Class VIII

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2011 Class-VIII Question Paper With Answer Key

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State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2011 Class-VIII

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test

Directions-(Q. 1-10) In these question here are four terms in each question. The terms to the right of the symbol : : have the same relationship as the terms to the left of the symbol : : Out of the four terms one term is missing which is one of the alternatives given below. Find out the correct alternative and write its letter against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

1. Stealing : Sin : : Donation : ?

(A)  Rich

(B)  Poor

(C)  Holy work

(D)  Donar

Answer: (C)

2. Hunger : Food : : Thirst : ?

(A)  Milk

(B)  River

(C)  Ocean

(D)  Water

Answer: (D)

3. Knowledge : Ignorance : : Literate : ?

(A)  Education

(B)  Illiterate

(C)  Book

(D)  School

Answer: (B)

4. Mountain : Stone : : Desert : ?

(A)  Sand

(B)  Camel

(C)  Date

(D)  Tree

Answer: (A)

5. Foot : Shoe : : Head : ?

(A)  Body

(B)  Dress

(C)  Cap

(D)  Hair

Answer: (C)

6. Action : Cause : : Suffering : ?

(A)  Result

(B)  Life

(C)  Doctor

(D)  Disease

Answer: (D)

7. Where : When : : Place : ?

(A)  Direction

(B)  Time

(C)  Movement

(D)  Difference

Answer: (B)

8. Week : Day : : Year : ?

(A)  Month

(B)  Tuesday

(C)  September

(D)  August

Answer: (A)

9. Child : Man : : Plant : ?

(A)  Fruit

(B)  Forest

(C)  Leaf

(D)  Tree

Answer: (D)

10. Feet : Walking : : Brain : ?

(A)  Attraction

(B)  Liking

(C)  Thinking

(D)  Reading

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 11-20) These questions are based on letters series. In each question some letters are missing shown by (−). The missing letters are given in a proper sequence as one of the four alternatives given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its letter against corresponding question number on your answer sheet.

11. – aabb – a – ab − b

(A)  b a a b

(B)  b a b a

(C)  a b b a

(D)  a b a b

Answer: (D)

12. a – b aa – aa − ab

(A)  a b b a

(B)  a a a a

(C)  b a a a

(D)  b b b b

Answer: (A)

13. ab – aa – bbb – aaa − bbba

(A)  a a a b

(B)  a b a b

(C)  b a a b

(D)  a b b a

Answer: (C)

14. aa – aaa – aaaa – aaaa − b

(A)  b b b b

(B)  b b b a

(C)  b b a a

(D)  b a a a

Answer: (B)

15. − − aba – − b

(A)  b b a b

(B)  b a b a

(C)  a b b b

(D)  a b b a

Answer: (D)

16. KJ, MLK, ONM, ?, SRQ, UTS

(A)  PQR

(B)  QOP

(C)  QPO

(D)  ONP

Answer: (C)

17. a – bbc – aab − cca

(A)  a c b

(B)  b c a

(C)  c a b

(D)  b a c

Answer: (A)

18. DEF, HIJ, MNO, ?

(A)  RST

(B)  RTV

(C)  STU

(D)  TUV

Answer: (C)

19. a – ba – cbaac − a

(A)  b a c

(B)  b c a

(C)  a c b

(D)  c a b

Answer: (D)

20. AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

(A)  EV

(B)  VE

(C)  EU

(D)  FW

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 21-30) These questions are based on number series. One term is missing in each series and indicated by question mark (?) find out the missing term out of the four alternations given below and write its letter against the correct question number on your answer sheet.

21. 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, ?

(A)  20

(B)  23

(C)  22

(D)  21

Answer: (C)

22. 49, 48, 46, 43, 39, ?

(A)  44

(B)  42

(C)  35

(D)  34

Answer: (D)

23. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A)  34

(B)  36

(C)  32

(D)  18

Answer: (B)

24. 19, 18, 20, 19, 21, 20, ?

(A)  22

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  18

Answer: (A)

25. 0, 1, 8, 64, 125, ?

(A)  189

(B)  180

(C)  198

(D)  216

Answer: (D)

26. 2, 3, 6, 11, ? , 27

(A)  18

(B)  19

(C)  16

(D)  17

Answer: (A)

27. 6, 9, 18, 21, 42, 45, ?

(A)  98

(B)  90

(C)  93

(D)  96

Answer: (B)

28. 15, 17, 14, 18, 13, ? , 12

(A)  19

(B)  20

(C)  22

(D)  21

Answer: (A)

29. 2, 5, 9, 8, 11, 15, 14, 17, 21, ?

(A)  27

(B)  25

(C)  23

(D)  20

Answer: (D)

30. 1, 7, 3, 14, 6, 21, 10, 28, ?

(A)  15

(B)  14

(C)  16

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 31-40) In these questions each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Write the letter of the different term against the corresponding question number on your answer sheet.

31.

(A)  POLISH

(B)  SUFFER

(C)  MATTER

(D)  ATTIRE

Answer: (A)

32.

(A)  RLTK

(B)  CTES

(C)  PVRU

(D)  VDZC

Answer: (D)

33.

(A)  HSRI

(B)  FSGR

(C)  EWVF

(D)  WDCX

Answer: (B)

34.

(A)  IJKL

(B)  APQR

(C)  OTQP

(D)  EKLM

Answer: (A)

35.

(A)  N

(B)  O

(C)  P

(D)  Q

Answer: (B)

36.

(A)  ABCD

(B)  EFGH

(C)  I J K L

(D)  OPST

Answer: (D)

37.

(A)  PQRS

(B)  BCBC

(C)  WXWX

(D)  HNHN

Answer: (A)

38.

(A)  UUXW

(B)  CCDE

(C)  QRSS

(D)  LLMN

Answer: (C)

39.

(A)  CXYZ

(B)  DPQR

(C)  CFGH

(D)  CLMN

Answer: (B)

40.

(A)  SPHS

(B)  SMCS

(C)  TBMI

(D)  SLPS

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) Read the following questions carefully. On the basis of given details choose the correct alternative of questions and write letter of correct alternative against corresponding question number on your answer sheet.

41. A book contains 400 pages. What will be the number of page number 96, if counting is made from the last page of the book.

(A)  304

(B)  305

(C)  306

(D)  302

Answer: (B)

42. If the price of Guava is just half in comparison to the price of Pomegranate and the price of Pomegranate is just double of price the bananas, then what will be the price of 6 Guava if the price of dozen bananas is ten rupees?

(A)  5 Rupees

(B)  4 Rupees

(C)  6 Rupees

(D)  10 Rupees

Answer: (A)

43. If a rope is to be cut is six equal parts. What will be the maximum number of pieces?

(A)  1

(B)  6

(C)  5

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

44. There are 8 boxes full of oranges and their weight is 400 kilogram. If the weight of each empty box is 10 kilogram then the weight of oranges will be-

(A)  480 kilogram

(B)  80 kilogram

(C)  400 kilogram

(D)  320 kilogram

Answer: (D)

45. The door of a house is in the north. Entering the door there is a room towards the right hand. After entering the room there is a window towards the right hand. What will be the direction of my face, if I am standing facing towards the window?

(A)  North

(B)  South

(C)  East

(D)  West

Answer: (A)

46. My house is one kilometer south from school and my friend’s house is one kilometer in the east from my house. What will be the direction of my friend’s house from the school?

(A)  East

(B)  South

(C)  South East

(D)  North West

Answer: (C)

47. To see the time in a watch, Mohan misunderstood the minute needle as hour needle and hour needle as minute needle. In this way he found two and a half minute to 6 O’Clock. What was the correct time?

(A)  11 Past 30 minutes

(B)  12 Past 30 minutes

(C)  10 Past 30 minutes

(D)  2 Past 30 minutes

Answer: (A)

48. Anurag is elder to Hemant. Sanjay is younger to Somesh, but Anurag is older to Sanjay. Who is the youngest?

(A)  Anurag

(B)  Somesh

(C)  Hemant

(D)  Sanjay

Answer: (D)

49. Alok moves 40 km in north direction then he turns to right and moves 50 km. After this he turns to right and moves 30 km. Again he turns to right and moves 50 km. How far is he from the starting point?

(A)  10 kilometre

(B)  20 kilometre

(C)  30 kilometre

(D)  40 kilometre

Answer: (A)

50. A man moves 3 km towards East then moves 5 km toward South and finally 9 km towards North. How far is he from the starting point?

(A)  3 kilometre

(B)  4 kilometre

(C)  5 kilometre

(D)  6 kilometre

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 51-60) In these questions there equations that have become wrong due to incorrect order of sings. Choose the correct order of sings from the four alternatives given below, so that the equations become correct. Write it on your answer sheet against the corresponding question number.

51. 12 × 12 + 8 = 3

(A)  + = ×

(B)  × = +

(C)  = + ×

(D)  + × =

Answer: (A)

52. 5 + 9 = 4 – 8

(A)  + – =

(B)  = + –

(C)  = – +

(D)  – + =

Answer: (B)

53. 4 ÷ 8 = 2 × 4

(A)  ÷ × =

(B)  = ÷×

(C)  = × ÷

(D)  × = ÷

Answer: (C)

54. 25 – 2 = 75 × 25

(A)  = × –

(B)  – × =

(C)  – = ×

(D)  – × =

Answer: (D)

55. 66 = 27 × 13 – 3

(A)  = – ×

(B)  × = –

(C)  × = +

(D)  + × =

Answer: (C)

56. 29 × 27 + 8 = 7

(A)  + = ×

(B)  = × +

(C)  × = +

(D)  + × =

Answer: (A)

57. 15 = 8 + 23 – 8 × 0

(A)  + × = –

(B)  – + × =

(C)  – + = ×

(D)  + – = ×

Answer: (D)

58. 81 – 9 ÷ 12 = 3

(A)  ÷ – =

(B)  ÷ = –

(C)  = ÷ –

(D)  = – ÷

Answer: (B)

59. 7 = 6 + 5 + 18

(A)  + = +

(B)  – + =

(C)  + + =

(D)  = – +

Answer: (C)

60. 61 = 16 +77

(A)  + =

(B)  – +

(C)  + +

(D)  + –

Answer: (A)

61. If in a code language BRASS is written as 63516 and RISK is written as 6147. What will be the code SIR in the same language?

(A)  631

(B)  315

(C)  536

(D)  617

Answer: (D)

62. If in a code language BEST is written CFTU. What will be code of GATE in same language?

(A)  HBUF

(B)  HIUF

(C)  BUFT

(D)  HUBF

Answer: (A)

63. If in a code language SYSTEM is written as SYSMET and NEARER is written as AFNRER then FRACTION will be written as-

(A)  ARFITOON

(B)  CARFNOIT

(C)  ARFITCNO

(D)  NOITCARF

Answer: (B)

64. If in a code language SCIENCE is written as UFMJTJM. What will be the code of GENE in same language?

(A)  H G Q I

(B)  I H R J

(C)  I H R I

(D)  I H S J

Answer: (B)

65. If in a code language PATIENCE is written as QBUJFODF. What will be the code of COOLER?

(A)  PPMES

(B)  DPPMFS

(C)  DPMMFS

(D)  PDMNFS

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 66-70) In these questions number are placed in the figure on the basis of some rules. One place is vacant which is indicated as (?). Find out the correct alternative to replace the question mark (?) and write its letter against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

66.

(A)  2

(B)  21

(C)  17

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

67. 

(A)  28

(B)  30

(C)  15

(D)  60

Answer: (B)

68. 

(A)  50

(B)  52

(C)  54

(D)  56

Answer: (D)

69. 

(A)  8

(B)  16

(C)  32

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

70. 

(A)  35

(B)  45

(C)  55

(D)  65

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 71-75) These questions are based on the following figure. Triangle represents literate person, circle represents women and square represents sports persons. See the picture carefully and find out the correct alternative and write its number on your answer sheet.

71. How many persons are literate?

(A)  5

(B)  17

(C)  3

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

72. How many women are literate?

(A)  6

(B)  4

(C)  19

(D)  9

Answer: (D)

73. How many sport women are there ?

(A)  4

(B)  2

(C)  13

(D)  9

Answer: (A)

74. How many persons are literate but not women?

(A)  9

(B)  8

(C)  12

(D)  17

Answer: (B)

75. How many sports women are not literate?

(A)  6

(B)  10

(C)  4

(D)  19

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 76-84) In these questions are four figures in each questions. The figures on the right to the symbol : : have the some relationship as the two figures on the left of the symbol : : Out of the four figures on figure is missing which is one of the four alternatives given in Answer figure. Find out the correct alternative and write its number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

76. 

Answer: (D)

77. 

Answer: (D)

78. 

Answer: (D)

79. 

Answer: (B)

80. 

Answer: (C)

81. 

Answer: (D)

82. 

Answer: (C)

83. 

Answer: (C)

84. 

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 85-90) In these questions each question has four figures, three figures are alike in some way. One figure is different from others. Find out the different figures letter and write it against the corresponding question number on your answer sheet.

85. 

Answer: (C)

86. 

Answer: (D)

87. 

Answer: (B)

88. 

Answer: (B)

89. 

Answer: (D)

90. 

Answer: (C)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test

(A) Science

91. Mercury is the ideal liquid for making thermometer because-

(A)  It does not stick to glass and is easily visible

(B)  Expands on heating

(C)  Its boiling point is high

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

92. The umbra is seen-

(A)  Inside the penumbra

(B)  Outside the penumbra

(C)  Away from the penumbra

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

93. The speed of sound depend upon-

(A)  Elasticity of the medium

(B)  Temperature

(C)  Density of the medium

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

94. The pressure exerted on the area of 0.25 m2 by 25000 Newton force will be-

(A)  10000 N/m2

(B)  10000 N/m2

(C)  1000000 N/m2

(D)  6250 N/m2

Answer: (B)

95. The element used in making a solar cell is-

(A)  Boron

(B)  Silver

(C)  Silicon

(D)  Copper

Answer: (C)

96. The chemical formula of potassium permanganate is-

(A)  KKNO4

(B)  KMnO4

(C)  K2MnO4

(D)  K­4MnO4

Answer: (B)

97. To remove temporary hardness of water by Clark method the substance used is-

(A)  Lime

(B)  Washing Soda

(C)  Zeolite

(D)  Caustic Soda

Answer: (A)

98. The coal gas is-

(A)  H2 + CO + C2H5OH + C6H6

(B)  H2 + CO2 + CCl4 + C6H6

(C)  H2 + CO + CH4 +  C2H4 + C2H2

(D)  H2 + CO2 + CH3OH + C2H4 + C2H2

Answer: (C)

99. The soil used in ceramic industry is-

(A)  Clay

(B)  Loaming soil

(C)  Sandy soil

(D)  Silt

Answer: (A)

100. Which of the following steps is different?

(A)  Calcination

(B)  Roasting

(C)  Concentration

(D)  Corossion

Answer: (C)

101. Which metal is related to Kollar mine?

(A)  Silver

(B)  Gold

(C)  Aluminium

(D)  Iron

Answer: (B)

102. Electric Fuse holders are made of-

(A)  Polythene

(B)  Clay

(C)  China Clay

(D)  Bakellite

Answer: (C)

103. Which part of Mulethi plant is used in Respiratory diseases?

(A)  Fruit

(B)  Stem

(C)  Flower

(D)  Root

Answer: (B)

104. Protein present in milk is-

(A)  Lactogen

(B)  Casein

(C)  Myosin

(D)  Actin

Answer: (B)

105. Which part of the plant is related to root cap?

(A)  Root

(B)  Bud

(C)  Seed

(D)  Stem

Answer: (A)

106. Full name of A.T.P. is-

(A)  Ammonium Triphosphate

(B)  Adenine Tetraphosphate

(C)  Adenosine Triphosphate

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

107. The tail of a Neuron cell is called-

(A)  Cyton

(B)  Axon

(C)  Dendron

(D)  Tendon

Answer: (B)

108. Which Tissues of the plant carry food from the leaves to other parts?

(A)  Collenchyma

(B)  Xylem

(C)  Sclerenchyma

(D)  Phloem

Answer: (D)

109. Though fats produce more energy than carbohydrates, patients are given a solution containing carbohydrates not the fat. The reason is-

(A)  Fats released energy much slower than carbohydrates

(B)  Carbohydrates are good in taste

(C)  Fats are not easily digestible

(D)  Fats are insoluble in water

Answer: (A)

110. Hyperlink is used in-

(A)  To open Internet

(B)  To link one page with another

(C)  To give password

(D)  To open windows

Answer: (B)

111. Internet explorer is-

(A)  Website

(B)  I.S.P.

(C)  Hardware

(D)  Browser

Answer: (D)

112. Fuse wire is made of-

(A)  Sn + Pb

(B)  Sn + Fe

(C)  Sn + Cu

(D)  Cu + Zn

Answer: (A)

113. A magnetic material loses its magnetic property when it is-

(A)  Dipped in water

(B)  Kept in sunlight

(C)  Heated strongly

(D)  Kept in electric field

Answer: (C)

114. When an object is placed on the focal length of a convex lens, the nature of the image formed is-

(A)  Real, inverted and equal

(B)  Real, erect and enlarged

(C)  Real, inverted and much enlarged

(D)  Real, inverted and diminished

Answer: (C)

115. Quantity of heat (Q) = ………….

(A)  mass × specific heat × change in temperature

(B)  mass × change in temperature × density

(C)  mass × volume × relative density

(D)  mass × heat capacity × change in temperature

Answer: (A)

116. The part of an electric bulb which is made of Tungsten metal in this picture is-

(A)  D

(B)  B

(C)  C

(D)  A

Answer: (B)

117. Diamond is soluble in-

(A)  Petrol

(B)  Alcohol

(C)  Water

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

118. When an acid is added to water slowly, then-

(A)  Heat is absorbed

(B)  No change in heat occurs

(C)  Heat is produced

(D)  Nothing happens

Answer: (C)

119. At what temperature the density of water is maximum ?

(A)  4°C

(B)  0°C

(C)  100°C

(D)  37°C

Answer: (A)

120. The cloth made from cotton and synthetic fibres is known as-

(A)  Rayon

(B)  Terilene

(C)  Tericot

(D)  Polyester

Answer: (C)

121. Copper glance ore is-

(A)  Carbonate ore

(B)  Sulphide ore

(C)  Oxide ore

(D)  Halide ore

Answer: (B)

122. Plasma contains water around-

(A)  30%

(B)  60%

(C)  90%

(D)  40%

Answer: (D)

123. The origin of species through natural selection theory was proposed by-

(A)  Hugo de-Vries

(B)  Malthus

(C)  Lamarck

(D)  Darwin

Answer: (D)

124. The reproductive cells of parents produce-

(A)  Ovum

(B)  Gamete

(C)  Testis

(D)  Zygote

Answer: (B)

125. Select the air borne disease from the following-

(A)  Penumonia

(B)  Tuberculosis

(C)  Diphtheria

(D)  Above all

Answer: (A)

(B) Social Science

126. The most significant achievement of the Neolithic age was-

(A)  Manufacture of useful tools

(B)  Invention of wheels

(C)  Beginning of community life

(D)  Domestication of animal

Answer: (D)

127. Harappa was discovered by-

(A)  Sir John Marshall

(B)  Martimer Wheeler

(C)  Roy Bahadur Dayaram Sahani

(D)  Dr. S. R. Rav

Answer: (C)

128. Mahavir Swami was born at-

(A)  Pawa

(B)  Kundagram

(C)  Lumbini

(D)  Rajgriha

Answer: (B)

129. Which religion believes in Triratan?

(A)  Buddhism

(B)  Vaishnavism

(C)  Shaivism

(D)  Shaktism

Answer: (A)

130. Who is the founder of Din-e-Ilahi?

(A)  Humayun

(B)  Mohd. Gaznavi

(C)  Shershah Suri

(D)  Akbar

Answer: (D)

131. The battle of Plassey was fought in-

(A)  1757 A.D.

(B)  1760 A.D.

(C)  1764 A.D.

(D)  1770 A.D.

Answer: (A)

132. Of which state, Tipu Sultan was ruler-

(A)  Mysore

(B)  Hyderabad

(C)  Ahmedabad

(D)  Khanpur

Answer: (A)

133. Who was the founder of Brahma Samaj?

(A)  Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(B)  Keshav Chandra Sen

(C)  Mahadev Govind Ranadey

(D)  Swami Dayanand

Answer: (A)

134. The first state to sign a Subsidiary Allia was-

(A)  Awadh

(B)  Hyderabad

(C)  Mysore

(D)  Satara

Answer: (B)

135. The first Railway line was opened in India between-

(A)  Howrah and Serampur

(B)  Bombay and Thane

(C)  Madras and Guntur

(D)  Delhi and Agra

Answer: (B)

136. The Salt Satyagrah began from-

(A)  Sabarmati

(B)  Calcutta

(C)  Bardoli

(D)  Lahore

Answer: (A)

137. Abhinav-Bharat was organized by-

(A)  Arvind Ghosh

(B)  Vein Chandra Pal

(C)  Ras Behari Bose

(D)  V. D. Savarkar

Answer: (D)

138. Who was the first Viceroy of India?

(A)  Lord Curzon

(B)  Lord Canning

(C)  Clive

(D)  William Bentic

Answer: (B)

139. The only active volcano in India is-

(A)  Etna

(B)  Vesuvius

(C)  Barren Island

(D)  Stromboli

Answer: (C)

140. What is the percentage of India’s population to the World Population?

(A)  6

(B)  16.7

(C)  26

(D)  36

Answer: (B)

141. Light from the sun reaches us in nearly-

(A)  Two minutes

(B)  Three minutes

(C)  Eight minutes

(D)  Sixteen minutes

Answer: (C)

142. Which city of India has the largest population?

(A)  Kolkata

(B)  Chennai

(C)  Mumbai

(D)  Delhi

Answer: (C)

143. Which state of India has the highest coal reserve with it?

(A)  Chhattisgarh

(B)  Orissa

(C)  Bihar

(D)  Jharkhand

Answer: (D)

144. World Population day is-

(A)  October 15

(B)  July 11

(C)  August 11

(D)  June 5

Answer: (B)

145. ‘Bishu’ is the folk dance of which state?

(A)  Uttar Pradesh

(B)  Assam

(C)  West Bengal

(D)  Maharashtra

Answer: (B)

146. The father of Green Revolution in India is-

(A)  Prakash Chandra

(B)  Abdul Kalam

(C)  M. S. Swaminathan

(D)  Birbal Sahani

Answer: (C)

147. Which continent has the highest population density?

(A)  Asia

(B)  Europe

(C)  Africa

(D)  South America

Answer: (A)

148. Which state is known as ‘Silicon state of India’ ?

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Andhra Pradesh

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Kerala

Answer: (A)

149. Who was called the father of Atomic Energy of India?

(A)  Homi J. Bhabha

(B)  Dr. K. S. Krishna

(C)  Prof. Satish Dhawan

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

150. Which is called ‘Plastic Money’?

(A)  Paper currency

(B)  Credit card

(C)  Discount coupon

(D)  Shares

Answer: (B)

151. The Headquarter of World Trade Organization is in-

(A)  Montreal

(B)  Seatle

(C)  Geneva

(D)  Rome

Answer: (C)

152. In which city the first atomic bomb was exploded ?

(A)  Hiroshima

(B)  Kabul

(C)  Lisbon

(D)  Rome

Answer: (A)

153. What is the minimum age requirement to become the Prime Minister of India?

(A)  21 years

(B)  25 years

(C)  30 years

(D)  35 years

Answer: (B)

154. Under the Indian Constitution who is the Guardian of the fundamental right?

(A)  Parliament

(B)  President

(C)  Cabinet

(D)  Supreme Court

Answer: (D)

155. The election to Panchayat are to be held in-

(A)  Every four years

(B)  Every five years

(C)  Every six years

(D)  At the Government discretion

Answer: (B)

156. The ex-officio chairman of planning commission is-

(A)  President

(B)  Finance Minister

(C)  Vice-President

(D)  Prime-Minister

Answer: (D)

157. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by-

(A)  Lok Sabha

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  President

(D)  Chief Justice

Answer: (C)

158. How many states are there in India?

(A)  25

(B)  27

(C)  28

(D)  29

Answer: (C)

159. Who’s thought is known as Panchsheel ?

(A)  A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(B)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(C)  Indira Gandhi

(D)  B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: (B)

160. Which of President of India is called the “Missile Man” ?

(A)  Dr. Radha Krishnan

(B)  Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(C)  Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

(C) Mathematics

161. The value of  will be-

(A)  2

(B)  0

(C)  1

(D)  −1

Answer: (D)

162. If 50% of (x – y) = 30% of (x + y), then percentage of y/x will be-

(A)  25%

(B)  30%

(C)  15%

(D)  10%

Answer: (A)

163. A boy is 25 years younger than his father. Three years ago the boy’s age was one sixth the age of his father, then the present age of the boy will be-

(A)  10 years

(B)  6 years

(C)  8 years

(D)  4 years

Answer: (C)

164. Expression 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 will be divisible by-

(A)  3

(B)  10

(C)  11

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

165. If 4x – 4x – 1 = 24. Then the value of (2x)x will be-

(A)  55/2

(B)  51/3

(C)  41/2

(D)  61/2

Answer: (A)

166. The value of the following will be-

(A)  4

(B)  6

(C)  8

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

167. If the area of a triangle with base x is equal to the area of a square with side x, then the altitude of triangle will be-

(A)  x/2

(B)  x

(C)  2x

(D)  3x

Answer: (C)

168. The value of expression  will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

169. In a rhombus ABCD, the diagonals intersects at O, if AB = 10 cm, diagonal BD = 16 cm, then the length of the diagonal AC will be-

(A)  12 cm

(B)  16 cm

(C)  8 cm

(D)  6 cm

Answer: (A)

170. In the figure, O is centre of a circle. If ∠ADC = 140°, the ∠BAC will be-

(A)  40°

(B)  50°

(C)  90°

(D)  70°

Answer: (B)

171. The value of a machine depreciates every year by 15%. If its present value is Rs. 50,000, then after a year the value of machine will be-

(A)  Rs. 40,000

(B)  Rs. 42,000

(C)  Rs. 42,500

(D)  Rs. 43,000

Answer: (C)

172. If  then the value of x will be-

(A)  1

(B)  13

(C)  27

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

173. Mean of 12 observations was found to be 18. Later on, it was detected that an observation 62 was misread as 26, then the correct mean of the observation will be-

(A)  28

(B)  31

(C)  33

(D)  36

Answer: (B)

174. If A and B are two sets. Then the value of A ⋃ (A ⋂ B) will be-

(A)  A

(B)  B

(C)  A ⋃ B

(D)  A – B

Answer: (A)

175. The least common multiple of two numbers is 28 times their highest common factor. The difference of least common multiple and highest common factor of these numbers is 810. If one number is 120, then the other number will be-

(A)  420

(B)  210

(C)  120

(D)  810

Answer: (B)

176. A ludo dice is rolled. The Probability that the number of dots less than 5 will be-

(A)  5/6

(B)  2/3

(C)  1/3

(D)  1/6

Answer: (B)

177. The ratio of bus and train fares from Calcutta to a certain place is 3 : 4, if the train fare increases by 20% and bus fare by 10%, then new ratio of bus and train fare will be-

(A)  12 : 16

(B)  16 : 11

(C)  4 : 3

(D)  11 : 16

Answer: (D)

178. The value of expression n will be-

(A)  n + m

(B)  m

(C)  n + m + 1

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

179. The price of a Maruti car rises by 30%, while the sales of the car goes down by 20%. The percentage change in the total revenue will be-

(A)  5%

(B)  4%

(C)  6%

(D)  10%

Answer: (B)

180. Sohan walks at 4/5 of his usual speed and reaches his school 4 minutes late. The usual time taken by him to reach his school will be-

(A)  16 minutes

(B)  12 minutes

(C)  15 minutes

(D)  20 minutes

Answer: (A)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2012 Class-VIII Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2012 Class-VIII

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test

   Directions-(Q. 1-10) Each question has four term. Three term are alike in some way. One term is different from three others. Find out the correct term which are different from three other of its alternative letter.

1.

(A)  Ranchi

(B)  Chennai

(C)  Agartala

(D)  Pune

Answer: (B)

2.

(A)  Mathematics

(B)  Trigonometry

(C)  Algebra

(D)  Geometry

Answer: (A)

3.

(A)  Tomato

(B)  Radish

(C)  Cauliflower

(D)  Brinjal

Answer: (B)

4.

(A)  CGK

(B)  EIM

(C)  HLP

(D)  KNQ

Answer: (D)

5.

(A)  L12, O15

(B)  M14, S20

(C)  F6, J10

(D)  K11, R18

Answer: (B)

6. 

Answer: (D)

7. 

Answer: (C)

8. 

Answer: (C)

9. 

Answer: (D)

10. 

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 11-20) There are four terms in each question. The terms right to the symbol : : have some relationship as the two terms of the left of symbol : : Out of the four term one term is missing which is one of the four alternative given below. Find out the correct alternative.

11. ENPR : HRUX : : GLNP : ?

(A)  IPTV

(B)  JPSV

(C)  JOTV

(D)  PTJU

Answer: (B)

12. LORV : JLNQ : : INQW : ?

(A)  GKMR

(B)  HKNR

(C)  FLNT

(D)  HLMU

Answer: (A)

13. FLMQ : ILPU : : HLOV : ?

(A)  MNTX

(B)  LPTZ

(C)  KPRZ

(D)  KOQW

Answer: (C)

14. IMQW : :LPTZ : : ELRU : ?

(A)  HPUX

(B)  HOUX

(C)  IPVW

(D)  IPWX

Answer: (B)

15. Lothal : Gujarat : Kalibanga : ?

(A)  Chhattisgarh

(B)  Tripura

(C)  Karnataka

(D)  Rajasthan

Answer: (D)

16. 

Answer: (A)

17. 

Answer: (C)

18. 

Answer: (D)

19. 

Answer: (A)

20. 

Answer: (D)

Direction- (Q. 21-25) are based on number series. In each series one term is missing which has been indicated by question mark (?). Find out the missing term from the given four alternative letter.

21. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

(A)  37

(B)  39

(C)  41

(D)  34

Answer: (A)

22. 2, 7, 14, 23, ?

(A)  41

(B)  46

(C)  34

(D)  42

Answer: (C)

23. 3, 9, 16, 22, 29, 35, 42, ?

(A)  54

(B)  48

(C)  45

(D)  56

Answer: (B)

24. 195, 193, 190, 186, 181, ?

(A)  196

(B)  179

(C)  175

(D)  171

Answer: (C)

25. 5, 24, 61, 122, 213, ?

(A)  340

(B)  225

(C)  276

(D)  320

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 26-30) Each problems figure four design given at the left hand side consisting sequential order and the place of fifth figure is vacant, which has been shown by question mark (?). Four answer figure are given against each problem figure. Find out the correct answer figure-

26. 

Answer: (C)

27.

Answer: (A)

28. 

Answer: (C)

29. 

Answer: (A)

30. 

Answer: (C)

Directions- (Q. 31-35) The letters in column I are coded in form of numbers which are written in column II but the orders of numbers is different. Study the code of letters the find out the correct answer for each question from given four alternative-

Column I                                   Column II

ELN                                           435

CFN                                           372

GFN                                           632

CLS                                            758

31. What is the code for word CFGN ?

(A)  4359

(B)  7263

(C)  2635

(D)  5724

Answer: (B)

32. What is the code of word GNLE ?

(A)  3756

(B)  2463

(C)  4735

(D)  6354

Answer: (D)

33. What is the code for word CEG ?

(A)  746

(B)  623

(C)  753

(D)  463

Answer: (A)

34. What is the code for word ELFN ?

(A)  3267

(B)  7624

(C)  4523

(D)  5317

Answer: (C)

35. What is the code for word ECSN?

(A)  2573

(B)  9346

(C)  4783

(D)  6347

Answer: (C)

36. If in a code language BULLOCK is written as OCKLBUL How IMPROBITY is written in similar language-

(A)  ITYROBIMP

(B)  YTIBORPMI

(C)  ITYBORIMP

(D)  IYTROBIPM

Answer: (A)

37. If in a code language ‘LUNAR’ is written as ‘TPSQN’. How ‘NARUL’ is written in similar language-

(A)  SNQPT

(B)  SQNPT

(C)  SPQNT

(D)  STNQP

Answer: (B)

38. If in a code language CALCUTTA is written as 81. How MADRAS is written in similar language-

(A)  65

(B)  54

(C)  64

(D)  56

Answer: (D)

39. If in a code language PALACE is written as APALEC. How EQUALITY is written in similar language-

(A)  QEAUILYT

(B)  UAQLAYTI

(C)  QEUAILTY

(D)  YTILAUQE

Answer: (A)

40. If in a code language PRIEST is written as RPIETS. How MISSILE is written in similar language-

(A)  IMISSEL

(B)  MISSIEL

(C)  IMSSIEL

(D)  IMSSILE

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 41-45) Given below, four words/numbers are written in every question and Four answer alternative are given below against each question. The words/numbers in the question are related to each other in some way one word/number from among four answer alternative goes best with the words/numbers in the question. Find of the correct alternative-

41. Ranchi, Dehradun, Bhubeneshwar, Banglore-

(A)  Kolkata

(B)  Ahmedabad

(C)  Pune

(D)  Guwahati

Answer: (A)

42. 2, 6, 12, 20,

(A)  26

(B)  42

(C)  30

(D)  35

Answer: (C)

43. 17, 19, 23, 29,

(A)  34

(B)  31

(C)  45

(D)  51

Answer: (B)

44. Daman and Diu, Pondicherry, Lakshadweep, Delhi-

(A)  Dadar Nagar Haveli

(B)  Goa

(C)  Bihar

(D)  Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (A)

45. Onion, Garlic, Carrot, Beetroot-

(A)  Brinjal

(B)  Lady Finger

(C)  Radish

(D)  Bottle guard

Answer: (C)

Directions- (Q. 46-50) Are based on the information given below, Read the information carefully and find out the correct alternative number from the four alternative?

Anand have interest in Cricket, Chess and Football. Vein have interest in Football, Hockey and Cricket. Nitin have interest Cricket, Hockey and Football, Mukesh have interest in Cricket, Hockey and Chess.

46. In which game most people has interest?

(A)  Chess

(B)  Cricket

(C)  Football

(D)  Hockey

Answer: (B)

47. In which game least people has interest?

(A)  Chess

(B)  Hockey

(C)  Cricket

(D)  Football

Answer: (A)

48. Who play the chess?

(A)  Anand and Vipin

(B)  Anand and Nitin

(C)  Vein and Nitin

(D)  Anand and Mukesh

Answer: (D)

49. How many people has interest in Hockey game-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  1

Answer: (C)

50. How many people has interest in Football game-

(A)  1

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 51-55) Each of the following questions has a group of the three words which are related to each other in some way. This relationship can be represented by one of the four figure alternative given in the beginning. Find out the correct figure alternative.

51. Parliament, Loksabha, Rajaysabha-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

52. Meter, Litre, Kilogram-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

53. House, Door, Window-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

54. India, Maharashtra, Mumbai-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

55. Jharkhand, Ranchi, Raipur-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 56-60) Each of the questions are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct alternative number form the four alternative.

   In graduate Ramesh opted History, Geography and Sanskrit, Santosh opted Economics, Sanskrit and Geography, Manoj opted Geography, Sanskrit and Philosophy and Manish opted Economics, History and Sanskrit.

56. Which subject has opted by the most student?

(A)  Geography

(B)  Sanskrit

(C)  Philosophy

(D)  Economics

Answer: (B)

57. Which subject has opted by the least student?

(A)  Economics

(B)  History

(C)  Philosophy

(D)  Sanskrit

Answer: (C)

58. The students who did not opt Geography subject?

(A)  Manish

(B)  Santosh

(C)  Manoj

(D)  Ramesh

Answer: (A)

59. How many students opted Philosophy subject?

(A)  4

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

60. The students who did not opt History subject?

(A)  Manoj and Ramesh

(B)  Ramesh and Santosh

(C)  Santosh and Manoj

(D)  Manish and Santosh

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 61-70) In questions the equations have become wrong because of the wrong order of sings. Choose the correct order of signs from the four option given below so as to make the equations right.

61. 7 – 6 + 73 = 31

(A)  + – =

(B)  = – +

(C)  × = –

(D)  × ÷ =

Answer: (C)

62. 9 ÷ 6 + 11 – 4

(A)  – + =

(B)  = + +

(C)  + – =

(D)  = × ÷

Answer: (B)

63. 9 ÷ 6 + 11 – 4

(A)  – + =

(B)  = + +

(C)  × – =

(D)  + – =

Answer: (D)

64. 83 + 19 – 68 = 4

(A)  – = –

(B)  – + =

(C)  = – +

(D)  – × =

Answer: (A)

65. 9 ÷ 6 + 11 =4

(A)  – + =

(B)  + – =

(C)  = – ×

(D)  = ÷ +

Answer: (B)

66. 9 + 9 × 49 = 32

(A)  – + =

(B)  = – +

(C)  × – =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (C)

67. 9 = 3 × 7 – 10

(A)  ÷ + =

(B)  + – =

(C)  + + =

(D)  × – =

Answer: (A)

68. 39 = 3 × 5 – 65

(A)  × – =

(B)  = + ÷

(C)  = – ×

(D)  ÷ × =

Answer: (D)

69. 3 = 5 × 7 – 8

(A)  × + =

(B)  × – =

(C)  + ÷ =

(D)  = – ÷

Answer: (B)

70. 36 – 6 = 3 + 9

(A)  = + ÷

(B)  − ÷ =

(C)  – + =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 71-80) Questions are based on definite series. In given question some letters are missing shown by – The missing letters are given in proper sequence as one of the four alternative given under each question. Find out the correct alternative.

71. – CE – L – E – LC – K

(A)  KCLEK

(B)  ELCKE

(C)  LCKEL

(D)  LKCKE

Answer: (D)

72. – – L – N – LO – GL –

(A)  NGOGNO

(B)  ONGNGO

(C)  GONGNO

(D)  ONGLNG

Answer: (A)

73. – PK – J – K – JP – T

(A)  KJPTJ

(B)  JPKTP

(C)  JTPTK

(D)  TJKPT

Answer: (C)

74. – – C – O – CP – N – –

(A)  PNOCNPN

(B)  ONPNOCP

(C)  NCPONCP

(D)  CNPOCNO

Answer: (B)

75. – – C – L – C – LK – N

(A)  CNLKCN

(B)  NLKCNC

(C)  LKNKNC

(D)  LCKNLK

Answer: (C)

76. – FH – O – H – OF – N

(A)  ONFNH

(B)  NOFHN

(C)  OFHNN

(D)  OHFNO

Answer: (A)

77. – – P – R – PS – KP –

(A)  KSRSKR

(B)  RSRKRS

(C)  SRKSRK

(D)  RKSKRS

Answer: (D)

78. – SN – M – N – M – W

(A)  MSNWS

(B)  MWSWN

(C)  SWMNS

(D)  WSNMS

Answer: (B)

79. – – G – S – GT – R – –

(A)  STRGRST

(B)  SRGSTRT

(C)  SRTRSGT

(D)  RSTGRST

Answer: (C)

80. – – E – N – E – NM – P

(A)  NMPMPE

(B)  MNEPEM

(C)  NMEMPN

(D)  ENMNPE

Answer: (A)

81. If in a code language CFIK is written as EIMP. So how EGJM would be written in similar code language?

(A)  HJMR

(B)  IJNT

(C)  GJNR

(D)  GJMS

Answer: (C)

82. If in a code language SRNG is written as NNKE. So how PNLI would be written in similar code language ?

(A)  KJIG

(B)  JLIF

(C)  KKIH

(D)  LJIM

Answer: (A)

83. If in a code language DGHL is written as FKNT. So how FJLN would be written in similar code language?

(A)  GNSW

(B)  HMSU

(C)  NRHU

(D)  HNRV

Answer: (D)

84. If in a code language USNG is written as NMIC. So how WTPL would be written in similar code language?

(A)  PMLH

(B)  PNKH

(C)  RMKI

(D)  RNLJ

Answer: (B)

85. If in a code language CHJT is written as GDNP. So how FILV would be written in similar code language?

(A)  IEOR

(B)  JFPS

(C)  JEPR

(D)  KEQS

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q.86-90) Each of the questions are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct alternative number from the four alternative.

Among the five brothers and sisters, Bina is the elder than Nita. Ramesh is elder than Nita but younger than Bina. Dinesh is younger than Suresh and Nita. Nita is the elder than Suresh.

86. Who is the eldest among five brothers and sisters?

(A)  Bina

(B)  Nita

(C)  Suresh

(D)  Ramesh

Answer: (A)

87. Who is in the middle among five brothers and sisters?

(A)  Dinesh

(B)  Bina

(C)  Suresh

(D)  Nita

Answer: (D)

88. Who is the youngest among five brothers and sisters?

(A)  Suresh

(B)  Nita

(C)  Dinesh

(D)  Bina

Answer: (C)

89. Who is in between Bina and Nita?

(A)  Suresh

(B)  Ramesh

(C)  Dinesh

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

90.Who is in between Nita and Dinesh?

(A)  Bina

(B)  Ramesh

(C)  Suresh

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test

(A) Science

91. Unit of specific heat is-

(A)  Joule

(B)  Calorie

(C)  Calorie/Kg

(D)  Joule/Kg °C

Answer: (D)

92 . Lens used in Myopia is-

(A)  Convex lens

(B)  Concave lens

(C)  Both

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

93. Hotest Planet is-

(A)  Jupitor

(B)  Mars

(C)  Saturn

(D)  Venus

Answer: (D)

94. If an object is at infinity then image formed by convex lens is-

(A)  On focus, real, small

(B)  Inside focus, real, same size

(C)  One infinite, virtual, very large

(D)  Double of focal distance, inverted, very big

Answer: (A)

95. Main constituent of L.P.G is-

(A)  Propane + Butane

(B)  Methane

(C)  Nitrous oxide

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

96. Gas filled in electric bulb is-

(A)  Argon

(B)  Carbondioxide

(C)  Neon

(D)  Methane

Answer: (A)

97. Radius of earth in meter is-

(A)  105

(B)  108

(C)  1011

(D)  107

Answer: (A)

98. Time taken to complete one revolution of earth around the sun is called-

(A)  Solar year

(B)  Solar day

(C)  Leap year

(D)  Light year

Answer: (A)

99. Dynamo is used in-

(A)  Generator

(B)  Electromagnet

(C)  Electric bulb

(D)  Photo voltic cell

Answer: (A)

100. Specific heat of water is-

(A)  4200 J/Kg°C

(B)  2400 J/Kg°C

(C)  42 J/Kg°C

(D)  233 J/Kg°C

Answer: (A)

101. Which gas contain smell of rotten egg?

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Carbon dioxide

(C)  Hydrogen sulphide

(D)  Nitrogen

Answer: (C)

102. Which metal can not displace hydrogen from water?

(A)  Sodium

(B)  Copper

(C)  Potassium

(D)  Calcium

Answer: (B)

103. The lead of a pencil is made up of-

(A)  Graphite

(B)  Clay

(C)  Charcoal

(D)  Graphite and clay

Answer: (A)

104. Charge on electron is-

(A)  1.6 × 10−19 C

(B)  1.78 × 10−8 C

(C)  1 × 10−19 C

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

105. Gypsum is used in-

(A)  Plaster of Paris

(B)  Paper

(C)  Cosmetics

(D)  Glass

Answer: (A)

106. Absolute zero temperature is-

(A)  −273°C

(B)  373°C

(C)  273°C

(D)  −4°C

Answer: (A)

107. Which metal is preserved in kerosene?

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Sodium

(C)  Sulpher

(D)  Magnesium

Answer: (B)

108. Water gas is mixture of-

(A)  CO + H2

(B)  CO + H2O

(C)  N2 + H2O

(D)  CO2 + H2O

Answer: (A)

109. What is used in the purification of water?

(A)  I2

(B)  Br2

(C)  Cl2

(D)  SO2

Answer: (C)

110. Which element have 8 electrons in its outer most orbit?

(A)  O

(B)  Ne

(C)  Na

(D)  Mg

Answer: (B)

111. Which of the following is electrically neutral particle?

(A)  α

(B)  β

(C)  Proton

(D)  Neutron

Answer: (D)

112. Device used for measuring pressure is-

(A)  Barometer

(B)  Lectometer

(C)  Thermometer

(D)  Sesmometer

Answer: (A)

113. Which radioactive element is used in cancer therapy?

(A)  U­235

(B)  Cobalt-60

(C)  Zn

(D)  Duterium

Answer: (B)

114. Which of the following rays passes undeviated through an electric field?

(A)  α−Ray

(B)  β−Ray

(C)  Gama – Ray

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

115. Purest form of coal is-

(A)  Anthricite

(B)  Lignite

(C)  Bauxite

(D)  Pyrite

Answer: (D)

116. Pencillin was discovered by-

(A)  Alexander Fleming

(B)  Edward Zener

(C)  Hober Lander

(D)  Darwin

Answer: (A)

117. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?

(A)  Vitamin K

(B)  Vitamin B

(C)  Vitamin A

(D)  Vitamin C

Answer: (C)

118. Which blood group have antigen ?

(A)  Group A

(B)  Group B

(C)  Group AB

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

119. Ozone hole enhances-

(A)  UV radiation reaching earth surface

(B)  Skin Cancer

(C)  Both

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

120. Which metal harms us ?

(A)  Lead

(B)  Cobalt

(C)  Uranium

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

121. Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocynate reacted with-

(A)  DDT

(B)  Ammonia

(C)  Carbondioxide

(D)  Water

Answer: (D)

122. Jaundice is related with-

(A)  Kidney

(B)  Stomach

(C)  Lung

(D)  Liver

Answer: (D)

123. AIDS virus enters the human body through-

(A)  Food

(B)  Kissing

(C)  Water

(D)  Blood

Answer: (D)

124. AIDS was first reported in-

(A)  Russia

(B)  France

(C)  America

(D)  Germany

Answer: (C)

125. Malaria is spread by mosquito-

(A)  Male culex

(B)  Female culex

(C)  Male Anophelese

(D)  Female Anophelese

Answer: (D)

(B) Social Science

126. Sandal wood is produced in abundance in-

(A)  Andhra Pradesh

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Karnataka

(D)  Kerala

Answer: (C)

127. ‘Root Pressure’ is measured by-

(A)  Potometer

(B)  Barometer

(C)  Monometer

(D)  Oxcanometer

Answer: (B)

128. Which of the following is a common capital city of two states?

(A)  Delhi

(B)  Chandigarh

(C)  Jammu

(D)  Bengalooru

Answer: (B)

129. Which of the following food is obtained from trees?

(A)  Almond

(B)  Groundnut

(C)  Maize

(D)  Potato

Answer: (A)

130. Which one of these planets is warmer than Earth?

(A)  Jupiter

(B)  Venus

(C)  Plato

(D)  Saturn

Answer: (B)

131. Which city is famous for its rock garden-

(A)  Lucknow

(B)  Mysore

(C)  Hyderabad

(D)  Chandigarh

Answer: (D)

132. The highest Himalayan Peak is located in-

(A)  India

(B)  Bhutan

(C)  Nepal

(D)  Tibbet

Answer: (C)

133. The longest National Highway in India connects-

(A)  Mumbai and Kolkata

(B)  Kolkata and Delhi

(C)  Chennai and Kolkata

(D)  Varanasi and Kanyakumari

Answer: (D)

134. Which city is known as Pink City?

(A)  Udaipur

(B)  Agra

(C)  Jaipur

(D)  Kanpur

Answer: (C)

135. In following countries which country is also a continent?

(A)  New Zealand

(B)  Australia

(C)  England

(D)  India

Answer: (B)

136. Which one of the following town has winters when there is summer in India?

(A)  Shanghai

(B)  Damuscus

(C)  Melbourne

(D)  Osaka

Answer: (C)

137. How many days are there in a leap year?

(A)  365 days

(B)  366 days

(C)  386 days

(D)  327.3 days

Answer: (B)

138. Mahatma Gandhi started Dandi march on-

(A)  14 March, 1930

(B)  13 March, 1930

(C)  12 March, 1930

(D)  11 March, 1930

Answer: (C)

139. Gautam Buddha attained Enlightenment in-

(A)  Sarnath

(B)  Kapilvastu

(C)  Pataliputra

(D)  Bodh Gaya

Answer: (D)

140. Select the incorrect matching-

(A)  Punjab Kesari-Lala Lajpat Rai

(B)  Netaji – Subash Chandra Bose

(C)  Mahamana – Madan Mohan Malviya

(D)  Lok Nayak – Jawahar Lal Nehru

Answer: (D)

141. The first and the last women to rule from the throne of Delhi, was-

(A)  Chand Bibi

(B)  Jahan Ara

(C)  Noorjahan

(D)  Rajia Sultan

Answer: (D)

142. The first Prime Minister of Pakistan was-

(A)  Liaquat Ali Khan

(B)  Mohammed Ali Jinna

(C)  Abdul Gaffar Khan

(D)  Khwaja Nizamuddin

Answer: (A)

143. Which of the following discoveries led the Historic Man towards settled life?

(A)  Wheel

(B)  Agriculture

(C)  Stone Weapons

(D)  Fire

Answer: (D)

144. What was the food of Pre-Historic Man?

(A)  Root and Fruits

(B)  Cooked Meat

(C)  Wheat and rice

(D)  Milk and butter

Answer: ()

145. The Chief God of the Indus valley civilization was-

(A)  Ram

(B)  Krishna

(C)  Pashupati Shiva

(D)  Sheshnag

Answer: (C)

146. Which one of the following is the oldest scripture?

(A)  Rigveda

(B)  Maha Bharat

(C)  Valmiki Ramayana

(D)  Samveda

Answer: (A)

147. In order to propagate Buddhism, Ashoka the great sent his son and daughter to-

(A)  Malasiya

(B)  Burma

(C)  Sri Lanka

(D)  Thailand

Answer: (C)

148. In Ancient India, Society was divided in-

(A)  Eight Groups

(B)  Four Groups

(C)  Seven Groups

(D)  Six Groups

Answer: (C)

149. Who wrote ‘Shahnama’?

(A)  Omer Khayyam

(B)  Firdausi

(C)  Sheikh Sadi

(D)  Kaundilya

Answer: (B)

150. Who is the highest elected officer of Nagar Nigam?

(A)  Mayer

(B)  Deputy Mayer

(C)  Gram Pradhan

(D)  Commissioner

Answer: (A)

151. The Indian constitution was prepared by-

(A)  Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru

(B)  Mahatma Gandhi

(C)  Constituent Assembly

(D)  Supreme Cout

Answer: (C)

152. Constitution of India came to effect on-

(A)  26 January, 1950

(B)  14 November, 1948

(C)  2 October, 1947

(D)  15 August, 1947

Answer: (A)

153. The number of Fundamental Rights given in the Indian Constitution is-

(A)  5

(B)  6

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

154. Who protects our fundamental rights?

(A)  President

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  Supreme Court

(D)  Parliament

Answer: (C)

155. The first fully literate State was-

(A)  Kerala

(B)  Karnataka

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (A)

156. What is the qualification for membership for the state legislature?

(A)  He must be a graduate

(B)  He must be an Indian citizen

(C)  He must be living in the Same State

(D)  He must be a social worker

Answer: (B)

157. The High Court of Uttar Pradesh is situated at-

(A)  Kanpur

(B)  Agra

(C)  Allahabad

(D)  Meerut

Answer: (C)

158. The Judges of the High Court at appointed by the-

(A)  The President of India

(B)  Chief Justice of India

(C)  Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

(D)  Ministry of Law and Justice

Answer: (A)

159. Right to vote can be exercised by one who has reached the age of-

(A)  18 years

(B)  21 years

(C)  25 years

(D)  28 years

Answer: (A)

160. In which direction of India China lies-

(A)  East

(B)  West

(C)  North

(D)  South

Answer: (C)

(C) Mathematics

161. If A’s money is more than B’s money by 25%. Then B’s money will less than A’s money by-

(A)  25%

(B)  20%

(C)  Equal

(D)  100%

Answer: (B)

162. A bus goes from house to school by speed of 60 km/hr and returns back with speed of 40 km/hr, then average velocity of bus will be-

(A)  50 Km/hr

(B)  48 Km/hr

(C)  45 Km/hr

(D)  60 Km/hr

Answer: (B)

163. If figure PA and PB are tangents to the circle whose centre is O. ∠APB = 60°, then measure of ACB will be-

(A)  60°

(B)  120°

(C)  240°

(D)  100°

Answer: (B)

164. If  then value of x will be-

(A)  36

(B)  6

(C)  30

(D)  15

Answer: (C)

165. The complete circle of radius 3 cm that can be cut from sheet of 18 cm length 12 cm width will be-

(A)  6

(B)  8

(C)  10

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

166. If x = 11, y = −7, z = −4, then value of x3 + y3 + z3 will be-

(A)  924

(B)  0

(C)  500

(D)  824

Answer: (A)

167. If 3x = 500, then value 3x – 2 will be-

(A)  100/9

(B)  1000/9

(C)  500/9

(D)  500/3

Answer: (C)

168. If 200% of number is 20, then 50% of that number will be-

(A)  5

(B)  10

(C)  15

(D)  20

Answer: (A)

169. If  then value of  will be-

(A)  52

(B)  42

(C)  16

(D)  64

Answer: (A)

170. If A and B are two sets than value of (A – B) ⋂ (B – A) will be-

(A)  A ⋃ B

(B)  A ⋂ B

(C)  ϕ

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

171. A card is drawn from a pack of card then probability of, it is a face card will be-

(A)  3/13

(B)  4/13

(C)  5/13

(D)  7/13

Answer: (A)

172. If ax = by = cz abc, then value of  will be-

(A)  −1

(B)  x y z

(C)  1

(D)  1/xyz

Answer: (C)

173. The value of  will be

(A)  3

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  0

Answer: (D)

174. The value of expression  will be-

(A)  9/19

(B)  10/19

(C)  10/21

(D)  11/21

Answer: (C)

175. 1/5th of a pole is black 1/4th is white and remaining 3 meters is yellow, then the length of pole will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  5.5 m

Answer: (A)

176. Present age of A is twice that of B. 30 years from now age of A will be  that of B. The present age of A and B will be-

(A)  60, 30

(B)  30, 60

(C)  40, 80

(D)  80, 40

Answer: (A)

177. Arithmetic Mean of 12 observations is 15. If each observation is multiplied by 4 then new Arithmatic Mean will be-

(A)  15

(B)  30

(C)  45

(D)  60

Answer: (D)

178. If figure A, B and C are the centres of circles each of radius 7 cm. Then area of shaded region will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C)  72 √3 cm2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

179. The difference of squares of two consecutive odd number is 24, then smaller number will be-

(A)  1

(B)  5

(C)  25

(D)  49

Answer: (B)

180. The maximum value of expression 27 – 19x – 81 will be-

(A)  27

(B)  17

(C)  44

(D)  26

Answer: (A)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2013 Class-VIII Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2013 Class-VIII

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test

Directions-(Q. 1-10) Each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Write the letter of the different term against the corresponding question number on your answer sheet-

1.

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Mars

(C)  Moon

(D)  Saturn

Answer: (C)

2.

(A)  Pistol

(B)  Sword

(C)  Gun

(D)  Rifle

Answer: (B)

3.

(A)  21

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  17

Answer: (A)

4.

(A)  9 – 169

(B)  25 – 81

(C)  16 – 36

(D)  121 – 49

Answer: (D)

5.

(A)  D B G

(B)  E B J

(C)  B D H

(D)  C E O

Answer: (D)

6.

Answer: (D)

7. 

Answer: (D)

8. 

Answer: (A)

9. 

Answer: (C)

10. 

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 11-20) There are four terms in each question. The term to the right of the symbol : : have the same relationship as the terms to the left of the symbol : : Out of the four terms one term is missing which is one of the alternatives given below. Find out the correct alternative and write its letter against the corresponding question on your answer sheet-

11. Jharkhand : Ranchi : : Chhattisgarh : ?

(A)  Pune

(B)  Dispur

(C)  Raipur

(D)  Bhopal

Answer: (C)

12. Sushil Kumar : Wrestling : : Unmukt Chand : ?

(A)  Chess

(B)  Cricket

(C)  Football

(D)  Table Tennis

Answer: (B)

13. 3 : 24 : : 5 : ?

(A)  120

(B)  126

(C)  136

(D)  115

Answer: (C)

14. F N R W : H P T Y : : H M P S : ?

(A)  I N P T

(B)  J O R V

(C)  K N O R

(D)  J O R U

Answer: (D)

15. D H O T : E J R X : : F K N V : ?

(A)  H L M U

(B)  I N P T

(C)  G M Q Z

(D)  J L M W

Answer: (C)

16.

Answer: (C)

17. 

Answer: (D)

18. 

Answer: (C)

19. 

Answer: (D)

20. 

Answer: (D)

21. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, ?

(A)  36

(B)  25

(C)  28

(D)  42

Answer: (C)

22. 2, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?

(A)  62

(B)  32

(C)  49

(D)  56

Answer: (D)

23. 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, ?

(A)  95

(B)  92

(C)  96

(D)  84

Answer: (A)

24. 13, 20, 28, 37, 47, 58, ?

(A)  67

(B)  65

(C)  70

(D)  72

Answer: (C)

25. 47, 44, 40, 35, 29, 22, ?

(A)  16

(B)  14

(C)  18

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 26-30) Each problem four figure is given at the left hand side consisting sequential designs and the place for firth figure is vacant which has been shown by question mark (?) Four answer figures are given against each problem figure. Find out the correct answer figure and write its alternative letter against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

26. 

Answer: (D)

27. 

Answer: (C)

28. 

Answer: (B)

29. 

Answer: (D)

30. 

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 31-35) Are based on letter series. In each question some letters are missing shown by (−). The missing letters are given in a proper sequence as one of the four alternative given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its letter against corresponding question number on  your answer sheet.

31. d b – c – c d – b c c −

(A)  d a c b

(B)  b c b c

(C)  c b d b

(D)  b b c c

Answer: (B)

32. S – C K – A – K S – C −

(A)  A C K S K

(B)  K A C A K

(C)  A S C A K

(D)  C A S K C

Answer: (C)

33. n n – p n – o p – n o −

(A)  n o p o

(B)  o n n p

(C)  n n o p

(D)  o n p o

Answer: (B)

34. J L – P J – N − − L N −

(A)  N L J P N

(B)  L J N L N

(C)  P L J L P

(D)  N L P J P

Answer: (D)

35. A M – Z O – A – A Z − N

(A)  A N M O

(B)  N N M N

(C)  M A N O

(D)  Z M N O

Answer: (A)

36. In any code language PENCIL is written as NCLAGL, in the same code language TABLE will be written as-

(A)  S Z A K C

(B)  R Y Z J E

(C)  Q X Y I B

(D)  R X B I E

Answer: (B)

37. If BAG is written as 14, CUB is written as 126, DIG will be written as-

(A)  20

(B)  156

(C)  252

(D)  124

Answer: (C)

38. If in a code language 237 is written as 144 and 159 is written as 225, in the same language the code of 627 will be written as-

(A)  324

(B)  289

(C)  225

(D)  144

Answer: (C)

39. If in any language TRUCK is written as GIFXP, in the same language LIGHT will be written as-

(A)  OQTRG

(B)  TRQGO

(C)  ORTSG

(D)  ROSGT

Answer: (C)

40. If any code language SUN is written as 8613, in the same language WAR will be written as-

(A)  3629

(B)  6324

(C)  9264

(D)  4269

Answer: (D)

41. If any code language abdomen is written as ebnamdo, in the same code language absence will be written as-

(A)  cbeanse

(B)  nscbeae

(C)  cbnseae

(D)  nsecbea

Answer: (A)

42. There are five Saturday in a 30 days month. What was the first day at that month-

(A)  Sunday

(B)  Friday

(C)  Wednesday

(D)  Monday

Answer: (B)

43. If it was Monday on 15th of March 1999. What was the day on 10th of July 1999-

(A)  Friday

(B)  Tuesday

(C)  Saturday

(D)  Wednesday

Answer: (C)

44. If day after tomorrow is Thursday, what was the day three days before yesterday?

(A)  Tuesday

(B)  Saturday

(C)  Friday

(D)  Sunday

Answer: (C)

45. In 2009, 15 August was celebrated on Saturday. In the same year 31 August had been celebrated on-

(A)  Thursday

(B)  Friday

(C)  Sunday

(D)  Monday

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 46-50) Are based on the following information. Read the information carefully and choose the correct alternative out of four alternative and write its letter against the proper equations number on your answer sheet.,

Information :  Six boys N T V P K and B are standing in a line. The boy ‘T’ is standing in between P and ‘B’. The boy ‘N’ is neither next to ‘B’ nor ‘P’. The boy ‘V’ is not standing next to ‘P’. The boy ‘K’ is standing in between ‘N’ and ‘V’.

46. Between whom the boy ‘B’ is standing ?

(A)  K − T

(B)  K − P

(C)  P − V

(D)  T − V

Answer: (D)

47. Between whom the boy ‘V’ is standing?

(A)  B − N

(B)  K − B

(C)  T − K

(D)  N − T

Answer: (B)

48. Who is standing at the fourth position from right end?

(A)  T

(B)  K

(C)  B

(D)  N

Answer: (C)

49. Who is standing at the right hand of ‘K’?

(A)  B

(B)  N

(C)  P

(D)  T

Answer: (B)

50. Who is standing at the fifth position from left end?

(A)  B

(B)  V

(C)  K

(D)  N

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q51-58) The question have become wrong because of the wrong order of signs. Choose the correct order of signs from the four options given below each question so as to make the questions right. Write the alternative of the correct option on your answer sheet against the corresponding question number.

51. 56 – 8 = 49 ÷ 16 × 327

(A)  = × ÷ −

(B)  ÷ − × =

(C)  − × = ÷

(D)  ÷ × − =

Answer: (D)

52. 96 + 30 × 3 = 62 ÷ 24

(A)  ÷ + = −

(B)  − ÷ = +

(C)  − = + ÷

(D)  + ÷ − =

Answer: (B)

53. 25 × 5 ÷ 30 = 60 – 90

(A)  − ÷ = +

(B)  × = ÷ −

(C)  = × ÷ −

(D)  ÷ × − =

Answer: (D)

54. 5 + 9 × 6 = 26 – 13

(A)  − × + =

(B)  + − × =

(C)  × − = +

(D)  × + = −

Answer: (C)

55. 9 ÷ 117 – 13 × 5 = 36

(A)  − ÷ = ×

(B)  = ÷ × −

(C)  ÷ × = −

(D)  × = − ×

Answer: (B)

56. 15 – 5 = 5 × 10 × 7

(A)  = × − ×

(B)  × − = ×

(C)  − × × =

(D)  × = − ×

Answer: (B)

57. 17 + 25 = 5 + 10 ÷ 2

(A)  + = ÷ +

(B)  = + ÷ +

(C)  = ÷ + +

(D)  + = + ÷

Answer: (C)

58. 45 × 9 = 10 ÷ 5 + 55

(A)  + × ÷ =

(B)  = × + ÷

(C)  ÷ × = +

(D)  ÷ + × =

Answer: (D)

59. Shyam moves towards east from the point P and walks for 20 km, turning to right he walks for 10 km, again he turns to right and walks for 20 km and reaches to point Q. Now in which direction is Shyam’s face?

(A)  North

(B)  South

(C)  East

(D)  West

Answer: (B)

60. Two friends are sitting joining their back. If the face of a friend is towards north, in which direction will be the right hand of the second friend?

(A)  East

(B)  West

(C)  North

(D)  South

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 61-70) Numbers are placed in figure on the basis of some rules. One place is vacant which is indicated as (?). Find out the correct alternative for the vacant place and write its letter against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

61. 

(A)  7

(B)  9

(C)  6

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

62. 

(A)  210

(B)  220

(C)  230

(D)  240

Answer: (D)

63. 

(A)  47

(B)  37

(C)  28

(D)  45

Answer: (B)

64. 

(A)  36

(B)  54

(C)  55

(D)  56

Answer: (B)

65. 

(A)  31

(B)  25

(C)  23

(D)  19

Answer: (A)

66. 

(A)  50.5

(B)  51.5

(C)  52.5

(D)  53.5

Answer: (C)

67. 

(A)  15

(B)  30

(C)  45

(D)  90

Answer: (C)

68. 

(A)  17

(B)  34

(C)  289

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

69. 

(A)  6

(B)  12

(C)  18

(D)  26

Answer: (D)

70. 

(A)  14

(B)  25

(C)  49

(D)  343

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 71-75) Are based on the following information. Read the information carefully and choose the correct alternative out of four alternative and write its letter against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

Information-A father had five sons named Raman, Aman, Naman, Gagan and Chaman. Aman was born in 1968. Naman is 9 years older than Raman while 7 year younger than Aman. Gagan is three year older than Raman and 8 year younger than Chaman.

71. How many year Aman is older than Chaman?

(A)  5 year

(B)  8 year

(C)  7 year

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

72. How many different of year between Raman and Chaman?

(A)  5 year

(B)  7 year

(C)  9 year

(D)  11 year

Answer: (D)

73. Who was born in leap year in addition to Aman?

(A)  Raman

(B)  Gagan

(C)  Chaman

(D)  Naman

Answer: (A)

74. In which year Gagan was born ?

(A)  1975

(B)  1983

(C)  1981

(D)  1972

Answer: (C)

75. Who is the middle order among five brothers?

(A)  Chaman

(B)  Naman

(C)  Gagan

(D)  Raman

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 76-80) Are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct answer out of the four alternative and write its alternative letter on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

Information- In a family there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. ‘C’ is sister of ‘F’. ‘A’ is brother of the husband of E. ‘D’ is father of ‘A’ and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers and one mother in this family.

76. How many male members are there in this family?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  2

(D)  1

Answer: (A)

77. What is the relation between F and E?

(A)  Husband-Wife

(B)  Father-in-law-daughter in law

(C)  Son-mother

(D)  Brother-sister

Answer: (C)

78. Which group belongs to brother?

(A)  A B C

(B)  A B F

(C)  A B D

(D)  B D F

Answer: (B)

79. Who is the husband of ‘E’?

(A)  B

(B)  D

(C)  C

(D)  A

Answer: (A)

80. Who is the mother in this family?

(A)  A

(B)  C

(C)  B

(D)  E

Answer: (D)

81. A clock bells one time at on O’ clock, two times at 2 O’ clock, 3 times at three O’ clock and so on. How many times will it bell in total at twelve O’ clock.

(A)  12 times

(B)  24 times

(C)  156 times

(D)  78 times

Answer: (D)

82. In a mirror a clock’s minute hand is seen at 12 and the hour hand is seen at 0, then what will had the actual time?

(A)  9 O’ Clock

(B)  6 O’ Clock

(C)  3 O’ Clock

(D)  4 O’ Clock

Answer: (C)

83. To see the time in a watch, a man misunderstood the minute hand as hour hand and hour hand as minute hand. In this way he saw 12 minute past 5 by the watch. What was the correct time?

(A)  7 : 50

(B)  2 : 25

(C)  2 : 22

(D)  3 : 20

Answer: (B)

84. For street light all the pole was fixed in a straight line putting the interval of 50 metre. What will be distance between first pole and the ninth pole ?

(A)  350 metre

(B)  400 metre

(C)  410 metre

(D)  50 metre

Answer: (B)

85. A man, for some work, gets one rupee on the first day, it double money i.e. 2 rupees on second day and its double i.e. 4 rupees on third day and so on it continued till 15 days. What amount will be get at 15th day?

(A)  Rs 309

(B)  Rs 5124

(C)  Rs 8192

(D)  Rs 16384

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 86-90) Are based on following letter series. Study the letter series carefully and find out the correct alternative out of the four alternative letter on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

n o I j o n p t a k t l n o p u j e t b n a p u b

86. In this series which letter is been repeated the most?

(A)  o

(B)  n

(C)  p

(D)  t

Answer: (B)

87. In this series how many times the vowel occurs before and after consonant?

(A)  One time

(B)  Two time

(C)  Three time

(D)  Four time

Answer: (D)

88. In this series how many times vowel occurs before consonant but not after consonant?

(A)  One time

(B)  Two time

(C)  Three time

(D)  Four time

Answer: (D)

89. In this series how many times the vowel occurs after consonant but not before consonant?

(A)  One time

(B)  Two time

(C)  Three time

(D)  Four time

Answer: (D)

90. Which letters are been repeated for three times?

(A)  j p o

(B)  o n t

(C)  t o p

(D)  b o n

Answer: (C)

Part-II
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Science

91. Non-renewable source of energy amongst the following is-

(A)  Air

(B)  Water

(C)  Biogas

(D)  Coal

Answer: (D)

92. What is the time period of minute needle of a clock?

(A)  1 minute

(B)  1 hour

(C)  12 hour

(D)  24 hours

Answer: (B)

93. Distilled water is-

(A)  Good conductor of Electricity

(B)  Non-conductor of Electricity

(C)  Weak conductor of Electricity

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

94. The Non-magnetic material is-

(A)  Nickel

(B)  Iron

(C)  Cobalt

(D)  Gold

Answer: (D)

95. An object placing 2F in front of convex lens, the image will be-

(A)  Virtual, Erect, Bigger

(B)  Real, Inverted, Bigger

(C)  Real, Inverted, Same size

(D)  Real, Inverted, Smaller

Answer: (C)

96. The upthrust force on an object depends on its-

(A)  Shape and size

(B)  Weight (lightness/heaviness)

(C)  Length and width

(D)  Volume and density

Answer: (D)

97. When a light ray enters from lighter medium into denser medium, then it-

(A)  bends away from normal

(B)  bends towards normal

(C)  travels in the direction of normal

(D)  does not deviate at all

Answer: (B)

98. All of the following are unit of time, except-

(A)  Second

(B)  Month

(C)  Year

(D)  Light year

Answer: (D)

99. I.S.P. (Internet Service Provider) is-

(A)  A device which provide Internet service

(B)  Provides password

(C)  Connect computer to internet through telephone

(D)  Provide facility to use internet

Answer: (D)

100. The speed of light in vacuum is-

(A)  2 × 108 km/sec

(B)  3 × 105 km/sec

(C)  5 × 103 km/sec

(D)  9× 104 km/sec

Answer: (B)

101. Resistance of ideal Ammeter is-

(A)  Zero

(B)  Infinite

(C)  Very less

(D)  Very much

Answer: (A)

102. The figure given below represents-

(A)  Switch in the ‘ON’ position

(B)  Switch in the ‘OFF’ position

(C)  Circuit breaker

(D)  Battery

Answer: (A)

103. Triple bond between carbon-carbon is present in-

(A)  CH4

(B)  C2H6

(C)  C2H4

(D)  C2H2

Answer: (D)

104. The drinking water can be purified by-

(A)  Chlorine

(B)  Ozonisation

(C)  Both processes

(D)  D.D.T.

Answer: (C)

105. The density of water is maximum on-

(A)  0°C

(B)  100°C

(C)  4°C

(D)  −4°C

Answer: (C)

106. Purification of metal is done by-

(A)  Roasting

(B)  Electrolysis

(C)  Smelting

(D)  Calcination

Answer: (B)

107. The Producer gas is-

(A)  CO + N2

(B)  CO + H2

(C)  CO2 + N2

(D)  CH2 + H2

Answer: (A)

108. Which of the following compound different?

(A)  Benzene

(B)  Coke

(C)  Phenol

(D)  Toluene

Answer: (B)

109. Teflon is a polymer of-

(A)  Flouro ethylene

(B)  Tetraflouroethylene

(C)  Polythene

(D)  Polyvinyl-chloride

Answer: (B)

110. Gas released by Gobar gas plant is-

(A)  Benzene

(B)  Ethane

(C)  Butane

(D)  Methane

Answer: (D)

111. Phosphorus used in making Matchbox is-

(A)  White Phosphorus

(B)  Black Phosphorus

(C)  Brown Phosphorus

(D)  Red Phosphorus

Answer: (A)

112. Equal number of electrons are in which group?

(A)  6C12 and 6C13

(B)  7N14 and 8O16

(C)  6C12 and 8O16

(D)  2He4 and 1H1

Answer: (A)

113. Compound which can exist in all the three states of matter-

(A)  Methane

(B)  Water

(C)  Nitrogen gas

(D)  Producer gas

Answer: (B)

114. Plant Hormone in the following is-

(A)  Adrenaline

(B)  Thyroxine

(C)  Gibberellin

(D)  Insulin

Answer: (C)

115. Photosynthesis is done by which organelles-

(A)  Mitochondria

(B)  Endoplasmic Reticulum

(C)  Ribosome

(D)  Chloroplast

Answer: (D)

116. ‘Plumule’ develops into-

(A)  Shoot

(B)  Root

(C)  Leaf

(D)  Flower

Answer: (A)

117. By which process plants gives us Oxygen?

(A)  Respiration

(B)  Circulation

(C)  Excretion

(D)  Photosynthesis

Answer: (D)

118. Desert plant in the following is-

(A)  Mango

(B)  Jamun

(C)  Cactus

(D)  Banana

Answer: (C)

119. In living beings, unit of Heredity is-

(A)  Chromosome

(B)  Gene

(C)  DNA

(D)  RNA

Answer: (B)

120. Sudden change in genetic material is-

(A)  Adaptation

(B)  Natural selection

(C)  Mutation

(D)  Reproduction

Answer: (C)

121. Organism which is not cellular in the following-

(A)  Bacteria

(B)  Amoeba

(C)  Paramecium

(D)  Virus

Answer: (D)

122. Power house of the cell is-

(A)  Chloroplast

(B)  Mitochondria

(C)  Ribosome

(D)  Lysosome

Answer: (B)

123. To diagnose AIDS, which test us used-

(A)  ELISA

(B)  Widal

(C)  E.C.G.

(D)  X-Ray

Answer: (A)

124. Which is not found in milk?

(A)  Carbohydrate

(B)  Vitamin-B

(C)  Fat

(D)  Vitamin-C

Answer: (D)

125. By which element deficiency causes anaemia?

(A)  Iron

(B)  Nitrogen

(C)  Potassium

(D)  Oxygen

Answer: (A)

Social Science

126. Which Planet is called as ‘Sister Planet of Earth’ of ‘Twin Planet of Earth’?

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Venus

(C)  Jupiter

(D)  Uranus

Answer: (B)

127. ‘Manna Loa’ an active volcano is situated at-

(A)  Hawaiian Island

(B)  Chile

(C)  Ecuador

(D)  California

Answer: (A)

128. ‘Death Valley’ is known for-

(A)  Excess hotness

(B)  Excess coldness

(C)  Excess depth

(D)  Excess length

Answer: (A)

129. ‘Tsunami’ word is related with the language-

(A)  French

(B)  Latin

(C)  Japanese

(D)  Chinese

Answer: (C)

130. Which country is largest producer and exporter of softwood and wood pulp?

(A)  Norway

(B)  Sweden

(C)  U.S.A.

(D)  Canada

Answer: (D)

131. Kalgoorlie mines located in Australia is famous for-

(A)  Gold Production

(B)  Iron Production

(C)  Silver Production

(D)  Tin Production

Answer: (A)

132. The farming of citrus fruit is mainly done in-

(A)  Hot Desert Region

(B)  Polar Region

(C)  Mediterranean Region

(D)  Tropical Grassland Region

Answer: (C)

133. Igloo, Harpoon, Slaze cart is used by-

(A)  Eskimo

(B)  Pygmy

(C)  Masai

(D)  Bushman

Answer: (A)

134. The Southern most point of India is-

(A)  Kivithu, Arunachal Pradesh

(B)  Gaur Mota, Gujarat

(C)  Indira Point, Great Nicobar

(D)  Siachin Glacier, Jammu-Kashmir

Answer: (C)

135. According to the Census 2011 the Sex-ratio of India is-

(A)  940

(B)  933

(C)  989

(D)  904

Answer: (A)

136. Brahamputra River in Tibet is known as-

(A)  Tsang Po

(B)  Yamuna

(C)  Old Ganga

(D)  Meghna

Answer: (A)

137. Which state of the country has largest production of coffee?

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Jammu-Kashmir

Answer: (A)

138. By which name Chanakya was known in his Childhood?

(A)  Chandragupta

(B)  Vishnugupta

(C)  Skandgupta

(D)  Kumargupta

Answer: (B)

139. The first invader of Muslim Ruler in India was-

(A)  Qutubuddin Ebak

(B)  Mahmood Gaznavi

(C)  Muhammad Bin Kasim

(D)  Muhammad Gauri

Answer: (C)

140. ‘Deen-E-Elahi’ was founded by which Emperor?

(A)  Jahangir

(B)  Akbar

(C)  Humaun

(D)  Shershah

Answer: (B)

141. “Aadigranth or Guru Granth Sahib” is compiled by-

(A)  Guru Arjun Dev

(B)  Guru Tegbahadur

(C)  Guru Nanak

(D)  Guru Govind Singh

Answer: (A)

142. “Satyameve Jayte” word is taken from-

(A)  Mundkopnishada

(B)  Kathopnishad

(C)  Tatriya opnishad

(D)  Chhandogyaopnishad

Answer: (A)

143. The Birth Place of Gautam Buddha is-

(A)  Lumbini

(B)  Bodhgaya

(C)  Sarnath

(D)  Kushinagar

Answer: (A)

144. The founder of Jaipur City was-

(A)  Jai Singh

(B)  Maan Singh

(C)  Chhatrasal

(D)  Akbar

Answer: (A)

145. The first European Company came in India for trade was-

(A)  Portuguese

(B)  Dutch

(C)  English

(D)  French

Answer: (A)

146. ‘Aanand Math’ Novel was written by-

(A)  Ravindra Nath Tagoe

(B)  Dada Bhai Naurozi

(C)  Bankim Chandra Chaterji

(D)  Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (C)

147. The first Viceroy of India was-

(A)  Lord Canning

(B)  Lord Elgin

(C)  Lord Duffrin

(D)  Lord Rippen

Answer: (A)

148. ‘Chauri-chaura’ tragedy was related with which city-

(A)  Gorakhpur

(B)  Allahabad

(C)  Panipat

(D)  Azamgarh

Answer: (A)

149. The Autobiography of Mahatma Gandhi is-

(A)  Hindi Swaraj

(B)  Navjeevan

(C)  Young India

(D)  My Experience with Truth

Answer: (D)

150. The first Education Minister of free India was-

(A)  Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

(B)  Abdul Kalam Azad

(C)  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(D)  Jagjeevan Ram

Answer: (B)

151. Total numbers of fundamental rights at present is-

(A)  6

(B)  7

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

152. National Song ‘VandeMataram’ was written by-

(A)  Ravindra Nath Tagore

(B)  Bankim Chandra Chatarjee

(C)  Bhagat Singh

(D)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: (B)

153. Which language is not included in 8th schedule of the Constitution?

(A)  Urdu

(B)  Nepali

(C)  Konkani

(D)  Bhojpuri

Answer: (D)

154. In which state of India, the first time women was appointed as Chief Minister-

(A)  Uttar Pradesh

(B)  Bihar

(C)  Gujarat

(D)  Assam

Answer: (A)

155. In which state of India Panchayati Raj System was started first time?

(A)  Gujarat

(B)  Rajasthan

(C)  Jammu-Kashmir

(D)  Bihar

Answer: (B)

156. The first deputy Prime Minister of India was-

(A)  Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

(B)  Morarji Desai

(C)  Chaudhary Devi Lal

(D)  Lal Krishna Advani

Answer: (A)

157. United Nations Organization was established in-

(A)  24 October, 1945

(B)  15 August, 1947

(C)  26 January, 1950

(D)  30 January, 1948

Answer: (A)

158. Which type of system is formed in a city, where population is more than five lakh?

(A)  Nagar Panchayat

(B)  Nagar Palika Parishad

(C)  Nagar Nigam

(D)  Gram Panchayat

Answer: (C)

159. Among the following, who is the elected representative?

(A)  Gram Panchayat Adhikari

(B)  Gram Vikas Adhikari

(C)  Lekhpal

(D)  Gram Pradhan

Answer: (D)

160. ‘Bharat-Natyam’ is a dance of which state?

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Odisha

(C)  Kerla

(D)  Karnataka

Answer: (A)

Mathematics

161. The value of 

(A)  1

(B)  x

(C)  y

(D)  x/y

Answer: (D)

162. will be-

(A)  x2

(B)  x – y

(C)  x + y

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

163. A boy is 25 years younger than his father. Three years ago the boy’s age was one sixth the age of his father, then the present age of the boy will be-

(A)  10 years

(B)  6 years

(C)  8 years

(D)  4 years

Answer: (C)

164. If 2x = 8, then the value of x will be-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

165. If  then the value of  will be-

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (C)

166. 30% of 5000 will be-

(A)  300

(B)  500

(C)  1500

(D)  3000

Answer: (C)

167. The value of expression:  will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

168. A wire is in the form of a circle of radius 28 cm. Area of the square into which the wire is bent will be-

(A)  1936 cm2

(B)  1866 cm2

(C)  19.36 cm2

(D)  193.6 cm2

Answer: (A)

169. If  then the value of z will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

170. The value of expression  will be-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

171. In a rhombus ABCD, the diagonals intersects at O, if AB = 10 cm, diagonal BD = 16 cm. Then the length of the diagonal AC will be-

(A)  12 cm

(B)  16 cm

(C)  8 cm

(D)  6 cm

Answer: (A)

172. The Arithmetic mean of 2, 3 and 4 will be-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  9

Answer: (B)

173. The Highest common factor (HCF) of two numbers is 9 and their least common multiple (LCM) is 270. If the sum of the numbers is 99, their difference will be-

(A)  18

(B)  9

(C)  12

(D)  15

Answer: (B)

174. If A = {1, 3, 5} and B = {3, 5, 7, 9), then A ⋂ B will be-

(A)  {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}

(B)  {3, 5}

(C)  {7, 9}

(D)  {1}

Answer: (B)

175. In a right angle triangle ABC, ∠A = 90°, ∠B = ∠30°, then the ∠C will be-

(A)  30°

(B)  45°

(C)  60°

(D)  90°

Answer: (C)

176. If a labour completes a work in 3 days, then 3 labours will complete the same work together in-

(A)  1 day

(B)  3 days

(C)  2 days

(D)  4 days

Answer: (A)

177. The value of a machine depreciates every year by 15%. If its present value is Rs 50,000, then after one year the value of machine will be-

(A)  Rs 40,000

(B)  Rs 42,000

(C)  Rs 42,500

(D)  Rs 43,000

Answer: (C)

178. The value of –

will be-

(A)  4

(B)  6

(C)  8

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

179. The value of  will be-

(A)  x2

(B)  y2

(C)  1

(D)  x/y

Answer: (C)

180. The value of x° will be-

(A)  x

(B)  1

(C)  0

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2014 Class-VIII Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2014 Class-VIII

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test

Direction- In questions 1 to 10 each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Write the number of the different term against the proper question number on year answer sheet-

1.

(A)  Lucknow

(B)  Bhopal

(C)  Jaipur

(D)  Agra

Answer: (D)

2.

(A)  Pen

(B)  Pencil

(C)  Book

(D)  Copy

Answer: (C)

3.

(A)  Cow

(B)  Horse

(C)  Elephant

(D)  Lion

Answer: (D)

4.

(A)  K 121

(B)  E 23

(C)  Q 289

(D)  O 225

Answer: (B)

5.

(A)  12 4 48

(B)  12 5 60

(C)  12 6 75

(D)  12 7 84

Answer: (C)

6. 

Answer: (C)

7. 

Answer: (B)

8. 

Answer: (D)

9. 

Answer: (D)

10. 

Answer: (C)

Direction- In Question 11 to 20 there are four terms in each question. Right to the symbol : : the terms have same relationship as the two terms of the left of the symbol : : out of four terms one terms is missing, which is one of the four alternative given below. Find out the correct alternative and writes its number against the proper question on your answer sheet-

11. Stadium : Player : : School : ?

(A)  Library

(B)  Play ground

(C)  Laboratory

(D)  Student

Answer: (D)

12. Examination : Degree : : Interview : ?

(A)  Selection

(B)  Board

(C)  Testing

(D)  Process

Answer: (A)

13. Monday : Friday : : Thursday : ?

(A)  Monday

(B)  Sunday

(C)  Tuesday

(D)  Saturday

Answer: (A)

14. Justice : Judge : : ? : Doctor

(A)  Hospital

(B)  Treatment

(C)  Medicine

(D)  Nurse

Answer: (B)

15. 15 : 225 : : 12 : ?

(A)  144

(B)  24

(C)  120

(D)  56

Answer: (A)

16. 

Answer: (C)

17. 

Answer: (C)

18. 

Answer: (B)

19. 

Answer: (C)

20. 

Answer: (D)

Direction-Questions 21 to 25 are based on number/letter series. One or two term is missing in each series and indicated by question-mark (?) find out the missing term out of the four alternatives given below and write its alternative number against the correct question number on your answer sheet-

21. AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

(A)  EU

(B)  EV

(C)  FU

(D)  FV

Answer: (B)

22. E, H, K, N, ?

(A)  Q

(B)  P

(C)  O

(D)  M

Answer: (A)

23. BD, CF, DH, EJ……….GN, HP

(A)  FL

(B)  FH

(C)  FI

(D)  FJ

Answer: (A)

24. 6, 10, 12, 16, 18, 22, ?

(A)  20

(B)  22

(C)  24

(D)  26

Answer: (C)

25. 2, 4, 8, ?, 32, 64, 128

(A)  14

(B)  16

(C)  28

(D)  30

Answer: (B)

Direction- In Question 26 to 30 problem figures are given at the left hand side consisting four figures in a definite series and the place for fifth figure is vacant which has been shown by question-mark (?). Four answer figure are given against each problem figure. Find out the correct answer figure and write its alternatives number against the proper question number on your answer sheet-

26. 

Answer: (D)

27. 

Answer: (B)

28. 

Answer: (D)

29. 

Answer: (D)

30. 

Answer: (C)

Direction- In Question 31 to 40 equations have become wrong due to incorrect order of signs. Choose the correct order of signs from the four alternatives given below, so that the equations become correct. Write its correct alternative number on your answer sheet against the proper question number-

31. 15 = 3 × 4 – 9

(A)  + − =

(B)  = × −

(C)  × − =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (D)

32. 9 + 3 × 7 = 20

(A)  − + =

(B)  × − =

(C)  ÷ + =

(D)  + − =

Answer: (B)

33. 5 – 4 × 3 = 6

(A)  × − =

(B)  = × −

(C)  + − =

(D)  ÷ = ×

Answer: (C)

34. 24 × 4 + 5 = 1

(A)  ÷ − =

(B)  × − =

(C)  + − =

(D)  − + =

Answer: (A)

35. 15 × 4 ÷ 6 = 13

(A)  − + =

(B)  ÷ − =

(C)  + − =

(D)  − × =

Answer: (C)

36. 49 – 7 + 5 = 2

(A)  ÷ + =

(B)  × − =

(C)  ÷ − =

(D)  + − =

Answer: (C)

37. 35 – 3 × 4 = 5

(A)  × + =

(B)  = + ×

(C)  ÷ − +

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (B)

38. 6 – 4 + 19 = 5

(A)  ÷ − =

(B)  − × =

(C)  × + =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (D)

39. 9 = 3 × 4 – 31

(A)  − + =

(B)  − × =

(C)  × + =

(D)  ÷ + =

Answer: (C)

40. 15 – 3 × 4 = 20

(A)  × − =

(B)  ÷ × =

(C)  − + =

(D)  = × −

Answer: (B)

Direction-Question 41 to 50 are based on definite series. In given questions some symbols are missing shown by (―). The missing symbols are given in proper sequence as one of the four alternative given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number on the answer sheet against the corresponding question number―

41. ―BO―C―O―CB―H

(A)  H C B H O

(B)  C I C H O

(C)  C H B H O

(D)  O C H B I

Answer: (C)

42. ― ―H―D―HL―QH―

(A)  D Q L Q D L

(B)  C P L P D M

(C)  D P L R C L

(D)  L Q D C L H

Answer: (A)

43. ―DQ ― E ― Q ― ED ― J

(A)  F J C K R

(B)  E J D J Q

(C)  G J E J R

(D)  E J E K S

Answer: (B)

44. ― ―H―B―HU―N―U

(A)  C N U M C H

(B)  B M V N A I

(C)  B N U N B H

(D)  C N V M C H

Answer: (C)

45. ―U―DO―Q―OU―D

(A)  P R U D R

(B)  R O Q U D

(C)  Q O D Q U

(D)  O Q U D Q

Answer: (D)

46. ―ZM―A―M―AZ―F

(A)  A F Z F M

(B)  B G Z F N

(C)  C F M Z A

(D)  Z F Z N M

Answer: (A)

47. ― ― F―B―FJ―OF―

(A)  C O K P B J

(B)  C O J P C J

(C)  B O J O B J

(D)  B P J P G J

Answer: (C)

48. ― ― F―Z―FS―L―S

(A)  Y L R L Z E

(B)  Z L S L Z F

(C)  Z M R L Z G

(D)  X M R R Y F

Answer: (B)

49. ―S―BM―O―MS―B

(A)  N O R B O

(B)  M R O B P

(C)  M O S B O

(D)  N O R A O

Answer: (C)

50. ―BO―C―O―CB―H

(A)  C I C H O

(B)  B H B O H

(C)  B H O B H

(D)  C H B H O

Answer: (D)

Direction-In Questions 51 to 60 given below, four words/ numbers are written in every question. Four answer alternative are given below against each question. The words/numbers in the question are related to each other in same way. One word/number from among the four answer alternatives goes best with the words/numbers in the question find out the correct alternative and write its number against the proper question number-

51. 3, 5, 7, 11

(A)  18

(B)  9

(C)  15

(D)  17

Answer: (D)

52. Seeta, Geeta, Meena, Tina

(A)  Sangeeta

(B)  Umesh

(C)  Brijesh

(D)  Dinesh

Answer: (A)

53. Jaipur, Dispur, Raipur, Ranchi

(A)  Goa

(B)  Chennai

(C)  Tripura

(D)  Nagaland

Answer: (B)

54. 4, 9, 16, 25

(A)  72

(B)  68

(C)  64

(D)  96

Answer: (C)

55. 8, 27, 64, 125

(A)  216

(B)  196

(C)  276

(D)  324

Answer: (A)

56. Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra-

(A)  Poona

(B)  Dehradun

(C)  Kolkata

(D)  Gujarat

Answer: (D)

57. Gorakhpur, Kanpur, Meerut, Bareilly-

(A)  Nagpur

(B)  Patna

(C)  Agra

(D)  Mumbai

Answer: (C)

58. 18, 24, 30, 36

(A)  49

(B)  35

(C)  34

(D)  45

Answer: (D)

59. 31, 37, 41, 47

(A)  48

(B)  53

(C)  56

(D)  33

Answer: (B)

60. 22, 33, 44, 55

(A)  56

(B)  72

(C)  77

(D)  84

Answer: (C)

Direction-In Question 61 to 70 number are placed in the figure on the basis of same rules one place in vacant which is indicated as (?). Find out the correct alternative to replace the question-mark (?) and write its number against the proper question number on your answer sheet-

61. 

(A)  21

(B)  42

(C)  441

(D)  336

Answer: (C)

62. 

(A)  15

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  25

Answer: (D)

63. 

(A)  15

(B)  11

(C)  17

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

64.

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  32

(D)  35

Answer: (C)

65. 

(A)  15

(B)  7

(C)  25

(D)  6

Answer: (B)

66. 

(A)  225

(B)  210

(C)  145

(D)  245

Answer: (D)

67. 

(A)  10

(B)  20

(C)  30

(D)  35

Answer: (A)

68. 

(A)  2

(B)  7

(C)  9

(D)  11

Answer: (C)

69. 

(A)  4

(B)  6

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

70. 

(A)  15

(B)  20

(C)  21

(D)  25

Answer: (C)

Direction- Each of the following questions 71 to 80 has a group of the three words which are related to each other in some way. This relationship can be represented by one of the four figure alternative given in the beginning. Find out the correct figure alternative and write its number against the corresponding questions on your answer sheet-

(1) India Madhya Pradesh Bhopal

(2) Science Economics History

(3) Science Physics History

(4) History Ancient History Medival History

71. Chhattisgarh Madhya Pradesh Bihar

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

72. Mathematics Geometry Arithmetic

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

73. Litre Metre Kilogram

(A)  4

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

74. Cricket Amit Mishra Zaheer Khan

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

75. Uttar Pradesh Lucknow Vidhansabha

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

76. History Modern History Philosophy

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

77. School Male Student Female Student

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

78. Month Week Days

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

79. Film Actor Actress

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

80. Gold Silver Iron

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  1

Answer: (A)

Direction-The following questions from 81 to 85 based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct answer from the four alternative and write its alternative number on your answer sheet against the proper question number-

   For being graduate Harish opted Hindi, Science and History. Mahesh opted Math, Science and Geography. Ganesh opted Hindi, Science and Geography. Praveen opted Maths, Science and Geography and Suresh opted Hindi, Maths and History.

81. Which subject was opted by the most students?

(A)  Hindi

(B)  Math

(C)  Science

(D)  Geography

Answer: (C)

82. Which subject was opted by the least students?

(A)  Geography

(B)  Hindi

(C)  Math

(D)  History

Answer: (D)

83. How many students study Hindi subject?

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  2

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

84. How many students study Geography subject?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

85. How many students study Science Subject?

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

Direction-In question 86 to 90 are based on the following information. Read the information carefully and choose the correct alternative from four alternatives given below each question and write its alternative number against proper question number on your answer sheet-

   Information- A man have five sons named R, S, T, U and V. In which T is elder than U but younger than S. S is elder than R and T but younger than V. R is elder than U but  younger than T.

86. Who is the eldest son?

(A)  R

(B)  V

(C)  S

(D)  T

Answer: (B)

87. Who is the youngest son?

(A)  T

(B)  S

(C)  U

(D)  R

Answer: (C)

88. Who is at the middle order?

(A)  T

(B)  S

(C)  R

(D)  V

Answer: (A)

89. Which son is at the second order from above?

(A)  S

(B)  U

(C)  B

(D)  T

Answer: (A)

90. Which son is at the second order from below?

(A)  V

(B)  S

(C)  R

(D)  T

Answer: (C)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test

(A) Science

91. How much part of the earth’s mass is surrounded by water?

(A)  1/2 part

(B)  2/3 part

(C)  3/4 part

(D)  3/5 part

Answer: (B)

92. An example of curve line speed is-

(A)  Running water of canal

(B)  Air through squeeze

(C)  Movement of snake

(D)  Falling fruit from tree

Answer: (C)

93. The natural source of light is-

(A)  Moon

(B)  Sun

(C)  Lantern

(D)  Electric Bulb

Answer: (B)

94. Force always has-

(A)  Magnitude

(B)  Direction

(C)  Magnitude and direction both

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

95. Which of the scientist are of Indian origin?

(A)  Farmi

(B)  Markoni

(C)  C.V. Raman

(D)  Edison

Answer: (C)

96. Which of these scientist invented the electric Bulb?

(A)  Edward Jenner

(B)  Alexender Flamming

(C)  Gallileo

(D)  Edison

Answer: (D)

97. The pure form of water is-

(A)  Distilled water

(B)  Mineral water

(C)  Soda water

(D)  Boiled water

Answer: (A)

98. Which easy machine is used to extract water from the well?

(A)  Wheel

(B)  Slop or sloping surface

(C)  Pulley

(D)  Screw

Answer: (C)

99. Muscular power have been used in-

(A)  Driving car

(B)  Driving cycle

(C)  Driving Motor cycle

(D)  In tractor

Answer: (B)

100. By which process, wet clothes, becomes dry in presence of sunlight?

(A)  Vaporization

(B)  Distillation

(C)  Condensation

(D)  Boiling

Answer: (A)

101. Which force applies to up-lift the things through hand?

(A)  Electric force

(B)  Muscle force

(C)  Magnetic force

(D)  Gravitational force

Answer: (B)

102. The renewable resource of energy is-

(A)  Petrol

(B)  Natural wood

(C)  Diesel

(D)  Running water

Answer: (D)

103. Which has helps in extinguish fire?

(A)  Nitrogen

(B)  Oxygen

(C)  Carbon dioxide

(D)  Above all the three gas

Answer: (C)

104. A part of element burns when it contects with air is-

(A)  Nitrogen

(B)  Phosphorus

(C)  Carbon

(D)  Zinc

Answer: (B)

105. The has does fresh lime water into milky is-

(A)  Hydrogen

(B)  Oxygen

(C)  Sulphur dioxide

(D)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (D)

106. Condensed water vapour is-

(A)  Earth water

(B)  River water

(C)  Rain water

(D)  Sea water

Answer: (C)

107. The boiling point of pure water is-

(A)  90°C

(B)  Less than 100°C

(C)  100°C

(D)  More than 100°C

Answer: (C)

108. After some time the Nephthelene ball becomes small in size-

(A)  Due to magnetism

(B)  Due to solubility

(C)  Due to sublimation

(D)  Due to attraction

Answer: (C)

109. The organized group of atoms which keeps element in force, state is known as-

(A)  Molecule

(B)  Atom

(C)  Element

(D)  Smallest particle

Answer: (A)

110. The mixture of sulphur and Iron particles can be separated through-

(A)  On the basis of solubility

(B)  On the basis of magnetism

(C)  On the basis of sublimation

(D)  On the basis of gravitation

Answer: (B)

111. Increase the process of rusting is-

(A)  Normal water

(B)  Water river

(C)  Saline water

(D)  Wet air

Answer: (D)

112. Among these which pair is true?

(A)  Carbon dioxide-to help in burining fire

(B)  Nitrogen-to Growth

(C)  Oxygen-to extinguish fire

(D)  Hydrogen-making urea

Answer: (B)

113. A substance added to L.P.G. cylinders to help detect gas leakage is-

(A)  Methyl mercaptan

(B)  Ethyl mercaptan

(C)  Ethelene mercaptan

(D)  Ethene mercaptan

Answer: (A)

114. Human body’s temperature is normally-

(A)  32°F

(B)  212°F

(C)  100°F

(D)  98.4°F

Answer: (D)

115. Which of the following is necessary for photosynthesis?

(A)  Light

(B)  Sound

(C)  High temperature

(D)  High pressure

Answer: (A)

116. Green colour of the leaves of the plant is due to the presence of-

(A)  Starch

(B)  Cellulose

(C)  Chlorophyll

(D)  Keratin

Answer: (C)

117. Xerophytes have very small leaves or spines to-

(A)  Reduce weight

(B)  Reduce loss of water

(C)  Reduce volume

(D)  Be beautiful

Answer: (B)

118. The structural unit of a living being is-

(A)  Atom

(B)  Molecule

(C)  Muscle

(D)  Cell

Answer: (D)

119. For healthy teeth and bones the mineral required is-

(A)  Iron

(B)  Calcium

(C)  Sodium

(D)  Magnesium

Answer: (B)

120. Stomach secretes-

(A)  Dilute hydrochloric acid

(B)  Dilute sulphuric acid

(C)  Dilute citric acid

(D)  Dilute nitric acid

Answer: (A)

121. The largest part of the alimentary canal is-

(A)  Oesophagus

(B)  Large intestine

(C)  Small intestine

(D)  Stomach

Answer: (C)

122. Bile juice is secreted by-

(A)  Stomach

(B)  Small intestine

(C)  Pancreas

(D)  Liver

Answer: (D)

123. Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre?

(A)  Polyester

(B)  Nylon

(C)  Wool

(D)  Acrylic

Answer: (C)

124. Which of the following maintains balance in a monkey?

(A)  Tail

(B)  Hands

(C)  Legs

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

125. In anaerobic respiration-

(A)  Oxygen is given out

(B)  Carbon-dioxide is given out

(C)  Carbon-dioxide is taken in

(D)  Oxygen is taken in

Answer: (C)

(B) Social Science

126. The river which is called the ‘Ganga of South’-

(A)  Narmada

(B)  Godavari

(C)  Mahanadi

(D)  Kaveri

Answer: (B)

127. Harsha established his capital at-

(A)  Pataliputra

(B)  Vatapi

(C)  Kannauj

(D)  Ujjain

Answer: (C)

128. The gas, found in largest quantity in atmosphere is-

(A)  Nitrogen

(B)  Oxygen

(C)  Carbon dioxide

(D)  Hydrogen

Answer: (A)

129. The largest continent in area is-

(A)  Africa

(B)  North America

(C)  Asia

(D)  South America

Answer: (C)

130. The rhinoceros is mainly found in-

(A)  Assam

(B)  Gujarat

(C)  West Bengal

(D)  Uttarakhand

Answer: (A)

131. Which one of these is a Village Court?

(A)  Gram Panchayat

(B)  Gram Sabha

(C)  Panchayat Sammiti

(D)  Nyaya Panchayat

Answer: (D)

132. Which one of these is a union territory?

(A)  Manipur

(B)  Delhi

(C)  Tripura

(D)  Telangana

Answer: (B)

133. Pashmina shawls are made in-

(A)  Kashmir

(B)  Himachal Pradesh

(C)  Tripura

(D)  Gujarat

Answer: (A)

134. The official language of Akbar’s court was-

(A)  Urdu

(B)  Turki

(C)  Farasi

(D)  Hindi

Answer: (C)

135. Indian Parliament is consisted of-

(A)  Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(B)  Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President

(C)  President

(D)  Prime Minister

Answer: (B)

136. The book ‘Tahreek-e-Hind’ is authored by-

(A)  Firdausi

(B)  Badauni

(C)  Ibna-E-Batuta

(D)  Albaruni

Answer: (D)

137. Subhash Chandra Bose was born in-

(A)  Calcutta (Kolkata)

(B)  Darjiling

(C)  Katak

(D)  Delhi

Answer: (C)

138. The Supreme Court of India is situated at-

(A)  Delhi

(B)  Chennai

(C)  Mumbai

(D)  Kolkata

Answer: (A)

139. Goswami Tulsidas was contemporary of-

(A)  Aurangzeb

(B)  Akabar

(C)  Jahangir

(D)  Shahjahan

Answer: (B)

140. The process in which rocks tends to break in its own place, is called-

(A)  Weathering

(B)  Erosion

(C)  Denudation

(D)  Volcano

Answer: (A)

141. Moksha means-

(A)  Rebirth

(B)  Perfect knowledge

(C)  Freedom from the cycle of birth and death

(D)  Enlightenment

Answer: (C)

142. The instrument to measure atmospheric pressure is-

(A)  Potometer

(B)  Monometer

(C)  Oxcanometer

(D)  Barometer

Answer: (D)

143. Bodh Gaya is the place where Gautam Buddha-

(A)  Was born

(B)  Attained perfect knowledge

(C)  Delivered his first sermon

(D)  Died

Answer: (B)

144. Grand-Trunk-Road constructed by-

(A)  Akabar

(B)  Humayun

(C)  Shershah

(D)  Jahangeer

Answer: (C)

145. The famous temple in India was attacked by Mahmood Gajanavi-

(A)  Somnath Temple

(B)  Konark Temple

(C)  Jagannath Temple

(D)  Tanjour Temple

Answer: (A)

146. Select the correct matching-

(A)  Popa – Japan

(B)  Fujiyama – Myanmar

(C)  Atana – India

(D)  Vesuviyas – Italy

Answer: (D)

147. Prime Minister appointed by-

(A)  Parliament

(B)  Election Commission

(C)  President

(D)  Speaker

Answer: (C)

148. Finance Bill is produced in-

(A)  Only Lok Sabha

(B)  Only Rajay Sabha

(C)  Anywhere in both

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

149. The chairman of ‘Constitution Drafting Committee’ was-

(A)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B)  Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

(C)  Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

(D)  Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: (C)

150. ‘Public Distribution System’ started by-

(A)  Firoz Shah Tuglak

(B)  Alaudding Khilzi

(C)  Muhammad-Bin-Tuglak

(D)  Jalaluddin Firoz Khilzi

Answer: (B)

151. Largest ‘Cocoa’ produced in-

(A)  Chilley

(B)  United States of America

(C)  India

(D)  Brazil

Answer: (D)

152. Who translated of Upnishads form sanskrit to farsi-

(A)  Jahangir

(B)  Shahjahan

(C)  Akabar

(D)  Darashikoh

Answer: (D)

153. The Government is not responsible for-

(A)  Organishing aid for flood victims

(B)  Providing health services

(C)  Maintaining your house out of public fund

(D)  Defending the country

Answer: (C)

154. National Park is situated in Uttar Pradesh-

(A)  Simplipal

(B)  Gir

(C)  Dudhwa

(D)  Rajaji

Answer: (C)

155. The Supreme Officer of the districts is-

(A)  District Magistrate

(B)  Commissioner

(C)  Chief Development Officer

(D)  Superintend of Police

Answer: (A)

156. Civilization of Indus valley was-

(A)  Rural

(B)  Urban

(C)  Half Rural

(D)  Half Urban

Answer: (B)

157. The song ‘Vande Mataram’ created by-

(A)  Rabindra Nath Tagore

(B)  Satyendra Nath Tagore

(C)  Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

(D)  Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (C)

158. The ‘Player of Veena’ was-

(A)  Aurangzeb

(B)  Darashikoh

(C)  Shahjahan

(D)  Jahangir

Answer: (A)

159. Select the incorrect matching-

(A)  Tajmahal-Agra

(B)  Lal Quila-Delhi

(C)  Buland Darwaza-Agra

(D)  Gol Gumbad-Beejapur

Answer: (C)

160. Who presides the joint session of the parliament?

(A)  President

(B)  Vice-President

(C)  Chairman

(D)  Speaker

Answer: (D)

(C) Mathematics

161. The value of (−3) × (−23) will be-

(A)  −69

(B)  69

(C)  26

(D)  −26

Answer: (B)

162. If x = 2, y = 3 and z = 4, then the value of 2x + 3y + z will be-

(A)  17

(B)  16

(C)  18

(D)  14

Answer: (A)

163. In adjoining figure, the perimeter of ∆ ABC will be-

(A)  5xyz

(B)  6xzy

(C)  2x + 3y + z

(D)  5xy + z

Answer: (C)

164. One-third of any number is equal to 24, that number will be-

(A)  63

(B)  72

(C)  84

(D)  36

Answer: (B)

165. The ratio between angles of triangle are 2 : 3 : 4. The angles of triangle will be-

(A)  30°, 60°, 90°

(B)  20°, 40°, 120°

(C)  40°, 60°, 80°

(D)  30°, 90°, 60°

Answer: (C)

166. The product of two rational number is −5/6, if one rational number is −7/12, then the second rational number will be-

(A)  35/12

(B)  10/7

(C)  −10/7

(D)  7/10

Answer: (B)

167. If  then value of  will be-

(A)  4

(B)  14

(C)  10

(D)  16

Answer: (B)

168. The simplest value of  will be-

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2/3

(D)  3/2

Answer: (B)

169. The difference of two supplementary angle is 40°, then every angle will be-

(A)  65°, 115°

(B)  75°, 115°

(C)  70°, 110°

(D)  25°, 65°

Answer: (C)

170. The factor of expression xy + 5x + 5y + 25 will be-

(A)  x

(B)  y

(C)  5

(D)  5 + y

Answer: (D)

171. One-half of a number is 15 more than one-fourth of the same number, then the number will be-

(A)  30

(B)  40

(C)  50

(D)  60

Answer: (D)

172. Value of  will be-

(A)  2√6

(B)  2

(C)  2/50

(D)  1/√2

Answer: (B)

173. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 6 and least common multiple (L.C.M.) is 660. Greater number will be-

(A)  132

(B)  110

(C)  165

(D)  22

Answer: (A)

174. Each angle of a regular Polygon is 156°, then the side will be-

(A)  10

(B)  12

(C)  14

(D)  15

Answer: (D)

175. A sum of money becomes twice of itself in 20 years at a certain rate of simple interest, then how much time will for thrice itself?

(A)  30 years

(B)  40 years

(C)  38 years

(D)  41 years

Answer: (B)

176. A piece of lace is used to form on equilateral triangle, a square or a circle which of the shapes will have maximum area ?

(A)  Circle

(B)  Equilateral triangle

(C)  Square

(D)  Circle and equilateral triangle both

Answer: (A)

177. The extract rational number between 1/3 and 1/2 will be-

(A)  2/5

(B)  5/12

(C)  1/6

(D)  1/5

Answer: (B)

178. A train 320 metres long travelling at the rate of 72 km/hr will cross a pole in time-

(A)  20 sec

(B)  16 sec

(C)  18 sec

(D)  36 sec

Answer: (B)

179. Total surface area of a cube is 150 cm2, then its volume will be-

(A)  100 cm3

(B)  150 cm3

(C)  125 cm3

(D)  120 cm3

Answer: (C)

180. The average weight of 4 girls is 60 kg, the weight of first is one fourth of the sum of the last three. The weight of first girl in kg will be-

(A)  15

(B)  45

(C)  48

(D)  51

Answer: (C)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2014 Class-VIII Held on 2 November, 2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2014 Class-VIII

Held on 2 November, 2014

Part-I

Mental Ability Test

Directions-(Q. 1-10) In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by five alternatives : (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). One of them is the right answer. Indicate it as per the ‘Instruction’,…….

1. 36, 29, 22, 15, ……

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  8

(D)  7

(E)   4

Answer: (C)

2. 5, 6, 11, 17, ……

(A)  28

(B)  23

(C)  22

(D)  39

(E)   25

Answer: (A)

3. 3, 9, 21, 45, …….

(A)  135

(B)  81

(C)  69

(D)  90

(E)   93

Answer: (E)

4. 4, 12, 36, 108, ……

(A)  216

(B)  324

(C)  432

(D)  160

(E)   540

Answer: (B)

5. 243, 81, …, 9, 3

(A)  18

(B)  36

(C)  45

(D)  27

(E)   54

Answer: (D)

6. 583, 463, 343, 223, …..

(A)  113

(B)  103

(C)  123

(D)  93

(E)   130

Answer: (B)

7. 115, 236, 357, 478, …

(A)  589

(B)  499

(C)  699

(D)  498

(E)   599

Answer: (E)

8. 3, 6, 18, 72, …

(A)  360

(B)  350

(C)  432

(D)  216

(E)   99

Answer: (A)

9. 7, 17, 37, 67, ….

(A)  106

(B)  87

(C)  97

(D)  107

(E)   117

Answer: (D)

10. 160, 115, 80, 55, …

(A)  45

(B)  40

(C)  35

(D)  30

(E)   25

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 11-15) These are based on letter analogy. There are two pairs of letter combinations in each question. The first (left hand side) pair has some relationship between its members. In the second pair, one member is missing. Find this out from the answer (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) such that this pair has a similar relationship as the first pair. Indicate your answers as per the ‘Instructions’.

11. BD : AE : : HJ : ?

(A)  FL

(B)  FK

(C)  IK

(D)  GL

(E)   GK

Answer: (E)

12. CBA : GFE :: PON : ?

(A)  TSR

(B)  TRS

(C)  SRT

(D)  QRS

(E)   RST

Answer: (A)

13. FH : EG :: NP : ?

(A)  MN

(B)  OP

(C)  MO

(D)  NO

(E)   MP

Answer: (C)

14. TS : PO :: LK : ?

(A)  GH

(B)  HG

(C)  GI

(D)  HI

(E)   IJ

Answer: (B)

15. ABCD : BCEF : IJKL : ?

(A)  JKML

(B)  JKLM

(C)  IJMN

(D)  JLMN

(E)   JKMN

Answer: (E)

Directions-(Q. 16-25) Letters/letter groups are arranged in a particular order with some underlying criterion. Study the order and choose the answer from the alternatives to fill the gaps. Indicate the right answer as per the ‘Instructions’.

16. A, C, F, H, ……

(A)  I

(B)  L

(C)  J

(D)  K

(E)   M

Answer: (D)

17. A, G, L, P, …….

(A)  R

(B)  S

(C)  Q

(D)  T

(E)   U

Answer: (B)

18. AC, EG, IK, ……..

(A)  MN

(B)  MP

(C)  LN

(D)  LO

(E)   MO

Answer: (E)

19. AZ, BX, CV, ……

(A)  DS

(B)  ET

(C)  DT

(D)  DU

(E)   DW

Answer: (C)

20. A, E, G, K,…..

(A)  M

(B)  L

(C)  N

(D)  O

(E)   J

Answer: (A)

21. AF, HL, NQ, …..

(A)  SV

(B)  SU

(C)  TU

(D)  TV

(E)   ST

Answer: (B)

22. ZYX, ABC, VUT, EFG, …..

(A)  PQR

(B)  RPQ

(C)  QPO

(D)  RQP

(E)   QOP

Answer: (D)

23. ABC, ZYX, DEF, WVU, ……

(A)  HIJ

(B)  IJK

(C)  GHI

(D)  UTS

(E)   HIG

Answer: (C)

24. Z, X, U, Q, …..

(A)  K

(B)  M

(C)  N

(D)  J

(E)   L

Answer: (E)

25. AFK, BGL, CHM, DIN, …..

(A)  GJO

(B)  EJO

(C)  GJN

(D)  EJN

(E)   FIO

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 26-30) In each of these questions, five words are given. If they are arranged in the alphabetical order as in a Dictionary, find out the word which comes first. Indicate your answer as per the ‘Instructions’.

26.

(A)  Bean

(B)  Bamboo

(C)  Beast

(D)  Banker

(E)   Bangle

Answer: (B)

27.

(A)  Risk

(B)  Ridge

(C)  Road

(D)  Ring

(E)   Ribbon

Answer: (E)

28.

(A)  Crane

(B)  Coat

(C)  Cook

(D)  Clove

(E)   Code

Answer: (D)

29.

(A)  Neem

(B)  Nerve

(C)  Nest

(D)  News

(E)   Neck

Answer: (E)

30.

(A)  Season

(B)  Shield

(C)  Shore

(D)  Shorts

(E)   Sherpa

Answer: (A)

Directions –(Q. 31-40) In each of these

31.

(A)  Malaysia

(B)  Tunisia

(C)  Brazil

(D)  Europe

(E)   Russia

Answer: (D)

32.

(A)  Bidar

(B)  Nagpur

(C)  Haryana

(D)  Jhansi

(E)   Indore

Answer: (C)

33.

(A)  Veena

(B)  Violin

(C)  Tabla

(D)  Guitar

(E)   Sitar

Answer: (C)

34.

(A)  Carrot

(B)  Brinjal

(C)  Tomato

(D)  Drumstick

(E)   Bitter Gourd

Answer: (D)

35.

(A)  Camel

(B)  Pigeon

(C)  Cow

(D)  Dog

(E)   Goat

Answer: (B)

36.

(A)  C. V. Raman

(B)  M. S. Swaminathan

(C)  U. R. Rao

(D)  Jayant V. Narlikar

(E)   Swami Agnivesh

Answer: (E)

37.

(A)  Chemistry

(B)  Geology

(C)  Astronomy

(D)  History

(E)   Physics

Answer: (C)

38.

(A)  Hatred

(B)  Anger

(C)  Happiness

(D)  Sorrow

(E)   Jealousy

Answer: (C)

39.

(A)  Kolkata

(B)  Bellary

(C)  Indore

(D)  Calicut (Kozhikode)

(E)   Patiala

Answer: (A)

40.

(A)  Curd

(B)  Oil

(C)  Butter

(D)  Ghee

(E)   Milk

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 41-45) There is a certain relationship between two given words on the one (left) side of : : and one word is given on the other side of : :, while another word is to be found from the five given alternatives, such that similar relation exists in the second pair. Identify the right answer the indicate it as per the ‘Instructions’.

41. Crescograph : Jagdish Chandra Bose : : Theory of Evolution : ?

(A)  Dr. Jayant V. Narlikar

(B)  Albert Einstein

(C)  S. S. Bhatanagar

(D)  C. R. Rao

(E)   Darwin

Answer: (E)

42. Maharashtra : Mumbai : : Rajasthan : ?

(A)  Udaipur

(B)  Jodhpur

(C)  Jaipur

(D)  Gwalior

(E)   Bikaner

Answer: (C)

43. Moscow : Russia : : Phenom Penh : ?

(A)  Cambodia

(B)  Thailand

(C)  Vietnam

(D)  North Korea

(E)   Mongolia

Answer: (A)

44. Flower : Rose : : Mammal : ?

(A)  Hen

(B)  Sparrow

(C)  Cobra

(D)  Cow

(E)   Eagle

Answer: (D)

45. Food : Stomach : : Fuel : ?

(A)  Car

(B)  Engine

(C)  Bus

(D)  Truck

(E)   Train

Answer: (B)

Direction-(Q. 46-51) These are based on the following diagrams. Study them carefully and indicate the correct answer as per the ‘Instructions’.

46. Animals, Cows, Horses

Answer: (C)

47. Doctors, Authors, Women

Answer: (C)

48. District, Mandal, Village

Answer: (B)

49. Parrots, Birds, Cats

Answer: (D)

50. Fish, Tigers, Snakes

Answer: (E)

51. Flowers, Jasmine, Banana

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 52-56) With the help of the diagram given below, answer the following questions making the right choice from the given alternatives. Indicate the answer as per the ‘Instructions’.

52. Which letter indicates students who are players but not singers?

(A)  d

(B)  c

(C)  b

(D)  a

(E)   e

Answer: (C)

53. Which letter indicates students who are neither players nor singers?

(A)  a

(B)  b

(C)  e

(D)  e

(E)   f

Answer: (A)

54. Which letter indicates those who are both players and singers but not students?

(A)  e

(B)  d

(C)  b

(D)  c

(E)   f

Answer: (E)

55. Which letter indicates those who are players, singers and also students?

(A)  f

(B)  e

(C)  b

(D)  d

(E)   c

Answer: (B)

56. Which letter indicates singers who are neither players nor students?

(A)  b

(B)  d

(C)  f

(D)  g

(E)   e

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 57-61) If in a language (English), A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2, C is coded as 3 and so on how are the following letter- groups coded in that language (English)?

   After identifying the right answer, indicate it as per the ‘Instructions’.

57. BEDA

(A)  2514

(B)  2154

(C)  2541

(D)  2415

(E)   2451

Answer: (C)

58. DCAFI

(A)  43169

(B)  43619

(C)  43196

(D)  41396

(E)   41369

Answer: (A)

59. EGBDC

(A)  58234

(B)  58243

(C)  57324

(D)  57243

(E)   57234

Answer: (D)

60. AHCBE

(A)  18235

(B)  18325

(C)  18253

(D)  28225

(E)   18352

Answer: (B)

61. BEHHG

(A)  25886

(B)  24887

(C)  24867

(D)  25868

(E)   25887

Answer: (E)

Directions-(Q. 62-66) If HEART is coded as 12345 and DISK as 6789 respectively, how are the following words coded ? Identify the right answer and indicate it as per the ‘Instructions’.

62. KITE

(A)  9751

(B)  9752

(C)  9652

(D)  8752

(E)   9572

Answer: (B)

63. TASTE

(A)  53851

(B)  53582

(C)  53852

(D)  51853

(E)   51852

Answer: (C)

64. HARD

(A)  1346

(B)  1345

(C)  1347

(D)  1246

(E)   1247

Answer: (A)

65. DARK

(A)  6149

(B)  6159

(C)  6259

(D)  6349

(E)   6348

Answer: (D)

66. RAKE

(A)  4391

(B)  4195

(C)  4194

(D)  4382

(E)   4392

Answer: (E)

Directions-(Q. 67-76) The following questions are based on simple arithmetic principles. There are five alternatives given under each question. Identify the right answer and indicate it as per the ‘Instructions’.

67. 4789 + ? = 6500

(A)  1701

(B)  1611

(C)  1711

(D)  1601

(E)   2711

Answer: (C)

68. 55555 + 5555 +555 = ?

(A)  60655

(B)  61665

(C)  60605

(D)  61655

(E)   61660

Answer: (B)

69. (14 – 9)3 ?

(A)  124

(B)  216

(C)  64

(D)  125

(E)   196

Answer: (D)

70. √36 + √x = 14

(A)  64

(B)  49

(C)  36

(D)  81

(E)   60

Answer: (A)

71. 5678 – ? = 4321

(A)  1257

(B)  1358

(C)  1347

(D)  1247

(E)   1357

Answer: (E)

72. 15% of 90 = ?

(A)  12.5

(B)  13.0

(C)  14.0

(D)  13.5

(E)   14.5

Answer: (D)

73. 0.5 × 0.0008 = ?

(A)  0.004

(B)  0.04

(C)  0.00004

(D)  0.0014

(E)   0.0004

Answer: (E)

74. 4/7 of 294 = ?

(A)  169

(B)  166

(C)  158

(D)  128

(E)   188

Answer: (A)

75. 8.512 – 4.4011 = ?

(A)  4.0109

(B)  4.1119

(C)  4.1109

(D)  4.1110

(E)   4.1100

Answer: (C)

76. 6464 ÷ 8 = ?

(A)  818

(B)  808

(C)  880

(D)  908

(E)   828

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 77-82) In each of these questions, there are four problem figures (1), (2), (3) and (4). Figure (4) is vacant shown by a question ‘?’. Figure (2) bears a certain relationship to (1). Similarly one of the answer figures bears similar relationship to (3). Find this out and indicate it as per the ‘Instructions’.

77. 

Answer: (C)

78.  

Answer: (E)

79. 

Answer: (B)

80. 

Answer: (D)

81. 

Answer: (A)

82. 

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 83-86) Out of the five given figures in each question. four figures are similar based on some common feature. One is different from them. Find out the figure and indicate it as per the ‘Instructions’.

83. 

Answer: (E)

84. 

Answer: (B)

85.

Answer: (C)

86. 

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 87-90) In the following questions there are five problem figures (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). (5) is blank shown by a question mark ‘?’. Choose one answer figure to fill the blank and continue the series. Identify the right answer and indicate as per the ‘Instructions’.

87. 

Answer: (A)

88. 

Answer: (E)

89. 

Answer: (C)

90. 

Answer: (D)

Part-II

Scholastic Test

Physics

91. The distance between the fixed points of a thermometer is 20 cm. If the level of the mercury in it is 13 cm, the temperature in Celsius scale is-

(A)  50°C

(B)  65°C

(C)  55°C

(D)  75°C

Answer: (B)

92. A circuit is shown in the figure. The bulbs used in the circuit are identical. Which bulb does not glow?

(A)  S

(B)  Q

(C)  R

(D)  P

Answer: (A)

93. Observe the system as shown in the figure. If the free end of the string is pulled horizontally at a constant speed of v = 2 cm/s, then the speed of a block is-

(A)  3 cm/s

(B)  2 cm/s

(C)  1 cm/s

(D)  4 cm/s

Answer: (B)

94. Observe the system shown in figure. Every object (block or pulley) in the system is at rest. Neglect the masses of pulleys and strings. The mass of the object ‘A’ is-

(A)  20 kg

(B)  10 kg

(C)  15 kg

(D)  23 kg

Answer: (A)

95. A ray of light falls perpendicular to the reflecting surface of a plane mirror. The angle of reflection is-

(A)  90°

(B)  180°

(C)  360°

(D)  0°

Answer: (D)

96. The distance covered by an oscillating particle in 10 s is 1000 cm and the amplitude of it is 1 cm. The frequency of it is …………. oscillation/second.

(A)  25

(B)  50

(C)  100

(D)  75

Answer: (A)

97. In a tug-of-war contest, two men pull on a horizontal rope from opposite sides. The winner will be the man who-

(A)  Exerts greater force on a rope

(B)  Exerts greater force on the ground

(C)  Exerts a force on the rope which is greater than the tension in the rope

(D)  Makes a smaller angle with vertical

Answer: (B)

98. Three bodies A, B and C are at the same temperature. B and C are only in thermal contact and are not interacting with surroundings. A is also not interacting with surroundings. Which is true?

(A)  A and C are in thermal equilibrium

(B)  B and C are in thermal equilibrium

(C)  A, B and C are in thermal equilibrium

(D)  A and B are in thermal equilibrium

Answer: (C)

99. A man is car travels from a town P to town Q with an average speed 40 km/hr and town Q to town P with an average speed 50 km/hr. The average speed of the entire journey is-

(A)  45 km/hr

(B)  44 km/hr

(C)  46.2 km/hr

(D)  44.4 km/hr

Answer: (D)

100. Two horizontal forces of magnitudes 10 N and 6 N act simultaneously on a block in opposite directions as shown in figure. Still then it is at rest. Choose correct option.

(A)  Net force on the block is 4 N

(B)  Horizontal floor exerts a static friction of 4 N on block along the direction of 10 N

(C)  Horizontal floor exerts a static friction of 4 N on block along the direction of 6 N

(D)  Horizontal floor exerts a sliding friction of 4 N on block along the direction of 6 N

Answer: (C)

101. A simple cell is shown in the diagram. Which of the following is wrong?

(A)  Hydrogen is given off at the copper rod

(B)  Zinc rod is negatively charged and copper rod is not charged when the key is open

(C)  Current flows from zinc rod to copper rod through the electrolyte

(D)  The concentration of H2SO4 is unaffected

Answer: (A)

102. Electric charges A and B are attracted to each other. Electric charges B and C repel each other. If A and C are held close together, they will-

(A)  not affect each other

(B)  repel

(C)  attract

(D)  more information is needed

Answer: (C)

Chemistry

103. Which of the following is used to remove grease stains?

(A)  Potassium hydroxide

(B)  Ammonium hydroxide

(C)  Calcium hydroxide

(D)  Aluminium hydroxide

Answer: (A)

104. Burning sensation we feel, when bitten by an ant is due to-

(A)  Formic acid

(B)  Acetic acid

(C)  Citric acid

(D)  Sulphuric acid

Answer: (A)

105. ………… is used in preparation of pickle.

(A)  Acetic acid

(B)  Citric acid

(C)  Carbonic acid

(D)  Oxalic acid

Answer: (A)

106. ……….. gases are responsible for the formation of layer in greenish colour on copper vessel when it is exposed to air.

(A)  Oxygen and water vapour

(B)  Carbon dioxide and water vapour

(C)  Nitrogen and oxygen

(D)  Oxygen and carbon dioxide

Answer: (B)

107. Which of the following is called ‘fake fur’?

(A)  Nylon

(B)  Rayon

(C)  Polyester

(D)  Acrylic

Answer: (D)

108. Terylene is mixed with cotton to make-

(A)  Terriwool

(B)  Polyester

(C)  Nylon

(D)  Terricot

Answer: (D)

109. Which of the following oxide is acidic?

(A)  Magnesium oxide

(B)  Calcium oxide

(C)  Sulphur dioxide

(D)  Zinc oxide

Answer: (C)

110. The first component separated from petroleum is-

(A)  Petrol

(B)  Diesel

(C)  Kerosene

(D)  Natural gas

Answer: (A)

111. Where does the complete combustion take place in the flame of candle?

(A)  Blue zone

(B)  Middle zone

(C)  Outer most zone

(D)  Dar zone

Answer: (C)

112. Which of the following is used to extinguish the fire of oil and petrol?

(A)  Water

(B)  Carbon dioxide

(C)  Hydrogen

(D)  Oxygen

Answer: (B)

113. Which of the following is not a metal?

(A)  Sodium

(B)  Sulphur

(C)  Magnesium

(D)  Silver

Answer: (B)

Biology

114. The hormone that controls emotions is-

(A)  Growth hormone

(B)  Testosterone

(C)  Adrenaline

(D)  Luteinizing hormone

Answer: (C)

115. Example of an endemic species-

(A)  Orchids

(B)  Peacock

(C)  Spanish flag

(D)  Kangaroo

Answer: (D)

116. External fertilization takes place in-

(1) Frog              (2) Human beings

(3) Birds             (4) Fish

(A)  1 and 2

(B)  1 and 3

(C)  1 and 4

(D)  2 and 4

Answer: (C)

117. Identify the mismatched pair-

(A)  Amoeba – binary fission

(B)  Yeast – multiple fission

(C)  Hydra – budding

(D)  Paramecium – binary fission

Answer: (B)

118. Which of the following disease does not spread through air?

(A)  Typhoid

(B)  Swine flu

(C)  Tuberculosis

(D)  Mumps

Answer: (B)

119. Vaccine for rabies was invented by, ……..

(A)  Alexander Flemming

(B)  Louis Pasteur

(C)  Edward Jenner

(D)  Jonas Salk

Answer: (C)

120. Iodine solution is used to test the presence of-

(A)  Carbohydrates

(B)  Proteins

(C)  Minerals salts

(D)  Fats

Answer: (A)

121. In 1752, James Linds found that ……… disease can be cured by eating fresh fruits and vegetables.

(A)  Scurvy

(B)  Beri beri

(C)  Amoebiasis

(D)  Marasmus

Answer: (A)

122. An ant bite causes burning sensation and pain as …………. is released.

(A)  Citric acid

(B)  Formic acid

(C)  Hydrochloric acid

(D)  Formaldehyde

Answer: (B)

123. Which of the following food material consists of lactic acid?

(A)  Amla

(B)  Curds

(C)  Vinegar

(D)  Apple

Answer: (B)

124. The indicator which changes acids into red colour and bases into yellow colour is-

(A)  Milk of magnesium

(B)  Methyl orange

(C)  Phenolphthalein

(D)  Iodine

Answer: (B)

125. Which one of the following cells is in diploid stage

(A)  Sperm

(B)  Pollen grain

(C)  Ovum

(D)  Zygote

Answer: (D)

Mathematics

126. Which one of the following is not a perfect cube?

(A)  175616000

(B)  2048383

(C)  60236288

(D)  20971524

Answer: (D)

127. 13 + 23 = 32, 13 + 23 + 33 = 62, 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 = 102 so 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 + 53 + 63 + 73 + 83 + 93 = ?

(A)  432

(B)  442

(C)  452

(D)  462

Answer: (C)

128. Given that ‘a’ is a positive integer, find the value of-

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  −1

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

129. If  then the value of x is-

(A)  6129

(B)  6565

(C)  7103

(D)  7228

Answer: (D)

130. If 3 : 5 = 4.5 : x, then x – 5 = ?

(A)  7.5

(B)  5

(C)  4.5

(D)  2.5

Answer: (D)

131. Given  then each fraction will be-

(A)  1/2

(B)  −1

(C)  1/2 or −1

(D)  1/2 or 1

Answer: (A)

132. 8% of 400 – 4% of 800 +1% of 500 = ?

(A)  10

(B)  20

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (D)

133. The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 25% and  The area will increase by-

(A) 

(B)  25%

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

134. a + b = 123, b + c = 37 and c + a = 40, then 

(A)  30

(B)  20

(C)  10

(D)  18

Answer: (C)

135. If  then x = ? given x ≠

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  1

Answer: (C)

136. The value of is-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

137. When 24 × 34 × 54 × 7 is expressed as a single number, then the sum of its digits will be-

(A)  21

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  18

Answer: (D)

138. Given that 3x . 3y . 3z = 19683, the average of x, y and z will be-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  4.5

Answer: (B)

139. The value of 

(A)  a

(B)  2

(C)  1/5a

(D)  −3a

Answer: (B)

140. xa + 1 is a factor of xab + 1, if b is-

(A)  Odd number

(B)  Even number

(C)  Negative number

(D)  Radical

Answer: (A)

141. Area of a semi circle is 77 cm2. Its perimeter is equal to-

(A)  35 cm

(B)  44 cm

(C)  42 cm

(D)  36 cm

Answer: (D)

142. The angle of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. It sides will be in the ratio of-

(A)  1 : 1 : √2

(B)  1 : √3 : √2

(C)  1 : 1 : √3

(D)  1 : 2 : √3

Answer: (A)

143. The area of an equilateral triangle is 25√3 cm2. The area of a square with a side equal to the side of this triangle is-

(A)  75 cm2

(B)  100 cm2

(C)  125 cm2

(D)  120 cm2

Answer: (B)

144. ABCD is a rectangle. The ratio of the areas of ABCD and AED is-

(A)  √2 : 1

(B)  2 : 1

(C)  3 : 1

(D)  3 : √2

Answer: (B)

145. A semi circle is drawn on a side of a square measuring 14 cm. The ratio of between the areas of the shaded part and the square is-

(A)  17 ; 28

(B)  7 : 22

(C)  π : 2

(D)  7 : 11

Answer: (A)

History

146. Who introduced the Ryotwari Settlement in South-India?

(A)  Cornwallis

(B)  Thomas Munro

(C)  Henry Vivian Derozio

(D)  Lord Macaulay

Answer: (B)

147. Who organized The East India Association in London during 1866?

(A)  Surendranath Banerjee

(B)  Annie Besant

(C)  Dadabhai Naoroji

(D)  A. O. Hume

Answer: (C)

148. The people of which movement declared “Gandhiji’s Swaraj” is coming and we will not pay taxes to this government.

(A)  Chirala-Perala Movement

(B)  Mepla Movement

(C)  Champaran Movement

(D)  All the above

Answer: (C)

149. After the death of Jyoti Rao Phule, who took over the responsibility of Satya Shodak Samaj?

(A)  Tarabai Shinde

(B)  Pandita Ramabai Saraswati

(C)  Savitribai Phule

(D)  Keshav Chandra Sen

Answer: (C)

150. The first newspaper in Telugu was ‘Krishna Patrika’. It was edited by-

(A)  Mutnuri Krishna Rao

(B)  G. Subramanya Iyer

(C)  Dasarathi Krishnamacharya

(D)  Madapati Hanumantha Rao

Answer: (A)

151. Which among these is not correctly matched?

(A)  Palas-Bengal

(B)  Cholas-Tamil Nadu

(C)  Kalinga-Orissa

(D)  Anarta-Kerala

Answer: (D)

152. This dynasty participated in the ‘Tripartite Struggle’ for Kannauj-

(A)  Gurjara Pratihara

(B)  Rashtrakuta

(C)  Eastern Chalukyas

(D)  Palas

Answer: (A)

153. Who is the author of Kitab-Al-Hind?

(A)  Al-Beruni

(B)  Ibn Battuta

(C)  Abdul Razzak

(D)  Amir Khusro

Answer: (A)

154. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple was constructed by-

(A)  Dhangadeva

(B)  Raja Raju

(C)  Rajendra – 1

(D)  Amoghavarsha

Answer: (A)

155. “Hari dwells in the East, they say, And Allah resides in the West. Search for him in your heart, in the heart of your heart; There he dwells, Rahim – Ram”. The above stanza was composed by-

(A)  Kabir

(B)  Guru Nanak

(C)  Surdas

(D)  Chaitanya Maha Prabhu

Answer: (A)

Geography

156. Kundu is a tributary of this river-

(A)  Krishna

(B)  Penna

(C)  Godawari

(D)  Kaveri

Answer: (B)

157. Amount of insolation reflected by clouds in the total insolation (100%) is-

(A)  6%

(B)  51%

(C)  20%

(D)  16%

Answer: (A)

158. Which of these is the reason for formation of seasons?

(A)  Daily rotation of the earth on its own axis

(B)  The tilt of the axis of rotation compared to the plane on which the earth moves

(C)  The earth’s movement around the sun once a year

(D)  All the above

Answer: (C)

159. Huge chunks of ice break off and float into the oceans is-

(A)  Ice bergs

(B)  Glaciers

(C)  Permafrost

(D)  Ocean Currents

Answer: (A)

160. ‘Joint Forest Management’ policy was started in the year-

(A)  1972

(B)  1966

(C)  1988

(D)  2002

Answer: (C)

161. Largest reserves of barytes in the world are located at-

(A)  Bombay High

(B)  Mangampeta

(C)  Kothagudem

(D)  Agnigundala

Answer: (B)

162. ‘Dogger Bank’ is located at this sea-

(A)  Mediterranean sea

(B)  Black sea

(C)  North sea

(D)  Caspian sea

Answer: (C)

163. The mountains to the north-west of Africa are-

(A)  Drakens Berg Mountains

(B)  Kilimanjaro

(C)  Caucasus Mountains

(D)  Atlas Mountains

Answer: (D)

164. Name the winds which cause heavy rainfall in the coastal areas of Andhra Pradesh during October-December-

(A)  South-west monsoons

(B)  North-east monsoons

(C)  Loo winds

(D)  Western disturbances

Answer: (B)

165. Contour lines means-

(A)  It is a line joining the places with equal height

(B)  It is a line joining the places with equally recorded rainfall

(C)  It is a line joining the places with equally recorded pressure

(D)  It is a line joining the places with equally recorded salinity

Answer: (A)

Political Science

166. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A)  Constitution determines the relationship between people and government

(B)  Democratic countries generally contain a Constitution

(C)  To make a Constitution to a diverse country like India is not an easy task

(D)  All are correct

Answer: (D)

167. Which of the following is not a Republic State?

(A)  United States of America

(B)  England

(C)  India

(D)  France

Answer: (B)

168. The number of Constituencies reserved for St’s (Schedule tribes) in the Lok Sabha are-

(A)  79

(B)  58

(C)  30

(D)  41

Answer: (D)

169. The subject is in the Concurrent List-

(A)  Country’s defence

(B)  Sales tax

(C)  Health care

(D)  Electricity

Answer: (D)

170. Which of the following is correct about the formation of Central Government?

(A)  Party or coalition that has support of the President forms the government

(B)  Party or coalition with number of seats forms the government

(C)  Party or coalition with more than half the seats forms the government

(D)  Election Commission selects the party that forms the government

Answer: (C)

171. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A)  An F.I.R. filled in the police station

(B)  Being arrested by the police is equal to being punished

(C)  A bail is given on the basis of securities

(D)  Supreme Court is the highest court in the country

Answer: (B)

172. What we know as Bharatanatyam today springs from-

(A)  Kuravanji

(B)  Gusadi

(C)  Sadirnatyam

(D)  Natikari Dhimsa

Answer: (C)

173. The share of the members elected by the teachers for Legislative Council-

(A)  1/12

(B)  1/6

(C)  1/3

(D)  1/24

Answer: (A)

174. When was the ‘Andhra Pradesh Water, Land and Trees Protection Act (APWALTA) made?

(A)  2005

(B)  2002

(C)  2009

(D)  2013

Answer: (B)

175. According to the Preamble of the Constitution, India is a-

(A)  Sovereign, Democratic, Socialistic and Republic

(B)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Republic

(C)  Sovereign, Democratic and Republic

(D)  Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republic

Answer: (D)

Economics

176. Which of these cities does not have any domestic airport?

(A)  Renigunta

(B)  Puttaparthi

(C)  Rajahmundry

(D)  Kurnool

Answer: (A)

177. When is the Road Safety Week celebrated?

(A)  First week of every year

(B)  Second week of every year

(C)  Third week of every year

(D)  Fourth week of every year

Answer: (A)

178. India stands in which place in the making of medicines?

(A)  First

(B)  Second

(C)  Third

(D)  Fourth

Answer: (C)

179. Who started the ‘Assembly line method’ of production to produce more cars quickly?

(A)  Henry Ford

(B)  Boulton

(C)  George Stephenson

(D)  Franklin

Answer: (A)

180. Expands ATM-

(A)  Automatic Telling Machine

(B)  Automatic Teller Machine

(C)  Any time Money

(D)  Any time Mobile

Answer: (B)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2014-15 Class-VIII Held on 2 November, 2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2014-15 Class-VIII

Held on 2 November, 2014

Part-I

Mental Ability

Directions-Find the missing term in each of the following question.

1. m p s _ y

(A)  w

(B)  v

(C)  x

(D)  z

Answer: (B)

2. aab _ aa _ bbb _ aaa _ bbb

(A)  abba

(B)  baab

(C)  aaab

(D)  abab

Answer: (B)

3. Ipt, mqu, n_ _, osw

(A)  vw

(B)  uw

(C)  uv

(D)  rv

Answer: (D)

4. Rohit is greater than Sumit, Amulya is smaller than Deepak, Pawan is greater than Deepak but smaller than Sumit. Who is the smallest?

(A)  Deepak

(B)  Pawan

(C)  Amulya

(D)  Sumit

Answer: (C)

5. The Post office is to the east of the school, while my house is to the south of the school. The market is to the north of the Post office. If the distance of the market from the Post office is equal to the distance of my house from the school. In which direction is the market w.r.t. my house?

(A)  North

(B)  South

(C)  North-East

(D)  South-West

Answer: (C)

6. A man walks 5 km towards south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km, he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting point?

(A)  West

(B)  South-West

(C)  North

(D)  North-East

Answer: (B)

7. While facing East, Rohit turns to his left and walks 10 meters, then he turns left and walks 10 meters. Now he turns 45° towards his right and goes straight to cover 25 metres. In which direction is he from his starting point?

(A)  North-East

(B)  North-West

(C)  South-West

(D)  South-East

Answer: (B)

8. By identifying the rule, find the missing number.

(A)  16

(B)  40

(C)  62

(D)  83

Answer: (D)

9. By identifying the rule, find the missing number.

(A)  6

(B)  32

(C)  15

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

10. By identifying the rule, find the missing number?

(A)  12

(B)  16

(C)  20

(D)  26

Answer: (A)

11. According to some rule, find the missing number?

(A)  20

(B)  12

(C)  36

(D)  25

Answer: (D)

12. According to some rule, find the missing number?

(A)  39

(B)  47

(C)  45

(D)  37

Answer: (D)

13. According to some rule, find the missing number?

(A)  68

(B)  99

(C)  115

(D)  210

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 14-16) Choose the word which is least like to other words in the Group.

14.

(A)  Earth

(B)  Mars

(C)  Sun

(D)  Jupiter

Answer: (C)

15.

(A)  Plassy

(B)  Haldighati

(C)  Panipat

(D)  Sarnath

Answer: (D)

16.

(A)  England

(B)  Greece

(C)  France

(D)  Korea

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 17-21) Find the missing number in each of the given sequence of numbers.

17. 2, 15, 41, 80, ?

(A)  110

(B)  120

(C)  125

(D)  132

Answer: (D)

18. 4, 9, 25, ?, 121

(A)  49

(B)  81

(C)  64

(D)  100

Answer: (A)

19. 360, ?, 60, 15, 3

(A)  180

(B)  120

(C)  40

(D)  80

Answer: (A)

20. 0.5, 0.55, 0.65, 0.8, ?

(A)  0.91

(B)  0.9

(C)  1

(D)  1.5

Answer: (C)

21. 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, ?

(A)  30

(B)  35

(C)  39

(D)  31

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 22-26) Which one of the four answer figures should come after the third problem figure, if the sequence were continued. Select correct answer figure.

22. 

Answer: (B)

23. 

Answer: (D)

24. 

Answer: (A)

25. 

Answer: (B)

26. 

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 27-30) Select the correct answer from the questions given below-

27. If n is negative than which one is least?

(A)  0

(B)  n

(C)  2n

(D)  n2

Answer: (C)

28. 25 is equal to……….

(A)  26/10

(B)  13/10

(C)  13/50

(D)  13

Answer: (C)

29. If  then value of K is equal to ……

(A)  1/3

(B)  1/4

(C)  1/6

(D)  1/5

Answer: (C)

30. Which one is least prime number of three digits?

(A)  107

(B)  109

(C)  103

(D)  101

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 31-34) Which one of a diagram illustrates the relationship among the given classes. Size does not matter.

31. Table, Chair, Furniture

Answer: (B)

32. School, Girls, Boys.

Answer: (B)

33. Seconds, Minutes, Hours.

Answer: (D)

34. America, China, Australia.

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 35-38) In question there is some relationship between the pair of figure/numbers on the left side of the sign (: :). The same relationship exists between the two terms on the right side of the sign (: :), which one is missing. Find the missing one from the four alternatives.

35. Father : Son : : Teacher : ?

(A)  Lady Teacher

(B)  Book

(C)  Student

(D)  School

Answer: (C)

36. Tailor : Stitching : : Labourer : ?

(A)  Brick

(B)  Sand

(C)  Labour

(D)  Tool (spade)

Answer: (C)

37. River : Water : : Forest : ?

(A)  Greenary

(B)  Lion

(C)  Tree

(D)  Water

Answer: (C)

38. 4 : 5 : : 20 : ?

(A)  20

(B)  25

(C)  10

(D)  50

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 39-42) Four groups of letters are given. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.

39.

(A)  VT

(B)  MQ

(C)  PR

(D)  FG

Answer: (A)

40.

(A)  FED

(B)  RQP

(C)  NML

(D)  OPQ

Answer: (D)

41.

(A)  RNJ

(B)  MIE

(C)  XTP

(D)  ZWR

Answer: (D)

42.

(A)  AUDIO

(B)  ARISE

(C)  AWAKE

(D)  AUDIT

Answer: (A)

43. In a certain code language ‘STUPID’ is written as ‘βδ#%@’ and ‘RECALL’ is written as γξχηη. How will ‘SECURE’ be written in that language?

(A)  β ξ χ # γ ξ

(B)  ξ β π χ γ ξ

(C)  # χ γ ξ ξ β

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

44. In a certain code language ‘JABALPUR’ is written as ξ # β # γ % # * and ‘BHOJPAL’ is written as β Σ θ ξ % # γ. How will ‘BHOPAL’ be written in that language?

(A)  β Σ θ % π

(B)  β Σ θ ξ % γ

(C)  Σ θ % γ π

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

45. In a certain code language, 479 means ‘fruit is sweet’, 248 means ‘very sweet voice’ and 637 means ‘eat fruit daily’. Which digit stand for ‘is’ in that code?

(A)  7

(B)  9

(C)  4

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

46. If GIVE is coded as ‘5137’ and BAT is coded as ‘924’. How is GATE coded?

(A)  3751

(B)  1537

(C)  7153

(D)  5247

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 47-50) Arrange the given words in the alphabetical order and point the one that comes first.

47.

(A)  Dental

(B)  Density

(C)  Destiny

(D)  Discuss

Answer: (B)

48.

(A)  Select

(B)  Seldom

(C)  Selfish

(D)  Seller

Answer: (B)

49.

(A)  Wrinkle

(B)  Write

(C)  Wrose

(D)  Wretch

Answer: (D)

50.

(A)  Page

(B)  Pagan

(C)  Palace

(D)  Pesticide

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 51-62) Which one different from rest three. Select odd one.

51.

(A)  Cubic metre

(B)  Litre

(C)  Millilitre

(D)  Kilogram

Answer: (D)

52.

(A)  11

(B)  13

(C)  15

(D)  17

Answer: (C)

53.

(A)  Displacement

(B)  Distance

(C)  Length

(D)  Mass

Answer: (D)

54.

(A)  Fog

(B)  Dew

(C)  Frost

(D)  Rain

Answer: (D)

55.

(A)  Sahara

(B)  Thar

(C)  Kashmir

(D)  Great Victoria

Answer: (C)

56.

(A)  Mumbai

(B)  Delhi

(C)  Chennai

(D)  Kolkata

Answer: (B)

57.

(A)  Boddh

(B)  Jain

(C)  Shikh

(D)  Christian

Answer: (D)

58.

(A)  Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(B)  Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri

(C)  Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

(D)  Smt. Indira Gandhi

Answer: (A)

59.

(A)  Shahjahan

(B)  Shivaji

(C)  Jahangeer

(D)  Akbar

Answer: (B)

60.

(A)  Copper

(B)  Iron

(C)  Zinc

(D)  Brass

Answer: (D)

61.

(A)  Sphere

(B)  Circle

(C)  Prism

(D)  Cube

Answer: (B)

62.

(A)  a

(B)  i

(C)  y

(D)  o

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 63-67) Rea the following information carefully and answer the following questions are-

(a) P, Q, R, S, T and U are neighbours.

(b) There are two Reporters, two Technicians, one Photographer and one writer in the group.

(c) The Photographer P is married to S, who is Reporter.

(d) The Writer is married to Q who is in the same profession as that of U.

(e) P, R, Q, S are two married couples and nobody in the group has same profession.

(f) U is brother of R.

63. Which one is a pair of Reporters?

(A)  PQ

(B)  RT

(C)  ST

(D)  SU

Answer: (C)

64. How is R related to U?

(A)  Brother

(B)  Sister

(C)  Uncle

(D)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (D)

65. Which of the following pairs is a couple?

(A)  PQ

(B)  QR

(C)  QS

(D)  PT

Answer: (B)

66. Who are two Technicians?

(A)  PQ

(B)  QR

(C)  QU

(D)  QS

Answer: (C)

67. Who is the Writer in the following?

(A)  R

(B)  T

(C)  S

(D)  Q

Answer: (A)

68. Sarita introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of his uncle. The boy is Sarita’s-

(A)  Brother

(B)  Son

(C)  Uncle

(D)  Son-in-law

Answer: (A)

69. There are five different animals standing in a row. ‘Elephant’ is to the right of ‘Dog’ and ‘Cat’ is to the left of ‘Camel’ and right of ‘Elephant’. ‘Dog’ is to the right of ‘Kangaroo’. Which animal is I the middle?

(A)  Kangaroo

(B)  Dog

(C)  Elephant

(D)  Cat

Answer: (C)

70. Five ladies are sitting in a row. Savita is sitting next to Uma, but Savita is not sitting next to Triveni. Tanya is sitting next to Rama, Rama is sitting on the extreme left and Triveni is not sitting next to Tanya. Who are sitting adjacent to Savita?

(A)  Rama and Tanya

(B)  Uma and Triveni

(C)  Tanya and Uma

(D)  Rama and Uma

Answer: (C)

71. Five boys are sitting in a row ‘Pramod’ is on the right of ‘Mukesh’. ‘Umesh’ is on the left of Mukesh and is on the right of ‘Narendra’. Pramod is on the left of Anand. Which boy is on the extreme left?

(A)  Narendra

(B)  Anand

(C)  Pramod

(D)  Umesh

Answer: (A)

72. In the following question, a series of numbers is given. Find out the missing number, which comes in the blank space with (?) question mark on it.

14, 21, 29, 38, 48, 59, ?

(A)  71

(B)  76

(C)  81

(D)  79

Answer: (A)

73. In the following question, write the suitable answer.

b _ a _ a a b _ a b _ _

(A)  a b a a a

(B)  a b a b a

(C)  a a b b a

(D)  b b a b a

Answer: (A)

74. In a row of students, Sumit is 11th from either end of row. How many students are there in this row?

(A)  20

(B)  21

(C)  24

(D)  12

Answer: (B)

75. A family has man, his wife their four sons and their wives. The family of every son also has 3 son and one daughter. What is the total number of male members in the whole family?

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  12

(D)  17

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 76-80) In the following figure, ‘A’ represent students who take part in Athletics, ‘B’ who play Basketball and ‘C’ who play Cricket. Give the answer of the following Questions.

76. Students who play only Basketball?

(A)  b +  a

(B)  b

(C)  b + d + f

(D)  b + d + g + f

Answer: (B)

77. How many students play Cricket?

(A)  c

(B)  c + f

(C)  c + e

(D)  c + g + f + e

Answer: (D)

78. How many students take part in Athlete and Basketball both?

(A)  a + b

(B)  a + b + d

(C)  d + g

(D)  g

Answer: (C)

79. How many students play Basketball and Cricket, bt not take part in Athletics?

(A)  g + f

(B)  f

(C)  b + c

(D)  b

Answer: (B)

80. How many students take part in both Athletics and Cricket?

(A)  a + c

(B)  e

(C)  e + g

(D)  a + c + e + g

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 81-85) In the above table, data about different modes of transport used by students to travel to school has been shown by the pictograph. Observe the graph to answer the following Questions.

81. How many students are studying in that school?

(A)  600

(B)  500

(C)  450

(D)  400

Answer: (C)

82. How many students travel by bicycle?

(A)  60

(B)  65

(C)  45

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

83. Which mode of transport is less used?

(A)  Cycle

(B)  Public Bus

(C)  Private Car

(D)  Walking

Answer: (C)

84. How many students use School bus?

(A)  150

(B)  100

(C)  180

(D)  300

Answer: (C)

85. How many students use Public bus?

(A)  90

(B)  60

(C)  30

(D)  6

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 86-90) Select the figure from the four alternatives. Which when placed in the blank space of figure (?) would complete the pattern.

86. 

Answer: (D)

87. 

Answer: (C)

88. 

Answer: (C)

89. 

Answer: (B)

90. 

Answer: (D)

Part-II

Scholastic Ability

Science

1. A coin placed at the bottom of a cub filled with water appears slightly above from its actual position because of-

(A)  Reflection of light

(B)  Refraction of light

(C)  Glaring of light

(D)  Dispersion of light

Answer: (B)

2. Heat from the sun reaches earth through-

(A)  Conduction

(B)  Convection

(C)  Radiation

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

3. The lens in our eye is-

(A)  Concave lens

(B)  Convex lens

(C)  Magnifying lens

(D)  Normal mirror

Answer: (B)

4. Some space has to be left between two rails of the railway track, because due to heat, rails-

(A)  shrink

(B)  expand

(C)  looks beautiful

(D)  All the above

Answer: (B)

5. Lightning conductor is made up of-

(A)  Glass

(B)  Copper

(C)  Steel

(D)  Rubber

Answer: (B)

6. Which one of the following sound has maximum frequency?

(A)  Roaring of lion

(B)  Sound of flowing river

(C)  Thunder

(D)  Buzzing of mosquitoes

Answer: (D)

7. The cause of rain is-

(A)  Vapour pressure

(B)  Atmospheric pressure

(C)  Boiling

(D)  Condensation of water vapours

Answer: (D)

8. Which one of the following is a conductor of electricity-

(A)  Piece of paper

(B)  Card board

(C)  Copper wire

(D)  Plastic scale

Answer: (C)

9. Mirrors are pasted in Periscopes at an angle of-

(A)  25°

(B)  15°

(C)  45°

(D)  65°

Answer: (C)

10. A piece of ice floats in lemon squash because-

(A)  Density of ice is less than that of water

(B)  Density of ice is more than that of water

(C)  Density of ice is equal to the density of water

(D)  Density of water is zero

Answer: (A)

11. Which one of the following is not Green house gas?

(A)  Methane

(B)  Oxygen

(C)  Water vapour

(D)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (C)

12. Apple turns brown-red after cutting due to-

(A)  Neutralization

(B)  Displacement

(C)  Oxidation

(D)  Reduction

Answer: (C)

13. What is mixed with Potassium chlorate for preparation of Oxygen in laboratory.

(A)  Manganese dioxide

(B)  Magnesium oxide

(C)  Sulphur dioxide

(D)  Iron oxide

Answer: (A)

14. Cladona mixed in spice is-

(A)  Lichen

(B)  Fungi

(C)  Algae

(D)  Pitcher plant

Answer: (A)

15. This is a chemical reaction-

(A)  Folding of paper

(B)  Deflation of air from balloon

(C)  Stitching of shirt from cloth

(D)  Making curd from milk

Answer: (D)

16. Which one of the following is a source of renewable energy?

(A)  Petroleum

(B)  Natural gas

(C)  Coal

(D)  Air

Answer: (D)

17. Substance is used to make roads by melting with coaltar-

(A)  Glass

(B)  Wood

(C)  Paper

(D)  Polythene

Answer: (D)

18. Nature of bathing soap is-

(A)  Alkaline

(B)  Acidic

(C)  Neutral

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

19. The main constituent of L.P.G. is-

(A)  Butane

(B)  Methane

(C)  Hydrogen

(D)  Oxygen

Answer: (A)

20. Chemical formula of Iron rust is-

(A)  Fe2O3 × H2O

(B)  Fe2O3

(C)  FeO

(D)  FeCl3

Answer: (A)

21. The acid found in our stomach is-

(A)  Hydrochloric acid

(B)  Sulphuric acid

(C)  Nitric acid

(D)  Tartaric acid

Answer: (A)

22. How many times the heart beats in a minute I a healthy person?

(A)  60

(B)  80

(C)  72

(D)  98

Answer: (C)

23. Crops cultivated in dark black soil are-

(A)  Wheat, Gram, Paddy

(B)  Cotton, Ground nut, Banana

(C)  Til, Gram

(D)  Mustard, Alsi, Wheat

Answer: (B)

24. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal because-

(A)  Additional need of O2 for fighting germs

(B)  Mental illness of the patient

(C)  High temperature of the body

(D)  Loss of appetite

Answer: (C)

25. Chicken pox is caused by which microorganism-

(A)  Varicella zaster

(B)  Rhino virus

(C)  E-coli

(D)  Microbacterium tuberculosis

Answer: (A)

26. Vibrio cholerte bacteria causes-

(A)  AIDS

(B)  T.B.

(C)  Cholera

(D)  Diabetes

Answer: (C)

27. The harmful state of insect is-

(A)  Egg

(B)  Larva

(C)  Pupa

(D)  Adult

Answer: (B)

28. For the adaptation with the atmosphere, leaves of one plant turned into thorns-

(A)  Lotus

(B)  Hay and straw

(C)  Cactus

(D)  Cycas

Answer: (C)

29. “Chipco movement” refers to-

(A)  Water conservation

(B)  Air conservation

(C)  Forest conservation

(D)  Mineral conservation

Answer: (C)

30. SI unit of frequency is-

(A)  Second

(B)  Hertz

(C)  Kilogram

(D)  Meter

Answer: (B)

31. Acid used in batteries vehicles is-

(A)  Hydrochloric acid

(B)  Sulphuric acid

(C)  Nitric acid

(D)  Acetic acid

Answer: (B)

32. Which one of the following is not the biotic waste?

(A)  Peel of apple

(B)  Peel of banana

(C)  Agriculture waste

(D)  Piece of glass

Answer: (D)

33. Organelle control the cell function is-

(A)  Mitochondria

(B)  Nucleus

(C)  Cell membrane

(D)  Chloroplast

Answer: (B)

34. The “Rohu” and “Katala” are …..

(A)  Species of fish

(B)  Diseases in fish

(C)  Aquatic plants

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

35. Harmone which stimulates division of cell in plant is-

(A)  Giberelline

(B)  Cytokinin

(C)  Auxin

(D)  Adrenalin

Answer: (C)

Social Science

36. Who translated Ramayan into Tamil language?

(A)  Valmiki

(B)  Tulsidas

(C)  Kamban

(D)  Adishankaracharya

Answer: (C)

37. The king, who built the famous Bhojpur temple near Bhopal belonged to which Rajput dynasty?

(A)  The Chauhan dynasty

(B)  The Chandel dynasty

(C)  The Pratihar dynasty

(D)  The Parmar Dynasty

Answer: (D)

38. Which of the following trading company did not come to India?

(A)  Portuguese

(B)  Dutch

(C)  French

(D)  American

Answer: (D)

39. Which of the following buildings was not built by Shahjahan?

(A)  The Red Fort

(B)  Taj Mahal

(C)  Jama Masjid at Delhi

(D)  Agra fort

Answer: (D)

40. The third battle of Panipat was faught between whom?

(A)  Marathas and Ahmad Shah Abdali

(B)  The Sikhs and Ahmad Shah Abdali

(C)  Aurangjeb and the Marathas

(D)  The Sikhs and the Marathas

Answer: (A)

41. Which Mughal Prince got translated Bhagvadgeeta and Upanishads in Persian language?

(A)  Salim

(B)  Akbar

(C)  Dara Shikoh

(D)  Khurram

Answer: (C)

42. The credit of Organization of Maratha power goes to-

(A)  Shahji Bhonsle

(B)  Smabhaji Bhonsle

(C)  Shivaji Bhonsle

(D)  Baji Rao Peshwa

Answer: (C)

43. Who did not join the first independence war of 1857?

(A)  Rani Laxmibai

(B)  Tatya Tope

(C)  Kunwar Singh

(D)  Dilip Singh

Answer: (D)

44. When the Asiatic society was founded to study the ancient Indian history and the culture?

(A)  In 1784

(B)  In 1790

(C)  In 1801

(D)  In 1901

Answer: (A)

45. When and where the first municipality was established by the British?

(A)  In 1688 at Madras

(B)  In 1867 in Bengal

(C)  In 1868 in Uttar Pradesh

(D)  In 1869 and Punjab

Answer: (*)

46. In Maharashtra, which society was founded by Mahatma Jyotiba Phule for the upliftment of the Dalits?

(A)  Prarthana Samaj

(B)  Arya Samaj

(C)  Satya Shodhak Samaj

(D)  Brahmo Samaj

Answer: (C)

47. In 1907, who unfurled the flag of Indian independence in Germany?

(A)  Mrs. Bhikaji Cama

(B)  Lala Hardayal

(C)  Mrs. Annie Besent

(D)  Lala Lajpat Roy

Answer: (A)

48. Due to which incident, Mahatma Gandhi decided to put off the Non-Cooperation movement?

(A)  The Jallianwala Bagh massacre

(B)  The brutal incident of Chauri-Chaura

(C)  Salt Satyagrah

(D)  Passing of the Rowlatt Act by the British Govt.

Answer: (B)

49. The slogan ‘Do or Die’ was given by Gandhiji at the time of which movement?

(A)  Non-co-operation movement

(B)  Civil disobedience movement

(C)  Champaran Satyagrah

(D)  Quit India movement

Answer: (D)

50. In how many hours the Earth complete its rotation on its axis?

(A)  12 hours

(B)  24 hours

(C)  36 hours

(D)  48 hours

Answer: (B)

51. Which gas is found the most in atmosphere?

(A)  Ozone

(B)  Oxygen

(C)  Carbon-dio-oxide

(D)  Nitrogen

Answer: (D)

52. The process of rising up of air after heating is known as-

(A)  Radiation

(B)  Isolation

(C)  Convection

(D)  Reflection

Answer: (C)

53. The direction of the wind is determined by which law?

(A)  Jackson’s law

(B)  Ferrell’s law

(C)  Nelson’s law

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

54. Which is the main oil producing country out of the countries given below?

(A)  Kuwait

(B)  China

(C)  India

(D)  Sri Lanka

Answer: (A)

55. Africa produces 90% of the World’s produce of-

(A)  Ground nut

(B)  Coco

(C)  Clove

(D)  Tea

Answer: (B)

56. How much area of the Earth is covered by the Lithosphere?

(A)  71 per cent

(B)  50 per cent

(C)  40 per cent

(D)  29 per cent

Answer: (D)

57. The hanging pillar like land forms created in the underground lime-stone caves are called-

(A)  Stalagmite

(B)  Stalactite

(C)  Pulin

(D)  Loes

Answer: (B)

58. Which continent is called the white continent?

(A)  Australia

(B)  Antarctica

(C)  Asia

(D)  North America

Answer: (B)

59. The World’s largest ancient tree with the largest trunk is-

(A)  Eucalyptus

(B)  Redwood tree

(C)  Peepal

(D)  Oak

Answer: (A)

60. Begota is the capital city of which country?

(A)  Parague

(B)  Columbia

(C)  Brazil

(D)  Argentina

Answer: (B)

61. Which is the largest continent in the world?

(A)  Europe

(B)  Asia

(C)  Africa

(D)  Australia

Answer: (B)

62. Who was the President of the constituent assembly formed in 1946, for making the Indian Constitution?

(A)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B)  Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

(C)  Pt. Govind Vallabh Pant

(D)  Acharya Kripalani

Answer: (A)

63. How many subjects are in the state list, for making laws?

(A)  97

(B)  62

(C)  42

(D)  22

Answer: (*)

64. The high court of Madhya Pradesh is situated in which city?

(A)  Bhopal

(B)  Jabalpur

(C)  Sagar

(D)  Ujjain

Answer: (B)

65. The Gond, Baiga, Bhil, Bhilala, Barela, Bharia are the major tribes of which state?

(A)  Andhra Pradesh

(B)  Bihar

(C)  Gujarat

(D)  Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (D)

66. In India, to total per cent of working people in agriculture is-

(A)  50 per cent

(B)  60 per cent

(C)  70 per cent

(D)  80 per cent

Answer: (B)

67. At present in which state is the Nathula Pass?

(A)  Jammu and Kashmir

(B)  Sikkim

(C)  Maharashtra

(D)  Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (B)

68. Which countries are permanent members of the UN Security Council?

(A)  America, Russia, France, Britain and China

(B)  Russia, France, India, Pakistan and China

(C)  Britain, America, Saudi-Arab, Bangladesh and Russia

(D)  Britain, India, China, France and America

Answer: (A)

69. The head-quarters of UNESCO are in which city?

(A)  Newyork

(B)  Vienna

(C)  London

(D)  Paris

Answer: (D)

70. Which of the following is not a decomposable waste?

(A)  Vegetables

(B)  Fruits

(C)  Paper

(D)  Polythene bags

Answer: (D)

Mathematics

71. Cube root of 343 is ……..

(A)  9

(B)  5

(C)  7

(D)  3

Answer: (C)

72. In the bank, for whom the current-account is more useful?

(A)  for adults

(B)  for children

(C)  for businessmen

(D)  for service-class people

Answer: (C)

73. Ajay’s income is 60% more than that of Vinay. By what per cent is Vinay’s income less than Ajay’s?

(A)  37.5%

(B)  20%

(C)  40%

(D)  60%

Answer: (A)

74. Out of 0/5, 5/0, 0/1 and 1/0 which are not rational numbers-

(A)  0/5, 5/0

(B)  0/5, 0/1

(C)  0/5, 1/0

(D)  5/0, 1/0

Answer: (D)

75. The factors of 4a2 – 9b2 are-

(A)  (2a + 3b) (2a + 3b)

(B)  (4a – 3b) (2a + 3b)

(C)  (4a + 3b) (4a + 3b)

(D)  (2a – 3b) (2a + 3b)

Answer: (D)

76. How many diagonals are there in an Octagon?

(A)  18

(B)  20

(C)  16

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

77. A Parallelogram which has one of its angle as right angle is called-

(A)  Rectangle

(B)  Rhombus

(C)  Square

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

78. Value of (a/b)0 × (b/a)0 is-

(A)  0

(B)  −a2/b2

(C)  a2/b2

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

79. Mean of first five prime numbers is-

(A)  5.6

(B)  5.2

(C)  6.0

(D)  6.4

Answer: (A)

80. The value of (32)−1/5 is-

(A)  1/3

(B)  1/2

(C)  1/4

(D)  1/9

Answer: (B)

81. If A : B = 5 : 6 and B : C = 8 : 9, then A : B : C is equal to-

(A)  20 : 20 : 27

(B)  20 : 24 : 27

(C)  20 : 27 : 24

(D)  5 : 9 : 6

Answer: (B)

82. If the side of a Cube is doubled, its volume will be……

(A)  double

(B)  three times

(C)  four times

(D)  eight times

Answer: (D)

83. Which of the following rational numbers can be expressed as terminating decimals?

(A)  29/30

(B)  27/22

(C)  305/108

(D)  105/125

Answer: (D)

84. What per cent of 45 is 54?

(A)  54%

(B)  120%

(C)  100%

(D)  90%

Answer: (B)

85. The area of a Circle is 154 sq. m. It’s circumference will be-

(A)  44 metre

(B)  154 metre

(C)  72 metre

(D)  308 metre

Answer: (A)

86. In class interval 90 – 100. the 90 is ….. limit of class.

(A)  first

(B)  equal

(C)  upper

(D)  lower

Answer: (B)

87. 15m2n + 5m2 is equal to-

(A)  5m2n

(B)  3m

(C)  3n

(D)  6n

Answer: (C)

88. Angle formed in the semi circle is-

(A)  Acute angle

(B)  Right angle

(C)  Obtuse angle

(D)  Zero angle

Answer: (B)

89. If  then the value of x is-

(A)  −3/4

(B)  3/4

(C)  2

(D)  1/2

Answer: (A)

90. Profit = Selling price-

(A)  Loss

(B)  Cost price

(C)  Loss %

(D)  Profit %

Answer: (B)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2015 Class-VIII Held on 2 November, 2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2015 Class-VIII

Held on 2 November, 2014

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)

Direction-(Q. 1-10) Each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Find out the correct term and write its number on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

1.

(A)  Patna

(B)  Kolkata

(C)  Mumbai

(D)  Ahmedabad

Answer: (D)

2.

(A)  Tomato

(B)  Brinjal

(C)  Radish

(D)  Lady Finger

Answer: (C)

3.

(A)  November

(B)  June

(C)  January

(D)  April

Answer: (C)

4.

(A)  C 9

(B)  H 65

(C)  L 144

(D)  J 100

Answer: (B)

5.

(A)  C E G I

(B)  J L N P

(C)  R U X Z

(D)  F H J L

Answer: (C)

6. 

Answer: (A)

7. 

Answer: (D)

8. 

Answer: (D)

9. 

Answer: (C)

10. 

Answer: (D)

Direction-(Q. 11-20) There are four terms in each question. The terms right to the symbol : : have some relationship as the two terms of the left of the symbol : : Out of the four terms one term is missing, which is one of the four alternatives given below. Find out the correct alternative and write its numbers against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

11. Watch Time : Thermometer : ?

(A)  Humidity

(B)  Temperature

(C)  Current

(D)  Volt

Answer: (B)

12. Assam : Dispur : Tripura : ?

(A)  Kohima

(B)  Raipur

(C)  Agartala

(D)  Gangtok

Answer: (C)

13. CKLP : PLKC : : EPLC : ?

(A)  FLPG

(B)  CMOE

(C)  DLRF

(D)  CLPE

Answer: (D)

14. EJMR : HMPU : : GKOT : ?

(A)  JNRW

(B)  JMRV

(C)  KNSW

(D)  JNTU

Answer: (A)

15. Sea : Water : : Glacier : ?

(A)  Cave

(B)  Mountain

(C)  Ice

(D)  Cloud

Answer: (C)

16. 

Answer: (B)

17. 

Answer: (D)

18. 

Answer: (C)

19. 

Answer: (C)

20. 

Answer: (D)

Direction-(Q. 21-25) These questions are based on number/letter series. One or two term is missing in each series and indicated by question mark (?) find out the missing term out of the four alternatives given below and write its alternative number against the correct question number on your answer sheet.

21. 1, A, 2, B, 4, ….,….., P, 32―

(A)  C 8

(B)  F 10

(C)  E 12

(D)  D 16

Answer: (D)

22. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A)  30

(B)  36

(C)  39

(D)  42

Answer: (B)

23. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?

(A)  131

(B)  115

(C)  92

(D)  127

Answer: (D)

24. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ?, ?

(A)  19, 23

(B)  13, 17

(C)  19, 17

(D)  13, 23

Answer: (B)

25. B, A, E, C, H, E, K, G, ?, ?

(A)  H, I

(B)  I, N

(C)  F, J

(D)  N, I

Answer: (D)

Direction-(Q. 26-30) In these questions problem figures are given at the left hand side consisting four figures in a definite series and the place for firth figure is vacant which has been shown by question mark (?). Four answer figure are given against each problem figures. Find out the correct answer figure and write its alternatives number against the proper question number on your answer sheet.

26. 

Answer: (A)

27. 

Answer: (D)

28. 

Answer: (C)

29. 

Answer: (D)

30. 

Answer: (B)

Direction-(Q. 31-40) In these questions the equation have become wrong due to incorrect order of sings. Choose the correct order of signs from the four alternatives given below, so that the equation become correct. Write its correct alternative number on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

31. 6 = 8 × 2 × 96

(A)  × = +

(B)  × × =

(C)  × = ×

(D)  × + =

Answer: (B)

32. 9 + 4 × 17 = 19

(A)  = × +

(B)  + = ×

(C)  = + ×

(D)  × = +

Answer: (D)

33. 50 – 42 = 12 +4

(A)  = + −

(B)  + = −

(C)  + − =

(D)  − + =

Answer: (A)

34. 7 + 8 = 29 × 27

(A)  + × =

(B)  × = +

(C)  = + ×

(D)  + = ×

Answer: (B)

35. 21 × 7 + 3 = 1

(A)  ÷ = ×

(B)  × = ÷

(C)  × ÷ =

(D)  = ÷ ×

Answer: (A)

36. 104 ÷ 54 – 100 = 2

(A)  = − ÷

(B)  ÷ = −

(C)  − = ÷

(D)  − ÷ =

Answer: (C)

37. 66 × 27 = 13 – 3

(A)  − = ×

(B)  = − ×

(C)  × − =

(D)  = × −

Answer: (A)

38. 9 + 2 = 25 × 43

(A)  = + ×

(B)  = × +

(C)  × = +

(D)  × + =

Answer: (D)

39. 24 = 0 × 35 – 35

(A)  × = −

(B)  = − ×

(C)  × − =

(D)  − = ×

Answer: (A)

40. 55 = 28 – 17 – 10

(A)  − = −

(B)  + − =

(C)  − − =

(D)  − + =

Answer: (C)

Direction-(Q. 41-50) These question are based on definite letter series. In given question some letter are missing shown by (−). The missing letter are given in proper sequence as one of the four alternatives given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number on the answer sheet against the corresponding question number.

41. ― ER―F―R―FE―K

(A)  F L E L S

(B)  F K E K R

(C)  G K E L P

(D)  C K E K R

Answer: (B)

42. ― ― H ―C―HL―PH―

(A)  C P K P C M

(B)  D L P K C M

(C)  C P L P C L

(D)  D P L R C L

Answer: (C)

43. ―GT ― H ― T ― HG ― M

(A)  H M G M T

(B)  I M G R T

(C)  H N G N T

(D)  M T G N H

Answer: (A)

44. ― ― K ― E ― KX ― P ― X

(A)  F P X R E K

(B)  G E P X R K

(C)  E R W P E K

(D)  E P X P E K

Answer: (D)

45. ― CP ― D ― P ― DC ― I

(A)  P I C D P

(B)  C I D P I

(C)  D I C I P

(D)  I C P I C

Answer: (C)

46. ― ― I ― E ― IM―RI ―

(A)  E S M S E M

(B)  E R M R E M

(C)  F R N R E N

(D)  F R M S E M

Answer: (B)

47. ―ER ― F ― R ― FE ― K

(A)  G K E L R

(B)  F L E K S

(C)  G K E L S

(D)  F K E K R

Answer: (D)

48. ― ― I ― C ― IV ― P ― V

(A)  C P V P C I

(B)  P C U P C I

(C)  C R V P D I

(D)  I C R P V C

Answer: (A)

49. ― U ― DO ― S ― OU ― D

(A)  D S O U S

(B)  R O D U S

(C)  O S U D S

(D)  R U D O R

Answer: (C)

50. ― V ― EP ― R ― PV ― E

(A)  U R V E S

(B)  P R V E R

(C)  P S U E R

(D)  R E U P S

Answer: (B)

Direction-(Q. 51-55) In these questions numbers are placed in the figure on the basis of same rules one place in vacant which in indicated as (?). Find out the correct alternative to replace the question mark (?) and write the number against the proper question number on  your answer sheet.

51. 

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  8

(D)  11

Answer: (C)

52. 

(A)  9

(B)  6

(C)  5

(D)  7

Answer: (D)

53. 

(A)  10

(B)  8

(C)  6

(D)  13

Answer: (A)

54. 

(A)  7

(B)  9

(C)  4

(D)  6

Answer: (C)

55. 

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (D)

Direction-(Q. 56-65) In these questions given below, four words/numbers are written in every question, four alternative are given below against each question. The words/numbers in the question are related to each other in some way, one word/number from among the four alternative goes best with the word/number in the question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number against the proper question number on  your answer sheet.

56. Dispur, Jaipur, Mumbai, Patna-

(A)  Ahemdabad

(B)  Meerut

(C)  Ranchi

(D)  Ajmer

Answer: (C)

57. Allahabad, Varanasi, Jhansi, Moradabad-

(A)  Sitapur

(B)  Faizabad

(C)  Barabanki

(D)  Sonbhadra

Answer: (A)

58. Jharkhand, Goa, Maharashtra, Rajasthan-

(A)  Agartala

(B)  Dehradun

(C)  Varanasi

(D)  Gujarat

Answer: (D)

59. 36, 49, 64, 25

(A)  144

(B)  8

(C)  27

(D)  120

Answer: (A)

60. 8, 125, 64, 27

(A)  121

(B)  144

(C)  216

(D)  100

Answer: (C)

61. Onion, Radish, Garlic, Carrot-

(A)  Tomato

(B)  Brinjal

(C)  Lady Finger

(D)  Potato

Answer: (D)

62. 18, 54, 42, 30

(A)  12

(B)  20

(C)  26

(D)  32

Answer: (A)

63. 114, 57, 19, 95

(A)  127

(B)  133

(C)  153

(D)  139

Answer: (A)

64. July, March, January, May-

(A)  November

(B)  April

(C)  August

(D)  September

Answer: (C)

65. 23, 19, 29, 31

(A)  37

(B)  21

(C)  15

(D)  27

Answer: (A)

Direction-(Q. 66-75) Each of the following questions to has a group of the three words which are related to each other in some way. This relationship can be represented by one of the four figure alternative given in the beginning. Find out the correct figure alternative and write its number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

66. Assam, Gujarat, Jharkhand-

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (C)

67. History, Ancient History, Modern History-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

68. Sanskrit, Biology, English-

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

69. Cricket, Mahendra Singh Dhonni, Virat Kohli-

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

70. India, Bihar, Patna-

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

71. School, Student, Collie-

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

72. U. P., Kanpur, Gorakhpur-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

73. Pen, Pencil, Eraser-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

74. Plant, Root, Stem-

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

75. Wheat, Gram, Rice-

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

Direction-(Q. 76-80) The following questions are based on the information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct answer from the four alternative and write its alternatives number on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

For being graduate Raju opted English, Sanskrit and Biology. Kamal opted Sanskrit, Economics and Civics, Pankaj opted Sanskrit, Economics and Civics. Naveen opted English, Sanskrit and Economics and Sonu opted English, Sanskrit and Civics.

76. Which subject was opted by the most of the students?

(A)  Economics

(B)  English

(C)  Sanskrit

(D)  Civics

Answer: (C)

77. Which subject was opted by the least of the student?

(A)  Civics

(B)  Biology

(C)  English

(D)  Economics

Answer: (B)

78. How many student study Civics subject?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

79. How many student study English subject?

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

80. Who do not study the subject Economics?

(A)  Raju – Naveen

(B)  Kamal – Sonu

(C)  Sonu – Raju

(D)  Raju – Pankaj

Answer: (C)

Direction-(Q. 81-85) The following questions are based on the following information given below. Read the information carefully and find out the correct alternative from the four alternatives and write its alternative number on your answer sheet against the proper question number.

   In a family there are five members EFGH and I. G is elder than H, but younger than F. F is elder than E and G but younger than I. E is elder than H but younger than G.

81. Who is the youngest one in the family?

(A)  F

(B)  G

(C)  E

(D)  H

Answer: (D)

82. Who is at the middle order in the family?

(A)  G

(B)  F

(C)  E

(D)  H

Answer: (A)

83. Who is the oldest one in the family?

(A)  H

(B)  F

(C)  G

(D)  I

Answer: (D)

84. Who is at the second youngest in the family?

(A)  I

(B)  E

(C)  G

(D)  H

Answer: (B)

85. Who is the second eldest in the family?

(A)  H

(B)  I

(C)  F

(D)  G

Answer: (C)

86. If in any code language ILPT is written as MPTX. How FJNS will be written in the same code language?

(A)  KMRW

(B)  JMSV

(C)  KNSU

(D)  JNRW

Answer: (D)

87. If in any code language NRUK is written as LPSI. How JOTV will be written in the same code language?

(A)  HMRT

(B)  IMST

(C)  HNRV

(D)  INSU

Answer: (A)

88. If A is the brother of the B’s son. How A is related with B?

(A)  Son

(B)  Brother

(C)  Cousine

(D)  Grandson

Answer: (A)

89. In a joint family an old businessman has four sons. Each son has two sons and two daughters. The businessman and his daughter in laws are also in the family. How many members are there in the family?

(A)  20   

(B)  26

(C)  25

(D)  17

Answer: (B)

90. Sonu walked 30 meter towards east took a right turn and walked 20 meter again took right turn and walked 30 meter. How far was he from the starting point?

(A)  30 mts

(B)  20 mts

(C)  50 mts

(D)  40 mts

Answer: (B)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Science

91. The filament of the bulb is made of-

(A)  Cromium

(B)  Silver

(C)  Tungsten

(D)  Nickel

Answer: (C)

92. An object oscillate 500 times in 10 second, its frequency will be-

(A)  750 oscillation per second

(B)  80 oscillation per second

(C)  50 oscillation per second

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

93. The natural satellite of earth is-

(A)  Aryabhatt

(B)  Rohini

(C)  Moon

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

94. The speed of the sound is maximum in-

(A)  Gas

(B)  Liquid

(C)  Vacuum

(D)  Solid

Answer: (D)

95. The motion of pendulum of wall clock is-

(A)  Linear motion

(B)  Circular motion

(C)  Rotatory motion

(D)  Periodic motion

Answer: (D)

96. The kinetic energy of freely falling body is-

(A)  remain constant

(B)  decreases

(C)  increases

(D)  First decreases then increases

Answer: (C)

97. A car is heading towards South-East. The force of friction acting on the car is towards-

(A)  South-East

(B)  South-West

(C)  North-East

(D)  North-West

Answer: (D)

98. Internet Explorer is a-

(A)  Website

(B)  I.S.P.

(C)  Browser

(D)  Hardware

Answer: (C)

99. The angle between incident and reflected ray of a plane mirror of 80°. The angle of incidence will be-

(A)  80°

(B)  100°

(C)  40°

(D)  50°

Answer: (C)

100. Scissor is the lever of-

(A)  First type

(B)  Second type

(C)  Third type

(D)  Fourth type

Answer: (A)

101. The mirror used in Solar Cooker is-

(A)  Plane

(B)  Convex

(C)  Concave

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

102. If the potential difference of any conductor is 12 Volt and 2 ampere current is flowing through it, the resistance of the conductor will be-

(A)  6 Ohm

(B)  24 Ohm

(C)  10 Ohm

(D)  14 Ohm

Answer: (A)

103. Which one is the non-magnetic substance?

(A)  Nickel

(B)  Iron

(C)  Cobalt

(D)  Gold

Answer: (D)

104. Boxite is the ore of which metal?

(A)  Sodium

(B)  Aluminium

(C)  Iron

(D)  Copper

Answer: (B)

105. Which metal has not the property of ductility?

(A)  Zinc

(B)  Iron

(C)  Aluminium

(D)  Silver

Answer: (B)

106. The crystalline allotrope of carbon is-

(A)  Wood coal

(B)  Coke

(C)  Gold

(D)  Diamond

Answer: (D)

107. Dry ice is-

(A)  Solid carbon monooxide

(B)  Solid Oxygen

(C)  Solid water

(D)  Solid carbon dioxide

Answer: (D)

108. Vitamin soluble in water is-

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin B

(C)  Vitamin E

(D)  Vitamin D

Answer: (B)

109. The Chemical name of calcium hydroxide is-

(A)  CaOH

(B)  Ca2OH

(C)  Ca(OH)3

(D)  Ca(OH)2

Answer: (D)

110. Which gas is not present in atmosphere?

(A)  Nitrogen

(B)  Helium

(C)  Chlorine

(D)  Argon

Answer: (C)

111. The main factor of rusting is-

(A)  Hydrogen

(B)  Nitrogen

(C)  Oxygen

(D)  Neon

Answer: (C)

112. The valency of Phosphorus in P2O5 is-

(A)  3

(B)  5

(C)  2

(D)  7

Answer: (B)

113. The organic manure is-

(A)  Urea

(B)  Dung manure

(C)  Potassium Nitrate

(D)  Sodium Nitrate

Answer: (B)

114. Which helps in blood clotting?

(A)  Red blood corpuscles

(B)  White blood corpuscles

(C)  Platelets

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

115. Goitre is caused due to deficiency of-

(A)  Iodine

(B)  Calcium

(C)  Phosphorus

(D)  Chlorine

Answer: (A)

116. Pseudopodia is found in-

(A)  Ameoba

(B)  Hydra

(C)  Uglena

(D)  Paramecium

Answer: (A)

117. H.I.V. is related with-

(A)  Maleria

(B)  Hepitietis

(C)  T.B.

(D)  Aids

Answer: (D)

118. The medicine chlorelin is made by-

(A)  Algae

(B)  Bacteria

(C)  Fungus

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

119. The packet of milk is preserved by-

(A)  Chemical

(B)  Freezing

(C)  Pasteurisation

(D)  Fermentation

Answer: (C)

120. Sphygmomanometer measure-

(A)  Blood pressure

(B)  Pulse

(C)  Rate of Heart beat

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

121. On Kelvin Scale, 0°C is equal to-

(A)  273 K

(B)  0 K

(C)  100 K

(D)  −273 K

Answer: (A)

122. The main cause of depletion of ozone layer is the excessive use of-

(A)  CO2

(B)  CFCs

(C)  NO2

(D)  SO2

Answer: (B)

  1. In which form, food is stored in leaves?

(A)  Protein

(B)  Fat

(C)  Mineral

(D)  Starch

Answer: (D)

124. Which acid is used in battery?

(A)  Sulphuric acid

(B)  Nitric acid

(C)  Hydrochloric acid

(D)  Acetic acid

Answer: (A)

125. The fundamental particles present in nucleus of an atom is-

(A)  Proton – Neutron

(B)  Proton – Electron

(C)  Neutron – Electron

(D)  Proton – Neutron – Electron

Answer: (A)

Social Science

126. By Whom ‘Chipko Andolan (Movement) was started?

(A)  Vinoba Bhave

(B)  Rajaram Mohan Rai

(C)  Sunder Lal Bahuguna

(D)  Lal Bahadur Shastri

Answer: (C)

127. Where Golden Temple is situated?

(A)  Patna

(B)  Mathura

(C)  Kashi

(D)  Amritsar

Answer: (D)

128. Who is the author of ‘The Discovery of India’?

(A)  Sardar Patel

(B)  Maulana Azad

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi

(D)  Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

Answer: (D)

129. Among the following which one is incorrect pair?

(A)  Frontier Gandhi-Maulana Abul Kalam

(B)  Deshbandhu – C.R.Das

(C)  Ironman – Sardar Patel

(D)  Netaji – Subash Chandra Bose

Answer: (A)

130. Of which state Tipu Sultan was the ruler?

(A)  Mysore

(B)  Ahemdabad

(C)  Hyderabad

(D)  Ahmednagar

Answer: (A)

131. Who is not associated with Journalism?

(A)  Arun Shauri

(B)  Subhasni Ali

(C)  Khushwant Singh

(D)  Amjad Ali Khan

Answer: (D)

132. Who is the founder of ‘Din-Illahi’?

(A)  Mahmood Gajanavi

(B)  Humayun

(C)  Akbar

(D)  Shershah Suri

Answer: (C)

133. At which place Shivaji was crowned?

(A)  Raigarh

(B)  Pratapgarh

(C)  Satara

(D)  Pune

Answer: (A)

134. Who is the writer of Abhigyan-Shakuntalam?

(A)  Surdas

(B)  Keshavdas

(C)  Tulsidas

(D)  Kalidas

Answer: (D)

135. In which language ‘Ramayana’ was written?

(A)  Sanskrit

(B)  Prakrit

(C)  Awadhi

(D)  Pali

Answer: (A)

136. By whom ‘Saka’ era was started?

(A)  Ashoka

(B)  Chandragupta Second

(C)  Kanishka

(D)  Harshbardhan

Answer: (C)

137. From which commodity among the following India earns maximum foreign exchange?

(A)  Sugar

(B)  Tea

(C)  Chemical

(D)  Jute

Answer: (C)

138. Where is the headquarter of Oil and Natural Gas Commission?

(A)  Digboi

(B)  Gwalior

(C)  Dehradun

(D)  Mumbai

Answer: (C)

139. Where is Satellite launching centre in India is located?

(A)  Shri Harikota

(B)  Cuttak

(C)  Bangalore

(D)  Thumba

Answer: (A)

140. What is the instrument to record the intensity of Earthquake?

(A)  Physiograph

(B)  Seismograph

(C)  Cardiograph

(D)  Barograph

Answer: (B)

141. Which among the following is the city of garden?

(A)  Bangalore

(B)  Mysore

(C)  Udaipur

(D)  Jaipur

Answer: (A)

142. Among the following what is the moon?

(A)  Comet

(B)  Star

(C)  Planet

(D)  Satellite

Answer: (D)

143. To which among the following Sahara is associated?

(A)  River

(B)  Desert

(C)  Valley

(D)  Mountain

Answer: (B)

144. Which of the following is a common capital city of two states?

(A)  Delhi

(B)  Chandigarh

(C)  Jammu

(D)  Bangalore

Answer: (B)

145. How many days are there in a leap-year?

(A)  365 days

(B)  366 days

(C)  386 days

(D)  327.3 days

Answer: (B)

146. Which state in India is under Article 370 of the Constitution?

(A)  Sikkim

(B)  Assam

(C)  Punjab

(D)  Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (D)

147. Up to what age a judge of Supreme Court of India can serve?

(A)  65 years

(B)  58 years

(C)  62 years

(D)  60 years

Answer: (A)

148. When the Independence day of Pakistan is celebrated?

(A)  15 August

(B)  14 August

(C)  04 July

(D)  16 August

Answer: (B)

149. Who was the first President of free India?

(A)  Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

(B)  V. V. Giri

(C)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D)  Fakharuddin Ali Ahmed

Answer: (C)

150. The Governor of any state in India can be appointed when he is-

(A)  More than 35 years

(B)  More than 40 years

(C)  More than 60 years

(D)  More than 65 years

Answer: (A)

151. Prime Minister of India is appointed by-

(A)  Lok Sabha

(B)  Rajya Sabha

(C)  Chief Justice of India

(D)  President of India

Answer: (D)

152. Our Fundamental rights are-

(A)  06

(B)  07

(C)  08

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

153. Who’s thought is known as Pancsheal?

(A)  A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(B)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

(C)  Indira Gandhi

(D)  B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: (B)

154. Which President of India is called the ‘Missileman’?

(A)  Dr. Radha Krishnan

(B)  Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(C)  Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(D)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (B)

155. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?

(A)  07

(B)  08

(C)  10

(D)  12

Answer: (D)

156. Who signs on Fifty rupee note?

(A)  Governor Reserve Bank of India

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  Finance Minister

(D)  President

Answer: (A)

157. Which of the following pair is not matched?

(A)  Sales Tax – State Government

(B)  Income Tax – State Government

(C)  Excise Duty – Central Government

(D)  Octroi – Municipal Corporation

Answer: (B)

158. Who is the author of ‘Arthashashtra’?

(A)  Kalidas

(B)  Valmiki

(C)  Vedvyas

(D)  Kautilya

Answer: (D)

159. When was United National Organization was established?

(A)  24 October, 1945 A.D.

(B)  05 September, 1946 A.D.

(C)  10 December, 1950 A.D.

(D)  05 November, 1948 A.D.

Answer: (A)

160. The permanent office of SAARC is at-

(A)  Kathmandu

(B)  New Delhi

(C)  Dhaka

(D)  Colombo

Answer: (A)

Mathematics

161. The value of (23)2 will be-

(A)  16

(B)  64

(C)  32

(D)  48

Answer: (B)

162. The value of (−5) × (−25) will be-

(A)  −125

(B)  −625

(C)  +125

(D)  +225

Answer: (C)

163. If the 3/8 and 2/7 of a number is 370, then the number will be-

(A)  520

(B)  560

(C)  540

(D)  500

Answer: (B)

164. If perimeter of a square is (4a + 8), then area of square will be-

(A)  (a + 2) (a + 2)

(B)  (a + 2) (a – 2)

(C)  (2a + 2) (a + 2)

(D)  (4a + 8) (4a + 8)

Answer: (A)

165. The interior angle of a triangle are 3x0, (2x + 20)° and (5x – 40)° respectively, then the triangle will be-

(A)  Rightangle triangle

(B)  Equilateral triangle

(C)  Isosceles triangle

(D)  Scelene triangle

Answer: (B)

166. Number of equivalent rational number of any rational number will be-

(A)  One

(B)  Two

(C)  Ten

(D)  Infinite

Answer: (D)

167. Which of the following is the smallest fraction?

(A)  5/12

(B)  2/3

(C)  5/6

(D)  3/4

Answer: (A)

168. The highest common factor (H.C.F.) of 15 and 25 is 5. The least common multiple (L.C.M.) of these will be-

(A)  75

(B)  375

(C)  150

(D)  25

Answer: (A)

169. The natural number which have only one factor, will be-

(A)  7

(B)  11

(C)  17

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

170. If x−1 – 1 is divided by x – 1, then dividend will be-

(A)  1/x – 1

(B)  − 1/x – 1

(C)  −(1/x+1)

(D)  −1/x

Answer: (D)

171. The length of two adjacent side of a rectangle are 2x and y respectively. The perimeter of a rectangle will be-

(A)  2xy

(B)  2(2x + y)

(C)  4xy

(D)  2(x + 2y)

Answer: (B)

172. A bus travelled ‘t’ hours at the speed of 40 km/h. Distance travelled by bus will be-

(A)  t/40 km

(B)  40/t km

(C)  40t km

(D)  40 km

Answer: (C)

173. The difference of complementary angle is 30°, then each angle will be-

(A)  150°, 30°

(B)  60°, 30°

(C)  70°, 20°

(D)  140°, 40°

Answer: (B)

174. The length of diagonals of rhombus are 15 cm and 20 cm. Area of rhombus will be-

(A)  200 sq. cm

(B)  250 sq. cm

(C)  150 sq. cm

(D)  130 sq. cm

Answer: (C)

175. If √3n = 81, then the value of n will be-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (D)

176. The ratio of the income of x and y is 2 : 3. If the x’s income is Rs 15,000, then y’s income will be-

(A)  Rs 12,500

(B)  Rs 22,500

(C)  Rs 22,000

(D)  Rs 7,500

Answer: (B)

177. By selling a washing machine for Rs 11,400, a dealer losses 5%. For how much should he sell this machine to gain 5% ?

(A)  Rs 12,400

(B)  Rs 12,600

(C)  Rs 12,800

(D)  Rs 12,000

Answer: (B)

178. Each side of a cubical tank is 1 metre. The capacity of tank will be-

(A)  10 litre

(B)  100 litre

(C)  1000 litre

(D)  10,000 litre

Answer: (C)

179. A train 450 metre long crosses an electric pole in speed of train in km/H will be-

(A)  70 km/H

(B)  20 km/H

(C)  75 km/H

(D)  72 km/H

Answer: (D)

180. The difference of compound interest and simple interest for Rs 5000 at the rate 8% per annum for two years will be-

(A)  Rs 80

(B)  Rs 32

(C)  Rs 30

(D)  Rs 83

Answer: (B)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2016 Class-VIII Held on 8 November, 2015 Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2016 Class-VIII

Held on 8 November, 2015

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)

   Directions-(Q. 1-10) Each question has four terms. Three terms are alike in someway. One term is different from others. Find out the different term and write its number on your answer sheet against the proper question number-

1.

(A)  Patna

(B)  Raipur

(C)  Guwahati

(D)  Kolkata

Answer: (C)

2.

(A)  27

(B)  216

(C)  125

(D)  196

Answer: (D)

3.

(A)  Jharkhand

(B)  Lakshadweep

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Madhya  Pradesh

Answer: (B)

4.

(A)  Bottle Goard

(B)  Potato

(C)  Radish

(D)  Carrot

Answer: (A)

5.

(A)  EGIK

(B)  BDFH

(C)  LORT

(D)  NPRT

Answer: (C)

6. 

Answer: (B)

7. 

Answer: (D)

8. 

Answer: (B)

9. 

Answer: (C)

10. 

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 11-15) There are four terms in each question. The terms right to the symbol : : have same relationship as the two terms of the left of the symbol : : Out of the four terms one term is missing, which is one of the four alternative given below. Find out the correct alternative and write its number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet-

11. 4 : 64 : : 6 : ?

(A)  216

(B)  222

(C)  196

(D)  225

Answer: (A)

12. B : 5 : : D : ?

(A)  21

(B)  25

(C)  16

(D)  17

Answer: (D)

13. Jharkhand : Ranchi : : Sikkim : ?

(A)  Agartala

(B)  Gangtok

(C)  Dispur

(D)  Shillong

Answer: (B)

14. DHLP : FJNR : : FKNS : ?

(A)  HMPU

(B)  IMPV

(C)  GNOU

(D)  JNRT

Answer: (A)

15. Fox : Clever : : Donkey : ?

(A)  Dull

(B)  Intelligent

(C)  Moron

(D)  Dangerous

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 16-20) There are four figures in each question. The figure right to the symbol : : have same relationship as the two figures of the left of the  symbol : : out of the four figures one figure is missing. Which is one of the four alternatives given below. Find out the correct alternative and write its number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet-

16. 

Answer: (A)

17. 

Answer: (C)

18. 

Answer: (A)

19. 

Answer: (D)

20. 

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 21-25) These question are based on number series. One term is missing in each series and indicated by question mark (?) find out the missing term out of the four alternatives given below and write its alternative number against the correct question number on your answer sheet-

21. 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ?

(A)  15

(B)  17

(C)  9

(D)  19

Answer: (B)

22. 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, ?

(A)  22

(B)  19

(C)  25

(D)  20

Answer: (A)

23. 2, 3, 6, 11, 18, ?

(A)  22

(B)  28

(C)  27

(D)  25

Answer: (C)

24. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

(A)  36

(B)  45

(C)  39

(D)  42

Answer: (D)

25. 6, 24, 120, 210, 343, ?

(A)  449

(B)  504

(C)  525

(D)  496

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 26-30)j Problem figures is given at the left hand side consisting four design in definite series and the place for fifth design is vacant which has been show by question mark (?). Four answer figures are given against each problem figure. Find out the correct answer figure and write its alternative number against  the problem question number on your answer sheet-

26. 

Answer: (A)

27. 

Answer: (C)

28. 

Answer: (D)

29. 

Answer: (C)

30. 

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 31-40) The equations have become wrong because of the wrong order of sings. Choose the correct order of signs from the four options given below so as to make the equations right. Write the alternative number of the correct option on the answer sheet against the corresponding question number-

31. 36 – 9 ÷ 5 = 4 + 5

(A)  ÷ + − =

(B)  + − ÷ =

(C)  = − + ÷

(D)  ÷ − = +

Answer: (A)

32. 3 + 4 = 3 – 2 × 13

(A)  + − × =

(B)  × + − =

(C)  − × = +

(D)  + = × −

Answer: (B)

33. 6 – 2 × 3 + 7 = 8

(A)  = × + −

(B)  + × = −

(C)  + × − =

(D)  × + − =

Answer: (D)

34. 12 = 6 ÷ 3 – 2 + 3

(A)  − + = ÷

(B)  ÷ + − =

(C)  + = − ÷

(D)  − ÷ + =

Answer: (B)

35. 2 + 6 – 4 × 5 = 11

(A)  = + × −

(B)  × − + =

(C)  × + − =

(D)  + = − ×

Answer: (C)

36. 49 = 7 – 3 × 15 ÷ 6

(A)  ÷ × − =

(B)  × − + =

(C)  ÷ − × =

(D)  − × ÷ =

Answer: (A)

37. 2 – 7 = 5 × 7 + 10

(A)  + − × =

(B)  × + − =

(C)  − × = +

(D)  = × + −

Answer: (*)

38. 6 × 2 ÷ 5 + 6 = 21

(A)  × ÷ + =

(B)  = × + ÷

(C)  + × ÷ =

(D)  ÷ × + =

Answer: (D)

39. 3 – 5 × 7 + 9 = 13

(A)  + × − =

(B)  − × + =

(C)  × + − =

(D)  − + × =

Answer: (C)

40. 36 = 12 – 5 + 6 ÷ 2

(A)  ÷ + − =

(B)  + ÷ − =

(C)  = + ÷ −

(D)  − + ÷ =

Answer: (A)

41. If in a code language BJLP is written as DLNR. What will be code of EINT in the same code language?

(A)  HKOU

(B)  GKPV

(C)  FLRW

(D)  GJSX

Answer: (B)

42. If in a code language STEAM is written as MAETS what will be the code of KICHN in the same code language?

(A)  MICIL

(B)  NGDIM

(C)  MJDJM

(D)  NHCIK

Answer: (D)

43. If in a code language CEIJ is written as EGKL. What will be code of FHLP in the same code language?

(A)  IJNS

(B)  GKMR

(C)  HJNR

(D)  ILMT

Answer: (C)

44. If in the code language CKLP is written as AIJN. What will be the code of GMRV in the same code language?

(A)  FKRU

(B)  EKPT

(C)  DLOS

(D)  ELPX

Answer: (B)

45. If in a code language CFIM is written as DHJO. What will be the code of GKNR in the same code language?

(A)  HMOT

(B)  IMPT

(C)  HNPU

(D)  JNRS

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 46-50) These questions are based on the following information. Read the information carefully and choose the correct alternative from four alternatives given below each question and write its alternative number against proper question number on  your answer sheet-

   Information-Among the five brother and sister. Gita is elder than Nisha. Ajit elder than Nisha, but smaller than Gita, Vivek is smaller than Pankaj and Nisha, Nisha, Nisha is elder than Pankaj―

46. Among the five brothers and sisters who is the smallest?

(A)  Ajit

(B)  Pankaj

(C)  Nisha

(D)  Vivek

Answer: (D)

47. Among the five brothers and sisters who is on the second position from top?

(A)  Gita

(B)  Ajit

(C)  Pankaj

(D)  Nisha

Answer: (B)

48. Among the five brothers and sisters who is the eldest?

(A)  Pankaj

(B)  Nisha

(C)  Gita

(D)  Ajit

Answer: (C)

49. Among the five brothers and sisters who is on the second position from below?

(A)  Pankaj

(B)  Ajit

(C)  Nisha

(D)  Gita

Answer: (A)

50. Among the five brothers and sisters who is in middle position?

(A)  Ajit

(B)  Gita

(C)  Nisha

(D)  Vivek

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 51-60) These questions are based on definite series. In given question some letters are missing shown by – The missing letters are given in proper sequence as one of the four alternatives given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number on the answer sheet against the proper question number―

51. ―DF―M―F―MD―L

(A)  LMDFD

(B)  MLDLF

(C)  MDFLM

(D)  DLMLF

Answer: (B)

52. ―EG―N―G―NE―M

(A)  NMGMG

(B)  NGMMG

(C)  GMNMG

(D)  GNMGM

Answer: (*)

53. ― ― M―O―MP―HM―

(A)  OPHOPH

(B)  POHHPO

(C)  OHPHOP

(D)  HOPOOH

Answer: (C)

54. ― ― N―P―NR―IN―

(A)  NIRPI

(B)  PIRIPR

(C)  PRPIR

(D)  RIPIR

Answer: (B)

55. ―OJ―I―J―IO―S

(A)  SIOJI

(B)  OSIJS

(C)  SOIJS

(D)  ISOSJ

Answer: (D)

56. ―NI―H―I―HN―R

(A)  RHINR

(B)  IHRNI

(C)  HRNRI

(D)  HNIRH

Answer: (C)

57. ―EG―N―G―NE―M

(A)  NMEMG

(B)  NEMGN

(C)  GENME

(D)  MEGNE

Answer: (A)

58. ―HJ―R―J―RH―P

(A)  RHJRP

(B)  RPHPJ

(C)  JRHPJ

(D)  HJRPH

Answer: (B)

59. ―UP―O―P―OU―Y

(A)  PYOPY

(B)  YPOPO

(C)  OYUYP

(D)  YOUPY

Answer: (C)

60. ― ― G―P―G―PO―R

(A)  ROPGOR

(B)  GOPORO

(C)  OGRPOR

(D)  PORORG

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 61-70) Given below, four words digit are written in every question. Four answer alternative are given below against each question. The words in the question are related to each other in same way. One word from among the four answer alternatives goes best with the words in the question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number against the proper question number-

61. Varanasi, Bareilly, Meerut, Kanpur

(A)  Sitapur

(B)  Mau

(C)  Jhansi

(D)  Bulandshahar

Answer: (C)

62. Raipur, Patna, Jaipur, Ranchi

(A)  Chennai

(B)  Guwahati

(C)  Varanasi

(D)  Ahmedabad

Answer: (A)

63. 5, 7, 11, 13

(A)  15

(B)  19

(C)  21

(D)  25

Answer: (B)

64. 256, 196, 144, 121

(A)  125

(B)  216

(C)  343

(D)  324

Answer: (D)

65. Carrot, Radish, Turnip, Potato-

(A)  Lady Finger

(B)  Brinjal

(C)  Onion

(D)  Cabbage

Answer: (C)

66. January, March, May, August-

(A)  December

(B)  June

(C)  April

(D)  November

Answer: (A)

67. 64, 216, 729, 125

(A)  196

(B)  27

(C)  256

(D)  100

Answer: (B)

68. Biology, History, Civics, Economics

(A)  Organic Chemistry

(B)  Trignometry

(C)  Algebra

(D)  Geography

Answer: (D)

69. O, E, U, I

(A)  D

(B)  L

(C)  A

(D)  V

Answer: (C)

70. 35, 21, 15, 27

(A)  9

(B)  24

(C)  36

(D)  30

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 71-75) Each of the following question has a group of the three words which are related to each other in some way. This relationship can be represented by one of the four figure alternative given in the beginning. Find out the correct figure alternative and write its alternative number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet-

71. U. P., Gorakhpur, Patna

(A)  1

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

72. U.P., Bihar, Rajasthan

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

73. Library, Book, Page

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

74. Science, Physics, Chemistry

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

75. Hindi, Sanskrit, English

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  1

Answer: (A)

Direction-(Q. 76-80) In these questions numbers are placed in the figure on the basis of some rules, one place is vacant which is indicated as (?). Find out the correct alternative to replace the question mark (?) and write its alternative number against the proper question number of your answer sheet-

76. 

(A)  5

(B)  7

(C)  8

(D)  9

Answer: (D)

77. 

(A)  7

(B)  6

(C)  8

(D)  9

Answer: (B)

78. 

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  4

(D)  7

Answer: (A)

79. 

(A)  4

(B)  9

(C)  5

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

80. 

(A)  3

(B)  5

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 81-85) These questions are based on information given below. Read the following information carefully and answer the following question. There are four alternatives given for each question. Find out the correct alternative and write its number on your answer sheet against the proper question number-

   In graduation Umesh opted Science, English and Computer, Girish opted Maths, Biology and Computer, Ganesh opted Maths, English and Sanskrit and Manish opted Maths, Computer and Sanskrit.

81. How many students opted Sanskrit subject?

(A)  1

(B)  3

(C)  2

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

82. Which subject was opted by the least students?

(A)  Science

(B)  Maths

(C)  Sanskrit

(D)`Bilogy

Answer: (D)

83. Which subject was opted by the most students?

(A)  Computer

(B)  English

(C)  Maths

(D)  Science

Answer: (A)

84. How many students opted English subject?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  1

Answer: (C)

85. How many students opted Maths subjet?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

86. If Ramesh ranked 7th from the top and 11th from bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?

(A)  18

(B)  17

(C)  16

(D)  19

Answer: (B)

87. Some boys are sitting in a row. Naresh is sitting 9th from the left, and Ganesh is 12th from Right. If there are six boys between Naresh and Ganesh. How many boys are there in row?

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  29

(D)  27

Answer: (D)

88. Umesh walked 5 km from the his home towards north direction. Then he turned to his left and walked 4 km. Again he turned left and walked 5 km. How many km now he is from his home?

(A)  5 km

(B)  6 km

(C)  4 km

(D)  3 km

Answer: (C)

89. A person is going towards East. Then he turns to the right again turns to the right. Now in which direction is he going?

(A)  West

(B)  South

(C)  East

(D)  North

Answer: (A)

90. Dinesh is going towards North. He turns to the left. Again he turns left. Now in which direction is he going?

(A)  West

(B)  South

(C)  East

(D)  North

Answer: (B)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Science

91. The rate of change of velocity is-

(A)  Impulse

(B)  Displacement

(C)  Acceleration

(D)  Momentum

Answer: (C)

92. The satellite of earth is-

(A)  Moon

(B)  Mercury

(C)  Sun

(D)  Venus

Answer: (A)

93. The chemical formula of marble is-

(A)  Na2CO2

(B)  CaCO3

(C)  CaCO2

(D)  CaCl2

Answer: (C)

94. The drug used in headache is-

(A)  Antipyratic

(B)  Antispasmodic

(C)  Analgesic

(D)  Neem

Answer: (A)

95. Marsh gas is-

(A)  Ethene

(B)  Methane

(C)  Oxygen

(D)  Hydrogen

Answer: (B)

96. The non-renewable source of energy is-

(A)  Sun

(B)  Petroleum

(C)  Air

(D)  Water

Answer: (B)

97. Solar energy is converted directly into electrical energy by-

(A)  Solar-cooker

(B)  Solar furnace

(C)  Solar cell

(D)  Solar water heater

Answer: (C)

98. Gypsum is the ore of-

(A)  Lead

(B)  Calcium

(C)  Copper

(D)  Iron

Answer: (B)

99. The another name of thermocol is-

(A)  Teflon

(B)  Polystyrene

(C)  Nylon

(D)  Decron

Answer: (B)

100. Normal force acting on unit area is-

(A)  Pressure

(B)  Work

(C)  Impulse

(D)  Momentum

Answer: (A)

101. If any object is placed at focus of convex lens, then image formed by it-

(A)  At infinity

(B)  At centre of curvature

(C)  At focus

(D)  Between centre of curvature and focus

Answer: (A)

102. Which lens is used to remove short sightedness?

(A)  Convex lens

(B)  Concave lens

(C)  Plano-convex

(D)  Concave-convex

Answer: (B)

103. The speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 105 km/s and in glass 2 × 108 m/s, the refractive index of glass will be-

(A)  1.5  

(B)  1.1

(C)  1.4

(D)  1.2

Answer: (A)

104. The disease due to virus is-

(A)  Cholera

(B)  Typhoid

(C)  Tuberculosis

(D)  Cold and cough

Answer: (D)

105. Chlorelin medicine is made by-

(A)  Fungus

(B)  Bacteria

(C)  Virus

(D)  Algae

Answer: (D)

106. The unit of electromotive-force is-

(A)  Joule/Coulomb

(B)  Joule

(C)  Newton

(D)  Newton/m2

Answer: (A)

107. Ammeter measures-

(A)  Electrical energy

(B)  Electric current

(C)  Potential difference

(D)  Charge

Answer: (B)

108. Which material work as anode in dry cell?

(A)  Carbon

(B)  Silicon

(C)  Germanium

(D)  Boron

Answer: (A)

109. The red colour of blood is due to-

(A)  haemoglobin

(B)  antigen

(C)  antibody

(D)  blood platelets

Answer: (A)

110. One Gigabyte is equal to-

(A)  1024 byte

(B)  1024 megabyte

(C)  1024 kilobyte

(D)  1024 terabyte

Answer: (B)

111. The energy in flowing water is-

(A)  Thermal energy

(B)  Sound energy

(C)  Chemical energy

(D)  Mechanical energy

Answer: (D)

112. Supported roots are found in-

(A)  Radish

(B)  Sugar cane

(C)  Carrot

(D)  Potato

Answer: (B)

113. Unicellular plant is-

(A)  Chlamydomonas

(B)  Mango

(C)  Onion

(D)  Pea

Answer: (A)

114. Annual plant is-

(A)  Rose

(B)  Mango

(C)  Banana

(D)  Wheat

Answer: (D)

115. Petiole is the part of-

(A)  Root

(B)  Stem

(C)  Leaf

(D)  Flower

Answer: (C)

116. Vitamin essential for clotting of blood is-

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin B

(C)  Vitamin C

(D)  Vitamin K

Answer: (D)

117. Auxin is-

(A)  Animal harmone

(B)  Excreate substance

(C)  Plant harmone

(D)  Medicine

Answer: (C)

118. Which of the following constitute a food chain?

(A)  Gras, wheat and mango

(B)  Grass, goat and human

(C)  Goat, cow and elephant

(D)  Grass, fish and goat

Answer: (B)

119. The bile juice is produced by-

(A)  Gallbladder

(B)  Liver

(C)  Pancreas

(D)  Stomach

Answer: (B)

  1. The stimulants present in tobacco is-

(A)  Caffeen

(B)  Morphin

(C)  Nicotin

(D)  L.S.D

Answer: (C)

121. Pulmonary veins open in-

(A)  Right atrium

(B)  Left atrium

(C)  Right ventricle

(D)  Left ventricle

Answer: (B)

122. Double fertilization is found in-

(A)  All animals

(B)  All plants

(C)  Angiosperm plant

(D)  Aquatic plant

Answer: (C)

123. Nucleus of atom have-

(A)  Electron

(B)  Proton and neutron

(C)  Neutron

(D)  Electron and neutron

Answer: (B)

124. Permanent hard water is due to-

(A)  Calcium bicarbonate

(B)  Sodium bicarbonate

(C)  Sodium Chloride

(D)  Calcium and Magnesium Sulphate and Chloride

Answer: (D)

125. Coinage metal is-

(A)  Zn

(B)  Mg

(C)  Cu

(D)  Pb

Answer: (C)

Social Science

126. Amir Khusroo was famous court poet of-

(A)  Mahmud Ghazanvi

(B)  Alauddin Khilji

(C)  Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq

(D)  Firoz Tughlaq

Answer: (B)

127. The battle of Panipat in 1526 was fought between-

(A)  Babar and Ibrahim Lodi

(B)  Ibrahim Lodi and Rana Sanga

(C)  Humayun and Sher Shah Suri

(D)  Humayun and Nusrat Shah

Answer: (A)

128. The Brahm Samaj was founded by-

(A)  Swami Dayanand Saraswati

(B)  Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(C)  Swami Vivekanand

(D)  Keshav Chandra Sen

Answer: (B)

129. The battle of Plassey was fought in-

(A)  1757

(B)  1789

(C)  1848

(D)  1857

Answer: (A)

130. Among the following which one is incorrect pair?

(A)  Harshacharita-Banabhatta

(B)  Kalidas-Abhigyan Shakuntalam

(C)  Kalhana-Rajatarangini

(D)  Chand Bardai-Geet Govind

Answer: (D)

131. The author of ‘Discovery of India’ is-

(A)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

(B)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(C)  Dadabhai Nauroji

(D)  Moti Lal Nehru

Answer: (A)

132. The Taj Mahal was built by-

(A)  Akbar

(B)  Shershah Suri

(C)  Shahjahan

(D)  Auranzeb

Answer: (C)

133. Which country is not a member of SAARC?

(A)  Pakistan

(B)  Nepal

(C)  Japan

(D)  Bhutan

Answer: (C)

134. ‘Panchtantra’ was written by-

(A)  Kalidas

(B)  Vishnu Sharma

(C)  Tulsidas

(D)  Banabhatta

Answer: (B)

135. Buland Darwaza is situated in-

(A)  Delhi

(B)  Fatehpur Sikri

(C)  Lucknow

(D)  Meerut

Answer: (B)

136. Charak was the famous court Physician of-

(A)  Harsh

(B)  Chandragupta Maurya

(C)  Ashoka

(D)  Kanishka

Answer: (D)

137. The author of the book ‘My Experiments with truth’ is-

(A)  Aurobindo Ghosh

(B)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi

(D)  Vinoba Bhave

Answer: (C)

138. Sri Aurobindo Ashram is situated in-

(A)  Tamilandu

(B)  Karnataka

(C)  Rameshwaram

(D)  Puducherry

Answer: (D)

139. Rath temples at Mahabalipuram were built by-

(A)  Pallavas

(B)  Rashtrakutas

(C)  Cholas

(D)  Chalukyas

Answer: (A)

140. International Court of justice is situated at-

(A)  Paris

(B)  London

(C)  Washington

(D)  Hague

Answer: (D)

141. The Government system established in India is-

(A)  Parliamentary System

(B)  Presidential System

(C)  Dictatorship

(D)  Military System

Answer: (A)

142. In India the council of Ministers is collectively responsible towards-

(A)  Rajya Sabha

(B)  Lok Sabha

(C)  President of India

(D)  Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer: (B)

143. ‘Panchsheel’ principle is related to-

(A)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

(B)  Rajiv Gandhi

(C)  Bhim Rao Ambedkar

(D)  A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Answer: (A)

144. From which country the Directive Principles of state Policy has been taken?

(A)  France

(B)  Japan

(C)  Canada

(D)  Ireland

Answer: (D)

145. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?

(A)  Part I

(B)  Part II

(C)  Part III

(D)  Part IV

Answer: (C)

146. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is-

(A)  The President

(B)  The Speaker

(C)  The Prime-Minister

(D)  The Vice President

Answer: (D)

147. The National Flower of India is-

(A)  Rose

(B)  Lotus

(C)  Lily

(D)  Sunflower

Answer: (B)

148. The Indian Parliament consists of-

(A)  Lok Sabha only

(B)  Lok Sabha and the President

(C)  Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

(D)  The President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

Answer: (D)

149. Which of the following is not a subject of the Union list in India?

(A)  Education

(B)  Railway

(C)  Defence

(D)  Bank

Answer: (A)

150. The number of Non-Permanent members in the Security Council is-

(A)  8

(B)  5

(C)  10

(D)  15

Answer: (C)

151. The ship of desert is called-

(A)  Camel

(B)  Horse

(C)  Elephant

(D)  Ass

Answer: (A)

152. The smallest continent is-

(A)  Asia

(B)  Australia

(C)  Antarctica

(D)  Europe

Answer: (B)

153. Which is the planet nearest to Sun?

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Earth

(C)  Mars

(D)  Saturn

Answer: (A)

154. Famous ‘Gir’ Forest is situated at in-

(A)  Gujrat

(B)  Arunachal Pradesh

(C)  Madhya Pradesh

(D)  Kolkata

Answer: (A)

155. The brightest planet is-

(A)  Jupiter

(B)  Mars

(C)  Venus

(D)  Mercury

Answer: (C)

156. A crop of Zaid is-

(A)  Maize

(B)  Soyabean

(C)  Watermelon

(D)  Jute

Answer: (C)

157. White revolution is associated with-

(A)  Agriculture

(B)  Dairy

(C)  Fisheries

(D)  Wool

Answer: (B)

158. Jharia coal mine is in-

(A)  Jharkhand

(B)  Kolkata

(C)  Andhra Pradesh

(D)  Bihar

Answer: (A)

159. Jhum is-

(A)  A tribe in the North India

(B)  A type of cultivation

(C)  A folk dance

(D)  The name of river

Answer: (B)

160. The Rihand Valley Project is in-

(A)  Madhya Pradesh

(B)  Odisha

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Karnataka

Answer: (C)

Mathematics

161. If 5x = 625, then value of 3x is-

(A)  4

(B)  9

(C)  25

(D)  81

Answer: (D)

  1. Multiplicative inverse of −5/11 is-

(A)  5/11

(B)  11/5

(C)  5

(D)  −11/5

Answer: (D)

163. The cube root of 0.000512 is-

(A)  0.008

(B)  0.08

(C)  0.8

(D)  0.0008

Answer: (B)

164. The sum of three consecutive multiples of 7 is 273. One of the three number is-

(A)  77

(B)  98

(C)  105

(D)  112

Answer: (B)

165. The complementary angles that differ b 24° are-

(A)  33°, 57°

(B)  23°, 57°

(C)  33°, 47°

(D)  23°, 47°

Answer: (A)

166. What is the number which when multiplied to 3−9 make the product equal to 3?

(A)  39

(B)  3−9

(C)  3

(D)  310

Answer: (D)

167. A man sold an article for Rs 495 and gained 10% profit on it. The cost price of the article is-

(A)  Rs 450

(B)  Rs 550

(C)  Rs 500

(D)  Rs 480

Answer: (A)

168. If the weight of 4.5 meter uniform rod is 17.1 kg then weight of 12 m of such a rod is-

(A)  51.2 kg

(B)  53 kg

(C)  45.6 kg

(D)  56 kg

Answer: (C)

169. A quadrilateral having one and only one pair of parallel sides is called-

(A)  a parallelogram

(B)  a kite

(C)  a trapezium

(D)  a rhombus

Answer: (C)

170. If 2/3 of a number is less than the original number by 10. The number is-

(A)  30

(B)  36

(C)  45

(D)  60

Answer: (A)

171. Reciprocal of  is-

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)  5/8

Answer: (D)

172. The product of 0.47 ×3 × 0.06 is-

(A)  14946

(B)  .14946

(C)  14.946

(D)  149.46

Answer: (B)

173. What should be added to 2.06 to have the sum 3.1?

(A)  1.4

(B)  1.24

(C)  1.04

(D)  −1.04

Answer: (C)

174. If each diagonal of a square is 14 cm long then its area is-

(A)  196 cm2

(B)  88 cm2

(C)  98 cm2

(D)  147 cm2

Answer: (C)

175. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% of them and still has 420 apples. How many apples had he in all?

(A)  588

(B)  600

(C)  700

(D)  1050

Answer: (C)

176. The value of 647× 13 + 647 × 7 is-

(A)  12940

(B)  12941

(C)  14529

(D)  14940

Answer: (A)

177. The largest of the fractions 2/3, 5/9,1/2 and 7/12 is-

(A)  2/3

(B)  5/9

(C)  7/12

(D)  1/2

Answer: (A)

178. 10 boys can dig a trench in 12 hours. How long will 8 boys take to do it?

(A)  9 hrs 36 min

(B)  15 hrs

(C)  6 hrs 40 min

(D)  13 hrs 10 min

Answer: (B)

179. If 9, x, x, 49 are in proportion then the value of x is-

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  3

(D)  21

Answer: (D)

180. Which of the following is a true statement?

(A)  −11 > −8

(B)  − 11 < − 8

(C)  −11 and – 8 can not be compared

(D)  The sum of −11 and – 8 is −3

Answer: (B)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2017 Class-VIII Held on 6 November, 2016 Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2017 Class-VIII

Held on 6 November, 2016

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)

Directions- (Q. 1-10) In each questions has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is different from others. Write the number of the term different from others on your answer sheet against the proper question.

1. 

(A)  H V B P

(B)  C W K R

(C)  K R W C

(D)  W R C K

Answer: (A)

2. 

(A)  K L N M

(B)  A B D C

(C)  P Q S R

(D)  E F G H

Answer: (D)

3.

(A)  A B C P

(B)  C B A Q

(C)  A B C R

(D)  A B C S

Answer: (B)

4.

(A)  Nitin

(B)  Akhil

(C)  Divya

(D)  Sumit

Answer: (C)

5.

(A)  Banana

(B)  Orange

(C)  Guava

(D)  Pomegranate

Answer: (C)

6.

(A)  Eye

(B)  Ear

(C)  Nose

(D)  Foot

Answer: (D)

7.

(A)  How

(B)  Where

(C)  Then

(D)  When

Answer: (C)

8.

(A)  Cow

(B)  Lion

(C)  Goat

(D)  Buffalo

Answer: (B)

9.

(A)  Book

(B)  Paper

(C)  Pencil

(D)  Pen

Answer: (A)

10.

(A)  Marigold

(B)  Lily

(C)  Rose

(D)  Lotus

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 11-20) Questions are based on number series. One terms is missing in each series and indicated by question-marks (?). Find out the missing term out of the four alternatives given below and write its number against the proper question on the answer sheet.

11. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ?

(A)  39

(B)  47

(C)  45

(D)  49

Answer: (D)

12. 4, 16, 32, 16, ?

(A)  32

(B)  64

(C)  12

(D)  48

Answer: (B)

13. 12, 3, 36, 4, 144, 5, ?

(A)  6

(B)  576

(C)  720

(D)  432

Answer: (C)

14. 1, 3, 7, 9, 13, 15, ?

(A)  19

(B)  17

(C)  21

(D)  16

Answer: (A)

15. 27, 26, 28, 25, 29, 24, ?

(A)  19

(B)  30

(C)  18

(D)  23

Answer: (B)

16. 2, 2, 4, 4, 6, 6, ?

(A)  6

(B)  9

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (D)

17. 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, ?

(A)  15

(B)  18

(C)  16

(D)  17

Answer: (C)

18. 24, 27, 25, 28, 26, ?

(A)  29

(B)  28

(C)  27

(D)  24

Answer: (A)

19. 0, 1, 4, 9, 16, ?

(A)  23

(B)  25

(C)  21

(D)  19

Answer: (B)

20. 0, 1, 8, 27, 64, ?

(A)  69

(B)  80

(C)  81

(D)  125

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. 21-30) There are four terms in each questions. The terms left symbol : : have some relationship as the terms of the left to symbol : : out of the four one terms is missing which is one of the alternatives given below, find out the correct alternative and write its number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet.

21. length : metre : : weight : ?

(A)  Light

(B)  Heavy

(C)  Gram

(D)  Tall

Answer: (C)

22. Poison : Nectar : : Death ?

(A)  Old

(B)  Childhood

(C)  Youth

(D)  Life

Answer: (D)

23. Holi : Colour : : Diwali : ?

(A)  Festival

(B)  Light

(C)  Gamble

(D)  November

Answer: (B)

24. Hope : Future : : Memory : ?

(A)  Past

(B)  Forgetting

(C)  Present

(D)  Remembering

Answer: (A)

25. Film : Director : : Newspaper : ?

(A)  Printing

(B)  Advertisement

(C)  Editor

(D)  Correspondent

Answer: (C)

26. War : Death : : Smoke : ?

(A)  Army

(B)  Enemy

(C)  Health

(D)  Pollution

Answer: (D)

27. Fuel : Engine : : Food : ?

(A)  Power

(B)  Blood

(C)  Stomach

(D)  Body

Answer: (D)

28. Mountain : Valley : : Genius : ?

(A)  Brain

(B)  Intelligence

(C)  Think

(D)  Bud

Answer: (B)

29. In : Out : : Above : ?

(A)  Below

(B)  Between

(C)  Right

(D)  Left

Answer: (A)

30. Country : President : : State : ?

(A)  Minister

(B)  Citizen

(C)  Chief Minister

(D)  Governor

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q.31-40) Questions are based on definite series. In given questions some symbols are missing shown by (−). The missing symbols are given in proper sequence as one of the four alternatives given under each question. Find out the correct alternative and write number on the answer sheet against the question number.

31. ccd _ ccc _ ddc _

(A)  dcc

(B)  cdd

(C)  dcd

(D)  ccd

Answer: (A)

32. _ _ bcd _ _ cb _ bc

(A)  bcccb

(B)  ccbcb

(C)  bccbc

(D)  cbbcc

Answer: (C)

33. cd _ _ _ d ddcc _

(A)  dcddc

(B)  dcccd

(C)  cdccd

(D)  cddcd

Answer: (B)

34. _ _ nmnn _ mnm _ _

(A)  nnmnm

(B)  nmmmn

(C)  mnmnn

(D)  nmnnn

Answer: (D)

35. _abb _ bba _ b _ b

(A)  bbaa

(B)  baba

(C)  bbab

(D)  abba

Answer: (B)

36. _ abaaaba _ a _ a

(A)  aba

(B)  aab

(C)  bab

(D)  abb

Answer: (B)

37. _ aabb _ abba _ b

(A)  aba

(B)  bba

(C)  abb

(D)  baa

Answer: (D)

38. ba _ _ baabba _ b

(A)  aba

(B)  bba

(C)  baa

(D)  aaa

Answer: (A)

39. _ baa _ aab _ a _ a

(A)  baab

(B)  abab

(C)  aabb

(D)  aaba

Answer: (B)

40. aa _ ab _ _ aaa _ a

(A)  aabb

(B)  baaa

(C)  aaab

(D)  abab

Answer: (C)

41. If in a code language KANPUR is written as 11 1 14 16 21 18. What will be the code of UNNAO?

(A)  15 1 14 14 21

(B)  14 21 14 1 15

(C)  21 14 14 1 15

(D)  1 14 14 21 15

Answer: (C)

42. If C = 3 and MOVER = 73, then COVER = ?

(A)  36

(B)  54

(C)  49

(D)  63

Answer: (D)

43. If BUTTER is coded 135579, then what will be the code of RUBBER?

(A)  97 11 39

(B)  93 11 79

(C)  19 31 79

(D)  97 13 91

Answer: (B)

44. If ZEAL is coded 1222615, then what will be the code of REAL ?

(A)  9 22 26 1 5

(B)  22 26 1 59

(C)  26 22 9 15

(D)  15 26 2 29

Answer: (A)

45. If 15 55 18 21 20 means MEERUT then what does indicate 14 21 16 21 18 ?

(A)  R U P U N

(B)  N P R U U

(C)  U U R P N

(D)  N U P U R

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 46-50) There are equations that have become wrong due to wrong order of sings. Choose the correct order of signs from the four alternatives given below so that equations become right. Write its alternative number on your answer sheet against the corresponding question number.

46. 10 + 8 + 30 = 50

(A)  ÷ + =

(B)  − × =

(C)  × − =

(D)  × + =

Answer: (C)

47. 36 = 6 × 3 – 3

(A) × + =

(B)  ÷ × =

(C)  − + =

(D)  × ÷ =

Answer: (D)

48. 24 = 6 + 7 – 28

(A)  × + =

(B)  ÷ × =

(C)  − + =

(D)  × ÷ =

Answer: (B)

49. 21 = 4 × 8 ÷ 17

(A)  + − =

(B)  − × =

(C)  ÷ − =

(D)  × + =

Answer: (A)

50. 28 = 4 × 2 + 5

(A)  + − =

(B)  × + =

(C)  ÷ − =

(D)  − + =

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 51-55) Questions are based on following diagram in which small triangle represents teachers, Circle represents graduates and rectangle represents member of Parliament, big triangle represents politicians. Write the correct alternative number on your answer sheet against the question number.

51. Indicate the members of Parliament who are graduate and teachers also-

(A)  G

(B)  H

(C)  L

(D)  C

Answer: (B)

52. Which Letters do represent Politicians who are neither graduates nor teacher?

(A)  A and B

(B)  E and A

(C)  B and G

(D)  C and D

Answer: (A)

53. Name such politician who are not members of Parliament-

(A)  AC

(B)  HB

(C)  ADLC

(D)  CLHG

Answer: (C)

54. Name such graduates or teachers who are not Politicians-

(A)  C and G

(B)  C and D

(C)  F and E

(D)  E and B

Answer: (C)

55. Indicate such graduates who are politicians and teacher also-

(A)  L and H

(B)  D and L

(C)  A and F

(D)  L and C

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 56-60) The following questions are based on the information given below read the information carefully and find out the correct answer from the four alternative and write its alternative number of your answer sheet against the proper question number-

   In a school there are five teachers. Ramesh and Suresh are teaching Hindi and English Suresh and Mahesh are teaching English and Geography. Ganesh and Ramesh are teaching Mathematics and Hindi. Dinesh and Suresh are teaching History and Civics.

56. Who among the teachers is teaching maximum number of subject?

(A)  Mahesh

(B)  Dinesh

(C)  Ganesh

(D)  Suresh

Answer: (D)

57. Which of the following pains is teaching both Geography and Hindi?

(A)  Ramesh and Suresh

(B)  Mahesh and Ganesh

(C)  Dinesh and Suresh

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (D)

58. More than two teachers are teaching which subject?

(A)  Mathematics and Geography

(B)  History and Civics

(C)  English and Hindi

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

59. Ganesh, Suresh and Ramesh are teaching which of the following subjects?

(A)  Only Hindi

(B)  Only English

(C)  Hind and English

(D)  English and Geography

Answer: (A)

60. Who among the teachers is teaching less than two subjects?

(A)  Ramesh

(B)  Suresh

(C)  Ganesh

(D)  There is not such teacher

Answer: (D)

61. A person is going towards south from his home by cycle then he turns to the right and again turn to the right how in which direction is he going?

(A)  West

(B)  North

(C)  East

(D)  South

Answer: (B)

62. A person goes 5 km towards south from school then he goes 2 km. after turning towards South. Again he turns towards South and goes 5 km. Then he turns left and goes 8 km. How is he far away from school?

(A)  22 km

(B)  7 km

(C)  13 km

(D)  10 km

Answer: (*)

63. A man faces towards North. Turning to his right the walks 10 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 15 metres. Next he moves 10 metres to south. He then turns to south again and walks 25 metres. Finally he turns to south and moves 10 metres. In which direction is he now from starting point?

(A)  South – West

(B)  North – West

(C)  South – East

(D)  South – West

Answer: (C)

64. Mohan walks 4 km towards North then he walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point?

(A)  5 km North – East

(B)  5 km North – West

(C)  7 km South – East

(D)  7 km South – West

Answer: (A)

65. A man stars walking straight towards East. After walking 50 metres he turns to the left and walks 10 metres straight. Again he turns to the left walks a distance of 30 metres, again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 10 metres. How far is he from starting point?

(A)  100 metres

(B)  90 metres

(C)  60 metres

(D)  20 metres

Answer: (D)

66. Pointing to a photograph a man said, “I have no brother or sister but this photograph belongs to which person that person’s father is son of my father.” Whose photograph is it?

(A)  His father’s

(B)  His daughter’s

(C)  His own

(D)  His niece’s

Answer: (C)

67. Mohan introduces Reena as the daughter of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Reena related to Mohan?

(A)  Daughter-in-law

(B)  Mother-in-law

(C)  Cousin

(D)  Aunt

Answer: (C)

68. Pointing to a person Prakash said, “He is the brother of my uncle’s daughter. Who is the man to Prakash?

(A)  Uncle

(B)  Nephew

(C)  Brother-in-law

(D)  Cousin

Answer: (D)

69. Pointing to a girl A said to B, “She is the daughter of the only son of my father’s wife.” How is the girl related to A?

(A)  Mother

(B)  Daughter

(C)  Sister

(D)  Niece

Answer: (B)

70. If x is sister of the son of y’s son. How is x related to y?

(A)  Grand daughter

(B)  Sister

(C)  Grand mother

(D)  Mother

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 71-75) In the questions numbers are placed in the figure on the basis of some rules, one place is vacant which is indicated as (?) find out correct alternative to replace the question-mark (?) and write its number against the proper question number of your answer sheet.

71.

(A)  125

(B)  325

(C)  225

(D)  100

Answer: (C)

72. 

(A)  4

(B)  5

(C)  6

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

73. 

(A)  16

(B)  12

(C)  8

(D)  6

Answer: (D)

74. 

(A)  17

(B)  27

(C)  18

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

75. 

(A)  126

(B)  621

(C)  114

(D)  156

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 76-81) Read the following question carefully. On the basis of the given details choose the correct alternative of question and write it number against the proper question on the answer sheet.

76. A person has four pairs of sock of different colours. If he has to search these sock sin the dark then how many minimum socks will be picked up so that at least two socks can be found of the same colour-

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  7

(D)  5

Answer: (D)

77. Seventeen books are piled over one another. If counting is made from top of 6th book, then what will be the no. of that book from the bottom?

(A)  10

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  13

Answer: (C)

78. Hemant has four times (quadrupee) money in comparison to Shishir. Both have a total amount of Three Hundred Ten Rupees. Find out the amount of Shishir-

(A)  Rs 61

(B)  Rs 62

(C)  Rs 60

(D)  Rs 65

Answer: (B)

79. If price of three and a half meter cloth is Rs 42. Then what will be the price of five and a half meter cloth?

(A)  Rs 66

(B)  Rs 67

(C)  Rs 61

(D)  Rs 60

Answer: (A)

80. At present Dipu is 15 years old and his brother is 20 years old. Find out the age of Dipu at the time when his brother will be 35 years old-

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  20

(D)  35

Answer: (B)

81. At present the age of Ram is 10 years and the age of Sita is 18 years after how many years the combined age of both persons will be 48 years?

(A)  5

(B)  10

(C)  15

(D)  24

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 82-90) In each of the following question there is some similarity in the three figures given on the left side and fourth column is marked by (?) on the right side four figures are given among them only one figure follows the some similarity. Write the number of correct alternative figure on your answer sheet which can be replaced in the column of the left side.

82. 

Answer: (B)

83. 

Answer: (D)

84. 

Answer: (D)

85. 

Answer: (B)

86. 

Answer: (B)

87. 

Answer: (B)

88. 

Answer: (A)

89. 

Answer: (D)

90. 

Answer: (A)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT

Science

91. The light year is the unit of-

(A)  distance

(B)  time

(C)  intensity of light

(D)  mass

Answer: (A)

92. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

(A)  energy

(B)  momentum

(C)  work

(D)  distance

Answer: (D)

93. The unit of electromotive force is-

(A)  joule

(B)  coulomb

(C)  joule per coulomb

(D)  none of these

Answer: (C)

94. The maximum density of the water is at the temperature-

(A)  100°C

(B)  4°C

(C)  0°C

(D)  −4°C

Answer: (B)

95. In which of the following the kinetic energy does not exist-

(A)  fired bullet

(B)  flowing water

(C)  impact from number

(D)  stretched bow

Answer: (D)

96. If the velocity of a moving body become double then the kinetic energy of the body will be-

(A)  double

(B)  four times

(C)  same

(D)  three times

Answer: (B)

97. The maximum speed of sound would be in-

(A)  air

(B)  vacuum

(C)  water

(D)  steel

Answer: (D)

98. In a conducting wire, 10 coulomb electric charge is flowing till 2 second, the current flowing in conductor is

(A)  5 ampere

(B)  20 ampere

(C)  10 ampere

(D)  2 ampere

Answer: (A)

99. An object is placed at the focus of convex lens. Its image is formed at-

(A)  focus

(B)  infinite

(C)  centre of curvature

(D)  2 F

Answer: (B)

100. By the virtue of which the sinked stick in the water kept in the container seems to be bended-

(A)  reflection

(B)  refraction

(C)  scattering

(D)  none of these

Answer: (B)

101. The inventor of X-rays is-

(A)  Hopkins

(B)  Marconi

(C)  Roentgon

(D)  Morse

Answer: (C)

102. The resistance of an ideal ammeter is-

(A)  Zero

(B)  One

(C)  Less than

(D)  Infinity

Answer: (A)

103. In dry cell which type of energy exists-

(A)  Mechanical energy

(B)  Electrical energy

(C)  Chemical energy

(D)  Electromagnetic energy

Answer: (C)

104. Internet explorer is-

(A)  Website

(B)  I.S.P

(C)  Browser

(D)  Hardware

Answer: (C)

105. The number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of 88Ra226 are-

(A)  138 and 88 

(B)  88 and 138

(C)  226 and 88

(D)  88 and 226

Answer: (A)

106. The crystalline carbon is-

(A)  Diamond

(B)  Coal

(C)  Kajal

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

107. The non-renewable source of energy is-

(A)  Air

(B)  Water

(C)  Coal

(D)  Biogas

Answer: (C)

108. Calamine is the ore of-

(A)  Iron

(B)  Copper

(C)  Lead

(D)  Zinc

Answer: (D)

109. The oH value of pure water is-

(A)  6.4

(B)  6.6

(C)  7

(D)  7.4

Answer: (C)

110. In the exothermic reaction-

(A)  Heat is absorbed

(B)  Heat is evolved

(C)  Heat doesn’t change

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

111. Substance, which can give proton to another substance is

(A)  Acid

(B)  Base

(C)  Compound

(D)  Mixture

Answer: (A)

112. The substance which produce foam in soap is-

(A)  Sodium silicate

(B)  Resin

(C)  Carbolic acid

(D)  Caustic soda

Answer: (A)

113. Metal, which is liquid at normal temperature, is-

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Iron

(C)  Bromein

(D)  Water

Answer: (A)

114. Salt-cake is-

(A)  Na2CO3

(B)  Na2SO4

(C)  NaHCO3

(D)  NH4Cl

Answer: (B)

115. The roots are developed through-

(A)  Plumule

(B)  Radicle

(C)  Stem

(D)  Leaves

Answer: (B)

116. In the ripend mango the edible structural part is-

(A)  Pericarp

(B)  Mesocarp

(C)  Endocarp

(D)  Epicarp

Answer: (B)

117. Which of the following is an example of tissue?

(A)  Brain

(B)  Blood

(C)  Liver

(D)  Stomach

Answer: (B)

118. AIDS occurs due to-

(A)  Bacteria

(B)  Moth

(C)  Virus

(D)  Protozoa

Answer: (C)

119. Which of the following is not the digestive enzymes?

(A)  Pepsin

(B)  Renin

(C)  Insulin

(D)  Amelepsin

Answer: (C)

120. The universal acceptor blood group is-

(A)  A

(B)  B

(C)  AB

(D)  O

Answer: (C)

121. The drug used in stomach ache is-

(A)  Antibiotic

(B)  Antipyretic

(C)  Antispasmodic

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

122. Pulmonary veins open in-

(A)  Right auricle

(B)  Left auricle

(C)  Right ventricle

(D)  Left ventricle

Answer: (B)

123. Which of the following is helpful in clotting of blood?

(A)  Red blood Corpuscles

(B)  White blood Corpuscles

(C)  Plasma

(D)  Platelates

Answer: (D)

124. The number of incisor teeth in every jaw is-

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  16

Answer: (D)

125. Medicine chlorelin is made from-

(A)  Fungus

(B)  Bacteria

(C)  Algae

(D)  Virus

Answer: (C)

Social Science

126. The author of ‘Mrichhkatikam’ is-

(A)  Shoodraka

(B)  Al-Baruni

(C)  Kalhada

(D)  Baanbhatta

Answer: (A)

127. In 1539, which battle was fought between Humayun and Shershah Suri?

(A)  Battle of Kannauj

(B)  Battel of Kalinjar

(C)  Third battle of Panipat

(D)  Battle of Chausa

Answer: (D)

128. The Commander in Chief of Siraj-ud-daula was-

(A)  Meer Kasim

(B)  Meerjafar

(C)  Meer Hasan

(D)  Meer Abbas

Answer: (B)

129. Which emperor shifted his capital from ‘Murshidabad’ to ‘Munger’-

(A)  Shuja-ud-daula

(B)  Shah Alam

(C)  Meer Kasim

(D)  Shershah Suri

Answer: (C)

130. Who was the Minister for Finance and Revenue in the court of Akbar-

(A)  Abul Fazal

(B)  Raja Todermal

(C)  Raja Maansingh

(D)  Hakeem Human

Answer: (B)

131. Which of the following Muslim ruler was popular as ‘Lakh-Baskh’?

(A)  Muhammad-Bin-Tughlak

(B)  Alauddin Khilji

(C)  Mahmood Gaznavi

(D)  Kutubuddin Aibak

Answer: (D)

132. Which famous Hindu Temple was invaded by Mahmood Gaznavi ?

(A)  Konark Temple

(B)  Jagannath Temple

(C)  Tanjaur Temple

(D)  Somnath Temple

Answer: (D)

133. The system of ‘Dual Government’ was introduced in Bengal by-

(A)  Lord Curzon

(B)  Lord Ripan

(C)  Robert Clive

(D)  Lord Dalhousie

Answer: (C)

134. ‘Panch Mahal’ located in Fatehpur Sikri’ was built by-

(A)  Babar

(B)  Akbar

(C)  Shahjahan

(D)  Jahangeer

Answer: (B)

135. Famous English ambassador ‘Sir Thomas Roe’ visited the court of-

(A)  Akbar

(B)  Jahangeer

(C)  Shahjahan

(D)  Auranzeb   

Answer: (B)

136. In Lucknow’ India’s struggle for freedom was led by-

(A)  Begum Hazrat Mahal

(B)  Noor Jahan

(C)  Rani Laxmi Bai

(D)  Begum Zeenat Mahal

Answer: (A)

137. Which of the following was established by Pandita ‘Ramabai’ ?

(A)  Satya Shodhak Samaj

(B)  Scientific Society

(C)  Sharda-Sadan

(D)  Theosophical Society

Answer: (C)

138. Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

(A)  Mahatma Gandhi

(B)  Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

(C)  Firoz Gandhi

(D)  Rajeev Gandhi

Answer: (B)

139. ‘Gadar Party’ was formed under the leadership of-

(A)  Lala Hardayal

(B)  Arvind Ghosh

(C)  Bhagwan Singh

(D)  Prafull Chaki

Answer: (A)

140. Who said, “Swaraj is my birth right, and I shall have it.”

(A)  Chandrashekhar Azad

(B)  Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(C)  Swami Vivekanand

(D)  Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer: (B)

141. ‘Right to Education’ was added to fundamental rights in year-

(A)  1947

(B)  1950

(C)  2002

(D)  2014

Answer: (C)

142. The chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee’ of Indian Constituent Assembly was-

(A)  Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(B)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

(D)  H. V. Kamath

Answer: (A)

143. Which of the following is a subject of Union list?

(A)  Medical

(B)  Police

(C)  Education

(D)  Defence

Answer: (D)

144. Who serves as ‘Chairperson’ of the ‘Rajya Sabha’?

(A)  President

(B)  Vice-President

(C)  Prime-Minister

(D)  Home-Minister

Answer: (B)

145. Retirement age of the Supreme Court Judges is-

(A)  70 years

(B)  65 years

(C)  60 years

(D)  55 years

Answer: (B)

146. ‘F.I.R’ is the abbreviation of-

(A)  First Information Report

(B)  First Information Record

(C)  Fresh Information of Reservation

(D)  First Information of Robbery

Answer: (A)

147. ‘Human Rights Day’ is Celebrated on-

(A)  5 June

(B)  27 November

(C)  1 December

(D)  10 December

Answer: (D)

148. The ‘Supreme Commander’ of Indian Army is-

(A)  Prime-Minister

(B)  President

(C)  Admiral

(D)  General

Answer: (B)

149. Which of the following United Nation’s agency works in the field of ‘Public Health’?

(A)  UNESCO

(B)  World Bank

(C)  W.H.O

(D)  F.A.O.

Answer: (C)

150. Which of the following is not an example of ‘Natural Disaster’?

(A)  Flood

(B)  Train accident

(C)  Earthquakes

(D)  Drought

Answer: (B)

151. The Capital of Union territory ‘Lakshdweep’ is-

(A)  Kavratti

(B)  Port Blair

(C)  Daman

(D)  Silwasa

Answer: (A)

152. ‘Mahogni’, ‘Rosewood’ and ‘Rubber’ trees are found in-

(A)  Tropical Deciduous Forest

(B)  Tropical Rain Forest

(C)  Mountain Forest

(D)  Tidal or Mangrove Forest

Answer: (B)

153. Which of the following ‘National Park’ is located in the Lakhimpur Kheeri district?

(A)  Kajiranga

(B)  Bandipur

(C)  Dudhwa

(D)  Simplipal

Answer: (C)

154. ‘Granite’ is the example of-

(A)  Igneous rocks

(B)  Sedimentary rocks

(C)  Metamorphic rocks

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

155. ‘Vesuvius’ volcano is located in-

(A)  India

(B)  United State of America

(C)  Japan

(D)  Italy

Answer: (D)

156. ‘Meanders’ are formed by-

(A)  Winds

(B)  Waterfalls

(C)  Rivers

(D)  Sea waves

Answer: (C)

157. Which of the following country is the largest producer of Coffee?

(A)  China

(B)  Bhutan

(C)  Noway

(D)  Brazil

Answer: (D)

158. ‘TSEE-TSEE’ is a kind of-

(A)  Lizard

(B)  Sheep

(C)  Poisonous fly

(D)  Squirrel

Answer: (C)

159. India’s first ‘Atomic Power Plant’ was establishment in-

(A)  Kalpakkam

(B)  Tarapur

(C)  Narora

(D)  Rawatbhata

Answer: (B)

160. ‘Sonara’ is the advanced seed variety of-

(A)  Wheat

(B)  Rice

(C)  Maize

(D)  Sugercane

Answer: (A)

Mathematics

161. The product of two rational number is 15. If one number is (−10), the number will be-

(A)  −15/−10

(B)  2/3

(C)  −2/3

(D)  −3/2

Answer: (D)

162. The greatest positive integer is-

(A)  0

(B)  1 crore

(C)  100 crore

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

163. If the circumference of the circle is 44 cm, then its area will be (π = 22/7)_

(A)  98 cm2

(B)  49 cm2

(C)  154 cm2

(D)  132 cm2

Answer: (C)

164. The three dimensional shape in the following is-

(A)  Square

(B)  Rectangle

(C)  Triangle

(D)  Cuboid

Answer: (D)

165. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 7. If 27 is added to the number, digits are reversed. The number is-

(A)  25

(B)  52

(C)  43

(D)  34

Answer: (A)

166. The solution of equation 3(x + 3) – 2(x – 1) = 5(x – 5) is_

(A)  6

(B)  9

(C)  8

(D)  12

Answer: (B)

167. The area of rectangular plot having length 48 m and diagonal 50 m is-

(A)  14 m2

(B)  700 m2

(C)  672 m2

(D)  2400 m2

Answer: (C)

168. For given data, frequency 5 is represented in tally mark as-

Answer: (D)

169. The values of x and y in the given figure are respectively-

(A)  105°, 65°

(B)  75°, 40°

(C)  65°, 105°

(D)  40°, 75°

Answer: (A)

170. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 35 and 525 respectively. If one number is 175, then the other number is-

(A)  135

(B)  75

(C)  150

(D)  105

Answer: (D)

171. If an amount becomes 2600 in 6 years with simple interest at the rate of 5% per annum, then the amount is-

(A)  Rs 1500

(B)  Rs 2200

(C)  Rs 2000

(D)  Rs 1800

Answer: (C)

172. The expression x2 – x – 6 is equivalent-

(A)  (x – 2) (x – 3)

(B)  (x – 3) (x + 2)

(C)  (x + 2) (x + 3)

(D)  (x + 1) (x – 3)

Answer: (B)

173. The sum of all prime number between 60 and 80 in-

(A)  278

(B)  280

(C)  351

(D)  414

Answer: (C)

174. How many whole number satisfy a × a = a ?

(A)  one

(B)  two

(C)  three

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

175. The shares of Aman and Amit in 1250 when divided in the ratio 2 : 3, are respectively-

(A)  Rs 750, 500

(B)  Rs 700, 550

(C)  Rs 400, 850

(D)  Rs 500, 750

Answer: (D)

176. The mode of data 2, 2, 3, 3, 2, 5, 4, 5, 5, 8, 6, 6, 2 is-

(A)  2

(B)  2 and 5

(C)  5

(D)  3 and 6

Answer: (A)

177. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 165°, then the number of its sides is-

(A)  15

(B)  24

(C)  12

(D)  18

Answer: (B)

178. Simplified value of is-

(A)  10

(B)  2

(C)  5

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

179. First three terms of a proportion are 3, 5 and 21 respectively. The fourth term is-

(A)  35

(B)  28

(C)  42

(D)  23

Answer: (A)

180. In the figure, if ∠AOC = 110°, then ∠ABC is-

(A)  70°

(B)  65°

(C)  125°

(D)  25°

Answer: (C)

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2018 Class-VIII Held on 5 November, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

by

State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam-2018 Class-VIII

Held on 5 November, 2017

Part-I

General Mental Ability Test (GMAT)

Directions-(Q. 1-10) In each of the following questions, a series of numbers is given which follow certain rules. One of the number is missing. Find out the number from the alternatives given below and mark it on  your answer-sheet as directed.

1. 2 – 0 – 4 – 0 – 16 – 0 ……

(A)  32

(B)  64

(C)  168

(D)  256

Answer: (D)

2. 2, 6, 12, 20, …….., 42, 56, 72, 90

(A)  28

(B)  30

(C)  35

(D)  39

Answer: (B)

3. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ……

(A)  45

(B)  50

(C)  65

(D)  63

Answer: (C)

4. 6, 9, 15, 27, …….99

(A)  77

(B)  51

(C)  67

(D)  81

Answer: (B)

5. 121, 112, ……, 97, 91, 86

(A)  104

(B)  102

(C)  107

(D)  105

Answer: (A)

6. 8, 4, 12, 6, 18, ……… 27

(A)  22

(B)  15

(C)  9

(D)  11

Answer: (C)

7. 4, 7, 12, …….., 28, 39

(A)  21

(B)  19

(C)  23

(D)  25

Answer: (B)

8. b, e, d, f, ?, h, j, ?, l

(A)  i. m

(B)  m, i

(C)  I, n

(D)  j, m

Answer: (A)

9. U, Q, ?, L

(A)  I

(B)  K

(C)  M

(D)  N

Answer: (D)

10. Y, S, U, Q, Q, ?, ?

(A)  O, M

(B)  N, J

(C)  J, R

(D)  M, L

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. 11-20) Study the pattern of numbers in the following questions and select the missing numbers in place of question mark (?). Mark the correct alternative on your answer-sheet as directed.

11. 

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  5

Answer: (C)

12. 

(A)  18

(B)  26

(C)  24

(D)  15

Answer: (B)

13. 

(A)  38

(B)  37

(C)  36

(D)  35

Answer: (A)

14. 

(A)  7

(B)  12

(C)  8

(D)  6

Answer: (D)

15. 

(A)  7

(B)  12

(C)  9

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

16. 

(A)  7

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

17. 

(A)  9

(B)  11

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

18. 

(A)  88

(B)  64

(C)  72

(D)  68

Answer: (B)

19. 

(A)  6

(B)  5

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

20. 

(A)  39

(B)  37

(C)  32

(D)  44

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 21-25) Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.

21. How many doctors are neither artists nor players?

(A)  17

(B)  22

(C)  30

(D)  25

Answer: (A)

22. How many doctors are both players and artists?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  8

(D)  17

Answer: (B)

23. How many artists are players?

(A)  17

(B)  25

(C)  30

(D)  22

Answer: (D)

24. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?

(A)  17

(B)  30

(C)  25

(D)  22

Answer: (C)

25. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?

(A)  25

(B)  30

(C)  8

(D)  22

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 26-40) In each of the following questions, find the figure from the answer-set (i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4) which will complete the figure given in the problem set (i.e., X)

26. 

Answer: (B)

27. 

Answer: (A)

28. 

Answer: (C)

29. 

Answer: (C)

30. 

Answer: (C)

31. 

Answer: (D)

32. 

Answer: (D)

33. 

Answer: (B)

34. 

Answer: (A)

35. 

Answer: (B)

36. 

Answer: (B)

37. 

Answer: (C)

38. 

Answer: (C)

39. 

Answer: (C)

40. 

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) In each of the following questions four groups of letters are given. Three of them are alike in some manner, while one is different. Find the odd-man-out and mark it on your answer-sheet directed.

41.

(A)  QPO

(B)  DCA

(C)  KJI

(D)  NML

Answer: (B)

42.

(A)  JAK

(B)  KBL

(C)  LCM

(D)  NDM

Answer: (D)

43.

(A)  ELFA

(B)  GLHA

(C)  ILJA

(D)  MLNA

Answer: (D)

44.

(A)  KPD

(B)  LOE

(C)  MQF

(D)  NMG

Answer: (B)

45.

(A)  AXUP

(B)  ONKN

(C)  GFKD

(D)  VSPM

Answer: (B)

46.

(A)  RAB

(B)  SCD

(C)  TEF

(D)  UHI

Answer: (B)

47.

(A)  ACEG

(B)  MOQS

(C)  GHJL

(D)  RTUX

Answer: (C)

48.

(A)  CYWZ

(B)  EYYZ

(C)  GYBZ

(D)  IYCZ

Answer: (B)

49.

(A)  MRNS

(B)  ORPS

(C)  QRRS

(D)  SYTZ

Answer: (C)

50.

(A)  P3C

(B)  R5F

(C)  T8I

(D)  V12L

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 51-60) In each of the following questions there is a certain relation between two numbers given on the left side of ::, Choose the correct alternative in place of ‘?’ So that the same relationship is maintained on the right side of ::. Mark the correct alternative on your answer-sheet as directed.

51. 3 : 11 :: 7 : ?

(A)  25

(B)  51

(C)  48

(D)  28

Answer: (B)

52. 1 : 1 :: 25 : ?

(A)  26

(B)  125

(C)  240

(D)  625

Answer: (D)

53. 49 : 81 :: 100 : ?

(A)  64

(B)  144

(C)  169

(D)  188

Answer: (B)

54. 121 : 12 :: 25 : ?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  6

(D)  7

Answer: (C)

55. 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?

(A)  33

(B)  45

(C)  67

(D)  66

Answer: (D)

56. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ?

(A)  180

(B)  206

(C)  216

(D)  196

Answer: (C)

57. 17 : 52 :: 1 : ?

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  5

(D)  51

Answer: (B)

58. 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?

(A)  901

(B)  1009

(C)  9889

(D)  9999

Answer: (D)

59. 25 : 37 :: 49 : ?

(A)  65

(B)  56

(C)  60

(D)  41

Answer: (A)

60. 5 : 36 :: 6 : ?

(A)  48

(B)  49

(C)  50

(D)  56

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 61-70) In the given questions below, A dice has been shown in more than one form. One which 1 to 6 numbers or A to F alphabets are printed on its sides. Study the different forms carefully in the given questions and answer them accordingly.

61. One the dice given below, Number 5 is at the bottom. Which number will appear on its upper surface?

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

62. Below two positions of dice are shown. If there is ‘B’ in the bottom, then which alphabet will be on the top?

(A)  D

(B)  B

(C)  E

(D)  F

Answer: (C)

63. Two positions of a dice with its surfaces are shown below. When the surface ‘D’ touch the bottom, what surface will be on top?

(A)  D

(B)  A

(C)  E

(D)  F

Answer: (B)

64. Two positions of a dice are shown. When ‘E’ is at the top which alphabet will be at bottom?

(A)  D

(B)  C

(C)  E

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

65. On the dice given below, mention the number which appears on the opposite side of number 4?

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

66. From the positions of a dice which are shown below, which letter will be on the face opposite to face with ‘1’?

(A)  5

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  6

Answer: (B)

67. Below four positions of a Dice is shown. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face with symbol ‘C’?

(A)  F

(B)  E

(C)  B

(D)  D

Answer: (A)

68. Two positions of dice are shown below. What number will appear on the face opposite to the face with ‘5’?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

69. On the dice given below, mention the number which appears on the opposite side of number 2?

(A)  4

(B)  1

(C)  5

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

70. From the positions of a dice given below. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to face with ‘1’?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. 71-80) In each of the following questions, four words are given. Three of them are alike in some manner, while one is different. Find the odd-man-out and mark it on your answer-

71.

(A)  India

(B)  Asia

(C)  Antarctica

(D)  Australia

Answer: (B)

72.

(A)  Hard disk

(B)  RAM

(C)  Monitor

(D)  Windows XP

Answer: (D)

73.

(A)  Tyre

(B)  Speed

(C)  Clutch

(D)  Brake

Answer: (B)

74.

(A)  Cricket

(B)  Volleyball

(C)  Billiards

(D)  Fencing

Answer: (D)

75.

(A)  Teacher

(B)  Student

(C)  Principal

(D)  Lecturer

Answer: (B)

76.

(A)  Lion

(B)  Fox

(C)  Deer

(D)  Tiger

Answer: (C)

77.

(A)  Banana

(B)  Apple

(C)  Papaya

(D)  Mango

Answer: (D)

78.

(A)  Run

(B)  Jump

(C)  Hear

(D)  Walk

Answer: (C)

79.

(A)  Nail

(B)  Pin

(C)  Hammer

(D)  Screw

Answer: (A)

80.

(A)  Butterfly

(B)  Cockroach

(C)  Housefly

(D)  Spider

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 81-90) Study the following questions and answer accordingly.

81. If – means ×, × means +, + means ÷ and ÷ means -, then 40 × 12 + 3 – 6 ÷ 60 = ?

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  10

(D)  32

Answer: (A)

82. If + means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and × means −, then 36 + 12 – 3 ÷ 5 × 2 = ?

(A)  4

(B)  12

(C)  16

(D)  24

Answer: (B)

83. If + means ÷, × means −, ÷ means × and – means +, then 8 + 6 × 4 ÷ 3 – 4 = ?

(A)  40/5

(B)  20/3

(C)  30/4

(D)  15/4

Answer: (B)

84. If × means ÷, − means ×, ÷ means + and + means −, then (3 – 15 ÷ 19) × 8 + 6 = ?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  8

(D)  7

Answer: (B)

85. If + means ×, ÷ means −, × means ÷ and – means +, then 4 + 11 ÷ 5 – 55 = ?

(A)  72

(B)  84

(C)  94

(D)  67

Answer: (C)

86. If ‘p’ means ‘−’, ‘q’ means ‘+’, ‘r’ means ‘÷’ and ‘s’ means ‘×’, then 16 p 4 q 5 s 8 r 2 = ?

(A)  −8

(B)  32

(C)  20

(D)  12

Answer: (B)

87. If ‘P’ means ‘÷’, ‘Q’ means ‘−’, ‘R’ means ‘×’ and ‘T’ means ‘+’, then

24T16Q32P8R4

(A)  4

(B)  32

(C)  40

(D)  24

Answer: (D)

88. If ‘M’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘+’, ‘T’ means ‘−’ and ‘K’ means ‘×’, then

20R16K5M10T8 = ?

(A)  20

(B)  36

(C)  12

(D)  28

Answer: (A)

89. If ‘Q’ means ‘−’, ‘B’ means ‘×’, ‘A’ means ‘÷’ and ‘F’ means ‘+’, then

12B20A4Q10F30 = ?

(A)  60

(B)  70

(C)  80

(D)  90

Answer: (C)

90. If 1 = 1, 2 = 4, 3 = 10 and 4 = 22, then 5 = ?

(A)  46

(B)  32

(C)  34

(D)  42

Answer: (D)

Part-II

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Physics

1. A 9 kg mass and a 4 k mass have same kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momentum is :

(A)  3 : 2

(B)  2 : 3

(C)  9 : 4

(D)  4 : 9

Answer: (A)

2. Find the frequency and wavelength of a wave whose time-period is 0.05 s and speed is 200 m/s.

(A)  5 Hz, 40 m

(B)  2 Hz. 400 m

(C)  20 Hz, 10 m

(D)  20 Hz, 4000 m

Answer: (C)

3. Supersonic planes fly with speed-

(A)  Less than the speed of sound

(B)  Equal to the speed of sound

(C)  Greater than the speed of sound

(D)  Double the speed of sound

Answer: (C)

4. A man walks 8 m towards East and then 6 m towards North. His magnitude of displacement is-

(A)  10 m

(B)  14 m

(C)  2 m

(D)  zero

Answer: (A)

5. The light from sun takes 500 s to reach the earth. Taking speed of light to be 3 × 108 m/s, the sun-earth distance is-

(A)  100 million km

(B)  100 million km

(C)  200 million km

(D)  300 million km

Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following does not exist?

(A)  Single charge

(B)  Single magnetic pole

(C)  Bar magnet

(D)  Electric dipole

Answer: (B)

7. 100 nano second is-

(A)  100 s

(B)  10−9 s

(C)  1011 s

(D)  10−7 s

Answer: (D)

8. Ultrasonic waves are those waves-

(A)  which a man can hear

(B)  which a man cannot hear

(C)  which have velocity greater than the velocity of sound

(D)  which have very high intensity

Answer: (C)

9. The force of gravitation between two spheres is x, when the distance between their centres is y . If the two are immersed in water, gravitational force will be-

(A)  x/1.5           

(B)  1.5 x

(C)  x

(D)  Zero

Answer: (C)

10. At what common temperature would a piece of wood and a piece of iron appear to be equally hot or cold, when touched?

(A)  0°C

(B)  100°C

(C)  273°C

(D)  At body temperature

Answer: (D)

11. Wavelength of light is maximum for which colour?

(A)  Violet

(B)  Red

(C)  orange

(D)  Yellow

Answer: (B)

Chemistry

12. Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment led to the conclusion that-

(A)  Mass and energy are related

(B)  Mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in the nucleus

(C)  Neutrons are present in the nucleus

(D)  Atoms are electrically neutral

Answer: (B)

13. In the following reaction Phosphorous will be-

P4 + 3KOH + 3H2O → 3KH2PO2 + PH3

(A)  Only oxidized

(B)  Only reduced

(C)  Oxidized as well as reduced

(D)  Neither oxidized nor reduced

Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

(A)  Benzene

(B)  Ethane

(C)  Neopentane

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

15. NiO adopts NaCl structure. The coordination number of the Ni2+ ion is-

(A)  Six

(B)  Four

(C)  Two

(D)  One

Answer: (A)

16. Matte contains (in copper metallurgy)-

(A)  Cu2S, FeS and Silica

(B)  Cu2S, FeO and Silica

(C)  Cu2S, CuO and Silica

(D)  Cu2S, Cu2O and Silica

Answer: (A)

17. Glycerol can be purified by-

(A)  Steam distillation

(B)  Simple distillation

(C)  Vacuum distillation

(D)  Extraction with a solvent

Answer: (A)

18. Assertion-Reason Questions-

(a) If the assertion as well as reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If the assertion as well as reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) If the assertion is correct but reason is not

(d) If the reason is correct but assertion is not

Assertion : HF has low volatility.

Reason : There is a extensive hydrogen bonding in HF.

Choose the appropriate answer-

(A)  (a)

(B)  (b)

(C)  (c)

(D)  (d)

Answer: (A)

19. Which of the following properties of carbon is mainly responsible for its ability to form a large number of compounds?

(A)  Quadri-covalency

(B)  Ability to form multiple bonds

(C)  Ability to form ring compounds

(D)  Strong catenation property

Answer: (D)

20. The pH of 10−10 M H2SO4 will be almost-

(A)  4

(B)  7

(C)  6

(D)  10

Answer: (D)

21. The metal atoms presents in the vitamin B12 and chlorophyll respectively are-

(A)  Fe and Co

(B)  Fe and Mg

(C)  Co and Mg

(D)  Fe and Zn

Answer: (C)

22. The first law of thermodynamics introduces the concepts of-

(A)  Heat (q)

(B)  Energy and equivalence of heat and work

(C)  Work

(D)  Energy and equivalence of temperature and work

Answer: (D)

Biology

23. Which of the following groups of plants are known as ‘Amphibians’ in the Plant Kingdom.

(A)  Bryophytes

(B)  Pteridophytes

(C)  Algae

(D)  Planktons

Answer: (A)

24. Inside the uterus, the embryo is protected by the-

(A)  umbilical cord

(B)  fallopian tube

(C)  amniotic sac

(D)  placenta

Answer: (C)

25. Habitat destruction is usually the main cause for the loss of-

(A)  Community

(B)  Species

(C)  Ecosystem

(D)  Biodiversity

Answer: (D)

26. Group of organisms capable of interbreeding are known as-

(A)  Genus

(B)  Species

(C)  Community

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following pairs of vegetables represent the correct homologous structure.

(A)  Sweet Potato and Potato

(B)  Potato and Tomato

(C)  Radish and Carrot

(D)  Carrot and Potato

Answer: (C)

28. Our body produces specialized chemicals to fight against infection and diseases. They are known as-

(A)  Antibiotics

(B)  Antigens

(C)  Antibodies

(D)  Enzyme

Answer: (C)

29. Animals which gives birth to young ones which are similar to their parents are known as

(A)  Viviparous

(B)  Oviparous

(C)  Fissiparous

(D)  Domesticus

Answer: (A)

30. Which of the following is regarded as a link between bacteria and viruses?

(A)  Actinomycetes

(B)  Mycoplasma

(C)  Vibrio

(D)  Lysosomes

Answer: (B)

31. In the agriculture of paddy, one of the following is used as bio-fertilizer.

(A)  Green Algae

(B)  Brown Algae

(C)  Cyanobacteria

(D)  Earthworm

Answer: (A)

32. The plants, animals, microbes, soil, climate, water in place collectively refers to-

(A)  Biological Kingdom

(B)  Forest

(C)  Ecosystem

(D)  Biosphere

Answer: (C)

33. Plants growing on sand are known as-

(A)  Lithophytes

(B)  Xerophytes

(C)  Chasmophytes

(D)  Psamophytes

Answer: (D)

34. Which of the vitamin deficiency causes the cracking of lips in human-

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin K

(C)  Vitamin C

(D)  Vitamin B

Answer: (D)

35. The ability of organism to develop whole body from its fragment is known as-

(A)  Binary fission

(B)  Budding

(C)  Regeneration

(D)  Grafting

Answer: (C)

History

36. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut, India on-

(A)  1398

(B)  1495

(C)  1496

(D)  1498

Answer: (D)

37. Diu was the colony of the-

(A)  Portuguese

(B)  English

(C)  Dutch

(D)  French

Answer: (A)

38. In 1612 ………. established a trading post in Gujarat.

(A)  British

(B)  French

(C)  Spainish

(D)  Dutch

Answer: (A)

39. In 1661 the company obtained …. from Charles II.

(A)  Bombay

(B)  Madras

(C)  Kanpur

(D)  Calcutta

Answer: (A)

40. Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor of …. in 1772.

(A)  Bengal

(B)  Madras

(C)  Bombay

(D)  Delhi

Answer: (A)

41. Regulating Act was in the year of-

(A)  1573

(B)  1673

(C)  1773

(D)  1873

Answer: (C)

42. Hyder Ali was the ruler of-

(A)  Hyderabad

(B)  Mysore

(C)  Cochi

(D)  Bengal

Answer: (B)

43. The Treaty of Mangalore was in the year-

(A)  1484

(B)  1584

(C)  1684

(D)  1784

Answer: (D)

44. Who among the following leaders joined Gandhiji in the Champaran Satyagraha held on April 10, 1917?

(A)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(B)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(C)  Rajendra Prasad

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

45. In which year, first census was conducted in India?

(A)  1884

(B)  1872

(C)  1881

(D)  1856

Answer: (B)

46. What was elected the President of Indian National Congress in the Surat Session 1907 famous for Surat Split?

(A)  Dr. Rash Bihari Ghosh

(B)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(C)  Dadabhai Naoroji

(D)  Pherozeshah Mehta

Answer: (A)

47. Who among the following was the first Indian woman president to chair the Indian National Congress at Kanpur session of 1925?

(A)  Sarojini Naidu

(B)  Annie Besant

(C)  Nellie Sengupta

(D)  Indira Gandhi

Answer: (A)

Geography

48. Which of the following is not a factor of soil formation?

(A)  Climate

(B)  Organic matter

(C)  Time

(D)  Soil Texture

Answer: (C)

49. Which of the following is also called ‘Black Gold’?

(A)  Diamond

(B)  Petroleum

(C)  Coal

(D)  Graphite

Answer: (B)

50. The deposit of which of the following is found in Dead Sea?

(A)  Gypsum

(B)  Limestone

(C)  Potash

(D)  Bromine

Answer: (B)

51. Kaziranga National Park is located in-

(A)  Kashmir

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Assam

(D)  Manipur

Answer: (C)

52. Terrace farming is practised in-

(A)  Plain area

(B)  Desert area

(C)  Hilly area

(D)  Coastal area

Answer: (C)

53. Which of the following is known as Sunrise industry?

(A)  Iron and Steel

(B)  Cotton Textile

(C)  Information Technology

(D)  Sugar Industry

Answer: (C)

54. Which country is a leading producer of copper in the world?

(A)  Bolivia

(B)  Chile

(C)  Ghana

(D)  Zimbabwe

Answer: (B)

55. The population pyramid represents-

(A)  Age Composition of population

(B)  Sex Composition of population

(C)  (A) and (B) Both

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

56. Salal hydroelectric Project is located in-

(A)  Karnataka

(B)  Uttarakhand

(C)  Assam

(D)  Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: (D)

57. The Canal joining Lake Superior and Lake Huron is-

(A)  Panama Canal

(B)  Soo Canal

(C)  Suez Canal

(D)  Kiel Canal

Answer: (B)

58. Which of the following is a plantation crop?

(A)  Rice

(B)  Maize

(C)  Wheat

(D)  Tea

Answer: (D)

Civics

59. Who is the Constitutional Head of the State Government-

(A)  President

(B)  Prime Minister

(C)  Governor

(D)  Speaker of Legislative Assembly

Answer: (C)

60. The Indian Constitutional mandates that India is-

(A)  Secular

(B)  Socialist

(C)  Democratic

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

61. Adult suffrage is the basis of-

(A)  Democracy

(B)  Dictatorship

(C)  Autocracy

(D)  Communism

Answer: (A)

62. The rights guaranteed by the Constitution are called-

(A)  Government Rights

(B)  Optional Rights

(C)  Economic Rights

(D)  Fundamental Rights

Answer: (D)

63. Who convenes the joint session of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?

(A)  The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B)  The Chairman of Rajay Sabha

(C)  President

(D)  The Minister of Parliamentary affairs

Answer: (C)

64. By which of the following words, democracy is derived-

(A)  Status

(B)  Polis

(C)  Demos and Kratos

(D)  Civitas

Answer: (C)

65. Writs can be issued by-

(A)  The Supreme Court only

(B)  The High Court only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  All the courts

Answer: (C)

66. Which of the following is not an organ of Government-

(A)  Legislature

(B)  Executive

(C)  Judiciary

(D)  Election Commission of India

Answer: (D)

67. Which of the following is not a tool of direct democracy-

(A)  Recall

(B)  Initiation

(C)  Referendum

(D)  Impeachment

Answer: (D)

68. A set of fundamental rules according to which the country functions, is called-

(A)  A Law

(B)  An Amendment

(C)  A Constitution

(D)  A Preamble

Answer: (C)

69. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India retires on a attaining the age of-

(A)  60 years

(B)  62 years

(C)  65 years

(D)  70 years

Answer: (C)

70. A Unitary Government has-

(A)  single citizenship

(B)  dual citizenship

(C)  independent judiciary

(D)  division of powers

Answer: (A)

Mathematics

71. ax3 + 3x2 – 3 and 2x3 – 5x + a when divided by x – 4 leave the same remainder then a = ……

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

72. If n be the positive integer then the last two digits of 212n – 64n are-

(A)  10

(B)  01

(C)  00

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

73. If x be real then the minimum value of 2x2 – 5x – 3 is-

(A)  1.25

(B)  1.5

(C)  1.75

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

74. 

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

75. 713 + 1 is divided by 6, the remainder is-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (A)

76. If the sides of a square are increased by 10% the per cent increase in area is-

(A)  65%

(B)  67%

(C)  68%

(D)  69%

Answer: (B)

77. The average of 11 results is 30, that of first five in 25 and that of last five is 28. The value of 6th number is-

(A)  63

(B)  65

(C)  67

(D)  70

Answer: (B)

78. A persons sells an article at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it for Rs 3 more, he would have gained 25%. The cost price is-

(A)  Rs 120

(B)  Rs 125

(C)  Rs 130

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

79. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs 1.50. The sum is-

(A)  Rs 600

(B)  Rs 650

(C)  Rs 675

(D)  Rs 700

Answer: (A)

80. 300 gms. of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. The amount of sugar to be added to make it 50% in the solution is-

(A)  25 gms.

(B)  35 gms.

(C)  55 gms.

(D)  60 gms.

Answer: (D)

81. 

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

82. 

(A)  42

(B)  48

(C)  52

(D)  54

Answer: (C)

83. AB and CD are two parallel line segments. A and D are joined and a point E is taken on AD. If ∠ADC = 48°, ∠ABE = 63°, then ∠BEA = ……

(A)  65°

(B)  67°

(C)  69°

(D)  71°

Answer: (C)

84. The radius of a circle is 10 cm and the length of a chord is 16 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre is-

(A)  8 cm

(B)  6 cm

(C)  4 cm

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

85. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 6b cm. The area of the triangle is-

(A)  3b2 cm2

(B)    

(C)  

(D)    

Answer: (B)

86. If f(x) + f(1 – x) = 2, then the value of  is –

(A)  2000

(B)  2001

(C)  1998

(D)  1999

Answer: (A)

87. If a3b = abc = 180 where a, b, c are positive integers then c = …….

(A)  110

(B)  15

(C)  25

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

88. Four bells first begin to toll together and then at intervals of 6, 7, 8 and 9 secs. respectively. The number of times the bells toll together in two hours is-

(A)  10

(B)  12

(C)  14

(D)  15

Answer: (C)

89. The price of cars rises by 30% while the sales of the cars goes down by 20%. The percentage change in total revenue is-

(A)  decrease of 4%

(B)  increase of 4%

(C)  decrease of 3%

(D)  increase of 3%

Answer: (B)

90. A school has only four classes that contain 10, 20, 30 and 40 students respectively. The pass percentage of these classes are 20%, 30%, 60% and 100% respectively. The pass percentage of the entire school is-

(A)  56%

(B)  76%

(C)  34%

(D)  66%

Answer: (D)

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