AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Physics

1. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two. Then, the lowest resonant frequency for this string is

(a)  105 Hz

(b)  1.05 Hz

(c)  1050 Hz

(d)  10.5 Hz

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2. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m³) is 0.2 m/s in viscous liquid (density = 1.5 kg/m³), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m³) of the same size in the same liquid.

(a)  0.4 m/s

(b)  0.133 m/s

(c)  0.1 m/s

(d)  0.2 m/s

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3. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of angular frequency ω. The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will leave contact with the platform for the first time

(a)  at the mean position of the platform

(b)  for an amplitude of g/ω²

(c)  for an amplitude of g²/ω²

(d)  at the highest position of the platform

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4. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at the corners of square ABCD is side l. The moment of inertia of this system about an axis passing through A and parallel to BD is

(a)  2 ml²

(b)  √3 ml²

(c)  3 ml²

(d)  ml²

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5. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on table. Box A contains one m ole of nitrogen at temperature T₀, while box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3)T₀. The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other, and heat flows between them until the gases reach a common final temperature (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the final temperature of the gases T_f, in terms of T₀ is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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6. Three point charges +q, −2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0), respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are

(a)  √2qa along +y direction

(b)  √2 aq along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

(c)  qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

(d)  √2 qa along +x direction

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7. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic field at a/2 and 2a is

(a)  1/4

(b)  4

(c)  1

(d)  1/2

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8. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD, whose centre is O

(a)  √2I_AC = I_EF

(b)  I_AD = 3I_EF

(c)  I_AC = I_EF

(d)  I_AC = √2I_EF

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9. If in a p-n junction diode, a square input signal of 10 V is applied as shown

Then the output signal across R_L will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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10. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/s² and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. In a time of 2 s it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of

(a)  6

(b)  10

(c)  12

(d)  4

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11. A hollow cylinder h as a charge q C within it. If ϕ is the electric flux in unit of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in unit of voltmeter will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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12. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10 cm. Find the work to be done against the gravitational force between them, to take the particle far away from the sphere (you may take G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg²)

(a)  13.34 × 10⁻¹⁰ J

(b)  3.33 × 10⁻¹⁰ J

(c)  6.67 × 10⁻⁹ J

(d)  6.67 × 10⁻¹⁰ J

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13. Starting with a sample of pure ⁶⁶ Cu, 7/8 of it decays into Zn in 15 min. The corresponding half-life is

(a)  10 min

(b)  15 min

(c)  5 min

(d) 

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14. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline and then slides a distance d. .The time taken to slide is n times as much to slide on rough incline than on a smooth incline. The coefficient of friction is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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15. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t₁­ and t₂ be the times of flights in the two cases, then the product of the two times of flights is proportional to

(a)  R²

(b)  1/R²

(c)  1/R

(d)  R

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16. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50 m without friction. When parachute opens, it decelerates at 2 m/s². He reaches the ground with a speed of 3 m/s. At what height, did he bail out?

(a)  91 m

(b)  182 m

(c)  293 m

(d)  111 m

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17. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a distance S, then continues at constant speed for time t and then decelerates as the rate f/2 to come to rest. If the total distance travelled is 15 S, then

(a)  S = ft

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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18. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius R using a magnetic field B. if V and B are kept constant, the ratio  will be proportional to

(a)  1/R

(b)  1/R²

(c)  R²

(d)  R

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19. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external resistance R. The internal resistances of the two sources are R₁ and R₂ (R₂ > R₁). If the potential difference across the source having internal resistance R₂, is zero, then

(a) 

(b)  R = R₂ – R₁

(c) 

(d) 

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20. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black paper. They are viewed by eye of pupil diameter 3 mm. Approximately, what is the maximum distance at which these dots can be resolved by the eye? [Take wavelength of light = 550 mm]

(a)  5 m

(b)  1 m

(c)  6 m

(d)  3 m

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21. The function sin² (ωt) represents

(a)  a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period 2π/ω

(b)  a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period π/ω

(c)  a simple harmonic motion with a period 2π/ω

(d)  a simple harmonic motion with a period π/ω

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22. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical power of −5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium with refractive index 1.6 will be

(a)  1 D

(b)  −1 D

(c)  25 D

(d)  −25 D

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23. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world, contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the water surface, the radius of this circle in cm is

(a)  36√7

(b)  36/√7

(c)  36√5

(d)  4√5

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24. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible engine cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is

(a)  1/2

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/3

(d)  2/3

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25. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring, so that the spring is compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the process is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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26. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2π cm are placed at right angle to each other. 3 A and 4 A are the currents flowing in each coil respectively. The magnetic induction in Wb/m² at the centre of the coils will be

(μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ Wb/m)

(a)  12 × 10⁻⁵

(b)  10⁻⁵

(c)  5 × 10⁻⁵

(d)  7 × 10⁻⁵

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27. The input resistance of a common emitter transistor amplifier, if the output resistance is 500 kΩ, the current gain α = 0.98 and power gain is 6.0625 × 10⁶, is

(a)  198 Ω

(b)  300 Ω

(c)  100 Ω

(d)  400 Ω

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28. A car travels 6 km toward north at an angle of 45° to the east and then travels distance of 4 km towards north at an angle 135° to east. How far is the point from the starting point? What angle does the straight line joining its initial and final position makes with the east?

(a)  √50 km and tan⁻¹ (5)

(b)  10 km and tan⁻¹ (√5)

(c)  √52 km and tan⁻¹ (5)

(d)  √52 km and tan⁻¹ (√5)

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29. The speed of light (c), gravitational constant (G) and Planck’s constant (h) are taken as fundamental units in a system. The dimensions of time in this new system should be

(a)  G^1/2 h^1/2 c^−5/2

(b)  G^−1/2 h^1/2 c^1/2

(c)  G^1/2 h^1/2 c^−3/2

(d)  G^1/2 h^1/2 c^1/2

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30. Two bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ are initially at rest at infinite distance apart. They are then allowed to move towards each other under mutual gravitational attraction. Their relative velocity of approach at a separation distance r between them is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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31. The adjacent graph shows the extension (∆l) of a wire of length 1 m suspended from the top of a root at one end with a load W connected to the other end. If the cross-sectional area of the wire is 10⁻⁶ m², calculate the Young’s modulus of the material of the wire.

(a)  2 × 10¹¹ N/m²

(b)  2 × 10⁻¹¹ N/m²

(c)  3 × 10⁻¹² N/m²

(d)  2 × 10⁻¹³ N/m²

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32. Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height of 3 m. The ratio of the cross-sectional area of the orifice and the beaker is 0.1. The square of the speed of the liquid coming out from t he orifice is (g = 10 m/s²)

(a)  50 m²/s²

(b)  50.5 m²/s²

(c)  51 m²/s²

(d)  52 m²/s²

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33. A particle of mass m is executing oscillations about the origin on the x-axis. Its potential energy is U(x) = k[x]³, where k is a positive constant. If the amplitude of oscillation is a, then its time period T is

(a)  proportional to 1/√a

(b)  independent of a

(c)  proportional to √a

(d)  proportional to a^3/2

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34. A person speaking normally produces a sound intensity of 40 dB at a distance of 1 m. If the threshold intensity for reasonable audibility is 20 dB, the maximum distance at which he can be heard clearly is

(a)  4 m

(b)  5 m

(c)  10 m

(d)  20 m

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35. Charge q is uniformly distributed over a thin half ring of radius R. The electric field at the centre of the ring of

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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36. In the figure shown, the capacity of t he condenser C is 2μ The current in 2 Ω resistor is

(a)  9 A

(b)  0.9 A

(c) 

(d) 

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37. When the key K is pressed at t = 0, which of the following statements about the current I in the resistor AB of the given circuit is true?

(a)  I = 2 mA at all t

(b)  I oscillates between 1 mA and 2 mA

(c)  I = 1 mA at all t

(d)  At t = 0, I = 2 mA and with time it goes to 1 mA

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38. An AC source of angular frequency ω is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to ω/3 (but maintaining the same voltage), the current in then circuit is found to be halved. Calculated the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency ω

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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39. A radioactive material decays by simultaneous emission of two particles with respective half lives 1620 yr and 810 yr. The time (in years) after which one-fourth of the material remains is

(a)  1080

(b)  2430

(c)  3240

(d)  4860

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40. In a photoemissive cell with executing wavelength λ, the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be

(a)  v(3/4)^1/2

(b)  v(4/3)^1/2

(c)  less than v(4/3)^1/2

(d)  greater than v(4/3)^1/2

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Directions for Q. 41 to Q. 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below  it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion : The error in the measurement of radius of the sphere is 0.3%. The permissible error in its surface area is 0.6%.

Reason : The permissible error is calculated by the formula 

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42. Assertion : The isothermal curves intersect each other at a certain point.

Reason : The isothermal changes takes place rapidly, so the isothermal curves have very little slope.

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43. Assertion : An electric motor will have maximum efficiency when back emf becomes equal to half of applied emf.

Reason : Efficiency of electric motor depends only on magnitude of back emf.

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44. Assertion : In electric circuits, wires carrying currents in opposite directions are often twisted together.

Reason : If the wires are not twisted together, the combination of the wires forms a current loop, The magnetic field generated by the loop might affect adjacent circuits or components.

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45. Assertion : Balmer series lies in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum.

Reason :  where = n = 3, 4, 5.

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46. Assertion : The velocity of a body at the bottom of an inclined plane of given height is more when it slides down the plane, compared to, when it rolling down the same plane.

Reason : In rolling down a body acquires both, kinetic energy of transiation and rotation.

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47. Assertion : A body of mass 1 kg is making 1 rps in a circle of radius 1 m. Centrifugal force acting on it is 4π²

Reason : Centrifugal force is given by 

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48. Assertion : The change in air pressure effects the speed of sound.

Reason : The speed of sound in gases is proportional to the square of pressure.

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49. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy which is stored becomes K times.

Reason : The surface density o f charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.

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50. Assertion : If a compass needle be kept a magnetic north pole of the earth, the compass needle may stay in any direction.

Reason : Dip needle will stay vertical at the north pole of earth.

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51. Assertion : Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor when the charge of the capacitor does not change.

Reason : The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field and hence the electric flux does not change with time.

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52. Assertion : An electric bulb becomes dim, when an electric heater in parallel circuit is switched on.

Reason : Dimness decreases after sometime.

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53. Assertion : The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent of its length and cross-sectional area.

Reason : The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform.

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54. Assertion : Angle o f repose is equal to the angle of limiting friction.

Reason : When the body is just at the point of motion, the force of friction in this stage is called limiting friction.

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55. Assertion : A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision; even when the initial and final velocities are identical.

Reason : The momentum is greater in first case.

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56. Assertion : The value of current through p-n junction in the given figure will be 10 mA.

Reason : In the above figure, p-side is at higher potential than n-side.

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57. Assertion : A concave mirror and convex lens both have the same focal length in air. When they are submerged in water, they will have same focal length.

Reason : The refractive index of water is smaller than the refractive index of air.

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58. Assertion : A bubble comes from the bottom of a lake to the top.

Reason : Its radius increases.

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59. Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment the two slits are at distance d apart. Interference pattern is observed on a screen at distance D from the slits. At a point on the screen when it is directly opposite to one of the slits, a dark fringe is observed. Then, the wavelength of wave is proportional to square of distance of two slits.

Reason : For a dark fringe intensity is zero.

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60. Assertion : Mean free path of a gas molecules varies inversely ad density of the gas.

Reason : Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas.

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AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Chemistry

1. C₈H₆ that can from cis-trans geometrical isomers and also has a chiral centre, is

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  Both of these

(d)  None of these

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2. Select correct statement (s).

(a)  Cyanamide ion (CN₂²⁻) is isoelectronic with CO₂ and has the same linear structure

(b)  Mg₂C₃ reacts with water to form propyne

(c)  CaC₂ has NaCl type lattice

(d)  All of the above

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3. Perdisulphuric acid has the following bond

(a)  O ← O = O

(b)  ← O = O →

(c)  > O → O <

(d)  −O−O−

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4. The energy equivalent of 2.0 mg mass defect is

(a)  1.8 × e⁴ erg

(b)  9 × 10⁻¹⁹ erg

(c)  1.5 × 10²⁰ erg

(d)  1.8 × 10¹⁸ erg

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5. Which of the following compounds is coloured?

(a)  TiCl₃

(b)  FeCl₃

(c)  CoCl₂

(d)  All of these

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6. 

The compound X is

(a)  SnCl₂/HCl/H₂O, boil

(b)  H₂/Pd – BasO₄

(c)  LiAlH₄/ether

(d)  NaBH₄/ether/H₃O⁺

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7. The compound which gives an oily nitrosoamine on reaction with nitrous acid at low temperature, is

(a)  CH₃NH₂

(b)  (CH₃)₂CHNH₂

(c)  CH₃ – NH – CH₃

(d)  (CH₃)₃N

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8. In which of the following reactions the product obtained is t-butyl methyl ether?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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9. Non-oxide ceramics can be

(a)  B₄C

(b)  SiC

(c)  Si₃N₄

(d)  All of these

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10. What is the pH value of M H₂SO₄?

(a)  0

(b)  −0.213

(c)  −2

(d)  −0.03010

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11. For a first order reaction, to obtain a positive slope, we need to plot {where [A] is the concentration of reactant A}

(a)  −log₁₀[A] vs t

(b)  −log_e[A] vs t

(c)  log₁₀­[A] vs log t

(d)  [A] vs t

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12. 01 M solution of KCl and BaCl₂ are prepared in water. The freezing points of KCl is found to be −2°C. What is the freezing point of BaCl₂ to be completely ionized?

(a)  −3°C

(b)  +3°C

(c)  −2°C

(d)  −4°C

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13. Sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1 : 2 ratio and forms X. Hydrolysis of X gives a sulphur compound Y. What is the structure and hybridization of anion of Y?

(a)  tetrahedral, sp³

(b)  linear, sp

(c)  pyramidal, sp³

(d)  trigonal planar, sp²

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14. Which of the following is a primary halide?

(a)  Iso-propyl iodide

(b)  Secondary butyl iodide

(c)  Tertiary butyl bromide

(d)  Neo-hexyl chloride

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15. ₆C¹² and ₁T³ are formed in nature due to the nuclear reaction of neutron with

(a)  ₇N¹⁴

(b)  ₆C¹³

(c)  ₂He⁴

(d)  ₃Li⁶

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16. The correct structure of 4-bromo-3-methyl but-1-ene is

(a)  Br – CH = C(CH₃)₂

(b)  CH₂ = CH – CH(CH₃) – CH₂Br

(c)  CH₂ = C(CH₃)CH₂CH₂Br

(d)  CH₃ – C(CH₃) = CHCH₂ – Br

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17. The chemical formula of ‘tear gas’ is

(a)  COCl₂

(b)  CO₂

(c)  Cl₂

(d)  CCl₃NO₂

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18. During electrolysis of water the volume of O₂ liberated is 2.24 dm³. The volume of hydrogen liberated, under same conditions will be

(a)  2.24 dm³

(b)  1.12 dm³

(c)  4.48 dm³

(d)  0.56 dm³

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19. 3-hyroxy butanal is formed when X reacts with Y in dilute Z solution. What are X, Y and Z ?

(a)  X – CH₃CHO ; Y – (CH₃)­₂CO ; Z – NaOH

(b)  X – CH₃CHO ; Y – CH₃CHO ; Z – NaCl

(c)  X – (CH₃)₂CO ; Y – (CH₃)₂CO ; Z – HCl

(d)  X – CH₃CHO ; Y – CH₃CHO ; Z – NaOH

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20. In which of the following reactions, the concentration of the product is higher than the concentration of reactant at equilibrium?

(K = equilibrium constant)

(a)  A ⇌ B; K = 0.001

(b)  M ⇌ N; K = 10

(c)  X ⇌ Y; K = 0.005

(d)  R ⇌ P; K = 0.01

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21. The statement which is not correct, is

(a)  chlorophyll is responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates in plants

(b)  the compound formed by the addition of oxygen to haemoglobin is called oxyhaemoglobin

(c)  acetyl salicyclic acid is known as aspirin

(d)  the metal ion present in vitamin B₁₂ is Mg²⁺

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22. Acid hydrolysis of which of the following compounds yields two different organic compounds?

(a)  CH₃COOH

(b)  CH₃CONH₂

(c)  CH₃COOC₂H₅

(d)  (CH₃CO)₂O

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23. The emf of Daniell cell at 298 K is E₁ Zn | ZnSO₄ (0.01 m)| | CuSO₄ (1.0 M)| Cu

When the concentration of ZnSO₄ is 1.0 M and that of CuSO₄ is 0.01 M, the emf changed to E₂. What is the relation between E₁ and E₂?

(a)  E₁ = E₂

(b)  E₂ = 0 ≠ E₂

(c)  E₁ > E₂

(d)  E₁ < E₂

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24. Which of the following is a lyophobic colloidal solution?

(a)  Aqueous starch solution

(b)  Aqueous protein solution

(c)  Gold sol

(d)  Polymer solvent in some organic solvents

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25. The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms⁻¹, respectively. The mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties  in their positions?

(a)  2

(b)  0.25

(c)  4

(d)  1

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26. The volume-temperature graphs of a given mass of an ideal gas at constant pressure are shown below.

What is the correct order of pressures?

(a)  p₁ > p₃ > p₂

(b)  p­₁ > p₂ >  p₃

(c)  p₂ > p₃ > p₁

(d)  p₂ > p₁ > p₃

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27. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures

(a)  ∆G –ve, ∆H +ve and ∆S +ve

(b)  ∆G +ve, ∆H –ve and ∆S +ve

(c)  ∆G –ve, ∆H –ve, and ∆S –ve,

(d)  ∆G –ve, ∆H –ve, and ∆G +ve

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28. The oxidation states of iodine in HIO₄, H₃IO₅ and H₅IO₆ are, respectively

(a)  +1, +3, +7

(b)  +7, +7, +3

(c)  +7, +7, +7

(d)  +7, +5, +3

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29. What will be the heat of formation of methane, if the heat of combustion of carbon is ‘−x’ kJ, heat of formation of water is ‘−y’ kJ and heat of combustion of methane is ‘z’ kJ?

(a)  (−x – y + z) kJ

(b)  (−z – x + 2y) kJ

(c)  (−x – 2y – z) kJ

(d)  (−x – 2y + z) kJ

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30. Which of the following is a polymer containing nitrogen?

(a)  Polyvinyl chloride

(b)  Bakelite

(c)  Nylon

(d)  Terylene

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31. The beta and alpha glucose have different specific rotations. When either is dissolved in water, their rotation changes until the same fixed value results. This is called

(a)  epimerisation

(b)  racemisation

(c)  anomerisation

(d)  mutarotation

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32. An organic compound X on treatment with pyridinium chloro chromate in dichloromethane gives compound Y. Compound Y reacts with I₂ and alkali to form triiodomethane. The compound ‘X’ is

(a)  C₂H₅OH

(b)  CH₃CHO

(c)  CH₃COCH₃

(d)  CH₃COOH

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33. [Fe(NO₂)₃Cl₃] and [Fe(O – NO)₃Cl₃] shows

(a)  linkage isomerism

(b)  geometrical isomerism

(c)  optical isomerism

(d)  None of the above

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34. Maximum enol content is in

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

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35. T₅₀ of first-order reaction is 10 min. Starting with 10 mol L⁻¹, rate after 20 min is

(a)  0.0693 mol L⁻¹ min⁻¹

(b)  0.693 × 2.5 mol L⁻¹ min⁻¹

(c)  0.0693 × 5 mol L⁻² min⁻¹

(d)  0.0693 mol L⁻¹ min⁻¹

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36. On adding 0.1 M solution each of [Ag⁺], [Ba²⁺], [Ca²⁺] in a Na₂SO₄ solution, species first precipitated is

[K_sp BaSO₄ = 10⁻¹¹, K_sp CaSO₄ = 10⁻⁶, K_sp Ag₂SO₄ = 10⁻⁵]

(a)  Ag₂SO₄

(b)  BaSO₄

(c)  CaSO₄

(d)  All of these

Show Answer

37. Spin isomerism is shown by

(a)  dichloro benzene

(b)  hydrogen

(c)  dibasic acid

(d)  n-butane

Show Answer

38. 

Select correct statement based on above scheme.

(a)  Layer X contains Zn and Ag

(b)  Layer Y contains Pb and Ag but amount of silver in this layer is smaller than in layer X

(c)  X and Y are immiscible layer

(d)  All are correct statements

Show Answer

39. S²⁻ and SO₃²⁻ can be distinguished by using

(a)  (CH₃COO)₂Pb

(b)  Na₂­[Fe(CN)₅NO]

(c)  both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Show Answer

40. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent?

(a)  H₂S

(b)  SO₃

(c)  H₂O₂

(d)  F₂

Show Answer

Directions for Q. 41 to Q. 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below  it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion : A spectral line will be observed for a 2p_x-2p_y

Reason : The energy is released in the form of wave of light when electron drops from 2p_x to 2p_y orbital

Show Answer

42. Assertion : Colloidal solutions are stable but colloidal particles do not settle down.

Reason : Brownian movement counters the force o f gravity actively on colloidal particles.

Show Answer

43. Assertion : The S–S–S bond angle in S₈ molecule is 105°.

Reason : S₈ has V-shape.

Show Answer

44. Assertion : [Al(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is a stronger acid than [Mg(H₂O)₆]²⁺.

Reason : Size of [Al(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is smaller than [Mg(H₂O)₆]²⁺ and possesses more effective nuclear charge.

Show Answer

45. Assertion : Oils are purified by steam distillation.

Reason : The compounds which decompose at their boiling points can purified by steam distillation.

Show Answer

46. Assertion : Friedel-Craft’s reaction is used to introduce an alkyl or acyl group in benzene nucleus.

Reason : Benzene is a solvent for the Friedel-Craft’s alkylation of bromobenzene.

Show Answer

47. Assertion : Disruption of the natural structure of a protein is called denaturation.

Reason : The change in colour and appearance of egg during cooking is due to denaturation.

Show Answer

48. Assertion : Equivalent weight of a base

 

Reason : Acidity is the number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one molecule of the base.

Show Answer

49. Assertion : Fluorine molecule has bond order one.

Reason : The number of electrons in the antibonding molecular orbitals is two less than that in bonding molecular orbitals.

Show Answer

50. Assertion : For a reaction

2NH₃(g) → N₂(g) + 3H₂(g); ∆H > ∆E

Reason : Enthalpy change in always greater than internal energy change.

Show Answer

51. Assertion : One molal aqueous solution of glucose contains 180 g of glucose in 1 kg water.

Reason : Solution containing one mole of solute in 100 g of solvent is called one molar solution.

Show Answer

52. Assertion : PbCl₂ is more stable than PbCl₄.

Reason : PbCl₄ is powerful oxidizing agent.

Show Answer

53. Assertion : The ease of dehydration of the following alcohols is

Reason : Alcohols leading to conjugated alkenes are dehydrated to a greater extent.

Show Answer

54. Assertion : No compound has both Schottky and Frenkel defects.

Reason : Both defects change the density of the solid.

Show Answer

55. Assertion : The order of a reaction can have fractional value.

Reason : The order of a reaction cannot be written from balanced equation o f a reaction.

Show Answer

56. Assertion : For the reaction

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g)

Unit of K_c = L² mol⁻²

Reason : For the reaction

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g)

Equilibrium constant, 

Show Answer

57. Assertion : Tropylium cation is aromatic in nature.

Reason : The only property that determines its aromatic behaviour is its planar structure.

Show Answer

58. Assertion : Nitrobenzene is used as a solvent in Friedel-Craft’s reaction.

Reason : Fusion of nitrobenzene with solid KOH gives a low yield of a mixture of o- and p-nitrop phenols.

Show Answer

59. Assertion : Boiling points of cis-isomers are higher than trans-isomers.

Reason : Dipole moments of cis-isomers are higher than trans-isomers.

Show Answer

60. Assertion : The cell potential of mercury cell is 1.35 V, which remains constant.

Reason : In mercury cell, the electrolyte is a paste of KOH and ZnO.

Show Answer

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Biology

1. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a certain body feature and its value/count in a normal human adult ?

(a)  Urea – 5-10 mg/100 mL of blood

(b)  Blood sugar (fasting) – 70-100 mg/100 mL

(c)  Total blood volume – 5.6

(d)  ESR in Wintrobe method – 9-15 mm in males and 20-34 mm in females

Show Answer

2. Which one of the following is a matching pair ?

(a)  Lubb – Sharp closure of AV values at the beginning of ventricular systole

(b)  Dup – Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole

(c)  Pulsation of the radial artery values in the blood vessels

(d)  Initiation of the heart beat – Purkinje fibres

Show Answer

3. July 11 is observed as

(a)  World population day

(b)  No tobacco day

(c)  World environment day

(d)  World health day

Show Answer

4. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of

(a)  industrial wastes poured into water bodies

(b)  extent to which water is polluted with organic compound

(c)  amount of carbon mono-oxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin

(d)  amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night

Show Answer

5. In almost all Indian metropolitan cities like Delhi, the major atmospheric pollutant (s) is/are

(a)  Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM)

(b)  oxides of sulphur

(c)  carbon dioxide and carbon mono-oxide

(d)  oxides of nitrogen

Show Answer

6. People recovering from long illness are often advised to include the alga Sprulina in their diet because it

(a)  makes the food easy to digest

(b)  is rich in proteins

(c)  has antibiotic properties

(d)  restores the intestinal microflora

Show Answer

7. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are

(a)  found in human ovaries

(b)  a source of hormones

(c)  characterized by a yellow colour

(d)  contributory in maintaining pregnancy

Show Answer

8. Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of

(a)  ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NO_x

(b)  smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO₂

(c)  hydrocarbons, SO₂ and CO₂

(d)  hydrocarbons, ozone and SO_x

Show Answer

9. The plant part which consists of two generations one within the other, is

(a)  germinated pollen grain

(b)  embryo

(c)  unfertilized ovule

(d)  seed

Show Answer

10. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix Bt means :

(a)  Barium-treated cotton seeds

(b)  Bigger thread variety of cotton with better tensile strength

(c)  produced by biotechnology using restriction enzymes and ligases

(d)  carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis

Show Answer

11. Which one feature is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion ?

(a)  Nephridia

(b)  Ventral nerve cord

(c)  Cephalization

(d)  Antennae

Show Answer

12. The total number of nitrogenous bases in human genome is estimated to be about

(a)  3.5 million

(b)  35 thousand

(c)  35 million

(d)  3.1 billion

Show Answer

13. The great barrier reef along the east coast of Australia can be categorized as

(a)  population

(b)  community

(c)  ecosystem

(d)  biome

Show Answer

14. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a drug and its category?

(a)  Amphetamines – stimulant

(b)  Lysergic acid dimethyl amide – narcotic

(c)  Heroin – psychotropic

(d)  Benzodiazepam – pain killer

Show Answer

15. A baby has been born with a small tail. It is the case exhibiting

(a)  retrogressive evolution

(b)  mutation

(c)  atavism

(d)  metamorphosis

Show Answer

16. Which one of the following is correctly matched regarding an institute and its location?

(a)  National Institute of Virology – Pune

(b)  National Institute of Communicable disease – Lucknow

(c)  Central Drug Research Institute – Kasauli

(d)  National Institute of Nutrition – Mumbai

Show Answer

17. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

(a)  is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus pneumoniae

(b)  is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)

(c)  is an acute form of asthma

(d)  affects non-vegetarians much faster than the vegetarians

Show Answer

18. What is the first step in the Southern blot technique?

(a)  Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe

(b)  Production of a group of genetically identical cells

(c)  Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme

(d)  Denaturation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of crime

Show Answer

19. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the codon and the amino acid coded by it?

(a)  UUA-valine

(b)  AAA-lysine

(c)  AUG-cysteine

(d)  CCC-alanine

Show Answer

20. Based on cellular mechanisms there are two major types of regeneration found in the animals. Which one of the following is the correct example of the type mentioned?

(a)  Morphollaxis – Regeneration of two transversely cut equal pieces of a Hydra into two small hydras

(b)  Epimorphosis – Replacement of old and dead erythrocytes by the new ones

(c)  Morphollaxis – Healing up of a wound in the skin

(d)  Epimorphosis – Regeneration of crushed and filtered out pieces of a Planaria into as many new Planarians

Show Answer

21. Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(a)  Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism

(b)  Thymus – Starts undergoing atrophy after puberty

(c)  Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone, which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood into bones during classification

(d)  Pancreas – Delta cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone, which stimulates glycolysis in liver

Show Answer

22. An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as

(a)  histamine and dopamine

(b)  histamine and kinins

(c)  interferons and opsonin

(d)  interferons and histones

Show Answer

23. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our country?

(a)  Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch

(b)  Eastern Ghats and West Bengal

(c)  Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats

(d)  Kerala and Punjab

Show Answer

24. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is

(a)  wild-life sanctuaries

(b)  biosphere reserves

(c)  cryopreservation

(d)  national parks

Show Answer

25. Formation of non-functional methaemoglobin causes blue-baby syndrome. This is due to

(a)  excess of arsenic concentration in drinking water

(b)  excess of nitrates in drinking water

(c)  deficiency of iron in food

(d)  increased methane content in the atmosphere

Show Answer

26. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between

(a)  two light chains

(b)  two heavy chains

(c)  one heavy and one light chain

(d)  either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of antigen

Show Answer

27. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygene. Following the cross AABBCC (dark colour) × aabbcc (light colour), in F₂ generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?

(a)  Half

(b)  Less than 5 percent

(c)  One third

(d)  None of these

Show Answer

28. The given graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction of the enzyme green gram-phosphatase. What does the graph indicate?

(a)  The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration

(b)  Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture

(c)  Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex

(d)  At higher substrate concentration of pH increases

Show Answer

29. In an experiment, freshly hatched larvae of an insect (khapra beetle) were reared on a basal diet (complete diet without cholesterol) with increasing amounts of cholesterol. Results obtained are shown in the graph given in the table

The graph indicates :

(a)  cholesterol is an essential dietary requirement of khapra beetle

(b)  growth of khapra beetle is directly proportional to cholesterol concentration

(c)  cholesterol concentration of 2 μg/g diet is the optimum level

(d)  growth of khapra beetle in inhibited when cholesterol concentration exceeds 2μg/g diet

Show Answer

30. Given below is a trable comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (a-d). Which one feature is correctly described?

(a)  Feature – Salivary gland ; Sympathetic Nervous System – Stimulates secretion ; Parasympathetic Nervous System – Inhibits secretion

(b)  Feature – Pupil of the eye ; Sympathetic Nervous System – Dilate ; Parasympathetic Nervous System – Constricts

(c)  Feature – Heart rate ; Sympathetic Nervous System – Decreases ; Parasympathetic Nervous System – Increases

(d)  Feature – Intestinal peristalsis ; Sympathetic Nervous System – Stimulates ; Parasympathetic Nervous System – Inhibits

Show Answer

31. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

(a)  Animals – Millipede ; Characteristic – Ventral nerve cord ; Taxon – Arachnida

(b)  Animals – Duckbilled platypus ; Characteristic – Oviparous ; Taxon – Mammalian

(c)  Animals – Silver fish ; Characteristic – Pectoral and pelvic fins ; Taxon – Chordate

(d)  Animals – Sea anemone ; Characteristic – Triploblastic ; Taxon – Cnidaria

Show Answer

32. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion of correctly matched?

(a)  Oxyntic cells – A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0

(b)  Alpha cells of islets of – Secretion that decreases blood sugar level

(c)  Kupffer cells – A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids

(d)  Sebaceous glands – A secretion that evaporates for cooling

Show Answer

33. Which of the following pair of feature is a good example of polygenic inheritance?

(a)  Human height and skin colour

(b)  ABO blood group in humans and flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa

(c)  Hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling in humans

(d)  Human eye colour and sickle cell anaemia

Show Answer

34. Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for a character under consideration is called

(a)  reciprocal cross

(b)  test cross

(c)  dihybrid cross

(d)  back cross

Show Answer

35. In the following table identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease and the corresponding pathogen

(a)  Crop – Citrus ; Disease – Canker ; Pathogen – Pseudomonas rubrilineans

(b)  Crop – Potato ; Disease – Late blight ; Pathogen – Fusarium udum

(c)  Crop – Brinjal ; Disease – Root-knot ; Pathogen – Meloidogyne incognita

(d)  Crop – Pigeon pea ; Disease – Seed gall ; Pathogen – Phytophthora infestans

Show Answer

36. Genes present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, are found in

(a)  mitochondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm

(b)  lysosomes and peroxisomes

(c)  Golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(d)  plastids and inherited via male gamete

Show Answer

37. A normal woman whose father was colourblind, is married to a normal man. The sons would be

(a)  75% colourblind

(b)  50% colourblind

(c)  all normal

(d)  all colourblind

Show Answer

38. Which one of the following precedes re-formation of the nuclear envelope during M-phase of the cell cycle?

(a)  Decondensation from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

(b)  Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

(c)  Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast

(d)  Formation of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosomes

Show Answer

39. What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts?

(a)  Presence of pigments

(b)  Possession of thylakoids and grana

(c)  Storage of starch, proteins and lipids

(d)  Ability to multiply by a fission-like process

Show Answer

40. In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf life. The large variation is ion account of

(a)  species diversity

(b)  induced mutations

(c)  genetic diversity

(d)  hybridization

Show Answer

In the following questions (41-60), a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R)

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

41. Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.

Reason : An animals like kite cannot be a part of a food web.

Show Answer

42. Assertion : In plant tissue culture, somatic embryos can be induced from any plant cell.

Reason : Any animals like kite cannot be a part of a food web.

Show Answer

43. Assertion : The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

Reason : The first autotrophic organisms were the chemo-autotrophs that never released oxygen.

Show Answer

44. Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal diseases.

Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.

Show Answer

45. Assertion : In collateral vascular bundles, phloem is situated towards inner side.

Reason : In monocot stem, cambium is present.

Show Answer

46. Assertion : In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).

Reason : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population, which express the desired gene.

Show Answer

47. Assertion : Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria.

Reason : Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.

Show Answer

48. Assertion : Persons suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.

Reason : Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.

Show Answer

49. Assertion : Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation occurs in the cytoplasm.

Reason : mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis.

Show Answer

50. Assertion : Human ancestors never used their tails and so the tail expressing gene has disappeared in them.

Reason : Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly called theory of continuity of germ plasm.

Show Answer

51. Assertion : Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thirst of water.

Reason : Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary

Show Answer

52. Assertion : Coavervates are believed to be the precursors of life.

Reason : Coacervates were self-duplicating aggregates of proteins surrounded by lipid molecules.

Show Answer

53. Assertion : Tapeworm roundworm and pinworm and endoparasites of human intestine.

Reason : Improperly cooked food is the source of intestinal infections.

Show Answer

54. Assertion : Fish metal is a rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.

Reason : Fish meal is produced from non-edible parts of fishes like fins, tail.

Show Answer

55. Assertion : Dope test is used to estimate the level of blood alcohol by analyzing the breath of persons drinking alcohol.

Reason : A drunken person usually feels tens and less talkative.

Show Answer

56. Assertion : Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals, which cause allergic reactions.

Reason : Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain individuals.

Show Answer

57. Assertion : Smaller the organism higher is the rate of metabolism per gram weight.

Reason : The heart rate of a six month old baby is much higher than that of an old person.

Show Answer

58. Assertion : Bats and whales are classified as mammals.

Reason : Bats and whales have four-chambered heart.

Show Answer

59. Assertion : Inhabitants close to very busy airports are likely to experience health hazards.

Reason : Sound level of jet aeroplanes usually exceeds 160 dB.

Show Answer

60. Assertion : A cell membrane shows fluid behaviour.

Reason : A membrane is a mosaic or composite of diverse lipids and proteins.

Show Answer

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

General Knowledge

1. The first of the GAEL (Global Alliance for the elimination of Leprosy) was held in

(a)  New Delhi

(b)  Bombay

(c)  Culcutta

(d)  Paris.

Show Answer

2. Megger is an instrument to measure

(a)  very low resistance

(b)  insulation resistance

(c)  inductance of a coil

(d)  all of the above

Show Answer

3. Terminator technology promotes sale of which of the following that is/are generated by it?

(a)  gransgenic fertile seed.

(b)  gene modified plants.

(c)  genetically engineered seeds fertilized in next generation.

(d)  all of these.

Show Answer

4. Which among the following has become the third tiger reserve of Assam?

(a)  Manas Wildlife Sanctury

(b)  Kaziranga National Park

(c)  Nameri National Park

(d)  none of these.

Show Answer

5. To make the acidic soil suitable for agricultural, one of the following material is used.

(a)  lime

(b)  gypsum

(c)  calcium superphosphate

(d)  vegetable compost.

Show Answer

6. The landform which is not associated with wind erosion is

(a)  sand dune

(b)  inselberg

(c)  drumlin

(d)  mushroom rock.

Show Answer

7. BCG vaccination is to be given to a new born child

(a)  immediately after child birth

(b)  within 48 hours

(c)  within seven days

(d)  within six months.

Show Answer

8. For reproducing sound, CD (compact disc) audioplayer uses a

(a)  quartz crystal

(b)  titanium needle

(c)  laser beam

(d)  barium titanate ceramic

Show Answer

9. In a three pin electrical plug, longest pin should be connected to

(a)  ground terminal.

(b)  live terminal.

(c)  neutral terminal.

(d)  any terminal.

Show Answer

10. The new addition to the commonwealth games 2010 is

(a)  shooting

(b)  hockey

(c)  wrestling

(d)  football.

Show Answer

11. The name of the player who established record in World Cup Cricket 2007 of making six sixes is

(a)  Sanath Jaisurya

(b)  Virendra Sehwag

(c)  Adam Gilchrist

(d)  Hershelle Gibbs.

Show Answer

12. The lateral meaning of the word Arya is

(a)  superior

(b)  learned

(c)  priest

(d)  warrior.

Show Answer

13. When T. V. is switched on

(a)  audio and video both start simultaneously

(b)  audio is heard immediately but video starts later because video needs some warm up time

(c)  video starts immediately but audio is heard later because sound travels at a lesser speed than light

(d)  it depends on the T.V. stand.

Show Answer

14. The instrument of music in which Ustad Amjad Ali Khan has distinguished himself is

(a)  sarod

(b)  violin

(c)  sitar

(d)  shehnai

Show Answer

15. A deep and narrow river valley with steep bank is called

(a)  geyser

(b)  bluff

(c)  delta

(d)  canyon.

Show Answer

16. A ‘breath test’ used by traffic police to check drunken drivers uses –

(a)  potassium dichromate-sulphuric acid

(b)  potassium permanganate sulphuric acid

(c)  turmeric on filter paper

(d)  silica gel coated with silver nitrate

Show Answer

17. In which of the following books is ‘Knowledge is Power’ written?

(a)  Essay on Man

(b)  Paradise Lost

(c)  Leviathan

(d)  Das Capital.

Show Answer

18. Who said “where weather accumulates, men decay”?

(a)  Abraham Lincoln

(b)  Mao Tsetung

(c)  Karl Marx

(d)  Goldsmith

Show Answer

19. Which of the following computer viruses is named after cherry and caffeine soft drink popular with programmers?

(a)  sircam

(b)  code pink

(c)  code red

(d)  malisa

Show Answer

20. The fourth Buddist council was held during the reign of

(a)  Ashoka

(b)  Chandragupta

(c)  Kanishka

(d)  Chandragupta Vikramaditya

Show Answer

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

Physics 

1. The dimensions of universal gas constant is

(a)  [ML²T⁻²θ⁻¹]

(b)  [M²LT⁻²θ]

(c)  [ML³T⁻²θ⁻¹]

(d)  None of these

Show Answer

2. A metal plate 4 mm thick has a temperature difference of 32°C between its faces. It transmits 200 kcal/h through an area of 5 cm².

Thermal conductivity of the material is

(a)  58.33 W/m-°C

(b)  33.58 W/m-°C

(c)  5 × 10⁻⁴ W/m-°C

(d)  None of these

Show Answer

3. A balloon rises from rest with a constant acceleration g/8. A stone is released from it when it has risen to height h. The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

4. A uniform cylinder has a radius R and length L. If the moment of inertia of this cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its circular face is equal to the moment of inertia of the same cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its length, then

(a)  L = R

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

5. If the value of g at the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s² then the value of g at a place 480 km above the surface of the earth will be (radius of the earth is 6400 km)

(a)  8.4 m/s²

(b)  9.8 m/s²

(c)  7.2 m/s²

(d)  4.2 m/s²

Show Answer

6. If pressure of CO₂ (real gas) in a container is given by  then mass of the gas in container is

(a)  11 g

(b)  22 g

(c)  33 g

(d)  44 g

Show Answer

7. Two simple pendulums first of bob mass M₁ and length L₁, second of bob mass M₂ and length L₂. M₁ = M₂ and L₁ = 2L₂. If the vibrational energies of both are same. Then which is correct?

(a)  Amplitude of B greater than A

(b)  Amplitude of B smaller than A

(c)  Amplitude will be same

(d)  None of the above

Show Answer

8. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. The period of oscillation of pendulum on this planet will be (if it is a second’s pendulum on earth)

(a) 

(b)  2√2 s

(c)  2 s

(d) 

Show Answer

9. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward acceleration g/4. Work done by the cord on the block is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  Mgd

Show Answer

10. A force F is applied on the wire of radius r and length L and change in the length of wire is l. If the same force F is applied on the wire of the same material and radius 2r and length 2L, then the change in length of the other wire is

(a)  l

(b)  2l

(c)  l/2

(d)  4l

Show Answer

11. When a copper voltmeter is connected with a battery of emf 12 V. 2 of copper is deposited in 30 min. If the same voltmeter is connected across a 6 V battery then the mass of copper deposited in 45 min would be

(a)  1 g

(b)  1.5 g

(c)  2 g

(d)  2.5 g

Show Answer

12. A network of four capacitors of capacities equal to C₁ = C, C₂= 2C, C₃ = 3C and C­4 = 4C are connected to a battery as shown in the figure.

The ratio of the charges on C₂ and C­₄ is

(a)  22/3

(b)  3/22

(c)  7/4

(d)  4/7

Show Answer

13. The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to Einstien’s equation, the metal(s) which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are

(a)  A only

(b)  A and B

(c)  All of these

(d)  None of these

Show Answer

14. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s constant and that of the moment of inertia is the dimensions of

(a)  frequency

(b)  velocity

(c)  angular momentum

(d)  time

Show Answer

15. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction

(a)  increases the number of donors on the n-side

(b)  increases the electric field in the depletion zone

(c)  increases the potential difference across the depletion zone

(d)  widens the depletion zone

Show Answer

16. If a vector  is perpendicular to the vector  , then the value of α is

(a)  −1

(b)  1/2

(c)  −1/2

(d)  1

Show Answer

17. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, fraction o f heat energy supplied which increases the internal energy o f gas, is

(a)  2/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  3/7

(d)  3/4

Show Answer

18. A body of mass m rises to a height h = R/5 from the earth’s surface where R is earth’s radius. If g is acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy will be

(a)  mgh

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

19. A clock with a metal pendulum beating seconds keeps correct time at 0° If it loses 12.5 s a day at 25°C, the coefficient of linear expansion of metal pendulum is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

20. A fork A has frequency 2% more than the standard fork and B has a frequency 3% less than the frequency of same standard fork. The forks A and B when sounded together produced 6 beats/s. The frequency of fork A is

(a)  116.4 Hz

(b)  120 Hz

(c)  122.4 Hz

(d)  238.8 Hz

Show Answer

21. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of 50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the observer after crossing him? The velocity of the sound in the medium is 350 m/s.

(a)  750 Hz

(b)  857 Hz

(c)  1143 Hz

(d)  1333 Hz

Show Answer

22. A ball of mass 1 g and charge 10⁻⁸ C moves from a point A. Where potential is 600 V to the point B where potential is zero. Velocity of the ball at the point B is 20 cm/s. The velocity of the ball at the point A will be

(a)  22.8 cm/s

(b)  228 cm/s

(c)  16.8 m/s

(d)  168 m/s

Show Answer

23. A charged oil drop of mass 2.5 × 10⁻⁷ kg is in space between the two plates, each of area 2 × 10⁻² m² of a parallel plate capacitor. When the upper plate has a charge of 5 × 10⁻⁷ C and the lower plate has an equal negative charge, the oil remains stationary. The charge of the oil drop is (Take g = 10 m/s²)

(a)  9 × 10⁻¹ C

(b)  9 × 10⁻⁶ C

(c)  8.85 × 10⁻¹³ C

(d)  1.8 × 10⁻¹⁴ C

Show Answer

24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference across the 4.5 μF capacitor is

(a) 

(b)  4 V

(c)  6 V

(d)  8 V

Show Answer

25. If two bulbs of wattages 25 and 100 W respectively each rated by 220 V are connected in series with the supply of 440 V, which bulb will fuse?

(a)  100 W bulb

(b)  25 W bulb

(c)  None of them

(d)  Both of them

Show Answer

26. A square conducting loop of side length L carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is

(a)  independent of L

(b)  proportional to L²

(c)  inversely proportional to L

(d)  linearly proportional to L

Show Answer

27. A thin magnetic needle vibrates in the horizontal plane with a period of 4 s. The needle is cut into two halves by a plane normal to magnetic axis of the needle. Then the period of vibration of each half needle is approximately

(a)  4 s

(b)  2 s

(c)  8 s

(d)  1 s

Show Answer

28. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side 0.02 m is suspended from it vertex such that it is hanging in a vertical plane between the pole pieces of permanent magnet producing a uniform field of 5 × 10⁻² If a current of 0.1 A is passed through the coil, what is the couple acting?

(a)  5√3 × 10⁻⁷ N-m

(b)  5√3 × 10⁻¹⁰ N-m

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Show Answer

29. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25 cm² has a resistance of 100 Ω. If a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of the coil changes at a rate of 1000 T/s, the current in the coil is

(a)  1.0 A

(b)  50 A

(c)  0.5 A

(d)  5.0 A

Show Answer

30. An AC ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit. When a given direct current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads 3A. When another alternating current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads 4A.Then the reading of this ammeter, if DC and AC flow through the circuit simultaneously, is

(a)  3 A

(b)  4 A

(c)  7 A

(d)  5 A

Show Answer

31. A transmitter transmits at a wavelength of 300 m. A condenser of capacitance 2.4 μF is being used. The value of the inductance for the resonant circuit is approximately

(a)  10⁻⁴ H

(b)  10⁻⁶ H

(c)  10⁻⁸ H

(d)  10⁻¹⁰ H

Show Answer

32. A capacitor of capacitance 1 μF is charged to a potential of 1 V. It is connected in parallel to an inductor of inductance 10⁻³ The maximum current that will flow in the circuit has the value

(a) 

(b)  1 A

(c)  1 mA

(d)  1000 mA

Show Answer

33. The wave of wavelength 5900 Å emitted by any atom or molecule must have some finite total length which is known as coherence length. For sodium light, this length is 2.4 cm. The number of oscillations in this length will be

(a)  4.068 × 10⁸

(b)  4.068 × 10⁴

(c)  4.068 × 10⁶

(d)  4.068 × 10⁵

Show Answer

34. If a ray of light in a denser medium strikes a rarer medium at an angle of incidence i, the angles of reflection and refraction are respectively r and r’. If the reflected and refracted rays are at right angles to each other, the critical angle for the given pair of media is

(a)  sin⁻¹ (tan r’)

(b)  sin⁻¹(tan r)

(c)  tan⁻¹ (sin i)

(d)  cot⁻¹ (tan i)

Show Answer

35. In a photocell, with exciting wavelength λ, the faster electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest electron will be

(a)  v(3/4)^1/2

(b)  v(4/3)^1/2

(c)  less than v(4/3)^1/2

(d)  greater than v(4/3)^1/2

Show Answer

36. Work function of nickel is 5.01 eV. When ultraviolet radiation of wavelength 2000 Å is incident on electrons are emitted. What will be the maximum velocity of emitted electrons?

(a)  3 × 10⁸ m/s

(b)  6.46 × 10⁵ m/s

(c)  10.36 × 10⁵ m/s

(d)  8.54 × 10⁶ m/s

Show Answer

37. If 5% of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiated as visible light, how many quanta are emitted per second by a 100 W lamp? (Assume wavelength of visible light as 5.6 × 10⁻⁵ cm)

(a)  1.4 × 10¹⁹

(b)  3 × 10³

(c)  1.4 × 10⁻¹⁹

(d)  3 × 10⁴

Show Answer

38. A 1 kg stone at the end of 1 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle at constant speed of 4 m/s. The tension in the string is 6 N, when the stone at (g = 10 m/s²)

(a)  top of the circle

(b)  bottom of the circle

(c)  half way down

(d)  None of the above

Show Answer

39. A 12 HP motor has to be operated 8 h/day. How much will it cost at the rate of 50 paise/kWh in 10 days?

(a)  Rs 350

(b)  Rs 358

(c)  Rs 375

(d)  Rs 397

Show Answer

40. In steel, the Young’s modulus and the strain at the breaking point are 2 × 10¹¹ N/m² and 0.15 respectively. The stress at the breaking point for steel is therefore

(a)  1.33 × 10¹¹ N/m²

(b)  1.33 × 10¹² N/m²

(c)  7.5 × 10⁻¹³ N/m²

(d)  3 × 10¹⁰ N/m²

Show Answer

Directions for Q. No. 41 to 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) if both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) if both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) if Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) if Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion Torque on the coil is the maximum, when coil is suspended in a radial magnetic field.

Reason The torque tends to rotate the coil on its own axis.

Show Answer

42. Assertion A transformer cannot work on DC supply.

Reason DC changes neither in magnitude nor in direction.

Show Answer

43. Assertion For an electric lamp connected in series with a variable capacitor and AC source; its brightness increases with increase in capacitance.

Reason Capacitive reactance decrease with increase in capacitance of capacitor.

Show Answer

44. Assertion The specific charge for positive rays is a characteristic constant.

Reason The specific charge depends on charge and mass of positive ions present in positive rays.

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45. Assertion The mass of β-particles when they are emitted is higher than the mass of electrons obtained by other means.

Reason β-particle and electron, both are similar particles.

Show Answer

46. Assertion NAND or NOR gates are called digital building blocks.

Reason The repeated use of NAND (or NOR) gates can produce all the basic or complicated gates.

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47. Assertion There is a no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular glass slab.

Reason Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent colours.

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48. Assertion There is no effect of rotation of earth on acceleration due to gravity at poles.

Reason Rotation of earth is about polar axis.

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49. Assertion The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net force.

Reason Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to the work done only in case of a system of one particle.

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50. Assertion A safe turn by a cyclist should neither be fast nor sharp.

Reason The bending angle from the vertical would decrease with increases in velocity.

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51. Assertion A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.

Reason  To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Show Answer

52. Assertion If a gas container in motion is suddenly stopped, the temperature of the gas rises.

Reason The kinetic energy of ordered mechanical motion is converted into the kinetic energy of random motion of gas molecules.

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53. Assertion Like light radiation, thermal radiations are also electromagnetic radiation.

Reason The thermal radiations require no medium for propagation.

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54. Assertion The percentage change in time period is 1.5% if the length of simple pendulum increases by 3%.

Reason Time period is directly proportional to length of pendulum.

Show Answer

55. Assertion The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe increases as the temperature is increased.

Reason As the temperature increases, the velocity of sound increases more rapidly than length of the pipe.

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56. Assertion A paramagnetic sample displays greater magnetization (for the same magnetizing field) when cooled.

Reason The magnetization does not depend on temperature.

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57. Assertion The quantity L/R possesses dimensions of time.

Reason To reduce the rate of increase of current through a solenoid should increase the time constant (L/R).

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58. Assertion The threshold frequency of photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of sunlight.

Reason If frequency of incident light is less than the threshold frequency, electrons are not emitted from metal surface.

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59. Assertion The average velocity of the object over an interval of time is either smaller than or equal to the average speed of the object over the same interval.

Reason Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.

Show Answer

60. Assertion Microwave propagation is better than the skywave propagation.

Reason Microwaves have frequencies 100 to 300 GHz, which have very good directional properties.

Show Answer

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

CHEMISTRY

61. The pH of the mixture obtained when equal volumes of N/10 NaOH and N/20 HCl are mixed, is

(a)  1.6

(b)  12.4

(c)  13.4

(d)  10.8

Show Answer

62. Which of the following buffer solution turns invalid on addition of 10 mL of 1.0 M HCl?

(a)  100 mL having 0.15 M NH₃ and NH₄Cl each

(b)  100 mL having 0.2 M NH₃ and NH₄Cl each

(c)  100 mL having 0.2 M NH₃ and 0.1 M NH₄Cl each

(d)  100 mL having 0.05 M NH₃ and NH₄Cl each

Show Answer

63. Which element belongs to 4n series?

(a)  Pb²⁰⁷

(b)  Bi²⁰⁹

(c)  Pb²⁰⁸

(d)  Pb²⁰⁶

Show Answer

64. 037 g f an alcohol, R–OH was added to C₂H₅MgI and the gas evolved measured 11.2 cc at STP. The molecular mass of R–OH will be

(a)  47

(b)  79

(c)  77

(d)  74

Show Answer

65. If the photon of the wavelength 150 pm strikes an atom and one of its inner bound electrons is ejected out with a velocity of 1.5 × 10⁷ ms⁻¹, what is the energy with which it is bound to the nucleus?

(a)  1.2 × 10² eV

(b)  2.15 × 10³ eV

(c)  7.6 × 10³ eV

(d)  8.12 × 10³ eV

Show Answer

66. Consider the sequence of oxides : Na₂O, SiO₂, P₄O Which factor decreases from Na₂O to SiO₂ and also from SiO₂ to P₄O₁₀?

(a)  Covalent character

(b)  Melting point

(c)  pH when mixed with water

(d)  Solubility in aqueous alkali

Show Answer

67. The type of hybrid orbitals used by iodine atom in hypoiodous acid molecule are

(a)  sp³

(b)  sp²

(c)  sp

(d)  sp³d

Show Answer

68.  is of intense pink colour though Mn is in +7 oxidation state. It is due to

(a)  oxygen gives colour to it

(b)  charge transfer when Mn gives its electron to oxygen

(c)  charge transfer when oxygen gives its electron to Mn making it Mn(+VI)

(d)  presence of unpaired electrons

Show Answer

69. [CoCl₂(NH₃)₄]⁺ + Cl⁻ → [CoCl₃(NH₃)₃] + NH₃

In the reaction only one isomer of complex product is obtained. The initial complex is

(a)  cis isomer

(b)  trans isomer

(c)  not having stereoisomers

(d)  either cis or trans

Show Answer

70. The Brownian motion is due to

(a)  temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

(b)  attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

(c)  impact of the molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

(d)  convectional currents

Show Answer

71. For a first-order reaction A → B the plot of log {[A]_t/1M} versus t is linear with a

(a)  positive slope and zero intercept

(b)  positive slope and non zero intercept

(c)  negative slope and zero intercept

(d)  negative slope and non zero intercept

Show Answer

72. At a certain temperature, the first order rate constant, k₁ is found to be smaller than the second order rate constant, k₂. If the energy of activation, E₁ of the first order reaction is greater than energy of activation, E₂ of the second order reaction then with increase in temperature

(a)  k₁ will increase faster than k₂, but always will remain less than k₂

(b)  k₂ will increase faster than k₁

(c)  k₁ will increase faster than k₂ and becomes equal to k₂

(d)  k₁ will increase faster than k₂ and becomes greater than k₂

Show Answer

73. Highest electron affinity is shown by

(a)  O⁻

(b)  F⁻

(c)  Cl₂

(d)  F₂

Show Answer

74. An alkyl chloride (A) on reaction with magnesium in dry ether followed by treatment with ethanol gave 2-methylbutane. Give the possible structure of ‘A’

(a)  (CH₃)₂C(Cl)CH₂CH₃

(b)  (CH₃)₂CHCH₂CH₂Cl

(c)  CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₂X

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Show Answer

75. Which of the following reaction has zero activation energy?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

76. Structural formula of Lewisite is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

77. Which is optically inactive?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Show Answer

78. The monomers of buna-S rubber are

(a)  vinyl chloride and sulphur

(b)  butadiene

(c)  styrene and butadiene

(d)  isoprene and butadiene

Show Answer

79. Passing H₂S gas through nitric acid produces

(a)  rhombic sulphur

(b)  colloidal sulphur

(c)  amorphous sulphur

(d)  plastic sulphur

Show Answer

80. Which of the following aldehyde contains α-C atom but does not have any α-H atom?

(a)  Propionaldehyde

(b)  Benzaldehyde

(c)  Isobutyraldehyde

(d)  Formaldehyde

Show Answer

81. 

The final predominant product is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

82. Which of the following reaction is an example of calcination process?

(a)  2Ag + 2HCl + [O] → 2AgCl + H₂O

(b)  2Zn + O₁₂ → 2ZnO

(c)  2ZnS + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO₂

(d)  MgCO₃ → MgO + CO₂

Show Answer

83. The following equilibria are given

The equilibrium constant for the reaction,

in terms of K₁, K₂ and K₃ will be

(a)  K₁K₂K₃

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

84. The root mean square velocity of one mole of a monatomic gas having molar mass M is U_rms. The reaction between the average kinetic energy (E) of the gas and U­_rms is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Show Answer

85. C is

(a)  Ph–N⁺ ≡ NBF­4

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  Ph–F

Show Answer

86. Carbohydrates which differ in configuration at the glycoidic carbon (ie, C₁ in aldose and C₂ in ketoses) are called

(a)  anomers

(b)  epimers

(c)  diastereomers

(d)  enantiomers

Show Answer

87. The correct order of increasing covalent character is

(a)  LiCl, NaCl, BeCl₂

(b)  BeCl₂, NaCl, LiCl

(c)  NaCl, LiCl, BeCl₂

(d)  BeCl₂, LiCl, NaCl

Show Answer

88. The equivalent weight of H₃PO₂, when it disproportionate into PH₃ and H₃PO₃ is

(a)  82

(b)  61.5

(c)  41

(d)  20.5

Show Answer

89. Catalyst used in dimerisation of acetylene to prepare chloropropene is

(a)  HgSO₄ + H₂SO₄

(b)  Cu₂Cl₂

(c)  Cu₂Cl₂ + NH₄OH

(d)  Cu₂Cl₂ + NH₄Cl

Show Answer

90. The limiting radius ratio of the complex [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is

(a)  0.225 – 0.414

(b)  0.414 – 0.732

(c)  0.155 – 0.225

(d)  None of these

Show Answer

91. In a homonuclear molecule, which of the following sets of orbitals is degenerate?

(a)  σ1s and σ2s

(b)  π2p_x and π2p_y

(c)  π2p_x and σ2p_z

(d)  σ2p_x and σ*2p_z

Show Answer

92. If the concentration of CrO₄²⁻¹ ions in a saturated solution of silver chromate is 2 × 10⁻⁴ M, the solubility product of silver chromate would be

(a)  32 × 10⁻¹²

(b)  8 × 10⁻¹²

(c)  16 × 10⁻¹²

(d)  8 × 10⁻⁸

Show Answer

93. If ethanol dissolves in water then which of the following would happen?

(a)  Absorption of heat and contraction of volume

(b)  Liberation of heat and contraction of volume

(c)  Absorption of heat and increase in volume

(d)  Liberation of heat and increase in volume

Show Answer

94. The pH of 0.5 L of 1.0 M NaCl after the electrolysis for 965 s using 5.0 A current, is

(a)  1.0

(b)  12.7

(c)  13.0

(d)  1.30

Show Answer

95. The potential of hydrogen electrode having a solution of pH = 4 at 25°C is

(a)  −0.177 V

(b)  −0.236 V

(c)  +0.177 V

(d)  +0.236 V

Show Answer

96. The electronic configuration of actinides cannot be assigned with degree of certainty because of

(a)  small energy difference between 5f and 6d levels

(b)  overlapping of inner orbitals

(c)  free movement of electrons over all the orbitals

(d)  All of the above

Show Answer

97. The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is

(a)  4-iodobutane

(b)  2-iodobutane

(c)  1-iodo-3-methyl propane

(d)  2-iodo-2-methyl propane

Show Answer

98. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A) trifluoroacetic acid (B), benzoic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is

(a)  A > B > C > D

(b)  A > C > B > D

(c)  B > A > D > C

(d)  B > A > C > D

Show Answer

99. The correct order of basic strength of CH₃NH₂(I), (CH₃)₂NH(II), (CH₃)₃N(III), C₆H₅CH₂NH₂(IV) in gaseous phase is

(a)  IV < III < II < I

(b)  IV < III < I < II

(c)  I < II < III < IV

(d)  IV <  I < II < III

Show Answer

100. Secondary structure of proteins refers to

(a)  mainly denatured proteins and structure of prosthetic group

(b)  three dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residue that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain

(c)  linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain

(d)  regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

Show Answer

Directions for Q. No. 101 to 120 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

101. Assertion One molar aqueous solution has always higher concentration than one molal.

Reason The molality of a solution depends upon the density of the solution whereas molarity does not.

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102. Assertion The heat adsorbed during isothermal expansion of an ideal gas against vacuum is zero.

Reason The volume occupied by the molecule is zero.

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103. Assertion If edge length of unit cell of LiCl, having NaCl type structure, is 5.14Å, the ionic radius of Cl⁻ ion is 1.82 Å.

Reason Anion-anion contact is retained in LiCl structure because anions constitute the lattice.

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104. Assertion HOF bond angle is higher than HOCl bond angle in HOX.

Reason Oxygen is more electronegative than halogens.

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105. Assertion Calcium carbide on hydrolysis gives ethylene.

Reason Calcium carbide contains C⁴⁻anions.

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106. Assertion Bithional is added to soap for its beautification and solidification.

Reason Bithional is a sulpha drug.

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107. Assertion Only principal quantum number determines the energy of an electron in an orbital in Na atom.

Reason For one electron system, the expression of energy is quite different as that obtained in Bohr’s theory.

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108. Assertion The HF₂⁻ ions exists in the solid state and also in liquid state but not in aqueous solution.

Reason The magnitude of hydrogen bonds in between HF–HF molecule is weaker than that in between HF and H₂O molecules.

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109. Assertion Chlorine when solidifies does not have zero entropy even at absolute zero.

Reason Chlorine is a pungent smelling gas and it is difficult to solidify it.

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110. Assertion Noble gases have positive electron affinity.

Reason Noble gases have stable closed shell electronic configuration.

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111. Assertion Al and Ga have nearly same atomic radii.

Reason Al and Ga show diagonal relationship.

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112. Assertion Oxidation stat of Fe in Fe(CO)₅ is zero.

Reason EAN of Fe in this complex is 36.

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113. Assertion CO and NO both combine with haemoglobin.

Reason NO has more affinity than CO towards haemoglobin.

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114. Assertion Vulcanisation increases the hardness of natural rubber.

Reason Vulcanisation introduces the polysulphide bridges at reactive sites.

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115. Assertion The oxidation of ketone by perbenzoic acid gives esters.

Reason Perbenzoic acid oxidizes  because of the release of nascent oxygen on dissociation.

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116. Assertion N₃⁻ is a weaker base than NH₂⁻.

Reason The lone pair of electrons on N atom in N₃⁻ is in a sp²-orbital while in NH₂⁻ it is in an sp³-orbital.

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117. Assertion S_N1 reaction is basically a solvolysis reaction.

Reason Polar protic solvents help the substrate to ionize and by the way get involved in S_N1 reaction.

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118. Assertion In the E2 elimination, β-H and leaving group should be antiperiplanar.

Reason In the E2 elimination, base always abstracts unhindered β-H.

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119. Assertion 2-2-dimethyl propanal give Cannizaro reaction with concentrated NaOH.

Reason Cannizaro is a disproportionation reaction.

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120. Assertion A primary amine has higher boiling point than any tertiary amine.

Reason  A tertiary amine has greater number of N–H bonds for H-bonding.

Show Answer

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

BIOLOGY

121. Appearance of dark-coloured pepper moths among the light-coloured ones as a result of increased industrial pollution is an example of

(a)  disruptive selection

(b)  stabilizing selection

(c)  directional selection

(d)  None of the above

Show Answer

122. A fruit developed from a condensed inflorescence is

(a)  simple fruit

(b)  aggregate fruit

(c)  composite fruit

(d)  etaerio

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123. The ratio of osmotic pressure exerted by 1 M sucrose and 1 M NaCl solution will be

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0.1

(d)  0.5

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124. The main function of the white blood cell in the human intestine system is to

(a)  combat and destroy antigenic particles

(b)  produce antigens to combat antibodies

(c)  carry oxygen around the body

(d)  transport antigens to B memory cells in the lymph nodes

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125. Which one of the following is the best stage to observe the shape, size and number of chromosomes in a cell?

(a)  Interphase

(b)  Prophase

(c)  Metaphase

(d)  Telophase

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126. In the blood of an adult man the total content of haemoglobin is roughly

(a)  several hundred grams

(b)  tens to gram (10-100 g)

(c)  several grams

(d)  several hundred milligram

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127. Sinking of zooplankton during the day and rising to the surface at night is an example o f

(a)  circinal rhythm

(b)  circadian rhythm

(c)  tidal rhythm

(d)  None of these

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128. Centre of DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD) is located at

(a)  Delhi

(b)  Chennai

(c)  Kolkata

(d)  Hyderabad

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129. The function of nitrogen fixation in Anabaena (Cyanobacterium) is performed by

(a)  thylakoid

(b)  heterocyst

(c)  phycocyanin

(d)  phycoerythrin

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130. In a bacterium, the amount of adenine was found to be 18 per cent. Suggest the cytosine base composition from the following

(a)  64%

(b)  36%

(c)  32%

(d)  18%

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131. pBR₃₂₂, which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in coli is a/an

(a)  original bacterial plasmid

(b)  modified bacterial plasmid

(c)  viral genome

(d)  transposon

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132. Holandric genes are located

(a)  both in X and Y-chromosome

(b)  only in Y-chromosome

(c)  only in X-chromosome

(d)  only in autosomes

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133. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1

(c)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1

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134. In which of the following combinations, the compounds in ascending order based on their molecular weights are arranged?

(a)  DNA, RNA, AMP, ADP, ATP

(b)  DNA, RNA, ATP, ADP, AMP

(c)  AMP, ADP, ATP, RNA, DNA

(d)  AMP, ATP, ADP, DNA, RNA

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135. The floral formula  represents

(a)  Solanum nigrum

(b)  Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

(c)  Citrus aurantum

(d)  Brassica campestris

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136. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(c)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1

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137. Elaters are absent in

(a)  Funaria

(b)  Marchantia

(c)  Pellia

(d)  Porella

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138. The pollination of two flowers on different plants is known as

(a)  xenogamy

(b)  geitonogamy

(c)  cleistogamy

(d)  dichogamy

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139. The callus is defined as

(a)  decaying cells

(b)  differentiated cells

(c)  sterile mass cells

(d)  undifferentiated mass of cells

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140. Calcium dependent kinases can control

(a)  cell cycle activities

(b)  DNA replication

(c)  cell surface receptors

(d)  membrane structure

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141. Which of the following serve as the anchoring junctions between the cells?

(a)  Tight junctions

(b)  Gap junctions

(c)  Desmosomes

(d)  Nexuses

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142. Blood cells that increase in number during allergic conditions like asthma are

(a)  neutrophils

(b)  basophils

(c)  eosinophils

(d)  lymphocytes

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143. The cornea is a very important component of the human eye. The main function of the cornea is to

(a)  bend the light before it reaches the lens

(b)  provide structural support to the eye

(c)  contain a concentrated amount of cone cells in the correct orientation

(d)  change the shape of the lens to enable the image to be focused on the retina

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144. Acoelomate, triploblastic, body with bilateral symmetry is characteristic of

(a)  flatworm

(b)  roundworm

(c)  segmented worm

(d)  mollusc

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145. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(b)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(c)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2

(d)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

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146. In a stable ecosystem, which of the following limits the number of trophic levels?

(a)  Biomass

(b)  The number of nutrients

(c)  Availability of nutrients

(d)  Presence of contaminants that increase in concentration along the food chain

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147. Oxygen content reduction makes the glycolyse (glycogenesis) intensity increased due to

(a)  increase of ADP concentration in cell

(b)  increase of NAD⁺ concentration in cell

(c)  increase of ATP concentration in cell

(d)  increase of concentration of peroxides and free radicals

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148. If a segment of an mRNA molecule has the sequence 5′ GUACCGAUCG 3′, which of the following could have been the template DNA molecule?

(a)  5′ GCUAGCCAUG 3′

(b)  5′ GUACCGAUCG 3′

(c)  5′ CATGGCTAGC 3′

(d)  5′ CGATCGGTAC 3′

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149. Hardy-Weinberg’s principle of ‘zero evolution’ is based on

(a)  genetic equilibrium

(b)  random mating

(c)  no migrations

(d)  All of the above

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150. What does the term ‘reproductive isolation’ refers to?

(a)  An individual is unable to fertilize itself

(b)  Genes are not exchanged between two populations

(c)  Individuals from two populations never mate

(d)  Individuals from two populations never produce offsprings

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151. Below are listed some pairs of character. The homologous pair is

(a)  forelimbs of dog and camel

(b)  insect wing and bat wing

(c)  feathers of birds and fins of fish

(d)  lens of vertebrate and arthropod

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152. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in

(a)  presence of oxygen

(b)  low CO₂ concentration

(c)  high CO₂ concentration

(d)  absence of CO₂

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153. If Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it?

(a)  Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival

(b)  Size of organs increase with ageing

(c)  Development of organs is due to will power

(d)  There should be some physical basis of inheritance

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154. LSD is

(a)  hallucinogenic

(b)  sedative

(c)  stimulant

(d)  tranquilizer

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155. Monoclonal antibodies are

(a)  obtained from a cell and act on one antigen

(b)  obtained from a group of cells and act on more than one antigens

(c)  obtained from a group of same type of cells and act on single antigen

(d)  obtained from a group of same type of cells and act on more than one antigens

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156. Which of these is most infectious disease?

(a)  Hepatitis-B

(b)  AIDS

(c)  Cough and cold

(d)  Malaria

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157. Microtubules are absent in

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  flagella

(c)  spindle fibres

(d)  centriole

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158. Plant decomposers are

(a)  Monera and Fungi

(b)  Fungi and Plantae

(c)  Protista and Animalia

(d)  Animalia and Monera

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159. Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with

(a)  oat

(b)  barley

(c)  maize

(d)  rye

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160. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to

(a)  extinction of these species from other regions

(b)  continental separation

(c)  absence of terrestrial route to these places

(d)  retrogressive evolution

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Directions for Q. No. 161 to 180 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

161. Assertion Glycine, and amino acid, comes under the category of non-essential amino acids.

Reason The fact behind it is that glycine cannot be synthesized in the body.

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162. Assertion The rate of decomposition o f detritus is reduced in the regions of high altitude.

Reason It happens due to immobilization of nutrients.

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163. Assertion Green-house effect is due to thick layer of carbon dioxide.

Reason The glass panels of a green-house allowing the sunlight to filter through but preventing the h eat from being re-radiated in outer space.

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164. Assertion Mammals, living in deserts contain more concentrated urine.

Reason  They contain very long loop of Henle in their nephrons.

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165. Assertion The functional unit of excretory organs of lobsters is nephron.

Reason The filtration of blood occur in the Malpighian body (the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule).

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166. Assertion Open circulatory system is found in most arthropods.

Reason Arthropods contain haemolymph which directly bathes internal tissues and organs.

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167. Assertion Granulocytes are white blood cells.

Reason They contain lobed nuclei and tiny granules.

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168. Assertion Bacteria, Protista do not have circulatory system.

Reason These organisms live in moist and watery environment.

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169. Assertion Glycolysis begins in cytoplasm and yields two molecule of pyruvate.

Reason During glycolysis, four ATP molecules are produced and net yield is only two ATP molecules.

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170. Assertion Mechanical tissues are absent or less developed in the floating and submerged parts of hydrophytic plants.

Reason Generally, elongated and loosely arranged spongy cells are found in the  body of submerged hydrophytic plants.

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171. Assertion Inhibition of death of one organism by another through the production of some b-products is known as antibiosis.

Reason Antibiosis is a type of negative interaction.

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172. Assertion Holoblastic cleavage with almost equal-sized blastomeres is a characteristic of placental animals.

Reason Eggs of most mammals, including humans are of centrolecithal type.

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173. Assertion Only a single functional female gamete is formed from each primary oocyte cell.

Reason Meiosis in each primary oocyte gives rise to only one cell which functions as ovum.

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174. Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contains copper.

Reason  Cyanide combines with the copper of cytochrome oxidase and prevents oxygen combining with it.

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175. Assertion Urea is a less toxic excretory substance comparatively to uric acid.

Reason  Birds and insect are uricotelic animals.

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176. Assertion Conducting tissues, especially xylem show greatest reduction in submerged hydrophytes.

Reason Hydrophytes live in water so no need of tissues.

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177. Assertion Fructose-1, 6 diphosphate is converted into glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate.

Reason Conversion of fructose-1, 6 diphosphate into 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate is facilitated by the enzyme aldolase.

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178. Assertion Process of maintain a constant internal environment is known as homeostasis.

Reason Kidneys are excretory and homeostatic organs.

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179. Assertion Organochlorine pesticides are organic compounds that have been chlorinated.

Reason Fenitrothion is one of the organochlorine pesticides.

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180. Assertion Thick layers of muscles are present in the wall alimentary canal.

Reason These muscles help in the mixing of food materials with the enzymes coming from different glands in the alimentary canal.

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AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

181. Which of the following professor received the Physics Noble Prize for 2009 for his ‘ground breaking achievements concerning the transmission of light in fibres optical communication?

(a)  Danierl Colladon

(b)  Charles Kuen Kao

(c)  Walter Gerlach

(d)  John Tyndall

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182. The Indian music composer, who got double Gramy Awards in Los Angeles on Feb 1, 2010, is

(a)  Ravi Shankar

(b)  Anu Malik

(c)  AR Rahman

(d)  Shankar Mahadevan

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183. India on Jan 11, successfully test fired the missile ‘ Astra’ from its Integrated Test Range at Balasore. This missile works from

(a)  air to earth

(b)  earth to air

(c)  sea to air

(d)  air to air

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184. On which day is annual ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Divas’ celebrated to commemorate the day when Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa in 1915?

(a)  Jan 7

(b)  Jan 8

(c)  Jan 9

(d)  Jan 10

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185. ‘Aavatar’ has become the highest grossing movie of all time, surpassing the record made by ‘Titanic’. Who has directed both ‘Avatar’ and ‘Titanic’?

(a)  Steven Spielberg

(b)  Danny Boyle

(c)  Roger Avary

(d)  James Cameron

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186. The United Nations (UN) has declared 2010 as the

(a)  International Year of Youth

(b)  International Year of Renewable Energy

(c)  International Year of Eco-Tourism

(d)  International Year of Bio-degradable Material

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187. Which of these cricketers hold the record to play international cricket for the longest time?

(a)  Sachin Tendulkar

(b)  Garry Sobers

(c)  Colin Cowdrey

(d)  Wilfred Rhodes

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188. Who has been conferred the 2009 GD Birl Award for Scientific Research?

(a)  Anil Kakodkar

(b)  Mahindra Agrawal

(c)  Rajeev Motwani

(d)  Vainu Bappu

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189. Asia’s biggest Solar Power Plant has been recently unveiled at

(a)  Japan

(b)  Indonesia

(c)  Malaysia

(d)  Taiwan

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190. Kaiane Aldorino has been named winner of the 2009 Miss World Pageant, recently held in Johannesburg. She belongs to

(a)  South Africa

(b)  Venezuela

(c)  Gibraltar

(d)  Columbia

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191. Recently, which country suffered an earthquake which decimated its capital, killing millions of people?

(a)  Sumatra

(b)  Haiti

(c)  Japan

(d)  Sri Lanka

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192. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) has been named after which famous national leader?

(a)  Mahatma Gandhi

(b)  Rajeev Gandhi

(c)  Indira Gandhi

(d)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

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193. Who has won the National Snooker Championship, 2009?

(a)  Geet Sethi

(b)  Sourav Kothari

(c)  Pankaj Advani

(d)  Ashok Shandilya

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194. Who has recently written the book ‘Idea of Justice’?

(a)  Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(b)  Amartya Sen

(c)  Omkar Goswami

(d)  C Rangarajan

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195. On which date, is Hindi Day Celebrated?

(a)  Sep 5

(b)  Sep 10

(c)  Sep 14

(d)  Sep 20

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196. ‘Mukhya Mantri Kanyadan Yojana’ is a scheme of which state given below?

(a)  Haryana

(b)  Gujarat

(c)  Uttar Pradesh

(d)  Madhya Pradesh

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197. The first woman battalion to the deployed along the international border belongs to

(a)  ITBP

(b)  BSF

(c)  Coast Guards

(d)  Assam Rifles

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198. Who among the following is the most powerful woman of the world as per a recent list of Forbes?

(a)  Angela Markel

(b)  Cristina Fernandez

(c)  Christine Lagarde

(d)  Sonia Gandhi

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199. ‘KONKAN’ is an annual exercise between the India and which of the following Navies?

(a)  France

(b)  UK

(c)  US

(d)  Israel

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200. What is the proposed venue of the 16th NAM Summit in 2012?

(a)  Cuba

(b)  Iran

(c)  Indonesia

(d)  India

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