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BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key

June 29, 2023June 28, 2023 by suresh84

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2021

PART-I

PHYSICS

1. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle of ABCDA as shown in the p-V diagram.

The work done during the cycle is

(a) pV

(b) 2pV

(d) zero

Answer: (a)

2. The initial speed of a body of mass 2.0 kg is 5 m/s. A force acts for 4 s in the direction of motion of the body, as shown in force-time graph. The impulse of force is

(a) 8.50 Ns

(b) 8 Ns

(d) 6 Ns

Answer: (a)

3. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in the object’s volume (∆V/V) and its bulk modulus B are related as

Answer: (c)

4. A shunt is connected in parallel with a galvanometer. Why?

(a) To prevent galvanometer from strong current

(b) To convert galvanometer into ammeter

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

5. The phase difference between the V_out and V_in of CE-amplifier circuit is

(a) 90°

(b) 180°

(d) 270°

Answer: (b)

6. If nth division of main scale coincides with (n + 1)th divisions of vernier scale. The least count of the vernier is (Given, one main scale division is equal to a units)

Answer: (c)

7. A uniform rod AB of length L = 1 m is sliding along two mutually perpendicular surfaces OP and OQ as shown in figure.

When the rod subtends an angle θ = 30° with OQ, then the end B has a velocity √3 m/s. The velocity of end A at that time is

(a) 1 m /s

(b) 0.5 m/s

(d) 1/√3 m/s

Answer: (a)

8. A tray of mass (M) 12 kg is supported by a spring as shown in figure.

When the tray is pressed down and released, it executes SHM with a period of 1.5 s. When a block of mass m placed on the tray, then the period of SHM changes to 3.0 s. The mass of block is

(a) 36 kg

(b) 48 kg

(d) 24 kg

Answer: (a)

9. The phasor diagram of a load represents which circuit?

(a) Purely capacitive

(b) Purely inductive

(d) R-L-C circuit with X_L less than X_C

Answer: (c)

10. The equation of progressive wave is given by Which one of the following is correct?

(a) υ = 5 cm/s

(b) λ = 18 cm

(d) f = 50 Hz

Answer: (b)

11. The property of light used in optical fibre cable is

(a) total internal reflection

(b) refraction

(d) polarization

Answer: (a)

12. A man walks in a straight line for 5 mine with a velocity of 45 m/s. What is the speed with which he has to move in order to comeback to its original position in 1.5 min?

(a) 90 m/s

(b) 150 m/s

(d) 115 m/s

Answer: (b)

13. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, spherical portion of radius R/2 is removed as shown in the figure.

Taking gravitational potential V = 0 at r = ∞, the potential at the centre of the cavity thus formed is

(a) −GM/2R

(b) −GM/R

(d) −2GM/R

Answer: (b)

14. Four charges equal to +Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge (−q) is at its centre. If the system is in equilibrium, then the value of –q is

Answer: (c)

15. A force F = a + bx acts on a particle in the x-direction, where a and b are constants. The work done by this force during a displacement from x =0 to x = d is

Answer: (a)

16. A proton has kinetic energy E = 100 eV which is equal to that of a photon. The wavelength of photon is λ₂ and that of proton is λ₁. The ratio λ₂/λ₁ is proportional to

(a) E²

(b) E^1/2

(d) E⁻^1/2

Answer: (d)

17. A block of mass 10 kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.1. The friction force on the block is

(a) 4.9 N

(b) 49√3 N

(d) 0.1 × 49√3 N

Answer: (c)

18. Which of the following graphs show the correct relation between conductivity and temperature for a metallic conductor?

Answer: (b)

19. The radius of a muonic hydrogen atom is 2.5 × 10⁻¹³ The total atomic volume (in m³) of a mole of such hydrogen atoms is

(Take, π = 3.14)

(a) 3.94 × 10⁻¹⁴

(b) 3.09 × 10⁻¹⁴

(d) 3.9 × 10⁻¹⁴

Answer: (a)

20. The angular momentum of a body placed at origin of mass 1 kg and having position vector is

(a) time dependent

(b)

(c)

(d) 0

Answer: (c)

21. If the earth stops rotating about its axis, then what will be the change in the value of g at a place in the equatorial plane?

(Radius of earth = 6400 km)

(a) 3.7 cm/s²

(b) 9.8 m/s²

(d) 3.4 cm/s²

Answer: (d)

22. Two cars approach a stationary observer from opposite sides as shown in the figure.

The observer hears to beats. If the frequency of the horn of the car B is 504 Hz, then the frequency of the horn of the car A will be

(a) 529.2 Hz

(b) 440.5 Hz

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

23.

In the following circuit, assuming point A to be at zero potential, then what is the potential at point B?

(a) 1 V

(b) 2 V

(d) 3 V

Answer: (b)

24. Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other as shown in the figure.

A ray of light is incident at an angle 30° at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times, the ray undergoes reflection (excluding the first one) before it emerges out is

(a) 28

(b) 34

(d) 29

Answer: (d)

25. A projectile is given an initial velocity of where is along the ground and is along the vertical. If g = 10 m/s², then the equation of its trajectory is

(a) y = x + 5x²

(b) y = x – 5x²

(d) y = x² – 5x

Answer: (b)

26. Two drops of equal radius R coalesce to form a bigger drop. What is the ratio of surface energy of bigger drop to smaller one?

(a) 2⁻^1/3; 1

(b) 2^2/3 : 1

(d) 2^1/2 : 1

Answer: (a)

27. Two particles A and B of masses m_A and m_B respectively, are having same charge and moving on same plane. A uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particles are v_A and v_B respectively and the trajectories are as shown in figure. Then,

(a) m_A = m_B and v_A = v_B

(b) m_Av_A > m_Bv_B

(d) m_Av_A < m_Bv_B

Answer: (b)

28. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is decreased. As a result, in the emitted radiation,

(a) the intensity increases

(b) the intensity decreases

(d) the minimum wavelength decreases

Answer: (c)

29. The ratio of the specific heats in terms of degrees of freedom n is given by

Answer: (b)

30. A cyclist speeding at 6 m/s in a circle of 18 m radius makes an angle θ with the vertical. The minimum possible value of coefficient of friction between the tyres and the ground is

(a) 12.041

(b) 0.2041

(d) 10.020

Answer: (b)

31. Three particles each of mass m are kept at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side b. Moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centroid and perpendicular to its plane is

(a) 3 mb²

(b) mb²

(d)

Answer: (b)

32. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° in a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will experience

(a) torque only

(b) translational force only in the direction of the field

(d) torque as well as a translational force

Answer: (d)

33. Two coils A and B have a mutual inductance 0.001 H. The current changes in the first coil according to the equation i = i₀ sin ωt, where i₀ = 10A and ω = 10π rads⁻¹. The maximum value of emf in the second coil is

(a) 0.01 π V

(b) 1 πV

(d) 0.05 π V

Answer: (c)

34. The current in the circuit will be

(a) 0.125 A

(b) 0.1 A

(d) 0.25 A

Answer: (b)

35. The bob of a pendulum of length 2m lies at P, when it reaches Q, it loses 10% of its total energy due to air resistance.

The velocity of bob at Q is

(a) 6 m/s

(b) 1 m/s

(d) 8 m/s

Answer: (a)

36. A particle executes SHM with a frequency f. The frequency with which its kinetic energy oscillates is

(a) f/2

(b) f

(d) 4f

Answer: (c)

37. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per min. After 5 min, the rate is 1250 disintegrations per min. Then, the disintegration constant (per min) is

(a) 0.4 log_e 2

(b) 0.2 log_e 2

(d) 0.8 log_e 2

Answer: (a)

38. The separation between two parallel plates of capacitor is 1 mm. What is the electric potential generates between the plates of capacitor, when electric field of 2000 N/C is applied on it?

(a) 2 V

(b) 2000 V

(d) 200 V

Answer: (a)

39. Choose the correct statement.

(a) The speed of light in the meta-material is υ = c|n|.

(b) The speed of light in the meta-material is υ = c/|n|.

(d) The wavelength of the light in the meta-material (λ_m) is given by λ_m = λ_air|n|.

Answer: (b)

40. A T-shaped object with dimensions shown in figure, is lying on a smooth floor. A force F is applied at the point P parallel to AB, such that the object has only the translational motion without rotation. Find the location of P with respect to C.

Answer: (d)

PART II

Chemistry

41. The most volatile compound among the given option is

(a) o-nitrophenol

(b) p-nitrophenol

(d) can’t say

Answer: (a)

42. What is the magnetic moment of Ti²⁺?

(Given : Atomic number = 22)

(a) √8

(b) √10

(d) √9

Answer: (a)

43. Why only Xe can form compounds with fluorine among noble gases?

(a) Large size

(b) Low electronegativity

(d) Low electron gain enthalpy

Answer: (a)

44. Which of the following inert gas is used as cryogenic agent?

(a) He

(b) Ne

(d) Kr

Answer: (a)

45. For the following reaction,

2A + 3B → 3C + 4D

Expression for rate of reaction is

Answer: (c, d)

46. Cyclohexanol on reacting with H₂SO₄ and then heating gives

(a) cyclohexene

(b) cyclohexanone

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

47. The major product obtained on reaction of 3-methylbutene with HCl is

(a) 2-chloro-2-methylbutane

(b) 3-chloro-2-methylbutane

(d) 3-chloro-3-methylbutane

Answer: (a)

48. If Rydberg constant is same for all elements, the angular momentum and energy of Li²⁺ of which orbital is equal to angular momentum and energy of 1s-orbital of hydrogen atom?

(a) 3s

(b) 4s

(d) 3d

Answer: (a)

49. Sodium iodide reacts with ammonia to give

(a) [Na(NH₃)₄]I

(b) [Na(NH₃)₄]I₃

(d) [Na(NH₃)₃I]

Answer: (a)

50. In photography, which compound is used as a fixing agent

(a) sodium thiosulphate

(b) ammonium thiosulphate

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

51. The compound formed on reaction of epoxy ethane with NH₃ and H₂O is

(a) mono-ethanol amines

(b) di-ethanol amines

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

52. The process of removal of excess electrolyte from colloidal solution is

(a) coagulation

(b) dialysis

(d) peptisation

Answer: (b)

53. Maltase converts maltose into

(a) glucose

(b) sucrose

(d) starch

Answer: (a)

54. Starch is a polymer of

(a) glucose

(b) fructose

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

55. Methyl alcohol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol using

(a) Fehling solution

(b) Schiff’s reagent

(d) Phthalein fusion test

Answer: (c)

56. Sodium stearate (C₁₇H₃₅COO⁻Na⁺) is

(a) anionic soap

(b) cationic detergent

(d) Non-ionic soap

Answer: (a)

57. Which is not an anti-fluorite structure

(a) Rb₂S

(b) BaF₂

(d) Li₂O

Answer: (b)

58. The structure of ClF₃ is

(a) T-shape

(b) bent shape

(d) trigonal planar

Answer: (a)

59. Which of the following is diamagnetic in nature?

(a) O₂

(b) O₂²⁻

(d) B₂

Answer: (b)

60. The correct order of bond order in SO₂, SO₃, SO₄²⁻, SO₃²⁻ is

(a) SO₃²⁻ > SO₄²⁻ > SO₃ = SO₂

(b) SO₄²⁻ > SO₃ > SO₂ > SO₃²⁻

(d) Can’t say

Answer: (c)

61. Ionisation energy for H⁺ ion is proportional to rⁿ, then value of n is

(a) 1

(b) −1

(d) −2

Answer: (b)

62. Role of BHA in food industries

(a) prevent oxidation

(b) prevent reduction

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

63. Permanganate ion (MnO₄⁻) is dark purple coloured though Mn is in +7 oxidation state with d⁰ This is due to

(a) d – d transition

(b) charge transfer from metal to ligand

(d) All of the above

Answer: (c)

64. Rutherford model could not explain

(a) electronic structure of an atom

(b) stability of an atom

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

65. Which is true in case of [Ni(CO)₄]?

(a) Hybridization of Ni is sp³

(b) Hybridization of Ni is dsp²

(d) Square planar

Answer: (a)

66. SI unit of Boltzmann’s constant is

(a) JK⁻¹

(b) eVK⁻¹

(d) JK

Answer: (a)

67. Acetone does not undergo which type of reaction?

(a) Substitution reaction

(b) Polymerization reaction

(d) Addition reaction

Answer: (a)

68. Magnetic moment of Co in [CoF₆]²⁻ of unpaired electron is

(a) √35

(b) √45

(d) √30

Answer: (a)

69. Some statement about heavy water are given below

(1) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear

(2) Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water.

(3) Heavy water in more effective solvent than ordinary water.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a)

70. CH₃−CHCl−CH₂−C₃ has a chiral centre, which of the following represents its R configuration?

Answer: (c)

71. In Victor Meyer’s method 0.2 g of an organic substance displaced 56 mL of air at STP the molecular weight of the compound is

(a) 56

(b) 112

(d) 28

Answer: (c)

72. For the complete combustion of ethanol, C₂H₅OH(l) + 3O₂(g) → 2CO₂(g) + 3H₂O(l)the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is 1364.47 kJ mol⁻¹ at 25° Assuming ideality the enthalpy of combustion, ∆H_C, for the reaction will be

(R = 8.314 JK⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

(a) −1366.95 kJ mol⁻¹

(b) −1361.95 kJ mol⁻¹

(d) −1350.50 kJ mol⁻¹

Answer: (a)

73. The incorrect expression among the following is

(a)

(b) In isothermal process,

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

74. The solubility of Pb(OH)₂ in water is 6.7 × 10⁻⁶ Its solubility in a buffer solution of pH = 8 would be

(a) 1.2 × 10⁻²

(b) 1.6 × 10⁻³

(d) 1.2 × 10⁻³

Answer: (d)

75. The density (in g mL⁻¹) of a 60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% H₂SO₄ (molar mass = 98 g mol⁻¹) by mass will be

(a) 1.64

(b) 1.88

(d) 1.45

Answer: (c)

76. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution containing non-volatile solute is 0.0125. The molality of the solution is about

(a) 0.70

(b) 0.50

(d) 0.80

Answer: (a)

77. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25° The fraction of the total pressure exerted by oxygen is

(a) 2/3

(b)

(d) 1/2

Answer: (c)

78. The molar conductivities of KCl NaCl and KNO₃ are 152, 128 and 111 S cm² mol⁻¹ What is the molar conductivity of NaNO₃?

(a) 101 S cm² mol⁻¹

(b) 87 S cm² mol⁻¹

(d) −391 S cm² mol⁻¹

Answer: (b)

79. The approximate time duration in hours to electroplate 30 g of calcium form molten calcium chloride using a current of 5 A is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)

(a) 80

(b) 10

(d) 8

Answer: (d)

80. Given, the reduction potential of Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺ and Ag⁺ as

The least stable oxide is

(a) Ag₂O

(b) Al₂O₃

(d) Na₂O

Answer: (a)

PART III

(a) English Proficiency

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-83) Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

81. Decay is an immutable factor of human life.

(a) important

(b) unique

(d) awful

Answer: (c)

82. It was an ignominious defect for the team.

(a) shameful

(b) admirable

(d) worthy

Answer: (a)

83. His conjecture was the better than mine.

(a) guess

(b) fact

(d) doubt

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 84-86) Fill in the blanks.

84. Freedom and equality are the ………. Rights of every human.

(a) inalienable

(b) inscrutable

(d) institutional

Answer: (d)

85. Pradeep’s face spoke …………. of the happiness he was feeling.

(a) elegantly

(b) tons

(d) much

Answer: (c)

86. His speech was disappointing : it …………. All the major issues.

(a) projected

(b) revealed

(d) analysed

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 87-89) Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the given italicized word.

87. Hydra is biologically believed to be immortal.

(a) undying

(b) perishable

(d) eternal

Answer: (b)

88. The Gupta rulers patronized all cultural activities and thus Gupta period was called the golden era in Indian History.

(a) criticized

(b) rejected

(d) spurned

Answer: (c)

89. This is a barbarous

(a) bad

(b) good

(d) exemplary

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 90-92) In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

90. A person who does not believe in any religion

(a) Philatelist

(b) Rationalist

(d) Pagan

Answer: (c)

91. A person who believes that pleasure is the chief good

(a) Stoic

(b) Hedonist

(d) Sensual

Answer: (c)

92. One who loves mankind

(a) Anthropologist

(b) Philanthropist

(d) Optometrist

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 93-95) Choose the order of the sentence marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph.

93. (A) Tasty and healthy food can help you bring out their best.

(B) One minute they are toddlers and next you see them in their next adventure.

(D) Being their loving custodians, you always want to see them doing well.

(E) Their eyes sparkle with curiosity and endless questions on their tongues.

Codes

(a) DBCEA

(b) CADEB

(d) ECABD

Answer: (c)

94. (A) It is hoping that overseas friends will bring in big money and lift the morale of the people.

(B) But a lot needs to be done to kick start industrial revival.

(D) So far government has only given an incremental push to existing policies and programmes.

(E) Government is to go for big time reforms, which it promised.

Codes

(a) BCDAE

(b) EADCB

(d) CDEAB

Answer: (d)

95. (A) However, women hiring is catching up at a slow and steady rate in the recent times.

(B) Gender ratio has been inclined more towards male employees.

(D) Women constitute a little over half of world’s total population.

(E) But, their contribution to measured economic activity is far below the potential.

Codes

(a) DEBAC

(b) CDAEB

(d) AEDBC

Answer: (a)

(b) Logical Reasoning

96. Choose the correct answer figure which will make a complete square on joining with the problem figure.

Answer: (c)

97. In the following question, five figures are given. Out of them, find the three figures that can be joined to form a square.

Answer: (c)

98. Choose the answer figure which completes the problem figure matrix.

Answer: (b)

99. From the given four positions of a single dice, find the colour at the face opposite to the face having red colour.

Answer: (d)

100. In the following questions, one or more dots are placed in the figure marked as (A). The figure is followed by four alternatives marked as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One out of these four options contains region(s) common to the circle, square, triangle, similar to that marked by the dot in figure (A).

Answer: (c)

101. Complete the series by replacing ‘?’ mark.

G4T, J9R, M20P, P43N, S90L, ?

(a) S90L

(b) V185J

(d) P43N

Answer: (b)

102. Neeraj starts walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turns towards North. After walking 20 m, he turns towards East and walks 10 m. He then turns towards South and walks 5 m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?

(a) 10 m, East

(b) 10 m, South-East

(d) 10 m, North-East

Answer: (a)

103. The average age of 8 men is increased by 2 yrs. when one of them whose age is 20 yr is replaced by a new man. What is the age of the new man?

(a) 28 y r

(b) 36 yr

(d) 35 yr

Answer: (b)

104. Shikha is mother-in-law of Ekta who is sister-in-law of Ankit. Pankaj is father of Sanjay, the only brother of Ankit. How is Shikha related to Ankit?

(a) Mother-in-law

(b) Aunt

(d) Mother

Answer: (d)

105. In a row of forty children, P is thirteenth from the left end and Q is ninth from the right end. How many children are there between P and R, if R is fourth to the left of Q?

(a) 12

(b) 13

(d) 15

Answer: (c)

PART IV

Mathematics

106. If Re(z + 2) = |z – 2|, then the locus of z is

(a) parabola

(b) circle

(d) hyperbola

Answer: (a)

107. If a ∈ R, b ∈ R, then the equation

x² – abx – a² = 0 has

(a) one positive root and one negative root

(b) Both positive roots

(d) Non-real roots

Answer: (a)

108. If a + 2b + 3c = 12 (a, b, c ∈ R⁺), then the maximum value of ab²c³ is

(a) 2³

(b) 2⁴

(d) 2⁵

Answer: (c)

109. Sum of n terms of the infinite series

1.3² + 2.5² + 3.7² + … ∞ is

Answer: (a)

110. If log₇ 5 = a, log₅ 3 = b and log₃ 2 = c, then the logarithm of the number 70 to the base 225 is

Answer: (d)

111. The maximum number of points of intersection of 10 circles is

(a) 80

(b) 90

(d) 95

Answer: (b)

112.

(a) 120

(b) 260

(d) 180

Answer: (c)

113. If p ≠ q ≠ r and then the value of x which satisfy the equation is

(a) x = p

(b) x = q

(d) x = 0

Answer: (c)

114. Matrix if xyz = 60 and 8x + 4y + 3z = 20, then A(adj A) is equal to

Answer: (c)

115. If f(x) = 4x – x², x ∈ R, and f(a + 1) – f(a – 1) = 0, then a is equal to

(a) 0

(b) 2

(d) 3

Answer: (b)

116. Which of the following is not an equivalence relation in z?

(a) aRb ⇔ a + b is an even integer

(b) aRb ⇔ a − b is an even integer

(d) aRb ⇔ a = b

Answer: (c)

117. Which of the following is always true?

(a) (~ p ˅ ~ q) ≡ (p ˄ q)

(b) (p → q) ≡ (~ p → ~ p)

(d) ~(p ⟷ q) ≡ (p → q) → (q → p)

Answer: (b)

118. The solution of the inequation 4⁻^{x + 0.5} – 7.2⁻^x < 4, x ∈ R is

(a) (−2, ∞)

(b) (2, ∞)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

119. If is identity in x, then

(a) a₃ = 3/8, a₂ = 0

(b) n =6, a₁ = 1/2

(d) ∑a_m = 1/4

Answer: (a)

120. Total number of solutions of x ∈ [0, 3π] is equal to

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 0

Answer: (b)

121. The minimum value of (sin⁻¹ x)³ + (cos⁻¹ x)³ is equal to

(a) π³/32

(b) 5π³/32

(d) 11π³/32

Answer: (a)

122. The origin is shifted to (1, 2). The equation y² – 8x – 4y + 12 = 0 changes to y² = 4ax, then a is equal to

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) −1

Answer: (b)

123. The equations of the bisector of the angles between the straight lines 3x + 4y + 7 = 0 and 12x + 5y – 8 = 0 are

(a) 7x + 9y + 17 = 0, 99x + 77y + 51 = 0

(b) 7x – 9y – 17 = 0, 99x + 77y – 51 = 0

(d) None of the above

Answer: (d)

124. Equation of circle which passes through the points (1, −2) and (3, −4) and touch the X-axis is

(a) x² + y² + 6x + 2y + 9 = 0

(b) x² + y² + 10x + 20y + 25 = 0

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

125. If x = 9 is the chord of contact of the hyperbola x² – y² = 9, then the equation of the corresponding pair of tangent is

(a) 9x² – 8y² + 18x – 9 = 0

(b) 9x² – 8y² – 18x + 9 = 0

(d) 9x² – 8y² + 18x + 9 = 0

Answer: (b)

126. The points with position vectors and are collinear, if a is

(a) −8

(b) 4

(d) 82/9

Answer: (d)

127. Let a, b, c be vectors of lengths 3, 4, 5 respectively and a be perpendicular to (b + c), to (c + a) and c to (a + b), then the value of (a + b + c) is

(a) 2√5

(b) 2√2

(d) 5√2

Answer: (d)

128. For non-zero vectors, a, b, c; |(a × b) ∙ c| = |a| |b| |c| holds if and only if

(a) a ∙ b = 0, b ∙ c = 0

(b) b ∙ c = 0, c ∙ a = 0

(d) a ∙ b = b ∙ c = c ∙ a = 0

Answer: (d)

129. Angle between the diagonals of a cube is

(a) π/3

(b) π/2

(d) cos⁻¹(1/√3)

Answer: (c)

130. Consider the two lines

The unit vector perpendicular to both the lines L₁ and L₂ is

Answer: (b)

131. The distance between the line and the plane is

(a) 10/9

(b) 10/3√3

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

132. Two cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that either both are red or both are kings?

(a) 7/13

(b) 63/221

(d) 3/26

Answer: (c)

133. If A and B are two independent events such that P(A) = 1/2 and P(B) = 1/5, then which of the following is correct?

Answer: (d)

134. Box 1 contains 5 red and 2 blue balls, while box II contains 2 red and 6 blue balls. A fair coin is tossed. If it turns up head, a ball is drawn from box I, else a ball is drawn from box II. The probability ball drawn is from box I, if it is blue, is

(a) 27/56

(b) 8/29

(d) 29/56

Answer: (b)

135. For a random variable X, E(X) = 3 and E(X²) = 11. The variable of X is

(a) 8

(b) 5

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

136. The sum of 10 items is 12 and the sum of their squares is 18, then the standard deviation will be

(a) −3/5

(b) 6/5

(d) 3/5

Answer: (d)

137. The height of the chimney when it is found that on walking towards it 50 m in the horizontal line through its base, the angle of elevation of its top changes from 30° to 60° is

(a) 25 m

(b) 25√2 m

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

138. The value of is

(a) 1/2

(b) 2

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

139. If is differentiable at x = 1, then

(a) a = 1, b = 1

(b) a = 1, b = 0

(d) a = 2, b = 1

Answer: (c)

140. The slope the tangent to the curve x = t² + 3t – 8 y = 2t² – 2t – 5 at the point t = 2 is

(a) 7/6

(b) 5/6

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

141. is equal to

Answer: (c)

142. is equal to

Answer: (a)

143. The area of one curvilinear triangle formed by curves y = sin x, y = cos x and X-axis, is

(a) 2 sq units

(b) (2 + √2) sq units

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

144. Solution of given that y = 1 when x = 1 is

Answer: (b)

145. If is

(a) 1

(b) −1

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

146. The maximum value of the function y = x(x – 1)², is

(a) 0

(b) 4/27

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

147. The solution of satisfying y(1) = 0, is

(a) tan y = (x – 2)e^x log x

(b) sin y = e^x(x – 1) x⁻¹

(d) sin y = e^x(x – 1)x⁻³

Answer: (b)

148. The runs of two players for 10 innings each are as follows

The more consistent player is

(a) player A

(b) player B

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

149. The linear programming problem minimize z = 3x + 2y subject to constraints x + y ≥ 8, 3x + 5y ≤ 15, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, has

(a) one solution

(b) no feasible solution

(d) infinitely many solution

Answer: (b)

150. Find the area enclosed by the loop in the curve 4y² = 4x² – x³.

(a) 128/5

(b) 15/128

(d) 17/130

Answer: (a)

BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2020 With Answer Key

June 28, 2023June 28, 2023 by suresh84

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2020

PART-I

PHYSICS

1. Three solenoid coils of same dimensions, same number of turns and same number of layers of winding are taken. Coil 1 has inductance L₁ wounded by Mn wire of resistance 6 Ωm⁻¹, coil 2 with inductance L₂ wounded by similar wire but in reverse direction in each layer. Coil 3 with inductance L₃ wounded by a superconducting wire. The relation between their self inductances will be

(a) L₁ = L₂, L₃ = 0

(b) L₁ = L₂ = L₃

(d) L₁ > L₂ > L₃

Answer: (c)

2. Three capacitors C₁, C₂ and C₃ are connected as shown in the figure below. If capacitor C₃ breaks down electrically, then the change in total charge on the combination of capacitors, is

Answer: (a)

3. A black body radiates energy at the rate EWm⁻² at high temperature T K. When the temperature is reduced to (T/4) K, then the new radiant energy is

(a) E/256

(b) 4E

(d) E/16

Answer: (a)

4. The length of the rectangle is l = 15.2 cm and breadth is b = 2.9 cm and the minimum possible measurement by scale = 0.1 cm. Then, the area of the rectangle is

(Taking, significant figures into consideration)

(a) 44.08 cm²

(b) 24.8 cm²

(d) 94.008 cm²

Answer: (c)

5. In an adiabatic process, where pressure is decreased by 3/4%, if then the volume increases by

(a) 3/4%

(b) 9/16%

(d) 4/3%

Answer: (b)

6. The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm fixed at both ends are represented by the equation

where, x and y are cm and t is in second. Calculate the velocity of the particle at x = 7.5 cm and t = 0.25 s.

(a) 4 m/s

(b) Zero

(d) 9.8 m/s

Answer: (b)

7. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of XY-axes as shown in the figure. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

Answer: (a)

8. The hydrogen-like element that has a spectrum whose lines have wavelength four times shorter than those of atomic hydrogen is

(a) lithium

(b) helium

(d) potassium

Answer: (b)

9. Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges +20 μC and −40 μC respectively and placed at a distance R from each other experience force F₁. If they are brought in contact and separated to the same distance, they experience force F₂. The ratio of F₁ to F₂ is

(a) 1 : 4

(b) 8 : 1

(d) 1 : 8

Answer: (c)

10. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency between 600 K to 300 K and 1600 K to x K, then the value of x is

(a) 1600 K

(b) 800 K

(d) 900 K

Answer: (b)

11. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is thrown up with initial speed 16 ms⁻¹ and reaches maximum height of 9 m. How much energy is dissipated by air drag acting on the ball during the ascent?

(a) 199 J

(b) 19.9 J

(d) 9.9 J

Answer: (b)

12. In the circuit shown, if the 10 Ω resistor is replaced by a resistor of 15 Ω, then what is the amount of current drawn from the battery?

(a) 100 A

(b) 10 A

(d) 2.4 A

Answer: (b)

13. A time dependent force F(= 8t) acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. If the particle starts form rest, the work done by the force during the first 1 s will be

(a) 0.4 J

(b) 4 J

(d) 4.5 J

Answer: (b)

14. If L, R, C and V represent inductance, resistance, capacitance and potential difference respectively, then dimensions L/RCV are the same as those of

(a) current

(b) 1/current

(d) 1/charge

Answer: (b)

15. The magnetic field of a beam emerging from a fitter facing a flood light is given by

B = 10 × 10⁻⁸ sin(1 × 10⁷ z – 3.6 × 10¹⁵ t)T. The average intensity of the beam is

(a) 1.82 W/m²

(b) 1.19 W/m²

(d) 1.17 W/m²

Answer: (b)

16. From the velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line, the distance travelled and the average velocity in the time interval t = 0 to t = 20 s are, respectively,

(a) 0, 0

(b) 120 m, 60 m

(d) 0, 60 m

Answer: (c)

17. A thin equi-convex lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5 and its focal length is 0.2 m. If it acts as a concave lens of focal length 0.5 m when dipped in a liquid, the refractive index of the liquid is

(a) 17/8

(b) 15/8

(d) 9/8

Answer: (b)

18. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 60 Ω and it indicates full deflection on passing a current of 4.5 mA. A voltmeter is made using this galvanometer and a 4.5 kΩ The maximum voltage, that can be measured using this voltmeter, will be close to

(a) 21 V

(b) 20.5 V

(d) 19.5 V

Answer: (b)

19. The combination of the gates shown in following figure yields

(a) NAND gate

(b) OR gate

(d) XOR gate

Answer: (b)

20. A vessel contains one mole of O₂ gas (molar mass 32) at a temperature T. The pressure of the gas is p. An identical vessel containing one mole of He gas (molar mass 4) at a temperature 2T has a pressure of

(a) p/8

(b) p

(d) 8p

Answer: (c)

21. The acceleration of a particle in m/s² is given by a = (3t² – 2t + 1), where t is in second. If the particle starts with a velocity v = 1 m/s at t = 1s, then velocity of the particle at the end of 4s is

(a) 40 m/s

(b) 52 m/s

(d) 84 m/s

Answer: (b)

22. The figure shows graphs of pressure (p) versus density (d) for an ideal gas at two temperatures T₁ and T₂, then

(a) T₁ > T₂

(b) T₁ < T₂

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

23. Two spheres of the same material and same radii r are touching each other. The gravitational force between the spheres is proportional to

(a) 1/r²

(b) r²

(d) r⁴

Answer: (d)

24. A spherical lens of power −4 D is placed at a distance of 15 cm from another spherical lens of power 5 D. A beam of parallel light falls on the first spherical lens. The final image formed is

(a) real and at a distance of 40 cm from the lens of power 5 D

(b) real and at a distance of 10 cm from the lens of power −4 D

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

25. The wheel of a car, accelerated uniformly from rest, rotates through 5 rad during the first second. The angle (in rad) rotated during the next second is

(a) 15

(b) 7.5

(d) 20

Answer: (a)

26. Lights of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1.5 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be

(a) 3 : 2

(b) 2 : 3

(d) √2 : √3

Answer: (d)

27. When a body is dropped from a height h, then it hits the ground with a momentum p. If the same body is dropped from a height which is three times more than previous height, the percentage change in momentum when it hits the ground is

(a) 25%

(b) 50%

(d) 100%

Answer: (d)

28. The reading of the ammeter for a germanium diode in the given circuit is

(a) 0.94 A

(b) 0

(d) 5 A

Answer: (a)

29. The decay constants of two radioactive substances X and Y are 4λ and λ At t = 0, a sample has the same number of two nuclei. The time taken for the ratio of number of nuclei to become 1/e³ will be

(a) 1/3λ

(b) 1/2λ

(d) 3/2λ

Answer: (b)

30. The magnitude of the force vector acting on a unit length of a thin wire carrying a current I = 10 A at a point O, if the wire is bent in the form of a semi-circle (shown below) with radius R = 20 π cm, is

(a) 30 μN/m

(b) 40 μN/m

(d) 60 μN/m

Answer: (c)

31. A long cylindrical iron core of cross-sectional area 5 cm² is inserted into a long solenoid having 4000 turns/metre and carrying a current 5 A. The magnetic field inside the core is π Find the pole strength developed.

(a) 1000 A-m

(b) 1240 A-m

(d) 760 A-m

Answer: (b)

32. A plane requires for take off a speed of 72 kmh⁻¹, the run on the ground being 50 m. The mass of the plane is 10000 kg and the coefficient of friction between the plane and the ground is 0.2. Assume that the plane accelerates uniformly during take off. The minimum force required by the engine of the plane for take off is

(a) 4.43 × 10⁴ N

(b) 5.96 × 10⁴ N

(d) 3.45 × 10⁴ N

Answer: (b)

33. In a fluorescent lamp choke, 120 V of reverse voltage is produced when the choke current changes uniformly 0.50 A to 0.20 A in a duration of 0.030 ms. The self inductance of the choke (in mH) is estimated to be

(a) 12 H

(b) 12 × 10⁻³ mH

(d) 0

Answer: (c)

34. A man grows into a giant such that his linear dimensions increase by a factor of 8. Assuming that his density remains same, the stress in his leg will change by a factor of

(a) 1/8

(b) 8

(d) 64

Answer: (b)

35. When 2 moles of a monoatomic gas are mixed with 3 moles of a diatomic gas, the value of adiabatic exponent for the mixture is

(a) 15/16

(b) 7/5

(d) 38/59

Answer: (c)

36. A simple pendulum is placed inside a lift, the lift is moving with a uniform acceleration. If the time periods of the pendulum, while the lift is moving upwards and downwards are in the ratio of 1 : 3, then the acceleration of the lift is

[Take, acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s²]

(a) 4 m/s²

(b) 6 m/s²

(d) 10 m/s²

Answer: (c)

37. A satellite is moving around the earth with speed υ in a circular orbit of radius r. If the orbit radius is decreased by 2%, its speed will increase by

(a) 1%

(b) 2%

(d) 1.414%

Answer: (a)

38. In the circuit shown in figure, the AC source has angular frequency ω = 2000 rad s⁻¹. The amplitude of the current will be nearest to

(a) 2.85 A

(b) 3 A

(d) 3.625 A

Answer: (a)

39. The work done by a force acting on a body is as shown in the following graph. The total work done in covering an initial distance of 40 m is

(a) 500 J

(b) 600 J

(d) 800 J

Answer: (d)

40. A potential wire, 10 m long, has a resistance of 40 Ω. It is connected in series with a resistance box and a 4 V storage cell. If the potential gradient along the wire is 0.4 mVcm⁻¹, the resistance unplugged in the box is

(a) 220 Ω

(b) 360 Ω

(d) 848.3 Ω

Answer: (b)

PART II

Chemistry

41. In a set of reactions, m-bromobenzoic acid gives a product D. Identify the product D.

Answer: (d)

42. A volume of 50.00 mL of a weak acid of unknown concentration is titrated with 10 M solution of NaOH. The equivalence point is reached after 39.30 mL of NaOH solution h as been added. At the half equivalence point (19.65 mL) the pH is 4.85. Thus, initial concentration of the acid and its pK_a values are

[HA] pK_a

(a) 0.1 M 4.85

(b) 0.079 M 4.85

(d) 0.097 M 2.93

Answer: (b)

43. 1-phenyl-1, 3-dibromopropane on treatment with alc. KOH gives diastereomeric mixture in which compound (A) is major product. (A) gives the following reaction

Answer: (d)

44. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) α-D-fructose and β-D-fructose are enantiomers of each other.

(b) D-glyceraldehyde and L-glyceraldehyde are enantiomers of each other.

(d) Aldohexoses which react with phenyl hydrazine to give identical osazones are C-2 epimers.

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following is not a mixed pair of oxides?

(a) Mn₃O₄ and Co₃O₄

(b) Co₃O₄ and Pb₃O₄

(d) Fe₃O₄ and Fe₂O₃

Answer: (d)

46. A solution of copper sulphate is electrolyzed between copper electrodes by a current of 10.0A passing for one hour. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the changes that occur at the electrodes and in the solution?

(a) 11.84 g of copper will deposit on the cathode

(b) 11.84 g of copper will deposit on the anode

(d) copper will not deposit on any of the electrode

Answer: (a)

47.

Identify structure of compound (D).

Answer: (b)

48. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) ∆S for is positive.

(b) ∆E < 0 for combustion of CH₄ (g) in a sealed container with rigid adiabatic system.

(d) ∆G° for an ideal gas reaction is a function of pressure.

Answer: (a)

49. Which of the following statements on critical constants of gases are correct?

(I) Larger the T_c/p_c value of a gas, larger would be the included volume.

(II) Critical temperature (T_c) of g as is greater than its Boyle temperature (T_B).

(III) At the critical point in the van der Waal’s gas isotherm,

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Both I and II

(b) Both I and III

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (b)

50. In the given reaction,

Product (D) is

(a) a positional isomer of X

(b) identical to X

(d) an oxidation product of X

Answer: (a)

51.

(B) is identified by the characteristic colour of the flame. (A) and (B) are respectively.

(a) H₃BO₃ and Na₂B₄O₇

(b) B(OC₂H₅)₃ and H₃BO₃

(d) H₃BO₃ and B(OC₂H₅)₃

Answer: (d)

52. How many mL of perhydrol is required to produce sufficient oxygen which can be used to completely convert 2 L of SO₂ gas?

(a) 10 mL

(b) 5 mL

(d) 30 mL

Answer: (a)

53. At the top of a mountain the thermometer reads 0°C and the barometer reads 710 mm Hg. At the bottom of the mountain the temperature is 30°C and the pressure is 760 mm Hg. The ratio of the density of air at the top to that of the bottom is

(a) 1 : 1.04

(b) 0.4 : 1

(d) 1 : 04

Answer: (c)

54. Match the following columns.

Codes

(a) A-5; B-4; C-3; D-2; E-1

(b) A-5; B-3; C-4; D-2; E-1

(d) A-4; B-3; C-5; D-2; E-1

Answer: (b)

55. Most acidic hydrogen is present in

Answer: (c)

56. The process of ‘eutrophication’ is due to the

(a) increase in concentration of insecticide in H₂O

(b) increase in concentration of fluoride ion in H₂O

(d) attack of younger leaves of a plant by peroxyacetyl nitrate

Answer: (c)

57. Ionization energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV. The wavelengths of the spectral line emitted when an electron in Be³⁺ comes from 5^th energy level to 2^nd energy level is

(a) 43.5 nm

(b) 4350 nm

(d) 435 nm

Answer: (d)

58. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide in excess of oxygen at 298 K and constant pressure are −5 kJ/mol and −280.0 kJ/mol respectively. The heat of formation of carbon monoxide at constant volume is

(a) +111.7 kJ/mol

(b) −1111.7 kJ/mol

(d) −11.7 kJ/mol

Answer: (c)

59. If the quantum number l could have the value n also then, Sc(21) would have electronic configuration as (other rules strictly followed)

(a) 1s² 1p⁶ 2s² 2p⁶ 2d³ 3s²

(b) 1s² 1p⁶ 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 2d³

(d) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d³

Answer: (b)

60. 1.1 mole of A mixed with 2.2 moles of B and the mixture is kept in a 1 L flask and the equilibrium, A + 2B ⇌ 2C + D is reached. If at equilibrium 0.2 mole of C is formed then the value of K_C will be

(a) 0.1

(b) 0.01

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

61. Choose the correct chemical reaction among the following:

(a) CaCN₂ + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + C₂H₂ + NH₃

(b) 2NH₃ + CaSO₄ + CO₂ + H₂O → CaCN₂+(NH₄)₂SO₄

(d) CaC₂ + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + 2NaCl

Answer: (c)

62. Which of the following reactions represents disproportionation?

(a) CrO₅ → Cr³⁺ + O₂

(b) IO₃⁻ + I⁻ + H⁺ → I₂

(d) Na₂S₂O₃ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + SO₂ + S₈ + H₂O

Answer: (d)

63.

Compound C is

Answer: (d)

64. On the basis of Ellingham diagram, which of the following is not correct?

(a) Entropy change for all metal oxides is roughly same.

(b) Below the boiling point, T∆S factor is same irrespective of metal.

(d) If randomness increases the slope increases.

Answer: (a)

65. Which of the following is not explained by adsorption?

(a) When acetic acid solution is shaken with charcoal the concentration of acid decreases.

(b) The white ppt. of Mg(OH)₂ attains blue colour when precipitated in the presence of magneson reagent.

(d) When animal charcoal is shaken with coloured methylene blue solution, the solution turns colourless.

Answer: (c)

66. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following reaction

Answer: (c)

67. An element occurs in two crystalline forms α and β. The α-from has an fcc with a = 3.68 Å and β form has a bcc with a = 2.92 Å. Calculate the ratio of their densities.

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2

(d) 2 : 3

Answer: (a)

68. The molar heat of vaporization of water at 100°C is 40.585 kJ/mol. The temperature at which a solution containing 5.60 g of Al₂(SO₄)₃ per 1000 g of water boil is …. . (Assuming the degree of ionization of salt to be 1).

(a) 1000.042°C

(b) 10.0042°C

(d) 105°C

Answer: (c)

69. An organic base C₈H₁₁(X) reacts with nitrous acid at 0°C to give a clear solution. Heating the solution with KCN and cuprous cyanide followed by continued heating with conc. HCl gives a crystalline solid. Heating this solid with alkaline potassium permanganate gives a compound which dehydrates on heating to an anhydride (C₈H₄O₃). Compound X is

Answer: (d)

70. The final product of the following reaction is/are

Answer: (b)

71. The correct order of pseudohalide, polyhalide and interhalogen is

(a) BrI₂⁻, OCN⁻, IF₅

(b) IF₅, BrI₂⁻, OCN⁻

(d) OCN⁻, BrI₂⁻, IF₅

Answer: (d)

72. An inorganic halide (A) reacts with water to form two acids (B) and (C). (A) also reacts with NaOH to form two salts (D) and (E) which remain in solution. The solution gives white precipitate with both AgNO₃ and BaCl₂ solutions respectively. (A) is a useful organic reagent. The compound (A) is

(a) SOCl₂

(b) SO₂Cl₂

(d) SF₄

Answer: (b)

73. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity to the alkali metals and the halogens are given. Which of these statements gives the correct picture?

(a) The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in atomic number down the group.

(b) In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.

(d) In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.

Answer: (d)

74. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named as

(a) sodiumpentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

(b) sodiumpentacyanonitrosylferrate (III)

(d) Sodiumnitroferrocyanide

Answer: (b)

75. A(g) → P(g) + Q(g) + R(g),

Follow first order kinetics with a half-life of 69.3 s at 500°C. Starting from the gas ‘A’ an container at 500°C and at a pressure of 0.4 atm, the total pressure of the system after 230 s will be

(a) 1.15 atm

(b) 1.32 atm

(d) 1.12 atm

Answer: (d)

76. Which of the following gives paracetamol on acetylation?

Answer: (d)

77. In qualitative analysis when H₂S passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified with dilute HCl, a black ppt. is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO₃, it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of NH₃ to this solution gives

(a) deep blue ppt. of Cu(OH)₂

(b) deep blue solution of [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺

(d) deep blue solution of Cu(OH)₂ ∙ Cu(NO₃)₂

Answer: (b)

78. Titration of 0.1467 g of primary standard Na₂C₂O₄ required 28.85 mL of KMnO₄ Calculate the molar concentration of KMnO₄ solution.

(a) 0.01518 M

(b) 0.001518 M

(d) 1.5180 M

Answer: (a)

79. Which of the following facts about the complex [Cr(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ is wrong?

(a) The complex involves d²sp³ hybridization and its octahedral in shape.

(b) The complex is paramagnetic.

(d) The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution.

Answer: (c)

80. Sulphuric acid is a diabasic acid. It ionizes in two stages and hence, has two dissociation constants K_a1 and K_a2. Which of the following is the correct observation regarding K_a1and K_a2?

(a) K_a1 > K_a2

(b) K_a1 < K_a2

(d) K_a1 = 1.2 × 10⁻², K_a2 > 10

Answer: (a)

PART III

(a) English Proficiency

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-83) In the following questions, find out which part of a sentence has an error. If there is no error, mark part (d) as your answer.

81. The road a./to famous monument b./ passes through a forest. c./ No error d

Answer: (b)

82. The master did not known a./who of the servants b./broke the glass c./No error d

Answer: (b)

83. Had I come a./to know about his difficulties b./I would have certainly helped c./No error d

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 84 and 85) Fill in the blanks with suitable preposition from the alternatives given under each sentence.

84. He trekking was net ……………. Obstacles.

(a) with

(b) from

(d) of

Answer: (a)

85. She has not got ….. the shock of losing her father.

(a) over

(b) at

(d) with

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-88) Select the word or phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the italicized word or phrase.

86. Yuvraj Singh is suffering from a BENIGN cancer.

(a) Unfriendly

(b) Friendly

(d) Malignant

Answer: (c)

87. He is a NOTED figure of film industry.

(a) Known

(b) Unknown

(d) Infamous

Answer: (b)

88. SAGACIOUS decisions taken at right time in one’s career has long effects.

(a) Foolish

(b) Intelligent

(d) Intuitive

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 89 and 90) Choose the word nearest in meaning to the italicized word.

89. The actor got PEEVISH on asking personal questions.

(a) Irritated

(b) Happy

(d) Satisfied

Answer: (a)

90. The engineer ROUGHED OUT his ideas on a piece of paper while he talked.

(a) Shaped soughly

(b) Rejected

(d) Describe inaccurately

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The Centre and the States must become partners in the planning process to determine national priorities together. The process of planning would undergo a change in view of the changes in domestic economic situation and momentous trends emerging in the world. The development of human resource and the building up of an institutional framework would have to receive priority attention. The role of the government would also have to be examined so as to fully involve the people in the process of nation-building. The main task would be to ensure that the real initiative is transferred to the people. The private sector which would register expansion hereafter should keep this objective firmly in view. The need for an effective population policy is an urgent necessity in the country’s planning strategy. The family welfare programme should not be treated as the Centre’s responsibility alone. The States should evolve a suitable mechanism for closer involvement of the Government agencies, Zilla Parishads and Panchayats for making the family welfare programme a success.

91. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Effective family welfare programme is Centre’s responsibility alone.

(b) Population policy and planning process are interlinked.

(d) The State Government should use punitive measures to control population.

Answer: (b)

92. What should be given priority attention?

(a) Role of the Government

(b) Decentralization of power

(d) Human resource and institutional framework

Answer: (d)

93. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Role of the government in nation-building should be examined.

(b) Real initiatives should be transferred to the people.

(d) The Centre and the States must become equal partners in the planning process.

Answer: (c)

94. What would force the planning process to undergo a change?

(a) Free market forces

(b) Domestic economic situation and world trends

(d) International pressures

Answer: (b)

95. Which of the following is implied by the expression ‘momentous trends’?

(a) GDP growth of the country

(b) Memorable historical events

(d) Improvement of foreign exchange reserves

Answer: (c)

(b) Logical Reasoning

96. Find out the wrong number.

2, 6, 12, 72, 865, 62208

(a) 72

(b) 12

(d) 865

Answer: (d)

97. Each of P, Q, T, A and B has different heights. T is taller than P and B but shorter than A and Q. P is not the shortest, who is the tallest?

(a) A

(b) Q

(d) P or B

Answer: (c)

98. Identify the missing part of the question figure and select it from given answer figures.

Answer: (c)

99. Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Mechanic : Spanner : : Carpenter : ?

(a) tree

(b) wood

(d) saw

Answer: (d)

100. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?

(a) 8

(b) 18

(d) 20

Answer: (b)

101. In the following question find the odd letters/group from the given alternatives.

(a) BADC

(b) JILK

(d) VUWX

Answer: (d)

102. Find out which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix?

Answer: (d)

103. Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut out pieces given below in the question figures?

Answer: (c)

104. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicates how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (b)

105. In the following question three dots are placed in the figure marked as (A). The figure is followed by four alternatives marked as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One out of these four options contains region(s) common to the circle, square, triangle, similar to that marked by the dot in figure (A).

Answer: (b)

PART IV

Mathematics

106. If A = {x : x² = 1} and B = {x : x⁴ = 1}, then A ∆ B is equal to

(a) {−i, i}

(b) {−1, i}

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

107. If 2f(xy) = (f(x))^y + (f(y))^x for all x, y ∈ R and f(1) = a (≠1). Then is equal to

(a) (aⁿ – 1)/(a – 1)

(b) a(a^{n – 1} – 1)/(a – 1)

(d) (aⁿ – 1)/a + 1

Answer: (c)

108. Let f(x) = x – 3 and g(x) = 4 – x. Then the set of values of x for which

|f(x) + g(x)| < |f(x)| + |g(x)| is true, is given by:

(a) R

(b) R – (3, 4)

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

109. If a₁, a₂, a₃, …., a₂₀ are AM’s between 13 and 67 then the maximum value of a₁ ∙ a₂ ∙ a₃ …, a₂₀ is

(a) (20)²⁰

(b) (40)²⁰

(d) (80)²⁰

Answer: (b)

110. If p, q, r are in AP and the positive, the roots of the quadratic equation px² + qx + r = 0 are all real for

(a)

(b)

(d) No p and r

Answer: (a)

111. The value of is equal to

(a) ⁴⁷C₆

(b) ⁵²C₅

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

112. The number of numbers divisible by 3 that can be formed by four different even digits is

(a) 36

(b) 18

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

113. If n(A) = 1000, n(B) = 500, n (A ∩ B) ≥ 1 and n (A ∪ B) = P, then

(a) 500 ≤ P ≤ 1000

(b) 1001 ≤ P ≤ 1498

(d) 1000 ≤ P ≤ 1499

Answer: (d)

114. is equal to

(a) R – {0}

(b) R – {0, 1, 3}

(d) R – {0, −1, −3, 1/2}

Answer: (c)

115. Let f(x) be a polynomial function of second degree. If f(1) = f(−1) and a, b, c are in AP, then f ꞌ(a), f ʹ(b) and f ʹ(c) are in

(a) AP

(b) GP

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

116. The value of is

(a) 5 – 2log 2

(b) 4 – 2log 2

(d) 2 – 2log 2

Answer: (c)

117. The coefficient of x⁸ in the polynomial (x – 1) (x – 2) ….(x – 10)

(a) 2640

(b) 1320

(d) 2740

Answer: (b)

118. If then z¹⁴ is

(a) 2⁷

(b) 2⁷i

(d) (−2)⁷i

Answer: (b)

119. The solution of the equation is

(a) 2y = sin y(1 – 2cx²)

(b) 2x = cot y(1 + 2cx²)

(d) 2x sin y = 1 – 2cx²

Answer: (c)

120. The value of the definite integral

(a) 1 – π/4

(b) 1 + π/4

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

121. If a and b are two vectors such that |a| = 1, |b| = 4 and a ∙ b = 2, if c = (2a × b) – 3b, then angle between b and c

(a) π/6

(b) π/3

(d) 5π/6

Answer: (d)

122. Let x₁ and x₂ be the real roots of the equation x² – (k – 2)x + (k² + 3k + 5) = 0, then maximum value of x₁² + x₂² is

(a) 19

(b) 22

(d) 17

Answer: (a)

123. Circle centered at origin and having radius π units is divided by the curve y = sin x in two parts. Then area of upper parts equals to

(a) π²/2

(b) π³/4

(d) π³/8

Answer: (c)

124. The root of the equation 2(1 + i)x² – 4(2 – i)x – 5 – 3i = 0, where i = √−1, which has greater modulus, is

Answer: (a)

125. The equation (cos β – 1)x² + (cos β)x + sin β = 0 in the variable x has real roots, then β lies in the interval

(a) (0, 2π)

(b) (−π, 0)

(d) (0, π)

Answer: (d)

126. A ordered pair (α, β) for which the system of linear (1 + α)x + βy + z = 2, αx + (1 + β)y + z = 3 and αx + βy + 2z = 2 has a unique solution.

(a) (1, −3)

(b) (−3, 1)

(d) (−4, 2)

Answer: (c)

127. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m high and its elevation from a point O on the ground is 45°. If flies off horizontally straight way from the point O. After one second, the elevation of the bird from O is reduced to 30°, then the speed (in m/s) of the bird is

(a) 40(√2 – 1)

(b) 40(√3 – √2)

(d) 20(√3 – 1)

Answer: (d)

128. If one GM, g and two AM’s p and q are inserted between two numbers a and b, then (2p – q) (p – 2q) is equal to

(a) g²

(b) −g²

(d) 3g²

Answer: (b)

129. When x¹⁰⁰ is divided by x² – 3x + 2 the remainder is (2^k+1 – 1)x – 2(2^k – 1), then k is

(a) 97

(b) 99

(d) 101

Answer: (b)

130. The mean of five observation is 5 and their variance is 9.20. If three of the given five observation are 1, 3 and 8, then a ratio of other two observations is

(a) 4 : 9

(b) 6 : 7

(d) 10 : 3

Answer: (a)

131. How many three digit number satisfy the property that the middle digit is arithmetic mean of the first and the last digit.

(a) 41

(b) 45

(d) 44

Answer: (b)

132. If z = reⁱ^θ, then arg(e^iz) is

(a) −r sin θ

(b) r cos θ

(d) −r cos θ

Answer: (b)

133. If 4 dice are rolled, then the number of ways of getting the sum 10 is

(a) 56

(b) 64

(d) 80

Answer: (d)

134. Distance of point A(1, 2) measured parallel to the line 3x – y = 10 from the line x + y + 5 = 0, is

(a) 2√5

(b) 2√10

(d) 4√10

Answer: (b)

135. Let f(x) = a₀ + a₁x² + a₂x⁴ + a₃x⁶ + … + a_nx²ⁿ be a polynomial in a real variable x with 0 < a₁ < a₂ < a₃ < … < a_n, the function f(x) has

(a) neither a maxima nor a minima

(b) only one maxima

(d) only one minima

Answer: (d)

136. If f(x) = 2x³ + x⁴ + log x and g is the inverse of f, then g’(3) is equal to

(a) 1/9

(b) 1/7

(d) 1/8

Answer: (c)

137. A line passing through P(3, 7, 1) and R(2, 5, 7) meet the plane 3x + 2y + 11z – 9 = 0 at Q. Then PQ is equal to

(a) 5√41/59

(b) √41/59

(d) 25√41/59

Answer: (d)

138. equals to

Answer: (a)

139. If then find z component of a vector r, which is coplanar with a and b, r ∙ b = 0 and r ∙ a = 7.

(a) 0

(b) 3

(d) 5/2

Answer: (b)

140. If x, y, z are three consecutive positive integers, x – z + 2 = 0, then is equal to

(a) log_e x

(b) log_e y

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

141. The solution of differential equation (xy⁵ + 2y)dx – xdy = 0, is

(a) 9x⁸ + 4x⁹y⁴ = 9y⁴C

(b) 9x⁸ – 4x⁹y⁴ – 9y⁴C = 0

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

142. The solution set of is

(a) [0, 1] ∪ (3, 4)

(b) [0, 1] ∪ [3, 4]

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

143. Let the is

Answer: (b)

144. If then is equal to

(a) 50

(b) 47

(d) 53

Answer: (b)

145. The number of distinct solutions of the equation in the interval [0, 2π] is

(a) 8

(b) 10

(d) 15

Answer: (a)

146. If the tangent at a point to the ellipse 16x² + 11y² = 256 is also a tangent to x² + y² – 2x = 15, then ϕ equals

(a) π/3

(b) π/6

(d) π/4

Answer: (a)

147. The distance of point of intersection of the tangents to the parabola x = 4y – y² drawn at the points where it is meet by Y-axis, from its focus is

(a) 11/4

(b) 17/4

(d) 3

Answer: (b)

148. The value of the sum is

(a) 5

(b) 4

(d) 2

Answer: (d)

149. A curve passes through (2, 0) and the slope of the tangent at P(x, y) is equal to then the equation of the curve is

(a) y = x² – 2x

(b) y = x³ – 8

(d) y² = 5x² – 6

Answer: (a)

150. Consider matrix if A⁻¹ = αI + βA, when α, β ∉ R, then (α + β) is equal to (where A⁻¹ denotes the inverse of matrix A)

(a) 1

(b) 4/3

(d) 1/3

Answer: (a)

BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key

June 28, 2023June 28, 2023 by suresh84

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2022

PART-I

PHYSICS

1. The stopping potential (V₀) versus frequency (v) of a graph of photoelectric effect in a metal. From the graph, the planck’s constant (h) is.

(a) 6.60 × 10⁻³⁴ J-s

(b) 6.69 × 10⁻³⁴ J-s

(d) 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J-s

Answer: (a)

2. In a resonance column first and second resonance are obtained at depths 24 cm and 78 cm the third resonance will be obtained at depth.

(a) 160 cm

(b) 132 cm

(d) 152 cm

Answer: (b)

3. A submarine A travelling at 17 m/s is being chased along the line of its velocity by another submarine B travelling at 34 m/s. B sends a sonar signal of 600 Hz to detect A and receives a reflected sound of frequency v. The of v is

[Speed of sound in water = 1500 ms⁻¹]

(a) 613.7 Hz

(b) 6137 Hz

(d) 539 Hz

Answer: (a)

4. Transverse waves of the same frequency are generated in two steel wires A and B. The diameter of A is twice that of B and the tension in A is half that in B. The ratio of the velocities of the waves in A and B is

(a) 1 : 2

(b) 1 : √2

(d) 3 : 2√2

Answer: (c)

5. In the diagram shown below, both the strings AB and CD are made of same material and have same cross-section. The pulleys are light and frictionless. If the speed of wave in string AB is v₁ and in CD is v₂, then v₁/v₂ is

(a) 1

(b) √2

(d) 1/√2

Answer: (d)

6. What will be the acceleration due to gravity at a depth d, where g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth?

Answer: (d)

7. A direct current of 6 A is superimposed on an alternating current I = 10 sin ωt flowing through a wire. The effective value of t he resulting current will be

(a) 5√2

(b) 5√3

(d) 8.37

Answer: (c)

8. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of electric potential with distance r from the centre of a non-conducting charged sphere of radius R?

Answer: (d)

9. For an insulator, the forbidden energy gap is

(a) Zero

(b) 1eV

(d) 5eV

Answer: (d)

10. A machine gun fires 300 bullets per min if the mass of each bullet is 10 g and the velocity of the bullets is 600 ms⁻¹, the power (in kW) of the gun is

(a) 43200

(b) 9

(d) 7.2

Answer: (b)

11. Four holes of radius 5 cm are cut from a thin square plate of 20 cm and mass 1 kg. The moment of inertia of the remaining portion about Z-axis is

(a) 15 kg-m²

(b) 0.37 kg-m²

(d) 0.08 kg-m²

Answer: (c)

12. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity υ at an angle θ with the horizontal. At its highest point, it explodes into two pieces of equal mass, one of the piece continue to move on the original trajectory, then the velocity of second piece is.

(a) 2 v cos θ

(b) v cos θ

(d)

Answer: (b)

13. In the circuit shown assume the diode to be ideal. When V_i increases from −2V to 6V, the change in current is (in mA)

(a) Zero

(b) 20

(d) 32

Answer: (b)

14. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity is equal to the wavelength of photon. The ratio of the kinetic energies of electron and photon is

(a) 1 : 4

(b) 1 : 3

(d) 2 : 1

Answer: (b)

15. In the circuit shown in the figure, the AC source gives a voltage V = 20 cos (2000 t) neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading will be

(a) 0V, 0.47 A

(b) 2.82 V, 1.41 A

(d) 1.5 V, 8.37 A

Answer: (b)

16. An electromagnetic wave is propagating along X-axis. At x = 1 cm and t = 18s, its electric vector |E| = 8 V/m, then the magnitude of its magnetic vector is

(a) 2.66 × 10⁻⁸

(b) 3 × 10⁻⁷

(d) 3.16 × 10⁻⁷

Answer: (a)

17. In the following circuit the equivalent resistance between X and Y is …….. Ω

(a) 5

(b) 12

(d) 20

Answer: (c)

18. A monoatomic gas of molar mass m is kept in a insulated container. Container is moving with velocity v. If the container is suddenly stopped, then the change in the temperature of the gas is

(a) mv²/4R

(b) mv²/2R

(d) mv²/3R

Answer: (d)

19. A projectile is projected with the velocity of The horizontal range of the projectile will be

(a) 1.2 m

(b) 2.4 m

(d) 4.5 m

Answer: (b)

20. A transistor is connected in common-emitter (CE) configuration. The collector supply is 8V and the voltage drop across a resistor is 500 Ω in the collector circuit is 0.6 V. If the current gain factor α is 0.96, find the base current

(a) 25 μA

(b) 50 μA

(d) 35 μA

Answer: (b)

21. A solid sphere of 80 kg radius 15 m moving in a space becomes a circular disc of radius 20 m in 1 h. The rate of change of moment of Inertia in this process is ………

Answer: (d)

22. If the B – H curves of two samples of X and Y of iron are as shown below, then which one of the following statement is correct?

(a) Both X and Y are suitable for making electromagnets.

(b) Both X and Y are suitable for making permanent magnet.

(d) X is suitable for making electromagnet and Y is suitable for permanent magnet.

Answer: (c)

23. In a radioactive material the activity at time t₁, is A₁ and at a later time t₂, it is A₂. If the decay constant of the material is λ, then

Answer: (a)

24. A mosquito O is sitting infront of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 40 cm. The image would be formed at

(a) 40 cm left

(b) infinity

(d) 15 cm to the left

Answer: (a)

25. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a process as shown in the figure. The molar specific heat of the gas in the process is

(a) 3R/2

(b) R/2

(d) 7R/2

Answer: (a)

26. A capillary tube is attached horizontally to a constant heat arrangement. If the radius of the capillary tube is increased by 25%, then the rate of flow of liquid will change nearly by

(a) 100%

(b) 112%

(d) 144%

Answer: (d)

27. In the arrangement shown in figure, when the switch S₂ is open, the galvanometer, shows no deflection of l = 50 cm when the switch S₂ is closed, the galvanometer shows no deflection for l = 0.416 m. The internal resistance (r) of 6 V cell is

(a) 2 Ω

(b) 3 Ω

(d) 9 Ω

Answer: (a)

28. In a young’s double slit arrangement frings are produced using light of wavelength 4000 Å. One slit is covered by a thin plate of glass of refractive index 1.4 and the other with another glass plate of same thickness but of refractive index 1.7. By doing so the central bright shifts to original sixth fringe from centre. Thickness of glass plate is ………. .

(a) 2 μm

(b) 8 μm

(d) 16 μm

Answer: (b)

29. An electric current I enters and leaves a uniform circular wire of radius r through diametrically opposite points. A charged particle q moves along the axis of circular wire passes through its centre at speed v. The magnetic force on the particle when it passes through the centre has a magnitude.

Answer: (d)

30. An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact has a power of +5D. The power of converging lens is +6D. The ratio of the dispersive power of the convergent and divergent lenses is

(a) 3 : 7

(b) 2 : 3

(d) 5 : 3

Answer: (c)

PART II

Chemistry

31. Which one of the following is correct or3der of given isotopes?

(I) T₂ > D₂ > P₂ (order of boiling point)

(II) T₂ > D₂ > P₂ (order of bond energy)

(III) T₂ = D₂ = P₂ (order of bond length)

(IV) T₂ < D₂ < P₂ (order of reactivity with Cl₂)

(a) I and II

(b) III and IV

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

32. Ninhydrin gives yellow colour in paper chromatography with which amino acid?

(a) Tryptophan

(b) Proline

(d) Tyrosine

Answer: (b)

33. How will raise in temperature affects the viscosity of liquids and gases?

(a) Both increases

(b) Both decreases

(d) In case of liquid, increases and in case of gases, decreases.

Answer: (b)

34. Which of the following compounds is thermodynamically is the most stable?

(a) BaCO₃

(b) MgCO₃

(d) CaCO₃

Answer: (a)

35. Glucose reacts with X number of molecules of phenyl hydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is,

(a) three

(b) two

(d) four

Answer: (a)

36. Nylon-6, 6 is obtained from

(a) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine

(b) tetrafluoroethylene

(d) vinyl benzene

Answer: (a)

37. What is the hybridization of [CrF₆]³⁻?

(a) sp³d

(b) sp³d²

(d) d²sp

Answer: (c)

38. OF an F₂ can be compared in terms of

(a) OF is paramagnetic while F₂ is diamagnetic

(b) OF is more stable towards dissociation into atoms

(d) None of the above is correct

Answer: (c)

39. ortho and para form of hydrogen have

(a) different physical and chemical properties

(b) identical physical properties but different chemical properties

(d) identical chemical and physical properties

Answer: (c)

40. The structure of H₂O₂ is

(a) planar, linear

(b) non-planar, linear

(d) non-planar, non-linear

Answer: (d)

41. Match the species in Column I with their types in Column II.

Codes

(a) A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1

(b) A→1, B→2, C→3, D→1

(d) A→3, B→1, C→2, D→4

Answer: (a)

42. In which pair or pairs is the stronger bond found in the first species?

(I) O₂²⁻, O₂; (II) N₂, N₂⁺; (III) NO⁺, NO⁻

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) II and III only

Answer: (d)

43. Select the correct statement about the complex [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br.

(a) Its ionization isomer is [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄.

(b) It gives yellow precipitate with AgNO₃.

(d) All the above are correct statements.

Answer: (d)

44. A certain metal sulphide, MS₂, is used extensively as a high temperature lubricant. If MS₂ is 40.06% by mass sulphur, metal M has atomic mass.

(a) 160 u

(b) 64 u

(d) 96 u

Answer: (d)

45.

X and Y are

(a) benzene, benzaldehyde

(b) toluene, benzaldehyde

(d) benzene, benzoic acid

Answer: (c)

46. Ge(II) compounds are powerful reducing agents whereas Pb(IV) compounds are strong oxidants. It can be because

(a) Pb is more electropositive than Ge.

(b) ionization potential of lead is less than that of Ge.

(d) more pronounced inert pair effect in lead has.

Answer: (d)

47. Which compound has antifluorite structure?

(a) MnO₄

(b) Na₂O

(d) Li₂O₂

Answer: (b)

48. 100 mL of 2 M of formic acid (pK_a = 3.74) is neutralize by NaOH, at the equivalence point pH is

(a) 7

(b) 6

(d) 8.87

Answer: (d)

49. The reaction of C₆H₅CH = CHCH₃ with HBr produces

Answer: (a)

50. The number of 3C−2e⁻ bonds present in diborane is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (b)

51. Standard entropy of X₂, Y₂ and XY₂ are 60, 40 and 50 JK⁻¹ mol⁻¹, respectively. For the reaction, to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be

(a) 1250 K

(b) 500 K

(d) 1000 K

Answer: (c)

52. The total number of P−OH bonds for pyrophosphoric acid

(a) 4

(b) 5

(d) 8

Answer: (a)

53. Using the standard electrode potential, find out the pair between which redox reaction is not feasible.

E^⊝ values Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ = +0.77; I₂/I⁻ = + 0.54 Cu²⁺/Cu = +0.34; Ag⁺/Ag = 0.80 V

(a) Fe³⁺ and I⁻

(b) Ag⁺ and Cu

(d) Ag and Fe³⁺

Answer: (d)

54. What is [NH₄⁺] in a solution that is 0.02 M NH₃01 M KOH ? [K_b(NH₃) = 1.8 × 10⁻⁵]

(a) 3.6 × 10⁻⁵ M

(b) 1.8 × 10⁻⁵ M

(d) 7.2 × 10⁻⁵ M

Answer: (a)

55. For an isomerization reaction A ⇋ B, the temperature dependence of equilibrium constant is given by

The value of ∆S° at Hook is, therefore

(a) 4R

(b) 5R

(d) 2000R

Answer: (a)

56. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surrounding. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following.

(a) q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, W = 0

(b) q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, W = 0

(d) q = 0, ∆T < 0, W ≠ 0

Answer: (c)

57. The given graph represents the variation of compressibility factor (Z) = pV/nRT, for three real gases A, B and C. Identify the only incorrect statement.

(a) For the gas A, a = 0 and the dependence on p is linear at all pressure.

(b) For the gas B, b = 0 and its dependence on p is linear at all pressure.

(c) For the gas C, which is typical real gas for which neither, a nor b = 0. By knowing the minima and point of the intersection, with Z = 1, a and b can be calculated.

(d) At high pressure the slope is positive for all real gases.

Answer: (b)

58. Which one of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?

(a) 3s, 3p and 3d-orbitals all have the same energy.

(b) 3s and 3p-orbitals are of lower energy than 3d-orbital.

(d) 3s-orbital is lower in energy than 3p-orbital.

Answer: (a)

59. In the molecules CH₄, NF₃, NH₄⁺ and H₂O

(a) number of lone pairs are same

(b) all have same hybridization of centre of atom

(d) number of bond pairs are same

Answer: (b)

60. 0.20 g of an organic compound gave 0.12 g of AgBr By using Carius method, the percentage of bromine in the compound will be

(a) 34.06%

(b) 44.04%

(d) 25%

Answer: (d)

PART III

(a) English Proficiency

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-64) Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

61. Forthrightness in speech may not always be a desirable quality.

(a) Outspokenness

(b) Obliqueness

(d) Equivocation

Answer: (a)

62. The inexorable demands of the workers brought the company to a closure.

(a) Unreasonable

(b) Relentless

(d) Violent

Answer: (b)

63. Select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Then her face was bowed.

(a) Then she was being bowed her face.

(b) Her face was bowed by them.

(d) Then her face has been bowed.

Answer: (c)

64. The complex form of the sentence given below would be

Spare the rod and spoil the child.

(a) The child is spoiled if the rod is spared.

(b) The child becomes spoiled when the rod is spared.

(d) The child is spoiled when the rod is spared.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 65-66) Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the given italicized word.

65. The attack on the freedom of the press is a retrograde

(a) progressive

(b) stubborn

(d) aggressive

Answer: (a)

66. The leader might have had some covert reason for the change of his political affiliations.

(a) Unjustifiable

(b) Obvious

(d) Flimsy

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 67-68) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

67. Regard for others as a principle of action or selflessly.

(a) Gynicism

(b) Nepotism

(d) Altruism

Answer: (d)

68. Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence is

(a) Formalism

(b) Statesmanship

(d) Hierarchy

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 69-70) Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C and D to form a logical paragraph.

69. (A) Now under liberated economy they are learning to compete domestically and globally.

(B) In India corporations until recently achieved success by avoiding competition, using protected and regulated domestic markets.

(D) Business leaders are preparing themselves to meet competitive challenges, and to avoid being swept away.

(a) BADC

(b) BDCA

(d) CDBA

Answer: (a)

70. (A) Recovery was given inadequate attention and consequently some bank branches regularly incurred heavy losses and their parent bodies had to bale them out.

(B) As a result, banks indulged in extensive lending to borrowers who had little or no potential to make repayments.

(C) To fulfill the social objectives laid down by the masters of nationalization, banks were asked to lend to identified priority sectors.

(D) 1992-93 results showed that the loss making branches of public sector banks increased from 10,000 to 13,000 and the quantum of losses showed at Rs. 3,369 crores.

(a) BACD

(b) DABC

(d) BCAD

Answer: (c)

(b) Logical Reasoning

71. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Answer: (a)

72. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.

‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

If, P – K × Y – J ÷ S + R, then which of the following statement is not correct?

(a) K is husband of S

(b) Y is son of S

(d) P is paternal uncle of R

Answer: (c)

73. Three different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘6’.

(a) 2

(b) 4

(d) 3

Answer: (d)

74. Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded (rotation is now allowed).

Answer: (b)

75. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

TULG, WRPC, ZOTY, CLXU, ?

(a) FIBQ

(b) FICR

(d) GIAQ

Answer: (a)

76. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(a) 33

(b) 18

(d) 29

Answer: (c)

77. The average marks of 50 students in a class was found to be 64. If the marks of two students were incorrectly entered as 38 and 42 instead of 83 and 24, respectively, then what is the correct average?

(a) 64.54

(b) 62.32

(d) 61.86

Answer: (a)

78. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the right of the figure.

Answer: (a)

79. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing the centre. A sits second to the right of B, E sits second to the left of C. B doesn’t sit adjacent to E. D does not sit opposite to E or C. Who sits to the immediate left of E?

(a) A

(b) D

(d) C

Answer: (a)

80. Five friends A, B, C, D and E bought cars which were priced differently. B’s car was costlier than C’s car but was less costly than E’s car. A’s car was costlier than D’s car but less costly than C’s car. Whose car was the 2^nd costliest?

(a) E

(b) A

(d) C

Answer: (c)

81. In the following questions, complete the missing segment by selecting the appropriate figure from the given alternatives, (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer: (b)

82. In each of the following question, find out which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix?

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. No. 83-84) In the following questions two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statements.

Give Answer

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(d) Either conclusion I or II follows

83. Statements 60% of government employees went on strike.

Mr. Gopal is government employee.

Conclusions

(I) Mr. Gopal went on strike.

(II) Mr. Gopal did not participate in the strike.

Answer: (d)

84. Statements

Lawyers marry only fair girls.

Shobha is very fair.

Conclusions

(I) Shobha is marked to a lawyer.

(II) Shobha is not married to a lawyer.

Answer: (d)

85. In the question given below, find out which of the figures can be formed from the pieces given in the problem figure.

Answer: (b)

86. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

Barometer : Pressure

(a) Ammeter : Current

(b) Thermometer : Volume

(d) Scale : Seconds

Answer: (a)

87. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given set of words.

Cat : Lion : Jaguar

(a) Shark : Dolphin : Bat

(b) Sport; Athlete : Javelin

(d) Reptile : Snake : Toad

Answer: (c)

88. ‘Needle’ is related to ‘Sew’ in the same way as ‘Microscope’ is related to ‘……….’.

(a) Laboratory

(b) Lens

(d) Magnify

Answer: (d)

89. Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

14 : 289 : : 17 : 400 : : 21 : ?

(a) 576

(b) 504

(d) 441

Answer: (a)

90. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

TXB, QWE, NVH, KUK, ?

(a) ITM

(b) JTM

(d) HSN

Answer: (c)

PART IV

Mathematics

91. If α be a root of the equation 4x² + 2x – 1 = 0, then the other root of the equation is

(a) 4α³ + 2α

(b) 4α² – 2α

(d) 4α³ + 3α

Answer: (c)

92. If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4}. And,

B + { x : x is a multiple of 6}, then A ∩ B consist of multiple of

(a) 16

(b) 12

(d) 4

Answer: (b)

93. If |w| = 2, then the set of points is contained in or equal to the set of points z satisfying

(a) Im(z) = 0

(b) |Im(z)| ≤ 1

(d) |z| ≤ 3

Answer: (d)

94. The value of is

(a) 1/6

(b) 1/8

(d) 1/12

Answer: (b)

95. Let a₁, a₂, ….. a₄₀ be in AP and h₁, h₂, …. H₁₀ be in HP. If a₁ = h₁ = 2 and a₁₀ = h₁₀ = 3, then a₄h₇ is

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 6

Answer: (d)

96. The number of terms in the expansion of (1 + 5√2x)⁹ + (1 – 5√2x)⁹, is

(a) 5

(b) 7

(d) 10

Answer: (a)

97. The number of different seven-digit numbers that can be written using only the three digit 1, 2 and 3 with the condition that the digit 2 occurs twice in each number is

(a) ⁷C₂2⁵

(b) ⁷p₂2⁵

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

98. Given 2x – y + 2z = 2, x – 2y + z = −4, x + y + λz = 4, then the value of λ such that the given system of equation has no solution is

(a) −3

(b) 1

(d) 3

Answer: (d)

99. Let and 10 If B is the inverse of A, then the value of α is

(a) 4

(b) −4

(d) 5

Answer: (d)

100. If x ∈ (0, π/2), then the value of is equal to

(a) x − cos⁻¹ (7 cos x)

(b) x + sin⁻¹ (7 cos x)

(d) x + cos⁻¹ (7 cos x)

Answer: (a)

101. A running track of 440 ft is to be laid out enclosing a football field, the shape of which is a rectangle with a semi-circle at each end. If the area of the rectangular portion is to be maximum, then the lengths of its side are

(a) 70 ft and 110 ft

(b) 80 ft and 120 ft

(d) 35 ft and 120 ft

Answer: (c)

102. find general solution

(a) y = tan x(log|cosec x – cot x| + cos x + c)

(b) y = sec² x + tan x + c

(d) y = tan² x + sin x + c

Answer: (a)

103. If the straight line y = mx + c touches the parabola y² – 4ax + 4a³ = 0, then c is

Answer: (d)

104. A normal is drawn at the point P to the parabola y² = 8x, which is inclined at 60° with the straight line y = 8. Then the point P lies on the straight line

(a) 2x + y – 12 – 4√3 = 0

(b) 2x – y – 12 + 4√3 = 0

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

105. The value of is

Answer: (c)

106. The area of the region bounded by the parabola (y – 2)² = (x – 1), the tangent to the parabola at the point (2, 3) and the X-axis is

(a) 3

(b) 6

(d) 12

Answer: (c)

107. are two non-collinear unit vectors such that Then the value of is equal to

Answer: (d)

108. A six faced die is a biased one. It is thrice more likely to show an odd numbers than show an even number. It is thrown twice. The probability that the sum of the numbers in two throws is even, is

(a) 5/9

(b) 5/8

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

109. The sum of all the solution of the equation θ ∈ [0, 6π]

(a) 15π

(b) 30π

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

110. Let α be the solution of in (0, π/4). If the shadow of a vertical pole is 1/√3 of its height, then the altitude of the sun is

(a) α

(b) α/2

(d) α/3

Answer: (c)

111. For each parabola y = x² + px + q, meeting coordinate axes at 3-distinct points, if circles are drawn through these points, then the family of circles must pass through

(a) (1, 0)

(b) (0, 1)

(d) (p, q)

Answer: (b)

112. The number of ways of arranging letters of the word HAVANA so that V and N do not appear together is

(a) 40

(b) 60

(d) 100

Answer: (c)

113. Let a₁, a₂, a₃ …. Be a harmonic progression with a₁ = 5 and a₂₀ = 25. The least positive integer n for which a_n < 0, is

(a) 22

(b) 23

(d) 25

Answer: (d)

114. If the plane 3x + y + 2z + 6 = 0 is parallel to the line then the value of 3a + 3b is

(a) 1/2

(b) 3/2

(d) 4

Answer: (b)

115. Let a, b be the solutions of x² + px + 1 = 0 and c, d be the solution of x² + qx + 1 = 0. If (a – c) (b – c) and (a + d) (b + d) are the solution of x² + ax + β = 0, then β is equal to

(a) p + q

(b) p – q

(d) q² – p²

Answer: (d)

116. If then

(a) a = 1, b = 1

(b) a = sin 2θ, b = cos 2θ

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

117. The value of is

(a)

(b)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

118. The locus of the mid-point of the chord if contact of tangents drawn from points lying on the straight line 4x – 5y = 20 to the circle x² + y² = 9 is

(a) 20(x² + y²) – 36x + 45y = 0

(b) 20(x² + y²) + 36x – 45y = 0

(d) 36(x² + y²) + 20x – 45y = 0

Answer: (a)

119. Let and f(0) = 0, then the value of f(1) be

(a) log(1 + √2)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

120. The mean of five observations is 4 and their variance is 5.2. If three of these observations are 1, 2 and 6, then the other two are

(a) 2 and 9

(b) 3 and 8

(d) 5 and 6

Answer: (c)

121. In a sequence of 21 terms, the first 11 terms are in AP with common difference 2 and the last 11 terms are in GP with common ratio 2. If the middle term of AP be equal to the middle term of the GP, then the middle term of the entire sequence is

(a) −10/31

(b) 10/31

(d) −31/32

Answer: (a)

122. If p ≠ a, q ≠ b, r ≠ c and the system of equations

px + ay + az = 0

bx + qy + bz = 0

cx + cy + rz = 0

has a non-trivial solution, then the value of is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 0

Answer: (b)

123. If g(x) = x² + x – 2 and then f(x) is equal to

(a) 2x – 3

(b) 2x + 3

(d) 2x² – 3x + 1

Answer: (a)

124. The smallest positive integral value of n such that is purely imaginary, is equal to

(a) 4

(b) 3

(d) 8

Answer: (a)

125. A house subtends a right angle at the window of a opposite house and the angle of elevation of the window from the bottom of the first house is 60. If the distance between two houses be 6 m, then the height of the first house is

(a) 8√3 m

(b) 6√3 m

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

126. A spherical balloon is filled with 4500π cubic meters of helium gas. If a leak in the balloon causes the gas to escape at the rate of 72π cubic meters per minute then the rate (in meters per minute) at which the radius of the balloon decreases 49 min after the leakage began is

(a) 9/7

(b) 7/9

(d) 9

Answer: (c)

127. If in a ∆ABC, 2b² = a² + c², then is equal to

Answer: (d)

128. If the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of (x + y)ⁿ is 1024, then the value of greatest coefficient in the expansion is

(a) 356

(b) 252

(d) 120

Answer: (b)

129. The area enclosed by the curves y = sin x + cos x and y = |cos x – sin x| over the interval [0, π/2] is

(a) 4(√2 – 1)

(b) 2√2(√2 – 1)

(d) 2√2(√2 + 1)

Answer: (b)

130. If α, β, γ ∈ [0, π] and if α, β, γ are in AP, then is equal to

(a) sin β

(b) cos β

(d) 2 cos β

Answer: (c)

BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2019 With Answer Key

June 28, 2023September 22, 2019 by suresh84

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2019

PART-I : PHYSICS

1. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of electric field with distance r from the centre of a charged spherical conductor of radius R?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

2. If are the electric and magnetic field vectors of e.m. waves then the direction of propagation of e.m. wave is along the direction of

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

3. The young’s modulus of a wire of length L and radius r Y N/m². If the length and radius are reduced to L/2 and r/2, then its young’s modulus will be

(a) Y/2

(b) Y

(d) 4Y

Answer: (b)

4. Twelve resistors each of resistance 16 Ω are connected in the circuit as shown. The net resistance between A and B is

(a) 1 Ω

(b) 2 Ω

(d) 4 Ω

Answer: (d)

5. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become

(a) 10 hours

(b) 80 hours

(d) 20 hours

Answer: (c)

6. Two rains are moving towards each other with speeds of 20 m/s and 15 m/s relative to the ground. The first train sounds a whistle of frequency 600 Hz. The frequency of the whistle heard by a passenger in the second train before the train meets, is (the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s)

(a) 600 Hz

(b) 585 Hz

(d) 666 Hz

Answer: (d)

7. You are asked to design a having mirror assuming that a person keeps it 10 cm from his face and views the magnified image of the face at the closest comfortable distance of 25 cm. The radius of curvature of the mirror would then be:

(a) 60 cm

(b) −24 cm

(d) 24 cm

Answer: (c)

8. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with angle of inclination ‘α’. The incline is given an acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block stationary. Then ‘a’ is equal to

(a) g cosec α

(b) g/tan α

(d) g

Answer: (c)

9. With the increase in temperature, the angle of contact

(a) decreases

(b) increases

(d) sometimes increases and sometimes

Answer: (a)

10. Forward biasing is that in which applied voltage

(a) increases potential barrier

(b) cancels the potential barrier

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

11. Number of significant figures in expression is

(a) 2

(b) 4

(d) 5

Answer: (c)

12. The ratio of the specific heats in terms of degrees of freedom (n) given by

(a) (1 + n/3)

(b) (1 + 2/n)

(d) (1 + 1/n)

Answer: (b)

13. A stone is thrown with a velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal. The horizontal distance covered by its fall to ground is maximum when the angle θ is equal to

(a) 0°

(b) 30°

(d) 90°

Answer: (c)

14. A ball of mass 150 g, moving with an acceleration 20 m/s², is his by a force, which acts on it for 0.1 sec. The impulsive force is

(a) 0.5 N

(b) 0.1 N

(d) 1.2 N

Answer: (c)

15. A man drags a block through 10 m on rough surface (μ = 0.5). A force of √3 kN acting at 30° to the horizontal. The work done by applied force is

(a) zero

(b) 7.5 kJ

(d) 10 kJ

Answer: (b)

16. A force of acts on a body for 4 second, produces a displacement of The power used is

(a) 9.5 W

(b) 7.5 W

(d) 4.5 W

Answer: (a)

17. The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the Earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fv, where v is its escape velocity from the surface of the Earth. The value of f is

(a) 1/3

(b) 1/2

(d) 1/√2

Answer: (d)

18. Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of areal velocity of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) Energy

(b) Angular momentum

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

19. Water is flowing through a horizontal tube having cross-sectional areas of its two ends being A and A’ such that ratio A/A’ is 5. If the pressure difference of water between the two ends is 3 × 10⁵ N m⁻², the velocity of water with which it enters the tube will be (neglect gravity effects)

(a) 5ms⁻¹

(b) 10 ms⁻¹

(d) 50√10 ms⁻¹

Answer: (a)

20. A thermodynamic system is taken from state A to B along ACB and is brought back to A along BDA as shown in the PV diagram. The net work done during the complete cy cle is given by the area

(a) P₁ACBP₂P₁

(b) ACBB’A’A

(d) ADBB’A’A

Answer: (c)

21. A boat crosses a river from port A to port B, which are just on the opposite side. The speed of the water is V_w and that of boat is V_B relative to still water. Assume V_w = 2V_w. What is the time taken by the boat, if it has to cross the river directly on the AB line (D = width of the river]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

22. Two springs, of force constants k₁ and k₂ are connected to a mass m as shown. The frequency of oscillation of the mass is f. If both k₁ and k₂ are made four times their original values, the frequency of oscillation becomes

(a) 2f

(b) f/2

(d) 4f

Answer: (a)

23. When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor at a temperature T, the drift velocity of electrons is proportional to

(a) √V

(b) V

(d) T

Answer: (b)

24. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes (1/3rd) in 2 seconds. If its amplitude after 6 seconds is 1/n times the original amplitude, the value of n is

(a) 3²

(b) 3³

(d) 2³

Answer: (b)

25. The angular speed of the electron in the nth orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is

(a) directly proportional to n

(b) inversely proportional to √n

(d) inversely proportional to n³

Answer: (d)

26. In the given figure, the charge on 3 μF capacitor is

(a) 10 μC

(b) 15 μC

(d) 5 μC

Answer: (a)

27. Two bodies A and B are placed in an evacuated vessel maintained at a temperature of 27° The temperature of A is 327°C and that of B is 227°C. The ratio of heat loss from A and B is about

(a) 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 2

(d) 1 : 4

Answer: (a)

28. If a rigid body is rotating about an axis with a constant velocity, then

(a) Velocity, Angular velocity of all particles will be same

(b) Velocity, Angular velocity of all particles will be different

(d) Angular velocity of all particles will be different but velocity will be same.

Answer: (c)

29. The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe is 300 Hz. The first overtone of this pipe has same frequency as first overtone of a closed organ pipe. If speed of sound is 330 m/s, then the length of closed organ pipe is

(a) 41 cm

(b) 30 cm

(d) 35 cm

Answer: (a)

30. In Young’s experiment, the distance between the slits is reduced to half and the distance between the slit and screen is doubled, then the fringe width

(a) will not change

(b) will become half

(d) will become four times

Answer: (d)

31. If a rolling body’s angular momentum changes by 20 SI units in 3 seconds, by a constant torque. Then find the torque on the b ody

(a) 20/3 SI units

(b) 100/3 SI units

(d) 5 SI units

Answer: (a)

32. Charge Q is distributed to two different metallic spheres having radii x and 2x such that both spheres have equal surface charge density, then charge on large sphere is

(a) 4Q/5

(b) Q/5

(d) 5Q/4

Answer: (a)

33. In an LR circuit f = 50 Hz, L = 2 H, E = 5 volts, R = 1 Ω then energy stored in inductor is

(a) 50 J

(b) 25 J

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

34. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field induction 2 tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is

(a) 2.4 N

(b) 1.2 N

(d) 2.0 N

Answer: (b)

35. A man drives a car from station B towards station A at speed 60 km/h. A car leaves station A for station B every 10 min. The distance between A and B is 60 km. The car travels at the speed of 60 km/h. A man drives a car from B towards A at speed of 60 km/h. If he starts at the moment when first car leaves the station B, then how many cars would be meet on the route?

(a) 4

(b) 7

(d) 12

Answer: (b)

36. In rotatory motion, linear velocities of all the particles of the body are

(a) same

(b) different

(d) cannot say

Answer: (b)

37. If x, v and a denote the displacement, the velocity and the acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion of time period T, then, which of the following does not change with time?

(a) aT/x

(b) aT + 2πv

(d) a²T² + 4π²v²

Answer: (a)

38. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires AB and CD are

(a) B to A and D to C

(b) A to B and C to D

(d) B to A and C to D

Answer: (a)

39. Find the acceleration of block A and B. Assume pulley is massless.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

40. The nuclei of which one of the following pairs of nuclei are isotones?

(a) ₃₄Se⁷⁴, ₃₁Ga⁷¹

(b) ₃₈Sr⁸⁴, ₃₈Sr⁸⁶

(d) ₂₀Ca⁴⁰, ₁₆S³²

Answer: (a)

PART-II : CHEMISTRY

41. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with temperature (T) are given below. The plot that follows Arrhenius equation is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

42. 3.6 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of metal powder. What volume of oxygen adsorbed per gram of the adsorbent at 1 atm and 273 K?

(a) 0.19 L g⁻¹

(b) 1 L g⁻¹

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

43. In the purification of impure nickel by Mond’s process, metal is purified by:

(a) Electrolytic reduction

(b) Vapour phase thermal decomposition

(d) Carbon reduction

Answer: (b)

44. When chlorine water is added to an aqueous solution of sodium iodide in the presence of chloroform, a violet colouration is obtained. ON adding more the chlorine water and vigorous shaking, the violet colour disappears. This shows the conversion of ….. into ….

(a) I₂, HIO₃

(b) I₂, HI

(d) I₂, HOI

Answer: (a)

45. In the clathrates of xenon with water, the nature of bonding between xenon and water molecule is

(a) covalent

(b) hydrogen bonding

(d) dipole-include dipole

Answer: (d)

46. The electronic configurations of Eu(Atomic No. 63), Gd(Atomic No. 64) and Tb(Atomic No. 65) are

(a) [Xe]4f⁷6s², [Xe]4f⁸ 6s² and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²

(b) [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s², [Xe]4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s² and [Xe]4f⁹6s²

(d) [Xe]4f⁷6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹ 6s² and [Xe]4f⁹6s²

Answer: (d)

47. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C – O bond?

(a) [Mn(CO)₆]⁺

(b) [Cr(CO)₆]

(d) [Fe(CO)₅]

Answer: (a)

48. How many chiral compounds are possible on monochlorination of 2-methyl butane?

(a) 8

(b) 2

(d) 6

Answer: (c)

49. How many chiral compounds are possible in the reaction of excess of CH₃MgBr with C₆H₅COOC₂H₅ to make 2-phenyl-2-propanol?

(a) A and B

(b) A, B and C

(d) B and C

Answer: (b)

50.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

51. Which of the following is the strongest base?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

52. Which of the following does not reduce Benedict’s solution?

(a) Glucose

(b) Fructose

(d) Aldehyde

Answer: (c)

53. General formula of solid in zinc blende structure is

(a) AB₂

(b) AB₃

(d) A₂B

Answer: (c)

54. Glycine in alkaline solution exists as ______ and migrates to

(a) Cation, cathode

(b) Neutral , anode

(d) anion, anode

Answer: (d)

55. Product on reaction of ethanamide with phosphorus pentoxide is

(a) ethanamine

(b) acetonitrile

(d) ethane isonitrile

Answer: (b)

56. K_a of HX is 10⁻⁵, then find concentration of H₃O⁺ when equal volumes of 0.25M HX and 0.05 M NaOH are mixed.

(a) 4 × 10⁻⁵ M

(b) 6 × 10⁻⁵ M

(d) 2 × 10⁻⁵ M

Answer: (a)

57. Net cell reaction of Pt|H₂(640 mm)|HCl|H₂(510 mm)|Pt.

(a) 0.89V

(b) 0.93V

(d) 2.5 × 10⁻² V

Answer: (c)

58. Which of the following has zero net dipole moment?

(a) XeF₄

(b) BrF₃

(d) SF₄

Answer: (a)

59. Which of the following element has the highest ionization enthalpy?

(a) Boron

(b) Aluminium

(d) Thallium

Answer: (a)

60. Out of the elements with atomic number 7, 8, 9, 13 which has the smallest size and highest ionization enthalpy?

(a) 7

(b) 8

(d) 13

Answer: (a)

61. Which one is classified as a condensation polymer?

(a) Dacron

(b) Neoprene

(d) Acrylonitrile

Answer: (a)

62. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid?

(a) Phenelzine

(b) Ranitidie

(d) Cimetidine

Answer: (a)

63. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

(a) 0.1770

(b) 0.0177

(d) 1.7700

Answer: (b)

64. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

(b) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-penten

(d) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

Answer: (a)

65. Most stable carbocation among the following is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

66. Which is correct for the following changes?

(a) X is Lindlar Catalyst, B is cis-2-butene

(b) A is 2-butyne, X is Na-liq. NH₃

(d) A is 2-butene, X is SeO₂

Answer: (a)

67. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, ln and Tl increases in the sequence :

(a) Ga < In < Al < Tl

(b) Al < Ga < ln < Tl

(d) In < Tl < Ga < Al

Answer: (b)

68. Which of the following alkaline earth metal hydroxide is amphoteric in character?

(a) Be(OH)₂

(b) Ca(OH)₂

(d) Ba(OH)₂

Answer: (a)

69. Which reaction show oxidizing nature of H₂O₂?

(a) H₂O₂ + 2KI → 2KOH + I₂

(b) Cl₂ + H₂O₂ → 2HCl + O₂

(d) NaClO + H₂O₂ → NaCl + H₂O + O₂

Answer: (a)

70. aK₂Cr₂O₇ + bKCl + cH₂SO₄ → xCrO₂Cl₂ + yKHSO₄+ zH₂O

The above equation balances when

(a) a = 2, b = 4, c = 6 and x = 2, y = 6, z = 3

(b) a = 4, b = 2, c = 6 and x = 6, y = 2, z = 3

(d) a = 1, b = 4, c = 6 and x = 2, y = 6, z = 3

Answer: (d)

71. For the reactions

A ⇌ B; K_c = 2

B ⇌ C; K_c = 4

C ⇌ D; K_c = 6

K_c for the reaction A ⇌ D is

(a) 2 × 4 × 6

(b)

(d)

Answer: (a)

72. Which of the following will always lead to a non-spontaneous change?

(a) ∆H and ∆S both +ve

(b) ∆H is –ve ∆S both +ve

(d) ∆H is +ve ∆S both -ve

Answer: (d)

73. The densities of two gasses are in the ratio of 1 : 16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion is

(a) 16 : 1

(b) 4 : 1

(d) 1 : 16

Answer: (b)

74. In the reaction, 2PCl₅ ⇌ PCl₄⁺ + PCl₆⁻, the change in hybridization is from

(a) sp³d to sp³ and sp³d²

(b) sp³d to sp² and sp³

(d) sp³d² to sp³ and sp³d

Answer: (a)

75. The group having isoelectronic species is:

(a) O²⁻, F⁻, Na⁺, Mg²⁺

(b) O⁻, F⁻, Na, Mg⁺

(d) O⁻, F⁻, Na⁺, Mg²⁺

Answer: (a)

76. 100 mL O₂ and H₂ kept at same temperature and pressure. What is true about their number of molecules

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

77. If m_A gram of a metal A displaces m_B gram of another metal B from its salt solution and if the equivalent mass are E_A and E_B respectively then equivalent mass of A can be expressed as:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

78. Which one of the following set of quantum numbers is not possible for 4p electron?

(a) n = 4, l = 1, m = −1, m_s = +1/2

(b) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, m_s = +1/2

(d) n = 4, l = 1, m = −1, m_s = −1/2

Answer: (c)

79. Which of the following radial distribution graphs correspond to l = 2 for the H atom?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

80. Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(a) B₂

(b) C₂

(d) F₂

Answer: (a)

PART-III(A): ENGLISH PROFICIENCY

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81-83): In the following questions below, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

81. Garrulous

(a) Talkative

(b) Sedative

(d) Positive

Answer: (a)

82. Tinsel

(a) Tinkle

(b) Decoration

(d) Colourful

Answer: (b)

83. Labyrinth

(a) Meandering

(b) Rotating

(d) Wriggling

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS(Qs .84-86) : In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

84. Knack:

(a) Talent

(b) Dullness

(d) Balance

Answer: (b)

85. Pernicious:

(a) Prolonged

(b) Ruinous

(d) Beneficial

Answer: (d)

86. Opulence :

(a) Luxury

(b) Transparency

(d) Poverty

Answer: (d)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 87-90) : Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate circle [•].

Like watering a plant, we grow our friendships [and all our relationship) by running them, Friendships need the same attention as other relationships. If they are to continue. These relationships can be delightfully non-judgemental, supportive, understanding and fun.

Sometimes a friendship can bring out the positive side that you never show in any other relationship. This may be because the pressure of playing a ‘role’ (daughter, partner or child) is removed. With friend you are to be yourself and free to change. Of course, you are free to do this in all other relationships as well, but in friendships you get to have lats of rehearsals and discussion about changes as you experience them. It is an unconditional experience where you receive as much as you give. You can explain yourself to a friend openly without the fear of hurting a family member. How do friendships grow? The answer is simple. By revealing yourself; being attentive: remembering what is most showing empathy; seeing the world through the eyes of your friend, you will understand the value of friendship. All this means learning to accept a person from a completely different family to your own or perhaps someone from a completely different cultural background. This is the way we learn tolerance. In turn we gain tolerance and acceptance for our own differences.

87. In good friendships, we

(a) give and receive

(b) neither give nor receive

(d) only receive

Answer: (a)

88. Empathy means

(a) someone else’s misfortunes

(b) the ability to share and understand another feelings.

(d) ability to do something

Answer: (b)

89. Through strong friendships, we gain

(a) only acceptance.

(b) only attention.

(d) only tolerance.

Answer: (c)

90. Friendships and relationships grow when they are

(a) compared

(b) divided

(d) nurtured

Answer: (d)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91-92) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

91. There are not solitary, free-living creatures; every form of life is ______other forms.

(a) dependent on

(b) parallel to

(d) segregated from

Answer: (a)

92. I’ll take _____ now as I have another’s appointment some where else.

(a) departure

(b) your leave

(d) leave from work

Answer: (b)

DIRECTIONS(Qs. 93-95) : In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is (d). i.e., No error.

93. When one hears of the incident (a)/about the plane crash(b)/ he feels very sorry. (c)/ No error (d)

Answer: (b)

94. I went there (a)/ with a view to survey (b)/ the entire procedure. (c)/No error (d)

Answer: (b)

95. It had laid(a)/in the closet(b)/ for a week before we found it. (c)/ No error(d)

Answer: (a)

PART-III(B) : LOGICAL REASONING

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96 & 97) : In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the question figure?

96.

Answer: (b)

97.

Answer: (c)

98.

Answer: (d)

99. Select the related word from the given alternatives:

Medicine : Patient : Education :?

(a) Teacher

(b) School

(d) Tuition

Answer: (c)

100. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

A3E, F5J, K7O,_____

(a) Q11T

(b) Q9V

(d) P11T

Answer: (d)

101. Which one of the following numbers lacks the common property in the series?

81, 36, 25, 9, 5, 16

(a) 5

(b) 9

(d) 25

Answer: (a)

102. In a certain code language, “TIRED” is written as “56” and “BRAIN” is written as “44”> How is “LAZY” written in that code language?

(a) 64

(b) 61

(d) 43

Answer: (a)

103. Select the missing number from the given response.

(a) 66

(b) 87

(d) 76

Answer: (b)

104. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Human Society – Youth Club, Political Party and Youths?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

105. Among her children, Ganga’s favourites are Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of Sharat, who is loved most by his uncle Mithun. The head of the family is Ram Lal, who is succeeded by his sons Gopoal and Mohan. Gopal and Ganga have been married for 35 years and have 3 children. What is the relation between Mithun and Mohan?

(a) Uncle

(b) Son

(d) No relation

Answer: (d)

PART-IV : MATHEMATICS

106. If x cos α + y sin α = P is a tangent to the ellipse then

(a) a cos α + b sin α = P²

(b) a sin α + b cos α = P²

(d) a²sin² α + b²cos² α = P²

Answer: (c)

107. If a₁, a₂, a₃ …….., a_n are in A.P. where a₁ > 0 for all i, then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

108. In order to solve the differential equation the integrating factor is:

(a) x cos x

(b) x sec x

(d) x cosec x

Answer: (b)

109. Equation of two straight lines are and . Then

(a) The lines are non-coplanar

(b) The lines are parallel and distinct

(d) The lines are coincident

Answer: (c)

110. The equation of the curve passing through the point (a, −1/a) and satisfying the differential equation is

(a) (x + a) (1 + ay) = −4a²y

(b) (x + a) (1 − ay) = 4a²y

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

111. The locus of the mid-point of a chord of the circle x² + y² = 4, which subtends a right angle at the origin is

(a) x + y = 2

(b) x² + y² = 1

(d) x + y = 1

Answer: (c)

112. With the usual notation is equal to

(a) 4 + √2 − √3

(b) 4 − √2 + √3

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

113.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

114. If

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

115. If f(x) = 3x⁴ + 4x³ – 12x² + 12, then f(x) is

(a) increasing in (–∞,–2) and in (0, 1)

(b) increasing in (–2, 0) and in (1, ∞)

(d) decreasing in (–∞,–2) and in (1, ∞)

Answer: (b)

116. Consider Then number of possible solutions are :

(a) Zero

(b) Unique

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

117. The distance of a point (2, 5 –3) from the plane is

(a) 13

(b) 13/7

(d) 37/7

Answer: (b)

118. The value of definite integral is

(a) 0

(b) π/4

(d) π

Answer: (a)

119. For the following feasible region, the linear constraints are

(a) x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 2y ≥ 12, x + 3y ≥ 11

(b) x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 2y ≤ 12, x + 3y ≥ 11

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

120. The general solution of differential equation (e^x + 1) ydy = (y + 1) e^x dx is

(a) (y + 1) = k(e^x + 1)

(b) y + 1 = e^x + 1 + k

(d)

Answer: (c)

121. What is the slope of the normal at the point (at², 2at) of the parabola y² = 4ax?

(a) 1/t

(b) t

(d) −1/t

Answer: (c)

122. is equal to

(a) π²/32

(b) π²/16

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

123. If , then what is x equal to?

(a) 3

(b) 2

(d) 0

Answer: (d)

The limit

(a) is equal to 1/2

(b) is equal to −1/2

(d) does not exist

Answer: (a)

125. If 2 cos² x + 3 sin x – 3 = 0, 0 ≤ x ≤ 180°, then x = 0

(a) 30°, 90°, 150°

(b) 60°, 120°, 180°

(d) 45°, 90°, 135°

Answer: (a)

126. If the number of available constraints is 3 and the number of parameters to be optimized is 4, then

(a) The objective function can be optimized

(b) The constraint are short in number

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

127. If then y'(1) is equal to

(a) 0

(b) 1/2

(d) −1/4

Answer: (d)

128. The maximum area of rectangle inscribed in a circle of diameter R is

(a) R²

(b) R²/2

(d) R²/8

Answer: (b)

129. If A and B are two events, such that P (A ⋃ B) = 3/4, P(A ⋂ B) = 1/4, P(A^c) = 2/3 where A° stands for the complementary event of A, then P(B) is given by:

(a) 1/3

(b) 2/3

(d) 2/9

Answer: (b)

130. If then

(a) f is continuous at x, when k = 0

(b) f is not continuous at x = 0 for any real k.

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

131. is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

132. The equation of chord of the circle x² + y² = 8x bisected at the point (4, 3) is

(a) x = 3

(b) y = 3

(d) y = −3

Answer: (b)

133. x and y are positive number. Let g and a be G.M. and Am of these numbers. Also let G be G. M. of x + 1 and y + 1. If and g are roots of equation x² – 5x + 6 = 0, then

(a) x = 2, y = 3/4

(b) x = 3/4, y = 12

(d) x = y = 2

Answer: (d)

134. The co-efficient of xⁿ in the expansion of

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

135. A pair of tangents are drawn from the origin to the circle x² + y² + 20(x + y) + 20 = 0, then the equation of the pair of tangent are

(a) x² + y² – 5xy = 0

(b) x² + y² + 2x + y = 0

(d) 2x² + 2y² + 5xy = 0

Answer: (d)

136. If the sum of a certain number of terms of the A.P. 25, 22, 19, …..is 116. then the last term is

(a) 0

(b) 2

(d) 6

Answer: (c)

137. If 1, a and P are in A.P. and 1, g and P are in G.P., then

(a) 1 + 2a + g² = 0

(b) 1 + 2a – g² = 0

(d) 1 – 2a + g² = 0

Answer: (d)

138. If y = sin x + e^x, then is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) (−sin x + e^x)⁻¹

Answer: (b)

139. The foci of the hyperbola 4x² – 9y² – 1 = 0 are

(a) (±√13, 0)

(b) (±√13/6, 0)

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

140. From the top of a cliff 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30° and 45°. The height of tower is

(a) 50 m

(b) 50√3 m

(d)

Answer: (d)

141. The coefficient of x² tem in the binomial expansion of is:

(a) 70/243

(b) 60/423

(d) none of these

Answer: (a)

142. The value of λ, for which the circle x² + y² + 2λr + 6y + 1 = 0 intersects the circle x² + y² + 4x + 2y = 0 orthogonally, is

(a) 11/8

(b) −1

(d) 5/2

Answer: (c)

143. The value of is

(a)

(b)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

144. If f(x) = a – xⁿ)^1/n, where a > 0 and n ∈ N, then fof(x) is equal to:

(a) a

(b) x

(d) aⁿ

Answer: (b)

145. Sum of n terms of the series 8 + 88 + 888 + … equals

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

146. The modulus of the complex number z such that |z + 3 – i| = 1 and arg(z) = π is equal to

(a) 3

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (a)

147. Bag P contains 6 red and 4 blue balls and bag Q contains 5 red and 6 blue balls. A ball is transferred from bag P to bag Q and then a ball is drawn from bag Q. What is the probability that the ball drawn is blue?

(a) 7/15

(b) 8/15

(d) 8/19

Answer: (b)

148. The number of 4-digit number that can be formed with the digits, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in which at least 2 digits are identical, is

(a) 505

(b) 4⁵ – 5!

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

149. Consider the system of linear equations;

x₁ + 2x₂ + x₃ = 3

2x₁ + 3x₂ + x₃ = 3

3x₁ + 5x₂ + 2x₃ = 1

The system has

(a) exactly 3 solutions

(b) a unique solution

(d) infinite solutions

Answer: (c)

150. What is the value of y so that the line through (3, y) and (2, 7) is parallel to the line through (−1, 4) and (0, 6)?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(d) 9

Answer: (d)

BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2018 With Answer Key

June 28, 2023September 21, 2019 by suresh84

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2018

PART-I : PHYSICS

1. Four point charges –Q, −q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of t he square. The relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is:

(a) Q = −q

(b) Q = −1/q

(d) Q = 1/q

Answer: (a)

2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i flowing in the same direction are at a distance 2d apart. The magnetic field B at a point lying on the perpendicular line joining the wires and at a distance x from the midpoint is-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual meanings. The cell has emf E. X is initially joined to Y for a long time. Then, X joined to Z. The maximum charge on C at any later time will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed at

(a) 30 cm left

(b) infinity

(d) 18 cm to the left

Answer: ()

5. In Young’s double slit experiment, λ = 500 nm, d = 1 mm, D = 1m. Minimum distance from the central maximum for which intensity is half of the maximum intensity is

(a) 2.5 × 10⁻⁴ m

(b) 1.25 × 10⁻⁴ m

(d) 0.3125 × 10⁻⁴ m

Answer: (c)

6. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter amplifier, where input resistance is 3 Ω and load resistance 24 Ω, β = 0.6?

(a) 8.4

(b) 4.8

(d) 480

Answer: (b)

7. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 1/6 that on the surface of earth and the diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and moon will be

(a) √6/2

(b) √24

(d) √3/2

Answer: (b)

8. Given The magnitude of their resultant is

(a) √3

(b) 2√3

(d) 4√3

Answer: (b)

9. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude a and frequency v. The average kinetic energy during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the end is

(a) 2π²ma²v²

(b) π²ma²v²

(c)

(d) 4π²ma²v²

Answer: (b)

10. The dipole moment of the given charge distribution is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

11. At a place, if the earth’s horizontal and vertical components of magnetic fields are equal, then the angle of dip will be

(a) 30°

(b) 90°

(d) 0°

Answer: (c)

12. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalent to hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm. The ground state energy of an electron of this ion will be

(a) 3.4 eV

(b) 13.6 eV

(d) 122.4 eV

Answer: (c)

13. The binding energy per nucleon of ¹⁰X is 9 MeV and that of ¹¹X is 7.5 MeV where X represents an element. The minimum energy required to remove a neutron from ¹¹X is

(a) 7.5 MeV

(b) 2.5 MeV

(d) 0.5 MeV

Answer: (b)

14. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the dimensions of length will be same as that of

(a) C/g

(b) C/P

(d) C²/g

Answer: (d)

15. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown through the horizontal tube in the direction as shown then rise in capillary tube will be

(a) = H

(b) > H

(d) zero

Answer: (b)

16. A boy running on a horizontal road at 8 km/h finds the rain falling vertically. He increase his speed to 12 km/h and finds that the drops makes 30° with the vertical. The speed of rain with respect to the road is

(a) 4√7 km/h

(b) 9√7 km/h

(d) 15√7 km/h

Answer: (a)

17. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly at a money on a tree. At the instant the bullet leaves the barrel of the gun, the monkey drops. Pick the correct statement regarding the situation.

(a) The bullet will never hit the monkey

(b) The bullet will always hit the monkey

(d) Can’t be predicted

Answer: (b)

18. A particle of mass m₁ moving with velocity v collides with a mass m₂ at rest, then they get embedded. Just after collision, velocity of the system

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(d) becomes zero

Answer: (b)

19. The ratio of the specific heats of a gas is C_p/C_v = 1.66, then the gas may be

(a) CO₂

(b) He

(d) NO₂

Answer: (b)

20. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in same phase. After 50 oscillations of one, they get out of phase by π, that is half oscillation. The percentage difference of frequencies of the two oscillators is nearest to

(a) 2%

(b) 1%

(d) 0.25%

Answer: (b)

21. A juggler keeps on moving four ball in the air throwing the balls after intervals. When one ball leaves his hand (speed = 20 ms⁻¹) the position of other balls (height in m) will be (Take g = 10 ms⁻²)

(a) 10, 20, 10

(b) 15, 20, 15

(d) 5, 10, 20

Answer: (b)

22. If a stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown out a window of a train moving at a constant speed of 100 km/h then magnitude of the net force acting on the stone is

(a) 0.5 N

(b) zero

(d) 5 N

Answer: (a)

23. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is

(a) MV

(b) 1.5 MV

(d) zero

Answer: (c)

24. A hoop rolls down an inclined plane. The fraction of its total kinetic energy that is associated with rotational motion is

(a) 1 : 2

(b) 1 : 3

(d) 2 : 3

Answer: (a)

25. Infinite number of masses, each 1 kg are paced along the x-axis is at x = ±1m, ±2m, ±4m, ±8m, ± 16m …. the magnitude of the resultant gravitational potential in terms of gravitational constant G at the origin (x = 0) is

(a) G/2

(b) G

(d) 4G

Answer: (c)

26. What of volume 2 litre in a container is heated with a coil of 1 kW at 27° The lid of the container is open and energy dissipates at rate of 160 J/s. In how much time temperature will rise from 27°C to 77°C?

[Given specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg]

(a) 8 min 20 s

(b) 6 min 2 s

(d) 14 min

Answer: (a)

27. In the following P-V diagram of an ideal gas, two adiabates cut two isotherms at T₁ = 300 K and T₂ = 200 K. The value of V_A = 2 unit, V_B = 8 unit, V_C = 16 unit. Find the value of V_D.

(a) 4 unit

(b) < 4 unit

(d) 5 unit

Answer: (a)

28. The mass of H₂ molecule is 3.32 × 10⁻²⁴ If 10²³ hydrogen molecules per second strike 2 cm² of wall at a an angle of 45° with the normal, while moving with a speed of 10⁵ cm/s, the pressure exerted on the wall is nearly.

(a) 1350 N/m²

(b) 2350 N/m²

(d) 1660 N/m²

Answer: (b)

29. The wavelength of two waves are 50 and 51 cm respectively. If the temperature of the room is 20°C then what will be the number of beats produced per second by these waves, when the speed of sound at 0°C is 332 m/s?

(a) 24

(b) 14

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

30. The figure shows the interference pattern obtained in a double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are marked on five fringes.

The third order bright fringe is

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 5

Answer: (a)

31. Electric potential at any point is V = −5x + 3y + √15z, then the magnitude of the electric field is

(a) 3√2

(b) 4√2

(d) 7

Answer: (d)

32. Seven resistances, each of value 20 Ω, are connected to a 2V battery as shown in the figure. The ammeter reading will be

(a) 1/10 A

(b) 3/10 A

(d) 7/10 A

Answer: (c)

33. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (χ) with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

34. A copper rod of length ℓ rotates about its end with angular velocity ω in uniform magnetic field B. The emf developed between the ends of the rod if the field is normal to the plane of rotation is

(a) Bωℓ²

(b)

(d)

Answer: (b)

35. A 10V battery with internal resistance 1Ω and a 15V battery with internal resistance 0.6 Ω are connected in parallel to a voltmeter (see figure). The reading in the voltmeter will be close to :

(a) 12.5 V

(b) 24.5 V

(d) 11.9 V

Answer: (c)

36. 10 forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency in such a way that any two nearest tuning forks produce 4 beats/sec. The highest frequency is twice of the lowest. Possible highest and the lowest frequencies (in Hz) are

(a) 80 and 40

(b) 100 and 50

(d) 72 and 36

Answer: (d)

37. A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field with a certain velocity. The power delivered to the particle by the magnetic field depends on

(a) force exerted by magnetic field and velocity of the particle.

(b) angular speed ω and radius r of the circular path.

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

38. A resistor and an inductor are connected to an ac supply of 120 V and 50 Hz. The current in the circuit is 3A. If the power consumed in the circuit is 108 W, then the resistance in the circuit is

(a) 12 Ω

(b) 40 Ω

(c)

(d) 360 Ω

Answer: (a)

39. In an electron gun, the potential difference between the filament and plate is 3000 V. What will be the velocity of electron emitting from the gun?

(a) 3 × 10⁸ m/s

(b) 3.18 × 10⁷ m/s

(d) 3.26 × 10⁷ m/s

Answer: (d)

40. A radioactive substance with decay constant of 0.5s⁻¹ is being produced at constant rate of 50 nuclei per second. If there are no nuclei present initially, the time (in second) after which 25 nuclei will be present is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 2 ln(4/3)

Answer: (d)

PART-II : CHEMISTRY

41. The 25 mL of a 0.15 M solution of lead nitrate, Pb(NO₃)₂ reacts with all of the aluminium sulphate, Al₂(SO₄)₃, present in 20 mL of a solution. What is the molar concentration of the Al₂(SO₄)₃?

3Pb(NO₃)₂(aq) + Al₂(SO₄)₃(aq) → 3PbSO₄(s) + 2Al(NO₃)₃(aq)

(a) 6.25 × 10⁻² M

(b) 2.421 × 10⁻² M

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

42. 100 mL O₂ and H₂ kept at same temperature and pressure. What is true about their number of molecules

(a) NO₂ > NH₂

(b) NO₂ < NH₂

(d) NO₂ + NH₂ = 1 mole

Answer: (c)

43. If the Planck’s constant h = 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ Js, the de Broglie wavelength of a particle having momentum of 3.3 × 10⁻²⁴ kg ms⁻¹ will be

(a) 0.002 Å

(b) 0.5 Å

(d) 500 Å

Answer: (c)

44. Amongst the elements with following electronic configuration, which one of them may have the highest ionization energy?

(a) [Ne] 3s²3p²

(b) [Ar] 3d¹⁰4s²4p³

(d) [Ne] 3s²3p³

Answer: (d)

45. Which of the following is the correct and increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?

(a) IF₇ < IF₅ < ClF₃ < XeF₂

(b) IF₇ < XeF₂ < ClF₂ < IF₅

(d) IF₇ < XeF₂ < IF₅ < ClF₃

Answer: (a)

46. According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statement about the magnetic character and bond order is correct regarding O₂⁺

(a) Paramagnetic and Bond order < O₂

(b) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O₂

(d) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O₂

Answer: (b)

47. If V is the volume of one molecular of gas under given conditions, the van der Waal’s constant b is

(a) 4V

(b) 4V/N₀

(d) 4VN₀

Answer: (d)

48. For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of ∆H and ∆S are 40.63 kJmol⁻¹ and 108.8 JK⁻¹ mol⁻¹, respectively. The temperature when Gibbs energy change (∆G) for this transformation will be zero, is:

(a) 293.4 K

(b) 273.4 K

(d) 373.4 K

Answer: (d)

49. For the reaction taking place at certain temperature

NH₂COONH₄(s) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) + CO₂(g), if equilibrium pressure is 3X bar then ∆_rG° would be

(a) −RT ln 9 – 3RT ln X

(b) RT ln 4 – 3RT ln X

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

50. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order:

(a) NaCl < NH₄Cl < NaCN < HCl

(b) HCl < NH₄Cl < NaCl < NaCN

(d) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH₄Cl

Answer: (b)

51. When N₂O₂ is heated at certain temperature, it dissociates as

N₂O₅(g) ⇌ N₂O₃(g) + O₂(g); K_c = 2.5. At the same time N₂O₃ also decomposes as:

N₂O₃(g) ⇌ N₂O₃(g) + O₂(g). If initially 4.0 moles of N₂O₅ are taken in 1.0 litre flask and allowed to dissociate. Concentration of O₂ at equilibrium is 2.5 M. Equilibrium concentration of N₂O₅ is :

(a) 1.0 M

(b) 1.5 M

(d) 1.846 M

Answer: (d)

52. Consider the reactions

(A) H₂O₂ + 2Hl → I₂ + 2H₂O

(B) HOCl + H₂O₂ → H₃O⁺ + Cl⁻ + O₂

Which of the following statements is correct about H₂O₂ with reference to these reactions?

Hydrogen peroxide is_______.

(a) an oxidizing agent in both (A) and (B)

(b) an oxidizing agent in (A) and reducing agent in (B)

(d) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)

Answer: (b)

53. Following are colours shown by some alkaline earth metals in flame test. Which of the following are not correctly matched?

Metal Colour

(i) Calcium Apple green

(ii) Strontium Crimson

(iii) Barium Brick red

(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (i) only

(d) (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (a)

54. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium. Which of the following similarity is incorrect?

(a) Be forms beryllates and Al form aluminates

(b) Be(OH)₂ like Al(OH)₃ is basic.

(d) Be₂C like Al₄C₃ yields methane on hydrolysis.

Answer: (b)

55. An element X occurs in short period having configuration ns²np¹. The formula and nature of its oxide is

(a) XO₃, basic

(b) XO₃, acidic

(d) X₂O₃, basic

Answer: (c)

56. Which of the following is strongest nucleophile

(a) Br⁻

(b) :OH⁻

(d)

Answer: (c)

57. The IUPAC name of the compound is

(a) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol

(b) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-hydroxy cyclohexane

(d) 1, 1-1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol

Answer: (a)

58. Which of the following will have a meso-isomer also?

(a) 2, 3-Dichloropentane

(b) 2, 3-Dichlorobutane

(d) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid

Answer: (b)

59. In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a product D.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

60. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of the sun.

(b) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its chemical reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes.

(d) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause the depletion of ozone layer.

Answer: (c)

61. Each edge of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm long. If atomic mass of the element is 120 and its density is 6.5 g/cm³, the crystal lattice is : (use N_A = 6 × 10²³)

(a) primitive

(b) body centered

(d) end centered

Answer: (b)

62. Chloroform, CHCl₃, boils at 61.7° If the K_b for chloroform is 3.63°C/molal, what is the boiling point of a solution of 15.0 kg of CHCl₃ and 0.616 kg of acenaphthalene, C₁₂H₁₀?

(a) 61.9

(b) 62.0

(d) 62.67

Answer: (d)

63. pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence, its osmotic pressure at a given temperature TK is

(a) 0.1 RT

(b) 0.11 RT

(d) 0.01 RT

Answer: (b)

64. On passing a current of 1.0 ampere for 16 min and 5 sec through on litre solution of CuCl₂, all copper of the solution was deposited at cathode. The strength of CuCl₂ solution was (Molar mass of Cu = 63.5; Faraday constant = 96,500 Cmol⁻¹)

(a) 0.01 N

(b) 0.01 M

(d) 0.2 N

Answer: (a)

65. A 100.0 mL dilute solution of Ag⁺ is electrolysed for 15.0 minutes with a current of 1.25 mA and the silver is removed completely. What was the initial [Ag⁺]?

(a) 2.32 × 10⁻¹

(b) 2.32 × 10⁻⁴

(d) 1.16 × 10⁻⁵

Answer: (d)

66. The accompanying figure depicts a change in concentration of species A and B for the reaction A → B, as a function of time. The point of inter section of the two curves represents

(a) t_1/2

(b) t_3/4

(d) Data insufficient to predict

Answer: (a)

67. The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 × 10⁻³ at 25°C and 2.1 × 10⁻² at 60° The activation energy is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

68. Freundlich equation for adsorption of gases (in amount of x g) on a solid (in amount of m g) at constant temperature can be expressed as

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

69. Which of the following feature of catalysts is described in reactions given below?

(a) Activity

(b) Selectivity

(d) Catalytic poison

Answer: (b)

70. Which of the following is not a member of chalcogens?

(a) O

(b) S

(d) Po

Answer: (d)

71. Pick out the wrong statement.

(a) Nitrogen the ability to from pπ-pπ bonds with itself.

(b) Bismuth forms metallic bonds in elemental state.

(d) Nitrogen has higher first ionization enthalpy when compared with other elements of the same group.

Answer: (c)

72. Which of the following element do not form complex with EDTA?

(a) Ca

(b) Mg

(d) Sr

Answer: (c)

73. Which one of the following cyano complexes would exhibit the lowest value of paramagnetic behavior?

(a) [Co(CN)₆]³⁻

(b) [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻

(d) [Cr(CN)₆]³⁻

(At. Nos : Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

Answer: (a)

74. When a aqueous solution of copper (II) sulphate is satuarated with ammonia, the blue compound crystallizes on evaporation. The formula of this blue compound is:

(a) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄ ∙ H₂O (square planar)

(b) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄ (Tetrahedral)

(d) [Cu(SO₄) (NH₃)₅ (Octahedral)

Answer: (a)

75.

Here [Y] is a

(a) single compound

(b) mixture of two compounds

(d) no reaction is possible

Answer: (c)

76. Following compounds are given:

(1) CH₃CH₂OH (2) CH₃COCH₃

(3) (4) CH₃OH

Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will given iodoform?

(a) (1) and (2)

(b) (1), (3) and (4)

(d) (1), (2) and (3)

Answer: (d)

77. Arrange the following alcohols in increasing order of their reactivity towards the reaction with HCl.

(CH₃)₂CH-OH(1), (CH₃)₃C-OH(2), (C₆H₅)₃C-OH(3)

(a) 1 < 2 < 3

(b) 2 < 1 < 3

(d) 2 < 3 < 1

Answer: (a)

78. Thirty percent of the bases in a sample of DNA extracted from eukaryotic cells is adenine. What percentage of cytosine is present in this DNA?

(a) 10%

(b) 20%

(d) 40%

Answer: (b)

79. The blue colour of snail is due to presence of

(a) Albumin

(b) Haemocyanin

(d) Fibrinogen

Answer: (b)

80. Which of the following is a diamine?

(a) Dopamine

(b) Histamine

(d) Chlorphenamine

Answer: (c)

PART-III(A) : ENGLISH PROFICIENCY

81. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Optimistic’.

(a) Favourable

(b) Gloomy

(d) Rude

Answer: (c)

82. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Drowsy’.

(a) Sleepy

(b) Nodding

(d) Wakeful

Answer: (d)

Direction (83-85): Which of the following phrases (I), (II) and (III) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it i s, mark (d) i.e., “NO correction required” as the answer.

83. He is really feeling under the weather today; he has a terrible cold.

(I) feeling like the weather

(II) feeling over the weather

(III) feeling in the weather

(a) Only (I) is correct

(b) Only (III) is correct

(d) No correction required

Answer: (d)

84. By working part-time and looking after his old mother, he managed to get the best for both worlds.

(I) the best at both worlds

(II) the best of both worlds

(III) the best on both worlds

(a) Only (I) is correct

(b) Only (II) is correct

(d) No correction required

Answer: (b)

85. Hey, Nanny, speak about the devil and you are here.

(I) speak at the devil

(II) speak on the devil

(III) speak of the devil

(a) Only (I) is correct

(b) Only (II) is correct

(d) No correction required

Answer: (c)

DIRECTION (86-90) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The likelihood of at least 600,000 deaths being caused annually in India by find particulate matter pollution in the air is cause for worry, even if the data released by the World Health Organization are only a modeled estimate. The conclusion that so many deaths cold be attributed to particular matter 2.5 micrometres or less in size is, of course, caveated, since comprehensive measurement of PM2.5 is noty et being done and the linkages between pollution, disease and deaths need further study. What is not in doubt is that residents in many urban areas are forced to breathe unhealthy levels of particulates, and the smallest of these – PM10 and less – can penetrate and get lodged deep in the lungs. The WHO Global Burden of Disease study has been working to estimate pollution-linked health impacts, such as stroke and ischaemic heart disease, acute lower respiratory infection and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Data on find particulates in India show that in several locations the pollutants come from burning of biomass, such as coal, fuel wood, farm litter and cow dung cakes. In highly built-up areas, construction debris, road dust and vehicular exhaust add to the problem. The Prime Minister launched an Air Quality Index last year aimed at improving pollution control. The new data, which the WHO says provide the best evidence available on the terrible toll taken by particulates, should lead to intensified action. A neglected aspect of urban air pollution control is the virtual discarding of the Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules, notified to sustainably manage debris that is dumped in the cities, creating severe particulate pollution.

The Environment Ministry has highlighted the role that debris can play as a resource. Municipal and government contracts are, under the rules, required to utilize up to 20 per cent materials made from construction and demolition waste, and local authorities must place containers to hold debris. This must be implemented without delay. Providing cleaner fuels and scientifically designed cookstoves to those who have no option but to burn biomass, would have a big impact on reducing particulate matter in the northern and eastern States, which are the worst-hit during winter, when biomass is also used for heating. Greening the cities could be made a mission, involving civil society, with a focus on landscaping open spaces and paying all public areas to reduce dust. These measures can result in lower PM10 and PM2.5 levels. Comprehensive measurement of these particulates is currently absent in many cities, a lacuna that needs to be addressed.

86. According to the WHO Global Burden of Disease study which of the following is/are pollution linked health impacts?

(I) Infection of the lower respiratory system

(II) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

(III) Stroke and ischaemic heart disease

(a) Only (I)

(b) Only (III)

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

87. The conclusion regarding the deaths attributed to particulate matter 2.5 micrometers is considered to be caveated because

(a) Measurement of all aspects of PM2.5 has been done comprehensively

(b) Measurement of all aspects of PM2.5 is not radical.

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

88. Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the passage?

(a) Eastern and Southern states are worst hit in winter by burning of biomass.

(b) The smallest particulate matter PM2.5 penetrates and gets lodged in lungs.

(c) Data on fine particulates in India show that in several locations the pollutants come from the smoke emitted by vehicles.

(d) None is true

Answer: (d)

89. As per the given passage, which of the following is/are the measures for lowering particulate matter in the atmosphere?

(I) Making cleaner fuels available

(II) Landscaping open areas

(III) Providing cooking stoves designed scientifically

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (I) and (II)

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

90. If sentence (B) “The Finance Ministry’s warning to potential investors in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies has come at a time when a new, seemingly attractive investments area has opened up that few have enough information about.” is the first sentence, what is the order of other sentences after rearrangement?

(A) One of the main reasons for this volatility is speculation and the entry into the market of large number of people lured by the prospect of quick and easy profits.

(B) The Finance Ministry’s warning to potential investors in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies has come at a time when a new, seemingly attractive investment area has opened up that few have enough information

(C) A number of investors, daunted by the high price of bitcoin, have put their money into less well-established and often spurious cryptocurrencies, only to lose it all.

(D) Investment in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies increased tremendously in India over the past year, but most new users know close to nothing of the technology, or how to verify the genuineness of a particular cryptocurrency.

(E) The price of bitocin, the most popular of all cryptocurrencies, not only shot up by well over 1000% over the course of the last year but also fluctuated wildly.

(F) The government’s caution comes on top of three warnings issued by the Reserve Bank of India since 2013.

(a) CDEFA

(b) EAFDC

(d) ECDAF

Answer: (b)

91. If sentence (C) “Clinical trials involving human subjects have long been a flashpoint between bioethicists and clinical research organizations (CROs) in India.” is the first sentence, what is the order of other sentences after arrangement?

(A) Such over-volunteering occurs more frequently bioequivalence studies, which test the metabolism of generics in healthy subjects.

(B) Landmark amendments to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act in 2013 led to better protection of vulnerable groups such as illiterate people, but more regulation is needed to ensure truly ethical research.

(C) Clinical trials involving human subjects have long been a flashpoint between bioethicists and clinical research organizations (CROs) in India.

(D) The big problem plaguing clinical research is an over-representation of low-income groups among trial subjects.

(E) While CROs have argued that more rules will stifle the industry, the truth is that ethical science is often better science.

(F) Sometimes CROs recruit them selectively, exploiting financial need and medical ignorance; at other times people overvolunteer for the money.

(a) ABDFE

(b) BDEAF

(d) BEDFA

Answer: (d)

DIRECTION (92-93) : Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (d). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

92. Despite (a)/ a good teacher, (b)/ he has no influence on his pupil. (c)/ No error (d)

Answer: (c)

93. Yesterday, when we were returning from the party, (a)/ our car met with an accident, (b)/ but we were fortunate to each our home safely.(c)/ No error (d)

Answer: (d)

94. A group of sheep is known as :

(a) bunch

(b) herd

(d) fleet

Answer: (b)

95. A group of trees is known as:

(a) grove

(b) parliament

(d) hedge

Answer: (a)

PART-III (B) : LOGICAL REASONING

96. In a code language, if REGAINS is coded as QDFZHMR, then the word PERIODS will be coded as-

(a) ODQNHCR

(b) ODDQHCR

(d) ODQHNRC

Answer: (c)

97. If 5#6 = 121 and 10#8 = 324, then find the value of 23 # 14 = ?

(a) 1369

(b) 1349

(d) 725

Answer: (a)

98. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

99. Which one of the following diagram represents the correct relationship among

Professor, Male and Female.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

100. Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.

Distance : Odometer : : ? : Barometer

(a) Humidity

(b) Pressure

(d) Wind

Answer: (b)

101. Find the odd word/letters/number pair/ number from the given alternatives.

(a) 24-1614

(b) 270-569

(d) 162-6930

Answer: (d)

102. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

L_NO_ _ MLM _ OO_ML

(a) MNNNO

(b) MONNO

(d) MONNN

Answer: (d)

103. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

22, 26, 53, 69, 194, ?

(a) 230

(b) 260

(d) 245

Answer: (a)

104. Select the missing number from the given responses.

(a) 888

(b) 788

(d) 842

Answer: (a)

105. Identify the figure that will complete the pattern.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

PART-IV : MATHEMATICS

106. The domain of the function where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is

(a) (0, ∞)

(b) (−∞, 0)

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

107. If m sin θ = n sin(θ + 2α) then tan (θ + α) is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

108. Number of solutions of equation sin 9θ = sin θ in the interval [0, 2π] is

(a) 16

(b) 17

(d) 15

Answer: (b)

109. A pole stands vertically inside a triangular park ABC. If the angle of elevation of the top of the pole from each corner of the park is same, then the foot of the pole is at the

(a) centroid

(b) circumcentre

(d) orthocentre

Answer: (a)

110. Let A, B and C are the angles of a plain triangle and Then is equal to

(a) 7/9

(b) 2/9

(d) 2/3

Answer: (a)

111. If the amplitude of z – 2 – 3i is π/4, then the locus of z = x + iy is

(a) x + y – 1 = 0

(b) x – y – 1 = 0

(d) x – y + 1 = 0

Answer: (d)

112. The roots of the equation x⁴ – 2x³ + x = 380 are :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

113. Roots of the equation x² + bx – c = 0(b, c > 0) are

(a) Both positive

(b) Both negative

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

114. In how many ways can 12 gentlemen sit around a round table so that three specified gentlemen are always together?

(a) 9!

(b) 10!

(d) 3!9!

Answer: (d)

115. The number of ways in which first, second and third prizes can b e given to 5 competitors is

(a) 10

(b) 60

(d) 125

Answer: (b)

116. The coefficient of x³ in the expansion of is:

(a) 14

(b) 21

(d) 35

Answer: (b)

117. If x > 0, the

(a) x

(b) x²

(d) √x

Answer: (d)

118. If a, b, c are in G.P., then

(a) a², b², c² are in GP.

(b) a²(b + c),c²(a + b), b²(a + c) are in GP.

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

119. The locus of the point of intersection of the lines represent (t being a parameter)

(a) circle

(b) parabola

(d) hyperbola

Answer: (a)

120. The equation of the circle which passes through the point (4, 5) and has its centr is (2, 2) is

(a) (x – 2) + (y – 2) = 13

(b) (x – 2)² + (y – 2)² = 13

(d) (x – 4)² + (y – 5)² = 13

Answer: (b)

121. Eccentricity of ellipse if it passes through point (9, 5) and (12, 4) is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

122. Consider the equation of a parabola y² + 4ax = 0, where a > 0 which of the following is/are correct?

(a) Tangent at the vertex is x = 0

(b) Directrix of the parabola is x = 0

(d) Focus of the parabola is at (a, 0)

Answer: (a)

123. The value of is equal to:

(a) ∞

(b) 1/2

(d) 0

Answer: (b)

124. is equal to

(a) 1

(b) 0

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

125. The probability of getting 10 in a single throw of three fair dice is:

(a) 1/6

(b) 1/8

(d) 1/5

Answer: (b)

126. Number of solutions of the equation tan⁻¹(1 +x) + tan⁻¹(1 – x) = π/2 are

(a) 3

(b) 2

(d) 0

Answer: (c)

127. If is an orthogonal matrix, then

(a) a = −2, b = −1

(b) a = 2, b = 1

(d) a = −2, b = 1

Answer: (a)

128. The points represented by the complex numbers 1 + i, 2 + 3i, on the argand plane are

(a) vertices of an equilateral triangle

(b) vertices of an isosceles triangle

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

129. If matrix then k is

(a) 7

(b) −7

(d) −11

Answer: (c)

130. If x, y, z are complex numbers, and then ∆ is

(a) purely real

(b) purely imaginary

(d) 0

Answer: (b)

131. If

Then the function is

(a) discontinuous at x = nπ + π/4

(b) continuous at x = nπ + π/4

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

132. If

(a) f(x) is continuous at x = 0

(b) f(x) is continuous at x = π

(d) f(x) is discontinuous at x = 3π/4

Answer: (c)

133. The value of c in (0, 2) satisfying the mean value theorem for the function f(x) = x(x – 1)², x ∈ [0, 2] is equal to

(a) 3/4

(b) 4/3

(d) 2/3

Answer: (b)

134. If at x = 1 is eqal to

(a) 7/4

(b) 7/8

(d) −7/8

Answer: (a)

135. Let y = e^2x. Then is

(a) 1

(b) e⁻^2x

(d) −2e⁻^2x

Answer: (d)

136. A ball is dropped from a platform 19.6 m high. Its position function is-

(a) x = −4.9t²+ 19.6 (0 ≤ t ≤ 1)

(b) x = −4.9t²+ 19.6 (0 ≤ t ≤ 2)

(d) x = −4.9t²− 19.6 (0 ≤ t ≤ 2)

Answer: (b)

137. The value of the integral is:

(a) π

(b) 1/2(b – a)

(d) b – a

Answer: (b)

138.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

139. If then

(a) 2m + n

(b) m + 2n

(d) m + n

Answer: (d)

140. An integrating factor of the differential equation is

(a) sin²x

(b) 2/sin x

(d) 1/sin²x

Answer: (a)

141. The expression satisfying the differential equation

(a) x²y – xy² = c

(b) (y² – 1) x = y + c

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

142. Let and Then depends on

(a) only y

(b) only x

(d) neither x nor y

Answer: (d)

143. If are the position vectors of the vertices of a triangle ABC taken in order, then ∠A is equal to

(a) π/2

(b) π/5

(d) π/3

Answer: (d)

144. The objection of line joining (3, 4, 5) and (4, 6, 3) on the line joining (−1, 2, 4) and (1, 0, 5) is

(a) 4/3

(b) 2/3

(d) 1/3

Answer: (a)

145. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Every L.P.P admits an optimal solution.

(b) AL.P.P admits a unique optimal solution.

(d) The set of all feasible solutions of a L.P.P. is not a convex set.

Answer: (c)

146. If the constraints in a linear programming problem are changed then

(a) The problem is to be re-evaluated.

(b) Solution is not defined.

(d) The change in constraints is ignored.

Answer: (a)

147. In a binomial distribution the mean is 4 and variance is 3. Then its mode is:

(a) 5

(b) 6

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

148. The sum is equal to

(a) e^a

(b)

(d) (a + 1) e^a

Answer: (b)

149. The Boolean expression ~(p ⋁ q) ⋁(~p ⋀ q) is equivalent to:

(a) p

(b) q

(d) ~p

Answer: (d)

150. If in a frequency distribution, the mean and median are 21 and 22 respectively, then its mode is approximately

(a) 25.5

(b) 24.0

(d) 20.5

Answer: (b)

BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2017 With Answer Key

June 28, 2023January 23, 2018 by suresh84

Part I

BITSAT Physics Exam Paper-2017

1. It temperature of a black body increases from 300 K to 900 K, then the rate of energy radiation increases by

(a) 81

(b) 3

(d) 2

Answer: (a)

2. A whistle of frequency 500 Hz tied to the end of a string of length 1.2 m revolves at 400 rev/min. A listener standing some distance away in the plane of rotation of whistle hears frequencies in the range.

(Speed of sound = 340 m/s)

(a) 436 to 574

(b) 426 to 586

(d) 436 to 586

Answer: (d)

3. The focal length of a thin convex lens for red and blue rays are 100 cm and 96.8 cm respectively. Then, the dispersive power of the material of the lens is

(a) 0.968

(b) 0.98

(d) 0.325

Answer: (c)

4. Two metal plates having a potential difference of 800 V are 2 cm apart. It is found that a particle of mass 1.96 × 10⁻¹⁵ kg remains suspended in the region between the plates. The charge on the particle must be (e = elementary charge).

(a) 2e

(b) 3e

(d) 8e

Answer: (b)

5. At what angle θ to the horizontal should an object is projected so that the maximum height reached is equal to the horizontal range?

(a) tan⁻¹ (1)

(b) tan⁻¹ (4)

(d) tan⁻¹ (3)

Answer: (b)

6. A body of mass 1 kg is executing simple harmonic motion. Its displacement y (cm) at t seconds is given by

Its maximum kinetic energy is

(a) 6 J

(b) 18 J

(d) 36 J

Answer: (b)

7. A positive charge q is projected in magnetic field of width with velocity v. Then, the time taken by charged particle to emerge from the magnetic field is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

8. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁ = 12000 Å and λ₂ = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

(a) 8 mm

(b) 6 mm

(d) 3 mm

Answer: (b)

9. Two blocks A and B are placed one over the other on a smooth horizontal surface. The maximum horizontal force that can be applied on lower block B, so that A and B move without separation is 49 N.

The coefficient of friction between A and B is

(a) 0.2

(b) 0.3

(d) 0.8

Answer: (c)

10. An aeroplane is flying in a horizontal direction with a velocity u and at a height of 2000 m. When it is vertically below a point A on the ground food packet is released from it. The packet strikes the ground at point B.

If AB = 3 km and g = 10 m/s², then the value of u is

(a) 54 km/h

(b) 540 km/h

(d) 300 km/h

Answer: (b)

11. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm/s. The induced emf when the radius is 2 cm, is

(a) 2 πμV

(b) πμV

(c)

(d) 2 μV

Answer: (b)

12. A mild steel wire of length 2L and cross-sectional area A is stretched, well with in the elastic limit, horizontally between two pillars as shown in figure. A mass m is suspended from the mid-point of the wire strain in the wire is

(a) x²/2L²

(b) x/L

(d) x²/2L

Answer: (a)

13. The resistance of a wire at 20℃ is 20 Ω and 500℃ is 60 Ω. At which temperature, its resistance will be 25 Ω?

(a) 50℃

(b) 60℃

(d) 80℃

Answer: (d)

14. The de-Broglie wavelength of a proton (charge = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C, m = 1.6 × 10⁻²⁷ kg) accelerated through a potential difference of 1 kV is

(a) 600 Å

(b) 0.9 × 10⁻¹² m

(d) 0.9 nm

Answer: (b)

15. An ice-berg of density 900 kgm⁻³ is floating in water of density 1000 kgm⁻³. The percentage of volume of ice-berg outside the water is

(a) 20%

(b) 35%

(d) 11%

Answer: (c)

16. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen is about −4 eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is

(a) −3.4 eV

(b) −6.8 eV

(d) 3.4 eV

Answer: (d)

17. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 Ω and an output impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is

(a) 500

(b) 1000

(d) 50

Answer: (c)

18. The horizontal range and maximum height attained by a projectile are R and H respectively. If a constant horizontal acceleration a = g/4 is imparted to the projectile due to wind, then its horizontal range and maximum height will be

(a) (R + H), H/2

(b) (R + H/2), 2H

(d) (R + H), H

Answer: (d)

19. A balloon is filled at 27℃ and 1 atm pressure by 500 m³ At −3℃ and 0.5 atm pressure, the volume of He will be

(a) 700 m³

(b) 900 m³

(d) 500 m³

Answer: (b)

20. The ratio of intensity at the centre of a bright fringe to the intensity at a point distance one-fourth of the distance between two successive bright fringes will be

(a) 4

(b) 3

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

21. A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If it is given a vertical displacement from equilibrium, it undergoes oscillation with a time period T. Then

(a) T ∝ √ρ

(b) T ∝ 1/√A

(d) T ∝ 1/√m

Answer: (b)

22. Three charges are placed at the three vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ as shown in the figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

23. A load of mass m falls from a height on the scale pan hung from a spring as shown. If the spring constant is k and the mass of the scale pan is zero and the mass m does not bounce relative to the pan, then the amplitude of vibration is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

24. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as N₀ counts per minute at t = 0 and N₀/e counts per minute at t = 5 min. The time (in minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its value is

(a) log_e 2/5

(b) 5/log_e 2

(d) 5 log_e 2

Answer: (d)

25. A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave lens. Their plane surfaces parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices μ₁ and μ₂ R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of combination is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

26. In the given circuit diagram,

E = 5V, r = 1Ω

E= 5 V, r = 1Ω, R₂ = 4Ω, R₁ = R₃ = 1Ω and C = 3μF

Then, what will be the numerical value of charge on each plates of the capacitor.

(a) 24 μC

(b) 12 μC

(d) 3 μC

Answer: (c)

27. A block A of mass 100 kg rests on another block B of mass 200 kg and is tied to a wall as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and that between B and ground is 0.3. The minimum force required to move the block B is (g = 10 ms⁻²)

(a) 900 N

(b) 200 N

(d) 700 N

Answer: (c)

28. A uniform rod of length l and mass m is free to rotate in a vertical plane about A. The rod initially in horizontal position is released. The initial angular acceleration of the rod is (Moment of inertia of rod about A is ml²/3)

(a) 3g/2l

(b) 2l/3g

(d)

Answer: (a)

29. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a hydrogen sample in ground state. Hydrogen atom absorbs a friction of light and subsequently emits radiations of six different wavelengths. The wavelength λ is

(a) 97.5 nm

(b) 121.6 nm

(d) 45.2 nm

Answer: (a)

30. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle, a torque τ rests on it, the side l of the triangle is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

31. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from radius of (3 to 5) cm is nearly (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm⁻¹)

(a) 0.2 π mJ

(b) 2π mJ

(d) 4π mJ

Answer: (d)

32. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

33. In the circuit shown, the heat produced in 5Ω resistor is 10 cal s⁻¹. The heat produced per sec in 4Ω resistor will be

(a) 1 cal

(b) 2 cal

(d) 4 cal

Answer: (b)

34. An α-particle after passing through potential difference of V volt collides with a nucleus. If the atomic number of the nucleus is Z, then distance of closest approach is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

35. Two simple pendulums of lengths 5 m and 20 m respectively are given small displacement are given small displacement in one direction at the same time they will again be in the same sense when the pendulum of shorter length has completed n oscillations. Then, n is

(a) 5

(b) 1

(d) 3

Answer: (c)

36. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation between the plates is d. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics constant K₁ = 3 and thickness d/3 while the other one has dielectric constant K₂ = 6 and thickness 2d/3. Capacitance of the capacitor is now

(a) 1.8 pF

(b) 45 pF

(d) 20.25 pF

Answer: (c)

37. A particle moving along X-axis has acceleration f, at time t given by where f₀ and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity v_X is

(a) f₀T

(b)

(d)

Answer: (d)

38. A geostationary satellite orbits around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 36000 km. Then, the time period of a sky satellite orbiting a few 100 km above the earth’s surface (R = 64000 km) will approximately be

(a)

(b) 1 h

(d) 4 h

Answer: (c)

39. A transverse wave propagating on a stretched string of linear density 3 × 10⁻⁴ kgm⁻¹ is represented by the equation

y = 0.2 sin(1.5x + 60t)

where, x in metres and t is in seconds. The tension in the string (in Newton) is

(a) 0.24

(b) 0.48

(d) 1.80

Answer: (b)

40. What is the magnetic field at the centre of arc in the figure below?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

Part II

BITSAT Chemistry Exam Paper-2017

41. 4g of copper was dissolved in conc. HNO₃. The copper nitrate thus obtained gave 5g of its oxide on strong heating the equivalent weight of copper is

(a) 23

(b) 32

(d) 20

Answer: (b)

42. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) Sodium borohydride reacts very slowly with cold water

(b) Sodium borohydride reacts violently with cold water to give H₂(g)

(d) Melting point of sodium borohydride is 500℃

Answer: (b)

43. The orbital angular momentum of an electron is 2 S orbital is

(a) h/4π

(b) zero

(d) √2 ∙ h/2π

Answer: (b)

44. Which of the following are isoelectronic species?

(a) I, II and III

(b) II, III and IV

(d) II and I

Answer: (b)

45. Two elements A and B have electronegativities 1.2 and 3.0 respectively. The nature of bond between A and B would be

(a) ionic

(b) covalent

(d) metallic

Answer: (a)

46. In the compound,

The most acidic hydrogen atom is

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(d) All are equally acidic

Answer: (c)

47. Reductive ozonolysis of (CH₃)₂ C = C(CH₃)₂ followed by hydrolysis gives

(a) only one type of ketone

(b) only one type of aldehyde

(d) two types of aldehyde

Answer: (a)

48. Which of the following reactions does not involved absorption energy?

I. O (g) + e⁻ → O⁻ (g)

II. S(g) + e⁻ → S⁻ (g)

III. O⁻(g) + e⁻ → O²⁻ (g)

IV. Cl(g) + e⁻ → Cl⁻ (g)

(a) Only II

(b) I and III

(d) I, II and IV

Answer: (d)

49. The most reactive amine towards reactions with dil. HCl is

(a) CH₃ – NH₂

(b)

(d)

Answer: (b)

50. Blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship to

(a) block hole in the ship

(b) acidity of sea water

(d) prevent the action of water and salt

Answer: (d)

51. On electrolysis of water, a total of 1 mole of gasses is evolved. The amount of water decomposed is

(a) 1 mol

(b) 2 mol

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

52. How many moles of Fe²⁺ ions are formed when excess of iron react with 500 mL O. 4NHCl, under inert atmosphere?

(assume no change in volume)

(a) 0.4

(b) 0.1

(d) 0.8

Answer: (b)

53. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water but barium sulphate is insoluble because

(a) hydration energy of Na₂SO₄ is more than of its lattice energy

(b) lattice energy of BaSO₄ is more than its hydration energy

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

54. In the reaction, end product (P) is

(a) CH₃CH₂ ∙ NO₂

(b) CH₃CH₂CH₂NO₂

(d) CH₃ ∙ CH₂ ∙ CH₂NH₂

Answer: (d)

55. Which of the following reactions is an example of calcinations process?

(a) 2Ag + 2HCl + [O] → 2AgCl + H₂O

(b) 2Zn + O₂ → 2ZnO

(d)

Answer: (d)

56. For an endothermic reaction, where ∆H represent the enthalpy of reaction in kJ/mol, the minimum value for energy of activation (for forward reaction) will be

(a) less than ∆H

(b) zero

(d) equal to ∆H

Answer: (c)

57. Which of the following metals is leached by cyanide process

(a) Ag

(b) Na

(d) Cu

Answer: (a)

58. Which of the following is a diamagnetic complex

(a) [Co(NH₃)_6]³⁺

(b) [NiCl₄]²⁻

(d) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺

Answer: (a)

59. Neoprene is a

(a) monomer of rubber

(b) synthetic rubber

(d) vulcanized rubber

Answer: (b)

60. Among the following, which have highest melting point?

(a) Ionic solids

(b) Pseudo solids

(d) Amorphous solids

Answer: (a)

61. The night-blindness is developed due to deficiency of vitamin

(a) B₆

(b) C

(d) A

Answer: (d)

62. The transfer RNA anticodon for the messenger RNA codon G – C – A is

(a) C – G – U

(b) C – C – U

(d) G – U – C

Answer: (a)

63. 765 g of an acid gives 0.535 g of CO₂ and 0.138 g of H₂O. Then, the ratio of percentage of carbon and hydrogen is

(a) 19 : 2

(b) 18 : 11

(d) 1 : 7

Answer: (a)

64. Maximum pK_b value is of

(a)

(b) (CH₃CH₂)₂NH

(d)

Answer: (d)

65. Which of the following is an incorrect set of quantum members?

(a) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0

(b) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0

(d) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0

Answer: (c)

66. The most acidic oxide for nitrogen is

(a) NO₂

(b) N₂O

(d) N₂O₅

Answer: (d)

67. Which of the following show maximum bond-order?

(a) O₂

(b) O₂⁻

(d) O₂²⁻

Answer: (c)

68. Which of the following shown an increase in entropy?

I. Boiling of water

II. Melting of ice

III. Freezing of water

IV. Formation of hydrogen gas from water

(a) (I) and (II)

(b) Only (III)

(d) (III) and (IV)

Answer: (c)

69. BF₃ is an acid, according to

(a) Lewis

(b) Arrhenius

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

70. For the reaction

N₂O₄(g) → 2NO₂(g)

(a) ∆H > ∆E

(b) ∆H < ∆E

(d) ∆H = 0

Answer: (a)

71. Which of the following elements mostly form covalent compounds?

(a) Cs

(b) Rb

(d) Li

Answer: (d)

72. When aqueous solutions of borax is acidified with HCl, we get

(a) B₂H₆

(b) H₃BO₃

(d) All of these

Answer: (b)

73. Which of the following compound does not follow Huckel’s rule?

(a)

(b) vertical-align: middle; margin-bottom: 1px;

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

74. A graph is ploted between log K virsus 1/T for calculation of activation energy (E_a). The correct plot is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

75. The hybridization of Fe is K₃Fe(CN)⁶ is

(a) sp³

(b) dsp³

(d) d²sp³

Answer: (d)

76. Which of the following shows maximum magnetic moment?

(a) Mg²⁺

(b) Ti³⁺

(d) Fe²⁺

Answer: (d)

77. Consider the following radioactive decays

In which case group of parent and daughter elements remains unchanged.

(a) In (I)

(b) In (II)

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

78.

The reactions (s) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are

(a) Fries rearrangement and Kolble

(b) Cumene and Reimer-Tiemann

(d) Dow and Sandmeyer.

Answer: (c)

79. Which of the following has largest number of moles?

(a) 8g of oxygen atoms

(b) 16 g of oxygen gas

(d) All have same number of moles

Answer: (d)

80. One moles each of four ideal gasses are kept as follows.

I. 5 L of gas (A) at 2 atm pressure

II. 2.5 L of gas (B) at 2 atm pressure

III. 1.25L of gas (C) at 2 atm pressure

IV. 2.5 L of gas (D) at 2.5 atm pressure

Which of the above gases is kept at highest temperature.

(a) Gas (A)

(b) Gas (B)

(d) Gas (D)

Answer: (d)

Part III

BITSAT English & Reasoning Exam Paper-2017

a. English Proficiency

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-83) In the following questions the sentences may or may not be grammatically correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part. If there is no error mark part ‘d’ as your answer.

81. Along the northern frontier of India / is seen / the Himalayas mighty in their /No error

(a) Along the northern frontier of India

(b) is seen

(d) No error

Answer: (b)

82. The father with the son were / mysteriously missing / from the house. /No error

(a) The father with the son were

(b) mysteriously missing

(d) No error

Answer: (b)

83. It is not advisable / to take heavy luggages / while on journey these days./ No error

(a) It is not advisable

(b) to take heavy luggages

(d) No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 84-85) Fill in the blanks with suitable preposition from the alternatives given under each sentence.

84. The problem of communal harmony cannot be glossed …………. by the government.

(a) at

(b) on

(d) for

Answer: (c)

85. She could not muster …………. courage to stand against the maltreatment.

(a) to

(b) up

(d) on

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-88) The following sentences consist of a word or a phrase which is written in italicized letters. Each sentence is followed by four words or phrases. Select the word or the phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the italicized word or phrase.

86. Philosophers say that the world is an

(a) a fact

(b) a reality

(d) truth

Answer: (b)

87. She used to disparage her neighbours every now and then.

(a) please

(b) praise

(d) denigrate

Answer: (b)

88. The momentum of the movement slackened in course of time

(a) stopped

(b) quickened

(d) recovered

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 89-90) In the following sentences, a word or a phrase is written in italicized letters. For each italicized part four words/phrases are listed below each sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the italicized word/phrase.

89. The opposition criticized the ruling party for the deteriorating law and order situation in the state.

(a) disrupting

(b) worsening

(d) eroding

Answer: (b)

90. The two opposing parties have reached stalemate.

(a) dilemma

(b) deadlock

(d) settlement

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

A pioneering scheme has been started recently in Southampton of England’s south coast to educate tourists who have been convicted of drunken driving.

The penalty for drunken driving might be the loss of the driving licence and a heavy fine. But under the new scheme, convicted drivers do not pay the fine. Instead they have to attend eight training sessions; one a week organized by the local authority probation service.

Designed to demonstrate the damage alcohol can do, the scheme was devised by senior probation officer John Cook. He said that about a quarter of the people who came to him had a drinking problem, and had not realized how much they were drinking. One way of getting the message across was to make the drivers pour out their usual ration of alcohol and then measure it. Almost everyone poured not a single measure, but a double atleast, an example of how easy it is to have more than just one drink and to encourage other people to do the same. The instructors on the course are giving clinical evidence of the effects of alcohol on the body and brain. The sober truth is that drinking badly affects driving skills, although the drinker might like to believe otherwise.

91. The Southampton scheme requires convicted drivers

(a) to pay a heavy fine

(b) to attend eight driving sessions-one a week

(d) to surrender their driving licence

Answer: (b)

92. John Cook devised the scheme

(a) as a demonstration technique for driving

(b) to deny the harmful effects of alcohol

(d) to prove that alcohol does influence driving

Answer: (d)

93. The problem with a quarter of the people who went to John Cook was that they

(a) did not want to stop drinking

(b) were unaware of the fact that they could get drunk

(d) did not know how much they were drinking

Answer: (d)

94. Most driver start off with atleast

(a) a double measure

(b) a single measure

(d) two doubles

Answer: (a)

95. The truth is that alcohol

(a) does not affect the body but only the brain

(b) affects only the brain

(d) has no effects on the body or the brain

Answer: (c)

b. Logical Reasoning

96. ‘Shoes’ is related t ‘Leather’, in the same way as

(a) Plastic

(b) Polythene

(d) Chappal

Answer: (c)

97. Find the odd one from the following options

(a) 81 : 243

(b) 25 : 75

(d) 16 : 64

Answer: (d)

98. Complete the series by replacing ‘?’ mark.

4, 11, 30, 67, 128, ?

(a) 219

(b) 228

(d) 240

Answer: (a)

99. Lakshmi is elder than Meenu. Leela is elder. than Meenu but younger than Lakshmi. Latha is younger than both Meenu and Hari but Hari is younger than Meenu. Who is the youngest?

(a) Lakshmi

(b) Meenu

(d) Latha

Answer: (d)

100. In the following question a part of problem figure is missing. Find out from the given answer figures a, b, c and d that can replace the question mark (?) to complete the figure.

Answer: (a)

101. In the following question, five figures are given. Out of them find three figures that can be joined to form a square.

(a) ACD

(b) BCD

(d) CDE

Answer: (a)

102. The three problem figures marked X, Y and Z show the manner in which a piece of paper is folded step by step and then cut. From the answer figures a, b, c and d select the one showing the unfolded pattern of the paper after the cut.

Answer: (b)

103. Choose the answer figure which completes the problem figure matrix.

Answer: (c)

104. In the following question, one or more dots are place in the figure marked as (A). This figure is followed by four alternatives marked as a, b, c and d. One out of these four options contains region (s) common to circle, square and triangles, similar to that marked by the dot in figures (A). Find that figure

Answer: (c)

105. How many different triangles are there in the figures shown below?

(a) 28

(b) 24

(d) 16

Answer: (a)

Part IV

BITSAT Mathematics Exam Paper-2017

106. The coefficient of x⁵in the expansion of (1 + x)²¹ + (1 + x)²² + … + (1 + x)³⁰ is

(a) ⁵¹C₅

(b) ⁹C₅

(d) ³⁰C₅ + ²⁰C₅

Answer: (c)

107. If z = a + ib satisfies arg(z – 1) = arg (z + 3i),, then (a – 1) : b=

(a) 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 3

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

108. If p and pʹ denote the lengths of the perpendicular from a focus and the centre of an ellipse with semi-major axis of length a, respective, on a tangent to the ellipse and r denotes the focal distance of the point, then

(a) ap = rpʹ

(b) rp = apʹ

(d) apʹ + rp = 1

Answer: (a)

109. The value of is equal to

(a) 5(2n – 9)

(b) 10 n

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

110. The numbers 3^{2 sin 2}^α^{– 1}, 14 and 3^{4 – 2 sin 2}^α from first three terms of an A.P., its fifth term is

(a) −25

(b) −12

(d) 53

Answer: (d)

111. For the equation 3x² + px + 3 = 0, p > 0, if one of the roots is square of the other, then p is equal to

(a) 1/2

(b) 1

(d) 2/3

Answer: (c)

112. If a = log₂ 3, b = log₂ 5 and c = log₇ 2, then log₁₄₀ 63 in terms of a, b, c is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

113. If cos (x – y), cos x and cos (x + y) are in HP, then cos x sec (y / 2) is equal to

(a) ±√2

(b) ±1/√2

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

114. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and R be a relation defined by

R = {(x, y) : x, y ∈ A, x + y = 5}. Then, R is

(a) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive

(b) an equivalence relation

(d) neither reflexive nor symmetric but transitive

Answer: (c)

115. The number of times the digit 5 will be written when listing the integers from 1 to 1000, is

(a) 271

(b) 272

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

116. Let A and B be two sets such that A ∩ X = B ∩ X = ϕ and A ∪ X = B ∪ X for same set X. Then,

(a) A = B

(b) A = X

(d) A ∪ B = X

Answer: (a)

117. Let A = [−1, 1] and f : A → A be defined as f(x) = x|x| for all x ∈ A, then f(x) is

(a) many-one and into function

(b) one-one and into function

(d) one-one and onto function

Answer: (d)

118. The general solution of sin x – 3 sin 2x + sin 3x = cos x – 3 cos 2x + cos 3x is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

119. Two equal sides of an isosceles triangle are 7x – y + 3 = 0 and x + y – 3 = 0 and its third side passes through the point (1, −10). Find the equation of the third side

(a) x – 3y = − 31

(b) x – 3y = 31

(d) x + 3y = −31

Answer: (b)

120. If two distinct chords drawn from the point (p, q) on the circle x² + y² = px + qy (where pq ≠ 0) are bisected by the X-axis, then

(a) p² = q²

(b) p² = 8q²

(d) p² < 8q²

Answer: (d)

121. The length of perpendicular drawn from the point (2, 3, 4) to line is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

122. The image of the point (1, 6, 3) in the line is

(a) (−1, 0, 7)

(b) (−1, 0, −7)

(d) (2, 0, 7)

Answer: (c)

123. The distances of the point (1, −5, 9) from the plane x + y + z = 5 measured along a straight line x = y = z is 2√3 k, then the value f k is

(a) 5

(b) 6

(d) 4

Answer: (a)

124. is equal to

(a) ∞

(b) 0

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

125. If

(a) f(x) is differentiable at x = 0

(b) f(x) is continuous at x = 0, 1

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

126. If a function f : R → R satisfy the equation f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), ∀ x, y and the function f(x) is continuous at x = 0, then

(a) f(x) is continuous for all positive real values of x

(b) f(x) is continuous for all x

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

127. The value of f(0), so that the function is continuous at each point in its domain, is

(a) 1/3

(b) −1/3

(d) −2/3

Answer: (a)

128. Consider the greatest integer function, defined by f(x) = [x], 0 ≤x < 2. Then,

(a) f is derivable at x = 1

(b) f is not derivable at x = 1

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

129. Let f(x) = −2x³ + 21x² – 60x + 41, then

(a) f(x) is decreasing in (−∞, 1)

(b) f(x) is decreasing in (−∞, 2)

(d) f(x)is increasing in ((−∞, 2)

Answer: (b)

130. Rolle’s theorem is not applicable for the function f(x) = |x| in the interval [−1, 1] because

(a) fʹ(1) does not exist

(b) fʹ(1) does not exist

(d) fʹ(0) does not exist

Answer: (d)

131. If the curve y = a^x and y = b^x intersect at angle α, then tan α is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

132. The expression where [x] and {x} are integral and fractional part of x and n ∈ N, is equal to

(a)

(b) 1/n

(d) n – 1

Answer: (d)

133. The maximum value of f(x) = x + sin 2x, x ∈ [0, 2π] is

(a) π/2

(b) 2π

(d) 3π/2

Answer: (b)

134. The area under the curve y = |cos x – sin x|, 0 ≤ x ≤ π/2 and above X-axis, is

(a) 2√2

(b) 2√2 – 2

(d) 0

Answer: (b)

135. The solution of is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

136. The area enclosed by the curves y = x³ and y = √x is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

137. If where a is finite number, then

(a) a = 2

(b) a = 0

(d) b = −1

Answer: (c)

138. If the papers of 4 students can be checked by anyone of the 7 teachers, then the probability that all the 4 papers are checked by exactly 2 teachers, is equal to

(a) 12/49

(b) 6/49

(d) 15/49

Answer: (b)

139. If equation (10x – 5)² + (10y – 4)² = λ²(3x + 4y – 1)² represents a hyperbola, then

(a) −2 < λ < 2

(b) λ > 2

(d) 0 < λ < 2

Answer: (c)

140. Let be two non-collinear unit vectors. If then |v| is equal to

(a) |u|

(b)

(d)

Answer: (a)

141. If the variance of the observations x₁, x₂ …………, x_n is σ², then the variance of αx₁, αx₂, ……, αx_n, α ≠ 0 is

(a) σ²

(b) ασ²

(d) σ²/α²

Answer: (c)

142. Coefficient of variation of two distributions are 50 and 60 and their arithmetic means are 30 and 25, respectively. Difference of their standard deviation is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 2.5

Answer: (a)

143. The maximum value of z = 9x + 13y subject to constraints 2x + 3y ≤ 18, 2x + y ≤ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 is

(a) 130

(b) 81

(d) 99

Answer: (c)

144. A coin is tossed 7 times. Each time a man calls head. The probability that he wins the toss atleast 4 occasions is

(a) 1/4

(b) 5/8

(d) 1/6

Answer: (c)

145. If and f(1) = 2 f(p + q) = f(p) ∙ f(q), ∀ p, q ∈ R, then is equal to

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 3

Answer: (c)

146. The value of

(a) e

(b) 2e

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

147. If z₁, z₂ and z₂₃ represent the vertices of an equilateral triangle such that |z₁| = |z₂| = |z₃|, then

(a) z₁ + z₂ = z₃

(b) z₁ + z₂ + z₃ = 0

(d) z₁ – z₂ = z₃ – z₂

Answer: (b)

148. If then a + λ equal to

(a) 2

(b) > 2

(d) > 3

Answer: (b)

149. Line joining the points (0, 3) and (5, −2) is a tangent to the curve then

(a) a = 1 ± √3

(b) a ∈ ϕ

(d) a = −2 ± 2√3

Answer: (b)

150. The shortest distance between the parabolas y² = 4x and y² = 2x – 6 is

(a) 2

(b) √5

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

Charaideo District of Assam at a Glance

May 5, 2020November 3, 2017 by 01 prakash

Lok Sabha Constituencies in Charaideo district, Assam (MP Constituencies)

Jorhat

MLA Assembly Constituencies in Charaideo district, Assam

Sonari

About Charaideo District :

Charaideo district is an administrative district in the state of Assam in India. It was formally declared a new district of the state on 15 August 2015 by the Chief Minister of Assam Tarun Gogoi. It curve out of carved out of Sivasagar district and Sonari became its headquarters. It comes under Upper Assam divisions.

The site of Charaideo which was the first capital of the Ahom kingdom established by the first Ahom king Chao Lung Siu-Ka-Pha in 1228. He tombs (Maidams) of Ahom kings and queens at Charaideo hillocks are comparable to the Pyramids of Egypt. The site has had some archaeological works but also has suffered from robbers.There have been calls for the site to be UNESCO World Heritage listed.

Sirsa District of Haryana at a Glance

May 8, 2020September 14, 2017 by 01 prakash

Lok Sabha Constituencies in Sirsa district, Haryana (MP Constituencies)

Sirsa

MLA Assembly Constituencies in Sirsa district, Haryana

Dabwali
Ellenabad
Kalawali
Rania
Sirsa

About Sirsa District :

The name of the district is derived from its headquarters Sirsa. It is said to be one of the oldest places of North India and its ancient name was Sairishaka, which finds mention in Mahabharata, Panini’s Ashatadhayayi and Divyavadan. In Mahabharata, Sairishaka is described as being taken by Nakula in his conquest of the western quarter. It must have been a flourishing city in the 5th century B.C. as it has been mentioned by Panini.

Location :

The district lies between 29 14 and 30 0 north latitude and 74 29 and 75 18 east longitudes, forming the extreme west corner of Haryana. It is bounded by the districts of Faridkot and Bathinda of Punjab in the north and north east, Ganga Nagar district of Rajasthan in the west and south and Hisar district in the east. Thus it touches the interstate boundaries on three sides and is connected with its own state only in the eastern side.

The terrain of Sirsa district may be broadly classified from north to south into three major types i.e. Haryana Plain, alluvial bed of Ghaggar or Nali and Sand dune tract. The characteristics of the three are briefly described below :

Haryana Plain – The Haryana Plain is a vast surface of flat to rolling terrain and extends southward to the northern boundary of the alluvial bed of the Ghaggar. It covers over 65 percent of the area of the District. The elevation of the surface from east to west varies from 190 to 210 meters above the mean sea level. The most diagnostic feature of the Haryana Plain is the presence of palaeo channels which set the occurrence of sand dunes in this terrain unit apart from those in the dune tract. The plain is traversed by numerous dune complexes and shifting sands.

Alluvial bed of Ghaggar – Nali : A clayey surface of almost flat, featureless plain bordered in the north and west by the Haryana Plain and in the south along the sound dune tract, is a manifestation of the misfit nature of the present day Ghaggar. Waterlogging is a serious problem in many parts of this flat surface of impervious clay of great thickness. At places, swamps support a high density of tall grass.

Sand dune tract – Third tract covers the southern most part of the district. The area is northward extension of the sand dunes of Hisar District and GangaNagar District of Rajasthan. The dunes are locally called tibbas. Tibbas around Ellenabad are 9 Meters high; Naugaza Tibba at the border of Rajasthan is 17 Meters high; Tikonta tibba is some 14 Meters high and one south of Shahpuria is 13 Meters high. All tibbas are broad based transverse ridges, some more than 3 Kilometers long without a break. Linear to complex ridges, short to fairly long but narrow at the crests, and generally 2 to 5 Meters high are also present throughout the sandy stretch of the land

At a Glance :

Total Area	Sq.Km.	4277
Sub Divisions	Number	3
Tehsils	Number	4
Sub-Tehsils	Number	2
Blocks	Number	7
Cities	Number	1
Towns	Number	4
Villages	Number	330
Village Panchayts	Number	334

Population (As Per Census 2011 ) :

Total Population	Number	1295189
Total Male Population	Number	682582
Total Female Population	Number	612607
Total No of Households	Number	246571
Rural Population	Number	975941
Urban Population	Number	319248
Percentage of Urban Population	Percentage	24.64%
Density	Number	303 Per SquKms
Growth Rate(1991-2001)	Percentage	15.99%
SC Population	Number	387381
Sex Ratio	F : M	897 : 1000

Literacy (As Per 2011 Census) :

Literate Persons (R) 6 Yr & Above (Rural)	Number	559635
Literate Persons (U) 6 Yr & above (Urban)	Number	223262
Total Literate Persons	Number	782897
Literacy Rate	Percentage	68.82
Literacy among Males	Percentage	76.43%
Literacy aming Females	Percentage	60.40%

Workers :

Cultivators	Number	164297
Agricultural Labour	Number	147042
Household Inds. Workers	Number	11952
Other Workers	Number	178712
Total Main Workers	Number	399169
Marginal Workers	Number	102834
Total Main & Marginal Workers	Number	502003

Health :

Hospital/Dispensaries/Health Ctrs. / Subcentres (As per census 2011)	Number	228
Med. Officers	Number	83
Ayurvedics Unani	Number	38
Maternity & Child Welfare Centers	Number	72
No. of Sterlisation Cases (2013-14)	Number	4459
Availability of Potable Water in Villages	Number	327
Birth & Death Registration Offices	Number	18

Roads (2013-14) :

Metalled	Km	2161
Unmetalled	km	2
Villages Connected	Number	327

Post Offices (2011 Census) :

Post Office	Number	67
Sub Post Office	Number	124
No. Of PO’s Per Lacs Population	Number	22.46

Veterinary Facilities (2013-14) :

Very. Hospitals	Number	59
Vety. Dispensary	Number	172
Vety. Surgeon	Number	55

Fisheries Development (2013-14) :

Area Stocked	Hects.	1228
Total Production	Tonns.	7096
Total Receipt	Rs Lacs	1387775

Agriculture & Irrigation(2013-14) :

Average Annual Rainfall	Millimeter	262.5
Cultivable Area	Hect(000)	404
Net Area Sown	Hect(000)	396
Net Area Irrigated	Hect(000)	369
Average size of Holding	Hect	2.80
Food Grain	Tonns.(000)	1687
Total Cotton Production	Tonns.(000)	706
Fertilizer Cosumption	Tonns.	21735
Pesticides Consumption	Tonns.	360
Tractors	Number	24243
Tube wells & Pump Sets	Number	62902
Electrified Tubewells	Number	44221
Co.Operative Societies	number	1848

Banks (2013-14) :

Commericial Bank	Number	78
Centeral Co-Operative Banks	Number	1
Centeral Co-op Bank Branch	Number	41
P.L.D. Banks	Number	6
Regulated Market	Number	6
Average No of Villages served Per Regulated Market	Number	54
Deposits of Commercial Banks	Rs in Crores	3510
Credit of Commercial Banks	Rs in Crores	4163
C.D. Ratio	Ratio	118:61

Miscellaneous (2013-14) :

Printing Press	Number	43
Police Station/Pst	number	28
Registered Factories	Number	163
Working Factories	Number	163
Income from Municipal Committes	Rs in Lacs	2435
Expenditure	Rs. in Lacs	2300
No. of Electors	Thousand	739 (2011)
No. of Govt. Employees	Number	15379 (As on 31/3/15)

Tourist Places :

BITSAT 2015 Exam Pattern

January 23, 2016July 17, 2014 by bn Mishra

Click here for BITSAT Model Papers & Free Sample papers

Test Pattern:

All questions are of objective type (multiple choice questions); each question with choice of four answers, only one being correct choice.
Each correct answer fetches 3 marks, while each incorrect answer has a penalty of 1 mark (-1 mark).
No marks are awarded for questions not attempted.
While the candidate can skip a question, the computer will not allow the candidate to choose more than one option as correct answer.
There will be 150 questions in all.

BITSAT-2015 will be of total 3-hour duration (without break). The test consists of four parts:

Part I : Physics

Part II : Chemistry

Part III : (a) English Proficiency and (b) Logical Reasoning

Part IV : Mathematics or Biology (For B.Pharm candidates)

The number of questions in each part is as follows:

Subject	No of questions
Part I – Physics	40
Part II – Chemistry	40
Part III-(a) English Proficiency	15
(b) Logical Reasoning	10
Part IV -Mathematics/Biology (For B.Pharm)	45
Total	150

There is no time limit for individual parts of the test. The candidate can go back and change any of his/her answers among the 150 questions.
If a candidate answers all the 150 questions (without skipping any question), the candidate will have an option of attempting 12 (twelve) extra questions, if there is still time left. These extra questions will be from Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics/Biology only; four questions from each part. Further, once the candidate has opted for extra questions, he cannot go back for correction of any of the earlier answered 150 questions.
The questions are so designed that a good student will be able to answer 150 questions in 180 minutes. The extra questions (a maximum of 12) will give a chance to highly meritorious candidates to score higher. However, candidates should keep in mind the fact that there is negative marking for wrong answers and any attempt to answer the questions by pure guessing of the answers is not likely to have any advantage, but may result in a reduction in the total score.
The questions will be selected at random from a large question bank. Different candidates will get different question sets. An expert committee will ensure that the question sets are of comparable difficulty level, content, question type etc. In this matter, the decision of the expert committee will be final and binding on the candidate.
All the questions and instructions of the test will be in English only. Candidates should bring a pen for the purpose of rough work, signing etc. Blank sheets for rough work will be provided, if required. Calculators and logarithmic tables are not allowed in the test centers.
Candidates are not allowed to bring any other personal belongings such as mobiles.
Each candidate who registers for BITSAT-2015 will be instructed to download a ‘Hall Ticket’.
Candidates with the hall ticket only will be allowed inside the Test centers. All centers are closely monitored for security and candidates’ identity and activities will be recorded using web cameras and/or closed circuit TV cameras. Candidate’s finger print and photograph will be taken at the time of the test and will be matched at the time of admission. Anyone violating the rules of the test center will not be allowed to continue with the test and will automatically be disqualified.

BITSAT 2015 Exam Centres

June 2, 2015July 17, 2014 by bn Mishra

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BITSAT 2015 Test Centres
1.Pilani Campus of BITS	27. Kalyan
2. Goa Campus of BITS	28. Kanpur
3. Hyderabad Campus of BITS	29. Kolkatta
4. Agartala	30. Lucknow
5. Agra	31. Madurai
6. Ahmedabad	32. Mumbai
7. Allahabad	33. Muzzafarpur
8.Bangalore	34. Mysore
9. Bhopal	35. Nagpur
10. Bhubaneswar	36. Nasik
11. Chandigarh	37. Noida
12. Chennai	38. Patna
13. Coimbatore	39. Pimpri-Chinchwad
14. Delhi	40. Pune
15. Dubai Campus of BITS (International center)	41. Raipur
16. Ghaziabad	42. Rajkot
17. Gorakhpur	43. Ranchi
18. Gurgaon	44. Roorkee
19. Guwahati	45. Siliguri
20. Gwalior	46. Srinagar
21. Hyderabad City	47. Surat
22. Indore	48. Tirupati
23. Jaipur	49. Trivandurm
24. Jalandhar	50. Vadodara
25. Jammu	51. Vijayawada
26. Jodhpur	52. Visakhapatnam

The candidate can choose the centers from within India or Dubai. If a candidate chooses centers within India, he/she will be asked to give three preferences and will be allotted one out of these three. If a candidate chooses Dubai as a center, he/she will not be asked for any other center preference and will be allotted Dubai center only.

BITSAT 2014 Applying Process

April 16, 2014January 6, 2014 by bn Mishra

Interested candidates should register their names for BITSAT-2014 by applying in the prescribed application form online.
Complete the application form online at http://www.bitsadmission.com and pay the prescribed fees. Also take the print out of the filled form for your future reference.
The prescribed fee for BITSAT 2014 is Rs. 1900/-(Rs. 1400/- for female candidates).
If a candidate chooses Dubai as a test center the application fee for both male and female candidates will be same and will be US $ 50 (or Indian Rs. 3000/- ). Details for payment of fees are available at the website while applying online.
Deadline to apply for BITSAT-2014 online along with the fee payment is 15th February 2014.
Those who register for the test and reserve test dates have to download the ‘Hall ticket’, alongwith instructions, from BITS website as per the schedule given earlier.
The tests will be conducted during 14th May – 1st June 2014.

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BITSAT 2015 Exam Pattern

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BITSAT 2015 Exam Centres

BITSAT 2014 Applying Process

BITSAT 2014 Model Papers (10 Sets)

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BITSAT 2014 Syllabus

BITSAT 2014 Exam Centre

BITSAT 2014 Eligibility

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