1. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then
(a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
(b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
(c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
(d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
Answer: (c)
2. Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one lens is 20 cm, then the power of the other lens will be
(a) 1.66 D
(b) 4.00 D
(c) −100 D
(d) −3.75 D
Answer: (d)
3. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, it’s de-Brogile wavelength changes by the factor.
(a) 2
(b) 1/2
(c) √2
(d) 1/√2
Answer: (d)
4. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide, then the rate of decay of reactant is shown by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
5. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited states is
(a) 1/4
(b) 4/9
(c) 9/4
(d) 4
Answer: (c)
6.Which of the following gates will have an output of 1?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) B
(d) C
Answer: (d)
7. A point charge q is rotated along a circle in the electric field generated by another point charge Q. The work done by the electric field on the rotating charge in one complete revolution is
(a) zero
(b) positive
(c) negative
(d) zero if the charge Q is at the centre and nonzero otherwise.
Answer: (a)
8. The equivalent capacitance of the combination of the capacitors is
(a) 3.20μF
(b) 7.80μF
(c) 3.90μF
(d) 2.16μF
Answer: (a)
9. The half-life period and the mean life period of a radioactive element are denoted respectively by Tb and Tm. Then
(a) Th = Tm
(b) Th > Tm
(c) Th < Tm
(d) Tn ≥ Tm
Answer: (c)
10. In a common base mode of a transistor, the collector current is 5.488 mA for an emitter current of 5.60 mA. The value of the base current amplification factor (β) will be
(a) 49
(b) 50
(c) 51
(d) 48
Answer: (a)
11. The magnetic field at a distance r from a long wire carrying current is 0.4 tesla. The magnetic field at a distance 2r is
(a) 0.2 tesla
(b) 0.8 tesla
(c) 0.1 tesla
(d) 1.6 tesla
Answer: (a)
12. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in fig. Find the displacement and distance travelled by the body in 10 seconds.
(a) 50m, 90m
(b) 5m, 9m
(c) 9m, 5m
(d) 90m, 50m
Answer: (a)
13. An electric dipole is kept in a uniform electric field. It experiences
(a) a force and a torque
(b) a force, but no torque
(c) a torque but not net force
(d) neither a force nor a torque
Answer: (c)
14. A person swims in a river aiming to reach exactly on the opposite point on the bank of a river. His speed of swimming is 0.5 m/s at an angle of 120° with the direction of flow of water. The speed of water is
(a) 1.0 m/s
(b) 0.5 m/s
(c) 0.25 m/s
(d) 0.43 m/s
Answer: (c)
15. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air is 1 m/s. The viscosity of air is 8 × 10−5 The viscous force on it is
(a) 45.2 × 10−4 dyne
(b) 101.73 × 10−5 dyne
(c) 16.95 × 10−4 dyne
(d) 16.95 × 10−5 dyne
Answer: (a)
16. Consider a pair of insulating blocks with thermal resistances R1 and R2 as shown in the figure. The temperature θ at the boundary between the two blocks is
(a) (θ1θ2√R1R2)/(θ1 + θ2) (R1 + R2)
(b) (θ1R1 + θ2R2)/(R1 + R2)
(c) [(θ1 + θ2)R1R2]/(R12 + R22)
(d) (θ1R2 + θ2R1)/(R1 + R2)
Answer: (d)
17. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/ s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be
(a) 0.5 m
(b) 0.15 m
(c) 0.12 m
(d) 1.5 m
Answer: (b)
18. A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the radius of the sphere is increased keeping mass same which one of the following will not be affected?
(a) Angular velocity
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Moment of inertia
(d) Rotational kinetic energy
Answer: (b)
19. The Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body is
(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) infinity
(d) some finite non-zero constant
Answer: (c)
20.The figure below shows currents in a part of electric circuit. The current i is
(a) 1.7 amp
(b) 3.7 amp
(c) 1.3 amp
(d) 1 amp
Answer: (a)
21. In an electromagnetic wave
(a) power is transmitted along the magnetic field
(b) power is transmitted along the electric field
(c) power is equally transferred along the electric and magnetic fields
(d) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular to both the fields
Answer: (d)
22. A particle covers half of the circle of radius r. Then the displacement and distance of the particle are respectively
(a) 2πr, 0
(b) 2r, πr
(c) πr/2, 2r
(d) πr, r
Answer: (b)
23. A metal ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet
(a) is equal to g
(b) is less than g
(c) is more than g
(d) depends on the diameter of ring and length of magnet
Answer: (b)
24. A particle having a mass 0.5 kg is projected under gravity with a speed of 98 m/sec at an angle of 60°. The magnitude of the change in momentum (in N-sec) of the particle after 10 seconds is [g = 9.8 m/sec2]
(a) 0.5
(b) 49
(c) 98
(d) 490
Answer: (b)
25. For a series RLC circuit R = XL = 2XC. The impedance of the circuit and phase difference between V and I respectively will be
(a)
(b)
(c) √5XC, tan−1 (2)
(d) √5R, tan−1 (1/2)
Answer: (b)
26. A man holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle together is 100 kg) stands on a smooth surface and fires 10 shots horizontally in 5 sec. Each bullet has a mass 10 g with a muzzle velocity of 800 ms−1. The velocity which the rifle man attains after firing 10 shots will be
(a) 8 ms−1
(b) 0.8 ms−1
(c) 0.08 ms−1
(d) −0.8 ms−1
Answer: (d)
27. Escape velocity when a body of mass m is thrown vertically from the surface of the earth is v, what will be the escape velocity of another body of mass 4 m is thrown vertically
(a) v
(b) 2v
(c) 4v
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
28. A solid cylinder of mass m and radius R rolls down inclined plane without slipping. The speed of its C.M. when it reaches the bottom is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (b)
29. A block of mass 5 kg resting on a horizontal surface is connected by a cord, passing over a light frictionless pulley to a hanging block of mass 5 kg. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the surface is 0.5. Tension in the cord is : (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
(a) 49 N
(b) Zero
(c) 36.75 N
(d) 2.45 N
Answer: (c)
30. A and B are two wires. The radius of A is twice that B. They are stretched by the same load. Then the stress on B is
(a) equal to that on A
(b) four times that on A
(c) two times that on A
(d) half that on A
Answer: (b)
31. A liquid is allowed to flow into a tube of truncated cone shape. Identify the correct statement from the following.
(a) The speed is high at the wider end and low at the narrow end.
(b) The speed is low at the wider end and high at the narrow end.
(c) The speed is same at both ends in a stream line flow.
(d) The liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube.
Answer: (b)
32. A planet revolves in an elliptical orbit around the sun. The semi-major and semi-minor axes are a and b. Then the square of time period, T is directly proportional to
(a) a3
(b) b3
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
33. The surface of metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240 eV.nm)
(a) 3.09 eV
(b) 1.42 eV
(c) 1.51 eV
(d) 1.68 eV
Answer: (b)
34. When a system is taken from state i to state f along the path iaf, it is found that Q = 50 cal and W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 cal. W along the path ibf is
(a) 14 cal
(b) 6 cal
(c) 16 cal
(d) 66 cal
Answer: (b)
35. If the differential equation for a simple harmonic motion is the time-period of the motion is
(a) π√2 sec
(b)
(c)
(d) 2π sec
Answer: (a)
36. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The ratio of fundamental frequency of tube A and B is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 4 : 1
Answer: (c)
37. The current in the 1 Ω resistor shown in the circuit is
(a)
(b) 3 A
(c) 6 A
(d) 2 A
Answer: (d)
38. The work done by an uniform magnetic field, on a moving charge is
(a) zero because
(b) positive because
(c) zero because
(d) negative because
Answer: (c)
39. In Young’s double slit experimental setup, if the wavelength alone is doubled, the bandwidth β becomes
(a) β/2
(b) 2β
(c) 3β
(d) β
Answer: (b)
40. In Young’s double slit experiment, the central point on the screen is
(a) bright
(b) dark
(c) first bright and then dark
(d) first dark and then bright
Answer: (a)
PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
41. The work done in ergs for the reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 litres to 20 litres at 25°C is
(a) 2.303 × 298 × 0.082 log 2
(b) 298 × 107 × 8.31 × 2.303 log 2
(c) 2.303 × 298 × 0.082 log 0.5
(d) 8.31 × 107 × 298 × 2.303 log 0.5
Answer: (b)
42. A Fischer projection of (2R, 3S)-2, 3-butanediol is:-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
43. Arrange the following particles in increasing order of values of e/m ratio : electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and α-particle (α)-
(a) n, p, e, α
(b) n, α, p, e
(c) n, p, α, e
(d) e, p, n, α
Answer: (b)
44. Acidified potassium dichromate is treated with hydrogen sulphide. In the reaction, the oxidation number of chromium
(a) Increases from +3 to +6
(b) Decreases from +6 to +3
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Decreases from +6 to +2
Answer: (b)
45. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 if then value of would be
(a) 1 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1
(b) 3 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1
(c) 4 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1
(d) 6 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1
Answer: (b)
46. The value of Kc for the reaction :
A + 3B ⇌ 2C at 400°C is 0.5. Calculate the value of Kp
(a) 1.64 × 10−4
(b) 1.64 × 10−6
(c) 1.64 × 10−5
(d) 1.64 × 10−3
Answer: (a)
47. Tautomerism is net exhibited by-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (d)
48. The electrode potential for
Cu2+(aq) + e− → Cu+(aq)
and Cu2+(aq) + e− → Cu(s)
are +0.15 V and +0.50 V, respectively. The value of will be:
(a) 0.500 V
(b) 0.325 V
(c) 0.650 V
(d) 0.150 V
Answer: (b)
49. Deep sea divers used to respirate a mixture of
(a) Oxygen and argon
(b) Oxygen and helium
(c) Oxygen and nitrogen
(d) Oxygen and hydrogen
Answer: (b)
50. The wavelength of two photons are 2000 Å and 4000 Å respectively. What is the ratio of their energies?
(a) 1/4
(b) 4
(c) 1/2
(d) 2
Answer: (d)
51. Ethylene glycol, on oxidation with per-ioidic acid, gives
(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Glycol
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Glycolic acid
Answer: (c)
52. What is X in the following change?
(a) CH3OH, H2SO4
(b)
(c) H2O/H2SO4 followed by CH3OH
(d) CH3MgBr/H3O+
Answer: (a)
53. In a closed insulated container, a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase its temperature. In this process, which of the following is true?
(a) ∆E = W = Q = 0
(b) ∆E ≠ 0, Q = W = 0
(c) ∆E = W ≠ 0, Q = 0
(d) ∆E = Q ≠ 0, W = 0
Answer: (c)
54. At low pressure, the van der Waal’s equation is reduced to
(a)
(b)
(c) PVm = RT
(d)
Answer: (a)
55. Copper sulphate solution reacts with KCN to give
(a) Cu(CN)2
(b) CuCN
(c) K2[Cu(CN)4]
(d) K3[Cu(CN)4]
Answer: (d)
56. For the reaction
∆H = −285.8 kJ mol−1
∆S = −0.163 kJ mol−1 K−1
What is the value of free energy change at 27°C for the reaction?
(a) −236.9 kJ mol−1
(b) −281.4 kJ mol−1
(c) −334.7 kJ mol−1
(d) +334.7 kJ mol−1
Answer: (a)
57.
the reactant A is
(a) CH3CHOHCH3
(b) CH3COCH3
(c) C2H5OH
(d) CH3COOH
Answer: (a)
58. Bragg’s law is given by the which of the following equation?
(a) nλ = 2θ sin θ
(b) nλ = 2d sin θ
(c) 2nλ = d sin θ
(d)
Answer: (b)
59. The reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) is of first order. If volume of reaction vessel is reduced to 1/3, the rate of reaction would be
(a) 1/3 times
(b) 2/3 times
(c) 3 times
(d) 6 times
Answer: (c)
60. Which are the starting materials for the preparation of?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) Any of the these
Answer: (c)
61. Which element gives maximum number of oxides?
(a) V
(b) Cr
(c) Mn
(d) Fe
Answer: (c)
62. An organic compound ‘A’ has the molecular formula C3H6O, it undergoes iodoform test. When saturated with dil. HCl it gives ‘B’ of molecular formula C9H14 A and B respectively are
(a) Propanal and mesitylene
(b) Propanone and mesityloxide
(c) Propanone and 2, 6-dimethyl-2, 5-heptadien-4-one
(d) Propanone and mesitylene oxide
Answer: (c)
63.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (b)
64. Calculate the entropy change in melting 1 mole of ice at 273 K, ∆Hf° = 6.025 kJ/mole-
(a) 11.2 JK−1 mol−1
(b) 22.1 JK−1 mol−1
(c) 15.1 JK−1 mol−1
(d) 5.1 JK−1 mol−1
Answer: (b)
65. The rate constant is doubled when temperature increases from 27°C to 37° Activation energy in kJ is
(a) 34
(b) 54
(c) 100
(d) 50
Answer: (b)
66. In the reaction, the compound (C) is
(a) Benzoic acid
(b) Salicylaldehyde
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Salicylic acid
Answer: (d)
67. Starting from parpanoic acid, the following reactions were carried out
Propanoic acid
What is the compound Z?
(a) CH3 – CH2 – Br
(b) CH3 – CH2 – NH2
(c)
(d) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
Answer: (b)
68. Calculate the energy needed to convert three moles of sodium atoms in the gaseous state to sodium ions. The ionization energy of sodium is 495 kJ mol−1
(a) 1485 kJ
(b) 495 kJ
(c) 148.5 kJ
(d) None
Answer: (a)
69. The uncertainty in position and velocity of a particle are 10−10 m and 5.27 × 10−24 ms−1 Calculate the mass of the particle is (h = 6.625 × 10−34 Js)
(a) 0.099 kg
(b) 0.99 g
(c) 0.92 kg
(d) None
Answer: (a)
70. Choose the complex which is paramagnetic
(i) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (ii) K3[Cr(CN)6]
(ii) K3Fe(CN)6] (iv) K2[Ni(CN)4]
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (a)
71. Phosphine is generally prepared in the laboratory.:
(a) By heating phosphorus in a current of hydrogen
(b) By heating white phosphorus with an aqueous solution of caustic potash
(c) By decomposition of P2H4 at 110°C
(d) By heating red phosphorus with an aqueous solution of caustic soda
Answer: (b)
72. In a hydrogen – oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to :
(a) Produce high purity water
(b) Create potential difference between the two electrodes
(c) Generate heat
(d) Remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surfaces
Answer: (b)
73. Among the following molecule
(i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 (iii) XeF6
Those having same number of lone pairs on Xe are
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (d)
74. An alkene of molecule formula C9H18 on ozonolysis gives 2, 2-dimethylpropanal & 2-butanone, then the alkene is
(a) 2, 2, 4-trimethyl-3-hexene
(b) 2, 2, 6-trimethyl-3-hexene
(c) 2, 3, 4-trimethyl-2-hexene
(d) 2, 2-dimethyl-2-heptene
Answer: (a)
75. Glucose when heated with CH3OH in presence of dry HCl gas gives α- and β-methyl glucoside because it contains:
(a) An aldehyde group
(b) A-CH2OH group
(c) A ring structure
(d) Five hydroxyl groups
Answer: (c)
76. When acetylene is passed into methanol at 160-200°C in the presence of a small amount of potassium methoxide under pressure, the following is formed-
(a) Polyvinyl alcohol
(b) Divinyl ether
(c) Dimethyl ether
(d) Methyl ether
Answer: (d)
77. Which compound can exist in a dipolar (zwitter ion) state?
(a) C6H5CH2CH(N=CH2)COOH
(b) (CH3)2CH.CH(NH2)COOH
(c) C6H5CONHCH2COOH
(d) HOOC.CH2CH2COCOOH
Answer: (b)
78. A coordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formula containing five ammonia molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution; on reacting with excess of AgNO3, AgCl is precipitated. The ionic formula for this complex would be:
(a) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2
(b) [Co(NH3)5Cl][Cl(NO2)]
(c) [Co(NH3)4(NO2)Cl][(NH3)Cl]
(d) [Co(NH3)5][(NO2)2Cl2]
Answer: (a)
79. An endothermic reaction with high activation energy for the forward reaction is given by the diagram.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
80. The volume of a closed reaction vessel in which the following equilibrium reaction occurs is halved :
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)
As a result,
(a) The rates of forward and backward reactions will remain the same
(b) The equilibrium will not shift.
(c) The equilibrium will shift to the right.
(d) The rate of forward reaction will become double that of reverse reaction and the equilibrium will shift to the right.
Answer: (d)
PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
81. If tan θ = √n for some non-square natural number n, the sec 2θ is :
(a) a rational number
(b) a irrational number
(c) a positive number
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
82. If z = x + iy, z1/3 = a – ib, then where k is equal to
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (d)
83. If the coordinates one end of a diameter of the circle x2 + y2 – 8x – 4y + c = 0 are (−3, 2), then the coordinates at the other end are
(a) (5, 3)
(b) (6, 2)
(c) (1, −8)
(d) (11, 2)
Answer: (d)
84. The system of linear equations : x + y + z = 0, 2x + y – z = 0, 3x + 2y = 0 has :
(a) no solution
(b) a unique solution
(c) an infinitely many solution
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
85. If then (3 + ω + 3ω2)4 is
(a) 16
(b) −16
(c) 16ω
(d) 16ω2
Answer: (c)
86. If the lines 3x – 4y + 4 = 0 and 6x – 8y – 7 = 0 are tangents to a circle, then radius of the circle is
(a) 3/4
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 5/2
Answer: (a)
87. The position vector of A and B are
The length of the internal bisector of ∠BOA of triangle AOB is
(a)
(b)
(c) 20/3
(d)
Answer: (a)
88. If
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
89. If then AB is equal to
(a) B
(b) A
(c) O
(d) I
Answer: (c)
90. A circle has radius 3 and its centre lies on the line y = x – 1. The equation of the circle, if it passes through (7, 3), is
(a) x2 + y2 + 8x – 6y + 16 = 0
(b) x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y + 16 = 0
(c) x2 + y2 – 8x − 6y – 16 = 0
(d) x2 + y2 – 8x − 6y + 16 = 0
Answer: (d)
91. At how many points between the interval (−∞, ∞) is the function f(x) = sin x is not differentiable.
(a) 0
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 3
Answer: (a)
92. If vector equation of the line
is
then p is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer: (a)
93. Evaluate
(a) 17/9
(b) 17/18
(c) 34/23
(d) 26/7
Answer: (c)
94. The radius of a right circular cylinder increases at the rate of 0.1 cm/min, and the height decreases at the rate of 0.2 cm/min. The rate of change of the volume of the cylinder, in cm3/min, when the radius is 2 cm and the height is 3 cm is
(a) −2π
(b) −8π/5
(c) −3π/5
(d) 2π/5
Answer: (d)
95. If a, b, c are in A.P. then the value of is:
(a) 3
(b) −3
(c) 0
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
96. The solution is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
97. The equation y2 + 3 = 2(2x + y) represents a parabola with the vertex at
(a) (1/2, 1) and axis parallel to y-axis
(b) (1, 1/2) and axis parallel to x-axis
(c) (1/2, 1) and focus at (3/2, 1)
(d) (1, 1/2) and focus at (3/2, 1)
Answer: (c)
98. If sin y = x sin (a + y), then dy/dx is equal to:
(a)
(b)
(c) sin (a + y)
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
99. ∫ (27e9x + e12x)1/3 dx is equal to
(a) (1/4) (27 + e3x)1/3 + C
(b) (1/4) (27 + e3x)2/3 + C
(c) (1/3) (27 + e3x)4/3 + C
(d) (1/4) (27 + e3x)4/3 + C
Answer: (d)
100. The area under the curve y = |cos x – sin x|, 0 ≤ x ≤ π/2, and above x-axis is:
(a) 2√2
(b) 2√2 – 2
(c) 2√2 + 2
(d) 0
Answer: (b)
101. The conic represented by
x = 2(cos t + sin t), y = 5(cos t – sin t) is
(a) a circle
(b) a parabola
(c) an ellipse
(d) a hyperbola
Answer: (c)
102.If and is equal to
(a) 13
(b) 26
(c) 39
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
103. The equation of the plane which bisects the angle between the planes 3x – 6y + 2z + 5 =0 and 4x – 12y + 3z – 3 = 0 which contains the origin is
(a) 33x – 13y + 32z + 45 = 0
(b) x – 3y + z – 5 = 0
(c) 33x + 13y + 32z + 45 = 0
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
104. A wire 34 cm long is to be bent in the form of a quadrilateral of which each angle is 90°. What is the maximum area which can be enclosed inside the quadrilateral?
(a) 68 cm2
(b) 70 cm2
(c) 71.25 cm2
(d) 72.25 cm2
Answer: (d)
105. If then value of (A, B) is
(a) (−cos α, sin α)
(b) (cos α, sin α)
(c) (−sin α, cos α)
(d) (sin α, cos α)
Answer: (b)
106. The equation of the chord of the hyperbola 25x2 – 16y2 = 400 that is bisected at point (5, 3) is:
(a) 135x – 48y = 481
(b) 125x – 48y = 481
(c) 125x – 4y = 48
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
107. Value of is
(a) π/6
(b) π/12
(c) 12/π
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
108. The domain of the function is :
(a) (−∞, 2]
(b) (2, ∞)
(c) (−∞, 2)
(d) [2, ∞)
Answer: (c)
109. Six identical coins are arranged in a row. The number of ways in which the number of tails is equal to the number of heads is
(a) 20
(b) 9
(c) 120
(d) 40
Answer: (a)
110. Let f be the function defined by
(a) The function is continuous for all values of x
(b) The function is continuous only for x > 1
(c) The function is continuous at x = 1
(d) The function is not continuous at x = 1
Answer: (d)
111. If f(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx + d and 0 < b2 < c, then in (−∞, ∞),
(a) f(x) is a strictly increasing function
(b) f(x) has local maxima
(c) f(x) is a strictly decreasing function
(d) f(x) is bounded
Answer: (a)
112. The solution of the differential equation
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
113. The integrating factor of is
(a) x
(b) log x
(c) 1/x
(d) −x
Answer: (c)
114. It is given that the events A and B are such that Then P(B) is
(a) 1/6
(b) 1/3
(c) 2/3
(d) 1/2
Answer: (b)
115. Let f : R → R, g : R → R be two functions such that
f(x) = 2x – 3, g(x) = x3 + 5. The function (fog)−1 (x) is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (d)
116. The inverse of the statement (p ⋀ ~q) → r is
(a) ~(p ⋁ ~q) → ~r
(b) (~p ⋀ q) → ~r
(c) (~p ⋁ q) → ~ r
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
117. The value of x in the interval [4, 9] at which the function f(x) = √x satisfies the mean value theorem is
(a) 13/4
(b) 17/4
(c) 21/4
(d) 25/4
Answer: (d)
118. The value of the integral is
(a) 4
(b) 9
(c) 2
(d) 9/2
Answer: (b)
119. Let a, b, c be in A.P. with a common difference d. Then e1/c, eb/ac, e1/a are in :
(a) GP. with common ratio ed
(b) GP with common ratio e1/d
(c) GP with common ratio
(d) A.P.
Answer: (c)
120. If the second term in the expansion
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 12
(d) 6
Answer: (a)
PART – IV (ENGLISH)
121. In the given sentence, find out which part has an error. The letter of that part will be your answer. If there is no error, mark (d) as your answer.
She is a brilliant teacher (a)/ but of her three children (b)/ neither has any merit. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (c)
122. Find the synonym of the word IMPECCABLE
(a) Remarkable
(b) Unbelievable
(c) Flawless
(d) Displeasing
Answer: (c)
123. Find the antonym of the word AMELIORATE
(a) Improve
(b) Depend
(c) Soften
(d) Worsen
Answer: (d)
124. Find the meaning of the given idiom A bold from the blue
(a) An unpleasant event
(b) An inexplicable event
(c) A delayed event
(d) An unexpected event
Answer: (d)
125. Read the passage and answer the given question There seems to be no chilly distance existing between the German students and the professor, but, on the contrary, a companionable intercourse, the opposite of chilliness and reserve. When the professor enters a beer hall in the evening where students are gathered together, these rise up and take off their caps and invite the old gentleman to sit with them and partake. He accepts, and the pleasant talk and the beer flow for an hour or two, and by and by the professor, properly charged and comfortable, gives a cordial good night, while the students stand bowing and uncovered, and then he moves on his happy way homeward with all his vast cargo of learning afloat in his hold. Nobody finds fault or feels outraged. no harm has been done.
What does the author mean by the phrase ‘no chilly distance’?
(a) Professor’s home is not very far from the beer hall.
(b) Students and the professor are very friendly with each other.
(c) The weather is not very chilly in Germany.
(d) The professor being very strict scares the students quite a few times as in the beer hall.
1. A gun applied a force F on a bullet which is given by F = (100 – 0.5 × 105 t) N. The bullet emerges out with speed 400 m/s. Then find out the impulse exerted till force on the bullet becomes zero.
(a) 0.2 Ns
(b) 0.3 Ns
(c) 0.1 Ns
(d) 0.4 Ns
Answer: (c)
2. A transformer with turns ratio is connected to a 120 V AC supply. If p rimary and secondary circuit resistances are 15 kΩ and 1Ω respectively, then find out power of output.
(a) 5.76 W
(b) 11.4 W
(c) 2.89 W
(d) 7.56 W
Answer: (a)
3. A proton is projected with velocity in a region where magnetic field and electric field Then find out the net acceleration of proton
(a) 1400 m/s2
(b) 700 m/s2
(c) 1000 m/s2
(d) 800 m/s2
Answer: (a)
4. The given transistor operates in saturation region then what should be the value of VBB?
5. In figure, two parallel infinitely long current carrying wires are shown. If resultant magnetic field at point A is zero. Then determine the value of current I.
(a) 50 A
(b) 15 A
(c) 30 A
(d) 25 A
Answer: (c)
6. The temperature of food material in refrigerator is 4°C and temperature of environment is 15° If carnot cycle is used in its working gas, then find its carnot efficiency.
(a) 0.038
(b) 0.028
(c) 0.053
(d) 0.072
Answer: (a)
7. A string wave equation is given
y = 0.002 sin(300t – 15x) and mass density is (μ = 0.1 kg/m). Then find the tension force in the string.
(a) 30 N
(b) 20 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 45 N
Answer: (c)
8. If maximum energy is stored in a capacitor at t = 0, then find the time after which current in the circuit will be maximum.
(a) π/2 ms
(b) π/4 ms
(c) π ms
(d) 2 ms
Answer: (b)
9. If voltage across a zener diode is 6V, then find out the value of maximum resistance in this condition.
(a) 2 kΩ
(b) 3 kΩ
(c) 5 kΩ
(d) 4 kΩ
Answer: (d)
10. Two circular loops having same radius (R = 10 cm) and same current are placed along same axis as shown. If the distance between their centres is 10 cm, find net magnetic field at point P.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
11. Initially spring in its natural length now a block at mass 0.25 kg is released then find out maximum force by system on the floor.
(a) 15 N
(b) 20 N
(c) 25 N
(d) 30 N
Answer: (c)
12. If 7 gm N2 is mixed with 20 gm Ar, there Cp/Cv of mixture will be
(a) 17/6
(b) 11/7
(c) 17/11
(d) 17/13
Answer: (c)
13. Distance of 5th dark fringe from centre is 4 mm. If D = 2 m, λ = 600 nm, then distance between slits is
(a) 1.35 mm
(b) 2.00 mm
(c) 3.25 mm
(d) 10.35 mm
Answer: (a)
14. A sphere pure rolls on a rough a inclined plane with initial velocity 2.8 m/s. Find the maximum distance on the inclined plane.
(a) 2.74 m
(b) 5.48 m
(c) 1.38 m
(d) 3.2 m
Answer: (c)
15. Find gravitational field at a distance of 2000 km from the centre of earth. (Given Rearth = 6400 km, r = 2000 km, Mearth = 6 × 1024 kg)
(a) 1.53 m/s2
(b) 7.12 m/s2
(c) 3.06 m/s2
(d) 1.8 m/s2
Answer: (c)
16. Two sources of sound S1 and S2 are moving towards and away from a stationary observer with the same speed respectively. Observer detects 3 beats per second. Find speed of sources (approximately.)
Given, f1 = f2 = 500 Hz, speed of sound in air = 300 m/s
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 2 m/s
(c) 3 m/s
(d) 4 m/s
Answer: (a)
17.
In the given circuit, find charge of capacitor after 1s of opening the switch at t = ∞.
(a) 20 e−10 μC
(b) 25 e−10 μC
(c) 30 e−10 μC
(d) 35 e−10 μC
Answer: (b)
18. In an isobaric process, the work done by a di-atomic gas is 10 J, the heat given to the gas will be
(a) 35 J
(b) 30 J
(c) 45 J
(d) 60 J
Answer: (a)
19. A capacitor of capacitance 15 μF having dielectric slab of εr = 2.5, dielectric strength 30 MV/m and potential difference = 30 V. Calculate the area of the plate.
(a) 6.7 × 10−4 m2
(b) 4.2 × 10−4 m2
(c) 8.0 × 10−4 m2
(d) 9.85 × 10−4 m2
Answer: (a)
20. For a wire and length of wire is ℓ = 5 cm. If potential difference of 1 V is applied across it, then current through wire will be
(R = Resistance)
(a) 40 A
(b) 4 A
(c) 25 A
(d) 2.5 A
Answer: (a)
21. If modulation index, μ = 1/2 and Vm = 2, then VC is
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer: (a)
22. A body of mass 5 × 103 kg moving with speed 2 m/s collides with a body of mass 15 × 103 kg inelastically and sticks to it. Then loss in KE of the system will be
(a) 7.5 kJ
(b) 15 kJ
(c) 10 kJ
(d) 5 kJ
Answer: (a)
23. If local length of objective and eye lenses are 10 cm and 10 mm respectively and tube length is 11 cm then angular magnification of telescope is
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 100
(d) 50
Answer: (a)
24. An electron is moving in a circle of radius 2m with speed of 4 m/s. Find the acceleration of the electron.
(a) 8 m/s2
(b) 4 m/s2
(c) 16 m/s2
(d) 10 m/s2
Answer: (a)
25. If a small orifice is made at a height of 0.25 m from the ground, the horizontal range of water stream will be
(a) 46.5 cm
(b) 56.6 cm
(c) 76.6 cm
(d) 86.6 cm
Answer: (d)
26. Calculate the mean percentage error in five observations,
80.0, 80.5, 81.0, 81.5, 82
(a) 0.74%
(b) 1.74%
(c) 0.38%
(d) 1.38%
Answer: (a)
27. Calculate the focal length of given lens if the magnification is −5.
(a) 6.66 cm
(b) 5.44 cm
(c) 3.88 cm
(d) 1.38 cm
Answer: (a)
28. In a LCR series circuit source voltage is 120 V and voltage in inductor 50 V and resistance is 40 V, then determine voltage in the capacitor
(a) VC = 10(5 – 8√2)
(b) VC = 10(5 + 8√2)
(c) VC = 20(5 + 8√2)
(d) VC = 10(5 + 7√2)
Answer: (a)
29. Determine the pressure difference in tube of non-uniform cross sectional area as shown in figure.
∆P = ?, d1 = 5 cm, v1 = 4 m/s, d2 = 2 cm, v2 = ?
(a) 304200 Pa
(b) 304500 Pa
(c) 302500 Pa
(d) 303500 Pa
Answer: (b)
30. α-particle is revolving in a circular path with radius r with speed v, then find the value of magnetic dipole moment.
(a) 2 evr
(b) evr
(c) 3 evr
(d) 4 evr
Answer: (b)
31. 15 eV is given to electron in 4th orbit then find its final energy when it comes out of H-atom.
(a) 14.15 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 12.08 eV
(d) 15.85 eV
Answer: (a)
32. If half life of an element is 69.3 h, then how much of its percent will decay in 10th to 11th h. Initial activity = 50 μ Ci
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) 4%
Answer: (a)
33. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s then, find the number of tones present in an open organ pipe of length 1 m whose frequency is ≤ 1000 Hz.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 6
Answer: (d)
34. A light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a Young’s double slit. The distance between slit and screen is D = 1.8 m and distance between slits is d = 0.4 mm. If screen moves with a speed of 4 m/s, then with what speed first maxima will move?
(a) 5 mm/s
(b) 4 mm/s
(c) 3 mm/s
(d) 2 mm/s
Answer: (a)
35. In an isothermal process 2 water drops of radius 1 mm are combined to form a bigger drop. Find the energy change in this process if T = 0.1 N/m.
(a) 1 μJ
(b) 0.5 μJ
(c) 0.25 μJ
(d) 0.75 μJ
Answer: (b)
36. If temperature of Sun = 6000 K, radius of Sun is 7.2 × 105 km, radius of Earth = 6000 km and distance between Earth and Sun = 15 × 107 Find intensity of light on Earth.
(a) 19.2 × 1016
(b) 12.2× 1016
(c) 18.3× 1016
(d) 92× 1016
Answer: (a)
37. Calculate radiation power for sphere whose temperature is 227°C, radius 2 m and emissivity 0.8.
(a) 142.5 kW
(b) 1500 W
(c) 1255 W
(d) 1575 W
Answer: (a)
38. If two protons are moving with speed v = 4.5 × 105 m/s parallel to each other then find the ratio of electrostatic and magnetic force between them
(a) 4.4 × 105
(b) 2.2× 105
(c) 3.3× 105
(d) 1.1× 105
Answer: (a)
39. An ideal gas initially at pressure 1 bar is being compressed from 30 m3 to 10 m3 volume and its temperature decreases from 320 K to 280 K, then find final pressure of the gas.
(a) 2.625 bar
(b) 3.4 bar
(c) 1.325 bar
(d) 4.5 bar
Answer: (c)
40. A current of 10 A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-sectional area 4 × 10−6 m2. If the density of the aluminium conductor is 2.7 gm/cc considering aluminium gives 1 electron per atom for conduction, then find the drift velocity of the electrons if molecular weight of aluminium is 27 gm.
(a) 1.6 × 10−4 m/s
(b) 3.6 × 10−4 m/s
(c) 2.6 × 10−4 m/s
(d) 1.5× 10−4 m/s
Answer: (c)
Direction (Q. Nos. 41-60) In each of the following questions a statement of assertion is given followed by the corresponding statement of reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
41. Assertion A metallic surface is moved in and out in magnetic field them emf is induced in it.
Reason Eddy current will be produced in a metallic surface moving in and out of magnetic field.
Answer: (a)
42. Assertion There is no loss in energy in elastic collision.
Reason Linear momentum is conserved in elastic collision.
Answer: (b)
43. Assertion Paramagnetic substances get poorly attracted in magnetic field.
Reason Because magnetic dipoles are aligned along external magnetic field weakly.
Answer: (a)
44. Assertion Distance between position of bright and dark fringe remain same in YDSE.
Reason Fringe width, β = λD/d
Answer: (a)
45. Assertion In both radioactivity and photoelectric effect electrons may be ejected.
Reason In photoelectric effect and radioactivity emission occurs only of unstable elements.
Answer: (c)
46. Assertion Electron moving perpendicular to B will perform circular motion.
Reason Force by magnetic field is perpendicular to velocity.
Answer: (a)
47. Assertion In ionospheric reflection, phase change does not occur with the radio wave.
Reason The ionosphere reflection is similar to the total internal reflection in miraj.
Answer: (a)
48. Assertion Vibrational degree of freedom of a di-atomic gas molecule appears at every high temperature.
Reason Di-atomic gas two vibrational degree of freedom in one direction.
Answer: (b)
49. Assertion NH3 is liquidities more easily than CO2.
Reason Critical temperature of NH3 is more than CO2
Answer: (a)
50. Assertion In adiabatic process work is independent of the path.
Reason In adiabatic process work done is equal to negative of change in internal energy.
Answer: (a)
51. Assertion Water drops take spherical shape when falling freely.
Reason Water has minimum surface tension among all liquids.
Answer: (d)
52. Assertion Photodiode and solar cell work on same mechanism.
Reason Area is large for solar cell.
Answer: (b)
53. Assertion Sometimes insects can walk on water.
Reason The gravitational force on insect is balanced by force due surface tension.
Answer: (a)
54. Assertion Heavy water is used to slow neutron in nuclear reactor.
Reason It does not react with slow neutron and mass of deuterium is comparable to the neutron.
Answer: (a)
55. Assertion Incoming light reflected by earth is partially polarized.
Reason Atmospheric particle polarize the light.
Answer: (b)
56. Assertion Amplitude modulation shows more interference than frequency modulation with noise.
Reason Interference is function of amplitude of modulation wave with carrier-wave.
Answer: (a)
57. Assertion A charge particle is released from rest in magnetic field then it will move in a circular path.
Reason Work done by magnetic field is non zero.
Answer: (d)
58. Assertion A glass ball is dropped on concrete floor can easily get broken compared if its is dropped on wooden floor.
Reason On concrete floor glass ball will take less time to come to rest.
Answer: (a)
59. Assertion Even though net external force on a body is zero, momentum need not to converved.
Reason The internal interaction between particles of a body cancels out momentum of each other.
Answer: (d)
60. Assertion For an element generally N ≥ Z (N = number of neutrons, Z = atomic number)
61. Out of BeF2, MgF2, CaF2, SrF2 which has maximum solubility?
(a) BeF2
(b) MgF2
(c) CaF2
(d) SrF2
Answer: (a)
62. Which of the following statement is correct for oleum?
(a) It is prepared by adsorption of SO3 in conc. H2SO4
(b) It contains O−O groups
(c) It has six OH groups
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
63. Which of the following can react with K2Cr2O7?
(a) SO3−2
(b) CO3−2
(c) SO4−2
(d) NO3−
Answer: (a)
64. Which element can have oxidation state from 4 to 6?
(a) Fe
(b) Mg
(c) Co
(d) Cr
Answer: (d)
65. Order of acidic nature
(a) A > C > D > B
(b) A > B > D > C
(c) A > B > C > D
(d) D > C > B > A
Answer: (b)
66. The vapour pressure of pure CHCl3 and CH2Cl2 are 200 and 41.5 atm respectively. The weight of CHCl3 and CH2Cl2 are respectively 11.9 g and 17 g. The vapour pressure of solution will be
(a) 80.5
(b) 79.5
(c) 94.3
(d) 105.5
Answer: (c)
67. Correct order of bond dissociation energy
(a) Br2 > Cl2
(b) F2 > Cl2
(c) I2 > F2
(d) F2 > I2
Answer: (d)
68. The tetrahedral voids are present in 0.5 mole of hcp crystal structure
(a) 3.6 × 1023
(b) 9 × 1023
(c) 3.6 × 1024
(d) 6.02 × 1023
Answer: (d)
69. Find out time period of 1st order reaction. When reaction complete 2/3rd. If the value of rate constant is 4.3 × 10−4
(a) 0.0025 × 103 sec
(b) 0.25 × 103 sec
(c) 0.025 × 103 sec
(d) 2.5 × 103 sec
Answer: (d)
70. Compare stability of free radicals
(I) CH3−CH−CH3
(II)
(III) CH2 – CH(CH3)2
(IV) CH2 – CH3
(a) II > I > III > IV
(b) II > I > IV > III
(c) I > II > III > IV
(d) IV > III > I > II
Answer: (b)
71. Find out the products of reaction
(a) CH3CO2Na and CH3OH
(b) CH3CH2OH + CH3OH
(c) CH3CH2OH and HCO2Na
(d) CH3CO2Na + HCO2Na
Answer: (c)
72. If boiling point of water is 100° How much gram of NaCl is added in 500 g of water to increase its boiling point of water by approx
(a) 2.812 g
(b) 28.12 g
(c) 14.06 g
(d) 7.03 g
Answer: (b)
73. (i) F3C – COHH, (ii) CH3COOH,
(iii) C6H5COOH, (iv) CH3CH2COOH
Correct order of pKa value is
(a) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(b) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(c) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(d) (i) > (ii) > (iv) > (iii)
Answer: (b)
74. The correct relation is
(a) ∆G = −RT ln K/Q
(b) ∆G = +RT ln K
(c) ∆G = −RT ln Q/K
(d) ∆G = +RT ln Q
Answer: (a)
75. [Co(C2O4)3]3− is a
(a) low spin complex
(b) paramagnetic
(c) high spin
(d) sp3d2-hyridized
Answer: (a)
76. Find empirical formula of the compound if M = 68% (atomic mass = 34) and remaining 32% oxygen.
(a) MO
(b) M2O
(c) MO2
(d) M2O3
Answer: (a)
77. A bulb is emitted electromagnetic radiation of 660 nm wavelength. The total energy of radiation is 3 × 10−18 The number of emitted photon will be
(h = 6.6 × 10−34) J × s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 1000
Answer: (b)
78. Yellow colour of chlorine water fades because of
(a) form HCl and HOCl
(b) chlorine gas escapes
(c) ClO2 + H2
(d) Cl2O
Answer: (a)
79. Which have melting point below 500°C?
(a) Ag, Cu
(b) Zn, Cd
(c) Cd, Cu
(d) Ag, Zn
Answer: (b)
80. Which of the following inert gas participate in chemical reaction?
(a) Xe
(b) He
(c) Ne
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
81. Which of the following is correct order of packing efficiency?
(a) hcp = fcc > bcc > sc
(b) sc > bcc > hcp = fcc
(c) bcc > sc > hcp < fcc
(d) fcc = hcp > sc > bcc
Answer: (a)
82. Cell notation, If value of E°cell is 4 volt
(a) 3.94 V
(b) 4.06 V
(c) 2.03 V
(d) 8.18 V
Answer: (b)
83. Which of the following has maximum iron content?
(a) Cast Iron
(b) Wrought Iron
(c) Pig Iron
(d) Stainless steel
Answer: (b)
84. pH of a salt solution of weak acid (pKa = 4) and weak base (pKb = 5) at 25° is
(a) 6.5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 7.5
Answer: (a)
85. Correct increasing order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co3+ is
86. At 25°C, 1 mole of butane is heated then CO2 and H2O liquid is formed work done is
(a) 75.6 atm
(b) 85.6 atm
(c) 50.3 atm
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
87. What is the activation energy (kJ/mol) for a reaction if its rate constant doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 400 K of these (R = 8.314 Jmol−1K−1)
(a) 68.8
(b) 6.88
(c) 34.4
(d) 3.44
Answer: (b)
88. H2O2 is obtained by which of the following?
(a) BaO2
(b) MnO2
(c) SeO2
(d) TeO2
Answer: (a)
89. Which has least covalent radius?
(a) Mn
(b) Cu
(c) Zn
(d) Ni
Answer: (d)
90. Which give coloured carbonate precipitate?
(a) Hg22+
(b) Sr+2
(c) Bi+3
(d) Li+
Answer: (c)
91. Which of the following, number of lone pair at central atom zero XeO3, XeO2F2, XeO4, XeO3F2, XeF6?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) Zero
Answer: (a)
92.
Write IUPAC name of following compound.
(a) 4-methoxy-6-nitro cyclohexene
(b) 5-methoxy-3-nitro cyclohexene
(c) 3-nitro-1-methoxy cyclohex-4-ene
(d) 3-nitro-5-methoxy cyclohexene
Answer: (b)
93.
Correct order of basic strength is
(a) iii > ii > iv > i
(b) iv > iii > ii > i
(c) iii > ii > i > iv
(d) iii > i > ii > iv
Answer: (c)
94. Which is least soluble?
(a) Na2S
(b) MgS
(c) MgCl2
(d) NaCl
Answer: (b)
95. Correct order for reaction with alcoholic KOH
(a) A > B > C > D
(b) A > C > B > D
(c) D > B > C > A
(d) A > D > B > C
Answer: (b)
96. Which is most stable conformer of eathan-1, 2-diol?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (b)
97. Which pair of elements has maximum electronegativity difference?
(a) Li and F
(b) Na and F
(c) Na and Br
(d) Na and Cl
Answer: (b)
98. Correct order of electrophillic substitution reaction is
(a) A > B > C > D
(b) D > B > A > C
(c) B > A > C > D
(d) B > A > D > C
Answer: (c)
99. Which of the following complex is optically inactive?
(a) [RhCl(CO)(PPh3)(NH3)]
(b) [Fe(C2O4)3]3−
(c) [Fe(en)2Cl2]
(d) [Pd(en)2Cl2]
Answer: (a)
100. Match the following columns.
Polymer Monomer
(i) Buna –S (P) Styrene
(ii) Ethylene glycol (Q) Terylene
(iii) Elastomer (R) Chloroprene
(a) (i) – (P) (ii) – (Q), (iii) – (R)
(b) (i) – (R) (ii) – (P), (iii) – (Q)
(c) (i) – (Q) (ii) – (R), (iii) – (P)
(d) (i) – (P) (ii) – (R), (iii) – (Q)
Answer: (a)
Direction (Q. Nos. 101-120) In each of the following questions a statement of assertion is given followed by the corresponding statement of reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false
(d) If both assertion and reason are false
101. Assertion The chemical properties of different isotope are same.
Reason Isotopes having same number of neutron.
Answer: (c)
102. Assertion Out of CrO3 and Al2O3, CrO3 having lower melting point than Al2O3.
Reason Oxidation state of Cr in CrO3 is high.
Answer: (b)
103. Assertion U is state function.
Reason T is an intensive property.
Answer: (b)
104. Assertion BO3−3 and SO3−2 are not isostructural.
Reason In SO32− sulphur has one lone pair of electron.
Answer: (a)
105. Assertion Tert-butyl methyl ether react with HBr to form tert butyl, (CH3)3 C−Br and CH3−OH, methanal.
Reason It follow SN1 mechanism.
Answer: (a)
106. Assertion a spherical water drops become flaton flatter surface.
Reason It become flat due to gravity.
Answer: (a)
107. Assertion Two sugar units joined by 1, 2-glycosidic bond in sucrose.
Reason It contains C1-glucose and C2-fructose glycosidic bond.
Answer: (a)
108. Assertion S2O72− and Cr2O72− both exist.
Reason Both have same valence electrons.
Answer: (a)
109. Assertion ZnO becomes yellow when it is heated.
Reason The anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons (due to F-centres).
Answer: (b)
110. Assertion Yb2+ is more stable in compare to Gd+2.
Reason The electronic configuration of GD is [Xe]4 f75d26s2.
Answer: (c)
111. Assertion Glucose does not gives 2, 4-DNP test.
Reason Glucose exists in cyclic hemiacetal form.
Answer: (a)
112. Assertion Phenol reacts with CH3I in presence of NaOH to form methoxybenzene.
Reason Phenoxide is better nucleophile than phenol.
Answer: (a)
113. Assertion Nylon-6 is condensation polymer.
Reason It is polymer of caprolactum.
Answer: (a)
114. Assertion Tert-butyl amine can be formed by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason It follow SN1 mechanism.
Answer: (d)
115. Assertion Anhydrides are more reactive then ester for nucleophilic substitution.
Reason R.COO− is better leaving group than R−O−.
Answer: (a)
116. Assertion Propene reacts with H I in presence of peroxide give 1-iodopropane.
Reason 1° free radical is less stable than 2° free radical.
Answer: (b)
117. Assertion For liquid dishwashing non-ionic type of detergent are used.
Reason Remove grease and oil by micelle formation.
Answer: (a)
118. Assertion d5 configuration is more stable than d4.
Reason d5 has more exchange energy as compared to d4 because 10 and 6 exchanges are possible in d5 and d4 respectively.
Answer: (a)
119. Assertion The graph between pV v/s 1/V is a straight line.
Reason For adiabatic process, p ∝ 1/V
Answer: (c)
120. Assertion Tryptophan is an example of non-essential amino acids.
Reason The amino acids that are not synthesized in human body are non-essential aminoacids.
Answer: (d)
Part C : Biology
121. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Perigynous-Plum, peach, rose
(b) Epigynous-Guava and Cucumber
(c) Hypogynous-Mustard and rose
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d)
122. Chimeric DNA is
(a) gene clone
(b) recombinant DNA
(c) transposon
(d) vector shuttle
Answer: (b)
123. Which of the following are homosporous?
(a) Salvinia, Equisetum
(b) Salvinia, Lycopodium
(c) Selaginella, Salvinia
(d) Lycopodium, Equisetum
Answer: (d)
124. What is the site of C3 cycle in C3 and C4 plants?
(a) In C3 plants-Mesophyll cell and in C4 plants-Bundle sheath cell
(b) In C3 plants-Bundle sheath cell and in C4 polants-Mesophyll cell
(c) In C4 plants-Bundle sheath cell and in C3 plants-Bundle sheath cell
(d) In C3 plants-Mesophyll cell and in C4 plants-Mesophyll cell
Answer: (a)
125. Which of the following represent zygomorphic symmetry?
(a) Canna, Mustard, Chilly, Datura
(b) Mustard, Canna, Pea, Datura
(c) Pea, Bean, Cassia, Gulmohar
(d) Pea, Bean, Canna, Chilly
Answer: (c)
126. In Ti-plasmid, which of the following is removed?
(a) Auxin gene
(b) Virulent gene
(c) Cytokinin gene
(d) Auxin and cytokinin gene
Answer: (b)
127. Which statement is correct?
(a) Mycoplasma is smallest and wall less living organism
(b) Influenza and herpes caused by virus having DNA and RNA
(c) Nostoc and Anabaena are important decomposer
(d) Methanogen are methane producing bacteria in wheat crop
Answer: (a)
128. The genetic codes of arginine are
(a) CGU, CGC, CGA
(b) CAU, CAC, CAA
(c) AGU, AGC, AAC
(d) GAU, GAC, GAA
Answer: (a)
129. King of spices is
(a) Brassica nigra
(b) Piper nigrum
(c) Piper longum
(d) Curcuma longa
Answer: (b)
130. ATP formation occurs through which of the following?
(a) Photophosphorylation
(b) Oxidative phosphorylation
(c) Substrate level phosphorylation
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
131. What are the requirements in tissue culture?
(a) Hormones like auxin, cytokinin, agar-agar
(b) Inorganic salt, vitamin, amino acid only
(c) Carbon source like sucrose only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
132. Oxytocin and ADH are produced by hypothalamus and released from
(a) anterior pituitary
(b) posterior pituitary
(c) pineal gland
(d) thymus
Answer: (b)
133. Characteristic of female cockroach
(a) presence of anal style
(b) each ovary is made up ‘6’ ovarioles
(c) one pair spermatheca present and opens in genital chamber
(d) genital pouch is made up of 9th, 10th tergum and 9th sternum
Answer: (c)
134. Which of the following linkage is found in sucrose?
(a) 1, 2-glycosidic linkage
(b) 1, 4-glycosidic linkage
(c) 1, 3-glycosidic linkage
(d) 1, 1-glycosidic linkage
Answer: (a)
135. Which cell is found in mucus secreting organs?
(a) Goblet cells
(b) Paneth cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Peptic cells
Answer: (a)
136. Glucose or reacting with Benedict’s solution may give the following precipitates except
(a) violet precipitate
(b) orange red precipitate
(c) brick red precipitate
(d) green/yellow precipitate
Answer: (a)
137. Cervical vertebrae differ from the vertebrae in having
(a) spinous process
(b) centrum
(c) transverse process
(d) transverse foramen
Answer: (d)
138. Mark the incorrect statement for inbreeding.
(a) Inbreeding depression increases productivity
(b) Inbreeding depression can be overcome by outcrossing
(c) Produces purelines
(d) Increases homozygosity
Answer: (a)
139. Animal of which phylum have hooks and suckers and are endoparasite on other animals?
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Annelida
(c) Aschelminthes
(d) Arthropoda
Answer: (a)
140. Select the wrong statement from the following.
(a) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases
(b) Less than 10% of the genome codes for protein
(c) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome
(d) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968) and Y has the fewest (231)
Answer: (b)
141. Protein on reaction with which yields Ruhemann’s purple?
(a) Ninhydrin
(b) Cu2+
(c) H2O2
(d) Benedict’s solution
Answer: (a)
142. Gene library or DNA library has the collection of
(a) DNA and RNA
(b) Any one type of gene of organism
(c) cDNA
(d) All possible genes are organisms
Answer: (c)
143. Which of the following are all nucleotides?
(a) Adenosine, Cytidilic acid, Cytosine
(b) Adenylic acid, Cytidilic acid, Guanylic acid
(c) Cytidine, Adenine, Adenylic acid
(d) Uracil, Thymidine, Thymidylic acid
Answer: (b)
144. Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(Substrate) (Enzyme)
(A) Ribonucleotide (i) Chitinase
(B) Chitin (ii) Cellulase
(C) Cellulose (iii) Ribonuclease
(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii)
(b) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii)
(c) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i)
(d) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii)
Answer: (b)
145. Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(A) Chrysophyte (i) Gonyaulax
(B) Dinoflagellate (ii) Euglena
(C) Euglenoids (iii) Diatom
(D) Slime moulds (iv) Plasmodium
(a) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv)
(b) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)
(c) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (i)
(d) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iv)
Answer: (d)
146. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Mango and coconut are drupe fruit
(b) According to Euro Norm IV sulphur content for petrol is 50 ppm
(c) CO2 and other poisonous gases cause pollution
(d) Apple is a true fruit
Answer: (d)
147. The process of removal of anther from the flower bud before it dehisces is called as
(a) Emasculation
(b) Bagging
(c) Embryo rescue
(d) Budding
Answer: (a)
148. Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(A) Tap root (i) Sweet potato
(B) Adventitious root (ii) Turnip
(C) Stem (iii) Wheat
(D) Fibrous root (iv) Potato
(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(b) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)
(c) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)
(d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
Answer: (c)
149. Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(A) Pleiotropic (i) Both alleles express equally
(B) Co-dominance (ii) Change in nucleotides
(C) Epistasis (iii) One gene shows multiple phenotypic expression
(D) Mutation (iv) Non-allelic gene inheritance
(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(b) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
(c) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)
(d) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (ii)
Answer: (c)
150. Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(A) KC Mehta (i) Fluid mosaic model
(B) P. Maheswari (ii) First recombinant plasmid
(C) Cohen and Boyer (iii) Haploid culture
(D) Singer and Nicolson (iv) Rust disease
(a) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv)
(b) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(c) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(d) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
Answer: (b)
151. What is the function of Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus?
(a) Filtration of blood
(b) Reabsorption of ions from blood
(c) Reabsorption of hormones from blood
(d) Reabsorption of water from blood
Answer: (a)
152. Virus free plants can be formed by
(a) meristem culture
(b) callus culture
(c) somatic cell culture
(d) protoplast fusion
Answer: (a)
153. Immunity tolerance developed by
(a) interaction with the antigen
(b) giving antibodies
(c) present by birth
(d) giving antibiotics
Answer: (a)
154. Hairy root disease of dicot plants is caused by
(a) Agrobacterium tumefacians
(b) Agrobacterium rhizogene
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) Meloidogyne incognita
Answer: (b)
155. Choose the correct option.
(a) A. Testis-possesses 3-4 testicular lobule
(b) B. Seminal vesicle-storage of sperm
(c) C. Vas deferens-help in sperm transfer
(d) D. Prostate gland-secretes seminal fluid
Answer: (c)
156. Identify the given diagram of tissue performing secretion and absorption.
159. Blood group of the father is ‘A’ and blood group of mother of ‘B’. Then predict the blood group of the progeny
(a) A, AB
(b) A, B, AB, O
(c) B, AB
(d) O, A, B
Answer: (b)
160. It mitochondria is absent in mature RBC, what will be the source of energy?
(a) TCA
(b) ETS
(c) Link reaction
(d) Glycolysis
Answer: (d)
Directions for questions (161-180) In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) If Assertion is true, but reason is false
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
161. Assertion Cholecystokinin is released by duodenum.
181. For how many seats does the parliament hold Elections?
(a) 540
(b) 541
(c) 542
(d) 543
Answer: (d)
182. Who is the present chief election commissioner?
(a) Misa Bharati
(b) Sunil Arora
(c) M. N. Singh
(d) Prashant kishore
Answer: (b)
183. Which country has not yet conducted anti-satellite missile test?
(a) India
(b) US
(c) Russia
(d) France
Answer: (d)
184. Arrange the cities from East to West
(I) Cairo (II) Tehran
(III) Triop (IV) Baghdad
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, IV, I, III
(c) III, I, IV, II
(d) IV, III, II, I
Answer: (b)
185. What will be the next number in the series?
10, 9, 7, 4, ?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer: (d)
186. Ram is the brother of Seema and Ram is married to Radhika. Seema has two sons Raushan and Manu. What is Raushan to Radhika.
(a) Niece
(b) Nephew
(c) Cousin
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
187. Which of the following states is odd one out in terms international border?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Punjab
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: (d)
188. Neerav Modi is associated with
(a) Share Market
(b) Oil
(c) Diamond
(d) Gold
Answer: (c)
189. Which of the following van-diagram represents relations between them female : sister : : parents
Answer: (d)
190. Arrange the following states in decreasing order of their LOK SABHA seats.
(a) Madhya Pradesh > Maharashtra > Bihar > West Bengal
(b) Maharashtra > Bihar > West Bengal > Madhya Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh > Maharashtra > Bihar > West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra > West Bengal > Bihar > Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (d)
191. Loksabha Elections 2019 have been conducted in how many phases?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer: (c)
192. In a shopping plaza, 20% discount is being offered on a product of Rs 2000/-. If the shop owner offer 10% additional discount on the actual/initial price at the time of billing, what will be the final price of the product?
(a) 1800
(b) 1600
(c) 1440
(d) 1400
Answer: (d)
193. Wiki Leaks founder Julian Assange was arrested recently from the embassy of
(a) France
(b) Italy
(c) Educator
(d) Dubai
Answer: (c)
194. Among the following rivers, which river has a different direction of flow?
(a) Godavari
(b) Kaveri
(c) Narmada
(d) Krishna
Answer: (c)
195. Who is the Governor of Reserve bank of India (RBI)
(a) C. Rangarajan
(b) Man Mohan Singh
(c) Shaktikanta Das
(d) Urjit Patel
Answer: (c)
196. Which agency conducted anti-satellite missile test recently?
(a) Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
(b) Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO)
(c) Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
(d) Indian Council of Agricultural
Answer: (b)
197. Find the odd one out with respect to Coastal Line of India.
(a) Karnataka
(b) Odisha
(c) Tamilnadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (a)
198. 3 Fruits Banana, Mango and Orange were available in the ratio 3 : 4 : 1. 3 Bananas are removed from the total available fruits and ratio of remaining fruits become 2 : 4 : 1. Find the total number of remaining fruits after removing 3 bananas?
(a) 21
(b) 20
(c) 19
(d) 18
Answer: (a)
199. “Kind of Good Times” is associated with.
(a) Neerav Modi
(b) Mehul Chauksi
(c) Gupta Brothers
(d) Vijay Mallya
Answer: (d)
200. Which aircraft were used in air strike in Balakot?
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
• For example : in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark.
1. A thin and uniform rod of mass M and length L is held vertical on a floor with large friction. The rod is released from rest so that it falls by rotating about its contact-point with the floor without slipping. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct, when the rod makes an angle 60° with vertical ?
[g is the acceleration due to gravity]
(A) The angular speed of the rod will be
(B) The angular acceleration of the rod will be 2g/L
(C) The radial acceleration of the rod’s center of mass will be 3g/4
(D) The normal reaction force from the floor on the rod will be Mg/16
Answer: (A, C, D)
2. A block of mass 2M is attached to a massless spring with spring-constant k. This block is connected to two other blocks of masses M and 2M using two massless pulleys and strings. The accelerations of the blocks are a1 , a2 and a3 as shown in the figure. The system is released from rest with the spring in its unstretched state. The maximum extension of the spring is x0 . Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?
[g is the acceleration due to gravity. Neglect friction]
(A)
(B) When spring achieves an extension of x0/2 for the first time, the speed of the block connected to the spring is
(C) At an extension of x0/4 of the spring, the magnitude of acceleration of the block connected to the spring is 3g/10
(D) a2 – a1 = a1 – a3
Answer: (D)
3. A small particle of mass m moving inside a heavy, hollow and straight tube along the tube axis undergoes elastic collision at two ends. The tube has no friction and it is closed at one end by a flat surface while the other end is fitted with a heavy movable flat piston as shown in figure. When the distance of the piston from closed end is L = L0 the particle speed is v = v 0 . The piston is moved inward at a very low speed V such that where dL is the infinitesimal displacement of the piston. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The rate at which the particle strikes the piston v/L
(B) After each collision with the piston, the particle speed increases by 2V
(C) If the piston moves inward by dL, the particle speed increases by
(D) The particle’s kinetic energy increases by a factor of 4 when the piston is moved inward from L0 to
Answer: (B, D)
4. An electric dipole with dipole moment is held fixed at the origin O in the presence of an uniform electric field of magnitude E0. If the potential is constant on a circle of radius R centered at the origin as shown in figure, then the correct statement(s) is/are:
(ε0 is permittivity of free space. R >> dipole size)
(A)
(B) Total electric field at point A is
(C) Total electric field at point B is
(D) The magnitude of total electric field on any two points of the circle will be same.
Answer: (A, C)
5. A mixture of ideal gas containing 5 moles of monatomic gas and 1 mole of rigid diatomic gas is initially at pressure P0 , volume V0 , and temperature T0 . If the gas mixture is adiabatically compressed to a volume V0 /4, then the correct statement(s) is/are, (Given 22 = 2.3; 23.2 = 9.2; R is gas constant)
(A) The work |W| done during the process is 13RT0
(B) The average kinetic energy of the gas mixture after compression is in between 18RT0 and 19RT0
(C) The final pressure of the gas mixture after compression is in between 9P0 and 10P0
(D) Adiabatic constant of the gas mixture is 1.6
Answer: (A, C, D)
6. Three glass cylinders of equal height H = 30 cm and same refractive index n = 1.5 are placed on a horizontal surface as shown in figure. Cylinder I has a flat top, cylinder II has a convex top and cylinder III has a concave top. The radii of curvature of the two curved tops are same (R = 3 m). If H1 , H2 , and H3 are the apparent depths of a point X on the bottom of the three cylinders, respectively, the correct statement(s) is/are:
(A) H2 > H1
(B) H3 > H1
(C) H2 > H3
(D) 0.8 cm < (H2 – H1) < 0.9 cm
Answer: (A, C)
7. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the slit separation d is 0.3 mm and the screen distance D is 1 m. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on the slits at angle α as shown in figure. On the screen, the point O is equidistant from the slits and distance PO is 11.0 mm. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) For there will be destructive interference at point O.
(B) For α = 0, there will be constructive interference at point P.
(C) For there will be destructive interference at point P.
(D) Fringe spacing depends on α.
Answer: (C)
8. A free hydrogen atom after absorbing a photon of wavelength λa gets excited from the state n = 1 to the state n = 4. Immediately after that the electron jumps to n = m state by emitting a photon of wavelength λe. Let the change in momentum of atom due to the absorption and the emission are ∆pa and ∆pe, respectively. If λa/λe = 1/5, which of the option(s) is/are correct?
[Use hc = 1242 eV nm; 1 nm = 10−9 m, h and c are Planck’s constant and speed of light, respectively)
(A) m = 2
(B) λe = 418 nm
(C) ∆pa/∆pe = 1/2
(D) The ratio of kinetic energy of the electron in the state n = m to the state n = 1 is 1/4
Answer: (A, D)
SECTION – 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
9. A ball is thrown from ground at an angle θ with horizontal and with an initial speed u0. For the resulting projectile motion, the magnitude of average velocity of the ball up to the point when it hits the ground for the first time is V1 . After hitting the ground, the ball rebounds at the same angle θ but with a reduced speed of u0/α. Its motion continues for a long time as shown in figure. If the magnitude of average velocity of the ball for entire duration of motion is 0.8 V1, the value of α is _________.
Answer: (4)
10. A 10 cm long perfectly conducting wire PQ is moving with a velocity 1 cm/s on a pair of horizontal rails of zero resistance. One side of the rails is connected to an inductor L = 1 mH and a resistance R = 1 Ω as shown in figure. The horizontal rails, L and R lie in the same plane with a uniform magnetic field B = 1 T perpendicular to the plane. If the key S is closed at certain instant, the current in the circuit after 1 millisecond is x × 10–3 A, where the value of x is ______.
[Assume the velocity of wire PQ remains constant (1 cm/s) after key S is closed. Given: e–1 = 0.37, where e is base of the natural logarithm]
Answer: (0.62 to 0.64)
11. A monochromatic light is incident from air on a refracting surface of a prism of angle 75° and refractive index n0 = √ The other refracting surface of the prism is coated by a thin film of material of refractive index n as shown in figure. The light suffers total internal reflection at the coated prism surface for an incidence angle of θ ≤ 60°. The value of n2 is _______.
Answer: (1.50)
12. A perfectly reflecting mirror of mass M mounted on a spring constitutes a spring-mass system of angular frequency Ω such that with h as Planck’s constant, N photons of wavelength λ = 8π × 10–6 m strike the mirror simultaneously at normal incidence such that the mirror gets displaced by 1 μ If the value of N is x × 1012, then the value of x is _______.
[Consider the spring as massless]
Answer: (1)
13. Suppose a nucleus at rest and in ground state undergoes α-decay to a nucleus in its excited state. The kinetic energy of the emitted α particle is found to be 4.44 MeV. nucleus then goes to its ground state by γ-decay. The energy of the emitted γ photon is _______ keV.
[Given: atomic mass of atomic mass of atomic mass of α particle = 4.00 u, 1 u = 931 MeV/c2, c is speed of the light]
Answer: (130 to 140)
14. An optical bench has 1.5 m long scale having four equal divisions in each cm. While measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the lens is kept at 75 cm mark of the scale and the object pin is kept at 45 cm mark. The image of the object pin on the other side of the lens overlaps with image pin that is kept at 135 cm mark. In this experiment, the percentage error in the measurement of the focal length of the lens is _______.
Answer: (1.35 to 1.45)
SECTION – 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)
• This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.
• Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.
• Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).
• Four options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Answer Q. 15 and Q. 16 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph
A musical instrument is made using four different metal strings. 1, 2, 3 and 4 with mass per unit length μ, 2μ, and 4μ respectively. The instrument is played by vibrating the strings by varying the free length in between the range L0 and 2L0. It is found that in string-1 (μ) at free length L0 and tension T0 the fundamental mode frequency is f0
.List-I gives the above four strings while list-II lists the magnitude of some quantity.
15. If the tension in each string is T0, the correct match for the highest fundamental frequency in f0 units will be.
(A) I → P, II → Q, III → T, IV → S
(B) I → P, II → R, III → S, IV → Q
(C) I → Q, II → S, III → R, IV → P
(D) I → Q, II → P, III → R, IV → T
Answer: (B)
16. The length of the strings 1, 2, 3 and 4 are kept fixed at L0, 3L0/2, 5L0/4, and 7L0/4, respectively. Strings 1, 2, 3 and 4 are vibrated at their 1st, 3rd, 5th, and 14th harmonics, respectively such that all the strings have same frequency. The correct match for the tension in the four strings in the units of T0 will be,
(A) I → P, II → R, III → T, IV → U
(B) I → P, II → Q, III → T, IV → U
(C) I → P, II → Q, III → R, IV → T
(D) I → T, II → Q, III → R, IV → U
Answer: (B)
Answer Q. 17 and Q. 18 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph
Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph In a thermodynamic process on an ideal monatomic gas, the infinitesimal heat absorbed by the gas is given by T∆X, where T is temperature of the system and ∆X is the infinitesimal change in a thermodynamic quantity X of the system. For a mole of monatomic ideal gas Here, R is gas constant, V is volume of gas, TA and VA are constants.
The List-I below gives some quantities involved in a process and List-II gives some possible values of these quantities.
17. If the process carried out on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is as shown in figure in the PV-diagram with the correct match is,
(A) I → Q, II → R, III → P, IV → U
(B) I → Q, II → R, III → S, IV → U
(C) I → S, II → R, III → Q, IV → T
(D) I → Q, II → S, III → R, IV → U
Answer: (B)
18. If the process on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is as shown in the TV-diagram with the correct match is,
(A) I → P, II → R, III → T, IV → S
(B) I → P, II → T, III → Q, IV → T
(C) I → P, II → R, III → T, IV → P
(D) I → S, II → T, III → Q, IV → U
Answer: (C)
JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER 2
PART-II CHEMISTRY
SECTION – 1 (Maximum Marks : 32)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
• For example : in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark.
1. The cyanide process of gold extraction involves leaching out gold from its ore with CN– in the presence of Q in water to form R. Subsequently, R is treated with T to obtain Au and Z. Choose the correct option(s)
(A) Q is O2
(B) T is Zn
(C) Z is [Zn(CN)4]2−
(D) R is [Au(CN)4]−
Answer: (A, B, C)
2. With reference to aqua regia, choose the correct option(s).
(A) Aqua regia is prepared by mixing conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in 3 : 1 (v/v) ratio
(B) Reaction of gold with aqua regia produces an anion having Au in +3 oxidation state
(C) Reaction of gold with aqua regia produces NO2 in the absence of air
(D) The yellow colour of aqua regia is due to the presence of NOCl and Cl2
Answer: (A, B, D)
3. Consider the following reactions (unbalanced)
Zn + hot conc. H2SO4 → G + R + X
Zn + conc. NaOH → T + Q
G + H2S + NH4OH →Z (a precipitate) + X + Y
Choose the correct option(s)
(A) Z is dirty white in colour
(B) The oxidation state of Zn in T is +1
(C) R is a V-shaped molecule
(D) Bond order of Q is in its ground state
Answer: (A, C, D)
4. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. Consider an electronic state Ψ of He+ whose energy, azimuthal quantum number and magnetic quantum number are –3.4 eV, 2 and 0, respectively. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true for the state Ψ?
(A) It is a 4d state
(B) It has 2 angular nodes
(C) It has 3 radial nodes
(D) The nuclear charge experienced by the electron in this state is less than 2e, where e is the magnitude of the electronic charge
Answer: (A, B)
5. Which of the following reactions produce(s) propane as a major product?
Answer: (A, C)
6. Choose the correct option(s) that give(s) an aromatic compound as the major product
Answer: (A, B)
7. Choose the correct option(s) for the following reaction sequence
Consider Q, R and S as major products
Answer: (C, D)
8. Choose the correct option(s) from the following
(A) Natural rubber is polyisoprene containing trans alkene units
(B) Nylon-6 has amide linkages
(C) Teflon is prepared by heating tetrafluoroethene is presence of a persulphate catalyst pressure
(D) Cellulose has only α-D-glucose units that are joined by glycosidic linkages
Answer: (B, C)
SECTION – 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
9. The amount of water produced (in g) in the oxidation of 1 mole of rhombic sulphur by conc. HNO3 to a compound with the highest oxidation state of sulphur is ___
Answer: (288.00 to 288.30)
10. Total number of cis N–Mn–Cl bond angles (that is, Mn–N and Mn–Cl bonds in cis positions) present in a molecule of cis-[Mn(en)2Cl2] complex is _________
(en = NH2CH2CH2NH2)
Answer: (6)
11. The decomposition reaction is started in a closed cylinder under isothermal isochoric condition at an initial pressure of 1 atm. After Y × 103 s, the pressure inside the cylinder is found to be 1.45 atm. If the rate constant of the reaction is 5 × 10–4 s–1, assuming ideal gas behavior, the value of Y is __________.
Answer: (2.30 to 2.31)
12. The mole fraction of urea in an aqueous urea solution containing 900 g of water is 0.05. If the density of the solution is 1.2 g cm–3, the molarity of urea solution is ________
(Given data: molar masses of urea and water are 60 g mol−1 and 18 g mol−1, respectively)
Answer: (2.80 to 3.05)
13. Total number of hydroxyl groups present in a molecule of the major product P is ____
Answer: (6)
14. Total number of isomers, considering both structural and stereoisomers, of cyclic ethers with the molecular formula C4H8O is ____
Answer: (10)
SECTION – 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)
• This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.
• Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.
• Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).
• Four options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Answer Q. 15 and Q. 16 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph
Consider the Bohr’s model of a one-electron atom where the electron moves around the nucleus. In the following, List-I contains some quantities for the nth orbit of the atom and List-II contains options showing how they depend on n.
15. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
(A) (I), (P)
(B) (I), (T)
(C) (II), (Q)
(D) (II), (R)
Answer: (B)
16. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
(A) (III), (P)
(B) (III), (S)
(C) (IV), (Q)
(D) (IV), (U)
Answer: (A)
Answer Q. 17 and Q. 18 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph
List-I includes starting materials and reagents of selected chemical reactions List-II gives structures of compounds that may be formed as intermediate products and/or final products from the reactions of List-I.
17. Which of the following options has correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
(A) (I), (Q), (T), (U)
(B) (II), (P), (S), (T)
(C) (II), (P), (S), (U)
(D) (I), (S), (Q), (R)
Answer: (C
18. Which of the following options has correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
(A) (III), (S), (R)
(B) (IV), (Q), (U)
(C) (III), (T), (U)
(D) (IV), (Q), (R)
Answer: (D)
JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER 2
PART-III MATHEMATICS
SECTION – 1 (Maximum Marks : 32)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
• For example : in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark.
1. Let
where PkT denotes the transpose of the matrix Pk. Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A)
(B) X is a symmetric matrix
(C) The sum of diagonal entries of X is 18
(D) X – 30I is an inverible matrix
Answer: (A, B, C)
2. Let x ∈ ℝ and let
and R = PQP−1.
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) There exists a real number x such that PQ = QP
(B)
(C)
(D) For x = 1, there exists a unit vector
Answer: (B, C)
3. For non-negative integers n, let
Assuming cos−1 x takes values in [0, π], which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) f(4) = √3/2
(B)
(C) If α = tan(cos−1 f(6)), then α2 + 2α – 1 = 0
(D) sin(7 cos−1f(5)) = 0
Answer: (A, C, D)
4. Let f : ℝ → ℝ be a function. We say that f has
PROPERTY 1 if exists and is finite, and
PROPERTY 2 if exists and is finite.
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) f(x) = |x| has PROPERTY 1
(B) f(x) = x2/3 has PROPERTY 1
(C) f(x) = x|x| has PROPERTY 2
(D) f(x) = sin x has PROPERTY 2
Answer: (A, B)
5. Let
Let x1 < x2 < x3 < … < xn < … be all the points of local maximum of f
and y1 < y2 < y3 < … < yn < … be all the points of local minimum of f.
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) x1 < y1
(B) xn+1 – xn > 2 for every n
(C)
(D) |xn – yn| > 1 for every n
Answer: (B, C, D)
6. For a ∈ ℝ, |a| > 1, let
Then the possible value(s) of a is/are
(A) −9
(B) −6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Answer: (A, D)
7. Let f : ℝ → ℝ be given by f(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 5). Define
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) F has a local minimum at x= 1
(B) F has a local maximum at x = 2
(C) F has two local maxima and one local minimum in (0, ∞)
(D) F(x) ≠ 0 for all x ∈ (0, 5)
Answer: (A, B, D)
8. Three lines
are given. For which point(s) Q on L2 can we find a point P on L1 and a point R on L3 so that P, Q and R are collinear?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (A, C)
SECTION – 2 (Maximum Marks : 18)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
9. Suppose
holds for some positive integer n. Then equals___
Answer: (6.2)
10. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are seated in a circular arrangement. If each of them is given a hat of one of the three colours red, blue and green, then the number of ways of distributing the hats such that the persons seated in adjacent seats get different coloured hats is _____
Answer: (30)
11. Let |X| denote the number of elements in a set X. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} be a sample space, where each element is equally likely to occur. If A and B are independent events associated with S, then the number of ordered pairs (A, B) such that 1 ≤ |B| < |A|, equals ____
Answer: (422)
12. The value of
in the interval equals_____
Answer: (0)
13. The value of the integral equals___
Answer: (0.5)
14. Let be two vectors. Consider a vector α, β ∈ ℝ. If the projection of on the vector is 3√2, then the minimum value of equals______
Answer: (18)
SECTION – 3 (Maximum Marks : 12)
• This section contains TWO (02) List-Match sets.
• Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice Questions.
• Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).
• Four options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Answer Q.15 and Q.16 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph.
Let f(x) = sin(πcosx) and g(x) = cos(2πsinx) be two functions defined for x > 0. Define the following sets
whose elements are written in the increasing order :
X = {x : f(x) = 0}, Y = {x : f ʹ(x) = 0},
Z = {x : g(x) = 0}, W = {x : g ʹ(x) = 0}.
List-I contains the sets X, Y, Z and W. List-II contains some information regarding these sets.
15. Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?
(A) (I), (P), (R)
(B) (II), (Q), (T)
(C) (I), (Q), (U)
(D) (II), (R), (S)
Answer: (B)
16. Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?
(A) (III), (R), (U)
(B) (IV), (P), (R), (S)
(C) (III), (P), (Q), (U)
(D) (IV), (Q), (T)
Answer: (B)
Answer Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph.
Let the circles C1 : x2 + y2 = 9 and C2 : (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 16, intersect at the points X and Y. Suppose that another circle C3 : (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2 satisfies the following conditions :
(i) centre of C3 is collinear with the centres of C1 and C2,
(ii) C1 and C2 both lie inside C3, and
(iii)C3 touches C1 at M and C2 at N.
Let the line through X and Y intersect C3 at Z and W, and let a common tangent of C1 and C3 be a tangent to the parabola x2 = 8αy.
There are some expressions given in the List-I whose values are given in List-II below :
17. Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?
(A) (I), (S)
(B) (I), (U)
(C) (II), (Q)
(D) (II), (T)
Answer: (C)
18. Which of the following is the only INCORRECT combination?
• Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, Choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
1. Consider a spherical gaseous cloud of mass density ρ (r) in free space where r is the radial distance from its center. The gaseous cloud is made of particles of equal mass m moving in circular orbits about the common center with the same kinetic energy K. The force acting on the particles is their mutual gravitational force. If ρ(r) is constant in time, the particle number density n(r) = ρ(r)/m is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (A)
2. A thin spherical insulating shell of radius R carries a uniformly distributed charge such that the potential at its surface is V0. A hole with a small are α4πR2 (α<<1) is made on the shell without affecting the rest of the shell. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The potential at the center of the shell is reduced by 2αV0
(B) The magnitude of electric field at the center of the shell is reduced by
(C) The ratio of the potential at the center of the shell to that of the point at from center towards the hole will be
(D) The magnitude of electric at a point, located on all in passing through the hole and shell’s center, on a distance 2R from the center of the spherical shell will be reduced by
Answer: (C)
3. A current carrying wire heats a metal rod. The wire provides a constant power (P) to the rod. The metal rod is enclosed in an insulated container. It is observed that the temperature (T) in the metal rod changes with time (t) as
T(t) = T0(1+βt1/4),
where β is a constant with appropriate dimension while T0 is a constant with dimension of temperature. The heat capacity of the metal is,
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (A)
4. In a radioactive sample, nuclei either decay into stable nuclei with decay constant 4.5 × 10−10 per year or into stable nuclei with decay constant 0.5 × 10−10 per year. Given that in this sample all the stable nuclei are produced by the nuclei only. In time t × 109 year, if the ratio of the sum of stable nuclei to the radioactive nuclei is 99, the value of t will be, [Given : In 10 = 2.3]
(A) 1.15
(B) 9.2
(C) 2.3
(D) 4.6
Answer: (B)
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 32)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get −1 mark.
5. A cylindrical capillary tube of 0.2 mm radius is made by joining two capillaries T1 and T2 of different materials having water contact angles of 0° and 60°, respectively. The capillary tube is dipped vertically in water in two different configurations, case I and II as shown in figure. Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct?
[Surface tension of water = 0.075 N/m, density of water = 1000 kg/m3, take g= 10 m/s2]
(A) The correction in the height of water column raised in the tube, due to weight of water contained in the meniscus, will be different for both cases.
(B) For case II, if the capillary joint is 5 cm above the water surface, the height of water column raised in the tube will be 3.75 cm. (Neglect the weight of the water in the meniscus)
(C) For case I, if the joint is kept at 8 cm above the water surface, the height of water column in the tube will be 7.5 cm. (Neglect the weight of the water in the meniscus)
(D) For case I, if the capillary joint is 5 cm above the water surface, the height of water column raised in the tube will be more than 8.75 cm. (Neglect the weight of the water in the meniscus)
Answer: (A, B, C)
6. A conducting wire of parabolic shape, initially y = x2, is moving with velocity in a non-uniform magnetic field as shown in figure. If V0, B0, L and β are positive constant and ∆ϕ is the potential difference developed between the ends of the wire, then the correct statement(s) is/are:
(A)
(B)
(C) |∆ϕ| remains the same if the parabolic wire is replaced by a straight wire, y = x initially, of length √2 L
(D) |∆ϕ| is proportional to the length of the wire projected on the y-axis.
Answer: (B, C, D)
7. In the circuit shown, initially there is no charge on capacitors and keys S1 and S2 are open. The values of the capacitors are C1 = 10 μF, C2 = 30 μF and C3 = C4 = 80 μF.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) At time t = 0, the key S1 is closed, the instantaneous current in the closed circuit will be 25 mA.
(B) If key S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged, the voltage across the capacitor C1 will be 4 V.
(C) The key S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged. Now key S2 is closed, at this time, the instantaneous current across 30 Ω resistor ( between points P and Q) will be 0.2 A (round off to 1st decimal place).
(D) If key S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged, the voltage difference between points P and Q will be 10 V.
Answer: (A, B)
8. A charged shell of radius R carries a total charge Q. Given Φ as the flux of electric field through a closed cylindrical surface of height h, radius r and with its center same as that of the shell. Here, center of the cylinder is a point on the axis of the cylinder which is equidistant from its top and bottom surfaces. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?
[ϵ0 is the permittivity of free space]
(A) If h > 2R and r > R then Φ = Q/ϵ0
(B) If h < 8R/5 and r = 3R/5 then Φ = 0
(C) If h > 2R and r = 3R/5 then Φ = Q/5ϵ0
(D) If h > 2R and r = 4R/5 then Φ = Q/5ϵ0
Answer: (A, B, C)
9. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas goes through a thermodynamic cycle, as shown in the volume versus temperature (V-T) diagram. The correct statement(S) is/are:
[R is the gas constant]
(A) Work done in this thermodynamic cycle
(B) The above thermodynamic cycle exhibits only isochoric and adiabatic processes.
(C) The ratio of heat transfer during processes
(D) The ratio of heat transfer during processes
Answer: (A, C)
10. A thin convex lens is made of two materials with refractive indices n1 and n2, as shown in figure. The radius of curvature of the left and right spherical surface are equal. f is the focal length of the lens when n1 = n2 = n. The focal lengths is f + ∆f when n1 = n and n2 = n + ∆ Assuming ∆n << (n – 1) and 1 < n < 2, the correct statement(s) is/are,
(A)
(B) For n = 1.5, ∆n = 10−3 and f = 20 cm, the value of |∆f| will be 0.02 cm (round off to 2nd decimal place).
(C)
(D) The relation between remains unchanged if both the convex surfaces are replaced by concave surfaces of the same radius of curvature.
Answer: (B, C, D)
11. Let us consider a system of units in which mass and angular momentum are dimensionaless. If length has dimension of L, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The dimension of linear momentum is L−1
(B) The dimension of energy is L−2
(C) The dimension of force is L−3
(D) The dimension of power is L−5
Answer: (A, B, C)
12. Two identical moving coil galvanometer have 10 Ω resistance full scale deflection at 2 μA current. One of them is converted into a voltmeter of 100 mV full scale reading and the other into an Ammeter of 1mA full scale current using appropriate resistors. These are then used to measure the voltage and current in the Ohm’s law experiment with R = 1000 Ω resistor by using an ideal cell. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The resistance of the Voltmeter will be 100 kΩ
(B) The resistance of the Ammeter will be 0.02 Ω (round off to 2nd decimal place)
(C) The measured value of R will be 978 Ω < R < 982 Ω
(D) If the ideal cell is replaced by a cell having internal resistance of 5 Ω then the measured value of R will be more than 1000 Ω
Answer: (B, C)
SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks : 18)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
13. A particle is moved along a path AB-BC-CD-DE-EF-FA, as shown in figure, in presence of a force where x and y are in meter and α = −1 Nm−1. The work done on the particle by this force will be _____Joule.
Answer: (0.75)
14. A block of weight 100 N is suspended by copper and steel wires of same cross sectional area 0.5 cm2 and, length √3 m and 1 m, respectively. Their other ends are fixed on a ceiling as shown in figure. The angles subtended by copper and steel wires with ceiling are 30° and 60°, respectively. If elongation in copper wire is (∆lC) and elongation in steel wire is (∆lS), then the ratio
Answer: (2)
15. A train S1, moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h, approaches another train S2 standing on a platform. An observer O moves with a uniform velocity of 36 km/h towards S2, as shown in figure. Both the trains are blowing whistles of same frequency 120 Hz. When O is 600 m away from S2 and distance between S1 and S2 is 800 m, the number of beats heard by O is______.
[Speed of the sound = 330 m/s]
Answer: ((7.00 to 10.00)
16. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C has spacing d between two plates having area A. The region between the plates is filled with N dielectric layers, parallel to its plates, each with thickness The dielectric constant of the mth layer is For a very large N (> 103), the capacitance C is The value of α will be _______. [ϵ0 is the permittivity of free space]
Answer: ((0.99 to 1.01))
17. A liquid at 30°C is poured very slowly into a Calorimeter that is at temperature of 110° The boiling temperature of the liquid is 80°C. It is found that the first 5 gm of the liquid completely evaporates. After pouring another 80 gm of the liquid the equilibrium temperature is found to be 50°C. The ratio of the Latent heat of the liquid to its specific heat will be______°C.
[Neglect the heat exchange with surrounding]
Answer: (270)
18. A planar structure of length L and width W is made of two different optical media of refractive indices n1 = 1.5 and n2 = 1.44 as shown in figure. If L >>W, a ray entering from end AB will emerge from end CD only if the total internal reflection condition is met inside the structure. For L = 9.6 m, if the incident angle θ is varied, the maximum time taken by a ray to exit the place CD is t × 10−9 s, where t is ______.
[Speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s]
Answer: (49 to 51)
JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER 1
PART-II CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This Section contains Four (04) Questions.
•Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, Choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
1. The green colour produced in the borax bead test of chromium (III) salt is due to
(A) Cr(BO2)3
(B) Cr2(B4O7)3
(C) Cr2O3
(D) CrB
Answer: (A)
2. Calamine, malachite, magnetite and cryolite, respectively, are
(A) ZnSO4, CuCO3, Fe2O3, AlF3
(B) ZnSO4, Cu(OH)2, Fe3O4, Na3AlF6
(C) ZnCO3, CuCO3∙Cu(OH)2, Fe3O4, Na3AlF6
(D) ZnCO3, CuCO3, Fe2O3, Na3AlF6
Answer: (C)
3. Molar conductivity (Λm) of aqueous solution of sodium stearate, which behaves as a strong electrolyte, is recorded at varying concentrations (c) of sodium stearate. Which one of the following plots provides the correct representation of micelle formation in the solution?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (C)
4. The correct of acid strength of the following carboxylic acids is
(A) III > II > I > IV
(B) I > II > III > IV
(C) I > III > II > IV
(D) II > I > IV > III
Answer: (B)
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 32)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get −1 mark.
5. A tin chloride Q undergoes the following reactions (not balanced)
Q + Cl− → X
Q + Me3N → Y
Q + CuCl2 → Z + CuCl
X is an monoanion having pyramidal geometry. Both and Y and Z are neutral compounds. Choose the correct option(s)
(A) The central atom in X is sp3 hyrbridized
(B) There is a coordinate bond in Y
(C) The oxidation state of the central atom in Z is +2
(D) The central atom in Z has one lone pair of electrons
Answer: (A, B)
6. Fusion of MnO2 with KOH in presence of O2 produces a salt W. Alkaline solution of W upon electrolytic oxidation yields another salt X. The manganese containing ions present in W and X. respectively, are Y and Z. Correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) In aqueous acidic solution, Y undergoes disproportionation reaction to give Z and MnO2
(B) Both Y and Z are coloured and have tetrahedral shape
(C) Y is diamagnetic in nature while Z is paramagnetic
(D) In both Y and Z, π-bonding occurs between p-orbitals of oxygen and d-orbitals of manganese
Answer: (A, B, D)
7. Choose the reaction(s) from the following options, for which the standard enthalpy of reaction in equal to the standard enthalpy of formation.
(A) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O (l)
(B) 2C (g) + 3H2 (g) → C2H6 (g)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (C, D)
8. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct regarding the root mean square speed (Urms) and average translational kinetic energy (εav) of a molecule in a gas at equilibrium?
(A) Urms is doubled when its temperature is increased four times
(B) εav is doubled when its temperature is increased four times
(C) εav at a given temperature does not depend on its molecular mass
(D) Urms inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass
Answer: (A, C, D)
9. Each of the following options contains a set of four molecules. Identify the option(s) where all four molecules possess permanent dipole moment at room temperature.
(A) BeCl2, CO2, BCl3, CHCl3
(B) NO2, NH3, POCl3, CH3Cl
(C) BF3, O3, SF6, XeF6
(D) SO2, C6H5Cl, H2Se, BrF5
Answer: (B, D)
10. In the decay sequence,
x1, x2, x3 and x4 are particles/radiation emitted by the respective isotopes. The correct option(s) is(are)
(A) x1 will deflect towards negatively charged plate
(B) x2 is β−
(C) x3 is γ-ray
(D) Z is an isotope of uranium
Answer: (A, B, D)
11. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true?
(A) Monosaccharides cannot by hydrolysed to give polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones
(B) Oxidation of glucose with bromine water gives glutamic acid
(C) Hydrolysis of sucrose gives dextrorotatory glucose and laevorotatory fructose
(D) The two six-membered cyclic hemiacetal forms of D-(+)-glucose are called anomers
Answer: (A, C, D)
12. Choose the correct option(s) for the following set of reactions
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (C, D)
SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks : 18)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
13. Among B2H6, B3N3H6, N2O, N2O4, H2S2O3 and H2S2O8, the total number of molecules containing covalent bond between two atoms of the same kind is _____
Answer: (4)
14. At 143 K, the reaction of XeF4 with O2F2 produces a xenon compound Y. The total number of lone pair(s) of electrons present on the whole molecule of Y is_____
Answer: (19)
15. For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc at 298 K is 1.6 × 1017.
Fe2+(aq) + S2− (aq) ⇌ FeS (s)
When equal volumes of 0.06 Fe2+ (aq) and 0.2 M S2− (aq) solutions are mixed, the equilibrium concentration of Fe2+ (aq) is found to be Y × 10−17 M. The value of Y is __________.
Answer: (8.70 to 9.10)
16. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapor pressure decreases from 650 mm Hg to 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the solute is
(Given data : Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene are 78 g mol−1 and 5.12 K kg mol−1, respectively)
Answer: (0.97 to 1.06)
17. Consider the kinetic data given in the following table for the reaction A + B + C → Product.
The rate of the reaction for [A] = 0.15 mol dm−3, [B] = 0.25 mol dm−3 and [C] = 0.15 mol dm−3 is found to be Y × 10−5 mol dm−3 s−1. The value of Y is ______
Answer: (6.70 to 6.80)
18. Schemes 1 and 2 describe the conversion of P to Q and R to S, respectively. Scheme 3 describes the synthesis of T from Q and S. The total number of Br atoms in a molecule of T is ________.
Answer: (4)
JEE (ADVANCED) 2019 PAPER 1
PART-III MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This Section contains Four (04) Questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, Choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
1. Let S be the set of all complex numbers Z satisfying |z – 2 + i| ≥ √ If the complex number z0 is such that is the maximum of the set then the principal argument of is
(A) −π/2
(B) π/4
(C) π/2
(D) 3π/4
Answer: (A)
2. Let
where α = α (θ) and β = β (θ) are real numbers, and I is the 2 × 2 identity matrix. If
α* is the minimum of the set {α(θ): θ ∈ [0, 2π)} and
β* is the minimum of the set {β(θ): θ ∈ [0, 2π)},
then the value of α* + β* is
(A) −37/16
(B) −31/16
(C) −29/16
(D) −17/16
Answer: (C)
3. A line y = mx + 1 intersects the circle (x – 3)2 + (y + 2)2 = 25 at the points P and Q. If the midpoint of the line segment PQ has x-coordinate −3/5, then which one of the following options is correct?
(A) −3 ≤ m < −1
(B) 2 ≤ m < 4
(C) 4 ≤ m < 6
(D) 6 ≤ m < 8
Answer: (B)
4. The area of the region {(x, y) ; xy ≤ 8, 1 ≤ y ≤ x2} is
(A)
(B)
(C) 16 loge 2 – 6
(D)
Answer: (A)
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks : 32)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which are correct;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get −1 mark.
5. Let α and β be the roots of x2 – x – 1 = 0, with α > β. For all positive integers n, define
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) a1 + a2 + a3 + … + an = an+2 – 1 for all n ≥ 1
(B)
(C) bn = αn + βn for all n ≥ 1
(D)
Answer: (A, B, C)
6. Let and
where a and b are real numbers. Which of the following option is/are correct?
(A) a + b = 3
(B) (adj M)−1 + adj M−1 = −M
(C) det(adj M‑2) = 81
(D)
Answer: (A, B, D)
7. There are three bags B1, B2 and B3. The bag B1 contains 5 red and 5 green balls, B2 contains 3 red and 5 green balls, and B3 contains 5 red and 3 green balls. Bags B1, B2 and B3 have probabilities 3/10, 3/10 and 4/10 respectively of being chosen. A bag is selected random and a ball is chosen at random from the bag. Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) Probability that the chosen ball is green, given that the selected bag is B3, equals 3/8
(B) Probability that the chosen ball is green equals 39/80
(C) Probability that the selected bag is B3, given that the chosen ball is green, equals 5/13
(D) Probability that the selected bag is B3 and the chosen ball is green equals 3/10
Answer: (A, B)
8. In a non-right-angled triangle ∆PQR, let p, q, r denote the lengths of the sides opposite to the angles at P, Q, R respectively. The median from R meets the side PQ at S, the perpendicular from P meets the side QR at E, and RS and PE intersect at O. If p = √3, q = 1, and the radius of the circumcircle of the ∆PQR equals 1, then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) Length of RS = √7/2
(B) Area of ∆SOE = √3/12
(C) Length of OE = 1/6
(D) Radius of incircle of
Answer: (A, C, D)
9. Define the collections {E1, E2, E3, …} of ellipses and {R1, R2, R3, …} of rectangles as follows:
R1 : rectangle of largest area, with sides parallel to the axes, inscribed in E1 :
En : ellipse of largest area inscribed in Rn – 1, n > 1;
Rn : rectangle of largest area, with sides parallel to the axes, inscribed in En, n > 1.
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) The eccentricities of E18 and E19 are NOT equal
(B) for each positive integer N
(C) The length of latus rectum of E9 is 1/6
(D) The distance of a focus from the centre in E9 is √5/32
Answer: (B, C)
10. Let f : ℝ → ℝ be given by
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) f is increasing on (−∞, 0)
(B) f ‘ has a local maximum at x = 1
(C) f is onto
(D) f ‘ is NOT differentiable at x = 1
Answer: (B, C, D)
11. Let Γ denote a curve y = y(x) which is in the first quadrant and let the point (1, 0) lie on it. Let the tangent to Γ at a point P intersect the y-axis at YP. If PYP has length 1 for each point P on Γ, then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (A, B)
12. Let L1 and L2 denote the lines
respectively. If L3 is a line which is perpendicular to both L1 and L2 and cuts both of them, then which of the following options describe(s) L3?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (A, B, C)
SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks : 18)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
•For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
13. Let ω ≠ 1 be a cube root of unity. Then the minimum of the set
{|a + bω + cω2|2 : a, b, c distinct non-zero integers} equals ___
Answer: (3)
14. Let AP(a; d) denote the set of all the terms of an infinite arithmetic progression with first term a and common difference d > 0. If
AP(1; 3) ∩ AP(2; 5) ∩ AP(3; 7) = AP(a; d)
then a + d equals ______
Answer: (157)
15. Let S be the sample space of all 3 × 3 matrices with entries from the set {0, 1}. Let the events E1 and E2 be given by
E1 = {A ∈ S : det A = 0} and
E2 = {A ∈ S : sum of entries of A is 7}.
If a matrix is chosen at random from S, then the conditional probability P(E1|E2) equals____
Answer: (0.5)
16. Let the point B be the reflection of the point A(2, 3) with respect to the line 8x – 6y – 23 = 0. Let ΓA and ΓB be circles of radii 2 and 1 with centres A and B respectively. Let T be a common tangent to the circles ΓA and ΓB such that both the circles are on the same side of T. If C is the point of intersection of T and line passing through A and B, then the length of the line segment AC is _____
Answer: (10)
17. If
then 27 I2 equals ______
Answer: (4)
18. Three lines are given by
Let the lines cut the plane x + y +z = 1 at the points A, B and C respectively. If the area of the triangle ABC is ∆ then the value of (6∆)2 equals _____
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows. White cement is the basic raw material for producing cement tiles and cement paint which are used extensively in building construction. The main consumers of white cement are, therefore, cement tile and cement paint manufacturing units. These consumers, mostly in the small scale sector, are today facing a major crisis because of a significant increase in the price of white cement during a short period. The present annual licensed production capacity of white and grey cement in the country is approximately 3.5 lakh tonnes. The average demand is 2-2.5 tonnes. This means that there is idle capacity to the tune of one lakh tonnes or more. The price rise is, therefore, not a phenomenon arising out of inadequate production capacity but evidently because of artificial scarcity created by the manufacturers in their self-interest. The main reason for the continuing spurt in cement price is its decontrol. As it is, there is stiff competition in the cement paint and tile manufacturing business. Any further price revision at this stage is bound to have a severe adverse impact on the market conditions. The Government should take adequate steps to ensure that suitable controls are brought in. Else it should allow import of cement.
1. Why is the price of white cement going up?
(A) Because the government is controlling the quota.
(B) Because of export of white cement.
(C) Because of the large usage of white cement.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
2. Which of the following statements is false according to the passage?
(A) Price rise in white cement would increase the price of cement paint.
(B) White cement is a controlled product.
(C) Increase in price of white cement is not because of production problem.
(D) Price rise in white cement would upset cement tile market.
Answer: (B)
3. What is the crisis being faced by the cement tile manufacturers as described in the passage?
(A) White cement is priced very low.
(B) White cement is not of good quality.
(C) White cement usage is high.
(D) White cement prices are very high.
Answer: (D)
4. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word ‘idle’ as used in the passage?
(A) Lazy
(B) Clumsy
(C) Large
(D) Excess
Answer: (D)
5. Which of the following is correct according to the passage?
(A) White cement is not used in the manufacture of paint.
(B) White cement forms a minor part of tile manufacturing.
(C) White cement is used only for making paints.
(D)
Answer: (C)
6. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word ‘artificial’ as used in the passage?
(A) Unnatural
(B) Prolonged
(C) Deliberate
(D) Practical
Answer: (C)
7. What is the author’s suggestion to bring down prices?
(A) Government should control the white cement market.
(B) Production capacity should be increased.
(C) Usage of white cement in other areas should be reduced.
(D) Competition among manufactures of cement paints and tiles should be reduced.
Answer: (A)
8. Which of the following words has the opposite meaning as the word ‘basic’ as used in the passage?
(A) Vital
(B) Unimportant
(C) Acidic
(D) Last
Answer: (B)
9. Which of the following is correct according to the passage?
(A) Cement production capacity is more than usage.
(B) Cement production capacity is less than usage.
(C) Cement production capacity is equal to usage.
(D) Cement production capacity is twice than usage.
Answer: (A)
10. What can be presumed from the passage regarding foreign trade in cement?
(A) The country is exporting cement at present.
(B) The country is importing cement at present.
(C) The country is exporting and importing cement at present.
(D) The country is neither exporting nor importing cement at present.
Answer: (D)
Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-14): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
There are six members M, N, O, P, Q and R in a family. There are two married couples in family; N is the businessman and father of Q; R is the grandfather of O; and is a property dealer; P is the grandmother of Q and is a housewife; O is daughter of M; There are one businessman, one property dealer, one lady lecturer and two students in the family.
11. Who is father in law of M?
(A) P
(B) R
(C) N
(D) O
Answer: (B)
12. What is profession of M?
(A) Housewife
(B) Student
(C) Lecturer
(D) Property dealer
Answer: (C)
13. Who is sister of Q?
(A) O
(B) P
(C) M
(D) N
Answer: (A)
14. Which of the following are two married couples?
(A) MO and QR
(B) MN and PR
(C) PR and OQ
(D) MN and QR
Answer: (B)
15. Find the missing number:
(A) 46
(B) 32
(C) 20
(D) 16
Answer: (D)
Directions (Q. No. 16-19) : In the following questions a series is being select from the alternatives the correct term to fill in the missing term.
16. 7, 21, 43, ___?___, 111, 157, 211
(A) 73
(B) 71
(C) 75
(D) 77
Answer: (A)
17. 6, 24, 60, 114, 186, ____?__.
(A) 276
(B) 290
(C) 272
(D) 280
Answer: (A)
18. 7, 13, 21, 31, 43, ___?___.
(A) 53
(B) 55
(C) 57
(D) 59
Answer: (C)
19. 3, 15, 35, 63, ___?___.
(A) 69
(B) 79
(C) 89
(D) 99
Answer: (D)
20. If PUZZLE is coded as LEPUZZ, then MENTAL will be coded as:
(A) ZZOPEM
(B) ZENSOM
(C) ALMENT
(D) MOSNET
Answer: (C)
21. If CONFRONTATION is coded as 5931793484693, then TORONTO will be coded as:
(A) 4797347
(B) 4393743
(C) 4898348
(D) 4979349
Answer: (D)
22. Which pair is different in some way from the others in the following?
(A) Town – Shandy
(B) Village – Mall
(C) City – Market
(D) Arcade – Shop
Answer: (A)
Directions (Q. Nos. 23-26) : Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
Geeta, Sita, Proila, Bhavana and Nafisa are five friends. Each one of has six balls : Geeta gives 3 balls to Nafisa who gives 4 balls to Promila. Bhavana gives 2 balls to Sita who gives 3 balls to Geeta. Promila gives 4 balls to Bhavana who gives 2 balls each to Nafisa and Geeta.
23. How many balls does Nafisa have?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer: (D)
24. How many balls does Sita have?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer: (B)
25. Who has the minimum number of balls?
(A) Bhavana
(B) Nafisa
(C) Sita
(D) Promila
Answer: (A)
26. Who has the maximum number of balls?
(A) Promila
(B) Nafisa
(C) Sita
(D) Geeta
Answer: (D)
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-30) : Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
A and B play Cricket and Hockey, B and D play Tennis, A and C play Volley-Ball and Tennis, C and D and E play Football.
27. Who plays Cricket, Hockey and Volley-ball?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: (A)
28. Who plays only Football?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) D
(D) E
Answer: (D)
29. Who plays Tennis and Football?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: (D)
30. Who plays Volley-ball and Football?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: (C)
Section-III : Educational and General Awareness
31. World Population day is celebrated on:
(A) 19 July
(B) 11 July
(C) 15 July
(D) 17 July
Answer: (B)
32. Gandhiji made a dramatic bid for temple entry rights for untouchables in the year:
(A) 1940
(B) 1935
(C) 1930
(D) 1920
Answer: (*)
33. National Repository of Open Educational Resources (NROER) is being managed by:
(A) IGNOU
(B) NCERT
(C) UGC
(D) NUEPA
Answer: (B)
34. Who was the Editor of the Revolutionary Paper ‘Bande Matram’?
(A) Shyami Krishan Verma
(B) Bhikaji Cama
(C) V.D. Savarkar
(D) G.D. Savarkar
Answer: (B)
35. How many Nations had signed the charter of United Nations on 26th June, 1945?
(A) 64
(B) 61
(C) 52
(D) 51
Answer: (D)
36. Who among the following has termed Indian Federalism as “Co-operative Federalism?
(A) K.C. Wheare
(B) Morris Jones
(C) Granville Austin
(D) Jennings
Answer: (C)
37. By which year, the Union Cabinet on June 17, 2015 has proposed to provide ‘Housing for All’?
(A) 2030
(B) 2025
(C) 2022
(D) 2018
Answer: (C)
38. Which country topped the Global Innovation Index (GIL) 2015 that was released on 17 September, 2015?
(A) Switzerland
(B) United Kingdom
(C) Sweden
(D) The Netherlands
Answer: (A)
39. The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) is head quartered in:
(A) Paris (France)
(B) Vienna (Austria)
(C) New York (USA)
(D) Brussels (Belgium)
Answer: (C)
40. Which city is hosting the 2016 Olympic games?
(A) Seoul
(B) Barcelona
(C) Rio-De-Janerio
(D) Los Angeles
Answer: (C)
41. The main objective of ‘Sakshar Bharat’ is:
(A) to promote ‘education for all’
(B) to promote vocational education
(C) to promote vocational education
(D) to promote education for women
Answer: (D)
42. Under which article of t he Constitution the President of India has been empowered to promulgate ordinance?
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 200
(D) Article 123
Answer: (D)
43. Right to Education Act, 2009 is mainly concerned with:
(A) Higher Education
(B) Elementary Education
(C) Secondary Education
(D) Higher Secondary Education
Answer: (B)
44. Who is the author of the Book ‘Fundamental Unity of India’?
(A) Radhakumud Mukherji
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Rajani Kothari
(D) Max Weber
Answer: (A)
45. In which year state reorganization commission gave its report on the basis of language?
(A) 1953
(B) 1954
(C) 1955
(D) 1956
Answer: (C)
46. According to United Nations Report released in July 2015, which of the following countries will become world’s most populous country by 2022?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
Answer: (A)
47. During September 2015, which of the following countries has published first report written by a ‘robot journalist’?
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Germany
(D) Switzerland
Answer: (B)
48. Where did Madam Cama hoist the first tricolor Flag in 1907?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Moscow
(D) Stuttgart
Answer: (D)
49. Which committee/commission gave its specific recommendations to improve the conditions of Teacher Education in India?
(A) Hansa Mehta Committee
(B) Radha Krishnan Commission
(C) Justice Verma Commission
(D) National Knowledge Commission
Answer: (C)
50. “IEDSS” stands for:
(A) International Education for Disadvantaged at social stage
(B) Integrated Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage
(C) Inclusive Education for Disadvantaged at Secondary Stage
(D) Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage
Answer: (D)
51. Who among the following shall preside over the joint sitting at two houses of Parliament?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (A)
52. Which article of the Constitution defines the duties of Chief Minister?
(A) 162
(B) 164
(C) 165
(D) 167
Answer: (D)
53. Light from the Sum reaches earth in:
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 2 minutes
(C) 6 minutes
(D) 4 minutes
Answer: (A)
54. Which one of the following was the last step in the Gandhian strategy of Satyagraha?
(A) Boy-Cott
(B) Picketing
(C) Fast
(D) Strike
Answer: (C)
55. Finances are distributed between the centre and the state on the recommendation of:
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Finance Commission
(D) National Development Council
Answer: (C)
Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School
56. Determining, the aim of education is the responsibility of:
(A) Parents
(B) Teachers
(C) Students
(D) Society
Answer: (B)
57. The Schools through its programmes help students to:
(A) Assimilate culture
(B) Protest culture
(C) Ignore other cultures
(D) Make them cultured
Answer: (D)
58. To make all students interested in home work, it should be:
(A) Of equal level
(B) According to the ability of student
(C) Only from the book
(D) Out of the book
Answer: (B)
59. Navodaya schools have been established to:
(A) Increase number of schools in rural areas
(B) Provide good education in rural areas
(C) Complete “Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan”
(D) Check wastage of education in rural areas
Answer: (B)
60. The most important quality of an effective teacher is:
(A) Deep knowledge about the subject taught
(B) A strict disciplinarian
(C) Good rap port with the students
(D) A good motivator
Answer: (C)
61. The idea of basic education was propounded by:
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Answer: (C)
62. Individual attention is important in Teaching-learning process because:
(A) Learners always learn better in group
(B) Teacher training programmes prescribed it
(C) It offers better opportunities to teachers to discipline each learner
(D) Children develop at different rates and learn differently
Answer: (D)
63. If a child writes with his/her left hand and is comfortable doing things with it, she/he should be:
(A) Discouraged
(B) Made to write with left hand
(C) Allowed his preference
(D) Sent to seek medical help
Answer: (C)
64. Which of the following statements is true about “Learning”?
(A) Errors made by children indicate that no learning has taken place
(B) Learning is effective in an environment that is emotionally positive and satisfying for learners
(C) Learning is not affected by emotional factors at any stage of learning
(D) Learning is fundamentally a mental activity
Answer: (B)
65. It is advantage of giving home work that students:
(A) Remain busy at home
(B) Study at home
(C) May be checked for their progress
(D) May develop habit of self study
Answer: (D)
66. A field trip is arranged for:
(A) Making an excursion
(B) See other people doing things
(C) Note the meaning of action
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
67. Students are passive in:
(A) Project method
(B) Discovery method
(C) Lecture method
(D) Inquiry method
Answer: (C)
68. Demonstration effect means:
(A) Effect of advertisement
(B) Imitating effect of consumption
(C) Effect of entertainment
(D) Effect of an experiment
Answer: (B)
69. Dyslexia is a:
(A) Physical disability in which the ability to write is affected by dysfunctional fingers
(B) Form of reading disability linked with weak vision
(C) Learning difficulty to read fluently and with accurate comprehension despite average intelligence
(D) Language based learning difficulty associated with impaired hearing
Answer: (C)
70. If you find a student wearing some odd dress in you class, you will:
(A) Ask the student not to attend the class
(B) Make a joke on him
(C) Counsel him not to wear such clothes in a class
(D) Not p ay any attention
Answer: (C)
71. Some students are backward in studies. What will be you r attitude towards, them:
(A) Harsh
(B) Sympathetic
(C) Liberal
(D) Lovable
Answer: (B)
72. Play therapy is adopted in the study of children in order to:
(A) Make the educational process joyful
(B) To understand the inner motives and complexes of children
(C) Make education more activity centred
(D) Highlight the importance of play activities in education
Answer: (B)
73. The best remedy of the student’s problems related with learning is:
(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching
Answer: (D)
74. In a democratic country like India, schools should concentrate on:
(A) Development of traits to face the hurdles of daily life
(B) Development of traits of a good citizenship
(C) Preparation for academic excellence
(D) Inculcation of values cherished by country
Answer: (D)
75. It can safely be assumed that a student understands a principle when He/She can:
(A) Give more examples of it
(B) Use it in solving problems to which it applies
(C) Recognize it again when He/She encounter it again
(D) Recall the principles as and when asked
Answer: (B)
76. Despite of your requests as an incharge of time table in the school, A teacher always comes late. In this situation, you will:
(A) Insult him in the presence of other teachers
(B) Advise him to come in time
(C) Report to the principal
(D) Remain indifferent to it
Answer: (C)
77. Every learner is unique means that:
(A) No two learners are alike in t heir abilities, interest and talents
(B) Learners do not have any common qualities, nor do they share common goals
(C) A common curriculum for all learners is not possible
(D) It is impossible to develop the potentials of learners in a heterogeneous class
Answer: (A)
78. The in-service teacher training can be made more effective by:
(A) Using training package which is well prepared in advance
(B) Making it residential programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practicing training follow-up procedures
Answer: (C)
79. In NCTE-the B.Ed curriculum framework-2014 which of the following is emphasized ____ in education.
(A) IT (Information Technology)
(B) ICT (Information and Communication Technology)
(C) ET (Educational Technology)
(D) CT (Communication Technology)
Answer: (B)
80. How many senses a person uses while watching a film?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (C)
PART-B
Section-V : (i) Science
81. According to laws of refraction (i = Angle of incidence, r = Angle of refraction):
(A) i/r=constant
(B) sin i/sin r = constant
(C) sin i = sin r
(D) i and r are not related
Answer: (B)
82. For photosynthesis, the green plant needs:
(A) CO2
(B) light
(C) chlorophyll
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
83. In aquatic plant Hydrilla, stomata are:
(A) Present on leaves
(B) Present on stem
(C) Present on roots
(D) Absent
Answer: (A)
84. Convex mirror can form:
(A) Only real image
(B) Only virtual image
(C) Both real as well as virtual images
(D) Only magnified images
Answer: (B)
85. The unit of Pressure is:
(A) Newton
(B) Newton per sq.m
(C) Per sq.m
(D) Joule
Answer: (B)
86. Polio is :
(A) Food borne disease
(B) Water borne disease
(C) Air borne disease
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
87. Two wires A and B are made of the same metal and are of equal lengths but their diameters are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their resistance RA and RB have the ratio:
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 4 : 1
Answer: (D)
88. According to Einstein the Energy (E), Mass (M) and Velocity of light (C) are related by the equation:
(A) E = M × C
(B) E = MC2
(C) E = M + C2
(D) E + M = C
Answer: (B)
89. Plant cell can do:
(A) Breathing and Respiration
(B) Respiration and Photosynthesis
(C) Breathing and Photosynthesis
(D) All of these
Answer: (B)
90. The wave length of X-rays is smaller than that of visible light and:
(A) It speed is more than that of visible light
(B) Its frequency is more than that of visible light
(C) Its speed less than that of visible light
(D) Its frequency is less than that of visible light
Answer: (A)
91. The two colours seen at the extreme ends of the pH charge are:
(A) Red and Blue
(B) Red and Green
(C) Green and Blue
(D) Yellow and Green
Answer: (A)
92. HIV is a:
(A) Disease
(B) Vaccine
(C) Virus
(D) Injection
Answer: (C)
93. A body is weighed in several liquids of relative densities 1.1, 1.2, 1.3 and 1.4. Its weight will be the least in the liquid of relative density:
(A) 1.1
(B) 1.2
(C) 1.3
(D) 1.4
Answer: (A)
94. A concave lens produces:
(A) Virtual image
(B) Diminished image
(C) Erect image
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
95. When two wires of resistances 2 Ohms and 1 Ohm respectively are joined in parallel, their equivalent resistance is:
(A) < 1 Ohm
(B) 1 Ohm
(C) 2 Ohm
(D) > 2 Ohm
Answer: (A)
96. If red litmus is added to acetic acid solution:
(A) It changes to green
(B) It becomes blue
(C) It remains red
(D) It becomes colourless
Answer: (C)
97. Ultimate main source of energy on the earth is:
(A) Coal
(B) Fossil oil
(C) Sun
(D) Air
Answer: (C)
98. The Commercial unit of electric energy is:
(A) Horse Power
(B) Kilo Watt Hour
(C) Joule
(D) Watt hour
Answer: (B)
99. Destruction of forests has resulted in:
(A) Shortage of Rain
(B) Shortage of Natural Resources
(C) Danger to the lives of wild animals and birds
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
100. Use of Chlorofluorocarbons:
(A) Strengthens Ozone layer in the atmosphere
(B) Depletes Ozone layer
(C) Does not affect Ozone layer
(D) Is not a harmful
Answer: (B)
Section-V : (ii) Mathematics
101. The value of sin 60° cos 30° + sin 30° cos 60° is:
(A) 1/2
(B) 1
(C) −1
(D) 2
Answer: (B)
102. The value of 9sec2a – 9 tan2A is:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer: (D)
103. From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and angle of depression of its foot is 45°. The height of tower is:
(A) 5(√3 + 1) m
(B) 5(√3 – 1)m
(C) 7(√3 – 1)m
(D) 7(√3+1)m
Answer: (D)
104. The sum of odd numbers between 0 and 50 is:
(A) 425
(B) 525
(C) 625
(D) 725
Answer: (C)
105. The value of is:
(A) 21
(B) 28
(C) 48
(D) 84
Answer: (D)
106. The value is is:
(A) 6
(B) 36
(C) 216
(D) 18
Answer: (A)
107. A jar contains 24 marbles, some are green and others are blue. If a marble is drawn at random from the jar, then the probability that it is green is 2/3. The number of blue marbles in the jar is:
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer: (C)
108. A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will come up at least one would be______.
(A) 25/36
(B) 11/36
(C) 5/36
(D) 10/36
Answer: (B)
109. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4 : 9. Areas of these triangles would be in the ratio ______.
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 4 : 9
(C) 81 : 16
(D) 16 : 81
Answer: (D)
110. The wheels of a car are of diameter 80 cm each. The car runs at a speed of 66 km per hour 10 minutes. The number of complete revolutions made by each wheel is______.
(A) 2640
(B) 3960
(C) 4375
(D) 4875
Answer: (C)
111. Metallic spheres of radii 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm, respectively, are melted to form a single solid sphere, the radius of this sphere would be______.
(A) 8 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 14 cm
(D) 16 cm
Answer: (B)
112. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 88 cm2. The diameter of the base of cylinder is:
(A) 4 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 1 cm
Answer: (C)
113. A train which is 500 meter long crosses a 800 meter long platform in one minute five seconds. The speed of the train is______.
(A) 55 km/hr
(B) 65 km/hr
(C) 70 km/hr
(D) 72 km/hr
Answer: (D)
114. The ratio of father’s age to his son’s age is 7 : 3. The product of their ages is 756. The ratio of their ages after 6 y ears will be:
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 11 : 7
(D) 13 : 9
Answer: (A)
115. Two numbers are in the ratio of 7 : 4. If 12 is added to the smaller number, then ratio becomes 7 : 5, the bigger number is______.
(A) 77
(B) 84
(C) 91
(D) 98
Answer: (B)
116. In order to pass an examination, a minimum of 33% marks are required. A candidate obtaining 210 marks fails by 21 marks. The total marks for examination was_____.
(A) 700
(B) 600
(C) 550
(D) 500
Answer: (A)
117. A shopkeeper has marked selling price 20% above the cost price and allows some discount to the customers, the profit he earns is 8%. The rate of discount is_______.
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%
Answer: (C)
118. A conical tent 14 meter in diameter and 4.5 meter high is to be eracted with lateral side 6 meter in length, the cloth required will be_____.
(A) 108 m2
(B) 132 m2
(C) 224 m2
(D) 264 m2
Answer: (B)
119. Two sides of triangle are 8 cm and 11 cm and the perimeter is 32 cm. Its area is_____.
(A) 3√40 cm2
(B) 5√48 cm2
(C) 8√30 cm2
(D) 50 cm2
Answer: (C)
120. The length of a tangent from a point A at a distance of 5 cm from the center of the circle is 4 cm. The radius of the circle is______.
(A) 2 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 4.5 cm
Answer: (B)
Section-V : (iii) Social Science
121. Who was the last ruler of the Sayyed Dynasty?
(A) Mubarak Shah
(B) Mohammad Shah
(C) Amir Khusro
(D) Alam Shah
Answer: (D)
122. Which article of t he constitution is meant to eradicate untouchability?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 22
(C) Article 29
(D) Article 17
Answer: (D)
123. Which point of the earth is the deepest?
(A) Java Trench
(B) Puerto Rico
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Lipke Island
Answer: (C)
124. What is the currency of Malaysia?
(A) Dollar
(B) Pesco
(C) Ringgit
(D) Baht
Answer: (C)
125. Who wrote the drama ‘Malvikagnimitra’?
(A) Vishakhadutta
(B) Kalidas
(C) Kanishka
(D) Harisena
Answer: (B)
126. Who founded the regional party ‘Shiv Sena’?
(A) Devendra Fadnavis
(B) Bal Thakre
(C) Sharad Yadav
(D) Sushil Kumar Modi
Answer: (B)
127. Which country was affected by the cyclone Hudhud?
(A) Indonesia
(B) Singapore
(C) Malaysia
(D) India
Answer: (D)
128. Who is the chairman of the NITI Aayog in India?
(A) President
(B) Vice President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Answer: (C)
129. Which of the following is Value-added Tax?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Custom Tax
(C) Sales Tax
(D) Capital Gain Tax
Answer: (A)
130. What is the currency of Bhutan?
(A) Rupee
(B) Dinar
(C) Taka
(D) Ngultrum
Answer: (D)
131. Who wrote the famous Tamil literary work Kalingattuparani?
(A) Kalladanar
(B) Amarbhujanga
(C) Gangaikanda
(D) Jayagondan
Answer: (D)
132. Who wrote the famous work Surya Siddhanta?
(A) Varahamihira
(B) Aryabhatta
(C) Vriddha-Vagabhatta
(D) Meghaduta
Answer: (B)
133. How much is the security deposit for Lok Sabha election?
(A) Rs 25,000
(B) Rs 50,000
(C) Rs 10,000
(D) Rs 5,000
Answer: (C)
134. Who was the First Feale President of Indian National Congress?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Pratibha Patil
(D) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
Answer: (A)
135. Who is the present governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Raghuram Rajan
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Arun Jetly
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)
136. Which gas was released during the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
(A) Methane
(B) Methyl Isocyanate
(C) Acetylene
(D) Ammonia
Answer: (B)
137. When was IGNOU established?
(A) 1971
(B) 1977
(C) 1985
(D) 1989
Answer: (C)
138. Through which ocean is most of the world trade carried out?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Arctic Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Indian Ocean
Answer: (D)
139. Which is the third largest country in the world?
(A) Canada
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Brazil
Answer: (B)
140. Which certificate indicates a guarantee of quality for agricultural food products like ghee, honey, etc.?
(A) ISI
(B) Agmark
(C) BIS
(D) DPT
Answer: (B)
Section-V : (iv) English
Direction (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
141. A good dictionary is indispensable for learning a language.
(A) Desirable
(B) Helpful
(C) Valuable
(D) Essential
Answer: (D)
142. The police have succeeded in arresting Rajiv’s
(A) Opponent
(B) Enemy
(C) Murderer
(D) Rival
Answer: (C)
143. Grandmother suffers from chronic
(A) Of long duration
(B) Painful
(C) Occasional
(D) Symptomatic
Answer: (A)
144. Radha is an able but diffident
(A) Difficult
(B) Shy and meek
(C) Confused
(D) Confident
Answer: (B)
145. His judicious handling of the matter saved the situation from going out o f control.
(A) Reasonable
(B) Amicable
(C) Cautious
(D) Nervous
Answer: (A)
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150) : In each of the following group of words, only one word is correctly spelt. Select the word with the correct spelling.
146.
(A) Reminesent
(B) Reminescent
(C) Reminisent
(D) Reminiscent
Answer: (D)
147.
(A) Hygeine
(B) Higeine
(C) Hygiene
(D) Hygien
Answer: (C)
148.
(A) Harrassment
(B) Harasment
(C) Harrasment
(D) Harassment
Answer: (D)
149.
(A) Spontanity
(B) Spontaneity
(C) Spontaniety
(D) Sponteneity
Answer: (B)
150.
(A) Museam
(B) Muzeum
(C) Museum
(D) Musium
Answer: (C)
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154) : Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
151. The culprit acknowledged his guilt.
(A) Accepted
(B) Avoided
(C) Repulsed
(D) Denied
Answer: (D)
152. Though an amateur he is a first class player.
(A) Renowned
(B) Seasoned
(C) Professional
(D) Mature
Answer: (C)
153. The initial estimate of the project was very high.
(A) Final
(B) Full
(C) Total
(D) Rough
Answer: (A)
154. She found his behavior towards her distinctly
(A) Graceful
(B) Friendly
(C) Cheerful
(D) Sweet
Answer: (B)
Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156) : Select the word in ach group which does not properly belong to it.
155.
(A) Conspicuous
(B) Conscript
(C) Clear
(D) Visible
Answer: (B)
156.
(A) Perfection
(B) Reflection
(C) Inspection
(D) Retrospection
Answer: (D)
Direction (Q. Nos. 157-160): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternative to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.
157. We ______ trouble on our borders.
(A) Comprehend
(B) Apprehend
(C) Supplement
(D) Complement
Answer: (B)
158. The police _______ the mob.
(A) Scattered
(B) Disbanded
(C) Drove
(D) Dispersed
Answer: (D)
159. His tutor went _____ endless trouble to prepare him _____ the test.
(A) over : before
(B) over : against
(C) through : in
(D) through : for
Answer: (D)
160. He went _____ the room and sat down _____ the sofa.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows. Among the most important themes in the Disney movie ‘The Little Mermaid’ are those of questioning conventional thinking and pursuing a dream. Not only is Ariel the little me maid, demonstrating original thought (something that many seem to think she is lacking) but she is rebelling against her speciesist father. When Ariel expresses her love for the human prince, King Trident is furious. When Ariel points out angrily that he does not understand her, or even know the man whom she loves, Trident retorts “know him? I don’t need to know him! He’s a human!” In a very real way, Disney is encouraging children to question preconceived ideas that we may have against a certain group. Disney also teaches children to pursue what they love. We see that Ariel’s love for Prince Eric is more important than all else. In turning to the sea witch, Ursula, for help, Ariel makes a mistake but no true hero or heroine is flawless. Ariel puts herself, her family and all merfolk in danger, but we see that with the help of her prince, she is able to put everything to right. At the end of the film, when Ursula has forced King Trident to sacrifice his kingdom for his daughter’s soul, the sea witch uses out of the water, gigantic and terrifying, wearing the king’s crown and holding his magic trident. She laughs evilly and declares that she is the ruler of all mermen and women. “So much for true love!” She screams victoriously. Eric, however, succeeds in piloting the prow of his ship straight through her Belly, vanquishing her. The moral here is that while we all make mistakes, what is truly important is how we right the wrongs we may do to others.
1. Why does the author use parentheses around the comment “Something that many seem to think she is lacking”?
(A) to indicate a side comment to the reader
(B) to indicate that it is unimportant
(C) to indicate a humorous tone
(D) to indicate a shift in meaning
Answer: (A)
2. Ariel’s father is called a ‘speciesist’ because he:
(A) does not understand Eric
(B) opposes Ariel’s love based only on Eric being human
(C) is furious
(D) is rebelling against preconceived notions
Answer: (B)
3. Which of the following fictional plot line would best illustrate the assertion “Disney is encouraging children to question preconceived ideas that we may have against a certain group”?
(A) A movie about the development of the television
(B) A movie that details the honours of war
(C) A movie about a girl who overcomes her fear of snakes
(D) A movie that documents the travels of a rock band
Answer: (C)
4. When Ursula says “So much for true love”, what does it imply?
(A) She is specialist
(B) She was hurt in a previous love affair
(C) Marriage was unacceptable to her
(D) She is mocking true love
Answer: (D)
5. In the sentence “Eric, however, succeeds in piloting the prow of his ship straight through her Belly, vanquishing her”, what does ‘vanquishing’ mean?
(A) Killing
(B) Loving
(C) Vanishing
(D) Squashing
Answer: (D)
6. The author’s attitude towards ‘The Little Mermaid’ is primarily one of:
(A) frustration
(B) stoicism
(C) respect
(D) wonder
Answer: (C)
7. The author’s main point in the passage is:
(A) Ariel should not have been allowed to marry Eric
(B) ‘The Little Mermaid’ (film) teaches children to follow their hearts
(C) Disney movies teach that love is stronger than hate
(D) Only Prince Eric truly understood Ariel
Answer: (B)
8. ‘Prow’ of a ship is at the:
(A) back
(B) middle
(C) front
(D) top
Answer: (C)
9. What was the mistake committed by Ariel?
(A) Loving Eric
(B) Rebelling against her father
(C) Taking Ursula’s help
(D) Killing Ursula with the help of Eric
Answer: (C)
10. In the sentence “……. the sea witch rises out of the water, gigantic and terrifying, ……”, ‘terrifying’ is:
(A) a gerund
(B) a participate
(C) an adjective
(D) an adverb
Answer: (C)
Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-14): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
There are six members in a family—A, B, C, D, E and F. There are two married couples in the family. B is a businessman and father of E. F is the grandfather of C and is a property dealer. D is grandmother of E and is a housewife. C is the daughter of A. There are one businessman, one property dealer, one lady lecturer, one housewife and two students in the family.
11. What is the profession of A?
(A) Housewife
(B) Lecturer
(C) Student
(D) Business
Answer: (B)
12. Who is sister of E?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) A
(D) B
Answer: (A)
13. Which of the following are two married couples?
(A) AC and DF
(B) AB and EF
(C) AB and AC
(D) AB and DF
Answer: (D)
14. Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?
(A) BF
(B) AB
(C) CD
(D) EF
Answer: (A)
Directions (Qs. No. 15-18) : In the following questions a series is being given. Select from the alternatives the correct term of fill in the missing term.
20. If EDUCATION is coded as DCTBZSHNM, how will PROMOTION be coded?
(A) OQNNLSHNM
(B) NOQLNSHNM
(C) NNOQLSHNM
(D) OQNLNSHNM
Answer: (D)
21. If REGISTRATION is coded as 723489719465, then GENERATOR will be coded is:
(A) 325721967
(B) 352721967
(C) 325271967
(D) 325917267
Answer: (C)
22. Which one is different from the other three in some respect?
(A) August
(B) October
(C) March
(D) December
Answer: (C)
Directions (Q. Nos. 23-26) : Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
Ira, Vara, Shweta, Pushpa, and Saroj are five friends, Each one of them has six balls. Vara gives 3 balls to Pushpa who gives four balls to Saroj. Saroj gives five balls to Shweta who in turn gives four balls to Vara. Vara gives three balls each to Ira and Pushpa.
23. How many balls does Vara have?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (B)
24. How many balls does Saroj have?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (C)
25. Who has the minimum number of balls?
(A) Ira
(B) Pushpa
(C) Saroj
(D) Vara
Answer: (D)
26. Who has the maximum number of balls?
(A) Ira
(B) Shweta
(C) Saroj
(D) Vara
Answer: (A)
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-30) : Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
A and B play Volleyball and Football. B and D play Tennis, A and C play Hockey and Tennis. C, D and E play Cricket.
27. Who plays Volleyball, Football, Tennis and Hockey?
(A) D
(B) C
(C) B
(D) A
Answer: (D)
28. Who plays only Cricket?
(A) A
(B) E
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: (B)
29. Who plays Hockey and Cricket?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: (C)
30. Who plays Tennis and Cricket?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: (D)
Section-III : Educational and General Awareness
31. The recommendations of Shanta Kumar Committee are related to:
(A) Restructuring of Food Corporation of India (FCI)
(B) Restructuring of Security Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(C) Restructuring of Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
32. The book ‘at the Close of the Play’ is an autobiography of:
(A) Gary Kirsten
(B) Yuvraj Singh
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Ricky Ponting
Answer: (D)
33. Which of the following is the largest gulf in the world?
(A) Gulf of Aden
(B) Gulf of Guinea
(C) Persian Gulf
(D) Gulf of Mexico
Answer: (D)
34. Who was the author of the Book “The Indian War of Independence, 1857”?
(A) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(B) V.D. Savarkar
(C) S.R. Sharma
(D) R.C. Majumdar
Answer: (B)
35. World Yoga Day is celebrated every year on:
(A) 20th June
(B) 21st June
(C) 22nd June
(D) 23rd June
Answer: (B)
36. Who abolished the use of Persian as court language and ordered the use of vernacular language?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Cornwallis
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) John Shore
Answer: (A)
37. Abdul Kalam Island is located in:
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Odisha
Answer: (D)
38. In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarhy’ refers to:
(A) Division of the Central legislature into two houses.
(B) Introduction of double Government i.e., Central and State Government
(C) Having two sets of rulers; one in London other in Delhi
(D) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories
Answer: (A)
39. Which one of the following countries topped the World Happiness Report, 2017 published by United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network?
(A) India
(B) Denmark
(C) Norway
(D) USA
Answer: (C)
40. According to Swachh Survekshan 2017, which city is declared as Cleanest City in India?
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Bhopal
(C) Idukki
(D) Indore
Answer: (D)
41. Which of the following universities celebrated its Centenary Year in 2017?
(A) Allahabad University
(B) Patna University
(C) Banaras Hindu University
(D) Aligarh Muslim University
Answer: (B)
42. Vidhyanjali Scheme was an initiative of:
(A) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
(B) Ministry of Science and Technology
(C) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(D) Ministry of Human Resource Development
Answer: (D)
43. The first country to implement G.S.T. was:
(A) France
(B) USA
(C) Britain
(D) Japan
Answer: (A)
44. The objective of Butler Committee of 1927 was to:
(A) Defend the Jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments
(B) Define the powers of the secretary of State for India
(C) Impose censorship on national press
(D) Investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the princess of princely states
Answer: (D)
45. Right to Education Act was enacted in the year:
(A) 2007
(B) 2008
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
Answer: (C)
46. The statement “Tamsoma Jyotigamya” was originally mentioned in:
(A) Upanishad
(B) Mahakavya
(C) Purana
(D) Shaddarshan
Answer: (A)
47. Who built the Khajuraho Temples?
(A) Vijayanagar Kings
(B) Bahmani Kings
(C) Chandel Kings
(D) Gupta Kings
Answer: (C)
48. Hockey India League started in the year:
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2013
(D) 2012
Answer: (C)
49. With reference to the economic history of Medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to:
(A) Bonded labour
(B) Land grants made to military officers
(C) Waterwheel used in the irrigation of land
(D) Waterland converted to cultivated land
Answer: (C)
50. The Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) Scheme was launched in the year:
(A) 2007
(B) 2008
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
Answer: (C)
51. Mahila Samakhya is a programme which focuses on:
(A) Women education
(B) Issues of adolescent girls
(C) Women empowerment
(D) Health issues of rural women
Answer: (A)
52. Who originally commissioned Sanchi Stupa?
(A) Emperor Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta Maurya
(C) Harshvardhan
(D) Kanishka
Answer: (A)
53. SWAYAM PRABHA channel was launched by MHRD during:
(A) 2014
(B) 2015
(C) 2016
(D) 2017
Answer: (C)
54. The norms and regulations of NCTE for two year B.Ed. programme were notified in the year:
(A) 2013
(B) 2014
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
Answer: (B)
55. Who is awarded Sahitya Academy Prize in Hindi for the year 2016?
(A) Prabha Verma
(B) Geeta Upadhyay
(C) Nasira Sharma
(D) Swaraj Bir
Answer: (C)
Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School
56. The purpose of formative assessment is to:
(A) check learner’s performance graph
(B) grade student’s learning outcome
(C) accelerate student’s learning performance
(D) provide feedback to teacher effectiveness
Answer: (C)
57. Why is teacher training necessary?
(A) Helps in acquiring teaching skills
(B) In understanding methods of school organization
(C) Upgrading knowledge of content
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
58. Drama is suitable for teaching:
(A) History
(B) Science
(C) Language
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
59. The greatest satisfaction in teaching is:
(A) Feeling of love for children
(B) A sense of service to mankind
(C) A secured monetary gain
(D) A sense of contribution to learner’s all-round development
Answer: (D)
60. Human personality is the result of:
(A) Upbringing at home
(B) Interaction between heredity and environment
(C) Only environment
(D) Only heredity
Answer: (B)
61. Which of the following is an objective type question?
(A) Short answer question
(B) Open ended question
(C) True and False
(D) Essay type question
Answer: (C)
62. Who is regarded as a first teacher of a child?
(A) Headmaster
(B) Class teacher
(C) Mother
(D) Tutor
Answer: (C)
63. A teacher who is not able to draw the attention of her students should:
(A) resign from the post
(B) find fault in her learners
(C) start dictating
(D) evaluate her teaching method and improve it
Answer: (D)
64. Blackboard can be included in which group/category of teaching aid?
(A) Audio aid
(B) Visual aid
(C) Audio-Visual aid
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
65. 10+2+3 system of education was recommended by:
(A) Mudaliar Commission
(B) National Policy of Education (1986)
(C) Kothari Commission
(D) Radhakrishanan Commission
Answer: (B)
66. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should:
(A) allow students to do what they like
(B) deal with the students strictly
(C) involve the students in interesting activities
(D) deal with them politely and firmly
Answer: (C)
67. Informal education is:
(A) Just schooling
(B) Lifelong
(C) Time bound
(D) Pre-planned
Answer: (B)
68. Mental Health is:
(A) Symptoms of maladjustment
(B) Harmonious functioning of the total personality
(C) Terrible excitement
(D) Throwing up temper tantrums
Answer: (B)
69. Which of the following is mainly concerned with the software aspect of technology?
(A) Computer
(B) TV set
(C) Floppy
(D) Scripts
Answer: (A)
70. The psychological barrier in communication is:
(A) noise
(B) wrong perception
(C) ambiguous words
(D) previous knowledge
Answer: (B)
71. Full form of CABE is:
(A) Central Administration Board of Education
(B) Central Allied Board of Education
(C) Central Advisory Board of Education
(D) Central Administrative Board of Education
Answer: (C)
72. Which of the following is not a co-curricular activity?
(A) organizing a quiz
(B) participating in a cultural programme organized in the school
(C) reading a Journal in the school library
(D) deputing a student for drama competition
Answer: (C)
73. Evaluation ascertains:
(A) how far the learning objectives have been achieved
(B) the weakness of instructional procedures
(C) reinforcement and feedback
(D) all of the above
Answer: (D)
74. Work experience in education means:
(A) to inculcate in students right attitude towards work
(B) to participate in productive work for living
(C) to bridge the gap between school life and
(D) all of the above
Answer: (D)
75. If a child is not taking interest in the classroom, the teacher must:
(A) give more home assignment
(B) report to parents
(C) use teaching aids
(D) involve students in teaching-learning through interactive activities
Answer: (D)
76. Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:
(A) Lecture method
(B) Textbook method
(C) Discussion method
(D) Audio-Video aids
Answer: (C)
77. A good textbook does not have the criteria of:
(A) learner friendly
(B) logical sequencing of content
(C) high cost
(D) interactive language
Answer: (C)
78. Slow learners in the class should be:
(A) motivated
(B) neglected
(C) treated sympathetically
(D) given easy assignment
Answer: (C)
79. The worst type of classroom management style is:
(A) autocratic
(B) democratic
(C) co-operative
(D) participatory
Answer: (D)
80. What is best suited source to acquire knowledge systematically?
(A) from authority
(B) by personal experiences
(C) through scientific method
(D) by expert opinion
Answer: (B)
PART-B
Section-V: (i) Science
81. Positive ions are formed from neutral atoms by the loss of:
(A) neutrons
(B) nuclear charge
(C) protons
(D) electrons
Answer: (D)
82. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Elements in the first column of the Periodic Table
(A) are called alkali metals
(B) are inert gases
(C) have metallic lusture
(D) are radioactive in nature
Answer: (A)
83. Which one of the following properties would a solution have if it is an acid?
(A) Solution turns litmus blue.
(B) Solution feels slippery.
(C) Solution has a hydrogen ion concentration of 10−13 M.
(D) Solution is a very good conductor of electricity.
Answer: (D)
84. Which of the electronic configurations given below would you expect for a noble gas?
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
(B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(C) 1s2 2s22p6
(D) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Answer: (C)
85. How many atoms are contained in a mole of sulphuric acid, H2SO4?
(A) 7 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole
(B) 5 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole
(C) 3 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole
(D) 8 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mole
Answer: (A)
86. What is the power of a convex lens whose focal length is 50 cm?
(A) −2 D
(B) −0.5 D
(C) +2 D
(D) +0.5 D
Answer: (C)
87. Which of the colours of visible light has minimum wave length?
(A) Violet
(B) Red
(C) Yellow
(D) Green
Answer: (A)
88. In a metallic conductor, electric current is due to the movement of:
(A) ions
(B) amperes
(C) electrons
(D) protons
Answer: (A)
89. An electric charge in uniform motion produces:
(A) an electric field only
(B) a magnetic field only
(C) both electric and magnetic fields
(D) no such field at all
Answer: (C)
90. The radiations emitted by a hot furnace are:
(A) ultra-violet
(B) infra-red
(C) X-rays
(D) microwaves
Answer: (B)
91. Normal blood pressure range (mm Hg) is:
(A) 120/80
(B) 100/60
(C) 140/90
(D) 90/50
Answer: (A)
92. Gastric digestion takes place efficiently in:
(A) acidic medium
(B) alkaline medium
(C) neutral medium
(D) highly alkaline medium
Answer: (A)
93. A doctor advised a person to take an injection of insulin because:
(A) his blood pressure was low
(B) his heart was beating slowly
(C) he was suffering from goitre
(D) his sugar level in blood was high
Answer: (D)
94. Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(A) Insulin
(B) Thyroxine
(C) Oestrogen
(D) Cytokinin
Answer: (D)
95. If a tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant, what is this type of cross called?
(A) dihybrid
(B) monohybrid
(C) reciprocal
(D) trihybrid
Answer: (B)
96. What is the name of the discipline dealing with the study of inheritance?
(A) Cytology
(B) Evolution
(C) Genetics
(D) Morphology
Answer: (C)
97. Which of the following constitutes a food chain?
(A) Grass, wheat and mango
(B) Grass, goat and human
(C) Goat, cow and elephant
(D) Grass, fish and goat
Answer: (B)
98. The depletion of ozone shield is due to:
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons
(B) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Methane
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
99. Which of the following fuel is a fossil fuel?
(A) Biogas
(B) Biodiesel
(C) Coal and Petroleum
(D) Nuclear fuel
Answer: (C)
100. The main aim of conservation and preservation of the environment is to:
(A) Preserve the plants
(B) Preserve the animals
(C) Preserve the fuels
(D) Preserve the biodiversity
Answer: (D)
Section-V : (ii) Mathematics
101. The mean of first n natural numbers is:
(A) n/2
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (D)
102. The fifth decile is the same as:
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Geometric Mean
Answer: (D)
103. For a positively skewed curve, which of the following is true?
(A) Mean > Median
(B) Median > Mean
(C) Mean = Median
(D) Mode > Mean
Answer: (A)
104. The 25th percentile coincides with:
(A) Mean
(B) First Quartile
(C) Median
(D) Third Quartile
Answer: (C)
105. If each side of a rectangle is increased by 20%, its area would increase by:
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 44%
(D) 56%
Answer: (C)
106. If the radius of circle is increased by 50%, the area of the circle would increase by:
(A) 25%
(B) 125%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
Answer: (B)
107. Anil and Ankur can do a piece of work in 12j days, Ankur and Harish in 15 days. Harish and Anil in 20 days. How much time will Anil alone take to finish the work?
(A) 25 days
(B) 35 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 40 days
Answer: (C)
108. Which fraction is the largest?
(A) 3/7
(B) 5/9
(C) 5/11
(D) 7/13
Answer: (B)
109. Which fraction is the smallest?
(A) 5/6
(B) 6/7
(C) 7/8
(D) 8/9
Answer: (A)
110. What is 5 per cent of 10 per cent of 5?
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.0125
(C) 0.0625
(D) 0.025
Answer: (D)
111. A train moves at the speed of 180 km per hour. The speed of the train per second is:
(A) 180 m
(B) 120 m
(C) 90 m
(D) 50 m
Answer: (D)
112. A man sells an article for Rs 20 and earns a profit of 20%. What is the cost price?
(A) Rs 16
(B) Rs 16.66
(C) Rs 15
(D) Rs 15.87
Answer: (B)
113. A student’s score was wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63 which led to increase in average by ½. The number of students in the class is:
(A) 35
(B) 40
(C) 45
(D) 50
Answer: (B)
114. A fruit vender buys oranges at 4 oranges for Rs 3 for sells them at 3 oranges for Rs 4. The profit per cent is about:
(A) 66
(B) 77
(C) 88
(D) 55
Answer: (B)
115. A man’s speed along the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 1.5 km/hr. Man’s speed against the current is:
(A) 12.0 km/hr
(B) 16.5 km/hr
(C) 13.5 km/hr
(D) 15.5 km/hr
Answer: (A)
116. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. If their LCM is 48, then the sum of numbers is:
(A) 28
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 42
Answer: (C)
117. What is the greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the rods of 8 m, 4 m 20 cm and 12 m 20 cm length?
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: (C)
118. What per cent of a day is the time of 4 hours?
(A) 6%
(B) 33%
(C) 16.66%
(D) 18.87%
Answer: (C)
119. A student obtained 125 marks but failed by 40 marks. If minimum pass marks are 33%, then t he maximum marks for the exam is:
(A) 240
(B) 360
(C) 420
(D) 500
Answer: (D)
120. A man’s salary was decreased by 50% and then increased by 50%. The net change is:
(A) 25% increase
(B) 33% increase
(C) 25% decrease
(D) 33% decrease
Answer: (C)
Section-V : (iii) Social Science
121. The Sikh Khalsa was founded by:
(A) Guru Teg Bahadur
(B) Guru Nanak
(C) Guru Gobind Singh
(D) Guru Hargobind
Answer: (C)
122. Relies of Buddha are preserved in a:
(A) Vihara
(B) Chaitya
(C) Stupa
(D) Monastery
Answer: (C)
123. Which was the first metal used by man?
(A) Copper
(B) Silver
(C) Bronze
(D) Brass
Answer: (A)
124. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: (D)
125. Tulsidas was a contemporary of:
(A) Babar
(B) Akbar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shahjahan
Answer: (B)
126. The study of heavenly bodies is known as:
(A) Astrology
(B) Astronautics
(C) Astronomy
(D) Astrophysics
Answer: (C)
127. A star which appears blue is:
(A) Cooler than the moon
(B) Hotter than the sun
(C) As hot as the sun
(D) Cooler than the sun
Answer: (B)
128. A sudden fall in the barometric reading indicates:
(A) Rain
(B) Storm
(C) Fine weather
(D) Extreme cold
Answer: (B)
129. Lunar eclipse is caused when the:
(A) Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth
(B) Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon
(C) Sun comes between the Earth and Moon
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
130. Which of the following is the largest river in the world?
(A) Nile
(B) Congo
(C) Ganga
(D) Amazon
Answer: (A)
131. Who among the following was the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?
(A) Dr. B. N. Rau
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) K. M. Munshi
(D) M. C. Setalvad
Answer: (A)
132. The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of Parliament by the:
(A) President
(B) Speaker
(C) Vice-President
(D) Finance Minister
Answer: (A)
133. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of the Constitutional of India?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Union Cabinet
Answer: (C)
134. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as The Heart and Soul of the Constitution?
(A) Right of Freedom of Religion
(B) Right to Property
(C) Right to Equality
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D)
135. Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayats?
(A) Property Tax
(B) House Tax
(C) Land Tax
(D) Vehicles Tax
Answer: (A)
136. Who is called the Father of Economics?
(A) Max Muller
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Adam Smith
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
137. Green Revolution is associated with _____.
(A) Agriculture
(B) Science & Technology
(C) Milk Production
(D) Industry
Answer: (A)
138. GDR means:
(A) Gross Domestic Ratio
(B) Global Depository Receipt
(C) Global Development Range
(D) Geographically Developed Regions
Answer: (B)
139. What is Laissez-faire?
(A) Mixed Economy
(B) Controlled Economy
(C) Non-interference of Government in economic affairs
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
140. The Right to Information Act was enacted in the year:
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007
(D) 2008
Answer: (A)
Section-V : (iv) English
Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145): Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
141. The annual meeting of Philosophy Professors was a gathering of the most erudite.
(A) experienced
(B) senior
(C) learned
(D) famous
Answer: (C)
142. Sarika was so ingenuous that her parents feared that she would be exploited.
(A) genius
(B) clever
(C) intelligent
(D) simple
Answer: (D)
143. Most of the Snakes are
(A) harmless
(B) fast
(C) poisonous
(D) scary
Answer: (A)
144. The burglar tried to placate the barking dog.
(A) hit
(B) pacify
(C) shun
(D) harm
Answer: (B)
145. In traditional families, the young venerate their elders.
(A) copy
(B) follow
(C) revere
(D) fear
Answer: (C)
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.
146.
(A) vasillate
(B) vacilate
(C) vasilate
(D) vacillate
Answer: (D)
147.
(A) fluorescence
(B) flourescence
(C) fluroscence
(D) florscence
Answer: (A)
148.
(A) Rapudiate
(B) Repudiate
(C) Repudete
(D) Repudate
Answer: (B)
149.
(A) Pristin
(B) Prestine
(C) Pristine
(D) Prestin
Answer: (C)
150.
(A) Maleable
(B) Meleable
(C) Melleable
(D) Malleable
Answer: (D)
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154) : Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
151. Particle physics is an esoteric field of knowledge.
(A) Popular
(B) Abstruse
(C) Obscure
(D) Difficult
Answer: (A)
152. The life of mayflies seems
(A) Mysterious
(B) Evanescent
(C) Eternal
(D) Transient
Answer: (C)
153. The principal was uncompromising on the issue of discipline.
(A) Inflexible
(B) flexible
(C) tenacious
(D) intransigent
Answer: (B)
154. The store cashier was so lethargic that he always had a long queue in front of him.
(A) Apathetic
(B) Listless
(C) Energetic
(D) Languid
Answer: (C)
Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156) : Select the word in each group that does not belong to it.
155.
(A) Loquacious
(B) Gossipy
(C) Verbose
(D) Amicable
Answer: (D)
156.
(A) Unscruplous
(B) Meticulous
(C) Conscientious
(D) Precise
Answer: (A)
Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160) : Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.
157. After Amar betrayed his teammates by giving away their plan to the opposition, they called him_____.
(A) a sycophant
(B) a traitor
(C) an imbecile
(D) an expert
Answer: (B)
158. Although Mary receives _____from critics for her unconventional acting style, she never considers, changing to please them.
(A) kudos
(B) appreciation
(C) tirades
(D) empathy
Answer: (C)
159. Friends often seek Deepika’s _____ as she is known for her ability to listen carefully and offer unbiased advice.
(A) concern
(B) empathy
(C) attention
(D) counsel
Answer: (D)
160. Behavioural theory is _______ in nature as it focuses on observation and direct study of actions.
21. ____ involves self-awareness and control of cognitive abilities e.g., planning, reviewing and revising, etc.
(1) Centration
(2) Metacognition
(3) Cognition
(4) Accommodation
Answer: (2)
22. When children think to interpret the received information according to their experiences, it is called-
(1) reflective thinking
(2) creative thinking
(3) abstract thinking
(4) concrete thinking
Answer: (4)
23. Teaching learners at varying levels of difficulty based on the ability of individual learner is known as-
(1) differentiated instruction
(2) selective instruction
(3) precision teaching
(4) errorless instruction
Answer: (1)
24. Maintenance is the specific stage of learning which is antecedent to _______ stage of learning.
(1) acquisition
(2) motivation
(3) independent
(4) generalization
Answer: (4)
25. Zajonc believes that cognition and emotion are-
(1) interdependent
(2) independent
(3) interrelated
(4) integrated
Answer: (2)
26. A teacher is teaching children by demonstration of a task to correct the performances of an already learned task. He is using _____ method of teaching.
(1) imitation
(2) observation
(3) correction
(4) modelling
Answer: (4)
27. According to Mann and Janis, decision maker children analyze the problem, list the alternatives and weigh each option for its advantages and disadvantages. His behavior reflects-
(1) surveillance
(2) vigilant
(3) outgoing
(4) autocratic
Answer: (2)
28. In ____ thinking, a child as a problem solver evaluates the truth or likelihood of statements.
(1) creative
(2) aesthetic
(3) abstract
(4) logical
Answer: (4)
29. The task in which the children get experience while enjoying themselves is known as
(1) drill and practice task
(2) consumer type task
(3) producer type task
(4) problem type task
Answer: (2)
30. Multisensory approach in teaching-learning is the simultaneous use of visual, auditory, tactile and ______ senses to enhance learning.
(1) kinesthetic
(2) vestibular
(3) perceptual
(4) observational
Answer: (1)
IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part-II (Mathematics and Science) or from Part-III (Social Studies/Social Science).
Part-II
Mathematics and Science
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
31. In a meeting, 4/25 of the members were female. What percent of the members was this?
(1) 40%
(2) 24%
(3) 16%
(4) 4%
Answer: (3)
32. A shop reduced its prices by 10%. What is the new price of an item which was previously sold for Rs 500?
(1) Rs 510
(2) Rs 550
(3) Rs 450
(4) Rs 400
Answer: (3)
33. Given below is a data set of temperature (in °C) :
−6, −8, −2, 3, 2, 0, 5, 4, 8
What is the range of the data?
(1) 0°C
(2) 16°C
(3) 18°C
(4) 10°C
Answer: (2)
34. A coin is tossed 10 times and the outcomes are observed as :
H, T, H, T, T, H, H, T, H, H
(H is Head; T is Tail)
What is the probability of getting Head?
(1) 3/5
(2) 4/5
(3) 2/5
(4) 1/5
Answer: (1)
35. The numerical expression shows that-
(1) rational numbers are closed under addition
(2) rational numbers are closed under subtraction
(3) rational numbers are closed under multiplication
(4) rational numbers are closed under division
Answer: (1)
36. Which one of the following 3D shapes does not have a vertex?
(1) Pyramid
(2) Prism
(3) Cone
(4) Sphere
Answer: (4)
37. If then x is-
(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 3/5
(4) 4/5
Answer: (3)
38. Let a, b, c be three rational numbers, where a = 3/5, b = 2/3 and c = −5/6. Which one of the following is true?
(1) a × (b + c) = b × (a + c)
(2) a ÷ (b + c) = b ÷ (a +c)
(3) a + (b + c) = c + (a + b)
(4) a – (b – c) = c – (a – b)
Answer: (3)
39. A geometric representation, showing the relationship between a whole and its part, is-
(1) histogram
(2) pie chart
(3) bar graph
(4) pictograph
Answer: (2)
40. If q is the square of a natural number p, then p is-
(1) the square of q
(2) the square root of q
(3) equal to q
(4) greater than q
Answer: (2)
41. The value of is-
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12
Answer: (2)
42. In a park, 784 pants are arranged so that number of plants in a row is same as the number of rows. The number of plants in each row is-
(1) 18
(2) 28
(3) 38
(4) 48
Answer: (2)
43. If two quantities x and y vary inversely with each other, then which one of the following is true?
(1) Ratio of their corresponding values remains constant.
(2) Product of their corresponding values remains constant.
(3) Summation of their corresponding values remains constant.
(4) Difference of their corresponding values remains constant.
Answer: (2)
44. Given
Then the value of y is-
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2
Answer: (3)
45. To fill a rectangular tank of area 700 m2, 140 m3 of water is required. What will be the height of the water level in the tank?
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm
Answer: (2)
46. Which one of the following is the most suitable strategy to teach the skill of addition of money?
(1) Use of ICT
(2) Role play
(3) Use of models
(4) Doing lots of problems
Answer: (2)
47. After teaching the concept of multiplication to her class, a teacher asked her children to multiply 48 by 4.
One of her students solved it orally as “To multiply 48 by 4, we first add 48 to 48, which makes 96 and then add another 96 to reach 192. So, the answer is 192”.
What can you say about his/her strategy of multiplication?
(1) The child used a wrong method to multiply. He/She has to use the place value algorithm to multiply the numbers.
(2) He/She has not understood the concept of multiplication.
(3) The given problem is a multiplication problem and not addition problem.
(4) He/She understood multiplication as repeated addition.
Answer: (4)
48. Which one of the following should be taken up as initial activity in introducing the concept of ‘time’ to young learners?
(1) Discussing about the prior experiences with phrases related to time
(2) Teaching children how to read time in clock
(3) Teaching children how to calculate elapsed time
(4) Conversion of time in different units
Answer: (2)
49. Which one of the following is not the purpose of assessment?
(A) Monitoring student’s growth
(B) Making instructional decision
(C) Evaluating the effectiveness of curriculum
(D) Ranking the children based on performance
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) A
(2) D
(3) B
(4) C
Answer: (2)
50. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for teaching mathematics at upper primary level?
(1) Demonstration method
(2) Lecture method
(3) Activity-based learning
(4) Problem-solving method
Answer: (4)
51. Which one of the following is most essential in learning mathematics at upper primary level?
(1) Solving a problem many times
(2) Exploring different way s to solving a problem
(3) Memorizing all formulas
(4) Copying correctly what teacher writes on the board
Answer: (2)
52. The strategy of questioning used in the mathematics class at upper primary level-
(1) should be discouraged as it demoralizes the child who is unable to answer
(2) makes the classroom noisy as the children would be talking too much
(3) could create stress among children and may lead them to accept the teacher’s authority
(4) helps children to express their thoughts or understanding and think critically
Answer: (4)
53. A teacher has taught measurement of area to class VIII children, but many of her students are confused between the usage of different units of area and volume. What could be the reason for such a confusion in children?
(1) The children did not know the use of units for area.
(2) The children have not memorized different units.
(3) Different units have been introduced all together without relating them with their daily life.
(4) The concept of measurement of area is a difficult topic for a class VIII learner.
Answer: (3)
54. Which one of t he following can be the most appropriate aim of encouraging mathematical communication in classroom?
(1) Children should be able to use a precise language while talking about mathematical statements and using them
(2) Children who have fear about mathematics should be able to interact in the class
(3) To organize debates in the class regarding topics of mathematics
(4) Children should be able to recite theorems and formulas in mathematics class
Answer: (1)
55. The purpose of a diagnostic test in mathematics is-
(1) to know the gaps in children’s understanding
(2) to give feedback to the parents
(3) to fill the progress report
(4) to plan the question paper for the end term examination
Answer: (1)
56. Remedial teaching is helpful for-
(1) teaching the whole class
(2) recapitulating the lesson
(3) teaching in play-way method
(4) removing learning difficulties of weak students
Answer: (4)
57. Which one of the following is not a mathematical process?
(1) Visualization
(2) Memorization
(3) Estimation
(4) Measurement
Answer: (2)
58. “Errors play a crucial role in learning of mathematics.” This statement is-
(1) false, because errors occur due to carelessness
(2) true, because errors reflect the thinking of child
(3) false, because mathematics is exact
(4) true, because errors provide feedback about the marks they obtained
Answer: (4)
59. While teaching ‘shapes’, a teacher can plan a trip to historical places, as-
(A) it needs to provide leisure time as most of the syllabus has been completed in time
(B) it would be an opportunity to improve communication skill\
(C) shapes are an integral part of every architecture and such trips encourage connections across disciplines
(D) field trips are recommended by Education Board, so must be organized
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) A and B
(2) C
(3) B and C
(4) A, C and D
Answer: (2)
60. A student was asked to calculate the surface area of a cube.
He calculated the volume.
The reason(s) of error in calculation is/are-
(A) the student finds the class boring as he does not like mathematics class
(B) the student is not fit to study in that class
(C) the student is not able to understand the concept of surface area and volume
(D) the student has understood the concept of surface area and volume
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) C
(2) B and C
(3) D
(4) A and B
Answer: (1)
61. The longest snakes found in the word are-
(1) vipers
(2) anacondas
(3) boas
(4) reticulated pythons
Answer: (4)
62. Yoga is done by the people in the world because-
(1) it is a simple exercise
(2) it keeps people healthy
(3) it increases hunger
(4) it brings happiness
Answer: (2)
63. The vaccine for smallpox was discovered by-
(1) Ronald Ross
(2) Robert Koch
(3) Edward Jenner
(4) Alexander Fleming
Answer: (3)
64. Which one of the following is used as preservative?
(1) Copper sulphate
(2) Sodium benzoate
(3) Ammonium sulphate
(4) Sodium chloride
Answer: (2)
65. Yeast is used for the production of-
(1) alcohol
(2) curd
(3) sugar
(4) common salt
Answer: (1)
66. Mitochondria : ATP :: Ribosome : ?
(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Fat
(3) Protein
(4) Vitamin
Answer: (3)
67. If the frequency of a simple pendulum is 2 Hz, how many oscillations will it complete in 16 seconds?
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64
Answer: (3)
68. Which one of the following metals burns if kept in air?
(1) Sodium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Zinc
(4) Aluminium
Answer: (1)
69. Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2]j is used as-
(1) oxidizing agent
(2) reducing agent
(3) anti-acid
(4) fermentation agent
Answer: (3)
70. Which one of the following gases burns with pop sound?
(1) Oxygen
(2) Hydrogen
(3) Nitrogen dioxide
(4) Sulphur dioxide
Answer: (2)
71. Which of the following is/are example(s) of non-contact force?
(1) Gravitation force
(2) Muscular force
(3) Magnetic force
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Answer: (ONE MARK TO ALL)
72. Diabetes is controlled by ______ hormone.
(1) thyroxine
(2) adrenaline
(3) insulin
(4) thymosin
Answer: (3)
73. Which one of the following is not a product of petroleum?
(1) Kerosene
(2) CNG
(3) Paraffin wax
(4) Bitumen
Answer: (2)
74. Red Data Book contains a record of-
(1) endangered species
(2) extinct species
(3) flora
(4) fauna
Answer: (1)
75. Why are the soles of the shoes treaded?
(1) To give the shoes more protection
(2) To decrease friction
(3) To increase friction
(4) To increase life of the shoes
Answer: (3)
76. Sarika took distilled water in a bottle and tried to find whether it conducts electricity or not. What is she likely to find?
(1) It is good conductor of electricity.
(2) It is an insulator.
(3) It is poor conductor of electricity.
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3)
77. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) There is a minimum limit of current which can safely flow in the electric circuit.
(2) There is a maximum limit of current which can safely flow in the electric circuit.
(3) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all the buildings.
(4) If the proper fuse is inserted in a circuit, it will blow off if the current is more than th e safe limit.
Answer: (1)
78. Which one of the following places is most likely to be affected by a cyclone?
(1) Porbandar
(2) Puri
(3) Mumbai
(4) Goa
Answer: (2)
79. The change in seasons on the earth occurs because-
(1) the axis of rotation of the earth is perpendicular to the plane of its orbit.
(2) the axis of rotation of the earth is tilted with respect to the plane of its orbit.
(3) the distance between the earth and the s un is not constant
(4) the axis of rotation of the earth is parallel to the plane of its orbit
Answer: (2)
80. There are two columns, Column-A and Column B :
Column –A
(a) Canopy
(b) Decomposers
(c) Humus
(d) Porcupine
Column – B
(i) Dead plant and animal tissues
(ii) A wild animal
(iii) Microorganism
(iv) Branches of tall tree
Which one of the following is t he correct sequence of Column-B for the given sequence of Column –A?
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(4) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
Answer: (4)
81. Why is formative assessment important in science?
(1) It is easy to conduct.
(2) It helps in developing scientific temper in students.
(3) It is diagnostic.
(4) It helps in better understanding of science.
Answer: (3)
82. Why are science fairs organized in schools?
(1) To prepare students for higher education in science
(2) To help the students to score higher in their examination
(3) to nurture creativity and experimentation in science among students
(4) To evaluate students on the basis of their performance
Answer: (3)
83. As a teacher, which one of the following do you find most appropriate for scientific approach to teaching?
(1) Clarify the students about the concepts in the class
(2) Show the use of technology for teaching concepts
(3) Give projects to the students
(4) Ask the students to perform activities related to the concepts
Answer: (4)
84. According to NCF-2005, “good science education is true to life”. What does this mean?
(1) Science should prepare the child to the world of work.
(2) Science should be able to engage the child meaningfully.
(3) Science should enable the child in learning the processes of acquiring scientific knowledge.
(4) Science should help in living easy life.
Answer: (1)
85. Which one of the following is not a quality of scientific attitude?
(1) Open-mindedness
(2) Curiosity to learn more
(3) Objectivity in approach to problems
(4) Hard work
Answer: (4)
86. Hari wants to teach the circular motion to class VI students. Which one of the following will be the best method?
(1) Discussion
(2) Activity-based teaching
(3) Giving examples
(4) Demonstration
Answer: (2)
87. Which one of the following is an important aim of learning science?
(1) To get knowledge of science
(2) To collect the information of science contents
(3) To imbibe the values of honesty, integrity and cooperation among learners
(4) To help the fellow colleagues in getting knowledge of science
Answer: (3)
88. The continuous and comprehensive evaluation in science means-
(1) summative and formative assessment
(2) more frequent test and examination
(3) routine activities and exercises to assess learning
(4) evaluation of all aspects of science
Answer: (3)
89. Which one of the following is not a step of problem-solving approach?
(1) Visualizing the situation
(2) Attempt to solve
(3) Drawing conclusion
(4) Observation
Answer: (4)
90. Which one of the following is a step of analogy strategy in science?
(1) Map similarities
(2) Presentation of abstraction
(3) Interlinking concepts
(4) Application
Answer: (1)
IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part-II (Mathematics and Science) Or from Part-III (Social Studies/Social Science).
PART-III
Social Studies/Social Science
31. Wind vane is used for measuring-
(1) wind velocity
(2) air pressure
(3) wind direction
(4) air temperature
Answer: (3)
32. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere helps in the transmission of radio waves?
(1) Stratosphere
(2) Mesosphere
(3) Thermosphere
(4) Exosphere
Answer: (3)
33. Identify the various layers of the earth in order from interior to the outermost layer :
(1) Crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
(2) Mantle, crust, outer core, inner core
(3) Inner core, outer core, crust, mantle
(4) Inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
Answer: (4)
34. Observe carefully the location o the sun, earth and moon in the given diagram and tell what it depicts :
(1) Solar eclipse
(2) Lunar eclipse
(3) Spring tide
(4) Neap tide
Answer: (4)
35. When the river enters the plain, it bends and flows forming large bends known as-
(1) levee
(2) floodplain
(3) meander
(4) oxbow lake
Answer: (3)
36. Which means of transport is extremely useful in most inaccessible areas and in time of calamities for rescuing people and distributing food, water, clothes and medicines?
(1) Airways
(2) Railways
(3) Roadways
(4) Waterways
Answer: (1)
37. The branch of geography which deals with composition of a particular human population is called-
(1) urban geography
(2) biogeography
(3) demography
(4) human geography
Answer: (3)
38. Assertion (A) :
The sun sets in Gujarat about two hours after Arunachal Pradesh.
Reason (R) :
Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher latitude than Gujarat.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer: (2)
39. Which one of the following is a n on-conventional source of energy?
(1) Firewood
(2) Natural gas
(3) Solar energy
(4) Coal
Answer: (3)
40. The breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is known as-
(1) sericulture
(2) viticulture
(3) horticulture
(4) pisciculture
Answer: (4)
41. A narrow strip of land joining two landmasses is known as-
(1) strait
(2) isthmus
(3) island
(4) bay
Answer: (2)
42. Which one of the following continents is smallest in size?
(1) Australia
(2) South America
(3) Africa
(4) Europe
Answer: (1)
43. At the upper primary stage, Social Science comprises of-
(1) History, Geography, Political Science, Psychology
(2) History, Geography, Economics, Sociology
(3) History, Geography, Political Science, Economics
(4) History, Geography, Political Science, Sociology
Answer: (3)
44. Inductive learning is contradictory to which one of the following approaches?
(1) Expository teaching
(2) Structure training
(3) Simulation
(4) Mastery learning
Answer: (1)
45. Read the given statements A and B and select the correct answer :
(A) Critical thinking promotes the building of concepts, application and expansion of ideas.
(B) It does not help in understanding and evaluating arguments and beliefs of others.
(1) A is true and B is false
(2) A is false and B is true
(3) Both A and B are false
(4) Both A and B are true
Answer: (1)
46. What is an empirical evidence?
(1) Data gathered in the real world through the senses
(2) A numeric approach for research
(3) Data measured in metric units
(4) Data gathered using reliable methods of data collection
Answer: (1)
47. The models/replicas of physical features are most suitable for teaching-
(1) History
(2) Economics
(3) Geography
(4) Political Science
Answer: (3)
48. The collection of weather information from the local newspaper is an example of which type of source?
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Both Primary and tertiary
Answer: (2)
49. In which type of classroom, the students with learning disabilities learn alongside other students?
(1) Exclusive
(2) Special
(3) Inclusive
(4) Modern
Answer: (3)
50. Who has given the following theory?
“All children go through the same sequence of development, but at different rates. Therefore teacher must plan activities for individual children and small groups, not just for the class as a whole.
(1) C. L. Ogden
(2) D. Purcell
(3) J. H. Bell
(4) J. Piaget
Answer: (4)
51. In order to promote cooperative learning in the classroom, a teacher should-
(1) engage students in debate and discussions
(2) given them individual projects
(3) divide the class in small groups for work
(4) provide them various sources to do the project
Answer: (1)
52. A self-guided, self-disciplined thinking which attempts to reason at the highest level of quality in a fair-minded way is called-
(1) critical thinking
(2) complex thinking
(3) intelligent thinking
(4) abstract thinking
Answer: (1)
53. The colours used in the Ajanta Caves Paintings have been derived from which of the following materials?
(1) Remains of animal organs
(2) Graphite
(3) Plants and minerals
(4) Slate
Answer: (3)
54. The earliest manuscripts were written on-
(1) palm leaves
(2) stones
(3) paper
(4) wood
Answer: (1)
55. Which one of the following periods is longest in the human history?
(1) Palaeolithic
(2) Mesolithic
(3) Neolithic
(4) Megalithic
Answer: (1)
56. Read the given statements A and B and select the correct answer:
(A) Mehrgarh is located in a fertile plain near Bolan Pass of Pakistan.
(B) Evidences of farming and herding are found here.
(1) A is true and B is false
(2) A is false and B is true
(3) Both A and B are false
(4) Both A and B are true
Answer: (4)
57. In which one of the following States of India, the largest number of Harappan sites have been found?
(1) Punjab
(2) Haryana
(3) Gujarat
(4) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: (3)
58. ‘Rig Veda’ was originally composed in which one of the following languages?
(1) Brahmi
(2) Pali
(3) Sanskrit
(4) Prakrit
Answer: (3)
59. The first ruler of Magadha Mahajanapadas in the sixth century BC was-
(1) Mahavira
(2) Prasenjit
(3) Bimbisara
(4) Ajatashatru
Answer: (3)
60. Which one of the following is not among the three jewels of Buddhism?
(1) Buddha
(2) Dhamma
(3) Ahimsa
(4) Sangha
Answer: (3)
61. Who among the following elects the Rajya Sabha Members?
(1) Voters in Assembly Constituencies
(2) Voters in Parliamentary Constituencies
(3) Lok Sabha Members
(4) Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs)
Answer: (4)
62. Which of the following systems of government was adopted by India?
(1) Parliamentary and Unitary
(2) Presidential and Federal
(3) Presidential and Unitary
(4) Parliamentary and Federal
Answer: (4)
63. How many Parliamentary Constituencies are reserve for the scheduled Castes?
(1) 48
(2) 84
(3) 47
(4) 74
Answer: (2)
64. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is violated due to practice of untouchability in India?
(1) Right to Equality
(2) Right to Freedom
(3) Right against Exploitation
(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (1)
As per the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(1) Right of Education
(2) Right against Exploitation
(3) Right to Freedom of Religion
(4) Right to Property
Answer: (4)
66. Untouchability refers to the discrimination on the basis of-
(1) physical disability
(2) gender
(3) caste
(4) race
Answer: (3)
67. Who appoints the Chief Minister?
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Governor
(4) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Answer: (3)
68. Who appoints the Governor?
(1) The Prime Minister
(2) The Chief Minister
(3) The Chief Justice of India
(4) The President
Answer: (4)
69. Who elects the Prime Minister?
(1) The Council of Ministers
(2) The Chief Ministers
(3) MPs
(4) MPs and MLAs
Answer: (3)
70. Who among the following is called the first citizen of India?
(1) The Chief Justice of India
(2) The Home Minister
(3) The President
(4) The Prime Minister
Answer: (3)
71. Who among the following is called the first citizen of a State in India?
(1) The Chief Justice of the High Court
(2) The Home Minister
(3) The Governor
(4) The Chief Minister
Answer: (3)
72. The current Lok Sabha (from 2014 onwards) is the
(1) 13th
(2) 14th
(3) 15th
(4) 16th
Answer: (4)
73. Who is the current President of India?
(1) Narendra Modi
(2) Pratibha Patil
(3) M. Venkaiah Naidu
(4) Ram Nath Kovind
Answer: (4)
74. Which of the following is not mentioned in the Constitution of India?
(1) Names of the States and Union Territories
(2) Structure of the Government
(3) Names of political parties
(4) Rights of the citizens
Answer: (3)
75. Who nominates Members to the Rajya Sabha?
(1) The President
(2) The Vice President
(3) The Prime Minister
(4) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Answer: (1)
76. Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(1) C. Rajagopalachari
(2) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(4) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (3)
77. Who among the following was the only Indian Governor-General of India?
(1) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(2) B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(3) T. T. Krishnamachari
(4) C. Rajagopalachari
Answer: (4)
78. When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(1) August 15, 1947
(2) November 26, 1947
(3) November 26, 1949
(4) January 26, 1950
Answer: (3)
79. Who among the following played a decisive role in integrating the Princely States of India?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(3) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(4) C. Rajagopalachari
Answer: (2)
80. Which of the following deal with the matters in the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India?
(1) Union Government and State Governments
(2) State Governments and Local Government Bodies
(3) Union Territories
(4) Local Government Bodies
Answer: (1)
81. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly of India?
(1) C. Rajagopalachari
(2) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(4) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (2)
82. In the 18th century, under whom did Bengal gradually break away from the Mughal control?
(1) Murshid Quli Khan
(2) Nadir Shah
(3) Alivardi Khan
(4) Burhan-ul-Mulk
Answer: (1)
83. Who among the following Governor Generals decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last Mughal emperor and after his death none of the descendents would be recognized as a ruler?
(1) Lord Dalhousie
(2) William Bentinck
(3) Lord Canning
(4) Lord Cornwallis
Answer: (3)
84. Which Governor-General declared that Awadh was being misgoverned and British rule was needed to ensure proper administration?
(1) Lord Ripon
(2) Lord Canning
(3) Lord Dalhousie
(4) Lord Mountbatten
Answer: (3)
85. Which ruler of Kanpur called himself ‘Peshwa’?
(1) Nana Saheb
(2) Bajirao I
(3) Bajirao II
(4) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer: (1)
86. The best methodology to teach the theme ‘Factory’ would be-
(1) to narrate a story
(2) to invite a resource person
(3) to organize a visit to an industrial plant
(4) to screen a documentary film
Answer: (3)
87. What is EDUSAT?
(1) The rocket that carries man-made satellite to be placed in the orbit around the sun
(2) A newly discovered planet in the solar system
(3) An asteroid found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(4) A man-made Indian satellite
Answer: (4)
88. The verses and ideas of which one of the following personalities have been preserved in ‘Panchvani’ and ‘Bijak’?
(1) Mirabai
(2) Kabir
(3) Guru Nanak
(4) Ravidas
Answer: (2)
89. The mural painting from Ellora Caves which shows Vishnu as Narasimha, the man-lion, is a work of which period?
(1) Gurjara-Pratihara period
(2) Rashtrakuta period
(3) Chalukya period
(4) Gupta period
Answer: (2)
90. Which one of the following organization believes in Upanishads?
(1) Brahma Samaj
(2) Ramakrishna Mission
(3) Satyashodhak Samaj
(4) Seva Samaj
Answer: (1)
Part-IV
Language-I
English
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part-IV (Q. Nos. 91 to 120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as Language-I only.
Directions : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to 99) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Born out of the forces of globalization, India’s IT sector is undertaking some globalization of its own. In search of new sources of rapid growth, the country’s outsourcing giants are aggressively expanding beyond their usual stomping grounds into the developing world; setting up programming centres. chasing new clients and hiring local talent. Through geographic diversification, Indian companies hop to regain some momentum after the recession. This shift is being driven by a global economy in which the US is no longer the undisputed engine of growth. India’s IT powers rose to prominence largely on the decisions made by American executives, who were quick to capitalize on the cost savings to be gained by outsourcing noncore operations, such as systems programming and call centres, to specialists overseas.
Revenues in India’s IT sector surged from $4 billion in 1998 to $59 billion last fiscal, but with the recession NASSCOM forecasts that the growth rate of India’s exports of IT and other business services to the US and Europe will drop to at most 7% in the current fiscal year, down from 16% last year and 29% in 2007-08.
Factors other than the crisis are driving India’s IT firm into the emerging world. Although the US still accounts for 60% of the export revenue of India’s IT sector, emerging markets are growing faster. Tapping these more dynamic economies won’t be easy, however. The goal of Indian IT firms for the past 30 years has been to wood clients outside India and transfer as much of the actual work as possible back home where lower wages for highly skilled programmers allowed them to offer significant cost savings. With costs in other emerging economies equally low, Indian firms can’t compete on price alone.
To adapt, Indian companies which are relatively unknown in these emerging national are establishing major local operations around the world, in the process hiring thousands of locals. Cultural conflicts arise at times while training new recruits. In addition, IT firms also have to work extra hard to woo business from emerging-market companies still unaccustomed to the concept of outsourcing. If successful, the future of India’s outsourcing sector could prove at bright as its past.
91. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase “India’s IT sector is undertaking some globalization of its own”?
(1) India has usurped American position as the leader in IT.
(2) The Indian IT sectors is competing with other emerging nations for American business
(3) The Indian IT sector it considering outsourcing to developing economies.
(4) Indian IT firms are engaging in expanding their presence internationally.
Answer: (4)
92. Which of the following factors made the services offered by the Indian IT attractive to the US?
(A) Indian IT companies had expertise in rare core operations
(B) The US lacked the necessary infrastructure and personnel to handle mass call centre operations
(C) Inability of other equally cost-efficient developing countries to comply with their strict policies
(1) None
(2) Only A
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only C
Answer: (1)
93. What has caused Indian IT firms to change the way they conduct business in developing countries?
(1) The volume of work being awarded cannot be handled by Indian firms
(2) The demands of these markets are different from those of India’s traditional customers
(3) Wages demanded by local workers are far higher than what they pay their Indian employees
(4) Stringent laws which are not conducive to outsourcing
Answer: (2)
94. What do the NASSCOM statistics about Indian IT exports indicate?
(1) Drop in demand for IT services by Europe and the US
(2) Indian IT firms charge exorbitantly for their services
(3) India has lost out to other emerging IT hubs
(4) The Indian IT sector should undergo restructuring
Answer: (1)
95. According to the passage, which one of the following is not a difficulty that Indian IT firms will face in emerging markets?
(1) Mindset resistant to outsourcing
(2) Local IT services are equally cost-effective
(3) The US is their preferred outsourcing destination
(4) Conflict arising during the training of local talent
Answer: (3)
96. Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the passage?
(A) The recession severely impacted the US but not India.
(B) India is trying to depend less on the US as a source of growth.
(C) The future success of Indian IT firms depends on emerging markets.
(1) Only B and C
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) All A, B and C
Answer: (2)
97. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘chasing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Running
(2) Harassing
(3) Pestering
(4) Pursuing
Answer: (4)
98. Which one of the following words is most opposite to the meaning of t he word ‘undisputed’ as used in the passage?
(1) Challenging
(2) Doubtful
(3) Deprived
(4) Emphasized
Answer: (2)
99. Other than crisis, what is driving IT companies to seek other options?
(1) The US makes more than 60% of India’s export revenue
(2) Emerging markets
(3) None of the above
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Answer: (2)
Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Break, Break, Break,
On thy cold gray stones, O Sea !
And I would that my tongue could utter
The thoughts that arise in me.
O, well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play !
O, well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay !
And the stately ships go on
To their haven under the hill;
But O for the touch of a vanish’d hand,
And the sound of a voice that is still ~
Break, Break, Break,
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea !
But the tender grace of a day that is dead
Will never come back to me.
100. What is ‘breaking’ in ‘Break, Break, Break’?
(1) The sea
(2) Poet’s heart
(3) The wind
(4) The sunshine through the clouds
Answer: (1)
101. The mood of the speaker in ‘Break, Break, Break’ is-
(1) The sea
(2) Poet’s heart
(3) The wind
(4) The sunshine through the clouds
Answer: (3)
102. The speaker in ‘Break, Break, observes all the following, except–
(1) children playing
(2) a sailor boy singing
(3) a lady in a tower
(4) ships coming in
Answer: (3)
103. The speaker of Break, Break, cannot–
(1) feel
(2) see
(3) speak
(4) hear
Answer: (3)
104. In the first two lines of the poem, the poet uses-
(1) apostrophe
(2) assonance
(3) metaphor
(4) simile
Answer: (2)
105. The phrase ‘haven under the hill’ is an example of-
(1) simile
(2) metaphor
(3) alliteration
(4) personafication
Answer: (3)
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
106. Which one of the following does not come under the principle of selection and gradation?
(1) Accuracy
(2) Availability
(3) Coverage
(4) Frequency
Answer: (1)
107. The phenomenon, where a single word is associated with two or several related meanings, is known as-
(1) homonyms
(2) homograph
(3) polysemy
(4) homonymy
Answer: (3)
108. “The dog lived in the garden, but the cat, who was smarter, lived inside the house” is an example of-
(1) simple sentence
(2) complex compound sentence
(3) complex sentence
(4) compound sentence
Answer: (2)
109. If a student of language is cramming his/her answers, then he/she would not be able to-
(1) attempt question answers
(2) attempt vocabulary-based exercise
(3) attempt structural questions
(4) attempt creative writing
Answer: (4)
110. During reading, if a student is piercing information together as they read a text keeping track of what is happening, he/she is-
(1) inferring
(2) skimming
(3) paraphrasing
(4) synthesizing
Answer: (4)
111. Which one of the following does not affect the intonation?
(1) Voice/Pronunciation
(2) Tone
(3) Rhythm
(4) Loudness
Answer: (1)
112. _______ are involved in thinking.
(1) Image, language, imagination, proposition
(2) Image, imagination, concept, proposition
(3) Imagination, language, concept, proposition
(4) Image, language, concept, proposition
Answer: (3)
113. Language laboratory is the place where the learners have to listen on headphone. The language labs are set up with a view to provide listening activities in order to develop-
(1) analysis habit
(2) speech habit
(3) criticizing habit
(4) listening activities
Answer: (2)
114. Grammar-translation method is basically used to teach-
(1) grammar
(2) foreign language
(3) rules of any language usage
(4) classical language
Answer: (4)
115. Which one of the following can be used as rubric for the assessment of fluency and coherence of language?
(1) Can express with some flexibility and appropriacy on variety of topics
(2) Can initiate and logically develop simple conversation on a familiar topic
(3) Is always comprehensible, uses appropriate intonation
(4) Demonstrates hesitation to find words or use correct grammatical structures
Answer: (4)
116. Which one of the following is not the objective defined by NCF-2005 for teaching English at upper primary level?
(1) To negotiate their own learning goals and evaluate their own progress; edit, revise, review their own work
(2) To use dictionary suitable to their needs
(3) To be able to articulate individual/personal reponses effectively
(4) To promote learners’ conceptualization of printed texts in ters of heading, paragraph and horizontal lines
Answer: (4)
117. If you are listening to the description of how to reach a specific location, then you are doing-
(1) casual listening
(2) focused listening
(3) intensive listening
(4) extensive listening
Answer: (3)
118. If a language teacher has put the words ‘school, teacher, headmaster, peon’ in a group, then she is following-
(1) lexical grouping
(2) semantic grouping
(3) phonetic grouping
(4) grammatical grouping
Answer: (2)
119. “At the initial stages of language learning _____ may be one of the languages for learning activities that create the child’s awareness to the world.” (NCF-2005)
(1) English
(2) Vernacular language
(3) Second language
(4) Hindi
Answer: (1)
120. Little or no attention is given to pronunciation in _______ method.
(1) audio-lingual
(2) grammar-translation
(3) CLT
(4) SLT
Answer: (2)
Part-V
Language-II
English
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part-V (Q. Nos. 121 to 150),if they have opted for English as Language-II only.
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 121 to 129) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence which was characteristic of the Indian national movement long before independence. Although the British retained supreme authority over India until 1947, the provincial elections of 1937 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national independence. During the Pacific War, India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the War was over the transfer of power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. By 1947, ‘Indianization’ had already gone far in the Indian Civil Service and army, so that the new government could start with effective instruments of central control.
After independence, however, India was faced with two vast problems, the first, that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of subnationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite which had rebelled not only against the British Raj, but also against India’s social order; they were conscious of the need to initiate economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against alien rule on behalf of all parts of India, they took the cohesion of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic, division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics. The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in response to strong pressures from below that the principle of linguistic States was conceded as the basis of a federal ‘Indian Union’. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult.
Land reforms remained under the control of the States and many large-scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of policies was difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre; when a Congress government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the States, it became much harder.
121. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘thwarted’ as used in the passage.
(1) Opposed
(2) Implemented
(3) Accepted
(4) Diverted
Answer: (1)
122. Choose the word which is mot opposite in meaning of the word ‘conceded’ as used in the passage.
(1) Criticized
(2) Rejected
(3) Denounced
(4) Withdrawn
Answer: (2)
123. Why was central economic planning found to be difficult?
(1) Multiplicity of States and Union Territories
(2) Lack of coordination in different government departments
(3) Autonomy given to the States in certain matters
(4) Lack of will in implementing land reforms
Answer: (3)
124. Which one of the following problems was India faced with after independence?
(1) Military attack from across the border
(2) Lack of coordination between the Central and State Governments
(3) Improper coordination of various government policies
(4) Increasing the production for a very low level
Answer: (2)
125. Which one of the following issues was not appropriately realized by the Central Government?
(1) Ethnic diversity of the people
(2) A national language for the country
(3) Implementation of the formulated policies
(4) Centre-State relations
Answer: (1)
126. Which, according to the passage, can be cited as exercise in democratic practice in India before independence?
(1) The handling over of the power by British to India
(2) The Indianization of the Indian Civil Service
(3) Several democratic institutions created by the Indian National Congress
(4) None of the above
Answer: (4)
127. Which one of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
(1) The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of division of States on linguistic basis.
(2) Economic development and social reforms were initiated soon after independence
(3) The political elite in India rebelled against the British Raj.
(4) The Congress leadership was fully aware of the problems of ethnic diversity in India at the time of independence.
Answer: (4)
128. Why was the linguistic reorganization of the States accepted?
(1) The States were not cooperating with the Central Government.
(2) Non-Congress governments in and State demanded such a reorganization of the States
(3) No common national language could be emerged.
(4) Strong pressures from the States were exerted on the Central Government to create such States.
Answer: (4)
129. India was not overrun by the Japanese during the Pacific War because-
(1) Japan had friendly relations with Britain
(2) Japan was interested in India’s freedom
(3) Japan was skeptical about its success in War
(4) None of the above
Answer: (4)
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 130 to 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
“A principal fruit of friendship”, Francis Bacon wrote in his timeless meditation on the subject, “is the ease and discharge of the fullness and swellings of the heart, which passions of all kinds do cause and induce.” For Thoreau, friendship was one life’s great reward. But in today’s cultural landscape of muddled relationships scattered across various platforms for connecting, amidst constant debates about whether our Facebook ‘friendships’ are making use more or less happy, it pays to consider what friendship actually is. That’s precisely what CUNY Philosophy professor Massimo Pigliucci explores in Answers for Aristotle : How Science and Philosophy Can Lead Us to a More Meaningful Life (public library), which also gave us this provocative read on the science of what we call ‘intuition’.
Philosophers and cognitive scientists agree that friendship is an essential ingredient of human happiness. But beyond the dry academic definitions-like, say, “voluntary interdependence between two persons over time, which is intended to facilitate socio-emotional goals of the participants, and may involve varying types and degrees of companionship, intimacy, affection and mutual assistance”-lies a body of compelling research that sheds light on how, precisely, friendship augments happiness. The way friendship enhances well-being, it turns out, has nothing to do with quantity and everything to do with quality-researchers confirm that it isn’t the number of friends (or, in the case of Facebook, ‘friends’).
130. The change in the present situation which has forced us to rethink the concept of friendship is-
(1) Bacon and Thoreau’s theories are longer available to read
(2) the arrival of social media on the scene
(3) there is more interest in the sciences
(4) friendships are not possible in the real world anymore, due to over-competition
Answer: (2)
131. Friendship leads to happiness. Is it true?
(1) Yes, researchers have proven that friendship does lead to happiness
(2) No, there is no relationship between friendship and happiness
(3) Friends cannot make each other happy
(4) One needs to find one’s happiness alone, with peace of mind
Answer: (1)
132. Did Pigliucci’s book discuss intuition too?
(1) No, it only discussed friendship
(2) It just explained science and philosophy
(3) It discussed Aristotle’s theories
(4) Yes
Answer: (4)
133. Is the quality of friends important?
(1) No, it is important to have more number of friends, quality does not matter
(2) No, number of comments on social networking sites is important, not the quality of friends
(3) Yes, it matters
(4) No, quality comes automatically with quantity
Answer: (3)
134. As per the first paragraph, what are the debates about?
(1) They are centered around whether our Facebook friends are helping us become more or less happy.
(2) There are no debates around friendship.
(3) The quality of comments of social media is debatable
(4) Thoreau and Aristotle’s thinking is at loggerheads.
Answer: (1)
135. The word that is opposite in meaning to the word ‘muddled’ is-
(1) confused
(2) chaotic
(3) ordered
(4) rumpled
Answer: (3)
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
136. Positive interference is a kind of-
(1) target language
(2) foreign language
(3) pictorial language
(4) native language
Answer: (1)
137. In learning the new language, multilingualism is-
(1) a methodology
(2) an asset
(3) an interference
(4) a burden
Answer: (2)
138. Note taking is done-
(1) during a lecture
(2) while reading a review
(3) during extensive reference work
(4) while writing an essay
Answer: (1)
139. The method of teaching foreign language without using the pupil’s first language is-
(1) direct method
(2) classical method
(3) grammar-translation
(4) old method
Answer: (1)
140. Two words have identical sound and spelling, but not related in meaning. It is know as
(1) homophone
(2) homonymy
(3) homograph
(4) polysemy
Answer: (2)
141. Language of word is not necessary for-
(1) imaginative thinking
(2) conceptual thinking
(3) associative thinking
(4) perceptual thinking
Answer: (1)
142. Communicative Language Teaching replaced basically-
(1) Natural Language Processing
(2) Structural Teaching
(3) Situational Language
(4) Motivational Teaching
Answer: (2)
143. Students are not organisms. Which one of the following methods sees them as a whole person?
(1) CLT
(2) SLT
(3) Silent way
(4) CLL
Answer: (4)
144. Writing is the _______ representation of speech sounds.
(1) alphabetical
(2) graphical
(3) phonetic
(4) systematic
Answer: (2)
145. When a teacher uses realia to teach vocabulary and grammar, she is-
(1) using role play as a learning device
(2) using real objects, actions and real-life situations
(3) using computer technology
(4) teaching through true stories
Answer: (2)
146. A poem whose first letters of each line spell out a word is called-
1. Which one of the following statements is true about the role of heredity and environment?
(1) Certain aspects of development are influenced more by heredity and others more by environment.
(2) A child’s ability to learn and perform is completely decided by the genes.
(3) Good care and a nutritious diet can fight off any disorder a child is born with.
(4) Environment plays a significant role only in the child’s language development.
Answer: (1)
2. Which one of the following statements cannot be attributed to Piaget’s theory?
(1) Development occurs in qualitative stages.
(2) Children construct and use knowledge about their world.
(3) Learning takes p lace through constant practice.
(4) Children act on their environment.
Answer: (3)
3. Which one of the following is not a limitation of the preoperational thought?
(1) Tendency to concentrate
(2) Development of the symbolic thought
(3) Egocentrism
(4) Irreversibility
Answer: (2)
4. Play has a significant role in development of young children for the following reasons, except
(1) they gain mastery over their body
(2) it stimulates their senses
(3) it is just a pleasant way to spend time
(4) they acquire new skills and learn when to use them
Answer: (3)
5. Which one of the following questions invites children to think critically?
(1) Do you know the answer to this?
(2) What is the right answer?
(3) Can you think of a similar situation?
(4) What are the different ways in which we can solve this?
Answer: (4)
6. Which one of the following options best describes progressive education?
(1) Learning by doing, project method, cooperative learning
(2) Thematic units regular unit tests, ranking
(3) Personalized learning, ability grouping, labeling students
(4) Project method, ability grouping, ranking
Answer: (1)
7. Which one of the following statements about progressive education explains-Education is life itself?
(1) School education should continue as long as possible.
(2) Schools are not required, children can learn from t heir life experiences.
(3) Education schools should reflect the social and natural world.
(4) Life is the true educator.
Answer: (3)
8. Which one of the following can be considered as a contribution of Kohlberg’s theory?
(1) His theory has supported an association between cognitive maturity and moral maturity.
(2) The theory has elaborate testing procedures.
(3) It establishes a clear relationship between moral reasoning and action.
(4) His belief is that children are moral philosophers.
Answer: (1)
9. The Zone of Proximal Development refers to-
(1) the phase when maximum development is possible
(2) the developmental phase when child takes complete responsibility for learning
(3) a context in which children can almost perform a task on their own with the right level of support.
(4) the point in learning when support can be withdrawn
Answer: (3)
10. An androgynous personality-
(1) refers to men with feminine traits
(2) has a balance of what are generally considered masculine and feminine traits
(3) tends to be assertive and arrogant
(4) adheres to stereotypical gender roles prevalent in the society
Answer: (2)
11. Children acquire gender roles through all of the following, except-
(1) media
(2) socialization
(3) culture
(4) tutoring
Answer: (4)
12. One of the critiques of standardized tests has been that-
(1) they represent largely the mainstream culture and are therefore biased
(2) their language is difficult to understand
(3) the tests cannot be administered on large populations
(4) they do not give a clear picture of a child’s ability
Answer: (1)
13. The theory of multiple intelligence says that-
(1) intelligence can be rapidly accelerated
(2) intelligence can be of several kinds
(3) paper-pencil tests are not helpful
(4) intelligence can be multiplied with effective pedagogy
Answer: (2)
14. Teacher can utilize both assessment for learning and assessment of learning to-
(1) know children’s progress and achievement level
(2) know learning needs of child and select teaching strategy accordingly
(3) assess child’s performance at periodic intervals and certify his/her performance
(4) monitor children’s progress and set appropriate goals to fill their learning gaps
Answer: (1)
15. Which one of the following is not related to Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?
(1) It has been mandated by the Right to Education Act of India.
(2) It is an integral part of teaching learning process.
(3) It focuses on child’s achievement in different learning areas.
(4) It is useful to label children as slow, poor or intelligent.
Answer: (4)
16. Giftedness in children can be attributed to-
(1) an interplay between heredity and environment
(2) a resource-rich environment
(3) successful parents
(4) a disciplined routine
Answer: (1)
17. Children coming from socio-economically disadvantaged back-grounds need a classroom environment which-
(1) teaches them good behaviour
(2) values and uses their cultural and linguistic knowledge
(3) discourages the use of their language so that they learn the mainstream language
(4) categorizes children based on their abilities.
Answer: (2)
18. The intervention needed for creative and talented children in the classroom rests on-
(1) use of customized and stimulating instructional methods by the teacher
(2) giving extra time to them
(3) being affectionate towards them
(4) giving them the responsibility of teaching other children
Answer: (1)
19. Which one of the following ways is not a suitable way to help hyperactive children learn?
(1) Breaking up a task into small, manageable segments
(2) Offering alternative ways of learning
(3) Including physical activity in their daily schedule
(4) Reprimanding them often for being restless
Answer: (4)
20. Patterns of divergent thinking identify children, who are-
(1) disabled
(2) dyslexic
(3) creative
(4) resilient
Answer: (3)
21. Which one of the following does not describe the ways in which a teacher can model problem solving for children in the classroom?
(1) Discuss your thought processes about solving a particular problem
(2) Be honest about making mistakes while solving something
(3) Use vocabulary like think, ideas, trial and different
(4) Ask questions with convergent answers
Answer: (4)
22. Which one of the following is an emotion?
(1) Memory
(2) Fear
(3) Attention
(4) Stimulus
Answer: (2)
23. A three-year-old child explains that milk is produced by a machine at the milk booth.
Which one of the following offers the best explanation of the child’s understanding?
(1) The chi ld has very limited exposure of the world.
(2) The child’s answer is based on his/her experience of buying milk from the milk booth.
(3) The child has never seen cows.
(4) The child’s family does not offer a stimulating environment to the child.
Answer: (2)
24. Which one of the following best describes a teacher’s role?
(1) Teacher’s most important role in the classroom is to maintain discipline
(2) A teacher should adhere to the prescribed textbook
(3) Completing the syllabus on time leaving enough time for revision is important
(4) Creating a relaxed space where children learn through dialogue and inquiry
Answer: (4)
25. Which one of the following classrooms encourages rich learning?
(1) A classroom with a variety of material displayed in the class beyond the reach of children so that the material lasts longer
(2) A classroom with open activity corners and a variety of children’s literature in open shelves accessible any time of the day
(3) A classroom with neatly organized material in cupboards brought out once a week for free play
(4) A classroom with structured and planned learning driven by textbook content
Answer: (2)
26. Which one of the following best describes the role of textbooks in the classroom?
(1) They are one of the resource and reference materials available in the class.
(2) They maintain homogeneity in learning across a State or the Nation.
(3) They provide guidance to teachers and parents about the course of study.
(4) They form the most essential learning resource in a resource-starved context.
Answer: (1)
27. The National Curriculum Framework-2005 derives its understanding from-
(1) humanism
(2) behaviourism
(3) constructivism
(4) cognitive theories
Answer: (3)
28. The children in a class can be considered to be motivated if –
(1) they come to school neatly dressed in uniform
(2) they maintain discipline in the class
(3) all are regular in attendance
(4) they ask questions seeking clarification from the teacher
Answer: (4)
29. Which one of the following is the most suitable to improve children’s learning?
(1) Regular assessment test should be conducted.
(2) Teacher should explain the content using different examples and illustrations.
(3) All types of learning material should be there in the class.
(4) Teacher should facilitate children to interact with each other on real-life situations.
Answer: (4)
30. The discipline which has a significant role in a learning environment is of the kind which helps-
(1) children to regulate and monitor their own learning
(2) to create silence
(3) teachers to give instructions
(4) children rote memorize their lessons
Answer: (1)
Part-II
Mathematics
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
31. The assessment of what children learn in mathematics in primary classes should not focus on-
(1) understanding of the mathematical concepts
(2) development of mathematical language
(3) preciseness in answering mathematics problems
(4) development of reasoning skills
Answer: (3)
32. What sequence of the following instructions should be followed in development of a mathematical concept in elementary classes?
(I) Drawing pictures
(II) Using symbolic
(III) Providing experiences
(IV) Explaining through language
(1) IV, III, I, II
(2) III, IV, I, II
(3) IV, III, II, I
(4) III, I, II, IV
Answer: (2)
33. A child subtracted two numbers as shown below :
83
−27
_____
64
______
Which one of the following statements gives idea about the child’s learning of subtraction?
(1) The child has misconceptions about place value in the process of subtraction.
(2) The child does not know how to subtract.
(3) The child knows the process of subtraction of two-digit numbers.
(4) It is a mistake and it can be rectified by repeated practice.
Answer: (1)
34. Arrange the following steps of cycle of learning and assessment in order :
(I) Teaching-learning integrated with assessment
(II) Planning and organization of teaching-learning and assessment
(III) Developing progress reports
(IV) Reporting and communicating feedback of children’s learning and progress
(1) II, I, III, IV
(2) I, II, IV, III
(3) IV, I, II, III
(4) II, IV, I, III
Answer: (1)
35. Why are Roman numerals not commonly used in writing numbers like t he Hindu-Arabic numerals?
(1) The Roman numerals do n o employ place value, so calculations are difficult to perform using these numerals.
(2) Roman numerals are difficult to remember.
(3) The formation of numbers using Roman numerals is a complicated task.
(4) Children get confuse with the English alphabet and Roman numerals.
Answer: (1)
36. A teacher encourages the children in her class to explain the physical properties of the objects around them in their own words.
What is the most appropriate objective of the teacher to do such an activity with her students.
(1) It is a very interesting activity which can be performed in the free time for revisiting the concept of shapes.
(2) Children enjoy explaining the objects in their own language like they enjoy playing dumb charades.
(3) It makes the children observe the physical properties of an object informally which deepens their understanding about shapes.
(4) It is a useful activity which introduces a child to the shapes.
Answer: (3)
37. The mathematics used by illiterate shopkeeper-
(1) is not useful in the mathematics classroom
(2) is very useful in solving all mathematical problems
(3) has ambiguity and very low level of correctness in it
(4) should be discussed by the teachers in classrooms as an alternate strategy in solving related problems
Answer: (4)
38. How should a teacher handle a heterogenous group of children in a mathematics classroom?
(1) By grouping the children of same ability together and giving them questions according to their ability
(2) By grouping all children together in the same classroom
(3) By grouping the children of different abilities together so that they can learn from each other
(4) By doing questions according to low ability children in the class and giving the complex questions as home assignments to higher ability children
Answer: (3)
39. The learning outcomes mathematics are developed-
(1) such that children may be told small steps for calculations
(2) to increase the achievement of children in various educational surveys
(3) to define classwise comptencies and skills to be achieved by children
(4) to prepare children for year-end examinations
Answer: (3)
40. Which one of the following happenings in the classroom is an activity?
(1) Teacher explaining how to do sums
(2) Children reciting counting in form of rhymes
(3) Children copying from blackboard
(4) Children engaged in exploration
Answer: (4)
41. To develop skill of counting among children, which one of the following is not required to be learned as pre-number concept?
(1) One to one correspondence
(2) Seriation
(3) Reciting number names randomly
(4) Creating groups
Answer: (3)
42. On asking a child “What is area?”, he/she answered length × What can you say about the child’s understanding about the concept of area?
(1) The child has no idea about the concept of area.
(2) The child used the area of rectangle as general idea of area of any closed shape.
(3) The child is right in saying area is length × breadth.
(4) The child is confused between the concept of area and perimeter.
Answer: (2)
43. Which one of the following statements is true with respect to mathematics learning?
(1) Mathematics is a difficult subject to learn.
(2) Generally girls are weaker in mathematics.
(3) Everybody can learn mathematics.
(4) Mathematics can only be learnt by rigorous practice.
Answer: (3)
44. To teach the Pythagoras theorem, a teacher has distributed a sheet on which four right-angled triangles were drawn and asks the child to find the relationship between the sides of a triangle.
In the above situation, the teacher used
(1) inductive method
(2) deductive method
(3) lecture method
(4) laboratory method
Answer: (1)
45. Which one of the following statements is not true about ‘concept maps’?
(1) Concept maps represent a collection of interconnected concepts and links connecting them.
(2) Concept maps should be constructed by teachers only.
(3) Concept maps are hierarchical in nature.
(4) Concept maps help in linking prior knowledge to new instruction.
Answer: (2)
46. 2/3 + 4/5 is-
(1) 6/8
(2)
(3)
(4) 8/15
Answer: (3)
47. For the given shapes, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) All are parallelogram
(2) One of them is not a parallelogram
(3) Two of them are rhombuses.
(4) Two of them are rectangles.
Answer: (2)
48. Which one of the following represents the number ‘eleven thousand eleven hundred eleven?
(1) 111111
(2) 12111
(3) 11000110011
(4) XIXIXI
Answer: (2)
49. The points A and B represent numbers on a number line as shown below :
The distance between the points A and B is-
(1) 29000 units
(2) 84000 units
(3) 22 units
(4) 22000 units
Answer: (4)
50. How many packets of 1/6 kg sugar can be made from of sugar ?
(1) 52
(2) 48
(3) 12
(4) 64
Answer: (1)
51. Harish started his journey at 18 : 40 and finished at 22 : 20. The time taken in completing the journey is-
(1) 3 hours 40 minutes
(2) 3 hours 80 minutes
(3) 4 hours 40 minutes
(4) 3 hours 20 mintues
Answer: (1)
52. A bucket of capacity 2000 mL is to be filled by using containers measuring 2000 mL and 3000 mL. Which one of the following combinations of containers is not correct for filing the bucket completely by the containers of 200 mL and 300 mL respectively?
(1) 1, 6
(2) 4, 4
(3) 7, 2
(4) 6, 3
Answer: (4)
53. Which one of the following is the best approximation of
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer: (2)
54. If one small square in the grid is of area 4 sq. units, what is the perimeter of the rectangle drawn on the grid?
(1) 32 units
(2) 8 units
(3) 24 units
(4) 12 units
Answer: (3)
55. A child scored 75 marks in each of five subjects. What is the median marks obtained by the child?
(1) 75
(2) 375
(3) 15
(4) 70
Answer: (1)
56. Which one of the following can be folded to form the given solid?
Answer: (2)
57. If Red part in the following pie chart is 40, what is White part?
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 20
Answer: (2)
58. Observe the following solid shape :
Which one of the following is the top view of the given solid?
Answer: (1)
59. Which one of the following costs more?
(I) 200 packets of Rs 250 each
(II) 20 dozens of Rs 250 each item
(1) I
(2) II
(3) Both I and II are equal
(4) Cannot be calculated
Answer: (2)
60. The sum of 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 … to even number of terms is-
(1) zero
(2) –1
(3) +1
(4) 2
Answer: (1)
Part-III
Environmental Studies
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
61. What is the location of Jammu & Kashmir and Goa with respect to Bihar in India?
(1) East and West
(2) West and East
(3) North-west and South-west
(4) South-west and North-east
Answer: (3)
62. Under which of the following conditions will the process of evaporation be slowest?
(1) Both surface area and temperature increase
(2) Surface area increases but temperature decreases
(3) Surface area decreases but temperature increases
(4) Both surface area and temperature decrease
Answer: (4)
63. The ability to understand relative position of places, distances and directions is-
(1) directional skill
(2) mapping skill
(3) positional skill
(4) graphic skill
Answer: (2)
64. Which national Curriculum Framework (NCF) recommended Environmental Studies to be taught as an integrated curricular area at the primary level?
(1) NCF-2005
(2) NCF-1988
(3) NCF-2000
(4) NCF-1975
Answer: (4)
65. Which region has the practice of shifting cultivation in India?
(1) North-eastern region
(2) Southern region
(3) North-western region
(4) South-eastern region
Answer: (1)
66. Which one of the following statements is not true for hydropower generated from river dams?
(1) Dams encourage sustainable growth.
(2) It does not pollute water or air.
(3) Hydropower facilities can have large environmental impacts.
(4) Dams displace indigenous people from their river lifelines.
Answer: (1)
67. Which of the following is/are greenhouse gas/gases?
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Methane
(3) Water vapour
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
68. Why are cold deserts in India not affected by the monsoon?
(1) Cold deserts have hot summers and extremely cold winters.
(2) Cold deserts lie in the rain shadow of the Himalays.
(3) Air is very thin in cold deserts.
(4) Cold deserts are at a very high altitude.
Answer: (2)
69. Which one of the following is responsible for turning Taj Mahal yellow?
(1) Nitrogen dioxide
(2) Sulphur dioxide
(3) sulphur
(4) Chlorine
Answer: (2)
70. Who built the Golconda Fort?
(1) Chola Dynasty
(2) Chalukya Dynasty
(3) Kaktiya Dynasty
(4) Pallava Dynasty
Answer: (3)
71. What is the mass of an object with a density of 15 g/mL and a volume of 3 mL?
(1) 18 g
(2) 45 g
(3) 5 g
(4) 12 g
Answer: (2)
72. Which one of the following is a scalar quantity?
(1) Mass
(2) Gravity
(3) Momentum
(4) Weight
Answer: (1)
73. An object in which no light rays can pass through is called-
(1) opaque
(2) translucent
(3) transparent
(4) convex
Answer: (1)
74. What will be the weight of an object on the surface of the earth whose mass is 10 kg on the moon’s surface?
(1) 60 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 60 N
(4) 10 N
Answer: (IN ANS ONE MARK TO ALL)
75. The rate of dissolution of a solute depends on-
(1) pressure
(2) temperature
(3) surface area
(4) weight
Answer: (3)
76. Sushma wants her students to be sensitized for ‘conservation of trees’. Which one of the following is the most suitable strategy to do so?
(1) Conducting a debate in classroom
(2) Group discussion
(3) Poster making
(4) Helping children to adopt and nurture a plant
Answer: (4)
77. Abhay asked his students to do a survey in groups on diseases that people in their neighbourhood suffered from. The survey is not mentioned in the textbook. Which option is not relevant for this teaching-learning strategy?
(1) It provided opportunity to interact with community.
(2) It helped children connect learning with real life.
(3) It enabled children understand data handling and work together.
(4) It helped the community understand the diseases that they suffered from.
Answer: (4)
78. To talk about emergency situations, Priya asked children’s experiences when they faced any emergencies. Children narrated their experiences witih fire, electric shock and road accidents. She asked questions, assessed their existing understandings and discussed safety aspects using resources such as road safety advertisements from newspapers and also used LPG and electric bill to discuss safety guidelines on fire and electric shock respectively. Which is the most appropriate approach that Priya employed?
(1) Cognitive approach
(2) Experiential learning approach
(3) Enquiry approach
(4) Humanistic approach
Answer: (3)
79. ‘Community’ is an important teaching and learning resource, because –
(1) it is inexpensive and accessible
(2) elderly people are wise and have time
(3) it provides learning opportunity in real setting
(4) one can accept all knowledge available in the community uncritically
Answer: (3)
80. In EVS teaching-learning, linking classroom learning to life outside school and enriching it implies –
(1) going beyond the textbooks
(2) linking textbooks to global environmental issues and concerns
(3) whole school approach
(4) going beyond curriculum
Answer: (1)
81. To class III students, Rama taught that a father, mother and their children constitute nuclear family and if grandparents and other relatives stay along, then it is an extended family. What do you think of this?
(1) The definition of a family is incorrect.
(2) Rama is insensitive towards her students.
(3) The teaching-learning approach is not inclusive.
(4) The concept of family has to be taught like this.
Answer: (3)
82. Which of the following is/are activity/activities in EVS classroom?
(1) Picture reading
(2) Field visit
(3) Use of blackboard
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
83. Environmental Studies curriculum may lead to holistic learning of children if it is-
(1) integrated
(2) inclusive
(3) thematic
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
84. The EVS textbook has a chapter on snake charmer. It is intended to make children aware and be sensitized-
(1) that it is an illegal act
(2) for snake charmers as children do not see them often these days
(3) that snake charmers may not harm snakes and they need to be provided with alternatives before depriving them of their livelihoods
(4) that animal keeping is good source of livelihood
Answer: (3)
85. Which is most relevant to the mid-day meal time in school?
(1) It has nothing to do with teaching-learning.
(2) It is a good teaching-learning opportunity for EVS teaching-learning.
(3) It is for children who come empty stomach to school.
(4) It wastes a lot of precious time of teaching-learning.
Answer: (2)
86. What does ‘learning without burden’ in the context of Environmental Studies imply?
(1) Less weight of schoolbag
(2) Less number of chapters in EVS textbooks
(3) Load of incomprehension needs to be reduced
(4) The EVS curriculum needs to be reduced to half
Answer: (3)
87. What purpose does group learning serve in an EVS classroom?
(1) Boys and girls can learn separately
(2) To segregate high performers and low achieving students and to do remedial teaching
(3) To inculcate values of cooperation and working together to enable each child participate actively and learn
(4) To manage students easily and reduce workload
Answer: (3)
88. What is the full form of ‘BALA’?
(1) Brain Aided Learning Assignment
(2) Braille as Learning Aid
(3) Building as learning Aid
(4) Braille Aided Learning Assessment
Answer: (3)
89. What do ‘alternative frameworks’ mean?
(1) Textbook explanation of various physical phenomena
(2) Ideas that differ from the formally accepted explanations of the concepts
(3) Ideas presently held by scientists and social scientists
(4) All ideas that are firmly held by children
Answer: (2)
90. Women are weaker than men. It is a_
(1) myth
(2) scientific fact
(3) stereotype
(4) superstition
Answer: (1)
Part-IV
Language-I
English
IMPORTANT : Candidate should attempt questions from Part-IV (Q. Nos. 91 to 120), if they have opted for English as Language-I only.
Directions : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to 99) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
When it comes to structures that are both majestic and well-fortified, the classic European castle is the pinnacle of design. Across the ages castles changed, developed, and eventually fell out of use, but they still command the fascination of our culture.
Castles were originally built in England by Norman invaders in 1066. As William the Conqueror advanced through England, he fortified key positions to secure the land he had taken. Castles also served as bases of operation for offensive attacks. Troops were summoned to, organized around, and deployed from castles. In this way castles served both offensive and defensive roles in military operations.
Not limited to military purposes, castles also served as offices from which the lord would administer control over his fiefdom. they would address disputes, handle business, feast, and enjoy festivities. In this way castles served as important social centres in medieval England. Castles also served as symbols of power.
The first castles constructed in England were made from earth and timber. Those who constructed them took advantage of natural features, such as hills and rivers, to increase defenses. Since these castles were constructed from wood, they were highly susceptible to attacks by fire. Wooden castles were gradually replaced by stone, which greatly increased the strength of these fortifications; however, being made from stone did not make these castles entirely fireproof. Attackers could hurl flaming objects into the castle through the windows or ignite the wooden doors.
The demise of castles can ultimately be attributed to gunpowder. During the 15th century, artillery became powerful enough to break through stone walls. This greatly undermined the military role of castles. Castles were then replaced by artillery forts that had no role in civil administration, and country houses that were indefensible. Though castles no longer serve their original purposes, remaining castles receive millions of visitors each year from those who wish to experience these majestic vestiges of a time long passed.
91. Which one of the following is not a function of castles as expressed in the passage?
(1) Castles served both offensive and defensive purposes militarily.
(2) Castles served as symbols of power.
(3) Castles were important social centres in medieval England
(4) Castles were the places where knights would keep their best horses.
Answer: (4)
92. Which one of the following best describes the main idea in Paragraph 2?
(1) It describes how and why William the Conqueror took control of England.
(2) It explains why castles were first built in England and the military purposes they served.
(3) It shows how Norman lords were often scared and frequently retreated.
(4) It details all of the purposes that English castles served.
Answer: (2)
93. The original castles were first made from earth and timber because –
(1) it takes a lot more time and energy to build a stone castle
(2) it did not occur to people to build castles out of stone
(3) people did not realize how weak wooden castles would be against fire
(4) wooden castles were prettier than dirty stone castles
Answer: (1)
94. Wooden castles were converted to stone castles as-
(1) wooden castles take a long time to build
(2) wooden castles are uncomfortable
(3) stone castles offer better defense
(4) stone castles stay cooler in the summer
Answer: (3)
95. Which one of the following best explains how gunpowder was the nemesis of traditional castles?
(1) Wars were fought with guns and hiding in castle was no longer necessary
(2) Artillery forts with large cannons became more stylish than traditional castles.
(3) Defending castles grew difficult, since attackers could just shoot castle defenders.
(4) Cannons were able to knock down stone walls, so castles offered little protection.
Answer: (4)
96. Which one of the following titles would best describe the content this passage?
(1) William the Conqueror : Bringing Castles to England
(2) Defending the Castle : Technologies Used to Defend Medieval Castles
(3) A short History of Castles. The Rise and Fall of Castle in England
(4) Fancy Living : Learning about Castles, Palaces and Fortresses.
Answer: (3)
97. Which one of the following is at opinion?
(1) Stone is more resistant to than wood.
(2) William the Conqueror built the first castles in England.
(3) It is unfortunate that castles no longer serve their original purposes.
(4) Castles were used as offices of administration during the Middle Ages.
Answer: (3)
98. Choose a word from the given options which means almost the same as the word ‘vestige’s used in the passage.
(1) Reminder
(2) Outskirts
(3) Farrago
(4) Creation
Answer: (1)
99. Choose a word which serves as the antonym of the word ‘pinnacle’.
(1) Nadir
(2) Crest
(3) Apex
(4) Steeple
Answer: (1)
Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
My mother bore me in the southern wild,
And I am black, but O ! my soul is white;
White as an angel is the English child :
But I am black as if bereav’d of light.
My mother taught me underneath a tree
And sitting down before the heat of day,
She took me on her lap and kissed,
And pointing to t he east began to say.
Look on the rising sun : there god does live
And gives his light, and gives his heat away.
And flowers and trees and beasts and men receive
Comfort in morning joy in the noonday.
And we are put on earth a little space,
That we may learn to bear the beams of love,
And these black bodies and this sun-burnt face
Is but a cloud, and like a shady grove.
100. ‘The Little Black Boy’ was born in-
(1) the desert wastes
(2) the servant’s house
(3) the southern wild
(4) the east coast
Answer: (3)
101. ‘The Little Black Boy’ wished that he could be-
(1) educated
(2) older
(3) free
(4) white
Answer: (4)
102. The mother of the Little Black Boy’ says God put people on earth-
(1) to learn to endure his love
(2) to work off their sins
(3) to prepare them for future trials
(4) to learn how to treat one another as equals
Answer: (1)
103. The mother of ‘the Little Black Boy’ says his dark skin and face are-
(1) a blessing
(2) a veil
(3) a curse
(4) a cloud
Answer: (4)
104. The phrase ‘like a shady grove’ is-
(1) a metaphor
(2) a simile
(3) an example of alliteration
(4) a personification
Answer: (2)
105. Through the phrase ‘as if bereav’d of light’, the poet hints at-
(1) low self-esteem of the child
(2) lack of hope for the future
(3) colour of the boy
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
106. Iconic mode of learning is based on the system of using-
(1) a variety of activities
(2) symbols
(3) images and diagrams
(4) different types of graph
Answer: (3)
107. While reading for comprehension, we understand that some pairs are examples of homograph. Which one of the following is a homograph?
(1) warm/tepid [being neither too hot nor too co ld]
(2) lead [metal]/lead given [give direction]
(3) lead [give direction]/dead [mortal]
(4) mail [post]/male [gender]
Answer: (2)
108. A ‘sight word’ is a vocabulary item-
(1) that needs proper visual understanding of the context
(2) that is to be learnt by heart
(3) that the reader recognizes and finds meaningful on sight without a complicated analysis
(4) that helps in judging the effectiveness of the author’s style
Answer: (3)
109. Which one of the following methods is suggested for teaching grammar at primary level?
(1) Deductive method
(2) Textbook method
(3) Inductive method
(4) Translation method
Answer: (3)
110. Flower and Hayes regarded which one of the following skills as ‘problem-creating and solving skill’?
(1) Listening
(2) Speaking
(3) Reading
(4) Writing
Answer: (4)
111. Find out the function word from the following.
(1) And
(2) Champion
(3) Handsome
(4) Seizing
Answer: (1)
112. What do you mean by ‘review’?
(1) Guess
(2) Evaluation
(3) Critical evaluation
(4) Assessment
Answer: (3)
113. Content words are called-
(1) functors
(2) grammatical words
(3) lexical words
(4) empty words
Answer: (3)
114. ‘Cloze’ means-
(1) finishing
(2) missing part
(3) close
(4) assessing
Answer: (2)
115. The last stage of writing is-
(1) controlled writing
(2) guided writing
(3) free writing
(4) advanced writing
Answer: (4)
116. The procedure of alphabetic method is-
(1) letters-words-phrases-sentences
(2) words-phrases-sentences-paragraph
(3) letters-words-sentences-paragraph
(4) letters-words-phrases-paragraph
Answer: (1)
117. “You ask, what has my government done for you? I can answer in two words a lot!”
The questions put up here is-
(1) rhhetorical
(2) stylized
(3) a prompt
(4) explanatory
Answer: (1)
118. According to the observation in the National Curriculum Framework (NCF)-2005, English is a ______ language in India.
(1) second
(2) foreign
(3) first
(4) global
Answer: (1)
119. Read the exchange :
Teacher : Shall we go out to the garden and find out the names of those flowers near the corridor?
Student : Yes, yes, yeah
Teacher : Yes, Ma’am, please
Here, the teacher-
(1) relates language function with politeness
(2) makes a polite suggestion to start reading
(3) confirms the student’s request
(4) offers an alternative language activity
Answer: (1)
120. Which one of the following helps in learning the second language without using the printed text?
(1) Natural approach
(2) Language immersion
(3) Grammar-translation method
(4) Situational approach
Answer: (2)
Part-V
Language-II
English
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part-V (Q. Nos. 121 to 150), if they have opted for English as Language-II only.
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 121 to 129) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Man who is believed to have evolved from apes, is a curious mixture of varied motives. He is not only the subject of needs but is also their creator. He not only seeks to satisfy his needs but also caters to his desire for beauty and grace. He is eager to satisfy his passion for more and more knowledge. Although in a general way, the maxim ‘necessity is the mother of invetion’ is true, it is by no means the whole truth. Man is something much greater than an intelligent being using his intellect to make newer inventions from time to time. He has within him a spirit which is ever exhorting him to cut down his needs and learn to be happy with what he has. The real p urpose underlying this maxim lies in its u tility iin the wordly sense. It tells us to be up and doing, not to be passive in our attitude to life. It asks us not to remain slaves of old habits and ways of life. We must face the new situations with a creative mind. Every new difficulty, every new problem., which confronts us in life, can be tackled successfully with the spirit of inventiveness.
121. Which one of the following is not the whole truth according to the passage?
(1) Man has a desire for beauty and grace.
(2) Necessity in the mother of invention.
(3) Man desires to cut down his needs and wants.
(4) Man learns to be happy with what he has.
Answer: (2)
122. What does the maxim mentioned in the passage teach us?
(1) To be worldly in the strict sense of the term
(2) To be slave of our needs and wants
(3) To endavour constantly to create new passions and desires
(4) To be active in life and do something to help mankind
Answer: (4)
123. What does the spirit within man fell him to do?
(1) To be a mixture of varied motives
(2) To evaluate the situations intelligently
(3) To cut down his desires and passions
(4) To acquire more and more wealth and comforts
Answer: (3)
124. Which of the following statements is/are true in the context of the passage?
(I) Man should be passive in his attitude to life.
(II) Spirit of inventiveness may not stand in good stead in solving every new problem.
(III) Man has a passion for more and more knowledge.
(1) Only I
(2) Only I and II
(3) Only III
(4) Only II and III
Answer: (3)
125. Which one of the following is similar in meaning to the word ‘maxim’ as used in the passage?
(1) Principle
(2) Direction
(3) Value
(4) Observation
Answer: (1)
126. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of man as per the passage?
(1) Man has many needs and motives
(2) Man creates many needs for himself.
(3) Man seeks to satisfy his needs.
(4) Man desires to have more and more comforts and money.
Answer: (4)
127. Which one of the following statements is not true as pe the passage?
(1) Spirit of inventiveness will stand in good stead.
(2) Man is the subject of various wants.
(3) Man creates new needs because they are sometimes good or beautiful.
(4) Man’s inner spirit tells him to be on the look for newer and higher wants.
Answer: (4)
128. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word ‘seeks’ at used in the passage.
(1) Deplores
(2) Avoids
(3) Vanishes
(4) Approaches
Answer: (2)
129. Which one of the following is similar in meaning to the word ‘exhorting’ as used in the passage?
(1) Urging
(2) Supporting
(3) Demanding
(4) Clarifying
Answer: (1)
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer and questions that follow (Q. Nos. 130 to 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Did you know that there is a fiber that is as flexible and lightweight as nylon yet five times stronger than steel? Did you know that this fabric is resistant to temperatures higher than 500 degrees Fahrenheit ? Did you know that a woman invented this fiber? This miraculous fabric is called Kevlar and it is used to make everything from body armor to musical instruments.
The year was 1964. There were gasoline shortages due to conflict in the Middle East. A Polish-American chemist named Stephanie Louise Kwolek was working for DuPont, and American chemical company. She and her group were trying to make a lightweight, yet durable fiber to be used in tires. Lighter tires would allow vehicles to get better gas mileage, but the tires had to be strong enough to resist the wear and tear of the road. They had been working on the problem for some time and had little success, until Kwolek had a breakthrough.
Kwolek and her group were synthesizing or creating fibers to test. During one of the steps in the process, Kwolek created a milky white solution by mixing two chemicals that were often used in the process. This solution was usually thrown away, but Kwolek convinced one of the technicians to help her test it. They were amazed to discover that the fabric that Kwolek had created was not only more durable than nylon, it was ore durable than steel. Kwolek had invented Kevlar.
Kevlar is a remarkable fabric known for its strength and durability. Since its invention it has found its way into a wide verity of products. Kevlar is used in sporting equipment like bike tires, bowstrings and tennis racquets. It is used in musical instruments like drumheads, reeds and speaker cones. And it is used in protective gear like motorcycle safety jackets, gloves and shoes, However, Kevlar is best known for its ability to stop bullets.
Richard Armellino created the first Kevlar bulletproof vest in 1975. It contained 15 layers of Kevlar, which could stop handgun and shotgun bullets. The vest also had a steel plate over the heart, which made the vest strong enough to stop rifle rounds. Vests like Armellino’s were quickly picked up by police forces and it is estimated that by 1990, half of all police officers in America wore bulletproof vests daily. By 2006, there were over 2000 documented police vest ‘saves’, or instances where officers were protected from deadly wounds by wearing bulletproof vests.
130. Which one of the following is not a product that has been made with Kevlar?
(1) Tennis racquets
(2) Bungee jumping cords
(3) Brake pads
(4) Body armor
Answer: (2)
131. For which of the following characteristics is Kevlar known?
(1) Heat resistant
(2) Strength
(3) Durability
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
132. Which one of the following caused the search for a fabric like Kevlar?
(1) A shortage in the gasoline supply
(2) A desire to protect police officers
(3) The need to protect police officers
(4) The want to better musical instruments.
Answer: (1)
133. A vest made of 15 layers of Kevlar with no steel plates could stop all but which of the following rounds?
(1) Handgun rounds
(2) Shotgun pellets
(3) Rifle rounds
(4) It could stop all of the above
Answer: (3)
134. How much stronger is Kevlar than steel?
(1) Half as strong
(2) As strong
(3) Five times as strong
(4) 200 times as strong
Answer: (3)
135. What product was Kwolek trying to improve when she invented Kevlar?
(1) Tires
(2) Milk
(3) Brake pads
(4) Armor
Answer: (1)
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options
136. The study of meaning in a language is known as-
(1) syntax
(2) scmantics
(3) morphology
(4) linguistics
Answer: (2)
137. The teacher tells a story about animals. Children make animal noises every time they hear the name of the animal. It is-
(1) total physical response
(2) communicative language teaching
(3) grammar translation
(4) reading approach
Answer: (1)
138. Any of a wide variety of exercises activities or devices used in th e language classroom for realizing lesson objectives is known as
(1) method
(2) technique
(3) syllabus
(4) approach
Answer: (2)
139. A test which is administered at the end of a language course for remedial teaching is-
(1) diagnostic test
(2) placement test
(3) achievement test
(4) memory test
Answer: (1)
140. The practice of grammatical structures in a controlled manner can be done by-
(1) correcting wrong sentences produced by learners
(2) gap-filing grammar exercise
(3) writing paragraphs and essays
(4) explaining the use of particular structures.
Answer: (2)
141. “In the backyard, the dog barked and howled at the cat” is an example of-
(1) simple sentence
(2) sentence fragment
(3) complex sentences
(4) complex compound sentence
Answer: (1)
142. Which one of the following methods of teaching cannot be used interchangeably with each other?
(1) Reference method
(2) Incidental method
(3) Direct method
(4) Correlative method
Answer: (3)
143. Which one of the following statements is true?
(1) All formative tasks are meant for assessment.
(2) Assignments need to be given as classwork followed by homework everyday, to provide variety and practice.
(3) Formative assessment, to be effective, must be conducted only after teaching a lesson.
(4) While all formative task are meant for improving teaching learning, some are used for assessment too.
Answer: (4)
144. Mother tongue influence can be effectively minimized in the classroom by
(1) using the mother tongue more often
(2) giving examples from the mother tongue
(3) giving a lot of exposure in t he target language
(4) giving inputs from the target language in a simple, graded manner
Answer: (4)
145. Which one of the following sentences is a result of error arising out of translation from our language to another?
(1) The teacher is giving examination.
(2) The students are giving their examination.
(3) My joy knew no bounds.
(4) Are you going by the train?
Answer: (2)
146. Reading skill can be developed best by-
(1) writing answers to questions on text
(2) focusing on the use of words from context in the text
(3) doing vocabulary exercises
(4) doing quizzes and playing word games
Answer: (2)
147. Who would be the implementer of education?
(1) Teacher
(2) Education Department
(3) Student
(4) Curriculum
Answer: (1)
148. A listening stimulus-
(1) presents input to separate groups of students who gather again to share it.
(2) is listening to a good commentary to review it
(3) enables students to discuss a set of criteria that they prioritize to complete and present a task
(4) presents an information gap activity such as giving directions
Answer: (4)
149. If a language teacher has taught to topic in the lcass and no student asks questions in her class, then may he-
(1) students are not paying attention
(2) she had been an excellent teacher
(3) whatever was taught was beyond the comprehension of the students
(4) all the students are at a higher level of learning
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
1. To understand individual differences in development it is important
(1) to look at the environmental factors that affect individuals.
(2) to consider maturation of the body and the brain.
(3) to consider both inherited characteristics as well as environmental factors and their interplay
(4) to look at the inherited characteristics that give each person a special start in life.
Answer: (3)
2. Which of the following is not a principle of development?
(1) Development is relatively orderly.
(2) Development takes place gradually over a period of time.
(3) Exact course and nature of development is determined at the time of birth itself.
(4) Individuals develop at different rates.
Answer: (3)
3. Several research studies show that teachers have more overall interaction with boys than girls. What is the correct explanation for this ?
(1) Boys need more attention than girls.
(2) This is an example of gender bias in teaching.
(3) Boys are easier to manage than girls in the classroom.
(4) Boys have much more academic capabilities than girls.
Answer: (2)
4. Which of the following is central to the concept of progressive education?
(1) Belief in the capability and potential of every child
(2) Standard instruction and assessment
(3) Extrinsic motivation and uniform assessment parameters
(4) Textbook centric learning
Answer: (1)
5. What instructional adaptations should a teacher make while working with students who are ‘Visually Challenged’?
(1) Use a variety of visual presentations.
(2) Orient herself so that the students can watch her closely.
(3) Focus on a variety of written tasks especially worksheets.
(4) Speak clearly and use a lot of touch and feel materials.
Answer: (4)
6. Co-operative learning and peer-tutoring ______ in an inclusive classroom.
(1) should be actively discouraged
(2) should be occasionally used
(3) should not be used
(4) should be actively promoted
Answer: (4)
7. Which of the following is most important in an inclusive classroom?
(1) Standardized testing
(2) Promoting competitive learning
(3) Individualized education plan
(4) Uniform instruction
Answer: (3)
8. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of learners and their primary characteristics?
(1) ‘Dyslexic’ learners-Lack reading and writing fluency
(2) Creative learners-Hyperactive; slow in completing work
(3) Attention deficit learners – High motivation; can sustain attention for long periods of time.
(4) Hearing impaired learners – Cannot comprehend visual information
Answer: (1)
9. The ability to come up with original and divergent solutions to a problem is a primary characteristic of
(1) Impaired children
(2) Creative children
(3) Children with learning disability
(4) Egocentric children
Answer: (2)
10. Which of the following would not be consistent with a constructivist environment?
(1) Students work collaboratively and are given support to engage in task-oriented dialogue with each other.
(2) Teachers elicit students’ ideas and experiences in relationship to key topics and plant teaching-learning to elaborate or restructure their current knowledge.
(3) Teachers employ specific end of the term assessment strategies and given feedback on products rather than processes.
(4) Students are given frequent opportunities to engage in complex, meaningful, problem based activities.
Answer: (3)
11. A teacher should encourage students to set ______ rather than _______.
(1) performance goals; learning goals
(2) failure avoiding goals; marks seeking goals
(3) marks seeking goals; failure avoiding goals
(4) learning goals; performance goals
Answer: (4)
12. Which of the following does not result in meaningful facilitation of learning?
(1) Promoting repetition and recall
(2) Use of examples and non-examples
(3) Encouraging multiple ways of looking at a problem
(4) Connecting new knowledge to pre-existing knowledge
Answer: (1)
13. Which of these is an example of extrinsic motivation?
(1) “I learn so much when I do my homework.”
(2) “Doing homework makes me understand my concepts better.”
(3) “I complete my homework because the teacher gives us marks for each assignment.”
(4) “I enjoy doing my homework because it is so much fun.”
Answer: (3)
14. In a primary classroom a teacher should
(1) give only non-examples
(2) give both examples and non-examples
(3) not give any examples and non-examples
(4) give only examples
Answer: (2)
15. Which of the following strategies would promote meaning-making in children?
(1) Transmission of information
(2) Using punitive measures
(3) Uniform and standardized testing
(4) Exploration and discussion
Answer: (4)
16. Which of the following are examples of effective learning strategies?
(i) Setting goals and time tables
(ii) Making organizational charts and concept maps
(iii) Thinking of examples and non-examples
(iv) Explaining to a peer
(v) Self-questioning
(1) (i), (iv), (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer: (3)
17. In the constructivist frame child is viewed as
(1) ‘tabula rasa’ or ‘blank slate’ whose life is shaped entirely by experience.
(2) a ‘passive being’
(3) a ‘problem solver’ and a ‘scientific investigator’.
(4) ‘miniature adult’ who is less than adult in all aspects such as size, cognition, emotions.
Answer: (3)
18. A teacher’s role while using co-operative learning in her class-
(1) is to leave the class and let children work on their own.
(2) is to be supportive and monitor each group.
(3) is to support the group which has the ‘bright’ and ‘talented’ children.
(4) is to be a silent spectator and let children do what they want.
Answer: (2)
19. Children’s errors and misconceptions-
(1) are a hindrance and obstacle to the teaching-learning process.
(2) should be ignored in the teaching-learning process.
(3) signify that children’s capabilities are far inferior than that of adults.
(4) area a significant step in the teaching-learning process.
Answer: (4)
20. According to Piaget, specific psychological structures (organized ways of making sense of experience) are called
(1) schemes
(2) images
(3) mental maps
(4) mental tools
Answer: (1)
21. “With an appropriate question / suggestion, the child’s understanding can be extended far beyond the point which she could have reached alone.” Which construct does the above statement highlight?
(1) Equilibration
(2) Conservation
(3) Intelligence
(4) Zone of proximal development
Answer: (4)
22. According to Lev Vygotsky, basic mental capacities are transformed into higher cognitive processes primarily through
(1) social interaction
(2) stimulus-response association
(3) adaptation and organization
(4) rewards and punishment
Answer: (1)
23. Which of the following statements denotes the relationship between development and learning correctly?
(1) Learning takes place irrespective of development.
(2) Rate of learning far exceeds the rate of development.
(3) Development and learning are inter-related and inter-dependent.
(4) Development and learning are not related.
Answer: (3)
24. One of the major accomplishments of concrete operational stage is
(1) Ability to conserve
(2) Hypothetic-deductive reasoning
(3) Secondary circular reactions
(4) Animistic thinking
Answer: (1)
25. Constructivists such as Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky view learning as
(1) conditioning of responses
(2) passive repetitive process
(3) process of meaning-making by active engagement
(4) acquisition of skills
Answer: (3)
26. Selecting and presenting stories and clippings from newspaper that portray both men and women in non-traditional roles is an effective strategy to
(1) promote gender constancy
(2) encourage stereotypical gender roles
(3) counter gender stereotypes
(4) promote gender bias
Answer: (3)
27. Read the following description and identify the stage of moral reasoning of Kohlberg.
Description:
Right action is defined by self-chosen ethical principles of conscience that are valid for all humanity, regardless of law and social agreement.
(1) The social-contract orientation
(2) The social – order maintaining orientation
(3) The universal ethical principle orientation
(4) The instrumental purpose orientation
Answer: (3)
28. As per Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence, how would the intelligence of a person with the following characteristic be categorized ?
Characteristics :
“Ability to detect and respond appropriately to the moods, temperaments, motivations and, intentions of others.”
(1) Intrapersonal
(2) Interpersonal
(3) Therapeutic
(4) Naturalistic
Answer: (2)
29. Which of the following should be the reasons for assessment of children?
(i) To separate and label children into ‘non-achievers’, ‘low-achievers’, ‘average’ and high-achievers’.
(ii) To improve teaching-learning processes in the classroom.
(iii) To find out what changes and progress in learning that takes place in the child over a period of time.
(iv) To discuss the capabilities, potential, strengths and challenging areas of the child with the parents.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (2)
30. Which of the following play an important role in a child’s socialization ?
(i) Media
(ii) School
(iii) Family
(iv) Neighbourhood
(1) (ii), (iii)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (iii), (i)
Answer: (3)
Part-II
Mathematics and Science
IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) Or from Part-III (Social Studies/Science).
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
31. The total surface area of a cuboid is 194 m2. If its length is 8 m and breadth is 6 m, then what is its volume (in m2) ?
(1) 126
(2) 168
(3) 224
(4) 112
Answer: (2)
32. The area of a trapezium is 105 cm2 and its height is 7 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the other by 6 cm, then the length of the longer side, in cm, is
(1) 16
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 18
Answer: (4)
33. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of base radius 3 cm is 94.2 cm2. The volume (in cm3) of the cylinder is (Take π = 3.14)
(1) 141.3
(2) 125.6
(3) 113.04
(4) 138.6
Answer: (1)
34. If x is added to each of 14, 12, 4 and 30, the numbers so obtained, in this order, are in proportion. What is the value of
(1) A regular polygon of 10 sides has 10 lines of symmetry.
(2) A circle has no line of symmetry.
(3) An angle has two lines of symmetry.
(4) A regular hexagon has only 4 lines of symmetry.
Answer: (1)
35. The value of x which satisfies the equation
10(x + 6) + 8(x – 3) = 5(5x – 4) also satisfies the equation
(1) 3(3x – 5) = 2x + 1
(2) 2(x + 3) = 5(x – 5) + 4
(3) 5(x – 5) = 2(x – 3) + 5
(4) 5(x – 3) = x + 5
Answer: (1)
36. What should be subtracted from 5y – 13x – 8a to obtain 11x – 16y + 7a?
(1) 21y – 5x – a
(2) 21y – 24x – 15a
(3) 24x – 21y + a
(4) 6x + 21y + 15a
Answer: (3)
37. Which of the following statements is correct regarding children coming to school from rural areas in the context of Mathematics?
(1) They may have rich oral mathematical traditions and knowledge.
(2) They do not know any mathematics.
(3) They have poor communication skills in mathematics.
(4) They need not learn formal mathematics as it is of no use to them.
Answer: (2)
38. Read the following statements :
(A) Axioms are propositions which are assumed.
(B) Axioms are special theorems.
(C) Axioms are definitions.
(D) Axioms, when proved becomes theorems.
Which of the following statement(s) is correct?
(1) A and D
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) A and C
Answer: (1)
39. Read the following statements :
(A) Axioms are propositions which are assumed.
(B) Axioms are special theorems.
(C) Axioms are definitions.
(D) Axioms, when proved becomes theorems.
Which of the following statements(s) is correct?
(1) A and D
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) A and C
Answer: (3)
40. Which of the following statements does not reflect contemporary view of students errors in mathematics?
(1) They are a part of learning.
(2) They are a rich source of information.
(3) They can guide the teacher in planning her classes.
(4) They should be overlooked.
Answer: (4)
41. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Mathematics is true?
(A) Mathematics is a tool.
(B) Mathematics is a form of art.
(C) Mathematics is language.
(1) B & C
(2) only A
(3) A, B & C
(4) A & B
Answer: (3)
42. To prove that √2 is an irrational number, a teacher beings by assuming that it is a rational number and then proceeds to show how this assumption is not feasible. This is an example of proof by
(1) Deduction
(2) Contradiction
(3) Verification
(4) Induction
Answer: (2)
43. Which of the following statements reflects a desirable assessment practice in the context of mathematics learning?
(1) Holding conversations and one to one discussion with children can also be helpful in assessing them.
(2) Assessment should be product oriented and focus on the right answer of the child.
(3) Incorrect answer of children should largely be ignored because we need to focus on children’s strengths.
(4) Only paper-pencil task are suited to assess students because they require precise answers.
Answer: (1)
44. Which of the following statements is true of learning mathematics?
(1) Girls need extra attention because they are weaker in mathematics.
(2) Mathematics is a specialized subject meant for a select few.
(3) Informal algorithms are inferior to formal mathematics.
(4) Everyone can learn and succeed in mathematics.
Answer: (4)
45. The role of proportional reasoning in understanding the concept related to ration and proportion was highlighted by
(1) Zoltan Dienes
(2) Jean Piaget
(3) Lev Vygotsky
(4) Van Hiele
Answer: (2)
46. A student is not able to solve those word problems which involve transposition in algebra. The best remedial strategy is to
(1) give lot of practice questions of word problems in another language.
(2) explain him/her word problem in simple language.
(3) explain concept of equality using alternate method.
(4) give lot of practice questions on transposition of numbers.
Answer: (3)
47. Contemporary understanding of Mathematics Pedagogy encourages teachers to do all of the following, except :
(1) Introduce computation of problems before development of conceptual understanding.
(2) Create opportunities for students to guess-and-verify the solutions to problems.
(3) Develop the skill of systematic reasoning in students.
(4) Encourage the ability to approximate solutions.
49. The fractions are written in descending order as
(1) 22/25, 24/29, 33/38, 44/49
(2) 44/49, 22/25, 33/38, 24/29
(3) 44/49, 33/38, 24/29, 22/25
(4) 24/29, 33/38, 22/25, 44/49
Answer: (2)
50. Which one of the following statements is not true for integers?
(1) Division is commutative.
(2) 1 is the multiplicative identity.
(3) Subtraction is not commutative.
(4) Multiplication is associative.
Answer: (1)
51. If x = 23 × 32 × 53 × 73
y = 22 × 33 × 54 × 73 and
z = 24 × 34 × 52 × 75
then H.C.F. of x, y and z is
(1) (15)3 × 74
(2) (30)3 × 75
(3) 30 × 75
(4) (30)2 × 73
Answer: (4)
52. If 52272 = p2 × q3 × r4,
where p, q and r are prime numbers, then the value of (2p + q – r) is
(1) 22
(2) 23
(3) 29
(4) 21
Answer: (2)
53. If the 7-digit number 134x58y is divisible by 72, then the value of (2x + y) is
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 6
Answer: (2)
54. Which of the following is not a Pythagorean triplet?
(1) 8, 15, 17
(2) 11, 60, 63
(3) 13, 84, 85
(4) 7, 24, 25
Answer: (2)
55. The measure of an angle for which the measure of the supplement is four times the measure of the complement is
(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 75°
(4) 30°
Answer: (2)
56. If the angles, in degrees, of a triangle are x, 3x + 20 and 6x, the triangle must be
(1) Acute
(2) Right
(3) Isosceles
(4) Obtuse
Answer: (4)
57. In triangle ABC and DEF, ∠C = ∠F, AC = DF, and BC = EF. If AB = 2x – 1 and DE = 5x – 4, then the value of x is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
Answer: (4)
58. One side of a triangle is 5 cm and the other side is 10 cm and its perimeter is P cm, where P is an integer. The least and the greatest possible values of P are respectively
If 8 is replaced by 18, then the median of the data is y. What is the sum of the values of x and y?
(1) 28
(2) 29
(3) 30
(4) 27
Answer: (2)
60. A bag contains 3 white, 2 blue and 5 red balls. One ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is not red?
(1) 3/10
(2) 1/5
(3) 1/2
(4) 4/5
Answer: (3)
61. Which of the following nutrients are present in milk?
(1) Protein, Vitamin C, Vitamin A
(2) Carbohydrates, Vitamin C, Iron
(3) Protein, Iron, Vitamin D
(4) Protein, Calcium, Vitamin D
Answer: (4)
62. The non-metal used in the purple coloured solution applied on wounds as antiseptic is
(1) Iodine
(2) Bromine
(3) Sulphur
(4) Chlorine
Answer: (1)
63. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Air’ is incorrect?
(1) Air is not present in soil.
(2) Air plays important role in water cycle.
(3) Air occupies space.
(4) Air has weight.
Answer: (1)
64. Which of the following represents correct matching of the organs of digestive system in Column A with the function in Colum B?
Column A
(a) Liver
(b) Stomach
(c) Gall bladder
(d) Pancreas
Column B
(i) where protein digestion starts
(ii) where bile juice is stored
(iii) releases digestive juice into small intestine
(iv) largest gland
(1) a – iv, b – i, c –ii, d – iii
(2) a – i, b – iii, c –ii, d – iv
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c –ii, d – i
(4) a – i, b – ii, c –iv, d – iii
Answer: (1)
65. Which of the following statements about cells is true?
(1) Cells of a tissue have similar structure.
(2) Size of cells is same in a well organized organism.
(3) All the cells have nucleus.
(4) All cells are round in shape.
Answer: (1)
66. Which of the following are correctly matched with their mode of reproduction?
AB
(a) Yeast (i) vegetative propagation
(b) Potato (ii) spore formation
(c) Algae (iii) fragmentation
(d) Fungi (iv) budding
(1) a – i, b – iii, c –ii, d – iv
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c –iii, d – i
(3) a – iii, b – ii, c –iv, d – i
(4) a – iv, b – i, c –iii, d – ii
Answer: (4)
67. Which of the following pollutants are responsible for depletion of ozone layer?
(1) Chlorofluoro carbons
(2) Acid rain
(3) Methane and carbon dioxide
(4) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
Answer: (1)
68. Which of the following set represents communicable diseases?
(1) Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia, Swine flu
(2) Typhoid, Swine flu, Malaria, Polio
(3) Diabetes, Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia
(4) Anaemia, Scurvy, Diarrhoea, Cholera
Answer: (2)
69. Which one of the following is not true of the nature of science?
(A) Science is always tentative.
(B) Science promotes skepticism.
(C) Science is a process of constructing knowledge.
(D) Science is static in nature.
(1) B
(2) C
(3) A
(4) D
Answer: (4)
70. Which of the following is/are developed by Science?
(A) Equity
(B) Scientific attitude
(C) Scientific temper
(D) Static mind set
(1) B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D
Answer: (2)
71. The role of a science teacher should be to _____
(1) provide product based teaching – learning environment to learners.
(2) guide learners to practice the memorization of the creative ideas.
(3) encourage all learners to frame questions of high cognitive abilities.
(4) provide rich variety of learning experiences to learners.
Answer: (4)
72. As per NCF-2005, good science education should be
(A) True to the learner
(B) True to the environment of the learner
(C) True to the teacher
(D) True to science
(1) B and C only
(2) A, B and C
(3) D only
(4) A, B and D
Answer: (4)
73. “Conducting a survey on the awareness of people about sources of air pollution in learners localities.”
Which of the following cognitive process will be most associated with the above learning objective having action verb conducting?
(1) Understanding
(2) Creating
(3) Applying
(4) Remembering
Answer: (2)
74. Which of the following strategy can be the most appropriate for involving learners in the teaching learning of science?
(1) Clarifying the hard spots of learners
(2) Working on engaging the learners first
(3) Encouraging learners to do group assessment
(4) Reading a science book
Answer: (2)
75. By which of the following strategy meaningful clarification on the concept of reflection of light can be given?
(1) Chart showing the reflection of light.
(2) Observing reflecting of light on white paper screen by the learners and drawing conclusions.
(3) Asking closed ended questions related to the concept.
(4) Animated video on the concept.
Answer: (2)
76. Why are field visits important in science?
(1) It is easy to conduct
(2) It collects the information of science.
(3) It develops habit of hardwork among learners.
(4) It provides hands on experiences to the learners.
Answer: (4)
77. Which of the following tool is for learner centered assessment?
(A) Portfolio
(B) Concept mapping
(C) Paper-pencil test
(D) Journal writing
(1) A, B and D
(2) A and C only
(3) B, C and D
(4) C only
Answer: (1)
78. Assessment as learning in Science means ______.
(1) Summative assessment
(2) Self assessment
(3) Term assessment
(4) Formative assessment
Answer: (2)
79. Amrita is trying to set-up an electric circuit. She runs short of connecting wires. Which of the following materials can she use to complete the circuit?
(1) steel wire
(2) glass rod
(3) rubber pipe
(4) thick thread
Answer: (1)
80. Identify the correct statement.
(1) A concave mirror forms an erect as well as inverted image.
(2) A convex mirror always forms an inverted image.
(3) A convex mirror forms erect as well as inverted image.
(4) A concave mirror always forms an erect image.
Answer: (1)
81. Which of the following acids is found in ant’s sting?
(1) Formic acid
(2) Oxalic acid
(3) Acetic acid
(4) Ascorbic acid
Answer: (1)
82. 7 kg of a fuel is completely burnt to give off 1.665 × 108 joules of energy. The calorific value of the fuel in standard unit is
(1) 22222
(2) 61605
(3) 25000
(4) 45000
Answer: (4)
83. Myra cycles to a friend’s house 5 km away to deliver a packet. She goes at a speed of 12 km/hour and returns at a speed of 8 km/h. Her average speed during the whole trip is-
(1) 9.6 km/h
(2) 10 km/h
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 20 km/h
Answer: (1)
84. Which of the following sets contains only the units of measuring distance?
(1) cubit, year, light year
(2) cubit, metre, light year
(3) metre, hertz, cubit
(4) metre, light year, hertz
Answer: (2)
85. Sameer rolls his marble on three different surfaces spread out on floor – taut cellophane sheet, carpet and newspaper. The force of friction acting on the marble in the increasing order is
(1) News paper, Carpet, Cellophane, Sheet
(2) Cellophane sheet, Newspaper, Carpet
(3) Cellophane sheet, Carpet, Newspaper
(4) Newspaper, Cellophane sheet, Carpet
Answer: (2)
86. An object is moving linearly with a uniform velocity. If time is represented along X-axis then which of the following statements is correct?
(1) The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis.
(2) The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis.
(3) The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis.
(4) The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis.
Answer: (3)
87. Which of the following is not a byproduct of petroleum?
(1) Coke
(2) Bitumen
(3) Lubricating oil
(4) Paraffin wax
Answer: (1)
88. Aman keeps a plastic bottle, a wooden spoon and a metallic spoon in a closed room overnight. The room temperature is 30° In the morning he records the temperatures of the three objects as T1, T2 and T3. Which of the following most likely represents the relation between them?
(1) T3 > T2 > T1
(2) T1 = T2 < T3
(3) T1 > T2 > T3
(4) T1 = T2 = T3
Answer: (4)
89. Which of the following organisms can prepare their own food by Photosynthesis?
(1) Fungi
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Virus
(4) Algae
Answer: (4)
90. Which of the following features help polar bears adapt in extreme cold conditions?
(1) white fur, long curved sharp claws, fat under skin
(2) white fur, flat feet, layers of fur
(3) strong smell, flat feet, layers of fur
(4) white fur, flat feet, fat under skin
Answer: (1)
IMPORTANT : Candidate have to do Questions Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part-III (Social Studies/Social Science).
Part-III
Social Studies/Social Science
31. Assertion (A) : It will be 7 : 30 p.m. in India, when it is 2 : 00 p.m. in London.
Reason (R) : India is located east of Greenwich at 82°30ʹE.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer: (2)
32. Consider the statements A, B, C on time zone and choose the correct answer :
(A) Some countries have a great longitudinal extent and so they adopted more than one standard time.
(B) The earth has been divided into twenty-four time zones of one hour each.
(C) Each time zone covers 15° of longitude.
(1) A and C are correct and B is incorrect.
(2) B and C are correct and A is incorrect.
(3) A, B, C, all are correct.
(4) A and B are correct and C is incorrect.
Answer: (3)
33. Choose the correct arrangement of atmosphere’s layers beginning from earth’s surface :
34. Seasons occur due to which of the following reasons?
(1) Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of t he sun, falling vertically at 23½° S.
(2) Revolution of the Earth and inclination of its axis in the same direction.
(3) Circle of illumination caused due to rotation of the earth around its axis.
(4) Axis of the Earth makes an angle of 66½° with its orbital plane.
Answer: (2)
35. The major constituents of earth’s atmosphere by percentage is :
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Helium
(4) Oxygen
Answer: (2)
36. Which of the following statements about ocean current is/are correct?
(A) The cold currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes.
(B) Labrador is a warm current.
(C) Areas where warm and cold currents meet provide world’s best fishing grounds.
(1) A and C are correct
(2) B and C are correct.
(3) Only A is correct.
(4) A and B are correct.
Answer: (1)
37. The depositional feature of a glacier is called :
(1) Moraine
(2) Loess
(3) Levees
(4) Sea cave
Answer: (1)
38. Statements A and B describe the features of which of the following vegetations?
(A) This vegetation is found in the higher latitudes (50° – 70°) of Northern Hemisphere.
(B) It is also called as Taiga.
(1) Temperate Deciduous Forests.
(2) Coniferous Forests.
(3) Mediterranean Vegetation.
(4) Temperate Grasslands.
Answer: (2)
39. Which of the following is not a feature of the Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin?
(1) The density of population of plain area is very high.
(2) The delta area is covered with Mangrove forests.
(3) Slash and Burn agriculture is practiced in this area for land cultivation.
(4) Ox-Bow lakes dot the plain area.
Answer: (3)
40. Swimmers can float in Dead sea because :
(1) More warm currents than cold currents originate in the sea.
(2) The sea experiences more high tides than low tides.
(3) The increased salt content makes the sea dense.
(4) Winds blow at a very high speed over the surface of sea water.
Answer: (3)
41. Consider the statements A and B about land use and choose the correct answer :
(A) Land use refers to use of land exclusively for agriculture and forestry.
(B) Land use is primarily determined by its topography.
(1) A is false and B is true.
(2) Both A and B are true.
(3) Both A and B are false.
(4) A is true and B is false.
Answer: (3)
42. Shelter belts help in :
(1) Retaining soil moisture.
(2) Slowing down the flow of water over soil.
(3) Preventing gullies and hence further soil loss.
(4) Checking wind movement to protect soil cover.
Answer: (4)
43. What determines the thickness of soil profile?
(1) Time
(2) Flora-Fauna
(3) Climate
(4) Relief
Answer: (1)
44. On the basis of their distribution, resources can be classified as :
(1) Renewable and Non-Renewable resources.
(2) Biotic and Abiotic resources
(3) Ubiquitous and Localised resources
(4) Actual and Potential resources
Answer: (3)
45. Which of the following statements about a ‘diverse society’ is correct?
(1) It would have differences in culture and power.
(2) It would have similarities of language, religion and culture.
(3) It would have differences and similarities in language, culture and religion.
(4) It would have differences and inequalities in language, religion and culture
Answer: (3)
46. Which of the following statements challenges gender stereotypes?
(1) Women are fashion conscious.
(2) Women are responsible bus drivers.
(3) Women are nurturing.
(4) Women are very emotional.
Answer: (2)
47. Which of the following composed the main demand of the suffragettes?
(1) Right to bureaucratic roles for women.
(2) Adult franchise for propertied women.
(3) Adult franchise for working class.
(4) Right to vote of women.
Answer: (4)
48. Which of the following statements about Jatakas is correct?
(1) These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Jaina monks.
(2) These were composed by Buddhist monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people.
(3) These were composed by Jaina monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people.
(4) These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Buddhist monks.
Answer: (4)
49. Which of the following statements about Ain-i-Akbari is correct?
(1) It deals with Akbar’s ancestors and records the events of Akbar’s reign.
(2) It was written by Mirza Hakim, who was one of Akbar’s courtiers.
(3) It has rich statistical details about diverse aspects of Akbar’s administration.
(4) It is the first volume of the three volume history of Akbar’s reign titled Akbar Nama.
Answer: (3)
50. Who among the following compiled the compositions of Baba Guru Nanak in Gurumukhi, also adding his own compositions to it?
(1) Guru Angad
(2) Guru Arjan
(3) Guru Teg Bahadur
(4) Guru Gobind Singh
Answer: (1)
51. Which of the following was not a feature to Athenian democracy?
(1) All citizens were expected to serve in army and navy.
(2) All the citizens attended assemblies that were held for deciding upon matters.
(3) Appointment for many positions were made through lottery.
(4) All the free men and women above 30 years of age were recognized as full citizens.
Answer: (4)
52. Which of the following was Samudragupta’s policy specifically towards the rulers of Dakshinapatha?
(1) They submitted to Samudragupta and offered daughters in marriage.
(2) They brought tribute, followed his orders and attended his court.
(3) They surrendered after being defeated and then were allowed to rule again.
(4) Their kingdoms were uprooted and made a part of Samudragupta’s empire.
Answer: (3)
53. Match the following :
(Art form)
(a) Art technique that enabled making of images that looked real.
(b) Painting showing Indian landscape as quaint, unexplored land
(c) Paintings displaying lavish lifestyles, wealth & status of Europeans in India.
(d) Paintings depicting scenes from British imperial history & victories.
(Nomenclature)
(i) Picturesque
(ii) Portraiture
(iii) History Painting
(iv) Oil Painting
(1) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
(2) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(4) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
Answer: (4)
54. In the late 18th century, the presidencies of Bombay, Madras and Bengal developed from which of the following East India Company’s trading posts?
(1) Nagpur, Madurai, Delhi
(2) Pune, Madras, Calcutta
(3) Surat, Madurai, Delhi
(4) Surat, Madras, Calcutta
Answer: (4)
55. Consider the statement (A) and (B) about Mahayana Buddhism and choose the correct answer.
(A) In this form of Buddhism, Buddha’s presence in sculptures was shown using certain signs.
(B) The belief in Bodhisattvas emerged with the coming of Mahayana Buddhism.
(1) (A) is false, (B) is true.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is true. (B) is false.
Answer: (1)
56. Consider the statements (A) and (B) about Mahalwari and Ryotwari system of revenues and choose the correct answer.
(A) The Mahalwri was devised for North-Western provinces of Bengal presidency, while the Ryotwari was devised for British territories in South.
(B) While in Mahalwari, village headman collected and paid revenue of the whole village to the company, in Ryotwari direct settlements was made with cultivators.
(1) Only (B) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems.
(2) Both (A) and (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems.
(3) Neither (A) nor (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems.
(4) Only (A) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems.
Answer: (2)
57. A tomb of a Sufi saint is known as :
(1) Idgah
(2) Gulfaroshan
(3) Dargah
(4) Khanqah
Answer: (3)
58. The doctrine of Vishishtadvaita was propounded in eleventh century by :
(1) Basavanna
(2) Eknath
(3) Sakhubai
(4) Ramanuja
Answer: (4)
59. Consider the statements (A) and (B) on Diwani Adalat established in 1772 in India and choose the correct answer :
(A) It was a criminal court.
(B) It was presided over by the European district collectors.
(1) (A) is false, (B) is true.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false
(4) (A) is true, (B) is false
Answer: (1)
60. A garrison town refers to :
(1) A fortified settlement with soldiers.
(2) A place where goods from different production centres are sold.
(3) A town on an important trading port.
(4) Land adjacent to a city that supplies goods to it.
Answer: (1)
61. A Social Science teacher should aim towards:
(1) Building perspective
(2) Syllabus completion
(3) Passing the examinations
(4) Rote memorization
Answer: (1)
62. Which of the following approaches have been considered while developing social and political life textbooks?
(A) Learning through use of concrete examples and experiences.
(B) Learning through retention based on facts and data.
(1) Only B
(2) Both A and B
(3) Neither A nor B
(4) Only A
Answer: (4)
63. Which of the following is true about Social Science?
(A) Memorizing information will lead to conceptual development.
(B) The status of a ‘fact’ is always fixed.
(1) Only B
(2) Both A and B
(3) Neither A nor B
(4) Only A
Answer: (3)
64. The best practice for sensitizing students towards wildlife conservation would be :
(1) Preparing a play on wildlife conservation.
(2) Observing wildlife week at the school.
(3) Pledging not to buy animal based products
(4) Reading about relevant policies and laws.
Answer: (3)
65. What is the main purpose of an Open-Book Evaluation ?
(1) Teachers need not undergo extra pressure to frame new questions.
(2) Students need not read extra books.
(3) Students can answer exactly according to the textbook.
(4) Students need not feel the burden to rote memorize all facts and details.
Answer: (4)
66. Which of the following would be the best closure tasks after the teaching of the theme ‘The Making of Regional Cultures’?
(A) Small group projects
(B) Dance performance by an expert
(C) Quiz competition
(D) Collage making
(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C
Answer: (2)
67. Imagine you have inherited a kingdom. How would you make y our kingdom stable and prosperous ?
In context of the above questions, as a teacher which skill would you emphasise upon while assessing the students?
(1) Ability to analyse.
(2) Infer and extrapolate from situation.
(3) Ability to reason.
(4) Comparing experiences.
Answer: (2)
68. A respectful way to introduce the theme ‘Adivasis’ would be to :
(1) Showcasing their colorful costumes.
(2) Screening a tribal song and dance.
(3) Discussing their primitive and rustic pasts.
(4) Portraying them as rich and powerful forest people.
Answer: (4)
69. While teaching controversial issues in Social Science class, you should :
(1) Take them up occasionally and conduct brief discussions.
(2) Take them up with proper planning to initiate a dignified discussion.
(3) Keep in mind students’ background and discuss only non-hurtful aspects.
(4) Completely avoid confrontations.
Answer: (2)
70. The teaching of social and political life should focus on :
(A) Study of Political Institutions.
(B) Study of Basic Principles.
(1) Only B
(2) Both A and B
(3) Neither A nor B
(4) Only A
Answer: (2)
71. While planning a small group activity with students, which of the following should be emphasized?
(A) To create a challenging task.
(B) To teach students to work together.
(C) To select groups thoughtfully.
(D) Completion of task.
(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C
Answer: (4)
72. Which of the following statements are true about the study of Social Science?
(A) Helps in systemic analysis of issues.
(B) Students will grow up and find out for themselves.
(C) Focus should be on subject details rather than understanding.
(D) Building sensitivity and curiosity as such as providing information.
(1) A, D
(2) B, D
(3) C, D
(4) A, C
Answer: (1)
73. The writings of the following cannot be attributed as a primary source?
(1) Abul Fazl
(2) Rashsundari Devi
(3) Ziyauddin Barani
(4) Muzaffar Alam
Answer: (4)
74. Which of the following sources would be wrong to use if you have to introduce Ancient Indian History?
(1) Miniature Paintings
(2) Inscriptions
(3) Manuscripts
(4) Cave paintings
Answer: (1)
75. Which of the following can a Social Science teacher critically address while discussing the theme, ‘Advertisement’?
(A) Appeal to the personal emotions.
(B) Issues of equality.
(1) Only B
(2) Neither A nor B
(3) Both A and B
(4) Only A
Answer: (3)
76. ‘Discuss few more reasons that are responsible for changes in land use pattern.’
In context of the above question, as a Social Science teacher you would be assessing students’ skill of :
(1) Generalizing
(2) Inferring
(3) Hypothesising
(4) Classifying
Answer: (3)
77. To familiarize students with t he theme, ‘Natural Vegetation and Wildlife’, which would be the best pedagogical method?
(1) Visit to a wildlife sanctuary.
(2) Inviting an expert for a lecture.
(3) Textbook reading and discussion.
(4) Screening a documentary on the theme.
Answer: (1)
78. What is the role of cartoons in a Social Science textbooks?
(1) Mainly used as fillers so that textbooks look attractive.
(2) Makes class enjoyable as the subject is boring.
(3) Raises basic issues and makes it relatable to students.
(4) No role as cartoons are immature.
Answer: (3)
79. Consider statements A and B on the practice of apartheid :
(A) It discriminates between races but allowed all the right to vote.
(B) It prevents mingling of races but gives equitable public of facilities to al.
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only B is true.
(2) Both A and B are true.
(3) Both A and B are false.
(4) Only A is true.
Answer: (3)
80. Who among the following occupies elected office in a Gram Panchayat?
(A) Sarpanch
(B) Ward Members
(C) Secretary
(D) Gram Sabha Member
Choose the correct option :
(1) A and C
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A and B
Answer: (4)
81. Which of the following work is the responsibility of a ‘Patwari’?
(1) Executing employment schemes for land development
(2) Preventing land disputes by investigating complaints.
(3) Measuring land and keeping records.
(4) Construction and maintenance of common property.
Answer: (3)
82. Which of the following statements on the functioning of a local urban administration is correct ?
(1) Commissioner is elected by ward councilors and reports to him/her.
(2) Ward councilors form committees to resolve issues of governance.
(3) Ward councilors are headed by the Sarpanch.
(4) Commissioner of a municipal corporation makes and decides the budget for the year.
Answer: (2)
83. Consider List – A and List – B.
List – A has different types of rural employment.
List – B has different kinds of loans taken.
List – A
(a) Agricultural worker
(b) Large farmer
(c) Middle farmer
List – B
(i) Health and offseason consumption
(ii) Fertilizer, Pesticide, Seeds
(iii) Government loan for agro-processing plant
Match items of List – A wit List – B, based on most likely reason for loans :
(1) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
(2) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii
(4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
Answer: (2)
84. Which of the following forms the trading arrangement between a weaver and a merchant under the “Putting out” system ? Choose the correct option.
(1) Yarn is sold to the weaver by the merchant; and weaver makes cloth for self-consumption.
(2) Yarn is supplied by the merchant to the weaver and cloth produced is bought back from weaver at a low price.
(3) Yarn is bought by weaver from the open market and cloth is sold to merchant at a low price
(4) Yarn is bought for the lowest bid from merchant; and cloth is sold at highest bid.
Answer: (2)
85. Consider the statements A to E. They form jumbled links in a chain of market, wherein ‘Ketchup’ reaches a consumer.
(A) Sona orders ketchup from a neighbourhood shop.
(B) Farmer buys tomato seeds from a local trader.
(C) Wholesale merchant bids for tomatoes in the vegetable mandi.
(D) A small city based food processing unit buys tomatoes.
(E) Marketing company supplies ketchup to stores.
Choose the option that represents the correct sequence in the chain of market :
(1) B, D, E, C, A
(2) C, B, D, E, A
(3) A, B, D, C, E
(4) B, C, D, E, A
Answer: (4)
86. According to Appellate System, a person dissatisfied with the verdict given by the Court of the District Judge could appeal to which of the following courts?
(1) Supreme Court
(2) High Court
(3) Trial Court
(4) Session Court
Answer: (2)
87. Consider the statement A and B on the Indian Parliament :
(A) A political party that has any number of Members of Parliament in the Lok Sabha can form a government.
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President are part of the Parliament.
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only B is true.
(2) Both A and B are true.
(3) Both A and B are false
(4) Only A is true.
Answer: (1)
88. Read the statement given below :
“The Indian State has many checks and balances to prevent the misuse of powers.”
Choose the correct option that represents the meaning of ‘Indian State’ in the above statement.
(1) The Indian Bureaucracy
(2) Any State Government
(3) The Indian Political System
(4) The Indian Central Government
Answer: (3)
89. Which of the following should the teaching of History focus upon?
(A) Concepts of plural representations and building a sense of historical diversity.
(B) Encouraging students to imagine living in the past and relate to the experiences.
(1) Only B
(2) Both A and B
(3) Neither A nor B
(4) Only A
Answer: (2)
90. Two of the statements given below are false Identify these statements.
(A) Natural and physical basis of scientific inquiry can be used in Social Science also.
(B) The teaching of Social Science has the responsibility towards value education only.
(C) The same methodology can be used to teach different disciplines of Social Science.
(D) The teaching of Social Science concerns more with involvement with complexities rather than information.
(1) B and C
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) A and C
Answer: (1)
Part-IV Language-I
English
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part-IV (Q. No 91-120), if they have opted for English as Language-I only.
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (91 – 99) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
There’s an air of excitement on the platform as the train’s departure time draws close. You’ve found your name on the passenger’s list, together with the names of those in the compartment with you; so you already know your ‘fellow passengers’ names, ages, sex and destination. People are pushing past you to get on, as you show your coupon to the conductor and he tells you to board.
Your fellow passengers are settling in, staking out their claims to territory with too much luggage. A bell clangs but there is no slamming of carriage doors, no blowing of whistles and no shout of “All abroad !” as in the states. The train simply draws out of the station while people stroll alongside and with studies nonchalance, clamber on, one after the other through the still-open doors.
You claim your own seat, pleased to be on the move. Since you have a long journey ahead in the company of strangers, what happens next will govern your enjoyment of the trip.. You can start up a conversation and make friends, allies quickly, or he anti-social and lonely for the whole of the journey. Of course, it depends on your personality but if you are travelling alone you’ll need an ally, someone you feel you can trust to watch your luggage when you go to the washroom. You can’t isolate yourself completely on train so if that’s your style, train travel isn’t for you.
I get a thrill out of the start of every train journey. It’s not just the excitement of moving on to a new place, there’s the anticipation of what’s going to happen during the journey; the pleasure at the new acquaintances I’m going to make; the dissolving of city skyline into lush, rural landscape beyond the windows; and the heightened emotions of everyone on board. Indians love to travel by train; they are used to it and prepare properly so it becomes a picnic on wheels. I get excited when I am part of it, you will to.
91. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(1) He/she to make friends.
(2) He/she does not enjoy a picnic in the train.
(3) He/she is thrilled at the scene outside.
(4) The narrator enjoys going to a new place.
Answer: (2)
92. What does the word ‘Coupon’ here mean?
(1) a passport
(2) a railway ticket
(3) a counterfoil
(4) a railways pass
Answer: (2)
93. The phrase, ‘draws out’ as used here means :
(1) moves out
(2) hurries out
(3) breaks away
(4) clears out
Answer: (1)
94. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence?
People are pushing past you.
(1) Adverb
(2) Adjective
(3) Verb
(4) Preposition
Answer: (4)
95. Which part of the following sentence has an error in it ?
“Once you have made this decision
(a)
there would be
(b)
no going back”
(c)
Ram warned me
(d)
(1) (b)
(2) (c)
(3) (d)
(4) (a)
Answer: (1)
96. You are well informed about your fellow passengers :
(1) after you have been introduced to them.
(2) after you have interacted with them.
(3) When you have settled in your seats.
(4) even before you have entered the compartment.
Answer: (4)
97. Who take a claim to territory in the compartment?
(1) Those whose seats are already occupied.
(2) Those who don’t travel light.
(3) Those who haven’t reserved seats.
(4) Those who need more space in it.
Answer: (2)
98. Even after the train has started moving why do some people stroll alongside?
(1) They want to enjoy the outside scene.
(2) They enjoy getting into a moving train.
(3) They doors are still open.
(4) They reached the platform late.
Answer: (3)
99. What can prevent you from enjoying your train trip?
(1) You are lonely by temperament.
(2) You are worried about your luggage
(3) The travelers around you don’t trust you.
(4) There are strangers around you.
Answer: (1)
Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions (100 – 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
The work of hunters is another thing :
I have come after them and made repair
Where they have left not one stone on a stone,
But they would have the rabbit out of hiding,
To pleas the yelping dogs. The gaps I mean,
No one has been them made or heard them made,
But at spring mending-time we find them there.
I let my neighbour know beyond the hill;
And on a day we meet to walk the line
And set the wall between us once again.
We keep the wall between us as we go.
To each the boulders that have fallen to each.
And some are loaves and some so nearly balls
We have to use a spell to make them balance :
‘Stay where you are until our backs are turned!’
100. The neighbours meet in the spring season to :
(1) to go on a long walk.
(2) to find out who broke the wall.
(3) to life the stones.
(4) fill the gaps in the wall.
Answer: (4)
101. The neighbours have to use a spell to :
(1) to count the number of stones.
(2) to make the stones obey them.
(3) to fix the irregular stones in the wall.
(4) look for the rabbits.
Answer: (3)
102. The figure of speech used in the lines 9-10 is :
(1) Metaphor
(2) Simile
(3) Irony
(4) Personification
Answer: (3)
103. Identify the figure of speech used in the expression :
‘And some are loaves and some so nearly balls’
(1) Metaphor
(2) Personification
(3) Irony
(4) Simile
Answer: (1)
104. The hunters’ main aim is:
(1) to please their dogs.
(2) to catch the rabbits.
(3) to make the neighbours build the wall again.
(4) to remove the stones.
Answer: (2)
105. The gaps in the wall are made by :
(1) dogs
(2) hunters
(3) nature
(4) rabbits
Answer: (2)
Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options.
106. Many minor and tribal languages are not available in school curriculum and the number of speakers is receding in those languages. What is this known as in socio educational linguistics?
(1) Language minority in education
(2) Language endangerment
(3) Language revival
(4) Language death
Answer: (2)
107. A teacher asks her learners to find words and word chunks relating to different themes based on the reading lesson. Learners in groups have to make word charts of the same category. What is this strategy known as ?”
(1) Word collocations
(2) Communicative language teaching
(3) A writing project
(4) Thematic language teaching
Answer: (1)
108. A student reads through an article in a newspaper to get the overall idea of the article. What is this (practice) known as ?
(1) Skimming
(2) Top-down model
(3) Bottom-up model
(4) Scanning
Answer: (1)
109. Sight words are developed
(1) by teacher from text books.
(2) by using words in meaningful contexts
(3) by knowing meaning of difficult words.
(4) by seeing them on sight.
Answer: (2)
110. Language is
(1) a structure formed system
(2) a formation of words, rules and meanings
(3) a human system which changes frequently
(4) a rule governed system
Answer: (4)
111. ‘Comprehensible input’ as proposed by Krashen (1985) is
(1) exposing learners to language somewhat above their level.
(2) exposing learners to language below their level so that they can comprehend.
(3) enabling learners to read in many languages.
(4) enabling learners to comprehend ideas.
Answer: (1)
112. Extensive reading is
(1) reading for facts.
(2) reading to write.
(3) reading for pleasure and overall understanding of the text.
(4) reading in detail every word and idea for deep understanding.
Answer: (3)
113. A teacher keeps the students’ work of language use and uses it for assessing the learners’ achievement. What is this strategy for assessment known as ?
(1) Diagnostic test
(2) CCE
(3) Summative assessment
(4) Portfolio assessment
Answer: (4)
114. A teacher brought real life objects like a hammer, a screw driver and so on to her class. She asked her learners to describe the objects in five to seven sentences. What are the materials in language teaching known as ?
(1) Tools
(2) Language input
(3) Realia
(4) Teaching implements
Answer: (3)
115. Mother tongue based multilingualism advocates that
(1) learners begin their schooling in mother tongue and move on to add many (at least two) languages in school.
(2) learners begin with their state language and more on to English medium.
(3) learners learn their mother tongue, Hindi and English from Class-I.
(4) all learners learn in mother tongue only in primary school.
Answer: (1)
116. Which of the following statements are true of teaching of grammar?
(A) Teaching of rules at the initial stage does not lend much to language learning.
(B) Rules of grammar are essential during the formative years of language learning.
(C) Grammar teaching should move from meaning to form.
(D) Grammar teaching should move from form to meaning.
(1) Statements C and B are true.
(2) Statements A and C are true.
(3) Statements A and D are true.
(4) Statements B and D are true.
Answer: (2)
117. A teacher draws the attention of learners to individual sounds, words and then sentences while teaching the listening skill. What approach to listening does the teacher adopt?
(1) Elastic approach
(2) Communicative approach
(3) Bottom-up approach
(4) Top-down approach
Answer: (3)
118. A teacher along with her learners writes the names of objects in the classroom (like door, black board, windows etc) in their mother tongue and in English on pieces of paper and pastes them on the objects for learners to notice the words. What is the teacher trying to do?
(1) The teacher is creating a (print) language rich environment in the classroom.
(2) The teacher is trying to teach letters of alphabet.
(3) The teacher is creating a situation for the students to learn the spelling of the words.
(4) The teacher wants her learners to write well.
Answer: (1)
119. This is assumed to be a major difference between language acquisition and learning
(1) Language acquisition happens at an early stage while language learning takes place later.
(2) Language acquisition always happens in mother tongue and language learning happens in the second language.
(3) Language acquisition is meaning formation and language learning is making meaning.
(4) Language acquisition is natural and language learning is deliberate/instructed.
Answer: (4)
120. LAC stands for
(1) Languages Across the Cultures
(2) Language Acquisition of Content
(3) Language Across the Curriculum
(4) Language Acquisition Culture
Answer: (3)
Part-V
Language-II
English
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for English as Language – II only.
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (121 – 128) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
The other day I received an unusual and very gratifying gift : I was given a tree. Or rather, I was given half-a-dozen trees, which would be planted on my behalf. I had been invited to give a talk to an organization. After such events, the speaker is usually given a token gift. Sometimes the gift is that of a pen, or something useful. Often, the gift is in the form of a plaque or similar commemorative token. However well-meant, such gifts are destined to gather dust in forgotten corners. Which is why I was agreeably surprised to be given a scroll which attested that, in a designated plantation established for the purpose, six tress would be added in my name, as part of ‘green’ movement being sponsored by the organization.
In an increasingly environmentally conscious world, the gift of a living tree or plant makes for a perfect present. The tradition of giving and receiving gifts has increasingly become a highly evolved marketing exercise. Apart from festivals like Diwali, Holi, Christmas, Eid and others, a whole new calendar of celebratory events has been created to promote the giving of gifts : Mother’s Day, Father’s Day, Teacher’s Day, Valentine’s Day and so on and on.
What do you give to people – friends, relatives spouses, children, parents, employees, clients, well-wishers who have more or less everything, or at least everything that you cold afford to give them as a gift? Another shirt or kurta ? Another bottle of scent or aftershave? Another box of chocolates ? Another any other?
121. Why do you not very much care for it when you receive a shirt or a kurta as a gift?
(1) You already have so many of them.
(2) You don’t like the colour.
(3) You were not asked about your choice.
(4) The giver had to spend a lot of money.
Answer: (1)
122. The word ‘gratifying’ means
(1) satisfying
(2) giving
(3) fortifying
(4) annoying
Answer: (1)
123. The word ‘destined’ means :
(1) decided
(2) declined
(3) departed
(4) fated
Answer: (4)
124. Name the part of speech of the underlined word in the following clause.
Which is why. I was agreeably surprised.
(1) Adjective
(2) Pronoun
(3) Adverb
(4) Preposition
Answer: (2)
125. Identify the part of the following sentence which has an error in it.
Your claim ought
(a)
to succeed in that case
(b)
the damages
(c)
will be substantial
(d)
(1) (b)
(2) (c)
(3) (d)
(4) (a)
Answer: (1)
126. The writer was thrilled when he was given
(1) six trees
(2) a plaque
(3) a pen
(4) a tree
Answer: (2)
127. What usually happens to the gifts he/she receives?
(1) He gives them away as gifts to others.
(2) They are put away and forgotten.
(3) He keeps them religiously as mementoes.
(4) He uses them if he needs them.
Answer: (2)
128. The gift received by the writer was :
(1) environment friendly
(2) very expensive
(3) gathering dust in a corner
(4) a marketing exercise
Answer: (1)
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (129 – 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
With more then 3,000 languages currently spoken, English undoubtedly is amongst the richest of all languages. The Oxford English Dictionary lists about half a million words of which only 2,00,000 are frequently used. This is because, the balance 3,00,000 words are technical and not found in ordinary dictionaries. The only language that can come near English is Chinese.
A part from being the richest language, English also boasts of being one of the most widely spoken, second only to Mandarin Chinese. This remarkable achievement is only because of the one thing that we all love to do – copy ! ‘Siesta’ for example is of Spanish origin. ‘Sputnik’ as you must be aware of, has a Russian origin. ‘Restaurant’ is from France and ‘Super’ from Germany. Even before the birth of the ‘genius’ of ‘drama’, William Shakespeare, the words ‘genius’ and ‘drama’ were adapted from Greek. Now, you must be wondering if English has anything original about it. Well, find it out ! Did you ever try to find out how many different words of English we use in our daily life ? Try to guess and then read on. A modern novelist has a vocabulary of anywhere between ten to fifteen thousand words.
William Shakespear used thirty thousand words and the only writer to come close to him was James Joyce in ‘Ulysses’. We normally have a vocabulary of about ten thousand words of which only five thousand are used in everyday conversation. This leads to a limited variety of words. This is because we repeat a lot of words. In conversation and in writing, it is ‘the’. (Try counting it in this article and you will have proof of it.)
129. How many words are usually used by an English speaking person?
(1) 5,000
(2) 10,000
(3) 15,000
(4) 3,000
Answer: (1)
130. Which of the following words is most often used in English language?
(1) the
(2) is
(3) one
(4) a
Answer: (1)
131. The word that is similar in meaning to the word, ‘remarkable’ is :
(1) remedial
(2) remaining
(3) optional
(4) astonishing
Answer: (4)
132. The word that is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘ordinary’ is :
(1) complex
(2) special
(3) liable
(4) usual
Answer: (2)
133. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?
Did you ever try to find out?
(1) Adjective
(2) Pronoun
(3) Verb
(4) Adverb
Answer: (4)
134. English is the most widely used language in the world because :
(1) it is the richest language.
(2) it has taken words from other languages.
(3) it has half a million words in it.
(4) Shakespeare has written in English.
Answer: (2)
135. In our everyday conversation we use a limited number of words because :
(1) we are not a genius like Shakespeare.
(2) everybody is not highly educated.
(3) we repeat a lot of words.
(4) our vocabulary is unlimited.
Answer: (3)
Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options.
136. A teacher gives a puzzle to her class-VIII students and asks them to solve it by speaking out how they solve it. What is this strategy known as ?
(1) Think aloud protocol
(2) Listening
(3) Picture reading
(4) Speaking aloud
Answer: (1)
137. Sanskrit in India today is a
(1) Modern Indian language and a classical language
(2) Religious language
(3) Hindu language
(4) Modern Indian language
Answer: (1)
138. A teacher of Class-VII asked her students to read a short story and come to the class. She asks them to discuss the major points of the story in groups and present them to the whole class. What is this reading known as ?
(1) Reading with a purpose
(2) Reading for thinking
(3) Extensive reading
(4) Intensive reading
Answer: (3)
139. English does not find its place as a _______.
(1) second language in the school curriculum
(2) third language. in the school curriculum
(3) medium of instruction
(4) first language in the school curriculum
Answer: (4)
140. Bottom-up processing in listening is to
(1) decode the overall messages of the discourse and move down the micro level units.
(2) encode all the sounds from speaker to listener.
(3) use multiple ways to decode the messages.
(4) decode messages moving from sounds to words, phrases, clauses and other grammatical elements to sentences.
Answer: (4)
141. What is the following strategy known as in reading?
The text is read more slowly and in detail to get the gist or overall sense of the text.
(1) Summarising
(2) Skimming
(3) Scaffolding
(4) Scanning
Answer: (2)
142. A teacher asks her learners of class-VII to refer to the textbook of History and find a theme which can be connected with English language text for writing an essay.
What is this practice known as ?
(1) Language across the curriculum
(2) Language in learning
(3) Language and history integrated learning
(4) Language and Social Science learning
Answer: (1)
143. Multilingualism as a resource means
(1) using the languages of learners as a strategy in school.
(2) teaching many languages.
(3) promoting of languages through content learning.
(4) learning many languages in school.
Answer: (1)
144. Match the types of writing with their corresponding category :
(a) Personal writing
(b) Study writing
(c) Creative writing
(d) Public writing
(i) Letter of complaint
(ii) Diary writing
(iii) Synopsis writing
(iv) Travelogue
(1) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
(4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
Answer: (1)
145. A teacher divides her class into groups of five and allocates different themes to the groups. The groups have to collect information on the themes and write reports to be presented to the class. What is this activity known as ?
(1) Project work
(2) Writing work
(3) Research
(4) Assignment
Answer: (1)
146. Process approach to writing involves
(1) Brainstorming, writing the first draft and final writing.
(2) Outlining, revising and writing the final draft.
(3) Writing the first draft, revising and developing the final draft.
(4) Brainstorming, outlining, drafting revising, proof-reading and drafting the final writing.
Answer: (4)
147. Continuous Assessment focuses on
(1) Informal assessment
(2) Informal and a combination of both formative and summative
(3) Outcome and achievement based assessment
(4) Formal assessment
Answer: (2)
148. ‘Pre-reading’ activity in class is to
(1) connect learners’ with one another.
(2) enable learners to know about the story which they would read ahead.
(3) All of these
(4) connect learner’s previous knowledge with what she learns in the reading text.
Answer: (4)
149. Pedagogical Grammar is
(1) grammar for teachers
(2) grammar in context to connect grammar points with real life context
(3) grammar with formal rules to be applied while writing
(4) grammar of pedagogy
Answer: (2)
150. What are these words known as?
– the, of, and, a, to, that, it, with, but, they, she, he
(1) should be immediately corrected by asking them to do repeated practice
(2) are a part of leaning and give an insight into their thinking.
(3) are insignificant in the teaching learning process.
(4) reflect how careless children are
Answer: (2)
9. Assessment –
(1) should be a part of the teaching learning process.
(2) should be done only in terms of marks.
(3) should be based on objective type written tasks.
(4) should be undertaken as a separate activity.
Answer: (1)
10. In a constructivist frame, learning is –
(1) passive and individualistic.
(2) the process of acquisition of knowledge.
(3) a change in behaviour as a result of experience.
(4) active and social in its character.
Answer: (4)
11. When teachers have positive beliefs about students and their abilities, the students –
(1) become relaxed and stop putting in any efforts to learn.
(2) become demotivated and stressed.
(3) are not affected in any way.
(4) are eager and motivated to learn.
Answer: (4)
12. A teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by –
(1) giving them plenty of opportunities to answer similar kinds of questions from the textbook.
(2) emphasizing on rote memorization of the information given in the textbook.
(3) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and to look at multiple solutions to the problem.
(4) writing step-by-step solution to all the questions in the textbook.
Answer: (3)
13. Use of methods where learner’s own initiative and efforts are involved is an example of-
(1) Deductive method
(2) Learner-centered method
(3) Traditional method
(4) Inter-personal intelligence
Answer: (2)
14. What principle does the following highlight?
“Students who do not perform well, feel that they are not ‘good enough’ and feel demotivated. They are then likely to give u p easily without try9ing or persisting in doing tasks.”
(1) Cognition and emotions are not related.
(2) Heredity and environment are not separable.
(3) Heredity and environment are not related.
(4) Cognition and emotions are not separable.
Answer: (4)
15. Which of the following is the primary socializing agency?
(1) School
(2) Government
(3) Media
(4) Family
Answer: (4)
16. The major proposition of Jean Piaget’s theory is that –
(1) Children’s thinking is superior to adults.
(2) Children’s thinking is quantitatively different from adults.
(3) Children’s thinking is qualitatively different from adults.
(4) Children’s thinking is inferior to adults.
Answer: (3)
17. Gender is a/an-
(1) psychological entity
(2) social construct
(3) economic concept
(4) biological determinant
Answer: (2)
18. Which of the following correctly identifies the broad domains of development?
(1) Emotional; intellectual; spiritual and self
(2) Physical; personality; spiritual and emotional
(3) Social; physical; personality; self
(4) Physical; cognitive; social and emotional
Answer: (4)
19. Which of the following statements about intelligence is correct?
(1) Intelligence is a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of experience.
(2) Intelligence is hereditary trait that involves mental activities such as memory and reasoning.
(3) Intelligence is multi-dimensional involving several abilities not entirely measureable by intelligence tests.
(4) Intelligence is the ability to think convergently.
Answer: (3)
20. In progressive-education children are seen as-
(1) passive imitators
(2) active explorers
(3) blank slates
(4) miniature adults
Answer: (2)
21. According to Lev Vygotsky, learning is-
(1) an individual activity
(2) a passive activity
(3) a conditioned activity
(4) a social activity
Answer: (4)
22. Which of the following characterizes a child in the preoperational stage?
(1) Goal-directed behaviour
(2) Deferred Imitation
(3) Irreversibility of thought
(4) Circular reactions
Answer: (3)
23. Which of the following statements regarding children and their learning is correct?
(1) Children’s motivation to learn and their capability to learn is pre-determined by heredity only.
(2) Children’s socio-economic background determines and limits their motivation and learning capability.
(3) Children have to be rewarded and punished to make them motivated for learning.
(4) All children are naturally motivated to learn and are capable of learning.
Answer: (4)
24. There are individual variations in the rate of motor development, yet the sequence of motor development is from ______ to ______.
(1) proximodistal, cephalocaudal
(2) gross motor development; find motor development.
(3) fine motor development; gross motor development.
(4) cephalocaudal; proximodistal
Answer: (2)
25. The period that initiates the transition to adulthood is-
(1) Middle childhood
(2) Pre-operational period
(3) End childhood
(4) Adolescence
Answer: (4)
26. According to jean Piaget, children-
(1) learn by observing others following a process of observational learning.
(2) can be conditioned to behave in particular ways by carefully controlled stimulus – response associations.
(3) can be taught to behave and learn in specific manner u sing principles of rewards and punishment.
(4) actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore the world.
Answer: (4)
27. Lev Vygotsky refers to the verbal dialogues that children have with themselves as-
(1) private speech
(2) distorted speech
(3) problematic speech
(4) egocentric speech
Answer: (1)
28. Associating toys, articles of clothing, household items, occupations and colours with specific sex, is a demonstration of-
(1) gender stereotyping
(2) gender theory
(3) gender relevance
(4) evolved gender identity
Answer: (1)
29. In an elementary classroom it is important to_____ the experiences that child brings with her.
(1) neglect
(2) ignore
(3) build on
(4) deny
Answer: (3)
30. A child argues that Heinz shouldn’t steal the drug (medicine that can save his wife) because he will be caught and sent to jail if he does so. According to Kohlberg, which stage of moral understanding does the child fall under ?
(1) The social-order maintaining orientation
(2) The punishment and obedience orientation
(3) The universal ethical principle orientation
(4) The instrumental purpose orientation
Answer: (2)
PART-II
Mathematics
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
31. How will you cater to the needs of visually challenged students of your classroom in an inclusive school?
(1) Use alternate teaching-learning methods and resources.
(2) Send them to special educator.
(3) Provide them extra time for practise
(4) Make them ist with high achievers.
Answer: (1)
32. A Class-III student perform multiplication of 16 × 25 as follows :
16 × 25 = 8 × 2 × 5 × 5
= 8 × 5 × 2 × 5
= 40 × 10
= 400
Which property of multiplication has the student used in this question?
(1) Associative law
(2) Repeated addition
(3) Inverse multiplication law
(4) Distributive law
Answer: (1)
33. Which of the following is not related to early number concept?
(1) Class inclusion
(2) Conservation
(3) Measurement
(4) Classification
Answer: (3)
34. Which of the following statements is true regarding ‘Numeral’ and ‘Number’?
(A) A numeral is a symbol used to represent number.
(B) Same number can be represented by different numerals.
(1) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(2) (B) is correct and (A) is incorrect.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
Answer: (3)
35. Which of the following is not a mathematical process?
(1) Visualization
(2) Memorization
(3) Estimation
(4) Transposition
Answer: (2)
36. Read the following word problems on addition :
(A) There are 15 oranges in one basket and 17 oranges in another basket. How many oranges are there altogether?
(B) The price of a mobile phone which is for Rs 9,950 is increased by Rs 375 after budget. What is the new price?
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) ‘A’ represents ‘aggregation’ structure of addition whereas ‘B’ represents ‘augmentation’ structure of addition.
(2) Both represents aggregation structure of addition.
(3) Both represents augmentation structure of addition.
(4) ‘A’ represents augmentation structure of addition whereas ‘B’ represents aggregation structure of addition.
Answer: (1)
37. Identify the correct statement about the ability to conserve different physical quantities in ‘measurement’ as proposed by Piaget.
(1) Conservation of volume is grasped before conservation of mass.
(2) Conservation of weight is grasped before conservation of number.
(3) Conservation of length is grasped before conservation of number.
(4) Conservation of weight is grasped before conservation of volume.
Answer: (4)
38. A teacher gives the following task to the students of class-IV :
“Arrange 25 tiles in all possible rectangular arrays.”
Which of the following mathematical concepts can be addressed through this taks?
(1) Area, factors, perimeter
(2) Area, perimeter, volume
(3) Area, volume, length
(4) Volume, area, length
Answer: (1)
39. Which one of the following sets are Problem Solving Strategies in Mathematics?
(1) Drawing, working back, rote learning
(2) Reasoning, using variable, look for a pattern
(3) Memorization, Guess & test, drawing
(4) Trial-error, drawing, memorization
Answer: (2)
40. Van Hiele’s levels refers to stages in the development of
(1) Place value
(2) Geometrical thinking
(3) Fractions
(4) Number concept
Answer: (2)
41. As per the recommendation of NCF 2005, Primary School mathematics curriculum should
(1) focus on procedural knowledge
(2) provide rigour in mathematical concepts
(3) prepare children for advanced mathematics.
(4) relate to children’s everyday experiences.
Answer: (4)
42. Which of the following teaching learning resources is best suited to explain the concept of multiplication of two decimal numbers say 0.3 ×2 = 0.06 ?
(1) Taylor’s abacus
(2) Number chart
(3) Graph paper
(4) Dienes blocks
Answer: (3)
43. Which of the following is not an effective strategy to assess primary level students’ learning in mathematics?
(1) Analysing children’s errors to understand their reasoning.
(2) Designing tasks which elicit more than one level of response.
(3) Using primarily group administered tasks.
(4) Designing tasks to differentiate between rote memorization and conceptual understanding.
Answer: (3)
44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective mathematics pedagogy?
(1) Following strict time rules when introducing a new concept.
(2) Focussing patterns of students errors.
(3) Making connections with everyday experiences.
(4) Using various teaching-learning strategies for a single concept.
Answer: (1)
45. In a school, half of students play badminton, one-fourth (1/4th) play volleyball, one-eighth (1/8th) play tennis, one-sixteenth (1/16th) play chess and remaining go for swimming. If the number of students playing volleyball is 160, how many students play chess?
(1) 120
(2) 80
(3) 20
(4) 40
Answer: (4)
46. How many quarters are there in
(1) 75
(2) 72
(3) 35
(4) 68
Answer: (1)
47. Digits 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 are arranged in the following blanks :
____ _____ ____
+
____ _____ ____
The largest possible number after addition is
(1) 1605
(2) 1560
(3) 1308
(4) 808
Answer: (1)
48. Deepa goes to a post-office to post/mail letters and parcels. The postal rates depicted are as below :
Letter Weighing :
(i) 20 g or less – Rs 5.00
(ii) Per every additional 20 g – Rs 2.00
Parcel Weighing :
(i) 50 g or less – Rs 5.00
(ii) For every additional 50 g – Rs 3.00
Deepa wants to send two parcels weighing 250 g and 300 g respectively and two letters each to 20 g and 35 g respectively. How much postal charge does the have to pay?
(1) Rs 48
(2) Rs 39
(3) Rs 49
(4) Rs 41
Answer: (3)
49. A whole number is added to 50 and the same number subtracted from 50. The sum of the resulting numbers is
(1) 50
(2) 0
(3) 100
(4) 25
Answer: (3)
50. Read the following Railway timings of New Delhi – Chennai Rajdhani express and answer the question :
Station Arrival Departure
New Delhi __ 15:55
Bhopal 23:55 00:05
Nagpur 05:25 05:35
Vijaywada 14:15 14:30
Chennai 20:45 end
Which of the following statements is true?
(1) The duration of Journey from Nagpur to Chennai is 15 hr. 10 min.
(2) The duration of Journey from New Delhi to Nagpur is 11 hr. 30 min.
(3) The duration of Journey from Bhopal to Chennai is 21 hr. 40 min.
(4) The duration of Journey from Bhopal to Vijaywada is 13 hr. 10 min.
Answer: (1)
51. Which of the following represents descending order of numbers?
(1) 305, 3.50, 3.055, 3.05, 3.005, 0.355
(2) 30.5, 3.50, 3.05, 3.055, 3.005, 0.355
(3) 30.5, 3.05, 3.055, 3.50, 3.005, 0.355
(4) 3.05, 3.005, 3.50, 3.055, 30.5, 0.355
Answer: (1)
52. A shopkeeper mixed 5.3 kg of almonds, 2100 g of raisin, 2.2 kg of cashews and packed the mixture equally into two dozen packets. What is the weight to each packet?
(1) 400 g
(2) 450 g
(3) 500 g
(4) 300 g
Answer: (1)
53. A beaker is 3/7th filled with water. Another 16 L of water is needed to fill the beaker to its brim. What is the capacity of the beaker?
(1) 50 L
(2) 100 L
(3) 28 L
(4) 14 L
Answer: (3)
54. Asha plans to save some money from household expenditure to buy a mobile phone. Every week she saves Rs 50 on Monday, Rs 100 on Wednesday and Rs 80 on Friday and spends Rs 60 from this on Sunday. How many weeks would she take to save enough to buy a mobile phone of Rs 5,950?
(1) 35
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 25
Answer: (1)
55. What number am I ?
I am a 2 digit even number.
I am common multiple of 3, 4, 6.
I have total 9 factors.
(1) 56
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 48
Answer: (3)
56. The side of a square is 10 cm. How many times will the new perimeter become if the side of the square is doubled?
(1) 4 times
(2) 3 times
(3) 2 times
(4) Remains same
Answer: (3)
57. Which of the following letters have both horizontal and vertical lines of symmetry?
(1) X
(2) C
(3) Y
(4) A
Answer: (1)
58. If (11011)2 = (________)10, then number in the blank space is
(1) 27
(2) 30
(3) 33
(4) 22
Answer: (1)
59. What is the correct sequence a teacher of Class-III needs to follow to explain the concept of ‘Quarter’ (1/4) to the students?
(A) Write symbol of Quarter on black board.
(B) Provide concrete material and divides into Quarters.
(C) Show pictures representing ‘Quarter’.
(1) (A), (C), (B)
(2) (B), (C), (A)
(3) (C), (A), (B)
(4) (A), (B), (C)
Answer: (2)
60. 72 × 28 = 36 × 4 ×
The number in the blank is
(A) multiple of 7
(B) a prime number
(C) less than 10
(D) an even number
(E) factor of 56
Which of the following is correct?
(1) (A), (D), (B)
(2) (C), (D), (E)
(3) (A), (D), (E)
(4) (A), (B), (C)
Answer: (3)
Part-III
Environmental Studies
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/mot appropriate options.
61. We all observe old wells which have dried up. Our elders say that about 25-30 years ago there was sufficient water in the wells, but now these have completely dried up. Select from the following the possible correct reasons for drying up of water in the wells.
(A) The lakes (ponds) in which rain water used to collect are no longer there.
(B) The soil round the trees, well and nearby area is now covered with coaltar/cement.
(C) No one uses wells as there are taps in every house.
(D) A number of electric motor driven pumps have come up to draw underground water.
(1) B, C and D
(2) C, D and A
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (3)
62. In EVS concepts and issues have not been compartmentalized into science and social science. Why?
(1) The child looks at her/his environment is holistic manner.
(2) It is a good teaching-learning strategy.
(3) It is for decreasing the syllabus load.
(4) Syllabus of EVS has been prescribed as such by CBSE.
Answer: (1)
63. In which one of the following cities the mountains of sand called “Sand Dunes” are found?
(1) Abu Dhabi
(2) Berlin
(3) Thimpu
(4) Kabul
Answer: (1)
64. In EVS themes have been proposed instead of topics in the syllabus. Why?
(1) To enhance the environmental comprehension of the learners.
(2) For developing connected and interrelated understanding of issues of the learners’ local environment.
(3) Theme based EVS transaction is easy as compared to the topics.
(4) For reducing chapters in EVS.
Answer: (2)
65. Which one of the following is not one of the six broad themes of EVS in the present syllabus?
(1) Shelter
(2) Things we make and do.
(3) Work and play
(4) Food
Answer: (3)
66. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS subject for classes I and II?
(1) Issues and concerns related to EVS are transacted through language and mathematics.
(2) EVS is a new subject introduced at the classes I to II.
(3) EVS as subject is not easy to understand at classes I and II.
(4) Issues and concerns related to EVS are transacted through language.
Answer: (1)
67. Which one of the following is very important in constructing knowledge in EVS?
(A) Active participation of the learner.
(B) Relating child’s knowledge with the teachers knowledge.
(C) Learning EVS outside the four walls of the classroom.
(D) Relating child’s local knowledge to the school knowledge.
(1) D only
(2) A only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, C and D
Answer: (4)
68. The most effective strategy to engage learners in EVS is ______.
(1) Reading of textbook
(2) Explanation by teacher
(3) Classroom Demonstration
(4) Narratives
Answer: (4)
69. Which one of the following is not true w.r.t EVS?
(1) EVS is based on child centred learning.
(2) EVS provides opportunities to the learners to explore their environment.
(3) EVS emphasizes descriptions and definitions.
(4) Nature of EVS is integrated.
Answer: (3)
70. A teacher always begins by conducting activities followed by questions and discussions. The objective of conducting activities, questions and discussion is to ______.
(A) Assess the children’s process skills
(B) Provide an opportunity to the children to explore
(C) Provide an opportunity to the children to express themselves
(D) Discriminate between the children bases on their pace of learning
(1) C only
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) D only
Answer: (3)
71. Children should be encouraged to tap sources other than textbooks and teachers in EVS. Why ?
(A) Textbook and teacher are not the only sources of EVS learning.
(B) It will promote the involvement of parents and communities.
(C) It will provide opportunity to teachers to know the child’s background.
(D) It will develop psychomotor skills and aesthetic sense of the children.
(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) C and D only
(4) B and C only
Answer: (1)
72. Which of the following should not be the indicator for assessment in EVS?
(1) Co-operation
(2) Remembering
(3) Questioning
(4) Concern for justice and equality
Answer: (2)
73. In EVS, teachers should provide opportunities to the children to assess themselves. Self-assessment is _______.
(1) Assessment as learning
(2) Assessment of learning
(3) Assessment for learning
(4) CCE
Answer: (1)
74. A teacher conducts an experiment on “How does food get spoilt?”
Teacher makes groups of learners and provides them material related to the experiment. Why does teacher form groups of learners?
(A) It promotes peer learning.
(B) It improves social interaction.
(C) Group learning is effective way of learning EVS without burden.
(D) Group learning is an essential strategy to maintain discipline in the class.
(1) C and D only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) A and B only
Answer: (4)
75. Which of the following is not the objective of teaching EVS?
(1) To develop an awareness about environmental issues.
(2) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities.
(3) To encourage children to provide textbook definitions.
(4) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child.
Answer: (3)
76. Picture reading is an important activity in EVS. Which of the following indicator/indicators of learners can be assessed through picture reading?
(A) Observation and recording
(B) Expression
(C) Analysis
(D) Experimentation
(1) A, B and C
(2) A and C only
(3) A and B only
(4) D only
Answer: (1)
77. Which technique is used in the rating scale?
(1) Observation
(2) Checklist
(3) Assignments
(4) Written question
Answer: (1)
78. Consider the following statements about the practices followed under “Jhoom farming”:
(A) After obtaining one set of crops the land is left as it is for some years.
(B) The bamboo or weeds which grow on the land are pulled out and burnt.
(C) The ash obtained on burning the weeds etc. is used as fertilizer.
(D) When the land is ready for farming it is deeply ploughed before dropping the seeds.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) only D
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) only A
Answer: (4)
79. In a hilly area it was observed that the people have built their houses using stones, mud, lime and wood. These houses have two floors. On the ground floor they provide space for animals to live and also store necessary things, on the first floor they stay. The roofs of the houses are flat and made of thick tree trunks. This hilly area is a part of
(1) Meghalaya
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (3)
80. It is believed that the animals that are awake at night can see objects only in
(1) green and yellow
(2) orange and red
(3) black and white
(4) violet and blue
Answer: (3)
81. Earthworms are considered friends of the farmers. Select from the following the correct reasons for the same :
(A) Earthworms eat the dead leaves and plants and their droppings fertilize the soil.
(B) Earthworms eat the weeds and save the main crop.
(C) Earthworms soften the soil by digging underneath.
(D) The tunnels made by the earthworms provide easy passage to air and water into the soil.
(1) B, C and D
(2) C, D and A
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (2)
82. Tribal people have been using bronze to make many things since thousand of years. Bronze is still used in our houses. Select from the following the most correct statements about bronze.
(1) It is a mixture of copper and brass.
(2) It is a mixture of copper, zinc and aluminium.
(3) It is a mixture of copper and tin.
(4) It is an element like aluminium and copper.
Answer: (3)
83. Boiled tapioca with any curry made using coconut is a preferred food of the people of
(1) West Bengal
(2) Bihar
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Kerala
Answer: (4)
84. Select from the following a set of festivals celebrated on the full-moon day.
(1) Holi, Mahashivratri, Buddhajayanti
(2) Holi, Rakshabandhan, Guru Nanak’s Birthday
(3) Diwali, Mahashivratri, Guru Nanak’s Birthday
(4) Diwali, Guru Nanak’s Birthday, Rakshabandhan
Answer: (2)
85. Which one of the following groups of states has a coast on Arabian sea?
(1) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha
(2) Kerala, Karnataka, West Bengal
(3) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka
(4) Karnataka, Kerala, Gujarat
Answer: (4)
86. Where is Jharkhand located on the map of our country?
(1) East of West Bengal
(2) North of Odisha
(3) South-East of Chhattisgarh
(4) West of Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (2)
87. Which of the following is NOT obtained from petroleum?
(1) Wax
(2) Grease
(3) Coal
(4) Diesel
Answer: (3)
88. A boy boarded a train on 30th June, 2019 at Madgaon for Nagarcoil, The train departed at 09:45 hours from Madgaon and reached Nagarcoil at 07:15 hours on the next day. If the distance covered by the train during this time interval is 1140 km, the average speed of the train was
(1) 53 km/h
(2) 54.5 km/h
(3) 57 km/h
(4) 51.5 km/h
Answer: (1)
89. In one of the forests of our country the village council (Panchayat) allots the land to the forest people (Adivasis) for farming in a special unit called ‘tin’. What is tin?
(1) A land on which a farmer grows one tin of seeds
(2) A land from which a farmer produces one tin of seeds
(3) A unit of land specially designed for the farmers of the forests.
(4) A land with dimensions 100 m × 100 m
Answer: (1)
90. You are located at X and your school is located at Y. There is no straight path from your house to school. So, you first go to A which is 30 m due north of X, then go to B which is 40 m due west of A, then go to C which is 30 m due north of B and finally you reach your school at Y which his 40 m due west of C. With respect to your school the correct direction of your house is
(1) Due South
(2) Due East
(3) South-East
(4) North-West
Answer: (3)
Part-IV
Language-I
English
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part-IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE-I only.
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (91 to 99) :
The future of water will be a gamble – resting entirely on the way we decide to pay the game here. Either we continue to use water irresponsibly, threatening the very existence of this planet, or we adopt sustainable and smart water management practices to build a water secure future.
By 2050, India’s total water demand will increase by 32 percent from now. Industrial and domestic sectors will account for 85 percent of the additional demand. Over-exploitation of ground-water, failure to recharge acquifers and reduction in catchment capacities due to uncontrolled urbanization are all causes of the precarious tilt in the water balance.
If the present rate of groundwater persists, India will have only 22 percent of the present daily per capita water available in 2050, possibly forcing the country to import its water.
Optimists believe that India’s people some 1.7 billion by 2050, will have integrated water efficient practices into their daily lives. If the ambitious water sustainability goals set by global industries and governments are testament we dare say that the world has begun to recognize water as a resource after all.
While beverages giants are focussed on returning water to the communities where they manufacture their drinks, food processing players are engaging with farmers and upstream actors to minimize water usage across the supply claim and textile houses are evangelizing the concept of sustainable fashion. Companies have realized the risk emanating from the possibility of a water-scarce future. This has triggered companies to re-engineer processes, implement water optimizing, technologies, establish water audit standards, and use a collaborative approach to deal with the water crisis.
91. The problem of acute water scarcity in future cannot be dealt with by companies through
(1) implementing water optimizing technologies
(2) discovering a viable substitute for water.
(3) re-engineering processes
(4) establishing water audit standards.
Answer: (2)
92. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘threatening’ as used in the passage?
(1) menacing
(2) coercing
(3) persisting
(4) frightening
Answer: (1)
93. Which one of the following words is most opposite to the meaning of the word ‘increase’ as used in the passage?
(1) perceive
(2) achieve
(3) relieve
(4) decrease
Answer: (4)
94. Identify the clause in the underlined part of the following sentence :
He breathed his last in the village where he was born.
(1) Adjective clause
(2) Adverb clause
(3) Principal clause
(4) Noun clause
Answer: (1)
95. What part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence?
I do not know why he is so curious about it.
(1) Noun clause
(2) Principal clause
(3) Adverb clause
(4) Adjective clause
Answer: (1)
96. We will face a severe water-scarcity problem in future mostly because :
(1) water is not renewable source.
(2) by 2050, demand for water will increase considerably.
(3) we do not use water responsibly.
(4) ground-water level water is steadily decreasing.
Answer: (1)
97. Which of the following will NOT lead to severe water imbalance?
(1) over-exploitation of water.
(2) failure to recharge acquifers.
(3) uncontrolled urbanization
(4) flawless water infrastructure
Answer: (4)
98. Persistent ground water depletion will NOT necessitate:
(1) shutting down of industries
(2) adoption of smart water management technologies
(3) using water judiciously
(4) import of water
Answer: (1)
99. Optimists cannot pin their hope for better water management on :
(1) reducing demand for water by using new technologies.
(2) discovering new ways of augmenting water supply.
(3) treating sea water for domestic and industrial sectors.
(4) integrating water efficient practices into daily use.
Answer: (3)
Directions: Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
All creations drinks with pleasure,
Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast;
All the just, and all the evil,
Follow down her rosy path.
Kisses she bestowed, and grape wine,
Friendship true, proved e’en in death;
Every worm knows nature’s pleasure,
Every cherub meets his God.
Gladly, like the planets flying
True to heaven’s mighty plan,
Brothers, run you course now,
Happy as a knight in victory.
100. What is the hallmark of a true friend?
(1) He helps you to enjoy the fruits of nature.
(2) He proves true even in death.
(3) He can take on all the evils for you.
(4) He saves you from troubles.
Answer: (2)
101. Rosy path is followed by _______.
(1) the evil
(2) both just and evil
(3) neither the just nor the evil
(4) the just
Answer: (2)
102. Identify and name the figure of speech used in ‘All creation ‘Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast”’.
(1) Simile
(2) Personification
(3) Alliteration
(4) Metonymy
Answer: (2)
103. What does the expressions, “Brothers, run your course now’ mean?
(1) Don’t let failures upset you.
(2) Seek god’s help when you are in difficulty.
(3) Cultivate a positive attitude to life.
(4) Keep on moving towards your goal.
Answer: (4)
104. How can we say that God’s creatures are most fortunate and happy?
(1) They have no friends to share their joys and sorrows.
(2) They do not have enough pleasures at their disposal.
(3) They have a benevolent Mother Nature to look after them.
(4) The world they live in lacks romance and beauty.
Answer: (3)
105. Which of the following does not support the idea that Mother Nature’s love embraces all?
(1) She bestows kisses on all her children.
(2) She loves all the just but not all the evil.
(3) She also blesses us with true friendship.
(4) All creation drinks at Mother Nature’s heart.
Answer: (2)
Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options.
106. Which of the following classroom practices helps a teacher to develop oral language among the students?
(1) Chorus recitation/individual recitation of the poem after memorizing it.
(2) Participating in role-plays on any one of their favourite scenes.
(3) Practising the correct pronunciation of new or unfamiliar words.
(4) Chorus reading of the text with the teacher.
Answer: (2)
107. In a constructivist classroom language learning would most importantly be based on :
(1) minute observation and record of each child’s handwriting development.
(2) correction of spelling errors and making sure that they are not repeated.
(3) carefully completing the language syllabus.
(4) group discussion and peer interaction.
Answer: (4)
108. As a language teacher which one of the following is most important for you regarding teaching of grammar?
(1) Avoiding grammar rules.
(2) Using functional approach.
(3) Using grammar translation method.
(4) Memorising grammar rules.
Answer: (2)
109. Which one of the following is a correct statement about a textbook?
(1) A textbook is the final thing for the teacher.
(2) It helps to achieve the objectives laid down in the curriculum.
(3) The textbooks are the only source to read.
(4) It is planning of educational activities for the session.
Answer: (2)
110. The purpose of diagnostic test in language learning is to
(1) fill the progress report of students.
(2) plan and prepare question paper for summative assessment.
(3) know the gaps in learners understanding
(4) give feedback to the parents in the PTMs.
Answer: (3)
111. The purpose of Continuous Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) in language is :
(1) to assess their learning gaps.
(2) to give regular tests i.e. weekly tests.
(3) to assess the level of competencies achieved by the children.
(4) to assess the students’ understanding of the textbook.
Answer: (ALL)
112. Under which act did English get the status of the associate official language?
(1) Associate Official Language Act, Article-343
(2) Three Language Formula
(3) National Curriculum Framework
(4) Official Language Act, Article-343
Answer: (4)
113. A teacher is appreciating a child for his ‘overall language use’, though some of the words were missplet by him. The teacher is using ______ approach in her class.
(1) Communicative
(2) Constructivist
(3) Whole language
(4) Structural
Answer: (ALL)
114. Which approach lays a lot of emphasis on habit formation?
(1) Communicative approach
(2) Behaviouristic approach
(3) Eclectic approach
(4) Cognitive approach
Answer: (2)
115. In the context of ‘theory of multiple intelligence’ which one of the following intelligences is related to language?
(1) Fluency-Accuracy Intelligence
(2) Linguistic-Verbal Intelligence
(3) Vocabulary Grammar Intelligence
(4) Visual-Spatial Intelligence
Answer: (2)
116. Banishing mother tongue in the classroom is the characteristic feature of ______ method.
(1) Bi-lingual
(2) Grammar translation
(3) Natural
(4) Direct
Answer: (4)
117. ______ deals with the level of meaning in language.
(1) Semantics
(2) Collocation
(3) Colloquial
(4) Syntax
Answer: (1)
118. A Hindi speaking teacher gets posted in a primary school which is in the area of Punjab. Since he doesn’t know the local language of that area. He should :
(1) motivated the community to learn Hindi, as it’s a national/official language.
(2) communicate in English as it is difficult for him to understand their local dialect.
(3) use the child’s language as a resource and start teaching.
(4) apply for the transfer to a Hindi speaking area.
Answer: (3)
119. While designing a working activity for a language class a teacher should most importantly focus on :
(1) giving clear instructions for the task.
(2) providing all the necessary vocabulary required for the task.
(3) assigning an authentic piece of writing task.
(4) choosing a topic from their surroundings.
Answer: (4)
120. Some children do not have exposure to English outside the classroom. So, the teacher’s proficiency in spoken English is essential because :
(1) the teacher can edit the errors in student’s learning process.
(2) the students may listen to and process the new language before they actually communicate in it.
(3) students can imitate, practice and drill the statements or sentences used by the teacher.
(4) the teacher can give more time to grammar drills
Answer: (2)
Part-V
Language-II
English
IMPORTANT : Candidate should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE-II only.
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options :
On an ordinary workday, 27-year-old Pramila Bariki hikes up steep slopes across fields, through ankle-deep rivulets, often walking upto 14 kms. She gets a ride until the road is motorable, from which point she has to walk.
Her job ? She doles out healthcare advice to mothers and children in the remotest hamlets in the Araku valley of Andhra Pradesh.
Now heavily pregnant Pramila has had to slow down delegating tasks to Duridi, Neeraj, Sunita and others. It’s they who now walk through forests and climb up mountains, visiting families to identify pregnant women and conduct basic tests for diabetes and anaemia and connect them with a primary health centre whenever necessary.
These young tribal women are all trained auxiliary nurses, part of an experimental health project in Araku that aims to end preventable deaths during childbirth or infancy.
The Araku valley is home to several nomadic tribes who live in small clusters of 70 to 150 homes situated in rugged and inaccessible terrain. Until a few years ago these communities were unaware of government healthcare policies. The death of a child or a woman during pregnancy or child birth was common and they were resigned to it.
Today 38women like Pramila drawn from these tribes, have broken social and cultural barriers to train as nurses and provide medical care to 1179 hamlets across the Araku, Paderu and Chintapalli mandals, Since they are from these communities they have been able create trust in the families and neighbours about formal healthcare. As a result these remote villages have now had the first childbirth in hospital, the first delivery by a trained nurse and the first mother not lose a child.
The nurses advise women on hygiene and nutrition and convince them to visit the nearest health centre for further check-ups.
121. Read the following statements :
(A) Child mortality rate in the tribal areas was very high in the past.
(B) Pramila and her colleagues are rendering invaluable services to the tribal women.
(1) B is true, A is false.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) Both A and B are true.
(4) A is true, B is false.
Answer: (3)
122. Which one of the following words is similar in meaning to ‘remotest’ as used in the passage?
(1) farthest
(2) highest
(3) tallest
(4) toughest
Answer: (1)
123. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to ‘trust’ as used in the passage?
(1) distrust
(2) disrupt
(3) dismantle
(4) disdain
Answer: (1)
124. He could not clear the exam because he didn’t work hard.
Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence given above :
(1) Adjective clause
(2) Noun clause
(3) Principal clause
(4) Adverb clause
Answer: (4)
125. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ?
The sudden riseand fall of prices
(a) (b)
make a businessvery uncertain
(c) (d)
(1) (b)
(2) (c)
(3) (d)
(4) (a)
Answer: (2)
126. The job of the auxiliary nurses is physically challenging because they :
(1) are not paid any renumeration for their work.
(2) have to walk through forests and up mountains to reach out to people.
(3) are not liked by the people whom they want to help.
(4) have to face opposition from the local traditional healers.
Answer: (2)
127. The health project launched in the tribal areas aims to :
(1) raise the living standard in the tribal areas.
(2) provide nutrition to women and children
(3) provide employment alongwith education.
(4) prevent deaths during pregnancy and child birth.
Answer: (4)
128. The tribal people trust the health workers mostly because they :
(1) are educated and soft-spoken.
(2) help them settle their domestic disputes.
(3) belong to their own community.
(4) help them get employment.
Answer: (3)
Directions : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 129 to 135) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options :
Kaizen in Japanese means constant and never ending improvement. There is no pursuit more noble or important than the pursuit more noble or important than the pursuit of self-improvement. As Confucius said many years ago : “Good people strengthen themselves ceaselessly”. Consistent and constant improvement in all areas is essential to reach your true potential. The personal trademark of almost every high achiever and successful person is a dedication to daily improvement in both their personal and professional lives. From Ben Franklin to Mahatma Gandhi, from Martin Luther King Jr. to Ivan Lendl and from Nelson Mandela to Mother Teresa, effective people do things daily to advance confidently in the direction of their goals and dreams.
You must also apply the Kaizen principle on a daily basis to condition your mind to peak performance. It has been said that the mind is a terrible master but a wonderful servant. By seeking to improve your mind and condition it to excellence of thought, this wonderful servant will most certainly bring you all the peace, prosperity and joy you now search for.
Study any person’s great success story and you will undoubtedly learn of their commitment to Kaizen. They will be dedicated to small, daily improvements in the key areas of their lives and become the very best that they could be. Personal mastery is like a bank account, call it the Personal Excellence Account. By improving daily, whether it is by spending some time exercising, reading, visualizing or forging better relationships, you are making regular deposits into your account. After only one month, for example, you will have improved the richness and quality of your world by at least 30%.
129. Read the following sentences :
(A) All successful people are committed to Kaizen.
(B) If we can control our mind, it will serve us wonderfully.
(1) A is true and B is false.
(2) Both A and B are true.
(3) Both A and B are false.
(4) A is false and B is true.
Answer: (2)
130. Which word is the most similar in meaning to the word, ‘trademark’ used in the passage?
(1) object
(2) subject
(3) brand
(4) item
Answer: (3)
131. Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word, ‘wonderful’ as used in the passage?
(1) deficient
(2) unremarkable
(3) insufficient
(4) separate
Answer: (2)
132. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ?
Since time immemorialthe Hindus
(a) (b)
have been worshippingthe river Ganga
(c) (d)
(1) (b)
(2) (c)
(3) (d)
(4) (a)
Answer: (4)
133. How, according to the author, can we attain our full potential?
(1) by proper and ceaseless improvement in all areas.
(2) by seeking the advice and guidance of successful people.
(3) by working hard on our weaknesses
(4) by putting in a lot of effort.
Answer: (1)
134. What is common among the great people mentioned in para-1?
(1) They worked hard to alleviate the suffering of the downtrodden.
(2) They tried their best to realize their goals.
(3) They resisted every temptation.
(4) They inspired all those who came into contact with them.
Answer: (2)
135. How do we stand to gain when we condition our minds to do our best ?
(1) We rise in the estimation of our friends.
(2) We are able to overcome all obstacles.
(3) We realize our full capability.
(4) We earn name, fame and wealth.
Answer: (3)
Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options.
136. The study of how words combine to form phrases, phrases combine to form clauses and clauses join to make sentences is known as
(1) Syntax
(2) Collocation
(3) Colloquial
(4) Semantics
Answer: (1)
137. English language has _______ consonant sounds.
(1) 22
(2) 23
(3) 24
(4) 21
Answer: (3)
138. According to National Curriculum Framework, 2005, “English in India is _____ in a multilingual country.
(1) a foreign language
(2) a global language
(3) an associate language
(4) a first language
Answer: (2)
139. A teacher divides the class in small groups and asks them to discuss and present their views on “Save Environment”. Students are free to plan and present their choice and creativity. The teacher is facilitating them as and when required. Which approach/method is followed in the class?
(1) Structural approach
(2) Natural approach
(3) Deductive approach
(4) Constructivist approach
Answer: (4)
140. A teacher of class-IV brought some interesting books and distributed them among the students. Then she said, “Today let’s have fun and read these books for our pleasure”. This reading is called
(1) Post-reading
(2) Intensive-reading
(3) Extensive-reading
(4) Pre-reading
Answer: (3)
141. A 2½ year old child picks up his sibling’s book and looking at the pictures tells a story. The child is
(1) emergent student
(2) emergent reader
(3) emergent story writer
(4) emergent writer
Answer: (2)
142. A teacher of class-III finds that some students understand the concept more clearly when she explains them orally. Their learning style is
(1) visual
(2) kinesthetic
(3) aesthetic
(4) auditory
Answer: (4)
143. A teacher asks the students to read the text for information and create their own interpretation beyond the literal level. Which sub-skill is she practicising in the class?
(1) Predicting
(2) Inferring
(3) Summarising
(4) Paraphrasing
Answer: (2)
144. Story telling and listening to stories play an important role because stories.
(1) use many structures of grammar and help children to learn them.
(2) present language as a whole.
(3) help the teacher to maintain classroom discipline.
(4) help to teach and learn new and difficult words.
Answer: (2)
145. Before starting a new chapter on ‘The Honest Woodcutter’ the teacher started a discussion with t he students on ‘Honesty’. What is the teacher trying to achieve with this activity?
(1) Activate students’ skill.
(2) Activate students’ previous knowledge
(3) Assess students’ level of language and its usage.
(4) Activate students’ attention.
Answer: (2)
146. A child got admission to a new school. The teacher was surprised to see that she would speak four languages fluently but could not speak in English. She is a
(1) bilingual
(2) multilingual
(3) linguist
(4) monolingual
Answer: (2)
147. A student of class-V while reading a chapter finds some difficult and unfamiliar words and is not able to get the meaning of those words he should :
(1) ignore or skip the word and keep reading.
(2) guess the meaning in content.
(3) ask his classmate every time to help.
(4) ask the teacher.
Answer: (2)
148. A teacher of class-V wishes to teach a complex language structure from the syllabus. She should
(1) not teach the complex structure and avoid it.
(2) focus on listening speaking practice instead of teaching grammar.
(3) use a grammar game with a focus on this complex structure.
(4) ask students to memorize the rules.
Answer: (3)
149. As per Noam Chomsky’s theory, the role of Language Acquisition Device (LAD) helps children to
(1) communicate actively in second language.
(2) generate grammar rules.
(3) imitate the language spoken by adults.
(4) learn second language easily.
Answer: (2)
150. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) It is difficult to teach English as they use their first language in every aspect and ignore English.
(2) As a teacher you would like to give a list of English words on the very first day.
(3) Children come to school with a treasure of experience and their mother tongue acts like a resource in learning English.
(4) Children’s first language is a hurdle in learning English.
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Setting a high price when the market is price – insensitive is referred as
(A) Prestige-pricing
(B) Market-skimming pricing
(C) Market-penetration pricing
(D) Discriminatory pricing
Answer: (A)
2. Name the type of the tour where an organiser accompanies the group for arrangements :
(A) Executive Tour
(B) Entertainer Tour
(C) Escorted Tour
(D) Extra-costed Tour
Answer: (B)
3. When integration occurs between companies offering complementary rather than competitive products, it is known as
(A) Horizontal integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Forward integration
(D) Concentric diversification
Answer: (B)
4. Assertion (A) : International tourists arrivals grew by 5% worldwide in 2013 reaching 1087 million arrivals.
Reason (R) : China has consolidated its position as number one source market in the world.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
5. When buyers are divided into groups on their knowledge, attitude and use on response to a product, it is known as
(A) Behavioural market segmentation
(B) Psychographic market segmentation
(C) Geographic market segmentation
(D) Demographic market segmentation
Answer: (A)
6. Which of the following drives is not a part of McClelland’s theory of motivation ?
(A) Need for Enrichment
(B) Need for Achievement
(C) Need for Power
(D) Need for Affiliation
Answer: (D)
7. Service providers communicating their level of service through their pricing is termed as
(A) Market Segmentation
(B) Market Targeting
(C) Market Tracking
(D) Market Positioning
Answer: (A)
8. Assertion (A) : Applied research is usually constrained by set time schedules.
Reason (R) : Applied research addresses some particular problems or attempts to achieve a particular set of outcomes.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
9. The flagship of ITDC hotels is
(A) the Brahmputra Ashok
(B) the Kalinga Ashok
(C) the Ashok, Delhi
(D) the Pataliputra Ashok
Answer: (A)
10. What is the difference between a bar chart and a histogram ?
(A) A histogram does not show the entire range of scores in a distribution.
(B) Bar chart is circular where as histogram is square.
(C) There are no gaps between the bars on a histogram.
(D) Bar charts represent numbers, where as histograms represent percentage.
Answer: (B)
11. In the new product development, write down the commercial steps that would be followed in order :
I. Test Marketing
II. Business analysis
III. Generation of new product ideas
IV. Screening and evaluation of Ideas
Codes :
(A) II, I, III, IV
(B) III, IV, I, II
(C) I, II, III, IV
(D) III, IV, II, I
Answer: (D)
12. Suez Canal links the following two Seas :
(A) Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea
(B) Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
(C) Mediterranean and Red Seas
(D) Pacific and Southern Oceans
Answer: (D)
13. Identify the country to which the High Skilled Migrant Programme (HSMP) VISA is applicable
(A) United Arab Emirates
(B) Australia
(C) United States of America
(D) United Kingdom
Answer: (A)
14. The major achievement of IATA in air-transportation is
(A) one world, one formula and one currency
(B) one phone call, one journey ticket and one currency
(C) one phone call, one organisation and one currency
(D) one world, one regulation and one currency
Answer: (B)
15. Items of List – I and List – II pertain to type of financial ratios and their utility. Candidate has to match an item in one list with the appropriate item in the other list :
Answer: (D)
16. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) The number of visits to a destination is the best indication of the value of tourism to the destination.
(B) Total tourist nights are a better indication of the impact of tourism on a destination than total tourists arrivals.
(C) Average daily expenditure provides an indication of the quality of tourist traffic to most destination.
(D) Average expenditure per visit is a better indication of the quality of tourist traffic to a destination than average length of stay.
Answer: (D)
17. Rani-ki Vav, one of the finest example of Step Well at Patan, Gujarat was constructed by
(A) Rani Rupmati
(B) Rani Karnavati
(C) Rani Udaimati
(D) Rani Dewal Rani
Answer: (C)
18. Determine the international Sale Indicator for the international journey from LAX-DEL (Los Angeles to Delhi) for which ticket is sold in Chicago and issued in Montreal
(A) SITI
(B) SITO
(C) SOTO
(D) SOTI
Answer: (C)
19. The features of condominium hotels are
(i) Time sharing ownership is similar to condominium.
(ii) Each unit of condominium hotels has multiple owners.
(iii) The condominium management rents units according to the desires of the owners.
(iv) The purchaser does not buy real estate, but the long term right to use it.
The candidate has to find out the correct combination according to the code :
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer: (A)
20. A tour guide should not be a tour guide if he does not know
(A) History of monuments
(B) Travel route of a visiting place
(C) Names of all the members of a tour group
(D) How much fee he will receive
Answer: (A)
21. Tourism is a complex business that depends on the linkages of various components such as
I. Natural Environment and Resources
II. Tourist Arrivals
III. Per Capita Income of Locals
IV. Support Services
Use the following codes given to choose the correct combination of components :
Codes :
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) I, III, IV and not II
(C) I, II, IV and not III
(D) II, III, IV and not I
Answer: (ALL OPTIONS CORRECT)
22. The term ‘community tourism’ refers to
(A) tourism within the Asian community
(B) an approach to tourism in which local residents participate in its planning and development
(C) tourist group of a single community
(D) group visits between ‘twinned’ town and cities in different countries
Answer: (A)
23. Total number of guests staying in the hotel at a particular time is known as
(A) House limit
(B) In-house limit
(C) Plus position
(D) House count
Answer: (A)
24. Write down the correct order of top destinations in terms of international tourists arrivals in year 2013. Use the codes given below :
I. France
II. China
III. USA
IV. Spain
Codes :
(A) I, III, IV, II
(B) I, IV, III, II
(C) III, I, IV, II
(D) II, IV, III, I
Answer: (D)
25. The process of presenting Airline ticket sales and the payment there of for a week by the travel agencies to the Airlines through an authorised Bank is referred as
(A) Actualised Bank Settlement Plan
(B) Airlines Bank Settlement Plan
(C) Authorised Bank Settlement Plan
(D) Area Bank Settlement Plan
Answer: (A)
26. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Explosive types of volcanic eruptions are associated with the destructive or convergent plate boundaries in which the heavier plate is sub-ducted beneath the lighter plate.
Reason (R) : Materials of the upper mantle lying below the mid-oceanic ridges are melted and move upwards in the form of lava during volcanic eruptions, serve as a resource base for Volcano Adventure Tourism.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
27. The ‘Lufthansa Airlines’ belongs to the country
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Malaysia
Answer: (C)
28. For getting recognition from Department of Tourism as three star hotel the room size and specification should be :
(A) Double room size 140 sq. ft. and bathroom size 36 sq. ft.
(B) Double room size 140 sq. ft. and bathroom size 30 sq. ft.
(C) Double room size 120 sq. ft. and bathroom size 30 sq. ft.
(D) Double room size 120 sq. ft. and bathroom size 36 sq. ft.
Answer: (A)
29. The Ginger brand economy category hotels belong to
(A) Best Western Group of Hotels
(B) Taj Group of Hotels
(C) ITC Group of Hotels
(D) Oberoi Group of Hotels
Answer: (D)
30. The major shareholder in Public Limited Company Tourism Finance Corporation of India (TFCI) is
(A) SBI
(B) LIC
(C) IDBI
(D) IFCI
Answer: (D)
31. From the following sites which one has been nominated for world heritage site by the World Heritage Committee ?
(A) The Great Himalayan National Park
(B) Nishat Bagh, Kashmir
(C) Indian National Archives, Delhi
(D) Rohtas Fort, Rohtas
Answer: (C)
32. Identify the route of Yamuna Express way.
(A) Hyderabad – Secunderabad
(B) Greater Noida – Agra
(C) Greater Cochin – Alleppy
(D) Bangalore – Mysore
Answer: (A)
33. Maximum threat to the World Tourism is from
(A) Eutrophication
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Bio-fixation and Bio-diversity loss
(D) Global Warming
Answer: (B)
34. Arrange the following Governmental efforts for tourism development in India in the sequence as they happened for the Nation :
I. “Incredible India” – Campaign
II. Formation of Ministry for Tourism, Govt. of India
III. National Tourism Policy
IV. Budgetary Allocation for Tourism by Govt. of India
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) IV, II, III, I
(C) IV, III, II, I
(D) II, I, III, IV
Answer: (C)
35. The right of an airline, registered in country ‘X’, to operate entirely outside of country ‘X’ in carrying traffic between two other countries is known as
(A) Fourth Freedom
(B) Fifth Freedom
(C) Sixth Freedom
(D) Seventh Freedom
Answer: (B)
36. The full form of IMTEC is
(A) International Medical Tourist, Experts, Technicians, Exhibition and Convention.
(B) Indian Medical Tourists, Experts, Technicians, Exhibition and Convention
(C) International Medical Tourism, Equipments, Technology, Exhibition and Conference
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
37. This consists of two lists. List – I has Beaches of India and List – II has their locations in India. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below :
Answer: (C)
38. For international airfare calculation Backhaul Check (BHC) is applied :
I. For one way journey
II. For circle trip journey
III. For all Higher Intermediate (FARE) Points (HIP)
IV. From origin to stop over point with higher NUC than origin to destination NUC.
(A) I, II, III and IV are correct.
(B) Only I is correct.
(C) Only II is correct.
(D) I and IV are only correct.
Answer: (B)
39. Two lists of leadership theories and the contributors of these theories are given below. The candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in List – II :
Answer: (D)
40. Match List – I with List – II :
Answer: (ALL OPTION CORRECT)
41. A stable dividend policy means
(A) Constant dividend per share
(B) Regularity in paying dividend
(C) Dividend paid is proportional to earnings
(D) Reasonably unpredictable dividend policy
Answer: (C)
42. Two lists are given below with List – I having the names of cities where metro trains are available and List – II are the years when their operations began. The candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in List – II :
Answer: (D)
43. Kaiser-Meyer-Olkin (KMO) test is used
(A) in factor analysis to determine whether a set of data is appropriate for factor analysis
(B) for assessing whether two variables appear to be related
(C) to compare means from two populations or samples
(D) to measure the degree of association between two distribution
Answer: (C)
44. The term ‘EVA’ is used for
(A) Extra Value Analysis
(B) Economic Value Added
(C) Expected Volume Arbitrage
(D) Engineering Value Accrued
Answer: (B)
45. Process of Financial Planning ends with
(A) informing the employees that projected figures have come true
(B) preparation of projected statements
(C) preparation of actual statements
(D) comparison of actual with projected
Answer: (D)
46. What is considered to be the optimum approach to national tourism planning and development ?
(A) Formulation of a national development plan with tourism as one of the sectors.
(B) Formulation of a tourism development plan.
(C) Formulation of a tourism marketing plan.
(D) Formulation of tourism strategic plan.
Answer: (A)
47. Assertion (A) : Selling concept of marketing management holds that customers will favour products that are available and highly affordable and therefore management should focus on production and distribution efficiency.
Reason (R) : The marketing concepts hold that achieving organizational goals depends on determining the needs and wants of target markets and delivering the desired satisfaction more effectively and efficiently than competitions.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
48. What is the correct order of human needs as given in need-hierarchy theory of Abraham Maslow ? Choose the correct order from the following :
50. Which of the following approaches to management determines that managerial practice depends upon circumstances/situations ?
(A) Empirical or case approach
(B) Contingency approach
(C) Decision theory approach
(D) Group Behaviour approach
Answer: (A)
51. The Royal Orient is a joint venture of
(A) The Indian Railway and Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation
(B) The Indian Railway and Tourism Corporation of Maharashtra
(C) The Indian Railway and Tourism Corporation of Gujarat
(D) The Indian Railway and Tourism Corporation of Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (B)
52. The Break-event Chart portrays the relationship between
(A) Price, cost, profit
(B) Cost, volume, profit
(C) Price, sales, profit
(D) Cost, sales, production
Answer: (A)
53. Which of the following is the largest car-rental service company in India ?
(A) ‘Easycab’
(B) ‘Savaari’
(C) ‘Carzonrent’
(D) ‘Fast-track’
Answer: (C)
54. What is the Excess Mileage Surcharge (EMS) for the Air Itinerary Delhi – Mumbai – Bangkok – Kuala Lumpur – Manila with TPMs for Delhi to Mumbai → 708, Mumbai to Bangkok → 1871, Bangkok to Kuala Lumpur → 748 and Kuala Lumpur to Manila → 1542 ? The MPM from Delhi to Manila is 3656.
(A) 5 M
(B) 10 M
(C) 15 M
(D) 20 M
Answer: (B)
55. When looking at consumer income, marketers are most interested in
(A) discretionary income
(B) deferred income
(C) inflationary income
(D) disposable income
Answer: (A)
56. The Type I – error in Testing of hypothesis is
(A) Classifying Ho for sample mean
(B) Analysing Ho over μ-population mean
(C) Rejection of Ho when Ho is true
(D) Acceptance of Ho when Ho is not true
Answer: (D)
57. What is the acronym of “CAQDAS” stand for ?
(A) Computer Assisted Qualitative Data Analysis Software.
(C) Constant Aggravation Queried Directly and Swiftly.
(D) Content Analysis Quantification : Durkheim and Statistics
Answer: (B)
58. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
Answer: (A)
59. Affinity Charter comes into play
I. When an organisation decides to offer a trip to its members.
II. Members choose their individual destinations for the trip.
III. Cost-effective ticket prices are given to members.
IV. Organisation enters into a contractual agreement with a charter.
The candidate has to find the correct combination according to the code :
(A) I, II and III are correct.
(B) I and IV are correct.
(C) II and III are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.
Answer: (D)
60. UNWTO Ulysses prize for excellence in the creation and dissemination of knowledge in the year 2013 was awarded to
(A) Prof. T.V. Singh
(B) Prof. Eric Cohen
(C) Prof. Chris Cooper
(D) Prof. Pauline Sheldon
Answer: (B)
61. Purchase of foreign products for the purpose of tourist-satisfaction leads to
(A) Economic leverage
(B) Economic lethargy
(C) Economic leakage
(D) Economic legitimacy
Answer: (C)
62. A type of tourism that may be defined as a form of tourism in which the prime motivation of the tourist involves a desire to experience and interact with exotic peoples is termed as
(A) Ethnic Tourism
(B) Eco Tourism
(C) Space Tourism
(D) Pilgrimage Tourism
Answer: (D)
63. Festivals are great factors of National Integration. Arrange the festivals given below in their order of appearance over English Calender as per the list.
I. Onam
II. Christmas
III. Pongal
IV. Dusshera
Use the following code to choose the correct option.
(D) January, August/September, September/October, December
Answer: (C)
64. Tour operators may keep their prices low by
I. Negotiating low prices from suppliers
II. Reducing profit margins
III. Cutting their cost structure
IV. Avoiding to pay the government taxes
The candidate has to find the correct combination according to the code.
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) II, III and IV are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.
Answer: (A)
65. Calculate the flying time, if a flight of BA-105 leaves New York (–5 hrs. GMT) at 21 : 00 hrs. local time on Friday and arrives Delhi (+ 5 : 30 hrs. GMT) at 00: 30 hrs. local time on Sunday.
(A) 15 : 00 hours
(B) 15 : 30 hours
(C) 17 : 00 hours
(D) 18 : 00 hours
Answer: (ALL OPTION CORRECT)
66. Transport of passengers or goods between two points in the same country by a foreign carrier is called
(A) Freedom of Air
(B) Cabotage
(C) Self-boarding
(D) Patronage
Answer: (B)
67. If the researcher does not have any control over the variables, then the research is referred as
(A) Clinical research
(B) Longitudinal research
(C) Ex-post facto research
(D) Empirical research
Answer: (A)
68. The Approach paper to the Twelfth Plan released by the Planning Commission emphasized the need for tourism to adopt
(A) development of infrastructure approach
(B) ‘pro-poor tourism’ approach
(C) enriching local people approach
(D) benefit the people of coastal regions
Answer: (C)
69. Assertion (A) : Gross profit of a company XYZ is same but its Net Profit Ratio is decreasing.
Reason (R) : The dividend paid by XYZ company is increasing.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are possible and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are possible and (R) is the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is possible and (R) is not possible.
(D) (A) is not possible and (R) is possible.
Answer: (B)
70. Match List – I with List – II :
Answer: (A)
71. Special functions organised for professionals, socials or state occasions are referred in hotel parlance as
(A) Meetings
(B) Coffee parties
(C) Banquets
(D) Dinners
Answer: (D)
Read the passage given below and answer the questions 72 to 75 :
The beautiful Kumarakom starting from 1989 was facing the pressure of resort developers towards back-water ecosystem for tourism. Truly, the introduction of backwater tourism enhanced the local Panchayat revenue towards Rs 20 lakhs per year, but the impact was so heavy that the local farmers were tempted to sell their land at an inflated price and get displaced. Sensing the onslaught of tourism development, the locals expressed their displeasure at Kudumba Yogam (family meeting). The local Panchayat swung into action by creating zones exclusively for tourism for residence and for reserve area along with appropriate solid and water pollution clearance management which increased the water table also. Now, tourists and locals use speed boats, house boats and local boats that criss-cross each other without any irritation. Thus a balancing act has been done sustaining Kumarakom for the locals, tourists as well as for tourism service providers.
72. Back water Ecosystem was at the risk of exploitation by the
(A) Local Panchayat
(B) Kudumba Yogam
(C) Resort developers
(D) Tourists
Answer: (A)
73. One of the following is not true with respect to the passage :
(A) Local Panchayat revenue enhanced.
(B) Locals enjoyed enhanced tourism.
(C) Local farmers nearly got displaced.
(D) Local boats and speed boats criss-crossed.
Answer: (D)
74. The environmental efforts are expressed in the words
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. International Human Rights law emerged as a distinct field of international law only in the aftermath of the :
(A) First world war
(B) Second world war
(C) Cold war
(D) Vietnam war
Answer: (B)
2. Who said “Freedom is always the freedom of dissenters” ?
(A) J.S. Mill
(B) Rosa Luxemberg
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Gramsei
Answer: (B)
3. The Paris Principles adopted by the UN General Assembly in December 1993, are related to :
(A) International Human Rights Institutions
(B) National Human Rights Institutions
(C) International Military Tribunals
(D) International Non-governmental Organisations
Answer: (B)
4. Who said that religion is like opium to common man ?
(A) St. Thomas Aquinas
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Mao Tse Dong
(D) Hegel
Answer: (B)
5. A human rights based approach to development makes people
(A) active agents of decision making
(B) passive objects of choices made
(C) static recipients of governments policy decisions
(D) upwardly mobile citizens of a state
Answer: (A)
6. Which article is common to all four Geneva Conventions of 1949 relating to protection of victims of armed conflict ?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
Answer: (C)
7. Which article of the Universal Declaration on the Human Genome and Human Rights 1997 says that “Human Genome in its natural state shall not give rise to financial gains” ?
(A) Article 3
(B) Article 4
(C) Article 6
(D) Article 8
Answer: (B)
8. Gender budgeting refers to :
(A) budget prepared by women
(B) budget prepared to advocate and crystallize gender specific roles
(C) budget prepared to highlight gender related statistics
(D) budget prepared to accomplish gender equality and gender based human development.
Answer: (D)
9. “Everyone has duties to the community in which alone the free and full development of his personality is possible.” This statement is taken from which article of UDHR ?
(A) Article 28
(B) Article 29
(C) Article 30
(D) Article 31
Answer: (B)
10. Which one of the following provisions of the UDHR is not a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
(B) No one shall be subjected to torture or cruel, in human or degrading treatment or punishment.
(C) Everyone has the right to recognise everywhere as a person before the law.
(D) Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others.
Answer: (D)
11. When the community development programme was launched ?
(A) January 26, 1950
(B) October 2, 1952
(C) August 15, 1952
(D) January 26, 1952
Answer: (B)
12. Convention for the protection of cultural property in the event of armed conflict was adopted at the Hague on 14 May 1954 by an international conference of states convened by :
(A) ICRC
(B) UNICEF
(C) UNESCO
(D) ECOSOC
Answer: (C)
13. The optional protocol to the international covenant on economic, social and cultural rights entered into force on :
(A) 5th May, 2013
(B) 6th May, 2013
(C) 5th May, 2014
(D) 6th May, 2014
Answer: (A)
14. Which provision of the ICCPR was used by the Human Rights Committee in support of progressive development towards the abolition of death penalty ?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 4
(C) Article 6
(D) Article 8
Answer: (C)
15. India is not signatory to :
(A) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
(B) Optional Protocol to the ICCPR
(C) International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR)
(D) Convention on the Rights of the Child.
Answer: (B)
16. Which is not an additional reason for the grant of refugee status as per the OAU Convention governing the specific aspects of refugee problems in Africa ?
(A) External aggression
(B) Occupation
(C) Foreign Domination
(D) Systematic Violation of Human Rights
Answer: (D)
17. According to World Health Organization (WHO), how much of water per person per day is needed to ensure that the most basic needs are met and few health concerns arise ?
(A) Between 50 and 100 litres
(B) Between 100 and 150 litres
(C) Between 150 and 200 litres
(D) Between 200 and 250 litres
Answer: (A)
18. We have borrowed the directive principles of state policy from the constitution of
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) Ireland
Answer: (D)
19. Which one of the following is a hybrid court ?
(A) International Criminal Tribunal for former Yugoslavia
(B) International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
(C) International Criminal Court
(D) Special Court for Sierra Leone
Answer: (D)
20. The appeal chamber of the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda is located in :
(A) Arusha
(B) Geneva
(C) Kigali
(D) The Hague
Answer: (D)
21. Which among the following neighboring countries of India is party to the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court ?
(A) China
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Bangladesh
Answer: (D)
22. Which article of the Declaration on the Right to Development adopted by the UN in 1986 states that states shall take resolute steps to eliminate human rights violations arising from apartheid and racial discrimination ?
(A) Article 2
(B) Article 3
(C) Article 4
(D) Article 5
Answer: (D)
23. In which of the following cases was the right to livelihood pronounced as an integral facet of right to life ?
(A) Minerva Mills v/s Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789
(B) Waman Rao v/s Union of India, AIR 1981 SC 271
(C) Keswanand Bharati v/s State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461
(D) Narendra Kumar v/s State of Haryana, JT (1994), 2 SC 94
Answer: (D)
24. Which article of the European Convention for Protection of Human Rights and Biomedicine, 1997 says that the use of techniques of medically assisted procreation shall not be allowed for the purpose of choosing a future child’s sex except where serious hereditary sex-related disease is to be avoided ?
(A) Article 10
(B) Article 11
(C) Article 12
(D) Article 14
Answer: (D)
25. According to Article 8 of the Statute of the ICTY it has jurisdiction over crimes that were committed in the territory of the former Yugoslavia before :
(A) 1st January 1989
(B) 1st January 1990
(C) 1st January 1991
(D) 1st January 1992
Answer: (C)
26. In which situation may the International Criminal Court not exercise its jurisdiction ?
(A) Referral of a case by a state party
(B) Referral of a case by the UN Security Council
(C) Prosecutor initiated case
(D) Referral of a case by a non-state party
Answer: (D)
27. Which one of the following crimes is not listed in elements of crimes against humanity under the ICTY statute ?
(A) Murder
(B) Extermination
(C) Enslavement
(D) Enforced disappearance of person
Answer: (D)
28. Motilal Nehru Committee Report of 1928 made important recommendations regarding
(A) Minorities
(B) Dravidians
(C) Scheduled tribes
(D) Hindus
Answer: (A)
29. The preventive detention regime in India is governed by :
(A) Article 21 of the Constitution.
(B) Article 22 of the Constitution.
(C) Article 23 of the Constitution.
(D) Article 24 of the Constitution.
Answer: (B)
30. Power of the Parliament to legislate for giving effect to international agreement is provided under which article of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Article 250
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 248
Answer: (C)
31. Which article of the Constitution is not directly related to the implementation of any international treaty/convention ?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 51
(C) Article 73
(D) Article 253
Answer: (A)
32. Which one of the following is a constitutionally designated commission ?
(A) National Commission for Minorities
(B) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(C) National Commission for Women
(D) National Human Rights Commission
Answer: (B)
33. In Aruna Shanbaug case, the Supreme Court allowed a form of euthanasia only after higher judiciary’s consideration of each prospective case :
(A) Involuntary active euthanasia
(B) Involuntary passive euthanasia
(C) Voluntary active euthanasia
(D) Voluntary passive euthanasia
Answer: (D)
34. Bio-ethics is a branch of knowledge concerned with
(A) ethical study of biology
(B) human rights approach to ethics of the body
(C) ethical and human rights approach to medical and scientific experiment
(D) ethical approach to promoting scientific temper
Answer: (C)
35. Which article has prohibited the employment of children under 14 years of age in factories, etc. ?
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 24
(D) Article 25
Answer: (C)
36. Arrange the following constitutional developments in sequence of their occurrence :
I. Sapru Committee Report
II. Nehru Committee Report
III. Montague – Chelmsford Reforms
IV. Minto – Marley Reforms
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) IV, III, II, I
(C) II, I, IV, III
(D) III, II, I, IV
Answer: (B)
37. Arrange the following European Human Rights instruments chronologically :
I. European Convention on Human Rights
II. European Social Charter
III. European Charter for Regional or Minority Languages
IV. Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities
Codes :
(A) IV, III, II, I
(B) II, I, III, IV
(C) I, II, III, IV
(D) III, IV, II, I
Answer: (C)
38. Arrange the following Regional Human Rights instruments in the chronological order of their adoption :
I. American Convention on Human Rights
II. African Charter on Human and People’s Rights
III. Arab Charter on Human Rights
IV. European Convention on Human Rights
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, II, I, IV
(D) IV, I, II, III
Answer: (D)
39. Arrange the following rights enshrined in the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights in order of sequence :
I. Rights of minorities
II. Right to life
III. Right to liberty and security of person
IV. Right to self-determination
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, I, IV
(C) III, I, II, IV
(D) IV, II, III, I
Answer: (D)
40. Arrange the following crimes in sequence of their listing under the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court :
I. Crime of aggression
II. Crime of Genocide
III. Crime against humanity
IV. War crimes
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, I, II, IV
(D) IV, I, II, III
Answer: (B)
41. Arrange the names of the Chairpersons of the National Commission for Women in sequence of their term :
I. V. Mohini Giri
II. Poornima Advani
III. Jayanti Patnaik
IV. Mamta Sharma
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, I, III, IV
(C) III, I, II, IV
(D) IV, I, II, III
Answer: (C)
42. Arrange the following instruments relating to regulation of armed conflicts in order of their adoption :
I. Optional Protocol on the Involvement of Children in Armed Conflict
II. Geneva Protocol on Asphyxiating or Poisonous Gases
III. Convention on Cluster Munitions
IV. Geneva Convention on the Wound, Sick and Shipwrecked of Armed Forces at Sea.
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) IV, III, II, I
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) II, IV, I, III
Answer: (D)
43. Arrange the following in Indian legislations relating to the rights of disabled people in chronological order :
I. The Persons Disabilities Act
II. The Rehabilitation Council of India Act
III. Mental Health Act
IV. The Juvenile Justice Act
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) IV, III, II, I
(C) III, IV, II, I
(D) III, II, I, IV
Answer: (D)
44. Arrange the following revolutions in sequence of their occurrence :
I. French Revolution
II. Russian Revolution
III. American Revolution
IV. Iranian Revolution
Codes :
(A) III, I, II, IV
(B) IV, III, II, I
(C) II, I, IV, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
Answer: (A)
45. Arrange the following in the chronological order and choose the correct code :
I. The Charter of the United Nations
II. Declaration on the granting of independence to colonial countries and peoples
III. Declaration on the protection of all persons from torture and other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.
IV. Basic principles for treatment of prisoners
Codes :
(A) II, I, III, IV
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) I, II, IV, III
(D) I, III, II, IV
Answer: (B)
46. Arrange the following according to the chronology and choose the correct answer :
I. European Social Charter
II. European convention on the legal status of children born out of wedlook
III. European convention on the legal status of migrant workers
IV. European agreement on transfer of responsibility for refugees
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) I, II, IV, III
(C) I, III, II, IV
(D) I, IV, III, II
Answer: (A)
47. Arrange the following in the chronological order and choose the correct answer :
I. International convention on the suppression and punishment of the crime of apartheid.
II. International convention on the elimination of all forms of racial discrimination
III. International convention on the protection of the rights of all migrant workers and members of their families.
IV. International convention on the elimination of all forms of discrimination against woman.
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, I, IV
(C) II, I, IV, III
(D) II, I, III, IV
Answer: (C)
From Question Numbers 48 to 60 match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer with the help of codes given :
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
52.
Answer: (D)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
Question Nos. 61 to 70 contain two statements each. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Examine whether the statements are correct and related to each other with the help of the codes given below :
61. Assertion (A) : Fundamental rights are justiciable but directive principles are not.
Reason (R) : Directive principles impose positive duties on state.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
62. Assertion (A) : Accused persons shall, have in exceptional circumstances, be segregated from convicted persons and shall be subject to separate treatment appropriate to their status as unconvicted persons.
Reason (R) : A person is innocent unless proved guilty.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
63. Assertion (A) : The universal declaration of human rights states a common understanding of the peoples of the world concerning the inalienable and inviolable rights of all members of the human family.
Reason (R) : Peace and Justice are the universal aspiration of mankind.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
64. Assertion (A) : All states shall take effective measures to prevent and eliminate discrimination on the grounds of religion or belief in the recognition, exercise and enjoyment of human rights and fundamental freedoms in all fields of civil, economic, political, social and cultural life.
Reason (R) : One of the basic principles of the UN Charter is that of dignity and equality inherent in all human beings.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
65. Assertion (A) : Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own and to return to his country, everyone has the right to seek and enjoy in other countries asylum from prosecution.
Reason (R) : Right to movement is one of the important human rights.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
66. Assertion (A) : Workers and employers, without distinction what so ever, shall have the right to establish and subject only to the rules of the organisation concerned, to join organisations of their own choosing without previous authorisation.
Reason (R) : Workers and employers have common interests.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.
Answer: (C)
67. Assertion (A) : Article 4 of the declaration on the right to development proclaims that states have the duty to take steps individually and collectively, to formulate international development policies with a view to facilitating to the full realization of the right to development.
Reason (R) : The right to development is an inalienable human right.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
68. Assertion (A) : If death is in a patient’s best interest then death constitutes a moral good.
Reason (R) : Euthanasia, or the right to die with dignity, is a legal right in the Netherlands and Belgium.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
69. Assertion (A) : Although women constitute two-thirds of the refugee population world over, the 1951 refugee convention is gender-blind.
Reason (R) : Women enjoy freedom of movement in all continents of the world.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
70. Assertion (A) : “Human development, if not engendered, is endangered.”
Reason (R) : Participation and empowerment of women in national budget has progressively improved in India.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
Read the passage given below and answer the questions from 71 to 75 that follow, based on your understanding of the passage :
The complex interface of class, caste and gender is rooted in the way capitalism had grown in India.
Indian capitalism in the 50 years since Independence grew on the foundations of pockets of Green Revolution and stretches of poverty. This is the foundation for the prevailing structures of deprivation and inequalities. Hence the bulk of the poor are not only landless, poor peasants and unorganized workers, but also are from the scheduled castes, backward classes and scheduled tribes and among the poor households women suffer more and in general women suffer more from poverty. Thus understanding of poverty is incomplete without seeing the interface of caste, class and gender.
The most significant source of power is no doubt related to class or with the control over means of production such as land and industry. But social history had created patterns of relationship based on certain values and beliefs rooted in social conditions. Caste order and patriarchy embodied values and beliefs operating in the social structure. To treat them purely as ideologies which can be transformed with a change in consciousness is to ignore their social roots. The distinction among castes was also related to division of labour and its justification in ideological and cultural terms. The lower castes (shudras) engaged in manual labour on land and the outcastes (atishudras) performed manual labour which was considered to be of a degrading kind. The upper castes performed activities – intellectual (Brahman), administrative (Kshatriya) and trade related (vaishya) ; all three castes had control over means of production. Thus caste and class were interconnected throughout history. The distinction between them, however, lay in the fact that the ideology of karma provided a justification for the caste order. It was said that those who committed sins in the previous birth were born in the lower castes. On the other hand, mode of production defined a class in terms of its control or lack of control over means of production. The actual social practice related the two.
Gender too is related to class and caste. Division of labour between men and women evolved in course of history. Alongwith power relations men performed crucial roles in the production system and acquired greater power in the society over centuries of evolution of class and caste society. The status of women as a dependent section on men, they performing mainly household work and producing children and nurturing them was the outcome of a long period of feudal and capitalist social history. Religious and caste ideology reinforced the evolution of this trend. The practice among shudras and the so-called outcastes and tribals already had relatively high degree of equality between men and women. Both participated in productive manual labour in agriculture and forest economy. Hence the caste order was discriminatory towards women more among the upper and middle castes than among the lower castes. Like racism caste too was a system of social hierarchy and was therefore a target of politics of transformation.
71. The study of interface of class, caste and gender is essential to :
(A) the growth of capitalism in India
(B) the process of policy analysis
(C) the understanding of poverty in India
(D) promote rights based approach and political analysis
Answer: (C)
72. Among the categories of caste, class and gender, which is a significant source of power ?
(A) Caste, because it is based on division of labour and social hierarchy
(B) Class, because of its control over means of production
(C) Gender, because of its control over reproduction
(D) Caste and class, because they combine justification in ideological and cultural terms.
Answer: (B)
73. The prevailing structures of deprivation and inequalities in India are a result of :
(A) inadequate participation of women in agriculture and industry.
(B) intermingling of caste and class
(C) rigid social hierarchy based on division of labour
(D) the lopsided growth of capitalism in India
Answer: (D)
74. Ascendancy of patriarchy in terms of power is because :
(A) women were physically weak.
(B) women were focusing on producing children.
(C) men performed crucial roles in the production system.
(D) men were physically aggressive.
Answer: (C)
75. Discrimination and inequality based on gender is caste specific. It is more evident among :
the time-period of the motion is 
then value of 
would be
will be:
∆H = −285.8 kJ mol−1
the compound (C) is
where k is equal to
then (3 + ω + 3ω2)4 is
then AB is equal to
then p is equal to
is:
is
and 
is equal to
then value of (A, B) is
is
is :
is
is
Then P(B) is
is
is connected to a 120 V AC supply. If p rimary and secondary circuit resistances are 15 kΩ and 1Ω respectively, then find out power of output.
in a region where magnetic field 
and electric field 
Then find out the net acceleration of proton
are placed along same axis as shown. If the distance between their centres is 10 cm, find net magnetic field at point P.
and length of wire is ℓ = 5 cm. If potential difference of 1 V is applied across it, then current through wire will be
Find out the products of reaction
If value of E°cell is 4 volt 
where dL is the infinitesimal displacement of the piston. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
is held fixed at the origin O in the presence of an uniform electric field of magnitude E0. If the potential is constant on a circle of radius R centered at the origin as shown in figure, then the correct statement(s) is/are:
there will be destructive interference at point O.
with h as Planck’s constant, N photons of wavelength λ = 8π × 10–6 m strike the mirror simultaneously at normal incidence such that the mirror gets displaced by 1 μ If the value of N is x × 1012, then the value of x is _______.
nucleus at rest and in ground state undergoes α-decay to a 
nucleus in its excited state. The kinetic energy of the emitted α particle is found to be 4.44 MeV. 
nucleus then goes to its ground state by γ-decay. The energy of the emitted γ photon is _______ keV.
atomic mass of 
atomic mass of α particle = 4.00 u, 1 u = 931 MeV/c2, c is speed of the light]
Here, R is gas constant, V is volume of gas, TA and VA are constants.
the correct match is,
is started in a closed cylinder under isothermal isochoric condition at an initial pressure of 1 atm. After Y × 103 s, the pressure inside the cylinder is found to be 1.45 atm. If the rate constant of the reaction is 5 × 10–4 s–1, assuming ideal gas behavior, the value of Y is __________.
and R = PQP−1.
exists and is finite, and
exists and is finite.
equals___
in the interval 
equals_____
equals___
be two vectors. Consider a vector 
α, β ∈ ℝ. If the projection of 
on the vector 
is 3√2, then the minimum value of 
equals______
from center towards the hole will be 
nuclei either decay into stable 
nuclei with decay constant 4.5 × 10−10 per year or into stable 
nuclei with decay constant 0.5 × 10−10 per year. Given that in this sample all the stable 
nuclei are produced by the 
nuclei only. In time t × 109 year, if the ratio of the sum of stable 
in a non-uniform magnetic field 
as shown in figure. If V0, B0, L and β are positive constant and ∆ϕ is the potential difference developed between the ends of the wire, then the correct statement(s) is/are:
remains unchanged if both the convex surfaces are replaced by concave surfaces of the same radius of curvature.
where x and y are in meter and α = −1 Nm−1. The work done on the particle by this force 
will be _____Joule.
The dielectric constant of the mth layer is 
For a very large N (> 103), the capacitance C is 
The value of α will be _______. [ϵ0 is the permittivity of free space]
is the maximum of the set 
then the principal argument of 
is
and 
of largest area inscribed in Rn – 1, n > 1;
for each positive integer N
is:
is:
shows that-
then x is-
is-
of sugar ?
are written in descending order as
