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Staff Selection Commission Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade-III Exam 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key
Staff Selection Commission
Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade-III Exam 2015 Question Paper (Full Solved)
1. Which one of the following minerals is contained in the Monazite sand of Kerala?
(1) Uranium
(2) Thorium
(3) Copper
(4) Petroleum
Ans: (2)
2. What causes beri beri?
(1) Lack of vitamin D
(2) Lack of vitamin A
(3) Lack of vitamin B1
(4) Lack of calcium
Ans: (3)
3. Name the committee on restructuring of FCI:
(1) M.B. Shah Committee
(2) Panagahria Committee
(3) Kelkar Committee
(4) Shanta Kumar Committee
Ans: (4)
4. Choose the missing last three letters from the alternatives which are common of all the six letters.
(1) NAO
(2) OIL
(3) AWE
(4) INO
Ans: (3)
5. Match List I with List II:
List I List II
(Books) (Authors)
A. Kadambari 1. R. K. Narayan
B. Kamayani 2. Munshi Prem Chand
C. The Guid 3. Bana Bhatt
D. Godan 4. Jai Shankar Prasad
(1) A4, A3, C1, D2
(2) A1, B3, C4, D2
(3) A3, B4, C1, D2
(4) A2, B4, C1, D3
Ans: (3)
Directions (Qs. 6):
There are four diagrams shown below representing relationships between groups. In the question that follows, select the diagram that best represents the relationship for the question.
6.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans: (2)
7. If any question arises as to whether a member of Parliament has become subject to any disqualifications mentioned in clause (1) of article 102, the question shall be referred for decision to the …. and decision of the ….. shall be final.
(1) Speaker of the House
(2) Supreme Court of India
(3) President of India
(4) Election Commission of India
Ans: (1)
8. Bootstrap Loader is always stored in:
(1) ROM
(2) RAM
(3) Disk
(4) Cache
Ans: (1)
Directions : The following question is followed by two statements labeled I and II in which certain data is given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Using the data given together with your everyday knowledge, choose
A. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer but neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
D. If I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question and additional information is required.
9. What is z?
I. 3x + 45 + 5z = 120
II. 4x + 72 + 3y = 130
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans: (4)
10. Output at Break Even point is that output at which producer is able to
(1) Recover only operating cost
(2) Earn a normal profit
(3) Wipe out earlier losses
(4) Recover total costs
Ans: (4)
11. This area is termed as territorial water and resources therein belonging to the nation:
(1) Oceanic area up to 12 nautical miles from the coast
(2) Oceanic area up to 19.2 nautical miles from the coast
(3) Oceanic area up to 15 nautical miles from the coast
(4) Oceanic area up to 20 nautical miles from the coast
Ans: (1)
12. An insect flies from the corner A to corner B of a cubic room in 4 seconds where A & B are diagonally opposite corners. The side of the room is 4 m. The speed of the insect is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans: (1)
13. Chronologically arrange the visits of following pilgrims/historical personalities to India:
A. Thomas Roe
B. Fa Hien
C. Hiuen Tsang
(1) BCA
(2) BAC
(3) CAB
(4) ABC
Ans: (1)
14. The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its perimeter is 206 m, then its area is:
(1) 2520 m2
(2) 2480 m2
(3) 2420 m2
(4) None of these
Ans: (1)
15. If then
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans: (3)
16. “The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education of all children until they complete the age of six years”. This is a provision under:
(1) Article 21A of the Constitution of India relating to fundamental rights enumerated in Part III
(2) Article 51A relating to Fundamental Duties enumerated in Part IV A of the Constitution of India
(3) Article 45 relating to Directive Principles of State Policy enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution of India
(4) Article 38 of the Directive Principles of State Policy to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people
Ans: (3)
17. In a row of 36 pupils, the first boy is followed by one girl, the second boy is followed by 2 girls, the third by 3 girls and so on like this. What is the number of girls in the second half of the row?
(1) 16
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 18
Ans: (4)
18. SMTP stands for:
(1) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(2) Structured Mail Transfer Protocol
(3) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
(4) Simple Message Truncated Protocol
Ans: (1)
19. A sum of Rs. 8000 generates Rs. 1261 as compound interest in 3 years, interest being compounded annually. The rate of compound interest is:
(1) 20%
(2) 2.5%
(3) 10%
(4) 5%
Ans: (4)
20. 12 men and 18 boys working hours a day can do a work in 60 days. If one man works equal to 2 boys, then the number of boys required to help 21 men to do twice the work in 50 days working 9 hours a day will be:
(1) 42
(2) 44
(3) 46
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
21. APJ Abdul Kalam collapsed only 5 minutes into his lecture at IIM, Shilong Name this lecture:
(1) Creating a livable planet earth
(2) Ignited minds
(3) Forge your future
(4) Transforming dreams into actions
Ans: (1)
22. The Chilika Lake region is situated between the deltas of:
(1) Krishna and Kaveri
(2) Godavari and Krishna
(3) Ganga and Mahanadi
(4) Mahanadi and Godavari
Ans: (4)
23. Shah Jahan fought the battle of Kartapur against
(1) Guru Hargovind Singh
(2) Guru Har Kishan
(3) Guru Har Rai
(4) Guru Teg Bahadur
Ans: (1)
Directions : Complete the Series in the following figures.
24.
Ans: (1)
25.
Ans: (1)
26.
Ans : (4)
27. All A’S are B’S and all B’s are C’S is best represented by which diagram:
(1) K
(2) L
(3) M
(4) N
Ans: (3)
28. Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship:
Arctic : Antarctic : : Cancer :
(1) Disease
(2) Capricorn
(3) Population
(4) Equator
Ans: (2)
29. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is by reason of absence or otherwise unable to perform the duties of his office, who shall have the authority to appoint acting chief justice as per Article 126 of the Constitution of India?
(1) The Registrar General of Supreme Court
(2) The President of India
(3) Automatic appointment of the Senior most Judge of the Supreme Court as acting Chief Justice
(4) The Attorney-General of India
Ans: (3)
Directions: In the following question a number series is given. After the series a number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to complete the series starting with the number given following the sequence of the given series and answer the question given below the series.
3 10 26 83 336 1683
30. 7 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e).
What will come in place of (b) ?
(1) 32
(2) 30
(3) 34
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
31. Pick the odd one out.
(1) 16 : 40
(2) 20 : 50
(3) 22 : 55
(4) 12 : 28
Ans: (4)
32. The income of Anil, Froz and Ketan are in the ratio 7 : 9 : 12 and their spending are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 15. If Anil saves 1/4 of his income, then the saving of Anil, Firoz and Ketan are in the ratio:
(1) 59 : 99 : 69
(2) 56 : 99 : 69
(3) 56 : 96 : 69
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
33. In a certain code STREAMLINE is written as BFSUTDMHKL. How is SCIENTIFIC written in that code?
(1) OFJDTBHEHS
(2) OFJDTDJGJU
(3) OFJTBDHESH
(4) OFJDTDGJUT
Ans: (1)
34. A man starts walk from the point and walked 12 kms towards North. He turned 90° left and walked a distance and stopped. If the distance between initial point and final position is 13 kms, how much distance he travelled after turning from North?
(1) 3 kms
(2) 4 kms
(3) 5 kms
(4) 6 kms
Ans: (3)
35. In which one of the following Union Territories, do the people of the Onge tribe live?
(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(2) Daman and Diu
(3) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
(4) Lakshadweep
Ans: (1)
36. Who is credited with the discovery of Electron?
(1) E. Goldstein
(2) J. J. Thompson
(3) James Chadwick
(4) Rutherford
Ans: (2)
37. In a database table, the category of information is called:
(1) Tuple
(2) Field
(3) Record
(4) Attribute
Ans: (2)
38. The circuit used to store one bit of data is known as
(1) Register
(2) Encoder
(3) Decoder
(4) Flip flop
Ans: (4)
39. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) During a solstice there are unequal days and nights
(2) A gulf is a large area of sea partly surrounded by land
(3) A harbor is that portion of sea where ships can dock
(4) Neap tide is caused by gravitational pull of the moon and the sun together in the same direction
Ans: (4)
40. Instrument for measuring the amount of oxygen in the air or for analyzing gases:
(1) Audiometer
(2) Eudiometer
(3) Glycometer
(4) Fathometer
Ans: (2)
41. Kayakalp Award scheme has been launched by
(1) The Ministry of Agriculture
(2) The Ministry of Industry
(3) The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
(4) Namami Gange Programme
Ans: (3)
42. World’s tallest hybrid wind generator turbine was recently put into operation in the state of:
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Kerala
(3) Gujarat
(4) Karnataka
Ans: (3)
43. A metal sheet 27 cm long, 8 cm broad and 1 cm thick is melted into a cube. The difference between the surface area of the two solids, is:
(1) 280 cm2
(2) 272 cm2
(3) 286 cm2
(4) 290 cm2
Ans: (3)
44. How many four-digit numbers can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 if repetition of digits is allowed?
(1) 1296
(2) 1080
(3) 1800
(4) 1190
Ans: ()
45. Exercise Ajeya Warrior-2015 is joint exercise between the Armies of:
(1) India & France
(2) India & Nepal
(3) India & UK
(4) India & Sri Lanka
Ans: (3)
46. It is simulated/extended RAM. When you have used up your entire RAM, your computer will shift data to an empty space on the hard drive:
(1) ROM
(2) Memory
(3) Virtual Memory
(4) Volatile Memory
Ans: ()
Directions (Qs. 47 to 50): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:
Seven candidates Hema, Seema, Neeraj, Sheela, Neelam, Pawan and Sunita are to be interviewed for selection as trainee officers by different panels I to VII for different companies T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z, not necessarily in the same order.
Neeraj is interviewed by panel IV for company ‘T’. Seema is interviewed by panel III but not for company ‘V’ or ‘W’. Hema is interviewed for company ‘U’ but not by panel I or II. Neelam is interviewed by panel VI for company ‘X’. Panel VII conducts the interview for company ‘Y’. Sheela is interviewed by panel I but not for company ‘V’. Panel II does not interview Pawan.
47. Sheela is interviewed for which company?
(1) T
(2) W
(3) Z
(4) Y
Ans: (2)
48. Panel II conducts interview for company?
(1) Z
(2) V
(3) Y
(4) U
Ans: (2)
49. Who is interviewed for company Z?
(1) Pawan
(2) Neelam
(3) Seema
(4) Sheela
Ans: (3)
50. Which candidate is interviewed by panel V?
(1) Pawan
(2) Sheela
(3) Hema
(4) Sunita
Ans: (3)
51. Sunita and Sumedha start travelling in the same direction at 8 km/hr and 13 km/hr, respectively. After 4 hours, Sunita doubled her speed and Sumedha reduced her speed by 1 km/hr and reached the destination together. How long did the entire journey last?
(1) 10 hours
(2) 13 hours
(3) 11 hours
(4) 9 hours
Ans: (4)
52. 20 men can finish a work in 30 days. One completion of 10 days, 10 men leave work. Remaining men work for next 10 days. At the end of 20 days i t is decided to complete the work in remaining 10 days. How many extra men are required:
(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 15
(4) 10
Ans: (1)
Directions (Qs. 53 to 58): These questions are based on the information given in the following graph.
53. What is the ratio between number of students studying Agriculture in years 2004 & 2005, respectively?
(1) 11 : 12
(2) 12 : 11
(3) 4 : 3
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
54. In how many disciplines the number of students decreased in the year 2005 as compared to 2004?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) None of these
Ans: (3)
55. What is the percentage increase/decrease (rounded off to nearest two integers) in number of students studying Science from the year 2004 to 20025?
(1) 27% increase
(2) 27% of decrease
(3) 21% increase
(4) 21 decrease
Ans: (1)
56. Approx 34% increase of students in the year 2005 denotes which discipline:
(1) Commerce
(2) Arts
(3) Management
(4) Engineering
Ans: (2)
57. The number of students in 2005 in disciplines Agriculture, Medicine and Management together is what percent of Commerce discipline of 2005?
(1) 33.33%
(2) 66.67%
(3) 50%
(4) 10%
Ans: (2)
58. In which discipline the number of students increased in the year 2005 as compared to the year 2004 despite the fact that the percentage of candidates decreased in the year 2005 as compared to the year 2004?
(1) Agriculture
(2) Medicine
(3) Engineering
(4) Management
Ans: (3)
Directions (Qs. 59 to 63) :
59. In which of the following state/states did the production of wheat increase every year?
(1) Punjab
(2) UP
(3) Haryana
(4) Punjab & Haryana
Ans: (1)
60. What is the percentage rise in wheat production in Gujarat in 2013 over the previous year?
(1) 25%
(2) 20%
(3) 0%
(4) None of these
Ans: (3)
61. What is the difference between the average production of wheat in the states of Gujarat and Haryana over the entire period?
(1) 3,00,000 Tonnes
(2) 5,00,000 Tonnes
(3) 45,000 Tonnes
(4) None of these
Ans: (1)
62. The production of wheat in Gujarat in 2013 is what percent less than the production of wheat in Uttar Pradesh in 2011?
(1) 16.66%
(2) 0%
(3) 40%
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
63. For which of the following years is the production closest to average yearly production for the entire period?
(1) 2010
(2) 2011
(3) 2012
(4) 2013
Ans: (2)
64. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities?
(1) Mandamus
(2) Habeas Corpus
(3) Certiorari
(4) Quo Warranto
Ans: (3)
65. Match the following in the given sequence in context of memory :
A. Very High Speed 1. DVD
B. Non-Volatile & high storage 2. ROM
C. External and cheaper 3. Cache
D. Read only 4. Hard Disk
(1) A1, B2, C2, D4
(2) A1, B3, C2, D1
(3) A3, B4, C2, D1
(4) A3, B4, C1, D2
Ans: ()
66. Within how much time from receipt of request for information concerning life or liberty of a person the same should be provided under RTI Act?
(1) 30 days
(2) 72 hours
(3) 48 hours
(4) 24 hours
Ans: (3)
67. ‘Bluetooth’ which is common in mobile phones gets its name from
(1) Danish 10th Century King
(2) UK Software Company
(3) Greek Goddess
(4) Google
Ans: (1)
68. Which of the following is the correct expansion of (x + y + z)2?
(1) xy2 + yz2 + zx2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx
(2) xyz2 + x2 + y2 + x2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx
(3) x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx
(4) None of these
Ans: (3)
69. One card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card is either a red card or a king:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
70. How many squares can be formed by joining the centres of the circles by horizontal and vertical lines:
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
71. In the following series how many consonants come before 3?
3 A 3 F 4 T 7 U 3 S 3 T T 3 J J 3 4 5 3 D X 3 X Z 3 T 3 H
(1) 7
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
72. Which is an example of input device?
(1) Mouse
(2) Modem
(3) Monitor
(4) CPU
Ans: (1)
73. Out of a total of 85 children playing Badminton or Table Tennis or both. Total number of girls in the group is 70% of the total number of boys in the group. The number of boys playing only Badminton is 50% of the number of boys and total number of boys playing Badminton is 60% of the total number of boys. Number of children only playing Table Tennis is 40% of the total number of children and a total of 12 children play Badminton and Table Tennis both. What is the number of girls playing only Badminton?
(1) 16
(2) 14
(3) 17
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
Directions: The following question is followed by two statements. Select the choice as follows.
A. If I alone is enough to answer the question
B. If II alone is enough to answer the question
C. If I & II are both required to answer the question
D. If both I & II are not insufficient to answer the question and more data is required.
74. At the garage, the car owner was told that adjustments has been done and it will now give better kilometerage. Did it improve if:
Conclusion:
I. Before repairs it travelled 120 km. in 10 litres of fuel.
II. After repairs it ran 240 km. on full tank
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans: (4)
75. During the recent Prime Minister’s visit to China, the agreement for establishing sister – city relation were signed between India and China. Three given below are such agreements while one is not. Identify the one which is not such agreement:
(1) Chennai and Chongqing
(2) Hyderabad and Qingdao
(3) Aurangabad and Dunhuang
(4) Bengluru and Chengdu
Ans: ()
76. As per recent approval of Reserve Bank of India, ING Vysya Bank has been merged with
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) HDFC Bank
(3) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(4) State Bank of India
Ans: (3)
77. Which will become the first city to host both Summer Olympics and Winter Olympics?
(1) Sochi
(2) Pyeongehang
(3) Beijing
(4) Almaty
Ans: (3)
78. The headquarters of International Olympic Committee is situated at
(1) Lausanne, Switzerland
(2) Geneva, Switzerland
(3) Zurich, Switzerland
(4) None of the above
Ans: (1)
79. Details of foreign investments in different banks.
Bank Investment in Million USD
A 0.75
B 1.25
C 1.80
D 0.90
E 1.30
F 2.10
G 1.90
What is the ratio between total investment in banks A and C together to the total investments in Banks E and G together respectively:
(1) 51 : 64
(2) 64 : 51
(3) 71 : 64
(4) 67 : 71
Ans: (1)
80. For celebration of his birthday Ram goes to purchase sweets. He needs to buy a minimum of 300 pieces of rasgulla and 150 pieces of cream roll. Only pre-packed packets are available in the shop for these two items. These are economy pack & premium pack. Economy pack has 4 rasgulla and 1 cream roll costing Rs. 25 per pack and premium pack had 10 rasgulla and 7 cream roll costing Rs. 75 per packet. If he has to meet his requirement with the premium and economy packs, what is the minimum expenditure he has to incur?
(1) Rs. 1575
(2) Rs. 2100
(3) Rs. 2425
(4) Rs. 2975
Ans: (2)
81. MS office is an example of
(1) An operating system
(2) A telecommunication software
(3) A programming language
(4) A productivity software
Ans: (1)
82. The Ufa declaration supported which nation to host the eighth BRICS Summit in 2016?
(1) India
(2) China
(3) Brazil
(4) South Africa
Ans: (1)
83. What does ‘DLL’ files stands for?
(1) Dynamic Link Library
(2) Data Link Layer
(3) Dual Link Library
(4) Delete Link Layer
Ans: (1)
84. To prepare presentation/slide show, which application is commonly used?
(1) Photoshop
(2) Power Point
(3) Outlook Express
(4) Internet Explorer
Ans: (2)
85. A computer cannot “boot” if it does not have the
(1) Complier
(2) Loader
(3) Operating System
(4) Assembler
Ans: (3)
86. The diameter of the wheel of a car is 77 cm. How many revolutions will it make to travel 121 km?
(1) 24200
(2) 30000
(3) 50000
(4) 42500
Ans: (3)
87. CANEUS organization on space technologies is headquartered at
(1) Canada
(2) Europe
(3) USA
(4) Asia
Ans: (1)
88. Identify the wrong match:
(1) Winner of Monaco Grand Prix 2015 – Nico Rosberg
(2) 27th Coe Del Rey title won by – Barcelona
(3) The first country to legalise same sex marriage – New Zealand
(4) Country who was declared Ebola free in May, 2015 by WHO – Liberia
Ans: (3)
Directions (Q. 89): The following are the statistics of some matches of a cricket team bowlers and the wickets taken.
89. If the number of wickets taken by fast bowlers is 24, the ratio between wickets taken by fast bowlers to other bowler is :
(1) 4 : 5
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 2 : 1
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
90. From the following diagram find out correct answer for the given question. Indians who are Actors but not Singers:
(1) b
(2) c
(3) f
(4) g
Ans: (1)
91. Which country launched the world’s first electric passenger aircraft named BXIE recently?
(1) Germany
(2) China
(3) India
(4) USA
Ans: (2)
92. Count the number of rectangles in the following figure:
(1) 8
(2) 17
(3) 18
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
93. All of the other hardware in a computer system connect to :
(1) Mother Board
(2) Mouse
(3) Modem
(4) Hard-disk
Ans: (1)
94. Which two Indian sites were granted World Heritage sites in the year 2014?
(1) The Great Indian National Park & Ranki-ki-Vav
(2) Western Ghats & Rani-ki-Vav
(3) Hill Forts of Rajasthan & Jantar Mantar (Jaipur)
(4) Western Ghats & Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka
Ans: (1)
95. In a college, fifteen students of a class are the members of JKG Tennis Academy and twelve students are members of St. Teresa Tennis Academy. If out of these students a total of 13 belong to only one of the two academy then how many students belong to both the academies:
(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 12
Ans: (3)
General English
Directions: The question consists of an idiom followed by four alternative words or phrases giving the possible meaning of idiom. Select the alternative which gives closest meaning of the idiom.
96. Feathering one’s nest
(1) Enriching oneself at the expense of public
(2) Buying insurance in time
(3) Taking adequate precaution against danger
(4) Making a new home
Ans: (1)
Directions (Qs .97 to 99): Fill the sentence with appropriate preposition.
97. Ram died …….. overwork and exhaustion :
(1) Of
(2) From
(3) With
(4) In
Ans: (2)
98. White ants eat ……. wood :
(1) Of
(2) To
(3) Into
(4) In
Ans: (3)
99. You can surely count ….. me:
(1) In
(2) Upon
(3) By
(4) On
Ans: (4)
Directions : The question consists of an idiom followed by four alternative words or phrases giving the possible meaning of idiom. Select the alternative which gives closest meaning of the idiom.
100. In apple pie order:
(1) Last in the sequence
(2) By government order
(3) Everything in its place
(4) Neatly demolished
Ans: (3)
Directions (Qs. 101 & 102) : Each of the questions consists of a sentence with four underlined parts, one of which is incorrect as per standard use of English language. Identify the incorrect part.
101. Had I realized, (A) / your house was, (B) / such a long way off, (CC) / I would take a taxi. (D)
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans: (4)
102. Choose only, (A) / such friends, (B) / That you, (C) / can trust. (D)
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans: (2)
Directions (Qs. 103 & 104) : Against each key word are given four suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is nearest in meaning to given word.
103. Propitious :
(1) Favourable
(2) Similar
(3) Humble
(4) Versatile
Ans: (1)
104. Affront:
(1) Exile
(2) Contour
(3) Eruption
(4) Indignity
Ans: (4)
Directions: The sentences has been given in active voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
105. A lion does not eat grass, however, hungry he may be:
(1) Grass is not eaten by a lion, however hungry he may be
(2) Grass is not being eaten by a lion, however hungry he may be
(3) Grass is eaten not by a lion, however hungry he may be
(4) Grass is being not eaten by a lion despite being hungry
Ans: (1)
106. Pick the correct spelt word.
(1) Cannebalism
(2) Cannebelism
(3) Cannebilism
(4) Cannibalism
Ans: (4)
Directions : The words of proverbs and sentences are given in a jumbled manner. If the words are arranged properly, they make a readable sentence. Pick a choice which gives the correct sequence of words.
107. Burnt, fire, a, child, dreads, the:
1 2 3 4 5 6
(1) 314562
(2) 614532
(3) 624135
(4) 246531
Ans: (2)
108. What is the opposite of ‘Worthy”?
(1) Ugly
(2) Undeserving
(3) Valuable
(4) Dishonourable
Ans: (2)
109. What is the opposite of “Hapless”?
(1) Kind
(2) Significant
(3) Lucky
(4) Distinct
Ans: (3)
Directions : In the following question arrange the given sentences/phrases in a coherent sequence and select the corresponding choice (1), (2), (3), (4).
110. Jumbled sentences/phrases
M Defence personnel was cancelled
N To see the
O Many people did not go
P Republic Day parade as
Q The march past by
(1) ONPMQ
(2) ONPQM
(3) QPOMN
(4) PNOMQ
Ans: (2)
111. Mark the appropriate words to fill in the blank.
It is raining heavily, take ………. umbrella.
(1) The
(2) An
(3) A
(4) Some
Ans: (2)
112. In the following question, four options have been given. Identify the option which has correct usage of preposition:
(1) I prefer milk than tea
(2) He needs a pen to write with
(3) He is ill from fever
(4) He ordered for two cups of tea
Ans: (2)
Directions : Given below are the four spellings of the same word.
Choose the correct one.
113.
(1) Anoynymous
(2) Anonemous
(3) Anonymous
(4) Annonymous
Ans: (3)
Choose the correct passive voice.
114. She said, “Oh dear! I have just missed the bus.”
(1) She regretted that she just missed the bus.
(2) She said with regret that she had just missed the bus.
(3) She exclaimed that she had just missed the bus.
(4) She narrated that she just missed the bus.
Ans: (3)
115. Identify which is not adverb from among following underlined words in the given sentences.
She sings pretty well. I do my work carefully. he is wise enough to understand the trick. The flower smells sweet:
(1) Pretty
(2) Carefully
(3) Enough
(4) Sweet
Ans: (3)
116. Pick the correct spelt word.
(1) Stretchar
(2) Straetcher
(3) Stratcher
(4) Stretcher
Ans: (4)
Directions (Qs. 117 to 120) : Read the following passage and give the answers of these questions.
The refusal of British to be a part of European Union (EU) with greater political unification is unfortunate. It does not mean that one European community with free movement of goods, people and ideas is redundant. Notwithstanding its economic vows there is no denying that the fundamental post-national ideal of EU has held Europe in good stead leading to an era of unprecedented peace and cooperation. There is a need to learn from the downturn is that currency union without fiscal union is flawed. The solution is greater integration and alignment of financial, political and legal structures of member states. The argument that Europe with its diverse language and cultures cannot survive as a union, doesn’t cut ice either. Just like the diversity in India, there is no reason why the EU cannot fuse into a political union. Having congruence in foreign policy, ‘United States of Europe’ is the next logical step for the common economic bloc; and if Britain does not join, it stands to be isolated.
117. What is the message the author wants to give in this passage?
(1) Integration will help member states to consolidate their power and supremacy
(2) Fiscal integration is must for Member states
(3) Unity within diversity for member states
(4) Britain should go for fiscal, political and economic integration
Ans: (1)
118. What does it mean to convey ___ the fundamental post national ideal of EU?
(1) Self-contained autonomy of nation states
(2) Cultural, demographic and economic integration of member states
(3) Transnational flow of capital, communication and people across Europe
(4) Economic growth and development of all member states
Ans: (3)
119. What do you mean by the term ‘does not cut ice either’ in this passage?
(1) To penetrate with a sharp edge
(2) To have a frozen surface of a body
(3) To make no inroads
(4) To have no influence or making no impression
Ans: (4)
120. What is the logic of UK for not joining the EU?
(1) Maintaining its sovereignty and autonomy
(2) It will have adverse impact on fiscal growth of Britain
IBPS Specialist Officer (Marketing) Examination Held on 1-2-2016
Union Public Service Commission
Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner Exam
2016 Question Paper (Full Solved)
General Ability Test
1. Walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 20 minutes late. What is the time taken by him to reach the office at his usual speed?
(a) 80 minutes
(b) 70 minutes
(c) 60 minutes
(d) 50 minutes
Ans: (c)
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana:
1. It is applicable for all bank account holder sup to the age of 60 years.
2. It is a life insurance over.
3. It is an accident insurance cover.
4. The insurance covers death and permanent disability due to accident.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Ans: (b)
3. A and B run a 1 km race. A gives B a start of 50 m and still beats him by 15 seconds. If A runs at 8 km/h, what is the speed of B?
(a) 4.4 km/h
(b) 5.4 km/h
(c) 6.4 km/h
(d) 7.4 km/h
Ans: (d)
4. In a race of 1 km, A can beat B by 40 m and B can beat C by 50 m. With how much distance can A beat C in a 0.5 km race?
(a) 42 m
(b) 43 m
(c) 44 m
(d) 45 m
Ans: (c)
5. In an office, 40% of the employees are men and the rest women. Half of the employees are tall and half short If 10% of the employees are men and, short, and 40 employees are women and tall, the number of tall men employees is
(a) 60
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 30
Ans: (d)
6. Which of the following were the main aspects of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931?
1. Suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. To take part in the then forthcoming Simla Conference.
3. Pay taxes for the period of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
4. Release of Political Prisoners.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans: (c)
7. Which of the following is not an absolute measure of dispersion?
(a) Range
(b) Mean Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation
(d) Coefficient of Variation
Ans: (c)
8. A provisions shop-owner is found to mix 25 kg of rice worth Rs. 32/kg and 20 kg of rice worth Rs. 35/kg and the mixed rice is sold at 15% profit. What is the selling price of the mixed rice?
(a) Rs. 35.40/kg
(b) Rs. 38.33/kg
(c) Rs. 36.50/kg
(d) Rs. 37.42/kg
Ans: (b)
9. The original lay of a rectangular plot ABCD on open ground is 80 m long along AB, and 60 m wide along BC. Concreted pathways are intended to be laid on the inside of the plot all around the sides. The pathways along BC and DA are each 4 m wide. The pathways along AB and DC will mutually be of equal widths such that the un-concreted internal plot will measure three-fourth of the original area of the plot ABCD. What will be the width of each of these pathways along AB and DC?
(a) 3 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 6 m
Ans: (c)
10. At a dinner party, every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a bowl of dal among them and every four guests used a bowl of curd among them. There are altogether 65 bowls. What is the number of guests p resent at the party?
(a) 90
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 60
Ans: (d)
11. Social Security may provide cash benefits to persons faced with
1. Sickness and disability.
2. Unemployment
3. Crop failure
4. Loss of the marital partner
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
12. If 5 men or 9 women can finish a piece of work in 19 days, 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in
(a) 12 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 15 days
Ans: (d)
13. If the radius of a circle is reduced by 50%, its area will be reduced by
(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
Ans: (d)
14. Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 covers factors like
1. Factories and establishments with 10 or more employees.
2. Provision of comprehensive medical care to employees and their families.
3. Provision of cash benefits during sickness and maternity.
4. Monthly payments in case of death or disablement.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
15. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana :
1. It is applicable to all adults above the age group of 18 years.
2. The premium is deducted from the account holder’s bank account through ‘auto debit facility’.
3. The life insurance worth is decided by the account holder and he has to pay the annual premium accordingly.
4. The life insurance amount is given to the family after the death of the subscriber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
16. In an examination paper where maximum marks are 500, A got 10% marks less than B, B got 25% marks more than C, and C got 20% marks less than D. If A got 360 marks, what marks did D get?
(a) 65%
(b) 70%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
Ans: (d)
Directions (Qs. 17 to 20) : Each of these questions consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
17. Statement (I) : The effects of an income tax on consumption, saving and investment are micro effects.
Statement (II) : Income tax is an example of direct tax.
Ans: (d)
18. Statement (I) : Trade between two countries takes place on account of difference in costs.
Statement (II) : Different countries have different factor endowments.
Ans: (a)
19. Statement (I) : Foreign investments may effect a country’s export performance.
Statement (II) :Inflow of foreign exchange may cause appreciation of local currency leading to a rise in the price of export commodities.
Ans: (a)
20. Statement (I) : Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee.
Statement (II): Members of Parliament, eminent persons from industry and trade are the members of the Public Accounts Committee.
Ans: (c)
21. There are 20 girls and 30 boys in a class, and their respective average marks are found to be 55 and 58. The average marks of the entire class are
(a) 56.5
(b) 56.6
(c) 56.7
(d) 56.8
Ans: (d)
22. Consider an industry with the following features:
• Budgeted month fixed cost – Rs. 2,20,000
• Normal monthly output = Rs. 12000 per standard labour hour
• Standard variable overhead rate = Rs. 25 per labour hour
What would be the total factory overhead rate?
(a) Rs. 40.33 per labour hour
(b) Rs. 41.67 per labour hour
(c) Rs. 42.67 per labour hour
(d) Rs. 43.33 per labour hour
Ans: (d)
23. Acid rain is due to
(a) Sulphur dioxide pollution
(b) Carbon monoxide pollution
(c) Pesticide pollution
(d) Dust particles in the atmosphere
Ans: (a)
24. DNA fingerprinting is a technique used for the detection of
(a) Alzheimer’s disease
(b) Disputed parentage
(c) AIDS
(d) Yellow fever
Ans: (b)
25. There are four identically sized and shaped b alls in a box, with only its top open. Each ball is of a different colour, these being: Green, Red, White and Blue, only one bal of each colour. Without looking into the box, one ball is randomly picked out and its colour is noted; then it is returned to the box. What are the chances that, in two successive draws, one may get the white ball and the red ball-in whichever order?
(a) 1/16
(b) 1/8
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
Ans: (d)
26. Consider the following programmes:
1. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
2. Micro Finance Programme
3. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme
4. Cluster Development Programme
What is common in the above programmes?
(a) They are related to improving agriculture
(b) They are programmes related to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(c) They are programmes to improve large scale industries
(d) They are programmes to improve the traditional cottage industries
Ans: (b)
27. SPAM in a system (e-mail) is
(a) A message distributed indiscriminately
(b) A search engine
(c) An activity of the user
(d) A command initiated by the sender
Ans: (a)
28. A cylindrical closed tank contains 36π cubic metres of water, and is filled to half of its capacity. When the cylindrical tank is placed upright on its circular base on level ground, the height of the water in the tank is 4 metres. But when this tank is placed on its side on level ground what will be the height of the surface of the water above the ground?
(a) 9 metres
(b) 6 metres
(c) 3 metres
(d) 1 metres
Ans: (c)
29. Data regarding inventory of a particular item of usage in the production activities of an organisation are: the quantity in stock is 1500 units and the value of this stock is Rs. 1,27,500. (This works out to an average unit cost of Rs. 85.) During the ensuing year X, an additional 300 units are purchased at unit cost of Rs. 95. Consumption in production processes during the y ear X has been 600 units. Working by the First-In-First-Out basis, the value of the residual inventory of the item at the end of the year X will be
(a) Rs. 1,00,000
(b) Rs. 1,02,500
(c) Rs. 1,05,000
(d) Rs. 1,07,500
Ans: (c)
30. Consider the following statements about All India Radio:
1. It is governed by the Prasar Bharati Board.
2. It was so named in 1936.
3. It does not provide DTH services.
4. FM Rainbow and FM Gold are its subsidiary channels.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
31. The famous ‘Giri’ approach in Industrial Relations in India espouses the cause of
(a) Adjudication
(b) Compulsory Collective Bargaining
(c) Conciliation
(d) Arbitration
Ans: (d)
32. In a race, the first four winners are to be awarded points. Each winner’s points must be 5 more than that of the next position winner. Total sum of the points to be awarded is 50. What will be the points for the third position winner?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Ans: (c)
33. Which of the following trends in FDI inflows are correct?
1. In 2003-04, the FDI Equity inflow percentage growth was negative.
2. From 2004-05 to 2007-08, the FDI inflows were very high and positive.
3. In 2008-09, the FDI inflows were positive, but had decreased relative to the previous year.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans: (b)
34. In raising an object to a given height by means of an inclined plane, as compared with raising the object vertically, there is a reduction in
(a) Force to be applied
(b) Work required
(c) Distance covered
(d) Friction force
Ans: (a)
35. The mean and standard deviation of a set of 16 non-zero positive numbers in an observation are 26 and 3.5,m respectively. The mean and standard deviation of another set of 24 non-zero positive numbers without changing the circumstances of both sets of observations, are 29 and 3, respectively. The mean and standard deviation of their combined set of observations will respectively be
(a) 27.8 and 3.21
(b) 26.2 and 3.32
(c) 27.8 and 3.32
(d) 26.2 and 3.21
Ans: (c)
36. A sinusoidal transverse wave is travelling on a string. Any point on the string moves in
(a) SHM with the same angular frequency as that of the wave
(b) SHM with a different frequency than that of the wave
(c) Uniform circular motion with the same angular speed as that of the wave
(d) Uniform circular motion with a different angular speed than that of the wave
Ans: (a)
37. The devices that work with computer systems as soon as they are connected are described as
(a) Hot Swapping
(b) Bay Swap
(c) Plug-N-Play
(d) USB Swapping
Ans: (c)
38. Which one of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(a) Database
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Graphics package
(d) Document processor
Ans: (b)
39. Consider the following statements on Global Positioning System (GPS):
1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on ATM transactions.
2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring signals worldwide.
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
40. Consider the following statements:
Cellular technology evolves in stages called Generation (G), where
1. A Generation represents the number of subscribers; higher Generation has more subscribers.
2. 2G technology has two standards CDMA and GSM.
3. 2G technology has CDMA standard and 3G has GSM standard.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans: (d)
41. Which of the following statements reflect the distinctive features about 6th century BCE Ganas or Sanghas?
1. The ancient Indian Ganas were oligarchies.
2. The ancient Indian Ganas were non-monarchical states.
3. Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avanti were the most powerful States of that era.
4. The procedures of the Buddhist monastic order (Sangha) were patterned on the Sangha politics.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (b)
42. What is the chronological sequence of the following development?
1. Decline in the export of Indian cotton
2. Cotton boom in India
3. Civil War in America
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 1 and 3
Ans: (a)
43. Which of the following are the typical differences between the private insurance programmes and the social insurance programmes?
1. Adequacy versus Equity
2. Voluntary versus Mandatory Participation
3. Contractual versus Statutory Rights
4. Funding
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
44. ‘Unbalanced’ Growth is hypothesised when
(a) Expansion can take place simultaneously on several growth routes.
(b) Supply of labour is fixed
(c) Supply of capital is unlimited
(d) Active sectors need to, and do energise sluggish sectors
Ans: (d)
45. Which of the following are incorporated in the Government approved National Telecom Policy, 2012?
1. Broadband for all with a minimum download speed of two megabits per second.
2. India’s rural tele-density to be improved from 39% to 70% in the next five years.
3. Roaming charges shall be scrapped.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
46. Which of the following is one of the Millennium Development Goals fixed by the UNO?
(a) Halving extreme poverty and halting the spread of HIV/AIDS
(b) Develop a new variety of foodgrains which can ensure bumper crops
(c) To ensure that population does not increase in the least developed countries
(d) Develop procedures towards adequate and timely forewarning on hurricanes and tsunamis?
Ans: (a)
47. The term ‘Carbon footprint’ means
(a) A region which is rich in coal mines
(b) The amount of reduction in the emission of CO2 by a country
(c) The use of Carbon in manufacturing industries
(d) The amount of greenhouse gases produced by our day-to-day activities.
Ans: (d)
48. Amongst the following, who is the latest recipient of the ‘Bharat Ratna’ award?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Ans: (b)
49. ‘Green Revolution’ in India was expeditiously feasible in zones of
(a) High rainfall
(b) Moderate rainfall
(c) Assured irrigation
(d) Higher population density
Ans: (c)
50. What is Apartheid?
(a) An international organisation of peace
(b) A medical term
(c) A trade charter
(d) A policy of racial segregation
Ans: (d)
51. Transportation plays a great role in any economy. Which of the following modes of transportation has the highest elasticity?
(a) Air
(b) Rail
(c) Road
(d) Water
Ans: (c)
52. How does an expansionary monetary policy affect the rate of interest and level of income?
(a) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate of interest
(b) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level of income
(c) Raises both, the rate of interest and the level of income
(d) Lowers both, the rate of interest and the level of income
Ans: (a)
53. In a medium-size township, the trend of annual immigration is an addition of 20% of the population as it was t the beginning; also 15% of the population as it was at the beginning is estimated to relocate elsewhere every year. If the current population is 80000, what is the likely population three years hence?
(a) 90000
(b) 91200
(c) 92000
(d) 92610
Ans: (d)
54. ‘The Problem of Rupee; was whose D.Sc. Thesis?
(a) Sri Aurobindo
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
Ans: (d)
55. What is the correct sequence of tributaries of the river Ganga from West to East?
(a) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Son, Gandak and Kosi
(b) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Gandak, Kosi and Son
(c) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Son, and Kosi
(d) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Kosi, Gandak and Son
Ans: (a)
56. There are two circles of radii r1 and r2(r1 < r2). The area of the bigger circle is The difference of their circumferences is 22 cm. What is the sum of the diameters of the two circles?
(a) 17.5 cm
(b) 22 cm
(c) 28.5 cm
(d) 35 cm
Ans: (d)
57. Numbers a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, …, a24 are in arithmetic progression and a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 + a20 + a24 = 225. The value of a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 + … a23 + a24 is
(a) 525
(b) 725
(c) 850
(d) 900
Ans: (d)
58. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Constitutions is supreme.
2. There is a clear division of powers between the Union and the State Governments.
3. Amendments to the Constitution have to follow the prescribed procedure.
4. Parliament and the State Legislatures are sovereign.
5. The Preamble to the Constitution cannot be invoked to determine the ambit of Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
59. When the Government ownership in Public Sector Undertakings is diluted, it is called
(a) Privatisation
(b) Public-Private Partnership
(c) Disinvestment
(d) Deflation
Ans: (c)
60. The Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 provides for education to every child in the age group
(a) 5 – 13 years
(b) 8 – 16 years
(c) 7 – 15 years
(d) 6 – 14 years
Ans: (d)
61. LAN, WAN and MAN are computer networks covering different areas. Their first alphabets L, W and M respectively stand for
(a) Local, World and Middle
(b) Long, Wireless and Metropolitan
(c) Local, Wide and Metropolitan
(d) Least, Wireless and Maximum
Ans: (c)
62. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long as its width. If 360 m of fencing including gates will totally enclose this garden, what is the length of the garden?
(a) 120 m
(b) 130 m
(c) 140 m
(d) 150 m
Ans: (a)
63. The ‘Cloud Computing’ technology refers to
(a) A set of algorithms that solves problems using fuzzy logic
(b) Many computers that are interconnected through wireless networks and satellites
(c) A distributed computer architecture that provides software, infrastructure and platforms just as required by applications/users
(d) A futuristic technology that will use clouds to perform computing
Ans: (c)
64. Consider the following statements for Nano-technology:
1. It is the technology of creating material and devices atom-by-atom.
2. Physical properties change at the nanometer scale.
3. Chemical properties change at the nanometer scale.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
65. The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) used in the CERN project is a particle accelerator locate on the border between
(a) Spain and France
(b) France and Germany
(c) Spain and Switzerland
(d) France and Switzerland
Ans: (d)
66. The method of communication in which transmission can take place in both directions, but happens only in one direction at a time, is called
(a) Duplex
(b) Half Duplex
(c) Full Duplex
(d) Simplex
Ans: (b)
67. A collection of programs that controls how the computer system runs and processes information is called
(a) Compiler
(b) Operating System
(c) Linker
(d) Assembler
Ans: (b)
68. SMPS is the acronym for
(a) Store Mode Power Supply
(b) Single Mode Power Supply
(c) Switch Mode Power Supply
(d) Start Mode Power Supply
Ans: (c)
69. USB is the acronym for
(a) Uniform Service Broadcasting
(b) Unique Solution Bus
(c) Universal Serial Bus
(d) Universal Service Broadcasting
Ans: (c)
70. In a chess tournament, each of the six players will p ay with every other player exactly once. What is the number of matches that will be played during the tournament?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Ans: (b)
71. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, (M.B. Act) provides for how many weeks’ wages during the maternity period?
(a) 11 weeks
(b) 12 weeks
(c) 13 weeks
(d) 14 weeks
Ans: (b)
72. Which of the following are the instruments or providing social security in India?
1. Income Tax
2. Employees’ Provident Fund
3. General Sales Tax
4. LIC
5. National Pension Scheme
6. Postal Provident Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6
(d) 3, 4, 5 and 6
Ans: (c)
73. A man buys apples at a certain price per dozen and sells them at 8 times that price per hundred. What percentage does the gain or lose?
(a) 4% profit
(b) 6% profit
(c) 4% loss
(d) 6% loss
Ans: (c)
74. For which time intervals, is the percentage rise of population the same for the following data?
Period Population
1970 40,000
1980 50,000
1990 60,000
2000 72,000
2010 80,000
(a) 1970 – 80 and 1980 – 90
(b) 1980 – 90 and 1990 – 2000
(c) 2000 – 2010 and 1990 – 2000
(d) 1980 – 90 and 2000 – 2010
Ans: (b)
75. Four quantities are such that their arithmetic mean (A.M.) is the same as the A.M. of the first three quantities. The fourth quantity is
(a) Sum of the first three quantities
(b) A.M. of the first three quantities.
(c)
(d)
Ans: (b)
76. If the difference of two numbers is greater than the sum of the n umbers, then
(a) Both the numbers are negative
(b) Exactly one of the numbers is negative
(c) At least one of the numbers is negative
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
77. A palindrome is a number which reads the same from left as well as from right, for example, 23732. What is the number of palindromes between 10 and 1010?
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 99
(d) 90
Ans: (b)
78. In writing all the integers from 1 to 300, how many times is the digit 1 used?
(a) 160
(b) 140
(c) 120
(d) 110
Ans: (*)
79. Consider the sequential integers 27 to 93, both included in the sequence. The arithmetic average of these numbers will be
(a) 61.5
(b) 61.
(c) 60.5
(d) 60
Ans: (d)
80. Consider the following statements in respect of Atal Pension Yojana:
1. Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18 to 0 years.
2. Beneficiary will receive the pension only after he attains the age of 60 years.
3. After the death of a beneficiary, his spouse continues to receive the pension.
4. No nominee of the beneficiary is permitted.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
81. If the Prime Minister of India is a member of the Rajya Sabha
(a) He can make statements only in the Rajya Sabha
(b) He has to become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lok Sabha
(d) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a non-confidence motion.
Ans: (d)
82. Which one of the following formed the basic premise for developing the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(b) The US Constitution
(c) The British Constitution
(d) The UN Charter
Ans: (a)
83. The Malimath Committee (2003) looked at ways to reform the
(a) Educational System in India
(b) Criminal Justice System in India
(c) Copyright Laws in India
(d) Public-Private Partnership in India
Ans: (b)
84. What are the disadvantages of Provident Fund Scheme?
1. Money in inadequate for risks occurring early in working life.
2. Inflation erodes the real value of savings.
3. It generates forces saving that can be used to finance national development plans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
85. Besides resistance to pests, what are the other prospects for which plants have been genetically engineered?
1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
86. Consider the following items:
1. Consumer goods and services
2. Gross private domestic investment
3. Goods and services produced by the Government
4. Net income from abroad
Which of the above items are included in GNP?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
87. Which of the following statements best describes the content of the theory of distribution?
(a) The distribution of income among different individuals in the economy
(b) The distribution of income between the Centre, and the State Governments
(c) The principle of just distribution of wealth and income
(d) The distribution of income between the owners of factor resources
Ans: (a)
88. The demand for a factor of production is said to be derived demand because
1. It is a function of the profitability of an enterprise
2. It depends on the supply of complementary factors
3. It stems from the demand for the final product
4. It arises out of means being scarce in relation to wants.
Which of the above reasons is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
89. Whenever countries set up a Free Trade Area, they abolish all restrictions on trade among themselves and
(a) They established a common external tariff on imports from outside countries.
(b) They abolish all restrictions on imports from outside countries.
(c) They abolish all restrictions on imports from other Free Trade Areas.
(d) Each country maintains its own set of tariffs and quotas on imports from outside countries.
Ans: (d)
90. Which of the following are the functions of Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)?
1. To ensure expeditious clearance of the proposals for foreign investment
2. To review periodically the implementation of the proposals cleared by the Board.
3. The undertake all other activities for promoting and facilitating FDI as considered necessary from time to time.
4. To interact with the FIPC being constituted separately by the Ministry of Industry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (c)
91. The term ‘Dear Money’ refers to
(a) Low rate of interest on housing loans
(b) Value of money at the recession stage
(c) High rate of interest
(d) Savings gained due to decrease in rate of interest on housing loans
Ans: (c)
92. A certain sequence of integers is constructed as follows :
Consider 0 and 1 as the first two numbers. The next, i.e. the third number is constructed by their sums, i.e. 1. This process of constructing the next number by the sum of the last two constructed numbers continues. Taking these numbers 0, 1, 1, as the first, second and third numbers in the sequence what will be the 7th and 10th respectively?
(a) 6 and 30
(b) 7 and 33
(c) 8 and 34
(d) 10 and 39
Ans: (c)
93. The Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment of shares in Public Sector Enterprises suggested that
1. The percentage of equity to be divested should be no more than 49% for industries explicitly reserved for the public sector and it should be either 74% or 100% for others.
2. Year-wise targets of disinvestment should be maintained.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
94. Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a) With the consent of all the States
(b) With the consent of majority of the States
(c) With the consent of the States concerned
(d) Without the consent of any State
Ans: (d)
95. In the study of pollution, SPM refers to
(a) Sulphur Phosphorus Matter
(b) Sulphur Particulate Matter
(c) Solid Particulate Matter
(d) Suspended Particulate Matter
Ans: (d)
96. Which of the following industries were first established during the British Rule in India?
(a) Cotton Textile Industry; and Jute Industry
(b) Jute Industry; and Iron and Steel Industry
(c) Cotton Textile Industry; and Chemical Industry
(d) Jute Industry; and Chemical Industry
Ans: (a)
97. Which of the following are roles of the Finance Commission in India?
1. The distribution of money collected through taxes
2. Evaluation of Centrally sponsored schemes
3. Evolve principles based on which funds are allotted among States
4. To develop Five-Year Plans
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (b)
98. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
1. India is founder member of the IMF.
2. India’s quota in the IMF is more than 4 percent.
3. Finance Minister is represented ex-officio on the IMF.
4. IMF conducts regular review of India’s economic status under Article IV.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
99. A firm is purchasing two items; both on credit on the same day. The credit term offered for the first item is net 30; and the credit term offered, for the second item is 3/5, 2/15, net 30. The declared purchase coast of item 1 is Rs. 60,000 and that of item 2 is Rs. 1,40,000. If both credits can be settled on the 14th day, what will be the total amount to be paid out?
(a) Rs. 1,97,200
(b) Rs. 1,97,500
(c) Rs. 1,96,600
(d) Rs. 1,98,400
Ans: (c)
100. What was the position held by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, before he became the Vice-President of India?
(a) Ambassador to the USA
(b) Chairman, UGC
(c) Chairman, Planning Commission
(d) Ambassador to the Soviet Union
Ans: (d)
Directions (Qs. 101 to 110) : The following ten (10) items are on English Language; therefore, these items do not have Hindi version.
101. What is the indication out of the sentence :
‘I gave him a piece of my mind?
(a) Appreciation
(b) Warning
(c) Greeting
(d) Scolding
Ans: (d)
102. What is the meaning of the expression : Blue blood?
(a) Polluted industrial waste water
(b) Sap of teak wood
(c) An aristocrat
(d) A costly object
Ans: (c)
103. ‘He was hoist by his own petard’ refers to
(a) He had problems as a result of his own plans to hurt others
(b) He was high up on the pole
(c) He would usually run away from trouble
(d) He was indifferent to his surroundings
Ans: (a)
104. What is a Ballad ?
(a) A novel
(b) A historical narration
(c) A popular story of folktale in verse
(d) Musical comedy
Ans: (c)
105. Plagiarism means
(a) There was an epidemic of plague in the area
(b) It is a sort of political philosophy
(c) It indicates a happy community spirit like in playing Holi
(d) It is presenting the work of someone else as one’s own.
Ans: (d)
106. Rivalry between the two clans has become water under the bridge means
(a) The rivalry continues
(b) It has become a thing of the past
(c) It connect the two clans
(d) It is not forgotten
Ans: (b)
107. Consider the sentence :
1 2 3 4 5 6
where the words are numbered for convenience of reference. Consider also the insertion of a single word ‘only’ into this sentence to indicate a desired emphasis. Where shall this word be inserted if the emphasis is to be
(i) On the recipient
(ii) On the uniqueness of the item given
(iii) On the giver respectively (only one at a time)?
(a) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) After 6; (iii) Between 2-3
(b) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) Between 5-6; (iii) Before 1
(c) (i) Between 4-5; (ii) Between 3-4; (iii) After 1
(d) (i) Between 2-3; (ii) Between 4-5; (iii) Between 1-2
Ans: (b)
108. What is the meaning of the term ‘diabetic’?
(a) Intended to be inspirational
(b) Teaching a moral lesson
(c) Received as comical
(d) Sharing an informative experience
Ans: (b)
109. Consider the statement : ‘The message of peace and brotherhood permeated the address by the Chief Guest.’ Which the following is meant by ‘Permeate’ in this statement?
(a) To advocate
(b) To spread all over
(c) To anchor and stabilise
(d) To leave a permanent impression
Ans: (a)
110. Arrange the following to form grammatically correct sentence :
1. Einstein was
2. although a great scientist
3. weak an Arithmetic
4. right from his schooldays
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 4, 1, 3 and 2
(b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(c) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3, 1 and 4
Ans: (b)
111. What is the chronological sequence of the following events?
1. First Battle of Panipat
2. Vietnam War
3. French Revolution
4. First Gulf War
5. World War I
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 5, 3, 2 and 4
(b) 3, 1, 5, 4 and 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5 and 2
(d) 1, 3, 5, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
112. A branch of scholarship that flourished in Europe, particularly from the fifteenth to the eighteenth centuries, and was devoted to the appreciation, chronicling and classification of historic and non-organic relics, monument and old texts refers to
(a) Archaeology
(b) History
(c) Architecture
(d) Antiquarianism
Ans: (d)
113. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Stridhana’?
1. Various types of movable property gifted to a woman on various occasions during her lifetime.
2. Various types of movable property gifted to a woman at the time of her first marriage.
3. On the woman’s death, this wealth could be inherited by her children and husband.
4. One the woman’s death, this wealth could be inherited by her natural legally adopted children, with none of the sons-in-law, having any claim on any part thereof.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
114. What is the number of States and Union Territories in India?
(a) 29 and 6
(b) 28 and 7
(c) 29 and 7
(d) 28 and 6
Ans: (c)
115. Which of the following is not true of the Western Ghats?
(a) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western Ghats as ‘World Heritage Sites’ In 2012
(b) It is one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the world.
(c) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks
(d) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil reserves
Ans: (d)
116. Ayodhya is located at the bank of which river?
(a) Falgu
(b) Ganga
(c) Sarayu
(d) Yamuna
Ans: (c)
117. The Khilafat Committee accepted Mahatma Gandhi’s suggestion for a non-violent non-cooperation protest against the Government in its meeting at
(a) Bombay
(b) Nagpur
(c) Allahabad
(d) Kanpur
Ans: (c)
118. What is Know India Programme (KIP)?
(a) A programme for children aged 12-15 years from rural areas to make them aware of different aspects of India
(b) A programme that facilitates visits of rural teachers to different parts of the country
(c) An outreach programme of the Ministry of External Affairs to build closer ties with India’s neighbourhood
(d) A programme for diaspora youth to promote awareness among them about different aspects of India
Ans: (d)
119. What is the perimeter of the figure shown below?
AJ = 10 cm, JI = 12 cm, AB = x,
CD = x + 1, EF= x + 2,
GH = x + 3,
BC = DE = FG = HI = y
(a) 44 cm
(b) 48 cm
(c) 54 cm
(d) 58 cm
Ans: (a)
120. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed to
(a) Generate additional economic activity throughout the country
(b) Beautify suburban areas
(c) Upgrade the facilities in the countryside
(d) Promote investment from domestic and foreign sources
IBPS RRBs-V Officer (Scale I) Common Recruitment Process Preliminary Online Examination Held on November 4, 2016
IBPS RRBs-V Officer (Scale I) Common Recruitment Process Preliminary Online Examination
Held on November 4, 2016
Part I Reasoning Ability
1. If only one meaningful English word can be made with the first, the fourth, the ninth and the tenth letters of the word CORRUPTION, using each letter only once, then which of the first letter of the word from the left. If no such word can be formed then your answer is X. If more than one such word can be formed then your answer is Z?
(a) X
(b) Z
(c) R
(d) O
(e) C
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 2-6) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate option.
a. if only conclusion I is true
b. if only conclusion II is true
c. if both conclusions are true
d. if none of the conclusions is true
e. if either conclusion I or II is true
2. Statements P < E < T ≤ R; T ≥ K
Conclusions I. K > P II. R ≥ K
Ans: (b)
3. Statements X < W; A > C ≥ H = W
Conclusions I. C > X II. B < W
Ans: (c)
4. Statements B ≤ N < D; K = R < D ≤ W
Conclusions I. N = R II. B < W
Ans: (b)
5. Statements J ≤ L < B ≤ S > Y < M
Conclusions I. J < M II. L ≥ Y
Ans: (d)
6. Statements B ≤ N < D; K = R < D ≤ W
Conclusions I. W > K II. N ≥ W
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people- A< B, C, D, M, N, O and P are sitting around a square table (but not necessarily in the same order) in such a way that four of them sit at four corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing the centre and the ones sitting at the corners are facing outside (i.e., opposite to the centre)
A sits in the middle of one of the sides. Only one person sits between AA and M. A sits third to the right of B. Only three people sit between B and N. C sits second to the right of N. O and C face the same direction. M is not an immediate neighbour of O. P sits second to the right of D.
7. Who is to the immediate left of M?
(a) N
(b) B
(c) D
(d) P
(e) C
Ans: (e)
8. What is the position of O with respect to P?
(a) Fourth to the left
(b) Third to the left
(c) Third to the right
(d) Immediate right
(e) Immediate left
Ans: (b)
9. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) None of the given statements is true.
(b) Only three people sit between O and D.
(c) D sits third to the left of A.
(d) M sits at one of the corners of the table.
(e) M is an immediate neighbour of P.
Ans: (a)
10. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) D
(b) O
(c) P
(d) A
(e) M
Ans: (b)
11. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the one who sits to the immediate right of N, when counted from the left of B?
(a) O, D
(b) M, P
(c) C, P
(d) M, C
(e) A, C
Ans: (c)
12. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 67594138 (both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them as in the arithmetic series?
(a) Two
(b) None
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Ans: (e)
13. In a queue of fifteen people facing North, Rahul’s position is ningth from the end of the queue. Only four people are standing between Rahul and Tom, karan is standing immediately after Tom. Bharti is standing exactly between Karan and Rahul. Sonali is standing before Bharti, but after Tom. What is position of Sonali from the beginning of the queue? (Note : All people are standing one behind the other)
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Seventh
(c) Eleventh
(d) Fourth
(e) Sixth
Ans: (d)
14. The following series is based on the English alphabets. Which one of the following will come in place of the question mark in th given alphabetical series?
XBF UDK RFO OHR ?
(a) LKU
(b) MKS
(c) LJT
(d) MJS
(e) LJV
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
S is 11 m East of N. S is 8 m North of P. P is 4 m West of O. Point O is the midpoint of points P and R, such that P, O and R form a straight line. Q is 13 m South of R.
15. If L is 7 m East of R and J is 5 m South of L, then what is the distance between L and S?
(a) 6 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 17 m
(d) 5 m
(e) 3 m
Ans: (c)
16. In which direction is N with respect to Q?
(a) North-West
(b) West
(c) East
(d) North-East
(e) South-West
Ans: (a)
17. Hiten walks 2 m towards North form point P, takes a right turn and walks for 8 m. How far will he be from point Q?
(a) 13 m
(b) 7 m
(c) 17 m
(d) 8 m
(e) 15 m
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-22) Study the following information to answer the given questions. Nine persons, E, F, G, H, K, I, L, M, N, and O are seated in a straight line facing North, with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order.
Only two people sit between E and the one sitting at extreme ends of the line. K sits second to the right of E. H sits fourth to the left of M. M does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. M is not an immediate neighbour of E. The number of people sitting between H and K is double than that between M and O. More than two people sit between G and E. G is not an immediate neighbour o M. F is an immediate neighbour of L, but not H.
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) N, E
(b) M, H
(c) K, L
(d) O, N
(e) F, O
Ans: (d)
19. Which of the following is true with respect to N as per the given arrangement?
(a) N is an immediate neighbour of H.
(b) N sits second to the left of M.
(c) N sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(d) More than two people sit between N and G.
(e) None of the given options is true.
Ans: (e)
20. Who sits second to the left of H?
(a) N
(b) K
(c) F
(d) E
(e) No one as H sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
Ans: (c)
21. Who amongst the following sit exactly between N and O?
(a) H, L
(b) F, O
(c) F, E
(d) M, K
(e) K, O
Ans: (d)
22. In which of the given pairs of people, is even number of people sitting between them?
(a) G, E
(b) K, L
(c) F, M
(d) O, M
(e) K, N
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 23-27) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Sagar sells mobiles of seven different companies viz. Samsung, HTC, Lenovo, Intex, Micromax, Nokia and Oppo starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.
Sagar sold HTC on Monday. He sold only three mobiles between HTC and Samsung. He does not sell any mobile between the day he sold Samsung and Lenovo. He sold only two mobiles between Lenovo and Oppo. He sold Micromax mobiles the day immediately before the day he sold Oppo mobiles. He sold Intex on one of the days after Oppo, but not on Sunday.
23. On which day Sagar sold Micromax?
(a) Thursday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday
(e) Wednesday
Ans: (b)
24. How many mobiles did Sagar sell between HTC and Lenovo?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
(e) Three
Ans: (a)
25. Which of the following is not true as per the given arrangement?
(a) Sagar sells mobiles of anyone company between Samsung and Nokia.
(b) Sagar sells Intex on Thursday.
(c) Sagar did not sell mobile of any other company between Oppo and Intex.
(d) All the given statements are true.
(e) Sagar sells Lenovo on Friday.
Ans: (e)
26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Nokia-Friday
(b) Samsung-Thursday
(c) Micromax-Monday
(d) Intex-Wednesday
(e) Oppo-Tuesday
Ans: (a)
27. Which mobile did Sagar sell on Sunday?
(a) Nokia
(b) Lenovo
(c) Micromax
(d) None of those given as options
(e) Oppo
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 28-32) In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows disregarding commonly known facts.
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I or II follows
e. if both conclusions I and II follow
28. Statements All copies are book.
No book is a pencil.
All pencils are rubbers.
Conclusions
I. No rubber is a book.
II. Some copies are rubbers.
Ans: (d)
29. Statements Some drinks are eatables.
All eatables are sweets.
Conclusions
I. At least some sweets are drinks.
II. All drinks are sweets.
Ans: (a)
30. Statements All copies are book.
No book is a pencil.
All pencils are rubbers.
Conclusions
I. No copy is a pencil.
II. Some books are rubbers.
Ans: (a)
31. Statements Some mobiles are calculators.
Some calculators are pens.
Some pens are scales.
Conclusions
I. No calculator is a scale.
II. At least some calculators are scales.
Ans: (c)
32. Statements Some mobiles are calculators.
Some calculators are pens.
Some pens are scales.
Conclusions
I. Some mobiles are sales.
II. All pens being calculators is a possibility.
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37) Study the following information and answer the questions.
Nine friends-A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I live on nine different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and, so on till the topmost floor is numbered nine. I lives on floor numbered six.
E lives on an odd numbered floor above, I. Only three people live between E and G. A lives on an even numbered floor immediately below D, but not on the floor numbered eight. Only one person lives between A and F. C lives on one of the floors below F. The number of people living above C is equal to the number of people living below H.
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) HB
(b) FC
(c) DE
(d) EI
(e) AG
Ans: (c)
34. How many persons live between A and the person living on the floor numbered seven?
(a) More than three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
(e) Three
Ans: (b)
35. H lives on which of the following floor numbers?
(a) Eight
(b) One
(c) Five
(d) Nine
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (d)
36. Which of the following is not true about B as per the given arrangement?
(a) B lives on an even numbered floor.
(b) All the given statements are true.
(c) Only one person lives between B and E
(d) H lives immediately above B.
(e) Only one person lives above B.
Ans: (c)
37. In which of the given pairs of people, is even number of people living between them?
(a) G, C
(b) H, E
(c) E, D
(d) I, H
(e) B, I
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
S is the husband of Q. A is the brother of D. A is the only son of B. D is the sister of Q. R is married to D. M is the father of R. N is the daughter of Q.
38. If V is the grandfather of N, then how is B related to R?
(a) Uncle
(b) Mother-in-law
(c) Grandmother
(d) Aunt
(e) Father-in-law
Ans: (e)
39. How is S related to A?
(a) Father
(b) Grandfather
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Uncle
(e) Nephew
Ans: (c)
40. How is D related to N?
(a) Mother
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Cousin
(d) Mother-in-law
(e) Aunt
Ans: (e)
Part II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) What approximate value will come in place of question marks in the given equations?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
41. 9 ÷ 4.02 + 13.04 × 28.978 = ?
(a) 1430
(b) 1470
(c) 1410
(d) 1490
(e) 1240
Ans: (*)
42. ?% of (767 ÷ 6) = 7.8892
(a) 25
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) 75
Ans: (d)
43. 89 – 15.03 ÷ 3.693 = 1039.88 ÷ ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 2
(e) 12
Ans: (c)
44. 99 × 4.98 + 129.992 – 75.05 = ?
(a) 540
(b) 780
(c) 680
(d) 620
(e) 760
Ans: (c)
45.
(a) 35
(b) 510
(c) 25
(d) 15
(e) 20
Ans: (c)
46. Jar A contains 78 L of milk and water in the respective ratio of 6 : 7. 26 L of the mixture was taken out from jar A. What quantity of milk should be added to jar A, so that water constitutes 40% of the resultant mixture in jar A?
(a) 8 L
(b) 361 L
(c) 12 L
(d) 14 L
(e) 18 L
Ans: (e)
47. At its usual speed, a 150 m long train crosses a platform of length L m in 24 seconds. At 75% of its usual speed, the train crosses a vertical pole in 12 seconds. What is the value of L ?
(a) 250
(b) 225
(c) 240
(d) 260
(e) 280
Ans: (a)
48. In a class, the respective ratio between the number of boys and the number of girls is 3 : 1. A test was conducted, where in the average score of the boys was 73, while that of the entire class was 71. What was the average score of the girls?
(a) 68
(b) 71
(c) 67
(d) 65
(e) 63
Ans: (d)
49. Two years ago, A’s age was 1/2 of B’s age at that time. A’s age four years hence will be 22 years less than B’s age eight years hence. What is B’s present age?
(a) 30 yr
(b) 24 yr
(c) 36 yr
(d) 42 yr
(e) 38 yr
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-54) In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and choose the appropriate option.
a. x > y b. x , y c. x ≥ y
d. x ≤ y e. x = y or cannot be determined
50. I. 3x2 + 14x + 15 = 0 II. 2y2 + 19y + 44 = 0
Ans: (a)
51. I. x2 = 196 II. y2 + 2y – 48 = 0
Ans: (e)
52. I. 2x2 + 17x + 36 = 0 II. 3y2 + 20y + 33 = 0
Ans: (b)
53. I. x2 + 12x + 35 = 0 II. 3y2 + 19y + 20 = 0
Ans: (d)
54. I. x2 – 7x + 10 = 0 II. y2 – 5y + 6 = 0
Ans: (c)
55. When 9 is subtracted from a two digit number, the number so formed is reverse of the original number. Also, the average of the digits of the original number. Also, the average of the digits of the original number is 7.5. What is definitely the original number?
(a) 87
(b) 92
(c) 90
(d) 69
(e) 96
Ans: (a)
56. A, B and C have a certain amount of money with themselves. C has 3/4 of what A has and B has Rs. 50 less than C. If A, B and C together have Rs. 250, then how much does A alone have?
(a) Rs. 75
(b) Rs. 160
(c) Rs. 80
(d) Rs. 120
(e) Rs. 140
Ans: (d)
57. A boat takes six hours to travel a certain distance downstream and five hours to travel a certain distance upstream. The distance travelled upstream is half of the travelled downstream. If the speed of the current is 4 km/h, what is the speed of the boat in still water?
(a) 16 km/h
(b) 20 km/h
(c) 24 km/h
(d) 10 km/h
(e) 18 km/h
Ans: (a)
58. It takes Rs. 3159 to plant synthetic grass in a square lawn, 1/4 of which is paved (and thus does not require grass.) If each side of this lawn measures 18m, what is the rate that the gardener charges for planting synthetic grass?
(a) Rs. 18 m2
(b) Rs. 11 m2
(c) Rs. 16 m2
(d) Rs. 15 m2
(e) Rs. 13 m2
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-63) Refer to the pie charge and answer the given questions.
59. What is the difference between the total number of tickets sold by theatres A and D together and then sold by theatres B and C together?
(a) 82
(b) 78
(c) 55
(d) 75
(e) 85
Ans: (e)
60. The number of tickets sold by theatre B, on Saturday, was 32 more than the number of tickets sold on Friday. The number of tickets sold by theatre E, on Saturday, was 59 more than the number of tickets sold on Friday. What was the respective ratio between the number of tickets sold by theatres B and E on Saturday?
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 7 : 6
(c) 11 : 6
(d) 7 : 5
(e) 11 : 5
Ans: (b)
61. If the total number of tickets sold by all the theatres together on Friday was 70% more than that sold on Thursday, what was the total number of tickets sold by all the theatres together on Thursday?
(a) 400
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 300
(e) 550
Ans: (c)
62. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of tickets sold by theatre B?
(a) 56.8°
(b) 57.6°
(c) 58.5°
(d) 55.6°
(e) 54.2°
Ans: (b)
63. Out of the number of tickets sold by theatre C, 5/12 were purchased by females and out of the total number of tickets sold by theatre D, 1/17 were purchased by females. What was the total number of tickets purchased by females from theatres C and D together?
(a) 100
(b) 108
(c) 110
(d) 120
(e) 104
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 64-67) Based on the following table, answer the given questions.
Note The institutes offer classes for French and Spanish languages only.
64. The number of male students, who have enrolled for French classes in institute R is what percent of the total number of students (male and female) who have enrolled for both the classes in institute T?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans: (e)
65. In institutes S, the percentage of male students, who have enrolled for Spanish class, is 70% of the total number of students (Male and female both) who have enrolled for Spanish class. What is the total number of male students, who have enrolled for both the classes together in institute S?
(a) 413
(b) 419
(c) 405
(d) 423
(e) 428
Ans: (*)
66. The number of male students, who have enrolled for French class in institute S is approximately, what percent more than the number of female students, who have enrolled for the same class in institute U?
(a) 25%
(b) 44%
(c) 38%
(d) 51%
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (d)
67. What is the respective ratio between number of students (both male and female) who have enrolled for Spanish class in institute R and those enrolled for the same classes in institute U?
(a) 11 : 9
(b) 16 : 7
(c) 15 : 4
(d) 18 : 7
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
68. A bag contains 20 tickets numbered from 1 to 20. Two tickets are drawn at random. What is probability that both numbers are prime?
(a) 8/20
(b) 14/95
(c) 7/20
(d) 21/190
(e) 21/25
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 69-73) What will come in place of question mark in the given number series?
69. 10 11 15 24 40 ?
(a) 90
(b) 87
(c) 114
(d) 95
(e) 65
Ans: (e)
70. 25 35 49 67 89 ?
(a) 24
(b) 81
(c) 115
(d) 107
(e) 93
Ans: (c)
71. 11 9 15 41 159
(a) 740
(b) 607
(c) 751
(d) 709
(e) 789
Ans: (e)
72. 5 10.5 16.5 28.5 48.5 ?
(a) 57.5
(b) 78.5
(c) 93.5
(d) 64.5
(e) 85.5
Ans: (b)
73. 18 9 9 18 72 ?
(a) 460
(b) 372
(c) 576
(d) 484
(e) 380
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 74-78) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
74. What is the respective ratio between total number of shirts sold by store B in January and February together and that by the same store in April and May together?
(a) 10 : 9
(b) 7 : 5
(c) 5 : 3
(d) 3 : 2
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
75. What is the average number of shirts sold by store A in January, April and May?
(a) 270
(b) 220
(c) 260
(d) 240
(e) 230
Ans: (d)
76. Number of shirts sold by store A increased by what percent from February to May?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans: (b)
77. If the total number of shirts sold by store A and B together in June is 120 more than that sold in March, what was the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B together in June?
(a) 680
(b) 690
(c) 650
(d) 670
(e) 660
Ans: (d)
78. If the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B together in December is 25% less than that in April, what is the total number of shirts sold by stores A and B together in December?
(a) 415
(b) 400
(c) 405
(d) 395
(e) 425
Ans: (c)
79. A starts a business with Rs. 2500. After one month from the start of the business, B joined with Rs. 4500 and A withdrew completely after eleven months from the start of the business. If the difference between A’s and B’s respective shares in the annual profit was Rs. 4800, what was the annual profit earned?
(a) Rs. 14800
(b) Rs. 15800
(c) Rs. 14400
(d) Rs. 11400
(e) Rs. 15600
Ans: (c)
80. A completes 5/6th of a given task in 10 days and is then replaced by B. The entire task is completed in 13 days. What is the respective ratio of the number of days in which A and B independently can complete the entire task?
IBPS CWE-VI PO/MT Preliminary Online Examination Held on October 23, 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
IBPS CWE-VI PO/MT Preliminary Online Examination Held on October 23, 2016
Part I Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In the following questions, relationships between different element is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
a. if only conclusions II is true
b. if only conclusion I is true
c. if both conclusions are true
d. if either conclusion I or II is true
e. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
1. Statements S ≤ L ≤ I = P ≥ E > R; L > Q
Conclusions I. P ≥ S II. I > R
Ans: (c)
2. Statements G > R ≤ E = A ≤T ≤ S; D ≤ A ≤ J
Conclusions I. T ≥ D II. R > S
Ans: (b)
3. Statements A ≥ B > C ≤ D ≤ E < F
Conclusions I. A ≥ E II. C < F
Ans: (a)
4. Statements G > R ≥ E = A ≤ T ≤ S; D ≤ A ≤ J
Conclusions I. J > G II. J = G
Ans: (e)
5. Statements S ≤ L ≤ I = P ≥ E > R; L > Q
Conclusions I. L < R II. E ≥ Q
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions based on it.
A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are sitting is a circle. (But not necessary in the same order) there faces are on the centre. W is sitting third to the left of Y. The person, who is from Dwarka is to the immediate right of W and W is not from Okhla. B is sitting fourth to the right of Z. Z is not the neighbour of Y. Neither B nor Z is an immediate neighbour of W. X is from Chanakyapuri and is sitting third to the right of the person from Dwarka. The person from Mehrauli is sitting second to the left of person from Chanakyapuri. The persons from Rohini is sitting second to the left of W. A, who is from Lajpat Nagar, is sitting exactly between X and Z. The person from Saket is sitting second to the right of the person from Lajpat Nagar, C is sitting third to the left of X.
6. Who amongst the following persons belongs to Okhla?
(a) Y
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) Z
Ans: (a)
7. What is A’s position with respect to B?
(a) Third to the right
(b) Second to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fourth to the right
Ans: (a)
8. How many people are sitting between Z and C when counted in an anticlockwise direction From C?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans: (d)
9. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and, so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) B – Rohini
(b) Z – Mehrauli
(c) D – Okhla
(d) Y – Saket
(e) X – Dwarka
Ans: (e)
10. Which of the following statements is false according to the mentioned arrangement?
(a) C is to the immediate right of the person from Karol Bagh.
(b) The person from Lajpat Nagar is third to the right of the person from Mehrauli.
(c) The person from Dwarka is sitting exactly between the person from Karol Bagh and the person from Saket.
(d) D is neither from Chanakyapuri nor from Karol Bagh.
(e) There are only three people between A and C.
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Given answer
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. if both conclusions I and II follow
11. Statements All circles are triangles.
Some triangles are rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.
Conclusions I. All rectangles being triangles is possibility.
II. All circles being square is a possibility.
Ans: (d)
12. Statements Some chairs are tables.
Some bed are tables.
No furniture is bed.
Conclusions I. All chairs being furniture is a possibility.
II. Some tables are not bed is possibility.
Ans: (b)
13. Statements All circles are triangles.
Some triangles are rectangles.
All rectangles are squares.
Conclusions I. Some triangles are not rectangles.
II. No square is a circle.
Ans: (e)
14. Statements All arts are theatre.
Some arts are drama.
Conclusions I. All drama being theatre is a possibility
II. Some dramas are theatre.
Ans: (b)
15. Statements Some chairs are table.
Some bed are tables.
Conclusions I. Some tables are not furniture.
II. All tables being furniture is a possibility.
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18) Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Point B is 25 m South of point A. Point C is 10 m East of point B. Point D is 30 m North of point C. Point E is 7 m East of point D. Point X is 18 m South of point E. Point M is 12 m South of point X. Point C is 7 m West of point M.
16. B is in which direction from point D?
(a) South
(b) South-West
(c) North-West
(d) South-East
(e) North
Ans: (b)
17. If point W is 3 m to the North of point A, then what is the distance between point B and point W?
(a) 28 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 22 m
(d) 24 m
(e) 17 m
Ans: (a)
18. What is distance between point B and point M?
(a) 17 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 21 m
(d) 19 m
(e) 13 m
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 19-23) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Some of them are facing South While some are facing North.
S faces North. Only two people sit to the right of S. T sits third to the left of S. Only one person sits between T and X. X sits to the immediate right of W. Only one person sits between W and Z. Both the immediate neighbours of T face the same direction. U sits fourth to the left of X. T faces the opposite direction as S. Y does not sit at any of the extremes ends of the line. V faces the same direction as W. Both Y and U face the opposite direction of Z.
19. How many person in the given arrangement are facing North?
(a) More than four
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) Two
Ans: (d)
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) W, X
(b) Z, Y
(c) T, S
(d) T, Y
(e) V, U
Ans: (a)
21. What is the position of X with respect to Z?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Fifth to the right
(e) Second to the right
Ans: (b)
22. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Z and W?
(a) T
(b) Y
(c) X
(d) W
(e) U
Ans: (a)
23. Who is sitting 2nd to the right of T?
(a) Z
(b) V
(c) X
(d) W
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-26) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
D is daughter of N. E is wife of N. G is sister of D. C is married to G. N has no son. K is m other of E. Q is only daughter of C.
24. How Q is related to D?
(a) Daughter
(b) Cousin
(c) Niece
(d) Sister in law
(e) Cannot be determined
Ans: (c)
25. How N is related to K?
(a) Brother-in-law
(b) Cousin
(c) Son-in-law
(d) Sister
(e) Brother
Ans: (c)
26. How many daughter N have?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-29) Study the following information and answer the given question.
There are six wires in an extension box A, B, C, D E and F they have different length, but not necessarily in the same order. E is greater than C, but less than D and B. A is greater than D and B. A is not longest wire. F is 13 cm long E is 4 cm long.
27. If D is 5 cm less than F what would be the length of D?
(a) 7 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Ans: (b)
28. Which wire has least length?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) C
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)
29. If A is 10 cm length and B carry 5 cm length, then what would be the length of C?
(a) 6 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) 9 cm
(e) None of these
Ans: (b)
Direction (Q. Nos. 30-35) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are seven people live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them have different income i.e. Rs. 3500, Rs. 15000, Rs. 7500, Rs. 9000, Rs. 11000, Rs. 13500 and Rs. 5000. (But not necessarily in the same order.) M lives on an odd numbered floor, but not on the floor numbered 3.
The one, how has income of Rs. 11000 lives immediately above M. only two people live between M and the one who has income of 7500. The one, who has income of Rs. 15000, lives on one of the odd numbered floors above P. Only three people live between O and the one who has income of Rs. 3500. The one who has income of 7500 lives immediately above O. The one who has income of Rs. 3500 lives immediately above the one who has income of Rs. 5000. S lives on an odd numbered floor. Only one person lives between N and Q. N lives on the one of the floors above Q. Neither O nor M has income of Rs.9000. Q does not has income of Rs. 7500.
30. How much income M has?
(a) Rs. 13500
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 7500
(d) Rs. 15000
(e) Rs. 3500
Ans: (e)
31. Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) Rs. 3500-O
(b) Rs. 15000-R
(c) Rs. 5000-S
(d) Rs. 11000-P
(e) Rs. 9000-N
Ans: (b)
32. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged?
(a) Four
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) Three
Ans: (d)
33. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) The one who has income of 5000 lives immediately below M.
(b) R has income of 15000.
(c) None of the given options is true.
(d) Only four people live between P and S.
(e) S lives immediately below Q.
Ans: (e)
34. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered 2?
(a) N
(b) The one who has income of Rs. 3500.
(c) The one who has income of Rs. 5000.
(d) P
(e) R
Ans: (d)
35. How much income R has?
(a) Rs.13500
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 7500
(d) Rs. 15000
(e) Rs. 3500
Ans: (d)
Part II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-39) Study the table carefully and answer the given questions.
36. If the male population above poverty line for State R is 1.9 million, then, what is the total population of State R?
(a) 4.5 million
(b) 4.85 million
(c) 5.35 million
(d) 6.25 million
(e) 6 million
Ans: (d)
37. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the State S if it is known that the population of State S is 7 million?
(a) 3 million
(b) 2.13 million
(c) 1.33 million
(d) 5.7 million
(e) 4 million
Ans: (b)
38. What is the male population above poverty line for State P, if the female population below poverty line for State P is 2.1 million?
(a) 2.1 million
(b) 2.7 million
(c) 3.3 million
(d) 2.3 million
(e) 3 million
Ans: (c)
39. If the population of males below poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for State T is 6 million, then what is the respective ratio of the total population of State Q and T?
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 2 : 5
(c) 3 : 7
(d) 4 : 9
(e) 3 : 9
Ans: (b)
40. Average runs of a cricketer in 10 innings is 60. How many runs should he make in 11th innings that his average runs would be 62?
(a) 80
(b) 81
(c) 82
(d) 83
(e) 84
Ans: (c)
41. Find the probability that a number from 1 to 300 is divisible by 3 or 7?
(a) 37/75
(b) 32/75
(c) 36/75
(d) 28/75
(e) 26/75
Ans: (b)
42. 14 men can do a work in 18 days, 15 women can do a work in 24 days. If 14 men work for first 3 days and 10 women work after that for 3 days, find the part of work left after that?
(a) 3/4
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/6
(e) 1/5
Ans: (a)
43. Perimeter of a rectangle is x and circumference of a circle is 8 more than the perimeter of the rectangle. Ratio of radius of circle and length of the rectangle is 1 : 2 and ratio of length and breadth of rectangle is 7 : 3. Find the length of the rectangle?
(a) 14
(b) 21
(c) 28
(d) 35
(e) 7
Ans: (c)
44. A invest on some scheme at 5% and B at 3% for two year. If the total sum invested by A and B is Rs. 4000 and the simple interest received by both is same then find the amount invested by A?
(a) Rs. 1300
(b) Rs. 1500
(c) Rs. 2500
(d) Rs. 2700
(e) Rs. 2100
Ans: (b)
45. Two trains crosses each other in 14 seconds when they are moving in opposite direction, and when they are moving in same direction, they crosses each other in 3 minute 2 seconds. Find the speed of the faster train by what percent more than the speed of the slower train?
(a) 16.67%
(b) 17.33%
(c) 16.33%
(d) 17.67%
(e) 18.33%
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) What will come in place of the question marks in the following number series?
46. 11 20 38 74
(a) 146
(b) 154
(c) 128
(d) 132
(e) 136
Ans: (a)
47. 15 21 38 65 101 ?
(a) 124
(b) 145
(c) 136
(d) 158
(e) 162
Ans: (b)
48. 24 28 19 35 10 ?
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 16
(d) 46
(e) 15
Ans: (d)
49. 7 16 45 184 915 ?
(a) 2092
(b) 5496
(c) 1048
(d) 4038
(e) 3268
Ans: (b)
50. 12 19 35 59 90 ?
(a) 134
(b) 127
(c) 132
(d) 98
(e) 114
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow.
51. The incomes of company X and Y in 2010 were in the ratio of 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their expenditure in 2010?
(a) 7 : 22
(b) 14 : 19
(c) 15 : 22
(d) 27 : 35
(e) 35 : 49
Ans: (c)
52. If the expenditure of company Y in 2007 was Rs. 220 crore, what was its income in 2007?
(a) Rs. 312 crore
(b) Rs. 297 crore
(c) Rs. 283 crore
(d) Rs. 275 crore
(e) Rs. 250 crore
Ans: (b)
53. If the expenditures of company X and Y in 2006 were equal and the total income of the total companies in 2006 was Rs. 342 crore, what was the total profit of two companies together in 2006?
(Profit = Income – Expenditure)
(a) Rs. 240 crore
(b) Rs. 171 crore
(c) Rs. 120 crore
(d) Rs. 102 crore
(e) Rs. 150 crore
Ans: (d)
54. The expenditure of company X in the year 2008 was Rs. 200 crore and the income of company X in 2008 was the same as it expenditure in 2011. What is the income of company X in 2011?
(a) Rs. 385 crore
(b) Rs. 465 crore
(c) Rs. 335 crore
(d) Rs. 295 crore
(e) Rs. 250 crore
Ans: (b)
55. If the incomes of two companies were equal in 2009, then what was the ratio of expenditure of company X to that of company Y in 2009?
(a) 6 : 5
(b) 5 : 6
(c) 11 : 6
(d) 16 : 15
(e) 20 : 11
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In each of these questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
a. if x > y b. if x ≥ y c. d=if x < y
d. if x ≤ y
e. if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established
56. I. 3x2 – 22x + 7 = 0 II. y2 – 15y + 56 = 0
Ans: (d)
57. I. 2x2 – 17x + 36 = 0 II. 2y2 – 19y + 44 = 0
Ans: (d)
58. II. y2 – 169 = 0
Ans: (e)
59. I. 3x2 + 20x + 25 = 0 II. 3y2 + 14y + 8 = 0
Ans: (c)
60. I. 3x2 + 5x + 2 = 0 II. 3y2 + 18y + 24 = 0
Ans: (a)
61. A seller mark the price 50% above the cost price and given 10% discount on an item. While selling, the cheats customer by giving 20% less in weight. Find his overall profit percent (approximate)?
(a) 26%
(b) 35%
(c) 68%
(d) 72%
(e) 76%
Ans: (b)
62. There are 81 L pure milk in container. One-third of milk is replaced by water in the container. Again one-third of mixture is extracted and equal amount of water is added. What is the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 4 : 5
(e) None of these
Ans: (d)
63. A is 2 years older than B while B is 3 year younger than C. The ratio of age of A, 6 years hence and B, 2 years ago is 5 : 3. What was age of C, 6 years ago?
(a) 12 yr
(b) 19 yr
(c) 15 yr
(d) 14 yr
(e) 21 yr
Ans: (c)
64. A, B and C started a business with their investments in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4. After 6 month A invested the half amount more as before and B invested same the amount as before while C withdrew 1/4th of his investment. Find the ratio of their profits at the end of the year.
(a) 5 : 12 : 13
(b) 5 : 11 : 14
(c) 5 : 12 : 14
(d) 5 : 12 : 10
(e) None of these
Ans: (e)
65. The average marks in Science subject of a class of 20 students is 68. If the marks of two students were misread as 48 and 65 of the actual marks 72 and 61 respectively, then what would be the correct average?
(a) 68.5
(b) 69
(c) 69.5
(d) 70
(e) 66
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What should come in the place of question mark in the given questions?
66. 40% of 265 + 35% of 180 = 50% of ? + ?% of 80
(a) 80
(b) 95.5
(c) 130
(d) 125.5
(e) 115
Ans: (c)
67.
(a) 31.4
(b) 28.6
(c) 27.6
(d) 24.2
(e) 22.4
Ans: (a)
68.
(a) 576
(b) 676
(c) 784
(d) 1024
(e) 1156
Ans: (b)
69. (682% of 682) ÷ 856 = ?
(a) 4.50
(b) 10.65
(c) 2.55
(d) 8.75
(e) 6.25
Ans: (e)
70. 5% of 850 + 24.8% of 650 = ?
(a) 295
(b) 330
(c) 270
(d) 375
(e) 220
Ans: (a)
Part III English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-77) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Governments looking for easy popularity have frequently been tempted into announcing give-a-ways all sorts; free electricity, virtually free water, subsidised food, cloth at half price, and so on. The subsidy culture has gone to extremes. The richest farmers in the country get subsidised fertilisers, University education, typically accessed by the wealthier sections, is charged at a fraction of cost. Postal services are subsidised, and so are railway services. Bus fares cannot be raised to economical levels because there will be violent protest, so bus travel is subsidised too. In the past, price control on a variety of times, from steel to scent, meant that industrial consumer of these items got them at less than actual cost, while the losses of the public sector companies that produced them were borne by the taxpayer! A study done a few years ago, came to the conclusion that subsidies in the Indian economy total as much as 14.5% of gross domestic product. At today’s level, that would work out to about Rs. 150000 crore.
And who pay the bill? The theory-and the political fiction on the basis of which it is sold to unsuspecting voters-is that subsidies go the poor, and are paid for by the rich. The fact is that most subsidies go the ‘rich’ (defined in the Indian context as those who are above the poverty line), and much of the table goes indirectly to the poor. Because the hefty subsidy bill results in fiscal deficits, which in turn push up rates of inflation-which, as everyone knows, hits the poor the hardest of all. That is why taxmen call inflation the most regressive form of taxation.
The entire subsidy system is built on the thesis that people cannot help themselves, therefore governments must do so. That people cannot afford to pay for variety of goods and services, and therefore the government must step in. This thesis has been applied not just in the poor countries, but in the rich ones as well; hence the birth of the welfare State in the West, and an almost Utopian social security system; free medical care, food aid, old age security, et.al. But with the passage of time, most of the wealthy nations have discovered that their economies cannot sustain this social safety net, which in fact reduces the desire among people to pay their own way, and takes away some of the incentive to work, in short, the bill was unaffordable, and their societies were simply not willing to pay. To the regret of many, but because of the laws of economies are harsh, most Western societies have been busy pruning the welfare bill.
In India, the lessons of this experience over several decades, and in many countries-do not seem to have been learnt or they are simply ignored in the pursuit of immediate votes. People who are promised cheap food or clothing do not in most cases look beyond the gift horses-to the question of who picks up the tab. The uproar over higher petrol, diesel and cooking gas prices ignored this basic question; if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its cost, who should pay? Diesel in the country is subsidies, and if the user of cooking gas does not want to pay for its full cost, who does he or she think should pay the balance of the cost? It is a simple question, nevertheless if remains unasked.
The Deva Gowda government has shown some courage in biting the bullet when it comes to the price of petroleum products. But it has been bitten by much bigger subsidy bug. It wants to offer food at half its cost to everyone below the poverty line, supposedly estimated at some 380 million people.
What will be the cost? And of course, who will pick up the tab? The Andhra Pradesh government has been bankrupted by selling rice as Rs. 2 per kg. Should the Central government be bankrupted too, before facing up to the question of what is affordable and what is not? Already, India is perennially short of power because the subsidy on electricity has bankrupted most electricity boards, and made private investment wary unless it gets all manner of State guarantees. Delhi’s subsidized bus fares have bankrupted the Delhi Transport Corporation, whose buses have slowly disappeared from the capital’s streets. It is easy to be soft and sentimental, by looking at programmes that will be popular. After all, who does’ not like a free lunch? But the evidence is surely mounting that the lunch isn’t free at all. Somebody is paying the bill. And if you want to know who, take at the country’s poor economic performance over the years.
71. Which of the following should not be subsidised over the years?
(a) University education
(b) Postal services
(c) Steel
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) All of the above options
Ans: (d)
72. The statement that ‘subsidies are paid by the rich and go to the poor’ is
(a) fiction
(b) fact
(c) fact, according to the author
(d) fiction, according to the author
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (d)
73. Why do you think that the author calls the western social security system Utopian?
(a) The countries belief in the efficacy of the system was bound to turn out to be false.
(b) The system followed by these countries is the best available in the present context.
(c) Everything under this system was supposed to be free, but people were charging money for them.
(d) The theory of system followed by these countries was devised by Dr. Utopia.
(e) Al the options are responsible.
Ans: (c)
74. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
(a) believes that people can help themselves and do not need the government.
(b) believes that the theory of helping with subsidy is very destructive.
(c) believes in democracy and free speech.
(d) is not a successful politician.
(e) believes that subsidies are the best way to help poor.
Ans: (b)
75. Which of the following is not a victim of extreme subsidies?
(a) The poor
(b) The Delhi-Transport Corporation
(c) The Andhra Pradesh government
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) The rich
Ans: (e)
76. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Where subsidies are concerned, the poor ultimately pay the tab.
(b) Inflation is caused by too much subsidies.
(c) Experts call subsides the most regressive form of taxation.
(d) Fiscal deficits are caused due to heavy subsidy bills.
(e) None of the following is true in the context of the passage.
Ans: (a)
77. A suitable title to the passage would be :
(a) There’s No Such Thing as a Free Lunch
(b) The Economic Overview
(c) Deva Gowda’s Government and its Follies
(d) It takes Two to Tango
(e) The Rich and The Poor: Extreme Partiality
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 78-82) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. It is the only country in the world that is carbon negative, which means, it produces more oxygen than it consumes.
B. Bhutan, sandwiched between the two most populous nations on Earth, suffers for their sins.
C. So far, so good. But then, two things happened.
D. Carbon sinks, 70% forest cover, powered almost entirely by mountain streams-Bhutan is a poster child for green living.
E. Glaciers are beginning to melt, flash floods and heavy rains – and even droughts – are common, and temperatures are climbing.
F. One, India and China got richer.
78. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) A
Ans: (b)
79. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans: (c)
80. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
(e) E
Ans: (e)
81. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) B
(d) E
(e) D
Ans: (a)
82. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence of the given paragraph?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) A
(d) C
(e) E
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 83-90) In the following passage, you have a brief passage. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Big ideas come from tackling (83) problems. When one is confronted with an overwhelming task, it’s pieces. Business jargon is full of phrases about that, like “pilot projects” and “low-hanging fruit.” They have their place, but in the repertory of management (84), they should share their place with bold approaches to big challenges. Much of today’s most valuable management knowledge came from wrestling with such issues. The most complicated workplace in the middle of the last century was the automobile assembly plant. Drawn to its complexity where Peter F. Drucker, W. Edwards Deming, and Taiichi Ohno, among others, the work they and their disciples did, applied in industry after industry, is the basis of the best that we know about operations, managing people, innovation, organizational design, and much more. The most complex workplaces are tertiary care hospitals. These vast (85) employ tens of thousands of people who, under one roof, do everything from neurosurgery to laundry, Each patient – that is to say, each “job” – calls on a different set of people with a different constellation of (86); eve when the tow patients have the same diagnosis, success may be (87) differently. This is complexity of an order of magnitude greater than automobile assembly, and anyone, who (88) hospitalised knows that management has thus far been unequal to the scope of task. The workers, managers, consultants, and scholars (89) crack this nut will reshape industries and institutions just as (90) as Drucker, Deming, and Ohno Did.
83. (a) small
(b) big
(c) irrelevant
(d) buildings
(e) minor
Ans: (b)
84. (a) weakness
(b) strength
(c) power
(d) practice
(e) symptom
Ans: (b)
85. (a) houses
(b) institute
(c) demagogue
(d) forts
(e) enterprises
Ans: (e)
86. (a) barbarity
(b) talent
(c) skills
(d) unskilled
(e) barbaric
Ans: (c)
87. (a) managed
(b) officious
(c) delivered
(d) measured
(e) postponed
Ans: (d)
88. (a) are been
(b) have being
(c) have been
(d) has been
(e) is be
Ans: (d)
89. (a) who
(b) whom
(c) whose
(d) which
(e) whomsoever
Ans: (a)
90. (a) profoundly
(b) gradually
(c) superficially
(d) speciously
(e) earnest
Ans: (*)
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Identify the error in the sentences given below, if there is no error, choose option (e).
91. (a) The need to set-up
(b) a good library in the locality
(c) has been in the minds of people
(d) for some time now
(e) No error
Ans: (a)
92. (a) Most people would have
(b) attended the union meeting
(c) if they had
(d) had longer notice of it
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
93. (a) He took to
(b) reading times
(c) for better knowledge
(d) of the facts
(e) No error
Ans: (c)
94. (a) When children have difficulty understanding
(b) a certain mathematical process, it is often because
(c) their teachers do not understand it conceptually
(d) themselves and do not present it in a way that children can understand
(e) No error
Ans: (e)
95. (a) Studies show that the lives of millions of mothers
(b) and their children could be saved if countries would
(c) invest in programmes that ensures a healthy pregnancy
(d) and safe childbirth
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
96. (a) Film viewers claim that
(b) the number of scenes depicting alcohol consumption
(c) have increased dramatically over
(d) the last decade
(e) No error
Ans: (c)
97. (a) Forty percent of the people alive today have
(b) never made a phone call, but
(c) thirty percent still have no electricity connections
(d) to their homes
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
98. (a) Workers with less
(b) personal problems are
(c) likely to be
(d) more productive in their work
(e) No error
Ans: (a)
99. (a) Everyone who visits Singapore
(b) is impressed by its cleanliness
(c) which is mainly a result of rigorous implementation
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
1
1
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
8336.524184
(in Acres.)
2.06
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
4206.6235
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
3850
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
14
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
14
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
1
1
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
8336.524184
(in Acres.)
2.06
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
4206.6235
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
3850
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
14
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
14
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
1
1
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
8215.118492
(in Acres.)
2.03
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
2973.97
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
3700
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
24
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
24
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
1. This company has been/served a legal notice for/using banned substances in/ the manufacture of its products.
(a) This company has been
(b) Served a legal notice for
(c) using banned substances in
(d) the manufacture of its products
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
2. All coastal villages have/been evacuated to proven/ any loss of life due/ to the incoming cyclone.
(a) All coastal villages have
(b) been evacuated to prevent
(c) any loss of life due
(d) to the incoming cyclone
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
3. The reporter was arrested and/ his camera seized by the police,/ after he entered the prohibited/ zone and started taken photos.
(a) The reporter was arrested and
(b) his camera seized by the police
(c) after he entered the prohibited
(d) zone and started taken photos
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
4. After been caught drinking/ in their hostel room, the/ students were suspended from/ the college for a week.
(a) After been caught drinking
(b) in their hostel room, the
(c) students were suspended from
(d) the college for a week
(e) No error
Ans: (a)
5. Once the party ended, we/ realized that it was/ midnight and that there was/ no way we could return home.
(a) Once the party ended, we
(b) realized that it was
(c) midnight and that there was
(d) no way we could return home
(e) No error
Ans: (a)
6. There has been a/ shortage in the supply of/ water in the city/ due for lack of rainfall.
(a) There has been a
(b) shortage in the supply of
(c) water in the city
(d) due for a lack of rainfall
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
7. This move has resulted/ in bringing commodity/ prices down and uplift/ the country’s economy.
(a) This move has resulted
(b) in bringing commodity
(c) prices down and uplift
(d) the country’s economy
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
8. Raj could not take the/call as he have put his cell/ phone on ‘silent’ mode and thus/ could not hear it ringing.
(a) Raj could not take the
(b) calls as he have put his cell
(c) phone an ‘silent’ mode and thus
(d) could not hear it ringing
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
9. He has a passion/ for climbing mountains and/ is contemplates to scale/ Everest next year.
(a) He has a passion
(b) for climbing mountains and
(c) is contemplates to scale
(d) Everest next year
(e) No error
Ans: (c)
10. In their statement, the/ official have blamed/ their supervisors for/having mismanaged the situation.
(a) In their statement, the official have blamed
(b) official have blamed
(c) their supervisors for
(d) having mismanaged the situation
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) Read the following story carefully and answer the questions given below. Certain word/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Duanji was a magistrate who lived a hundred years ago. He was famed or the fairness of his judgements. One day, while the magistrate was walking through the market, he saw a crowd outside a poultry shop. On inquiring what the matter was, he learnt that a peasant had accidentally dropped a heavy sack on a chicken, crushing it to death.
The chicken was small, worthy only about five coins, but the owner of the shop had caught the peasant by his throat and was demanding a hundred. His argument was that the chicken would have grown into a plump bird in another two y ears and then it would have fetched him the amount he was asking for.
Somebody recognized the magistrate and everybody made way for him. “Judge our case, MY lord”, said the owner of the chicken, letting go of the peasant and bowing obsequiously to the magistrate. “This man, through his carelessness has caused the death of a chicken that would have fetched me a hundred coins in another two years!”
Pest had made the peasant’s speech incoherent. Nobody could understand what he was saying. “The price put on the chicken is hundred coins”, said the magistrate, to the peasant. “I advise you to pay.” There was a gasp from the crowd.
Everybody had expected the magistrate to rule in the peasant’s favour as he was penniless. The owner of the chicken was overjoyed. “They said you were fair in your judgements. My Lord,” He said, nibbling his hands in glee, “now I can say there is no one fairer than you”.
“The law is always fair”, smiled the magistrate. “Tell me, how much Grain does a chicken eat in a year.” “About half a sack”, said the poultry shop owner. “So in two years the chicken who died would have whole sack of grain,” said Duanji. “Please give the sack of grain you have saved to this man”.
The owner turned pale. A sack of grain would cost more than hundred cons. Cowed by the jeers of the crowd, he declared he would not take any money from the peasant, and retreated into the safety of h is shop.
11. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Overjoyed’ as used in the story?
(a) Depressed
(b) Charmed
(c) Overburdened
(d) Dreamy
(e) Thrilled
Ans: (e)
12. Which of the following is mot nearly the opposite in meaning to the word ‘Incoherent’ as used in the story?
(a) Illegible
(b) Identified
(c) Clear
(d) Confused
(e) loud
Ans: (c)
13. As mentioned in the story, everyone was disappointed when Duanji informed the peasant that he had to pay a price to the poultry shop owner, because
1. they know the peasant could not afford to p ay the fine
2.they were expecting him to protect the peasant
3. they know it was not a fair decision
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3
(e) All of these
Ans: (e)
14. Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the story?
1. The poultry shop owner and the peasant became friends eventually.
2. Duanji subsequently fulfilled the expectations of the crowd by taking the right decision.
3. The peasant decided to give half the money to the poultry shop owner.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1 and 3
(e) All the given options are not true.
Ans: (d)
15. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase ‘Made way for him’ as used in the story?
(a) Did not allow him to move ahead
(b) Gave him his best place to sit
(c) Succeeded
(d) Moved carefully
(e) Move aside
Ans: (e)
16. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the phrase ‘Turned pale’ as used in the story?
(a) Was shaken
(b) Confident
(c) Annoyed
(d) Haunted
(e) Feeling rosy
Ans: (a)
17. Which of the following can be said about the poultry shop owner?
(a) He was forgiving.
(b) He was annoying.
(c) He was charming.
(d) He was devious.
(e) He was patient.
Ans: (d)
18. As mentioned in the story, the poultry shop owner decided not to take money from-the peasant because
(a) he was afraid of the crowd
(b) he realised he would be at a loss
(c) he respected the magistrate’s decision
(d) he decided to forgive the peasant
(e) he decided to take it later on from his relatives
Ans: (b)
19. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Fair’ as used in the story?
(a) Function
(b) Indecisive
(c) Unacceptable
(d) Expected
(e) Biased
Ans: (e)
20. Which of the following can be a suitable title for the story?
(a) The peasant who lost his chicken
(b) The faithful chicken
(c) The poor poultry shop owner
(d) The final verdict
(e) The rich magistrate
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) In the given passage, there blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words/group of words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/group of words in each case.
The old man was sitting under a tree. ‘Sit’ his voice rang out. ‘Close your eyes and listen the story will serve you will.’
There was a handsome prince whose best friend as a washerman’s son. The king’s father believed that everyone was equal whether born in a palace or a hut. (21) his son to school with the other children- if the school was good enough for them. It was good enough for his son. Now the prince grew up to be good and kind and (22) a girl from the kingdom.
But the king had reservations, Ruling the kingdom required a great strength of character. Was the prince (23) this responsibility? But he served his son and agreed to the marriage. The marriage ceremony was a grand affair and the reception (24). In all the merriment and joy there was no unhappiness. Time went on and the prince and his bride were happy.
The one night, the royal party (25) to the palace when it was attacked by thieves. There was a fierce battle in which the prince (26). The prince was beheaded and the leader of the gang too. The princess prayed fervently for help and Goddess of protection defeated the wicked thieves. She was (27) the princess’ tears that she granted her a boon. The princess immediately asked for the life of her husband.
There was a (28) thunder and the prince was restored to life. But then the Goddess realized that in bringing him back to life she had attached his head as that of the thief. It could not be (29). When they returned to the palace, the king, his ministers and all who encountered them from (30). The princess said to them, ‘It is the head which controls the body which determines character. This is your prince.
21. (a) So he sent
(b) He refused
(c) Instead
(d) Then he put
(e) Therefore
Ans: (a)
22. (a) married
(b) decided to marry
(c) choose his bride
(d) prefer to marry
(e) fixed
Ans: (b)
23. (a) capable
(b) handle
(c) worthy of
(d) accomplish
(e) deal with
Ans: (c)
24. (a) held
(b) not held
(c) well
(d) even grander
(e) still impressive
Ans: (d)
25. (a) arriving at
(b) was returning
(c) leaving
(d) visited
(e) lack
Ans: (b)
26. (a) fall down
(b) injured
(c) was slain
(d) killed
(e) murdered
Ans: (c)
27. (a) so moved by
(b) heard by
(c) troubled
(d) so unhappy
(e) crying
Ans: (a)
28. (a) sounded
(b) noisy
(c) sudden
(d) loud clap of
(e) lightning
Ans: (d)
29. (a) ruined
(b) reverse
(c) incomplete
(d) change
(e) undone
Ans: (e)
30. (a) upset
(b) taken shock
(c) were thrilled
(d) were shocked
(e) alarmed
Ans: (d)
Part II Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following arrangement of letters numbers and symbols carefully to answer the given questions.
31. As per the given arrangement , four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) UHQ
(b) 9D7
(c) @G*
(d) &1R
(e) KAW
Ans: (a)
32. Which of the following will be the seventh to the right of the thirteenth element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) R
(b) V
(c) L
(d) 6
(e) &
Ans: (a)
33. How many letters are there between the seventh element from the left end and the fourteenth element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Seven
(d) Six
(e) Five
Ans: (a)
34. What will be the sum of all the numbers between the tenth element from the left end and the eighth element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) 22
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 20
(e) 19
Ans: (a)
35. If all the letters from the given arrangement are deleted, then which of the following will represent the third element to the left of 4 and fifth element to the right of Ω respectively?
36. If in the word FRACTION, first all the consonants are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then all the vowels are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following is the fifth letter from the right?
(a) F
(b) N
(c) T
(d) R
(e) A
Ans: (d)
37. If all the digits of the number ‘6379452’, are arranged in ascending order from left to right, what will be the sum of the fourth digit from the left and second digit from the right after rearrangement?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 13
(e) 11
Ans: (b)
38. The position of the first and the fifth letters of the word HERITAGE are interchanged, similarly, the position of second and sixth letters and third and seventh letters and fourth and eight letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letters which is fourth from the left and first from the right in the English alphabetical series.
(a) Two
(b) None
(c) More than three
(d) Three
(e) One
Ans: (d)
39. Point D is 7 m to the West of Point R. Anand starts walking form Point R towards East. He walks for 3 m and takes a right turn. He further walks for 4 m takes another right turn. He walks for 5 m and turns to his right. He further walks for 4 m and stops at Point T. In which direction is Point T with respect to Point D?
(a) South
(b) West
(c) East
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) North
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 40-44) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed b y two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement (s) and select the appropriate answer.
Given answer
a. if either conclusion I or ii is true
b. if both conclusions I and II are true
c. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
d. if only conclusion II is true
e. if only conclusion I is true
40.Statements : F < W = J ≥ K; W ≤ D
Conclusions: I. D > K II. K = D
Ans: (a)
41. Statements: V ≤ E = U ≤ X > A
Conclusions: I. X ≥V II. E > A
Ans: (e)
42. Statements: O = M ≥ G; M ≤ P; S > M
Conclusions: I. S > G II. O ≤ P
Ans: (b)
43. Statements: X ≥ W < D = U ≥ R
Conclusions:I. X < U II. R > W
Ans: (c)
44. Statements: N > H = R ≥ B; R ≤C
Conclusions: I. C < H II. H > B
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) These questions are based on five words given below
ROD ITS MUG RAY SEW
45. If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, in how many words thus formed will an alphabet appear twice?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) None
Ans: (a)
46. If the third letter in each of the words becomes the first letter, the first becomes the second and the second becomes the third letter, which of the following will form meaningful English words?
(a) Both MUG and RAY
(b) None of the given options will form a meaningful English word.
(c) Both ROD and SEW
(d) Only RAY
(e) Only ITS
Ans: (e)
47. Which of the following represent the letters immediately following, (in the English alphabetical order) the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words? (the counting is done from left to right)
(a) H, U
(b) F, R
(c) R, H
(d) K, N
(e) Y, T
Ans: (a)
48. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in the dictionary from left to right, the position of which of the following will not change when compared to the given positions?
(a) Both ITS and RAY
(b) The positions of all the given words would change.
(c) Only MUG
(d) Only SEW
(e) Only ROD
Ans: (d)
49. If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to the previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, how many words thus formed will have at least one vowel?
(a) More than three
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) One
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-54) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows, containing four people in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, M, N, O and P are seated and all of them are facing North and in row-2, W, X, Y and Z are seated and all are facing South (but not necessarily in the same order.)
Thus, in the given arrangement each person seated in a row faces another person of the other row. O sits second to the right of one who sits at an extreme ends of the line. O faces an immediate neighbour of W, X sits to the immediate right of W. The one who faces X sits at one of the positions to the left of P. P does not face W. M sits to the immediate left of the one who faces Z.
50. Which of the following represents the immediate neighbours of the one who faces Z?
(a) Only O
(b) N and M
(c) Only N
(d) Only M
(e) M and P
Ans: (e)
51. Which of the following represents the people sitting to the immediate right of O and immediate right of Z respectively?
(a) P, W
(b) N, W
(c) N, Y
(d) P, X
(e) M, W
Ans: (a)
52. Who sits to the immediate right of the one who faces an immediate enighbour of W?
(a) Only P
(b) P and N
(c) Only M
(d) Only O
(e) M and P
Ans: (e)
53. Which of the following represents the correct position of N?
(a) Immediate left of the one who faces V
(b) Second to the right of O
(c) Immediate left of P
(d) Second to the left of the one who faces Z
(e) None of the given options
Ans: (d)
54. Who amongst the following faces P?
(a) Either Z or W
(b) X
(c) Z
(d) Y
(e) W
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 55-59) Read the following passage and sovle the question based on it.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of a family standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing a particular direction. C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them. D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E. A and D are neighbours and F and C are neighbours. B is the neighbour of E.
55. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) A is 3rd to the left of F.
(b) D is 3 rd to the left of E.
(c) F is 3rd to the right of A.
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C.
(e) C is 3rd to the left of F.
Ans: (d)
56. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) C and E are neighbours
(b) E is to the immediate left of F.
(c) C is to the immediate left of D.
(d) A is the immediate left of D.
(e) None of the above
Ans: (d)
57. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) G
(b) B
(c) E
(d) Data Inadequate
(e) F
Ans: (b)
58. Which of the following gives two pairs of neighbours?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans: (c)
59. Who sits immediate right of F?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) G
(d) A
(e) B
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 60-64) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight people- J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Q sits to the immediate left of N. Only four persons sit between Q and L. P sits second to the right of M. M is not an immediate neighbour of L. Only three people sit between O and K. K is neither an immediate neighbour of M nor Q.
60. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given arrangement?
(a) P sits third to the left of K.
(b) All the given statements are true.
(c) Both M and L are immediate neighbours of J.
(d) Only three people sit between N and P
(e) K sits to the immediate left of L.
Ans: (d)
61. As per the given arrangement, J : L in the same way as K : N. Following the same pattern, Q:_?
(a) J
(b) M
(c) K
(d) P
(e) O
Ans: (d)
62. What is Q’s position with respect to J?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Fourth to the left
(c) Second to the right
(d) Immediate right
(e) Third to the right
Ans: (b)
63. Who sits exactly between the one who is to the immediate right of P and K when counted from the left of K?
(a) N
(b) O
(c) J
(d) K
(e) Q
Ans: (a)
64. In the given arrangement, if O interchanges its position with N and P interchanges its position with K, then how many persons will sit between P and N, when counted from the right of P?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) More than three
(d) Three
(e) None
Ans: (d)
65. The following series is based on the English alphabets and numbers, which of the following will come in place of the question mark in the given series?
XW2TS6PO10LK14
(a) HG18
(b) JI18
(c) HG16
(d) IH18
(e) JG12
Ans: (a)
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
66. The respective ratio between two positive numbers (X and Y) is 3 : 5. When 2 is added to both the numbers, the ratio between X and Y becomes 5 : 8. What is the difference between both the numbers?
(a) 2
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 6
(e) 3
Ans: (b)
67.
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 11
(e) 9
Ans: (a)
68. ? % of 750 = 75% of 600
(a) 60
(b) 75
(c) 80
(d) 20
(e) 40
Ans: (a)
69. 3720 ÷ 20 = 508 + ?
(a) 454
(b) 422
(c) −322
(d) 444
(e) 452
Ans: (c)
70. 60% of (? + 173.5 + 157.5) = 21 × 12
(a) 83
(b) 109
(c) 89
(d) 79
(e) 99
Ans: (c)
71. (154 × 2.5 ÷ 0.5) ÷ ? = 192.5
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 18
Ans: (d)
72.
(a) 429
(b) 411
(c) 423
(d) 413
(e) 417
Ans: (e)
73. 60% of 725 = 174 × ?
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.9
(c) 2.5
(d) 0.8
(e) 0.3
Ans: (c)
74.
(a) 372
(b) 324
(c) 354
(d) 328
(e) 347
Ans: (a)
75.
(a) 2
(b) 2.4
(c) 0.8
(d) 1.6
(e) 4.8
Ans: (b)
76. ? – (0.6)2 = (0.7)2 ÷35
(a) 1.54
(b) 1.32
(c) 1.92
(d) 1.62
(e) 1.76
Ans: (e)
77. 68% of 320 + 30 ÷8 = ?
(a) 254.4
(b) 258.2
(c) 260.2
(d) 252.7
(e) 255.1
Ans: (e)
78.
(a) 1158
(b) 784
(c) 578
(d) 1024
(e) 484
Ans: (d)
79.
(a) 17
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 19
(e) 11
Ans: (d)
80.
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 2
(e) 3
Ans: (b)
81. ?2 × 8 – 250 = 395
(a) 6
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) 3
(e) 9
Ans: (e)
82. Jim invested Rs. 1700 and Rs. 2300 in schemes A and B respectively for 3 years. If schemes A and B offer simple interest @ 6 percent per annum and @ 9 percent per annum respectively, what is the total interest earned by Jim from both the schemes together after 3 years?
(a) Rs. 927
(b) Rs. 933
(c) Rs. 949
(d) Rs. 935
(e) Rs. 945
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 83-87) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?
83. 5 9 25 89 ? 1369
(a) 343
(b) 355
(c) 349
(d) 341
(e) 345
Ans: (e)
84. 6 17 50 149 ? 1337
(a) 454
(b) 446
(c) 442
(d) 452
(e) 432
Ans: (b)
85. 61 62 54 81 17 ?
(a) 142
(b) 145
(c) 138
(d) 144
(e) 140
Ans: (a)
86. 6 11 18 29 46 ?
(a) 60
(b) 75
(c) 69
(d) 71
(e) 79
Ans: (d)
87. 26 13 13 5 ? 97.5
(a) 39
(b) 45
(c) 48
(d) 41
(e) 35
Ans: (a)
88. In 2003, the total population of a village was 4800, out of which 40% were females. In 2004, the total population increased by 10% as compared to the previous year. If the number of females remained the same in 2004, what was the percentage increase in the number of males in 2004 as compared to 2003?
(a)
(b) 20%
(c) 15%
(d)
(e)
Ans: (d)
89. A boat can travel 114.4 km downstream in 32 minutes. If the speed of the current is 3 km per hour, how much time the boat will take to travel 84 km upstream?
(a) 12 h
(b) 8 h
(c) 4 h
(d) 3 h 30 min
(e) 7 h
Ans: (c)
90. A and B both start a business. Amount invested by B is one-third of that invested by A. Three months from the start of the business, A withdrew one-third of his investment and B tripled his investments. If from the total annual profit earned, A receives Rs. 1800 as his share from the profit, what was the total annual profit earned?
(a) Rs. 2850
(b) Rs. 4750
(c) Rs. 3800
(d) Rs. 3600
(e) Rs. 5400
Ans: (c)
91. A tank (of capacity 160 L) has one inlet, A and one outlet B. Inlet A, alone can fill the empty tank in 6 hours and outlet B alone can empty the full tank in 24 hours. In how many hours will inlet A fill 16 L water in the tank when outlet B is also open?
(a) 1
(b) 4/5
(c) 11/5
(d)
(e) 1/5
Ans: (b)
92. The respective ratio between length and breadth of a rectangle is 8 : 5 and its perimeter is 208 cm. If the side of the square is 40% less than the breadth of the rectangle, what is the perimeter of the square?
(a) 54 cm
(b) 68 cm
(c) 88 cm
(d) 96 cm
(e) 92 cm
Ans: (d)
93. The respective ratio of cost price of articles A and B is 7 : 9. Article A was sold at a profit of 40% and article B was sold at a profit of 10%. If the total profit earned after selling both the articles (A and B) is Rs. 148, what is the difference between cost price of articles A and B?
(a) Rs. 120
(b) Rs. 160
(c) Rs. 200
(d) Rs. 80
(e) Rs. 40
Ans: (d)
94. Two years hence, the respective ratio between A’s age at that time and B’s age at that time will be 6 : 5, A’s age thirteen years ago was half of B’s present age. What is A’s present age?
(a) 16 yr
(b) 40 yr
(c) 28 yr
(d) 22 yr
(e) 34 yr
Ans: (d)
95. Ranu’s monthly salary is four-fifth of Ali’s monthly salary. Ranu and Ali save one-fourth and two-fifth amount from their respective monthly salary. If the difference between the amount save by Ranu and that saved by Ali is Rs. 7000, what is Ranu’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs. 30000
(b) Rs. 35600
(c) Rs. 35000
(d) Rs. 28000
(e) Rs. 21000
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Study the table and answer the given questions.
96. What is the average number of muffins sold by bakery T in March, April and July?
(a) 179
(b) 177
(c) 176
(d) 172
(e) 174
Ans: (b)
97. What is the respective ratio between the total number of muffins sold by bakeries Q and S together in May and the total number of muffins sold by bakeries R and T together in the same month?
(a) 21 : 23
(b) 45 : 88
(c) 19 : 23
(d) 20 : 23
(e) 22 : 29
Ans: (b)
98. If the number of muffins sold by bakery T in August was 70% more than that sold by the same bakery in June, what was the number of muffins sold by the bakery T in August?
(a) 255
(b) 221
(c) 323
(d) 238
(e) 306
Ans: (e)
99. The total number of muffins sold by bakeries Q and S together in June is, what percent more than the number of muffins sold by bakery P in March?
(a) 70%
(b) 74%
(c) 72%
(d) 73%
(e) 75%
Ans: (c)
100. What is the difference between the total number of muffins sold by bakeries P and Q together in April and the total number of muffins sold by bakeries R and S together in July?
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Preliminary Online Examination Held on December 24, 2016 Question paper with Answer key
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Assistant Preliminary Exam 2016
Online Exam Held on December 24, 2016
Part I English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Rearrange the given the sentences A, B, C, D and E in a proper sequence, so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
A. ‘Indeed, this is hell!’ She replied and decided to visit heaven where the situation was no different, but people were laughing, content and joyful.
B. A woman who had worked all her life to bring about good, was granted one wish. “Before I die let me visit both hell and heaven” and here wish was granted.
C. Upon asking the reason for their condition, the escort replied, “Their aims are attached to long chopsticks secured above the elbow which prevents them from bending their elbows, thereby starving them.”
D. She was whisked off to a great banquet hall where the tables were piled high with delicious food and around the tables were miserable, starving people as stretched as could be
E. On being asked the reason for their happiness, the escort calmly replied, “Here people have learned to help one’ another eat.”
1. Which of the following should be the FIFFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) B
(d) A
(e) C
Ans: (a)
2. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans: (b)
3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) D
(d) A
(e) E
Ans: (a)
4. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) A
(d) D
(e) E
Ans: (d)
5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) A
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
6. Since his father was getting old/the son began to get worried/as he had not learned any trade/ to make a living on himself.
(a) Since his father was getting old
(b) the son began to get worried
(c) as he had not learned any trade
(d) to make a living on himself
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
7. Teachers open/ the door to enlightenment/but you must be enter it/by yourself.
(a) Teachers open
(b) the door to enlightenment
(c) but you must be enter it
(d) by yourself
(e) No error
Ans: (c)
8. When Alexander the great appeared/before the Greek leaders,/ they greeted him warm/and paid h um huge compliments.
(a) When Alexander- the great appeared
(b) before the Greek leaders
(c) they greeted him warm
(d) and paid him huge compliments
(e) No error
Ans: (c)
9. Raising a hue and cry,/ the entire family ran/ after him/ through the garden.
(a) Raising a hue and cry,
(b) the entire family ran
(c) after him
(d) through the garden
(e) No error
Ans: (d)
10. The two emperors sat/down facing with each other,/eating to their/heart’s content.
(a) The two emperors sat
(b) down facing with each other,
(c) eating to their
(d) heart’s content.
(e) No error
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In each questions, four words are given in bold. One of these words given in bold may either be wronglyspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. if all the words given in bold are correctly spelt or appropriate in the context of the sentence, then mark ‘All correct’ as your answer,
11. The State has given a lot of impetus to the households for the use of renewable energy resourses.
(a) given
(b) impetus
(c) renewable
(d) resourses
(e) All correct
Ans: (d)
12. Technology can be used in both radicle and conventional ways to invite viewers to arrive at new understandings of the visual world.
(a) radicle
(b) invite
(c) arrive
(d) understandings
(e) All correct
Ans: (a)
13. Lakh of buying interest has kept property prices stagnant across all major cities.
(a) Lakh
(b) interest
(c) property
(d) stagnant
(e) All correct
Ans: (a)
14. The Rupee has been resilient even as the other emerging market currencies depretiated sharply over the past two years.
(a) resilient
(b) currencies
(c) depretiated
(d) past
(e) All correct
Ans: (c)
15. The creative impatience of an artist as eclectic as him is reflected in his profoundly expressive work.
(a) creative
(b) artist
(c) reflected
(d) profoundly
(e) All correct
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-23) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
An old farmer who had brought to town a pregnant cow to sell, found no barn to put the animal in, so an animal keeper told him he could put it under a shed at the inn and later it to a young farmer’s cart. Lo and behold, the cow gave birth to a calf that night. In the morning, the proud owner of the cow was preparing to lead the animal away when out rushed the owner of the cart, shouting, “The calf is mine”. “What do you mean it is yours? Didn’t my cow give birth last night? The cow was tied to the cart. The cart was mine, so the calf belongs to the owner of the cart.”
A heated quarrel arose and in no time they were fighting. A large crowd gathered around them and then the constables ran up and marched them to the king’s court of justice. It was once the custom of the royal city for the king’s wife also to express her opinion. But it, so happened of late that every time the king gave a judgement the queen somehow opposed it. .Weary of that, the king said to her, “ Do not meddle in state business. Stay out of the court of justice, “ And so it was.
The farmers therefore, appeared before the king alone. After hearing both sides, the king rendered his decision. “The calf goes with cart”. The owner of the cow found the decision too unjust for works, but what could he do? The king’s judgement was final. Seeing the farmer so upset, the innkeeper advised him to go to the queen, who might find a way out. The farmer went to the palace and asked the servant “Could you tell me my good man if I might have a word with the queen!” “That is impossible” replied the servant, “since the king has forbidden her to hear peoples’ cases!” The farmer then went up the garden wall. Spying the queen, he somehow jumped over the wall and burst into tears as he told her just how unjust her husband had been to him. The queen said, ‘My advice is this. The king is going hunting tomorrow in the vicinity of the lake that is always bone dry at this time of the year. One the following hang a fish-dipper on your belt, take a net and go through the motions of fishing.
At the sight of someone fishing in a dry lake, the king will laugh and then ask why you’re fishing where there is not water. You must answer, “Majesty, if a cart can give birth to a calf, maybe I can catch fish in a dry lake.”
The next morning the farmer went off to the dry lake, sat down at the stone, raised his net and everything unfolded as the queen had said. Everything went as per the plan. When the king saw him fishing in a dry lake; he asked why he was doing so. The farmer gave the reply as suggested by the queen. At that reply the king exclaimed, “ My good man you have been talking to the queen!”
The farmer did not deny it and the king awarded him the cart there and then. But the king was angry that is wife had disobeyed him and said, ,”You have been meddling again and I forbade it. Go back to your father and take the thing you like most of all in the palace. “ Humbly the queen said that she would go, but asked to be allowed to leave the next day. She then had the cooks prepare the king’s favorite foods.
The king ate and ate and fell asleep in his armchair. The queen said to the servants. “Pickup the armchair with its contents and follow me.” She left the palace and the city and returned home. When the king awoke the next day he as angry at first finding himself in the queen’s house, but then laughed when the queen said, “Didn’t you tell me Your Majesty to return home with the thing I liked best of all?” From that day on, the king never appeared in the court of justice without his wife.
16. Which of the following can be said about the king?
A. He was unjust and feared by all his subjects.
B. He was fond of fishing.
C. He was willing to change his decision if it was wrong.
(a) Only A
(b) Only C
(c) A and B
(d) B and C
(e) All of these
Ans: (c)
17. Which of the following is true in the context of the story?
(a) The queen was respected for hr wisdom.
(b) The king’ servants were disloyal.
(c) There was a famine in the region and the lakes were dry.
(d) The king was greedy and fat.
(e) None of the given options is true in the context of the story.
Ans: (a)
18. Which of the following can replace the word ‘Shed’ as used in the passage?
(a) Peel
(b) Drop
(c) Discard
(d) Barn
(e) Scale
Ans: (d)
19. What impact did the old farmer’s encounter with the queen have on his life?
(a) He got justice.
(b) He angered the king and was punished.
(c) He lost his calf.
(d) He was imprisoned by the guards for breaking into the palace.
(e) None of the above
Ans: (a)
20. Why did the king utter the words, “Stay out of the court of justice”?
(a) He was upset at the commotion that the farmers were causing.
(b) He did not like the fact that the queen did not agree with his decisions.
(c) He was upset by the constables’ handling of the farmers’ choice.
(d) He punished all those present at court as he was in a foul mood.
(e) None of the given options
Ans: (b)
21. Which of the following describes the queen’s reaction to the king’s decision to banish her from the palace?
(a) She quickly picked up the furniture she had brought with her and left immediately.
(b) She was angry and took a walk in the garden to calm down.
(c) She obeyed him, but cleverly convinced him to change his mind.
(d) She refused to leave the palace till the king gave up finally and changed his mind.
(e) She gave a farewell dinner at the palace and left without taking anything.
Ans: (c)
22. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite of the word ‘Heated’ as used in the passage?
(a) Angry
(b) Roasted
(c) Ventilated
(d) Air-conditioned
(e) Peaceful
Ans: (e)
23. Why did the constables bring the farmers to the king’s court of justice?
(a) To present the calf to the king as a gift
(b) On the advice of the innkeeper
(c) To resolve the dispute over a new-born calf.
(d) They were mistreating their cattle.
(e) The old farmer did not pay the younger one for the calf
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-30) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words or group of words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the word or group of words in each case.
Meenu was a sweet, lovable and beautiful girl aged six. One day, Meenu’s mother (24) shopping. As they passed the shops, Meenu noted a cute plastic pearl necklace in dazzling pink. She asked her mother to buy her the necklace. Her mother told her that it bfew pennies. She asked her to do some chores, so that for every completed piece of work, Meenu would earn some money and could then buy the pink palace. Meenu (26) her mom with all the chores and when she had enough money, Meenu happily purchased the necklace. She wore it everywhere and just all the time, even while sleeping. Meenu’s father used to tell her bed time stories frequently.
One day, after completing a story, her father asked how much she loved him. Meenu replied, “You know (27) I love you.” Her father asked, “Then give me your pearl necklace please?” Meenu replied, “Please daddy, I love you, so much and please don’t ask for those pearls. I will give you the pink Barbie which (28) a month ago.” He replied, “Fine sweetheart!” This was (29) several times. One day, Meenu slept, while her father was reading her a story. She was holding the necklace in her hands. Her father took the pearl necklace from her hand. The next moment, she woke up and asked, “Dad, what are you doing?” Her father quickly opened a jewel box placed near her bed and handled her a real precious pink pearl necklace. He said. “this is your real necklace. I (30) take away the fake one all this while to give you this real one.” She replied, “Thank you, dad!”
24. (a) took her
(b) went on a
(c) will take
(d) forgot about
(e) was going with
Ans: (b)
25. (a) is expensive
(b) price is high
(c) cost quite
(d) would been
(e) it is less
Ans: (c)
26. (a) subsist
(b) persist
(c) assurance
(d) insisting
(e) assisted
Ans: (e)
27. (a) that well
(b) how much
(c) very nice
(d) at the more
(e) many time
Ans: (b)
28. (a) will buy me
(b) was gifted
(c) have bought
(d) you bought me
(e) were brought
Ans: (d)
29. (a) revive
(b) iteration
(c) recurred
(d) repeal
(e) repeated
Ans: (e)
30. (a) was going
(b) would have
(c) wanted to
(d) was wont
(e) thought of
Ans: (c)
Part II Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-32) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
S is 10 m South of T. T is 6. West of U. U is 15 m North of V. W is 6 m East of V. X is 5 m North of W.
31. In what direction is X with respect to T?
(a) North-East
(b) South-West
(c) South
(d) South-East
(e) East
Ans: (d)
32. If V is 16m West of V and Z is 5m North of Y, then what is the distance between Z and S?
(a) 3 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 10 m
(e) 6 m
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Seven seminars are to be held in seven different cities viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Nagpur, Kota and Imphal, on one of the seven days of the same week which starts on Monday and ends on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.
The seminar in Chennai is scheduled on Thursday. There is only one seminar between the seminars in Delhi and Chennai. Only two seminars are scheduled between the seminars in Kota and Imphal.
Seminar Kota is scheduled after Imphal. As many seminars are scheduled between the seminars in Chennai and Koa as between Nagpur and Mumbai. The seminar in Nagpur is scheduled before Mumbai.
33. On which of the following days is seminar scheduled in Mumbai?
(a) Wednesday
(b) Saturday
(c) Sunday
(d) Tuesday
(e) Friday
Ans: (c)
34. Seminar in which city is scheduled immediately after the seminar of Kota?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
(e) Chennai
Ans: (b)
35. Monday is related to Delhi in a certain way based on the given arrangement, in the same way Thursday is related to Nagpur. To which of the following is Saturday related to following the same pattern?
(a) Imphal
(b) Kota
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai
(e) Kolkata
Ans: (d)
36. How many seminars are scheduled before the seminar in Imphal?
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) Four
(d) Two
(e) None
Ans: (d)
37. Seminar in which of the following cities is scheduled on Friday?
(a) Imphal
(b) Kota
(c) Mumbai
(d) Nagpur
(e) Kolkata
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Eight people, J, K, L, M, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only three people sit between K and X, Y is an immediate neighbour of X. M sits second to the left of W. W is not an immediate neighbour of X. Z is an immediate neighbour of K. Only two people sit between Z and L.
38. Who is sitting to the immediate left of K?
(a) M
(b) L
(c) Z
(d) W
(e) J
Ans: (d)
39. Which of the following is true regarding J?
(a) J sits second to right of Z.
(b) None of the given options is true
(c) Only three people sit between J and L
(d) J sits to immediate right of Y.
(e) J is an immediate neighbour of both K and X.
Ans: (c)
40. How many persons are sitting between L and W when counted from the right of L?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) More than three
(d) One
(e) None of these
Ans: (e)
41. Who are sitting exactly between L and Z when counted from the right of L?
(a) M, X
(b) J, M
(c) M, Y
(d) K, W
(e) W, Y
Ans: (d)
42. What is W’s position with respect to the X?
(a) Fourth to the right
(b) Third to the left
(c) Second to the left
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) Third to the right
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 43-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
L is the daughter of K. K is married to D. R is the mother of both D and M. M is the only son of Y. Y is the brother of G.
43. If G is the mother of X, then how is X related to R?
(a) Sister-in-law
(b) Grand-daughter
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) Son
Ans: (d)
44. How is K related to Y?
(a) Father-in-law
(b) Son-in-law
(c) Father
(d) Nephew
(e) Son
Ans: (b)
45. How is L related to M?
(a) Niece
(b) Aunt
(c) Grand-daughter
(d) Daughter
(e) Daughter-in-law
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing North with equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. G sits fourth to the left of D. B sits second to the right of D. Only two people sit between F and H. F sits at one of the positions to the left of D. Neither F nor H sits at an extreme end of the line. A sits at one of the positions to the right of H. More than three people sit between A and C.
46. As per the given arrangement, E : D in the same way as B : A. Following the same pattern, H : …….?
(a) E
(b) B
(c) G
(d) C
(e) F
Ans: (b)
47. How many persons sit between C and G?
(a) Three
(b) More than three
(c) Two
(d) None of these
(e) One
Ans: (d)
48. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from right to left, the position’s of how many people will remain unchanged?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) More than three
(e) None of these
Ans: (d)
49. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
(a) D sits to the immediate left of E.
(b) None of the given statements is true.
(c) Only two people sit between C and H.
(d) E sits second to the left of G.
(e) A sits at an extreme end of the line.
Ans: (e)
50. Who sits third to the right of E?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) F
(d) No ones as E sits at an extreme end of the line.
(e) A
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the following arrangement of letters, numbers and symbols carefully to answer the given questions.
51. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) U*9
(b) EL#
(c) 32*
(d) 14Y
(e) P86
Ans: (b)
52. If all the numbers from the given arrangement are deleted, then which of the following will represent fifth element to the right of ‘%’ and the fourth element to the left of ‘L’ respectively?
(a) A, E
(b) #, B
(c) #, Ω
(d) A, U
(e) @, M
Ans: (d)
53. Which of the following will be sixth to the right of the fifteenth element from the right end in the given arrangement?
(a) Ω
(b) B
(c) 4
(d) &
(e) Y
Ans: (a)
54. What will be the sum of all the numbers between the eleventh element from the left end and sixth element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) 20
(b) 23
(c) 24
(d) 22
(e) 19
Ans: (d)
55. How many letters are there between the ninth element from the right end and the ninth element from the left end of the given arrangement?
(a) Five
(b) Nine
(c) Ten
(d) Eight
(e) Six
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In these question, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
a. If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
b. If both conclusions are true
c. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
d. If only conclusion II is true
e. If only conclusion I is true
56. Statements: All photos are signatures.
All tubes are signatures.
Conclusions: I. At least some tubes are photos.
II. All photos are tubes.
Ans: (c)
57. Statements: Some paints are cottons.
Some markers are paints.
Conclusions: I. All paints are markers.
II. All cottons are markers.
Ans: (c)
58. Statements: All horses are goats.
No goat is a donkey.
Conclusions: I. No horse is a donkey.
II. At least some goats are horses.
Ans: (b)
59. Statements: Some books are cars.
All books are tarts.
Conclusions: I. Some cars are tarts.
II. All cars are tarts.
Ans: (e)
60. Statements: No ring is a cap.
Some bags are rings.
Conclusions: I. All caps are rings.
II. Some rings are definitely not caps.
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer
a. if either conclusions I or conclusion II is true
b. if both conclusions are true
c. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
d. if only conclusion II is true
e. if only conclusion I is true
61. Statement: B ≥ L ≤ I ≤ S ≤ A > G
Conclusions: I. A > B II. L < G
Ans: (c)
62. Statement: Z ≥ Y ≥ X > W > V < U
Conclusions: I. W < Y II. Z > B
Ans: (b)
63. Statement: P ≤ W ≤ S ≤ N ≤ O
Conclusions: I. P = O II. O < P
Ans: (c)
64. Statement: B ≥ L ≤ I ≤ S ≤ A > G
Conclusions: I. S ≥ L II. II. I = B
Ans: (e)
65. Statement: Z ≥ Y ≥ X > W > V < U
Conclusions: I. Y > U II. X ≤ Z
Ans: (d)
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
66. Manu invested Rs. P in scheme A @ 12% per annum and Rs. P/4 in scheme B @ 8% per annum Both the schemes offer simple interest and he invested for a period of 2 years in both the schemes. The difference between the Amounts received from both the schemes was Rs. 7600. How much did Manu invest in scheme A?
(a) Rs. 12000
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 7500
(d) Rs. 8000
(e) Rs. 10000
Ans: (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 67-71) Study the table and answer the given questions
67. Number of visitors in museum C increased by 15% from Thursday to Saturday and that in museum E decreased by 20% from Thursday to Saturday. What was the total number of visitors in museums C and E together on Saturday?
(a) 305
(b) 325
(c) 315
(d) 335
(e) 300
Ans: (c)
68. What is the average number of visitors in museum B on Monday, Tuesday and Friday?
(a) 129
(b) 114
(c) 116
(d) 118
(e) 112
Ans: (b)
69. What is the respective ratio between total number of visitors in museums B and C together on Wednesday and that in museums D and E together on Friday?
(a) 17 : 11
(b) 19 : 15
(c) 19 : 16
(d) 19 : 17
(e) 17 : 13
Ans: (d)
70. Number of visitors in museum A decreased by what percent from Tuesday to Thursday?
(a) 30%
(b) 42.5%
(c) 36.5%
(d) 32.5%
(e) 40%
Ans: (d)
71. What is the difference between the total number of visitors in museums A and D together on Wednesday and that in museums C and E together on Monday?
(a) 70
(b) 110
(c) 60
(d) 80
(e) 90
Ans: (e)
72. A boat takes a total time of 3 hours to travel a distance of 4.8 km upstream and 4.8 km downstream together. If the speed of the boat in still water is 5 km/h, what is the speed of the current?
(a) 6 km/h
(b) 1 km/h
(c) 3 km/h
(d) 4 km/h
(e) 2 km/h
Ans: (c)
73. The product of radius and diameter of circle is 392 sq m. If the area of the rectangle is twice the area of circle and the breadth of the rectangle is 28 m, what is the length of the rectangle?
(a) 64 m
(b) 44 m
(c) 48 m
(d) 32 m
(e) 46 m
Ans: (b)
74. When 25 men work for only 3 days, one-fifth of the work remains unfinished. How much work will remain unfinished, if 15 men work for only 4 days?
(a) 11/12
(b) 9/25
(c) 12/13
(d) 13/14
(e) 15/16
Ans: (b)
75. In an office, 30% of the employees are females. 49% of the male employees are Science graduates. The number of Science graduate employees is 37% of the total number of employees (both male and female). What percent of female employees are Science graduates?
(a) 45%
(b) 30%
(c) 99%
(d) 35%
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (c)
76. Out of their respective monthly salaries, Lucky spends three-fifth and Runa spends three-fifth on various expenses. The salary remaining with Lucky after the expenses is Rs. 4750 more than that of Runa. If Runa’s monthly salary is Rs. 4000 less than that of Lucky, what is Lucky’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs. 23000
(b) Rs. 25000
(c) Rs. 21000
(d) Rs. 24000
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (b)
77. The compound interest (compounded annually) on Rs. 6800 for 2 years @ R% per annum is Rs. 1425. What would be the simple interest on the same sum of money @ (R + 4)% per annum for 3 years?
(a) Rs. 2856
(b) Rs. 2445
(c) Rs. 3264
(d) Rs. 2772
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (a)
78. The average of 10 numbers is 22.8. The average of last four numbers is 16. If the average of first five numbers is 24, what sit he value of the sixth number?
(a) 36
(b) 48
(c) 74
(d) 46
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
79. When an article was sold for Rs. 1056, percent profit earned was P%. When the same article was sold for Rs. 1242, percent profit earned was (P + 20)%, what would be the selling price of the article, if it is sold at 60% profit?
(a) Rs. 1494
(b) Rs. 1404
(c) Rs. 1475
(d) Rs. 1500
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
80. Two pipes A and B ca separately fill a cistern in 60 minutes and 75 minutes, respectively. There is a third pipe in the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all three pipes are simultaneously opened, then the cistern is full in 50 minutes. In how much time the third pipe alone can empty the cistern?
(a) 110 min
(b) 100 min
(c) 120 min
(d) 90 min
(e) None of these
Ans: (b)
81. At present, A’s age is less than trice of B’s age by 8 years. The respective ratio between A’s age 5 years ago and B’s age 1 year ago was 7 : 3, what is C’s present age if C is 2 years younger than B?
(a) 6 yr
(b) 4 yr
(c) 16 yr
(d) 18 yr
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 82-91) What will come in place of question marks in the given questions?
82.
(a) 2.5
(b) 3.5
(c) −2.5
(d) −3.5
(e) 5
Ans: (c)
83.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans: (c)
84.
(a) 476
(b) 484
(c) 404
(d) 456
(e) 452
Ans: (b)
85.
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 2
(e) 5
Ans: (C)
86.
(a) 0.64
(b) 0.36
(c) 0.24
(d) 0.16
(e) 0.81
Ans: (a)
87. 290 – 1750 ÷5 – ? × 60
(a) 2.5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 3.5
(e) 1.5
Ans: (a)
88. (0.8)2 × 5 = ? – 275 ÷ 22
(a) 12.2
(b) 11.3
(c) 16.2
(d) 15.7
(e) 13.4
Ans: (d)
89.
(a) 14.2
(b) 15
(c) 10.3
(d) 17.9
(e) 16.9
Ans: (b)
90. 30% of (339.4 + ?) = (6)3 – 12
(a) 340.6
(b) 360.6
(c) 349.6
(d) 332.6
(e) 354.6
Ans: (a)
91. (1.4)2 ÷ (0.7)2 = [(3.6)2 ÷ (0.9)2] – ?
(a) 22
(b) 18
(c) 16
(d) 12
(e) 14
Ans: (d)
92. When the length of a rectangle is reduced by 5 cm (keeping the breadth constant), its area reduces by 90 cm2 and when the breadth is reduced by 5 cm (keeping the length constant), its area reduces by 105 cm2, what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(a) 74 cm
(b) 78 cm
(c) 69 cm
(d) 84 cm
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (b)
93. Jar A has 4x L milk and Jar B has x L water. 6 L of each milk and water was taken out from the respective jars and then the resultant quantities from both the jars were mixed in Jar C. If the respective ratio between milk and water in Jar C was 6 : 1, what was the initial quantity of milk in jar A?
(a) 200 L
(b) 80 L
(c) 160 L
(d) 125 L
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
94. A and B started a business with respective investments of Rs. 18000 and Rs. 32000. The number of months for which B invested was 8 less than the number of months for which A invested. If the respective ratio between the total profit and A’s share in profit was 17 : 9, what was the number of months for which B invested in the business?
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 1
Ans: (a)
95. Three-fourth of a number (x) is equidistant from 172 and 350. Four-fifth of another number (y) is equidistant from 244 and 116. What is the difference between the two numbers (x and y)?
(a) 142
(b) 157
(c) 149
(d) 155
(e) Other than those given as options
Ans: (e)
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?
Uttarakhand Public Service Commission Uttarakhand Public Service Commission (UK PSC) Combined State Lower Subordinate Services Preliminary Examination Held on 20-11-2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
Uttarakhand Public Service Commission (UK PSC)
Combined State Lower Subordinate Services Preliminary Exam 2016
Held on November 20, 2016
Part I : General Studies
1. The term of a state Chief Information Commissioner is
(a) 5 yr or up to 65 yr
(b) 5 yr or up to 70 yr
(c) 6 yr or up to 65 yr
(d) 6 yr or up to 70 yr
Ans: (a)
2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution makes provisions for the tenure of a Panchayat ?
(a) Article-241
(b) Article-242
(c) Article-243
(d) Article-244
Ans: (c)
3. Which Chief Minister of Uttarakhand reserved 50% seats in Panchayats for women?
(a) Ramesh Pokhariyal ‘Nishank’
(b) ND Tiwari
(c) Vijaya Bahuguna
(d) BC Khanduri
Ans: (d)
4. Which of the following states had the highest per capita income during 2014-15?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttarakhand
Ans: (d)
5. The maximum number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, can be appointed in the Uttarakhand Council of Minister is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 11
(d) 15
Ans: (b)
6. Which of the following countries hares the longest international boundary with India?
(a) China
(b) Nepal
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan
Ans: (c)
7. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Odisha
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
Ans: (d)
8. ‘Shola Forest’ is associated to
(a) South Peninsular Hills
(b) West Himalayas
(c) East Himalayas
(d) Tidal Forest
Ans: (a)
9. Which state in India is the largest producer of copper?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Ans: (c)
10. ‘Dolvi’ steel plant is located in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Odisha
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (b)
11. ‘Jhum cultivation’ is also called as
(a) Dairy farming
(b) Sericulture
(c) Fish culture
(d) Shifting cultivation
Ans: (d)
12. On which river Hirakud dam is built?
(a) Godavari
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Pennar
(d) Damodar
Ans: (b)
13. Which of the following Indian States lies partially in Himalayas and partially in plains?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim
(d) Uttarakhand
Ans: (d)
14. In India common property resources are covered under whose ownership?
(a) Private
(b) Village
(c) State
(d) District
Ans: (c)
15. FL-2 policy is related to
(a) the forest policy of Uttarakhand
(b) the family planning policy of Uttarakhand
(c) the liquor policy of Uttarakhand
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
16. Where the IIM in Uttarakhand is situated at?
(a) In Dehradun
(b) In Pauri
(c) In Haridwar
(d) In Kashipur
Ans: (d)
17. The State Public Service Commission presents its annual report to
(a) the Chief Minister
(b) the Home Minister
(c) the Governor of the State
(d) the Chief Justice of the High Court of the State
Ans: (c)
18. Which of the following treaty ended the first Anglo-Maratha War?
(a) Treaty of Surat
(b) Treaty of Mangalore
(c) Treaty of Salbai
(d) Treaty of Amritsar
Ans: (c)
19. Which Governor General abolished ‘Thagi’ in India?
(a) Sir John Shore
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Mayo
Ans: (c)
20. In which year, the Government Postal Service was introduced in India?
(a) 1853 AD
(b) 1854 AD
(c) 1855 AD
(d) 1856 AD
Ans: (b)
21. From which book our national song ‘Vande Matram’ has been taken?
(a) Anand Math
(b) Neel Darpan
(c) Geetanjali
(d) Satyarth Prakash
Ans: (a)
22. Who among the following had propounded the theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’?
(a) Surendranath Banarjee
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Firoz Shah Mehta
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Ans: (d)
23. What does ‘Tri-Ratna’ indicate in Buddhism?
(a) Truth, Non-violence, Mercy
(b) Love, Compassion, Forgiveness
(c) Buddha, Dhamma, Sangha
(d) Vinay Pitaka, Sutta Pitak, Abhidhamma Pitak
Ans: (c)
24. What was the original name of Begum Mumtaz Mahal?
(a) Mehrunnisa
(b) Gulbadan Bano
(c) Raushan Aara
(d) Arzumand Bano
Ans: (d)
25. Who was the first speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) Hukum Singh
(b) MA Ayyangar
(c) GV Mavalankar
(d) GMC Balyogi
Ans: (c)
26. Which Article of the Constitution of India is directly applicable on Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Article-371
(b) Article-370
(c) Article-375
(d) Article-376
Ans: (b)
27. Which Amendment has been called a revision of the Constitution of India?
(a) 40th
(b) 41st
(c) 42nd
(d) 43rd
Ans: (c)
28. According to Dr. Ambedkar, which Article is the Soul of Indian Constitution?
(a) Article-29
(b) Article-31
(c) Article-32
(d) Article-352
Ans: (c)
29. Windows is an example of which of the following?
(a) Operating System
(b) Hardware
(c) Active Desktop
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
30. Which of the following is an Application Software?
(a) Compiler
(b) Operating System
(c) MS-Office
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
31. ‘ROM’ is a
(a) Volatile Memory
(b) Non-volatile Memory
(c) Secondary Memory
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
32. Which of the following is an input device?
(a) Plotter
(b) Printer
(c) Monitor
(d) Scanner
Ans: (d)
33. What is the height of the Qutub Minar?
(a) 100 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 85.5 m
(d) 72.5 m
Ans: (d)
34. In which year Razia Sultan become the ruler?
(a) 1236 AD
(b) 1240 AD
(c) 1266 AD
(d) 1210 AD
Ans: (a)
35. Who introduced the ‘Mansabdari’ system?
(a) Sher Shah
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Akbar
Ans: (d)
36. What is the total budgeted amount of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana?
(a) Rs. 4000 crore
(b) Rs. 5500 crore
(c) Rs. 7000 crore
(d) Rs. 8000 crore
Ans: (d)
37. What is the estimated fiscal deficit of Indian in the Budget of 2016-17?
(a) 2.1%
(b) 4.2%
(c) 3.5%
(d) 4.8%
Ans: (c)
38. Which castes of Uttarakhand were included in the central list of OBC in August, 2015?
(a) Aheria, Ranwaulta, Arakh
(b) Kahar and Tanwar Singharia
(c) Bairagi, Goswami, Darugar
(d) Banjara, Bhand, Bari
Ans: (b)
39. During which of the following years, India recorded lowest foodgrain productions?
(a) 2014-15
(b) 2013-14
(c) 2012-13
(d) 2009-10
Ans: (d)
40. What is the premium amount for Prime Minister Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
(a) Rs. 100 per month
(b) Rs. 100 per year
(c) Rs. 12 per year
(d) Rs. 12 per month
Ans: (c)
41. The Indian State through which Tropic of Cancer does not pass in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Odisha
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Tripura
Ans: (b)
42. What was the value of Human Development Index for India in 2014?
(a) 0.538
(b) 0.570
(c) 0.609
(d) 0.666
Ans: (b)
43. Which of the following is a page printer that produces high quality output by forming characters and images with tiny ink particles?
(a) Inkjet printer
(b) Laser printer
(c) Dot-Matrix printer
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
44. Which of the following is an antivirus software?
(a) JAVA
(b) Tally
(c) Norton
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
45. Under which Act, Supreme Court was established in India by the British rule?
(a) Regulating Act
(b) Pitt’s Act
(c) 1813 Act
(d) 1833 Act
Ans: (a)
46. Who is the author of the novel (book) “Tumhare Liye’?
(a) Shivani
(b) Shailesh Matiyani
(c) Manohar Shyam Joshi
(d) Himanshu Joshi
Ans: (d)
47. 23rd Rajiv Gandhi Sadbhavna Award in 2016 has been given to
(a) Shabana Azmi
(b) Shubha Mudgal
(c) Shobha De
(d) Medha Patkar
Ans: (b)
48. Which district of Uttarakhand State has its boundary with seven districts of the State?
(a) Almora
(b) Chamoli
(c) Pauri
(d) Bageshwar
Ans: (c)
49. Who is the founder of the ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’?
(a) Aruna Roy
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Medha Patkar
(d) Baba Amte
Ans: (c)
50. Which river makes a boundary between India and Nepal?
(a) Saryu
(b) Ram Ganga
(c) Kali
(d) Pindar
Ans: (c)
51. Google is a
(a) search engine
(b) rdbms software
(c) multimedia software
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
52. Internet Explorer is a
(a) news reader
(b) graphing package
(c) web browser
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
53. When was Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana launched in India?
(a) April 8, 2015
(b) September 15, 2014
(c) January 1, 2015
(d) May 1, 2015
Ans: (a)
54. ‘Biotechnology Institute’ is
(a) Almora
(b) Dehradun
(c) Srinagar
(d) Pantnagar
Ans: (b)
55. Which among the following is ‘muscle’ protein?
(a) Myosin
(b) Keratin
(c) Lysozyme
(d) Heme
Ans: (a)
56. Which of the following waves cannot be polarized?
(a) Sound Waves
(b) Radio Waves
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) X-rays
Ans: (a)
57. Rh-factor derives its name from
(a) Bat
(b) Rhesus Monkey
(c) Rhino
(d) Rat
Ans: (b)
58. A satellite is used for
(a) communication
(b) weather forecasting
(c) agriculture and forestry
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
59. ‘Marsh gas’ is
(a) methane
(b) ethane
(c) propane
(d) butane
Ans: (a)
60. Sequencing of ‘human genome’ was successfully done in the year
(a) 1995
(b) 2001
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Ans: (b)
61. DNA does not contain
(a) Guanine
(b) Adenine
(c) Uracil
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
62. In 2016, which became the first European country to win Thomas Cup?
(a) Sweden
(b) Britain
(c) Denmark
(d) Holland
Ans: (c)
63. Which has become the first country in the world to ban deforestation?
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Kenya
(d) Norway
Ans: (d)
64. China is looked in dispute with Philippines and Vietnam over control of which territory in South China Sea?
(a) Natuna Islands
(b) Pratas Islands
(c) Spratly Island Chain
(d) Taiwan
Ans: (c)
65. Which State has become the first digital State of the country?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (c)
66. Who is the author of the book ‘Editor Unplugged : Media Magnates, Netas and Me’?
(a) Vinod Mehta
(b) S. Nihal Singh
(c) Inder Malhotra
(d) Kuldip Nayyar
Ans: (a)
67. Which film was chosen as the best film at 63rd National Film Awards festival?
(a) Bajirao Mastani
(b) Dum Laga Ke Haisha
(c) Bahubali
(d) Mary Kom
Ans: (c)
68. ‘Bharatiya Jnanpith’ award (2015) has been awarded to
(a) Raghuveer Chaudhary
(b) Bhalchandra Nemade
(c) Kedarnath Singh
(d) Pratibha Rai
Ans: (a)
69. Insulin hormone is secreted by which of the following organs?
(a) Kidney
(b) Heart
(c) Liver
(d) Pancreas
Ans: (d)
70. Which vitamin is essential for blood coagulation?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) K
(d) C
Ans: (c)
71. Plants that grow in saline water are called
(a) Hydrophytes
(b) Mesophytes
(c) Halophytes
(d) Thallophytes
Ans: (c)
72. Which tributary of Alaknanda river has its confluence at Rudraprayag?
(a) Dhauli Ganga
(b) Birahi Ganga
(c) Pindar
(d) Mandakini
Ans: (d)
73. Which Himalayan zone receives highest rain during monsoon period?
(a) Shivaliks
(b) Outer Himalaya
(c) Inner Himalaya
(d) Equal in the above three
Ans: (a)
74. Which soil is most suitable for the cultivation of Tear crop?
(a) Pasture oil
(b) Brown, red and yellow soil
(c) Sandy oil
(d) Light clay alluvial soil
Ans: (d)
75. As per the Census 2011, in Uttarakhand district Nainital stands at
(a) 2nd place
(b) 3rd place
(c) 4th place
(d) 6th place
Ans: (c)
76. Which one of the following tribe traded with Tibet, before 1962 China War?
(a) Raji
(b) Boxa
(c) Bhotiya
(d) Tharu
Ans: (c)
77. At which place people of Uttarakhand vowed not to follow the ‘Coolie Begar’, in January 1921?
(a) Bageshwar
(b) Someshwar
(c) Rameshwar
(d) Pancheswar
Ans: (a)
78. ‘Koteswara’ dam is being constructed on the river
(a) Alaknanda
(b) Dhauli Ganga
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Birahi Ganga
Ans: (c)
79. The first diary federation of Uttarakhand was established at
(a) Dehradun
(b) US Nagar
(c) Haridwar
(d) Haldwani
Ans: (d)
80. In which year the ‘Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reform Act’ was passed?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1953
Ans: (a)
81. In which year, the Garhwal Division was established?
(a) 1964
(b) 1969
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Ans: (b)
82. How many seats are reserved for Schedule Tribes in Uttarakhand Assembly?
(a) 01
(b) 02
(c) 03
(d) 04
Ans: (b)
83. ‘Operation Smile’ of Uttarakhand police is related to
(a) children
(b) old person
(c) women
(d) transport
Ans: (a)
84. ‘Mudra Rakshas’, who died in June 2016, is famous as
(a) theatre director
(b) classical singer
(c) Sanskrit scholar
(d) Hindi novelist
Ans: (d)
85. Which district of Uttarakhand has the maximum forest area?
(a) Uttarkashi
(b) Pauri Garhwal
(c) Nainital
(d) Chamoli
Ans: (b)
86. Match the following and find the right answer from code given below:
List I (Lake)
List II (Location)
A. Sat Tal
B. Dron Sagar Tal
C. Dodi Tal
D. Birahi Tal
1. Kashipur
2. Uttarkashi
3. Nainital
4. Chamoli
(a) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(b) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4
(c) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 4; B – 2; C – 1; D – 3
Ans: (b)
87. Which group is known as the first ethnic group of Uttarakhand?
(a) Kol
(b) Kuninda
(c) Ban Raji
(d) Hoona
Ans: (c)
88. Where was the first capital of Panwar Rulers?
(a) Srinagar
(b) Tehri
(c) Devalgarh
(d) Chandpur Garhi
Ans: (d)
89. Who was the editor of the ‘Garhwali’ Samachar Patra?
(a) Vishwambhar Datt Chandola
(b) Lalita Prasad Naithani
(c) Mukundi Lal
(d) Suman
Ans: (a)
90. Which freedom fighter is called the Hero Peshwar episode?
(a) Sridev Suman
(b) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(c) Chandra Singh Garhwali
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans: (c)
91. In which, among the following years Tehri Kingdom merged with Independent India?
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1950
(d) 1965
Ans: (b)
92. Who among the following have been awarded ‘Khel Ratna ‘ in August 2016, by the government of India?
(a) Rani Rampal, PV Sindhu, Sakshi Malik and Shiva Thapa
(b) PV Sindhu, Deepa Karmakar, Jeetu Rai and Satti Geeta
(c) Jeetu Rai, Sakshi Malik, PV Sindhu and Deepa Karmakar
(d) Shiva Thapa, PV Sindhu, Sakshi Malik and Deepa Karmakar
Ans: (c)
93. Which among the followings has been included in the list of World Heritage, by UNESCO in July 2016?
(a) Sun Temple of Konark
(b) Sunderban National Park
(c) Sanchi Stupa
(d) Archaeological site of Nalanda Vishwa Vidyalaya
Ans: (d)
94. As per 2011 Census, what is the rank of Uttarakhand on the basis of population?
(a) 29th
(b) 20th
(c) 15th
(d) 10th
Ans: (b)
95. Read the following statements (A) and (B) and select the correct answer from the code given below:
Statement (A) The sex ratio in the hill districts of Uttarakhand is higher than those in plains.
Statement (B) The males from the hill districts migrate in search of employment.
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(b) Both (A) and (B) are wrong.
(c) (A) is true but (B) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong, but (B) is true.
Ans: (a)
96. What was the basis of States’ Reorganization Act, 1956?
(a) Size of the States
(b) Natural resources
(c) Language
(d) River water dispute
Ans: (c)
97. Who was the first King of the Tehri State?
(a) Man Shah
(b) Sudarshan Shah
(c) Medini Shah
(d) Yajuvendra Shah
Ans: (b)
98. Kumaun University, Nainital was established in the year
(a) 1975
(b) 1978
(c) 1973
(d) 1971
Ans: (c)
99. Under which Article, the ‘President Rule’ was imposed in Uttarakhand in the year 2016?
(a) Article-346
(b) Article-376
(c) Article-356
(d) Article-386
Ans: (c)
100. Name the harmful chemical used in Bread preparation?
(a) Ethyle bromate
(b) Potassium bromate
(c) Calcium carbonate
(d) Methyl chloride
Ans: (b)
Part II : General Aptitude Test
101. In a class, there are 35 students comprising of boys and girls. In a monthly test, the average score of ht class was 18. The average score of girls and boys of the class was 22 and 15 respectively. Assuming that all the students appeared in the test, what is the number of boys in the class?
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 20
Ans: (d)
102. Sohan bought some books one day, four times of them on the next day and eight books on the third day. In all, he bought 38 books, How many books did he buy on the second day?
(a) 24
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 16
Ans: (a)
103. There are five buses from Nainital to Dehradun and same number of buses from Dehradun to Nainhital. If a man does not want to return to Nainital by the bus in which he went to Dehradun, in how many ways to and from journey can be performed between Nainital and Dehradun?
(a) 24
(b) 20
(c) 16
(d) 12
Ans: (b)
104. Find the missing term in the following series :
B 23 Y, E 17 V, H 11 S, …..
(a) K 7 P
(b) K 5 P
(c) L 8 Q
(d) M 9 R
Ans: (b)
105. Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by 45?
(a) 181560
(b) 331145
(c) 202860
(d) 3033550
Ans: (c)
106. The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon of 15 sides is
(a) 2340°
(b) 1800°
(c) 2520°
(d) 2160°
Ans: (a)
107. A train of length 135 metre is running with a speed of 49 km/hr. In what time it will pass a man, who is walking at 5 km/hr in the direction opposite to that of the train?
(a) 10 sec
(b) 9 sec
(c) 5 sec
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
108. Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6 and their product is 1944. The largest of these number is
(a) 06
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 20
Ans: (c)
109. If n (A ∪ B) = 5, n(B) = 3 and n(A) = 4, then n(A ∩ B) is equal to
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans: (a)
110. The illumination from a source of light varies inversely as the square of the distance. If initially a book is placed at 10 cm far from a candle, then how much farther a book be placed so as to receive just half as much light?
(a) 10(√2 + 1) cm
(b) 10(√2 – 1) cm
(c) 10(√3 + 1) cm
(d) 5(√2 + 1) cm
Ans: (b)
111. Insert the missing number in the following :
13 (70) 22
12 (60) 18
17 (?) 26
(a) 76
(b) 96
(c) 116
(d) 86
Ans: (d)
112. In the following question, except one, all are alike in a certain way. Select the pair which is different from others.
Babar : Mughal
Kanishka : Kushan
Mahavira : Jainism
Chandragupta : Maurya
(a) Chandragupta : Maurya
(b) Kanishka : Kushan
(c) Mahavira : Jainism
(d) Babar : Mughal
Ans: (a)
113.In how many ways, a group of 3 boys and 2 girls can be formed out of the total of 4 boys and 4 girls
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 24
Ans: (d)
114. Four mat weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At the same rate, how many mats would be woven by 8 mat weavers in 8 days?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
Ans: (d)
115. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called black, black is called violet and violet is called orange, what would be the colour of human blood?
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Violet
Ans: (c)
116. Pointing to a gentleman, Shalini said, “His only brother is the father of my son’s father”. How is the gentleman related to Shalini?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Uncle
(c) Brother
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
117. A year is starting with Monday and ending with Tuesday. How many days are there from January 16 to March 15 in that year?
(a) 58
(b) 60
(c) 59
(d) 61
Ans: (b)
118. Three years ago, the difference in the ages of two brothers was two years. The sum of their present ages will be double in 10 years. What is the present age of the 3elder brother?
(a) 6
(b) 11
(c) 7
(d) 9
Ans: (b)
119. A cyclist rides 20 km to the East, then turns North and rides 20 km, again turns left and rides 20 km. How far he is from the starting point?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 30 km
Ans: (c)
120. Which is greatest in the following?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (c)
121. What is the remainder when 241 is divided by 7?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
122. When seen through a mirror, a clock shows 8 : 30, the correct time is
(a) 2 : 30
(b) 3 : 30
(c) 8 : 30
(d) 5 : 30
Ans: (b)
123. In a certain language, ‘MADRAS’ is coded as NBESBT, how is ‘BOMBAY’ coded in that language?
(a) DPNCBX
(b) CPNCBZ
(c) CPNCBY
(d) DPNCBZ
Ans: (b)
124. If 5 @ 6 = 61 and 8 @ 10 = 164, then 7 @ 9 = ?
(a) 125
(b) 63
(c) 130
(d) 32
Ans: (c)
125. Look at this series :
80, 10, 70, 15, 60, …..
What number should come next?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 50
Ans: (a)
126. The difference of 1025 – 7 and 1024 + x is divisible by 3 for x = ?
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans: (d)
127. The sum of first 23 odd numbers will be
(a) 276
(b) 529
(c) 1081
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
128. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. For every 15 soldiers there is one captain. The number of captains in the group is
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 75
(d) 85
Ans: (c)
129. Two ladies and two men are playing cards and are seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East, persons sitting opposite to each other are not the same sex. One man is facing South, which directions are the ladies facing?
(a) East and West
(b) South and East
(c) North and West
(d) North and East
Ans: (c)
130. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family. One couple has parents and their children in the family. A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A. D is the daughter of F who is mother of E. Who are the male members in the family?
(a) A and C
(b) A and D
(c) A and B
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans: (a)
131. Which number will replace question mark in the following sequence?
4, 23, 60, 121 ?
(a) 212
(b) 242
(c) 221
(d) 241
Ans: (a)
132. Rahul says “If Vijay gives me Rs. 40, he will have half as much as Atul, but if Atul gives me Rs. 40, then the three of us will have the same amount. “What is the total amount of money that Rahul, Vijay and Atul have?
(a) Rs. 240
(b) Rs. 280
(c) Rs. 360
(d) Rs. 420
Ans: (c)
133. A rope by which a cow is tethered is increased from 12 m to 23 m. How much additional ground has it to graze over?
(a) 363.17 m2
(b) 385 m2
(c) 1210 m2
(d) 1650 m2
Ans: (c)
134. Mohini went to the movie nine days ago. She goes to the movies only on Wednesday, what day of the week is today?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Friday
(c) Saturday
(d) Monday
Ans: (b)
135. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)
136. 10% of 10% of 50% of 1000 is
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 50
(d) 100
Ans: (a)
137. Eight children take part in a tournament. Each one has to play every other one. How many games must they play?
(a) 56
(b) 28
(c) 80
(d) 112
Ans: (b)
138. A hall had 500 seats initially. After reconstruction, the total number of seats became 10% less, the number of rows were reduced by 5, but the number of seats in each row was increased by 5. How many rows and how many seats in a row were there initially in the hall?
(a) 20 rows, 25 seats
(b) 50 rows, 10 seats
(c) 10 rows, 50 seats
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
139. In a group of equal number of cows and herdsman, the number of legs was 28 less than four times the number of heads. The number of herdsman was
(a) 14
(b) 28
(c) 17
(d) 15
Ans: (a)
140. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 5. If nine is subtracted from the numbers, the ratio becomes 12 : 23. The number are
(a) 30, 50
(b) 42, 70
(c) 36, 60
(d) 33, 55
Ans: (d)
141. At present, Soni is 4 times older than her so and is 3 years older than her husband. After 3 years, the age of her son will be 15 years. The age of Soni’s husband after 5 years will be
(a) 48
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) 42
Ans: (c)
142. Based on the statements given below, find out who is the uncle of ‘P’?
I. K is the brother of J.
II. M is the sister of K.
III. P is the brother of N.
IV. N is the daughter of J.
(a) K
(b) J
(c) N
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans: (a)
143. Which number is wrong in the following series?
42, 110, 132, 210, 440, 506
(a) 42
(b) 132
(c) 440
(d) 506
Ans: (c)
144. In the following figure, ‘B’. represents businessmen, R represents rich men, and H represents honest men. Which number will represent rich businessmen?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
Ans: (c)
145. Which of the following does not belong to measure of central tendency?
Mean Deviation, Arithmetic Mean, Median, Mode
(a) Mean Deviation
(b) Arithmetic Mean
(c) Median
(d) Mode
Ans: (a)
146. The algebraic sum of the deviations from the mean of any set of data is always
(a) positive
(b) infinite
(c) zero
(d) negative
Ans: (c)
147. The simple interest of a sum of money is equal to the half of the principal and the rate of interest is equal to half of the number of years. Find the number of years.
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 8
Ans: (b)
148. If the cost of five pencils and two copies at Rs. 225 and the cost of three copies and four pencils is Rs. 320, then what is the cost of one pencil?
(a) Rs. 5
(b) Rs. 6
(c) Rs. 4
(d) Rs. 7
Ans: (a)
149. If the integers 1 to 50 are multiplied, then total number of ‘zeroes’ in the product will be
(a) 5
(b) 50
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans: (d)
150. The diameter of a cycle wheel is 28 cm. How many revolutions will it make in moving 13.2 km?
Rajasthan Subordinate & Ministerial Service Selection Board Gram Sevak, Panchayat Secretary & Hostel Superintendent Grade-II Examination Held on 18-12-2016 Question Paper with Answer Key
Rajasthan Subordinate & Ministerial Service Selection Board
1. Council of Ministers of a State is accountable to
(a) Governor
(b) President
(c) State Legislative Assembly
(d) Indian Parliament
Ans: (c)
2. Arrange the following posts of a State Secretariat in hierarchy (Higher to lower) order by using the code given below.
1. Secretary
2. Deputy Secretary
3. Special Secretary
4. Assistant Secretary
(a) 3214
(b) 4321
(c) 1324
(d) 2341
Ans: (c)
3. Which of the following is not a function of District Collector ?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Maintenance of land record
(c) Collection of income tax
(d) Collection of revenue
Ans: (a)
4. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was on :
(a) rural development
(b) democratic decentralisation
(c) community development programmes
(d) panchayati raj institutions
Ans: (d)
5. Which of the following articles of the Constitution was inserted through the 73rd amendment regarding Panchayats ?
(a) 243 to 243-ZA
(b) 244 to 244-P
(c) 243 to 243-T
(d) 243 to 243-O
Ans: (d)
6. Panchayati Raj is a system of :
(a) local government
(b) local administration
(c) local self government
(d) rural local self government
Ans: (a)
7. Consider the following about State Legislative Assembly :
1. Its term is Five Year.
2. It is chaired by Chief Minister.
3. It is directly elected by the people.
4. Governor is empowered to dissolve it.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Ans: (b)
8. In which of the following games, India has won World Cup in October 2016 ?
(a) Lawn Tennis
(b) Kabbadi
(c) Football
(d) Hockey
Ans: (b)
9. In US President’s election 2016 Donald Trump was a candidate of
(a) Republican Party
(b) Green Party
(c) Constitution Party
(d) Democratic Party
Ans: (a)
10. When did NITI (National Institute for Transformation of India) Aayog came into existence ?
(a) January 1, 2015
(b) January 1, 2014
(c) January 1, 2016
(d) November 1, 2014
Ans: (a)
11. Goods and Service Tax Council (GST) of India is headed by
(a) Speak of Lok Sabha
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Finance Secretary
Ans: (b)
12. Who discharge the duties of Governor in his absence ?
(a) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
(b) Chief Minister of a State
(c) Chief Justice of High Court
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
13. Consider the following two statements :
Assertion (A) State Governor holds his office during the pleasure of the President.
Reason (R) Governor is appointed by the Prime Minister.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation A.
(b) A is true, but R is false.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Ans: (b)
14. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Article 156 – Qualifications for the appointment as Governor
(b) Article – 63 – Council of Ministers of State
(c) Article-154 – Executive power of State
(d) Article-155 – Appointment of Governor
Ans: (a)
15. Consider the followings about the State High Court :
1. Article-213 provides that there shall be a High Court for each State.
2. Judges of High Courts are appointed by President.
3. Under Article-226, it has power to issue certain writs.
4. As per the provision of the Constitution of India common High Court can be established for two or more States.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) 1 and 2 are correct.
Ans: (c)
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List-I
(Soil Type)
List-II
(Climatic Region)
A. Aridisols
B. Inceptisols
C. Alfisols
D. Vertisols
1. Arid and semi-arid
2. Semi-arid and humid
3. Sub-humid and humid
4. Humid and super-humid
(a) A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2
(b) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4
(c) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3
Ans: (a)
17. On the basis of legal status (March 31, 2011) examine the following statements regarding forests of Rajasthan and select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. Of the total forest area in Rajasthan reserved and protected forests respective constitute 55.84% and 37.94%
2. Maximum reserved forests in the State are found in Udaipur and Chittorgarh districts.
3. Maximum protected forests in the State are found in Baran and Karauli districts.
4. Maximum unclassified forests in the State are found in Bikaner and Ganganagar districts.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
18. Rajasthan desert is quite unlikely from other deserts situated in similar latitudes of the world. What is the logical perception about desertification process here ?
(a) It starts due to drought.
(b) It starts and expands from arid regions.
(c) It starts and expands from desert heartland.
(d) It starts and expands due to overgrazing, over ploughing, deforestation and improper management of soil and water.
Ans: (d)
19. In which agricultural year during the last three decades more than 90% villages of Rajasthan were hit by unprecedented famine and drought ?
(a) 2000-01
(b) 2002-03
(c) 2009-10
(d) 1987-88
Ans: (b)
20. Examine the following statements regarding development of barren land in Rajasthan and select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. Currently (2013-14) barren land constitutes about 19% of total reported are for land use purpose in the State.
2. Old fallow land has recorded about 18% decrease over the last 30 years in the State.
3. Onus of development of barren land in the State lies with the National Wasteland Development Board.
4. Integrate barren Land Development Project is being currently run in 10 districts of the State with the co-operation of Swedish International Development Agency (SIDA).
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)
21. In view of increasing number of dark and grey zones in Rajasthan Central Ground Water Authority of India has put total ban on exploitation of ground water in which of the administrative blocks of the State ?
22. Odd out the incorrect statement regarding livestock numbers in Rajasthan
(a) Donkeys and mules recorded maximum increase in number from 2007 to 2012.
(b) Rajasthan constitutes 11.27% of total livestock numbers of India (2012)
(c) Camel recorded maximum decrease in number from 2007 to 2012.
(d) Livestock numbers of Rajasthan increased by 10.69 lack from 2007 to 2012.
Ans: (a)
23. Which of the following changes occurred in cropping pattern of Rajasthan since First Plan Period till 2012-13 is/are correct?
1. Area under cereals has increased from 42.5 to 56.0%.
2. Area under pulses has declined from 21 to 13.5%.
3. Area under oilseeds has increased from 6.2 to 20.5%.
4. Area under cotton, sugarcane, guar fruits, vegetables, spices and fodder crops has increased from 16.8 to 23.5%.
Select the correct answer using the following codes
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans: (a)
24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List-I
(Lift Canal
List-II
(Beneficiary District)
A. Jai Narain Vyas
B. Choudhary Kumbha Ram
C. Panna Lal-Barupal
D. Dr. Kami Singh
1. Bikaner, Nagaur
2. Jodhpur, Bikaner
3. Jodhpur, Jaisalmer
4. Hanumangarh, Churu
(a) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4
(b) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1
(c) A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1
(d) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
Ans: (b)
25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List-I (Mineral)
List-II (Mining Area)
A. Emerald
B. Garnet
C. Manganese
D. Copper
1. Tikki, Garhbore
2. Rajmahal, Bageshwear
3. Leelawani Kalakkuta
4. Kolhan, Bhagoni
(a) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4
(b) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1
(d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4
Ans: (b)
26. On the basis of industrial potentialities assessed by various Public Sector Financial organizations (RICO, RFC, RAJSICO etc.) which districts of Rajasthan have been included in category ‘A’?
(a) Alwar, Tonk, Chittorgarh, Ajmer
(b) Kota, Ajmer, Udaipur, Bharatpur
(c) Jodhpur, Pali, Ajmer, Alwar
(d) Bikaner, Jodhpur, Bhilwara, Jaipur
Ans: (a)
27. Which of the following statements regarding population trends in Rajasthan is/are correct ? Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. Decadal growth rate of the State population has declined 9.97% during 1991-2011.
2. Population density of the State has increased more than six times during 1901-2011.
3. Trend of sex ratio of the State has been even during 1901-2011.
4. Literacy rate of the State has increased more than eight times during 1951-2011.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I
(Percentage of Tribes in Total Population of Rajasthan, 2011
List II
(Major Habitats)
A. Less than 20%
B. 20-25%
C. 26-50%
D. 51-80%
1. Baran, Bundi, Karauli
2. Chittorgarh, Rajsamand, Jhalawar
3. Udaipur, Sirohi, Dausa
4. Banswara, Dungarpur, Pratapgarh
(a) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
(c) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3
(d) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
Ans: (d)
29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List-I (Tribes of Rajasthan)
List-II (Major Habitats)
A. Sahariya
B. Garasiya
C. Damore
D. Mina
1. Dungarpur, Banswara
2. Udaipur, Sirohi
3. Baran, Kota
4. Jaipur, Dausa
(a) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4
(b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4
(c) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4
Ans: (d)
30. Which of the following development programmes are not directly related with improvement of tribal economy is Rajasthan?
1. Modified Area Development Approach and Cluster Project
2. Rajasthan Mission on Livelihood (RMOL)
3. Mewat, Dang and Magra Area Development Programme
4. Swarnajayanti Gram Sarojgar Yojana (SGSY)
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
31. How many unemployed persons have been estimated in total 3 crore labour force of Rajasthan as per population Census, 2011 ?
(a) 30 lakh
(b) 38 lakh
(c) 33 lakh
(d) 20 lakh
Ans: (d)
32. Which of the following facts about unemployment rates in Rajasthan is/are correct according to 68th round 2011-12 of National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) usual status adjusted (UPSS) mode?
1. 0.9% males of total labour force are unemployed in rural areas.
2. 3.2% males of total labour force are unemployed in urban areas.
3. 3.1% persons of total labour force are unemployed in whole State.
4. Unemployment rates are much higher in rural areas than urban areas.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Only 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (c)
33. Which of the following development programmes in Rajasthan were amalgamated in Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) since April 1, 1999?
1. Integrated Rural Development (IRDP) and Training to Rural Youth in Self Employment (TRYSEM)
2. Development of Women and Children (DWCRA) and Industrial Tools Supply in Rural Areas (SITRA)
3. Ganga Kalyan Yojana (GKY) and Million Wells Scheme (MWS)
4. Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY)
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
34. Approximately how many persons in total population of Rajasthan have been estimated as poor in 2011-12 according to C. Rangrajan Expert Group Report 2014 ?
(a) 1.51 crore
(b) 90 lakh
(c) 2.35 crore
(d) 1.12 crore
Ans: (a)
35. Which of the conclusions obtained from poverty ratios calculated for Rajasthan according to Suresh Tendulkar method is/are correct ?
1. Poverty ratio in rural areas of the State has increased by 10.3% between 2009-10 and 2011-12.
2. Poverty ratio in urban areas of the State has declined by 9.2% between 2009-10 and 2011-12.
3. Poverty ratios in the State have declined in both the years 2009-10 and 2011-12 compared to India.
4. Poverty ratio in 2011-12 was estimated 14.7% for Rajasthan and 21.9% for India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
List I
(Mountain Type)
List-II
(Region)
A. Young folded
B. Old folded
C. Volcanic
D. Fault-block
1. South-Eastern coast of North
America
2. Western coast of North America
3. South-Western coast of North America
4. Circum-pacific belt
(a) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
(b) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4
(c) A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1
Ans: (a)
37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I
(Mountain Peak)
List II
(Continent)
A. Kilimanjaro
B. Vinson Massif
C. Mount Kosciusko
D. Aconcagua
1. South America
2. Australia
3. Antarctica
4. Africa
(a) A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1
(b) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(c) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(d) A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3
Ans: (c)
38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of world’s oceans/seas in descending order of area occupied ?
(a) Indian-Arctic-South China-Atlantic
(b) Arctic-Atlantic-South China-Indian
(c) Atlantic-Indian-Arctic-South China
(d) Atlantic-South China-Arctic-Indian
Ans: (c)
39. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I (Particulars)
List II (Spots)
A. Worlds wettest spot
B. World’s driest spot
C. World’s northernmost town
D. World’s southernmost town
1. Iqique
2. Mawsynram
3. Ushuaia
4. Ny-Alesund
(a) A – 2; B – 3; C –1; D – 4
(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
(c) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
Ans: (d)
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I
(Wetland Ecosites)
List-I
(States)
A. Bhoj
B. Chandratal
C. Schlur
D. Rudrasagar
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Tripura
4. Jammu-Kashmir
(a) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
(b) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(c) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4
(d) A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1
Ans: (a)
41. Which one of the following would be the best strategy for ecology-friendly sustainable development in Indian agriculture ?
(a) Wide use of high-yielding crop varieties, better and more frequency of aerial sprays of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides.
(b) Improved farm implements and machinery, use of potent insecticides to minimize post-harvest grain losses and monoculture cropping practices.
(c) Expansion of cultivable land, increased use of super phosphate, ,urea and effective bioacids.
(d) Mixed cropping and use of organic manures, nitrogen-fixing plants and pest-resistant crop varieties.
Ans: (d)
42. Tropic of Cancer and 80° East longitude divide India into four quadrants. In which quadrant are the maximum cotton growing areas located ?
(a) South-East
(b) South-West
(c) North-East
(d) North-West
Ans: (b)
43. What is the root cause of shifting tendency of Indian cotton textile industry from Mumbai towards Ahmedabad ?
(a) Land in Ahmedabad is cheaper than Mumbai
(b) High quality cloths manufactured in Ahmedabad are in large demand in India and abroad as well.
(c) Ahmedabad enjoys more import-export facilities than Mumbai.
(d) This industry has the advantage of early start in Ahmedabad.
Ans: (b)
44. Which of the following statements regarding physical features of Rajasthan is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. Hadauti plateau is bounded by Main Boundary Fault in North-West.
2. 41.50% area of western sandy plain is sand dune free region.
3. Structurally, physical features of Rajasthan form part of northern great plains and peninsular plateau of India.
4. Aravalli in the present time exist as residual mountains.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
45. Which of the following statements regarding climatic conditions of Rajasthan is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. Climatic conditions of Rajasthan exhibit extremity of temperature and rainfall..
2. During the last ten years, amount of rainfall has decreased in western desert
3. Sudden onset of south-east moisture laden winds over an intensely heated landmass is the root cause of scarce rain in western Rajasthan.
4. Climatically major part of Rajasthan lies in sub-tropical zone.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
46. In which of the following Maharaja’s Darbar ‘Gandharv Baisi’ was present in the form of 22 poets, 22 astrologers, 22 singers and 22 other subject specialist?
(a) Maharaja jai Singh
(b) Maharaja Pratap Singh
(c) Maharaja Bhagwat Singh
(d) Maharaja Man Singh
Ans: (b)
47. ‘Namadi and Rangdi’ are characteristic of which language?
(a) Malawi
(b) Hadoti
(c) Ahirwati
(d) Mewati
Ans: (a)
48. Who established the ‘Alkhiya Sect’ (Sampradaya)?
(a) Sant Dasji
(b) Bhola Nath
(c) Lal Giri
(d) Charan Das
Ans: (c)
49. During which Maharaja’s rule ‘Ram Prakash Theatre’ was established in Jaipur?
(a) Maharaja Ram Singh II
(b) Maharaja Vijay Singh
(c) Maharaja Ishwari Singh
(d) Maharaja Man Singh
Ans: (a)
50. ‘Bam Dance’ is famous at which place?
(a) Udaipur-Sirohi
(b) Alwar-Bharatpur
(c) Jaisalmer-Barmer
(d) Jaipur-Ajmer
Ans: (b)
51. To which form the ‘Sugan Chiri’ is considered as Lokmata?
(a) Naganchi Mata
(b) Shitala Mata
(c) Ayad Mata
(d) Sawangiya Mata
Ans: (d)
52. Who was the Guru of Balindji?
(a) Sundardasji
(b) Dadu Dayalji
(c) Manglaramji
(d) Ramcharanji
Ans: (d)
53. Which Lok Devata is known by name of ‘Jaharpeer’?
(a) Gogaji
(b) Ramdevji
(c) Hadbuji
(d) Devnarayanji
Ans: (a)
54. Who is considered as Lokdevi of Alwar region ?
(a) Sugali Mata
(b) Jilani Mata
(c) Sachiya Mata
(d) Latiyala Mata
Ans: (b)
55. Molana Village is famous for which handicraft art?
(a) Meenakari
(b) Bluepottery
(c) Thevakala
(d) Teracota
Ans: (d)
56. What is ‘Jannotan’ in Rajasthani culture?
(a) A type of lokgeet
(b) An agricultural tax
(c) A Dinner given by the groom side
(d) Measurement of land
Ans: (c)
57. In Bhil tribe who wears ‘Kachawo’?
(a) Women
(b) Children
(c) Young boy
(d) Men
Ans: (a)
58. What is ‘Aulondi’ in Rajasthani Culture?
(a) A girl or woman accompanying the bride-groom
(b) A type of marriage
(c) Rajasthani lok geet.
(d) A local game
Ans: (a)
59. What for the ‘Chanduji ka Gadha and Bodigama Places’ are famous?
(a) For jajarm printing
(b) For meenakari work
(c) For manufacturing to teer-kaman
(d) For kundan art
Ans: (c)
60. On which part of the body ‘Ballaya’ ornament is wore?
(a) On head
(b) On nose
(c) On ears
(d) On hands
Ans: (c)
61. In which period ‘Amrawati Stupa’ was built?
(a) Mauraya’s
(b) Satavahana’s
(c) Vardhan’s
(d) Gupta’s
Ans: (b)
62. Who discovered the ‘Bharhut Stupa’ iin the year 1873 AD ?
(a) KS Lal
(b) BK Thapar
(c) Marshal
(d) Cunnengham
Ans: (d)
63. Where is ‘Danchand Chopra’s Havelli’ situated in Rajasthan?
(a) Kishangarh
(b) Bikaner
(c) Sujangarh
(d) Khatdi
Ans: (b)
64. Who built the famous Fort of Mandu?
(a) Mohammad Shah
(b) Hussain Shah
(c) Kumbha
(d) Bajbahadur
Ans: (b)
65. What is ‘Cheda Phadna’ In Bhils?
(a) Birth of Son
(b) Divorce
(c) Festival
(d) Marriage
Ans: (b)
66. If the cost of product of an article is 2/5 its marked retail price, if it is sold at 10% discount, then what will be profit?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 40%
(d) 125%
Ans: (d)
67. A cycle seller gives 10% discount on marked retail price and still earns 26% profit. If marked retail price of the cycle is Rs. 840, then how much money was paid by the seller for that cycle?
(a) Rs. 650
(b) Rs. 700
(c) Rs. 750
(d) Rs. 600
Ans: (d)
68. Two things were sold at same sale-price. One thing got 10% profit and another suffered 10% loss. The difference of their purchase price will be in multiple of which number?
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 10
(d) 20
Ans: (d)
69. What will be the next number in the given series ?
3 28 4 65 5 126 6……. ?
(a) 246
(b) 264
(c) 317
(d) 217
Ans: (d)
70. What will come at the place of question mark in the given series?
BZA DYC FXE ? JVI
(a) HGJ
(b) HYG
(c) HWG
(d) HAG
Ans: (c)
71. Two trains of same length are moving in the same direction at the velocity of 46 km/h and 36 km/h respectively. The fast train crosses the slow train in 36 seconds. What is the length of each train?
(a) 82 m
(b) 72 m
(c) 50 m
(d) 80 m
Ans: (c)
72. A car driver starting from Bengaluru at 8:30 am wants to reach a place 300 km away from Bengaluru at 13:30 Noon. At 10 : 30 am he finds that he has covered only 40% distance. How much speed of the car he has to increase to reach at stipulated time?
(a) 45 km/h
(b) 35 km/h
(c) 40 km/h
(d) 30 km/h
Ans: (d)
73. Out of Rs. 20000 Prakash gives some amount on loan at simple interest rate 8% per annum and rest amount at simple interest rate At the end of year he earns Rs. 800. The amount given at 8% rate will be
(a) Rs. 12000
(b) Rs. 6000
(c) Rs. 10000
(d) Rs. 8000
Ans: (d)
74. A person takes a some amount on loan at 3% per annum simple interest payable annually. Immediately he gives it on loan at 5% per annum compound interest payable half yearly. At the end of year he earns profit of Rs. 330%. How much amount he tooks on loan?
(a) Rs. 16000
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 17000
(d) Rs. 16500
Ans: (a)
75. If at the rate of per annum the compound interest is Rs. 510. What will be the simple interest is Rs. 510. What will be the simple interest on same amount for the same period at the same rate of interest?
(a) Rs. 4800
(b) Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 450
(d) Rs. 460
Ans: (a)
76. Sort out the word which, is different in some sense in the following group :
1. Geometry 2. Algebra
2. Trigonometry
3. Maths
4. Arithmetic
(a) Maths
(b) Trigonometry
(c) Algebra
(d) Arithmetic
Ans: (a)
77. Which is odd word in these ?
1. Birbal 2. Abul Fazal
3. Tan Sen 4. Faiz Ahmad
5. Todarmal
(a) Birbal
(b) Abul Fazal
(c) Faiz Ahmad
(d) Todarmal
Ans: (b)
78. In class of 105 students out of three subjects Maths, Physics, Chemistry each students studies at least one subject. In Maths 47, in Physics 50, and in Chemistry 52 students studies. 16 in Maths and Physics, 17 and Maths and Chemistry and 16 in Physics and Chemistry students studies both subjects. What will be the number of students, who studies all three subjects?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 4
Ans: (a)
79. In class of 105 students, out of three subjects Maths, Physics, Chemistry studies each students studies at least one subject. In these 47 students studies maths, 50 students Studies Physics and 52 Students Studies Chemistry and 16 maths and Physics. 17 Maths and Chemistry and 16 Physics and Chemistry students studies both subjects.
What will be the number of those students who studies only two subjects?
(a) 32
(b) 33
(c) 34
(d) 31
Ans: (c)
80. What will be the square root of
(a) 0.1
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 1.0
Ans: (c)
81. The ratio of ages of A and B 4 years before was 2 : 3 and after four years it will be ……?
(a) 38 and 54 yr
(b) 36 and 40 yr
(c) 34 and 50 yr
(d) 42 and 58 yr
Ans: (a)
82. A completes 7/10 part of work within 15 days. Thereafter with the help of B, he completes the rest of the work within 4 days. B alone will be able to do it in how many days?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (a)
83. If the value of (102)2 is 10404, then value of will be
(a) 11.122
(b) 11.022
(c) 11.322
(d) 10.322
Ans: (c)
84. In an alloy proportion of Zinc, Copper and Lead is 2 : 3 : 1. In another alloy, the proportion of Zinc, Copper and Lead is 5 : 4 : 3. A third alloy is prepared by mixing both alloys in same quantity. The proportion of Lead, Copper and Zinc in the third alloy will be.
(a) 5 : 10 : 9
(b) 9 : 10 : 5
(c) 7 : 7 : 4
(d) 6 : 7 : 4
Ans: (a)
85. Six people, Parul, Rajendra, Satish, Tarun, Vishal and Prakash, were all born on the same day of the year. But each was born in different six consecutive years. It is also known that
1. Parul is older than Satish
2. Rajendra is older than both Tarun and Vishal
3. Prakash is 2 years older than Tarun
4. Parul was born either and 1962 or in 1963
5. The oldest member of the group was born in 1960
Which of the following group is correctly listed from the youngest to the oldest?
86. If in a certain language, ENTRY is coded as 12345 and STEADY is coded as 931785. Then how will the word TENANT is coded?
(a) 312723
(b) 312523
(c) 316169
(d) 396243
Ans: (a)
87. A, B, C, D E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age, but all have birthday on the same date. The youngest is 17 years old and E, the oldest is 22 years old. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B. C is older than D.
Which of the following statement is not possible?
(a) F is 19 years old.
(b) F is 18 years old.
(c) F is 20 years old.
(d) D is 20 years old.
Ans: (c)
88. If in a code language ‘PLAYER’ is written as ‘AELPRY’, then in the same language ‘MANAGER’ will be written as
(a) AAEMGNR
(b) AAEGMNR
(c) AAEGMRN
(d) AAGEMNR
Ans: (b)
89. A person walks 8 km in the East direction. There form, he moves 5 km in the North-West direction. From that place he walks 6 km in the South direction. His last point will be in the direction……from starting point.
(a) West-North
(b) South-East
(c) North-East
(d) South-West
Ans: (b)
90. The number of students in a school increases and decreases by 10% respectively in every alternate year. If there was an increase in the year 2000, then in how much percentage what happened in the number of students in the year 2003 in comparison to year 2000.
(a) 9.8% decrease
(b) 9.8% increase
(c) 8.9% decrease
(d) 8.9% increase
Ans: (c)
91. Identify the Incorrect sentence : (in which the verb is not in agreement with the subject)
(a) Age and experience brings wisdom to man.
(b) The ship’s crew was a mixed group of different nationalities.
(c) Neither Y nor Z has any right to the property.
(d) When the ship arrived in part, the crew was taken into custody on a charge of mutiny.
92. Choose the correct set of English translation of the following Hindi Words : (in right order)
(a) Inflation; Increment; Transcription
(b) Deflation; Inscribe; Counter-Copy
(c) Decreased Income, Increment; Translation
(d) Currency decrease; Salary zenith; Copyist
93. The most suitable set of synonyms of the word ‘Generous’ is
(a) Gentle, Humble, Tender
(b) Stately, Dignified, Exalted
(c) Thankful, Grateful, Indebted
(d) Liberal, Bountiful, Magnanimous
94. The most suitable antonym of the word ‘Misanthropist’ is
(a) Disanthropist
(b) Philanthropist
(c) Anti misanthropist
(d) Amisanthropist
95. The most suitable ‘one word substitute’ of the following words are; (in right order); (a) fear of confined spaces; (b) a person who has an irresistible desire to steal.
(a) (a) spacephobia; (b) dipsomaniac
(b) (a) claustorphobia; (b) kelptomaniac
(c) (a) clastophobia; (b) theftomaniac
(d) (a) agoraphobia; (b) pyromaniac
96. Fill in the blanks using the correct tense (of the verb) :
When I …… (open) the door, I……. (see) a man on his knees. He…… (listen) to our conversation and I (wonder) how much he …….(hear)
(a) opens; sees; listen; wonder hears.
(b) opened; saw; had been listening; wondered; had heard
(c) open, see; listens; wondered; heard
(d) opened; saw; has been listening; wonder; has heard.
97. Choose one of the following sentences which is the correct Passive Voice of the sentence given below : (Do not mention the agent).
Active Voice You will have to pull down this skyscraper as you have not complied with the town planning regulation.
(a) This skyscraper building will be pulled down as the town planning regulations are not complied with
(b) This skyscraper will have to be pulled down as the town planning regulations have not been complied with.
(c) This skyscraper building has to be pulled down as the town planning regulations were not complied with.
(d) This skyscraper should be pulled down by you as you have not complied with the town planning regulation.
98. Choose a sentence with the correct Indirect form of Narration :
Direct “I will sell the TV set if you keep quarrelling about the programme”, said their mother. “No, don’t do that ! We will never quarrel”, said the children.
(a) Their mother told that the TV set will be sold if they keep quarrelling about the programme. The children forbade her to do that, saying that they will never quarrel.
(b) Their mother threatened to sell the TV set if they kept quarrelling about the programme. The children begged her not to do that assuring her that they would never quarrel.
(c) Their mother threatened that she should sell the TV set, if they kept quarrelling about the programme. The children requested her do not do this as we would never quarrel.
(d) Their mother said that she would sell the TV set, if you kept quarrelling about the programme. The children said, don’t do that as we would never quarrel.
99 Choose the correct set of articles of fill in the blanks : (Use ‘X’, if there is not article)
He said, “As…… matter of ……. fact, there was ….. explosion in ….. last house I visited; and Mr. Beans…… owner of…….house, was burnt in …….face.
(a) the; the; an; a; the; X; a;
(b) the; the; X; the; a; a; the
(c) a; X; an; the; the; the; the
(d) the; a; an; X; the; the; the
100. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct set of preposition:
……..mistake I opened Sylvia’s letter instead……..my own. She was very angry ….. me and said that I’d done it …… purpose
(a) By; of; with; on
(b) With; of; on; with
(c) By; of; on; with
(d) On; on; with; with
Answer: ()
101. I Nibble is equal to
(a) 8 bit
(b) 4 byte
(c) 16 bit
(d) 4 bit
102. Highest capacity of the storage are
(a) Zettabyte
(b) Terabyte
(c) Exabyte
(d) Yottabyte
103. The speed of modem is measured in which unit?
(a) GPS
(b) BPS
(c) CPS
(d) None of these
104. What is the full form of ISDN?
(a) Integrated Services Digital Network
(b) Integrated Switch Digital Network
(c) Input Switch Digital Network
(d) Input Service Digital Network
105. Which is the fastest memory?
(a) Auxiliary Memory
(b) Cache Memory
(c) CD ROM
(d) Hard Disk
106. Which key of the keyboard is mainly used to cancel the program?
(a) Esc key
(b) Del key
(c) Enter key
(d) Ins Key
107. Shortcut command for align the text in Centre
XLRI Entrance XAT 2016 Decision Making Question Paper and Answer Key
XAT (XLRI Entrance Test)
2016 Question Paper (Fully Solved)
XLRI Jamshedpur, School of Management
Decision Making
Directions (Qs. 1 & 2) : Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions.
The City of Yashmund is served by licensed taxis operating on officially sanctioned metered rates and driven by licensed drivers who do not own the taxis but pay a monthly rent to the taxi-owners. Shaliesh Nair,, the mayor of Yashmund, perceived that most of these taxis do not offer sufficient comfort and safety to passengers.
1. The Mayor wants the owners and drivers to are about comfort.
Which of the following decisions, IF TAKEN, is MOST LIKELY to increase the comfort levels of passengers?
(A) The mayor issues a guideline that taxies will be randomly inspected by the police for the comfort level.
(B) The mayor ensures banks grant drivers loans to own cars. Owner-driven cars generally offer greater comfort.
(C) The mayor introduces licensing of air-conditioned taxis which can charge increased rates to the rich customers.
(D) The mayor introduces a feedback system that records passenger satisfaction with comfort levels; this will affect renewal of annual taxi licence.
(E) The mayor permits doubling metered rates which will ensure enhanced income for owners to invest in greater comfort.
Ans: (D)
2. The mayor wants to involve the car owners in finding a solution to the problem of comfort and safety. he is concerned that the customers may not be willing to pay more for safety.
Which of the options be low is MOST LIKELY to convince the owners?
(A) The taxi owners who clear comfort-inspection can charge higher rentals from the drivers and drivers with impeccable safety record can charge the same from customers.
(B) The taxis that clear comfort inspection can charge 25% above the metered rates; studies have shown that customers are willing to pay around 18% extra for comfort.
(C) If a taxi owner has a consistent record of comfort and safety, the government will subsidise a second loan.
(D) Taxis can charge 25% more if they clear comfort-inspection. However, owners of the taxis found compromising on safety will be jailed.
(E) Taxis that pass comfort-inspection test can charge 25% more. Should they violate any traffic rule, this privilege would be withdrawn.
Ans: (D)
Directions (Qs. 3 & 4) : Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions:
Chatterjee, the MLA of Trikathapur, owes his election success to his close friend and businessman Ghosh. The victory had appeared unlikely for Chatterjee after the arrival of Bhowmick, a budding politician with hordes of money. However, his clean image along with Ghosh’s money ensured Chatterjee’s resounding victory.
3. After the elections, Ghosh requested Chatterjee to sanction the land adjoining his factory, for expansion. However, the requested government land was a green belt reducing harmful pollution from the factory.
(A) Chatterjee should approve the sale only after Ghosh plants a large number of frees around the factory and the city.
(B) Chatterjee should oblige Ghosh provided he recruits 20 logcals as his employees on condition that they plant and maintain a tree each in their locality.
(C) As Ghosh is paying market rates Chatterjee should approve the sale with no riders.
(D) Chatterjee should approve the sale and ensure that the green belt is shifted to a different tract of land outside the city, purchased from the proceeds of the sale.
(E) Chatterjee should unconditionally approve the transfer of the land to Ghosh as a token of gratitude.
Ans: (A)
4. Inspired by Bhowmick’s manifesto, Chatterjee is contemplating a green policy which can adversely affect Ghosh’s business interests. Which of the following actions form Ghosh is likely to convince Chatterjee NOT to pursue this policy?
(A) Request Chatterjee to defer implementation of the green policy by years, the time needed to make his factory green.
(B) Remind Chatterjee that it is for his clean image that people voted him and not for Bhowmick’s green policy.
(C) Warn Chatterjee that all industrialists will turn against him and despite his clean image he may be hated by the industry.
(D) Appeal to Chatterjee’s sympathy citing the potential loss his business will suffer if the policy were to be implemented.
(E) Threaten Chatterjee that he should not take his loyalty for granted as Bhowmick has invited him to join his party.
Ans: (B)
Directions (Qs. 5 to 7) : Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions.
Indian Institute of Research is a Government-established body to promote research. In addition to helping in policy-making, it also provides free online access to all the articles to the public. It has a mission of publishing high-quality research articles. Till 2010, the publication of articles was very slow because there was no incentive for researchers to publish. Researchers stuck to the mandatory one article a year. Most of the researchers engaged in offering consultancy and earned extra income. Since its inception, the institute was considered the best place for cutting-edge research. The new director of the institute was not happy with the work done by researchers in silo and came out with a new research policy in 2013 to increase research output and improve collaboration among researchers. It was decided that extra benefits should be offered to researchers with new publications. As a result, the number of research articles increased fourfold in 2014. At the 2015 annual audit, an objection was raised against the new benefits scheme. Auditors were not happy with increased expenses towards remuneration for researchers. Further, the Government opined that the publication was itself a reward and hence researchers need be paid nothing extra. The director tried to defend his policy but the response from the Government was not encouraging.
Note :Auditor’s role is to verify accounts.
5. The following facts were observed by an analytics team hired by the government to study the extant situation.
1. There was a fourfold increase in the number of researchers leaving the organization in 2014.
2. A researcher died while on duty.
3. The quality of articles published declined substantially.
4. The average number of people accessing an article decreased by 2%.
Which of the following options would justify the government’s intention to DISCONTINUE the scheme?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) 4 only
(E) 3 and 4
Ans: (C)
6. The director still wanted to persuade the government to review its stand. he had framed the following arguments :
1. Most famous researchers in the world are also the highest paid.
2. American Institute of Research gives extra benefits to its scientists.
3. This year’s highest paid researcher had won the Noble Prize last year.
Considering the Government to be reasonable which of the following options is UNLIKELY to convince the Government?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
(E) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (E)
7. The director wanted to promote good decision-making at Indian Institute of Research. A few trusted colleagues offered the following suggestions:
1. Auditors need not be allowed to object to extra benefits schemes.
2. Auditors need not pin-point sudden increase in expenditure.
3. Auditors need not be consulted before taking any policy-level decision.
Which of the following combination of options should the director agree THE MOST with?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
(E) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Directions (Qs. 8 & 9) : Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions :
Kamal Chinnappa, Vimal Rao, Ganesh Krishnan and Dinesh Kumar own a saloon each on the Barbil street. They are the only hairdressers on that street. Each of them offered three services viz. haircut, shaving and hair-dye. One evening, all four of them met in a nearby tea-stall and agreed to charge Rs. 100 for any of the three services (haircut, shave and hair-dye) on weekdays. They also agreed to increase this rate to Rs. 115 on weekends and holidays. All verbally decided to implement the agreement.
8. The following day Kamal, being the most competent hairdresser on the street, was contemplating charging higher than agreed upon price.
Which of the following would enable him to charge more with minimal violate of the agreement?
(A) He should introduce a new and specialized service at Rs. 130.
(B) He should open another shop on the same street and charge Rs. 150.
(C) He should charge Rs. 130 for those wanting to jump the queue.
(D) He should charge Rs. 115 for a service to a particular customer and give the next service free.
(E) He should open his shop two hours before others and close it two hours after.
Ans: (A)
9. Vimal relies heavily on a bunch of loyal customers. He is concerned about retaining them.
Which of the following options should he choose if he does not want to violate the agreement?
(A) He should charge differential rates for loyal customers
(B) He should charge the loyal customers lower.
(C) He should make every third visit free for this loyal customers.
(D) He should charge all the agreed upon price.
(E) He should allow his loyal customers to jump the queue.
Ans: (E)
Directions (Qs. 10 to 12) Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions:
Six people working at the Bengaluru office of Simsys are planning to buy flats at a real estate project at Whitefield. Their preferences are listed below:
Person
Designation
First Preference
Second Preference
Third Preference
Bhatia
Vice President
Ground floor flat
Price < Rs. 50 lac.
Shopping mall within 5 km.
Patel
Client Relationship Manager
Distance to office < 10 km
Recreation Club
Khan
Project Manager
Recreation Club
Place for morning walk
Car parking
Singh
Senior Software Engineer
Shopping mall within 15 km
Price < Rs. 30 lac
Place for morning walk
Yadav
Assistant software Engineer
Price < Rs. 50 lac
Distance to office < 10 km.
Lingdo
Assistant Software Engineer
Recreation Club
They have identified 7 real estate projects with following facilities available (marked with √):
Real Estate Project
M
N
O
P
Q
R
S
Price
Rs. 60-80 lac
Rs. 45-50 lac
Rs. 20-25 l;ac
Rs. 65-80 lac
Rs. 35-45 lac
Rs. 25-40 lac
Rs. 20-30 lac
Distance to office
< 5 km
< 10 km
> 20 km
> 15 km
< 2 km
< 10 km
< 5 km
Place for morning walk
√
√
√
√
√
√
Recreation Club
√
√
√
Distance to shopping mall
Inside
> 25 km
< 2 km
Inside
< 5 km
> 10 km.
> 20 km
Car parking facility
√
√
√
√
Availability of ground floor flat
√
√
A person ‘satisfied’ if a project meets all three preferences.
10. Identify the project(s) where NONE of the 6 persons will be ‘satisfied’.
(A) M only
(B) N only
(C) P only
(D) N and P only
(E) In all projects at least one person will be ‘satisfied’.
Ans: (C)
11. Identify the project(s), where AT LEAST 3 of the 6 persons will be ‘satisfied’.
(A) M only
(B) S only
(C) Q and R only
(D) M, Q and S only
(E) M, Q and R only
Ans: (D)
12. The marketing managers of all the six projects have agreed to add a recreation club and a car parking facility to the projects. In this changed scenario identify projects where AT MOST 2 of the 6 persons will NOT he ‘satisfied’?
(A) N, Q and R only
(B) P only
(C) M and P only
(D) N and P only
(E) M, N and P only
Ans: (A)
Directions (Qs. 13 to 15) : Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions :
Purushottam Bhatnagar owns and operates a sweet shop Puru and Sons. He is about 60 years old and is eager to hand over the business to his sons Ratan and Pramod. He, however, fears that his sons, fresh from college may not understand the tricks of the trade.
13. Purushottam sends a batch of sweets to the Police station across the street every day. Ratan construed it as bribe and wanted to stop this practice.
(A) In the last three years, three attempts to burgle Puru and Sons were effectively foiled by the Police.
(B) Each policeman receives only two pieces of sweet, too small to be considered a bribe.
(C) The police in return send two policemen in mufti to mingle with the customers during rush hours to prevent pickpockets.
(D) Every day, Purushottam also sends a batch of sweets to the school next to the station, an orphanage nearby and the temple at the end of the street.
(E) Purushottam’s competitor Uttampurush who runs a sweetshop in the same street and his neighbour Mahapurush who runs a samosa stall, both do similar things every day.
Ans: (D)
14. Purushottam’s eldest son discovered that the shop repackaged sweets that were close to expiry and sold them at a discount under different names. These sweets usually get sold very fast. But his son was concerned about the possible consequences of this practice.
Purushottam was thinking of the following arguments to convince his son.
1. These sweets are consumed the same day and therefore there is no cause for worry.
2. Reduced prices give enough indication about the sweets to the customers.
3. These products are preferred by those who cannot afford full price and in a way, this is a service done to them.
4. In the past 30 years not a single person has reported ill because of consumption of these sweets.
5. Repackaging and selling sweets is a common practice.
Which combination of arguments below is MOST LIKELY to convince Ratan?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 5
(E) 4 and 5
Ans: (B)
15. Purushottam’s younger son Pramod discovered that 10% of their customers who Purushotam called privileged customers purchased sweets at prices fixed 10 years ago (which is significantly lower than the current prices). Purushottam told him, “this 10% are my core and loyal customers with whom I have personal connect and therefore they deserve this privilege”, Pramod refuted his father’s argument citing the following information.
1. These customers form the top 20% of the income bracket of the city.
2. These customers frequently purchase from other sweetshops at market prices.
3. None of t hem recognizes and greets Purushottam at the shop or anywhere else.
4. None of the tem was present at Pramod’s marriage.
5. These customers actually buy sweets at Puru and Sons for others not part of the core and loyal customer group.
Which of the following combination of the above will MOST LIKELY convince Purushottam to charge market price to all?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 5
(D) 3 and 4
(E) 4 and 5
Ans: (C)
Directions (Qs. 16 to 18) : Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions :
Recently a private food testing agency reported the presence of a harmful chemical in Crunchy Chips, a product of a fast-moving consumer goods giant. The report sparked a nationwide outcry.
16. Rajan nShekawat, the CEO of the company, feared this incident might affect the company’s image among consumers. Rajan had the following options :
1. Apologising publicly for this inconvenience and immediately withdrawing the products from all stores.
2. Communicate the correct findings’ to the public.
3. Hire a reputed independent testing agency to verify the claims of the report.
4. Establish internal mechanisms to prevent repetition of such incidences in future.
5. Give higher incentives to distributors and retailers for selling the company brands.
Which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE ORDER of options for Rajan, starting from the immediate?
(A) 3, 1, 5
(B) 3, 2, 4
(C) 1, 3, 5
(D) 1, 2, 5
(E) 5, 3, 2
Ans: (B)
17. Mukesh Routray, a shopkeeper in a remote village was surprised to read in the newspaper, his only source of information, about harmful chemical in Crunchy Chips. He had stocked a large quantity of Crunchy Chips for the forthcoming festive season. He also r3ealised that people in his village are completely unaware of this controversy. He had the following options :
1. Sell the entire stock at a discount before the news spreads.
2. Destroy the entire stock and advise customers not to buy this product from other shops as well.
3. Donate the entire stock of Crunchy Chips to a local orphanage.
4. Inform customers about the controversy but understate it seriousness.
5. Ignore the news and sell the stock in the forthcoming festive season as planned.
6. Explore the veracity of the report and then take decision.
If arranged from ethical to unethical, which of the following is DEFINITELY the WRONG order?
(A) 6, 5, 1
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 5, 1
(D) 2, 4, 3
(E) 2, 4, 1
Ans: (B)
18. An independent and trustworthy confidante of Rajan Shekhawat, the CEO of the company, informed him that one of their main competitors had bribed the food testing agency to manipulate the report.
Which of the following actions will BEST help CrunchyChips to bounce back?
(A) Proclaim over the media that their product is completely safe.
(B) Secretly hire a food testing agency to ascertain the quality of the competitor’s product.
(C) Hire another food testing agency to test and communicate the outcome to the consumers.
(D) File a defamation case against the competitor for their alleged involvement in the conspiracy.
(E) File a defamation case against the food testing agency.
Ans: (E)
Direction (Qs. 19 to 20) : Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions :
Nicky, Manoj and Benita are graduates from a top-ranked B-School. They joined ABC Corporation a year ago. ABC is known for its performance-oriented culture. This is the first time the organization recruited from a top-ranked B-School. They are part of a five-member team with two others from lower-ranked B-Schools. Nicky, Manoj and Benita draw 40 percent higher salaries than other team members. This team reports to Amelia Ganeshmurthi, a senior executive.
19. Amelia is disappointed with the performance of Nicky, Manoj and Benita. She came to know that ABC was not their first choice and they had spent the first ten months applying to other organizations. However, they have not started liking ABC and promised to do their best hence forth. Amelia has to rate their annual performance and decide about their future. She has the following choices:
1. Fir them from ABC for insincerity and save the organization’s time and money.
2. Give them average ratings with a year to prove their worth and fire them from ABC, if they fail to show significant progress.
3. Impose a pay-cut of 15% since they have not delivered on the promise, but give them relatively high ratings.
4. Give them relatively poor ratings with one-year time to improve and fire them from ABC if they fail to show significant progress.
5. Give them high ratings and give them a second chance to prove their worth.
Which of the following options rank the above choices in the order of MOST APPROPRIATE to LEAST APPROPRIATE?
(A) 1, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4
(C) 4, 2, 3
(D) 4, 3, 1
(E) 5, 2, 3
Ans: (C)
20. Recruiting Nicky, Manoj and Benita was part of a larger initiative to make the organization attractive to prospective employees, Recently, Amelia’s boos informally told her that the trio’s perception of the organization might influence future recruitment from to B-Schools. However, the trio had already expressed their unhappiness about the organization to Amelia. She suspected that her promotion due next year might depend on the trio!
Which of the following is the BEST way for Amelia to deal with this situations?
(A) Henceforth, she should be lenient with the trio.
(B) She should promise the trio an early promotion if they can help her recruit good talent from top B-Schools.
(C) Henceforth, she should occasionally invite the trio for dinner and informal outings.
(D) She should tell her boss that it is unfair to link her promotion to the trio’s behaviour.
(E) She should convey the trio’s unhappiness to her boss.
Ans: (E)
21. Nicky’s performance on the job is disappointing though she is considered a very helpful person outside the workplace helping her teammates and others in the organization with their personal needs, e.g. finding a place to rent, a good place to get homely food, etc. On the other hand, Manoj and Benita are performing well in their respective jobs and are perceived by their teammates as important to the team. But they are not interested in helping outside the workplace. Amelia has to decide the future of the trio. She has the following options :
1. Inform the higher authorities about Nicky’s poor performance and ask them to take a call.
2. Send Nicky for a one-month training earmarked for top-performing employees.
3. Serve Nicky an ultimatum to improve within the next six months or get fired.
4. Even though they performed well, give Manoj and Benita average ratings because of their disinterest in helping outside workplace.
5. Give Manoj and Benita high ratings based on their performance.
Which of the following combination of above options will be the MOST APPROPRIATE?
(A) 1 and 5
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 5
(D) 3 and 4
(E) 3 and 5
Ans: (E)
Directions (Qs. 22 & 23): Analyze the following caselet and answer these questions :
Geetha Gawde can cultivate up to 6 crops a year. Crop A and B are ready for harvest in 2 moths; crop C and D in 3 months, and crop E and F in 4 months. Crop A can be cultivated from January to June; crop B can be cultivated from April to September, crop C can be cultivat3ed from May to December, crops D as well as E can be cultivated from August to December, and crop F from November to May. If Geetha plans a change of crop, the soil should be left fallow for one month; however, if the same crop is sown, no fallow time is needed. Sowing takes place only at the beginning of a month. Geetha can only harvest a maximum of 1000 units of any crop at any poit in time. The production cost per unit (incurred at the time of sowing) and price per unit of crop are as follows :
Crop
Production cost per unit crop (in USD)
Price per unit crop (in USD)
A
B
C
D
D
F
20
5
25
15
5
35
60
55
70
75
65
15
For Geetha soil preparation does not incur any cost. If a crop is abandoned before the scheduled harvesting, she gets no money. Geetha is preparing a cropping schedule to maximize her annual profits (i.e. price-cost). She plans to replicate the schedule in the coming years.
22. Which of the following would DEFINITELY be a part of the ideal schedule?
(A) Cultivate crop B in August or September.
(B) Cultivate crop B from April to September.
(C) Do not cultivate any crop in August but cultivate crop D in September
(D) Cultivate crop D or crop E in August or September.
(E) Do not cultivate any crop in August; but cultivate crop D or crop E in September.
Ans: (C)
23. Which of the following schedules would maximize her annual profit while minimizing the costs, if Geetha decides NOT to repeat a crop in a calendar year?
Management Aptitude Test (MAT) Examination 2016 English Comprehension Question Paper with Answer Key
Management Aptitude Test (MAT)
2016 Question Paper (Fully Solved)
Conducted By All India Management Association
English Comprehension
Passage I
The Bermuda Triangle, also known as the Devil Triangle, is a region of the north western Atlantic Ocean in which a number of aircraft and surface vessels have disappeared. Some people have claimed that these disappearances fall beyond the boundaries of human error or acts of nature. Some of these disappearances have been attributed to the paranormal, a suspension of the laws of physics, or activity by extraterrestrial beings by popular culture. Though a substantial documentation exists showing numerous incidents to have been inaccurately reported or embellished by later authors, and numerous official agencies have gone on record as stating the number and nature of disappearances to be similar to any other area of ocean, many have remained unexplained despite considerable investigation. The boundaries of the Triangle vary with the author; some stating its shape is akin to a trapezoid covering the Straits of Florida, the Bahamas, and the entire Caribbean island area east to the Azores; others add to it the Gulf of Mexico. The more familiar, triangular boundary in most written works has as its points somewhere on the Atlantic coast of Florida; San Juan, Puerto Rico; and the mid-Atlantic island of Bermuda, with most of the accidents concentrated along the southern boundary around the Bahamas and the Florida Straits. The area is one of the most heavily-sailed shipping lanes in the world, with ships crossing through it daily for ports in the Americas, Europe, and the Caribbean Islands. Cruise ships are also plentiful and pleasure craft regularly go back and forth between Florida and the islands. It is also a heavily flown route for commercial and private aircraft heading towards Florida, the Caribbean, and South America from points north. Sudden storms can and do appear, and in the summer to late fall hurricanes strike the area. The combination of heavy maritime traffic and tempestuous weather makes it inevitable that vessels could flounder in storms and be lost without a trace-especially before improved telecommunication, radar, and satellite technology arrived late in the 20the century.
1. What is strange about vessels disappearing from the area called Bermuda triangle?
(1) Only vessels have disappeared and no other transport vehicles.
(2) The disappearance is out of the realms of human error and nature’s acts.
(3) Only big vessels have disappeared from this area.
(4) Any mode of transport passing through this area disappears.
Ans : (2)
2. What is the main purpose to writing the passage?
(1) The author wants to create a fear in the minds of his readers.
(2) It’s a story on a fictitious topic.
(3) A simple article on Bermuda Triangle.
(4) To warn people before going on the route.
Ans : (3)
3. What does the word ‘embellished’ mean?
(1) Changed
(2) Delayed
(3) Enhanced
(4) Decorated
Ans : (3)
4. Most of the disappearances at Bermuda Triangle have occurred in which area ?
(1) Mid-Atlantic island of Bahamas.
(2) Atlantic coast of Florida.
(3) San Juan, Puerto Rico
(4) Southern Bahamas and Florida Straits
Ans : (4)
Passage II
The Indian Economy is expected to grow by over eight percent per annum until 2020. It can become the second largest in the world, ahead of the United States, by 2050 and the third largest after China and the US by 2032. However, industry experts believe this target would be difficult to achieve without the active participation of the Small and Medium Enterprises (SMFs). At present, the SME sector contributes around 15 to 16 percent to India’s GDP and is expected to touch a figure to 22 percent in the next three years. However, a lot is expected and much needs to be done if the figure needs to be achieved. Nearly 60 percent of the SMEs in India fall in the unorganized sector. Once this untapped potential becomes the source for growth of these units, the size of Indian GDP can surpass that of the developed nations. The SME sector at times fails on achieving its full potential due to lack of direction. A small entrepreneur faces several difficulties including access to finance to expand their operation. In addition, the loans that they get are not on preferential rates but are available around 15-18 percent rate of interest which adds to their cost of operation. In several Asian countries, loans are available on interest as low as three percent annually. India should take such steps. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) offers loans to SMEs without collateral to the tune of around Rs. 1 crore. However, many are of the opinion that this limit needs to be increased to Rs. 2.5 crore. The government is also taking several steps to boost manufacturing sector growth as it would lead to job creation and boost the country’s economy. At present the SMEs share in the manufacturing sector is just to the tune of around seven percent. This is a very important sector and creates lot of employment opportunities both directly and indirectly. The Central Government on its part has also set up National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council to suggest ways to enhance competitiveness in the Manufacturing sector. The government has already announced a National Manufacturing Policy that aims at raising share of manufacturing to 25 percent of GDP by 2022.
5. What is the target of the Indian Economy?
(1) Active participation of SME.
(2) Organization of SME.
(3) Growth by 8% per annum until 2020.
(4) Decrease the interest rate on loan.
Ans : (3)
6. The growth of manufacturing sector would
(1) boost the country’s economy.
(2) surpass the GDP of developed nations.
(3) fail on achieving its full potential.
(4) set up National Manufacturing Competitive Council.
Ans : (1)
7. According to the passage, SME sector
(1) doesn’t lead to job creation.
(2) plays a vital role in the growth of Indian economy.
(3) is a setback to manufacturing sector.
(4) provides loans on preferential rates.
Ans : (2)
8. What step can be taken by the Indian Government to enhance the potential of Indian economy?
(1) Provide loans on interest as low as 3% per year.
(2) Shift focus to other sectors.
(3) Decrease competitiveness in manufacturing sector.
(4) Ban small entrepreneurship.
Ans : (1)
Passage III
Sugar lowering drugs prescribed to patients with diabetes may pose an increased risk of heart failure in these patients, a comprehensive study examining 95,000 patients has claimed. Dr. Jacob Udell, the study’s principal investigator, states patients randomized to new or more intensive blood sugar lowering drugs or strategies to manage diabetes showed an overall 14% increased risk for heart failure. This increased risk was directly associated with the type of diabetes therapy that was chosen, with some drugs more likely to cause heart attack than others, compared with placebo or standard care. While some drugs showed n increased risk, other strategies tested, such as intensive weight loss to control blood sugar, showed a trend towards a lower risk for heart failure. Overall the study found that for every one kilogram of weight gain attributed to a sugar lowering diabetes medication or strategy, there was an associated 7% increased risk of heart failure directly linked to that medication strategy. The results of this study could prove to be the catalyst for how diabetes patients at risk for heart disease are managed moving forward. The study reviewed and analyzed data from 14 trails involving 95,502 patients. Four percent of patients suffered a heart failure event while being followed in the individual trails, while 9.8 of patients in the study endured a major adverse cardiovascular event. The relative increase in the risk of heart failure outweighed a 5% reduction in heart attacks. The numbers show that for about every 200 patients treated, one additional hospital admission for heart failure was seen after an average of 4 years of follow-up. Heart failure events are common occurrences for patients with Type 2 diabetes and have a major impact on one’s life expectancy and quality of life as well as representing a major driver of health-care costs.
9. What primary issue is being discussed in the passage?
(1) Types of diabetes therapy & drugs.
(2) Intensive weight loss in patients.
(3) Treatment of 92,502 patients.
(4) Increasing risk of cardiovascular event due to diabetic drugs.
Ans : (4)
10. Who is the principal investigator of the study ?
(1) The Lancet Diabetes & Endocrinology.
(2) Dr. Michael Farkouh.
(3) Dr. Jacob Udell.
(4) Dr. Barry Rubib.
Ans : (3)
11. Sugar controlling drugs can increase the risk of heart failure by_____.
(1) 9.8%
(2) 14%
(3) 5%
(4) 7%
Ans : (2)
12. According to the study, the increased cardiovascular risk is directly associated with
(1) blood sugar level.
(2) diabetes drugs and therapy.
(3) weight gain attribution.
(4) None of these
Ans : (3)
Passage IV
Antibiotic resistance data from four big hospitals is being studied and analyzed for the first time in India to help forecast drug resistance patterns that may surface in future. The Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) has been on the resistance trail since last year. It had set up six nodal centres at four hospitals – two at PGI, Chandigarh, and Christian Medical College, Vellore, and one each at All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in Delhi and JIPMER , Puducherry. The ICMR’s antimicrobial surveillance and research network has been tracking resistance patterns of six pathogens causing diarrhoea, typhoid, fungal infections and infections that patients acquire in hospitals. “We initiated these projects in early 2014 and we are now analyzing the first year’s data. We did not have a national representative data on pathogens that cause 80% of infections It is important to get a handle on what is the drug resistance prevalence in these six pathogenic group,” said Dr. Kamini Walia from the division of Epidemiology and Communicable Diseases, ICMR. The data will be used to forecast the drug resistance pattern to guide clinicians, she added. There is alarm over rising resistance to antibiotics in India, largely attributed to their indiscriminate use to treat routine infections like cough, cold and fever and their over-the-counter availability. Using antibiotics inappropriately, such as stopping the dosage midcourse has added to the resistance. There are broad estimates and observations so far- resistance to carbapenem (the strongest class of antibiotics) is 50-60% and in the case of acenotobacter (a hospital bug) seen among ICU patients, the resistance is 70-80%. However, there is no accurate resistance data, with most hospitals not reporting such figures, fearing an impact on patients footfall. “The project would help design a standard treatment guideline and physicians will be able to decide what antibiotic should be given”, Dr. Walia said. The surveillance and research network will expand to 15 more hospitals across the country, which will feed their data into these centres that will in turn map the resistance pattern. “In India, there are no statistics. Anyone who comes to the clinic or OPD is not tested for microbiological examination. A test is conducted only in the case of in-patients”, V. Balaji, Head to Microbiology, CMC, Vellore said. Though there is an antibiotic policy in place since 2012, official said that surveys have revealed the compliance was only in a few hospitals.
13. The study conducted in various hospitals will
(1) divide epidemiology and communicable diseases.
(2) be used to forecast the drug resistance patterns.
(3) help to set up six nodal centers.
(4) be used for microbiological examination.
Ans : (2)
14. The study on antibiotic resistance was initiated in
(1) 2011
(2) 2014
(3) 2010
(4) 2012
Ans : (2)
15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
I. The project would help design a standard treatment guideline.
II. The research will cover 15 more hospitals in India.
III. There is no antibiotic policy in India.
IV. Rising resistance to antibiotics is a matter of concern in India.
(1) I & II are not true
(2) III & IV are not true
(3) Only I is not true
(4) Only III is not true
Ans : (4)
16. Which disease is not covered in the research ?
(1) Diarrhoea
(2) Heart disease
(3) Typhoid
(4) Fungal infections
Ans : (2)
Passage V
India has managed to woo China for additional supplies of Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine for expansion of the government’s immunization programme. However, Indian may have to pay more for the additional supplies, official sources said. China has earlier refused to supply more vaccines to India than what is being supplied, citing capacity constraints and commitments to other countries. “Problems have been taken care of. They have agreed for the additional supplies. We are comfortable on that issue. But still much more is needed as we would like to take more stocks (JE Vaccine). We are in continuous dialogue with them”, said Union Minister J. P. Nadda. Nadda, who left for China to attend International Interministerial Conference on Population and Development, said the two countries need to discuss and deliberate on the health issues before Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s upcoming visit to Beijing. P. M. Modi is expected to visit China around May-June 2015. According to official sources, trade of pharmaceuticals between the two countries is going to be one of the key issues on the agenda. India’s overdependence on key vaccines and mainly for sourcing of raw material used in medicines has become a cause of concern for the government. Though India itself is a major producer of generic medicines, it imports more than 80% bulk drugs or active pharmaceutical ingredients (API), used in medicines formulations, from China. Even intelligence agencies have warned that overdependence on China on such medicine can cause severe shortage in India. On the other hand, non-trade barriers have held back Indian drug companies from exporting formulations to the Chinese market. Now the government is trying to support the democratic pharmaceutical industry to rebuild API clusters and start manufacturing of key vaccines in public sector enterprises to avoid a crisis.
17. Why does India need additional supply of Japanese Encephalitis vaccine?
(1) To control population and development.
(2) To discuss on health issues.
(3) For expansion of immunization programme.
(4) To help drug companies.
Ans : (3)
18. What will be the agenda of PM Modi’s visit to China?
(1) A dialogue with J.P. Nadda.
(2) International Interministerial Conference.
(3) Non-trade barriers on drug companies.
(4) Pharmaceutical trade with China.
Ans : (4)
19. What is the matter of concern for India ?
(1) India’s overdependence on China for vaccines.
(2) Visit of PM Modi to China in May-June 2015.
(3) Continuous dialogue between India & China.
(4) Production of low cost generic medicines.
Ans : (1)
20. What is being done by Indian Government to avoid the crisis?
(1) India is paying a huge amount of money to China.
(2) International Conference is being organized by J.P. Nadda.
(3) India is supporting key vaccines manufacturing in public sector.
(4) None of these.
Ans : (3)
Directions (Qs. 21-24) : In each of these questions, choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
21. The Roman Emperor was in the wrong who ordered on e of his subject executed because the latter dreamt that he killed the Emperor. He should first have endeavoured to discover the significance of the dream. And even if a dream of different content had the significance of this offence against majesty, he should have remembered that the virtuous man contents himself with dreaming that which a wicked man does in actual life.
(1) The content of dreams corresponds to harmless psychic states and does not constitute reality.
(2) The content of dreams corresponds to harmless psychic states and does not constitute reality but only a release mechanism for man to feel better.
(3) The content of dreams corresponds to harmful psychic states and does not constitute reality but only a release mechanism for a man to feel better.
(4) The content of dreams does not correspond to psychic states and does not constitute reality but only a release mechanism for a man to feel better.
Ans : (2)
22. By this work “light would be thrown on the origin of man and his history;” and this implies that man must be included with other organic beings in any general conclusion respecting his manner of appearance on this earth. Now the case wears as wholly different aspect.
(1) Man must be included with other organic beings in any general conclusion respecting his manner of appearance on this earth.
(2) Man need not be included with other inorganic beings in any general conclusion respecting his manner of appearance on this earth.
(3) Man must be included with other organic beings.
(4) Man must be excluded from other organic beings in any general conclusions respecting manner of appearance on this earth.
Ans : (1)
23. The sole object of this work is to consider, first, whether man, like every other species, is descended from some pre-existing form; secondly, the manner of his development; and thirdly, the value of the differences between the so-called race of man.
(1) The work seems to locate whether man is descended from some pre-existing form.
(2) The work will not locate whether man is descended from some preexisting form, but the manner of his development.
(3) The work seems to locate whether man is descended from gods, the manner of his development, and the value of the differences between the so-called races of mammals.
(4) The work seems to locate whether man is descended from some preexisting form, the manner of his development, and the value of the differences between the so-called races of man.
Ans : (4)
24. The sense of smell is of the highest importance to the greater number of mammals. But the sense of smell is of extremely slight service, if any, even to the dark coloured races of men, in whom it is much more highly developed than in the white and civilized races. M. Houzeau asserts that he repeatedly made experiments, and proved that Negroes Africans could recognize persons in the dark by their odour.
(1) Sense of smell, as experiments have shown, is directly related to the colour of the skin and the darker the skin, the greater the sense will be.
(2) Sense of smell, as experiments have shown, is not related to the colour of the skin at all.
(3) Sense of smell, as experiments have shown, is directly related to the colour of the skin and the darker the skin, the lesser the sense will be.
(4) Sense of smell, theory suggests, is directly related to race and the darker the skin, the lesser the sense will be.
Ans : (1)
Directions (Qs. 25-27) : Fill in the blanks.
25. We ________ to inform you that we cannot include your thesis in our library, on the _____ of not receiving permissions from your supervisor.
(1) saddened, reason
(2) repent, justification
(3) lament, pretext
(4) regret, ground
Ans : (4)
26. When her illness took a turn for the worse, the doctors took _____ to ___ the situation.
(1) steps, ameliorate
(2) modes, improve
(3) approaches, better
(4) measures, enhance
Ans : (1)
27. The public relations agency _____ out all the stops to ensure a _____ attendance at the gala.
(1) gave, phenomenal
(2) pulled, spectacular
(3) took, marvellous
(4) forked, staggering
Ans : (2)
Directions (Qs. 28-31) : Each of these question has a group of sentences marked A, B, C, D and E. Arrange these to form a logical sequence.
28. A. Drupada says, “In the past we were equals. Now we are not. So we cannot be friends. Do not ask for wealth as if it is your right. Ask for charity and I shall consider.”
B. The Mahabharata tells story of two childhood friends who always share what they have and promise to do so even when they are grown up.
C. Drona, in desperate poverty, visits his rich friend, reminds Drupada of his childhood promise and demands wealth.
D. This comment angers Drona and he swears to teach Drupada a lesson by becoming an equal.
E. One friend, Drupada, grows up to be rich king and the other, Drona, remains a poor priest.
(1) ACEBD
(2) BECAD
(3) EDCAB
(4) BCDEA
Ans : (2)
29. A. But as emotions give way to cold calculation sand analyses, two points are emerging powerfully.
B. One, there’s no reason for India to be paranoid as the economics of outsourcing is too compelling for American companies and the US government can do little to stem it.
C. Two, Indian companies should increase their employee strength in the US with more locals, a strategy that come companies have already said they would adopt.
D. This will help to calm American nerves, and also eventually make Indian companies a more global force with a better understanding of the US market.
E. India reacted strongly to the US increase in work visa costs and the Ohio governor’s statements against offshoring.
(1) DEBAC
(2) ABECD
(3) EABCD
(4) ABCDE
Ans : (3)
30. A. With her first child, a girl, she went on maternity leave a month before the birth, which was paid for by her employer.
B. When she had her son she waited until the day she went into labour to stop work and paid for the caesarean section herself.
C. Han Mei knew when she fell pregnant for the second time that she was facing on extortionate fine, a salary drop and even the loss of her job for having flouted China’s infamous one-called policy.
D. The risks Han faced were severe and she said, “ Anyone who illegally gave birth to a second child would be punished, and the penalties would be dismissal from school, a downgrade in wages or a fine.”
E. The ‘population control law’ that limits many in China to one child in a bid to improve people’s lives marks its own 30th birthday on Saturday, having been formally implemented in 1980.
(1) ACDEB
(2) ADBEC
(3) CABDE
(4) CABED
Ans : (3)
31. A. It occurs widely in the tropics including continental USA and increasingly in southern China and almost 100 other countries.
B. Unlike malaria, dengue is just as prevalent in the urban districts of its range as in rural areas.
C. It is also known as ‘breakbone fever’. since it can be extremely painful.
D. Dengue fever and dengue haemorrhagic fever (DHF) are acute febrile diseases transmitted by mosquitoes, which occur in the tropics, can be life-threatening, and are caused by four closely related virus serotypes of the genus Flavivirus, family Flaviviridae.
E. The mosquitoes that spread dengue usually bite at dusk and dawn but may bite at any time during the day, especially indoors, in shady areas, or when the weather is cloudy.
(1) DCABE
(2) DBECA
(3) EDCBA
(4) CDEAB
Ans : (1)
Directions (Qs. 32-34): Rearrange the letters of the jumbled word and select the word which is opposite in meaning to the rearranged word.
32. ADETIGAT
(1) fearful
(2) serene
(3) angry
(4) lazy
Ans : (2)
33. OCTNENIN
(1) sharp
(2) smart
(3) guilty
(4) crime
Ans : (3)
34. CNUINOSFO
(1) clarity
(2) simple
(3) bold
(4) easy
Ans : (1)
Directions (Qs. 35-37) : Identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of correct usage of standard written English.
35. (1) John said that he will visit me now.
(2) John said that he will visit me then.
(3) John said that he would visit me now.
(4) John said that he would visit me then.
Ans : (4)
36. (1) Excess knowledge is a dangerous thing.
(2) Excessive knowledge is a dangerous thing.
(3) A little knowledge is a dangerous thing.
(4) A less knowledge is a dangerous thing.
Ans : (3)
37. (1) His house consists three bed rooms and a toilet.
(2) His house comprises of three bed rooms and a toilet.
(3) His house comprises three bed rooms and a toilet.
(4) His house consists with three bed rooms and a toilet.
Ans : (3)
Directions (Qs. 38-40) : Rearrange the jumbled alphabets in the following four options and find the odd word among them.
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
0
0
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
11938.22638
(in Acres.)
2.95
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
8313
Whether the School at one site or two site
TWO
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
4156
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
10
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
10
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
then 
hours a day can do a work in 60 days. If one man works equal to 2 boys, then the number of boys required to help 21 men to do twice the work in 50 days working 9 hours a day will be:
The difference of their circumferences is 22 cm. What is the sum of the diameters of the two circles?
net 30; and the credit term offered, for the second item is 3/5, 2/15, net 30. The declared purchase coast of item 1 is Rs. 60,000 and that of item 2 is Rs. 1,40,000. If both credits can be settled on the 14th day, what will be the total amount to be paid out?
II. y2 – 169 = 0
At the end of year he earns Rs. 800. The amount given at 8% rate will be
per annum the compound interest is Rs. 510. What will be the simple interest is Rs. 510. What will be the simple interest on same amount for the same period at the same rate of interest?
will be
