Reserve Bank of India Officer Examination Held on 4-9-2016 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper and Answer Key
Reserve Bank of India Officer Exam., 2016
Held on 4-9-2016
Quantitative Aptitude
(2nd-Shift)
Directions – (Q. 1 to 5) Find the wrong number in the series ?
1. 18.3 20.6 16 22.9 13.7 2.2 11.4
(A) 2.2
(B) 16
(C) 22.9
(D) 20.6
(E) 13.7
Ans: (A)
2. 2 4 11 37 151 771 4633
(A) 151
(B) 4
(C) 37
(D) 771
(E) 11
Ans: (A)
3. 188 154 140 132 128 126 125
(A) 154
(B) 132
(C) 128
(D) 140
(E) 126
Ans: (A)
4. 391 394 399 411 431 461 503
(A) 399
(B) 411
(C) 394
(D) 461
(E) 431
Ans: (C)
5. 9 5 6 5 23 61 183
(A) 61
(B) 23
(C) 10.5
(D) 6
(E) 5
Ans: (A)
6. A, B and C are partners in a business. Their capitals are respectively Rs. 5000, Rs. 6000 and Rs. 4000. A gets 30% of the total profit for managing the business. The remaining profit is divided among three in the ratio of their capitals. In the end of the year, the profit of A is Rs. 200 more than the sum of profits of B and C. Find the total profit.
(A) Rs. 4500
(B) Rs. 5200
(C) Rs. 1800
(D) Rs. 3000
(E) Rs. 2100
Ans: (D)
7. A shopkeeper purchased 15 kg of variety A rice at Rs. x per kg and 10 kg of variety B rice at Rs. ‘x + 5’ per kg. The shopkeeper sold the whole quantity of variety A rice at 10% profit and that of variety B rice at 20% profit. The total selling price of variety A rice was Rs, 30 more than that of variety B rice. Had the two varieties been mixed and sold at an overall profit of 20%, what would have been the selling price (per kg.)
(A) Rs. 26.40
(B) Rs. 23.20
(C) Rs. 24.20
(D) Rs. 25.00
(E) Rs. 28.80
Ans: (A)
Directions- (Q. 8 to 12) In these questions, there is a question with two quantities and answer as :
(A) Qty. I : ≥ Qty II
(B) Qty. I : > Qty II
(C) Qty. I : < Qty II
(D) Qty. I = Qty. II or relationship can not be established.
(E) Qty I ≤ Qty. II
8. 1 > a > 0 > b
Quantity I :
Quantity II :
Ans: (B)
9. There are three positive numbers a, b and c. .The average of a and b is less than the average of b and c by 1.
Quantity I : Value of c.
Quantity II : Value of a.
Ans: (B)
10. Three equal circles are drawn on a triangle ABC, with pints A, B C as the centers. Radius of each of the circle is equal to half of the side of the triangle ABC (Figure not to the scale).
Area of shaded region
Quantity I : The area of the shaded region II (in cm2)
Quantity II : 30 cm2
Ans: (C)
11. Ram invested Rs. P in scheme A and Rs. 2P in scheme B, for two years each. Scheme A offers simple interest p. a. Scheme B offers compound interest C9 compounded annually) at the rate of 10% p.a. Respective ratio between the interest earned from scheme A and that earned from scheme B was 8 : 21.
Quantity I : Rate of interest offered by scheme A.
Quantity II : Rate of interest offered by scheme C (simple interest p.a.), when Rs. 1600 is invested for 3 years earns an interest of Rs. 384.
Ans: (D)
12. Rutuja bought two articles-article A at Rs. x and article B at Rs. x + 50. She sold article A at 0% profit and article B at 10% loss, and earned Rs. 35 as profit on the whole deal.
Quantity I : Profit earned by Rutuja on selling Article A (in Rs.)
Quantity II : Loss incurred (in Rs.) when an article which costs Rs. 480 is sold at 20% loss.
Ans: (C)
13. Arun and Bhadra are brothers. In how many years from now will Bhadra’s age be 50 years ?
(I) The ratio of the current ages of Arun and Bhadra is 5 : 7 respectively.
(II) Bhadra was born 10 years before Arun.
(III) 5 years hence. Arun’s age would be three-fourth of Bhadra’s age at that time.
(A) Any two of the three
(B) Only II and either I or III
(C) All I, II and III
(D) Only II and III
(E) Only I and III
Ans: (B)
14. A right-angled triangle is inscribed in a given circle. What is the area of the given circle (in cm2) ?
I. The base and height of the triangle (in cm) are both the roots of the equation x2 – 23x + 12 = 0
II. The sum of the base and height of the triangle is 23 cm.
III. The height of the right-angled triangle is greater than the base of the same.
(A) III and either only I or only II
(B) All I, II and III
(C) Only II and III
(D) Only I
(E) Either I or II
Ans: (B)
15. What is the ratio between the marked price of two identical items, A and B, which had been purchased at the same price ?
I. Item A was sold at a profit of 20%, while item B was sold at a loss of 10%
II. Item A was sold at a discount at The percentage by which item B’s cost price had been marked up is the same as the profit % earned on selling item A.
III. The overall profit earned on selling items A and B was Rs. 576
(A) Any two of the three
(B) Only II and III
(C) All I, II and III
(D) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements.
(E) Only II
Ans: (D)
16. Three workers A, B and C complete a given piece of work within different time spans, while working individually. What is the ratio of difference of C and B respectively ?
I. A takes 100% more time than C to complete the given piece of work.
II. B completes the given piece of work within 8 days.
III. B takes 2 days less than A to complete the given piece of work.
(A) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements.
(B) All of the three
(C) Only II and III
(D) II and either only I or only III
(E) Only I and III
Ans: (B)
17. What is the three-digit number having each digit different from the other ?
I. Each of the digits of the given number is a multiple of 3.
II. The digit in the unit’s place is 50% less than that in the hundred’s place.
III. None of the digits is zero.
(A) All I, II and III
(B) Only I
(C) Only I and II
(D) Only III
(E) Only II
Ans: (C)
18. The respective ratio between the time taken by a boat to travel the same distance downstream in stream A and that in stream B is 8 : 7. The speed of the boat is 12 km/h and the speed of stream A is half the speed of stream B. What is the speed of stream B (In km/h)
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans: (D)
19. To complete a project, 18 women take 4 more days than the number of days taken by 12 men. If eight men complete the project in 9 days, how much work will be left when 15 women and 12 men together work for 3 days ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ans: (D)
Directions – (Q. 20 to 24) Refer to the pie charts and answer the given question :
Data regarding number of foreign students (male + female) from different countries : A, B, C, D and E, studying in higher education level in the country XYZ in the year 2014.
20. What is the respective ratio between the total number of male students from countries B and C together and total number of students (male + females) from the same countries together ?
(A) 14 : 27
(B) 25 : 14
(C) 4 : 9
(D) 5 : 6
(E) 13 : 27
Ans: (E)
21. What is the average number of male students from countries C, D and E ?
(A) 910
(B) 915
(C) 900
(D) 945
(E) 980
Ans: (E)
22. The total number of female students from country A and B together is what per cent of male students from country A ?
(A) 60
(B) 59.5
(C) 65.29
(D) 75.27
(E) 50
Ans: (D)
23. Female students from country E is what per cent approximately more than those from country C ?
(A) 45
(B) 50
(C) 40
(D) 60
(E) 30
Ans: (E)
24. Male students from country E in the year 2015 were 20% more than those from the same country in the previous year. If the male students from country E constituted 60% of the total students (male + females), in the year 2015, how many foreign students from country E in the same year were females ?
(A) 1400
(B) 1480
(C) 1280
(D) 1220
(E) 1260
Ans: (C)
25. Abhay rolled a pair of dice together. What is the probability that one dice showed a multiple of 2 and the second dice showed neither a multiple of 3 nor 2 ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ans: (E)
Directions – (Q. 26 to 30) Study the table and answer the given question :
Note – Few data are missing (indicated by). You need to calculate the value based on given data, if required to answer the given question.
26. Only 40% and 20% of females were graduates in villages A and C respectively. If female population of villages A and C were equal, what was the respective ratio of number of non-graduate females (including illiterate females) in villages A and C ?
(A) 81 : 107
(B) 90 : 107
(C) 90 : 121
(D) 40 : 49
(E) 45 : 49
Ans: (B)
27. If in village E, 40% of male literates and 40% of female literates were graduates, what per cent of total population were graduates ?
(A) 32
(B) 28
(C) 35
(D) 40
(E) 30
Ans: (B)
28. In village B, the number literate females was what per cent less than the number of literate males ?
(A) 12.5
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 40
(E) 45
Ans: (A)
29. The total number of literates (Male and Female in Village D was 4320. If the number of illiterate females was 320 more than the number of illiterate males, what was the male population of the village ?
(A) 3200
(B) 3000
(C) 2800
(D) 3600
(E) 3500
Ans: (A)
30. In village C, the number of females increased by 20% from 2011 to 2015. If the number of literate females was equal in 2011 and 2015, what per cent of female population of village C was literate in 2015 ?
Civil Services Mains Examination Held on 5-12-2016 Genera Studies Question Paper
Civil Services (Mains.) Exam., 2016
Held On 5-12-2016
General Studies
Paper-1
1. Early Buddhist Stupa-art while depicting folk motifs and narratives, successfully expounds Buddhist ideals. Elucidate.
2. Krishnadeva Raya, the king of Vijayanagar, was not only an accomplished scholar himself but was a also a great patron of learning and literature. Discuss.
3. Explain how the uprising of 1857 constitutes an important watershed in the evolution of British policies towards colonial India.
4. Discuss the role of women in the freedom struggle especially during the Gandhian phase.
5. Highlight the differences in the approach of Subhash Chandra Bose and Mahatma Gandhi in the struggle for freedom.
6. Has the formation of linguistic states strengthened the cause of Indian unity?
7. The anti-colonial struggles in West Africa were led by the new elite of Western-educated Africans. Examine.
8. To what extent has globalization influenced the core of cultural diversity in India ? Explain.
9. “An essential condition to eradicate poverty is to liberate the poor from the process of deprivation.” Substantiate this statement with suitable examples.
10. Why are the tribals in India referred to as Scheduled Tribes ? Indicate the major provisions enshrined in the Constitution of India for their upliftment.
11. With a brief background of quality of Urban life in India, introduce the objesctives and strategy of the ‘Smart City Programme’
12. What is the basis of regionalism ? Is it that unequal distribution of benefits of development on regional basis eventually promotes regionalism ? Substantiate your answer.
13. Discuss the concept of air mass and explain its role in macroclimatic changes.
14. “The Himalayas are highly prone to landslides.” Discuss the causes and suggest suitable measures of mitigation.
15. The effective management of land and water resources will drastically reduce the human miseries. Explain.
16. South China Sea has assumed great geopolitical significance in the present context. Comment.
17. Major cities of India are becoming more vulnerable to flood conditions. Discuss.
18. Present an account of the Indus Water Treaty and examine its ecological, economic and political implications in the context of changing bilateral relations.
19. Enumerate the problems and prospects of inland water transport in India.
20. In what way do micro watershed development projects help in water conservation in drought-prone and semi-arid regions of India ?
Objective Questions
1. In India, under the Department of Posts (GoI), the first Post Office was set-up in the year 1727 at –
(A) Kolkata (West Bengal)
(B) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
(C) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(D) New Delhi
Ans: (A)
2. Under the Department of Posts (GoI), General Post Offices (GPOs)were also set-up in the then three Presidencies of –
(A) Kolkata (1774)
(B) Chennai (1786)
(C) Mumbai (1793)
(D) In all of these three Presidencies
Ans: (D)
3. EMO (Electronic Money Order) Service was introduced by the Department of Posts-in all the Departmental Post Offices across the country, in the year ….. (website : indiapost.gov.in to track EMO).
(A) 2007
(B) 2008
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
Ans: (B)
4. E-IPO (Electronic Indian Postal Order) was launched by the Department of Posts (GoI) on 22nd March, 2013, which has been extended to Indian citizens living in India w.e.f. 13th February –
(A) 2014
(B) 2015
(C) 2016
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)
5. APY (Atal Pension Yojana) has been launched in CBS Head Post Office w.e.f. 1 December, ….
(A) 2013
(B) 2014
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
Ans: (C)
6. Jansuraksha Schemes, viz., PMSBY (Pradhan Mantri Surksha Bima Yojana) and PMJJBY ( Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana) have been launched w.e.f. 7th September, …… in all CBS Post Office.
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
Ans: (D)
7. By the Department of Posts (GoI), ‘Hindi Fortnight’ was observed from ….. to promote Hindi Typing competitions on computer.
Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers Examination Held on 26-10-2016 General Awareness Question Paper with Answer key
Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers Exam., 2016
Held on 26-10-2016
General Awareness
1. The theme of the ‘International Democracy Day 2016’ observed on 15th September, 2016 was –
(A) Engaging Youth on Democracy
(B) Democracy and the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
(C) Political Accountability Strengthening links between Parliaments and Citizens
(D) Space for Civil Society
(E) Strengthening Voices for Democracy
Ans: (B)
2. ‘Deepa Malik’ is associated with the sports of –
(A) Aerobics
(B) Aquatics
(C) Athletics
(D) None of those given as options
(E) Archery
Ans: (C)
3. Claude Lila Parulekar who recently died at the age of 81, is a well-known –
(A) Human rights activist
(B) Archaeologist
(C) Animal rights activist
(D) Playwrighter
(E) Political commentator
Ans: (C)
4. The ‘Patagonian Desert’ is situated in –
(A) Central Africa
(B) Eastern Europe
(C) Central Asia
(D) North America
(E) South America
Ans: (E)
5. An agriculture museum has recently been inaugurated at the ‘India Gandhi Krishi Vishwavidhayalaya is situated in –
(A) Raipur, Chhattisgarh
(B) Raebareli, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajkot, Gujarat
(D) Rewari, Haryana
(E) Ratlam, Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (A)
6. Which of the following institutions has been set up as a central online registry primarily to check frauds in lending against equitable mortgages ?
(A) CRISIL
(B) CERSAI
(C) ARCIL
(D) ASREC
(E) ISARC
Ans: (A)
7. The National Automated Clearing House (NACH) is operated by –
(A) SEBI
(B) SBI
(C) NPCI
(D) BSE
(E) NSE
Ans: (C)
8. The share of the concerned State Government in the capital of Regional Rural Banks is –
(A) 15 per cent
(B) 35 per cent
(C) 20 per cent
(D) 50 per cent
(E) 25 per cent
Ans: (A)
9. The Bandhan Banking Limited is an Indian banking and financial services company Headquartered in –
(A) Mumbai, Maharashtra
(B) New Delhi, Delhi
(C) Hyderabad, Telangana
(D) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
(E) Kolkata, West Bengal
Ans: (E)
10. Which one of the following institutions performs merchant banking function for State and Central Governments ?
(A) RBI
(B) NABARD
(C) SEBI
(D) EXIM
(E) SIDBI
Ans: (A)
11. The annual insurance premium for life cover of Rs. 2 lakh under the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJBY) is –
(A) Rs. 12
(B) Rs. 130
(C) Rs. 24
(D) Rs. 330
(E) Rs. 75
Ans: (D)
12. Which of the following is the ‘internal benchmark rate’ for pricing all rupee loans sanctioned and credit limits renewed by banks after 1 April, 2016 ?
(C) Marginal Cost of funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)
(D) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate
(E) Reserve Bank of India’s Bank Rate
Ans: (C)
13. ‘Lisbon’ is the capital and the largest city of –
(A) Austria
(B) Portugal
(C) Poland
(D) Ireland
(E) Belarus
Ans: (B)
14. Automated Teller Machines (ATM) which can be operated independently by visually impaired person are known as –
(A) White Label ATM
(B) Offline ATM
(C) Talking ATM
(D) Biometric ATM
(E) Online ATM
Ans: (C)
15. The ‘Gurudongmar Lake’ named after Guru Padmasambhava is one of the highest lakes in the world. It is situated in the Indian State of
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Tripura
(D) Assam
(E) Sikkim
Ans: (E)
16. The baseline ‘Aapka bhala, Sabka bhala’ is associated with –
(A) RBL Bank Limited
(B) DCB Bank Limited
(C) Yes Bank Limited
(D) Bandhan Bank Limited
(E) None of those given as options
Ans: (D)
17. The ‘Indian Bank’ is an Indian state-owned financial service company Headquartered in –
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
(E) Hyderabad
Ans: (C)
18. The first Indian Bank to introduce ‘Smart Vault’, a fully automated locker facility using robotic technology to access lockers from the safe vault is –
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) Federal Bank
(C) HDFC Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) Yes Bank
Ans: (D)
19. The PM MUDRA Yojana covers loans of up to a maximum amount of –
(A) Rs. 5 lakh
(B) Rs. 20 lakh
(C) Rs. 2 lakh
(D) Rs. 15 lakh
(E) Rs. 10 lakh
Ans: (E)
20. According to extant RBI guidelines, ‘Payment Banks’ are not permitted to –
(A) set up branches or ATMs
(B) accept remittances to be sent to multiple banks
(D) set up subsidiaries to undertake NBFC activities
(E) offer debit cards and internet banking facilities
Ans: (D)
21. Which of the following institutions is the umbrella organization for all retail payment systems in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) CCIL
(C) CDSL
(D) NPCI
(E) NSDL
Ans: (D)
22. The ‘FSB’ is an international body that monitors and makes recommendations about global financial system. The alphabet ‘S’ in the abbreviation ‘FSB’ stands for –
(A) Systematic
(B) Statutory
(C) Stability
(D) Systemic
(E) Sovereign
Ans: (C)
23. The ‘Blackbuck National Park’ situated in the Indian State of –
(A) Karnataka
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) Maharashtra
Ans: (C)
24. The 3960 MW ‘Sasan Ultra Mega Power Project’ is one of the four Ultra Mega Power Plants planned by the Government of India. It is located in the Indian State of –
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(E) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (D)
25. The 17th summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) held in September 2016 was hosted by-
(A) Indonesia
(B) Egypt
(C) Malaysia
(D) South Africa
(E) Venezuela
Ans: (E)
26. The World Food Programme (WFP) is world’s largest humanitarian organization addressing hunger and promoting food security. It is headquartered in –
(A) Washington DC, USA
(B) Rome, Italy
(C) London, UK
(D) Nairobi, Kenya
(E) Madrid, Spain
Ans: (B)
27. A cheque which has been written by the maker and dated at some point in the past is known as –
(A) Out-of-date cheque
(B) Post-dated cheque
(C) Pre-paid cheque
(D) Antedated cheque
(E) None of those given as options
Ans: (D)
28. ‘SFMS’ is a secure messaging standard developed to serve as a platform for intra-bank and inter-bank applications. The first letter ‘S’ in the abbreviation ‘SFMS’ stands for –
(A) Structured
(B) Simplified
(C) Standard
(D) Sheltered
(E) Other than those given as options
Ans: (A)
29. A currency which either has a missing portion or is composed of more than two pieces is categorized as a –
(A) Soiled Note
(B) Imperfect Note
(C) Detached Note
(D) Mutilated Note
(E) Counterfeited Note
Ans: (D)
30. ‘October 16’ every year is observed as the –
(A) World Habitat Day
(B) World Food Day
(C) International Day of Girl Child
(D) World Statistics Day
(E) World Teacher’s Day
Ans: (B)
31. The book ‘At the Close of Play’ is an autobiography of –
(A) Gary Kristen
(B) Yuvraj Singh
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Ricky Ponting
(E) Steve Waugh
Ans: (D)
32. The entire capital of the ECGC is contributed by –
(A) Banks/FI/Corporates
(B) Government of India
(C) EXIM Bank
(D) None of those given as options
(E) Insurance Companies
Ans: (B)
33. Which of the following credit rating agency was established as a joint venture of SIDBI, Dun & Bradstreet (D & B) and several leading Public/Private Banking Companies ?
(A) CARE
(B) ONICRA
(C) ICRA
(D) CRISIL
(E) SMERA
Ans: (E)
34. The ‘Interest Rate Risk’ is a type of-
(A) Market Risk
(B) Liquidity Risk
(C) Reputational Risk
(D) Operational Risk
(E) Credit Risk
Ans: (A)
35. In case of Small Finance Banks (SFB), the loan size and investment limit exposure to single –
(A) 15 per cent of total advances
(B) 10 per cent of capital funds
(C) 15 per cent of capital funds
(D) 10 per cent of total advances
(E) 10 per cent of total liabilities
Ans: (B)
36. ‘Barak-8’ long range surface-to-air-nuclear-capable ballistic missile which has recently been successfully test-fired by India has jointly been developed with-
(A) France
(B) Israel
(C) United States of America
(D) Germany
(E) United Kingdom
Ans: (B)
37. The ‘IRS’ is a liquid financial derivative instrument which can be used to hedge against or speculate on changes in –
(A) Stock market indices
(B) Exchange rates
(C) None of those given as options
(D) Commodity prices
(E) Interest rates
Ans: (E)
38. The currency of the ‘Kingdom of Denmark’ is –
(A) Ryal
(B) Euro
(C) Krone
(D) Koruna
(E) Zloty
Ans: (C)
39. The ‘Kakrapur Atomic Power Station’ is situated in the Indian State of-
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(C) Telangana
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Maharashtra
Ans: (B)
40. The creation of ‘Regional Rural Banks’ in 1975 was conceptualized based on the recommendations of the :
(A) Sivaraman Working Group
(B) Narasimham Working Group
(C) D.R. Gadgil Working Group
(D) Abid Hussein Working Group
(E) D. R. Mehta Working Group
Ans: (B)
41. The Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) is maintained with –
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) Life Insurance Corporation
(D) State Bank of India
(E) Public Sector Banks
Ans: (A)
42. The last six characters of the alphanumeric IFSC printed on the cheques helps in identifying the –
(A) Bank branch
(B) Type of account
(C) Bank name
(D) Business or profession
(E) Nature of transaction
Ans: (A)
43. The Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) is a banking research institute established by Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It is located in
(A) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
(B) Mumbai, Maharashtra
(C) Pune, Maharashtra
(D) Hyderabad, Telangana
(E) Gurugram, Haryana
Ans: (D)
44. The recently launched ‘UPI’ is expected to make sending money easy. The letter ‘I’ in the abbreviation ‘UPI’ stands for –
(A) Interface
(B) Infrastructure
(C) Institution
(D) International
(E) India
Ans: (A)
45. The ‘Mudra Bank’ as a subsidiary of-
(A) ICICI
(B) RBI
(C) IFCI
(D) IDBI
(E) SIDBI
Ans: (E)
46. Which of the following is India’s first Credit Information Company (CIC) ?
(A) CRISIL Limited
(B) CRIF High Mark CIC (P) Limited
(C) Experian CIC of India (P) Limited
(D) Trans Union CIBIL Limited
(E) Equifax India (P) Limited
Ans: (D)
47. JP Morgan & CO is a multinational banking and financial services company Headquartered in –
(A) France
(B) Sweden
(C) United States of America
(D) United Kingdom
(E) Germany
Ans: (C)
48. A central bank of a country uses Open Market Operations (OMO) as the primary means of implementing –
(A) Tax policy
(B) Monetary policy
(C) Fiscal policy
(D) Budgetary policy
(E) None of those given as options
Ans: (B)
49. ‘Urjit Patel’ who has recently taken over as the –
(A) Chief Economist of the World Bank
(B) Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(C) Professor of Economics at Cornwell University, USA
(D) Chief Economist at NITI Aayog
(E) Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India
Ans: (B)
50. Who has been appointed as Additional secretary in the Goods and Service Tax (GST) Council ?
Combined Defence Services Exam (II) Held on 23-10-2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
Combined Defence Services Exam. (II), 2016
Held on 23-10-2016
General Knowledge
1. Which one of the following gases is released mostly from landfills in urban areas ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Methane
(D) Oxygen
Ans: (C)
2. Which one of the following is most sensitive to environmental change ?
(A) Amphibian
(B) Reptile
(C) Mammal
(D) Insect
Ans: (A)
3. Which one of the following is the largest source of electricity in India ?
(A) Hydropower plants
(B) Nuclear power plants
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Wind energy
Ans: (C)
4. The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys –
(A) Mast cells
(B) Platelets
(C) Erythrocytes
(D) Lymphocytes
Ans: (D)
5. Which one of the following air pollutants combines with the haemoglobin of human blood and reduces its oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to suffocation and may cause even death ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Fly ash
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide
Ans: (C)
6. An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilization is called –
1. Parthenogenesis
2. Apogamy
3. Sporophytic budding
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
7. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon ?
(A) Coal
(B) Diamond
(C) Graphite
(D) Graphene
Ans: (D)
8. In paper manufacturing, degumming of the raw material is done using –
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Bleaching powder
(C) Caustic soda
(D) Nitric acid
Ans: (B)
9. Dolomite powder is applied in some agricultural lands. The purpose of applying it is to-
(A) Increase the pH of the soil
(B) Lower the pH of the soil
(C) Increase the phosphorus content of the soil
(D) Increase the nitrogen content of the soil
Ans: (A)
10. Deficiency of fluoride leads to which one of the following health problems ?
(A) Tooth caries
(B) Mottling of tooth
(C) Bending of bones
(D) Stiffening of joints
Ans: (A)
11. Excessive use of which of the following fertilizers may be responsible for the presence of a toxic substance in ground water ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphate only
(C) Potassium only
(D) Phosphate and potassium
Ans: (D)
12. Which one of the following elements does not form solid hydrogen carbonate ?
(A) Sodium
(B) Potassium
(C) Caesium
(D) Lithium
Ans: (B)
13. According to Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their total size of population ?
(A) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab
(B) Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab
(C) Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam
(D) Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam
Ans: (A)
14. With reference to earthquakes, which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Earthquakes largely occur along the converging plate boundaries.
2. Point of origin of earthquake in lithosphere is known as focus/hypocentre.
3. Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from the epicentre.
4. Epicentre of earthquake always remains over continents only.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 4
Ans: (B)
15. Which of the following pairs of Indian State and tribal population are correct ?
1. Madhya Pradesh : Largest tribal population
2. Mizoram : Highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State
3. Chhattisgarh : Second largest tribal population after Madhya Pradesh
4. Arunachal Pradesh : Second highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State after Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (A)
16. The spring constant of a spring depends on its-
(A) Length only
(B) Material only
(C) Length and its diameter
(D) Thickness, its diameter and its material
Ans: (B)
17. In the gamma decay of a nucleus –
(A) The mass number of the nucleus changes whereas its atomic number does not change
(B) The mass number of the nucleus does not change whereas its atomic number changes
(C) Both the mass number and the atomic number of the nucleus change
(D) Neither the mass number nor the atomic number of the nucleus changes
Ans: (D)
18. In a bipolar junction transistor –
(A) All the three regions (the emitter, the base and the collector) have equal concentrations of impurity
(B) the emitter has the least concentration of impurity
(C) The collector has the least concentration of impurity
(D) The base has the least concentration of impurity
Ans: (D)
19. The pressure exerted by a 760 mm column of mercury at 0℃ is know as –
(A) 1 pascal
(B) 1 atmosphere
(C) 1 bar
(D) 1 poise
Ans: (B)
20. Which one of the following physical quantities has the same dimension as that of Planck’s constant h ?
(A) Linear momentum
(B) Angular momentum
(C) Force
(D) Potential energy
Ans: (B)
21. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The response of the ear to sound of increasing intensity is approximately logarithmic.
(B) The sensitivity of the human ear does not vary with the frequency of the sound.
(C) When two or more waves traverse the same medium, the displacement of any element of the medium is the algebraic sum of the displacements due to each wave.
(D) Longitudinal waves can travel in all media-solids, liquids and gases.
Ans: (C)
22. Which one of the following hormones is essential for the uptake of glucose by cells in the human body ?
(A) GH
(B) TSH
(C) Insulin
(D) Cortisol
Ans: (C)
23. Which of the following cells do not contain nucleus ?
1. Root hair cells
2. Red blood cells
3. Platelets
4. Monocytes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (B)
24. Biological catalysts are protein molecules which
1. speed up a chemical reaction
2. remain unchanged after reaction
3. function optimally at 37℃
4. do not have an enzymatic activity
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (B)
25. ‘Altitude sickness’ is caused at high altitude due to –
(A) High partial pressure of oxygen
(B) Low partial pressure of oxygen
(C) Low level of haemoglobin
(D) High partial pressure of carbon dioxide
Ans: (B)
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-
List-I
(Element)
(a) Mg (b) Ca
(c) Sr (d) Ba
List-II
(Property/Use)
1. Gives red colour to flame
2. Sulphate compound used in medicine to examine the alimentary canal of a patient
3. Traps the energy of sunlight in photosynthesis
4. Control of muscle contraction
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
Ans: (C)
27. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The oxidation number for hydrogen is always zero.
(B) The oxidation number for hydrogen is always +1.
(C) The oxidation number for hydrogen is always −1.
(D) Hydrogen can have more than one oxidation number.
Ans: (D)
28. In case of a standard hydrogen electrode –
(A) Absolute electrode potential is not zero
(B) Absolute electrode potential is zero
(C) Both absolute and standard electrode potential values are zero
(D) Electrode potential is zero only at 25℃
Ans: (D)
29. The elemental composition of an adult human body by mass is-
(A) C > O > H > N
(B) O > C > H > N
(C) N > C > H > O
(D) N > C > O > H
Ans: (B)
30. With regard to water transportation in India, which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Headquarters of Central Inland Water Transport Corporation is located at Delhi.
2. Headquarters of Inland Waterways Authority of India is located at Noida.
3. National Inland Navigation Institutes located at Kolkata.
4. First National Inland Waterway was between Haldia and Allahabad.
Select the correct answer using the ode given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (C)
31. If the latitude and longitudinal extent of an Indian State/T is 15°48ʹ00ʹʹ N to 14°53ʹ15ʹʹ and 74°20ʹ13ʹʹ E to 74°40ʹ33ʹʹ E, then which one of the following is that State/UT ?
(A) Puducherry
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Goa
(D) Delhi
Ans: (C)
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists –
List-I
(Railway Zone)
(a) North Eastern Railway
(b) East Central Railway
(c) South East Central Railway
(d) South Eastern Railway
List-II
(Headquarters)
1. Kolkata 2. Bilaspur
3. Hajipur 4. Gorakhpur
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
Ans: (D)
33. Which of the following statements concerning atmosphere of the Earth are correct ?
1. In stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude.
2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude.
3. The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere.
4. Tropopause is an isothermal zone.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (D)
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-
List-I
(Place)
(a) Bongaigaon
(b) Koraput
(c) Pinjore
(d) Sirpur
List-II
(Industry)
1. Paper
2. Machine tools
3. Aircraft
4. Petrochemical
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
Ans: (B)
35. Which one of the following is not a tributary of the river Ganga ?
(A) Son
(B) Mahananda
(C) Teesta
(D) Sharada
Ans: (C)
36. Which one of the following pairs of lakes is connected by Soo Canal ?
(A) Superior and Michigan
(B) Superior and Huron
(C) Huron and Ontario
(D) Huron and Erie
Ans: (B)
37. In total internal reflection, the light travels from –
(A) Rarer to denser medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity
(B) Denser to rarer medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity
(C) Rarer to denser medium and it occurs with loss of intensity
(D) Denser to rarer medium and it occurs with loss of intensity
Ans: (B)
38. The energy of a photon, whose momentum is 10 MeV/c,, where c is the speed of light, is given by-
(A) 10 MeV
(B) 100 MeV
(C) 1 MeV
(D) 0.1 MeV
Ans: (A)
39. Liquids and gases never show –
(A) Diamagnetic property
(B) Paramagnetic property
(C) Ferromagnetic property
(D) Electromagnetic property
Ans: (C)
40. Light travels in a straight line (rectilinear propagation of light). This statement does hold if the medium of travel for light is-
(A) of variable refractive index
(B) made up of slabs of different refractive indices
(C) homogeneous and transparent
(D) inhomogeneous and transparent
Ans: (C)
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-
List-I
(Strait)
(a) Strait of Hormuz
(b) Strait of Bab-el Mandeb
(c) Strait of Malacca
(d) Strait of Sunda
List-II
(Water Body)
1. Java Sea
2. Andaman Sea
3. Red Sea
4. Gulf of Persia
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
Ans: (D)
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-
List-I
(Ocean Current)
(a) Agulhas Current
(b) Humboldt Current
(c) Labrador Current
(d) Falkland Current
List-II
(Country)
1. Peru
2. South Africa
3. Argentina
4. Canada
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
Ans: (B)
43. Which one of the following fishing banks is located off the coast of the United Kingdom ?
(A) Great Fisher Bank
(B) Grand Banks
(C) Dogger Bank
(D) Reed Bank
Ans: (C)
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-
List-I
(Power Plant)
(a) Satpura
(b) Dhuvaran
(c) Tanakpur
(d) Dabhol
List-II
(State)
1. Maharashtra
2. Uttarakhand
3. Gujarat
4. Madhya Pradesh
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
Ans: (A)
45. Which of the following statements regarding soil is/are correct?
1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen content.
2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in nitrogen.
3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen and potassium.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
46. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Position of the Sun, Earth and Moon in a straight line of 180° angle is known as syzygy.
(B) Syzygy conjunction causes solar eclipse.
(C) Syzygy opposition causes lunar eclipse.
(D) Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time of perihelion only.
Ans: (C)
47. Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion ?
(A) Wind gap
(B) Zeugen
(C) Dreikanter
(D) Demoiselle
Ans: (A)
48. Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Guindy National park is known for tiger reserve
(B) Namdapha National Park is meant for lion conservation
(C) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve
(D) Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary
Ans: (D)
49. Which one of the following statements concerning the natural vegetation of India is not correct ?
(A) Sal is found in moist deciduous forests
(B) Casuarina is largely found along the coastal region of Tamil Nadu
(C) Deodar is a coniferous species of tree
(D) Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya
Ans: (D)
50. Which one of the following statements concerning research centres in India is not correct ?
(A) Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at Kolkata
(B) Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located at Jodhpur
(C) Centre for Social Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation is located at Allahabad
(D) Institute of Forest Productivity is located at Ranchi
Ans: (A)
Directions – (Q. 51 – 53) The following items consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement is false but Statement II is true
51. Statement I : The Pahikashta peasants were non-resident cultivators cultivating lands on a contractual basis.
Statement II : The Pahikashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable terms of revenue or the compulsion of economic distress.
Ans: (D)
52. Statement I : The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India.
Statement II : The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North India in the seventeenth century.
Ans: (D)
53. Statement I : King Ashoka abolished capital punishment and disbanded his army.
Statement II : After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and became a Buddhist.
Ans: (D)
54. Which one of the following does not signify a battle tank ?
(A) T-55
(B) T-155
(C) T-72
(D) T-90
Ans: (B)
55. Which of the following Gods are also known as Lokapalas or the Guardians of the Universe ?
(A) Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera
(B) Indra, Varuna, Sknada and Kubera
(C) Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma
(D) Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra
Ans: (A)
56. Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution of India ?
1. The Government of India Act, 1935.
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947.
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949.
4. The Government of India Act, 1919.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (A)
57. On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect ?
1. Citizenship
2. Elections
3. Provisional Parliament
4. Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
Ans: (B)
58. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct ?
1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise.
3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation.
4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (D)
59. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Centre for Science and Environment in a recent study found that a number of commonly available brands of prepackaged breads tested positive for potassium bromated and potassium iodate
(B) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India recommended to the Health Ministry to remove potassium bromated from the list of permissible food additives
(C) The Union Government banned the use of potassium bromated as a food additive on the basis of the above recommendation.
(D) Potassium bromated is a neurotoxin
Ans: (B)
60. Which of the following voted for Brexit in June 2016 ?
(A) England and Scotland
(B) England and Wales
(C) Scotland and Northern Ireland
(D) Wales and Northern Ireland
Ans: (B)
61. Which one of the following statements about reusable space vehicle of ISRO is not correct ?
(A) In June 2016, ISRO successfully launched India’s first reusable space vehicle
(B) The space vehicle was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh
(C) The reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of 65 km before automatically steering back for landing
(D) The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel
Ans: (A)
62. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile made by India and Russian Federation.
(B) The name BrahMos came from two rivers, Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia.
(C) Indian military scientists were capable of integrating BrahMos cruise missile with Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
(D) Defence Research and Development Organization is the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
Ans: (D)
63. Which one of the following sources tells us about women protesting against the infidelity of their husbands or the neglect of the wife and children by the male head of the household ?
(A) The Kitab-ul-Hind
(B) Documents belonging to the Village Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(C) Sculptures from Mandor
(D) The Aim-i-Akbari of Abul Fazl
Ans: (B)
64. The All India Census was-
1. First attempted in 1872
2. Regularity undertaken since 1881
3. Always undertaken as a five-year exercise
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists-
List-I
(Historian)
(a) Sumit Sarkar
(b) Shahid Amin
(c) Ranajit Guha
(d) Bipan Chandra
List-II
(Book)
1. The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India
66. What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola dynasty ?
(A) Harihara
(B) Bhairava
(C) Rudra
(D) Tripurantaka
Ans: (D)
67. The basic structure doctrine with r3egard to the Constitution of India relates to –
1. the power of judicial review
2. the judgement in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
4. the judgement in Golaknath case (1967).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 4 only
Ans: (A)
68. Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens ?
1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech)
2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination)
4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4 only
Ans: (C)
69. A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she –
1. renounces Indian citizenship
2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country
3. Marries a citizen of another country
4. criticizes the Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 4
Ans: (C)
70. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences ?
(A) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused
(B) The accused must have violated an existing law
(C) An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again
(D) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence
Ans: (C)
71. Neil O’Brien, who died recently, was a famous –
(A) Journalist
(B) Billiards player
(C) Dramatist
(D) Quiz master
Ans: (D)
72. Consider the following statement –
‘If you feel you are trapped in a black hole, don’t give up. There is a way out.”
Who among the follo0wing made the above statement ?
(A) Albert Einstein
(B) Stephen Hawking
(C) C. V. Raman
(D) Abdus Salam
Ans: (B)
73. Recently the Government of India cleared the proposal for the production of 18 indigenous ‘Dhanush’ artillery guns to be produce in India by-
(A) Indian Army
(B) US Army
(C) Indian Ordinance Factory Board
(D) Indian and US Army Jointly
Ans: (C)
74. Who among the following won the Men’s Singles Title in the Australian Open Tennis Tournament, 2016 ?
(A) Jamie Murray
(B) Bruno Soares
(C) Novak Djokovic
(D) Andy Murray
Ans: (C)
75. Which of the following statements about the philosopher Shankara is/are true ?
1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta called Advaita.
2. He elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada.
3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that the Upanishads and Brahmasutras contain a unified, systematic philosophy.
4. Shankara founded the Amanaya Mathas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 4 only
Ans: (B)
76. Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots of 1875 is/are true ?
1. The Deccan Riots resulted in protection for peasants through the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879.
2. The riots did not spread to the whole of Maharashtra because of prompt suppression by the British.
3. The British were unable to contain the riots and they spread throughout Maharashtra.
4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that had been caused by the artificial demand generated by the American Civil War caused the impoverishment of the peasants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (D)
77. Why are they Gypsies regarded as of Indian origin ?
1. They follow India religious practices.
2. Their language, called Romani, is an Indo-Aryan language.
3. They believe that they came from India.
4. Epigraphic evidence locates their original home in Uttar Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
78. The term Upari refers to which one of the following ?
(A) A category o f proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule
(B) A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule
(C) A soldier in the Maratha army
(D) A village headman in the Mughal period
Ans: (B)
79. The ‘water frame’ of Richard Arkwright was a device for-
(A) Producing a new type of painting
(B) Irrigating fields for rice cultivation
(C) Producing strong threads of yearn
(D) The faster movement of steamships
Ans: (C)
80. The ‘four great needs’ of the people as identified by the Guomindang were-
(A) Clothing, food, housing and transportation
(B) Education, food, housing and health care
(C) Food, housing, education and employment
(D) Employment, housing, education and health care
Ans: (A)
81. Which one of the following was the earlier name of Tokyo ?
(A) Osaka
(B) Kyoto
(C) Samurai
(D) Edo
Ans: (D)
82. The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the-
(A) Story of Rama
(B) Jaina elements in the storyline
(C) Culture of Sri Lankan Buddhists
(D) Cult of Shakti worship
Ans: (B)
83. Rakshasa type of marriage is –
(A) Marriage by purchase
(B) Marriage by capture
(C) Marriage by giving dowry
(D) Marriage by seduction
Ans: (B)
84. Who among the following was defeated by Chile to won the Copa America Football Championship, 2016 ?
(A) Colombia
(B) Argentina
(C) Ecuador
(D) Peru
Ans: (B)
85. Which one of the following is the highest altitude zoo in the world ?
(A) Cheyenne Mountain Zoo
(B) Pandit G. B. Pant High Altitude Zoo
(C) Himalayan Zoological Park, Gangtok
(D) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park
Ans: (D)
86. Which one of the following statements about the Missile Technology Control Regime is not correct ?
(A) The Missile Technology Control Regime is an informal and voluntary partnership initial formed among G-7 countries.
(B) Members of the Missile Technology Control Regime prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
(C) China applied to join the Regime but members did not offer the membership.
(D) No other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules.
Ans: (B)
87. The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of –
(A) 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve
(B) 100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve
(C) 20 aircrafts with no reserve
(D) 25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve
Ans: (A)
88. The headquarters of “Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific’ is located at –
(A) Singapore
(B) Manila
(C) Bangkok
(D) Hong Kong
Ans: (C)
89. Which of the following with regard to the term ‘bank run’ is correct?
(A) The net balance of money a bank has in its chest at the end of the day’s business
(B) The ratio of bank’s total deposits and total liabilities
(C) A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks
(D) The period in which a bank creates highest credit in the market
Ans: (C)
90. Which of the following will be the outcome if an economy is under the inflationary pressure ?
1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation.
2. Exports become less competitive with imports getting costlier.
3. Cost of borrowing decreases.
4. Bondholders get benefitted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (C)
91. According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the stae of full employment are –
(A) Purely temporary in nature
(B) Permanent in nature
(C) Imaginary situations
(D) Normal situations
Ans: (A)
92. Capital deepening refers to-
(A) Going for more fixed capital per worker
(B) Emphasis on social overhead capital
(C) Constant capital-output ratio
(D) Increasing capital-output ratio
Ans: (A)
93. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights
(B) It is a part of fundamental rights
(C) The Supreme Court cannot refuse a write petition under Article 32 on the ground of delay
(D) Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights
Ans: (D)
94. Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Ans: (A)
95. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty ?
(A) To respect the National Flag
(B) To defend the country
(C) To provide education to one’s child
(D) To promote village and cottage industries
Ans: (D)
96. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if security of any part of India is threatened by –
1. war
2. external aggression
3. armed rebellion
4. internal disturbance
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2 only
Ans: (A)
97. Which one of the following statements is not true of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 ?
(A) This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman subjected to domestic violence
(B) Only women can make a complaint under this legislation
(C) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship
(D) The Act includes not just wives but also women in marriage-like relationships
Ans: (C)
98. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Creation of National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was announced in the Union Budget, 2015-16
(B) NIIF is a fund for enhancing infrastructure facility in the country
(C) NIIF and NIF (National Investment Fund) are the names of the same organization
(D) NIIF can have more than one alternative investment fund
Ans: (C)
99. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Andaman and Nicobar Command ?
(A) It is the first integrated theatre command in India
(B) It headquarters is at Port Blair
(C) It is commanded by a three star officer.
(D) It was set up by the British during the Second World War
Ans: (A)
100. Who is the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee ?
(A) The Chief of Army Staff
(B) The Chief of Naval Staff
(C) The Chief of Air Staff
(D) The member who has been the longest on the Committee
Ans: (D)
101. Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is –
(A) An infantry regiment o the Indian Army
(B) A battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles
(C) The name of the Armed Police of the State of Jammu and Kashmir
(D) A paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans: (A)
102. Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanized Infantry Regiment
(B) Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is subsumed in the Corps of Engineers.
(C) Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are two divisions of the Army Service Corps
(D) Army has its own Corps of Air Defence
Ans: (D)
103. Which one of the following is not one Command of the Indian Army ?
(A) South Western Command
(B) North Eastern Command
(C) Central Command
(D) Army Training Command (ARTRAC)
Ans: (B)
104. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished
(B) The Chief of Army Staff carries the rank of Field Marshal
(C) All officers posted to Andaman and Nicobar Islands wear the ranks of the Indian Navy
(D) The rank of Major General is higher than the rank of Lieutenant General
Ans: (A)
105. Which one of the following is not an Air Defence Missile system ?
(A) Akash
(B) Trishul
(C) Tatra
(D) Astra
Ans: (C)
106. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the composition of national income in India ?
(A) The share of manufacturing sector has declined
(B) The share of services sector has increased sharply
(C) The share of agriculture has remained static.
(D) The share of services sector has declined
Ans: (B)
107. In India, the term ‘hot money’ is used to refer to-
(A) Currency + Reserves with the RBI
(B) Net GDR
(C) Net Foreign Direct Investment
(D) Foreign Portfolio Investment
Ans: (D)
108. Which of the following is/are credit rating agency/agencies in India ?
(A) CRISIL
(B) CARE
(C) ICRA
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)
109. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Fourteenth Finance Commission ?
(A) C. Rangarajan
(B) Vijay Kelkar
(C) Y. V. Reddy
(D) Rakesh Mohan
Ans: (C)
110. The members of NAFTA are –
(A) USA, Canada and Mexico
(B) USA Canada and India
(C) USA, Canada and Japan
(D) USA, UK and India
Ans: (A)
111. Which of the constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India ?
1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
3. The Scheduled Castes and the Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (C)
112. Which one of the following is not true about the powers of the Supreme Court ?
(A) The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes
(B) The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India
(C) The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgement or order
(D) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people
Ans: (D)
113. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States ?
(A) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
(B) Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram
(C) Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura
(D) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (A)
114. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct ?
(A) It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.
(B) The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part II of the Constitution.
(C) The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure.
(D) The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an Act specified in the Ninth Schedule.
Ans: (B)
115. Consider the following statements about Harappan cities
1. Roads were not always absolutely straight and did not always cross one another at right angles.
2. A striking feature is the uniformity in the average size of the bricks for houses and for city walls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
116. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists –
List-I
(Term)
(a) Kurinchi (b) Palai
(c) Neytal (d) Mullai
List-II
(Meaning)
1. Pastoral region
2. Seashore
3. Arid region
4. Mountainous region
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
Ans: (C)
117. Which of the following statements with regard to the conduct of elections in India is/are not correct ?
1. The responsibility for the preparation of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India.
2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced.
3. The laws relating to delimitation of constitutions are made by the Election Commission of India.
4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 4 only
Ans: (A)
118. Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct ?
(A) The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Schedule Tribes
(B) All the reports of the Commission and its recommendation shall be laid only before Lok Sabha
(C) The Commission, while investigating any matter, has all the powers of a Civil Court
(D) The Commission has the Power to regulate its own procedures
Ans: (B)
119. The right to form associations and unions is a right –
(A) Guaranteed to everybody
(B) To freedom guaranteed to citizens only
(C) To equality before law
(D) To life and personal liberty
Ans: (B)
120. Some Indian territory was transferred in 2015 to Bangladesh by following which procedure ?
(A) By an agreement between the Government of India and the Government of Bangladesh
(B) By a legislation passed by the Parliament amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
(C) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament
(D) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power to the Parliament and ratification by sixteen State Legislatures
Uttar Pradesh Medical Officer Screening Test Homeopathy Held on 19-4-2015 Question Paper with Answer Key
Uttar Pradesh Medical Officer Screening Test Hemoeopathy, 2015
Held on 19-4-2015
General Studies
1. Which one of the following is not a measure of tenancy reforms?
(A) Regulation of rent
(B) Security of tenure of tenancy
(C) Frequent enhancement of rent
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
2. The second Five Year Plan was based on –
(A) Harrod-Domar model
(B) Mahalanobis model
(C) Unbalanced growth model
(D) Gadgil strategy
Ans: (B)
3. Which one of the following waves/rays can be detected by a magnet?
(A) Gamma rays
(B) Radio waves
(C) Beta rays
(D) Ultraviolet rays
Ans: (C)
4. ‘Providing Urban amenities in Rural Areas (PURA)’ model was developed by –
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Manomhan Singh
(C) Lal Krishna Advani
(D) C. Rangrajan
Ans: (A)
5. A stone rests on the bottom of a cup filled with water. The apparent depth of the stone is
(A) equal to its real depth
(B) less than its real depth
(C) greater than its real depth
(D) Any of (A) and (C)
Ans: (B)
6. ‘Loss of the ability of eye to focus on near and far objects’ with advancing age is called –
(A) Presbyopia
(B) Astigmatism
(C) Hypermetropia
(D) Myopia
Ans: (A)
7. The present rural local self government structures are based on the recommendation of which one of the following?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) R.R. Diwakar Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
8. Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduce to the Judicial System in India?
(A) M. Hidayatullah
(B) P. N. Bhagwati
(C) A. M. Ahmadi
(D) A. S. Anand
Ans: (B)
9. Which one of the following articles of Constitution of India eradicates untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 18
Ans: (C)
10. Which one of the following is not a part of the three tier structure of Panchayati Raj?
(A) District level
(B) Village level
(C) Block level
(D) Tahsil level
Ans: (D)
11. Which one of the following is supreme in Indian polity?
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Religion
(C) The Constitution
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans: (C)
12. The monthly incomes of Rajesh and Mohan are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If each saves Rs. 600 at the end of the month, then the monthly income of Rajesh is —
(A) Rs. 3,200
(B) Rs. 2,800
(C) Rs. 2,400
(D) Rs. 2,000
Ans: (C)
13. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back, the was five times as old as his son. The age of the father at present is —
(A) 27 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 33 years
(D) 36 years
Ans: (B)
14. If a, b, c are all non-zero and a + b + c = 0, then the value of is –
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Ans: (D)
15. Twenty per cent of ten plus ten per cent of twenty will be equal to —
(A) Thirty per cent of ten
(B) Thirty per cent of twenty
(C) Fifteen per cent of thirty
(D) Twenty per cent of twenty
Ans: (D)
16. Which one of the following class of seeds is not known in India?
(A) Nucleus seed
(B) Breeder seed
(C) Registered seed
(D) Certified seed
Ans: (A)
17. ‘DAPOG’ is a process of –
(A) Sowing of wheat
(B) Nursery raising of rice
(C) Seed bed preparation
(D) Sowing of sugarcane crop
Ans: (B)
18. Across the world 21st February is celebrated as –
(A) International Mother Language Day
(B) International Yoga Day
(C) International Youth Day
(D) International Martyr’s Day
Ans: (A)
19. The measurement of soil moisture stress is done by –
(A) ODR meter
(B) Penetrometer
(C) Tensiometer
(D) Calcimeter
Ans: (C)
20. Which one of the following telecom operators tied up with UNICEF to provide free education in Africa?
(A) Uninor
(B) Bharti Airtel
(C) Idea Cellular Ltd.
(D) Vodafone
Ans: (B)
21. Which one of the following countries most recently issued ban on commercial surrogacy for foreigners?
(A) Thailand
(B) North Korea
(C) Vietnam
(D) Indonesia
Ans: (A)
22. ‘Maritime Silk Road’ initiative has been launched by –
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Nepal
(C) China
(D) India
Ans: (C)
23. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Lakes – Phuljhar Lake ; States – Uttar Pradesh
(B) Lakes – Pushkar lake ; States– Rajasthan
(C) Lakes – Sat Tal ; States–Uttarakhand
(D) Lakes – Lonar lake ; States– Karnataka
Ans: (A)
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-
List-I
(Local name for shifting cultivation)
(a) Milpa (b) Fang
(c) Ladang (d) Jhum
List-II
(Areas)
1. Indonesia
2. Latin America
3. India
4. Africa
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
Ans: (B)
25. Which one of the following waterfalls is called Niagara of India?
(A) Kunchikal fall
(B) Langshiang fall
(C) Hogenakhal fall
(D) Jog fall
Ans: (C)
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer u sing the codes given below the lists –
List-I
(Tribes)
(a) Kammara (b) Phake
(c) Khaira (d) Todia
List-II
(States)
1. Nilgiri Hills (Tamil Nadu)
2. Gujarat
3. Andhra Pradesh (undivided)
4. Assam
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
Ans: (A)
27. The main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy was-
(A) The doctrine of rebirth
(B) The doctrine of Nirguna Brahma
(C) The doctrine of immortality
(D) The doctrine of syadawada
Ans: (D)
28. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Arctic Home of the Vedas’ ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Dayanand Saraswati
(C) Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilkak
(D) Arvind Ghosh
Ans: (C)
29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists –
List-I
(a) Rigveda (b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda (d) Atharvaveda
List-II
1. Gopath Brahmana
2. Aitereya Brahmana
3. Satapath Brahmana
4. Tandya Brahmna
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
Ans: (B)
30. Who among the following was the first satyagrahi of individual Civil Disobedience Movement started by Gandhiji in October 1940 ?
S. S. C. Junior Engineer Examination Held on 31-1-2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
S. S. C. Junior Engineer Exam., 2016
Held On 31-1-2016
General Intelligence and Reasoning
1. If in a certain code ‘Education’ is written as 365798214 then how ‘Conduct’ can be written?
(A) 6485767
(B) 1458776
(C) 7146578
(D) 6547871
Ans: (C)
2. Hospital is 12 km toward east of Rupin’s house. His school is 5 km towards south of hospital. What is the shortest distance between Rupin’s house and school?
(A) 16 km
(B) 12 km
(C) 13 km
(D) 17 km
Ans: (C)
Directions: (Q. 3 to 11) Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
3. Chair : Furniture :: Fork : ?
(A) Spoon
(B) Crockery
(C) Food
(D) Cutlery
Ans: (D)
4. q : d :: b : ?
(A) p
(B) q
(C) b
(D) d
Ans: (A)
5. ABB : EGJ :: FHL : ?
(A) JJL
(B) FHH
(C) JMT
(D) BDH
Ans: (C)
6. Compass : Ship :: Vaastu : ?
(A) Land
(B) Flat
(C) Building
(D) Home
Ans: (D)
7. Book : Library :: ? : File
(A) Computer
(B) Folder
(C) Data
(D) Bytes
Ans: (C)
8. EV : KP :: TG : ?
(A) AZ
(B) ZA
(C) AA
(D) ZZ
Ans: (B)
9. 17 : 102 :: 23 : ?
(A) 112
(B) 216
(C) 138
(D) 413
Ans: (C)
10. 25 : 36 :: ?
(A) 25 : 49
(B) 9 : 25
(C) 16 : 25
(D) 81 : 121
Ans: (C)
11. 21 : 65 :: 31 : ?
(A) 78
(B) 85
(C) 80
(D) 95
Ans: (D)
Directions –(Q. 12 to 13) In the question one/two statements are given followed by conclusions/assumptions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions, if any, follows from the given statements.
12. Statements :
1. All student are girls.
2. Some students are not talented.
Conclusion:
I. No student is talented.
II. Some girls are talented.
(A) Both I and II follow
(B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only I follows
Ans: (C)
13. Statements :
1. Tigers do not fly.
2. Hens do not fly.
Conclusion :
I. Tigers are birds.
II. All birds connate fly.
(A) Either I or II follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows
Ans: (D)
14. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
Question Figures
Answer Figures
Ans: (B)
15. 3, 9, 21, 45, ?
(A) 78
(B) 54
(C) 87
(D) 93
Ans: (D)
16.
(A) 6
(B)
(C) 2
(D)
Ans: (C)
17. 11, 12, 16, 25, ?
(A) 49
(B) 45
(C) 43
(D) 41
Ans: (D)
18. CDDP DEER EFFT FGGV GHHX ?
(A) HJJY
(B) ZIIH
(C) HIIZ
(D) HIJZ
Ans: (C)
19. Lmnmnopnopqr…?….
(A) Lmnop
(B) opqrs
(C) npqrs
(D) pqrst
Ans: (B)
20. R I A T N I E ?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) D
(D) C
Ans: (A)
Directions – (Q. 21 to 28) Find the odd word / number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
21. (A) Nephrology
(B) Pathology
(C) Astrology
(D) Entomology
Ans: (C)
22. (A) Decoding
(B) Cycling
(C) Reasoning
(D) Analogy
Ans: (B)
23. (A) 778
(B) 895
(C) 976
(D) 997
Ans: (D)
24. (A) prrsuu
(B) accdff
(C) mnnoqq
(D) egghjj
Ans: (C)
25. (A) OQTX
(B) XZCG
(C) JMNQ
(D) EGJN
Ans: (C)
26. (A) NMOK
(B) PKQJ
(C) RLSK
(D) TGUF
Ans: (C)
27. (A) stare
(B) look
(C) hug
(D) glance
Ans: (C)
28. (A) 8
(B) 96
(C) 111
(D) 87
Ans: (A)
29. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
Question Figures
Answer Figures
Ans: (B)
30. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
Question Figures
Answer Figures
Ans: (C)
31. Two cars started from a particular spot. The car A ran straight at the speed of 30 kmph for 2 hours north and then took a right turn. It ran 40 km and again turned right. It stopped after 30 km. The car B ran straight towards east at the speed of 20 kmph for 2 hours and turned left. It ran for 10 km and then stopped. How far were these two cars from each other when both toe them stopped at last?
(A) 17 km
(B) 18 km
(C) 19 km
(D) 20 km
Ans: (D)
32. In a certain code language, if the word ‘RHOMBUS’ is coded as TJQODWU, then how is the word ‘RECTANGLE’ in that language?
(A) TGFWEPING
(B) TGEVCPING
(C) TGEWDPING
(D) TGEVCPIMG
Ans: (B)
Directions – (Q. 33 to 35) Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
33. 1. Village 2. State
3. Nation 4. District
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans: (A)
34. 1. Branches 2. Root
3. Trunk 4. Leaf
5. Flower
(A) 4 1 3 2 5
(B) 1 2 3 4 5
(C) 2 3 1 4 5
(D) 4 3 1 2 5
Ans: (C)
35. 1. Adult hood
2. Baby hood
3. Childhood
4. Infancy
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (B)
Directions- (Q. 36 to 37) Select the missing number from the given responses.
36. 20 30 12
3 4 8
80 ? 116
(A) 60
(B) 120
(C) 100
(D) 140
Ans: (D)
37.
13
15
12
02
04
05
04
05
08
30
65
?
(A) 64
(B) 65
(C) 69
(D) 68
Ans: (D)
38. If 44 + 12 = 30,
77 + 14 = 61,
84 + 16 = 66
then what should be for following :
44 + 22 = ?
(A) 20
(B) 32
(C) 28
(D) 24
Ans: (A)
39. Ashok is heavier than Gopal. Mahesh is lighter than Jayesh. Prashant is heavier than Jayesh but lighter then Gopal. Who among them is heavier.
(A) Prashant
(B) Gopal
(C) Ashok
(D) Mahesh
Ans: (C)
40. Find the number of minimum straight lines required to make figure?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 13
(D) 15
Ans: (C)
41. If 7x = 8k and 5y = 6k, then the value of ratio x is to y is –
(A) 20 : 21
(B) 21 : 20
(C) 35 : 48
(D) 48 : 35
Ans: (A)
42. Write the number of space enclosed by rectangle and circle but not by triangle?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans: (B)
43. Which answer figure all complete the pattern in the question figure?
Question Figures
Answer Figures
Ans: (B)
44. How many triangle are there in the figure?
(A) 20
(B) 16
(C) 10
(D) 7
Ans: (B)
45. Select the set of symbols which can be fitted correctly in the following equation:
8…4…2…6…3 = 32
(A) +, ×, ÷, −
(B) −, ×, ÷, +
(C) +, ÷, ×, −
(D) ×, −, +, ÷
Ans: (D)
46. Ramu’s mother has three sons. The eldest one is called Onekari, the second one is called Twokari. Then the third son’s name is ….?
(A) Nokari
(B) Teenkari
(C) Sandu
(D) Ramu
Ans: (D)
47. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘M’ can be represented by 01, 14 etc., and ‘S’ can be represented by 58, 77 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘ROHAN’
(A) 11, 75, 00, 55, 10
(B) 11, 57, 00, 55, 12
(C) 32, 67, 41, 55, 12
(D) 32, 75, 21, 55, 10
Ans: (A)
48. In the given figure, the circle stands for intelligent, square for hard working, triangle for Post-graduate and the rectangle for loyal employees. Study the figure and answer the following questions.
Employees who are intelligent, hardworking and legal but not post graduate are represented by –
(A) 3
(B) 11
(C) 5
(D) 4
Ans: (D)
49. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
Patna University M. Ed. Entrance Examination Held on 25-7-2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
Patna University M. Ed. Entrance Examination, 2016
Held On 25-7-2016
1. A comparison of vocational education in India and that the USA reveals that –
(A) vocational programme in USA is taken less seriously
(B) in India there is no coordination between the academic and vocational programmes
(C) the history and development of vocational education in India has witnessed many ups and downs in comparison to USA
(D) the vocational programme in India is very popular in comparison to USA
Ans: (B)
2. Classroom communication must be –
(A) teacher centric
(B) student centric
(C) general centric
(D) textbook centric
Ans: (B)
3. Who started the distance education course first of all ?
(A) Isaac Pitman
(B) Charles Wedeneyer
(C) W. R. Harper
(D) J. K. Taylor
Ans: (A)
4. Which of the following is the apex body in the area of teacher education in India ?
(A) UGC
(B) MHRD
(C) NCTE
(D) NCERT
Ans: (C)
5. Which one of the following is not the barriers to communication ?
(A) Noise
(B) Unclear word
(C) Feedback
(D) Error of tower
Ans: (C)
6. Generally seminar technique occurs in –
(A) Primary School
(B) Secondary School
(C) Senior Secondary School
(D) University
Ans: (D)
7. The research steam of immediate application is –
(A) Conceptual Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Empirical Research
Ans: (B)
8. Which one is not found in good tools ?
(A) Reliability
(B) Validity
(C) Norms
(D) Subjectivity
Ans: (D)
9. How many types of level of teaching are there ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans: (C)
10. In which country, the First Open University was established in the world ?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) India
(D) Australia
Ans: (B)
11. Any institution of minor projects is mostly of the type of –
(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Pre-experimental Research
(C) Action Research
(D) Historical Research
Ans: (A)
12. Which one of the following guidance services is on the weak footing in India ?
(A) Information service
(B) Inventory service
(C) Counseling service
(D) Follow-up service
Ans: (A)
13. The kind of services required to organize a school guidance programme are –
(A) personal, professional, placement, follow-up
(B) information, testing, counseling, follow-up
(C) information, testing, counseling, placement
(D) information, guidance, counseling, follow-up
Ans: (A)
14. Which of the following may not be identified through sociometry ?
(A) Gifted
(B) Rejected
(C) Isolated
(D) Most liked
Ans: (A)
15. Which of the following is an open source software ?
(A) Acrobat Reader
(B) MS-Word
(C) Windows
(D) Mozila Firefox
Ans: (D)
16. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to –
(A) glorify the class
(B) attract the students
(C) clarify the concepts
(D) ensure discipline
Ans: (C)
17. In a system analysis model, all the components of the system are –
(A) correlated
(B) interdependent
(C) in a cause-effect relationship
(D) not related to each other
Ans: (A)
18. Which one tool is not subjective tools?
(A) Questionnaire
(B) Interview
(C) Observation
(D) Case Study
Ans: (A)
19. Which of the following Educational Technology Approaches has the support of operant conditioning paradigm of B.F. Skinner?
(A) Branding Programme
(B) Mathetic Programme
(C) Linear Programme
(D) Computer Assisted Instruction
Ans: (C)
20. Which of the following principles is not associated with the programmed instruction ?
(A) Principle of self-pacing
(B) Principle of active responding
(C) Principle of immediate conformation
(D) Principle of simulated responding
Ans: (D)
21. Which one of the following gives the various phases of the system approach in the correct sequence ?
(A) Management, Design, Analysis
(B) Design, Management, Analysis
(C) Analysis, Management, Design
(D) Analysis, Design, Management
Ans: (D)
22. In which of the following examples of Educational Technology, the emphasis is on individualized instruction ?
(A) Progammed instruction
(B) Discussion sessions
(C) Simulation
(D) Interaction analysis
Ans: (A)
23. Which of the following curriculum model involves a hierarchy of educational officers for its implementation ?
(A) System Analysis Model
(B) Administrative Model
(C) Demonstration Model
(D) Grass-root Model
Ans: (A)
24. Which of the following is used in guidance programme ?
(A) Intelligence tests
(B) Aptitude tests
(C) Interest tests
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)
25. Function of guidance in school is –
(A) total development of students
(B) best possible adjustment in school
(C) people choice of educational career
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)
26. Who is providing ICT to use in education ?
(A) Open Universities
(B) Directorate of Distance Education
(C) Open Schools
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)
27. Idealism states –
(A) mind alone is real
(B) both matter and mind are real
(C) matter alone is real
(D) neither mind nor matter is real
Ans: (A)
28. Madhyam a Pratipada is a cardinal principle of –
(A) Jainism
(B) Buddhism
(C) Vedanata Philosophy
(D) Sankhya Philosophy
Ans: (B)
29. The Jain epistemology considers a five stage hierarchy of knowledge. Which of the following is proper order of different level of knowledge ?
(A) Mati, Shruti, Manahparyava, Avadhi, Kaivalya
(B) Shruti, mati, Avadhi, Manahparyava, Kaivalya
(C) Mati, Shruti, Avadhi, Manahparyava, Kaivalya
(D) Kaivalya, Avadh, Manahparyava, Shruti, Mati
Ans: (C)
30. Of Froebel’s idealism it can be said that –
(A) education is not a process of unfoldment
(B) learning unites knowledge feeling and do you
(C) education cannot be a process of self-realization
(D) the notion of self-activity is limited to manual activity
Ans: (B)
31. Find the odd item out –
(A) Buddhi
(B) Antahkaran
(C) Chitta
(D) Manas
Ans: (B)
32. The nature of truth is basically a problem for –
(A) law
(B) ethics
(C) epistemology
(D) axiology
Ans: (C)
33. Aims of education are closely related to –
(A) metaphysics
(B) axiology
(C) logic
(D) epistemology
Ans: (B)
34. Which philosophy favours the statement “man is the measure of all things” ?
(A) Realism
(B) Pragmatism
(C) Idealism
(D) Naturalism
Ans: (D)
35. Those whose Educational Philosophy is based on pragmatism will –
(A) reject the scientific method of experimentation
(B) accept that complete objectivity is possible
(C) accept the stimulus response theory of learning
(D) claim that knowledge is tentative, truth is relative
Ans: (D)
36. Which of the following thinkers has been described as idealist in aim, naturalist in content and pragmatist in method ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) R. N. Tagore
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Shri Aurobindo
Ans: (C)
37. Teacher with pragmatic orientation will hesitate to rely on the –
(A) voice of inner soul
(B) routine practice
(C) felt needs
(D) end results
Ans: (A)
38. One major difference between Tagorean and Rousseau’s ideas on nature is –
(A) Tagore gave less emphasis on nature
(B) Tagore did not believe in negative education
(C) Tagore regarded God as the creator of nature
(D) Tagore believed that nature will punish the human
Ans: (C)
39. Education as a social subsystem
(A) can promote normative social change
(B) cannot promote normative social change
(C) has nothing to do with social change
(D) will related social change
Ans: (A)
40. Which one of the following is broadest in its scope ?
(A) The School as a Social System
(B) Social Foundations of Education
(C) Educational Sociology
(D) Sociology of Education
Ans: (A)
41. Which of the following is not considered an element of culture ?
(A) Social institution
(B) Physical resources
(C) Spiritual values
(D) Human resources
Ans: (D)
42. Which is not a criterion used consistently for placing people in a particular social class ?
(A) Race
(B) Religion
(C) Knowledge
(D) Wealth
Ans: (B)
43. Use of Science and Technology in replacing existing social practices is termed as –
(A) Socialization
(B) Westernization
(C) Sanskritization
(D) Modernization
Ans: (B)
44. The son of a rickshaw puller struggles and becomes an Engineer. This is an example of –
(A) social change
(B) social mobility
(C) social stratification
(D) social cohesion
Ans: (C)
45. The process of imbibing one’s own culture in one’s personality s termed as –
(A) Enculturation
(B) Acculturation
(C) Socialization
(D) Sanskritization
Ans: (A)
46. Which of the following was the major factor for caste distinction in India before Independence ?
(A) Religion
(B) Poverty
(C) English Education
(D) Family occupation
Ans: (B)
47. Application of general principles of Sociology in the process of education is known as-
(A) Educational Sociology
(B) Social foundations of education
(C) Sociology of education
(D) Educational foundations of education
Ans: (A)
48. Which of the following is an agent of positive social change ?
(A) Power
(B) Education
(C) Money
(D) Calamity
Ans: (B)
49. In modern society one spends a significant part of one’s formative years …… to avail formal education.
(A) in family
(B) in community
(C) with peers
(D) at school
Ans: (D)
50. Who has given the theory of social learning ?
(A) Spearman
(B) Thorndike
(C) Albert Bandura
(D) Watson
Ans: (C)
51. The most powerful agent of socialization during adolescence is-
(A) religion
(B) the school
(C) the house
(D) the peer group
Ans: (D)
52. Which one of the following is an important activity to enable children to learn ?
(A) Instruction
(B) Reward
(C) Dialogue
(D) Lecture
Ans: (B)
53. Middle childhood is the period from –
(A) 6 years to 11 years
(B) 10 years onwards
(C) birth to 2 years
(D) 2 years to 6 years
Ans: (A)
54. According to Piaget, which one of the following factors plays an important role in influencing development ?
(A) Imitation
(B) Reinforcement
(C) Language
(D) Experience with the physical world
Ans: (B)
55. The cognitive ability that comes in pre-operational period is –
(A) ability to take other’s perspective
(B) hypothetics-deductive thinking
(C) ability for abstract thinking
(D) ability of goal directed behaviour
Ans: (B)
56. Teachers can encourage children to think creatively by –
(A) asking them re-call based questions
(B) giving them multiple choice questions
(C) asking them to think of different ways to solve a problem
(D) asking them to memorize answers
Ans: (C)
57. The insight theory of learning is promoted by-
(A) Gestalt Theorists
(B) Pavlov
(C) Jean Piaget
(D) Vygotsky
Ans: (A)
58. “Development is a never ending process.” This idea is associated with-
(A) principle of inter-relation
(B) principle of continuity
(C) principle of integration
(D) principle of interaction
Ans: (B)
59. ……. is considered a sign of motivated teaching.
(A) Maximum attendance in the class
(B) Remedial work given by the teacher
(C) Questioning by students
(D) Pin-drop silence in the class
Ans: (C)
60. ‘Mind mapping’ refers to-
(A) a technique to enhance comprehension
(B) a plan of action from adventure
(C) drawing the picture of a mind
(D) researching the functioning of the mind
Ans: (A)
61. Gifted students are-
(A) very hard working
(B) convergent thinkers
(C) divergent thinkers
(D) extrovert
Ans: (C)
62. Bloom’s taxonomy is a hierarchical organization of-
(A) cognitive objectives
(B) achievement goals
(C) curricular declarations
(D) reading skills
Ans: (A)
63. Who established the first school to educate the mentally retarded children ?
(A) Seguin
(B) Terman
(C) Gardner
(D) Binet
Ans: (A)
64. “Learning is continuously a process of adjustment.” This is a statement of-
(A) Crownback
(B) Gats
(C) Skinner
(D) Crow and Crow
Ans: (C)
65. In emotional intelligence, which will not be considered a component ?
(A) Self-management
(B) Self-analysis
(C) Self-motivation
(D) Empathy
Ans: (A)
66. Which of the following learning theories is intimately related to Thorndike’s law effect?
(A) Guthrie’s contiguity theory
(B) Pavlov’s reflex conditioning
(C) Skinner’s operant conditioning
(D) Kohler’s gestalt theory
Ans: (C)
67. In Freud’s psychoanalytic concept of personality, which one of the following is indicative of psychic-energy ?
(A) Ego
(B) Id
(C) Super-ego
(D) Conscious level of psyche
Ans: (B)
68. Which of the following is not an example of inter-individual difference ?
(A) The child is black in colour
(B) The child is fat
(C) The child likes potato
(D) The nose of the child is sharp
Ans: (C)
69. Humanist theory of personality is advocated by –
(A) McDougal
(B) Maslow
(C) Rogers
(D) Guilford
Ans: (C)
70. Learning means-
(A) reading and writing
(B) temporary change in behaviour
(C) being able to do a particular thing successfully
(D) relatively prominent modification in behaviour due to practice
Ans: (D)
71. Development of creative thinking begins at what stage ?
(A) Infancy
(B) Childhood
(C) Adolescence
(D) Adulthood
Ans: (B)
72. In which conditioning paradigm of learning reinforcement follows rather than precedes a response ?
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Operant conditioning
(C) Contiguous conditioning
(D) Backward conditioning
Ans: (B)
73. In chronological order, which theory of intelligence is the latest ?
(A) Two-factor theory
(B) Group-factor theory
(C) Theory of multiple intelligence
(D) Multiple-factor theory
Ans: (C)
74. Classification of personalities as ‘introverts’ and ‘extroverts’ was first made by-
(A) Adler
(B) Freud
(C) Jung
(D) Maslow
Ans: (C)
75. Which one of the following is not a Projective Test of Personality ?
(A) Rorschach Ink Blot Test
(B) Thematic Apperception Test
(C) Rotter’s Sentence Completion Test
(D) Minnesota Multiphasic personality Inventory
Ans: (D)
76. Which of the following is the most appropriate term to describe the content of Educational Psychology ?
(A) Determinable
(B) Fluid
(C) Casual
(D) Transparent
Ans: (C)
77. The Kothari Commission’s Report was entitled on-
(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be Adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and Socialization in Democracy
Ans: (A)
78. ‘Accreditation’ of Teacher Education Institutions is done by-
(A) NCERT
(B) NUEPA
(C) NCTE
(D) NAAC
Ans: (D)
79. Issue regarding establishment of Common School System in India is related to-
(A) problem of ‘education and modernization’
(B) social equity
(C) politics and educational change
(D) education of backward section of the society
Ans: (B)
80. The meaning of Prabbajja Ceremony is-
(A) Admission of Buddhist
(B) Thread Ceremony
(C) Ceremony to Perform Yajna
(D) Admission to Gurukulas
Ans: (A)
81. Which is the best form of Government to develop education ?
(A) Aristocracy
(B) Democracy
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Monarchy
Ans: B
82. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation in school education was started by-
(A) SCERT
(B) UGC
(C) IGNOU
(D) CBSE
Ans: (D)
83. Vocationalization of education in Independent India was first recommended by-
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) The Mudaliar Commission
(C) The Kothari Commission
(D) The New Education Policy
Ans: (C)
84. India has taken a move to ensure that there would be no untrained teacher at elementary school level by the end of August 2015. This is in the wake of-
(A) Verdict of Supreme Court
(B) Right to Education Act, 2009
(C) Rule made by NCTE
(D) Recommendation of NPE, 1986
Ans: (B)
85. Article 36 to 51 of the Constitution of India deal with-
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Introduction
(D) Directive Principles
Ans: (D)
86. Who was the First Chairman of University Grant Commission
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Prof. Yashpal
(C) Prof. S. S. Bhatnagar
(D) Prof. D.S. Kothari
Ans: (C)
87. Education falls under the-
(A) Concurrent List
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Constitution of India
(D) State List
Ans: (A)
88. The policy recommended by the Kothari Commission vis-à-vis language is-
(A) three-language formula
(B) two-language formula
(C) Hindi
(D) Mother tongue
Ans: (A)
89. The First National Policy on Education in free India was launched in which year ?
(A) 1947
(B) 1964
(C) 1968
(D) 1986
Ans: (C)
90. Which of the following Commission first decentralized the primary education ?
(A) Hunter Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Kothari Commission
(D) Sadler Commission
Ans: (A)
91. A well-defined management should give stress on-
(A) supervision
(B) organizational aspects for proper development
(C) teacher’s problem
(D) disciplinary aspects
Ans: (B)
92. The ultimate goal of education in Jainism is-
(A) nonviolence
(B) renunciation
(C) liberation
(D) philanthropy
Ans: (C)
93. ‘Education and National Development’ is the title of the report of-
(A) Wood’s Dispatch (1854)
(B) Secondary Education Commission (1952-53)
(C) Kothari Education Commission (1964-66)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
94. Maktabs are related to-
(A) Elementary Education
(B) Primary Education
(C) Secondary Education
(D) Higher Education
Ans: (B)
95. National Knowledge Commission is headed by-
(A) D. S. Kothari
(B) Amartya Sen
(C) Sam Pitroda
(D) Azim Premji
Ans: (C)
96. Operation Blackboard Programme was introduced to improve-
(A) Teacher Education
(B) Primary Education
(C) Secondary Education
(D) Higher Education
Ans: (B)
97. The ceiling fixed by the Supreme Court of reservation for the socially and economically disadvantaged sections is-
(A) 19%
(B) 22%
(C) 49%
(D) 50%
Ans: (D)
98. District Institutes of Education and Training (DIETs) were created in pursuance of the recommendation of-
(A) National Policy on Education, 1968
(B) National Policy on Education, 1986
(C) Kothari Commission, 1964-66
(D) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
Ans: (B)
99. Monitorial system of class-administration was practiced by-
(A) Buddhist Education
(B) Vedantic Education
(C) Islamic Education
(D) Vedic Education
Ans: (C)
100. Which of the following is an assessment agency for assessing higher education agency in India ?
The percentage by which item B’s cost price had been marked up is the same as the profit % earned on selling item A.
is –
