NEET-(UG) 2018 Examination Held on 06-05-2018 Code AA Question Paper with Answer Key

NEET-UG Examination Held on 06.05.2018 Code-AA 

1. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ration of work done by the g as, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

(1)  1/3

(2)  2/3

(3)  2/5

(4)  2/7

Answer: (3)

2. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

(1)  12.5 cm

(2)  8 cm

(3)  13.2 cm

(4)  16 cm

Answer: (3)

3. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere?

(Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 1026 kg Blotzmann’s constant kB = 1.38 × 1023 J K1)

(1)  5.016 × 104 K

(2)  8.360× 104 K

(3)  2.508 × 104 K

(4)  1.254 × 104 K

Answer: (2)

4. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

(1)  6.25%

(2)  20%

(3)  26.8%

(4)  12.5%

Answer: (3)

5. A carbon resistor of (47 ±7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

(1)  Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

(2)  Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

(3)  Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

(4)  Green – Orange – Violet – Gold

Answer: (2)

6. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is

(1)  20

(2)  11

(3)  10

(4)  9

Answer: (3)

7. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?





Answer: (3)

8. Unpolarized light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ‘μ’. At a particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?


(2)  Reflected light is polarized with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence

(3)  Reflected light is polarized with its electric vector parallel to the p lane of incidence


Answer: (2)

9. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used in 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

(1)  2.1 mm

(2)  1.9 mm

(3)  1.8 mm

(4)  1.7 mm

Answer: (2)

10. An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

(1)  large focal length and large diameter

(2)  large focal length and small diameter

(3)  small focal length and large diameter

(4)  small focal  length and small diameter

Answer: (1)

11. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is

(1)  2 : −1

(2)  1 : −1

(3)  1 : 1

(4)  1 : −2

Answer: (2)

12. An electron of mass m with a initial velocity  enters an electric field  (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

(1)  λ0t



(4)  λ0

Answer: (3)

13. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

(1)  30

(2)  10

(3)  20

(4)  15

Answer: (3)

14. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is

(1)  4 : 1

(2)  1 : 4

(3)  1 : 2

(4)  2 : 1

Answer: (3)

15. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of IB, IC and β are given by

(1)  IB = 20 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 250

(2)  IB = 25 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 200

(3)  IB = 40 μA, IC = 10 mA, β = 250

(4)  IB = 40 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 125

Answer: (4)

16. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

(1)  does not affect resistance of p=n junction

(2)  affects only forward resistance

(3)  affects only reverse resistance

(4)  affects the overall V – I characteristics of p-n junction

Answer: (4)

17. In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as





Answer: (2)

18. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity  The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y-axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along

(1)  −y direction

(2)  +z direction

(3)  −z direction

(4)  −x direction

Answer: (2)

19. The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is

(1)  30°

(2)  45°

(3)  60°

(4)  zero

Answer: (2)

20. An object is p laced at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

(1)  30 cm towards the mirror

(2)  36 cm away from the mirror

(3)  30 cm away from the mirror

(4)  36 cm towards the mirror

Answer: (2)

21. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

(1)  1.389 H

(2)  138.88 H

(3)  0.138 H

(4)  13.89 H

Answer: (4)

22. An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

(1)  10 times greater

(2)  5 times greater

(3)  smaller

(4)  equal

Answer: (3)

23. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is

(1)  proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

(2)  linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.

(3)  independent of the distance between the plates.

(4)  inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

Answer: (3)

24. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonance are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning form is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C is

(1)  350 m/s

(2)  339 m/s

(3)  330 m/s

(4)  300 m/s

Answer: (2)

25. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

(1)  2 s

(2)  π s

(3)  2π s

(4)  1 s

Answer: (2)

26. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

(1)  14.76 A

(2)  5.98 A

(3)  7.14 A

(4)  11.32 A

Answer: (4)

27. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

(1)  the lattice structure of the material of the rod

(2)  the magnetic field

(3)  the current source

(4)  the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field

Answer: (3)

28. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

(1)  2.74 W

(2)  0.43 W

(3)  0.79 W

(4)  1.13 W

Answer: (3)

29. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1)  250 Ω

(2)  25 Ω

(3)  40 Ω

(4)  500 Ω

Answer: (1)

30. A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to


(2)  D



Answer: (4)

31. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

(1)  WB > WA > WC

(2)  WA > WB > WC

(3)  WC > W­B > WA

(4)  WA > WC > WB

Answer: (3)

32. A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4 m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

(1)  0.8

(2)  0.25

(3)  0.5

(4)  0.4

Answer: (2)

33. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)  Frictional force opposes the relative motion.

(2)  Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.

(3)  Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

(4)  Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

Answer: (4)

34. A toy care with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field  Due to the force  its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car  between 0 to3 seconds are respectively

(1)  1 m/s, 3.5 m/s

(2)  1 m/s, 3 m/s

(3)  2 m/s, 4 m/s

(4)  1.5 m/s, 3 m/s

Answer: (2)

35. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

(1)  a = g cos θ

(2)  a = g/sin θ

(3)  a = g/cosec θ

(4)  a = g tan θ

Answer: (4)

36. The moment of the force,  at (2, 0, −3), about the point (2, −2, −2), is given by





Answer: (4)

37. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the references level. If screw gauge has a zero error of −004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

(1)  0.053 cm

(2)  0.525 cm

(3)  0.521 cm

(4)  0.529 cm

Answer: (4)

38. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in the free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?

(1)  Rotational kinetic energy

(2)  Moment of inertia

(3)  Angular velocity

(4)  Angular momentum

Answer: (4)

39. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure.

(1)  KB < KA < KC

(2)  KA > KB > KC

(3)  KA < KB < KC

(4)  KB > KA > KC

Answer: (2)

40. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?

(1)  Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.

(2)  Walking on the ground would become more difficult.

(3)  Raindrops will fall faster.

(4)  ‘g’ on the Earth will not change.

Answer: (4)

41. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

(1)  10 : 7

(2)  5 : 7

(3)  7 : 10

(4)  2 : 5

Answer: (2)

42. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains terminal velocity, is proportional to

(1)  r56

(2)  r2

(3)  r3

(4)  r4

Answer: (1)

43. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, λ0. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength  the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

(1)  256/81

(2)  4/3

(3)  3/4

(4)  81/256

Answer: (1)

44. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by ∆l on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?

(1)  4 F

(2)  6 F

(3)  9 F

(4)  F

Answer: (3)

45. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm2) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100° If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

(1)  42.2 J

(2)  208.7 J

(3)  104.3 J

(4)  84.5 J

Answer: (2)

46. The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

(1)  HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2

(2)  HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2

(3)  HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl

(4)  NH4Cl, N2 NO, HNO3

Answer: (3)

47. Which one of the following elements is unable to form

(1)  B

(2)  Al

(3)  Ga

(4)  In

Answer: (1)

48. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

(1)  Mg

(2)  Zn

(3)  Fe

(4)  Cu

Answer: (1)

49. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

(1)  B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

(2)  B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

(3)  B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

(4)  B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

Answer: (4)

50. Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?

(1)  All but fluorine show positive oxidation states.

(2)  All are oxidizing agents.

(3)  All form monobasic oxyacids.

(4)  Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.

Answer: (1)

51. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

(1)  four

(2)  two

(3)  one

(4)  three

Answer: (2)

52. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions :





Answer: (4)

53. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterions?

(1)  Benzoic acid

(2)  Acetanilide

(3)  Aniline

(4)  Glycine

Answer: (4)

54. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)  Examples are Bakelite and melamine.

(2)  They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.

(3)  They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

(4)  They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

Answer: (4)

55. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

(1)  In absence of substituents nitro group always goes t m-position.

(2)  In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group in meta directive.

(3)  In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

(4)  In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.

Answer: (4)

56. The difference between amylase and amylopectin is

(1)  Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

(2)  Amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

(3)  Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage

(4)  Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

Answer: (3)

57. A mixture of 2.3g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

(1)  2.8

(2)  3.0

(3)  1.4

(4)  4.4

Answer: (1)

58. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

(1)  BaO

(2)  BeO

(3)  MgO

(4)  CaO

Answer: (2)

59. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

(1)  N2O

(2)  NO2

(3)  N2O5

(4)  NO

Answer: (3)

60. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

(1)  C2H5Cl,  C2H6, C2H5OH

(2)  C2H5OH, C2h5Cl, C2H5ONa

(3)  C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl

(4)  C2H5OH,  C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl

Answer: (4)

61. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions :

The product  ‘C’ is

(1)  3-bromo-2,4, 6-trichlorotoluene

(2)  o-bromotoluene

(3)  m-bromotoluene

(4)  p-bromotoluene

Answer: (3)

62. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than for carbon atoms. (A) is

(1)  CH3 − CH3

(2)  CH2 = CH2

(3)  CH ≡ CH

(4)  CH4

Answer: (4)

63. Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridization sp2, sp2, sp, sp from left to right atoms?

(1)  CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

(2)  CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH

(3)  HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH

(4)  CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

Answer: (2)

64. Which of the following carbocation is expected to be most stable?





Answer: (1)

65. Which of the following is correct with respect to −I  effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)

(1)  −NH2 > −OR > −F

(2)  −NR2 < − OR < − F

(3)  −NH2 < − OR < −F

(4)  −NR2 > − OR > − F

Answer: (3)

66. In the reaction

the electrophile involved is

(1)  dichloromethyl anion 

(2)  formyl cation 

(3)  dichloromethyl cation 

(4)  dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)

Answer: (4)

67. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

(1)  more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

(2)  formation of carboxylate  ion

(3)  formation of intramolecular H-bonding

(4)  formation of intermolecular H-bonding

Answer: (4)

68. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.

A and Y are respectively.





Answer: (1)

69. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code:

Column I               Column II

(a) Co3+                  (i) √8 B. M.

(b) Cr3+                  (ii) √35 B.M.

(c) Fe3+                   (iii) √3 B.M.

(d) Ni2+                   (iv) √24 B.M.

                                  (v) √15 B.M.

(1)  a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii

(2)  a – i; b – ii; c – iii; d – iv

(3)  a – iv; b – v; c – ii; d – i

(4)  a – iii; b – v; c – i; d – ii

Answer: (3)

70. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?





Answer: (4)

71. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is

(1)  trinulcear

(2)  mononuclear

(3)  tetranuclear

(4)  dinuclear

Answer: (2)

72. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is

(1)  Ionization isomerism

(2)  Coordination isomerism

(3)  Geometrical isomerism

(4)  Linkage isomerism

Answer: (3)

73. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are

(1)  square planar geometry and paramagnetic

(2)  tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

(3)  square planar geometry and diamagnetic

(4)  tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

Answer: (2)

74. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations :

pH of which one of them will  be equal to 1?

(1)  d

(2)  a

(3)  b

(4)  c

Answer: (4)

75. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

(1)  Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

(2)  Size of the ion alone

(3)  The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

(4)  The sign of charge on the ion alone

Answer: (1)

76. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

(1)  O2

(2)  H2

(3)  NH3

(4)  CO2

Answer: (3)

77. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 103 gL1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be

(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol1)

(1)  1.08 × 1014 mol2 L2

(2)  1.08 × 1012 mol2 L2

(3)  1.08 × 1010 mol2 L2

(4)  1.08 × 108 mol2 L2

Answer: (3)

78. In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum?

(1)  0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

(2)  0.18 g of water

(3)  18 mL of water

(4)  103 mol of water

Answer: (3)

79. The correct difference between first- and second-order reactions is that

(1)  a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed

(2)  the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0’ the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]0

(3)  the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate  of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

(4)  the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate  of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations

Answer: (2)

80. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic character is

(1)  BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2

(2)  CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2

(3)  BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2

(4)  BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2

Answer: (3)

81. Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below :

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

(1)  Br2



(4)  HBrO

Answer: (4)

82. For the redox reaction

the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are

Answer: (2)

83. Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction,

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ X2(g)  ∆rH = −X kJ?

(1)  High temperature and high pressure

(2)  Low temperature and low pressure

(3)  Low temperature and high pressure

(4)  High temperature and low pressure

Answer: (3)

84. When initial concentration  of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

(1)  is tripled

(2)  is doubled

(3)  is halved

(4)  remains unchanged

Answer: (2)

85. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 05 : 1. ∆H for the formation of XY is −200 kJ mol1. the bond dissociation energy of X2 will be

(1)  800 kJ mol1

(2)  100 kJ mol1

(3)  200 kJ mol1

(4)  400 kJ mol1

Answer: (1)

86. The correction factor ‘a’ to t he ideal gas equation corresponds to

(1)  electric field present between the gas molecules

(2)  volume of the gas molecules

(3)  density of the gas molecules

(4)  forces of attraction between the gas molecules

Answer: (4)

87. Consider the following species :

CN+, CN, NO and CN

Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

(1)  CN+

(2)  CN

(3)  NO

(4)  CN

Answer: (2)

88. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this compound is

(1)  Mg2X

(2)  MgX2

(3)  Mg2X3

(4)  Mg3X2

Answer: (4)

89. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900° (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature is





Answer: (1)

90. Which one is a wrong statement?

(1)  The electronic configuration of N atom is 

(2)  An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron is an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.

(3)  Total orbital angular momentum of electron in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero.

(4)  The value of m for dz2 is zero.

Answer: (1)

91. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

(1)  Cycas

(2)  Nostoc

(3)  Green sulphur bacteria

(4)  Chara

Answer: (3)

92. Double fertilization is

(1)  Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

(2)  Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

(3)  Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

(4)  Syngamy and triple fusion

Answer: (4)

93. Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete  its life cycle without the other?

(1)  Banana

(2)  Yucca

(3)  Hydrilla

(4)  Viola

Answer: (2)

94. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(1)  −196°C

(2)  −80°C

(3)  −120°C

(4)  −160°C

Answer: (1)

95. Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

(1)  Potassium

(2)  Sodium

(3)  Magnesium

(4)  Calcium

Answer: (1)

96. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

(1)  It is nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

(2)  It functions as an electron carrier.

(3)  It functions as an enzyme.

(4)  It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

Answer: (2)

97. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?

(1)  Free element

(2)  Ferrous

(3)  Ferric

(4)  Both ferric and ferrous

Answer: (3)

98. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

(1)  λ  phage

(2)  Ti plasmid

(3)  Retrovirus

(4)  pBR 322

Answer: (3)

99. Use of biresources by multinational companies and organizations without authorization from the concerned country and its people is called

(1)  Biodegradation

(2)  Biopiracy

(3)  Bio-infringement

(4)  Bioexploitation

Answer: (2)

100. In India, the organization responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

(1)  Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

(2)  Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

(3)  Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

(4)  Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

Answer: (4)

101. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

(1)  Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

(2)  Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

(3)  Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

(4)  Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

Answer: (4)

102. Select the correct match:

(1)  T.H. Morgan – Transduction

(2)  F2x Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross

(3)  Ribozyme – Nucleic acid

(4)  G. Mendel – Transformation

Answer: (3)

103. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

(1)  Lerma Rojo

(2)  Sharbati Sonora

(3)  Co-667

(4)  Basmati

Answer: (4)

104. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(1)  XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

(2)  ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

(3)  Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

(4)  T.H. Morgan : Linkage

Answer: (3)

105. Select the correct statement :

(1)  Spliceosomes take part  in translation.

(2)  Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

(3)  Franklin Stahl coined the term “linkage”.

(4)  Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

Answer: (2)

106. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

(1)  Plant

(2)  Bacterium

(3)  Fungus

(4)  Virus

Answer: (2)

107. Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?

(1)  Mango

(2)  Jackfruit

(3)  Bamboo species

(4)  Papaya

Answer: (3)

108. Offsets are produced by

(1)  Parthenocarpy

(2)  Mitotic divisions

(3)  Meiotic divisions

(4)  Parthenogenesis

Answer: (2)

109. Select the correct match:

(1)  Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum

(2)  Alfred Hersey and Martha Chase – TMV

(3)  Alee Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

(4)  Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

Answer: (4)

110. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

(1)  Oil content

(2)  Cellulosic intine

(3)  Pollenkitt

(4)  Sporopollenin

Answer: (4)

111. Natality refers to

(1)  Number of individuals leaving the habitat

(2)  Birth rate

(3)  Death rate

(4)  Number individuals entering a habitat

Answer: (2)

112. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

(1)  16th September

(2)  21st April

(3)  5th June

(4)  22nd April

Answer: (1)

113. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

(1)  SO2

(2)  CO2

(3)  CO

(4)  O3

Answer: (4)

114. Niche is

(1)  the range of temperature that the organism needs to live

(2)  the physical space where on organism lives

(3)  all the biological factors in the organism’s environment

(4)  the functional role played by the organism where it lives.

Answer: (4)

115. What type of ‘ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?

Second consumer : 120 g

Primary consumer : 60 g

Primary producer : 10 g

(1)  Upright pyramid of numbers

(2)  Pyramid of energy

(3)  Inverted pyramid of biomass

(4)  Upright pyramid of biomass

Answer: (3)

116. In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?

(1)  Fe

(2)  Cl

(3)  Carbon

(4)  Oxygen

Answer: (2)

117. The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

(1)  carbonyl and phosphate

(2)  carbonyl and methyl

(3)  hydroxyl and methyl

(4)  carbonyl and hydroxyl

Answer: (4)

118. Which among the following is not prokaryote?

(1)  Nostoc

(2)  Mycobacterium

(3)  Saccharomyces

(4)  Oscillatoria

Answer: (3)

119. The Golgi complex participates in

(1)  Respiration in bacteria

(2)  Formation of secretory vesicles

(3)  Fatty acid breakdown

(4)  Activation of amino acid

Answer: (2)

120. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?

(1)  NADPH

(2)  NADH

(3)  ATP

(4)  Oxygen

Answer: (2)

121. Which of the following is true for nucleous?

(1)  It takes part in spindle formation.

(2)  It is a membrane-bound structure.

(3)  Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.

(4)  It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

Answer: (4)

122. Stomatal movement is not affected by

(1)  O2 concentration

(2)  Light

(3)  Temperature

(4)  CO2 concentration

Answer: (1)

123. The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

(1)  Diakinesis

(2)  Diplotene

(3)  Pachytene

(4)  Zygotene

Answer: (2)

124. Stomata in grass leaf are

(1)  Rectangular

(2)  Kidney shaped

(3)  Dumb-bell shaped

(4)  Barrel shaped

Answer: (3)

125. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

(1)  Phellogen

(2)  Vascular cambium

(3)  Apical meristems

(4)  Axillary meristems

Answer: (2)

126. Pneumatophores occur in

(1)  Carnivorous plants

(2)  Free-floating hydrophytes

(3)  Halophytes

(4)  Submerged hydrophytes

Answer: (3)

127. Casparian strips occur in

(1)  Cortex

(2)  Pericycle

(3)  Epidermis

(4)  Endodermis

Answer: (4)

128. Plants having little or no secondary growth are

(1)  Conifers

(2)  Deciduous angiosperms

(3)  Grasses

(4)  Cycads

Answer: (3)

129. Sweet potato is modified

(1)  Tap root

(2)  Adventitious root

(3)  Stem

(4)  Rhizome

Answer: (2)

130. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1)  Horsetails are gymnosperms.

(2)  Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.

(3)  Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

(4)  Stems are usually  unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

Answer: (3)

131. Select the wrong statement :

(1)  Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

(2)  Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.

(3)  Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.

(4)  Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

Answer: (1)

132. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

(1)  Agaricus

(2)  Alternaria

(3)  Neurospora

(4)  Saccharomyces

Answer: (1)

133. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Herbarium

(b) Key

(c) Museum

(d) Catalogue

Column II

(i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.

(ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification.

(iii)  Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept.

(iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

(1)  a – ii; b – iv; c – iii; d – i

(2)  a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d – iv

(3)  a – i; b – iv; c – iii; d – ii

(4)  a – iii; b – iv; c – i; d – ii

Answer: (4)

134. Winged pollen grains are present in

(1)  Mango

(2)  Cycas

(3)  Mustard

(4)  Pinus

Answer: (4)

135. Which one is wrongly matched ?

(1)  Gemma cups – Marchantia

(2)  Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae

(3)  Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

(4)  Unicellular organism – Chlorella

Answer: (3)

136. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?

(1)  Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

(2)  Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface

(3)  Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

(4)  Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

Answer: (3)

137. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Tricuspid valve

(b) Bicuspid valve

(c) Semilunar valve

Column II

(i) Between left atrium and left ventricle

(ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

(iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle

(1)  a – i; b – ii; c – iii

(2)  a – i; b – iii; c – ii

(3)  a – iii; b – i; c – ii

(4)  a – ii; b – i; c – iii

Answer: (3)

138. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Tidal volume

(b) Inspiratory Reserve volume

(c) Expiratory Reserve volume

(d) Residual volume

Column II

(i) 2500-3000 mL

(ii) 1100 – 1200 mL

(iii) 500 – 550 mL

(iv) 1000 – 1100 mL

(1)  a – i; b – iv; c – ii; d – iii

(2)  a – iii; b – i; c – iv; d – ii

(3)  a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d – iv

(4)  a – iv; b – iii; c – ii; d – i

Answer: (2)

139. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

(1)  smooth muscles attached to the iris

(2)  ligaments attached to the iris

(3)  ligaments attached to the ciliary body

(4)  smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

Answer: (3)

140. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

(1)  Estradiol

(2)  Ecdysone

(3)  Epinephrine

(4)  Estriol

Answer: (3)

141. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

(1)  Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

(2)  Progesterone and Aldosterone

(3)  Aldosterone and Prolactin

(4)  Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

Answer: (1)

142. Which of t he following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

(1)  Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.

(2)  Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.

(3)  Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

(4)  Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.

Answer: (2)

143. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

(1)  mesoderm and trophoblast

(2)  endoderm and mesoderm

(3)  ectoderm and mesoderm

(4)  ectoderm and endoderm

Answer: (3)

144. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

(1)  hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

(2)  hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

(3)  hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

(4)  hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

Answer: (1)

145. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

(1)  In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

(2)  In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.

(3)  In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

(4)  In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

Answer: (4)

146. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

(1)  is an IUD.

(2)  increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.

(3)  blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

(4)  is a post-coital contraceptive.

Answer: (3)

147. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

(1)  using pseudopodia for capturing prey

(2)  having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

(3)  using flagella for locomotion

(4)  having two types of nuclei

Answer: (4)

148. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.

(1)  Aves

(2)  Reptilia

(3)  Amphibia

(4)  Osteichthyes

Answer: (1)

149. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

(1)  Forewings with darker tegmina

(2)  Presence of caudal styles

(3)  Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

(4)  Presence of anal cerci

Answer: (2)

150. Which one of the these animals is not a homeotherm?

(1)  Camelus

(2)  Chelone

(3)  Macropus

(4)  Psittacula

Answer: (2)

151. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?

(1)  Moth

(2)  Tunicate

(3)  Earthworm

(4)  Starfish

Answer: (3)

152. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

(1)  Cyanobacteria

(2)  Diatoms

(3)  Dinoflagellates

(4)  Euglenoids

Answer: (2)

153. Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?

(1)  Parasitism

(2)  Mutualism

(3)  Commensalism

(4)  Amensalism

Answer: (4)

154. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ conservation’ except

(1)  Botanical gardens

(2)  Sacred groves

(3)  Wildlife safari parks

(4)  Seed banks

Answer: (2)

155. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Eutrophication

(b) Sanitary landfill

(c) Snow blindness

(d) Jhum cultivation

Column II

(i) UV-B radiation

(ii) Deforestation

(iii) Nutrient enrichment

(iv) Waste disposal

(1)  a – iii; b – iv; c – i; d – ii

(2)  a – i; b – iii; c – iv; d – ii

(3)  a – ii; b – i; c – iii; d – iv

(4)  a – i; b – ii; c – iv; d – iii

Answer: (1)

156. In a growing population of a country,

(1)  reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.

(2)  reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.

(3)  pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.

(4)  pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals

Answer: (3)

157. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?

(1)  Roots

(2)  Latex

(3)  Flowers

(4)  Leaves

Answer: (2)

158. All of the following are part of an operon except

(1)  an enhancer

(2)  structural genes

(3)  an operator

(4)  a promoter

Answer: (1)

159. A woman has as X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

(1)  Only grandchildren

(2)  Only sons

(3)  Only daughters

(4)  Both sons and daughters

Answer: 4

160. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is

(1)  Phenotypic variations

(2)  Saltation

(3)  Multiple step mutations

(4)  Minor mutations

Answer: (2)

161. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?





Answer: (3)

162. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Proliferative Phase

(b) Secretory Phase

(c) Menstruation

Column II

(i) Breakdown of endometrial lining

(ii) Follicular Phase

(iii) Luteal Phase

(1)  a – ii; b – iii; c – i

(2)  a – i; b – iii; c – ii

(3)  a – iii; b – ii; c – i

(4)  a – iii; b – i; c – ii

Answer: (1)

163. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Glycosuria

(b) Gout

(c) Renal calculi

(d) Glomerular nephritis

Column II

(i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

(ii) Mass of crystallized salts within the kidney

(iii) Inflammation in glomeruli

(iv) Presence of glucose in urine

(1)  a – ii; b – iii; c – i; d – iv

(2)  a – i; b – ii; c – iii; d – iv

(3)  a – iii; b – ii; c – iv; d – i

(4)  a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii

Answer: (4)

164. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I


(a) Ultrafiltration

(b) Concentration of urine

(c) Transport of urine

(d) Storage of urine

Column II

(Part of Excretory System)

(i) Henle’s loop

(ii) Ureter

(iii) Urinary bladder

(iv) Malpighian corpuscle

(v) Proximal convoluted tubule

(1)  a – v; b – iv; c – i; d – ii

(2)  a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii

(3)  a – iv; b – v; c – ii; d – iii

(4)  a – v; b – iv; c – i; d – iii

Answer: (2)

165. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

(1)  Goblet cells

(2)  Mucous cells

(3)  Chief cells

(4)  Parietal cells

Answer: (4)

166. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I

(a) Fibrinogen

(b) Globulin

(c) Albumin

Column II

(i) Osmotic balance

(ii) Blood clotting

(iii) Defence mechanism

(1)  a – i; b – iii; c – ii

(2)  a – i; b – ii; c – iii

(3)  a – iii; b – ii; c – i

(4)  a – ii; b – iii; c – i

Answer: (4)

167. Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

(1)  Botulism

(2)  Silicosis

(3)  Anthracis

(4)  Emphysema

Answer: (2)

168. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

(1)  detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.

(2)  activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.

(3)  binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.

(4)  prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.

Answer: (3)

169. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

(1)  Nucleic acids and SER

(2)  DNA and RNA

(3)  Proteins and lipids

(4)  Free ribosomes and RER

Answer: (4)

170. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(1)  Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.

(2)  Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.

(3)  Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.

(4)  Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.

Answer: (4)

171. Select the incorrect match:

(1)  Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes

(2)  Allosomes – Sex chromosomes

(3)  Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents

(4)  Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians

Answer: (4)

172. Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

(1)  Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont

(2)  Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

(3)  Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont

(4)  Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

Answer: (2)

173. Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

(1)  Cleavage of signal peptide

(2)  Protein glycosylation

(3)  Protein folding

(4)  Phospholipid synthesis

Answer: (4)

174. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

(1)  Plastidome

(2)  Polyhderal bodies

(3)  Polysome

(4)  Nucleosome

Answer: (3)

175. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

(1)  Ringworm disease

(2)  Ascariasis

(3)  Elephantiasis

(4)  Amoebiasis

Answer: (3)

176. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

(1)  Alzheimer’s disease

(2)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(3)  Psoriasis

(4)  Vitiligo

Answer: (1)

177. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:

(1)  Brain of bat, man and cheetah

(2)  Heart of bat, man and cheetah

(3)  Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

(4)  Eye of octopus, bat and man

Answer: (4)

178. Conversion milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

(1)  Vitamin B12

(2)  Vitamin A

(3)  Vitamin D

(4)  Vitamin E

Answer: (1)

179. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

(1)  Convergent evolution

(2)  Analogy

(3)  Homology

(4)  Adaptive radiation

Answer: (3)

180. Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?

(a) Dominance

(b) Co-dominance

(c) Multiple allele

(d) Incomplete dominance

(e) Polygenic inheritance

(1)  b, d, and e

(2)  a, b and c

(3)  b, c and e

(4)  a, c and e

Answer: (2)

Yatindra Singh

Name Hon’ble Mr. Justice Yatindra Singh 
Address 23, Judges Bungalow, High Court, Allahabad.  
Administrative Judge for the District Lucknow
Source Bar
Posting Allahabad
Date of Birth 09/10/1952
Initial Joining 05/02/1999
Joining at Allahabad 05/02/1999
Date of Retirement 08/10/2014
Passed High School & Intermediate in 1st Division. Graduated in science in first division securing 6th position in the order of merit from University of Allahabad. Obtained LL.B. from the University of Allahabad in 1973.
Enrolled as an Advocate on 19th October, 1973.
Practised Initially at Banda and then at Kanpur, before shifting to Allahabad High Court from 1st July, 1975.
Served as Additional Advocate General for the State of U.P. Before Elevation.
Author of book titled “A Lawyers World and Childhood Dreams” & “Cyber Law”
E-Mail ID : [email protected]

K. M. Joseph

Hon’ble the Chief Justice

Hon’ble Mr. Justice K. M. Joseph :- Born on 17/6/1958. Educated at Kendriya Vidyalaya, Kochi and New Delhi, Loyola College, Chennai and Govt. Law College, Ernakulam. Enrolled as Advocate on 12/01/1982 in Delhi and started practice in Civil and Writ matters. Practised at the High Court of Kerala from 1983. Permanent Member of Kerala High Court Advocates Association. Appointed as Permanent Judge of the High Court of Kerala on 14/10/2004. Transferred to High Court of Uttarakhand and assumed charge on 31/07/2014 as Chief Justice of the High Court of Uttarakhand at Nainital.

Ravi Malimath

Hon’ble Mr. Justice Ravi Malimath

Hon’ble Mr. Justice Ravi Malimath: Born on 25-05-1962. Enrolled as an Advocate on 28-01-1987 at Bangalore. Practiced in Constitutional, Civil, Criminal, Labour, Service, Mainly at Karnataka High Court, Bangalore. Appointed as an Additional Judge of the High Court of Karnataka on 18-02-2008 and permanent Judge on 17-02-2010

Jhajjar District of Haryana at a Glance

Lok Sabha Constituencies in Jhajjar district, Haryana (MP Constituencies) Rohtak
MLA Assembly Constituencies in Jhajjar district, Haryana Badli

About Jhajjar District  :

Jhajjar a small town in the state of Haryana is known for its developing economy and infrastructural growth. Today it counts amongst the fast developing regions of Haryana with focus on public welfare. Previously a part of Rohtak district, it was carved out of it and became, an independent one on 15th July 1997. Jhajjar has all that is required for living well. The
government has invested in various areas such as building new roads, health care system, schools, woman empowerment projects, providing electricity and much more for the development of the district and also for the development of the people residing there. Beside various essential services are also available for the benefit of the people. Being a historic city, the government has taken measures to protect the historical monuments and has provided various aids to the tourism industry so that tourists visit this place more often. With all the facilities at disposal, a visit to Jhajjar would be an enriching experience for the tourists visiting the city

District at a Glance

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Hisar District of Haryana at a Glance

Lok Sabha Constituencies in Hisar district, Haryana (MP Constituencies) Hisar
MLA Assembly Constituencies in Hisar district, Haryana Adampur

About Hisar District :

The present city of Hisar, one of the important cities of North India, is located at 2905’5”north latitude and 75045’55” east longitudes. It is situated one hundred sixty four kilometers west to Delhi on the National Highway number ten.

The city of Hisar was founded by a Muslim ruler, Firozshah Tughlaq in 1354 A.D. ‘Hisar’ is an Arabic word which means ‘Fort’. The city, which we know today as ‘Hisar’, was originally called ‘Hisar Firoza (also Hisar-e-Firoza) or in other words the ‘Fort of Firoz’. But as the days rolled by, the very word ‘Firoza’ was dropped from its original name.

It was in these lands that the very first evidence of the presence of man was discovered with the excavation of Agroha, Banawali and Kunal. All of these were the pre-Harappan settlements, bringing for us the very first images of pre-Historic times. The presence of the pillar in Hisar fort belonging to the time of Emperor Ashoka (234 A.D.) originally from Agroha, the discovery of coins of the Kushan Kings tells tales of ancient India.

The construction work of the Hisar city was started in the year 1354 A.D. under the personal supervision of Firozshah himself who stayed here for a sufficient time. The boundary wall of Hisar Firoza was built up of stones brought from the hills of Narsai. The Fort city was also surrounded by big ditch dug round the wall. A large and deep tank was constructed inside the fort, and the water used to replenish the ditch. Inside the fort a fine palace, having a complex of different buildings was built. Well laid out gardens added to the beauty of the palace. The initial stage of the city, it was reported, was completed after the incessant work of two and a half years.

The nobles and Amirs were also directed by the Sultan to get the residences built here. The buildings were constructed with lime and burnt bricks. The fort-city had four gates which were subsequently named as the Delhi Gate and Mori Gate to the east, the Nagori Gate to the south and Talaqi Gate to the west.

While constructing the palace, popularly known as ‘Gujari Mahal’ for his beloved, Firozshah also built a new city around it. The Gujari Mahal still stands in its austere majesty. This palace is a complex of different buildings, including the royal residence of the sultan Firozshah, Shahi Darwaza, Diwan-e-Aam, Baradari with three tehkhanas, a Hamam, a Mosque and a Pillar. The style of architecture of the Gujari Mahal is dignified. The palace has beautifully carved stone pillars.

It is true that most of the materials used for the constructing the Gujari Mahal complex was of Hindu or Jain temples, but there is nothing unusual about it because the conquerors would often do like that. It is thus a routine practice of history.

In 1408 Hisar felt into the hands of the rebels, but was recovered by the royal army under the Emperor Mahmud Tughlaq in person. In 1411 the tract of Hansi came into the hands of Khizar Khan, and he ascended to the throne of Delhi in 1414 as the first Sultan of Sayyad Dynasty. In 1420 the fief of Hisar was conferred on Mahmud Hassan as reward for good services. During the feeble dynasty of the Lodhis (1451-1526) Hisar rather Haryana continued to form a parts of Haryana, was granted as a fief to Muhabbat Khan in the reign of Bahlol Lodi (1451-89)

When Babur invaded India in the 1524-26, Hisar was an important strategic center of Ibrahim Lodi’s empire. Before the battle of Panipat in 1526, on reaching the Ghaggar, Babur learnt that the troops from Hisar, led by Hamid Khan, were advancing towards him. He then dispatched prince Humayun with a sufficient number of army who succeeded in defeating the enemy. Babur handed over the city of Hisar to Humayun as a reward for his success in his first military expedition. Humayun ruled over India twice first from 1530 to 1540 and again from 1555 to 1556. During his first reign a mosque known as Jama Masjid was built here by Amir Muhammad in 1535.

During Akbar’s reign (1556-1605) Hisar became once more a place of considerable importance. It was made the headquarters of the revenue Division known as sirkar. As some of Mughal Princes who were attached with Hisar, subsequently became the Emperors. The city of Hisar then known in the history of India as the Duke of Wellington of Mughal Era.

The last noteworthy actor in the history of the tract of Hisar before the advent of the British power was George Thomas (1756-1802). He was an independent ruler of the tract of Haryana, including Hisar, from 1797m to 1802. The Jahaz Pul and the Jahaz Kothi situated to the east of the city of Hisar, still remind the great Irish adventurer. Thomas used the Jahaz Kothi, which was once a Jain temple and afterwards converted into a mosque, as a residence.

It gained importance in early sixties when Agriculture University was setup as an extension of the Punjab Agriculture University, Ludhiana. Ever since, the Government ‘s positive policies have played a vital role in the economic development of the city. The industrial policy of the Government has attracted large number of entrepreneurs and has resulted into the industrialization in and around the city.

District at a Glance

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Tourist Places :


LOCATION: 22 Km. from Hisar on Hisar-Fazilka road

The excavations at Agroha have brought to light the antiquities from the 3rd-4th century B.C to 13th -14th century A.D Some of the structures like defense wall, shrines cells unearthed here, are of great historic significance, The residential houses seen here, are rectangular in plan, having east-west orientation. About seven thousand antiquities have been recovered during the excavations, These includes stone sculptures, terracotta sealing, iron and copper implements, beads of semi-precious stone, shell, glass and Terri cotta. A number of coins and sculptures including terracotta objects have also been found from this site.


LOCATION: Hisar town

George Thomas a native of Ireland and uncrowned ruler of the territory between Sirsa and Rohtak got this monument built for his residence. Owing its isolated position it appears like a ship in the ocean and thereby won the name Jahaj Kothi.It might have also got its name due to distortion of the word George to Jahaj over thr years by the locals. After the defeat of George by the Britishers, James Kothi for some time before the construction of his residential Palace at Hansi.


LOCATION: Government Collage Complex,Hisar town

This monument is the tomb of Pranpir Badshah (belonging to the early 14th Century A.D) the spiritual teacher of Sher Bahlol or Dana Sher. He was a great Sufi Saint and Prophesid that Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq would become the king of Delhi.


LOCATION: At Hansi, 26 Km east of Hisar on Hisar-Delhi road

The majestic Barsi Gate standing amidst the bazar of Hansi town was the main entrance to the ancient fort of Hansi.Even today, it is an imposing gate of the outer defense wall of the Hansi Fort. A Persian epigraph inscribed above the doorway records the date of its contructions (in A.H) which corresponds to the year 1304-1305 A.D



The fort known as Prithvi Raj-Ka-Qila has completely been converted into a mound except for a few monuments of pre-Mughal period that can be seen here. A long pillared structure with a flat roof is situated on the top of the mound. It is called Baradari.Some time back 57 bronze images of Jain Tirthankaras were recovered from this site.



West of the town has a group of monuments with in the tomb complex known as Char-Qutabs, Jamal-ud-Din Hansi (1187-1261 AD) Burhan-ud-Din (1261-1300 A.D) Qutab-ud-Din Manuwar (1300-1303) and Nur-ud-Din (1325-1397 A.D) were the celebrated Sufi Saints of their times and designated as Qutabs. This monuments celebrates the last testing place of these saints.The dargah has been subjected to many changes. The tomb is connected to a small mosque.It is said that it is built at the place where Baba Farid used to meditate and offer prayers. One of the most imposing edifices of this structure is the large Mosque in the northen enclosure which was constructed by Firoz Shah Tuglaq. Other important monuments in the complex are the tomb of Mir Tijarah who was the chief purveyor (Tajarah) of Sultan Hamid –ud-Din of Hansi.Mir Ali or Alam was a disciple of Jamal-ud-Din and is said to have built the tomb for his teacher. But he himself was entombed here due to his early demise.Other monuments in the complex are the twin tombs of Begum Skinner, four chhatries Known as Char Diwan and Ek Diwan.

Kaptan Singh Solanki

Kaptan Singh Solanki


Party:Bharatiya Janata Party

Father’s Name:Shri Jimipal Singh

Mother’s Name:Shrimati Parvati Bai

Date of Birth:Friday, June 30, 1939

Birth Place:Garhpara, Distt. Bhind (Madhya Pradesh)

Spouse Name:Shrimati Rani Solanki

SONS : 0


State Name : Madhya Pradesh

Permanent Address:B-176, Akriti Garden, Kotra, Nehru Nagar, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.

Present Address:140, South Avenue, New Delhi –

Email Id:ks[dot]solanki[at]sansad[dot]nic[dot]in

Education Qualifications:M.A., B.Ed. Educated at Vikram University, Ujjain, P.G.B.T. College, Ujjain and Maharani Luxmibai College, Jiwaji University, Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh

Positions Held:Aug. 2009 Elected to Rajya Sabha
Aug. 2009 onwards
Member, Committee on Food, Consumer Affairs and Public Distribution
July 2010 onwards Member, Consultative Committee for the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
April 2012 Re-elected to Rajya Sabha (second term)
Aug. 2012 onwards Member, Committee on Food, Consumer Affairs and Public Distribution 

Ashwini Kumar

Father’s Name Shri Romesh Chander
Mother’s Name Smt. Sudershan Chopra
Date of Birth 11 Jun 1956
Place of Birth Jalandhar, Punjab
Marital Status Married
Date of Marriage 25 Jul 1979
Spouse’s Name Smt. Kiran Chopra
No. of Sons 3
Degree in Journalism,
Educated at Punjab University, Chandigarh
Profession Publisher
Social Worker
Permanent Address
Plot No. 2,
Printing Press Complex,
Ring Road, Wazirpur,
New Delhi-110035
Tel : (011) 30712200, 09810007800 (M)
Fax : (011) 30712383
Present Address
Plot No. 2,
Printing Press Complex,
Ring Road, Wazirpur,
New Delhi-110035
Tel : (011) 30712200, 09810007800 (M)
Fax : (011) 30712383
Positions Held
May 2014 Elected to 16th Lok Sabha
1 Sep. 2014 onwards Member, Standing Committee on Home Affairs
Member, Consultative Committee, Ministry of External Affairs and Overseas Indian Affairs


Books Published
Hindustan Main Hindu Hona Gunah Hai (Hindi)
Social And Cultural Activities
Actively associated with Social Originizations; Member – India International Centre; India Habitat Centre; Ex-Member – Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Shrine Board; Trustee – Vridh Kesari Romesh Chander Trust
Special Interests
Reading & writing. Takes deep interest in Socio-Economic development besides Sports, Student activities & politics. He is known for his frank, fearless courageous writing in the news paper
Sports and Clubs
A sportsman of outstanding Calibre and eminence he contributed to the growth of Cricket at various levels like Ranjit Trophy, Duleep Trophy during 1970s and 1980s
Countries Visited
Brazil, Canada, China, Japan, Malaysia, Sri Lanka, South Africa, U.K., U.S.A.


Avneesh Jhingan

Hon’ble Mr. Justice Avneesh Jhingan

Born on 29.01.1969 in a family of lawyers. Father of His Lordship was a leading lawyer practicing in the Punjab and Haryana High Court. His Lordship did B.Com (Hons.) from Goswami Ganesh Dutta Sanatan Dharma College, Sector 32-C, Chandigarh, and after completing his graduation in Law from Panjab University, Chandigarh, in the year 1992, was enrolled as an Advocate with the Bar Council for the States of Punjab and Haryana. His Lordship is a keen Badminton player and participated in various tournaments.

His Lordship as an Advocate conducted cases primarily pertaining to civil and tax matters and was elected as Chief Patron of the Punjab Tax Bar Association. His Lordship was elevated as an Additional Judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court on 10.07.2017.

Rajbir Sehrawat

Hon’ble Mr. Justice Rajbir Sehrawat

His Lordship was born on 31st October, 1962 in Village Jagsi District Sonepat (Haryana). His Lordship’s father late Shri Ram Sarup Sehrawat was a renowned school Teacher of the area. His Lordship studied in his village school upto middle standard and thereafter did his schooling from S.M. Hindu High School, Sonepat upto matriculation. After doing his graduation (B.Sc.) (B.ED) from All India Jat Heroes Memorial (AIJHM) College, Rohtak in the year 1982-83. His Lordship took admission in Law Department at Kurukshetra University, Kurukshetra in 1983 and obtained Degree in Law in the year 1986 and enrolled as member of Bar Council of Punjab and Haryana. Further did post graduation in Political Science from Maharshi Dayanand University, Rohtak in the year 1988. His Lordship dealt with the matters pertaining to civil, criminal, Labour, Constitutional and other matters involving intricate questions of law. His Lordship also represented Pt. B.D. Sharma University of Health Sciences, Rohtak since 09.08.2010. Remained as Legal Advisor-cum-standing counsel for (i) Haryana State Handlooms & Handicrafts Corporation ; (b) Haryana State Coop. Housing Development Federation and (iii) Haryana Financial Corporation. His Lordship had also remained in the office of Advocate General, Haryana as Senior Deputy Advocate General, Haryana from 17.7.2001 to 23.02.2004 He was elevated as an Additional Judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court, Chandigarh on 10th July , 2017.

NEET Result 2017

NEET Result 2017 has been declared on 23rd June, 2017. NEET 2017 exam finished on 7th of May 2017. You can check your result at NEET Result 2017. Navdeep Singh of Punjab has topped the entrance test with 697 marks out of 720 marks. He was taking coaching in Chandigarh. 2nd Rank has been claimed by Archit Gupta from Madhya Pradesh who has scored 695 marks. Manish Mulchandani who also scored 695 marks secured 3rd place.

NEET 2017 question papers and answer key released on 15th June 2017. Students can practice NEET UG 2017 Question Papers in online more for free. Download option is also available.

11,38,890 students wrote NEET 2017 which held 7th of May. There is huge increase in number of candidates in NEET-I and NEET-II. There were 11,36,206 indian nationals. Out of 11,38,890 candidates 611539 cleared the hurdle. 4,97,043 male candidates apeeared the entrance test and 266221 are emerged victorious. Similarly out of 6,41,839 girl aspirants 345313 could cleared the entrance exam. NEET 2017 conducted in 10 Indian languages and exam was spread over 103 cities.
Earlier it was announced that NEET Result for 2017 will be declared on 8th June 2017. But after Chennai High court order it was delayed. Supreme court intervene and advised NEET Board to declare the result before 26th of June 2017.

NEET 2017 Highlights:

Candidates registered 1138890 70.58% increase from NEET-I, 2016

139.37% increase from NEET-II, 2016

Indian Nationals 11,36,206
NRIs 1522
OCIs 480 Allowed for the first time
PIO 69 Allowed for the first time
Foreigners 613 Allowed for the first time
Male 4,97,043 43.64% of registered candidates
Female 6,41,839 56.36% of registered candidates
Transgender 8
Number of Cities 103 Against 52 in 2016
Number of Languages 10 Only 2 in 2016
Number of examination centres 1921 Against 739 in 2016
Number of rooms 50,000+
Number of invigilators 1,50,000+
Number of Observers 3500+
Number of City Coordinators 124 Against 61 in 2016

Pellam Hatya Movie

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Movie Name: Pellam Hatya
Release dates: 24/02/2017
Directed by: Ramakrishna
Produced by:
Production Company:
Distributed by:
Written by: Ramakrishna
Screenplay by: Ramakrishna
Story by: Ramakrishna
Based on:
Starring                : Suhasini


Music by:
Edited by:
Country: India
Language: Telugu

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Kaarulo Shikarukelithe Movie

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Movie Name: Kaarulo Shikarukelithe
Release dates: 17/02/2017
Directed by:
Produced by:
Production Company:
Distributed by:
Written by:
Screenplay by:
Story by:
Based on:
Starring                : Ishika Singh

Dheeru Mahesh

Suresh Reddy

Jabardasth Phani

Sudharshan Reddy

Music by:
Edited by:
Country: India
Language: Telugu

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