*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
0
0
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
15216.180064
(in Acres.)
3.76
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
4600
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
5000
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
10
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
10
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
0
0
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
8215.118492
(in Acres.)
2.03
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
3528
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
5400
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
07
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
07
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
MAA REHNA DEVI SHIKSHA SAMITI NAI AWADI, DHANOULI AGRA
Location of the School:
Nearest Railway Station
AGRA CANTT
Distance in KM
6
Nearest Police Station
AGRA CANTTSHAHGANJ
Distance in KM
4
Nearest Nationalised Bank
STATE BANK OF INDIA
Distance in KM
3
Nature of the School:
Category of School
Co-educational
Medium of Instruction
English
Types of School
Independent
Enrollment of the Students:
Class
No. of Section
No. of Student
Nursery/KG/LKG
0
0
I-V
05
141
VI-VIII
03
51
IX-X
0
0
XI-XII
0
0
Infrastructure Details:
Labs and Rooms Details
Room
Number
Size
Length (in Ft.)
Breadth (in Ft.)
Class Room
11
30
25
Composite Science Lab
0
0
0
Physics Lab
01
36
25
Chemistry Lab
01
36
25
Biology Lab
01
36
25
Maths Lab
01
36
25
Computer Science Lab
01
36
25
Home Science Lab
0
0
0
Library
01
36
25
Other Rooms
04
25
18
Particulars of Teaching Staff:
Staff
Number
Trained
Untrained
NTTs
0
0
0
PRTs
7
7
0
TGTs
5
5
0
Librarian
1
1
0
PTI
1
1
0
PGTs
0
0
0
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
1
1
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
8872.732657
(in Acres.)
2.1925
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
2234
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
6638
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
06
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
06
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
The information given herewith about any school is taken from CBSE Affiliation public Website (http://cbseaff.nic.in/), to the best of our knowledge, true and accurate at the time of publication and is solely for informational purposes. A link to the CBSE Affiliation Page of the particular School is given herewith for verification. Changing circumstances or alteration of information may not change automatically in our website at any point of time. Any School desirous to change particular information about their school may contact us via email ([email protected]). The Website Entranceindia.com or its parent company accepts no liability for any loss or damage howsoever arising as a result of use or reliance on these Web pages or on the information thereon or in respect of information accessed via any links from the Web pages.
*Vice Principal/Supervisor/Head Master/ Head Mistres
0
0
0
Physical Infrastructure and Sanitary Conditions:
Physical Size
Area of Campus
(in sq. Mtrs.)
9550.581104
(in Acres.)
2.36
Built up Area in (in sq. Mtrs.)
1759.211
Whether the School at one site or two site
ONE
Area of Playground (in sq. Mtrs.)
4530
SANITARY CONDITIONS
Type of W.C and Urinals
flush
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Boys
8
No. of Urinals/Lavatories Separately for Girls
8
Potable Water
yes
Has Certificate about health and sanitary conditions, drinking water and fire safety of the school has been obtained from the competent authorities of the area? if yes attach copy of same
United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (A.O.) Examination Held on 12-6-2016 2nd Shift General Awareness Question Paper with Answer Key
United India Insurance Co. Ltd. (A.O.) Exam., 2016 (2nd Shift)
Held on 12-6-2016
General Awareness
1. The International Court of Justice, commonly referred to as the World Court or ICJ is the primary judicial branch of the United Nations. It is based in –
(A) The Hague, Netherlands
(B) Geneva, Switzerland
(C) Gland, Switzerland
(D) Glasgow, Scotland
(E) Rome, Italy
Ans: (A)
2. The 726 MW gas based thermal plant is situated in the Indian state of-
(A) Tripura
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Odisha
(D) Sikkim
(E) Gujarat
Ans: (A)
3. Shree Singaji Thermal Power Project is a coal-based plant in the Indian state of-
(A) Gujarat
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Maharashtra
Ans: (C)
4. India’s Indigenous Beyond Visual Range (BVR) air-to-air missile integrated by HAL on Su-30 MKI aircraft was successfully launched from Chandipur, Odisha. It is named as-
(A) Astra
(B) Phython
(C) Derby
(D) IRIS
(E) Matra
Ans: (A)
5. A general or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs. Fifty Thousands or less is known as a-
(A) Micro Insurance Policy
(B) Plain Insurance Policy
(C) Standard Insurance Policy
(D) Basic Insurance Policy
(E) Generic Insurance Policy
Ans: (A)
6. Which of the following is a mode of creating charge on immovable property ?
(A) Mortgage
(B) Nomination
(C) Assignment
(D) Hypothecation
(E) Pledge
Ans: (A)
7. The ‘SBI Life Insurance Company Limited’ is a joint venture life insurance company between State Bank of India and-
(A) BNP Paribas Assurance
(B) Standard Life Insurance Company
(C) Prudential Life Insurance Company
(D) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(E) New York Life Insurance Company
Ans: (A)
8. The amount to be paid for a contract of insurance to the insurance company, that is the sum that a person pays monthly, quarterly or annually according to their plan, in return of the coverage he/she has taken from the insurance company is known as-
(A) Certain Loss
(B) Uncertain Loss
(C) Claim amount
(D) Premium
(E) Sum Insured
Ans: (D)
9. A Global Depository Receipt (GDR) is also known as –
(A) Commercial Depository Receipt (CDR)
(B) Inter Continental Depository Receipt (ICDR)
(C) International Depository Receipt (IDR)
(D) Domestic Depository Receipt (DDR)
(E) National Depository Receipt (NDR)
Ans: (C)
10. ‘Wings of Fire’ is the autobiography of-
(A) K. Natwar Singh
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) L.K. Advani
(D) Yuvraj Singh
Ans: (B)
11. The currency of the Czech Republic is-
(A) Czech Kyat
(B) Czech Krone
(C) Czech Rupiah
(D) Czech Kuna
(E) Czech Koruna
Ans: (B)
12. The ‘Kinnerasani Wildlife Sanctuary’ is located in the Indian state of-
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Telangana
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
(E) Other than those given as options
Ans: (B)
13. As per census 2011, the state having the highest urban population of 508.8 million is-
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Karnataka
(D) Gujarat
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (A)
14. ‘Dispur’ is the capital of the Indian state of-
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Tripura
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Manipur
Ans: (A)
15. Christopher Henry ‘Chris’ Gayle is a cricketer, who plays international cricket for-
(A) New Zealand
(B) Australia
(C) Bangladesh
(D) South Africa
(E) West Indies
Ans: (E)
16. An act by which the policyholders authorizes another person to receive the policy money is known as
(A) Nomination
(B) Assignment
(C) Negotiation
(D) Hypothecation
(E) Transfer
Ans: (A)
17. Who amongst the following is the CEO of the ‘NITI Aayog’ ?
(A) Arvind Panagariya
(B) Narendra Modi
(C) Sindhushree Khullar
(D) Amitabh Kamat
(E) Bibek Debroy
Ans: (D)
18. Situations when the insurance company passes some part of or all risks to another-
(A) Reinsurance
(B) Double-insurance
(C) Co-insurance
(D) Void-insurance
(E) Dual insurance
Ans: (A)
19. The them for ‘The World Sparrow Day 2015’ observed on March 20, 2015 was-
(A) I Love Sparrows
(B) Chrip for the Sparrow, Tweet for the Sparrow
(C) Save Sparrows for Nature’s Balance
(D) Spare a Thought for the Sparrows
(E) Sparrows : Heroes of the Environment
Ans: (A)
20. The regulator of the insurance business in India is-
(A) PFRDA
(B) IRDA
(C) FMC
(D) SEBI
(E) RBI
Ans: (B)
21. The annual investment limit under the Public Provident Fund (PPF) scheme-
(A) Rs. 2,50,000
(B) Rs. 1,50,000
(C) Rs. 2,25,000
(D) Rs. 1,00,000
(E) Rs. 2,00,000
Ans: (B)
22. Which of the following political newspaper is published form Moscow ?
(A) Dawn
(B) The Times
(C) Daily Mirror
(D) Pravda
(E) The Sun
Ans: (D)
23. ‘Gramin Gaurav Path’ is a major construction project under which 2,048 km of roads would be built in 33 districts of-
(A) Bihar
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Odisha
(E) Gujarat
Ans: (C)
24. Under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) scheme, each customer who opens his account will get a RuPay debit card with an in-built-
(A) Life Insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000
(B) Accident Insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000
(C) Crop Insurance of Rs. 1,00,000
(D) Medical Insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000
(E) Health Insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000
Ans: (B)
25. ‘Keenan Stadium’, a multipurpose stadium mostly used for cricket matches is-
(A) Jamshedpur, India
(B) Canberra, Australia
(C) Beijing, China
(D) Colombo, Sri Lanka
(E) Cape Town, South Africa
Ans: (A)
26. The Brand Ambassador for the Government of India’s campaign against ‘Hepatitis B’ is-
(A) Salman Khan
(B) Aamir Khan
(C) Priyanka Chopra
(D) Vidhya Balan
(E) Amitabh Bachchan
Ans: (E)
27. A life Insurance which provides coverage at a fixed rate of payments for a limited period of time is known as-
(A) Variable Life Insurance Policy
(B) Term Life Insurance Policy
(C) Permanent Life Insurance Policy
(D) Universal Life Insurance Policy
(E) Whole life Insurance Policy
Ans: (B)
28. ‘Greg Chappell’ is associated with the game of-
(A) Cricket
(B) Tennis
(C) Badminton
(D) Hockey
(E) Boxing
Ans: (A)
29. The headquarters of the State Owned Life Insurance Corporation Limited is situated in-
(A) Gurgaon
(B) Mumbai
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Kolkata
(E) New Delhi
Ans: (B)
30. The 2015 Ranji Trophy Title was won by Karnataka against –
(A) Mumbai
(B) West Bengal
(C) Assam
(D) Tamil Nadu
(E) Railways
Ans: (D)
31. The Federal Reserve is the central banking system of-
(A) Russia
(B) United Kingdom
(C) Europe
(D) USA
(E) Latin America
Ans: (D)
32. Which of the following countries leads the world in production and export of the cocoa beans used in the manufacture of Chocolate ?
(A) South Africa
(B) Chile
(C) Brazil
(D) Jamaica
(E) Ivory Cost
Ans: (E)
33. A company selling the insurance policy is known as the-
(A) Insurance Carrier
(B) The Insurance Agent
(C) The Life Insured
(D) Business Correspondent
(E) Beneficiary of a contract of Insurance
Ans: (B)
34. The three day International Conference on Counter Terrorism 2015 was recently held at-
(A) New York, USA
(B) Tokyo, Japan
(C) Paris, France
(D) London, UK
(E) Jaipur, India
Ans: (E)
35. The ‘World Quality Day’ is observed every year on the –
(A) Second Thursday of December
(B) Third Thursday of December
(C) Second Friday of December
(D) Second Thursday of November
(E) Second Friday of November
Ans: (D)
36. ‘Berlin’ is the capital of the-
(A) Federal Republic of Austria
(B) Federal Republic of Poland
(C) Federal Republic of Yugoslavia
(D) Federal Republic of Germany
(E) Federal Republic of USA
Ans: (D)
37. The Ways and Means Advances (WAM) are short term advance s to tide over temporary mismatches in receipts and payments which the RBI lends to-
(A) Public Sector Banks
(B) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(C) General Insurance Companies
(D) State Bank of India
(E) Government
Ans: (E)
38. The newly instituted Innovation Council of the Indian Railways named as ‘Kayakalp’ is headed by former-
(A) ICICI Bank Chairman K.V. Kamath
(B) Infosys Chairman Narayan Murthy
(C) SBI Chairman O.P.Bhatt
(D) Tata Group Chairman Ratan Tata
(E) RBI Governor, Bimal Jalan
Ans: (D)
39. The present Minister for ‘Road Transport and Highways’ in the Union Cabinet is-
(A) Shri Nitin Jairam Gadkari
(B) Shri Kalraj Mishra
(C) Shri Rajnath Singh
(D) Shri Vankaiah Naidu
(E) Shri Suresh Prabhu
Ans: (A)
40. In India the apex body for the formulation coordination and promotion of biomedical research is-
(A) Indian Medical Association (IMA)
(B) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(C) Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM)
(D) All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)
State Bank of India Probationary Officers (Pre) Examination Held on 10-7-2016 Numerical Ability Question Paper with Answer Key
State Bank of India Probationary Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2016
(Held on 10-7-2016)
Numerical Ability
Directions – (Q. 1-5) There are five companies P, Q, R , S and T and we have given the no. of employees working in different companies. In the table we have also given the percentage of male and female employees of HR and Marketing department.
1. The ratio of female employee in HR dept. of company S and T together to male employees of Marketing department in company P and Q together ?
(A) 41 : 55
(B) 43 : 39
(C) 55 : 41
(D) 39 : 3
(E) None of the above
Ans: (D)
2. Difference between male employees of Marketing dept. in all companies together (excluding company T) and the female employees of HR dept. in all companies together (excluding company Q and T) ?
(A) 21
(B) 26
(C) 31
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
3. Total number of Marketing employees of company Q and S is what % more than the total no. of Marketing employee in company R ?
(A) 536.76%
(B) 526.67%
(C) 576.76%
(D) 546.67%
(E) 545.545%
Ans: (E)
4. If 40% of the employees of company T in HR department have graduation degree and 60% of the employees of the same company in the Marketing dept. have graduation degree, then how many employees have graduation in degree in company T in both dept. together.
(A) 75
(B) 108
(C) 106
(D) 92
(E) 66
Ans: (A)
5. The ratio of female employees of company P and Q in HR dept. to male employee of company S and R in Marketing dept. ?
(A) 41 : 13
(B) 74 : 29
(C) 22 : 59
(D) 29 : 74
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
6. Eight liters are drawn from a cask full of wine and the cask is filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in case to that of water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask hold originally ?
(A) 18 litres
(B) 24 litres
(C) 32 litres
(D) 42 litres
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
7. A and B can complete a piece of work in 80 days and 120 days respectively. They started working together, but A left after 20 days. After another 12 days C joined B and they completed the work in 28 more days. In how many days can C alone complete the work ?
(A) 110 days
(B) 112 days
(C) 114 days
(D) 120 days
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
8. A man sets out on cycle from Delhi to Faridabad, and at the same time another man starts from Faridabad on cycle for Delhi. After passing each other they complete their journeys in hours respectively. At what rate does the second man cycle if the first man cycles at 14 kmph ?
(A) 10 kmph
(B) 5 kmph
(C) 7 kmph
(D) 8 kmph
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
9. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 8,400 at the rate 5% per annum at the end 3 years ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal).
(A) Rs. 4,205.62
(B) Rs. 2,584.16
(C) Rs. 3,560.16
(D) Rs. 3,820.14
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
10. The average age of all the 100 employees in an office is 29 years, where 2/5 employees are ladies and the ratio of average age of men to women is 5 : 7. The average age of female employees is-
(A) 18 years
(B) 35 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 30 years
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
Directions – (Q. 11-15) Two equations (I) and (II) are given in each question. On the basis of these equations, you have to decide the relation between x and y and give answer.
(A) if x > y (B) if x < y
(C) if x ≥ y (D) if x ≤ y
(E) if x = y, or no relation can be established between x and y
11. I. 5x2 – 87x + 378 = 0
II. 3y2 – 49y + 200 = 0
Ans: (A)
12. I. 10x2 – x – 24 = 0
II. y2 – 2y = 0
Ans: (E)
13. I. x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
II. 2y2 – 15y + 27 = 0
14. I. 3x + 2y = 301
II. 7x – 5y = 74
Ans: (B)
15. I. 14x2 – 37x + 24 = 0
II. 28y2 – 53y + 24 = 0
Ans: (C)
Directions – (Q. 16-20) In the Bar-chart, total members enrolled in different years from 1990 to 1994 in two gymnasium A and B. Based on this Bar-chart solve the following questions.
16. The total members enrolled in gymnasium B from 1991 to 1994 together is approximate what per cent more than the total members enrolled in gymnasium A in 1993 and 1994 together ?
(A) 175%
(B) 180%
(C) 170%
(D) 75%
(E) 185%
Ans: (B)
17. In the year 1989 to 1990, 25% increase in total number of members enrolled of both gymnasium, then find the total no. of members enrolled in 1989 ?
(A) 332
(B) 296
(C) 292
(D) 286
(E) 319
Ans: (A)
18. The ratio between total members of both gymnasium in 1992 to total members in 1993 of both gymnasium is-
(A) 11 : 16
(B) 21 : 11
(C) 11 : 21
(D) 25 : 13
(E) 27 : 22
Ans: (A)
19. The number of members of gymnasium A in 1993 is what % of the no. of members of gymnasium B in 1990 ?
(A) 60.98%
(B) 55.75%
(C) 95.55%
(D) 93.85%
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
20. Total members enrolled in gymnasium A in 1991, 1992 and 1994 together is what % less than m embers enrolled in gymnasium Bin 1990, and 1993 together ?
(A) 30%
(B) 35%
(C) 32.5%
(D) 31.5%
(E) 38.77%
Ans: (E)
Directions – (Q. 21-25) What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in each of the following series ?
21. 17, 52, 158, 477, ? 4310
(A) 1433
(B) 1432
(C) 1435
(D) 1434
Ans: (C)
22. 3, 22, ?, 673, 2696, 8093
(A) 133
(B) 155
(C) 156
(D) 134
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)
23. 6, 13, 38, ?, 532, 2675
(A) 129
(B) 123
(C) 172
(D) 164
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
24. 286, 142, ? 34, 16, 7
(A) 66
(B) 72
(C) 64
(D) 74
(E) None of these
Ans: (E)
25. 17, 9, ?, 16.5, 35, 90
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 20
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
26. A man sells two pipes at Rs. 12 each. He gains 20% on one and loses 20% on the other. In the whole transaction, there is-
(A) Neither loss nor gain
(B) Profit of Rs. 1
(C) Loss of Rs. 1
(D) Profit of Rs. 2
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
27. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. A student attempted all the 200 questions and scored in all 200 marks. The number of question, he answered correctly was –
(A) 82
(B) 80
(C) 68
(D) 60
(E) None of these
Ans: (*)
28. A copper wire is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle and has area If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area (in cm2) enclosed by the wire is
(A) 364.5
(B) 693.5
(C) 364.5
(D) 639.5
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
29. What will be the ratio of petrol and kerosene in the final solution formed by mixing petrol and kerosene that are present in three identical vessels in the ratio 4 : 1, 5 : 2 and 6 : 1 respectively ?
(A) 166 : 22
(B) 83 : 22
(C) 83 : 44
(D) 78 : 55
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
30. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary, i.e., Rs. 4,428 in Mutual Funds. Later she invests 18% of her monthly salary on Pension Policies also she invests another 9% of her salary on Insurance Policies. What is the total monthly amount invested by Mrs. Sharma ?
(A) Rs. 13,356.8
(B) Rs. 12,398.4
(C) Rs. 56,678.4
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
Directions – (Q. 31-35) What approximate value should come in place question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
5. In which year the rate of growth of India’s per capita income at constant prices was the highest during the period 1951-52 to 2015-16 ?
(A) 2014-15
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2010-11
(D) 2015-16
Ans: (B)
6. Since 1997-98, which statement is correct regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP) ?
(A) MSP is independent to C2 cost
(B) MSP < C2 costs
(C) MSP > C2 costs
(D) MSP = C2 costs
Ans: (C)
7. Which of the following statements is correct about the balance of trade of India ?
(A) India’s trade balance remained positive for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16 except two year 1972-73 and 1976-77, when it was negative
(B) India’s trade balance remained negative for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16 except two years 1972-73 and 1976-77, when it was positive
(C) India’s trade balance remained positive for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16
(D) India’s trade balance remained negative for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16
Ans: (B)
8. Choose the correct answer in the context of PAHAL scheme –
(A) All these are true
(B) It directly transfers LPG subsidy into customer’s bank accounts
(C) It transfers LPG subsidy via DBT
(D) It is first variety of JAM
Ans: (A)
9. Consider the following statements about Jalipa-Kapurdi thermal power project of Rajasthan ?
I. This power project is lignite based.
II. It has been installed by private developer.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(A) Only statement II is correct
(B) Only statement I is correct
(C) Both I and II are not correct
(D) Both I and II are correct
Ans: (D)
10. The base year for Rajasthan’s whole sale Price Index is –
(A) 2011-12
(B) 2004-05
(C) 1999-2000
(D) 1986-87
Ans: (C)
11. The growth targets in the 12th Five Year Plan of Rajasthan for Agriculture. Industry and Service sectors are respectively ?
(A) 3.5%, 8.5% and 9.5%
(B) 4.0%, 8.5% and 9.0%
(C) 4.0%, 8.0% and 9.0%
(D) 3.5%, 8.0% and 9.5%
Ans: (D)
12. Which of the following statements are correct about sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) in Rajasthan according to Census-2011 ?
(i) Sex ratio in Rajasthan in 2011 was less than National average.
(ii) Sex ratio in all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000.
(iii) Sex ratio in rural areas of all Districts Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000, except Pali District.
(iv) Sex ratio in urban areas of all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000, except Dhaulpur District.
Select the correct answer using codes given below –
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Only (i) is correct
Ans: (B)
13. The main features of Bhamashah Yojana are –
(i) Each family is issued a Bhamashah card in the name of the female head of the family.
(ii) Bhamashah card is linked to the bank account of the lady.
(iii) Multiple cash benefits will be transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.
(iv) All non-cash benefits will also be transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.
Select the correct answer using codes given below –
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Only (i) is correct
Ans: (B)
14. Which of the following external agency is providing financial assistance for Rajasthan Renewable Energy Transmission Investment Program ?
(A) KFW Germany
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA)
(D) World Bank
Ans: (B)
15. ‘NAYA SAVERA’ is-
(A) All of these
(B) a programme to de-addict all the wine users
(C) a programme to de-addict all the tobacco users
(D) a programme to de-addict tall the Doda Post users
Ans: (D)
16. Mukhya Mantri Nishulk Dava Yojana in Rajasthan was launched on –
(A) 2nd October, 2010
(B) 2nd October, 2011
(C) 2nd September, 2010
(D) 2nd September, 2011
Ans: (B)
17. One of the following is not the objective of Chief Minister’s Shubh Laxmi Yojana in Rajasthan –
(A) To help pregnant girls
(B) To encourage registration of girl child birth
(C) To prevent child marriage
(D) To promote the birth of girl child
Ans: (A)
18. The chemical formula of baking soda is –
(A) NaHCO3
(B) Na2CO3
(C) Ca(OH)2
(D) CaCO3
Ans: (A)
19. Name the scheme being implemented in Rajasthan under which cash incentive is given to SC/ST/SBC/BPL of OBC and GEN candidate selected in the All India Civil Services Examination, the State Civil Services Examination and a candidate getting admission in IITs, IIMs and National Level Medical Colleges –
(A) Upper Merit Scholarship
(B) Merit-cum-Means Scheme
(C) Scholarship Scheme
(D) Anuprati Yojana
Ans: (D)
20. Nodal Agency for generation of energy from non-conventional energy sources in Rajasthan is –
(A) None of these
(B) Centre for New and Renewable Energy Sources
(C) State Ministry of New Renewable Energy
(D) Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Ltd.
Ans: (D)
21. How many District Industries Centres are working in Rajasthan ?
(A) 29
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 36
Ans: (D)
22. The Defence Research Development Organization (DRDO) has developed a drug name, ‘Lukoskin’. It is being used in the treatment of-
Which of the following codes are correctly matched?
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
Ans: (D)
24. Photovoltaic cell is related to-
(A) Geo Thermal Energy
(B) Wind Energy
(C) Nuclear Energy
(D) Solar Energy
Ans: (D)
25. The latest android mobile operating system-6.0 is named as-
(A) Jelly Bean
(B) Lollipop
(C) Marshmallow
(D) Kitkat
Ans: (C)
26. Which district has become the first one in India to get connected to the High Speed Rural Broadband Network ?
(A) Pune District of Maharashtra
(B) Idukki District of Kerala
(C) Vidisha District of Madhya Pradesh
(D) Bengaluru District of Karnataka
Ans: (B)
27. Arrange the following products/ examples of nanotechnology is ascending order of the four generations of nanotechnology [I → IV] and elect the correct answer using the codes given ahead.
I. Aerosol
II. 3D networking
III. Molecular manufacturing
IV. Targeted drugs
(A) IV, I, III, II
(B) I, IV,, II, III
(C) IV, I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
Ans: (B)
28. Which among the following is a nuclear powered submarine of Indian Navy ?
(A) INS Sindhuvir
(B) INS Chakra
(C) INS Shalki
(D) INS Shishumar
Ans: (B)
29. Which of the following aircraft is an air-to-air refueller of the Indian Air Force?
(A) C-130 J Super Hercules
(B) Ilyushin II-78
(C) Ilyushin II-76
(D) C-17 Globemaster III
Ans: (B)
30. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Sugarcane juice is fermented to form vinegar.
(ii) Vinegar h as acetic acid.
(iii) Benzoic acid is the acid present in Vinegar.
(iv) Vinegar is used as a preservative.
(A) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: (C)
31. The relative contributions of carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrous oxide (N2O), chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and methane (CH4) towards global warming are-
(A) CO2 > N2O > CH4 > CFCs
(B) CO2 > CH4 > N2O > CFCs
(C) CO2 > CH4 > CFCs > N2O
(D) CO2 > CFCs > CH4 > N2O
Ans: (A)
32. Which of the facts about Dolly (sheep), the first mammal cloned form an adult somatic cell is not correct ?
(A) Dolly died due to lung disease
(B) Dolly was born at Scotland
(C) Dolly died in the year 2003
(D) Dolly was born in the year 1998
Ans: (D)
33. Which among the following is the richest source of alpha-linolenic acid (18-carbon omega-3 fatty acid)
(A) Oats
(B) Tlaxseed
(C) Moth bean
(D) Mung bean
Ans: (B)
34. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones using the codes given below-
(i) The flavr-savr tamato was the first genetically engineered crop-product to be commercialized.
(ii) Ripe fruits of flavr-savr remain firm for longer duration and can be transported to market after vineripening.
(iii) Ripe fruits of flavr-savr have colour, but not the full array of vine ripened-tomato flavours.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (ii)
Ans: (A)
35. Calcium carbide is used for artificial ripening of green fruits because it produces-
(A) Auxin
(B) Florigen
(C) Methylene
(D) Acetylene
Ans: (D)
36. Against which of the following diseases has Government of India decided to given Bivalent ORV is place of Trivalent ?
(A) Malaria
(B) Polio
(C) Diptheria
(D) Typhoid
Ans: (B)
37. For popularization of Science & Technology in the State, the Government has established Science Centres and Science Parks in Rajasthan. Identify the correct places where Science Parks have been established so far-
(A) Jaipur, Nawalgarh, Kota
(B) Jaipur, Nawalgarh, Jhalarapatan (Jhalawar)
(C) Jaipur, Bikaner, Jhalarapatan (Jhalawar)
(D) Jaipur, Jodhpur, Kota
Ans: (B)
38. First National Park Established in India is-
(A) Kanha National Park
(B) Gir National Park
(C) Jum Corbett National Park
(D) Kaziranga National Park
Ans: (C)
39. The bio-fertilizer used as a supplementary food for the cattle, especially for milking bovines is-
(A) Azolla
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Azospirillum
(D) Azotobacter
Ans: (A)
40. The Central Institute of Arid Horticulture is situated at-
(A) Udaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Sri Ganganagar
(D) Bikaner
Ans: (D)
41. In this question, a statement is followed by two assumptions-
Statement : Nothing is beyond the reach of a hard working person.
Assumptions :
I. A hard working person can achieve everything.
II. Those who do not work hard cannot achieve anything.
Then which of the answer is correct ?
(A) Neither I nor II is implied in the statement
(B) Both I and II are implied in the statement
(C) Only II is implied in the statement
(D) Only I is implied in the statement
Ans: (D)
42. The statement below is followed by two arguments, numbered I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Given answer-
Statement : Should use of mobile phone be banned while driving ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, most of the time it causes accident.
II. No,, this can create a major problem for mobile users in emergency.
(A) Neither I nor II is strong
(B) Both I and II are strong
(C) Only argument II is strong
(D) Only argument I is strong
Ans: (D)
43. Statements :
1. All fruits are trees.
2. No flower is tree.
Conclusions :
I. No flower is fruit.
II. Some trees are fruits.
(A) Both conclusions I and II follow
(B) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(C) Only conclusion II follows
(D) Only conclusions I follows
Ans: (A)
44. The n ext term in the given sequence
7Y, 26V, 63R, 124M, ……., is-
(A) 215H
(B) 215G
(C) 216H
(D) 216G
Ans: (B)
45. Pick out the odd one –
(A) Pig
(B) Goat
(C) Cow
(D) Cat
Ans: (D)
46. If ‘GYPSUM’ is coded as ‘MGSPYU’, ‘FATHER’ is coded as ‘RFHTAE’, then ‘BEYOND’ will be coded as –
(A) DBOYEN
(B) DBOEYN
(C) NDEYBO
(D) DBYOEN
Ans: (A)
47. A, B, C, D, E and F are 6 members of a family. Number of males is equal to number of females. Family has one pair of husband-wife. A and E are sons of F and A is elder. D is mother of two children (one is boy and other is girl). B is son of A. Then the niece of E is-
(A) A
(B) F
(C) D
(D) C
Ans: (D)
48. Answer the following-
Statement: If he is intelligent, he will pass the NET examination.
Assumptions :
I. To pass, the NET examination he must be intelligent.
II. He will pass the NET examination.
(A) Both I and II are implicit
(B) Either I or II is implicit
(C) Only Assumption II implicit
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit
Ans: (D)
49. In the given figure, total number of triangles are-
(A) 27
(B) 25
(C) 23
(D) 21
Ans: (C)
50. Next term of the sequence 1039, 2247, 3455, 4663, ….. .
(A) 5881
(B) 5782
(C) 5871
(D) 5772
Ans: (C)
51. Which is the digit at unit place of the product (541 × 769 × 357) ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Ans: (C)
52. 200 bulbs are used 4 hours per day and expenditure of 6 days is Rs. 40. Then how many bulbs should be used 3 hours per day so that expenditure of 15 day is Rs. 48 ?
(A) 90
(B) 128
(C) 800
(D) 72
Ans: (B)
53. Two students X and Y appeared at an examination. X secured 9 marks more than marks of Y and marks of X was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by X and Y are respectively-
(A) 43, 34
(B) 42, 33
(C) 41, 32
(D) 39, 30
Ans: (B)
54. In the question a key figure marked (X) is given, followed by four other alternative figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4). The figure which fits exactly into figure (X) to form a complete square, is-
(A) (1)
(B) (3)
(C) (2)
(D) (4)
Ans: (A)
55. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 3. In order make this ratio 1 : 2, the quantity of water to be added to the mixture is-
(A) 52.5 litres
(B) 58.5 litres
(C) 22.5 litres
(D) 17.5 litres
Ans: (A)
56. The missing number in the given table is-
(A) 14
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 5
Ans: (D)
57. A father distributes Rs. 16,400 into two fixed deposits for his two sons of age 17 and 18 years respectively, such that at their age of 20 years, both get the same amount. If rate of compound interest is 5% per annum (compounded annually), then how much amount the father deposits
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 8,400
(C) Rs. 8,200
(D) Rs. 8,000
Ans: (D)
58. The difference of compound interest (annually) and simple interest on an amount of Rs. 15,000 for 2 years on the same rate of interest is Rs. 96. The rate of interest per annum is –
(A) 7%
(B) 12%
(C) 10%
(D) 8%
Ans: (D)
Directions – (Q. 59 and 60) Refer the following table and pie-graphs and answer the following questions-
59. How many more two wheelers (in nearest thousands) were exported to EU in 2013-14 as compared to 2010-11 ?
(A) 176
(B) 134
(C) 131
(D) 129
Ans: (B)
60. What is the percentage change in export of automobiles excluding HCVs in 2013-14 as compared to 2010-11 ?
(A) 3.2% decrease
(B) 3.22% increase
(C) 2.22% decrease
(D) 2.22% increase
Ans: (D)
61. Which Indian State has been declared ass the first ‘Digital State’ of India ?
(A) Goa
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
Ans: (C)
62. How much percentage of the total land mass area of India is in Rajasthan ?
(A) 11.4%
(B) 13.3%
(C) 7.9%
(D) 10.4%
Ans: (D)
63. How much of Thar Desert in India falls in Rajasthan ?
(A) 90%
(B) 80%
(C) 60%
(D) 40%
Ans: (A)
64. Which country recently conferred its highest civilian honour ‘Amir Amanullha Khan Award’ to Prime Minister Narendra Modi ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Iran
(C) Uzbekistan
(D) Saudi Arabia
Ans: (A)
65. How many Gold Medals won by India in the 12th South Asian Games held in February 2016 ?
(A) 96
(B) 156
(C) 188
(D) 200
Ans: (C)
66. Who among the following led the movement for withdrawing United Kingdom from the European Union ?
(A) Jean0CClande Junker
(B) George Osborne
(C) Mark Carney
(D) Boris Johnson
Ans: (D)
67. Who captained the Mumbai Cricket team, which won the Ranji Trophy Tournament 2015-16 ?
(A) Aditya Tare
(B) Rohit Sharma
(C) Shreyas Iyer
(D) Surya Kumar Yadav
Ans: (A)
68. What is the official’ motto’ of Rio 2016 Paralympic Games ?
(A) Come walk together
(B) Equality to play
(C) Come and play
(D) A new world
Ans: (D)
69. The sentence incorporated in the ‘Logo’ of Rajasthan tourism is-
(A) Darshinya Rajasthan
(B) Rajasthan Ro Dil Dekho
(C) Jane Kya Dikh Jaye
(D) Rangilo Rajasthan
Ans: (C)
70. How many sports will be played during Rio Paralympic Games, 2016 ?
(A) 27
(B) 23
(C) 42
(D) 20
Ans: (B)
71. Identify the place, where the first ‘Annupurna Bhandar’ was inaugurated by the Chief Minister of Rajasthan on 31st October, 2015-
(A) Kotputali
(B) Phagi
(C) Bhambori
(D) Chomu
Ans: (C)
72. Rajasthan is the first state to implement which one of the following Act to redress public grievances ?
(A) Right to Hearing Act
(B) Good Governance Act
(C) Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act
(D) Transparency in Public Procurement Act
Ans: (A)
73. Government of Rajasthan has set-up Jeevan Dhara Bank iin collaboration with Norwegian Government to provide –
(A) Mother’s Milk to Infants
(B) Insurance to Old persons
(C) Water for Desert areas
(D) Blood for Cancer patients
Ans: (A)
74. Newly elected Chairman of Rajasthan Olympic Association is-
(A) Ramavtar Jakhar
(B) Gopal Saini
(C) Dhanraj Choudhary
(D) Shivcharan Mali
Ans: (C)
75. How many events took place in Rio Olympic Games, 2016 ?
(A) 296
(B) 306
(C) 326
(D) 396
Ans: (B)
76. Which is the first solar powered aircraft to circumnavigate the earth ?
(A) Solar Impulse-4
(B) Solar Impulse-2
(C) Solar Impulse-3
(D) Solar Impulse-1
Ans: (B)
77. In 35th National Games, 2015 Rajasthan won-
(A) 18 Medals
(B) 3 Siler Medals
(C) 1 Gold Medal only
(D) 10 Medals
Ans: (A)
78. Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana ?
(i) The scheme provides free LPG connection to the women belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) households.
(ii) Rs. 8,000 crore has been earmarked under the scheme.
(iii) The scheme provides a financial support of Rs. 2,800 for each LPG connection to the BPL households.
(iv) The scheme will benefit 5 cror BPL families across the nation.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) Only (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (i) and (ii)
Ans: (A)
79. Who is the first Dronacharya awardee of Rajasthan State ?
(A) Paramjeet Singh
(B) Gopal Saini
(C) Ripudaman Singh
(D) Karan Singh
Ans: (D)
80. Prestigious Asian cup 2015 Table Tennis Championships was hosted at-
(A) Netaji Subhash Indoor Stadium, Kolkata
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi
(C) National Sports Club of India, Mumbai
(D) Sawai Mansingh Indoor Stadium, Jaipur
Ans: (D)
81. Which one of the following Sun Temples is located in Patan, Gujarat ?
(A) Dakshinark
(B) Martand
(C) Modhera
(D) Konark
Ans: (C)
82. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Chand Bibi – Awadh
(B) Baz Bahadur – Malwa
(C) Bahadur Shah – Gujarat
(D) Raziya Sultan – Delhi
Ans: (A)
83. In which of the following texts the list of the sixteen great states (Sodasa Mahajanapadas) of ancient India occur ?
Select the correct answer from the code given below-
(i) Arthashastra
(ii) Anguttara Nikaya
(iii) Digha Nikaya
(iv) Bhagavati Sutra
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (ii)
Ans: (A)
84. The legend of Satyakam Jabal, which challenges the stigma of being an unmarried mother, is mentioned in-
(A) Prashnopnishad
(B) Kathopnishad
(C) Jabal Upanishad
(D) Chhandogya Upanishad
Ans: (D)
85. Which of the following Sanskrit works has taken up their theme from the Mahabharata ?
Select the correct answer from the code given below –
(i) Naishdhiyacharita
(ii) Kiratarjuniyam
(iii) Sisupalavadha
(iv) Dasakumaracharita
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iii)
Ans: (B)
86. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Illbert Bill – Ripon
(B) Vernacular Press Act – Curzon
(C) Suppression of Thuggee – William Bentinck
(D) Ring Fence Policy – Warren Hastings
Ans: (B)
87. Consider the following statements-
Assertion (A) : Socio – religious movements of the 19th century resulted in the modernization of India.
Reason (R) : Rationalism, scientific temper and other such ideas which are the basis of modernization were at the core of the socio-religious movements.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (R) is true, but (A) is false
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Ans: (A)
88. Who among the following laid the foundation of the Chola Empire in the IXth century A.D. ?
(A) Rajraja Chola
(B) Parantak
(C) Krishna I
(D) Vijayalaya
Ans: (D)
89. The Persian translation of Mahabharata, which was done in 16th century is called –
(A) Razmanama
(B) Badshahnama
(C) Alamgirnama
(D) Hamzanama
Ans: (A)
90. Who among the following does not belong to the Chishti order ?
(A) Sheikh Abdul Jilani
(B) Sheikh Nizamuddin Aulia
(C) Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Kaki
(D) Sheikh Moinuddin
Ans: (A)
91. Who amongst the following scholars was not in the Court of Kumbha ?
(A) Natha
(B) Muni Jin Vijay Shuri
(C) Muni Sunder Suri
(D) Tilla Bhatt
Ans: (B)
92. With which of the following areas of Rajasthan the Alibakshi Khayal is associated ?
(A) Chittor
(B) Alwar
(C) Chidawa
(D) Karauli
Ans: (B)
93. Shankariya dance of Rajasthan is related to –
(A) Terahtali
(B) Sahariya
(C) Bhil
(D) Kalbeliya
Ans: (D)
94. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Name Text(Music)
(A) Ustad Chand Khan – Ragachandrika
(B) Kumbha – Ragakalpadrum
(C) Pandit Bhavbhatt – Sangeetraj
(D) Pndrik Vitala – Raagmala
Ans: (D)
95. The ancient city which is mentioned in the Mahabharata and Mahabhashya both –
(A) Karkot
(B) Raidh
(C) Madhyamika (Nagari)
(D) Viratnagar (Bairath)
Ans: (C)
96. The inscription which proves the influence of Bhagwat cult in ancient Rajasthan is –
(A) Ghosundi Inscription
(B) Buchkala Inscription
(C) Besnagar Iinscription of Heliodorous
(D) Ghatiyala Inscription
Ans: (A)
97. From the following temples of Rajasthan identify the temples which were built in the Gurjar-Pratihar period –
(i) Adivarah temple of Ahad
(ii) Harshat Mata temple of Abhaneri
(iii) Neelkanth temple of Rajorgarh
(iv) Harihar temple of Osian
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Ans: (A)
98. Which one of the following newspapers of p re-independence Rajasthan was not the promoter of Arya Samaj ideology ?
(A) Rajputana Gazette
(B) Paropkarak
(C) Janhitkarak
(D) Desh Hiteshi
Ans: (A)
99. In which of the following area of Rajasthan, ‘Gulabi Gangaur’ is celebrated on Chaitra Shukla Panchmi ?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Bundi
(C) Udaipur
(D) Nathdwara
Ans: (D)
100. Match the following –
List-I
(Institution)
(a) Rajasthan Seva Sangh
(b) Desh Hiteshi Sabha
(c) All India State People’s Conference
(d) Chamber of Princes
List-II
(Establishment)
1. 1921 2. 1927
3. 1877 4. 1919
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
Ans: (D)
101. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
Peasant Movement Leader
(A) Bikaner – Narottam lal Joshi
(B) Bijoliya – Vijay Singh Pathik
(C) Bundi – Naynu Ram Sharma
(D) Begun – Ram Narayan Chaudhary
Ans: (A)
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102. What is the meaning of ‘Patta Rekh’ in the history of Raja sthan ?
(A) Begar
(B) Export-import tax
(C) Military tax
(D) Expected revenue
Ans: (D)
103. Where was the Headquarter of Shekhawati Brigade located ?
(A) Fatehpur
(B) Khetri
(C) Jhunjhunu
(D) Sikar
Ans: (C)
104. In acid rain, the rain water and snow is contaminated by which of the following pollutants ?
(i) Sulphur-di-oxide
(ii) Nitrogen oxide
(iii) Carbon-di-oxide
(iv) Methane
(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Ans: (A)
105. Who among the following was the first to emphasise the need to establish separate educational institution for the rulers of the princely states of Rajasthan ?
(A) Lord Mayo
(B) Captain Walter
(C) Lord Lansdowne
(D) Colonel Loch
Ans: (B)
106. ‘Hansawali’, an early work of Rajasthani literature was written by-
(A) Isardas
(B) Sridhar Vyas
(C) Asayit
(D) Hemchandra
Ans: (C)
107. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below-
List-I
(Mountain Peak)
(a) Kosciuszko
(b) Mckinley
(c) Elbrus
(d) Kilimanjaro
List-II
(Continent)
1. Europe
2. Africa
3. Australia
4. North America
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
Ans: (C)
108. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a region ?
(i) Global Warming
(ii) Fragmentation of habitat
(iii) Invasion of alien species
(iv) Promotion of Vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using code given below-
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: (D)
109. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below-
List-I
(Industrial Regions)
(a) Lancashire Region
(b) Ruhr Region
(c) Keihin Region
(d) Southern Appalachian Region
List-II
(Country)
1. United States of America
2. Germany
3. United Kingdom
4. Japan
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
Ans: (B)
110. Which of the following is not a correct match ?
Passes Location in State
(A) Mana and Niti Uttarakhand
(B) Bom Di La Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Jelep La Sikkim
(D) Shipki La Jammu & Kashmir
Ans: (D)
111. Which of the following groups represent the correct sequence of mountain peaks of Rajasthan in descending order of their height ?
(A) Jarga, Delwara, Taragarh, Sajjangarh
(B) Jarga, Ser, Sajjangarh, Taragarh
(C) Ser, Jarga, Sajjangarh, Taragarh
(D) Delwara, Sajjangarh, Jarga, Taragarh
Ans: (C)
112. Assertion (A) : Green Revolution has resulted in the growth of foodgrain production in India.
Reason (R) : Regional disparities have aggravated due to the green revolution in India.
(A) (A) is false and (R) is true
(B) (A) is true and (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation (A)
Ans: (C)
113. Which is the correct sequence of following manganese producing States of India in terms of high to low production status in the year 2013-14 ?
(A) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans: (D)
114. Arrange the following cities located on North-South corridor in a sequence from North to South.
Select the correct answer using code given below-
(i) Nagpur
(ii) Agra
(iii) Krishnagiri
(iv) Gwalior
(A) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
(B) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)
Ans: (C)
115. The pair of districts benefitting from Choudhary Kumbha Ram Canal is-
(A) Barmer-Jaisalmer
(B) Bikaner-Jodhpur
(C) Bhilwara-Tonk
(D) Hanumangarh-Jhunjhunu
Ans: (D)
116. Identify the wrong pair-
Mineral Mine
(A) Uranium – Kuradiya
(B) Garnet – Rajmahal
(C) Pink Marble – Babarmal
(D) Gypsum – Palana
Ans: (D)
117. Arrange the districts with maximum total population in Rajasthan in descending order as per Census 2011-
(A) Jaipur, Bikaner, Jodhpur, Udaipur
(B) Jaipur, Udaipur, Jodhpur, Bikaner
(C) Jaipur, Jodhpur, Alwar, Nagaur
(D) Jaipur, Kota, Jodhpur, Bikaner
Ans: (C)
118. Which of the following lakes of Rajasthan has been included in the list of Ramsar wetland sites ?
(A) Sambhar Lake
(B) Rajsamand Lake
(C) Anasagar Lake
(D) Jaisamand Lake
Ans: (A)
119. When did the Rajasthan Govt. approved first forest policy ?
(A) February 2010
(B) March 2011
(C) August 2010
(D) September 2011
Ans: (A)
120. In which year the Government of Rajasthan made Rajasthan Biological Diversity Rules and established the Rajasthan State Biodiversity Board ?
(A) 2014
(B) 2012
(C) 2010
(D) 2008
Ans: (C)
121. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-
List-I
(Wildlife Conservation Reserve)
(a) Jorbeed Gadhewal
(b) Gudha Vishnoi
(c) Gogelav
(d) Beed
List-II
(District)
1. Jhunjhunu 2. Nagaur
3. Jodhpur 4. Bikaner
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
Ans: (C)
122. Consider the following statements –
(i) Aravalli restricts the eastward expansion of desert.
(ii) All the rivers of Rajasthan have their origin from Arvalli.
(iii) Distributional pattern of rainfall in Rajasthan is not affected by Aravalli.
(iv) Aravalli region is rich in metallic minerals.
Select the correct answer using code given below-
(A) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
(B) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Ans: (A)
123. Which of the following two districts of Rajasthan are having lowest percentage of schedule tribes to total population in 2011 ?
(A) Bharatpur and Dholpur
(B) Bikaner and Nagaur
(C) Ganganagar and Hanumangarh
(D) Churu and Sikar
Ans: (B)
124. Arrange the following districts of Rajasthan in correct order from East to West-
(i) Bundi
(ii) Ajmer
(iii) Udaipur
(iv) Nagaur
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: (B)
125. The mines of Janakpura and Sarwar are known from the production of-
(A) Barytes
(B) Pyrite
(C) Garnet
(D) Emerlad
Ans: (C)
126. The tenure of Central Information Commissioner is-
(A) 6 years or 62 years of age
(B) 5 years or 65 years of age
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age
(D) 5 years or 62 years of age
Ans: (B)
127. Which one of the following legislative house can be abolished ?
(A) Vidhan Sabha
(B) Vidhan Parishad
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha
Ans: (B)
128. Identify the incorrect statement about Government of India Act 1919-
(A) This Act Separated the Central and Provincial subjects
(B) Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India
(C) This Act is also known as Morley Minto Reforms Act
(D) The Government of India Act 1919 came into force in 1921
Ans: (C)
129. One of the following statements is incorrect. Point out-
(A) Goa was separated from Daman and Diu
(B) Himachal Pradesh was previously in the list of Union Territories
(C) State of Mysore was renamed as Tamil Nadu
(D) The State of Bombay was split up into Gujarat and Maharashtra
Ans: (C)
130. When were the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution ?
(A) In 1979
(B) In 1978
(C) In 1976
(D) In 1975
Ans: (C)
131. One amongst the following was not a salient feature of the Government of India Act, 1935-
(A) Residuary subjects were allocated to Provincial Legislatures
(B) It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial level and introduced it at the Centre
(C) The Act provided for an All India Federation
(D) It marked the beginning of the Provincial Autonomy
Ans: (A)
132. In which of the following group of the States. PESA (Panchayats (Extension to Schedule Areas) Act], 1996 is not enforceable ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh – Jharkhand – Odisha
(B) Himachal Pradesh – Gujarat – Chhattisgarh
(C) Rajasthan – Telangana – Maharashtra
(D) Assam – Meghalaya – Tamil Nadu
Ans: (D)
133. Among the following which group of States/Union Territories have only one seat in the Lok Sabha ?
(A) Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry
(B) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram
(C) Goa, Meghalaya, Nagaland
(D) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep
Ans: (B)
134. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below –
List-I
(a) Abolition of titles
(b) Freedom to manage religious affairs
(c) Protection of language of minorities
(d) Right to education
List-II
1. Article 29 2. Article 21A
3. Article 28 4. Article 26
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
Ans: (B)
135. Before the appointment of Shri Kalyan Singh as the Governor of Rajasthan who among the following was the Acting Governor of the State ?
(A) Margaret Alva
(B) Ram Naik
(C) Ram Naresh Yadav
(D) O.P. Kohli
Ans: (B)
136. Among the following, whose tenure has been the longest as the Chairman of Rajasthan Public Service Commission ?
(A) C.R. Choudhary
(B) D.S. Tewari
(C) Yatindra Singh
(D) Mohammad Yaqub
Ans: (B)
137. How many elected and Exofficio members are there in District Planning Committee ?
(A) 20 and 10
(B) 20 and 2
(C) 20 and 3
(D) 20 and 5
Ans: (C)
138. The powers of District Collector as a District Magistrate are-
(i) To maintain law and order
(ii) Control over police
(iii) To check passports of foreigners
(iv) To control land revenue
Select the correct answer from the codes given below –
(A) (i), (ii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans: (D)
139. The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is-
(A) Executive Procedure
(B) Legislative Procedure
(C) Quasi-Judicial Procedure
(D) Judicial Procedure
Ans: (C)
140. How many times President’s rule has been imposed in the State of Rajasthan till 30th June, 2016 ?
(A) 4 times
(B) 6 times
(C) 3 times
(D) 5 times
Ans: (A)
141. Delimitation Commission of 1952 had determined the strength of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly as-
(A) Three MLAs for each district
(B) 188
(C) 160
(D) 200
Ans: (C)
142. Choose the correct alternative-
The Chairman of a Joint Public Service Commission for two or more States is appointed by-
(A) The President of India on the recommendation of the Governors concerned
(B) A Committee of Governors of all the States concerned
(C) The President of India
(D) The Governor of the largest State
Ans: (C)
143. In the history of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly till 30th June, 2016 how many times the confidence motion has been moved and discussed ?
(A) Four times
(B) Thrice
(C) Twice
(D) Once
Ans: (A)
144. Choose the correct answer-
Governor of Rajasthan in Chancellor of-
(A) All State Universities, the Central Universities in the State and all Private Universities in the State
(B) All State Universities as well as Private Universities in the State
(C) All State Universities and Central Universities in the State
(D) All State Universities
Ans: (D)
145. When was Rajasthan Information Commission constituted ?
(A) April 18, 2005
(B) April 18, 2007
(C) April 18, 2006
(D) April 18, 2008
Ans: (C)
146. Choose the correct answer –
The appointment of Lok Ayukta at the state level was first recommended by-
(A) Santhanam Committee
(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-70)
(D) Rajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee
Ans: (C)
147. How many times elections have been held for Panchayati Raj Institutions in Rajasthan till 2015?
(A) 10 times
(B) 9 times
(C) 8 times
(D) 5 times
Ans: (A)
148. Consider the following statements regarding Bhamasha Yojana-
(i) With the consent of the family, any woman of the family, who has attained the age of 21 years, may be declared as the head of the family.
(ii) First verification of Bhamashah enrollment is done by the Sarpanch of the concerned Gram Panchayat.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
(B) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) Only (ii) is correct
(D) Only (i) is correct
Ans: (D)
149. Which one of the following statements is true about Anuprati Yojana ?
(A) It is a scheme to give financial assistance to school going children of Schedule Caste and Scheduled Tribe
(B) It is a scheme to give financial help to orphan children or Scheduled Caste
(C) It is a scheme to give coaching for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe students.
(D) It is a scheme to give financial help to Scheduled Caste girl for marriage
L.I.C (AAO) Examination Held on 6-3-2016 Reasoning Question Paper with Answer Key
L.I.C (AAO) Examination, 2016
Held on 6-3-2016
Reasoning
Directions – (Q. 1-5) Study the information carefully and answer the question.
J, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting around a circular area at equal distance between each other, t but not necessarily in the same order. Some people face the centre while some face the outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the centre.)
J sits third to the right of M. M faces outside. Only one person sits between J and N.
Both the immediate neighbours of N face outside.
Only three people sit between O and P. O is not an immediate neighbour of J.
Both the immediate neighbours of L face the centre. L is not an immediate neighbour of O.
Both the immediate neighbours of K face the centre.
Both the immediate negihbours of M face a direction opposite to that of O (i.e. if O faces the centre then both the immediate neighbours of M face outside and vice-versa.)
1. Which of the following is true regarding I as per the given arrangement ?
(A) P is one of the immediate neighbours of I
(B) I faces the centre
(C) I sits third to the left of L
(D) Only three people sit between I and N
(E) None of the given options is true
Ans: (C)
2. Who is sitting to immediate right of L ?
(A) J
(B) M
(C) I
(D) P
(E) K
Ans: (A)
3. What is O’s position with respect to K ?
(A) Fifth to the right
(B) Second to the right
(C) Third to the right
(D) To the immediate left
(E) Fourth to the right
Ans: (D)
4. Who amongst the following are immediate neighbours of N ?
(A) P, M
(B) L, M
(C) O, P
(D) I, O
(E) I, K
Ans: (A)
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) J
(B) K
(C) P
(D) L
(E) O
Ans: (C)
Directions (Q. 6-10) Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 B, C, D, E, F and G are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 P, Q, RR, S, T and U are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (Please Note : None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)
R sits second to the right of S. Only one person sits between R and U. C sits to the immediate right of the one who faces U. Only two people sit between G and F. Q sits fourth to the left of T. D. is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces T. D does not face R. B sits third to the right of D. E is an immediate right of G. G does not face R.
6. Who amongst the following is facing C ?
(A) U
(B) S
(C) R
(D) P
(E) T
Ans: (D)
7. Which of the following statements is true regarding P ?
(A) G is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces P
(B) Only one person sits between P and T
(C) P sits to the immediate right of U
(D) None of the given statements is true
(E) Q is an immediate neighbour of P
Ans: (B)
8. Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group ?
(A) F
(B) G
(C) S
(D) T
(E) E
Ans: (A)
9. What is the position of B with respect to C ?
(A) Second to the right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Fourth to the right
(D) Immediate right
(E) Third to the left
Ans: (A)
10. Who amongst the following is facing Q ?
(A) B
(B) E
(C) F
(D) C
(E) D
Ans: (A)
Directions – (Q. 11-15) Study the following information and answer the given question.
L has only two daughters-U and P. P is married to K. K is the father of S. S is the son-in-law of Y. U is married to Q.
11. If Z is the daughter-in-law of P, then how is Z related to S ?
(A) Mother
(B) Mother-in-law
(C) Sister
(D) Niece
(E) Wife
Ans: (E)
12. How is Q related to L ?
(A) Brother-in-law
(B) Brother
(C) Son
(D) Nephew
(E) Son-in-law
Ans: (E)
Directions- (Q. 13 and 14) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Kunal starts from Point A, walks 14 m to the north and reaches Point B. He then takes a right turn and walks 5 m. He finally takes a left turn and walks 4m and stops at Point D.
Shubhra who is standing at point Z which is 6 m to the west of point B walks 7m towards south, takes a left turn and walks for 11 m and stops at point Y.
13. How far and in which direction is Point D with respect to Point Y ?
(A) 9m towards south
(B) 11m towards north
(C) 11m towards south
(D) 10m towards south
(E) 9m towards north
Ans: (B)
14. If Shubhra walks 4m towards North form pint Z, in which direction will she have to walk in order to reach point D ?
(A) South-east
(B) North-west
(C) East
(D) West
(E) North
Ans: (C)
Directions – (Q. 15-19) In this question, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Giver answers :
(A) If only the conclusion I is true.
(B) If only the conclusion II is true.
(C) If either in conclusion I or the conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither the conclusion I nor the II is true.
(E) If both the conclusion I and II are true.
15. Statements: No cream is a lotion. Some lotions are perfumes
Conclusions :
I. All perfumes are lotions.
II. No cream is a perfume.
Ans: (D)
16. Statements: All legumes are pulses. Some pulses are grains. No grain is a
Conclusions :
I. All legumes are crops.
II. All pulses can never be crops.
Ans: (B)
17. Statements: Some oceans are rivers. All oceans are waterfalls.
Conclusions :
I. All rivers are waterfalls.
II. Some rivers are waterfalls.
Ans: (B)
18. Statements: Some curtains are pillows. All pillows are blankets. All blankets are doormats.
Conclusions :
I. All curtains can never be blankets.
II. All doormats begin curtains is a possibility
Ans: (B)
19. Statements: All legumes are pulses. Some pulses are grains. No grain is a crop.
Conclusions :
I. All crops being pulses is a possibility
II. Atleast some grains are legumes.
Ans: (A)
Directions – (Q. 20-24) Study the following information and answer the question.
Seven people, namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S like seven different cars namely, Volkswagen, Audi, BMW, Mercedes, Nissan, Jaguar and Fiat, but not necessarily in the same order. They will also attend a screening not necessarily in the same order, from Monday to Sunday (of the same week).
M will attend a screening on Friday. Only one person will attend a screening between M and the one who likes Jaguar. Only two people will attend a screening between R and the one who likes Jaguar. The one who likes Nissan will attend a screening immediately before N. Only three people will attend a screening between the one who likes Nissan and O. Only one person will attend a screening between the one who likes Mercedes and O. Q does not like Nissan. S will attend the screening immediately before Q. Only there people will attend a screening between Q and the one who likes Audi. Only two people will attend a screening between the one who likes Volkswagen and the one who likes BMW. The one who likes BMW will attend the screening before the one who likes Volkswagen. N does not like Audi.
20. Which of the following pairs represent the people who attend screening immediately before and immediately after M ?
(A) Q, N
(B) N, O
(C) N, P
(D) Q, O
(E) R, P
Ans: (B)
21. Four of the following five are alike as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) M-BMW
(B) Q-Audi
(C) S-Mercedes
(D) P-Fiat
(E) R-Jaguar
Ans: (C)
22. On which of the following days will N attend a screening ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Sunday
Ans: (D)
23. Which of the following cars does P like ?
(A) Audi
(B) Fiat
(C) BMW
(D) Nissan
(E) Jaguar
Ans: (E)
24. As per the given arrangement S is related to Friday and R is related to Sunday in a certain way. To which of the following is Q related to in the same way ?
(A) Saturday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday
(E) Tuesday
Ans: (A)
Directions – (Q. 25-28) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Eight people J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q live on eight different floors of a building, but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight.
P lives on the floor numbered 3. Only one person lives between J and P. Only three people live between M and J. O lives immediately above M. There are as many people between O and J as there are between P and Q. K lives on an even numbered floor. Only three people live between K and L.
25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of them does not belong to the group ?
(A) LP
(B) OK
(C) MO
(D) KN
(E) NQ
Ans: (B)
26. Who amongst the following lives immediately below N ?
(A) O
(B) K
(C) P
(D) Q
(E) No one
Ans: (D)
27. If all the people are made to live in alphabetical order from bottom to top, the positions of how many people will remain unchanged ?
(A) Two
(B) None
(C) One
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans: (B)
28. How many people live between Q and P ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) None
(D) Two
(E) More than three
Ans: (D)
Directions – (Q. 29-30) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Five people, A, B, C, D and E won different number of competitions. Only two people won more number of competitions than E. B won more competitions than D, but less than A. C won more competitions than D. D neither won the maximum number of competitions nor second lowest number of competitions. The one who won the second lowest number of competitions won 8 competitions.
29. If the difference between the number of competitions won by B and A is 16, then which of the following may possible represent the number of competitions won by E?
(A) 5
(B) 25
(C) 7
(D) 14
(E) 23
Ans: (D)
30. Who among the following who won the second highest number of competitions ?
IBPS Specialist Officer (Marketing) Examination Held on 1-2-2016 Professional Knowledge Question Paper with Answer Key
IBPS Specialist Officer (Marketing) Exam., 2015
(Held on 1-2-2016)
Professional Knowledge
1. A tangible product that the consumer feels comfortable purchasing without gathering additional information and then actually buys with minimum of effort is termed a(n)-
(A) Shopping good
(B) Convenience good
(C) Business product
(D) Specially good
(E) Unsought good
Ans: (B)
2. The process of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who have different needs, characteristics or behaviours and who might require separate products or marketing programs is called –
(A) Market segmentation
(B) Market positioning
(C) Market differentiation
(D) Market targeting
(E) Marketing mix
Ans: (A)
3. …………. is not a stage of product life cycle in marketing.
(A) introduction
(B) maturity
(C) Growth
(D) Decline
(E) Planning
Ans: (E)
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic important in influencing an innovator’s rate of adoption ?
(A) Organization type of the innovator
(B) Compatibility
(C) Divisibility
(D) Communicability
(E) Complexity
Ans: (A)
5. The financial contracts whose values are obtained from the values of underlying assets are…..
(A) mortgage
(B) Commercial papers
(C) Stocks
(D) Derivatives
(E) Bonds
Ans: (D)
6. All of the following are considered to be broad market follower strategies EXCEPT-
(A) innovator
(B) imitator
(C) cloner
(D) counterteller
(E) adapter
Ans: (E)
7. A company has four choices when it comes to developing brands. Which one of the following is not one among them ?
(A) New brands
(B) Multi brands
(C) Brand extension
(D) Line extension
(E) Brand sponsoring
Ans: (E)
8. ……….. is a demand state where consumer may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing model ?
(A) declining demand
(B) irregular demand
(C) negative demand
(D) non-existent demand
(E) latent demand
Ans: (E)
9. …….. is the development, design and implementation of marketing programme, processes and activities that recognises the breadth and interdependencies of today’s marketing environment.
(A) Niche marketing
(B) Supply chain marketing
(C) Holistic marketing
(D) Relationship marketing
(E) Demand-centred marketing
Ans: (C)
10. The ………. holds that marketing strategy should deliver value to customers in a way that maintain or improve both the consumer’s society’s well-being.
(A) Societal marketing concept
(B) Society centered marketing
(C) Customer-centered marketing
(D) Focused business model
(E) Production centered business
Ans: (C)
11. Major oil producers carry an oil exploration, oil drilling, oil refining, chemical manufacture and service-station operation. When an organization does all of these separate tasks distribution channel they can be said to have achieved what is called –
(A) parallel marketing
(B) horizontal integration
(C) vertical integration
(D) concentric integration
(E) conglomerate marketing
Ans: (C)
12. Which of the following describes the tendency of people to interpret information in a way that will support what they already believe ?
(A) Selective creativity
(B) Selective distortion
(C) Selective matching
(D) Selective attraction
(E) Selective attribute
Ans: (B)
13. The ……… stage of a product is characterized as being one where there is period of rapid climb in sales and substantial profit improvement.
(A) introduction
(B) decline
(C) maturity
(D) saturation
(E) growth
Ans: (E)
14. The discomfort caused by post purchase conflict is called –
(A) Dissatisfaction
(B) Cognitive Dissonance
(C) Post purchase behaviour
(D) Buyer’s remorse
(E) Comparative tension
Ans: (B)
15. ……… is the study of how individuals, groups and organizations select, buy, use and dispose of goods, services, ideals or experiences tot satisfy their needs and wants.
(A) Psychology
(B) Product differentiation
(C) Psychographic segmentation
(D) Target marketing
(E) Consumer behaviour
Ans: (E)
16. Mutual Funds are regulated in the country by-
(A) IRDA
(B) Association of Mutual Funds of India (AMFI)
(C) NABARD
(D) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(E) Reserve Bank of India
Ans: (D)
17. Situation in which a firm introduces new products to stimulate sales but the profit comes at the expense of other products sold by that firm is called –
(A) Repositioning
(B) Push marketing
(C) Differentiated marketing
(D) Cannibalization
(E) Cartelization
Ans: (D)
18. Cultivating opinion leaders and getting them to spread information about a product or service to others in their communities is –
(A) Buzz Marketing
(B) Leader Marketing
(C) Niche Marketing
(D) Complex Marketing
(E) Selective Marketing
Ans: (A)
19. Marketing management is defined as-
(A) Monitoring the profitability of the company’s products and services
(B) The art and science of choosing target markets and building profitable relationship with them
(C) Managing the market process
(D) Developing marketing strategies to move the company forward
(E) Selecting target markets to deploy marketers
Ans: (D)
20. The measure of the brand’s ability to capture consumer performance and loyalty is termed –
(A) Brand superiority
(B) Brand equity
(C) Brand version
(D) Brand loyalty
(E) Brand preference
Ans: (D)
21. Mission statements are at their best when they reflect a ……. an almost impossible dream that provides direction for the next 10 to 30 years.
(A) Market
(B) Strength
(C) Competency
(D) Vision
(E) Value
Ans: (D)
22. A strategy in which the initial price of the product is set low in relation to the target market’s range of expected price is termed –
(A) Market Skimming Pricing
(B) Old Pricing
(C) Discount market pricing
(D) Market Penetration Pricing
(E) Special market Pricing
Ans: (C)
23. A group of tradition bound consumers who are the tool to adapt an innovation is called –
(A) Challengers
(B) Leaders
(C) Innovators
(D) Laggards
(E) Loyal agents
Ans: (D)
24. Low prices on products for which you have accurate price knowledge lets you know that the product has to be a bargain. This type of pricing is termed-
(A) Reference pricing
(B) Psychological pricing
(C) Volume pricing
(D) Promotional pricing
(E) Signpost pricing
Ans: (A)
25. The want satisfying power of product is called its –
(A) Price
(B) Utility
(C) Bond
(D) Purpose
(E) Goal
Ans: (B)
26. Based on the rates firms play in the target market in a specific industry, they are classified as following except in a-
(A) Market challenger
(B) Market plotter
(C) Market leader
(D) Market nicher
(E) Market follower
Ans: (B)
27. TQM approach in which all the people of the company are involved in constantly improving the performance of products, services and business processes. TQM stands for-
(A) Tata Quality Management
(B) Total Quality Marketing
(C) Total Quantity Management
(D) Total Queries Management
(E) Total Quality Manipulation
Ans: (*)
28. When backed by buying power, wants become-
(A) self-esteem needs
(B) demands
(C) exchanges
(D) physical needs
(E) social needs
Ans: (B)
29. The philosophy of product centered concept is……….
(A) Right products for the customers
(B) Make and sell
(C) Make what the market wants
(D) Sense and respond
(E) Selling on product benefits
Ans: (B)
30. The customer’s evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a market offering relative to those of competing offers is called –
(A) Customer perceived value
(B) Customer expectation
(C) Customer satisfaction
(D) Customer Loyalty
(E) Customer relationship
Ans: (A)
31. Button market is where ………
(A) capital is disposed
(B) gold is purchased and sold
(C) shares are purchased
(D) production of silver takes place
(E) investments are made
Ans: (E)
32. Especially in large firms, a sales force frequently is specialized in some organizational fashion. Which of the following is not one of such specializations ?
(A) Customer specialization
(B) Major accounts specialization
(C) Product specialization
(D) Geographic specialization
(E) Economic order specialization
Ans: (B)
33. Greater consumer control means that, in building customer relationships, companies can no longer rely on marketing by intrusion. The most practice marketing is-
(A) Conversion
(B) Delivery
(C) Retention
(D) Attraction
(E) Attention
Ans: (D)
34. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, sense of belonging is grouped in-
(A) Esteem needs
(B) Social needs
(C) Safety needs
(D) Physiological needs
Ans: (B)
35. Michael Porter has identified five forces that determine the intrinsic long-run attractiveness of market segment. Which of the following would not be among Porter’s Five forces
(A) Threat of buyer’s growing bargaining power
(B) Threat of substitute products
(C) Threat of technological partners
(D) Threat of intense segment rivalry
(E) Threat of new entrants
Ans: (C)
36. The unplanned static or distortion during the communication process, which results in the receivers’ getting a different message then the one that the sender sent is the-
(A) Response
(B) Feedback
(C) Noise
(D) Decoding
Ans: (C)
37. If a MNC like Nestle varied the elements of the marketing mix to suit the countries in which it sold its products, which type of strategy would it be following ?
(A) Differentiated
(B) undifferentiated
(C) Standardized
(D) Adapted
(E) Concentrated
Ans: (C)
38. Under which of the following company orientations towards the market place would we expect to get ‘better economical’ talacy?
(A) Marketing concept
(B) Holistic marketing concept
(C) Production concept
(D) Selling concept
(E) Product concept
Ans: (B)
39. If a company focuses only one or a few market segments instead of small share of a large market, the same is-
(A) Segment marketing
(B) Conceptual marketing
(C) Mass Marketing
(D) Micro Marketing
(E) Niche Marketing
Ans: (A)
40. An estimate the total financial value of the brand is-
(A) Brand valuation
(B) Brand tracking
(C) Brand auditing
(D) Brand partitioning
(E) Brand equity
Ans: (E)
41. The total combined customer value of all the company’s current and potential customers is called –
(A) Customer share
(B) Customer delight
(C) Customer loyalty
(D) Customer orientation
(E) Customer equity
Ans: (C)
42. We can say that a………… has three characteristics. (1) It is source of competitive advantage in that it makes a significant contribution to perceived customer benefits; (2) It has application in a wide variety of markets, and (3) It is difficult for competitors to imitate.
(A) Strategic business unit
(B) Core competency
(C) Business strategy
(D) Winning strategy
(E) Core technology
Ans: (B)
43. Which demographic segmentation divides buyers into different groups based on social class, lifestyle or personality characteristics ?
(A) Age and life cycle segmentation
(B) Gender segmentation
(C) Age segmentation
(D) Psychographic segmentation
(E) Income segmentation
Ans: (D)
44. The internet version of word of mouth marketing is termed –
(A) Viral marketing
(B) Web marketing
(C) Channel marketing
(D) Network marketing
(E) Virtual marketing
Ans: (A)
45. ……….. is the development, interpretation and communication of decision oriented information to be used in all phases of marketing process.
(A) Marketing forecast
(B) Market intelligence
(C) Market Planning
(D) Marketing research
(E) Marketing information system
Ans: (E)
46. GATT is more than 60 years old treaty designed to promote world trade by reducing tariff and other international trade barriers. GATT stands for-
(A) General Aspects on Tariff and Trade
(B) General Agreement on Traffic and Trade
(C) Geneva Agreement on Trade and Tariff
(D) General Allowance for Trade and Tariff
(E) Geneva Agreement on Traffic or Trade
Ans: (B)
47. People differ greatly in their readiness to try new products. Which of the following do not belong to the adapter categorization on the basis of relation time of adopter of innovators ?
(A) Innovators
(B) Laggards
(C) Early Majority
(D) Late Majority
(E) Super Majority
Ans: (C)
48. As per BCG Matrix of classification of SBUs of an organization, Cash cows are SBUs that typically generate-
(A) Large Awareness levels but few sales
(B) Problems for product managers often
(C) High industry growth
(D) More cash than that can be invested profitably in its own business
(E) Paper losses in the long run
Ans: (D)
49. A strategy of ……… pricing involves using prick in a competitive weapon in order to push competitors out of market or eliminate competitors.
(A) Bargain
(B) Psychological
(C) Premium
(D) Advanced
(E) Predatory
Ans: (B)
50. Behavioural basis of market segmentation includes-
Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Examination Held on 25-9-2016 General Awareness Question Paper with Answer Key
Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Exam., 2016
Held on 25-9-2016
General Awareness
1. What is the current rate of CRR ?
(A) 4%
(B) 5%
(C) 3%
(D) 4.5%
(E) Other than those given as option
Ans: (A)
2. A leading bank in India has recently (July 2016) launched social media banking platform for its facebook and twitter users which goes by the name of ‘Mingle’. Name the Bank-
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) YES Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Bank of Baroda
(E) ICICI Bank
Ans: (C)
3. ………… has launched India’s first internationally-listed certified green bond to finance climate change solutions around the world at London Stock Exchange.
(A) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) AXIS Bank
(D) HDFC Bank
(E) YES Bank
Ans: (C)
4. Who is the present Governor of Meghalaya ?
(A) Tathagata Roy
(B) Padmanabha Acharya
(C) Balram Das Tandon
(D) Mridula Sinha
(E) V. Shanmuganathan
Ans: (E)
5. As per recent newspaper reports (August 2016), hailed as the world’s first ‘self-driving’ taxi service has been launched in which of the following countries ?
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) Japan
(D) USA
(E) Russia
Ans: (B)
6. How many companies have made it to the latest of fortune 500 companies ?
(A) Five
(B) Seventeenth
(C) Seven
(D) Two
(E) Nine
Ans: (C)
7. Which Indian scientist was best owed with the 2016 Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam award by the Government of Tamil Nadhu ?
(A) D.K. Radhaswami
(B) Rajesh Gopa Kumar
(C) C.N.R. Rao
(D) P. Shanmugam
(E) Ashoka Sen
Ans: (D)
8. Who has become the first Indian state to ratify Constitution Amendment Bill on the Goods and Service Tax (GST) ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Haryana
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Assam
(E) Punjab
Ans: (D)
9. Reserve Bank of India has recently (August 2016) launched a portal to curb illegal and unauthorized pooling of funds by unscrupulous firms. What is it called ?
(A) Savdhaan
(B) Sanchetna
(C) Sachetna
(D) Sanchet
(E) Sachet
Ans: (E)
10. IPPBL has received the Certificate of Incorporation from the Registrar of Companies and has become the first PSU under the Department of posts. What is the full form of IPPBL ?
(A) India Post Paying Bank Limited
(B) India Post Payments Bank Limited
(C) India Post-Office Payment Bank Limited
(D) International Post Payments Bank Limited
(E) India Post Payment Banking Limited
Ans: (B)
11. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has asked banks to provide loans up to Rs. 3 lakh to Women Self-Help Group (SHG) at a discounted rate of ……. per annum.
(A) 4%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 9%
(E) 5%
Ans: (C)
12. Which neighbouring country of India passed a resolution recently (March 2016) to convert its Parliament into Constitutional Assembly ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Nepal
(C) Bhutan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Sri Lanka
Ans: (E)
13. Urjit Patel recently (September 2016) assumed charge as the Governor of Reserve Bank of India. He is the …………. Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(A) 25th
(B) 23rd
(C) 21st
(D) 20th
(E) 24th
Ans: (E)
14. Domestic Systematically Important Banks (D-SIBs) is announced with the term-
(A) Too big to fail
(B) Too big to fall
(C) Too big to pass
(D) Too big to die
(E) Too big to stoop working
Ans: (A)
15. Rupee denominated bonds issues by Indian companies in order to raise funds offshore are called –
(A) Convertible Bonds
(B) Global development Bonds
(C) Callable Bonds
(D) Masala Bonds
(E) Asian Development Bond
Ans: (D)
16. Reliance Industries Limited has entered into an agreement with State Bank of India to form a Payment Banks in India. What will be the respective ratio of their share in this Payments Bank ?
(A) 80 : 20
(B) 50 : 50
(C) 90 : 10
(D) 60 : 40
(E) 70 : 30
Ans: (E)
17. How many ‘Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account’ can an individual have in one bank ?
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) Five
(D) Any number
(E) One
Ans: (E)
18. The author of the book ‘The Sleep Revolution’ is-
(A) Shawn Stevenson
(B) Ananna Huffington
(C) Katy West
(D) Sherry Tunde
(E) Sheryl Sandberg
Ans: (B)
19. Who has become India’s first woman to join the International Olympic Committee ?
(A) P.T. Usha
(B) Preity Zinta
(C) Nita Ambani
(D) Deepika Arora
(E) Mary Kom
Ans: (C)
20. Three giants have come together for setting up a technology enabled microfinance entity. Avanti Finance, which will focus on delivering affordable and timely credit to under-served and un-served segments in India. Who are these ?
(A) Ratan Tata, Narayana Murthy and Vijay Kelkar
(B) Cyrus P. Mistry, Nandan Nilekani and Vijay Kelkar
(C) Ratan Tata, N. S. Raghavan and Vijay Kelkar
(D) Ratan Tata, Nanda Nilekani and Vijay Kelkar
(E) Ratan Tata, Nandan Nilekani and Vijay Kelkar
Ans: (D)
21. HDFC Bank have launched complete banking solution for start-ups. What is it called ?
(A) Gear Up
(B) Smart Up
(C) Gett Up
(D) Smarting Up
(E) Smarty
Ans: (B)
22. CARE ratings in August 2016 signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with …… and Emergency Nepal Ltd. to start a credit rating agency in Nepal to be called CARE Ratings (Nepal) Ltd.
(A) Adani Group
(B) Kothan Group Ltd.
(C) Vishal Group Ltd.
(D) Reliance India Ltd.
(E) Rajesh Exports
Ans: (C)
23. The Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR) is located in which state of India ?
(A) Nagaland
(B) West Bengal
(C) Telangana
(D) Manipur
(E) Sikkim
Ans: (C)
24. The Union Government has approved the scheme for granting of Permanent Residency Status (PRS) to foreign investors. For how many years will the PRS be granted ?
(A) 11 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 15 years
(E) 5 years
Ans: (C)
25. Which of the following ancient site of India has recently (July 2016) been declared as the UNESCO World Heritage Site ?
(A) Mountain Railways of India
(B) Nalanda Maharashtra
(C) Churches and Convents of Goa
(D) Chruches of Shimla
(E) Mahabodhi Temple
Ans: (B)
26. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) has recently (June 2016) approved the first set of loan to four countries. Which are those countries ?
(A) Bangladesh, Pakistan, Indonesia and Tajikistan
(B) Pakistan, Bhutan, Indonesia and Tajikistan
(C) Nepal, Bangladesh, Indonesia and Tajikistan
(D) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Indonesia and Ukraine
(E) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Indonesia and Tajikistan
Ans: (A)
27. Who is the current Union Minster of Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) ?
(A) Rakesh Singh
(B) Santosh Gangwar
(C) Jayant Sinha
(D) Prakash Javadekar
Ans: (D)
28. Which Indian teenager has recently (July 2016) won the 2016 Google Community Impact Award from Asia ?
(A) Riya Sharma
(B) Priyanka Singh
(C) Meghna Sharma
(D) Aadil Khan
(E) Adway Ramesh
Ans: (E)
29. For sale of stressed assets value over Rs. 50 crores to Arcs, Reserve Bank of India has mandated………. different valuation.
(A) Four
(B) Two
(C) None
(D) Three
(E) Five
Ans: (B)
30. The Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) has MoU recently (August 2016) with which technology to offer telecom and IT solutions ?
(A) Wipro
(B) IBM
(C) Google
(D) Microsoft
(E) Infosys
Ans: (D)
31. Prime Minister of which country recently (April 2016) resigned from his post after his name was revealed in the Panama paper leak ?
(A) Mexico
(B) France
(C) Bulgaria
(D) Iceland
(E) Kenya
Ans: (D)
32. The Shanghai-based New Development Bank (NDB), which was founded by Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa (BRICS) is headed by –
(A) Chanda Kochhar
(B) Indra Nooi
(C) K.V. Kamath
(D) M.V. Kamath
(E) None of the above
Ans: (C)
33. Reserve Bank of India has recently (June 2016) launched a scheme called ……. to ut real assets back on track of entities facing genuine difficulties by providing an avenue for renewing financial structure.
(A) S4A
(B) S2A
(C) A1A
(D) S4S
(E) S3A
Ans: (A)
34. What is the theme of the 2016 World Humanitarian Day ?
(A) One World : One Heart
(B) One Humanity
(C) Being Human
(D) Inspire the World’s Humanity
(E) People Helping People
Ans: (B)
35. What is the India’s rank in terms of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows globally, as per the latest 2016 World Investment Report by UNCTAD ?
(A) 20th
(B) 25th
(C) 15th
(D) 12th
(E) 10th
Ans: (E)
36. In August 2016, the Union Government set an inflation target of ………..% over a period of next five years.
(A) Five
(B) Seven
(C) Four
(D) Other than those given as options
(E) Eight
Ans: (C)
37. A medium enterprise is an enterprise where the investment in plant and machinery is more than Rs. 5 crore but does not exceed –
(A) Rs. 25 crore
(B) Rs. 8 crore
(C) Rs. 12 crore
(D) Rs. 15 crore
(E) Rs. 10 crore
Ans: (E)
38. What is the total amount of credit that can be allowed in a ‘small account’ in a year ?
(A) Rs. 1,50,000
(B) Rs. 1,00,000
(C) Rs. 5,00,000
(D) Rs. 50,000
(E) Rs. 7,50,000
Ans: (B)
39. The State Bank of India’s (SBI) Board of Directors has approved merger of its 5 associate banks with itself. Which among the following is not a part of that group ?
(A) Bharatiya Mahila Bank
(B) State Bank of Saurashtra
(C) State Bank of Patiala
(D) State Bank of Mysore
(E) State Bank of Travancore
Ans: (B)
40. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has announced that Unified Payments Interface (UPI) application has become operational. How many banks has become a part of it in the first phase ?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 9
(D) 12
(E) 21
Ans: (E)
41. As per recent newspaper reports (July 2016), which of the following states are the first states in India where the integrated Criminal Justice System (CJS) will be launched ?
(A) Punjab and Haryana
(B) Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
(C) Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(E) Bihar and Jharkhand
Ans: (C)
42. A committee formed by the Union Government to strengthen Border Protection, submitted its report recently (August 2016). The committee is headed by –
(A) N. K. Singh
(B) H. R. Nagendra
(C) Madhukar Gupta
(D) Sahilesh Gandhi
(E) Shailesh Nayak
Ans: (C)
43. Who determines the rate of interest on the Medium and Long Term Government Deposits under the-
(A) State Bank of India
(B) RBI
(C) State Government
(D) Central Government
(E) Other than those given as options
Ans: (B)
44. Saudi Arabia’s Islamic Development Bank (IDB) has decided to open its first branch in India. Where is it stated to be opened ?
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Ahmednagar
(D) Jamnagar
(E) Kochi
Ans: (A)
45. Who among the following recently (June 2016) became the Chairman of the International Chamber of Commerce (ICC) ?
(A) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(B) Mukesh Ambani
(C) Anil Ambani
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) Gautam Adani
Ans: (A)
46. Who among the following won a bronze medal for India in Wrestling (freestyle) at the 2016 Rio Olympics ?
(A) Sandeep Tomar
(B) Sakshi Malik
(C) Vinesh Phogat
(D) Narsingh Yadav
(E) Babita Kumari
Ans: (B)
47. Who won the Monaco Grand Prix in 2016 ?
(A) Fernando Alonso
(B) Nico Hulkenberg
(C) Kimi Rakkonen
(D) Lewis Hamilton
(E) Nico Rosberg
Ans: (D)
48. Who among the following is the current Managing Director of State Bank of India ?
(A) Dinesh Kant
(B) Arundhati Bhattacharya
(C) Sidhartha Sen
(D) Ravi Kumar Khare
(E) Dinesh Kumar Khara
Ans: (E)
49. The Government will issue the fifth tranche of sovereign gold bonds in September 2016. Which among the following will not be selling these bonds ?
(A) Insurance Companies
(B) Recognized Stock Exchanges
(C) Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd.
(D) Designated Post Offices
(E) Banks
Ans: (C)
50. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a committed to study various facets of household finance in India. The committee will be chaired by-
Odisha Postal Circle Postman and Mail Guard Examination Held on 16.04.2017 Question Paper with Answer Key
Odisha Postal Circle Postman and Mail Guard Examination Held on 16.04.2017
Part-A (General Knowledge)
1. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a Member of either House of Parliament ?
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) No time limit
Ans: 6 months
2. The concept of judicial review in our Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of –
(A) England
(B) USA
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
Ans: USA
3. The largest living animals living animals belong to the group of_____.
(A) Mammals
(B) Birds
(C) Reptiles
(D) Fishes
Ans: Mammals
4. Ramila is taller than Veena, but smaller than Anisha. Anuja is smaller than Veena, but taller than Meena. Who is the tallest among them?
(A) Anuja
(B) Veena
(C) Meena
(D) Anisha
Ans:
5. Which of the following parts of the plant is used in making the saffron spice?
(A) Leaf
(B) Petal
(C) Sepal
(D) Stigma
Ans: Stigma
6. Complete the series.
ABC, ZYX, DEF, WVU, (…)
(A) GIH
(B) GIK
(C) GHI
(D) STU
Ans: GHI
7. The practice of military governorship was first introduced in India by the-
(A) Greeks
(B) Sakas
(C) Parthians
(D) Mughals
Ans: Greeks
8. Who presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) President
(B) Vice President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker
Ans: Vice President
9. Who wrote the patriotic song ‘Saare Jahan Se Acheha’?
(A) Rabindrnath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Muhammad Iqbal
(D) Kavi Pradeep
Ans: Muhammad Iqbal
10. C. Roy Trophy is associated with which sport?
(A) Cricket
(B) Hockey
(C) Football
(D) Kabaddi
Ans: Football
11. Which of the following is the type of currency whose value may depreciate rapidly or that is difficult to convert into other currencies ?
(A) Hard currency
(B) Soft currency
(C) Flat currency
(D) Alternative currency
Ans:
12. The first attempt to initiate economic planning in India was made by-
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) M. Visvesvaraya
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji
Ans: M. Visvesvaraya
13. Who was the founder of the Indian Association of Calcutta?
(A) Dadabhai Nasoroji
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) A.O. Hume
(D) Surendranath Banerjee
Ans: Surendranath Banerjee
14. Which company has become the new sponsor of the Indian Cricket team?
(A) Oppo
(B) Star India
(C) Reliance
(D) Vodafone
Ans: Oppo
15. With which country does India share the longest international boundary?
(A) Nepal
(B) Pakistan
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: Bangladesh
16. Zuari river is the largest river in the State of-
(A) Goa
(B) Assam
(C) Kerala
(D) Punjab
Ans: Goa
17. Who was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title?
(A) Geet Sethi
(B) Wilson Jones
(C) Michael Ferreira
(D) Manoj Kothari
Ans: Wilson Jones
18. Which of the following is the brightest planet as viewed from Earth?
(A) Jupiter
(B) Moon
(C) Mercury
(D) Venus
Ans: Venus
19. Which of the following folk dance forms is associated with Gujarat?
(A) Kathak
(B) Bhangra
(C) Kathakali
(D) Garba
Ans: Garba
20. Which of the following is NOT found on the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka?
(A) Bull
(B) Deer
(C) Elephant
(D) Horse
Ans: Deer
21. Which ruler of Bengal founded the ancient university called ‘Vikramshila’?
(A) Dharmapala
(B) Gopala
(C) Devpala
(D) Mahipala
Ans: Dharmapala
22. The first venture of Gandhi in All India Politics was the-
(A) Non-cooperation movement
(B) Rowlatt satyagraha
(C) Champaran movement
(D) Dandi march
Ans: Rowlatt satyagraha
23. Fort St George (White town), the first English (British) fortress in India was founded at-
(A) Bombay
(B) Chinsurah
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta
Ans: Madras
24. The Union of India consists of:
1. States
2. Union Territories
3. Acquired Territories
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 1, 2 and 3
25. INDOSAN-2016 is related to-
(A) Trade
(B) Cleanliness
(C) Military exercise
(D) Cybersecurity
Ans: Cleanliness
Part-B (Mathematics)
26. Bindhu and Sindhu started a business with initial investments in the ratio 14 : 10 and their annual profits were in the ratio of 7 : 3. If Bindhu invested the money for 10 months, for how many months did Sindhu invest her money?
(A) 5 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 7 months
(D) 8 months
Ans:
27. The product of two numbers is 2025 and their HCF is 15, their LCM is :
(A) 135
(B) 150
(C) 245
(D) 280
Ans: 135
28. The Compound Interest on Rs. 2000 at 5% per annum, compounded yearly, for 2 years is-
(A) Rs. 205
(B) Rs. 315
(C) Rs. 425
(D) None of these
Ans:
29. Choose the greatest 4 digit number which is exactly divisible by 6, 8, 12.
(A) 9984
(B) 9987
(C) 9996
(D) 9999
Ans:
30. In a bag, there are coins of 5 p, 25 p and 10 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there is Rs. 68 in all, how many 5 p coins are there?
(A) 40
(B) 80
(C) 90
(D) 100
Ans:
31. The average of 11 results is 50. If the average of first six results is 48 and that of the last six are 53, find the sixth result.
(A) 36
(B) 46
(C) 56
(D) 66
Ans:
32. A merchant allows a discount of 15% on the clothes purchased. Manohar purchases clothes worth Rs. 470. The money he will give is-
(A) Rs. 70.50
(B) Rs. 399.50
(C) Rs. 469
(D) Rs. 470.50
Ans:
33. Convert 0.903 to fraction.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans:
34. The length and breadth of a rectangular piece of land are in the ratio of 5 : 3. The owner spent Rs. 3000 for surrounding it from all the sides at Rs. 7.50 per metre. Find the difference between its length and breadth.
(A) 25 m
(B) 50 m
(C) 75 m
(D) 100 m
Ans:
35. Convert the following into a decimal value.
(A) 60.41
(B) 62.41
(C) 64.41
(D) 65.41
Ans:
36. If a + b = 20 and ab = 40, find a2 + b2.
(A) 300
(B) 320
(C) 340
(D) 360
Ans:
37. If sin 3A = cos (A – 26°) where 3A is an acute angle, find the value of A.
(A) 26°
(B) 29°
(C) 30°
(D) 64°
Ans:
38. A shop-keeper has a sale of Rs. 6500, Rs. 6527, Rs. 6800, Rs. 6230 and Rs. 6513 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6000?
(A) Rs. 3420
(B) Rs. 3430
(C) Rs. 3440
(D) Rs. 3450
Ans:
39. Danvanth does a work in 4 days and Daksh does the same work in 12 days. In how many days will they do the same work together?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 12
Ans:
40. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 900 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of Simple Interest?
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 1 year
(D) 4 years
Ans:
41. With a uniform speed, a car covers a distance in 8 hours. If the speed is increased by 3 km/hr, the same distance will be covered in 7 hours. Calculate the distance covered.
(A) 128 km
(B) 148 km
(C) 158 km
(D) 168 km
Ans:
42. Aryan began a business with Rs. 75000. After sometime, Baskar joined the business with Rs. 45000. For how much period does Baskar join, if the profits at the end of the year are divided in the ratio of 2 : 1?
(A) 7 months
(B) 8 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 10 months
Ans:
43. Sara sold a washing machine for Rs. 9499 at a gain of 15%. Find the cost p rice of the washing machine.
(A) Rs. 8000
(B) Rs. 8100
(C) Rs. 8260
(D) Rs. 8300
Ans:
44.
(A) 1
(B) 10
(C) 100
(D) 1000
Ans:
45. The price of a house is decreased from Rs. 1700000 to Rs. 1360000. Find the percentage of decrease.
(A) 3%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
Ans:
46. Find the HCF of 204, 1190 and 1445.
(A) 17
(B) 34
(C) 85
(D) 204
Ans:
47. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angles of elevation of the top of the lighthouse as observed from the ships are 30° and 45° If the lighthouse is 500 m high, the distance between the two ships is :
(A) 1366 m
(B) 1400 m
(C) 1563 m
(D) 1656 m
Ans:
48. The diagonals of a rectangle are-
(A) Equal to each other
(B) Not equal
(C) One is double of the other
(D) None of these
Ans:
49. If 16% of 25% of a number is 10, then the number is:
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 300
Ans:
50. What was the percentage drop in the number of B type tyres manufactured between 2013 and 2014 ?.
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
Ans:
Part-C English
51. Choose the correct alternative which will improve the quoted part of the given sentence. My brother “is good at” languages.
(A) Is good for
(B) is good in
(C) Is good of
(D) No improvement
Ans:
52. Choose the correct word/phrase to complete the following sentence. Within four or five days of eating contaminated foods, a person _____ to experience diarrhoea.
(A) Began
(B) Begun
(C) Is beginning
(D) Will begin
Ans:
53. Complete the proverb :
A _____ in hand is worth two in the bush.
(A) Dog
(B) Bird
(C) Book
(D) Rabbit
Ans: Bird
54. Choose the MISSPELT word.
(A) Extingushed
(B) Submersion
(C) Unwholesome
(D) Translucent
Ans: Extingushed
55. Choose the correct preposition from the given options to complete the sentence. I am found ____ reading novels.
(A) On
(B) In
(C) Of
(D) Out
Ans:
56. Choose the most appropriate verb from the given options to complete the sentence. Students ____ leave the classroom before the bell rings.
(A) Must
(B) Should
(C) Should not
(D) Would
Ans:
57. Choose from the four options, the word that best substitutes the given phrase. Not letting the light pass through.
(A) Opaque
(B) Transparent
(C) Translucent
(D) Dark
Ans:
58. Use the appropriate article for the sentence given below.
___ dinner hosted by Ramya was good.
(A) The
(B) An
(C) A
(D) No article
Ans:
59. Choose the correct antonym of the given word from the options given
ANCILLARY
(A) Attending
(B) Main
(C) Dangerous
(D) Powerful
Ans:
60. In the following question, each sentence has four pars marked P, Q, R and S. Choose the part of sentence with the error and mark as your answer.
Vijaya is not only eminent (P) / for his writing in English, (Q) / but also for his (R) / paintings on spiritual themes. (S)
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Ans:
61. Choose the correct synonym of the given word from the options given below.
PROTAGONIST
(A) Opponent
(B) Rebel
(C) Supporter
(D) Scientist
Ans:
62. Choose the correct antonym of the given word from the options given below.
ACME
(A) Bottom
(B) Bankrupt
(C) Falsehood
(D) Trustful
Ans:
63. In the following question, each sentence has four portions marked P, Q, R and S. Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.
The great advantage of early rising (P) / in our day’s work (Q) / it gives us (R) / is the good start (S)
(A) SPQR
(B) PSRQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PSQR
Ans:
64. Choose the correct tense from the given options to complete the sentence.
I ______ in Delhi next week.
(A) Will go
(B) Will be
(C) Shall go
(D) Would
Ans:
65. Choose the correct synonym of the given word from the options given below.
SWAB
(A) Wipe
(B) Chest
(C) Change
(D) Oscillate
Ans:
66. Choose the correct conjunction from the given options to complete the sentence _____ you have any doubt, please ask me.
(A) Incase
(B) Because
(C) Since
(D) Until
Ans:
67. Choose the correct particle from the given options to complete the sentence.
Get ______ as we have to leave for the party hurriedly.
(A) Dress
(B) Dressing
(C) Dressed
(D) Is Dressed
Ans:
68. Choose the meaning of the given idiomatic expression from the options given in quotes. He ‘did me a good turn’ by recommending me for the post of Vice-Principal.
(A) Returned my kindness
(B) Did an act of kindness
(C) Improved my prospects
(D) Became suddenly good
Ans:
69. Choose the correct adverb from the given options to complete the sentence.
I was too nervous to go ______ than halfway up the tower.
(A) Higher
(B) More high
(C) Most higher
(D) High
Ans:
70. Identify the correct sentence from the options given below
(A) I need to get new job
(B) I need to get a new job
(C) I need get new job
(D) I need to get jobs
Ans:
Directions (Q. 71 – 75) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
W humans are sued to thinking that our minds separate us from other animals. But new studies show that animals are quite intelligent and sensitive. Animal intelligence is not found only in mammals. It can be found in other animals, such as birds. Although we sometimes call people “birdbrains” as an insult. Our feathered friends can be very smart. Some can solve puzzles. For example, ravens can untie knots. Some birds can use tools. Some crows, for example, use twigs as spears. Some birds can even use our language.
An African grey parrot named Alex does more than just imitate human sounds. This parrot can name dozens of objects. It also seems to understand the ideas of “same”, “different” and “amount”.
Animals are able to feel emotions, too. This ability can be as painful for them as it is for humans. For example, some baboons live in groups, where the leaders control through fear, Low – ranking baboons can live in a constant state of stress. This stress can cause health problems, just as it does in humans. Some animals feel sadness when a family member dies. Elephants show interest even in decades-old elephant bones. Like humans, they are connected to each other in many ways.
71. What would be a suitable title for the above passage ?
(A) The human mind of birds
(B) Stress as a health problem for birds
(C) Baboons are a lot like birds
(D) Baboons feel emotions like humans
Ans:
72. What can you conclude about baboon societies after reading the passage?
(A) Baboons are different from other monkeys
(B) Baboons fight all of the time
(C) Baboons are a lot like birds
(D) Baboons feel emotions like humans
Ans:
73. Who lives in a constant state of stress according to the passage ?
(A) Baboons
(B) Ravens
(C) Birds
(D) Elephants
Ans:
74. How can Alex, the parrot, understand human sounds?
(A) Because the has practice
(B) Because he is very intelligent
(C) Because he mimics whatever her hears
(D) Because he grew up in a pet store
Ans:
75. What details in the text supports the idea that birds are smart ?
(A) Birds show interest and live in a constant stress
(B) Birds have their own language and user twigs as spears
SBI Assistant Manager System (ITSO) Examination 2015 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper with Answer Key
SBI Assistant Manager System (ITSO) Exam., 2015
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions – (Q. No. 1-5) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given you have to solve both the questions and given answer. It-
(A) x > y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y
(D) x ≤ y
(E) x = y or relationship cannot be established
1. I. x2 + 5x + 6 = 0
II. 2y2 + 7y + 6 = 0
Ans : (D)
2. I. x2 – 13x + 40 = 0
II. y2 – 11y + 28 = 0
Ans : (E)
3. I. x2 – 10x + 24 = 0
II. 3y2 – 19y + 28 = 0
Ans : (B)
4. I. 14 x2 – 13x + 3 = 0
II. 99y2 – 62y + 8 = 0
Ans : (E)
5. I. 2x2 – 15x + 28 = 0
II. 2y2 – 21y + 54 = 0
Ans : (C)
6. There are two bags A and B. Bag A contains 6 red balls and 10 green balls and Bag B contains 4 red balls and 6 green balls. One bag is selected at random. From the selected bag one bal is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is red ?
(A) 27/80
(B) 31/80
(C) 39/80
(D) 29/80
(E) 33/80
Ans : (B)
7. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. What is the ratio of their speeds.
(A) 1 : 3
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 3 : 4
(D) 1 : 2
(E) 2 : 1
Ans : (B)
Directions (Q. 8-13) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
8. 1 2 6 21 ? 445
(A) 150
(B) 185
(C) 84
(D) 292
(E) 88
Ans : (E)
9. 15 19 83 119 631 ?
(A) 731
(B) 693
(C) 712
(D) 683
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. ? 6 3 3 6 24 192
(A) 12
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 24
(E) 16
Ans : (D)
11. 43 69 58 84 73 ?
(A) 62
(B) 98
(C) 109
(D) 63
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
12. 3 3 6.4 11.5 18.3 ?
(A) 21.8
(B) 25.6
(C) 27.4
(D) 32.3
(E) 26.8
Ans : (E)
13. 16 18 28 54 ? 186
(A) 112
(B) 104
(C) 124
(D) 82
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
14. A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs. 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of a year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is how much ?
(A) Rs. 120
(B) Rs. 121
(C) Rs. 123
(D) Rs. 122
(E) Rs. 119
Ans : (B)
15. Fifty-three per cent of number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three fourth of 23 per cent of that number ?
(A) 101
(B) 109.5
(C) 113
(D) 103.5
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions – (Q. 16-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question ?
16. (8)75 × (4096)0.25 ÷ (64)−1 = (8) ?
(A) 2.25
(B) 3.0
(C) 3.25
(D) 3.50
(E) 3.75
Ans : (E)
17.
(A) 36
(B) 39
(C) 42
(D) 45
(E) 48
Ans : (B)
18. 8% of 550 – 3.2% of 750 = ?
(A) 5.4
(B) 4.8
(C) 4.2
(D) 3.6
(E) 2.4
Ans : (E)
19.
(A) 476
(B) 676
(C) 784
(D) 1024
(E) 1156
Ans : (B)
20. 5% of 8924.19 + 22% of 5324.42 = ?
(A) 6278
(B) 6128
(C) 6228
(D) 5624
(E) 6838
Ans : (E)
21. How many ways are there in selecting 5 members from 6 males and 5 females, consisting 3 males and 2 females ?
(A) 200
(B) 300
(C) 400
(D) 500
(E) 550
Ans : (A)
Directions- (Q. 22-27) Data regarding number of boys and girls studying is standard X of five different schools.
22. What is difference between total number of boys studying in schools B and C together and the total number of girls in the same schools together ?
(A) 350
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 309
(E) 370
Ans : (A)
23. The number of students (boys and girls together) studying in school B are what per cent less than that in school D ?
(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 40
(D) 25
(E) 30
Ans : (E)
24. Number of students (boys and girls together) in standard V of school E is 20% less than those in standard X of the same school. How many students study in standard V in the same school ?
(A) 506
(B) 472
(C) 420
(D) 464
(E) 524
Ans : (B)
25. Number of boys studying in school E is what per cent more than the number of boys studying in school A ?
(A) 48
(B) 52
(C) 32
(D) 45
(E) 64
Ans : (B)
26. What is the respective ratio between the number of students (boys and girls together) studying in school A and that in school C ?
(A) 7 : 11
(B) 25 : 27
(C) 21 : 23
(D) 21 : 22
(E) 27 : 25
Ans : (C)
27. What is the average number of girls studying in schools C, D and E
(A) 180
(B) 150
(C) 250
(D) 205
(E) 210
Ans : (E)
Directions – (Q. No. 28-33) Study the following table carefully and answer the question given.
Note – Faculty Members consist of only Professors and Associate Professors in the given Universities.
28. The number of male Associate Professors in University A is what per cent of the number of female Associate Professors in the same university ?
(A) 26
(B) 28
(C) 22
(D) 15
(E) 25
Ans : (E)
29. What is the average number of Associate Professor in Universities C and D together ?
(A) 54
(B) 50
(C) 52
(D) 48
(E) 46
Ans : (D)
30. The total number of Professors in Universities A and C together is approximately what per cent less than the total number of Associate Professors in the same Universities together ?
(A) 37
(B) 58
(C) 48
(D) 42
(E) 28
Ans : (D)
31. What is the respective ratio between the number of female professors in University B and that in University D ?
(A) 17 : 11
(B) 13 : 11
(C) 15 : 11
(D) 17 : 12
(E) 13 : 12
Ans : (E)
32. What percentage of the total number of faculty members in Universities A and B together are male Associate Professors ?
(A) 12
(B) 14.5
(C) 15
(D) 13
(E) 16.5
Ans : (C)
33. What is difference between the total number of male faculty members in Universities B and D together and the total number of female faculty members in Universities A and C together ?
(A) 60
(B) 69
(C) 75
(D) 72
(E) 70
Ans : (E)
34. The cylinder of radius 8 m and height 10 m is melted down and all the metal is used to recast a new solid cylinder with radius 12 m. What is the height of the new cylinder ? (in m)
(A)
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D)
(E)
Ans : (A)
35. The cost prices of two tables are same. One is sold at a profit of 20% and the other for Rs. 340 more than the first one. If the overall profit earned after selling the tables is 24%, what is the cost price of each table ?
United Bank Of India Probationary Officers Examination Held on 7-8-2016 Reasoning Question Paper with Answer Key
United Bank Of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2016
Held on 7-8-2016
Reasoning
Directions- (Q. 1-6) in these question three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Given Answer :
(A) If conclusion I follows
(B) If conclusion II follows
(C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) Both conclusion I and II follow
(E) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
1. Statements :
Some juices are cans.
All cans are drinks.
All juices are beverages.
Conclusions :
I. No drink is a juice.
II. All drinks being beverages is a possibility.
Ans : (B)
2. Statements :
All animals are plants.
All plants are insects.
Some insects are reptiles.
Conclusions :
I. All animals are insects.
II. All reptiles being animals is a possibility.
Ans : (D)
3. Statements :
Some juices are cans.
All cans are drinks.
All juices are beverages
Conclusions :
I. Atleast some beverages are cans.
II. No beverage is a can.
Ans : (A)
4. Statements :
No star is a moon.
All planets are moon.
No planet is an asteroid.
Conclusions :
I. All moon being asteroids is a possibility.
II. No star is a planet.
Ans : (B)
5. Statements :
No star is a moon.
All planets are moon.
No planet is an asteroid.
Conclusions :
I. All asteroids being moon is a possibility.
II. No asteroid is a star.
Ans : (A)
6. Statements :
All animals are plants.
All plants are insects.
Some insects are reptiles.
Conclusions :
I. Atleast some plants are reptiles.
II. All insects are plants.
Ans : (E)
Directions –(Q. 7-9) Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’
If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’
7. Which of the following relation/s is/are true based upon the relation’s given in the expression ?
S – T + V ÷ Y × Z
(a) Z is the brother of T.
(b) S is the grandmother of Y.
(c) T is the aunt of Z.
(d) V is the son of T.
(A) Only (b)
(B) Only (a) and (c)
(C) Only (d)
(D) Both (b) and (c)
(E) Only (a)
Ans : (D)
8. In the expression ‘P ÷ Q – R + T’ then how is R related to P ?
(A) Granddaughter
(B) Grandfather
(C) Grandson
(D) Nephew
(E) Either ‘Nephew’ or ‘Niece’
Ans : (A)
9. In a certain code language, ‘DESTINY’ is written as ‘EFTQHMX’ and PLANETS’ is written as ‘QMBKDSR’. How is ‘ROUTERS’ written in that code ?
(A) QNTWFST
(B) QNTODOR
(C) URXSBOP
(D) SPVQDQR
(E) SPVWHUV
Ans : (D)
10. This question consist of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weaken/s or strengthen/s the information and decide the appropriate answer.
Information : Installation of wind energy systems should be encouraged to meet the energy requirements in common house-holds rather than solar systems as wind energy systems are more economical.
I. More the number of moving parts in an energy system equipment, more is the frequency of replacements needed due to recurrent wear and tear.
II. Manufacture, transportation and installation of solar as well as wind energy systems have been associated with the use of toxic and hazardous product which adversely affect the environment.
(A) Both statement I and statement II weaken the information.
(B) Both statement I and statement II are neutral statements.
(C) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the information.
(D) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information
(E) Statement I weakens the information while statement II is neutral statement.
Ans : (A)
11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STADIUMS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
(A) None
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) More than three
(E) One
Ans : (B)
Directions – (Q. 12-17) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of wards and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers).
Input : 30 overcome ado 67 18 lie so 85 74 come
I : admit 30 overcome 67 18 lie so 74 come 84
II : commit admit 30 overcome 67 18 lie so 84 73
III : limit commit admit 30 overcome 18 so 84 73 66 29
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of the above arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input : 61 ox herb 33 86 intern sums 28 49 perk
12. In step III, how many elements are there between ‘56’ and the third element from the left end ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) More than three
(E) Two
Ans : (D)
13. Which of the following is the sixth element from the left end of step II ?
(A) sums
(B) hermit
(C) to
(D) perk
(E) 28
Ans : (E)
14. ‘sums’ is related to ‘85’ in the same way as ‘omit’ is related to ‘48’ in step V. Following the same pattern to which element is perk related to in step IV ?
(A) intern
(B) ox
(C) 28
(D) 33
(E) herb
Ans : (C)
15. What is the difference between the fourth element from the right end in step IV and fourth element from the right end in step V ?
(A) 27
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 25
(E) Other than those given as options
Ans : (D)
16. In step V, which of the following elements does not appear between ‘permit’ and fourth element from the right end ?
(A) intermit
(B) hermit
(C) omit
(D) 32
(E) 85
Ans : (D)
17. The position of how many digits will remain the same if the digits in the number 49735812 are rearranged in the descending order within the number, from left to right ?
(A) One
(B) More than three
(C) None
(D) Two
(E) Three
Ans : (A)
Directions- (Q. 18-19) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Anil starts from point P and walks 15 m towards north and reaches point Q. He then takes a right turn and walks 10 m and reaches point R. he again takes a right turn and walks 25 m and reaches point S. He takes a left turn and walks for 5 m and reaches point T. He again takes a left turn and walks for 30 m to reach point U. From here he takes a left turn and walks 15 m and stops at point V.
18. If Amit stands at point T, then in which direction is he with respect to the starting point ?
(A) South-East
(B) North-East
(C) South-West
(D) South
(E) East
Ans : (A)
19. How far is Amit from the starting point ?
(A) 20 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 25 m
(E) 30 m
Ans : (A)
Directions – (Q. 20 – 24) Study the following information and answer the question.
Seven people, P, Q, R, S, T U and V launched products in seven different months (of the same year) namely January, February, May, June, September, November and December but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also likes a different state namely Gujarat, Punjab, Odisha, Haryana, Assam, Sikkim and Telangana but not necessarily in the same order.
R launched product in a month which has 31 days. Only three people launched products between R and the one who likes Haryana. T launched product immediately before the one who likes Haryana. T did not launch product iin a month which h as less than 30 days. P launched product immediately before the one who likes Odisha. P launched product in a month which has 31 days. Only two people launched products between the one who like Odisha and V. The one who likes Gujarat launched product in a month which has more than 30 days but not in January. V neither likes Gujarat nor Sikkim. Q launched product in a month immediately before the one who likes Sikkim. The one who likes Punjab launched product after the one who likes Sikkim. U launched product in a month which has less than 30 days. The one who likes Assam launched product in one of the months before U.
20. How many people launched products between the months in which U and T launched product ?
(A) Two
(B) More than three
(C) Three
(D) One
(E) None
Ans : (D)
21. If launched product in July, then who amongst the following launched product immediately before W ?-
(A) The one who likes Sikkim
(B) The one who likes Assam
(C) R
(D) T
(E) U
Ans : (D)
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence forma group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) VT
(B) RT
(C) PS
(D) PU
(E) QU
Ans : (D)
23. Which of the following represents the people who launched products in May and November respectively –
(A) P, S
(B) M, R
(C) R, T
(D) T, Q
(E) S, U
Ans : (A)
24. Which of the following states does S like ?
(A) Telangana
(B) Haryana
(C) Odisha
(D) Sikkim
(E) Other than those given as
Ans : (D)
Directions – (Q. 25-30) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. Each of them speaks a different language namely – Marathi, English, Hindi, Bengali, Malyalam, Tamil, Gujarat and Urdu but not necessarily in the same order.
Theo ne who speaks Malyalam sits second to the right of W. Only two people sit between the one who speaks Malyalam and the one who speaks Gujarati. Only two people sit between V and U. U is an immediate neighbour of W. The one who speaks Hindi sits second to the right of U. T sits to the immediate right of the one who speaks Hindi. Only three people sit between T and the one who speaks Marathi. The one who speaks Tamil sits second to the left of the one who speaks Marathi. S sits to the immediate left of P. The one who speaks Urdu sits second to the right of P. Only three people sit between the one who speaks Bengali and the one who speaks English. The one who speaks Bengali is not an immediate neighbour of T. R sits second to the left of the one who speaks English.
25. Which of the following will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the given arrangement ?
Bengal V Hindi P English (?)
(A) S
(B) W
(C) T
(D) Q
(E) Other than those given as options
Ans : (B)
26. What is the position of U with respect to the one who speaks Malyalam ?
(A) Immediate right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Second to the right
Ans : (D)
27. Who sits second to the left of the one who speaks Gujarati ?
(A) V
(B) W
(C) T
(D) Q
(E) U
Ans : (D)
28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
(A) Q-Hindi
(B) V-English
(C) R-Bengali
(D) U-Gujarati
(E) P-Tamil
Ans : (B)
29. Which of the following is true regarding O ?
(A) Q sits third to the right of U
(B) Only three people sit between Q and P.
(C) Q is an immediate neighbour of the one who speaks Tamil
(D) Q sits second to the left of P.
(E) Q speaks Malyalam.
Ans : (C)
30. How many people are sitting between the one who speaks Marathi and R when counted from the left of R ?
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) More than three
(D) Three
(E) One
Ans : (B)
Directions – (Q. 31-35) Study the information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code,
‘place satellite in orbit’ is written as ‘jo ki la si’
‘orbit moon in circle’ is written as ‘bp la mi jo’
‘circle earth through satellite’ is written as ‘si dv tu bp’
‘moon navigation gone through’ is written as ‘js mi dv hm’
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
31. What is the possible code for ‘place through committee’ in the given code language ?
(A) mi ki hm
(B) kl dv jo
(C) to dv tu
(D) ty dv ki
(E) dv mi ki
Ans : (D)
32. What is the code for ‘satellite’ in the given code language ?
(A) la
(B) ki
(C) si
(D) bp
(E) jo
Ans : (C)
33. What is the code for ‘earth’ in the given code language ?
(A) mi
(B) si
(C) dv
(D) tu
(E) bp
Ans : (D)
34. What does the code ‘hm’ stand for tin the given code language ?
(A) earth
(B) Either ‘navigation’ or ‘gone’
(C) Either ‘moon or ‘through’
(D) through
(E) moon
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following may stand for ‘jo wk la’ in the given code language ?
(A) orbit the moon
(B) launch in orbit
(C) orbit in circle
(D) satellite in navigation
(E) orbit moon closely
Ans : (B)
Directions – (Q. 36-40) These questions consist of a question and two statements, I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.
(A) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) The data in both statements I and II together necessary to answer the question
(E) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
36. Is C the son of S ?
I. S is the father of F. F is the only sister of B. B is married to K. K is the only child of L, and sister-in-law of C.
II. F is the sister of C. F is the daughter of T. T is the mother of B. B is the son of S. S has only one daughter.
Ans : (C)
37. How many people are sitting in a circle, where all the people are facing the centre ?
I. B sits third to the right of M. Only one person sits between B and P. P sits third to the left of Q. P is an immediate neighbour of V.
II. P sits second to the left of M. V is an immediate neighbour of P. V sits second to the right of S. Only one person sits between S and M.
Ans : (D)
38. Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows seating five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-J, K, Lm M and N are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2, D, E, F G and H are seated and all of them are facing north. (therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.) Who amongst D, E, F G and H faces L ?
I. M sits third to the left of K. The one who faces M sits to the immediate right of F. L is an immediate neighbour of J. D sits second to the right of G. G does not sit at an extreme end of the line.
II. N Sits at an extreme end of the line. Only two people sit between N and J. The one who faces J sits to the immediate left of F. E sits second to the left of F. Only one person sits between L and K.
Ans : (D)
39. Among six people, A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different number of experience viz. 4, 9, 13, 15, 22 and 27 years (but not necessarily in the same order), who is the person with second lowest experience?
I. Only two people are more experienced than B. F is less experienced than B but more than A. Both E and C are more experienced than D. D’s experience is an even number.
II. C is more experienced than F but less than E. Both A and D are less experienced than F. B is more experienced than D. B’s experience is in odd number.
Ans : (A)
40. Point R is in which direction with respect to point T ?
I. Point M is 20 m to the south of Point T. Point T is 15 m to the east of point L. Point L is 40 m to the north of Point X. Point X is exactly between Points R and C such that points R, X and C respectively form a horizontal straight line of 30 m.
II. Point R is 30 m to the north of Point J. Point J is 15 m to the west of Point S. Point S is 30 m to the south of Point U. Point U is 10 m to the west of Point M. Point T is to the north of Point M.
Ans : (C)
41. This question consists of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statement/s could be reasons for the given information and select the appropriate answer.
Information : Despite several pleas from the women employees, with young children, of company XYZ the company has not started a babysitting facility within the premises of the company giving rise to a sense of dissatisfaction regarding the company amongst some employees.
I. In order to start babysitting facility within the premises a company needs minimum 300 women employees, while the number of women employees of company XYZ is only 30% of the total employees population.
II. The number of employees having children young enough to avail the baby sitting facility is less than the required number as per the policies of the company.
(A) Neither I nor II can be reasons for the given information.
(B) Only II can be a reason for the given information.
(C) Both I and II can be reasons for the given information.
(D) Only I can be a reason for the given information.
(E) Either I or II can be a reason for the given information.
Ans : (A)
Directions – (Q.42-44) Read the given information carefully and answer the question which follows :
42. Statement : The use of polybags leads to hazards and environmental pollution and should be replaced by cloth or jute bags’.
−A report.
Which of the following does not strengthen the given report?
(A) Certain environmental programs have recommended a banon all plastic bags globally.
(B) State government has imposed a plastic bag tax to discourage people from using plastic bags.
(C) Plastic bags are end products made from the remains of petroleum and natural gas and create greenhouse gases.
(D) The polybags are a convenient way to carry gods that can travel long distances even in heavy storms and rains.
(E) The cost of plastic bag cleanup from the environment is about Rs. 10,000 per bag per year.
Ans : (D)
43. Statement : The government has recently banned alcohol in the states.
Which of the following weakens the step taken by the government ?
(A) Alcohol abuse cause many consumers to resort to domestic violence.
(B) There are many people who are immature to understand the consequences of alcohol intake.
(C) People commit suicide and murder under the influence of alcohol.
(D) Alcohol production and distribution provides jobs to several people.
(E) A sizeable number of road accidents are caused by driving under the influence of alcohol.
Ans : (D)
44. Solar energy is widely and readily available free of cost. The government should promote the use of this energy by offering subsides.
Which of the following weakens the given statement ?
(A) Initial installation is required in installation of solar panels and solar cells that are used for power generation.
(B) Solar energy is an inexhaustible fuel source and often free from noise.
(C) A large number of solar panels are needed to generate even a small amount of energy making it unfeasible alternative for conventional sources of energy.
(D) Energy generation through solar panels leads to less pollution as compared to conventional sources of energy.
(E) Villages lack in power supply to power produced through solar energy can be made available to villages for consumption at an affordable rate.
Ans : (C)
Directions (Q. 45-50) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight friends – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table. All of them are facing the centre. Each of them likes different colours i.e., orange, red, purple, green, yellow, brown, pink and white but not necessarily in the same order.
The one who likes brown sits second to the right of the one likes red. The one who likes pink is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes green. H is second to the right of F.
D likes white colour. C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. The one who likes yellow sits to the immediate left of B.
There are only three people sits between the one who likes white and A. Only one person sits between the one who likes green and A. The one who likes red sits to the immediate right of the one who likes green.
B sits second to the left of F. Neither C nor E likes green. The one who likes white is an immediate neighbour of F. C is second to the right of the one who likes orange.
45. Who among the following likes purple colour ?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) G
(D) F
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
46. In the arrangement, how many persons are there between F and E ?
(A) Five
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. Which of the following statement is true about G?
(A) G is an immediate neighbour of A and the person who likes yellow
(B) The immediate neighbour of A and the person who likes yellow
(C) G is third to the right of the person who likes brown
(D) None of the statement is true
(E) G sits opposite to C, who likes yellow
Ans : (E)
48. Who among the following sits third to the right of D?
(A) H, who likes red
(B) A, who likes orange
(C) B, who likes white
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
49. Four these five forms a group in a certain way as per the given arrangement. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
Bihar Judicial Services (Pre.) Examination Held on 13-8-2016 Genera Studies Question Paper with Answer Key
Bihar Judicial Services (Pre.) Exam., 2016
Held on 13-8-2016
General Studies
1. The system of ‘Dagh’ and ‘Huliya’ was introduced by –
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(C) Balban
(D) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
Ans : (B)
2. English traveller William Hawkins visited India during the time of which Mughal emperor ?
(A) Shah Jahan
(B) Akbar
(C) Aurangzeb
(D) Jahangir
Ans : (D)
3. The ‘Iqtadari’ system was introduced by-
(A) Balban
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(D) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
Ans : (B)
4. What was the name of the Persian translation of Mahabharat ?
(A) Sakinat-ul-Auliya
(B) Sirrul Asrar
(C) Anwar-i-Suhaili
(D) Razmnama
Ans : (D)
5. Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagar empire was a contemporary of-
(A) Akbar
(B) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Babur
(D) Balban
Ans : (C)
6. Baburanama was composed in which language ?
(A) Turkish
(B) Persian
(C) Arabic
(D) Urdu
Ans : (A)
7. ‘Servants of Indian Society’ was founded by-
(A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Govind Ranade
Ans : (A)
8. Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was passed during the time of which Governor-General
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinage
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Linlithgow
Ans : (C)
9. Who was the author of History of British India ?
(A) James Mill
(B) V.A. Smith
(C) V.D. Savarkar
(D) R.C. Majumdar
Ans : (A)
10. Which was the first newspaper published in India ?
(A) Bengal Gazette
(B) Calcutta Gazette
(C) Bombay Herlad
(D) Bengal Journal
Ans : (A)
11. “Go back to the Vedas.” Who gave this slogan ?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Keshav Chandra Sen
(C) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Ans : (D)
12. Arya Samaj was established in-
(A) 1870
(B) 1872
(C) 1873
(D) 1875
Ans : (D)
13. The worst famine in India under the British rule occurred during-
(A) 1860-1861
(B) 1876-1878
(C) 1896-1897
(D) 1899-1900
Ans : (B)
14. Who among the following women was associated with the revolutionary movement ?
(A) Toru Dutt
(B) Ramabai
(C) Bhikaji Cama
(D) Gangabai
Ans : (C)
15. Simon Commission visited India in-
(A) 1927
(B) 1928
(C) 1929
(D) 1930
Ans : (B)
16. Under which Act were the Muslims provided separate electorates in British India ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(C) Indian Council Act, 1861
(D) Montagu – Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
Ans : (B)
17. Who among the following woman social reformers was called ‘Pandit’ ?
(A) Gangabai
(B) Ramabai
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Sister Subbalakshmi
Ans : (B)
18. Where did the Indigo Revolt take place ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)
19. Queen Victoria’s proclamation took place in-
(A) 1856
(B) 1858
(C) 1859
(D) 1860
Ans : (B)
20. Who among the following authors has called the Revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence ?
(A) R.C. Majumdar
(B) S. N. Sen
(C) V. D. Savarkar
(D) Ashok Mehta
Ans : (C)
21. ‘Abhinav Bharat’ founded in 1904 was-
(A) a secret organization of revolutionary activities
(B) a newspaper
(C) a cultural organization
(D) a trade union movement
Ans : (A)
22. “History is a continuous process of interaction between past and present.” Who said this ?
(A) E. H. Carr
(B) Charles Firth
(C) Karl Marx
(D) V. A. Smith
Ans : (A)
23. The famine code for India was recommended by which Commission ?
(A) MacDonnell Commission
(B) Campbell Commission
(C) Lyall Commission
(D) Strachey Commission
Ans : (A)
24. Who was associated 2wwith the newspaper, Mooknayak ?
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) M. N. Roy
(D) Annie Besant
Ans : (B)
25. Who among the following has called Tilak as ‘Father of Indian Unrest ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Powell Price
(D) Valentine Chirol
Ans : (D)
26. Who among the following persons was considered by Gandhiji as his ‘Political Guru’ ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) M. G. Ranade
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (C)
27. New India and Commonweal news-papers were associated with-
(A) R. C. Dutt
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Annie Besant
Ans : (D)
28. Who was the founder of Deccan Education Society ?
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Firoz Shah Mehta
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)
29. The manuscript of Arthashastra was discovered by –
(A) Sir William Jones
(B) Shamshastri
(C) Ram Gopal Bhandarkar
(D) James Mill
Ans : (B)
30. Who was the author of the famous text, Mudharakshasa ?
(A) Vishakhadutta
(B) Kalidas
(C) Sudraka
(D) Rajshekhar
Ans : (A)
31. The first Buddhist Council was summoned by-
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Ashoka
(C) Ajatasatru
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (C)
32. Mahatma Buddha gave his first sermon at-
(A) Lumbini
(B) Bodh Gaya
(C) Sarnath
(D) Kapilvastu
Ans : (C)
33. Which archaeological site is associated with the Mauryan palace ?
(A) Kaushambi
(B) Taxila
(C) Hastinapur
(D) Kumrahar
Ans : (D)
34. Which Rock Edict of Ashoka mentions the Kalinga War ?
(A) (XIII) Thirteenth
(B) (VIII) Eighth
(C) (II) Second
(D) (V) Fifth
Ans : (A)
35. Rajarajeshwara temple at Tanjore is the finest example of which architecture ?
(A) Pallava
(B) Chalukya
(C) Chola
(D) Pandya
Ans : (C)
36. Match the following –
(a) Bhotiya (b) Gujjar
(c) Gaddi (d) Dafla
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Kashmir
4. Uttarakhand
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
Ans : (A)
37. The largest reserves of sal forest is found in-
(A) Nilgiri hills
(B) Dun valley
(C) Aravallies
(D) Assam
Ans : (D)
38. Telangana State is surrounded by which of the following groups of States ?
(A) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
(B) Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra and Karnataka
(C) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)
39. Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) separates –
(A) Ganga Plain and Siwaliks
(B) Siwaliks and Lesser Himalaya
(C) Lesser Himalaya and Greater Himalaya
(D) Greater Himalaya and Trans-Himalaya
Ans : (B)
40. The valley of flowers is located in –
(A) Himachal Himalaya
(B) Garhwal Himalaya
(C) Kashmir Himalaya
(D) Nepal Himalaya
Ans : (B)
41. In India, coal is found in the geological formation of-
(A) Dharwar
(B) Vindhyan
(C) Gondwana
(D) Kadapa
Ans : (C)
42. Rohtang pass connects the valleys of-
(A) Bhagirathi and Alaknanda
(B) Kali and Dholi
(C) Kulu and Spiti
(D) Jhelam and Ravi
Ans : (C)
43. The basic reason of winter rain fall in northwestern part of India is-
(A) south-west monsoon
(B) trade wind
(C) retreating of monsoon
(D) western disturbances
Ans : (D)
44. Laterite soils is found mostly in-
(A) Karnataka
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (A)
45. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
(A) Bhakra nangal Dam−Satluj
(B) Sardar Sarovar Dam−Narmada
(C) Hirakud Dam−Mahanadi
(D) Nagarjun Sagar Dam−Godavari
Ans : (D)
46. Which of the following river-valleys was deeply affected by the calamity of June 2013 ?
(A) Alaknada
(B) Mandakini
(C) Nandakini
(D) Bhagirathi
Ans : (B)
47. Match the following
(a) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant
(b) Rawatbhata Nuclear Power Plant
(c) Kakrapar Nuclear Power Plant
(d) Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
Ans : (C)
48. What does ‘ITCZ’ mean ?
(A) Inter-Temperate Convergence Zone
(B) Inter-Topical Convergence Zone
(C) India-Thailand Convergence Zone
(D) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone
Ans : (D)
49. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ghagra
(B) Kosi
(C) Yamuna
(D) Chambal
Ans : (D)
50. Amarkantak is the place of origin of-
(A) Sone, Narmada, Mahanadi
(B) Sone, Chambal and Betwa
(C) Narmada, Venganga and Ken
(D) Mahandi, Tapti and Sone
Ans : (A)
51. India’s largest National Cancer Institute is set up in which of the following States ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
52. Which of the following countries has hosted the International Neutrality Conference ?
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Turkmenistan
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (C)
53. Which of the following committees has been appointed to look into dispute between ONGC and RIL on KG gas fields ?
(A) Pradhan Committee
(B) A.P. Shah Committee
(C) M. B. Shah Committee
(D) Deshmukh Committee
Ans : (B)
54. Which of the following is the first bank to tie up with Indian railways to sell rail tickets through its web site ?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) Axis Bank Ltd.
(D) Punjab National Bank
Ans : (B)
55. Which of the following banks is the World’s largest bank by assets ?
(A) Bank of America
(B) Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC)
(C) BNP Paribas
(D) Bank of China
Ans : (B)
56. Which of the following space agencies has launched the LISA Pathfinder ?
(A) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
(B) NASA
(C) European Space Agency
(D) China National Space Administration
Ans : (C)
57. The new Parliament building of which of the following countries is built by India ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Maldives
Ans : (B)
58. Which of the following committees suggested initiatives on Revisiting and Revitalizing PPP Model ?
(A) Dinesh Pachori Committee
(B) Arun Pasricha Committee
(C) Vijay Kelkar Committee
(D) Deepak Mohanty Committee
Ans : (C)
59. Who among the following has been appointed as the new Director-General of National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) ?
(A) Arvind Subramanian
(B) Bibek Debroy
(C) Gaynendra Bandgaiyan
(D) Sanjay Madhav
Ans : (C)
60. Which of the following States is planning to construct the first ever underwater road tunnel in the country ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Kerala
Ans : (C)
61. Which of the following countries has announced to adopt Chinese Yuan as its legal currency ?
(A) Greece
(B) Egypt
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Namibia
Ans : (C)
62. Salma Dam project is being under reconstruction in which of the following countries ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Bangladesh
Ans : (C)
63. Which of the following countries has launched the DAMPE satellite ?
(A) China
(B) Russia
(C) Japan
(D) USA
Ans : (A)
64. Which of the following countries has approved world’s first dengue vaccine ?
(A) United Kingdom
(B) Canada
(C) Mexico
(D) France
Ans : (C)
65. Which of the following American Universities has launched the A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Fellowship for Indian students ?
(A) Harvard University
(B) University of South Florida
(C) University of California, Berkeley
(D) University of Chicago
Ans : (B)
66. Which of the following countries recently became a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Bhutan
(D) Ethiopia
Ans : (B)
67. Which of the following organization has sanctioned $ 1.5 billion loan to support the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) ?
(A) World Bank
(B) IMF
(C) ADB
(D) Japan Bank for International Cooperation
Ans : (A)
68. In which of the following Indian States Lokayukta has been appointed by the Supreme Court of India by using its extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (A)
69. Satellites of which of the following countries have been successfully launched by using ISRO’s PSLV C29 ?
(A) Canada
(B) Singapore
(C) Indonesia
(D) Saudi Arabia
Ans : (B)
70. As per the 2015 Human Development Report (HDR), what was India’s rank in Human Development Index (HDI) for 2014 ?
(A) 121
(B) 130
(C) 132
(D) 138
Ans : (B)
71. Green Revolution means –
(A) use of green manure
(B) Grow more corps
(C) high yield variety programmes
(D) green vegetation
Ans : (B)
72. Pedology is the science related to the study of-
(A) atmosphere
(B) soil
(C) pollutants
(D) seeds
Ans : (B)
73. The unit of electrical resistance of a conductor is-
(A) farad
(B) volt
(C) ampere
(D) ohm
Ans : (D)
74. The step that produces largest number of ATP molecules in our system is-
(A) glycolysis
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) terminal respiratory chain
(D) hydrolysis
Ans : (A)
75. Brass is an alloy of-
(A) copper and iron
(B) zinc and iron
(C) copper and zinc
(D) iron and nickel
Ans : (C)
76. When beams of red, blue and green lights fall on the same spot, the colour of the light becomes –
(A) violet
(B) red
(C) yellow
(D) white
Ans : (D)
77. Which organ of the human body does the Alzheimer’s disease affect ?
(A) Ear
(B) Brain
(C) Eye
(D) Stomach
Ans : (B)
78. How many units of electricity will be consumed if you use a 60 watt electric bulb for 5 hours everyday for 30 days ?
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C) 6
(D) 3
Ans : (B)
79. Soda water obtained by passing carbon dioxide in water is –
(A) an oxidizing agent
(B) basic in nature
(C) acidic in nature
(D) a reducing agent
Ans : (C)
80. Which of the following is not a kharif crop ?
(A) Groundnut
(B) Maize
(C) Masoor
(D) Paddy
Ans : (C)
81. The radioactive isotope used to control leukemia is-
(A) Phosphorus 32
(B) Cobalt 60
(C) Iodine 131
(D) Sodium 24
Ans : (A)
82. White rust is an important fungal disease of-
(A) wheat
(B) mustard
(C) rice
(D) bajra
Ans : (B)
83. Liver fluke lives in the bile duct of-
(A) horse
(B) cow
(C) man
(D) sheep
Ans : (D)
84. Nucleus of helium contains –
(A) only one proton
(B) two proton
(C) two proton and two neutrons
(D) one proton and two neutrons
Ans : (C)
85. Of the following diseases, which one is caused by insect bite ?
(A) Scurvy
(B) Dengue
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Asthma
Ans : (B)
86. The class of food having highest caloric value per unit weight is –
(A) vitamin
(B) fat
(C) carbohydrate
(D) protein
Ans : (B)
87. Baking soda is-
(A) sodium carbohydrate
(B) sodium bicarbonate
(C) sodium sulphate
(D) sodium hydroxide
Ans : (B)
88. Density of water is the highest at the temperature of-
(A) 0℃
(B) 4℃
(C) 50℃
(D) 100℃
Ans : (B)
89. In which of the following organs bile is stored ?
(A) Spleen
(B) Pancreas
(C) Appendix
(D) Gallbladder
Ans : (D)
90. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes the disease of slow blood clotting ?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin K
Ans : (D)
91. Which of the following acids does not contain oxygen ?
(A) Nitric acid
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Hydrochloric acid
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)
92. Which of the following is not biodegradable ?
(A) Domestic sewage
(B) Lab detergents
(C) Soap
(D) Plant leaves
Ans : (C)
93. The atomic nucleus was discovered by-
(A) Rutherford
(B) Dalton
(C) Einstein
(D) Thompson
Ans : (A)
94. The branch of Physics that deals with the motion of a very small particle is called –
(A) Field Theory
(B) Particle Physics
(C) Quantum Mechanics
(D) Atomic Physics
Ans : (C)
95. Which of the following foods provides the nutrient for the growth of new tissues in the human body ?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Cheese
(D) Sweets
Ans : (D)
96. Which of the following is the largest air pollutant ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Hydrocarbons
Ans : (B)
97. In binary code, the number 7 is written as-
(A) 110
(B) 111
(C) 101
(D) 100
Ans : (A)
98. Anthophobia is fear of which of the following ?
(A) Boss
(B) Fire
(C) Flowers
(D) Dogs
Ans : (C)
99. Clove is obtained from-
(A) root
(B) stem
(C) fruit
(D) flower bud
Ans : (D)
100. Which of the following fights infection in the body ?
Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (Mains) Examination Held on 20-9-2016 General Studies I Question Paper with Answer Key
Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (Mains) Exam., 2016
Held on 20-9-2016
General Studies-I
1. In which of the following Five Year Plans anti-poverty programmes based on the theme “Garibit Hatao’ was first introduced ?
(A) Third Five Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five Year Plan
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan
(D) Sixth Five Year Plan
Ans : (C)
2. India became the largest exporter of rice (2015) replacing –
(A) China
(B) Thailand
(C) Indonesia
(D) Vietnam
Ans : (B)
3. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
Agricultural Produce (2015) State
(A) Largest producer of coffee Karnataka
(B) Largest producer of Potato Madhya Pradesh
(C) Largest producer of cotton Gujarat
(D) Largest producer of wheat Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
4. Which of the following countries is said to have started withdrawal of its forces from Syria in March 2016 ?
(A) Iran
(B) Turkey
(C) Russia
(D) Britain
Ans : (C)
5. The Nuclear Security Summit 2016 was held at –
(A) Washington DC
(B) Seoul
(C) Hague
(D) Tokyo
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following has been reappointed as Chairman of ICC Cricket Committee for a three year term ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Kumar Sangakara
(C) Mahela Jaywardene
(D) Anil Kumble
Ans : (D)
7. Who among the following has won the ‘Global Indian of the Year Award 2016’ ?
(A) Priyanaka Chopra
(B) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
(C) Satya Nadella
(D) Indra Nooyi
Ans : (B)
8. The epicentre of the Earthquake which hit Ecuador on 16th April, 2016 was nearest to –
(A) Muisne
(B) Quito
(C) Gyayaquil
(D) Manta
Ans : (A)
9. The author of recently published book ‘The Kiss of Life’ is –
(A) Jessica Johnston
(B) Anjali Sareen
(C) Emraan Hasmi
(D) Kartar Lalwani
Ans : (C)
10. The snow-covered Ghepan Lake is located in –
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (B)
11. In which country referendum was held in March 2016 for its national flag ?
(A) New Zealand
(B) Venezuela
(C) Australia
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)
12. Who won the ‘Indian Open Golf Championship’ in March 2016 ?
(A) Jyoti Chowrasia
(B) Shiv Chowrasia
(C) Anirban Lahiri
(D) Jeung-hun Wang
Ans : (B)
13. Who amongst the following recently appointed as Supreme Court judge was not earlier judge of a High Court ?
(A) D.Y. Chadrachud
(B) A.M. Khanwilkar
(C) L. Nageshwara Rao
(D) Ashok Bhushan
Ans : (C)
14. Who among the following was not one of the woman fighter plane pilots commissioned in June 2016 ?
(A) Bhawana Kanth
(B) Garima Singh
(C) Mohana Singh
(D) Avani Chaturvedi
Ans : (B)
15. Who among the following was appointed in April 2016 as the Director of the Film and Television Institute of India (F.T.I.I.) ?
(A) D. J. Narain
(B) Prashant Pathrabe
(C) Bhupendra Kainthola
(D) Gajendra Chauhan
Ans : (C)
16. According to National Crime Records Bureau data, which one of the following is the State with highest number of recorded foeticide cases in 2014 ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)
17. Which of the following High Courts celebrated its 150th anniversary in 2016 ?
(A) Karnataka High Court
(B) Patna High Court
(C) Kolkata High Court
(D) Allahabad High Court
Ans : (D)
18. The President of Myanmar who assumed office in March 2016 is-
(A) Aung San Suu Kyi
(B) Htin Kyaw
(C) Henry Van Tio
(D) Thein Sen
Ans : (B)
19. According to the data released by the Minister of Statistics in 2015, the state with the lowest percentage of senior citizens (above 60 years) is –
(A) Goa
(B) Punjab
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)
20. Who among the following was appointed as the Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) in 2015 ?
(A) T. M. Bhasin
(B) K.V. Chowdary
(C) Pradeep Kumar
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
21. The 2016 Retreat of the Supreme Court Judges was held at –
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)
22. According to the Union Budget 2016-17 a surcharge of 15% is payable if the income is –
(A) Rs. 50 lakh
(B) Above Rs. 1 crore
(C) Rs. 75 lakh
(D) Rs. 1 crore
Ans : (B)
23. Who amongst the following had to resign as Prime Minister due to ‘Panama Papers’ scandal ?
(A) Olafur Ragnar Grimson
(B) Sigmundur David Gunnlaugsson
(C) Katrin Jakobsdottir
(D) Stefan Lofven
Ans : (B)
24. As per Report of Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (2015), which among the following countries remained the top importer of Arms during 2011-15 ?
(A) China
(B) Pakistan
(C) India
(D) Saudi Arabia
Ans : (C)
25. Which of the following countries has the largest area under rice cultivation?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Japan
(D) Philippines
Ans : (C)
26. What is the rank of India in the world as a fruit producer ?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) First
(D) Second
Ans : (D)
27. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
Revolution Related to
(A) Golden Horticulture
(B) White Milk
(C) Blue Poultry
(D) Green Agriculture
Ans : (C)
28. Which of the following pulses was imported in the largest quantity in 2015-16 ?
(A) Moong
(B) Lentil
(C) Urad
(D) Pigeon Pea
Ans : (B)
29. ‘Pusa Sindhu Ganga’ is a variety of –
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Lentil
(D) Gram
Ans : (A)
30. India’s rank in rice production in the world is –
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans : (B)
31. Which one of the following is a plant hormone ?
(A) Insulin
(B) Thyroxin
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Estrogen
Ans : (C)
32. Which of the following green manure crops contains highest amount of nitrogen ?
(A) Dhaincha
(B) Sunhemp
(C) Cow Pea
(D) Guar
Ans : (A)
33. Golden rice is a rich source of –
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin C
Ans : (A)
34. The total number of Agro-ecological zones in India is-
(A) 5
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 20
Ans : (D)
35. Indian Institute of Vegetable Research is located at-
(A) Kanpur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Varanasi
(D) Allahabad
Ans : (C)
36. Which one of the following countries is not a member of WTO ?
(A) Slovenia
(B) Serbia
(C) Slovakia
(D) Columbia
Ans : (B)
37. Trade and Merchandise Marks Act was passed in-
(A) 1955
(B) 1956
(C) 1957
(D) 1958
Ans : (D)
38. Which of the following is included in Balance of Trade ?
(A) Goods
(B) Services
(C) Transfer of payment
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)
39. The amount of onion exported from India in 2015-16 was about –
(A) 7 lakh tonnes
(B) 9 lakh tonnes
(C) 10 lakh tonnes
(D) 12 lakh tonnes
Ans : (D)
40. ‘Hariyali’ Yojana’ is related to-
(A) Crop Management
(B) Soil Management
(C) Water Management
(D) Forest Management
Ans : (C)
41. The first Land Development Bank was established in 1920. It was located at –
(A) Meerut
(B) Jhang
(C) Munger
(D) Thane
Ans : (B)
42. Which of the following is the main principle of agriculture finance ?
(A) Purpose
(B) Person
(C) Productivity planning
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
43. Which one of the following has a protected mangrove region ?
(A) Easter Ghats
(B) Western Ghats
(C) Goa
(D) Chandra Tal
Ans : (C)
44. Who among the following is the founder of Kashi Vidyapeeth ?
(A) Pt. Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev
(C) Babu Shiv Prasad Gupta
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following tribes of Uttar Pradesh practices polyandry system ?
(A) Jaunsari
(B) Bhoksa
(C) Raji
(D) Korwa
Ans : (A)
46. Which one of the following is not a folk dance of the Bundelkhand Region of U.P. ?
(A) Ravala dance
(B) Dandia dance
(C) Barhaiya dance
(D) Raai dance
Ans : (B)
47. Where is Guru Govind singh Sports College located ?
(A) Saifai
(B) Varanasi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Meerut
Ans : (C)
48. Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya Yojana was started in –
(A) 2004
(B) 2010
(C) 2005
(D) 2012
Ans : (A)
49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from code given below-
List-I
(Institute)
(a) V.V. Giri National Labour Institute
(b) Central Drug Research Institute
(c) National Jalma Institute for Leprosy
(d) Central Institute for Research on Cattle
List-II
(Location)
1. Agra 2. Meerut
3. Lucknow 4. Noida
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
Ans : (D)
50. Uranium is found in Uttar Pradesh in district –
(A) Jhansi
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Lalitpur
(D) Hamirpur
Ans : (C)
51. Saffron is produced in U.P. in-
(A) Tarai Region
(B) Hilly Region
(C) Plain Area
(D) Plateau Area
Ans : (C)
52. The first ‘travel mart’ to promote tourism in Uttar Pradesh was organized in 2015 at-
(A) Lucknow
(B) Kanpur
(C) Agra
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (A)
53. ‘Lathmar Holi’ is celebrated in-
(A) Vrindavan
(B) Barsana
(C) Mathura
(D) Gokul
Ans : (B)
54. How many general Central Universities are located in U.P. ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans : (D)
55. When was the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education was launched ?
(A) 1995
(B) 2004
(C) 2007
(D) 2010
Ans : (A)
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below –
List-I
(Institutions)
(a) Indian Institute of Handloom Technology
(b) Bhatkhande Music Institute
(c) Nirala Art Gallery
(d) Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Technology
List-II
(Location)
1. Rae Bareli 2. Allahabad
3. Lucknow 4. Varanasi
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
Ans : (B)
57. As Per Census 2011, the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of India is-
(A) 3.2
(B) 2.9
(C) 2.6
(D) 2.4
Ans : (D)
58. Which of the following years is being currently used (2015 onwards) as the base year to estimate national income in India ?
(A) 2004-05
(B) 2001-02
(C) 2011-12
(D) 2007-08
Ans : (C)
59. Among the following vegetables, the maximum Vitamin C is found in-
(A) Chilli
(B) Pumpkin
(C) Pea
(D) Radish
Ans : (A)
60. ‘Yellow Vein Mosaic’ is a serious disease of-
(A) Brinjal
(B) Okra
(C) Pea
(D) Cabbage
Ans : (B)
61. Which of the following accounts for red colour of tomato ?
(A) Capsaicin
(B) Carotene
(C) Anthocyanin
(D) Lycopene
Ans : (D)
62. When was the Criminal Tribes Act enacted for the first time ?
(A) 1952
(B) 1924
(C) 1871
(D) 1911
Ans : (C)
63. Which one of the following is the State flower of UP ?
(A) Palash
(B) Rose
(C) Neel Kamal
(D) Champa
Ans : (A)
64. The traditional unit of land measurement in U.P. is-
(A) Kanal
(B) Marla
(C) Bigha
(D) Dhur
Ans : (C)
65. Which of the following mango varieties has been developed as a result of cross between Dasheri and Neelam ?
(A) Chausa
(B) Mallika
(C) Alphanso
(D) Amrapali
Ans : (B)
66. Which amongst the following has the highest production of pulses ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (B)
67. The correct sequence of the following coal producing States in terms of production (2014) in descending order is –
(A) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Maharashtra
(B) Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra
(C) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Odisha
(D) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra
Ans : (D)
68. Who among the following rulers had defeated Harshvardhana ?
(A) Kirtivarman II
(B) Vikramaditya II
(C) Pulkeshin I
(D) Pulkeshin II
Ans : (D)
69. The famous Travelogue ‘Si-Yu-Ki’ as linked with-
(A) Fahien
(B) Al Baruni
(C) Megasthanese
(D) Hiuen-Tsang
Ans : (D)
70. Which of the following sites has yielded evidence of a double burial ?
(A) Kuntasi
(B) Dholavira
(C) Lothal
(D) Kalibangan
Ans : (C)
71. Parshvanatha, the Jain ‘Thirthankara’ was associated mainly with which of the following places ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Kaushambi
(C) Giribraja
(D) Champa
Ans : (A)
72. In which of the following inscriptions of Ashoka, mention has been made of South Indian kingdoms ?
(A) Third major Rock Edict
(B) Second major Rock Edict
(C) Ninth major Rock Edict
(D) First Pillar Inscription
Ans : (B)
73. In which of the following inscriptions, Ashoka’s edicts are also found ?
(A) Junagarh Inscription of Mahashatrapa Rudradaman
hours respectively. At what rate does the second man cycle if the first man cycles at 14 kmph ?
If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area (in cm2) enclosed by the wire is 
