

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 85-87) In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

85. Blow one’s trumpet

(a)  To praise another

(b)  To praise a leader

(c)  To praise oneself

(d)  To praise a community

Answer: (c)

86. Stick to his guns

(a)  Stand by his truth

(b)  Maintain his own opinion

(c)  Maintain his weapons

(d)  Maintain his anger

Answer: (b)

87. At sea

(a)  Journey

(b)  At a loss

(c)  Surprise

(d)  Sad

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 88-90) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

88. one who is eighty years old

(a)  Septagenarian

(b)  Sextagenarian

(c)  Nonagenarian

(d)  Octogenarian

Answer: (d)

89. A shady fertile place in the desrt

(a)  Oasis

(b)  Motel

(c)  Orchard

(d)  Garden

Answer: (a)

90. A place where bees are kept

(a)  Apiary

(b)  Nursery

(c)  Aviary

(d)  Kennel

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

91. Seeing may be believing but understanding are definitely knowing.

(a)  understanding could be knowing

(b)  understanding to know

(c)  understanding is definitely knowing

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (c)

92. There are some bacteria that are survive inside nuclear power stations.

(a)  have

(b)  were

(c)  can

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (c)

93. No sooner did she finish the lecture, that the students began to leave.

(a)  then the students began to leave

(b)  than the students began to leave

(c)  and the students began to leave

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (b)

94. Hundred gathered to await the boxer’s arrival at the airport.

(a)  to await for

(b)  to awaits for

(c)  to wait

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (d)

95. The dissidents hold a great problem in every political paty.

(a)  cause

(b)  instil

(c)  incite

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Stockholm is spread out on an archipelago of 14 islands, where Lake Malaren meets the Baltic Sea. More airy than Venice, with wide-open spaces, it is one-third water. Its other two-thirds combine arched bridges, jet fountains, and palatial buildings trimmed with gold. For Stockhomers, fans of great outdoors, this is an amiable and graceful home and a healthy environment in which to live. Minutes from the city centre are parks and woodland for recreation, and clear water for swimming and fishing.

In winter, everyone takes to ice-skating, on artificial rinks in the shadows of grand places, or on the frozen waters of the channel.

Stockholm is also a city at the leading edge of fashion, design and advanced technology. Fashion houses and IT companies use the city as a test market for their innovations, especially as Stockholmers are followers of technology.

Stockholm is the capital as well as the largest city of Sweden. It is the sit of the government and Parliament of the country.

96. An archipelago is a collection of

(a)  cities

(b)  islands

(c)  lakes

(d)  coral-reefs

Answer: (b)

97. Stockholm is

(a)  one-third water and two-thirds arched bridges, jet fountains and palatial buildings

(b)  two-third water and one-third land

(c)  full of tall buildings

(d)  a city with lots of people

Answer: (a)

98. What is the opposite of the word ‘amiable’?

(a)  Enervating

(b)  Refreshing

(c)  Invigorating

(d)  Unpleasant

Answer: (d)

99. Why is Stockholm used as a test market for innovation by IT companies and Fashion houses?

(a)  The Stockholmers are followers of technology.

(b)  Stockholm is the largest city of Sweden.

(c)  The citizens are fashionable

(d)  The people like the outdoors.

Answer: (a)

100. Stockholm is important to the country because

(a)  it has palatial buildings

(b)  there are parks and woodlands for recreation

(c)  there are artificial skating rinks

(d)  it is the largest city and capital of Sweden

Answer: (d)

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) 10+2 (TIER-1) Examination Held on January 22, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) 10+2 (TIER-1) Examination Held on January 22, 2017
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) 10+2 (TIER-1) Examination Held on January 22, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission

SSC 10+2 (TIER-1) Examination 2017

Held On January 22, 2017

Part I General Intelligence

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-4) Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives

1. Tropic of Cancer : Latitude :: Prime Meridian : ?

(a)  Equinox

(b)  Contour line

(c)  Longitude

(d)  Climatic zone

Answer: (c)

2. ECEIN : NIECE :: VANISH : ?

(a)  HSINVA

(b)  SHINAV

(c)  HSINAV

(d)  HSNIAV

Answer: (d)

3. HNP : JPR :: QRS : ?

(a)  KNO

(b)  STU

(c)  NQR

(d)  TZA

Answer: (b)

4. 14 : 225 : : 17 : ?

(a)  225

(b)  324

(c)  342

(d)  569

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 5-8) Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

5.

(a)  Bridge

(b)  Escalator

(c)  Ladder

(d)  Staircase

Answer: (a)

6.

(a)  VTR

(b)  JLO

(c)  PNL

(d)  HFD

Answer: (b)

7.

(a)  1256

(b)  5397

(c)  8765

(d)  9842

Answer: (d)

8.

(a)  1728

(b)  5789

(c)  6088

(d)  4321

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-12)  A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

9. Zoo, National Park, Wildlife Sanctuary, ?

(a)  Biosphere Reserve

(b)  Forest

(c)  Botanical Garden

(d)  Prairie

Answer: (a)

10. LMN, NPP, PSR, ?

(a)  QRS

(b)  RQT

(c)  PQR

(d)  RVT

Answer: (d)

11. FD, HF, KH, OJ, ?

(a)  GH

(b)  EF

(c)  RS

(d)  TL

Answer: (d)

12. 1, 6, 21, 66, ?

(a)  250

(b)  201

(c)  310

(d)  308

Answer: (b)

13. In the following question, two statements are given each followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statements

I. Demonetization has evolved need for leaning Electronic Payment System (EPS).

II. EPS will enable people to go cashless and use plastic money for most of their transactions.

Conclusions

I. EPS is quick, safe, and easy way of transaction of money from one account to another.

II. Cashless transactions will further curb the black marketing of money in upcoming time.

(a)  Only conclusion II follows

(b)  Conclusion I and II both follow

(c)  Neither I nor II follow

(d)  Only conclusion I follows

Answer: (c)

14. If day before yesterday was Sunday, then which day of the week will the sixth day from today be?

(a)  Wednesday

(b)  Tuesday

(c)  Monday

(d)  Thursday

Answer: (c)

15. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Regulate         2. Remedy

3. Reassemble  4. Research

(a)  3, 1, 2, 4

(b)  1, 2, 3, 4

(c)  4, 2, 1, 3

(d)  1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: (a)

16. In a certain code language, AUSTRALIA is written as @$!#^@*?!. How is ‘STRAIT’ written in that code language?

(a)  !#^@?#

(b)  !#@^?#

(c)  !#^?@#

(d)  !#^@#?

Answer: (a)

17. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

(a)  R

(b)  K

(c)  L

(d)  O

Answer: (b)

18. If + means ‘subtraction’, x means ‘division’, ‘÷’ means ‘addition’ and ‘−‘ means ‘multiplication’, then

15 × 5 + 78 – 5 ÷ 4 = ?

(a)  −391

(b)  −460

(c)  −475

(d)  −743

Answer: (a)

19. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

    CDEF_EDC_DE_FED_

(a)  FCFC

(b)  FCCD

(c)  DCCC

(d)  DEFC

Answer: (a)

20. A boy leaves his home. He walks 45 m in south-west direction and then 145 m in North-East direction. Then, he moves 60 m in South direction. How far is he now from his initial position?

(a)  100 m

(b)  80 m

(c)  40 m

(d)  60 m

Answer: (b)

21. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘N’ can be represented by 21, 43 etc. And ‘R’ can be represented by 66, 57 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘GEAR’.

(a)  03, 99, 57, 77

(b)  44, 55, 42, 66

(c)  41, 00, 02, 78

(d)  65, 02, 00, 43

Answer: (b)

22. Introducing a boy, a girl says, ‘He is the son of the only sister of my mother’s brother’. How is the boy related to that girl?

(a)  Father-in-law

(b)  Brother

(c)  Cousin

(d)  Niece

Answer: (b)

23. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Answer: (c)

24. Identify the diagram that bet represents the relationship among the given classes.

Answer: (b)

25. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (b)

Part II General Awareness

26. Who built the Buddhist monuments at Sanchi?

(a)  Mughal dynasty

(b)  Maurya dynasty

(c)  Gupta dynasty

(d)  Chola dynasty

Answer: (b)

27. Gulzar won Oscars for the movie ‘Slumdog Millionaire’ in the category of

(a)  Best sound mixing

(b)  Best original score

(c)  Best original song

(d)  Best foreign language film

Answer: (c)

28. Which of the following is a primary function of haemoglobin?

(a)  Utilization of energy

(b)  Prevention of anaemia

(c)  Destruction of bacteria

(d)  To transport oxygen

Answer: (d)

29. Vascular bundles are absent in

(a)  Bryophyta

(b)  Pteridophyta

(c)  Gymnosperms

(d)  Angiosperms

Answer: (a)

30. Sauria lacertidae is the scientific name of

(a)  crocodile

(b)  hippopotamus

(c)  lizard

(d)  house fly

Answer: (c)

31. In chemistry, soap is a salt of a

(a)  fatty acid

(b)  glycol

(c)  phosphorus

(d)  ammonium carbonate

Answer: (a)

32. A ……….. is a pair of forces, equal magnitude, oppositely directed, and displaced by perpendicular distance or moment.

(a)  bond

(b)  couple

(c)  pair

(d)  duo

Answer: (b)

33. Which of these is not an Operating System?

(a)  Android

(b)  iOS

(c)  HTML

(d)  Symbian

Answer: (c)

34. Chapchar Kut is a festival of which State?

(a)  Manipur

(b)  Nagaland

(c)  Mizoram

(d)  Meghalaya

Answer: (c)

35. Find are elasticity of demand, if quantity demanded falls from 750 units to 650 u nits when price of the item is increased from Rs. 15 to Rs. 20?

(a)  0.5

(b)  −0.5

(c)  −2

(d)  2

Answer: (b)

36. In which stage of the business cycle the inventory stock will be the highest?

(a)  Boom

(b)  Depression

(c)  Recession

(d)  Recovery

Answer: (b)

37. Which type of pathogen causes the water-borne disease SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome)?

(a)  Viral

(b)  Parasitic

(c)  Protozoan

(d)  Bacterial

Answer: (a)

38. Excessive richness of nutrients in a lake or other body of water is called

(a)  Biomagnification

(b)  Global Warming

(c)  Salination

(d)  Eutrophication

Answer: (d)

39. Which of the following is a Direct tax?

(a)  Excise duty      

(b)  Customs duty

(c)  Service tax

(d)  Wealth tax

Answer: (d)

40. The boundary line between India and Pakistan is called

(a)  McMahon line

(b)  Maginot line

(c)  Radcliffe line

(d)  Sir Creek

Answer: (c)

41. Which city is located on the banks of the river Mahanadi?

(a)  Bengaluru

(b)  Cuttack

(c)  Badrinath

(d)  Kota

Answer: (b)

42. When was the battle of Haldighati fought?

(a)  1776

(b)  1676

(c)  1576

(d)  1476

Answer: (c)

43. In 1498, which Portuguese explorer discovered a new sea route from Europe to India?

(a)  Vasco da Gama

(b)  Christopher Columbus

(c)  Sir Francis Drake

(d)  John Cabot

Answer: (a)

44. Who invented Aspirin?

(a)  Ruth Handler

(b)  John Harington

(c)  Rowland Hill

(d)  Felix Hoffmann

Answer: (d)

45. A larger force on a rotating body results in larger

(a)  mass

(b)  torque

(c)  axis of rotation

(d)  centre of mass

Answer: (b)

46. What is the unit of the physical quantity, magnetic flux density?

(a)  Siemens

(b)  Weber

(c)  Henry

(d)  Tesla

Answer: (d)

47. Article-24 of the Indian Constitution ‘Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc’ deals with?

(a)  fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen

(b)  Union government

(c)  State government

(d)  Directive principles of State policy

Answer: (a)

48. Article-134A of the Indian Constitution ‘Certificate for appeal to the Supreme Court’ deals with?

(a)  State government

(b)  Union government

(c)  Fundamental rights of the Indian citizen

(d)  Directive principles of State policy

Answer: (b)

49. Highest number of test hundreds is scored by

(a)  Jacques Kallis

(b)  Sachin Tendulkar

(c)  Ricky Ponting

(d)  Brian Lara

Answer: (b)

50. Who is the author of ‘Can Love Happen Twice’?

(a)  Keshav Aneel

(b)  Raviinder Singh

(c)  Sudeep Nagarkar

(d)  Aravind Adiga

Answer: (b)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

51. The two numbers are 63 and 77, HCF is 7, Find the LCM.

(a)  668

(b)  693

(c)  674

(d)  680

Answer: (b)

52. The total cost of a washing machine with an electric chimney was Rs. 57750. The electric chimney was sold at a profit of 34% and the washing machine at a loss of 24%. If the sale price was the same in both the items, then the cost price of the cheaper item was

(a)  Rs. 26850

(b)  Rs. 20900

(c)  Rs. 28875

(d)  Rs. 25850

Answer: (b)

53. If (7 – 12x) – (3x – 7) = 14, then the value of x is

(a)  −4

(b)  0

(c)  5

(d)  2

Answer: (b)

54. Find the roots of the quadratic equation 6 × 2 – 11x – 35 = 0

(a)  5/3, −7/2

(b)  −5/3, 7/2

(c)  −3/5, 2/7

(d)  3/5, −2/7

Answer: (b)

55. If 5x + 2 < 4x + 1 and 2(x – 4) – 2 ≤ 4x – 1; then x can take which of the following values?

(a)  0

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  −2

Answer: (d)

56. Two students appeared for an examination. One of them secured 10 marks more than the other and his marks were 75% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are

(a)  52 and 42

(b)  68 and 58

(c)  63 and 53

(d)  15 and 5

Answer: (d)

57. By increasing the price of entry ticket to a fair in the ratio 3 : 7, the number of visitors to the fair has decreased in the ratio 16 : 13. In what ratio has the total collection increased or decreased?

(a)  decreased it the ratio 91 : 48

(b)  increased in the ratio 48 : 91

(c)  increased in the ratio 39 : 112

(d)  decreased in the ratio 112 : 39

Answer: (b)

58. To cover a distance of 315 km in 2.8 hours what should be the average speed of the car?

(a)  112.5 m/s

(b)  56.25 m/s

(c)  62.5 m/s

(d)  31.25 m/s

Answer: (d)

59. In an arithmetic progression, if 17 is the 3rd term, −25 is the 17th term, then −1 is which term?

(a)  10

(b)  11

(c)  9

(d)  12

Answer: (c)

60. The distance between the points (4, −8) and (k, 0) is 10. Find k?

(a)  k = 6 or –2

(b)  k = 10 or – 2

(c)  k = 10 or – 4

(d)  k = 6 or – 4

Answer: (b)

61. Praful has done 1/2 of a job in 30 days, Sarabjit completes the rest of the job in 10 days. In how m any days can the together do the job?

(a)  30 days

(b)  45 days

(c)  15 days

(d)  60 days

Answer: (c)

62. Ticket for an adult is Rs. 500 and a child is Rs. 200. 1 child goes fee with two adults. If a group has 20 adults and 8 children what will be the discount the group get?

(a)  53.43%

(b)  13.79%

(c)  32.2%

(d)  35.06%

Answer: (b)

63. A factory buys 8 machines. 3 Machine A, 2 Machine B and rest Machine C. Prices of the machines are Rs. 100000, Rs. 80000 and Rs. 45000 respectively. Calculate the average cost of these machines?

(a)  74375

(b)  75000

(c)  75625

(d)  72875

Answer: (a)

64. What is the equation of the line which passes through the points (2, 3) and (−4, 1)?

(a)  x – 3y = −7

(b)  x + 3y = 7

(c)  x – 3y = 7

(d)  x + 3y = −7

Answer: (a)

65. In ∆ABC, the angle bisector of ∠A cuts BC at E. Find length of AC, if lengths of AB, BE and EC are 9 cm, 3.6 cm and 2.4 cm?

(a)  5.4 cm

(b)  8 cm

(c)  4.8 cm

(d)  6 cm

Answer: (d)

66. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 22% per annum payable half-yearly is

(a)  44%

(b)  23.21%

(c)  46.42%

(d)  22%

Answer: (b)

67. In a triangle, the length of the opposite side of the angle which measures 45° is 8√2 cm, what is the length of the side opposite to the angle which measures 90°?

(a)  16 cm

(b)  4⋁3 cm

(c)  8⋁3 cm

(d)  6⋁3 cm

Answer: (a)

68. If the volume of a cylinder is 2156 cubic cm and height is 14 cm, find its radius?

(a)  14 cm

(b)  21 cm

(c)  3.5 cm

(d)  7 cm

Answer: (d)

69. What is the value of 

(a)   

(b)  −√3

(c)  −1

(d)  √3

Answer: (a)

70.  is equal to

(a)  cos C – cos D

(b)  sin C + sin D

(c)  cos C + cos D

(d)  sin C – sin D

Answer: (c)

71. cot2 Asin2A is equal to

(a)  cot2 A + cos2 A

(b)  tan2 A – cos2 A

(c)  cot2 A – cos2 A

(d)  tan2 A + cos2 A

Answer: (c)

72. Refer the below data table and answer the following question.

What is the value of the total stock (in lakh rupees)?

(a)  1058.9

(b)  143

(c)  347

(d)  105.89

Answer: (d)

73. Refer the below data table and answer the following question.

If the imports in 2012 was Rs. 1000 crores and the total exports in the years 2012 and 2013 together was Rs. 3200 crores, then the imports in 2013 was?

(a)  2062

(b)  2291

(c)  909

(d)  2545

Answer: (a)

74. Refer the below data table and answer the following question

What was the increase in the height of the child from the 5th birthday to the 14th birthday?

(a)  75 cm

(b)  80 cm

(c)  65 cm

(d)  70 cm

Answer: (d)

75. Refer the below data table and answer the following question

Between 10 pm to 6 am, a fitness band records the following data. How long was the user Dreaming or in Extremely light sleep?

(a)  2.8 h

(b)  2.3 h

(c)  1.3 h

(d)  3.3 h

Answer: (a)

Part IV English Language

76. Select the word with the correct spelling.

(a)  Isommetry

(b)  Artfully

(c)  Muddling

(d)  Carkasses

Answer: (b)

77. Select the antonym of ‘Privy’.

(a)  Utterior

(b)  Obscure  

(c)  Covert

(d)  Public

Answer: (d)

78. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

It is essential (thorough cleaning) the mixer after each batch.

(a)  to clean thoroughly

(b)  to through clean

(c)  to cleaning thoroughly

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (a)

79. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best express the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

‘You can do this job’ said Nikki to Jyoti

(a)  Nikki told Jyoti she could do that job.

(b)  Nikki tod Jyoti she could do this job.

(c)  Nikki told Jyoti that she could do that job.

(d)  Nikki told Jyoti tht, tht she could do this job.

Answer: (c)

80. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free error, select ‘No Error’.

The kitten sat-up(A)/the glass roof, and yawned(B)/and blinked its round eyes.(C) No error (D)

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (a)

81. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To bend over backwards

(a)  To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back

(b)  Stepping away from an unpleasant situation

(c)  To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful

(d)  Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority

Answer: (c)

82. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

The office boy vacuums and dusts the office every morning.

(a)  Every morning the office was vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.

(b)  Every morning the office had been vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.

(c)  Every morning the office is vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.

(d)  Every morning the office has been vacuumed and dusted by the office boy.

Answer: (c)

83. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.

(a)  pious

(b)  reverent

(c)  humble

(d)  devout

Answer: (b)

84. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to the filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

I have been paying taxes for the past five years yet I do not have the ………. to vote as I am not a citizen.

(a)  authority

(b)  responsibility

(c)  right

(d)  claim

Answer: (c)

85. Select the antonym of ‘to chuckle’

(a)  to snicker

(b)  to guffaw

(c)  to lament

(d)  to chortle

Answer: (c)

86. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.

(a)  To annul

(b)  To negate

(c)  To efface

(d)  To undo

Answer: (b)

87. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

This may sound like

P-the actual problem                  Q-at the scale of

R-a lot, until one looks

(a)  QRP

(b)  RQP

(c)  PRQ

(d)  PQR

Answer: (b)

88. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’. Which part of the sentence has an error?

Ajay glanced up(A)/ at her laughing (B)/and watched her intently. (C) No error (D)

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (a)

89. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

I didn’t know he had such an ….. collection of books.

(a)  sweeping

(b)  major

(c)  elaborate

(d)  extensive

Answer: (d)

90. Select the synonym of ‘Caricature’.

(a)  Adulation

(b)  Eulogy

(c)  Cartoon

(d)  Hokum

Answer: (c)

91. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

I didn’t know he had such an ……….. collection of books

(a)  life is always choosing between two options

(b)  challenges are hidden opportunities

(c)  escaping one difficulty but falling into another

(d)  faced with two equally undesirable alternatives

Answer: (c)

92. Select the word with the correct spelling.

(a)  Gondolas

(b)  Snubing

(c)  Smalters

(d)  Stradle

Answer: (a)

93. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Ravi (hadn’t ought to) have done that to Shaina.

(a)  ought not

(b)  ought not to

(c)  have not ought to

(d)  no  improvement

Answer: (b)

94. Select the synonym of ‘to predispose’

(a)  to assail

(b)  to thwart

(c)  to defy

(d)  to incline

Answer: (d)

95. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

He must actually announce.

P-how he intends to bring

Q-the businessman to book

R-a plan of action detailing

(a)  RPQ

(b)  RQP

(c)  PQR

(d)  QPR

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

There …….. three components to the UGC’s package governing the faculty, Of these, mostly two have proved to be ……. of contention between the two parties. These have to do with the …… workload for teachers and student evaluation of courses, including the …….. lecturer herself. But it is the third component that needs to be ……… for its suitability.

96. There ……. three components to the UGC’s package governing the faculty.

(a)  is

(b)  have been

(c)  had been

(d)  are

Answer: (d)

97. Of these, mostly two have proved to be ……… of contention between the two parties.

(a)  bones

(b)  muscles

(c)  teeth

(d)  nails

Answer: (a)

98. These have to do with the ………. workload for teachers and student evaluation of courses.

(a)  mandated

(b)  voluntary

(c)  charged

(d)  summoned

Answer: (a)

99. including ………. the lecturer herself.

(a)  for

(b)  of

(c)  with

(d)  about

Answer: (b)

100. But it is the third component that needs to be ………. for its suitability.

(a)  pored over

(b)  scrutinized

(c)  scanned

(d)  perused

Answer: (b)

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) TIER-2 Examination Held on January 12, 2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) TIER-2 Examination Held on January 12, 2017 Quantitative Aptitude
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) TIER-2 Examination Held on January 12, 2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission

SSC CGL (TIER-2) Examination Held On January 12, 2017

Paper-1 Quantitative Aptitude

1. Twenty one times of a positive number is less than its square by 100. The value of the positive number is

(a)  25

(b)  26

(c)  42

(d)  41

Answer: (a)

2. Two pipes of length 1.5 m and 1.2 m are to be cut into equal pieces without leaving any extra length of pipes. The greatest length of the pipe pieces of same size which can be cut from these two lengths, will be

(a)  0.13 m

(b)  0.4 m

(c)  0.3 m

(d)  0.41 m

Answer: (c)

3. A General of an Army wants to create a formation of square from 36562 army men. After arrangement, he found some army men remained unused. Then the number of such army men remained unused was

(a)  36

(b)  65

(c)  81

(d)  97

Answer: (c)

4. The smallest number, which should be added to 756896 so as to obtain a multiple of 11, is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  5

Answer: (c)

5. A boy found the answer for the question “Subtract sum of 1/4 and 1/5 from unity and express the answer in decimals” as 0.45. The percentage of error inh is answer was

(a)  (100/11)%

(b)  50%

(c)  10%

(d)  (200/11)%

Answer: (d)

6. The product of two number is 48. If one number equals “the number of wings of bird plus 2 times the number of fingers on your hand divided by the number of wheels of tricycle”, then the other number is

(a)  9

(b)  10

(c)  12

(d)  18

Answer: (c)

7. Natu and Bachku each have certain number of oranges. Natu says to Bachku, “If you give me 10 of our oranges, I will have twice the number of oranges left with you”. Buchku replies, “If you give me 10 of your oranges, I will have the same number of oranges as left with you”. What I s the number of oranges with Natu and Bachku, respectively?

(a)  50, 20

(b)  70, 50

(c)  20, 50

(d)  50, 70

Answer: (b)

8. A square playground measures 1127.6164 sq m. If a man walks  a minute, the time taken by him to walk one round around it is approximately.

(a)  50.82 min

(b)  54.82 min

(c)  54.62 min

(d)  50.62 min

Answer: (b)

9. Three electronic devices make a beep after every 48, 72 and 108 seconds respectively. They beeped together at 10 a.m. The time when they will next make a deep together at the earliest is

(a)  10 : 07 : 12 h

(b)  10 : 07 : 24 h

(c)  10 : 07 : 36 h

(d)  10 : 07 : 48 h

Answer: (a)

10. Two baskets together have 640 oranges. If 1/5th of the oranges in the first basket be taken to the second basket, the number of oranges in the first basket is

(a)  800

(b)  600

(c)  400

(d)  300

Answer: (c)

11. P can do 1/4th of work in 10 days, Q can do 40% of work in 40 days and R can do 1/3rd of work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first?

(a)  P

(b)  Q

(c)  R

(d)  Both P and R

Answer: (c)

12. Working 7 hours in a day, 4 men can do a piece of work in 8 days. Working 8 hours in a day, the required number of men to perform the same work in 4 days will be

(a)  8

(b)  4

(c)  7

(d)  9

Answer: (c)

13. 35 persons are engaged to complete a work in 60 days. After 32 days it is observed that only 2/5th part of the work has been done. The number of persons to be engaged to complete the remaining work in the said periods is

(a)  20

(b)  35

(c)  30

(d)  25

Answer: (d)

14. The time taken by 4 men to complete a job is double the time taken by 5 children to complete the same job. Each man is twice as fast as a woman. How long will 12 men, 10 children and 8 women take to complete a job, given that a child would finish the job in 20 days?

(a)  4 days

(b)  3 days

(c)  2 days

(d)  1 day

Answer: (d)

15. The labourers A, B, C were given a contract of Rs. 750 for doing a certain piece of work. All the three together can finish the work in 8 days. A and C together can do it in 12 days, while A and B together can do it in  The money will be divided in the ratio

(a)  4 : 5 : 6

(b)  4 : 7 : 5

(c)  5 : 7 : 4

(d)  5 : 6 : 8

Answer: (a)

16. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 12 days. They worked together for 5 days and then A alone finished the rest work in 14 days. A alone can complete the work in ……. .

(a)  24 days

(b)  22 days

(c)  20 days

(d)  18 days

Answer: (a)

17. A shopkeeper offers 15% discount on all plastic toys. He offers a further discount of 4% on the reduced price to those customers who pay cash. What does a customer have to pay in case for a toy Rs. 200?

(a)  Rs. 133.7

(b)  Rs. 129.8

(c)  Rs. 163.2

(d)  Rs. 153.3

Answer: (c)

18. A photographer allows a discount of 10% o0n the advertised price of a camera. The price that must be marked on the camera, which cost him Rs. 600, to make a profit of 20% would be

(a)  Rs. 650

(b)  Rs. 800

(c)  Rs. 700

(d)  Rs. 850

Answer: (b)

19. A dinner set is quoted for Rs. 1500. A customer pays Rs. 1173 for it. If the customer got a series of two discounts and the rate of first discount is 15%, then the rate of second discount was,

(a)  15%

(b)  7%

(c)  9%

(d)  8%

Answer: (d)

20. A dishonest dealer defrauds to the extent of x% in buying as well as selling his goods by using faulty weight. What will be the gain percent on his outlay?

(a)  2x%

(b)   

(c) 

(d)  x%

Answer: (a)

21. In a college union, there are 48 students. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls is 5 : 3. The number of girls to be added in the union, so that the number of boys to girls in 6 : 5, is

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  12

(d)  17

Answer: (b)

22. There are three bottles of mixture of syrup and water of ratios 2 : 3, 3 : 4 and 7 : 5. 10 L of first and 21 L of second bottles are taken How much quantity from third bottle is to be taken so that final mixture from three bottles will be of ratios 1:1.

(a)  25 L

(b)  20 L

(c)  35 L

(d)  30 L

Answer: (d)

23. In a coloured picture of blue and yellow colour, blue and yellow colour is used in the ratio of 4 : 3 respectively. If in upper half, blue : yellow is 2 : 3, then the lower half blue : yellow is

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  26 : 9

(d)  9 : 26

Answer: (c)

24. A and B start an enterprise together, with A as active partner. A invests Rs. 4000 and Rs. 2000 more after 8 months. B invests Rs. 5000 and withdraws Rs. 2000 after 9 months. Being the active partner, A takes Rs. 100 per month as allowance, from the profit. What is the share of B if the profit for the year is Rs. 6700?

(a)  Rs. 3350

(b)  Rs. 3250

(c)  Rs. 2700

(d)  Rs. 2800

Answer: (c)

25. A sum of Rs. 15525 is divided among Sunil, Anil and Jamil such that if Rs. 22, Rs. 35 and Rs. 48 be diminished from their shares respectively, their remaining sums shall be in the ratio 7 : 10 : 13. What would have been the ratio of their sums if Rs. 16, Rs. 77 and Rs. 37 respectively were added to their original shares?

(a)  9 : 13 : 17

(b)  18 : 26 : 35

(c)  36 : 52 : 67

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

26. A’s income is Rs. 140 more than B’s income and C’s income is Rs. 80 more than D’s. If the ratio of A’s and C’s income is 2:3 and the ratio of B’s and D’s income is 1:2, then the incomes of A, B, C and D are respectively

(a)  Rs. 260, Rs. 120, Rs. 320, Rs. 240

(b)  Rs. 300, Rs. 160, Rs. 600 and Rs. 520

(c)  Rs. 400, Rs. 260, Rs. 600 and Rs. 520

(d)  Rs. 320, Rs. 180, Rs. 480 and Rs. 360

Answer: (c)

27. A batsman has a certain average of runs for 12 innings. In the 13th inning he scores 96 runs thereby increasing his average by 5 runs. What will be his average after 13th inning?

(a)  28

(b)  32

(c)  36

(d)  42

Answer: (c)

28. A team of 8 persons joins in a shooting competition. The best marksman scored 85 points. If he had scored 92 points, the average score for the team would have been 84. The number of points the team scored was

(a)  672

(b)  665

(c)  645

(d)  588

Answer: (b)

29. A librarian purchased 60 story books for his library. But he found that he could get 4 extra books by spending Rs. 336 more and then the overall average price per book would be reduced by Rs. 1. The previous average price of each book was

(a)  Rs. 84

(b)  Rs. 83

(c)  Rs. 68

(d)  Rs. 100

Answer: (d)

30. In an exam, the average marks obtained by John in English, Maths, Hindi and Drawing were 50. His average marks in Maths, Science, Social Studies and Craft were 70. If the average marks in all seven subjects is 58, his score in Maths was

(a)  50

(b)  52

(c)  60

(d)  74

Answer: (d)

31. The average weight of 3 men A, B and C is 84 kg. Another man D joins the group and the average now becomes 80 kg. If another man E whose weight is 3 kg more than that of D, replaces, A, then the average weight of B, C, D and E becomes 79 kg. What is the weight of A?

(a)  70 kg

(b)  72 kg

(c)  75 kg

(d)  80 kg

Answer: (c)

32. The average monthly salary of all the employees in a factory is Rs. 8840. Number of officers in the factory is 150. If the average salary of all the officers is Rs. 15000 and that of the remaining employees is Rs. 8000, then what is the percentage of the officers among the employees?

(a)  12%

(b)  15%

(c)  18%

(d)  20%

Answer: (a)

33. The ratio of cost price and selling price of an article is 20 : 21. Then gain percent on it, is

(a)  4%

(b)  5%

(c)  6%

(d)  7%

Answer: (b)

34. The ratio of cost price and selling price of an article 25 : 26. The percent of profit will be

(a)  26%

(b)  25%

(c)  1%

(d)  4%

Answer: (d)

35. A shopkeeper buys 20 kg of a product of Rs. 150 per kg. 15% of product was damaged. At what price (per kg) should he sell the remaining so as to earn a profit of 20%?

(a)  Rs. 211

(b)  Rs. 205

(c)  Rs. 200

(d)  Rs. 203

Answer: (a)

36. Kanpur purchased two toy cycles for Rs. 750 each He sold these cycles, gaining 6% on one and losing 4% on the other. The gain or loss percent in the whole transaction is

(a)  1% loss

(b)  1% gain

(c)  1.5% loss

(d)  1.5 gain

Answer: (b)

37. The profit earned by a shopkeeper by selling a bucket at a gain of 8% is Rs. 28 more than when he sells it at a loss of 8%. The cost price of the bucket is

(a)  Rs. 170

(b)  Rs. 190

(c)  Rs. 175

(d)  Rs. 165

Answer: (c)

38. A man bought 500 m of electronic wire at 50 paise per metre. He sold 50% of it at a profit of 5%. At what percent should he sell the remains so as to gain 10% on the whole transaction?

(a)  13%

(b)  12.5%

(c)  15%

(d)  20%

Answer: (c)

39. A line of length 1.5 m was measured as 1.55 m by mistake. What will be the value of error percent?

(a)  0.05%

(b)  3.33%

(c)  3.67%

(d)  0.5%

Answer: (b)

40. A businessman imported Laptops, worth Rs. 210000, Mobile phones worth Rs. 100000 and Television sets worth Rs. 150000. He had to pay 10% duty on laptops, 8% on Phones and 5% on Television sets as a special case. How much total duty he had to pay on all items as per above details?

(a)  Rs. 36500

(b)  Rs. 37000

(c)  Rs. 37250

(d)  Rs. 37500

Answer: (a)

41. A man spend  of his money and after spending 75% of the remaining, he had Rs. 370 left. How much money did he have

(a)  1200

(b)  1600

(c)  1500

(d)  1400

Answer: (b)

42. On a certain date, Pakistan has a success rate of 60% against India in all the ODIs played between the two countries. They lost the next 30 ODIs in a row to India and their success rate comes down to 30%. The total number of ODIs played between the two countries is

(a)  50

(b)  45

(c)  60

(d)  30

Answer: (c)

43. Two donkeys are standing 400 m apart. First donkey can run at a speed of 3 m/sc the second can run at 2 m/sec. If two donkeys run towards each other after how much time will they bump into each other?

(a)  60 sec

(b)  80 sec

(c)  400 sec

(d)  40 sec

Answer: (b)

44. Rubi goes to a multiplex at the speed of 3 km/h to see a movie and reaches 5 minutes late. If she travels at the speed of 4 km/h, she reaches 5 minutes early. Then the distance of the multiplex from her starting point is

(a)  2 km

(b)  5 km

(c)  2 m

(d)  5 m

Answer: (a)

45. A man travels some distance at a speed of 12 km/h and returns at a speed of 9 km/h. If the total time taken by him is 2 h 20 minutes, the distance is

(a)  35 km

(b)  21 km

(c)  9 km

(d)  12 km

Answer: (d)

46. A and B are 15 km apart and when travelling towards each other meet after half an hour whereas they meet two and a half hours later if they travel in the same direction. The faster of the two travels at the speed of

(a)  15 km/h

(b)  18 km/h

(c)  10 km/h

(d)  8 km/h

Answer: (b)

47. The sum for 2 years gives a compound interest of Rs. 3225 t 15% rate. Then sum is

(a)  Rs. 10000

(b)  Rs. 20000

(c)  Rs. 15000

(d)  Rs. 32250

Answer: (a)

48. In 3 years, Rs. 3000 amounts to Rs. 3993 at x% compound interest, compound annually. The value of x is

(a)  10

(b)  8

(c)  5

(d)  8

Answer: (a)

49. A man borrowed some money and agreed to pay-off by paying Rs. 3150 at the end of the 1st year and 4410 at the end of the 2nd year. If the rate of compound interest is 5% per annum, then the sum is

(a)  Rs. 5000

(b)  Rs. 6500

(c)  Rs. 7000

(d)  Rs. 9200

Answer: (c)

50. 260200 is divided between Ram and Shyam so that the amount that Ram receives in 4 years is the same as that Shyam receives in 6 years. If the interest is compound annually at the rate of 4% per annum then Ram’s share is

(a)  Rs. 125000

(b)  Rs. 135200

(c)  Rs. 152000

(d)  Rs. 108200

Answer: (b)

51. The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 3. The ratio of their volumes is

(a)  27 : 20

(b)  20 : 27

(c)  4 : 9

(d)  9 : 4

Answer: (b)

52. Three cubes of iron whose edges are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively are melted and formed into a single cube. The edge of the new cube formed is

(a)  12 cm

(b)  14 cm

(c)  16 cm

(d)  18 cm

Answer: (a)

53. The radii of two concentric circles are 68 cm and 22 cm. The area of the closed figure bounded by the boundaries of the circles is

(a)  4140 π sq cm

(b)  4110 π sq cm

(c)  4080 π sq cm

(d)  4050 π sq cm

Answer: (a)

54. The radius of a sphere is 6 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of radius 0.2 cm. The length of the wire is

(a)  81 m

(b)  80 m

(c)  75 m

(d)  72 m

Answer: (d)

55. The radius of a wire is decreased to one-third. If volume remains the same, length will increase by

(a)  1.5 times

(b)  3 times

(c)  6 times

(d)  9 times

Answer: (d)

56. In a trapezium ABCD, AB and DC are parallel sides and ∠ADC = 90°. If AB = 15 cm, CD = 40 cm and diagonal AC = 41 cm, then the area of the trapezium ABCD is

(a)  245 cm2

(b)  240 cm2

(c)  247.5 cm2

(d)  250 cm2

Answer: (c)

57. The area of a rhombus having one side 10 cm and one diagonal 12 cm is

(a)  48 cm2

(b)  96 cm2

(c)  144 cm2

(d)  192 cm2

Answer: (b)

58. The cost of travelling a circular field at 50 paise per square metre is Rs. 7700. The cost of putting up a fence all round it at Rs. 1.20 per metre is

(a)  Rs. 132

(b)  Rs. 264

(c)  Rs. 528

(d)  Rs. 1056

Answer: (c)

59. From the four corners of a rectangular sheet of dimensions 25 × 20 cm, square of side 2 cm is cut off from four corners and a box is made The volume of the box is

(a)  828 cm3

(b)  672 cm3

(c)  500 cm3

(d)  1000 cm3

Answer: (b)

60. The height and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder are 4 cm and 8 π sq cm respectively. The radius of base of cylinder is

(a)  (2√2 – 2) cm

(b)  (2 – √2) cm

(c)  2 cm

(d)  √2 cm

Answer: (a)

61. The radius of cylindrical milk container is half its height and surface area of the inner part is 616 sq cm. The amount of milk that the container can hold, approximately, is [Use : √5 = 2.23 and π = 22/7]

(a)  1.42 L

(b)  1.53 L

(c)  1.71 L

(d)  1.82 L

Answer: (b)

62. A solid brass sphere of radius 2.1 dm is converted into a right circular cylindrical rod of length 7 cm. The ratio of total surface areas of the rod to the sphere is

(a)  3 : 1

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  7 : 3

(d)  3 : 7

Answer: (b)

63. The sum of the length and breadth of a rectangle is 6 cm. A square is constructed such that one of its sides is equal to a diagonal of the rectangle. If the ratio of areas of the square and rectangle is 5 : 2, the area of the square in cm2 is

(a)  20 cm2

(b)  10 cm2

(c)  √5 cm2

(d)  10√2 cm2

Answer: (a)

64. The length of a side of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm. The area of the region lying between the circum circle and the incircle of the triangle is

(a)  

(b)   

(c)  

(d)  

Answer: (b)

65. A solid sphere of radius 3 cm is melted to form a hollow right circular cylindrical tube of length 4 cm and external radius 5 cm. The thickness of the tube is

(a)  1 cm

(b)  9 cm

(c)  0.6 cm

(d)  1.5 cm

Answer: (*)

66. If  then the value  is

(a)  970

(b)  1030

(c)  −970

(d)  −1030

Answer: (a)

67. If   then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  3

Answer: (c)

68. If x = y + 2, then x3 – y3 – z3 is

(a)  0

(b)  3xyz

(c)  −3xyz

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

69. If a + b + c + d = 4, then the value of    is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  4

(d)  1 + abcd

Answer: (a)

70. The simplified value of  is closest to

(a)   

(b) 

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (d)

71. If x = 11, the value of x5 – 12x4 + 12x3 – 12x2 + 12x – 1 is

(a)  11

(b)  10

(c)  12

(d)  −10

Answer: (b)

72. If  then the value of 

(a)  √29

(b)  −√27

(c)  −√29

(d)  √27

Answer: (d)

73. If  (where a ≠ b ≠ c), then abc is equal to

(a)  +1

(b)  −1

(c)  +1 and −1

(d)  None of the options

Answer: (c)

74. If ax + by = 1 and  then (x2 + y2) (a2 + b2) is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0.5

(d)  0

Answer: (a)

75. If x, y, z are the three factors of a3 – 7a – 6, then value of x + y + z will be

(a)  3a

(b)  3

(c)  6

(d)  a

Answer: (a)

76. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral of which AB is the diameter. Diagonals AC and BD intersect at E. If ∠DBC = 35°, then ∠AED measures

(a)  35°

(b)  45°

(c)  55°

(d)  90°

Answer: (c)

77. In a triangle ABC, ∠A = 70°, ∠B = 80° and D is the incentre of ∆ If ∠ACB = 2x° and ∠BDC = y°. The values of x and y, respectively are

(a)  15, 130

(b)  15, 125

(c)  35, 40

(d)  30, 150

Answer: (b)

78. In a right angled triangle ∆DEF, if the length of the hypotenuse EF is 12 cm, then the length of median DX is

(a)  3 cm

(b)  4 cm

(c)  6 cm

(d)  12 cm

Answer: (c)

79. Two equal circles intersect so that their centres, and the points t which they intersect form a square of side 1 cm. The area of the portion that is common to the circles is

(a)   

(b)    

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (b)

80. PQRA is a rectangle, AP = 22 cm, PQ = 8 cm. ∆ABC is a triangle, whose vertices lie on the sides of PQRA such that BQ = 2 cm and QC = 16 cm. Then the length of the line joining the mid points of the sides AB and BC is

(a)  4√2 cm

(b)  5 cm

(c)  6 cm

(d)  10 cm

Answer: (b)

81. ∆ABC is an isosceles right angled triangle having ∠C = 90°. If D is any point on AB, then AD2 + BD2 is equal to

(a)  CD2

(b)  2CD2

(c)  3CD2

(d)  4CD2

Answer: (b)

82. D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of ∆ABC such that DE is parallel to BC and AD : DB = 4 : 5, CD and BE intersect each other at F. Then the ratio of the areas of ∆DEF and ∆CBF

(a)  16 : 25

(b)  16 : 81

(c)  81 : 16

(d)  4 : 9

Answer: (b)

83. Diagonals of a Trapezium ABCDC intersect each other at the point O. If AB = 2CD, then the ratio of the areas of ∆AOB and ∆COD is

(a)  4 : 1

(b)  1 : 16

(c)  1 : 4

(d)  16 : 1

Answer: (a)

84. If O is the orthocenter of a triangle ABC and ∠BOC = 100°, the measure of ∠BAC is

(a)  100°

(b)  180°

(c)  80°

(d)  200°

Answer: (c)

85. PQ and RS are common tangents to two circles intersecting at A and B. AB, when produced both sides, meet the tangents PQ and RS at X and Y, respectively. If AB = 3 cm, XY = 5 cm, then PQ will be

(a)  3 cm

(b)  4 cm

(c)  5 cm

(d)  2 cm

Answer: (b)

86. If sec A + tan A = a, then the value of cos A is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)    

Answer: (b)

87. If sin P + cosec P = 2, then the value of sin7p + cosec7 p is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  0

Answer: (b)

88. If cos x ∙ cos y + sin x ∙ sin y = −1 then cos x + cos y is

(a)  −2

(b)  1

(c)  0

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

89. The value of the expression 2(sin6θ + cos6 θ) – (3sin4 θ + cos4 θ) + 1 is

(a)  −1

(b)  0

(c)  1

(d)  2

Answer: (b)

90. If  then the value of cot θ is equal to [If 0 ≤ θ ≤ 90°]

(a) 

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

91. The distance between two pillars is 120 m. he height of one pillar is thrice the other. The angles of elevation of their tops from the midpoint of the line connecting their feet are complementary to each other. The height of the taller pillar is (Use : √3 = 1.732)

(a)  34.64 m

(b)  51.96 m

(c)  69.28 m

(d)  103.92 m

Answer: (d)

92. If x = cosec θ – sin θ and y = sec θ – cos θ, then the relation between x and y is

(a)  x2 + y2 + 3 = 1

(b)  x2 y2(x2 + y2 + 3) = 1

(c)  x2 (x2 + y2 – 5) = 1

(d)  y2(x2 + y2 – 5) = 1

Answer: (b)

93. A hydrogen filled balloon ascending at the rate of 18 km/h was drifted by wind. Its angle of elevation at 10th and 15th minutes were found to be 60° and 45° The wind speed (in whole numbers) during the last five minutes, approximately, is equal to

(a)  7 km/h

(b)  11 km/h

(c)  26 km/h

(d)  33 km/h

Answer: (d)

94. The angle of elevation of an aeroplane as observed from a point 30 m above the transparent water-surface of a lake is 30° and the angle of depression of the image of the aeroplane in the water of the lake is 60°. The height of the aeroplane from the water-surface of the lake is

(a)  60 m

(b)  45 m

(c)  50 m

(d)  75 m

Answer: (a)

95. The angles of depression of two ships from the top of a light house are 60° and 45° towards East. If the ships are 30 m apart, the height of the light house is

(a)  200(3 + √3) m

(b)  250(3 + √3) m

(c)  150(3 + √3) m

(d)  160(3 + √3) m

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) The following Bar –diagram shows total number of males and females in five different organizations. Study it carefully to answer the question.

96. What is the difference between the total number of females and the total number of males from all the organizations together/

(a)  2005

(b)  2050

(c)  2500

(d)  2055

Answer: (c)

97. By how much percentage is the average number of females from all the organizations together is more than the number of males in organization ‘D’?

(a)  30%

(b)  38%

(c)  40%

(d)  45%

Answer: (c)

98. What I s the ratio of the number of females from the organizations B and C to the number of males from the organizations D and E?

(a)  12 : 11

(b)  12 : 15

(c)  11 : 15

(d)  15 : 11

Answer: (d)

99. Males from organizations A and B together form what percent of total number of males from organizations C, D and E together?

(a)  78.04%

(b)  87.44%

(c)  47.08%

(d)  74.08%

Answer: (a)

100. What is the ratio of average number of females from the organizations A, B and C to the average number of males from the organizations C, D and E?

(a)  42 : 41

(b)  41 : 42

(c)  40 : 41

(d)  41 : 40

Answer: (a)

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) 10+2 (Tier-1) Examination Held on January 18, 2017 Question Paper with Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) 10+2 (Tier-1) Examination Held on January 18, 2017
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) 10+2 (Tier-1) Examination Held on January 18, 2017 Question Paper with Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

10+2 (Tier-1) Examination Held on January 18, 2017

1. Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

        RESISTANCE : OHM : : CURRENT : ?

(a)  Faraday

(b)  Radian

(c)  Ampere

(d)  Volt

Answer: (c)

2. Select the related word/letters/ number from the given alternatives.

          UHCDN : VIDEO : OKZXDQ : ?

(a)  REPLAY

(b)  REPOSE

(c)  PLAYER

(d)  OPPOSE

Answer: (c)

3. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

      64 : 8 :: 289 ; ?

(a)  17

(b)  27

(c)  26

(d)  19

Answer: (a)

4. Select the related word/letters/ number from the given alternatives.

      13 : 156 : : 17 : ?

(a)  135

(b)  270

(c)  272

(d)  130

Answer: (c)

5. Select the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

(a)  Islamabad

(b)  Kabul

(c)  Canberra

(d)  Sydney

Answer: (d)

6. Select the odd word/letters/number/ number pair from the given alternatives.

(a)  EG

(b)  EB

(c)  BY

(d)  GD

Answer: (a)

7. Select the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

(a)  2378

(b)  7562

(c)  6662

(d)  1155

Answer: (d)

8. Select the odd word letters/number/ number pair from the given alternatives.

(a)  149

(b)  157

(c)  199

(d)  121

Answer: (d)

9. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

      Lieutenant, Captain, ?, Lieutenant Colonel

(a)  Brigadier

(b)  Major

(c)  Sub Lieutenant

(d)  Major General 

Answer: (b)

10. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

(a)  EGF

(b)  DFE

(c)  DEF

(d)  EFG

Answer: (d)

11. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

      TU, ?, NO, XY

(a)  IJ

(b)  FG

(c)  DF

(d)  DE

Answer: (d)

12. A series is given the one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

                  3, 12, 48, ?

(a)  96

(b)  184

(c)  192

(d)  384

Answer: (c)

13. In the following question, two statements are given each followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide, which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement

I. Some camels are ships.

II. No ship is a boat.

Conclusion

I. Some ships are camels.

II. Some camels are not boats.

(a)  Conclusion I follows

(b)  Conclusion II follows

(c)  Neither I nor II follows

(d)  Both I and II follows

Answer: (b)

14. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting together. T is at one extreme end. P is the neighbor of T and is third to the left of Q. Who is fourth to the right of T?

(a)  P

(b)  T

(c)  Q

(d)  S

Answer: (c)

15. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

i. Joke ii. Jockey

iii. Jocular     iv. Jocund

(a)  iv, ii, i, iii

(b)  ii, iii, iv, i

(c)  ii, iii, i, iv

(d)  iv, ii, iii, i

Answer: (b)

16. In a certain code language, ‘DANGER’ is written as ‘145237’and ‘RANCOR’ is written as ‘745967’. How is ‘RAGE’ written in that code language?

(a)  7231

(b)  7234

(c)  7423

(d)  7441

Answer: (c)

17. Choose the odd number/number pair from the given responses.

(a)  19

(b)  1

(c)  21

(d)  13

Answer: (c)

18. If ‘K’ means ‘minus’, ‘L’ means ‘divided by’, ‘M’ means ‘plus’ and ‘D’ means ‘multiplied by’, then

       117  L  3 K  5 M  12 D 8 = ?

(a)  150

(b)  125

(c)  130

(d)  145

Answer: (c)

19. In the following question, which one set of letter when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

       P_R_S_QRR_

(a)  QPRS

(b)  QRPS

(c)  QRPP

(d)  QPSR

Answer: (b)

20. Kajal left home for a hospital. She traveled 5 m towards East, then turned towards South-East to travel another 10 km, then again she turned towards North-East to travel 10 km and finally, she reached the hospital. In which direction is hospital with respect to her house?

(a)  South

(b)  North

(c)  West

(d)  East

Answer: (d)

21. Find the missing number.

(a)  4

(b)  7

(c)  3

(d)  6

Answer: (c)

22. Deepak has a brother named Aditya. Deepak is the son of Kuldeep. Bunty is Kuldeep’s father. How is Aditya related to Bunty?

(a)  Uncle

(b)  Brother

(c)  Grandson

(d)  Grandfather

Answer: (c)

23. In a certain code language, ‘BRAIN’ is written as ‘CSBJO’, then how is ‘MAKER’ written in that code language?

(a)  BNLFS

(b)  NBLFS

(c)  FSLBN

(d)  NBLFT

Answer: (b)

24. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Males, Doctors, Brothers

Answer: (a)

25. If J = 1, K = 2, L = 5, M = 7, N = 11, O = 13, P = 17, then what will come in the place of question mark in given expression?

N × ? + M ÷ K = 31

(a)  L

(b)  P

(c)  J

(d)  O

Answer: (a)

26. The Indian Parliament House was designed by

(a)  Alvar Aalto

(b)  Michael Graves

(c)  Edwin Lutyens

(d)  Renzo Piano

Answer: (c)

27. Raghuveer Chaudhari won Jnanpith Award for work in which language?

(a)  Gujarati

(b)  Marathi

(c)  Hindi

(d)  Telugu

Answer: (a)

28. Which drug is used as an Antidepressant?

(a)  Oxybutynin

(b)  Tramadol

(c)  Sumatriptan

(d)  Bupropion

Answer: (b)

29. The orange colour of carrot is because is

(a)  it grows in the soil

(b)  carotene

(c)  it is not exposed to sunlight

(d)  the entire plant is orange in colour

Answer: (b)

30. Snake venom is highly modified saliva containing

(a)  prototoxins

(b)  neutrotoxins

(c)  zootoxins

(d)  electrotoxins

Answer: (c)

31. Heavy water is

(a)  monoterium oxide

(b)  polyterium oxide

(c)  deuterium oxide

(d)  trisium oxide

Answer: (c)

32. Which among the following elements has highest electronegativity?

(a)  Gallium

(b)  Sodium

(c)  Arsenic

(d)  Caesium

 

Answer: (c)

33. How many GB is equal to 1 TB?

(a)  128

(b)  256

(c)  512

(d)  1024

Answer: (d)

34. Most airports in India are named after

(a)  places

(b)  festivals

(c)  politicians

(d)  animals

Answer: (c)

35. Find arc elasticity of demand. if quantity demanded falls from 1050 to 950 when price of the item i s increased from Rs. 250 to Rs. 290?

(a)  −0.68

(b)  −0.6

(c)  0.68

(d)  0.6

Answer: (a)

36. Suppose the equilibrium price for sugar is Rs. 50/kg. If the government sets a price floor of Rs. 70/kg, then

(a)  quantity of sugar demanded will be greater than the quantity demanded at equilibrium price

(b)  there will be a shortage of sugar in the market

(c)  there will be a surplus of sugar in the market.

(d)  quantity of sugar supplied will be less than what was supplied at the equilibrium price

Answer: (a)

37. Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of reserves of which of the following animals?

(a)  Tiger

(b)  Lion

(c)  Peacock

(d)  Langur

Answer: (a)

38. Which type of pathogen causes the water-borne disease Schistosomiasis?

(a)  Parasitic

(b)  Protozoan

(c)  Bacterial

(d)  Viral

Answer: (a)

39. The highest airport in India is

(a)  Dharamshala airport

(b)  Pithoragarh airport

(c)  Leh airport

(d)  Dehradun airport

Answer: (c)

40. World’s longest land border is between which two countries?

(a)  Australia and New Zealand

(b)  India and China

(c)  Switzerland and Italy

(d)  Canada and USA

Answer: (d)

41. Baghdad is the Capital City of …. .

(a)  Iraq        

(b)  Thailand

(c)  China

(d)  Russia

Answer: (a)

42. The Bibi ka Maqbara is a tomb located in …… . It was built by Azam Shah, son of Aruangzeb, in 1678.

(a)  Hyderabad

(b)  Aurangabad

(c)  Lucknow

(d)  Allahabad

Answer: (b)

43. Battle of Kannauj was fought in the year

(a)  1764

(b)  1526

(c)  1540

(d)  1857

Answer: (c)

44. Which company developed Java?

(a)  Microsoft

(b)  Sun

(c)  Novell

(d)  Oracle

Answer: (b)

45. Who established the foundations of the Quantum theory?

(a)  Max Planck

(b)  Mark Nicholas

(c)  Albert Einstein

(d)  Alfred Hitchcock

Answer: (a)

46. If in a motion, the axis of the rotation passes through an object, then the motion is called

(a)  Orbital motion

(b)  Circulatory motion

(c)  Spin motion

(d)  Oscillatory motion

Answer: (b)

47. Call sign of any aircraft carrying the Indian President is

(a)  Air India One

(b)  Airforce One

(c)  Code Eagle

(d)  Flight 101

Answer: (a)

48. Article-32 of the Indian Constitution ‘Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part’ deals with

(a)  the Union government

(b)  the State government

(c)  the fundamental rights of the Indian citizen

(d)  the directive principles of States policy

Answer: (c)

49. First Indian sportsperson to win an individual Olympics silver for India is

(a)  Sushil Kumar

(b)  Rajyavardhan Singh

(c)  Abhinav Bindra

(d)  Dhyanchand

Answer: (b)

50. Who wrote the Harry Potter series?

(a)  Jrrtolkins

(b)  George RR Martin

(c)  JK Rowling

(d)  Stephen King

Answer: (c)

51. If 3x + 5(4 – 3x) > – 4x < 3x – x/3; then the value of x is

(a)  3

(b)  0

(c)  2

(d)  −1

Answer: (*)

52. At 9% discount the selling price of a washing machine is Rs. 14000, what is the selling price if the discount is 22%?

(a)  Rs. 12000

(b)  Rs. 9360

(c)  Rs. 10202.4

(d)  Rs. 13322.4

Answer: (a)

53. A rice trader buys 22 quintals of rice for Rs. 3344. 24% rice is lost in transportation. At what rate should he sell to earn 30% profit?

(a)  Rs. 88.86 per quintal

(b)  Rs. 197.6 per quintal

(c)  Rs. 269.2 per quintal

(d)  Rs. 260 per quintal

Answer: (d)

54. Which of the following is correct?

(a)  (4x – 3y)2 = 16 × 2 – 12xy + 9y2

(b)  (4x + 3y)2 = 16 × 2 – 24xy + 9y2

(c)  (4x – 3y)2 = 16 × 2 + 12xy − 9y2

(d)  (4x – 3y)2 = 16 × 2 – 24xy + 9y2

Answer: (d)

55. The point P(a, b) is first reflected in origin to, and PI is reflected in y-axis to (5, −4). The coordinates of point P are

(a)  (−5, −4)

(b)  (−5, 4)

(c)  (5, 4)

(d)  (5, −4)

Answer: (b)

56. A missile travels at 1350 km/h. How many metres does it travel in one second?

(a)  369 m

(b)  375 m

(c)  356 m

(d)  337 m

Answer: (b)

57. If tan 330° = x, then the value of x

(a)  −1/√3

(b)  −√3

(c)  −1/2

(d)  −1/√2

Answer: (a)

58. What is the value of 3/4 + 8/9?

(a)  57/27

(b)  11/13

(c)  59/36

(d)  11/9

Answer: (c)

59. If  then the value of x is

(a)  tan A

(b)  cot A

(c)  cosec A

(d)  cos A

Answer: (a)

60. What is the value of

(a)  sin A/(1 – cos A)

(b)  sin A/(1+ cos A)

(c)  tan A/ (1+ cos A)

(d)  tan A/(1− cos A)

Answer: (b)

61. The slopes of two lines are 1 and 1/√ What is the angle between these two lines?

(a)  15°

(b)  30°

(c)  45°

(d)  60°

Answer: (a)

62. What are the roots of the quadratic equation 21 × 2 – 37x – 28 = 0?

(a)  −7/3, 4/7

(b)  3/7, −7/4

(c)  7/3, −4/7

(d)  −3/7, 7/4

Answer: (c)

63. A rectangular swimming pool of length 25 m and breadth 12 m has a uniformly sloping floor. It is 2 m in depth on one end of its length and 3 m at the other. How much water is needed to completely fill this pool?

(a)  1500 cu m

(b)  2250 cu m

(c)  3000 cu m

(d)  750 cu m

Answer: (a)

64. Piyush has done 1/3rd of a job in 30 days, Sanjiv complete the rest of the job in 60 days. In how many days can they together do the job?

(a)  15 days

(b)  45 days

(c)  30 days

(d)  10 days

Answer: (b)

65. An angle is twice its complementary angle. What is the measure of the angle?

(a)  30°

(b)  90°

(c)  60°

(d)  120°

Answer: (d)

66. The first and last terms of an arithmetic progression are 33 and − What is the sum of the series if it has 16 terms?

(a)  −135

(b)  −192

(c)  −207

(d)  −165

Answer: (b)

67. 27 is 3.6% of ?

(a)  750

(b)  75

(c)  1500

(d)  1875

Answer: (a)

68. In a kite

(a)  two pairs of consecutive sides are congruent

(b)  diagonals are perpendicular bisectors of each other

(c)  both diagonals form two congruent triangles

(d)  adjacent angles are supplementary

Answer: (c)

69. The average weight of Sopan, Guruprasad and Rima is 65 kg. If the average weight of Sopan and Guruprasad be 67 kg and that of Guruprasad and Rima be 57 kg, then the weight of Guruprasad is

(a)  60

(b)  53

(c)  58

(d)  63

Answer: (b)

70. A bank offers 5% compound interest per half year. A customer deposits Rs. 9600 each on January 1 and July 1 of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is

(a)  Rs. 2928

(b)  Rs. 1464

(c)  Rs. 732

(d)  Rs. 366

Answer: (*)

71. By increasing the price of entry ticket to fair in the ratio 3:5, the number of visitors to the fair has decreased in the ratio 7:2. In what ratio has the total collection increased or decreased?

(a)  Increased in the ratio 10 : 21

(b)  Increased in the ratio 6 : 35

(c)  Decreased in the ratio 21 : 10

(d)  Decreased in the ratio 35 : 6

Answer: (d)

72. A completes 1/3 part of a work in 5 days, while B completes 2/5 part of the same work in 10 days. In how many days will they complete doing the work together?

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  10 days

Answer: (b)

73. If 182 is divided in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 4 : 1 in four parts, then minimum part is

(a)  28

(b)  15

(c)  14

(d)  7

Answer: (c)

74. If a dinning table which marked price is Rs. 6000, sale to a customer in Rs. 5000, then what is the rate of discount given on it?

(a)  10%

(b)   

(c)  8%

(d)  9%

Answer: (b)

75. 855 candidates given an application for a job but 80% of the candidates in these are not selected. How many candidates were selected for the job?

(a)  171

(b)  151

(c)  179

(d)  182

Answer: (a)

76. Select the antonym of ‘To entrust’

(a)  To confer

(b)  To allot

(c)  To rely

(d)  To deny

Answer: (b)

77. Select the word with the correct spelling.

(a)  Chaastity

(b)  Collapse

(c)  Radialy

(d)  Scansione

Answer: (b)

78. Select the synonym of ‘Subsidy’.

(a)  Endowment

(b)  Forfeit

(c)  Mulct

(d)  Reward

Answer: (a)

79. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase. Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together

(a)  Irascible

(b)  Crucible

(c)  Miscible

(d)  Risible

Answer: (c)

80. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

It is wishful thinking that you can improve the situation by doing (with) such people.

(a)  away of

(b)  away with

(c)  from

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (b)

81. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

It is not uncommon

P. to push for public expenditure

Q. at a time

R. when private investment sentiment is weak

(a)  QRP

(b)  PQR

(c)  RPQ

(d)  QPR

Answer: (b)

82. Select the synonym of ‘Digress’.

(a)  Sojourn

(b)  Meander

(c)  Tarriance

(d)  Regress

Answer: (b)

83. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Can we send this container by ship?

(a)  Can this container be sent by ship?

(b)  Could this container be sent by ship by us?

(c)  Could have we sent this container ship?

(d)  This container can  be sent by ship. Canwe?

Answer: (a)

84. In the following question, out of the four alternative, select the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Shooting fish in a barrel

(a)  To do random acts of stupidity

(b)  To behave in a cruel manner

(c)  Ridiculously easy

(d)  To escape through a narrow opening.

Answer: (c)

85. Select the word with the correct spelling.

(a)  Brunete

(b)  Nemonic

(c)  Abhorred

(d)  Carammels

Answer: (c)

86. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best express the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

“How often do you go to the gym?” said Deepak to Juned.

(a)  Deepak asked Juned that now often  he goes to the gym.

(b)  Deepak asked Juned that how often he has been going to the gym.

(c)  Deepak asked Juned how often he went to the gym.

(d)  Deepak asked Juned that how often he went to the gym.

Answer: (c)

87. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out, which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Although of good (A)/rains the production (B)/of food grains fell. (C)/ No error (D)

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (a)

88. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

                                District judges

P. in far-flung districts

Q. and gag orders

R. have been authorising mass blocking of online content

(a)  PRQ

(b)  PQR

(c)  QPR

(d)  RPQ

Answer: (a)

89. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

State laws ………… the sale of alcoholic beverages inside the stadium.

(a)  freeze

(b)  inhibit

(c)  prohibit

(d)  impede

Answer: (c)

90. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

To free someone or something from a constraint or difficulty

(a)  To exterminate

(b)  To expurgate

(c)  To intricate

(d)  To extricate

Answer: (d)

91. In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The security for the Prime Minister has been ………. up following the shootout.

(a)  secured

(b)  fortified

(c)  strengthened

(d)  beefed

Answer: (c)

92. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

In summer, the ponds (A)/just dry down (B)/ in the scorching heat.(C)/ No error (D)

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (b)

93. Select the antonym of ‘Prestige’

(a)  Eminence

(b)  Cachet

(c)  Insignificance

(d)  Kudos

Answer: (c)

94. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To sleep with the fishes

(a)  Always be in a dream world

(b)  To make absurd excuses

(c)  To sleep peacefully

(d)  To be dead

Answer: (d)

95. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Don’t step near the cliff’s edge, else your life (might be thrown into) great peril.

(a)  will be in

(b)  will face

(c)  would be placed in    

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) In the following passage, some of the words  have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

This is a question that ……………. beyond right and democracy. It plunges ……. into the basics of what constitutes that which is social. Is not the primordialism and the ………… of violence being used to construct a new kind of social? Area the current strategies of law enough to ponder ………… and ………….. about such events?

96. This is a question that ………. beyond rights and democracy.

(a)  goes

(b)  went

(c)  has gone

(d)  is going

Answer: (c)

97. It plunges …….. into the basics of what constitutes that which is social.

(a)  far

(b)  deep

(c)  wide

(d)  low

Answer: (b)

98. The ……. of violence being used to construct a new kind of social.

(a)  tact

(b)  finesse

(c)  elegance

(d)  banality

Answer: (d)

99. Are the current strategies of law enough to ponder ……. .

(a)  over

(b)  on

(c)  upon

(d)  about

Answer: (c)

100. and …….. about such event ?

(a)  strategise

(b)  plan

(c)  philosophise

(d)  brood

Answer: (c)

SSC Stenographer Recruitment Examination Held on July 31, 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key

SSC Stenographer Recruitment Examination 2016
SSC Stenographer Recruitment Examination Held on July 31, 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Stenographer Recruitment Examination Held on July 31, 2016

 Part I Reasoning

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-9) Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

1. Prediction : Future : : Regret : ?

(a)  Past

(b)  Present

(c)  Sin

(d)  Time

Ans: (a)

2. Adversary : Enemy : : Adversity : ?

(a)  Friend

(b)  Dynamic

(c)  Love

(d)  Difficulty

Ans: (d)

3. Bird : Worm :: ?

(a)  Horse : Stable

(b)  Trap : Cheese

(c)  Lion : Cave

(d)  Cat : Mouse

Ans: (d)

4. MAD : JXA : : RUN : ?

(a)  OSQ

(b)  PRJ

(c)  UXQ

(d)  ORK

Ans: (d)

5. BEGK: ADFJ:: PSVY: ?

(a)  ORUX

(b)  ROUX

(c)  LQUT

(d)  LOQT

Ans: (a)

6. AZBY: CXDW : : EVFU : ?

(a)  GHTS

(b)  TGSH

(c)  GTHS

(d)  GSTH

Ans: (c)

7. 42 : 20 : : 64 : ?

(a)  31

(b)  32

(c)  33

(d)  34

Ans: (a)

8. 6 : 18 : : : 4 : ?

(a)  6

(b)  8

(c)  10

(d)  14

Ans: (d)

9. 8 : 24 : : ? : 32

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  10

(d)  8

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 10-18) Find the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.

10.

(a)  Tired

(b)  Tardy

(c)  Slow

(d)  Late

Ans: (d)

11.

(a)  Agitation

(b)  Confusion

(c)  Commotion

(d)  Annihilation

Ans: (b)

12.

(a)  Pen : Stationery

(b)  Earth : Moon

(c)  Sun: Star

(d)  Painter : Artist

Ans: (b)

13.

(a)  EDC

(b)  MLK

(c)  NPR

(d)  XWV

Ans: (c)

14.

(a)  MOQS

(b)  ZADE

(c)  CEGI

(d)  SUWY

Ans: (b)

15.

(a)  NILE

(b)  LIEN

(c)  LINE

(d)  LEAN

Ans: (a)

16.

(a)  78

(b)  91

(c)  84

(d)  26

Ans: (c)

17.

(a)  48

(b)  96

(c)  59

(d)  12

Ans: (c)

18.

(a)  16-32

(b)  19-38

(c)  21-40

(d)  23-46

Ans: (c)

19. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order?

1. Probation    2. Interview

3. Selection     4. Appointment

5. Advertisement

(a)  5, 2, 3, 4, 1

(b)  5, 3, 2, 1, 4

(c)  5, 4, 2, 3, 1

(d)  4, 5, 1, 2, 3

Ans: (a)

20. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence :

1. Printer      2. Publisher

3. Writer     4. Editor

5. Seller

(a)  2, 3, 4, 1, 5

(b)  3, 4, 2, 1, 5

(c)  3, 4, 1, 2, 5

(d)  2, 4, 3, 5, 1

Ans: (b)

21. Which of the following words will come fourth, if arranged according to the English dictionary?

(a)  Rain

(b)  Reef

(c)  Ready

(d)  Rainbow

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-26) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

22. ACE, GIK, MOQ, ?

(a)  RTU

(b)  SUW

(c)  UVW

(d)  STV

Ans: (b)

23. LMnP, PQrT, TUvX, ?

(a)  VWnP

(b)  PRsT

(c)  UVwY

(d)  XYzB

Ans: (d)

24. 826, 480, 346, 134, ?

(a)  83

(b)  61

(c)  212

(d)  126

Ans: (c)

25. 78, 155, 309, ?, 1233

(a)  625

(b)  1230

(c)  1000

(d)  617

Ans: (d)

26. 5, 8, 16, 19, 38, 41, ?

(a)  44

(b)  80

(c)  40

(d)  82

Ans: (d)

27. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

h_t_l_tt_lht_m_htt_l

(a)  m m h t l t m

(b)  h m m t t l m

(c)  t m h m t l m

(d)  l m t m h m t

Ans: (c)

28. A and B is a married couple. C and D are brothers. C is the brother of A. How is D related to B?

(a)  Brother-in-law

(b)  Brother

(c)  Son-in-law

(d)  Cousin

Ans: (a)

29. The average age of the present ages of Amit and Anil is 32 years. If Amit is 6 years older than Anil, then what is Anil’s present age?

(a)  29 yr

(b)  38 yr

(c)  26 yr

(d)  19 yr

Ans: (a)

30. From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

JURISPRUDENCE

(a)  PREJUDICE

(b)  PRINCE

(c)  PRUNE

(d)  PRESIDENT

Ans: (d)

31. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

MONUMENT

(a)  TENENT

(b)  TENT

(c)  MOUNT

(d)  MOVEMENT

Ans: (c)

32. If in a certain code, DIAGRAM is written as AFXDOXJ, then how can PICTURE be written in that code?

(a)  NGARSPC

(b)  MGAQRPB

(c)  NFYQROC

(d)  MFZQROB

Ans: (d)

33. If ABLE is written as 5324 and BINGO is written as 36178, then BANGLE can be written as

(a)  351724

(b)  356724

(c)  321846

(d)  362417

Ans: (a)

34. If ‘+’ stands for ÷; ‘×’ stands for +; ‘−’ stands for ×, ‘÷’ stands for −, then which of the following equations is correct?

(a)  33 – 4 ÷ 5 × 6 + 2 = 130

(b)  33 × 4 – 5 + 6 ÷ 2 = 26

(c)  33 ÷ 4 × 5 + 6 – 2 = 30

(d)  33 – 4 + 5 ÷ 6 × 2 = 24

Ans: (a)

35. Sonu and his friend Rahul went for shopping. Sonu had Rs. 500 with him while Rahul had Rs. 240. Sonu spent twice as much as Rahul on shopping. Now, Sonu has three times as much money as is left with Rahul. How much money did Sonu spend?

(a)  Rs. 220

(b)  Rs. 60

(c)  Rs. 440

(d)  Rs. 120

Ans: (c)

36. Which one of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?

5 + 3 × 8 – 12 ÷ 4 = 3

(a)  +  and −

(b)  − and ÷

(c)  + and ×

(d)  + and ÷

Ans: (b)

37. Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 29 × 13 = 14, 76 × 26 = 34, then 64 × 14 = ?

(a)  54

(b)  39

(c)  32

(d)  26

Ans: (*)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38-39) Select the missing number from the given responses.

38. 121     100     ?        169

       4          8        9        7

       7          2        5        6

(a)  81

(b)  114

(c)  196

(d)  214

Ans: (c)

39. 1         4        9        16

      1          2        3        4

      2          4        6        ?

(a)  8

(b)  7

(c)  5

(d)  4

Ans: (a)

40. A girl leaves from her home. She first walks 30 m in North-West direction and then 30 m in South-West direction. Next, she walks 30 m in South-East direction. Finally, she turns towards her house. In which direction is she moving?

(a)  North-East

(b)  North-West

(c)  South-East

(d)  South-West

Ans: (a)

41. Starting from a point O, Mahesh walks a distance of 5 km South, then turns to his right and walks 3 km. From there, he again turns right and walks 5 km. .He then runs to his left and walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point?

(a)  15 km

(b)  13 km

(c)  8 km

(d)  5 km

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-43) Two statements are given followed by two/our conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

42. Statements

All apples are oranges.

Some oranges are papayas.

Conclusions

I. Some apples are papayas.

II. Some papayas are apples.

(a)  Only I follows

(b)  Only II follows

(c)  Both I and II follow

(d)  Neither I nor II follows

Ans: (d)

43. Statements

All aeroplanes are trains.

Some trains are chairs.

Conclusions

I. Some aeroplanes are chairs.

II. Some chairs are aeroplanes.

III. Some chairs are trains.

IV. Some chairs are trains.

(a)  None follows

(b)  I and II follow

(c)  II and III follow

(d)  III and IV follow

Ans: (d)

44. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

(a)  16

(b)  18

(c)  20

(d)  22

Ans: (b)

45. Which of the following figures given the proper relation to Fruit, Red and Shirt?

Ans: (d)

46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Ans: (b)

47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Ans: (d)

48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened

Ans: (a)

49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the question figure?

Ans: (b)

50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 90. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘O’ can be represented by 01, 33 etc. and ‘Q’ can be represented by 55, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘METAL’.

(a)  23, 67, 96, 40, 44

(b)  23, 76, 95, 40, 44

(c)  32, 76, 95, 44, 04

(d)  32, 76, 44, 95, 04

Ans: (c)

 

Part II General Awareness

51. The supply side measure to control inflation is

(a)  credit control

(b)  reducing public expenditure

(c)  price control through Public Distribution System

(d)  higher taxation to mop up liquidity

Ans: (d)

52. The Ability Principle of Taxation is given by

(a)  JS Mill

(b)  Adam Smith

(c)  Edgeworth

(d)  Joan Robinson

Ans: (b)

53. ‘World Economic Report’ is published by

(a)  UNCTAD

(b)  World Bank

(c)  UNDP

(d)  IMF

Ans: (d)

54. ‘Galloping inflation’ is also known as

(a)  Creeping inflation

(b)  Walking inflation

(c)  Running inflation

(d)  Hyper inflation

Ans: (d)

55. Average fixed cost curve is

(a)  downward sloping

(b)  Walking inflation

(c)  Running inflation

(d)  Hyper inflation

Ans: (c)

56. Article-368 of the Indian Constitution deals with

(a)  amending procedure

(b)  emergency provisions

(c)  right to primary education

(d)  right to information

Ans: (a)

57. Who among the following proposed the suggestion for a Constituent Assembly first in 1935?

(a)  MN Roy

(b)  Nehru

(c)  Gandhi

(d)  JP Narayan

Ans: (a)

58. According to Paul Appleby, the quality of good administrators is

(a)  self-confidence

(b)  intelligence

(c)  integrity

(d)  loyalty

Ans: (b)

59. Which of the following works of Plato is primarily a ‘treastise’ on justice?

(a)  Apology

(b)  Phaedo

(c)  The Statesman

(d)  The Republic

Ans: (d)

60. Who was referred to as the ‘Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity’ by Sarojini Naidu?

(a)  Maulana Azad

(b)  Muhammad Ali Jinnah

(c)  Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(d)  Shaukat Ali

Ans: (b)

61. The capital of Yadava kings was

(a)  Krishnagiri

(b)  Devagiri

(c)  Varanasi

(d)  Kanchipuram

Ans: (b)

62. The fall of Bastille is associated with the

(a)  Greek War of Independence

(b)  Russian Revolution of November, 1917

(c)  French Revolution of 1789

(d)  American War of Independence

Ans: (c)

63. Which Governor-General was called as the ‘Father of Local Self-Government’ in India?

(a)  Lord Ripon

(b)  Lord Wellesley

(c)  Lord Canning

(d)  Lord William Bentinck

Ans: (a)

64. ‘The Three Emperor’s League’, 1873 was also known as

(a)  The Dual Alliance

(b)  Dreikaiserbund Treaty

(c)  Triple Alliance

(d)  Reinsurance Treaty

Ans: (b)

65. Panditraj Jagannath was the poet laureate of which of the following rulers?

(a)  Humayun

(b)  Akbar

(c)  Shah Jahan

(d)  Aurangzeb

Ans: (c)

66. Which of the following is formed out of volcanic eruptions in India?

(a)  Himalayas

(b)  Deccan Plateau

(c)  Lakshadweep Islands

(d)  Western Ghats

Ans: (b)

67. Terrigenous deposits are found in

(a)  continental shelf and slope

(b)  deep sea plain

(c)  ocean trenches

(d)  rift valley

Ans: (a)

68. Which of the following is the only volcanic peak in Antarctica?

(a)  Mt. Cook

(b)  Mt. Blanc

(c)  Mt. Erebus

(d)  Mt. Elbrus

Ans: (c)

69. Who laid the foundation of the ‘School of Possibilism’?

(a)  Ratzel

(b)  Brunches

(c)  La Blache

(d)  Humboldt

Ans: (c)

70. The lysimeter helps in the estimation of

(a)  wind direction

(b)  evapotranspiration

(c)  relative humidity

(d)  vapour pressure

Ans: (b)

71. Compounds that are needed for enzymes to function properly are

(a)  buffers

(b)  steroids

(c)  vitamins

(d)  heavy metals

Ans: (c)

72. Heavy water is

(a)  deuterium oxide

(b)  deuterium

(c)  rain water

(d)  tritium oxide

Ans: (a)

73. Which one of the following is commonly known as ‘Pond Silk’?

(a)  Ulothrix

(b)  Spirogya

(c)  Rhizopus

(d)  Yeast

Ans: (b)

74. ‘Gynecomastia’ is

(a)  development of breasts in males

(b)  development of hair on ears in males

(c)  increased height in females

(d)  development of an extra finger in females

Ans: (a)

75. The highest concentration of urea is found in

(a)  renal vein

(b)  hepatic portal vein

(c)  dorsal aorta

(d)  hepatic vein

Ans: (d)

76. The inert gas which is substituted for nitrogen in the air used by deep sea divers for breathing, is

(a)  helium

(b)  xenon

(c)  krypton

(d)  argon

Ans: (a)

77. Cryogenics is the study of

(a)  low temperature

(b)  high temperature

(c)  superconductor

(d)  production of fuels

Ans: (a)

78. To prevent damage from lightning, lightning conductors are sued on tall structures. The lightning conductor

(a)  should be made of a good conductor, like copper with sharp pointed edges

(b)  should be made of a good conductor but can be of any shape

(c)  should be in the form of a vertical rod

(d)  can be of any shape.

Ans: (b)

79. Infrared radiations are detected by

(a)  spectrometer

(b)  pyrometer

(c)  nanometer

(d)  photometer

Ans: (a)

80. Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are

(a)  electromagnetic radiations

(b)  the electrons orbiting around the nucleus

(c)  charged particles emitted by nucleus

(d)  neutral particles

Ans: (a)

81. Which of the following computer memories is non-volatile?

(a)  RAM

(b)  DRAM

(c)  SRAM

(d)  ROM

Ans: (a)

82. In present day computing, which code is used and is accepted worldwide?

(a)  ISCII

(b)  ASCII

(c)  Hollerith Code

(d)  EBCDIC

Ans: (b)

83. Which of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?

(a)  Ethylamine

(b)  Diethylamine

(c)  Triethylamine

(d)  Ammonia

Ans: (c)

84. Which one of the following is not an artificial sweetener?

(a)  Aspartame

(b)  Fructose

(c)  Saccharin

(d)  Sucralose

Ans: (b)

85. An acid having basicity one is

(a)  Phosphoric acid

(b)  Sodium dihydrogen phosphate

(c)  Disodium hydrogen phosphate

(d)  Sodium phosphate

Ans: (a)

86. Which one of the following vegetable oils is used in the manufacture of paints?

(a)  Cottonseed oil

(b)  Palm oil

(c)  Sunflower oil

(d)  Linseed oil

Ans: (d)

87. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

(a)  carbon dioxide and nitrogen

(b)  carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

(c)  ozone and carbon dioxide

(d)  nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Ans: (d)

88. Which of the following is not a gaseous air pollutant?

(a)  Oxides of sulphur

(b)  Oxides of nitrogen

(c)  Hydrocarbon

(d)  Smoke

Ans: (c)

89. Which one of the following is called the ‘Land of One Thousand Lakes’?

(a)  Finland

(b)  Sweden

(c)  Greenland

(d)  The USA

Ans: (a)

90. The tree popularly known as ‘Green Gold’, but which is an ecological

(a)  Eucalyptus

(b)  Banyan

(c)  Pipal

(d)  None of these

Ans: (a)

91. Garampani Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

(a)  Junagarh (Gujarat)

(b)  Diphu (Assam)

(c)  Gangtok (Sikkim)

(d)  Kohim (Nagaland)

Ans: (b)

92. Who won the prestigious Gujarmal Modi Award for Innovative Science and Technology for the year 2015?

(a)  Amalendu Krishna

(b)  Professor Mustansir Barma

(c)  GM Reddy

(d)  Vivekanand Kain

Ans: (b)

93. ‘Entomology’ is the science that studies

(a)  insects

(b)  behaviour of human beings

(c)  formation of rocks

(d)  None of the above

Ans: (a)

94. Which country uses the ‘Birr’ as its currency?

(a)  Estonia

(b)  Ethiopia

(c)  Togo

(d)  Eritera

Ans: (b)

95. How many Noble Prize awards are awarded each year?

(a)  6

(b)  5

(c)  7

(d)  4

Ans: (a)

96. Wellington trophy is associated with

(a)  bridge

(b)  rowing

(c)  Chess

(d)  hockey

Ans: (b)

97. World Autism Awareness Day is observed on

(a)  April 1

(b)  April 2

(c)  April 3

(d)  April 5

Ans: (b)

98. Who invented the ‘World Wide Web’?

(a)  Charles Babbage

(b)  Tim Berners Lee

(c)  Martin Cooper

(d)  R. Samuel Tomlinson

Ans: (b)

99. The novel ‘When the river Sleeps’ is written by

(a)  Easterine Kire

(b)  Anuradha Roy

(c)  Vikram Seth

(d)  Shobha De

Ans: (a)

100. In Which country did the world’s first organized motor race occur?

(a)  France

(b)  Germany

(c)  The USA

(d)  Portugal

Ans: (a)

 

Part III English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-110) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out, which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, choose ‘No Error’.

101. I want to exchange (a) / my Maruti (b)/ from a Santro. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (c)

102. There were extensive (a)/ lawn in front (b)/ of the bungalow. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (b)

103. Wise men follow nobel (a)/ideas whereas fools (b)/ disregard them. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (a)

104. The navel officers (a)/ successfully fought the pirates (b)/who had looted and plundered for many years. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (c)

105. He acted no (a)/as per my advice (b)/but somebody else. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (c)

106. The chairs in the (a)/ room are in a (b)/ state disarray. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (c)

107. Ashoka the Great was (a)/ regarded one of the greatest Emperors (b)/the world has ever produced. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (d)

108. Will you please (a)/ given me little milk (b) for my cat? (c) No error (d)

Ans: (b)

109. The light bulbs (a)/ on the hall (b)/ need to be changed. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (b)

110. A recent survey indicates (a)/ that the number of drug addicts (b)/grew day by day. (c) No error (d)

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (S). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the  most appropriate alternative out of the four.

111. Do Not look ……. on women.

(a)  up

(b)  down

(c)  right

(d)  left

Ans: (b)

112. I ……. him on this point.

(a)  agree to

(b)  agreeing with

(c)  agreed with

(d)  admitted to

Ans: (c)

113. The stranger ……… in through the window last night.

(a)  creeps

(b)  creep

(c)  crept

(d)  creeping

Ans: (c)

114. They ……. living here since 2000.

(a)  are still

(b)  have been

(c)  are

(d)  will be

Ans: (b)

115. The specialist ……. you want to meet is available only one Thursday.

(a)  which

(b)  whom

(c)  whose

(d)  who

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the similar meaning of the given words.

116. Hesitate

(a)  Resolve

(b)  Determine

(c)  Pause

(d)  Settle

Ans: (c)

117. Consciousness

(a)  Vision

(b)  Understanding

(c)  Nothingness

(d)  Awareness

Ans: (d)

118. Calibre

(a)  Career

(b)  Capacity

(c)  Calmness

(d)  Crowd

Ans: (b)

119. Persuade

(a)  Deter

(b)  Hinder

(c)  Coax

(d)  Restrain

Ans: (c)

120. Wander

(a)  Race

(b)  Wrestle

(c)  Gallop

(d)  Roam

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given words.

121. Virtue

(a)  Fool

(b)  Vice

(c)  Untrue

(d)  Defeat

Ans: (b)

122. Evasive

(a)  Categorical

(b)  Indefinite

(c)  Explicit

(d)  Unclear

Ans: (c)

123. Relentless

(a)  Gentle

(b)  Sensitive

(c)  Yielding

(d)  Kind

Ans: (c)

124. Hostility

(a)  Enmity

(b)  Friendship

(c)  Partnership

(d)  Relationship

Ans: (b)

125. Assent

(a)  Separation

(b)  Confusion

(c)  Dissent

(d)  Self-interest

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-130) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

126. The teacher was taken aback by the student’s remark.

(a)  annoyed

(b)  surprised

(c)  hurt

(d)  pleased

Ans: (b)

127. The Lawyer insisted on having the contract in black and white.

(a)  in writing

(b)  orally

(c)  figuratively

(d)  obliquely

Ans: (a)

128. Our parents allowed us to watch films once in a blue moon.

(a)  everywhere

(b)  rarely

(c)  secretly

(d)  forever

Ans: (b)

129. Hold your tongue, my Lad ! I’ll deal with you later.

(a)  Stick out the tongue

(b)  Be silent

(c)  Cool the tongue

(d)  Gargle

Ans: (b)

130. If you read his letter between the lines, you will find that he has no faith in his colleague’s honesty.

(a)  strain your eyes

(b)  read in secret

(c)  find out the inner meaning

(d)  read an untidy letter

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order, Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct.

131. 1. My grandmother was an old woman

P. But that was hard to believe

Q. And she even had a husband

R. People said that she had once been young and pretty

S. She had been like this for the twenty years that I had known her

6. She often told us of the games she used to play as child.

The proper sequence should be

(a)  SRQP

(b)  QPSR

(c)  RSPQ

(d)  RPQS

Ans: (a)

132. 1. It is the twilight hour

P. The sound breaks the still silence around me

Q. I turn round and see her seated on a rock

R. I hear more bells behind me

S. The temple bell rings in the distance

6. Her eyes sparkle like the anklets on her swinging feet

The proper sequence should be

(a)  RSQP

(b)  SPRQ

(c)  SQPR

(d)  RQSP

Ans: (b)

133. 1. Use bright, cheerful, favourable words and phrases to describe other people. Make it

P. for all your friendss and associates

Q. Be extremely careful

R. a rule to have a big, positive word

S. to avoid

6. the petty cut-him-down language.

The proper sequence should be

(a)  PQRS

(b)  RSPQ

(c)  RPQS

(d)  QRPS

Ans: (c)

134. 1. An officer in Andhra Pradesh

P. found that the tribals put

Q. materials in turbid water

R. who was in charge of tribal development

S. certain gums and wood

6. to make the water clear.

The proper sequence should be

(a)  RSPQ

(b)  PSRQ

(c)  PQSR

(d)  RPSQ

Ans: (d)

135. 1. Along with the orthodox Hindu’s

P. and in the deity,

Q. Raghupati has his Brahmin’s pride

R. faith in the scriptures

S. because he is the

6. lord of the temple.

The proper sequence should be

(a)  SPQR

(b)  RPQS

(c)  RQPS

(d)  SQPR

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 136-145) A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternative suggested, select the one, which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

136. James Cameron directed the Titanic.

(a)  The Titanic has been directed by James Cameron.

(b)  The Titanic was directed by James Cameron.

(c)  James Cameron had directed the Titanic.

(d)  James Cameron had been directing the Titanic.

Ans: (b)

137. Dutta teaches us English.

(a)  English is taught to us by Dutta.

(b)  We are being taught English by Dutta.

(c)  By Duta were are taught English.

(d)  We have been taught English by Dutta.

Ans: (a)

138. Has the postman not delivered the letter?

(a)  Has the letter been delivered by the postman?

(b)  Has the letter not been delivered by the postman?

(c)  Is the letter delivered by the postman?

(d)  The postman hasn’t delivered the letter.

Ans: (b)

139. John is building a new cupboard.

(a)  John has been building a new cupboard.

(b)  A new cupboard is being built by John.

(c)  A new cupboard is been built by John.

(d)  John’s new cupboard is being built.

Ans: (b)

140. Someone will pay you next Monday.

(a)  You would be paid next Monday.

(b)  Someone will be paying you next Monday.

(c)  You will be paid next Monday.

(d)  Someone is going to pay you next Monday.

Ans: (c)

141. Drinking was ruining his life gradually.

(a)  His life was being ruined gradually by drinking.

(b)  His life ruined by gradual drinking.

(c)  Gradually, his life is ruined because of drinking problems.

(d)  Drinking problems caused the gradual ruin of his life.

Ans: (a)

142. A small epitaph had been laid out by them in his memory.

(a)  They laid out a small epitaph.

(b)  They had laid out a small epitaph in his memory.

(c)  They were laying out, in h is memory, a small epitaph

(d)  They lay out a small epitaph in his memory.

Ans: (b)

143. The nurse is giving food to the sick boy.

(a)  The sick boy is given food by the nurse.

(b)  The sick boy gets food from the nurse.

(c)  The sick boy is being given food by the nurse.

(d)  Food is given to the sick boy by the nurse.

Ans: (c)

144. Our parents have taught us to behave properly.

(a)  We have been taught to behave properly by our parents.

(b)  We were taught how not to behave properly by our parents.

(c)  Our parents taught us how to behave properly.

(d)  Our parents have been teaching us how to behave properly.

Ans: (a)

145. Why did your father refuse such an honourable job?

(a)  Why was such an honourable job denied by your father?

(b)  Why does your father refused such an honourable job?

(c)  Why is such an honourable job refused by your father?

(d)  Why was such an honourable job refused by your father?

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-155) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required,, choose ‘No Improvement’ option.

146. He is entitled to a reward for honesty.

(a)  titled

(b)  entitle to

(c)  entitled

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (d)

147. The sight chosen for the school building is good.

(a)  site

(b)  eye-sight

(c)  side

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (a)

148. The matter must be considered in every point of view.

(a)  from every

(b)  at every

(c)  on every

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (a)

149. The poor villagers have waited in the bitter cold for more than two hours now.

(a)  has been waiting

(b)  had waited

(c)  have been waiting

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (c)

150. You must accustom yourself with new

(a)  accustomed with

(b)  accustom to

(c)  accustom yourself to

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (c)

151. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of need?

(a)  borrow me a few rupees

(b)  lend me any rupees

(c)  lend me a few rupees

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (c)

152. The car with a burst tyre halted swiftly.

(a)  stopped quick

(b)  stopped fastly

(c)  jolted to a halt

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (d)

153. Many incidents of the last month seem unimportant when viewed in perception.

(a)  prospective

(b)  perceptive

(c)  perspective

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (c)

154. The youths jostled their way in the crowd.

(a)  over

(b)  through

(c)  among

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (b)

155. What is wrong with t he argument is that even if the two premises are true, then the conclusion isn’t necessarily true.

(a)  the conclusion will be true

(b)  the conclusion is false

(c)  the conclusions aren’t necessarily true

(d)  No improvement

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 156-165) A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct.

156. I said to him, “You are wrong.”

(a)  I told him how wrong he was.

(b)  I told him that he was wrong.

(c)  I said that he was wrong.

(d)  I told him that he is wrong.

Ans: (b)

157. He said to me, “You are late.”

(a)  He said to me that you were late.

(b)  He said to me that I was late.

(c)  He told me that I was late.

(d)  He told me that you were late.

Ans: (c)

158. The teacher said, “Be quiet and listen to my words.

(a)  The teacher said to stop talking and listen to her words.

(b)  The students were told be quiet and listen to her words.

(c)  The teacher asked the students to be quiet and listen to her words.

(d)  The teacher shouted students listen to my words and be quiet.

Ans: (c)

159. He said that the book was very interesting.

(a)  He said, “This book is very interesting.”

(b)  He said, “This book has been very interesting.”

(c)  He said, “This book had been very interesting.”

(d)  He said, “This book would be very interesting.”

Ans: (a)

160. She said to him, “I have bought a new car.”

(a)  She told him that she would buy a new car.

(b)  She told him that a new car has been bought by her.

(c)  She told him that she had bought a new car.

(d)  She told him that she has bought a new car.

Ans: (c)

161. “I love chocolate,” said Angeline.

(a)  Angeline said that she loves chocolate.

(b)  Angeline said she loved chocolate.

(c)  Angeline said she loves chocolate.

(d)  Angeline says she loved chocolate.

Ans: (b)

162. “Do you know that man ?” Ravi asked his friend.

(a)  Ravi asked his friend he knew or not that man.

(b)  Ravi asked his friend if he knows that man.

(c)  Ravi asked his friend whether he knew that man.

(d)  Ravi asked his friend whether he knows that man.

Ans: (c)

163. I asked him whether he had not promised to come.

(a)  I asked him, “Did you come? You promise.”

(b)  I said to him, “Did you not promise to come?”

(c)  I said to him, “Do you not promise to come?”

(d)  I said, “Did I ask you not to come?”

Ans: (b)

164. Rahul said, “What have you been searching for all these hours ?”

(a)  Rahul asked me what I was searching for all these days?

(b)  Rahul asked me what I had  been searching for all those hours?

(c)  Rahul asked what Ii have been searching for all those hours?

(d)  Rahul said that what you had been searching for all these  hours?

Ans: (b)

165. He said to the children. “Come to the park with me.”

(a)  He invited the children to come to the park with me.

(b)  He invited the children to come to the park with him.

(c)  I invited the children to come to the park with me.

(d)  I invited the children to come to the park with us.

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 166-185) In the following two passages, some of the words have been left out. Read the passages carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.

Passage I

How old is the Earth? This is a (166) to which we may never have the exact (167). Man has (168) about the age of the Earth since (169) times and there were all kinds of myths and (170) that seemed to have the answer. When it was proven that the Earth (171) around the Sun, (172) then knew where to begin. To find the (173) of the Earth, it was necessary to (174) how the solar system was (175).

166.

(a)  point

(b)  question

(c)  debate

(d)  fact

Ans: (b)

167.

(a)  reason

(b)  logic

(c)  answer

(d)  deduction

Ans: (c)

168.

(a)  wondered

(b)  marvelled

(c)  thought

(d)  asked

Ans: (a)

169.

(a)  antiquated

(b)  bygone

(c)  olden

(d)  ancient

Ans: (d)

170.

(a)  tale

(b)  legends

(c)  fables

(d)  story

Ans: (b)

171.

(a)  circled

(b)  rotated

(c)  moved

(d)  revolved

Ans: (d)

172.

(a)  scientists

(b)  scholars

(c)  academicians

(d)  students

Ans: (a)

173.

(a)  years

(b)  age

(c)  date

(d)  oldness

Ans: (b)

174.

(a)  tell

(b)  narrate

(c)  recount

(d)  explain

Ans: (d)

175.

(a)  born

(b)  originated

(c)  formed

(d)  begun

Ans: (c)

Passage II

One thing we can do is (176) a good book. Another is to look at a new (177) conducted by William Mercer, one of the world’s largest human resources consultancies. Mercer decided to (178) some of the world’s great cities. They produced their results by giving (179) for (180) criteria. These included political, economic and social environment, healthcare, educational provision, recreation and transport (181). So, which are the best cities to live in, and which should we (182)? In (183) first place were Vancouver, Berne, Vienna and Zurich, while Sydney, Geneva, Auckland and Copenhagen came in second. Swiss cities (184) three of the top ten places, making it the single most successful country of all those (185).

176.

(a)  look

(b)  read

(c)  obtain

(d)  retrieve

Ans: (b)

177.

(a)  survey

(b)  research

(c)  consultation

(d)  advice

Ans: (a)

178.

(a)  proclaim

(b)  decide

(c)  judge

(d)  rule

Ans: (c)

179.

(a)  signs

(b)  spots

(c)  marks

(d)  places

Ans: (c)

180.

(a)  various

(b)  ranging

(c)  assorted

(d)  different

Ans: (d)

181.

(a)  ways

(b)  reasons

(c)  facilities

(d)  versions

Ans: (c)

182.

(a)  escape

(b)  deny

(c)  regret

(d)  avoid

Ans: (d)

183.

(a)  joint

(b)  dual

(c)  united

(d)  together

Ans: (a)

184.

(a)  occupied

(b)  controlled

(c)  absorbed

(d)  vacated

Ans: (a)

185.

(a)  created

(b)  surveyed

(c)  experimented

(d)  established

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 186-200) You have three brief passages with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage I

The London Eye is a giant Ferris wheel situated on the banks of the River Thames in London, England. The entire structure is 135 metres (443 ft) tall and the wheel has a diameter of 120 metres (394 ft). It is the tallest Ferris wheel in Europe, and the most popular paid tourist attraction in the United Kingdom, visited by over 3.5 million people annually. When erected in 1999 it was the tallest Ferris wheel in the world, until surpassed first by the 160 metres (520 ft) Star of Nanchang in 2006 and then the 165 metres (541 ft) Singapore Flyer in 2008. Supported by A-frame on one side only, unlike the taller Nanchang and Singapore wheels, the Eye is described by its operators as “the world’s tallest cantilevered observation wheel”. It provides the highest public viewing point and is the 20th tallest structure, in London.

The London Eye, or Millennium Wheel, was officially called the British Airways London Eye and then the Merlin Entertainments London Eye. Since 20th January, 2011, its official name is the EDF Energy London Eye following a three-years Sponsorship deal.

The London Eye adjoins the western end of Jubilee Gardens, on the South Bank of the River Thames between Westminster Bridge and Hungerford Bridge, in the London Borough of Lambeth. The site is adjacent to that of the former Dome of Discovery, which was built for the Festival of Britain in 1951.

186. The tallest Ferris wheel in the world is

(a)  Star of Nanchang

(b)  Singapore Flyer

(c)  Dome of Discovery

(d)  London Eye

Ans: (b)

187. The London Eye is situated on the banks of

(a)  Westminster Bridge

(b)  Hungerford Bridge

(c)  The Thames

(d)  London Borough

Ans: (c)

188. Which of the following does not mean the same as ‘entire’?

(a)  Complete

(b)  Total

(c)  Partial

(d)  Whole

Ans: (c)

189. The highest viewing point is provided by

(a)  Westminster Bridge

(b)  Hungerford Bridge

(c)  Dome of Discovery

(d)  Millennium Wheel

Ans: (d)

190. The structure built for the Festival of Britain in 1951 was

(a)  Millennium Wheel

(b)  London Eye

(c)  Dome of Discovery

(d)  Jubilee Gardens

Ans: (c)

Passage II

Not all that glitters is gold. Not all that is white is milk. Not all people, who wear saffron clothes are sages. These age-old saying hold true even now, especially the last one. We see a lot of people wearing saffron clothes, but not all of them are sanyasis in the true sense of the word. A sanyasi is one who guides his followers on the right path.

Recently, I attended the inaugural function of a home for destitute women in Mysore. In most cases, the women were there because they were either harassed by their in-laws or tortured by drunken husbands. Owing to their socio-economic conditions, even the parents of the victims were unable to take them in and care for their helpless children. There had also been instances when young girls, lured by romance, had run away from their homes and had been deserted by their lovers after the honeymoon. These girls usually did not dare return to their parents.

The saying that ‘success has many fathers, but failure has none’ is true indeed. We get to see only the distressed women and their children, while the main cause of their problems remains hidden in the background. So, the victims cannot be blamed altogether. Often it is circumstances that force them into such drudgery. These women and girls need to be psychologically strong and determined to face difficulties with courage and go on with their lives.

191. The opening sentence “Not all that glitters is gold” means

(a)  All meals that shine must necessarily be as good as gold

(b)  One must not be deceived by appearances

(c)  Only gold has that unmistakable shine

(d)  Glitter is the true quality of truth

Ans: (b)

192. Wearing saffron clothes does not make one a sanyasi, is another way of saying

(a)  saffron must only be worn by true ascetics

(b)  saffron is not the favourite colour of the sanyasis

(c)  saffron must be changed to some other colour

(d)  anybody who wears saffron is a sanyasi

Ans: (a)

193. Owing to their socio-economic conditions, even the parents of the victims were unable to help them because

(a)  they were financially self-sufficient

(b)  society considered them to be backward

(c)  their social and economic situation did not allow them to do so

(d)  they could afford to but were reluctant

Ans: (c)

194. Success has may fathers but failure has none means

(a)  Success has only fathers but not mothers

(b)  Failure has many mothers but not fathers

(c)  Success comes naturally to men not women

(d)  No one owns upto failure

Ans: (d)

195. The main reason for the main cause of their problems remaining hidden is

(a)  nobody has bothered to find out the real cause

(b)  people are waiting for it to come out in the open

(c)  people don’t want to be bothered with other’s problems

(d)  nobody has tried to expose it

Ans: (d)

Passage III

The heart is one of the most vital components of the human body. The heart of the human body has the continuous job to keep oxygen-rich blood flowing through the body. All the body’s cells need a constant supply of oxygen, particularly in the brain. The brain cells live only four to five minutes after the oxygen is cut off and death comes to the entire body. Heart disease can result from damage to the heart muscles, the valves or the pacemaker.

If the muscle is damaged, the heart is unable to pump properly. If the valves are damaged, blood cannot flow normally. Dr John Gibbon of USA developed a machine in 1953 that could take over temporarily from the heat. Surgeons had the chance to repair or replace a defective heart. Many patients have had plastic valves inserted in their hearts when their hearts were faulty. Many people are now being kept alive with tiny battery operated pacemakers.

196. If the supply of oxygen is cut off, the brain cells survive

(a)  4 to 5 minutes

(b)  9 to 10 minutes

(c)  for 15 minutes

(d)  for an hour

Ans: (a)

197. The heart sends oxygen-rich blood

(a)  to the brain only

(b)  to the kidneys only

(c)  to the entire body

(d)  to the lungs only

Ans: (c)

198. Dr John Gibbon of USA developed an artificial heart in

(a)  1955

(b)  1953

(c)  1960

(d)  1950

Ans: (b)

199. Heart diseases occur from

(a)  damage to the heart muscles

(b)  coronium

(c)  pericardium

(d)  heart cells

Ans: (a)

200. All the body’s cells need a constant supply of

(a)  nitrogen

(b)  hydrogen

(c)  helium

(d)  oxygen

Ans: (d)

SSC Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Examination 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key

SSC Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Examination 2016
SSC Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Examination 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key

SSC Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police, CAPFs and Assistant Sub-Inspectors in CISF Exam 2016

Part-A : General Intelligence And Reasoning

1. ZbYa   XdWc         VfUe ?

(A) ShTg

(B) ThSi

(C) ThSg

(D) TgSh

Ans: (C)

2. 4, 6, 8, 12, 14, 18, 20, 24, 30, ? ?

(A) 32, 34

(B) 32, 38

(C) 32, 33

(D) 34, 36

Ans: (B)

3. 6, 6, 10, 11, 14, 16, 18, ?

(A) 21

(B) 20

(C) 19

(D) 23

Ans: (A)

Directions (Qs. 4-9): Select the related word/letters/ number from the given alternatives.

4. UASC: YEWG :  DHLO : ?

(A) LHUS

(B) HLPS

(C) HLOD

(D) HSPL

Ans: (B)

5. brain : natural ::  ?  : artificial

(A) deserts

(B) computers

(C) forests

(D) minerals

Ans: (B)

6. 36 : 50 :: 64 : ?

(A) 82

(B) 72

(C) 70

(D) 78

Ans: (A)

7. R : ARE :: U : ?

(A) IUE

(B) URE

(C) VEE

(D) YOU

Ans: (A)

8. 16 : 64 :: 49 : ?

(A) 93

(B) 343

(C) 196

(D) 97

Ans: (B)

9. heat : calorie :: sound : ?

(A) richter

(B) decible

(C) knot

(D) joule

Ans: (B)

Directions (Qs. 10 & 11): Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

10. 

1. Directional  2. Directory

3. Directive     4. Directional

(A) 3, 4, 1, 2

(B) 1, 3, 4, 2

(C) 3, 4, 2, 1

(D) 4, 3, 1, 2

Ans: (D)

11. 

1. Analyze   2. Assignation

3. Arrival   4. Assassination

5. Analyst

(A) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

(B) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

(C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3

(D) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

Ans: (D)

12. I walk 12 km to the North, then South. How far am I from the starting point?

(A) 34 km

(B) 24 km

(C) 10 km

(D) 22 km

Ans: (C)

Directions (Qs. 13-16): Select the missing number from the given responses.

13. 6                 5        3        10

      2                 8        ?        4

     4                 6        3        8

     5                 9        15      3

(A) 6

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 4

Ans: (D)

14. 6       11        25

      8        6        16

      12      5        ?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(C) 18

(D) 22

Ans: (B)

15.    25      36      64

        81      9        4

       16      49      100

       18      ?        20

(A) 16

(B) 22

(C) 19

(D) 24

Ans: (A)

16. 

(A) 8

(B) 7

(C) 5

(D) 6

Ans: (B)

17. 12 years old Sami is three times as old as his brother Vinay. How o ld will Sami be when he is twice as old as Vinay?

(A) 16 yrs

(B) 20 yrs

(C) 18 yrs

(D) 14 yrs

Ans: (A)

18. Four positions of a cube are shown  below. Identify the numbers at the bottom when top is 6?

(A) 2

(B) 1

(C) 6

(D) 5

Ans: (B)

Directions (Qs. 19-24): Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

19. 

(A) Crunch

(B) Brittle

(C) Cringe

(D) Crisp

Ans: (C)

20. 

(A) Optimism

(B) Pessimism

(C) Cynicism

(D) Fatalism

Ans: (C)

21.

(A) 25

(B)18  

(C) 21

(D) 15

Ans: (A)

22. 

(A) 625

(B) 3375

(C) 50625

(D) 225

Ans: (B)

23.

(A) TVWY

(B) ACEG

(C) FHJL

(D) IKMO

Ans: (A)

24.

(A) AYWV

(B) IGEC

(C) QOMK

(D) YWUS

Ans: (A)

25. A bus starts from point A and runs 20 kms towards South, turns to its right and runs 25 km. It then turns right again runs 20 km. Afterwards it runs 5 km in the East direction and reaches point B. How far is the bus from the starting point?

(A) 25 km

(B) 35 km

(C) 20 km

(D) 30 km

Ans: (C)

26. If LACK is written as 396 then BACK is written as

(A) 86

(B) 72

(C) 66

(D) 56

Ans: (C)

Directions (Qs. 27 & 28): Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure.

27. 

Ans: (D)

28. 

Ans: (D)

29. If ‘+’ stands for division, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication, ‘×’ stands for subtraction and ‘−’ stands for addition, which one of the following is correct?

(A) 18 ÷ 6 × 7 + 5 – 2 = 22

(B) 18 + 6 ÷ 7 × 5 – 2 = 18

(C) 18 × 6 + 7 ÷ 5 – 2 = 16

(D) 18 ÷ 6 – 7 + 5 × 2 = 20

Ans: (B)

Directions (Qs. 30 & 31). From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

30. 

Ans: (C)

31. 

Ans: (B)

32. Which figure best represents the relationship between Religion, Mosque, Temple?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Ans: (B)

Directions (Qs. 33 & 34): A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., A’ can be represented by 01, 20 etc., and ‘B’ can be represented by 56, 65 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given in each question.

33. SILK

(A) 76, 67, 33, 68

(B) 76, 67, 32, 65

(C) 76, 66, 33, 68

(D) 76, 67, 32, 68

Ans: (D)

34. CARS

(A) 96, 00, 23, 99

(B) 66, 20, 31, 88

(C) 95, 01, 13, 77

(D) 77, 33, 40, 69

Ans: (D)

Directions (Qs. 35 & 36): If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

35. 

Ans: (A)

36. 

Ans: (A)

37. How many triangles are there in this figure?

(A) 8

(B) 9

(C) 16

(D) 12

Ans: (C)

38. Choose from the 4 diagrams given below, the one that illustrates the relationship among Languages, Japanese, German.

Ans: (D)

Directions (Qs. 39 & 40): From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

39. GEMDISTIONARY

(A) GAME

(B) STAR

(C) DISTART

(D) MEGASITY

Ans: (C)

40. AUTOBIOGRAPHY

(A) GRAPHIC

(B) BRIGHT

(C) TROPHY

(D) TROOP

Ans: (A)

41. Seeta and Ram both start from a point towards North. Seeta turns to left after walking 10 km. Ram turns to right after walking the same distance. Seeta waits for sometime and then walks another 5 km, whereas Ram walks only 3 km. They both then return to their respective South and walk 15 km forward. How far is Seeta from Ram?

(A) 10 km

(B) 12 km

(C) 8 km

(D) 15 km

Ans: (C)

42. If ‘+’ stands for multiplication, ‘−’stands for division, ‘×’stands for addition, ‘÷’stands for subtraction, then which one of the following equations is correct?

(A) 12 + 5 – 4 × 5 ÷ 4 = 16

(B) 12 ÷ 5 + 4 – 5 × 4 = 18

(C) 12 ÷ 5 – 4 × 5 + 4 = 22

(D) 12 × 5 + 4 – 5 ÷ 4 = 20

Ans: (A)

43. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

s – nx – mnx – mn – sm – x

(A) nxyms

(B) mssxn

(C) smnxx

(D) nmxxn

Ans: (B)

Directions (Qs. 44 & 45): A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures. indicate how it will appear when opened.

44. 

Ans: (D)

45. 

Ans: (D)

46. The number of squares in the figure is?

(A) 12

(B) 14

(C) 10

(D) 8

Ans: (C)

47. A man starts from a point moves 9 km South and then turns to East and goes 3 km. He turns South and walks 3 km and then moves 8 km towards West. How far is he from the starting point?

(A) 15 km

(B) 11 km

(C) 12 km

(D) 13 km

Ans: (D)

Directions (Qs. 48 & 49) : In these questions one or two statements are given, followed by two Conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be a variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Choose your answer accordingly.

48. Statement:

Economic security makes people better and happier and has a good influence on their personality.

Conclusions:

I. People who earn enough money are happier.

II. To have a good personality people should be economically sound.

(A) Only I follows.

(B) Both I and II follow.

(C) Only II follows.

(D) Neither I nor II follows.

Ans: (B)

49. Statements :

(I) Authors are learned people.

(II) Some doctors are authors.

Conclusions:

I. Some Doctors are learned people.

II. Some learned people are Doctors.

(A) Neither I nor II is implicit.

(B) Both I and II are implicit.

(C) Only II is implicit.

(D) Only I is implicit.

Ans: (B)

50. If RAMAYANA is written as BOBZBNBS, then GRANTH is written as

(A) IUOBSH

(B) IUOCSI

(C) HSBOUI

(D) IVPBTH

Ans: (A)

Part B : General Knowledge and General Awareness

51. A_____ is a computer, appliance or router that sits between the trusted and untrusted systems.

(A) hub

(B) switch

(C) firewall

(D) bridge

Ans: (C)

52. A group of genes whose activity is coordinated by a DNA site is called

(A) operon

(B) polysome

(C) polypeptide

(D) cistron

Ans: (A)

53. Who among the following was ruler from the Kushan dynasty?

(A) Danti Durga

(B) Pushyamitra

(C) Vikramaditya

(D) Khadphises I

Ans: (D)

54.  Red rot of sugar cane is caused by :

(A) Phylophthora

(B) Alternaria alternata

(C) Colletotrichum falcatum

(D) Cercospora personata

Ans: (C)

55. Engineers of which of the following countries have developed the world’s fastest car Venom GT with a top speed of 435 kilometres per hour?

(A) USA

(B) South Korea

(C) Germany

(D) Japan

Ans: (A)

56. Chemical name of Gammaxane is

(A) Chloro benzene

(B) Benzene hexachloride

(C) Toluene

(D) Aniline

Ans: (B)

57. India’s share in total global trade in value terms is

(A) less than 1% but more than 1/2%

(B) more than 2%

(C) less than 1/2%

(D) between 1% and 2%

Ans: (B)

58. Who among the following film-makers has won the Best Documentary Producer Award of the Madrid International Film Festival in July 2015?

(A) Benoy Behl

(B) Debalina Majumdar

(C) Arun Chadha

(D) Gopal Menon

Ans: (A)

59. Cancellation of thread occurs only when it reaches a

(A) Target point

(B) Error point

(C) Virtual point

(D) Cancellation point

Ans: (D)

60. _______ percent of Delhiites are suffering from Asthma and Rhinitis.

(A) 12%

(B) 13%

(C) 10%

(D) 11%

Ans: (D)

61. Which of the following considers the state as primarily a social organism?

(A) Historical Approach

(B) Economic Approach

(C) Sociological Approach

(D) Psychological Approach

Ans: (C)

62. Which State’s High Court imposed a complete ban on all types of buffalo and bull fights in the State, stating that it is against the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960?

(A) Himachal Pradesh

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Karnataka

Ans: (A)

63. By which of the following Act the system of Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre?

(A) 1909

(B) 1947

(C) 1919

(D) 1935

Ans: (C)

64. Which Article of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?

(A) Article 51 A

(B) Article 25

(C) Article 50

(D) Article 30 A

Ans: (A)

65. Which one of the following has a maximum tendency to form M3 ion?

(A) As

(B) Bi

(C) N

(D) P

Ans: (C)

66. Which of the following statements

(A) sugar is transported in problem as non-reducing sugar

(B) Ca+ is the most abundant cation in phloem sap

(C) phloem transport occurs unidirectionally

(D) gravity influences phloem transport

Ans: (A)

67. An employer goes on employing more and more of a factor units until

(A) the Average Revenue Productivity becomes equal to Marginal Revenue Productivity.

(B) the Diminishing Marginal Returns sets into operation.

(C) the Marginal Revenue Productivity of a factor becomes equal to its reward.

(D) the Marginal Revenue Productivity becomes zero.

Ans: (A)

68. An agricultural department known as ‘Diwn-i-kohi’ was created by

(A) Firoz Tughlaq

(B) Alauddin Khilji

(C) Jalaluddin Khilji

(D) Mohamad-bin-Tughlaq

Ans: (D)

69. The correct sequence of countries on the basis of fish catch in DESCENDING order:

(A) Japan, China, Peru

(B) Peru, China, Japan

(C) China, Japan, Peru

(D) China, Peru, Japan

Ans: (D)

70. Match List I and List II and mark the correct answer:

List I                                List II

(climate)                           (station)

a Taiga                    1 Jacobabad

b Monsoon             2 India

c Alpine                  3 Veckhoyansk

d Desert                  4 La Paz

(A) a – 3, b – 2, c – 4, d – 1

(B) a – 2, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1

(C) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2

(D) a – 4, b – 2, c – 1, d – 3

Ans: (A)

71. Copper substances when exposed to air gain a green coating due to the formation of

(A) Cu(NO3)2

(B) CuSO4

(C) CuO

(D) CuCO3. Cu(OH)2

Ans: (D)

72. Who is the author of the new book “Knowledge Innovation Strategy’?

(A) Amish Tripathi

(B) Durjoy Datta

(C) Ravinder Singh

(D) Parag Kulkarni

Ans: (D)

73. The weight of a body at the centre of earth is

(A) half the weight at the surface

(B) infinite

(C) zero

(D) twice the weight at the surface

Ans: (C)

74. Adding Cl2 to benzene in the presence of AlCl3 is an example of

(A) Addition reaction      

(B) Substitution reaction

(C) None of the options

(D) Elimination reaction

Ans: (A)

75. Which one of the following is related to Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(A) Election Commission seeking opinion from the Supreme Court

(B) President of India seeking opinion on law or facts

(C) States seeking opinion from the Supreme Court

(D) Speaker of Parliament seeking opinion from the Supreme court

Ans: (B)

76. Which article of the Constitution deals with Money Bills?

(A) Article 130

(B) Article 100

(C) Article 110

(D) Article 120 

      

Ans: (C)

77. Maharaja Sawai Jaisingh of Jaipur had not built the observatory at

(A) Varanasi

(B) Ujjain

(C) Mathura

(D) Allahabad

Ans: (D)

78. What was the rank of India in Human Development Index according to the Human Development Report released by UNDP in July 2014, which covered 187 countries?

(A) 130th

(B) 14th

(C) 135th

(D) 73rd

Ans: (C)

79. The India Independence Bill was first presented in the House of Commons in London on

(A) July 14, 1947

(B) August 10, 1947

(C) July 4, 1947

(D) August 1, 1947

Ans: (C)

80. John Locke propounded

(A) Theory of Force

(B) Theory of Divine Rights

(C) Patriarchal Theory

(D) Social Contract Theory

Ans: (D)

81. Which of the following States has declared a ban on the use of plastic in the State for the first time?

(A) Karnataka

(B) Punjab

(C) Gujarat

(D) Maharashtra

Ans: (C)

82. If total product at its maximum then

(AP = Average product)

(MP = Marginal product)

(A) AP < 0

(B) AP = MP = 0

(C) AP = 0

(D) MP = 0

Ans: (D)

83. Though there is no single theory which can explain the origin of south west monsoon, it is believed that the main mechanism is the differential heating of land & sea during

(A) Cyclonic storms

(B) Winter months

(C) Summer months

(D) South-west trade wind flow

Ans: (D)

84. Inhibition of photosynthesis in the presence of O2 in C3 plants is called

(A) Warburg effect

(B) Hexose monophosphate shunt

(C) Decker effect

(D) Pasteur effect

Ans: (C)

85. Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairman of India’s Oscar Jury by Mumbai-based Film Federation of India?

(A) Anupam Kher

(B) Amol Palekar

(C) Jaya Bachchan

(D) Amitabh Bachchan

Ans: (B)

86. Match List I and List II and mark the correct answer:

List I                                List II

(Winds)                            (Locations)

a Chinook                        1 Alps

b Foehn                            2 India

c Siroco                            3 USA

d Loo                                4 Egypt

(A) a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2

(B) a – 4, b – 2, c – 1, d – 3

(C) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1

(D) a – 3, b – 1, c – 4, d – 2

Ans: (D)

87. Equilibrium output is determined by

(A) the equality between Average cost and Average revenue

(B) the equality between total Variable cost & Marginal revenue

(C) the equality between total cost & total revenue.

(D) the equality between Marginal cost & Marginal revenue.

Ans: (A)

88. When average product of an input is at its maximum then

(AP : Average product)

(MP= Marginal product)

(A) AP > MP

(B) AP < MP

(C) AP = MP

(D) AP = 0

Ans: (D)

89. “Slipper animalcule” is the common name for:

(A) Monocystis

(B) Plasmodium

(C) Trypanosoma

(D) Paramecium

Ans: (D)

90. Apart from the availability of raw material, location of an industry is also dependent on the availability of

(A) manpower and energy source

(B) environmental protection & vegetation

(C) transport and bio-energy

(D) water and inputs

Ans: (A)

91. The Greek viewed “politics” on the basis of:

(A) Terms of power

(B) Legalistic terms

(C) Ethical terms

(D) Both ethical and legalistic terms

Ans: (C)

92. Which one of the following painters of Jahangir’s reign was conferred the title of Nadir-ul-Asra’?

(A) Bishandas

(B) Daulat

(C) Mansur

(D) Manohar

Ans: (C)

93. Who established the Sadr-Diwani-Adriat during the British East India Company’s rule?

(A) Dalhousie

(B) Wellesley

(C) Cornwallis

(D) Warren Hastings

Ans: (D)

94. The period of revolution of a certain planet in an orbit of radius R is T. Its period of revolution in an orbit of radius 4R will be

(A) 2 T

(B) 4T

(C) 8T

(D) 2√2 T

Ans: (A)

95. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with

(A) Allocation of Seats in the Council of States

(B) Powers of the Governor of State

(C) Distribution of power between the Union and the States

(D) Power and Authority of the Municipalities

Ans: (C)

96. Which of the following human genetic disorders is sex-linked

(A) Cystic fibrosis

(B) PKU

(C) Haemophilia

(D) Albinism

Ans: (C)

97. Gliders depend on the following energy for their flight:

(A) heat energy

(B) chemical energy

(C) wind energy

(D) electrical energy

Ans: (C)

98. The source of authority of the Indian Constitution is

(A) The People of India

(B) The Government

(C) The President

(D) The Supreme Court

Ans: (A)

99. When temperature difference between liquid and its surroundings is doubled, the rate of loss of heat will:

(A) double

(B) remain same

(C) three times

(D) four times

Ans: (A)

100. Who was appointed by the Union Sports Ministry of the Government of India as he head of the selection committee for Arjuna Award so as to pick the eminent athletes for year’s award (2015)?

(A) Justice Deepak Verma

(B) Justice V. K. Bali

(C) Justice A, K. Patnaik

(D) Justice Ranjana P. Desai

Ans: (B)

Part C : Quantitative Aptitude  

     

101. By selling an umbrella for Rs. 30, a shop-keeper gains 20%. During a clearance sale, the shop-keeper allows a discount of 10%. Find his gain percent during the sale season.

(A) 8

(B) 7

(C)  

(D) 9

Ans: (A)

102. In ∆ ABC, the line parallel to BC intersects AB &AC at P & Q respectively. If AB : AP = 5 : 3, then AQ : QC is :

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 3 : 2

(C) 3 : 5

(D) 2 : 3

Ans: (B)

103. In ∆ABC and ∆PQR, ∠B = ∠Q, ∠C = ∠R. M is the midpoint on QR. If AB : PQ = 7 : 4, then  is:

(A)  

(B)  

(C)  

(D)  

Ans: (D)

104. If the difference between the average of x, y and y, z is 12, then the difference between x and z is:

(A) 24

(B) 12

(C) 6

(D) 48

Ans: (A)

105. If 12 + 22 + 32 + …. +p2  then 12 + 32 + 52 + …+ 172 is :

(A) 1700

(B) 969

(C) 980

(D) 1785

Ans: (B)

Directions (Qs. 106 to 110) : The Pie-chart shows the result of a survey among 119060 people concerning the use of tobacco. Study the Pie-chart and answer these questions.

106. Number of people preferring Bidi is:

(A) 29790

(B) 37185

(C) 35718

(D) 29765

Ans: (D)

107. Number of people smoking Cigarettes is:

(A) 59305

(B) 11906

(C) 53905

(D) 59530

Ans: (D)

108. Let P be the percentage of people using Cigarettes, Pipe and Bidi is their smoking means and Q be the percentage of people using other means as their smoking habits. Then P is more than Q by:

(A) 25%

(B) 85%

(C) 10%

(D) 75%

Ans: (D)

109. Number of Cigarette smoking people is greater than the number of Pipe smoking people by:

(A) 47624

(B) 29765

(C) 59530

(D) 11906

Ans: (A)

110. Percentage of people under survey, who do not have any smoking habit is:

(A) 10%

(B) 5%

(C) 52%

(D) 7.5%

Ans: (B)

111. ∠Y is the right angle of the triangle XYZ. If XY = 2√6 cm and XZ – YZ = 2 cm, then the value of (sec X + tan X) is:

(A)  

(B)

(C)  

(D)  

Ans: (A)

112. The simple interest on a sum of money for 3 years is Rs. 240 and the compound interest on the same sum, at the same rate for 2 years is Rs. 170. The rate of interest is:

(A)  

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  

Ans: (C)

113. In a factory, the salary of each worker is increased in the ratio 22 : 25 but the number of workers is decreased by  The net effect on the salary is:

(A) 20%

(B)  

(C) 

(D) 10% decrease

Ans: (B)

114. A car completed a journey of 400 km in  The first 3/4 of the journey was done at 30 km/hr. Calculate the speed for the rest of the journey.

(A) 40 km/hr

(B) 30 km/hr

(C) 25 km/hr

(D) 45 km/hr

Ans: (A)

115. A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B in 24 days. If they work together, in how many days will they finish the work?

(A) 8 days

(B) 12 days

(C) 20 days

(D) 15 days

Ans: (A)

116. A sells a car priced at Rs. 36,000. He gives a discount of 8% on the 1st Rs. 20,000 and 5% on the remaining Rs. 16,000. B also sells a car of the same make, priced at Rs. 36,000. He gives a discount of 7% on the total price. Calculate the actual on the total price. Calculate the actual prices charged by A and B for the cars.

(A) A = Rs. 33,500; B = Rs. 33,400

(B) A = Rs. 33,450; B = Rs. 33,650

(C) A = Rs. 33, 600; B = Rs. 33,480

(D) A = Rs. 33,480; B = Rs. 33,600

Ans: (C)

117. If  and  then the value of tan α is

(A)

(B)  

(C) 1

(D) 0

Ans: (C)

118. If p (x + y)2 = 5 and q(x – y)2 = 3, then the simplified value of p2(x + y)2 + 4 pq xy – q2(x – y)2 is:

(A) 2(p + q)

(B) −2(p + q)

(C) p + q

(D) −(p + q)

Ans: (C)

Directions (Qs. 119 to 122): The data given in Bar diagram relate to the department wise admission of 320 students to B.Sc. (Honours) first year classes of a certain college in the given five subjects. Study the graph and answer the questions.

119. The subject in which the difference in the number of male and female students is minimum is:

(A) Chemistry

(B) Physics

(C) Economics

(D) Statistics

Ans: (D)

120. The subject which the female students are finding difficult as compared to other subjects is:

(A) Statistics

(B) Mathematics

(C) Chemistry

(D) Economics

       

Ans: (C)

121. The difference of the choice of the subject between male and female students is maximum for the subject:

(A) Statistics

(B) Physics

(C) Chemistry

(D) Economics

Ans: (C)

122. The total number of male students who got admitted in Mathematic and Economics as compared to the total number of female students getting admission in Mathematics and Economics is:

(A) less by 17%

(B) more by 12.8%

(C) more by 14.8%

(D) more by 4.2%

Ans: (C)

123. ∆ ABC is right angled triangle with AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm. O is in-centre of the triangle. The radius of the in-circle is

(A) 2 cm

(B) 5 cm

(C) 4 cm

(D) 3 cm

Ans: (A)

124. The base of a right prism, whose height is 2 cm, is a square. If the total surface area of the prism is 10 cm2, then its volume is:

(A) 2 cm3

(B) 1 cm3

(C) 4 cm3

(D) 3 cm3

Ans: (A)

125. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 2200 at 5% interest, Rs. 2320 at 8% interest in the same period of time. The period of time is:

(A) 4 years

(B) 2 years

(C) 5 years

(D) 3 years

Ans: (B)

126. The radius of a wire is decreased to one third. If volume remains the same, length will increase by

(A) 6 times

(B) 9 times

(C) 1 time

(D) 3 times

Ans: (B)

127. The value of following is: 

(A) 2

(B) tan θ

(C) 0

(D) 1

Ans: (D)

128. The total surface area of a right pyramid on a square base of side 10 cm with height 12 cm is:

(A) 360 square cm

(B) 260 square cm

(C) 330 square cm

(D) 300 square cm

Ans: (A)

129. PS is a diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm. In the diameter PS, Q and R are two points such that PQ, QR, RS are all equal. Semicircles are drawn on PQ and QS as diameter (as shown in the fig). The perimeter of shaded portion is:

(A)  

(B)  

(C)  

(D)  

Ans: (C)

130. Present ages of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 6 respectively. After seven years this ratio becomes 6 : 7. Then the present age of A in years is:

(A) 33 years

(B) 30 years

(C) 35 years

(D) 32 years

Ans: (C)

131. A train 150 metres long takes 20 seconds to cross a platform 450 metres long. .The speed of train in, km per hour, is:

(A) 104

(B) 108

(C) 100

(D) 106

Ans: (B)

132. If  then the value of x3 – 9x2 + 27x – 34 is

(A) −1

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 0

Ans: (D)

133. If  then the value of xp + xq is:

(where p is an even number and q is an odd number)

(A) −2

(B) 1

(C) 0

(D) 2

Ans: (C)

134. Let ABCDEF be a prism whose base is a right angled triangle, where sides adjacent to 90° are 9 cm and 12 cm. If the cost of painting the prism is Rs. 151.20, at the rate of 20 paisa per sq cm then the height of the prism is:

(A) 17 cm

(B) 18 cm

(C) 15 cm

(D) 16 cm

Ans: (C)

135. Given 22 + 42 + 62 + … + 402 = 11480, then the value of 12 + 22 + 32 + … + 202 is

(A) 2869

(B) 2867

(C) 2868

(D) 2870

Ans: (D)

136. Simplified value of the following expressions is:

(A) 1

(B) √2

(C) √3

(D) 0

Ans: (D)

137. If sec θ + tan θ = 2, then the value of sin θ is:

(A) 3/5

(B) 4/5

(C) √3/5

(D) 2/5

Ans: (A)

138. The value of following is:

(A) 0.40

(B) 0.20

(C) 0.25

(D) 0.50

Ans: (C)

139. If cos θ + sec θ = √3, then the value of (cos3θ + sec3θ) is:

(A) 1/√2

(B) √2

(C) 1

(D) 0

Ans: (D)

140. In the figure given below ∠AOC = 140° where O is the centre of the circle, then ∠ABC is equal to:

(A) 90°

(B) 100°

(C) 40°

(D) 110°

Ans: (D)

141. The value of the following is 

(A) 4

(B) 2√2

(C) 2

(D) 2√3

Ans: (A)

142. An item is offered for sale at Rs. 250, less successive discounts of 20% and 15%. The sale price of the item is:

(A) 77% of Rs. 250

(B) 68% of Rs. 250

(C) 65% of Rs. 250

(D) 82% of Rs. 250

Ans: (B)

143. The sum of 3 consecutive natural numbers divisible by 3 is 45. The smallest number is:

(A) 3

(B) 12

(C) 18

(D) 9

Ans: (B)

144. The value of x in the below equation is:

(A)  

(B)  

(C) 5.3

(D) 

Ans: (B)

145. If the area of a square is increased by 44%, retaining its shape as a square, each of its sides increases by:

(A) 21%

(B) 19%

(C) 22%

(D) 20%

Ans: (D)

146. A sold a watch at a gain of 5% to B and B sold it to C at a gain of 4%. If C paid Rs. 91 for it, then the price paid by A is:

(A) Rs. 82.81

(B) Rs. 83

(C) Rs. 84.33

(D) Rs. 83.33

Ans: (D)

147. Three containers whose volumes are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 are full of mixture of spirit and water. In the 1st container, the ratio of spirit and water is 11 : 4 and in the 3rd container ratio is 7 : 3. All the three mixtures are mixed in a big container. The ratio of spirit and water in the resultant mixture is:

(A) 5 : 10

(B) 4 : 9

(C) 9 : 5

(D) 11 : 4

Ans: (D)

148. The ratio of inradius and circumradius of an equilateral triangle is:

(A) √2 : 1

(B) 2 : 1

(C) 1 : √2

(D) 1 : 2

Ans: (D)

149. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and the child 5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:

(A) None of the options

(B) 35 years

(C) 40 years

(D) 50 years

Ans: (C)

150. A, B and CC working separately can do piece of work in 11 days, 20 days and 55 days, respectively. In how many days, the work will be completed if A is assisted by B and C on alternate days?

(A) 8

(B) 2

(C) 6

(D) 4

Ans: (A)

Part-D : English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. 151-155): Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

151. Sporadic

(A) Stagnant

(B) Epidermic

(C) Occasional

(D) Whirling

Ans: (C)

152. Spectrum

(A) Star

(B) Specific

(C) Range

(D) Telephone

Ans: (C)

153. Connote

(A) To conspire

(B) To print

(C) To pay

(D) To convey

Ans: (D)

154. Stringent

(A) Evident

(B) Compulsory

(C) Strict

(D) Farfetched

Ans: (C)

155. Regime

(A) Clique

(B) Authority

(C) Gang

(D) Cabal

Ans: (B)

Directions (Qs. 156 to 160): Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

156. The science of the functioning and growth of society.

(A) Philosophy

(B) Sociology

(C) Anthropology

(D) Psychology

Ans: (B)

157. Those who pass through this gate without permission will be prosecuted.

(A) Bypassers

(B) Trespassers

(C) Culprits

(D) Absconders

Ans: (B)

158. A person between 90 and 100 years old:

(A) Nonagenarian

(B) Centenarian

(C) Octagenarian

(D) Septagenarian

Ans: (A)

159. Reasoning method involving two statements from which a conclusion is reached:

(A) Rhetoric

(B) Syllogism

(C) Logism

(D) Rhapsody

Ans: (B)

160. Change the appearance to deceive or to hide the identify:

(A) Dupe

(B) Display

(C) Disguise

(D) Dissemble

Ans: (C)

Directions (Qs. 161 to 165): Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the  meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

161.  To pick holes

(A) to destroy something

(B) to criticize someone

(C) to cut some part of an item

(D) to find some reason to quarrel

Ans: (B)

162. She wrangled over an ass’s shadow.

(A) quarreled like fools

(B) sat on the shadow of the ass

(C) quarreled over trifles

(D) did unnecessary work

Ans: (C)

163. God’s acre refers to which of the following places:

(A) A cemetery beside a Church

(B) Altar

(C) Church

(D) Aisle

Ans: (A)

164. He is like a snake in the grass for our family:

(A) a distant relative

(B) a close friend

(C) a  hidden rival

(D) a stupid person

Ans: (C)

165.  To put one’s hand to plough

(A) to take up a task

(B) take interest in technical work

(C) to get entangled into unnecessary things

(D) to take up agricultural farming

Ans: (A)

Directions (Qs. 166 to 170): Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

166. Profuse

(A) Sacred

(B) Meagre

(C) Adverse

(D) Ambiguous

Ans: (B)

167. Agony

(A) Ecstasy

(B) Sorrow

(C) Misery

(D) Conflict

Ans: (A)

168. Subsequent

(A) Aloof

(B) Preceding

(C) Dismissive

(D) Inferior

Ans: (B)

169. Erudite

(A) Ignorant

(B) Immature

(C) Professional

(D) Unimaginative

Ans: (A)

170. Redundant

(A) Wordy

(B) Repetitions

(C) Surplus

(D) Concise

Ans: (D)

Directions (Qs. 171 to 175): Four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

171. 

(A) gourmandize

(B) gourmendize

(C) gormandize

(D) gormandise

Ans: (A)

172.

(A) appearance

(B) appiarance

(C) apparance

(D) appearance

Ans: (D)

173.

(A) connoisure

(B) connoisseur

(C) conoisseur

(D) connoiseur

Ans: (B)

174.

(A) xenophobia

(B) xenofobia

(C) zenophobia

(D) zenofobia

Ans: (A)

175.

(A) Pseudonymn

(B) Soodonym

(C) Seudonym

(D) Pseudonym

Ans: (D)

Directions (Qs. 176 to 180): In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.

Passage

It’s soccer’s newest power player; a ball called the sOccket generates and stores energy as players kick it, then provides energy at home. Fifteen minutes on the field ….(I)… enough energy to power a small light for three hours and may help people in developing nations like India …(II)… kerosene, a leading cause of …(III)… illness and fires. Working on the principle of flashlights that charge3 when shaken, the sOccket is the ….(IV)… of Harvard students, Jessica Lin, Julia Silverman, Jessia Matthews and Hemali Thakker and is being ….(V)…. by the Clinton Global Initiative University and the WalMart Foundation.

176.

(A) (I) stores

(B) (I) conserves

(C) (I) captures

(D) (I) reserves

Ans: (C)

177.

(A) (II) supplant

(B) (II) restore

(C) (II) substitute

(D) (II) replace

Ans: (D)

178.

(A) (III) respiratory

(B) (III) cardio-vascular

(C) (III) pulmonary

(D) (III) cardiac

Ans: (A)

179.

(A) (IV) output

(B) (IV) achievement

(C) (IV) brainchild

(D) (IV) inventory

Ans: (C)

180.

(A) (V) promoted

(B) (V) financed

(C) (V) sponsored

(D) (V) funded

Ans: (A)

Directions (Qs. 181 to 185): Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part as your answer. If a sentence is free from error, then mark that part corresponding to “No Error” option.

181. Long life is good if one by happy and has friends.

(A) Long life is good

(B) No Error

(C) and has friends

(D) if one be happy

Ans: (D)

182. He went to the doctor because he had not been feeling well since several weeks.

(A) because he had not been feeling well

(B) He went to the doctor

(C) since several weeks

(D) No Error

Ans: (C)

183. Had you participated in the drawing competition, you would have won the first prize.

(A) Had you participated

(B) you would have won the first prize.

(C) in the drawing competition

(D) No Error

Ans: (D)

184. The thief did not known that there was a dog laying under the table.

(A) laying under the table.

(B) that there was a dog

(C) The thief did not know

(D) No Error

Ans: (A)

185. Before we returned from swimming in the river near the camp, someone had stole our clothes, and we had to walk back with our towels around us.

(A) someone had stole our clothes

(B) Before we returned from swimming in the river near the camp

(C) No Error

(D) and we had to walk back with our towels around us.

Ans: (A)

Directions (Qs. 186 to 190): A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed choose “No Improvement”.

186. I would gladly accompany your sister if you had asked me:

(A) No Improvement

(B) will gladly accompany

(C) would have gladly accompanied

(D) would gladly accompanied

Ans: (C)

187. College students went at the rampage in the city yesterday.

(A) over the rampage

(B) NO Improvement

(C) with the rampage

(D) on a rampage

Ans: (D)

188. You cannot forbid him leaving.

(A) he leaving

(B) his leaving

(C) him to leave

(D) No Improvement

Ans: (C)

189. I met the two girls, which I believe, are identical twins.

(A) No Improvement

(B) who, I believe are

(C) who, to my belief, are

(D) whom, I thought are

Ans: (B)

190. Helen Keller’s efforts to rehabilitate herself despite her triple handicap.

(A) reinstate

(B) manage

(C) readapt

(D) No Improvement

Ans: (C)

Directions (Qs. 191 to 195) : Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

191. He read _____ that are ____ to his profession.

(A) Weeklies; appropriate

(B) Magazines; acceptable

(C) Periodicals; pertinent

(D) Papers; apparent

Ans: (C)

192. The Press is suppose to be a means of _____between the government and

(A) Help; society

(B) Propaganda; Private sector

(C) Confrontation; terrorists

(D) Communication; people

Ans: (D)

193. I _____ him for the post _____ he was very active.

(A) Recommended; because

(B) Admitted; but

(C) Acknowledged; and

(D) Commended; even though

Ans: (A)

194. The man was absorbed ______ has work.

(A) with

(B) at

(C) in 

(D) into

Ans: (C)

195. Your friends think you are conceited because you seem to ___ them.

(A) Patronise

(B) Penalise

(C) Emulate

(D) Cheat

Ans: (A)

Directions (Qs. 196 to 200): Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage

Fat comes in two types: Omega-3 which is found in marine life and Omega-6 which is concentrated in vegetable oils. The first is good, the other is plain rotten. The best source of Omega-3 is preferably sea-fish. But frying it in Omega-6 rich vegetable oil kills all its goodness.

Ageing brains have low levels of thiamin, which is concentrated in wheat germ and bran, nuts, meat and cereals. More good brain-food comes from liver, milk and almond, which are rich in riboflavin and extremely good for memory. Carotene, available in deep green leafy vegetables and fruits, is also good for geriatric brains. So is a high iron diet; it can make old brains gallop hyperactively like young ones. Iron comes from greens; liver, shell0-fish, red meat and soyabeans. Sea-food very high in iron, is an excellent diet supplement. The New England Journal of Medicine reported in its May 1985 issue that 30 grams of fish a day could result in a dramatic drop in the chances of acquiring a cardiovascular disease. Sea fish, particularly shell-fish, crabs, m mackerel and sardines, are more effective than riverine fish because the latter is more vulnerable to chemical effluents.

196. ‘Geriatrics’ pertain to:

(A) toddlers

(B) old people

(C) adolescents

(D) new born babies

Ans: (B)

197. Cardiovascular relates to the:

(A) heart and tendons

(B) heart and blood vessels

(C) heart and cartilage

(D) heart and muscles

Ans: (B)

198. Almonds are rich in riboflavin and are good for

(A) memory

(B) anaemia

(C) sleepwalking

(D) leukameia

Ans: (A)

199. The best source of Omega-3 fat is found in:

(A) all dairy products

(B) sea fish

(C) eggs only

(D) vegetables

Ans: (B)

200. 30 grams of fish a day could result in:

(A) an increased change of acquiring lung disease.

(B) a drop in the chances of getting lung cancer.

(C) a drop in the chances of getting heart disease.

(D) an increased chance of acquiring heart disease.

Ans: (C)

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